Ready for B2 First for Schools - Sample

Page 1

Ready for B2 First for Schools

8 Practice Tests

With step-by-step guidance and tips

With Downloadable Audio

The pleasure of learning

FOR THE REVISED EXAM 2024

Martin Shepherd | Simara Dal’Alba | Sarah Little
PUBLISHING

Martin Shepherd

Simara Dal' Alba

Sarah Little

Ready for B2 First for Schools

Contents Introduction 4 Practical Tips 6 Test 1 12 Paper 1 Reading and Use of English .................................................................................................. 12 Paper 2 Writing 22 Paper 3 Listening ............................................................................................................................... 24 Paper 4 Speaking 28 Test 2 34 Paper 1 Reading and Use of English 34 Paper 2 Writing 44 Paper 3 Listening 46 Paper 4 Speaking ............................................................................................................................... 50 Test 3 .................................................................................................................................................. 56 Paper 1 Reading and Use of English 56 Paper 2 Writing ................................................................................................................................... 66 Paper 3 Listening 68 Paper 4 Speaking 72 Test 4 78 Paper 1 Reading and Use of English 78 Paper 2 Writing 88 Paper 3 Listening ............................................................................................................................... 90 Paper 4 Speaking 94 Test 5 100 Paper 1 Reading and Use of English .................................................................................................. 100 Paper 2 Writing 110 Paper 3 Listening 112 Paper 4 Speaking 116 Test 6 122 Paper 1 Reading and Use of English 122 Paper 2 Writing .................................................................................................................................... 132 Paper 3 Listening 134 Paper 4 Speaking ............................................................................................................................... 138 Test 7 .................................................................................................................................................. 144 Paper 1 Reading and Use of English 144 Paper 2 Writing 154 Paper 3 Listening 156 Paper 4 Speaking 160 Test 8 166 Paper 1 Reading and Use of English .................................................................................................. 166 Paper 2 Writing 176 Paper 3 Listening ............................................................................................................................... 178 Paper 4 Speaking 182 Useful Expressions 188 Phrasal Verbs 190 Transcripts 192

B2 First for Schools

The updated B2 First for Schools exam (for exam sessions from January 2024) is made up of four papers developed to test students’ English language skills. It shows that a student has the language skills they need to communicate in an English-speaking environment.

Writing 1 hour 20 minutes

1 Essay Candidates are required to write an essay giving their opinion on the essay title using the ideas given and providing an idea of their own. 1 (compulsory) 2

Candidates have a choice of task. In questions 2-4, the tasks provide candidates with a clear context, topic, purpose and target reader for their writing. 3 (choose one)

4 Introduction
Part & Task Type Format Number of Questions 1 Multiple-choice cloze A cloze test containing eight gaps and followed by four-option multiple-choice items. 8 2 Open cloze A cloze text containing eight gaps. 8 3 Word formation A text containing eight gaps. Each gap corresponds to a word. The stems of the missing words are given beside the text and must be changed to form the missing word. 8 4 Key word transformations Six separate items, each with a lead-in sentence and a gapped second sentence to be completed in two to five words, one of which is a given ‘key word’. 6 5 Multiple choice A text followed by six four-option multiple-choice questions. 6 6 Gapped text A text from which sentences have been removed and placed in jumbled order after the text. Candidates must decide from where in the text the sentences have been removed. 6 7 Multiple matching A text or several short texts preceded by multiplematching questions. Candidates must match prompts to elements in the text. 10 Part & Task Type Format Number of Tasks
essay, review, story
From the following: article, email/letter,
Reading and Use of English 1 hour
15 minutes

Listening 40 minutes

5 Introduction Part & Task Type Format Number of Questions 1 Multiple choice Eight short unrelated extracts, of approximately 30 seconds each, from monologues or exchanges between interacting speakers. There is one multiple-choice question per extract, each with three options. 8 2 Sentence completion A monologue lasting approximately 3-4 minutes. Candidates are required to complete the sentences with information heard on the recording. 10 3 Multiple matching Five short related monologues of approximately 30 seconds each. The five multiple-matching questions require selection of the correct option from a list of eight. 5 4 Multiple choice An interview or an exchange between two speakers lasting approximately 3-4 minutes. There are seven multiple-choice questions, each with three options. 7
Part & Task Type Format Time 1 Interview Giving information about themselves and expressing opinions about various topics. 2 minutes 2 Long turn Talking on their own about something: comparing, describing and expressing opinions. 4 minutes 3 Collaborative task Exchanging ideas, expressing and justifying opinions, agreeing and/or disagreeing, suggesting, speculating, evaluating, reaching a decision through negotiation, etc. 4 minutes 4 Discussion Expressing and justifying opinions, agreeing and/or disagreeing. 4 minutes Speaking 14 minutes (per pair of candidates); 20 minutes (per group of three)

Part 1, page 12

Multiple-choice cloze

In Part 1, you should look at the words immediately before and after the gap to help you decide what comes next. Read the gaps first, then look at the options. It’s a good idea to ignore the options that can’t be the right answer, such as because the collocation is wrong or the meaning is different, for example:

