Administrative Medical Assisting Test Bank
Course Introduction
Administrative Medical Assisting is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the essential clerical and organizational tasks performed in medical offices, hospitals, and healthcare clinics. The course covers medical office procedures, patient scheduling, health information management, billing and coding, insurance processing, and effective communication with patients and healthcare professionals. Emphasizing accuracy, professionalism, and confidentiality, students will also learn medical terminology, legal and ethical responsibilities, and the fundamentals of electronic health record systems. By the end of the course, students will be prepared to efficiently support the administrative functions critical to the smooth operation of diverse healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant 13th Edition by Deborah
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51 Chapters
4027 Verified Questions
4027 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/257
Page 2
B. Proctor
Chapter 1: Competency-Based Education and the Medical
Assistant Student
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4196
Sample Questions
Q1) A person who shifts his or her weight when attempting to deal with conflict is exhibiting which of the following behaviors?
A) Assertive
B) Passive
C) Passive aggressive
D) Aggressive
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is NOT part of critical thinking?
A) Sorting out conflicting information
B) Weighing your knowledge about the information
C) Deciding on a reasonable belief or action
D) Incorporating personal beliefs
Answer: D
Q3) Describe three strategies that can help you become successful at taking tests.
Answer: Prepare adequately, control negative thoughts during test time, and understand how to manage different types of questions.
Q4) The process of considering new information and internalizing it to create new ways of examining information is called____________.
Answer: reflection
3
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Chapter 2: The Medical Assistant and the Healthcare Team
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4197
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a key feature of the medical home?
A) Comprehensive care
B) Patient-centered care
C) Inpatient services
D) Accessible services
E) Quality and safety
Answer: C
Q2) Which statement best describes the main difference between the DO and the MD?
A) The training for the DO includes more courses and a longer residency.
B) Only the MD can prescribe drugs for the prevention and treatment of disease.
C) The DO places more emphasis on the relationship of the musculoskeletal structure to the function of organs and tissues in the body.
D) The license for the MD has more requirements and is more difficult to earn.
Answer: C
Q3) Salk and Pasteur developed the polio vaccine.
A)True
B)False
Answer: FALSE
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4
Chapter 3: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4198
Sample Questions
Q1) The personality that people project in public is their persona.
A)True
B)False
Answer: TRUE
Q2) Deciding which tasks are most important is called
A) modification.
B) teaching.
C) prioritizing.
D) procrastinating.
Answer: C
Q3) Which statement is true regarding the status of students during the externship compared with that of regular employees?
A) Students should not waste their supervisor's time asking a lot of questions.
B) Students can expect the physician to treat their medical problems.
C) Attendance expectations generally are less strict for students.
D) Students are expected to perform under the same professional standards as regular employees.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communications
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4199
Sample Questions
Q1) Being in agreement or harmony or conforming to the circumstances or requirements of a situation is said to be ____________.
Q2) Patients from other countries and cultures may need extra time to understand what is being said to them.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following involves repeating the main idea of the conversation while also identifying the sender's feelings?
A) Restatement
B) Reflection
C) Clarification
D) Listening
Q4) Some stereotypes are unavoidable.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The second level of Maslow's "hierarchy of needs" deals with self-esteem.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ____________ communications are usually most accurate.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Medicine and Law
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4200
Sample Questions
Q1) Negligence must be
A) assumed.
B) proven.
C) noticed.
D) ignored.
Q2) Something that has significant and demonstrable bearing on the matter at hand is recourse.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A legal instrument that authorizes a person to act as the agent of the grantor is called a
A) power of attorney.
B) will.
C) medical record release.
D) requisite.
Q4) Local governments create and enact
A) precedents.
B) acts.
C) ordinances.
D) All of the above
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4201
Sample Questions
Q1) One who pleads the cause of another or defends a cause or proposal is a(n)
A) attorney.
B) defender.
C) counselor.
D) advocate.
Q2) Certain kinds of news, such as births and deaths, are considered part of the public domain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The earliest written code of ethics was
A) the Oath of Hippocrates.
B) the AMA Code of Ethics.
C) the Code of Hammurabi.
D) Percival's Code of Medical Ethics.
Q4) Confidentiality restrictions apply to which of the following?
A) Information in the patient record
B) Anything the medical assistant is told by the patient
C) Minor requesting confidential services
D) All of the above
Q5) A devotion to or conformity with the truth is called ____________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Technology and Written Communication in the Medical Office
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4202
Sample Questions
Q1) If you want to transfer paper files to a computerized system without inputting all the data using the keyboard, you could use a
A) modem.
