Administrative Procedures for Medical Assistants Exam Bank
Course Introduction
This course introduces students to the foundational administrative tasks and procedures commonly performed by medical assistants in healthcare settings. Topics include patient reception and registration, appointment scheduling, medical records management, health information privacy (HIPAA), insurance processing, billing and coding, and written and verbal communication with patients and healthcare professionals. Through lectures and hands-on simulations, students develop the organizational and interpersonal skills necessary for efficient office operations, preparing them to be effective members of the healthcare administrative team.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant 13th Edition by Deborah B.
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Page 2
Proctor
Chapter 1: Competency-Based Education and the Medical
Assistant Student
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Those actions that identify the medical assistant as a member of a healthcare profession, including dependability, respectful patient care, initiative, positive attitude, and teamwork
A)Learning style
B)Reflection
C)Professional behaviors
D)Processing
E)Empathy
F)Perceiving
G)Critical thinking
Answer: C
Q2) The way an individual looks at information and sees it as real
A)Learning style
B)Reflection
C)Professional behaviors
D)Processing
E)Empathy
F)Perceiving
G)Critical thinking
Answer: F
Page 3
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Chapter 2: The Medical Assistant and the Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following agencies, founded in 1939, is a nationally recognized certification agency for multiple allied health professionals?
A) NHA
B) AMT
C) AAMA
D) CAAHEP
Answer: B
Q2) A medical doctor who specializes in the treatment of disorders of the eye is called an
A) otolaryngologist.
B) optometrist.
C) obstetrician.
D) ophthalmologist.
Answer: D
Q3) Which two scientists developed a vaccine that brought polio under control?
A) Helen Taussig and Alfred Blalock
B) Albert Sabin and Jonas Salk
C) Alexander Fleming and Howard Florey
D) Walter Reed and Sir Frederick Grant Banting
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mental and emotional condition, enthusiasm, loyalty, or confidence of an individual or group with regard to the function or tasks at hand is called
A) morale.
B) tenacity.
C) insubordination.
D) initiative.
Answer: A
Q2) The medical assistant should not conduct personal __________ at the physician's office.
Answer: business
Any type of personal business, such as studying, looking up information on the Internet for personal use, Internet shopping, or balancing a personal checkbook, should be done at home, not at the office.
Q3) The __________ examination is offered as a certification for medical assistants by the AMT.
Answer: RMA
The AMT offers the RMA examination.
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Even when two people are speaking at the same time, various channels of communication are used, such as
A) words.
B) body language.
C) facial expressions.
D) All of the above
Q2) In the linear communication model, which of the following encodes the message?
A) Sender
B) Receiver
C) Feedback
D) None of the above
Q3) ____________ communications are usually most accurate.
Q4) Our verbal actions are learned behaviors that are greatly influenced by our family and cultural backgrounds. The body naturally expresses our true feelings; in fact, experts say that more than 80% of communication is nonverbal.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
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Chapter 5: Medicine and Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) The willful and unlawful use of force or violence on the person of another is called assault.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following elements is necessary for informed consent?
A) Patient's diagnosis, if known
B) Risks and benefits of the procedure or treatment
C) Alternative treatments
D) All of the above
Q3) Each state has its own consent laws that it must follow.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Match malfeasance with the definition.
A) Failure to perform an act that should have been performed
B) Implies inattention to one's duty or business
C) The performance of an act that a reasonable and prudent provider would perform in a similar situation
D) Performing an act that is legal but not properly performed
E) Intentionally doing something either legally or morally wrong
Q5) A patient's medical record is considered to be __________ evidence.
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the medical assistant believes that patient safety is at risk, he or she is legally responsible for reporting provider actions to the local authorities and the state Medical Board. Some states can prosecute individuals who file a false report.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) Providers must obtain patients' written consent before HIV testing is done. If a healthcare worker has an accidental exposure, such as a needle stick, HIV testing cannot be done on the patient without informed consent.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) Although attorneys often accept clients on a(n) ______________ fee basis, it is unethical for a physician to do so.
Q4) __________ are defined as claims that a person or group makes on society.
Q5) A devotion to or conformity with the truth is called ____________.
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Chapter 7: Technology and Written Communication in the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common output devices in the healthcare setting include which of the following?