2 The answer must collate with the preposition of because this comes immediately after the gap.

3 The answer must be part of a common phrase using the verb be.

Part 2, page 13

Open cloze

In Part 2, the answer will always be only one word. Contractions such as ‘didn’t’ count as two words (did not). You should read the whole sentence to work out what’s missing. Think about the grammar of the sentence and try to identify any missing articles, auxiliary verbs, prepositions, linkers or parts of a phrasal verb, for example:

11 There is an interrogative pronoun missing here. Which one?

16 This gap needs an adverb to complete a comparison. What is it?

Part 3, page 14

Word formation

In Part 3, you need to understand the sentence to work out what type of word needs to go in the gap. Is the gap before or after a verb? It could be an adverb or a noun. Should it be positive or negative? You need to think about this if it’s an adjective too. If it’s a noun, think about whether it needs to be in the plural or singular form. Finally, it could be a verb. If so, what tense does it need to be in? Look at the word that comes immediately before the gap – what verb form follows this word, for example:

17 Here you need a verb in the base form. What is the verb referred to by the noun ‘response’?

20 Here the gap is before an adjective, so you need an adverb. What is the adverb that can be made from the noun ‘physical’?

Part 4, page 15

Word formation

Remember to read the instructions carefully in Part 4 – you should only write between two and five words. Even if you write a grammatically correct sentence, you won’t get any points if you write more than five words! You mustn’t change the word given in capital letters either. Even if it seems impossible to write the sentence without changing the word, it is possible so don’t change it! Read the first sentence, then look at the second sentence. What part of the first sentence is missing in the second sentence? Try to think of some other ways of expressing this same idea, for example:

26 What is a way of saying ‘received’ using the passive voice (‘was’)?

28 How can you express quantity using ‘number’?

29 What is a way of saying ‘must not’ using ‘allowed’? What other verb do you need to use?

6 Practical Tips
Paper 1: Reading and Use of English

Part 5, pages 16-17

Multiple choice

In Part 5, you will read a long text. The six multiple-choice questions test your ability to identify main ideas or details in the text. You may also be asked to look at a specific line or word in the text and deduce its meaning within the text. Some questions may test your ability to recognise the author’s purpose or intentions, i.e. what they want you to understand without saying so directly. The questions are always presented in the same order as the information in the text so you can work through the text in a logical order. Make sure you read the question, underline key words and then read the options carefully. The options will usually use synonyms for words in the text, not the exact words.

32 Read the description of Dorothy’s house and the surrounding area. What words or phrases imply the same ideas as one of the options?

36 What is the key word in the final paragraph that gives the answer to this question?

Part 6, pages 18-19

Gapped text

In Part 6, you are tested on your ability to follow the development of ideas and events throughout a text. Read the whole text before looking at the gaps and the sentences. Look for references, such as connectors or pronouns. When you have chosen your answer, read through the paragraph again to check that the sentence makes sense in that paragraph. For example:

38 Which sentence mentions the age of the place?

41 What could ‘something for everyone’ mean that it is a good place for?

Part 7, pages 20-21

Multiple matching

In Part 7, you need be able to locate information quickly in the text. There will be four texts or four paragraphs of one text to understand its main idea. Watch out for distractors in the text. For some questions, it’s likely that more than one of the texts uses similar words or ideas, so you need to find the text that matches the question exactly. Underline key words in the questions. Can you think of any synonyms or other ways of expressing the same idea? Look for these in the texts. For example:

50 Can you find a synonym for ‘thanks’ in any of the texts?

52 What does ‘expenses’ refer to?

Paper 2: Writing

Part 1, page 22

Question 1: writing an essay

1 Guidance:

• Plan your ideas before you write.

• Use both the notes (bullet points) and one idea of your own.

• Organise your essay into paragraphs that follow a logical order. Use linkers to connect the paragraphs.

• Try to vary your language. Read your essay through again. Have you repeated the same word several times? If so, could you use a synonym?

• Check your work for accuracy, punctuation and spelling.

7 Practical Tips

Part 2, page 23

Question 2: writing an article, a letter/email, an essay, a review, a story (‘First for Schools’ only).

2 Guidance:

• Answer all the questions then give additional information and reasons.

• Include examples to support your opinions and show the examiner that you are familiar with the blog.

• Check your work for accuracy, punctuation and spelling.

3 Guidance:

• Brainstorm some cultural activities before you begin writing.

• Present several activities, explain what they involve and then say why people might be interested in them.

• Don’t list activities – give a little detail about them. Imagine that the examiner isn’t familiar with your culture. Will they be able to understand what the activity is by reading your article?

• Think about the reader of the article. It is going to be published in an international magazine, so the tone doesn’t have to be too formal.

• Check your work for accuracy, punctuation and spelling.

4 Guidance:

• Express your reaction to the email and the news.

• Answer both of Danielle’s questions and give details.

• Include interesting information about both the points that Danielle mentions (seeing the sights and tasting the local food).

• Write something about your own experience.

• Check your work for accuracy, punctuation and spelling.

Paper 3: Listening

Part 1, page 24

Multiple choice

In Part 1, you will hear eight unrelated monologues or dialogues. Each of these is approximately 30 seconds long. Listen to the dialogues and choose the correct answer. Each dialogue is heard twice, and the questions come straight after each listening. You also have time at the end of the test to record your answers on the answer sheet, so do not do it during the exam.