B) disk operating system.
C) scanner.
D) magnetic disk drive.
Q2) What is the purpose of noting "c: Alice Adams, M.D." at the bottom of a letter?
A) To request that the receiver make a copy of the letter for Dr. Adams
B) To instruct the medical assistant to send the same letter to Dr. Adams
C) To advise the receiver that a duplicate letter has been sent to Dr. Adams
D) To tell the receiver that Dr. Adams has more information about the subject of the letter
Q3) Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
A) Tolerence
B) Tolerance
Q4) Which of the following words is spelled incorrectly?
A) Perseverence
B) Pruritus
C) Infarction
D) Cirrhosis
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Chapter 8: Telephone Techniques
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72 Verified Questions
72 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients should always be given an exact time that the physician will return a call.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If English is not the caller's primary language, the medical assistant must use listening skills to ensure understanding.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The best policy for dealing with serious abnormal test results is to schedule a(n) _______________ for the patient.
Q4) The medical assistant should use medical jargon with patients and lay terms with physicians and other medical personnel.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following calls is considered urgent, but not an emergency?
A) Symptoms of chest pain
B) Severe allergic reactions
C) Animal bite
D) Broken bones
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Chapter 9: Scheduling Appointments and Patient Processing
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4204
Sample Questions
Q1) An incidental disclosure
A) cannot reasonably be prevented.
B) is limited in nature.
C) occurs as a result of another use or disclosure that is permitted.
D) All of the above.
Q2) Something conducive to comfort, convenience, or enjoyment is called a(n)
Q3) A matrix is something in which a thing develops, originates, or takes shape.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All patients should leave the medical facility feeling that they were treated with
Q5) The term that means "relating to or arranged in a sequence" is ______________.
Q6) When patients need a series of appointments, it is best to A) schedule them individually.
B) let the patient call when he or she is ready to come in.
C) try to set the appointments for the same day of the week at the same time.
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D) use any method of scheduling; they will all be effective.
Q7) An unexpected event that throws a plan into disorder is called a
Q8) Approaching a situation with caution is using _______________.
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Chapter 10: Daily Operations in the Ambulatory Care Setting
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) ___________ is an itemized list of goods shipped that shows the balance due and any transactions that affect the account.
Q2) For practices that do not use e-prescribing, where should extra prescription pads be stored?
A) In the exam room
B) In the provider's pocket
C) In a locked cabinet
D) Any of the above
Q3) Many state laws mandate that termination letters be sent by which of the following services?
A) First-Class Mail
B) Priority Mail
C) Certified Mail
D) Certified Mail with Return Receipt
Q4) The medical assistant should check to make sure all patients have left the facility before locking up and leaving for the day.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n) _____________ is a list of items ordered and items shipped.
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Chapter 11: The Health Record
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128 Verified Questions
128 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4206
Sample Questions
Q1) A storage method that connects to the back of the main computer and can be unplugged and taken out of the facility is an external __________.
Q2) Physicians performing consultations still must request paper records on a patient, even if both the referring physician and the consulting physician are using an EHR system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which EHR system backup is probably the least trouble and requires the least amount of hardware?
A) Online backup system
B) External hard drives
C) Full server backup
D) Thumb drive backup
Q4) Which of the following is not a method of organizing a medical record?
A) Source oriented
B) Problem oriented
C) Progressively
D) Chronologically
Q5) Information picked up bit by bit is said to be __________.
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Chapter 12: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4207
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms defines a malignant neoplasm site as the absence of invasion of surrounding tissues?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) In situ
D) Benign
Q2) At times, the medical assistant must code a(n) __________ if the physician is not yet sure of the diagnosis.
Q3) The code HIV indicates which of the following?
A) The HIV virus is present
B) The manifestation of and/or symptoms that occur as a result of HIV infection
C) Probable case of HIV
D) Suspected case of HIV
Q4) Which of the following is the second most common medical document from which diagnostic statements can be extracted?
A) Encounter form
B) Treatment notes
C) Discharge summary
D) Radiology, laboratory, or pathology report
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Chapter 13: Basics of Procedural Coding
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68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4208
Sample Questions
Q1) __________ codes are separated and reported individually.
Q2) A new or experimental procedure or service code is a category __________ code.
Q3) Psychoanalysis
A) 90845
B) 90846
C) 90847
D) 90849
Q4) Total splenectomy
A) 38115
B) 38102
C) 38101
D) 38100
Q5) Established patient office visit, problem-focused history and examination, straightforward decision making
A) 99211
B) 99212
C) 99213
D) 99214
Q6) A(n) __________ patient has seen the physician within the past 3 years.