A) Monitors
B) Printers
C) Speakers
D) All of the above
Q2) DVD stands for digital video disk.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are used to help prevent access to private networks?
A) Network systems
B) Virus detectors
C) Scanners
D) Firewalls
Q4) System software and application software have the same meaning.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A kilobyte is approximately 2,410 bits.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Generally, a business letter is __________ spaced. Page 9
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Chapter 8: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of communication tools is best for two-way communication?
A) Voice mail
B) Fax
C) Pager
D) Cell phone
Q2) Answering services usually provide a(n) __________ to answer the phone rather than a recording device.
Q3) When a patient calls in complaining about the care he or she received or the fee charged, which of the following should be avoided?
A) Placing blame for the error
B) Responding with "Let me help you"
C) Finding the source of the problem and then presenting options for resolution
D) Providing good customer service
Q4) If a question arises as to how a task should be handled in the office, the medical assistant should consult the ___________________________.
Q5) The office should have a clear set of ____________ to the facility available so that they can be easily given to patients who request them.
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Chapter 9: Scheduling Appointments and Patient Processing
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Q1) If the patient brings a relative to the physician appointment, this implies that the patient consents to discussion of the patient's care with the relative.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a patient has a poor experience at the physician's office, he or she will tell ____________.
Q3) If a patient has been waiting longer than ________ minutes past his or her appointment time, the medical assistant should offer to reschedule the appointment.
A) 5
B) 15
C) 20
D) 30
Q4) A process required by some insurance carriers in which the provider must prove medical necessity before performing a procedure is called ___________________.
Q5) A parent normally accompanies a child in the exam room unless the parent is suspected of _________________.
Q6) Sign-in sheets should not list the __________ for the patient's office visit.
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Daily Operations in the Ambulatory Care
Setting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many state laws mandate that termination letters be sent by which of the following services?
A) First-Class Mail
B) Priority Mail
C) Certified Mail
D) Certified Mail with Return Receipt
Q2) The medical assistant should check to make sure all patients have left the facility before locking up and leaving for the day.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Thieves usually approach a physician's office to steal money or ____________.
Q4) A difference among conflicting facts, claims, or opinions is called a(n)
A) error.
B) discrepancy.
C) outsource.
D) circumvention.
Q5) A(n) ___________ is an itemized list of goods shipped that shows the balance due and any transactions that affect the account.
Q6) A(n) _____________ is a list of items ordered and items shipped.
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Chapter 11: The Health Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three basic filing methods are alphabetic, numeric, and alphanumeric.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Information contained in an electronic health record usually can be accessed from several different physical places.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A strong, highly glazed composition paper or heavy card stock is called A) augment.
B) pressboard.
C) microfilm.
D) shingle.
Q4) The "E" entry in the SOAPER charting method means A) entry.
B) evaluation.
C) education.
D) exclude.
Q5) Additional training on the EHR system is needed to run it at full __________.
Q6) Perhaps the most difficult obstacle to overcome is the __________ of employees in physicians' offices who dislike change.
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Chapter 12: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following codes will be used for a patient with a history of myocardial infarction with no symptoms but diagnosed by means of an electrocardiogram?
A) Category I21
B) Code I25.2
C) Code I21.3
D) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following terms defines a malignant neoplasm site as the absence of invasion of surrounding tissues?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) In situ
D) Benign
Q3) At times, the medical assistant must code a(n) __________ if the physician is not yet sure of the diagnosis.
Q4) ______________ are notes included in the Tabular Index to provide additional guidance for selected diagnosis codes.
Q5) The abbreviation that is the equivalent of "unspecified" is __________.
Q6) The cause of a disorder is its __________.
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Chapter 13: Basics of Procedural Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ and management codes are used for physician's office visits.
Q2) Downcoding and upcoding are illegal practices, and medical assistants can be prosecuted for either practice.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Physical status modifier P4 is assigned to which of the following?
A) Patient with severe systemic disease
B) Patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
C) Moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the procedure
D) Declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes
Q4) When wounds of more than one classification are repaired, list the less complicated repair as the primary procedure and the more complicated repair as the secondary procedure. When multiple wounds are repaired, add together the lengths of those in the same classification.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q5) Codes that are grouped together and paid as one service or procedure are known as __________.
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Basics of Health Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an advantage of managed care?
A) Healthcare costs are usually contained.