Before you listen

• Find and highlight the key words in the question and think of synonyms for them. Remember, you will not hear exactly the same words in the options and in the recording.

• Read each question and the options carefully. Predict the correct answer.

While you listen

• Pay attention to negatives, conditionals and distractor words which may mislead you.

• Use the second listening to check your answer.

2 Listen for the words or phrases that show how the speaker feels (‘constant struggle’). Distractors: wanting to relax; do something exciting.

3 Listen for something that expresses agreement (‘I couldn’t agree more’). Distractors: that’s something I don’t like; I can’t agree with you.

8 Practical Tips

Part 2, page 25

Sentence completion

In Part 2, you are going to listen to a monologue. This monologue will be three to four minutes long, and you will hear it twice. There are ten sentences, and each sentence has a gap where you need to write a word or short phrase. The sentences are in the order of the information in the listening text. You will not need to change the words you hear in any way. The rest of the sentence is not exactly the same as the recording. The gap will never be more than three words.

Before you listen

• Think about the topic of the recording.

• Read each incomplete sentence completely, including the words before and after each gap.

• Try to predict what kind of information is needed in the space: is it a number, an adjective, a date, a verb, etc.? If the answer is a noun, listen and check if it is a singular or plural noun.

While you listen

• You will hear the recording twice. After the first time, study the questions you haven’t managed to answer. What did you hear which might go in the spaces?

After you listen.

• When you have finished, check your answers. Do they make sense? Make sure what you write fits the space grammatically.

• Check your spelling. Marks are not deducted for minor spelling errors, but it should be clear what you mean.

9 Rob says: ‘make stressful or boring activities, such as studying or working, relaxing and more enjoyable’ – Rob says that stressful or boring activities can be made 9 and enjoyable by listening to music.

17 Rob says: ‘she (Rob’s best friend) was given a part-time role in a recording studio’ – Rob’s best friend was offered a part-time job in 17 ___ .

Part 3, page 26

Multiple matching

In Part 3, you are going to hear five related monologues, of 30 seconds each. You will hear all five monologues once, and then hear all five again. There are eight options, but there will be three that you don’t need. You should only use each letter once.

Before you listen

• Read the instructions carefully to find out what the topic is.

• Read options A–H and try to predict ideas or words you might hear. Remember, you will not hear the exact words, so think about possible synonyms.

While you listen

• If you are not sure about an answer, wait for the second listening before you make a final decision. If you make a decision too quickly, it could mean that you ‘use up’ an answer that goes with another speaker.

• Remember that this part can be confusing because sometimes a word in one option may appear in more than one extract. You need to focus on the differences between the speakers.

Option G Listen for something that expresses people stopping to look (‘It’s a place where passersby can pause and notice the beauty of the natural world.’).

Option H Listen for the description of the way the colours change (‘Just like the seasons, the colours in our garden are never the same.’).

9 Practical Tips

Part 4, page 27

Multiple choice

In Part 4, you are going to hear an interview or exchange. This will be three to four minutes long and you will hear it twice. There are seven multiple-choice questions. The questions are in the order of the information in the listening text. For each question, choose A, B or C

Before you listen

• Read the instructions carefully to find out what topic the speakers will be talking about.

• Read the topic sentences, and try to predict ideas or words you expect to hear. Highlight key words.

• Remember, you will not hear the exact words, so think what synonyms you might hear.

While you listen

• Use the first listening to decide on your answers.

• Use the second listening to check your answers.

24 Listen for a word that has a similar meaning to worried (‘stressed’).

29 Listen for the correct period of time (‘Studying in the morning with a good night’s sleep can be more effective than late at night’. In the afternoon is probably the least effective.’)

Paper 4: Speaking

Part 1, page 28

Conversation with the interlocutor (2 minutes, or 3 minutes for 3 candidates)

Part 1 is a chance for you to relax, take a breath, and answer some basic questions. There will be yourself and your partner (or partners if there are three of you) in the room. As well as this, there will be two examiners: the interlocutor and the assessor. You will only speak to the interlocutor, as the assessor will just be listening.

First, the examiner (interlocutor) will ask you what your name is and where you’re from. Then the examiner will ask you a few questions about everyday topics; for example, they might ask about your interests, your family or friends, places you go, things you like, or your future plans.

• Answer the questions as fully as you can; do not only reply ‘yes’ or ‘no’ but explain why and give examples where appropriate.

• Always answer the question the examiner asks you. If you don’t understand, ask them to repeat it.

• Do not give pre-prepared answers.

Part 2, pages 29-31

Individual ‘long turn’ (4 minutes, or 6 minutes for 3 candidates)

Part 2 is often referred to as ‘long turn’ and is the part of the exam where each of you will be given two related photos and asked a question about them.

For example: candidate A is given two photos showing people exercising in different places and they now have one minute to talk about the advantages and disadvantages of exercising in these places. Take your time to think about what you are going to say, but not longer than 15 seconds. The examiner will tell you when to stop speaking.

The examiner will then ask your partner (Candidate B) a follow-up question about your photos, such as ‘Candidate B, where would you prefer to exercise?’. Candidate B now has 15 seconds to respond. Again, the examiner will say when to stop speaking. Then the whole process is reversed.

• Make sure you answer the question.

• If possible, use the words on the paper in your answer.