Q7) __________ and management codes are used for physician's office visits.
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Chapter 14: Basics of Health Insurance
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4209
Sample Questions
Q1) Employee-sponsored group policies usually provide greater benefits at lower premiums because of the large pool of people from whom premiums are collected. However, these employee-sponsored group health insurance plans offer limited benefits, and healthcare access is limited to healthcare providers that are contracted with them.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) Dependents of military personnel are covered by which of the following government-sponsored health insurance plans?
A) Medicaid
B) Medicare
C) TRICARE
D) CHAMPVA
E) Workers' compensation
Q3) TRICARE is a form of government insurance for veterans of the U.S. armed forces.
A)True
B)False
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Page 17
Chapter 15: Medical Billing and Reimbursement
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4210
Sample Questions
Q1) Patients sign an __________ of benefits form so that the physician will receive payment for services directly.
Q2) Which of the following is a fixed amount per visit and is typically paid at the time of medical services?
A) Co-payment
B) Deductible
C) Co-insurance
D) Both A and B
Q3) Secondary insurance policy information is contained in block __________.
Q4) Claims that have errors or omissions that must be corrected and resubmitted to receive reimbursement are called _____________ claims.
A) clean
B) dirty
C) dingy
D) incomplete
Q5) The medical assistant should __________ the front and back of the patient's insurance card.
Q6) The medical assistant should always follow office __________ for claim review and signatures.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Patient Accounts, Collections, and Practice Management
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4211
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does not conform to the general rules for telephone collections? (Select all that apply.)
A) Call only between 8 AM and 9 PM
B) Make repeated telephone calls on the same day
C) Assume a positive attitude
D) Keep the conversation brief and to the point
E) Leave a message at work revealing the nature of the call
Q2) The "cash basis" system of accounting used by most physicians means that A) credit is used as little as possible.
B) charges are recorded as income at the time they are received.
C) a simple bookkeeping system is used.
D) expenses are recorded at the time they are incurred.
Q3) To estimate the budget for a new year, the practice should evaluate expenses from the __________ year.
Q4) The purpose of the trial balance is to disclose any discrepancies between the journal and the ledger.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
Q5) Accounts __________ are debts incurred but not yet paid.
Q6) The recording of business and accounting transactions is called
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Page 20
Chapter 17: Banking Services and Procedures
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4212
Sample Questions
Q1) If the medical assistant is allowed to sign checks on the physician's business account, he or she must sign a document at the bank called a A) confidentiality statement. B) bond.
C) signature card.
D) noncompete statement.
Q2) A patient writes a check for $78 on an account with a balance of $285. What is the total due after the check is posted?
Q3) A capital sum of money due as a debt or used as a fund for which interest is either charged or paid is called the __________.
Q4) Banking by mail is never done now that the use of the Internet is so prevalent. A)True B)False
Q5) The deposit is $3,290. The checkbook balance is $16,561, but the mortgage payment on the physician's building is paid the same day, which is $3,500. What is the checkbook balance?
Q6) For individuals to be __________, a personal background investigation normally is necessary.
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Chapter 18: Supervision and Human Resources Management
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4213
Sample Questions
Q1) When an organization has no checks and balances, it is easy to ___________ power.
Q2) New employees should be given orientation in which of the following areas?
A) Office policies
B) Nature of the practice
C) Physical environment
D) All of the above
Q3) A person who is currently employed should never be approached to accept a new position.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which subjects cannot be discussed in a job interview?
A) Religion
B) Work history
C) Previous terminations of employment
D) None of the above
Q5) Intrinsic motivation is more difficult to discover than extrinsic motivation but is longer lasting.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4214
Sample Questions
Q1) The four Ps do not include
A) product.
B) practicality.
C) placement.
D) price.
Q2) A monthly e-newsletter is a great marketing idea.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Free promotional ideas are rarely effective.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Brochures in the provider's office can substitute for medical advice.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Providing _______________ for all employees to distribute is a smart, inexpensive way to create awareness of the medical facility.
Q6) Health fairs offer the physician a means of reaching new patients in the community.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Infection Control
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78 Verified Questions
78 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4215
Sample Questions
Q1) Direct transmission occurs through which of the following?
A) Discharges from an infected person
B) Droplets in the air expelled by coughing
C) Contaminated food or drink
D) Contact with contaminated objects
Q2) Rosa is assisting with a procedure and has an accidental exposure of potentially infectious mucous in her right eye. What should Rosa do?
