Adult Development and Aging
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Adult Development and Aging explores the psychological, biological, and social changes that occur throughout adulthood and into old age. The course examines key theories and research on adult lifespan development, addressing topics such as cognitive and emotional changes, personality development, relationships, work, retirement, and health in later life. Emphasis is placed on understanding the diversity of adult experiences, the impact of culture and environment, and the challenges and opportunities associated with aging. Students will gain insight into the aging process and learn strategies for promoting well-being and successful aging across adulthood.
Recommended Textbook
Life Span Development 16th Edition by
John W Santrock
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction
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Q1) Briefly explain the independent variable and the dependent variable in an experiment.Describe the relationship between them.
Answer: Experiments include two types of changeable factors,or variables: independent and dependent.An independent variable is a manipulated,influential,experimental factor.It is a potential cause.The label "independent" is used because this variable can be manipulated independently of other factors to determine its effect.An experiment may include one independent variable or several of them.A dependent variable is a factor that can change in an experiment,in response to changes in the independent variable.As researchers manipulate the independent variable,they measure the dependent variable for any resulting effect.
Q2) _____ means the capacity for change.
A)Elasticity
B)Plasticity
C)Contextuality
D)Tenacity
Answer: B
Q3) Which age is determined based on physical health and the functional capacities of a person's vital organs?
Answer: Biological age
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Chapter 2: Biological Beginnings
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Q1) A recessive gene exerts its influence only if:
A)both genes in a pair are recessive.
B)it is the stronger gene.
C)the environment is right.
D)the dominant gene is also present in the pair.
Answer: A
Q2) Name and describe three prenatal diagnostic tests.
Answer: Prenatal diagnostic tests include: 1)Ultrasound sonography where high-frequency sound waves are directed into the pregnant woman's abdomen and the echo from the sounds is transformed into a visual representation of the fetus's inner structures. 2)Fetal magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)where a powerful magnet and radio images are used to generate detailed images of the body's organs and structures.
3)Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)where a small sample of the placenta is removed to test for genetic defects and chromosomal abnormalities.
Q3) A genotype is _____ percent of a person's genetic material.
A)100
B)50
C)25
D)5
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Prenatal Development and Birth
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Q1) A teratogen is any agent that can cause:
A)organogenesis.
B)birth defects.
C)fetal movement.
D)maternal back pain.
Answer: B
Q2) According to a recent study,which of the following observations was made about women who participated in Centering Pregnancy care?
A)More women felt secure without the aid of midwives.
B)Many women reported feeling more stressed after a session.
C)Women had higher breast-feeding rates.
D)Low-income women benefited less from the program.
Answer: C
Q3) According to recent research,which of the following risks is linked to environmental tobacco smoke?
A)Reduced head circumference
B)Withdrawal symptoms
C)Lower quality reflexes at one month of age
D)Low birth weight
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Physical Development in Infancy
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Q1) The newborn's vision is estimated to be _____ on the well-known Snellen chart used for eye examinations.
A)20/20
B)20/40
C)20/80
D)20/240
Q2) Provide three examples where a doctor would advise a mother NOT to breast feed their infants.
Q3) Perceptual constancy is reflected when:
A)sensory stimulation remains constant,but perception of the world changes.
B)sensory stimulation changes,but perception of the physical world remains constant.
C)constant sensory stimulation receives a constant perceptual response.
D)perception of the physical world remains constant owing to limited visual acuity.
Q4) List five risk factors associated with an infant dying from SIDS:
Q5) Identify the researcher that carefully observed and documented the development of motor skills in the 1930s.Based on this work,he/she concluded that motor development is entirely due to maturation.
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Chapter 5: Cognitive Development in Infancy
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Q1) The interactionist view of language development emphasizes that:
A)the primary language center and the biological language device are both needed for language to develop.
B)language development occurs largely due to positive reinforcement.
C)the development of receptive language is universal,whereas the development of spoken language differs across cultures.
D)both biology and experience contribute to language development.
Q2) Alejandro is three years old.He is now able to sort his blocks by color.Alejandro has developed:
A)a new behavioral scheme.
B)a new mental scheme.
C)object permanence.
D)the ability to assimilate.
Q3) A _____ is the basic unit of sound in a language.
