Download full General studies for civil services preliminary examination 2018 6 volume set edgar tho by Education Libraries

General Studies for Civil Services

Preliminary Examination 2018 6 Volume Set Edgar Thorpe

Visit to download the full and correct content document: https://ebookmass.com/product/general-studies-for-civil-services-preliminary-examina tion-2018-6-volume-set-edgar-thorpe/

General Studies for Civil Services Preliminary Examination - Vol IV General Science Paper I Edgar Thorpe

https://ebookmass.com/product/general-studies-for-civil-servicespreliminary-examination-vol-iv-general-science-paper-i-edgarthorpe/

General Studies for Civil Services Preliminary Examination Vol I Paper I General Knowledge Edgar Thorpe

https://ebookmass.com/product/general-studies-for-civil-servicespreliminary-examination-vol-i-paper-i-general-knowledge-edgarthorpe/

General Studies for Civil Services Preliminary Examination Vol V Paper I History and Culture Edgar Thorpe

https://ebookmass.com/product/general-studies-for-civil-servicespreliminary-examination-vol-v-paper-i-history-and-culture-edgarthorpe/

General Studies for Civil Services Preliminary Examination Vol III Paper I Geography and Environmental Ecology Edgar Thorpe

https://ebookmass.com/product/general-studies-for-civil-servicespreliminary-examination-vol-iii-paper-i-geography-andenvironmental-ecology-edgar-thorpe/

Modern Indian History: For Civil Services Preliminary and Main Examinations 1st Edition Sonali Bansal

https://ebookmass.com/product/modern-indian-history-for-civilservices-preliminary-and-main-examinations-1st-edition-sonalibansal/

Point-Set Topology with Topics: Basic General Topology for Graduate Studies Robert Andre

https://ebookmass.com/product/point-set-topology-with-topicsbasic-general-topology-for-graduate-studies-robert-andre/

Rethinking Kant Volume 7 .Edgar Valdez

https://ebookmass.com/product/rethinking-kant-volume-7-edgarvaldez/

Encyclopedia of Environmental Health [6 Volume Set] 2nd Edition Jerome O. Nriagu

https://ebookmass.com/product/encyclopedia-of-environmentalhealth-6-volume-set-2nd-edition-jerome-o-nriagu/

Indian Polity: For Civil Services and Other Competitive Examinations 6th Edition M. Laxmikanth

https://ebookmass.com/product/indian-polity-for-civil-servicesand-other-competitive-examinations-6th-edition-m-laxmikanth/

About Pearson

Pearson is the world’s learning company, with presence across 70 countries worldwide. Our unique insights and world-class expertise comes from a long history of working closely with renowned teachers, authors and thought leaders, as a result of which, we have emerged as the preferred choice for millions of teachers and learners across the world.

We believe learning opens up opportunities, creates fulfilling careers and hence better lives. We hence collaborate with the best of minds to deliver you class-leading products, spread across the Higher Education and K12 spectrum.

Superior learning experience and improved outcomes are at the heart of everything we do. This product is the result of one such effort.

Your feedback plays a critical role in the evolution of our products and you can contact us – reachus@pearson.com. We look forward to it.

The writing style of the chapters is simple and very approachable. The marginalia boxes are illuminating and make the reading quite interesting.

Srirangam Sri Ram Sriram’s IAS, Delhi

Succinct, stimulating and self-instructional book with a learner friendly orientation.

Mukul Pathak Vajiram and Ravi, Delhi

A learner-friendly, self-instructional and stimulating compendium for easy understanding and effective application of basic concepts to mark edge over others.

S.K. Manocha Vajiram and Ravi, Delhi

The book scores a point with its detailed structure and ability to strengthen the basics of aspirants preparing for the General Studies Paper of the UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination. The text is easy to read and understand.

P. M. Tripathi Vaid’s ICS, Lucknow

The one-stop solution approach adopted by the book would certainly be a time saver for all civil services and PCS candidates. The sections on History, Polity, Science and General Awareness are particularly appreciable.

Soubhik Sen STEPS IAS, Delhi

It is very useful, beneficial and relevant for IAS/PCS preliminary examinations.