Q3) Which of the following is an example of cell-mediated immunity?
A) Production of antibodies
B) Phagocytosis
C) Intact integumentary system
D) Inflammatory response
Q4) What are the two important factors in performing an effective hand wash?
A) Friction and running warm water
B) Antibacterial soap and hot water
C) Length of time spent and type of soap
D) Position of the hands and temperature of the water
Q5) The most effective treatment for viral infections is palliative in nature.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Patient Assessment
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a physical examination the patient reports problems with speech and balance. These signs indicate a problem with which system?
A) Respiratory
B) Neurologic
C) Cardiovascular
D) Lymph
Q2) Which of the following includes demographic information?
A) Family history
B) Past history
C) Social history
D) Database
E) ROS
Q3) The __________ of the interview should summarize the information the medical assistant learned while communicating with the patient and should outline patient expectations of care.
Q4) __________ care considers the patient as a whole including the physical, emotional, social, economic, and spiritual needs of the person.
Q5) The physician's initial impression of the patient's presenting problem is called the __________.
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Chapter 22: Patient Education
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68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4217
Sample Questions
Q1) To accept the severity of a disease, the patient first must understand the potential complications of the disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is integral to the informed consent mandate in the Patients' Bill of Rights?
A) Right to information before they receive care
B) Patient confidentiality as it relates to patient education
C) Providing adequate, correct, and understandable information
D) All of the above
Q3) The holistic model suggests that patient education should consider all aspects of the patient's life, including the person's __________, emotional, social, economic, and spiritual needs.
Q4) A useful approach to dealing with a patient's perceived barriers to healthy living may be referral to a community resource for patient support.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Copies of teaching materials should be available in other __________ when possible.
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Chapter 23: Nutrition and Health Promotion
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131 Verified Questions
131 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4218
Sample Questions
Q1) Vitamins or nutrients that can be created by the body are called __________.
Q2) Beta-carotene can be found in A) meat and nuts.
B) dairy products.
C) yellow and orange raw vegetables.
D) citrus.
E) oils and butter.
Q3) The result of fat metabolism for energy is the production of A) glucose molecules.
B) ketone bodies.
C) amino acids.
D) glycogen for storage.
Q4) Vegans must eat a combination of complete proteins to meet their nutritional needs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ carries cholesterol to the cells and forms atherosclerotic plaques on arterial walls.
Q6) Define essential and nonessential nutrients.
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Q7) Whole-wheat pasta with spinach is an example of a meal that combines
Chapter 24: Vital Signs
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108 Verified Questions
108 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant's pulse typically is taken by which method?
A) Auscultating over the apex of the heart
B) Palpating the brachial artery
C) Palpating the carotid artery
D) Auscultating the brachial artery
Q2) __________ hypotension occurs when a patient has a sudden drop in blood pressure after rapidly changing positions from lying down to standing.
Q3) The systolic BP is measured during which Korotkoff phase?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
E) V
Q4) Parents should be aware that the axillary temperature may be as much as one degree less than the child's actual core temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A pulse rate over 100 beats per minute is identified as __________.
Q6) Describe the role of the medical assistant in obtaining vital signs.
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Chapter 25: Assisting with the Primary Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) A positive skin turgor test result indicates that the patient is dehydrated.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A number of Felicia's co-workers have been complaining about work-related lower back pain. Dr. Kosto asks Felicia to research information about correct body mechanics and share it with the staff. Summarize at least five safe lifting techniques that should be included in the material.
Q3) The sclera of the eye is described as the A) tissue that lines the interior part of the eye.
B) part of the eye that is responsible for eye color.
C) white part of the eye that may show inflammation.
D) area of the eye where tears form.
Q4) The examination technique by which the practitioner listens to internal body signs is A) percussion.
B) manipulation.
C) palpation.
D) auscultation.
Q5) Contraction of the smooth muscles lining an artery is called __________.
Q6) Measuring the circumference of an infant's head is an example of __________.
Page 29
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Chapter 26: Principles of Pharmacology
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4221
Sample Questions
Q1) When using a drug reference resource, which of the following categories includes the drug's pregnancy risk category?
A) Action
B) Indication
C) Contraindication
D) Precautions
E) Dosage and administration
Q2) The _____________ dose is the summation of a drug present in the body after repeated doses of the medication.
A) maximum
B) maintenance
C) cumulative
D) average
Q3) The name of a drug that represents its exact formula is the ______ name.