B) Access to specialized care and referrals is limited.
C) Most preventive medical treatment is covered.
D) Out-of-pocket expenses tend to be less than traditional insurance.
Q2) The medical assistant should always verify which of the following prior to the patient's appointment?
A) Eligibility
B) Benefits and exclusions
C) Effective date of insurance
D) All of the above
Q3) The amount of money the policyholder pays per claim or per accident toward the total amount of an insured loss before the company will pay on the claim is known as the
A) exclusion.
B) premium.
C) deductible.
D) remittance.
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Chapter 15: Medical Billing and Reimbursement
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Q1) Which of the following is typically documented in the estimation of benefits (EOB)?
A) Patient's deductible
B) Co-insurance
C) Co-payment
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q2) The abbreviation often used in blocks 12, 13, and 31 is __________.
Q3) Patients sign an __________ of benefits form so that the physician will receive payment for services directly.
Q4) A secondary health plan is noted in which block?
A) 11a
B) 11b
C) 11c
D) 11d
Q5) The medical assistant should __________ the front and back of the patient's insurance card.
Q6) A claim that is missing information and is returned to the provider for correction and resubmission is called a(n) __________ claim.
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Chapter 16: Patient Accounts, Collections, and Practice Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following account aging categories requires a final demand letter before the account is turned over to a collection agency?
A) 30-60 days
B) 60-90 days
C) 90-120 days
D) Over 120 days
Q2) The "cash basis" system of accounting used by most physicians means that
A) credit is used as little as possible.
B) charges are recorded as income at the time they are received.
C) a simple bookkeeping system is used.
D) expenses are recorded at the time they are incurred.
Q3) Which of the following does not conform to the general rules for telephone collections? (Select all that apply.)
A) Call only between 8 AM and 9 PM
B) Make repeated telephone calls on the same day
C) Assume a positive attitude
D) Keep the conversation brief and to the point
E) Leave a message at work revealing the nature of the call
Q4) The recording of business and accounting transactions is called
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Chapter 17: Banking Services and Procedures
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Q1) The bank statement reconciliation is used as an audit, or to ensure that the bank is managing the funds in the account accurately. Any errors on the bank statement should be reported to the bank immediately.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) The deposit is $3,290. The checkbook balance is $16,561, but the mortgage payment on the physician's building is paid the same day, which is $3,500. What is the checkbook balance?
Q3) What is required for a check to be negotiable?
A) Be written and signed by the drawer
B) Contain a promise or order to pay a sum of money
C) Be payable on demand
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q4) Checks received in the mail today include those for $90 and $436. If $568 in cash is deposited with the checks, how much is the total deposit?
Q5) A person who writes a check is sometimes called the __________.
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Chapter 18: Supervision and Human Resources Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Office management problems are often prevented by clearly defining the responsibilities and authority of each employee. Office managers claim that friction among workers is their most common personnel problem.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) The Employee's Withholding Allowance Certificate is Form W-4.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The best time to terminate an employee is usually at the beginning of the day. A)True
B)False
Q4) A group of employees who stick together during difficult times could be called A) cohesive.
B) adaptive.
C) affable.
D) meticulous.
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Q5) When an organization has no checks and balances, it is easy to ___________ power.
Chapter 19: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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Q1) Creating or changing attitudes, beliefs, and perceptions by influencing people with purchased broadcast time, print space, or other forms of written and visual media is called _____________.
Q2) Match the Coordinated Care PCMH Domain with the appropriate descriptors. (Select all that apply.)
A) Partnering with patients and families
B) Sharing quality data and improvement activities
C) Efficient care transitions
D) Oriented towards the whole person
E) Team-based approach
F) Clinical decision-support tools
G) Across all elements of the health care system
Q3) Free promotional ideas are rarely effective.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Staff meetings are not good times to brainstorm about target markets.
A)True
B)False
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Q5) Providers in college towns may want to offer __________ rates for medical services.
Chapter 20: Infection Control
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Q1) Relapse and remission are seen frequently in what types of infections?
A) Chronic infections
B) Latent infections
C) Infections with rapid onset
D) Infections that cause fever
Q2) The process used to wash and remove blood and tissue from medical instruments is called
A) asepsis.
B) disinfection.
C) sanitization.
D) sterilization.