Dharmendra Kumar

Dharmendra’s Sociology, Delhi

All the sections of this book are excellent for UPSC aspirants.

Nawab Singh Somvanshi Nishkarsh IAS, Delhi

While going through the Pearson’s General Studies, I found that it is useful for all Civil Services and PCS candidates.

Rahees Singh Academicians IAS, Lucknow

Published by Pearson India Education Services Pvt. Ltd, CIN: U72200TN2005PTC057128, formerly known as TutorVista Global Pvt. Ltd, licensee of Pearson Education in South Asia.

No part of this eBook may be used or reproduced in any manner whatsoever without the publisher’s prior written consent.

This eBook may or may not include all assets that were part of the print version. The publisher reserves the right to remove any material in this eBook at any time.

ISBN: 9789332588400

eISBN: 9789352862771

Head Office: 15th Floor, Tower-B, World Trade Tower, Plot No. 1, Block-C, Sector-16, Noida 201 301,Uttar Pradesh, India.

Registered Office: 4th Floor, Software Block, Elnet Software City, TS-140, Block 2 & 9, Rajiv Gandhi Salai, Taramani, Chennai 600 113, Tamil Nadu, India. Fax: 080-30461003, Phone: 080-30461060 www.pearson.co.in, Email: companysecretary.india@pearson.com

GENERAL STuDIES Paper-I

For Civil Services Preliminary Examination

Edgar Thorpe Showick Thorpe

About the exAminAtion

The Civil Services Examination consists of two successive stages:

Civil Services Preliminary Examination (objective type) for the selection/screening of candidates for the next level of the examination, i.e., the main examination; and

Civil Services Main Examination (subjective type and interview) for the selection of candidates for the various services and post.

In 2011, UPSC introduced a new format for the preliminary examination, also known as CSAT (Civil Services Aptitude Test) that included two papers on General Studies: General Studies (Paper-I), and General Studies (Paper-II).

In 2013, there was a strategic shift in the format of the Civil Services Main Examination. The Civil Services Main Examination now has four compulsory papers of General Studies. There is only one optional subject now instead of two, plus there is one compulsory essay paper. English and one language paper are included in the Main Examination and declared as qualifying in nature.

In 2013, the UPSC also included the Indian Forest Service (IFS) in its civil services recruitment and hence, IFS aspirants are now required to take the Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Those IFS aspirants who may eventually clear the preliminary examination have to appear for the Main Examination.

Since 2015, the UPSC has made the CSAT (General Studies Paper-II) as qualifying in nature and one needs to score 33% to qualify. Marks of only Paper-I will be considered for ranking in the preliminary, based on which candidates will appear for the main examination.

Scheme of Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination

The preliminary examination consists of two papers of objective type (multiple-choice questions) carrying a maximum of 400 marks (200 marks each for Paper-I and Paper-II).

The question papers (test booklets) are set in English and Hindi

Each paper is of two hours duration

Blind candidates are allowed extra time of twenty minutes for each paper

The UPSC preliminary examination is meant to serve as a screening test only; the marks obtained in the preliminary examination by the candidates who are declared qualified for admission to the main examination will not be counted for determining their final order of merit.

The number of candidates to be admitted to the main examination will be about 10–15 times the total vacancies available in a particular year for the various services and posts. However, for any change or additional information revealed by the UPSC, please keep checking its website for relevant notifications.

Civil Services Preliminary Examination Syllabus Paper-I

100 MCQs—200 marks Duration—2 hours

Current Events of National and International Importance

History of India and Indian National Movement

Indian and World Geography—Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and the World Indian Polity and Governance—Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.

Economic and Social Development—Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector initiatives, etc. General issues on Environmental Ecology, Biodiversity and Climate Change—do not require subject specialization General Science

Paper-II

80 MCQs—200 marks Duration—2 hours

Comprehension

Interpersonal Skills (including Communication Skills)

Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability

Decision-making and Problem Solving

General Mental Ability

Basic Numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude, etc., Class X level), Data Interpretation (Charts, Graphs, Tables), Data Sufficiency (Class X level), etc.

Note 1: The CSAT or Paper-II of the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination will be a qualifying paper only with a minimum of 33% to be secured to qualify for the Civil Services (Main) Examination.