A) generic
B) trade
C) chemical
D) brand
Q4) Drugs used to increase urinary output and to reduce blood pressure are __________.
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Chapter 27: Pharmacology Math
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Sample Questions
Q1) The top number in a fraction is the __________.
Q2) Always in a proportion, the problem is solved by __________.
Q3) The __________ is the bottom number of a fraction.
Q4) Describe the three basic steps for calculating the prescribed dose of medication accurately.
Q5) A pediatric patient weighing 20 pounds is prescribed amoxicillin; the label states that 10 mg/kg should be administered each day. What is the total daily dose?
A) 91 mg/day
B) 440 mg/day
C) 90 mg/day
D) 45 mg/day
Q6) Explain the steps in determining a single pediatric dose of medication based on the child's weight of 42 pounds; the medication label states: Administer 6 mg/kg qid.
Q7) A drug label that states the percentage of the drug in the container (e.g., 4%) is identifying the dose of the medication to be administered.
A)True
B)False
Q8) The fraction 3/4 is an example of a(n) __________ fraction.
Page 31
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Chapter 28: Administering Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the first step of safety in drug administration?
A) A verbal order
B) A clearly written order
C) Asking for clarification
D) Looking up the drug in a pharmacology reference
Q2) Patients with diabetes usually must administer two different insulins at the same time. Which insulin would be drawn up into the syringe unit first?
A) Lispro
B) NPH
Q3) If a medication container has a damaged label, the label should be fixed in the office before a medication error occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List and describe the seven rights of safe drug administration.
Q5) A tablet may be given a(n) __________ coating so that the medicine is absorbed in the small intestine.
Q6) At the dorsogluteal intramuscular site, the injection is administered into the __________ muscle.
Q7) __________ is an enlarged, hardened reaction produced by the Mantoux test.
Page 32
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Chapter 29: Safety and Emergency Practices
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124 Verified Questions
124 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4224
Sample Questions
Q1) The condition in which blood is present in the urine is called __________.
Q2) Which of the following is true about sudden cardiac arrest in children and infants?
A) It most often is caused by a severe head injury.
B) It typically is caused by airway obstruction.
C) It usually is due to a serious congenital heart defect.
D) It usually is due to accidental poisoning.
Q3) An adult who suffers sudden cardiac arrest has the best chance of survival if CPR
A) is started immediately.
B) is started immediately and an AED is used within 4 minutes.
C) is started immediately, along with transport to an ED.
D) and use of an AED occur within 10 minutes.
Q4) On discovering an unresponsive person, the medical assistant first should assess the A) airway.
B) blood pressure.
C) heart sounds.
D) pulse.
E) skin color.
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Chapter 30: Assisting in Ophthalmology and
Otolaryngology
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4225
Sample Questions
Q1) __________ errors occur when the eye is unable to focus light effectively on the retina.
Q2) Which of the following conditions exhibits with purulent fluid present in the middle ear and causes the patient to have pain, fever, and hearing loss?
A) Serious otitis media
B) Suppurative otitis media
C) Otitis externa
D) Ménière's disease
E) All of the above
Q3) A tympanogram can help detect the presence of fluid in the middle ear.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following choroid structures regulates the shape of the lens and secretes aqueous humor?
A) Ciliary body
B) Retina
C) Iris
D) Sclera
Page 34
Q5) A form of strabismus seen in young children is __________.
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Chapter 31: Assisting in Dermatology
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91 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a person ages, the dermal layer becomes thinner and less protective.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A freckle is called a
A) macule.
B) papule.
C) bulla.
D) pustule.
Q3) All of the following statements are true about herpes zoster except it
A) can be prevented in adults over age 60 with Zostavax.
B) can cause chronic pain.
C) appears as a vesicular, erythemic, pruritic, papular rash.
D) affects bilateral nerve dermatomes.
Q4) Cells that are in a primitive form and are diagnostic of a cancer-producing tumor are called __________.
Q5) Which area is favored in young children for a percutaneous test?
A) Forearm
B) Upper arm
C) Back
D) All of the above
35
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Chapter 32: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr. Simon Garfield recently was diagnosed with cancer of the GI tract. Cancer can develop in any of the gastrointestinal organs. Identify four of the primary causes or contributing factors in the development of GI system cancers.
Q2) The appendix is located in the __________ region of the abdomen.
Q3) The muscular action that moves food along the gastrointestinal tract is called A) ingestion.
B) digestion.
C) peristalsis.
D) mastication.
Q4) OSHA requires employers to make the hepatitis B vaccine available to employees at a reduced price.