Q3) Sam Anderson, a 28-year-old patient, calls the office and asks Rosa how he would be able to tell if his wound is getting infected. Based on your understanding of the inflammatory response, how should Rosa answer this question? Include in your answer the four classic symptoms of inflammation.
Q4) HIV is transmitted by blood that splatters onto intact skin or mucous membranes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n) __________ is a foreign substance that results in the production of a specific antibody.
23
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Chapter 21: Patient Assessment
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Q1) Which medical record system has a standard format that makes it easy to read and audit?
A) Chronologic
B) Problem oriented
C) Progress note
D) Source oriented
Q2) Identify the legal and ethical issues associated with the medical record.
Q3) A patient interview may be conducted in a quiet corner of the waiting room.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Information that you gather from a patient interview is considered
A) subjective.
B) objective.
C) assessment.
D) evaluation.
Q5) Which of the following involves stating an observation or recognition of a patient's feeling?
A) Restatement
B) Clarification
C) Reflection
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Patient Education
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Q1) Demonstration/return demonstration is an effective method of teaching a patient with diabetes how to give insulin injections.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is integral to the informed consent mandate in the Patients' Bill of Rights?
A) Right to information before they receive care
B) Patient confidentiality as it relates to patient education
C) Providing adequate, correct, and understandable information
D) All of the above
Q3) HIPAA restrictions on PHI dictate
A) sharing patient information with immediate family members only.
B) releasing patient information only to those identified on the patient authorization form.
C) copying records for the patient's spouse as requested.
D) scheduling family members for educational meetings as needed.
Q4) Both videotapes and Internet sites allow patient learning to be self-directed and
Q5) Describe the role of the medical assistant as the patient educator.
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Chapter 23: Nutrition and Health Promotion
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Q1) Which nutrient has 9 kcal/g?
A) Carbohydrates
B) Protein
C) Fat
D) Water
Q2) Most nutrients are absorbed by which organs?
A) Mouth
B) Stomach
C) Small intestine
D) Large intestine
Q3) Explain the recommendations for fat consumption.
Q4) Which of the following come from animal sources and have a mixture of all eight essential amino acids?
A) Complete proteins
B) Incomplete proteins
C) Vegetable proteins
D) All of the above
Q5) A patient who suffers routine constipation may not be drinking enough water.
A)True
B)False
26
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Chapter 24: Vital Signs
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Q1) The internal functions of the body are constantly adapting and changing to keep the body in balance. Maintenance of this complex process is called
A) diurnal rhythms.
B) homeostasis.
C) bounding back.
D) intermittent relief.
Q2) The process of chemical and physical change in the body that produces heat is called
A) homeostasis.
B) metabolism.
C) dyspnea.
D) pyrexia.
Q3) Which of the following best describes a fever that fluctuates considerably (e.g., by more than 3 degrees) and never returns to the normal range?
A) Continuous fever
B) Intermittent fever
C) Remittent fever
D) Pyrexia
Q4) A newborn with periods of __________ actually stops breathing momentarily.
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Chapter 25: Assisting with the Primary Physical Examination
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Q1) Which of the following positions is achieved by lying prone with the head down, the knees bent, and the buttocks elevated?
A) Dorsal recumbent
B) Lithotomy
C) Knee-chest
D) Sims'
E) Trendelenburg's
Q2) A murmur indicates a possible problem with a cardiac valve.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The usual sequence of the general physical examination moves from the A) head toward the feet.
B) center of the body.
C) area where there is a complaint.
D) trunk outward to the limbs.
Q4) One of the functions of the skeletal system is to create blood cells in the red bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The area between cellular structures is called the __________ space.
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Chapter 26: Principles of Pharmacology
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Q1) Therapeutic drugs treat and cure disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The _________ name of a drug is its official name.
A) chemical
B) generic
C) trade
D) brand
Q3) Which of the following medications is prescribed for the treatment of blood clots?
A) Dilantin
B) Elavil
C) Lopid
D) Warfarin
E) Inderal
Q4) Valtrex is an example of an
A) antibiotic.
B) immunizing agent.
C) antifungal agent.
D) antiviral agent.
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Chapter 27: Pharmacology Math
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Q1) Which of the following measures the weight or strength of a solid medication such as a tablet, powder, or topical preparation?