• Make sure you explain why these people have chosen the places shown in the photos. ‘I think these people have chosen these places... ’ .

10 Practical Tips

Part 3, pages 32-33

Conversation with the other candidate (4 minutes, or 5 minutes for 3 candidates)

In Part 3, you work together with your partner. First, you will be given a question and a set of five prompts, and you have two minutes to discuss the question using the prompts.

For example:

Question: How might these ideas improve the lives of people in your community?

Prompts: An entertainment complex, A museum and art gallery, Free public transport, A new shopping centre, A new park.

It is important that you can exchange ideas, express and justify opinions, agree and disagree, and reach a decision. Examiners are looking for evidence that you can cooperate with your partner, so it is a good idea to ask your partner what they think if they are not speaking a lot. Then the examiner will ask a follow-up question, and ask you to come to a decision about it. For example: Now you have about a minute to decide which two would be the most effective.

• Remember, you have 15 seconds to think about what you are going to say.

• It is very important that you have a discussion with your partner and interact together.

• Ask your partner what they think and always try to respond to what they say.

• Use expressions like ‘I agree’, ‘You’re right’, ’That’s true’ or ‘I don’t agree with you’, ‘Perhaps, but... ’

• Make sure you talk for the full three minutes.

• Make sure you move the conversation on to include as many of the prompts as possible and make some conclusions during your discussion.

Part 4, page 32

Discussion (4 minutes, or 6 minutes for 3 candidates)

Part 4 is based on the same topic as Part 3. Again, in this part you have the opportunity to show that you can exchange ideas, express and justify opinions, agree and disagree, and speculate. The examiner will ask each of you questions in turn and also ask you to give your opinion on your partner’s answers.

For example:

How do you normally travel around your town or city?

How I travel around the city depends on where I’m going. When I go to school, I use my bicycle because I like to get some exercise. But if I’m going into the city centre, I use public transport, especially if I’m going shopping with my friends as I usually have some bags to bring back with me, and that’s hard to do when you’re on a bicycle.

• Make sure you answer the question you are asked and give full answers.

• Give reasons for your opinions, and examples where appropriate.

• If you don’t understand, ask the examiner to repeat the question.

• Try not to answer by saying ‘I don’t know’. If you don’t know what to say, use fillers like ‘Well, that’s a difficult question’ to give yourself time to think.

11 Practical Tips

Part 1

For questions 1–8, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. There is an example at the beginning (0).

Mark your answers on the separate answer sheet.

Example:

0 A in B on C for D of

My favourite teacher

I can recall several teachers who had a gift (0) teaching, but my favourite teacher and the one who had a major impact (1) my life and career, was my Year 10 English teacher. Like many teenagers, I wasn’t (2) of reading, mainly because I was unable (3) get my head around some of the complicated texts we read. I struggled and was (4) my peers when it came to my reading level. Because of that, I started to take a reinforcement class with Mr Brown, along with some other classmates. I remember (5) cosy and welcoming his classroom was, and how secure we all felt for being there.

Mr Brown was a demanding teacher but also somebody we could (6) on. He taught interesting lessons that helped me comprehend complex concepts. His words of encouragement showed me that he had faith (7) me. I enjoyed the programme because it catered to my individual needs. I want to be like him and also make a difference in other people’s lives someday. Yesterday, I met him in the hallway and (8) him know that I’m thinking of becoming a teacher one day. I asked him how hard it would be for me, and with a smile, he said it would be much more rewarding than troublesome.

12 Test 1 Paper 1 Reading and Use of English
0 A B C D
C
D
A keen B
C
D
A at B for C of D to 4 A behind B ahead C at D after
A that B when C how D much
A expect B believe C trust D depend
A at B for C in D on 8 A informed B let C made D allowed
1 A at B about
in
on 2
fond
fan
much 3
5
6
7

Part 2

For questions 9–16, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only one word in each gap. There is an example at the beginning (0)

Write your answers IN CAPITAL LETTERS on the separate answer sheet.

Example: 0 O U T

FOMO and FOR: what are these fears?

Two conditions have been stressing people (0) lately. FOMO, the acronym formed from Fear Of Missing Out, is one of them. It is what we call a feeling of anxiety that arises when (9) feels like they are missing out on something. This condition is very often associated (10) social media and the fact that users are compelled to check social media the moment they wake up. This is because they feel the need to see (11)  others are doing, and therefore, end up feeling as if they are not part of the action. It is believed that at least 60% of people experience FOMO (12) a regular basis.

FOR, the acronym formed from Fear of Rejection, on the other hand, is the fear of being rejected or excluded (13)  others. Both FOMO and FOR can lead to feelings of envy, insecurity, low self-esteem and even depression. It is important to remember that everyone (14)  routine includes checking out on social media may experience FOMO (15) time to time, and it is important to take steps to manage it. Although it may also need psychological treatment, FOR is not as common (16) FOMO.

13 Test 1 Paper 1 Reading and Use of English

Part 3

For questions 17–24, read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line. There is an example at the beginning (0).

Write your answers IN CAPITAL LETTERS on the separate answer sheet.

Example:

Firefighters

Being a firefighter means having a lot of (0) ________________________. Firefighters need to (17) to emergency calls, assess each situation, and take the necessary steps to extinguish the fire or save others. They work in a (18) of situations, all of which present some kind of danger to others. They are the ones to undertake searches and rescues. They also provide medical (19) to victims of fires and other emergencies.

