ACCREDITATION DETAILS AND MCQs FOR THURSDAY 20th MARCH SESSIONS
Back to basics: compounders are problem solvers
Session Time: 11:00am – 11:30am
Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker(s): Marina Holt
Accreditation code: A2503APP3
standards
1.3, 1.4, 1.5, 1.6, 2.3, 3.1, 3.2, 3.4, 3.5
• Discuss key changes to regulations in Australia which affect compounders from October 1 ,2024
• Identify specific changes related to labelling of compounded products.
• Discuss the various ways in which compounders can assist patients who are tapering off anti-depressants.
• Discuss specific conditions where low dose naltrexone may be of benefit.
Credits
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credits
(Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
MCQs
1. There were significant compounding related changes which came into effect on October 1, 2024, in Australia. These were:
A. Australian Pharmaceutical Formulary became a mandatory text for compounders.
B. The Pharmacy Board of Australia updated their Guidelines on Compounding of Medicines which came into effect on October 1.
C. The TGA changed the exemption for compounding which allows compounding pharmacists to prepare medicines in bulk.
D. Changes in the Therapeutic Goods Act now bans compounding of GLP 1 agonists in all dosage forms.
E. A and B.
F. B and D.
2. One of the key changes to labelling of a compounded medicine is:
A. Percentage of added preservatives is no longer required on the label.
B. A list of all inert ingredients must be included on the label together with their respective strengths.
C. A list of inert ingredients must be included on the label, but the strength does not need to be included.
D. There have not been any significant changes to labelling requirements.
1.0 Group 2 CPD Credits
(Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
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3. When a patient requires assistance with tapering doses of anti-depressants, a compounding pharmacist could have which of the following discussions?
A. How to cut a tablet in half if suitable.
B. Options to prepare a liquid dosage form if stability is appropriate.
C. Slow tapering options which may reduce doses by as little as 10 percent of the most recent dose.
D. Most patients can reduce their doses with very few side effects.
E. B and C.
F. A, B and C.
4. When considering low dose naltrexone therapy for Crohn’s disease:
A. Commercial 50mg tablets are a suitable starting dose.
B. LDN can be taken together with Panadeine Forte ® tablets.
C. It is appropriate to commence at 1.5mg and increase slowly as required.
D. There is no strong evidence for naltrexone in any form to be considered as therapy for Crohn’s disease.
Reflux guidelines and expanded scope – what you need to know
Session Time: 11:35-12:05pm
Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker: A/Prof Treasure McGuire & Dr Brett MacFarlane
Accreditation code: A2503APP1
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Select an appropriate framework to assess an adult patient presenting with symptoms of reflux
• Design an OTC management plan in line with guideline recommendations and current/extended scopes of practice
• Explain treatment options and follow-up expectations with patients
• Demonstrate appropriate documentation to enable patient follow up and referral to other healthcare professionals
1. Which of the following are frameworks to assess an adult patient presenting with reflux?
A. Aristotle.
B. Socrates.
C. Galileo.
D. Newton.
2. Which of the following would be an appropriate first-line pharmacological management option for an adult patient with frequent and/or severe reflux?
A. PPI and antacid/alginate combination.
B. PPI alone.
C. Both A and B.
D. None of the above.
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
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3. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. While PPIs block acid secretion, antacid-alginate combinations are ideal for addressing the acid pocket, which forms when food or drink is ingested.
B. Antacid-alginates form a foam that floats on top of stomach contents, displacing the postprandial acid pocket and blocking refluxate from entering the oesophagus.
C. Patients with frequent reflux symptoms commencing a PPI may require concomitant therapy while waiting for the PPI to take effect.
D. All are correct.
4. Which of the following should be documented when assessing patients with reflux?
A. Presence, severity and frequency of heartburn, regurgitation.
B. Atypical and alarm features.
C. Both A and B.
D. None of the above.
5. Which of the following defines frequent reflux?
A. Frequent is 3 or more episodes per week.
B. Frequent is 1-2 episodes per week.
C. Frequent can be 1 episode per fortnight.
D. Both A and B.
6. When may it be appropriate to consider an antacid-alginate?
A. During the first 3 days while stepping up on a PPI.
B. When experiencing breakthrough symptoms on a PPI.
C. When stepping down from a PPI.
D. All of the above.
Dietary supplements and pregnancy: beyond folic acid
Session Time: 12:10-12:40pm
Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker: A/Prof Treasure McGuire Accreditation code: A2503APP2
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Describe three key nutrient requirements for women planning to conceive
• Explain the impact of nutrition-related public health initiatives on Vitamin and mineral use by pregnant women
• Discuss how pharmacists can support public health initiatives by delivering evidence-based nutrition & nutrient advice to pregnant women or those planning to conceive
1. What key nutrient deficiency is the most common cause of mental retardation in babies worldwide?
A. Folic Acid.
B. Iodine.
C. Vitamin D.
D. Iron.
2. Which two nutrients should be universally recommended to all pregnant or planning women to commence daily supplementation with?
A. Folic Acid and Iron.
B. Vitamin D and Folic Acid.
C. Iodine and Iron.
D. Iodine and Folic Acid.
3. What was the effect of Folic Acid Fortification to flour used for bread making in Australia in 2009?
A. There was a 14% reduction in babies born with neural tube defects (NTDs), with a 55% reduction in babies born to teenage mothers.
B. There was a 32% reduction in maternal deaths.
C. There was a 40% increase in bone mineral density of babies born to mothers who received fortification.
D. There was a 50% reduction in pre-term and small for gestational age babies.
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
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4. What are three causes of dietary Iodine fortification not being as successful as Folic acid fortification?
A. People are eating less red meat, less bread and less cow’s milk.
B. People are eating more plant-based milk alternatives, eating less iodised salt and less leafy green vegetables.
C. People are eating less iodised salt, more plant-based milk alternatives and less bread.
D. People are eating less citrus fruits, less red meat and more cow’s milk.
5. What fraction of Australian pregnant women are Vitamin D deficient?
A. 3/4.
B. 1/2.
C. 1/3.
D. 1/10.
Treating Chronic Spontaneous Urticaria (CSU) with confidence: How can pharmacists help?
Session Time: 12:45-1:15pm Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker: Clinical Professor Michaela Lucas Accreditation code: A2503APP26
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Understand Chronic Spontaneous Urticaria (CSU) and its impact on patients
• Identify CSU in a pharmacy setting
• Describe the role of pharmacists in CSU management
• Outline CSU treatment options
1. The definition of chronic spontaneous urticaria is when symptoms including wheals and/or angioedema occur spontaneously and persists for:
A. >2 weeks.
B. >8 weeks.
C. >6 weeks.
D. >1 week.
2. Choose the INCORRECT option: Angioedema…
A. Is a swelling of the mucous membranes.
B. Can take 24 hours to resolve completely.
C. May cause a burning pain or an itch.
D. Commonly affects the face, hands, feet and genitalia.
3. Common characteristics of wheals in chronic spontaneous urticaria include:
A. Itchiness; superficial skin swelling; coloured white or red; may change shape before resolving.
B. Superficial skin swelling; no associated pain; range in size from few millimetres to centimetres.
C. Always coloured red; burning sensation; superficial skin swelling; may change shape before resolving.
D. Burning sensation; superficial skin swelling; range in size from few millimetres to centimetres; never changes shape while present.
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
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4. The goal of chronic spontaneous management is:
A. To achieve complete remission, with no chance of relapse.
B. To determine the cause of symptoms to ensure it can be avoided in the future.
C. To achieve nil symptoms and a UAS7 score of ten.
D. To treat the patient until symptomless as efficiently and safely as possible.
5. The recommended first line pharmacological treatment for chronic spontaneous urticaria is:
A. First generation H1-antihistamines at the lowest effective dose possible.
B. Standard dose of a H2- receptor antagonist.
C. A second generation H1-antihistamine commencing on a standard dose.
D. Combination of a first generation H1-antihistamines and second generation H1-antihistamine.
Rural Pharmacy Forum: Adapt, embrace, succeed
Session Time: 2:00-5:30pm
Venue: Meeting Rooms 7 and 8
Speaker: Andrew Pattinson
Accreditation code: A2503APP27
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Identify key issues facing rural pharmacy
• Identify potential Innovative Solutions
• Understand how to create and manage change
• Use a growth mindset to implement change
1. Which of the following have been identified as key issues facing rural pharmacy?
A. Workforce issues, attraction, staff retention.
B. Access to training, professional isolation, access to stock.
C. Burnout, staff mental health and wellbeing, communications.
D. All the above.
2. HECS debt reduction, reward/recognition and succession planning were identified as solutions to address what key issue?