A)True
B)False
Q5) One of the signs of a suspected peptic ulcer is a drop in hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False
Q6) IBS is most frequently diagnosed in young women.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________________ is a malignancy frequently seen in patients with AIDS that causes purple papules to form on the skin.
Q2) Which of the following occurs most often in uncircumcised patients or in men with diabetes?
A) Epididymitis
B) Balanitis
C) Acquired hydroceles
D) Testicular carcinoma
Q3) A urine sample from a patient with pyelonephritis will show albuminuria and casts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hemodialysis is done four times a week to maintain health.
A)True
B)False
Q5) UTIs frequently are caused by Escherichia coli from the anal region. A)True
B)False
Q6) Male sex hormones are grouped as ___________.
Q7) ________________________ causes genital warts.
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Chapter 34: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ___________ is the opening of the cervix during labor and is measured in centimeters.
Q2) Recent research indicates that HRT protects postmenopausal women from heart disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A fluid-filled cyst in one of the vestibular glands that are located on either side of the vaginal orifice is called a __________________.
Q4) As legal protection for the provider, during which part of the examination should the medical assistant remain in the examination room?
A) Breast examination
B) Abdominal examination
C) Pelvic examination
D) All of the above
Q5) Stage ______ is the stage of labor in which the baby is born.
A) I
B) II
C) III
Q6) Pregnancy is confirmed when the hormone __________ is found in the urine.
Page 38
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Chapter 35: Assisting in Pediatrics
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116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A partial airway obstruction from a buildup of secretions that sounds like continuous dry rattling is called ____________.
Q2) Colic in infants is most often characterized by A) diarrhea.
B) mild abdominal distress and crying.
C) disappearance of the condition by age 6 months.
D) allergies to breast milk.
Q3) Which of the following is a helpful approach to adolescent patients?
A) The medical assistant should recognize the importance of personal appearance to adolescents.
B) The parents should be present for discussions about health problems.
C) The medical assistant should use distraction if painful procedures are performed.
D) The medical assistant should give the adolescent advice on handling personal problems.
Q4) Cystic fibrosis is caused by A) pancreatic disease.
B) a mother who carries the gene and passes it to her son.
C) an infection of the pulmonary system.
D) an altered gene carried by both parents.
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Chapter 36: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alphonse Patrice, a 19-year-old patient, has just been fitted with crutches because of a sprained ankle. Summarize the patient guidelines for correct use of crutches so that Mr. Patrice can use them properly.
Q2) Patients with arthritis frequently complain of _____________, a crackling sound made by the affected joints.
Q3) Both bursae and joint capsules contain ______________, which nourishes joint surfaces and allows for free movement of the joint.
Q4) Which of the following injuries results in an overstretching of a muscle or tendon?
A) Muscle spasm
B) Sprain
C) Strain
D) Fracture
Q5) ___________________ is caused by an autoimmune reaction against the synovial membrane that lines joints throughout the body.
Q6) A patient diagnosed with mild bone loss has ______________.
Q7) Summarize four risk factors for the development of osteoporosis.
Q8) ___________ muscle has fibers that are voluntary and striated.
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Chapter 37: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who suffer from migraine headaches frequently experience an aura before the onset of pain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Multiple minor CVAs can result in symptoms of dementia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ALS can be cured if it is diagnosed early enough.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The signs and symptoms of a brain tumor occur because of increased intracranial pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) As a medical assistant working with patients with neurologic disorders, you must be able to recognize general symptoms of neurologic problems. Summarize five typical symptoms.
Q6) A patient who reports an abnormal feeling of burning or stinging in the legs is diagnosed with ____________.
Q7) Supportive cells of the nervous system are called ______________ cells.
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Endocrinology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment in the beginning phase of diabetes type 2 includes all of the following except
A) weight loss.
B) exercise.
C) dietary restrictions.
D) oral hypoglycemic medications.
E) insulin.
Q2) Which disorder is caused by an overactive adrenal gland?
A) Cushing's disease
B) Addison's disease
C) Diabetes
D) Graves' disease
Q3) The posterior lobe of the pituitary (neurohypophysis) produces which of the following?
A) Growth hormone
B) Antidiuretic hormone
C) Thyroid stimulating hormone
D) Prolactin
Q4) Hypersecretion of GH in adulthood is called __________.
Q5) Diabetic __________ is the leading cause of renal failure in the United States.
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Chapter 39: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lung cancer frequently is diagnosed after it has metastasized, because the early symptoms of the disease are similar to those experienced by smokers on a regular basis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A new employee is to have the two-step Mantoux test to screen for TB. What does this mean?