Firefighters must be (20) fit and able to think quickly and act decisively in (21) situations. They are also expected to be able to work as part of a team and follow orders from their superiors. Moreover, firefighters must have the necessary (22) of fire safety and prevention, and be able to educate the public about fire (23) . Becoming a firefighter has to do with being bold but also having an (24) of other people’s needs and fears. Would you be up to such a job?

14 Test 1 Paper 1 Reading and Use of English
S P O N S I B I L I T Y
0 R E
RESPONSIBLE RESPONSE VARY ASSIST
PHYSICAL DANGER KNOW SAFE AWARE

Part 4

For questions 25–30, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between two and five words, including the word given. Here is an example (0).

Example:

0 Oliver has the talent to become a professional singer. THAT Oliver is so could become a professional singer.

The gap can be filled by the words ‘talented that he’, so you write:

Example: 0 TALENTED THAT HE

Write only the missing words IN CAPITAL LETTERS on the separate answer sheet

25 ‘I’m sorry for causing so much trouble,’ Emma said. FOR Emma caused so much trouble.

26 Jake received such nice messages when he was ill. WAS

Because of his illness, Jake really nice messages.

27 I didn’t manage to help Marco with his task. IN I didn’t ________________________________________ Marco with his task.

28

We’ve noticed there have been more dropouts this term. NUMBER

We’ve noticed a rise ________________________________________ dropouts this term.

29

I’m sorry, but you must not take photos here. ALLOWED

I’m afraid taking photos .

30 I think she was afraid of raising a child in such a big city. UP

I think in such a big city caused her fear.

15 Test 1 Paper 1 Reading and Use of English

Part 5

You are going to read an extract from the novel The Wonderful Wizard of Oz. For questions 31–36, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the text.

Mark your answers on the separate answer sheet

Dorothy lived in the middle of the great Kansas prairies, with Uncle Henry, who was a farmer, and Aunt Em, who was the farmer’s wife. Their wooden house was small, for the material to build it had to be carried by wagon many miles. There were four walls, a floor and a roof, which made one room; and this room contained a rusty looking cookstove, a cupboard for the dishes, a table, three or four chairs, and the beds. Uncle Henry and Aunt Em had a big bed in one corner, and Dorothy a little bed in another corner. There was no attic at all, and no cellar — except a small hole dug in the ground, called a cyclone cellar, where the family could go in case one of those great whirlwinds or tornadoes arose, strong enough to destroy any building in its path. It was reached by a trap door in the middle of the floor, from which a ladder led down into the small, dark hole.

When Dorothy stood in the doorway and looked around, she could see nothing but the great grey prairie on every side. Not a tree nor a house broke the broad sweep of flat country that reached to the edge of the sky in all directions. The sun had baked the ploughed land into a grey mass, with little cracks running through it. Even the grass was not green, for the sun had burned the tops of the long blades until they were the same grey colour to be seen everywhere. Once the house had been painted, but the sun destroyed the paint and the rains washed it away, and now the house was as dull and grey as everything else.

When Aunt Em came there to live she was a young, pretty wife. The sun and wind had changed her, too. They had taken the sparkle from her eyes and left them a sober grey; they

had taken the red from her cheeks and lips, and they were grey also. She was thin, and she never smiled now. When Dorothy, who was an orphan, first came to her, Aunt Em had been so startled by the child’s laughter that she would scream and press her hand upon her heart whenever Dorothy’s merry voice reached her ears; and she still looked at the little girl with wonder that she could find anything to laugh at.

Uncle Henry never laughed. He worked hard from morning till night and did not know what joy was. He was grey also, from his long beard to his rough boots, and he looked serious and solemn, and rarely spoke. It was Toto that made Dorothy laugh, and saved her from growing as grey as her other surroundings. Toto was not grey; he was a little black dog, with long silky hair and small black eyes that twinkled merrily on either side of his funny, little nose. Toto played all day long, and Dorothy played with him, and loved him dearly.

Today, however, they were not playing. Uncle Henry sat upon the doorstep and looked anxiously at the sky, which was even greyer than usual. Dorothy stood in the door with Toto in her arms, and looked at the sky too. Aunt Em was washing the dishes.

From the far north they heard a low wail of the wind, and Uncle Henry and Dorothy could see where the long grass bowed in waves before the coming storm. There now came a sharp whistling in the air from the south, and as they turned their eyes that way, they saw ripples in the grass coming from that direction also.

16 Test 1 Paper 1 Reading and Use of English
5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50 55 60 65
Adapted from The Wonderful Wizard of Oz , by L. Frank Baum.

31 In the first paragraph, what information can we find about Dorothy’s house?

A It was very small, with only four rooms.

B It was a single-room house made of wood.

C It was a small house made of straw.

D Its furniture was all rusty and the only bed had a hole in it.

32 What can we imply about the surroundings of Dorothy’s house?

A There weren’t any neighbours around.

B It was a beautiful place with lots of grass and sunlight.

C It was a grey place without any happiness.

D The trees on the prairie were tall, but the houses were small.

33 What does the author suggest about Dorothy’s aunt?

A She seems to have aged little.