Note 2: The questions in both Paper-I (Current Affairs) and Paper-II (Aptitude Test) will be of multiple choice, objective type for 200 marks each and the time allotted for each paper is two hours.

Note 3: It is mandatory for the candidate to appear in both the papers of Civil Services Preliminary Examination for the purpose of evaluation. Therefore, a candidate will be disqualified in case he or she does not appear for one or both the papers of the preliminary examination.

This page is intentionally left blank

PrefACe

As a prospective Indian Civil Services administrator, it is imperative that one understands the importance and benefits of using effective tools of learning and drawing knowledge from extensive research. General Studies Paper-I is a cauldron of inputs for both—intense learning and extensive research.

General Studies, as described by the UPSC syllabus of Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, has evolved. It is no longer only about general awareness or general knowledge, but covers a broader area of human learning. All the sections combined constitute a comprehensive, dependable and impressive source of knowledge for all the strands of General Studies detailed in the new syllabus and format of the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination. For the General Studies (Paper-II), which deals entirely with General Aptitude, we have a separate book which deals entirely with aspects of aptitude. We are sure that candidates will find that book useful for preparation of General Studies (Paper-II).

About General Studies: Paper-I

General Studies (Paper-I) 2017 has totally transformed into a new avatar that is comprehensive and, at the same time, focused. It has been revised and upgraded as per the latest syllabus of the Indian Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination and lays stress on topics from which questions appear frequently.

To enable better usability and to accommodate additional content, the book has been divided into six volumes:

Vol I: General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Vol II: Indian Polity and Governance

Vol III: Indian Economy: Economic and Social Development

Vol IV: Geography and Environmental Ecology

Vol V: General Science

Vol VI: History and Culture

Highlights of the study package:

One of the indispensable attributes for the success of any book and, therefore, its readers is the way it is conceived and developed. This study package owes its existence to years of research, backed by scientific and logical planning.

The text is presented in a systematic manner to help the candidate learn, understand, and retain information for a longer period of time.

A number of detailed tables and illustrations are presented to support the concepts explained. Important information pertaining to the topic of discussion is provided as boxed items. These are cutting-edge bits of information that make learning interesting and add value to the quality of learning. While each section is self-contained and discussed in detail, the extra material in the boxes adds to information needed to pursue a particular line of inquiry.

One prominent outcome of our research was the conclusion that candidates who do not have a background in sciences or those who have studied it only till matriculation find the General Science portion of the examination difficult. It is our endeavour to present this section in a lucid and well-structured manner, well-supported by several learning tools (pedagogy, as my editors call it).

No prior expert knowledge of the subject has been assumed. Elaborate figures, comparison charts, and box items have been laid out to make sure that the candidates get it right, the first time.

We have tried to bring in as many original questions as possible. These questions asked by the UPSC in previous examinations were chosen after ensuring that they are still valid in the present scenario. These, along with MCQs from the recent years, have been compiled and placed at the end of each chapter. Alongside, some freshly prepared questions are also provided to enhance the scope of subject practice. Understandably, many questions may have moved into different subject domains or have changed altogether. But these are kept untouched, knowing that students will be cautious while attempting these questions. The purpose of carrying old questions from original papers is to make students realize the knowledge-potential of original UPSC questions. It will help students to sync these questions with their respective learning styles to understand the concerned topic better.

Syllabus Mapping with the Structure of the Book

The structure of this study package was substantially revised, after discussion with various coaches and experts, to align it with the new syllabus and format as well as to make it amenable to the current teaching methodology. Each volume in the book contains a substantial number of MCQs to involve students in the learning process. A careful scrutiny of the question papers of the past 20 years was made for the compilation of the General Studies portion of this book, which forms Paper-I of the new syllabus. The objective was to familiarize the prospective candidates with current trends and types of questions asked. This edition also consists of various parts positioned as follows:

A walkthrough of each of the six volumes included in this study package is provided below:

Vol I: General Knowledge and Current Affairs

[Syllabus as notiﬁed by the UPSC: National Events and International Events, with emphasis on national affairs for obvious reasons]

Highlights

—Complete coverage as per latest syllabus

—Topic-wise tagging of MCQs

—Previous years’ papers

General Knowledge This is an important aspect of General Studies in a way that all important topics that may not be appended to the topics referred to above are collated in this section. The chapters include: National Insignia and Other Facts (Chapter 1); Science and Technology (Chapter 2); Defence and Security (Chapter 3); Everyday Science (Chapter 4); International Organizations (Chapter 5); and Basic General Knowledge (Chapter 6). It is advised that the lists, tables and information provided here are referred to whenever possible. Also, students should look at updating their copy of this title with pen whenever they come across any latest information or extra detail as they would be doing with other books.