A) Her blood needs to be drawn at 1-week intervals.
B) Her first Mantoux test was positive, so the second is ordered as a follow-up procedure.
C) Her chest x-ray film was suspicious, so the Mantoux test is ordered to confirm the presence of TB.
D) A second Mantoux is done 1 to 3 weeks after the first test.
Q3) Which statement is true about the formation of tubercles?
A) They form when a patient is exposed to TB and then develops the disease.
B) They are the result of cell-mediated isolation of the tuberculin bacillus.
C) Immediate treatment with 3 months of INH destroys any possible tubercles in the body.
D) Tubercles do not affect the TB skin test results, because the patient does not have active TB.
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Cardiology
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86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?
A) Left atrium
B) Right atrium
C) Left ventricle
D) Right ventricle
Q2) Echocardiography is used in the diagnosis of incompetent cardiac valves.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Myocardial infarction symptoms in women include acute chest pain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) __________ is the part of the electrical conduction process during which the myocardium recovers from the contraction of the atria and ventricles.
Q5) A patient calls the physician's office reporting signs and symptoms of a possible MI. Identify three signs and symptoms that require activation of EMS.
Q6) The most distal part of the electrical system of the heart is the Purkinje fibers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 41: Assisting in Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is the severe loss of intellectual ability.
Q2) Which of the following is not considered a risk factor for osteoporosis?
A) Male gender
B) Family history of osteoporosis
C) Racial background
D) Extended use of anticonvulsant drugs
Q3) Wound healing may be a problem for an older patient because of decreased blood flood to dermal tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Orthostatic hypotension may be caused by the heart's inability to adapt to an increased workload.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The medical assistant may perform a(n) __________ to assess a patient's ability to write, calculate, and recall facts.
Q6) Presbycusis is defined as ringing in the ears.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Memantine (Namenda) is frequently used to treat __________.
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Chapter 42: Principles of Electrocardiography
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90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After electrical stimulation the ventricles contract, emptying oxygen-rich blood into the pulmonary artery.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which statement is true about ECG paper?
A) It is not affected by environmental factors, so it is easily maintained in the medical record.
B) It has horizontal and vertical lines at 1-mm intervals.
C) Every fifth line measures 6 mm on each side.
D) None of the above is true.
Q3) Summarize the immediate treatment of an MI. Explain why certain medications are administered.
Q4) PVCs are recorded when the ventricles depolarize before a P wave.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What information should be documented on the ECG strip?
Q6) The AV node sends the electric impulse through the __________, which stimulates the right and left ventricular walls.
Q7) The __________ is the electric recording of the heart at rest.
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Chapter 43: Assisting with Diagnostic Imaging
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90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following examinations cannot be performed on a patient with a cardiac pacemaker?
A) MRI
B) CT
C) Arteriography
D) Doppler ultrasound
Q2) __________ is an imaging method in which a magnetic field and radiofrequency pulses are used to create computer images of bones and soft tissue in multiple planes.
A) CT scan
B) Ultrasound
C) MRI
D) IVU
Q3) A(n) __________ is also called a barium enema.
Q4) Which of the following is not a documented latent effect of low doses of ionizing radiation?
A) Cataract formation
B) Carcinogenesis
C) Shortened life span
D) Osteoradionecrosis
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Chapter 44: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of specimen must be chilled if testing will not be performed immediately?
A) Blood
B) Urine
C) Semen
D) All of the above
Q2) The shortest objective lens on the microscope has the lowest power (4*) and is called the scanning lens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a physician's office laboratory, which of the following is (are) the most common hazardous chemical(s)?
A) Sodium hypochlorite
B) Caviwipes and glutaraldehyde
C) Acetone and dyes
D) All of the above
Q4) The microscopic analysis of cells is the science of __________.
Q5) The objective of __________ in the medical laboratory is to ensure the accuracy and reliability of test results.
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Chapter 45: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________ may occur as the first sign of liver disease; the urine appears yellow-brown or greenish orange.
Q2) Which of the following is mismatched concerning urine color and the likely pathologic cause?
A) Red: bleeding in the urinary tract
B) Greenish yellow: liver disorder
C) Blue-green: Pseudomonas infection
D) Reddish brown: diabetes
Q3) In the microscopic observation of urine sediment, yeast most resembles A) bacteria.
B) red blood cells.
C) mucous threads.
D) calcium oxalate crystals.
Q4) The most accurate method for performing alcohol screening is analysis of a urine sample.