A. Access to training.
B. Cost of space.
C. Workforce issues.
D. Customer expectations.
3. Which of the following issue/solution combinations is incorrect?
A. Training > Funding, relevance, utilising all staff and skills.
B. Professional Isolation > Professional exchange, mentoring, online communities.
C. Staff mental health and wellbeing > Don’t take breaks, don’t upskill, keep morale low.
D. Cost of Space > Audit current space, use space creatively, share space.
1 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
2 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
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4. What are three ‘growth mindsets’?
A. Believing in lifelong learning, giving up easily, avoiding challenges to avoid failure.
B. Putting in effort to learn new things, believing in lifelong learning, being inspired by others success.
C. Willingly embracing new challenges, hiding flaws to avoid judgement, feeling threatened by others success.
D. Viewing failures as personal failings, being inspired by others success, ignoring feedback.
5. Which of the following is not effective for change?
A. Building the right team.
B. Communicating the vision.
C. Empowering action.
D. Avoid challenges so you don’t fail.
Dandruff, seborrheic dermatitis and the itchy scalp: the pharmacist’s guide to investigating and managing root causes
Session Time: 2:35-3:05pm
Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker: Dr John Gullotta
Accreditation code: A2503APP7
standards
1.4, 1.5, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.2, 3.5
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Describe the role of the fungus (Malassezia) in the development of dandruff and seborrhoeic dermatitis.
• Differentiate between dandruff, seborrheic dermatitis and other conditions that can cause a flaky, itchy scalp
• Explain how the different dandruff treatments work
• Explain how to optimise the treatment of dandruff and seborrheic dermatitis
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1. Dandruff typically starts:
A. In early childhood.
B. After puberty.
C. From the age of 40.
2. Dandruff is caused by:
A. Headlice infestations.
B. Allergic reactions.
C. Malassezia overgrowth.
3. Which of the following is a difference between dandruff and seborrhoeic dermatitis
A. Chronic relapsing condition.
B. The presence of visible inflammation.
C. The role of Malassezia overgrowth.
1 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
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4. Which of the following dandruff therapies has been most extensively studied?
A. Ketoconazole shampoo.
B. Selenium sulfide shampoo.
C. Zinc pyrithione shampoo.
5. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Dandruff is a self-limiting condition that will resolve without treatment.
B. Once dandruff has been effectively treated and cleared the person is cured of this condition.
C. Dandruff typically requires ongoing treatment to prevent relapse.
Over-the-counter pain relief: think you know enough?
Session Time: 4:00-4:30pm Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker: Bridget Totterman, Professor Peter Carroll, Professor Rebekah Moles
Accreditation code: A2503APP19
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Outline how pharmacists can implement quality use of analgesics in adults
• Discuss barriers to quality use of analgesics in children and how these barriers can be overcome
• Educate pharmacists on what to do if they suspect paracetamol overdose and the importance of timely administration of the antidote to prevent hepatic injury
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1. What factors can contribute to unintentional medication overdose?
A. Misreading or not understanding dosage guidelines.
B. Taking extra because of a lack of therapeutic effect.
C. Consuming more than one product with the same active ingredient.
D. All of the above.
2. What advice should pharmacists give patients on quality use of paracetamol?
A. Check all other concomitant medications for interactions and other sources of paracetamol.
B. Check for ‘paracetamol’ on labels of any medicines purchased from pharmacies or retailers.
C. Call 000 or to the nearest Emergency Department if an overdose occurs or is suspected.
D. All of the above.
1 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
Click Here to Access This Assessment
3. Which of the following are NOT common errors in paracetamol and ibuprofen dosing in children?
A. Incorrect administration technique.
B. Measuring too high or low a dose.
C. Using the incorrect medication.
D. Switching the flavour of the medicine.
E. Dosing too early or late from last dose.
4. How soon after paracetamol overdose is the antidote N-acetylcysteine most effective?
A. Within 10–12 hours.
B. Within 16 hours.
C. Within 24 hours.
D. Within 48 hours.
5. In which of the following situations may paracetamol be an appropriate alternative to ibuprofen?
A. Cardiac failure.
B. Hypertension.
C. Renal impairment.
D. All of the above.
S3 celecoxib for acute pain management – evidence-based recommendations
Session Time: 4:35-5:05pm Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker: Joyce McSwan Accreditation code: A2503APP31
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Describe what should be considered when supplying Celecoxib without prescription (Schedule 3)
• Identify when supply of Schedule 3 Celecoxib is appropriate
• Counsel on how to use Celecoxib in the Schedule 3 setting
1. Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) selective inhibition results in? (Select multiple options)
A. Impaired gastric cyto-protection.
B. Antiplatelet effects.
C. Anti-inflammatory effects.
D. Analgesic effects.
2. Gastrointestinal ulceration risk is lower with which one of the following COX-2 selective NSAIDs?
A. Ibuprofen.
B. Diclofenac.
C. Celecoxib.
D. Naproxen.
3. Celecoxib S3 indications include which of the following? (Select multiple options)
A. For the symptomatic treatment of osteoarthritis.
B. For the short-term treatment of acute pain in adults following surgery.
C. For the short-term treatment of acute pain in adults with musculoskeletal and/or soft tissue injury.
D. For the short-term treatment of primary dysmenorrhoea in adults.
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
Click Here to Access This Assessment
4. Celecoxib should not be taken in which of the following instances (Select multiple options)
A. Patients with heart problems causing chest pain or had a heart attack or stroke in the last 3 months.
B. Patients with a stomach ulcer or intestinal bleeding.
C. Those aged 65 years or over, unless advised by a doctor.
D. For more than 5 days at a time, unless advised by a doctor.
5. What are the directions for celecoxib when accessed without a prescription for short-term pain relief?
A. 1 capsule (200 mg) taken ONCE daily.
B. 1 capsule (200 mg) taken TWICE daily for up to 5 days.
C. 2 capsules (400 mg loading dose) on day 1, then 1 capsule (200 mg) ONCE or TWICE daily as required for up to 5 days.
D. 2 capsules (400 mg) taken ONCE daily for up to 5 days.
Implementing RSV vaccination for older adults in your pharmacy – why, who and how
Session Time: 5:10-5:40pm
Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker: Dr Anita Sharma
Accreditation code: A2501RSV1
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Discuss the burden, risk, and clinical features of RSV infections in older adult populations.
• Outline the features and considerations of available RSV vaccines in Australia.
• Describe the role of pharmacists to improve vaccination rates and reduce the rates of RSV in older adults.
1. Which of the following statements regarding the burden & risk and RSV is NOT correct?
A. RSV is often thought of as a paediatric illness but also has significant burden of disease in older adults.
B. Hospital stays in Australian adults ≥65 years with RSV are comparable to children <5 years.
C. RSV and influenza infection carry a similar risk of hospitalisation and mortality in older adults.
D. Comorbidities may complicate RSV in older adults.
2. Which of the following comorbidities increase the risk of hospitalisation with RSV?
A. COPD.
B. Asthma.
C. Diabetes.
D. All of the above.
3. Two vaccines are registered for prevention of RSV-LRTD in older adults in Australia.
A. True
B. False
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
Click Here to Access This Assessment
4. The ‘Five A’s of vaccination’ do NOT include:
A. Awareness.
B. Acceptance.
C. Affordability.
D. Adjuvantation.
E. Access.
5. Pharmacists may recommend immunisation against RSV for which of the following patient groups? (Select all that apply)
A. All adults aged ≥60 years.
B. All adults aged ≥75 years.
C. All Aboriginal and/or Torres Strait Islander peoples aged ≥60 years.
D. Adults aged 60 to 74 years with medical risk factors for severe RSV disease.
ACCREDITATION DETAILS AND MCQs FOR
FRIDAY
Master acute wound management in pharmacy
Session Time: 9:45-10:15am
Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker(s): Lusi Sheehan
21st MARCH SESSIONS
standards
Accreditation code: A2503APP10 1.5, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.2, 3.5
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Recognise common acute minor wounds and local wound infection
• Describe the phases of wound healing and factors affecting healing
• Explain the role of pharmacists in management of acute wounds
• Outline the current evidence of antiseptics on the pharmacy shelf and their appropriate use
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credits
(Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1. Which of the following factors can contribute to delayed wound healing?