Current Affairs This has been divided into 6 chapters on National Events and International Events, with emphasis on national affairs for obvious reasons. You will find adequate material on current affairs in this section of this book. The emphasis laid on current events by the UPSC in the last few exams is bound to continue The chapters included are: National Current Affairs (Chapter 1); International Affairs (Chapter 2); Indian Economy (Chapter 3); Awards and Honours (Chapter 4); Sports and Tournament (Chapter 5); and Who’s Who—India and World (Chapter 6). Some people have even commented that Current Events finding the first place in the syllabus indicates how important this section is going to be. The users are advised to access the ‘Online Supplement’ page for this study package to download additional content, information and questions. We have also brought in some practice MCQs in this section that will come handy as you try to assess your preparation level.

Analysis of the Previous Years’ Original Papers This volume also has a complete two-tier analysis – macro-analysis and micro-analysis – of Paper-I of the Preliminary Examination of the previous seven years (2011–2017). Students will get an overview on the significance and weightage of each subject domain and broad topics within each of these subject domains. Also, provided here is the solved 2017 General Studies (Paper-1) tagged as per the structure of the volumes.

Vol II: Indian Polity and Governance

[Syllabus as notiﬁed by the UPSC: Indian Polity and Governance: Governance, Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy and Rights Issues]

Indian Polity and Governance It covers Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc. There are some internal divisions for the purpose of easy comprehension, wherein we have separated Indian Constitution (Chapter 1) from Indian Administration (Chapter 2). Towards the end of the chapter, additional content on social legislations has been provided, which users will find useful in the recently changed scenario.

Highlights

—Special glossary of important terms and definitions

—Complete coverage as per latest syllabus

—Topic-wise tagging of MCQs

—Previous years’ papers

Vol III: Indian Economy: Economic and Social development

[Syllabus as notiﬁed by the UPSC: Indian Economy: Economic and Social Development: Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics and Social Sector Initiatives]

Indian Economy: Economic and Social Development It covers Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc. This section has been divided into three chapters – Public Finance (Chapter 1), Agriculture (Chapter 2), and Industry and Other Important Sectors (Chapter 3). Special coverage has been provided on Demographics (Chapter 4); Sustainable Development (Chapter 5); Poverty and Unemployment (Chapter 6); Other Social Sector Initiatives and Inclusions (Chapter 7) and Other Social Protection Programmes (Chapter 8).

Highlights

—Complete coverage as per latest syllabus

—Topic-wise tagging of MCQs

—Previous years’ papers

Vol IV: Geography and Environmental Ecology

[Syllabus as notiﬁed by the UPSC: Geography: Physical Geography of India and the World; Environmental Ecology: Biodiversity and Climate Change]

Indian and World Geography It deals with physical, social, and economic geography of India and the world. The entire section on geography has been divided into three sections—General Geography (Chapter 1), World Geography (Chapter 2), and Indian Geography (Chapter 3). Indian geography covers both physical and economic geography, with special emphasis on topics such as agriculture, energy scenario in India, and mineral resources.

Highlights

—Special sections on short notes and glossary of important terms and definitions

—Complete coverage as per latest syllabus

—Topic-wise tagging of MCQs

—Previous years’ papers

General issues on Environmental Ecology, Biodiversity and Climate Change These do not require subject specialization. In the package it has been named ‘Environmental Ecology’, and it comprises Ecology and Environment (Chapter 1), Climate Change and Related Issues (Chapter 2), Biodiversity (Chapter 3), India’s Natural Vegetation and Biodiversity (Chapter 4), Other Current Environmental Issues (Chapter 5), Agrobiodiversity (Chapter 6); India’s Environmental Efforts (Chapter 7), Data Tables and Short Notes and a well-stocked MCQ Bank at the end of the Section. If you analyse the 2011–2017 papers you will find that there were substantial number of questions from this subject domain.