B She was even happier after Dorothy came to live with her.

C She’s had a difficult life since she moved to Kansas.

D She was never surprised by other people’s laughter.

34 In ‘her other surroundings’ in lines 50-51, ‘other’ refers to

A everything and everyone else around her.

B the great prairies in Kansas.

C Uncle Henry.

D Uncle Henry and Aunt Em’s belongings.

35 In the fifth paragraph, what is the author’s purpose in showing the characters’ anxiety?

A to raise curiosity about the family relationship

B to exemplify the relationship between Dorothy and her uncle

C to demonstrate that days were not always the same there

D to show an important event for the plot

36 What can we imply about the next events of the story?

A Uncle Henry changes his behaviour eventually.

B Dorothy’s dog Toto has a very important role in it.

C The characters’ relationship is likely to improve.

D It involves an extreme weather condition.

17 Test 1 Paper 1 Reading and Use of English

Part 6

You are going to read a newspaper article about seaside resorts in England. Six sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A–G the one which fits each gap (37–42). There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use.

Mark your answers on the separate answer sheet.

A British summer holiday

Scratchy sand under your toes; brightly coloured beach huts hugging the beach front; shouts of happiness from children chasing each other across the beach and squawks of seagulls hunting scraps of food; the smell of salt wafting from the sea.

37 Building sandcastles, playing games at the seafront arcades, eating fish and chips as the sun goes down – a trip to the coast is a treat for both adults and children.

The 400-year history of the English Riviera, along the Devon coast, makes it an interesting historic destination to discover. 38 The English Riviera is full of stories of pirates, smugglers and shipwrecks and, if you dare, an underground ghost tour.

Although it has one of the largest naturally occurring beaches in the UK, Western-super-mare is better known for its iconic pier. 39 If you fancy something a little more sophisticated, you can sit and admire the views of the beach from the Edwardianstyle tearoom, where a traditional British afternoon tea is served daily. Thin sandwiches with typical fillings such as tuna and cucumber, or smoked salmon are accompanied by miniature cakes and, of course, copious amounts of hot tea.

Woolacombe Bay in North Devon is one of England’s most popular holiday hotspots. 40 From climbing over rocks, to paddleboarding and swimming in the sea, from hunting crabs and eels in rockpools to catching the surf or taking lessons in how to ride the waves, there’s something for everyone around the golden sand dunes of Woolacombe Bay. 41

For those who fancy going a little further afield, Shanklin is just a short ferry ride away in the Isle of Wight. Unlike many of England’s beaches, which are covered in small smooth pebbles, Shanklin has a wide, sandy shore. After a day relaxing in a striped beach chair, you can stroll through the Old Village and visit one of the many shops, pubs and restaurants in Shanklin. 42

England may not conjure up images of a sun-soaked, idyllic paradise. Thanks to its unpredictable weather you never know if your trip to the seaside will leave you with sunburn or if it will be washed out by the rain. One thing’s for certain – you’ll never be bored.

18 Test 1 Paper 1 Reading and Use of English

A Besides, it is just a short stroll from the sandy bay of this place, which has been voted one of the best local beaches.

B Tens of thousands of tourists flock to the town year-round to ride the dodgems, take the ghost train or race around the large electric indoor go-karting track.

C This is one of the few beaches that allow dogs all year round, which means that even furry friends can come along in the summer.

D Its age shows in its dramatic coastline, and you can even visit a prehistoric cave with a fossil that is over 40,000 years old.

E Its mixture of green spaces, beach and town means that there’s always something to keep you entertained.

F A trip to a seaside resort in England captures all the senses.

G Its family-friendly beaches provide hours of free entertainment.

19 Test 1 Paper 1 Reading and Use of English

Part 7

You are going to read a magazine article about four people who studied abroad. For questions 43–52, choose from the four people (A–D). The people may be chosen more than once.

20 Test 1 Paper 1 Reading and Use of English
Mark your answers on the
sheet Which person found the place that made them homesick unsurprising? 43 had problems adapting to the local cuisine? 44 wasn’t looking forward to the end of their experience abroad? 45 needed to resort to miming at times to communicate? 46 spent a special date accompanied by someone from their home country? 47 mentions how they felt when hearing a particular way of speaking? 48 says they enjoyed the place from the very beginning? 49 expresses their thanks towards someone from the place they visited? 50 encourages the reader to try the same experience as them? 51 showed concerns regarding the expenses of their experience? 52
separate answer

Studying abroad

Four young people talk about their experiences studying abroad.

After watching a presentation at school by a group of students who had just returned from an exchange programme in Egypt, I felt inspired to apply for it myself. As all the programmes were in English, there are many options to choose from. In the end, I chose to go to Berlin because it isn’t too far from Wales, so I could hop on a plane home if I got homesick. Luckily, that wasn’t a problem, and I didn’t even want to come home at the end of my six-month stay! I was apprehensive before leaving, but Berlin felt like home right from the moment I stepped off the plane. I think that my host family was a big part of that – they went above and beyond to make me feel welcome and helped me sort out little things like getting a German SIM card, metro pass and even told me about the best places to go shopping. I would have been lost without them!