A. Smoking.
B. Diabetes.
C. Corticosteroids.
D. All of the above.
2. Which of the following is a typical sign of local wound infection
A. Red granulation tissue.
B. Yellow/green slough.
C. Brown around the wound edges.
D. Reducing pain.
1 Group 2 CPD Credits
(Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
Click Here to Access This Assessment
3. Which of the following is NOT ideal for pharmacists in managing an acute wound?
A. Providing a disinfectant for open wounds as requested.
B. Proving wound cleansing and assessment.
C. Providing a treatment plan in line with protocols.
D. Referring patients to local allied health network.
4. Which of the following is NOT considered an ideal property for antiseptics?
A. Broad spectrum antibacterial effect.
B. Low risk of bacterial resistance.
C. Moderate to high cytotoxicity.
D. Cost-effective.
5. Which of the following has the least evidence for an acute minor graze?
A. Rinse with povidone iodine solution and wash off within 4 minutes.
B. Apply manuka honey gel and review every 2-3 days.
C. Cleanse with saline solution and cover with a breathable dressing.
D. Apply pawpaw ointment every 2 hours and leave open.
The paediatric microbiome – perturbations of the paediatric microbiome and subsequent effects on infant health and development
Session Time: 10:45-11:15am
Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker: Jessica Simonis Accreditation code: A2503APP15
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Define the age window for microbiome establishment
• Identify environmental and genetic influences on microbiome establishment
• Identify interventions that minimise negative impacts on infant microbiome establishment and/or health and development
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1. Microbiome establishment occurs within the following age window:
A. Preconception to 5 years of age.
B. Conception to 2 years of age.
C. 3rd Trimester to 2 years of age.
D. 2 years of age to adulthood.
2. Vertical transmission refers to transfer of microorganisms between parents and offspring.
A. True.
B. False.
3. What are 4 factors that influence microbiome establishment within the first 1000 days?
A. Birth-mode, breastfeeding, aged care, polypharmacy.
B. Birth-mode, infant diet, environment, maternal health status.
C. Formula feeding, birth, aged care, polypharmacy.
D. Birth-mode, infant diet, cognition, maternal health.
1 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
Click Here to Access This Assessment
4. Which microbiome-modulating medication has been associated with an increased risk of obesity?
A. Antibiotics.
B. Probiotics.
C. Prebiotics.
D. Polyphenols.
5. Which of the following probiotic strains has shown to significantly decrease the incidence of mastitis in breastfeeding women aged 18-45?
A. Bifidobacterium lactis HN019.
B. Lactobacillus fermentum CECT5716.
C. Lactobacillus rhamnosus GG.
D. Lactobacillus rhamnosus HN001.
Holistic horizons – exploring complementary medicines for healthy ageing
Session Time: 11:20-11:50am
Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker: Lesley Braun Accreditation code: A2503APP25
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Explain the key drivers of ageing and their impacts on health
• Recognise and address nutritional opportunities in ageing populations
• Apply a holistic approach to healthy ageing in everyday pharmacy practice
1. What percentage of Australians aged 55–64 meets the recommended intake for fruits and vegetables, according to the presentation? A. 4%
25%
2. What is the effective daily dose of HMB supplementation mentioned for supporting lean body mass in older adults?
A. 1 gram/day
B. 3 grams/day
C. 5 grams/day
D. 10 grams/day
3. Daily supplementation with 40 mg of UC II collagen has been shown to improve which aspect of joint health?
A. Bone density
B. Knee joint flexibility and post-exercise discomfort
C. Muscle strength
D. Cardiovascular endurance
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
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4. HMB, a supplement highlighted for its anti-catabolic effect, is derived from which essential amino acid?
A. L-leucine
B. L-arginine
C. L-glutamine
D. L-lysine
5. Which statement regarding Coenzyme Q10 (CoQ10) and ageing is correct according to the presentation?
A. CoQ10 levels remain unchanged throughout adulthood.
B. CoQ10 levels in heart tissue decline by about 50% from age 20 to age 80.
C. CoQ10 production increases with age to support muscle strength.
D. CoQ10 is only important for eye health.
The 24-hour circadian rhythm: Optimising sleep and cognitive performance with novel natural solutions
Session Time: 11:55-12:25 pm
Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker: Michael Alexander Accreditation code: A2503APP9
1. Why is it essential to maintain a circadian rhythm?
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Explain the importance of maintaining a healthy circadian rhythm
• Identify novel natural solutions to support the sleep cycle
• Identify novel natural solutions to support daytime alertness
A. It’s not essential in the long term as the body will reset eventually without consequences.
B. It’s essential as it leads to chronic genetic disorders in children and increases in autoimmune diseases.
C. Long-term disruptions in circadian rhythm leads to metabolic disorders and cardiovascular disease.
D. It’s essential only for maintaining sleep patterns but has no long-term effect on daytime cognition.
2. A list of modern sleep disruptors include:
A. Stress increased physical activity, excess alcohol consumption and reduced caffeine use.
B. Depression, low physical activity, exposure to blue light and reductions to REM sleep.
C. Unemployment, BMI 30, cataracts, increased REM sleep, and warm bedroom temperature.
D. Working from home, silent bedrooms, junk food and excessive consumption of sports drinks.
3. Examples of novel natural solutions to supporting a healthy sleep cycle in circadian rhythm include:
A. Lutein, saffron, L-theanine.
B. Nicotinamide riboside chloride, bacopa, saffron.
C. Alpinia, L-theanine, bacopa.
D. Bacopa, Lutein, Alpinia.
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
Click Here to Access This Assessment
4. Examples of novel natural solutions to supporting daytime alertness in circadian rhythm include:
A. Lutein, saffron, L-theanine.
B. Nicotinamide riboside chloride, Alpinia, saffron.
C. Saffron, bacopa, lutein.
D. Alpinia, bacopa, nicotinamide riboside chloride.
5. What should our treatment goal be when we suspect circadian rhythm disturbance?
A. Treat the disrupted sleep patterns as a priority.
B. Treat the altered thought patterns only.
C. Treat both disrupted sleep and altered cognition.
D. Treat mental health issues and refer.
Building improved URTI assessment skills
Session Time: 12:30-1:00pm
Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker: John Bell
Accreditation code: A2503APP21
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Counsel patients on appropriate use of antibiotics for managing upper respiratory tract infections (URTIs)
• Identify patients presenting with URTI symptoms who require referral for further investigation
• Recommend appropriate symptomatic therapies for patients with URTI symptoms, including nasal saline irrigation (NSI) for acute rhinosinusitis
1. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when counselling patients on the use of antibiotics for URTIs?
A. Antibiotics have no place in treating URTIs.
B. Antibiotics are recommended for all patients with suspected bacterial URTIs.
C. Antibiotics will not help patients with viral URTIs and offer limited benefit for most patients with bacterial URTIs.
D. Antibiotics will help relieve URTI symptoms such as nasal congestion and sore throat.
2. Which of the following URTI features is more likely to be associated with a bacterial infection than a viral infection?
A. Transient low-grade fever at illness onset.
B. Worsening of symptoms after initial improvement.
C. Rapid peak of symptoms that decline by day 3 of illness.
D. Resolution of symptoms by 7 days.
3. In which of the following situations could antibiotics be an appropriate option for a patient with URTI symptoms?
A. Suspected streptococcal infection in a patient with severe throat pain and dysphagia.
B. Tonsillitis in a patient not at high risk of acute rheumatic fever.
C. Acute rhinosinusitis in a patient who presents after 2 days of symptoms.
D. Acute rhinosinusitis in a patient who presents after 7 days of symptoms.
0.75 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1.5 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
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4. Which of the following is not a recommended symptomatic therapy for acute rhinosinusitis associated with URTIs?
A. Oral analgesia.
B. Short-term nasal decongestants.
C. Antihistamines.
D. Nasal saline irrigation.
5. Why is nasal saline irrigation considered an appropriate treatment option for symptomatic relief of acute rhinosinusitis in patients with URTIs?
A. Helps to relieve symptoms and improve function in patients with acute rhinosinusitis associated with URTIs.
B. Helps to resolve nasal symptoms of URTIs with less need for antibiotics.
C. May shorten the duration of illness when used within 48 hours of URTI symptom onset.
D. All of the above.
Understanding skin barrier dysfunction in atopic dermatitis: the importance of clinically effective management strategies to break the itch-scratch-cycle
Session Time: 2.00-2:30pm
Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker: Dr Andrew Freeman
Accreditation code: A2503APP30
standards
1.5, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.2, 3.5, 3.6
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Understand the prevalence, impact, and physiology and clinical presentation of atopic dermatitis (AD)
• Explain skin barrier dysfunction in atopic dermatitis and the itchscratch-cycle
• Discuss the importance of clinically effective management strategies to break the itch-scratch-cycle
1. When educating atopic dermatitis (AD) patient as to the pathophysiology of AD, which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. Atopic dermatitis is only caused by environmental factors and having baths that are too long.