A)morpheme
B)phoneme
C)grapheme
D)syntax
Q4) Distinguish between explicit memory and implicit memory.
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Chapter 6: Socioemotional Development in Infancy
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Q1) Which of the following is an important role played by emotions during infancy?
A)Cognition
B)Communication
C)Sensation
D)Suckling
Q2) The Strange Situation is an observational measure of infant attachment developed by Mary Ainsworth.It requires the infant to:
A)crawl through a dark tunnel with his or her mother and a stranger waiting on the other side.
B)move through a series of introductions,separations,and reunions with his or her mother and a stranger.
C)experience loud noises in a room with only a stranger present.
D)choose between his or her mother and father in a strange situation.
Q3) Distinguish between primary emotions and self-conscious or other-conscious emotions.Give an example of each type of emotion.
Q4) Describe the emotional regulation and coping techniques that infants develop over the initial years.
Q5) Explain how the quality and quantity of child care affect children?
Q6) Briefly describe the four phases of attachment as identified by John Bowlby.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early Childhood
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Q1) _____ attention is focused and extended engagement with an object,task,event,or other aspect of the environment.
A)Salient
B)Relevant
C)Executive
D)Sustained
Q2) Which of the following can enhance a child's safety and reduce the likelihood of injury?
A)Decreasing home/school partnerships
B)Reducing playground hazards
C)Reducing pool fencing
D)Reducing frequent parent protective behaviors
Q3) The ability of preschool children to control and sustain their attention is related to: A)school readiness and focus.
B)decreased likelihood of obesity.
C)increased short-term memory capacity.
D)increase in implicit memory.
Q4) Identify the inability to distinguish between one's own perspective and the perspective of another.
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Chapter 8: Socioemotional Development in Early Childhood
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Q1) Should parents stay in an unhappy or conflicted marriage for the sake of their children?
Q2) Which of the following hormones is an estrogen?
A)Testosterone
B)Androstenedione
C)Insulin
D)Estradiol
Q3) What is the term for the support that parents provide one another in jointly raising a child?
Q4) Maribel works as a housekeeper at a hotel.She has no autonomy in her work,works long hours,and feels quite stressed by her job.Kim is a lawyer who works long hours but has control over her work and a great office environment.Anne Crouter would say that:
A)Kim's children are likely to experience less effective parenting than Maribel's children.
B)Maribel's children are likely to experience less effective parenting than Kim's children.
C)both Maribel and Kim's children are likely to do poorly in school.
D)neither Maribel's nor Kim's children will be negatively affected by their mothers' jobs.
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Chapter 9: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle and Late Childhood
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Q1) Who created the concept of intelligence quotient?
A)Alfred Binet
B)William Stern
C)David Wechsler
D)Robert J.Sternberg
Q2) Which type of cancer is most prevalent in children?
A)Leukemia (cancer of the white blood cells)
B)Lung cancer
C)Brain cancer
D)Melanoma (a form of skin cancer)
Q3) Eight-year-old Ella can use scissors to cut small paper dolls out of construction paper,something she could not do at age 3.What best accounts for her improving dexterity?
A)Increased cortical thickening in the temporal lobe.
B)Increased myelination of the central nervous system.
C)Increased bone ossification.
D)Increased muscle development.
Q4) Discuss height and weight changes that take place during middle and late childhood.
Q5) Identify and describe the most common type of cancer in children.
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Chapter 10: Socioemotional Development in Middle and Late Childhood
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Q1) Which of the following is the MOST frequent type of bullying among girls?
A)Subject of sexual comments or gestures
B)Hit,slapped,or pushed
C)Belittled about religion or race
D)Subject of rumors
Q2) At which stage of Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral development does a person understand that values,rights,and principles undergird or transcend the law?
A)Individualism,instrumental purpose,and exchange
B)Mutual interpersonal expectations,relationships,and interpersonal conformity
C)Social systems morality
D)Social contract or utility and individual rights
Q3) When faced with a conflict between law and conscience,a person who is at the _____ stage in Kohlberg's theory of moral development will follow conscience,even though the decision might involve personal risk.