A)True
B)False
Q5) You are instructing a patient on how to obtain and manage a urine specimen at home. What education should you provide?
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Blood Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The proper procedure for collecting a serum specimen is to
A) use a green-topped tube.
B) allow the specimen to clot.
C) use a microhematocrit tube.
D) use a red or marbled-top tube.
E) B and D.
Q2) In a routine venipuncture, the angle at which the needle enters the arm should be _____ degrees.
A) 80 to 90
B) 30
C) 15
D) 0 to 5
Q3) If the patient complains of tingling or numbness during a phlebotomy procedure, the medical assistant should continue the procedure to get it completed as soon as possible.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Securing a patient in a blood collection chair helps prevent injuries if the patient experiences ____________.
Q5) Describe the postexposure management of a needle stick.
Page 50
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Chapter 47: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with ________________ have an unusually large number of all blood cells.
Q2) Which of the following is a normal H&H for a female?
A) 30% and 11 g/dL
B) 36% and 14 g/dL
C) 52% and 17 g/dL
D) 35% and 11 g/dL
Q3) Mrs. Grace Hernandez is suspected of having rheumatoid arthritis. Explain the ESR procedure to Mrs. Hernandez.
Q4) The WBC count is lowest in newborns and highest in adults.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Hemoglobin A<sub>1</sub>c is measured to monitor A) anemia.
B) transfusion reactions.
C) diabetes.
D) hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Q6) ____________ cells, the most numerous types of agranular leukocytes, stimulate the activity of other T lymphocytes.
Q7) A low microhematocrit is seen in patients with ___________.
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Chapter 48: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the Kirby-Bauer Antimicrobial Susceptibility Test, which of the following labels would indicate that the antibiotic is effective against the organism in that particular concentration in vitro?
A) S
B) R
C) I
D) None of the above
Q2) ___________ are tiny, gram-negative organisms transmitted by blood-sucking insects.
A) Rickettsiae
B) Chlamydiae
C) Herpes simplex organisms
D) Ascaris organisms
Q3) __________ are members of a class of invertebrate animals that includes insects, crustaceans, and arachnids.
Q4) An organism that is unlikely to be transmitted by airborne droplets is
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B) Legionella pneumophila.
C) Neisseria meningitidis.
D) Treponema pallidum.
52
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Chapter 49: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sterile ________ forceps are used to arrange items on a sterile tray.
Q2) This instrument tip has a groove or hook to slide under sutures.
A) Bayonet forceps
B) Littauer stitch or suture scissors
C) Probe tip
D) Needle holders
Q3) Describe the proper care of surgical instruments.
Q4) How should instruments be handled after the surgery is complete?
A) Place heavier instruments at the bottom of a collection basin.
B) Keep all instruments locked to prevent accidental injury.
C) Wait until any blood on the instrument has dried before cleaning.
D) Use a detergent with a neutral pH that creates a high level of suds.
E) Both A and D are correct.
Q5) ___________ forceps are small (4 inches) and are used to clamp small blood vessels or tissues.
Q6) Proper preparation of a surgical site removes all organisms from the area.
A)True
B)False
Q7) __________ forceps are available in different lengths and are used to grasp tissue, muscles, or skin surrounding a wound.
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Chapter 50: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting with Surgical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following endoscopes is rigid?
A) Laparoscope
B) Colonoscope
C) Bronchoscope
D) Gastroscope
Q2) Under which of the following post-operative conditions should a patient call the office immediately?
A) Redness around the operative site
B) Bleeding from the wound
C) Fever or swelling
D) Increasing or severe pain
E) All of the above
Q3) A(n) __________ occurs when a nonpenetrating wound damages blood vessels.
Q4) Outline the rules for setting up and maintaining a sterile field.
Q5) If correctly done, autoclaving destroys even __________, the dormant form of bacteria.
Q6) A large, gaping wound that must heal from the bottom of the wound outward heals by first intention.
A)True
B)False
Page 54
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Chapter 51: Career Development and Life Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new employee may arrive late to work as long as it happens no more than twice a month.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A person with __________ is motivated, able to express love, and capable of handling criticism.
Q3) Networking is meeting and getting to know individuals in the same or similar career fields and sharing information about available opportunities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The purpose of the cover letter is to get the employer to look at the résumé, and the purpose of the résumé is to get the applicant the job.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ is reading and marking corrections.
Q6) The medical assistant should tell his or her personal __________ when graduation is near, because job leads might be discovered using this source.
Q7) Performance __________ rarely give perfect ratings.
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