A) Liter
B) Gram
C) Meter
D) All of the above
Q2) The metric system of weights and measures is a decimal system based on units of A) 1.
B) 10.
C) 100.
D) 5.
Q3) With the standard formula, the "ordered strength" of a drug is the amount of the drug identified on the label.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Convert 524 mg tog.
A) 52,400 g
B) 5,240 g
C) 0.524 g
D) 5.24 g
Page 30
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Chapter 28: Administering Medications
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Q1) Which of the following methods of parenteral administration should be used for medications that may irritate or stain surrounding tissues?
A) Intradermal
B) Z-track
C) Transdermal
D) Ventrogluteal
Q2) When giving an adult subcutaneous injection, you should not inject more than _____ mL into subcutaneous tissue.
A) 3
B) 2
C) 1
D) 1.5
Q3) Repeated injections of minute amounts of allergens to desensitize a patient to allergic reactions is called __________.
Q4) A tablet can be cut in half only if the manufacturer has prepackaged it as a(n) __________ tablet.
Q5) At the dorsogluteal intramuscular site, the injection is administered into the __________ muscle.
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Chapter 29: Safety and Emergency Practices
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Q1) Which of the following conditions will quickly improve in a patient experiencing a diabetic emergency and given glucose?
A) Insulin shock
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Both A and B
Q2) What would the physician order if a patient is in insulin shock?
A) Insulin
B) Furosemide (Lasix)
C) Glucose
D) Normal saline
E) Lactated Ringer's solution
Q3) If a choking victim is in the late stages of pregnancy, which of the following procedures should be performed?
A) 5 thrusts to the midsternal area using 2 fingers
B) Chest compressions
C) Abdominal thrust maneuver
D) All of the above
Q4) The percentage of the body surface area burned can be estimated using the
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Chapter 30: Assisting in Ophthalmology and Otolaryngology
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4225
Sample Questions
Q1) Mydriatic eye drops are applied before an eye examination to dilate the pupils.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The medical term for nearsightedness is presbycusis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Summarize the method of instilling eye drops.
Q4) Which potentially destructive disorder of the eye is characterized by increased fluid inside the eyeball?
A) Cataracts
B) Conjunctivitis
C) Glaucoma
D) Strabismus
Q5) Which of the following structures is/are located in the retina?
A) Rods and cones
B) Optic nerve
C) Optic disc
D) Fovea centralis
E) All of the above
Q6) In ______________, heat is used to reshape the cornea in patients over age 40. Page 33
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Chapter 31: Assisting in Dermatology
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91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a person ages, the dermal layer becomes thinner and less protective.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is caused by an inflammation of the skin that is associated with an allergic response?
A) Systemic lupus erythematosus
B) Seborrhea
C) Psoriasis
D) Eczema
Q3) Charese Blackman, age 28, was seen in the office today for removal of a malignant melanoma. The physician wants to make sure Ms. Blackman is aware of the changes in a mole that might indicate another problem. Explain the ABCDE rule to her.
Q4) Botox is a neurotoxin that temporarily paralyzes the muscles of the face to reduce the appearance of wrinkles.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The medical term for a partial or complete lack of hair is __________.
Q6) An increase in the number of healthy cells is called __________.
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Chapter 32: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are symptoms of Crohn's disease except A) diaphoresis.
B) melena.
C) diarrhea.
D) anorexia.
Q2) A possible complication of Crohn's disease is the development of fistulas between the original location of the ulcer and a nearby organ.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To which specialist would a patient most likely be referred if a routine physical examination revealed an abnormality in the lower portion of the descending colon?
A) Internist
B) Gastroenterologist
C) Oncologist
D) Pathologist
Q4) Congenital __________, which typically is seen in first-born male infants, causes a problem with narrowing at the distal end of the stomach.
Q5) Any disorder or enlargement of the lymph nodes is called __________.
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Chapter 33: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In ESWL, lasers are used to destroy renal calculi.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Pharmaceutical treatment of ED must be used with caution if the patient
A) is prescribed nitrate drugs.
B) has a history of uncontrolled hypertension, MI, or CVA.
C) is taking a beta blocker for an enlarged prostate.
D) All of the above
Q3) If a child has an undescended testicle, a(n) ____________ is done to attach the testicle surgically within the scrotal sac.