B. AD is a chronic, inflammatory skin disorder characterised by an itch-scratch cycle due to an impaired skin barrier.
C. The prevalence of atopic dermatitis is highest in older adults.
D. Moisturising can cure AD.
2. Which of the following advice will MOST LIKELY assist with the treatment and ongoing management of AD symptoms for a patient?
A. Evidence shows that using an antihistamine will assist with improving the itch associated with atopic dermatitis and prevent future flare-ups.
B. Using a moisturiser once a day only when symptoms are present is the best approach to treating and managing the symptoms of atopic dermatitis.
C. Avoiding trigger factors, skin barrier restoration using moisturiser, and a stepwise approach to treatment along with appropriate daily skin care principles is the best way to reduce the severity of atopic dermatitis.
D. Application of a mild potency topical corticosteroid cream and using a soap-free wash until acute symptoms resolve.
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
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3. How would you best explain to an AD patient as to why they have recurring flare-ups and require ongoing management?
A. Sufferers of atopic dermatitis are deficient in filaggrin (a structural protein) and ceramides (lipid molecules), which can cause skin barrier abnormalities.
B. Flare-ups are only related to diet so they must avoid food triggers like dairy, eggs, nuts, fish, shellfish and wheat.
C. Flare-ups are purely stress related so stress should be minimised.
D. AD only occurs when there is a strong family history of eczema, asthma or allergic rhinitis.
4. Which of the following is INCORRECT?
A. Multiple interacting factors like skin barrier dysfunction, microbiome dysbiosis, genetic defects, immune dysregulation, inflammation and the itch-scratch-cycle contribute to eczema.
B. Filaggrin gene mutation does not contribute to AD.
C. Itching is responsible for much of the disease burden for AD patients and their families.
D. Eczema can be a lifelong condition requiring symptom control to repair and maintain the skin barrier.
5. What statement best describes the evidence for recommending moisturisers for AD patients?
A. Moisturisers may prevent or delay the onset of AD, help prevent flare-ups and reduce usage of prescription treatment.
B. Moisturisers increase skin hydration, reduce inflammation and restore skin barrier function.
C. Moisturisers reduce flaking, cracking and redness and help to break the itch-scratch cycle.
D. All of the above.
Transform your pharmacy practice and unlock lasting loyalty
Session Time: 2:00-2:40pm
Venue: Arena 1A
Speaker: Kristy O’Brien
Accreditation code: A2503APP20
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Recognise that Specialised pro-resolving mediators and Palmitoylethanolamide (PEA) play a role in mitigating pain & inflammation in the body.
• Explain the true definition of probiotics, prebiotics, and postbiotics to ensure evidence-based health benefits are achieved, including an understanding of proposed mechanisms of action.
• Recognise the gut's role in skin conditions such as eczema.
• Understand when to recommend Postbiotic Lactobacillus acidophilus L-92™ for those with mild Eczema and dermatitis.
0.75 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1. What are specialised pro-resolving mediators (SPMs)?
A. Lipid derivatives that act as antibiotics against bacterial infections
B. Molecules derived from Omega 3 fatty acids that promote the resolution of inflammation without immunosuppression
C. Bioactive lipids that initiate the inflammatory response through the arachidonic acid pathway.
D. Compounds that restore homeostasis primarily by binding to PPAR-alpha receptors.
2. What dose of Palmitoylethanolamide (PEA) has been shown to be beneficial at the first sign of a migraine?
A. 200 mg
B. 300 mg
C. 600 mg
D. 1000 mg
1.5 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
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3. What is the key difference between a probiotic and a postbiotic?
A. Probiotics are live microorganisms that offer a health benefit to the host, whilst postbiotics are inanimate microbial cells, microbial cell fragments, or fermented end products that provide health benefits.
B. Probiotics are only found in supplements, while postbiotics are only found in food.
C. Probiotics are live microorganisms that offer a health benefit to the host, whilst postbiotics are a fuel source for beneficial bacteria in the intestines and are derived from inulin, or other fibres.
D. Probiotics are produced by the body, whilst postbiotics must be taken externally.
4. How does the gut influence skin conditions such as eczema?
A. The gut microbiome and its metabolites interact with M cells and dendritic cells, helping to regulate immune responses and reduce skin inflammation.
B. The gut directly produces collagen, strengthening the skin barrier and preventing eczema flare-ups.
C. The gastrointestinal tract stores excess histamine, which prevents allergic skin reactions like eczema.
D. It directly eliminates pathogenic bacteria in the intestines and strengthens the skin barrier.
5. In which situation is L-92™ Postbiotic best used?
A. In individuals with mild impetigo.
B. In individuals who are not using topical corticosteroids or other eczema treatments.
C. In adults who require immediate relief from mild eczema symptoms.
D. In adults to help reduce symptoms of mild eczema, such as itching and redness.
Exploring the vital role of ubiquinol in supporting healthy aging and longevity
Session Time: 2:35-3:05pm
Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker: Dr Denise Furness
Accreditation code: A2503APP8
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Understand the scientific evidence supporting Ubiquinol’s role in enhancing ATP production, mitochondrial function and reducing oxidative stress for healthy ageing.
• Describe insights into Ubiquinol’s effects on cardiovascular and cognitive health, focusing on its impact on endothelial function and cholesterol management, and oxidative stress reduction.
• List evidence-based strategies for incorporating Ubiquinol into Pharmacists patient care, particularly for those on medications to improve energy levels and enhance overall health outcomes.
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1. One of the main molecular mechanisms or key drivers of ageing is:
A. Increased telomere length.
B. DNA synthesis.
C. Mitochondrial dysfunction.
D. Polypeptide chain folding.
2. How does Ubiquinol support mitochondrial function?
A. Ubiquinol is needed to transfer electrons in the electron transfer chain to produce ATP.
B. Ubiquinol increases mitochondrial DNA replication.
C. Ubiquinol provides energy for the mitochondria without involving the electron transport chain.
D. Ubiquinol acts as a storage molecule.
1 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
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3. What person is LESS likely to benefit from Ubiquinol supplementation?
A. Those on statin medications.
B. Older adults who are physically active.
C. Those under 30, not on medication with high energy levels.
D. Those taking tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline.
4. How does Ubiquinol help balance oxidative stress in the body?
A. By neutralising free radicals and regenerating other antioxidants like vitamin E.
B. By increasing ATP synthesis in non-mitochondrial cells.
C. By enhancing cytokine production for a stronger inflammatory response.
D. By acting like a hormone and supporting bone health.
5. How does Ubiquinol support cardiovascular and brain health?
A. By enhancing LDL cholesterol production to maintain cellular energy.
B. By supporting ATP production and reducing oxidative damage to blood vessels improving endothelial cell function.
C. By increasing calcium deposition in arteries to prevent plaque formation.
D. By directly reducing blood pressure through its role as a chemical messenger in the brain.
Latest perspectives on pain relief post the scheduling changes
Session Time: 2:45-3:30pm Venue: Arena 1A
Speaker: Joyce McSwan, Dr Rose Cairns & Prof
Andrew McLachlan
Accreditation code: A2503APP4
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Identify contributing factors and risks of paracetamol overdose
• Match appropriate first-line acute pain relief options with guideline recommendations
• Design pain management options suitable for multiple common acute pain occasions and/or multiple people in a household
1. Which of the following are contributors to paracetamol overdose?
A. Incorrect dose.
B. Incorrect dosing interval.
C. Brand.
D. Day of the week.
E. Both A and B.
2. True or false, unrealistic expectations of pain relief is a risk factor for paracetamol overdose
A. True.
B. False.
3. In which of the following conditions is ibuprofen an appropriate first-line analgesic?
A. Migraine.
B. Low back pain.
C. Sore throat pain.
D. Period pain.
E. All of the above.
0.75 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1.5 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
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4. Which of the following are important to cover with patients?
A. Treatment expectations.
B. Appropriate dosing.
C. What to do if pain relief is ineffective.
D. All of the above.
5. Which of the following is not appropriate to consider when recommending pain relief for a family
A. Age of patients.
B. Day of the week.
C. Appropriate pain occasions.
D. Formulation preferences.
E. Cost.
6. When taken as directed at over-the-counter doses, in patients without contraindications or precautions, ibuprofen has the same low risk of gastrointestinal side effects as paracetamol.