Being far away from my family for eleven months was tough. Most of my classmates chose a college in Spain, but it has always been my dream to visit South America, so I applied for a programme in Buenos Aires. Unfortunately, I didn’t take into account the distance or the cost of the flights. My mum was able to visit me for my birthday, and we spent a fabulous few days exploring the city, but nobody else was able to make the trip. Even though I was able to keep in regular contact with everyone back home, and I could ‘join in’ on celebrations through video calls, I still felt like I missed out on a lot of family moments. I would definitely study abroad again, but I’d probably choose somewhere closer to home.

When you are studying abroad, it’s funny how you miss things that you didn’t even realise were important to you. I used to get ridiculously excited when hearing someone speak English with a strong Yorkshire accent –it made me feel so nostalgic. On my course, I met people from around the world and I learnt that, even though we have different backgrounds and beliefs, we all have the same capacity to be kind. Although a couple of people in my course had the same native language, everyone’s common language was Italian. There were a lot of miscommunications since we were all still students, but they were easily overcome with lots of hand gestures and laughter; and the occasional online translation, of course.

People can have a low opinion about English cuisine, but my time abroad made me appreciate it so much. I found myself dreaming about classic British puddings, and I craved for things I hardly ever eat, like birthday cake! I struggled a bit with food on my study abroad programme as it was a little spicy for my taste. I should have packed some more snacks from home in my suitcase. Aside from the food, I only have positive things to say about my experience. It’s completely normal to feel unsure in the beginning, but you should definitely take the chance. I’m certain that it will be the best thing you ever do!

21 Test 1 Paper 1 Reading and Use of English
A
B C
D

Part 1

You must answer this question. Write your answer in 140–190 words in an appropriate style on the separate answer sheet

1 In your English class you have been talking about the importance of learning to cook in high school. Now, your English teacher has asked you to write an essay.

Write an essay using all the notes and giving reasons for your point of view.

Teenagers should have weekly classes at school to learn to cook basic dishes. Do you agree with this statement?

Notes

Write about:

1 independence

2 basic survival techniques

3 (your own idea)

22 Test 1 Paper 2 Writing

Part 2

Write an answer to one of the questions 2–4 in this part. Write your answer in 140–190 words in an appropriate style on the separate answer sheet. Put the question number in the box at the top of the answer sheet.

2 You see this announcement in your favourite magazine.

Blog reviews wanted

Best blogs for teenagers

Why do you like them? How could they become even better?

What is your favourite blog? What kind of blog is it?

The best reviews will be published in our magazine next month.

Write your review

3 You see this announcement in an international English-language magazine.

Articles wanted

What cultural activities are important to your country and why do you think people from other countries should know about them?

The best articles will be published in the next edition of our magazine.

Write your article

4 You have received this email from your English-speaking friend, Danielle.

From: lee-johnson_danielle@mail.net

Subject: Short trip to your town

Hello,

Next month, I’ll have three days off school. So, my family and I will visit your town. We’d like to travel around and see the sights, besides tasting the local food. Can you tell me about some of the places we could visit? How can we get around?

Thanks, Danielle

Write your email

23 Test 1 Paper 2 Writing

1 You will hear people talking in eight different situations. For questions 1–8, choose the best answer (A, B or C).

1 You hear a voicemail message. Why is the speaker calling?

A to persuade someone to go fishing

B to issue an invitation to them

C to offer to help with the exam

2 You hear a woman talking about weekends. How does she feel about them?

A frustrated

B relaxed

C excited

3 You hear two friends talking about pets. What do they agree about?

A keeping dogs in flats isn’t a problem

B keeping pets makes people happy

C keeping cats indoors is cruel

4 You hear two friends talking. Who did the girl see the film with?

A her mum

B her aunt

C her cousin

5 You hear part of an interview. Who never had a bathroom?

A her household

B her neighbours

C the miners

6 You hear a man talking on the radio. What type of information is he giving?

A a restaurant review

B a film review

C a cinema review

7 You hear a woman talking about summer holidays. She was never bored because she

A watched television.

B used her imagination.

C played video games.

8 You hear a girl talking about her university. What does the girl most enjoy about it?

A distance learning

B meeting new friends

C studying part time

24 Test 1 Paper 3 Listening
Part 1

Part 2

2

You will hear a man, called Rob, talking about the music industry. For questions 9–18, complete the sentences with a word or short phrase.

The music industry

Rob says that stressful or boring activities can be made 9 and enjoyable by listening to music.

Rob started to consider a career in the music industry from 10

Qualifications are not as important as 11 in the music industry.

When choosing a university course, you should make sure there is 12 as part of the course.

Rob says one of the most important things to do is to establish 13 of people.

According to Rob, mixing desks allow us to control the 14 of individual instruments.

We can learn software programs by 15 with different settings.

Research has shown that music creates emotions as we 16 to different sounds.

Rob’s friend was offered a part-time job in 17 after blogging about the sound in gigs.

We should look at famous musicians as 18 people just like we are.

25 Test 1 Paper 3 Listening

Part 3

3

You will hear five short extracts in which teenagers are talking about their gardens. For questions 19–23, choose from the list (A–H) what each speaker likes most about their garden. Use the letters only once. There are three extra letters which you do not need to use.