A)universal ethical principles
B)social systems morality
C)individualism,instrumental purpose,and exchange
D)punishment and obedience orientation
Q4) List three possible problems associated with state-mandated testing in schools.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Physical and Cognitive Development in Adolescence
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Q1) Which researcher,in 2003,suggested adolescents have difficulty controlling their emotions because their prefrontal cortex has not yet fully developed.
Q2) According to David Elkind,personal fable and imaginary audience are parts of adolescent:
A)co-rumination.
B)expression.
C)egocentrism.
D)solipsism.
Q3) Identify a strategy that can help prevent students from dropping out of school.
A)Enrolling the students only in a community-based education and reducing parental monitoring.
B)Provide early intervention for reading problems,such as tutoring,counseling,and mentoring.
C)Facilitating and emphasizing peer learning.
D)Rotating the students through teachers in high school.
Q4) Why is bulimia nervosa often more difficult to detect than anorexia nervosa?
Q5) Discuss how early or late maturation affects boys and girls.
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Q6) What is the term for a form of education that promotes social responsibility and service to the community?
Chapter 12: Socioemotional Development in Adolescence
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Q1) What term is used to describe the self-portrait composed of many pieces?
Q2) Which of the following statements about the trend in cross-cultural gender differences in sexual expression is true?
A)Gender differences in sexual expression are minor,especially in Latin America and Southeast Asia.
B)Gender differences in sexual expression and educational opportunities appear to be narrowing over time.
C)In India,there are far more restrictions on the sexual activities of men than of women.
D)In Arab countries,both adolescent males and females encounter the same amount of restriction on sexual activities.
Q3) Discuss the issue of ethnic identity in the third and later generations of immigrants.
Q4) What term is used to describe a personal investment in identity?
Q5) In sum,adolescents' lives are characterized by a combination of:
A)drug and alcohol use.
B)rebellion and delinquency.
C)storm and stress.
D)change and tradition.
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Chapter 13: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early
Adulthood
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Q1) Discuss the impact of working while in college.
Q2) Regina's friend has been diagnosed with a sexually transmitted infection.His symptoms include fevers,night sweats,weight loss,chronic fatigue,and swollen lymph nodes.The doctor denotes that a virus has infected his immune system.Regina's friend has most likely been diagnosed with which of the following sexually transmitted infections?
A)Syphilis
B)Chlamydia
C)AIDS
D)Genital herpes
Q3) Which of the following statements is true about obesity rates in United States?
A)Researchers attribute the increase in obesity rates to lesser reliance on energy saving devices.
B)The obesity rate has doubled in the United States since 1900.
C)Obesity rates among adults are the lowest in comparison to any other age demography.
D)Obesity rates have remained constant since the economic depression in 1930.
Q4) List the five key features identified by Jeffrey Arnett as characterizing emerging adulthood.
Q5) What are some of the physical and psychological affects of unemployment?
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Chapter 14: Socioemotional Development in Early
Adulthood
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Q1) Secure attachment to parents during childhood correlates with:
A)higher academic achievement in college.
B)stronger sibling relationships in adulthood.
C)secure attachment to romantic partners in adulthood.
D)an easy temperament in adulthood.
Q2) Does cohabitation influence marital satisfaction? Discuss the possible reasons for this.
Q3) "Amelia's all excited about this new guy she met," says Julie."I guess it makes sense because he's really a geek." Based on the concept of consensual validation,we can expect that Julie:
A)thinks that Amelia is also a geek.
B)is an intellectual and charitable person.
C)believes that Amelia is not influenced by her friend's opinions.
D)is providing consensual validation for Amelia's taste in men.
Q4) Which of the following factors is NOT associated with an increase in divorce?
A)Marrying late in life
B)Having a baby prior to marriage
C)Low education levels
D)Low income
Page 16
Q5) What is temperament? What is its connection to personality?
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Chapter 15: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle
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Q1) Which of the following is typical of the health condition during early and late middle age?
A)Frequency of accidents increases
B)Susceptibility to colds and allergies decreases
C)Wakeful periods during sleep decrease
D)Incidence of chronic disorders decreases
Q2) According to studies,which of the following is one of the most common sexual problems of older women?