A. False.
B. True.
Empower her – probiotics in women’s health – science and application for pharmacy
Session Time: 3:10-3:40pm
Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker: Dr Moira Bradfield Strydom Accreditation code: A2503APP11
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Explain the importance of Lactobacilli in a healthy vaginal microbiome and the impacts of disruption to microbial balance in common presenting infections of the female genitourinary system.
• Describe the key considerations when selecting an effective probiotic for conditions of the female vaginal microbiome.
• Demonstrate ability to identify presenting symptoms and conditions for referral.
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1. What is the role of Lactobacilli in the vaginal microbiome?
A. To produce lactic acid and hydrogen peroxide to maintain healthy pH and inhibit the growth of pathogens.
B. Digest nutrients that are then absorbed into the blood stream.
C. Contribute to the fermentation of non-digestible substrates to support a healthy digestive system.
D. Aid contraception.
2. What are some common presenting infections of the female genitourinary system that benefit from probiotic supplementation in a pharmacy setting?
A. Reflux, indigestion.
B. Premenstrual tension.
C. Bacterial vaginosis, vulvovaginal candidiasis, aerobic vaginitis, urinary tract infections.
D. Allergic rhinitis.
1 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
Click Here to Access This Assessment
3. What are key considerations when selecting an effective probiotic?
A. Strain specificity: Strains with proven efficacy for condition being treated.
B. CFU count: Sufficient colony-forming units for clinical effectiveness, as established in clinical evidence relevant for the condition being treated.
C. Dosage frequency: Aligned to symptom severity and chronicity.
D. Mode of delivery: Delivery methods for targeted action and patient convenience.
E. All of the above.
4. What are the advantages of prescribing a probiotic when a patient is receiving antibiotic therapy?
A. Save the patient time, so they don’t have to come back to the pharmacy.
B. There are no advantages, as the antibiotic will reduce the efficacy of the probiotic.
C. The patient will not have to eat fiber rich fruits and vegetables if they are taking a probiotic.
D. Reduced disruption to the gut microbiome and reduction of antibiotic-associated diarrhea or UTI recurrence.
5. To achieve best patient outcomes, it is important to prescribe a probiotic that is
A. Applied topically.
B. Kept in the fridge.
C. Formulated with probiotic strains with proven efficacy in the presenting condition.
D. The highest CFU count available.
Harm Minimisation Stream
Session Time: 4:00-5:30pm Venue: Arena 1A
Speaker: Dr Dean Membrey, Dr Paul MacCartney, Alice Norville, and Professor Geoff Sussman
Accreditation code: A2503APP28
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Appreciate the role of LAIB in broadening patient choice in opioid agonist therapy
• Understand the different storage requirements and injection techniques between different LAIB products
• Identify the role of pharmacies in helping patients access this important treatment.
• Understand the prevalence of Alcohol Use Disorder in Australia
• Discuss the best practice treatment for Alcohol Use Disorder
• Describe the pharmacist’s role in identifying need and supporting appropriate treatment
• List the general aims of a drug checking service
• Describe the analytical methods commonly used by drug checking services
• Describe the common adulterants and/or substitutions that may be detected, and the potential harms associated with these
• Describe the role that pharmacists can play in the delivery of drug checking services
• List the organisations responsible for drugs in sport
• Provide an overview of the drugs and methods included in the WADA code
• Describe the risks of illegal use of banned substances
1. Long-acting injectable buprenorphine preparations can be safely administered by which route?
A. Intramuscular.
B. Intravenous.
C. Oral.
D. Subcutaneous.
E. Transdermal.
1.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
3 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
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2. Buvidal can be administered at which sites of the body?
A. Gluteal.
B. Thigh.
C. Abdomen.
D. Deltoids.
E. All of the above.
3. Sublocade can be administered at which sites of the body?
A. Gluteal.
B. Thigh.
C. Abdomen.
D. Deltoids.
E. All of the above.
4. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Sublocade must be discarded after twelve weeks at room temperature.
B. Patients can be dispensed their LAIB product to take to their doctor’s appointment.
C. Storage of Buvidal requires refrigeration.
D. Patients must be in moderate to severe withdrawal from other opioids before direct induction onto an LAIB product.
E. There is a higher likelihood of precipitated withdrawal from LAIB induction compared with sublingual preparations.
5. Increased involvement of pharmacies in administering LAIB can:
A. Improve access to LAIB in remote and regional areas.
B. Improve continuity of care.
C. Potentially be utilised to resolve workforce capacity issues.
D. Increase convenience for patients.
E. All of the above.
6. How many people in Australia are estimated to have AUD?
A. <100,000.
B. 100,000 -500,000.
C. 500,001- 1 million.
D. 1-2 million.
E. >2 million.
7. What percentage of people with Alcohol Use Disorder (AUD) currently receive the first line pharmacotherapies as per the Guidelines?
A. <5%
B. 5-10%
C. 11-15%
D. 15-20%
E. >20%
8. Which of the following medications have been found to be of benefit in AUD?
A. Naltrexone.
B. Topiramate.
C. Baclofen.
D. Prazosin.
E. All of the above.
9. Which of the following are contraindications to prescription of Naltrexone?
A. Obesity.
B. Abnormal Liver Function Tests.
C. Cirrhosis.
D. Intercurrent opioid use.
E. Diazepam use.
10. Which of the following are appropriate roles for pharmacists in helping people with AUD?
A. Identifying people at risk.
B. Asking brief screening questions.
C. Giving accurate information about treatment options.
D. Reassuring prescribers about medication safety.
E. All of the above.
11. Early iterations of drug checking services aimed to detect adulterated LSD. During which decade did this begin?
A. 1960s.
B. 1970s.
C. 1980s.
D. 1990s.
12. Which of the following is commonly described as a primary aim of drug checking services?
A. To reduce the risk of overdose by confiscating potentially dangerous drugs.
B. To provide information that supports service users to make decisions that reduce the risk of harm from drug use.
C. To encourage abstinence by informing service users about the dangers associated with drug use.
D. To provide information to law enforcement regarding drug supply trends at festivals.
13. Which of the following statements about chemical analysis is correct?
A. Gas chromatography mass spectrometry (GCMS) can only be used at fixed sites.
B. Reagent testing can be used to determine drug purity.
C. Fourier transform infrared spectroscopy (FTIR) is limited to detecting a single substance within a sample.
D. Test strips may be used to detect nitazenes and/or fentanyl in a sample.
14. Which drug is often detected in pills at higher-than-expected dosages?
A. Ketamine.
B. 2C-B.
C. MDMA.
D. Cocaine.
15. What are some benefits associated with involving pharmacists in drug checking services?
A. Pharmacists are skilled at providing tailored information based on the individual needs and risk factors of each service user.
B. Pharmacists are currently able to provide drug checking services in all Australian states and territories.
C. Pharmacists can provide accurate dosing information for novel benzodiazepines and ketamine analogues.
D. It is necessary for a pharmacist, nurse, or doctor to be involved in the destruction of samples following analysis.
16. Who is responsible for the administration of Drugs in sport in Australia?
A. WADA.
B. Sport Integrity Australia.
C. Individual Sport bodies.
D. Federal Government.
17. Which type of samples are not taken for testing?
A. Urine.
B. Hair.
C. Skin.
D. Blood.
18. Which sport are Beta blocker not banned?
A. Archery.
B. Darts.
C. Golf.
D. Athletics.
19. Which is not a risk from the use of Anabolic Steroids?
A. Development of breast tissue.
B. Increased body hair.
C. Permanent high voice.
D. Menstruation problems.
20. What medications were the 3 highest positive drug tests in minors by WADA?
A. Diuretics.
B. Stimulants.
C. Anabolic steroids.
D. Beta Blockers.
ACCREDITATION DETAILS AND MCQs FOR SATURDAY 22nd MARCH SESSIONS
Individualising hormonal contraceptive choices
Session Time: 10:45-11:15am
Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker(s): Suzanna Nash & Natalie French
Accreditation code: A2503APP29
standards
1.5, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.2, 3.5
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Recall key considerations for delivering individualised contraceptive care
• Recognise the impact of non-contraceptive benefits in patient choice of contraceptive
• Recognise the importance of full history taking in re-supply of contraceptives
1. Which of the following should be considered when delivering individualised contraceptive care?
A. The cost of the contraceptive and ease of use.
B. Safety of the preferred contraceptive.
C. Non-contraceptive benefits such as lighter periods or improved acne.
D. All of the above.
2. Sally is a 27-year-old woman working casual shift work as a paramedic. She often takes night shifts to increase her earnings. She is currently sexually active with her fiancé. They have plans to try for a family in the next few years.