Q4) UTIs frequently are caused by Escherichia coli from the anal region.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most successful kidney transplantations are done between A) mother and child. B) father and child.
C) siblings.
D) donors with the same blood type.
E) donors with the same antibodies.
Q6) ________________________ causes genital warts.
Page 37
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Chapter 34: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman is considered _____________ if she has had two or more pregnancies.
Q2) Bleeding between menses is called
A) metrorrhagia.
B) menorrhagia.
C) amenorrhea.
D) dysmenorrhea.
Q3) ___________ is the opening of the cervix during labor and is measured in centimeters.
Q4) The thinning of the cervix during labor, which is measured from 0% to 100%, is called
Q5) Which of the following procedures can be used as a diagnostic tool to collect biopsy samples and as a treatment to remove abnormal tissue?
A) LEEP
B) Conization
C) Colposcopy
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q6) A(n) _________________ is a congenital defect in the brain or spinal column that occurs during embryonic development.
Page 38
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Chapter 35: Assisting in Pediatrics
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116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications is used to cure influenza?
A) Antibiotics
B) Antiviral meds
C) Flu vaccine
D) None of the above
Q2) Children with cystic fibrosis develop steatorrhea because
A) lipase is absent from the pancreas.
B) they eat too much protein.
C) they have an inherited defect that prevents carbohydrate metabolism.
D) the infection damages the villi of the small intestine.
Q3) A buildup of fluid in the middle ear is called ___________ otitis media.
Q4) Which of the following immunizations is administered IM?
A) Varicella
B) Hep B
C) Rotavirus
D) Pneumococcal
E) Both B and D
Q5) Children who are allergic to eggs cannot be vaccinated against chickenpox.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of movement in which a part is moved away from the midline of the body is
A) rotation.
B) extension.
C) abduction.
D) adduction.
Q2) Heat application is contraindicated over scar tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The best method of diagnosing osteopenia and osteoporosis is which test?
A) CT of the knee
B) MRI of the hip
C) DXA scan
D) Spinal x-ray film
Q4) Which of the following is the most common symptom of all bone fractures?
A) Pain
B) Swelling
C) Inability to move
D) Misalignment of the bone
E) All of the above
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Chapter 37: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who reports an abnormal feeling of burning or stinging in the legs is diagnosed with ____________.
Q2) A serious concern for family members of a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia is A) the patient may stop taking the medication when he or she starts feeling better.
B) all medications for the treatment of the condition cause serious side effects. C) no effective medications exist for the management of this serious mental health disorder.
Q3) The tough outer layer of the meninges is the A) pia mater.
B) arachnoid layer.
C) subdural space.
D) dura mater.
Q4) The __________________ closely regulates what substances enter the brain tissue.
Q5) The _______________, located deep in the center of the cerebrum near the superior portion of the brainstem, is made up of the thalamus and the hypothalamus.
Q6) The _____________ is the largest and uppermost section of the brain.
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Endocrinology
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus include an FBS greater than 126 mg/dL on more than one occasion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the most common cause of death in people with DM type 2?
A) Microvascular disease
B) Diabetic kidney disease
C) Peripheral vascular disease
D) Coronary artery disease
Q3) Which of the following is one of the diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus?
A) Plasma glucose level of 210 mg/dL
B) FPG of 126 mg/dL
C) OGTT result of 180 mg/dL
D) Glycosylated hemoglobin >6%
Q4) Which of the following best describes the action of endocrine glands?
A) Secrete through a duct
B) Secrete directly onto the surface of the skin
C) Secrete directly into the mouth
D) Release hormones directly into the bloodstream
Q5) __________ results in fruity-smelling breath.
Page 42
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Chapter 39: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is the medical term for a collapsed lung.
Q2) A positive TB test result indicates that the patient is in the primary infection stage of the disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Peak flow meters are an effective method of assessing the status of patients with asthma, because during an asthma attack, the individual has difficulty inhaling a large volume of air.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A patient diagnosed with TB frequently experiences __________, which is bloody sputum.
Q5) An individual with emphysema suffers from __________, which requires the person to sit upright to breathe.
Q6) Which phrase best describes the process of ventilation?
A) Downward movement of the diaphragm to allow air to enter the lungs
B) Exchange of oxygenated air and waste gases
C) Transport of oxygen from the outside environment into the alveoli
D) Signal from the brain that initiates the breathing cycle
Q7) A surgical procedure of the chest cavity is called a(n) __________.