A)Lack of foreplay
B)Lack of sexual interest
C)Partner non-cooperation
D)Reduced muscular movements
Q3) Margie Lachman and her colleagues argue that having a _____ is one of the most important modifiable factors in delaying the onset of diseases in middle adulthood and reducing the frequency of diseases in late adulthood.
A)high body mass index
B)sense of control in middle age
C)low calorie diet in middle adulthood
D)low number of NK cells
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Chapter 16: Socioemotional Development in Middle
Adulthood
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Q1) What did Levinson's research conclude about women in midlife transition?
A)Women have significantly less distress during this process.
B)Women face the midlife transition earlier and with greater difficulty than do men.
C)Levinson maintained that women who have had children experience an easier time during midlife than those who have not had children.
D)Levinson reported that his stages,transitions,and the crisis of middle age hold for women as well as men.
Q2) The timetable according to which individuals are expected to accomplish life's tasks,such as getting married,having children,or establishing themselves in a career is known as the:
A)interval measure.
B)life-event calendar.
C)circadian rhythm.
D)social clock.
Q3) Identify the main reason the middle-aged and older men cited for their divorce.
Q4) According to Erik Erikson,identify the term that refers to an adult's desire to leave legacies of themselves to the next generation.
Q5) Describe how middle-aged adults perceive control over what happens to them.
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Chapter 17: Physical Development in Late Adulthood
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Q1) Severe reductions in the production of dopamine have been linked with:
A)Parkinson disease.
B)Alzheimer disease.
C)dementia other than Alzheimer disease.
D)brain cancer.
Q2) Lung capacity drops _____ percent between the ages of 20 and 80,even when disease is not present.
A)20
B)40
C)50
D)60
Q3) _____ are theorized to act much like a fire extinguisher,helping to neutralize free-radical activity and reduce stress caused by damage to cells.
A)Ketone bodies
B)Antihistamines
C)Antibiotics
D)Antioxidants
Q4) What is the term for the group of vitamins that may be able to help slow the aging process and improve the health of older adults?
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Chapter 18: Cognitive Development in Late Adulthood
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Q1) Identify the language problem in which individuals have difficulty retrieving information from memory,even though they are confident that they can do so.
Q2) Briefly describe Alzheimer disease.
Q3) Which of the following is a drug that is used in the treatment of Parkinson disease?
A)ACE inhibitors
B)Cholinerase inhibitors
C)L-dopa
D)Serotonin
Q4) What is the term for a potential transitional state between cognitive changes of normal aging and very early stages of Alzheimer disease and other dementias?
Q5) What type of memory involves the ability to remember what one needs to do in the future?
Q6) What is the term coined by Paul Baltes that refers to the culture-based "software programs" of the mind including such things as reading and writing skills,language comprehension,and daily life skills?
Q7) What is discourse? What are some of the changes in discourse that occur with aging?
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Chapter 19: Socioemotional Development in Late Adulthood
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Q1) What is the socioemotional selectivity theory?
Q2) It is observed that respect for older adults is greater in _____ cultures than in _____ cultures.
A)socialistic; capitalistic
B)spiritualistic; competitive
C)collectivistic; individualistic
D)religious; materialistic
Q3) The _____ theory focuses on the types of goals that individuals are motivated to achieve as they approach the end of life.
A)selective optimization with compensation
B)activity
C)socioemotional selectivity
D)disengagement
Q4) Which of the following is Erikson's eighth stage of development?
A)Generativity vs.stagnation
B)Integrity vs.despair
C)Industry vs.inferiority
D)Autonomy vs.shame
Q5) What does activity theory suggest for older adults?
Q6) What are the typical effects of ageism?
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Death, Dying, and Grieving
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Q1) Which of the following is one of the main dimensions of the dual process model of coping with bereavement?
A)Loss-oriented stressors
B)Relapse-oriented uplifts
C)Depression-oriented stressors
D)Denial-oriented traumas
Q2) Basilio sustained severe and irreversible brain damage due to an accidental overdose of insulin.His wife and children decided to remove the life-support system,and Basilio subsequently died.This is an example of ________ euthanasia.
A)active
B)passive
C)natural
D)culturally acceptable
Q3) In Jewish tradition,the 30-day period following the burial including shivah is known as:
A)rendering.
B)sheloshim.
C)aninut.
D)avelut.
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