Abbreviated medical history:
• No history of migraine with aura
• No personal or family history of VTE or cancer
• No medical conditions
• Takes naproxen occasionally for period pain, and paracetamol for headaches.
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding her contraceptive needs?
A. A POP that she has to take at the same time each day would be suitable due to her changing schedule.
B. A reversible contraceptive would be preferred due to her future family planning aims.
C. A combined oral contraceptive that does not cause water retention would be preferred.
D. Depot medroxyprogesterone would be preferred due to its set-and-forget nature.
3. Sree Devi is a 40-year-old woman who works as a retail manager. She has presented for a re-supply of her combined oral contraceptive pill. She states that it “has been great” and she “just wants to keep taking it, I am used to taking something every day”. As the pharmacist re-
0.5 Group 1
(Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1 Group 2 CPD Credits
(Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
Click Here to Access This Assessment
supplying, you take a full history.
Abbreviated medical history:
• She is currently sexually active with her casual boyfriend of 3 months, previously in a long-term relationship for 10 years
• No history of migraine with aura
• Had a DVT six months ago following an operation
• No personal or family history of cancer
• No medical conditions
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding her contraceptive needs?
A. A progesterone-only pill would be a suitable option.
B. Resupply of her contraceptive would be appropriate.
C. Referral for a LARC would be the most appropriate option.
D. None of the above.
Cultural Engagement Forum
Session Time: 10:45am-1:00pm
Venue: Meeting Rooms 7 and 8
Speaker: Dr Sarira El-Den, Alex Burke, Professor Rebekah Moles, and Dr Jack Collins
Accreditation code: A2503APP22
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Know the currently funded programs that pharmacy provides to assist Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander communities.
• Understand the past, current and future research projects that pharmacy are involved in to improve services for Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Communities.
• Appreciate the elements important in co-design strategies.
• Understand the differences between Standard Mental Health First Aid training and Aboriginal Mental Health First Aid training.
1. Which of the following programs for Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander consumers accessing pharmaceuticals and pharmacy services is NOT currently funded by the Australian Government?
A. Discharge counselling in hospital.
B. Closing The Gap Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme Co-payment program.
C. The CPA Indigenous Dose Administration Aids program.
D. Indigenous Health Services Pharmacy Support Program.
2. Which of the following combinations of research projects aiming to improve the role pharmacists play in improving Aboriginal and Torres
Strait Islander Pharmaceutical Care have received large government-based grant funds?
A. YINDYAMARRA/MH-SACE/IPAC
B. MH-SPACE/IPAC/IMeRSe
C. CONNECTING THE DOTS/IPAC/IMeRSe
D. CURRICULUM/CONNECTING THE DOTS/YINDYAMARRA
1.0 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
2 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
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3. The Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Health Curriculum Framework consists of 8 underlying principles. Which of the following principles are pharmacy schools doing consistently well at meeting?
A. Leadership at all levels is key to supporting effective implementation of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health curricula.
B. Respectful partnerships and collaboration with shared responsibility between Aboriginal and Torres Strait Isander and non-Indigenous people are required in curriculum design and implementation.
C. Local context and diversity must be recognized.
D. None of the above.
4. Building meaningful relationships, engaging with the community in a culturally safe and appropriate manner, and understanding local history, culture and lore are all foundational elements and are intrinsically linked to effective co-design and co-development. Which of the following examples highlights the MOST effective co-design?
A. A project is developed by a non-Indigenous person to start, and they then try to convince community that it is a great idea.
B. The project involves First Nations team members to get the funds but is predominantly run my non-Indigenous leads.
C. Community identity an area of need and ask non-Indigenous partners to research the problem.
D. Community identify an area of need and work with non-indigenous partners to research a problem and teams of researchers from both Indigenous and non-Indigenous backgrounds work together at all phases.
5. Which of the following statements regarding Mental health First Aid (MHFA) is incorrect?
A. Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander MFS training can only be delivered by a First Nations Instructor.
B. MHFA training is mandatory for pharmacists to register with AHPRA.
C. Recent evidence demonstrates that multiple pharmacy schools across Australia now deliver MHFA training to pharmacy students.
D. Non-Indigenous people can attend Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander MHFA training delivered by a First Nations instructor.
The microbiome to wellness – beyond the gut-brain axis
Session Time: 11:20-11:50 am
Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker: Elenna Barton Accreditation code: A2503APP13
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Understand the relationship between the gut microbiome and disease states via gut-body axes
• Confidently explain the role of probiotics in supporting gut-brain, gut-immune, gut vagina, and gut-skin axes.
• Apply safety information when recommending specific probiotics and nutrients to support these gut axes in pharmacy.
1. Which type of bacteria is found in both the gut and the vagina and is integral for the balance of gut-vagina axis health?
A. Bacilli.
B. Bifidobacterium.
C. Lactococci.
D. Lactobacilli.
2. What probiotic strain was shown to be beneficial in supporting short chain fatty acid (SCFA) levels alongside probiotics?
A. Lactobacillus rhamnosus GR-1TM.
B. Bifidobacterium animalis ssp lactis (BB-12™).
C. Lactobacillus plantarum (CLEPIUS™ Lpla33™).
D. Lactobacillus reuteri RC-14TM.
3. What two vitamins support methylation of oestrogens?
A. Folate and Vitamin B12.
B. Vitamin D.
C. Calcium.
D. BB-12®.
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
Click Here to Access This Assessment
Advances in the management of seborrheic dermatitis - a guide for pharmacists
Session Time: 11:55-12:25pm
Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker: Dr Melissa Manahan
Accreditation code: A2503APP16
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Define seborrheic dermatitis, it’s causes, prevalence, differential diagnosis, and epidemiology
• Outline the key features of seborrheic dermatitis, including signs, symptoms, and triggers
• Explain current medical and lifestyle interventions for the treatment and management of seborrheic dermatitis
• Summarise the latest treatment advances for seborrheic dermatitis
1. Which of the following is a differential diagnosis for seborrhoeic dermatitis?
A. Psoriasis.
B. Actinic keratoses.
C. Tinea.
D. All of the above.
2. Which is thought to be the main contributor to seborrhoeic dermatitis?
A. An overgrowth of tinea.
B. An overgrowth of Malassezia restricta.
C. An overgrowth of Cutibacterium acne.
D. An overgrowth of Staphyloccocus aureus.
3. Treatment for seborrhoeic dermatitis does NOT include:
A. Topical antifungals.
B. Topical salicylic acid.
C. Topical steroids.
D. Oral steroids.
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
Click Here to Access This Assessment
4. Which of the following are possible consequences of unmanaged seborrhoeic dermatitis?
A. Secondary bacterial infection.
B. Hair loss.
C. A and B.
D. None of the above - Seborrhoeic dermatitis is just cosmetic.
5. If a case of seborrhoeic dermatitis is unresponsive to usual treatment what should be considered?
A. Malassezia resistance.
B. Incorrect diagnosis.
C. Other lifestyle factors.
D. All of the above.
Chief Pharmacist Network - Clinical governance in practice/ Driving adoption of patient-reported measures (PRMs)
Session Time: 1:30-2:00pm Venue: Meeting Room 9
Speaker: Natalie Willis & Shelley Thomson Accreditation code: A2503APP14
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Summarise key clinical governance-focused changes to the AS85000:2024 compared to the AS85000:2017
• Identify activities that facilitate and demonstrate practical implementation of clinical governance
• Understand the importance of consumer engagement for clinical governance
• Describe the importance of patient-related measures (PRMs)
1. The AS85000:2024 clinical governance definition states that accountability for clinical governance in a community pharmacy lies with:
A. Owners, staff, patients, consumers, and stakeholders.
B. Pharmacy staff.
C. Chief pharmacist.
D. Pharmacy owner.
2. Clinical governance responsibility rests with:
A. All staff at all levels of the organisation.
B. Pharmacy staff.
C. Pharmacy owner.
D. Pharmacist manager.
3. The new term used consistently throughout the AS85000:2024 Clinical Governance clause is ‘safety and…’
A. Efficacy.
B. Partnership.
C. Quality.
D. Culture.
1.0 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
2 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
Click Here to Access This Assessment
4. Which one of the following statements is incorrect in relation to clinical governance activities when implementing patient services:
A. As our location has a high number of families with teenagers, the pharmacy is implementing a mild to moderate acne clinic day each week.