Vol V: General Science

[Syllabus as notiﬁed by the UPSC: Including Biology, Chemistry, Physics, Computer and IT and also Universe and Space Sciences]

General Science The structure and placement of the chapter on General Science has not been altered, though additions have been made in it. For focused learning and revision, numerous new tables, boxes, and lists have been added in each of the five chapters, namely, Biology (Chapter 1), Chemistry (Chapter 2), Physics (Chapter 3), Earth and Space Sciences (Chapter 4), and Computers and Information Technology (Chapter 5). The MCQs have been revised and, keeping the conceptual tilt of questions in mind, a good number of assertion–reason questions have been added.

Vol VI: History and Culture

Highlights

—Special sections on short notes and glossary of important terms and definitions

—Short quizzes on Biology, Chemistry and Physics

—Complete coverage as per latest syllabus

—Topic-wise tagging of MCQs

—Previous years’ papers

[Syllabus as notiﬁed by the UPSC: Including Ancient, Medieval, Modern India and also Indian National Movement]

History of India There has been a subtle change in the syllabus of History. In the earlier syllabus on History of India, the emphasis was on broad general understanding of the subject in its social, economic and political aspects.

Highlights

Frequently, questions on the Indian National Movement related to the nature and character of the nineteenth century resurgence, growth of nationalism and attainment of Independence. Very few questions on ancient and medieval history of India were asked. However the changed wordings in the syllabus says ‘History of India and Indian National Movement’, thus hinting that the entire history, with no bias towards Modern History component, will be equated. Hence, the clubbing of four chapters, Ancient History (Chapter 1), Medieval History (Chapter 2), Modern History (Chapter 3), and Indian National Movement (Chapter 4) to cover the History of India and Indian National Movement will make better sense. Additions have been made in all the four chapters, where students will find useful information tabulated in an easy-to-learn format.

Exciting Features of the book

—Complete coverage as per latest syllabus —Topic-wise tagging of MCQs —Previous years’ papers

Coloured Maps A booklet containing 36 pages of fully coloured Maps have been provided for ease of referencing. In our constant endeavour to impart qualitative inputs to readers preparing for competitive examinations, we have also provided online support on general awareness and current affairs.

Free Online Supplement The most exciting feature is the free online testing platform at http://www.pearsoned.co.in/ ShowickThorpe/

Users will be able to practice MCQ-based tests on their computers as well as on all GPRS-enabled mobile phones. We have kept this facility free only for the buyers of this book.

Author’s Webpage The web-supplement on http://www.thorpeseducation.com, which offers users the latest general knowledge questions/sections from various other competitive examinations for download, has also been revamped and enriched with practice exercises on core general knowledge and current affairs.

I hope readers will appreciate the book and be benefited by it. Any comments/suggestions towards improving the text would be most welcome. Your suggestions will go a long way in making this book thorough and error-free.

ACKnowLedgements

A compilation of this nature could never have been attempted without reference to and, inspiration from, the works of others: encyclopaedias, dictionaries, yearbooks, atlases and textbooks, to name a few sources. I acknowledge my indebtedness to all of them. Further, I thank the talented team, comprising the following, which was involved in the first comprehensive makeover of this study package into six volumes:

All the reviewers, who with their useful tips and thought-provoking suggestions, infused clarity and consistency in the content of the book.

The students, for their questioning minds and motivation, and the tutors and instructors, who provided many valuable inputs.

■■ The authors and their publishers, whose excerpted material appear in this book. Wherever appropriate, attribution is made in the text (and a full citation appears in the References). I am, however, responsible—and must take the credit or blame—for everything else in this book.

Vandana Thorpe, my research assistant, who patiently saw the manuscript through until the completion stage and offered valuable suggestions on improving the quality of the book.

I am indebted to my parents, late Edgar Thorpe and late Asha Thorpe, whose presence gave me immense support and inspiration and by whose blessings, this book could see the light of the day. I must also mention my brother, Sunil and Sanjay, who supported me to carry forward our father’s work.