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Cardiology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common site for deep vein thrombosis?
A) Iliac vein
B) Femoral vein
C) Calf veins
D) Saphenous veins
Q2) Following an MI, when do CK levels reach peak values?
A) At the time chest pain begins
B) Within 3 to 12 hours of the onset of chest pain
C) Within 24 hours
D) 48 to 72 hours after the onset of chest pain
Q3) What is the principal sign of coronary artery disease?
A) Damaged heart valves
B) Inflammation of the blood vessels
C) Reduction of the blood supply to the myocardium
D) An irregular heartbeat
Q4) CABG procedures involve the insertion of a flexible catheter into a blocked coronary artery and placement of a stent to maintain the patency of the artery.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A decreased supply of oxygenated blood to an area is called _________.
Page 44
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Chapter 41: Assisting in Geriatrics
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85 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aging changes in the lungs include a decrease in the ability of lung tissue to move freely with inspiration and expiration because of changes in __________ fibers.
Q2) The pathology of Alzheimer's disease is associated with the A) buildup of amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the brain.
B) buildup of drug waste materials in the CNS.
C) destruction of brain tissue through ischemia.
D) A and C
Q3) Age-related changes in the cardiovascular system may be the result of A) lack of exercise.
B) poor diet.
C) stress.
D) All of the above
Q4) Aging brings an increase in __________, causing the heart to work harder to pump blood into the systemic circulation.
Q5) Which of the following is the age-related loss of close vision?
A) Presbycusis
B) Cataracts
C) Presbyopia
D) Glaucoma
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Chapter 42: Principles of Electrocardiography
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90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the diastole cardiac cycle, which of the following occur?
A) Atria contract and empty of blood
B) Ventricles contract and empty of blood
C) The chambers refill with blood
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q2) Describe the placement of each precordial lead.
Q3) Atrial flutter may occur if
A) the electrical charge does not pass out of the SA node.
B) the ventricles contract repeatedly.
C) ectopic atrial beats occur.
D) the patient consumes too much caffeine.
Q4) The augmented leads, which include aVR and aVL, record the electrical activity between specific points on the chest wall and within the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The first three leads recorded are called the standard, or __________, limb leads, because they each use two limb electrodes to record the heart's electrical activity.
Q6) __________ refers to a regular heart rate that ranges from 60 to 90 bpm.
Page 46
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Chapter 43: Assisting with Diagnostic Imaging
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90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms is referring to the palm (anterior surface) of the hand?
A) Medial
B) Palmar
C) Plantar
D) Posterior
Q2) If the physician orders a plantar x-ray film, the technician would take an image of the
A) palm of the hand.
B) superior side of the foot.
C) inferior aspect of the heel.
D) sole of the foot.
Q3) The _______________ is the fluoroscopic examination of the colon, usually involving rectal administration of barium sulfate as a contrast medium.
A) CT scan
B) MRI
C) lower GI scan
D) upper GI scan
Q4) AP stands for __________.
Q5) A(n) __________ is also called a barium enema.
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Chapter 44: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The act passed by Congress to establish quality standards for all laboratory testing is referred to as
A) FDA.
B) CDC.
C) CLIA.
D) MSDS.
Q2) Which of the following is a qualitative laboratory test result?
A) RBCs: 6,000,000/mm<sup>3</sup>
B) Fecal occult blood test: positive
C) Hematocrit: 45%
D) A and C
Q3) The military clock time of 1735 hours corresponds to 5:35 AM on the Greenwich clock.
A)True
B)False
Q4) __________ is the physical, chemical, and microscopic examination of urine.
Q5) __________ is the single most important means of preventing the spread of infection.
Q6) __________ encompasses a comprehensive set of policies and procedures developed to ensure the reliability of laboratory results.
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Chapter 45: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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75 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the last portion of the nephron that the filtrate travels through?
A) Proximal convoluted tubule
B) Loop of Henle
C) Collecting duct
D) Distal convoluted tubule
Q2) You open a urine sample for testing and immediately detect a fruity odor. Which test result do you expect to be elevated on chemical analysis?
A) Protein
B) Urobilinogen
C) Ketones
D) Bilirubin
Q3) Abnormal urine color may be related to which of the following?