B. Because our pharmacists are busy conducting services, our very experienced pharmacy assistant now does all the prescription checking.
C. We have provided our team of pharmacists with a subsidy so they can complete a prescribing pharmacist qualification.
D. Having carried out Urinary Tract Infection clinics in our pharmacy for a year, we are now re-visiting our pharmacy procedure to improve the process of conducting the clinics.
5. Clinical governance is ultimately a:
A. Set of procedures.
B. Section of accreditation criteria.
C. Quality team initiative.
D. Whole-of-system approach.
6. Which of the following best describes the role of consumer engagement in healthcare?
A. Monitoring performance in healthcare services.
B. Ensuring compliance with established standards.
C. Actively participating in their healthcare and providing data on patient experience and health outcomes.
D. Identifying and managing risk.
7. What are PRMs?
A. Professional Risk Management.
B. Patient Reported Measures.
C. Public Relations Metrics.
D. Performance Review Methods.
8. What results are more commonly measured than PRMs in healthcare as per Shelley’s presentation?
A. Clinical indicators and process measures.
B. Process measures and financial performance metrics.
C. Staff training completion rates and clinical indicators.
D. Risk scores and financial performance metrics.
9. The Australian Community Pharmacy Standard (AS85000) was written to align with the:
A. Australian Commission on Safety and Quality in Health Care (the Commission)’s National Safety and Quality Primary and Community Healthcare Standards.
B. Australian Healthcare & Hospital Association’s Australian Health Review.
C. National Health and Medical Research Council (NHMRC)’s Clinical Practice Guidelines.
D. Royal Australian College of General Practitioners Standards for General Practices 5th Edition.
10. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of PRM collection in community pharmacy?
A. Cost & resource efficiency.
B. Tailored software solutions.
C. Alignment with consumer/patient expectations.
D. Provides evidence for informed decisions.
See the big picture: Diabetes, eye health and the pharmacist
Session Time: 2:00-2:30pm Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker: Dr Ben LaHood Accreditation code: A2503APP24
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Describe the impact diabetes can have on the eye.
• Advise patients with diabetes regarding frequency of eye care
• Identify patients suffering from dry eye symptoms secondary to diabetes.
• Make recommendations regarding lubricant eye drops for patients with diabetes suffering from dry eye symptoms
1. Which of the following is NOT a potential ocular side effect of diabetes?
A. Dry eye.
B. Retinopathy.
C. Marcus-Gunn Jaw Winking.
D. Cataract.
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
Click Here to Access This Assessment
2. Which of the following statements regarding diabetes and dry eye are correct?
A. Patients with diabetes who experience peripheral neuropathy are also more likely to have dry eye, due to reduced corneal innervation disrupting the tear feedback loop.
B. Excess blood glucose, as present in a patient experiencing hyperglycaemia can be toxic to the meibomian glands.
C. Metformin use has been identified as a risk factor for dry eyes, independent of the patient’s diabetic status.
D. All of the above.
3. When discussing the need for eye exams with a patient with diabetes, which of the following would be most useful to discuss:
A. The current trend for cat-eye glasses.
B. The fact that their optometrist or ophthalmologist may need to dilate their pupils causing possible light sensitivity and blurriness, so they should plan appropriately.
C. A patient with diabetes should receive exactly the same eye exam as a patient without diabetes.
D. All of the above.
4. Using the two-layered tear film model, which layer could possibly be affected by dry eyes secondary to diabetes?
A. The thin oily layer on the top of the tear film ONLY.
B. The watery layer that makes up the bulk of the tear film ONLY.
C. Both the oily and watery layers may be affected.
D. Neither. Diabetes secondary to dry eye is more likely to affect the eyelash follicles.
5. Which combination of ingredients may be a suitable recommendation for a lubricating eye drop for a patient with diabetes complaining of dry eye symptoms?
A. An eye drop that combines and oily component and watery component, as dry eye secondary to diabetes may affect either or both layers of the tear film.
B. An eye drop with key ingredients focusing only on preservatives, to help maintain tear film stability.
C. An eye drop that has the highest available concentration of water, to offset aqueous deficient dry eye that is always caused by diabetes.
D. An eye drop that only supplements the oily layer, seeing as diabetes exclusively impacts the oily layer of the tear film through meibomian gland dysfunction.
Pharmacy market insights and a financial update in the light of 60DD and 8CPA: a deep dive into the economics and business perspectives of pharmacy professional services
Session Time: 2:00-2:30pm
Venue: Meeting Rooms 7 and 8
Speaker: Frank Sirianni
Accreditation code: A2503APP18
standards
1.5, 4.2, 4.3, 4.4, 4.5
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Provide an update on the impact of 60 day dispensing to date in the light of over 40 years of pharmacy financial and economic trends
• Provide a pharmacy market and valuation update
• Discuss the current pharmacy market climate and factors driving market sentiment
• Provide an economic outlook for pharmacy owners to consider
1. Frank presented the updated capitalisation rates for Australian pharmacy business sales based on recent data. Based on the data presented, what was the Australian median capitalisation rate for pharmacies located in metropolitan areas?
A. 20.15%
B. 14.65%
C. 16.9%
D. 17.2%
2. The Attain Market Sentiment Surveys suggest that current pharmacy owners consider two broad options. Which of the following options was not highlighted in the slides presented by Frank?
A. Bring in a Junior Partner.
B. Sell within next 10 years.
C. Will not sell within next 10 years.
D. Do nothing.
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
Click Here to Access This Assessment
3. The market for pharmacy business sales has changed due to the impact of 60DD, 8CPA, and the current economic conditions. Frank mentioned 4 key views of the pharmacy market based upon the evidence to date. Which of the following was not a view of the current pharmacy market expressed by Frank?
A. Increased capitalisation rates significantly due to rising interest rates.
B. Capitalisation rates are relatively steady.
C. No broad signs of market stress.
D. Premium in some sites - strong demand for low risk, high profit sites.
E. Some locations taking longer to sell… and more difficult to manage, unviable.
4. Regarding the current approach to pharmacy valuation for lending purposes, Frank discussed a range of issues being addressed in completing valuations for banks. These included banking climate as well as differences between market rates and lending rates. Frank highlighted that in 2024, the median difference between prices paid for pharmacies and value calculated for lending purposes has decreased to around: A. 5.1%
5. Frank suggested 4 key take home messages. Which of the following was not one of those messages?
A. Increasing risks for some pharmacies will impact value.
B. Value and price cannot just be based on “best year”.
C. Now is the time to reassess your business model.
D. No need to change.
Chronic pain and medicinal cannabis
Session Time: 2:35-3:05pm
Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker: Laila Moola
Accreditation code: A2503APP5
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Understand the basics of medicinal cannabis
• Evaluate treatment options for chronic pain
• Improve patient outcomes through education
1. 60-day dispensing has been predicted to impact community pharmacy significantly. Which of the following is incorrect?
A. Closure of pharmacies.
B. Addition of extra health services to rural Australia.
C. Medication wastage.
D. Loss of associated health and pharmaceutical services (extra contact points).
2. Medicinal cannabis was legalised in Australia in which year?
A. 2010.
B. 2014.
C. 2016.
D. 2020.
3. Which are the most highly prescribed indications for medicinal cannabis according to TGA data?
A. Sleep & muscle spasms.
B. Autism & depression.
C. Chronic pain & anxiety.
D. Anxiety & endometriosis.
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
Click Here to Access This Assessment
4. According to Penington Institute, the estimated revenue for 2023 was:
A. $100-200 million
B. $200 - 300 million
C. $300- 400 million
D. $400- 500 million
5. Pharmacists are hesitant to adopt medicinal cannabis into dispensing for numerous reasons. Which is not a commonly reported reason?
A. My customers are not interested in ‘alternative’ therapy.
B. I don’t know how to intervene with my current customers.
C. My pharmacy is too busy.
D. It’s too expensive.
Practical guide to diabetes-specific nutritional formulas: Implementation strategies for Pharmacy Practice
Session Time: 3:30-4:00 pm
Venue: Meeting Rooms 5 and 6
Speaker: Dr Shannon Lin
Accreditation code: A2503APP17
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Understand the role of Diabetes-Specific Nutritional Formulas (DSNFs)
• Integrate DSNFs into evidence-based strategies
• Develop confidence in guidance on appropriate use of DSNFs
1. Which of the following benefits have Diabetes-Specific Nutritional Formulas (DSNFs) been clinically shown to provide for people with Type 2 diabetes?