My thanks are also due to my wife Manu and sons, Ankit and Aditya, who have been most encouraging and helpful in this exercise.

Finally, I am thankful to my publishers for allowing me to keep my father’s name on the cover of this book.

Showick Thorpe

All the Best! Showick Thorpe

referenCes And suggested reAdings

World Geography and Indian Geography

Geography—A Global Synthesis by Peter Haggett

Physical Geography by Savindra Singh

Human Geography of India by B.S. Negi

World Regional Geography by R.N. Tikka

India—A Comprehensive Geography by Khullar

Human Geography—Issues for the 21st Century by Peter Daniels, Micheal Bradshaw, Denis Shaw and James Sideway

Fundamentals of Physical Geography by M.N. Goel and R.K. Ganjoo

India—Physical Environment by Noor Mohammad

Geosystems:An Introduction to Physical Geography by Robert W. Christopherson

Political Geography:World Economy, Nation-State and Locality by Peter Taylor and Colin Flint

Fundamentals of Human Geography by Hira Lai Yadav and Savita Sinha

Ecology and Biodiversity

Biodiversity in India by T. Pullaiah, K. Jaganmohan Reddy

Human Exploitation and Biodiversity Conservation by Hawksworth Bull

Ecoplanning, Biodiversity and Climate Change by Asha Gupta

Biodiversity Conservation and Legal Aspects by A.K. Kandya, Asha Gupta

Biodiversity Access and Benefit Sharing by Daniel F. Robinson

Environmental Change and Biodiversity by R.B. Singh and Suraj Mal

Essentials of Ecology and Environmental Science by S.V.S. Rana

Climate Change by Melanic Jarman

Climate Change—Meeting the Challenge by K.R. Gupta

Making Sense of Climate Change. A Beginner’s Guide to Global Warming by Teri

TERI Energy and Environment Data Diary and Year Book 2016–2017 by Teri

Environmental Chronicles: The Best of Terra Green by Teri

Climate Change—In-Context by Gale

People, Planet and Progress Beyond 2015 by Teri

Enviro-Chellange: A Compitation of the Best of Green Olympied by Teri Environmental Science—In Context by Lerner

Indian Economy

Indian Economy Since Independence by Uma Kapila

Indian Economy by Rudra Dutt and K.P.M Sunderam

Essentials of Economics by John Sloman

Essentials of Economics by Paul R. Gregory

Money, Banking, InternationalTrade and Public Finance by D.M. Mithani

Indian Economy by B.B. Tandon and K.K. Tandon

Economic Survey of India 2016–17 by Govt. of India

Union Budget Document 2017–2018

Indian History and Indian National Movement

An Introduction to the Study of Indian History by D.D. Kosambi

Ancient Indian Colonies in the Far East by R.C. Majumdar

The Political History ofAncient India by H.C. Raychaudhuri

xiv References and Suggested Readings

AnAdvanced History of India by R.C. Majumdar

The Dynasty: Nehru Gandhi Story by J. Adams

Modern India:The Origin of anAsian Democracy by M. Judith Brown

The Sikhs of Punjab by J. S. Grewal

The Muslims of British India by P. Hardy

History of India by V.D. Mahajan

India Discovered by John Keay

The Partition of India: Policies and Perspectives by C.H. Philips and M.D. Wainwright

History of India by Stein, Burton and Blackwell

A History of India by Romila Thapar

A History of the ModernWorld by Ajoy Chandra Banerjee

A Wonder That Was India by A.L. Basham

The Oxford History of India by Vincent A. Smith

India’s Struggle for Freedom by Bipin Chandra

India: History andThought by S.N. Mukherjee

Cambridge History of India by H.H. Dodwell

A History of India by John Keay

Mohenjodaro and the Indus Civilisation by J. Marshall

Medieval Hisotry of India by Meera Singh

Gandhi’s Rise to Power: Indian Politics by Judith M. Brown

Ancient History of India by B.P. Saha and K.S. Behera

History of the Indian National Movement by Prakash Chandra

The Pearson Indian History Manual by Vipul Singh

Indian Polity

The Constitution of India by P.M. Bakshi

Politics in India by Rajni Kothari

Government of India and Reforms: Policies Towards Politics and the Constitution by P.O. Robb