A that it is free exercise

B that growing things can help with climate change

C the size of the garden

D how their friends all help them

E the way the garden makes them feel

F how wildlife has increased

G that people stop to look at the garden

H the way the colours change

26 Test 1 Paper 3 Listening
Speaker 1 19
Speaker 2 20
Speaker
21
3
Speaker 4 22
Speaker
23
5

4

You will hear part of a conversation with a girl called Emma and a boy called Ravi about memorisation. For questions 24–30, choose the best answer (A, B or C).

24

What does Ravi say he is worried about?

A talking to his teacher

B an exam he has

C going on holiday

25

What does Emma think is a factor for Ravi not remembering things?

A that he has been busy

B that he keeps repeating things

C that he is going out

26 What is the first technique that Emma suggests?

A give a presentation to school

B start off with small sections

C try to remember random chunks

27 What is an example of association that will help Ravi, according to Emma?

A thinking about a familiar place

B the order of planets in the solar system

C relating parts of a speech to a room

28

What does Ravi think is a good idea?

A writing things down on paper

B using a different tone of voice

C saying things out loud

29 What time of day does Emma say is the best for studying?

A late at night

B in the morning

C in the afternoon

30

What advice does Emma give Ravi?

A don’t experiment

B discover what is best for you

C only study enjoyable things

27 Test 1 Paper 3 Listening
Part 4

Part 1

2 minutes (3 minutes for groups of three)

Good morning/afternoon/evening. My name is , and this is my colleague .

And your names are?

Can I have your mark sheets, please?

Thank you.

• Where are you from, (Candidate A)?

• And you, (Candidate B)?

First, we’d like to know something about you.

Select one or more questions from any of the following categories, as appropriate.

Your interests

• What do you usually do in your free time?

• Do you enjoy playing sports? (Why? / Why not?)

• Do you enjoy playing video games? (Why? / Why not? What’s your favourite game?)

• Do you like reading? (Tell us about a book you enjoyed.)

People you know

• Tell us about a family member. (What do you like doing together?) (Are you similar to them?)

• Tell us about a friend. (What do you like about them?) (When did you meet them?)

• Who do you spend time with after school? (What do you do together?)

• Tell us about a teacher or a family friend who you like. (Why do you like them?)

Future plans

• What are you going to do this weekend? (Why?)

• What would you like to do for your next birthday? (Why?)

• Is there something you’d like to learn in the future? (What would you like to learn?) (Why?)

• Is there a job you would like to have in the future? (Why do you want to have this job?)

28 Test 1 Paper 4 Speaking

1 Exercising 2 Eating out

Part 2

4 minutes (6 minutes for groups of three)

Interlocutor In this part of the test, I’m going to give each of you two photographs. I’d like you to talk about your photographs on your own for about a minute, and also to answer a question about your partner’s photographs.

(Candidate A), it’s your turn first. Here are your photographs. They show people exercising in different places.

Place the pictures on page 30 in front of Candidate A.

I’d like you to compare the photographs and say what advantages and disadvantages there could be of exercising in these places

All right?

Candidate A

 1 minute

Interlocutor Thank you.

(Candidate B), where do you prefer to exercise? (Why?)

Candidate B

 approximately 30 seconds

Interlocutor Thank you.

Now, (Candidate B), here are your photographs. They show people eating in different places

Place the pictures on page 31 in front of Candidate B.

I'd like you to compare the photographs, and say why you think the people are enjoying eating in these places

All right?

Candidate B

 1 minute

Interlocutor Thank you.

(Candidate A), what type of place do you prefer eating in?

Candidate A

 approximately 30 seconds

Interlocutor Thank you.

29 Test 1 Paper 4 Speaking

What are the advantages and disadvantages of exercising in these places?

30 Test 1 Paper 4 Speaking 1
1 (Candidate A)

2 (Candidate B)

Why do you think the people are enjoying eating in these places?

31 Test 1 Paper 4 Speaking 2

Community

Part 3 4 minutes (5 minutes for groups of three)

Part 4 4 minutes (6 minutes for groups of three)

Part 3

Interlocutor Now, I’d like you to talk about something together for about two minutes. (3 minutes for groups of three)

Your local authorities want to improve life for the community. Here are some of the suggestions for what the authorities can do and a question for you to discuss. First you have some time to look at the task.

Place the task on page 33 in front of the candidates. Allow 15 seconds.

Now, talk to each other about how these ideas might improve the lives of young people in your community.

Candidates

 2 minutes (3 minutes for groups of three)

Interlocutor Thank you. Now you have about a minute to decide which two would be the most effective.

Candidates

 1 minute (for pairs and groups of three)

Interlocutor Thank you.

Part 4

Interlocutor Use the following questions, in order, as appropriate:

• How much time do you spend on leisure activities?

• Do you think art galleries and museums should be free? (Why? / Why not?)

• How do you normally travel around your town or city?

Select any of the following prompts, as appropriate:

• What do you think?

• Do you agree?

• And you?

• Do you think there are enough green open spaces where you live? (Why? / Why not?)

• What would you like to see built or developed where you live? (Why?)

• Why do some people move away from the community they were born in?

Thank you. That is the end of the test.

32 Test 1 Paper 4 Speaking

a museum and art gallery

How might these ideas improve the lives of people in your community?

an entertainment complex

a new park free public transport

a new shopping centre

33 Test 1 Paper 4 Speaking

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