A) Diet
B) Medication
C) Disease
D) Pathologic factors
Q4) A random urine sample may contain blood from vaginal contamination if the woman is ______________.
Q5) Crushing injuries and MIs can result in _____________.
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Blood Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The needle size most commonly used in infants and the elderly is _____ gauge.
A) 16
B) 23
C) 35
D) 21
Q2) You notice that a patient is developing petechiae during a blood draw. This typically means that the patient has a bleeding disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A hematoma can be caused by
A) excessive probing to locate a vein.
B) failure to insert the needle far enough into the vein.
C) penetration of the needle through a vein.
D) All of the above
Q4) The needle size most commonly used by the blood bank for donations is _____ gauge.
A) 16
B) 10
C) 35
D) 21
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Chapter 47: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tests is used for the initial screening of a patient for diabetes type 2?
A) Fasting blood glucose
B) Blood glucose tolerance test
C) Glycosylated hemoglobin A<sub>1</sub>c
D) All of the above
Q2) When is administration of Rho(D) immune globulin absolutely necessary?
A) If an Rh-negative mother gives birth to an Rh-positive stillborn
B) If an Rh-positive mother gives birth to an Rh-negative baby
C) If both mother and baby are Rh negative
D) If an Rh-negative man fathers an Rh-negative baby
Q3) Blowing on a blood slide smear to help it dry quickly can cause __________ to form.
Q4) Lavender-topped tubes are used for routine CBC counts.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Plasma makes up approximately 45% of blood by volume.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A low microhematocrit is seen in patients with ___________.
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Chapter 48: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about gonorrhea?
A) Gram-negative cocci found in pairs
B) Gram-positive cocci in clusters
C) Gram-positive cocci in chains
D) Gram-negative spirilla
Q2) A urinary tract infection can be diagnosed if an organism isolated from a CCMS specimen is found in pure culture and is present in a quantity greater than ________ per milliliter of urine.
A) 10
B) 100
C) 10,000
D) 100,000
Q3) Bacterial endospores allow a microorganism to survive harsh environments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Both bacteria and fungi can be
A) multicellular.
B) eukaryotes.
C) prokaryotes.
D) unicellular.
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Chapter 49: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the proper care of surgical instruments.
Q2) Local anesthetics with epinephrine are not recommended for use in suturing a finger laceration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following ophthalmologic and otolaryngologic instruments is used to remove foreign bodies or polyps?
A) Krause Nasal Snare
B) Hartmann "Alligator" Ear Forceps
C) Ivan Laryngeal Metal Applicator
D) "Buck" Ear Curette
E) All of the above
Q4) ___________ forceps are small (4 inches) and are used to clamp small blood vessels or tissues.
Q5) Each instrument should always be locked before it is immersed in the chemical decontaminant so that the entire surface area can be cleansed.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the system for identifying suture sizes.
Page 53
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Chapter 50: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting with Surgical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical assistant must never turn his or her back on a sterile field or wander away from it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A(n) __________ occurs when a nonpenetrating wound damages blood vessels.
Q3) Which of the following instruments would be damaged by the high temperature and steam under pressure of autoclaves and must be disinfected after each procedure?
A) Elecrosurg tip used in electrosurgery
B) Laser tip used in laser surgery
C) Microscope used in microsurgery
D) Endoscope used in endoscopy
E) Both C and D
Q4) Which of the following endoscopes is rigid?
A) Laparoscope
B) Colonoscope
C) Bronchoscope
D) Gastroscope
Q5) A(n) __________ is early scar tissue formation that appears pale, contracted, and firm.
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Chapter 51: Career Development and Life Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) There should be no __________ on a résumé.
Q2) The __________ period is a time for the new medical assistant to become oriented to the facility.
Q3) Medical assisting is a versatile __________ and can lead to many years of satisfying employment.
Q4) Self-management skills are the abilities the medical assistant needs to perform a job, such as performing venipuncture or billing insurance.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The cover letter
A) is always optional.
B) should only be sent when an interview has been arranged.
C) should always be sent along with a résumé.
D) should be approximately two pages long.
Q6) Having a clear, decisive relevance to the matter at hand is being __________.
Q7) Something that is intolerable is bearable.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Never speak __________ about former employers.
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