Dynamics of Indian Government and Politics by J.R. Siwach

An Introduction to Indian Constitution by Prof. M.V. Pylee

Domestic Roots of Indian Foreign Policy 1947-74 by A. Appadorai

The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation by Austin Granville

Introduction to Constitution of India by Durga Das Basu

Foreign Policy of India by V.N. Khanna

India’s Democracy by J. Douglas and A.M. Hanson

Working Democratic Constitution:The Indian Experience by Austin Granville

Indian Political System by R.C. Aggarwal

Indian Government and Politics by R.L. Hardgrave

State and Politics in India by Partha Chatterji

Federalism in India:A Study of union–State Relations by Ashok Chanda

Indian Government and Politics by Bidyut Chakrabarty and Rajendra Kumar Pandey

General Science

Introduction to Biology by Campbell

Biological Science by Taylor, Green and Stout

Advanced Physics by Gibbs

university Physics by Young & Freedman

Essentials of Physics by Rowell & Herbert

An Introduction to Chemistry by Harwood

Advanced Chemistry by Matthews

Introductory Microbiology by Heritage, Evans and Killington

Animal Physiology by Schmidt-Nielsen

Physical Chemistry by Ladd

Introductory Chemistry by Harrison

An IntegratedApproach to Chemistry by Catherine E. Housecraft and Edwin C. Constable

How ComputersWork by Ron White

Introduction to Computers by Mansfield and Antonakos

Mental Ability

Course in MentalAbility and QuantitativeAptitude by Thorpe

Test of Reasoning for Competitive Examinations by Thorpe

General Intelligence andTest of Reasoning by Thorpe

QuantitativeAptitude for Competitive Examinations by Guha

QuantitativeAptitude for Competitive Examinations by R.S. Aggarwal

General Knowledge and Current Affairs

India 2017 by Publication Division, Government of India

ManoramaYear book 2017

miCro-AnALYsis [2011–2017]

This page is intentionally left blank

generAL studies PAPer-1 (2017)

mACro AnALYsis—2017 Questions PAPer

miCro AnALYsis—2017 Questions PAPer

INdIAN POlITY—POlITY ANd GOVERNANCE

conStItutIon of IndIa

1. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of (a) Privileges (b) Restraints (c) Competition (d) Ideology

2. Which principle among the ‘following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women

(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries

(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

3. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.

(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.

(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.

4. Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon 1. legislative function. 2. executive function.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Which of the following statements is/ are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.

2. They are correlative to legal duties. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

(a) Liberty of thought

(b) Economic liberty

(d) Liberty of belief

7. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.

(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.

(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

8. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

(a) The Preamble

(b) The Fundamental Rights

(d) The Fundamental Duties

9. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

(a) Fundamental Right

(b) Natural Right

(d) Legal Right

10. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour

2. Abolition of untouchability

3. Protection of the interests of minorities

4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

11. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.

(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.

OrIGInAL UPsC CIVIL serVICes QUesTIOns 2017

(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

PolIty and GoVernance

12. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.

2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

(a) Federalism

(b) Democratic decentralisation

(d) Direct democracy

14. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity

(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.

(b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.

(d) a band of dedicated party workers.

15. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

(a) the executive and legislature work independently.

(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.

(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.

16. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through 1. Adjournment motion

2. Question hour

3. Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

17. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by:

(a) anyone residing in India.

(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.

(d) any citizen of India.

18. Consider the following statements:

1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.

2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Which of the statements giv en above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

19. Consider the following statements:

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.

2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.

3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the statements giv en above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

20. In India, Judicial Review implies

(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

(b) th e power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.

(d) th e power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.

21. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:

(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.

(b) A m echanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.

(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.

22. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?

1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly

2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State

3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

GEOGRAPHY—PHYSICAl, WORld ANd INdIAN GEOGRAPHY

PhySIcal GeoGraPhy

23. The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, `String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of:

(a) Observation and understanding of the Universe

(b) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses

(d) Or igin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth

World GeoGraPhy

24. Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?