A. Reduction in HbA1c.
B. Weight management.
C. Improved body composition.
D. All of the above.
2. According to the new Consensus statement, DSNFs may be particularly valuable for those using GLP-1RA medications.
A. True.
B. False.
3. Which group of people with T2D might benefit the most from Diabetes-Specific Nutritional Formulas (DSNFs)?
A. Those struggling to manage their blood glucose.
B. Those with consistently high HbA1c.
C. Individuals using GLP-1 medication.
D. All of the above.
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
Click Here to Access This Assessment
4. Which of the following statements about Diabetes Specific Nutritional Formulas (DSNFs) is true?
A. DSNFs are only for people with Type 1 diabetes.
B. DSNFs are specialised forms of nutrition therapy designed to manage malnutrition, dysglycaemia, and cardiometabolic risk factors.
C. DSNFs are high in refined sugars to provide quick energy.
D. DSNFs are not suitable for people with impaired glucose tolerance (pre-diabetes).
5. Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes between Diabetes Specific Nutritional Formulas (DSNFs) and Very Low Energy Diet (VLED). products?
A. VLED products are designed for people with diabetes only, while DSNFs are for weight loss.
B. DSNFs are intended to replace all meals in a diet, while VLED products are not.
C. VLED products are primarily for managing obesity and can be used as a total diet replacement under medical supervision, while DSNFs are tailored for people with diabetes or impaired glucose tolerance and are not intended to replace all meals.
D. DSNFs are high in calories and fats, while VLED products are low in calories and high in proteins.
The future of pharmacy is in proactive recruitment: A significant component of community pharmacy workforce transformation
Session Time: :3:30-4:00pm
Venue: Meeting Rooms 7 and 8
Speaker: Ann Coo
Accreditation code: A2503APP23
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Understand how proactive recruitment is transforming the community pharmacy talent acquisition process
• Describe a step-by-step approach to building a sustainable, highperforming workforce.
• Walk away with practical actions to implement in your pharmacy immediately.
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1. What is Community Pharmacy as a triple service effect?
A. A professional service.
B. A public service.
C. A social service.
D. All the above.
2. The #1 root cause why we have a never-ending pharmacy workforce dilemma starting from the part of the International Pharmacists cohort as part of the workforce Cycle?
A. Recruitment in general is expensive.
B. In 2020, we only have reactive system available for community pharmacy owners.
C. Attrition rate has increased significantly post pandemic.
D. We have retention issue and therefore leads to decreased attrition rate.
3. The proactive system works as it gives the following to both parties (employer and pharmacist asset):
A. Huge savings for employer and huge growth for international pharmacies.
B. It secures and exchanges certainty, clarity and commitment between the 2 parties.
C. Higher retention rate than the standard industry average of retention.
D. All the above.
1 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
Click Here to Access This Assessment
4. What key elements are we building in Proactive System for our community pharmacy business?
A. A team.
B. Pharmacist.
C. An intern.
A. A Pharmacist Asset.
5. The # 1 cause of ultimate failure in community pharmacy business?
A. No funds.
B. No system.
C. No loyal pharmacist.
D. Mismanagement.
Top 10 tips from PDL
Session Time: 4:00-4:30pm
Venue: Meeting Rooms 7 and 8
Speaker: Kylie Neville & Simone Henriksen Accreditation code: A2503APP6
standards
After completing this activity, pharmacists should be able to:
• Identify the common sources of errors that arise in pharmacy practice
• Understand how a risk management tool may be used to identify risk
• Develop strategies for minimising risk in the pharmacy
1. Which of the following are common sources of error when dispensing?
A. Selection of the wrong strength of a drug.
B. Selection of the wrong drug.
C. A patient has collected another patient's medication.
D. The directions on the label are incorrect.
E. All of the above.
2. The PDL Risk Assessment Tool is designed to be used across a range of pharmacy practice settings.
A. True
B. False
3. You are wanting to implement a new vaccination service in the pharmacy. Which of the following components of service delivery need to be considered when assessing risk?
A. Legislation, number of staff, professional standards, ethical and clinical guidelines.
B. Return on investment, staff training, professional standards, ethical and clinical guidelines.
C. Vaccination room equipment, professional standards and clinical guidelines.
D. None of the above
0.5 Group 1 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance only)
Please self-record Group 1 Credits using the SelfRecord CPD function on your account.
1 Group 2 CPD Credit (Presentation attendance and submission of MCQ responses)
Click Here to Access This Assessment
4. Choose the most correct statement.
A. Regular reviews of pharmacy services are important for promoting continuous quality improvement and optimising patient outcomes.
B. Regular reviews of pharmacy services are only needed in response to an incident.
C. Regular reviews of pharmacy services should be scheduled however, these do not necessarily need to be documented.
D. None of the above.
5. The three most common sources of patient complaints are:
A. Incorrect advertising, discrimination and incorrect pricing.
B. Incorrect advice, pharmacist declined to supply, out of stock medicines.
C. Pharmacist declined supply, dissatisfaction with pharmacy service, inadequate or incorrect advice.
D. Pharmacist declined supply, breach of patient privacy, poor service.
Frequently Asked Questions
Q: Where can I find the College trade stand?
A: You can find us at Trade Stand 343, inside the Trade Exhibition, by Trade Entry/Exit 2. Visit us to discover how our range of full scope courses and membership options can elevate your practice! Come and chat to us to learn more!
Q: Where can I log my CPD points?
A: To log your CPD points, you need to have signed up with the College as either a College Member or Subscriber. If you have not yet done this, you can do this by clicking here.
At minimum, you must be a Subscriber of the College. It is free to sign up as a Subscriber, however, some functions of GuildEd such as the learning plan creation tool, and self-record CPD menu, will not be available to you as these functions are member-only benefits.
To collect your CPD points, you will need to enrol in and complete the courses associated with each session on our learning platform; GuildEd. Each session page in this booklet provides a link to the Group 2 CPD course. Make sure you follow these links to ensure your points are properly recorded. If you are wishing to record Group 1 CPD credits (if you are not completing the assessment, or if you have not passed the assessment), you can record these credits by using the Self-Record CPD function on your GuildEd account.
Click Here to Log In to the Portal
Q: I can’t log in – what should I do?
A: If you are having trouble logging, please follow these steps:
1. Verify the Website: Ensure you’re using the correct website by clicking on the Group 2 course links provided in each session in this booklet.
2 Reset Your Password: If you still can’t log in, try resetting your password by using the “Forgot Password” option on the login page of GuildEd. You should receive a password reset email within 30 minutes. Be sure to check your Junk/Spam or Social/Promotions folders (if you use Gmail).
3 Contact Support: If you continue to have log in issues, please contact our helpdesk by sending a support request Please ensure you include your full name, and the email address you are using to try to login in the body of your email Alternatively, come see our team at Trade Stand 343!
Turn page for more FAQs
Q: How do I enrol into APP2025 courses?
A: To enrol in a course, select the checkbox in the top-right corner of each course tile on the GuildEd APP2025 catalogue. The selected courses will be added to a list below the search bar. You can enrol in multiple courses by ticking more checkboxes. Complete your enrolment by clicking "Enrol All" under the list of selected courses.
Q: I am logged in, but I cannot access the courses.
A: If you're logged in but unable to access the courses:
• Ensure you have access to the APP2025 menu item within the Conferences menu item shown below.
If you do not have this menu item, you do not have the correct permissions assigned to your account. This may be because either you did not select that you intended to collect CPD points on your registration, or because the correct permissions have not yet been applied to your account – this may be the case if you registered at the conference Please reach out to our helpdesk by sending a support ticket by clicking here. Be sure to include your full name and the email address you use to log in. Our team will review your access settings and make any necessary adjustments or provide further instructions. Alternatively, come see our team at Trade Stand 343!
• If you do have access to the APP2025 menu item, but are unable to enrol into a course, please take note of the enrolment start date within the course description. Each course enrolment will only open when the conference session begins.
• If you have access to the APP2025 menu item, and the conference session has begun, but you are still unable to enrol into a course, please reach out to our helpdesk by sending a support ticket by clicking here. Alternatively, come see our team at Trade Stand 343!
Q: I failed the Group 2 assessment, can you please reset my attempts so I can claim Group 2 credits?
A: Unfortunately, CPD activities cannot be reset if you do not pass within two attempts. If you are unable to pass the assessment, you can still claim Group 1 CPD credits for the session by self-recording using the Self-Record CPD function in your account.