1. Jordan 2. Iraq

3. Lebanon 4. Syria

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

IndIan GeoGraPhy

25. At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at

(a) Bhavnagar

(b) Bheemunipatnam

(d) Nagapattinam.

26. With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:

1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.

2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.

3. Riv er Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

27. If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?

(a) 6 (b) 7

28. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.

2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only.

3. Pulicat Lake is spread o ver two States only.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

29. Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?

(a) Sumatra (b) Borneo

ENVIRONMENTAl ECOlOGY

ecoloGy and enVIronment

30. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Ana lysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):

1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

clImate chanGe & related ISSueS

31. In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?

1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.

2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.

3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

32. In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration?

1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams

2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs

3. Subterranean deep saline formations.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

33. With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an initiative of the European Union.

2. It provides technical and f inancial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.

3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

34. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for:

(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood

(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems

(d) Assessing oxygen lev els in high altitude regions

BIodIVerSIty

35. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?

1. Gharial

2. Indian wild ass

3. Wild buffalo

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

IndIa’S natural VeGetatIon and BIodIVerSIty

36. From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?

(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve

(b) Nallamala Forest

(d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve

37. If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?

(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves

(b) Chambal River

(d) Deepor Beel

38. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?

(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.

(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction.

(d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.

other current enVIronmental ISSueS

39. With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?

1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.

2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.

3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

40. Consider the following statements:

1. Cli mate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries.

2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IndIa’S enVIronmental effortS

41. Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites?

(a) Corbett National Park

(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary

(d) Sariska National Park

42. The term M-STRIPES’ is sometimes seen in V the news in the context of (a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna

(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves

(d) Security of National Highways

INdIAN HISTORY—HISTORY, ART ANd CulTuRE

ancIent hIStory

43. With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.

2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron.

3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

44. Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom?

(a) Kakinada

(b) Motupalli

(d) Nelluru

45. With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:

1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.

2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

modern hIStory & IndIan natIonal moVement

46. Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule?

1. Lord Cornwallis

2. Alexander Read

3. Thomas Munro

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only

47. In the context of Indian history, the principle of “Dyarchy (diarchy)” refers to:

(a) Division of the central legislature into two houses.

(b) Introduction of double gov ernment i.e., Central and State governments.

(d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.

48. The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to?

(a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.

(b) Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.

(d) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.

49. Consider the following pairs:

1. Radhakanta Deb — First President of the British Indian Association

2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty — Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha

3. Surendranath Banerjee — Founder of the Indian Association

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

50. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events:

1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy

2. Quit India Movement launched

3. Second Round Table Conference

What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

(a) 1-2-3

art and culture

51. With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements:

1. It is a song and dance performance.

2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.

3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3.

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

52. The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at:

(a) Ajanta (b) Badami (c) Bagh (d) Ellora

53. Consider the following pairs:

Traditions

Communities

1. Chaliha Sahib FestivalSindhis

2. Nanda Raj Jaat YatraGonds

3. Wari-Warkari Santhals

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) None of the above

54. Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?

1. Arasavalli

2. Amarakantak

3. Omkareshwar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

INdIAN ECONOMY— ECONOMIC ANd SOCIAl dEVElOPMENT

PuBlIc fInance

55. Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?

1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.

2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.

(b) 2-1-3

(d) 3-1-2

3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

56. Consider the following statements:

1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.

2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

aGrIculture

57. What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme?

1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.

2. It provides the f armers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

58. Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture?

1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land

2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field

3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

59. Consider the following statements: The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at

1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.

2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.

3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only

InduStry and other ImPortant SectorS

60. Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017?

1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade.

2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country.

3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only

61. The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for

(a) the participation of workers in the management of industries.

(b) arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes.

(d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.

62. With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements:

1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.

2. Properties held benami are liable for conf iscation by the Government.

3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism. Which of the statements .given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

63. Consider the following statements:

1. Th e Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions.

2. N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

64. Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?

(a) Resident Indian citizens only.

(b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only.

(c) All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments.

(d) All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004.

65. With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, consider the following statements:

1. It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.

2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

66. With reference to ‘Quality Council of India (QCI)’, consider the following statements:

1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry.

2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

67. What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?

1. To supply credit to small business units

2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers

3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

68. Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’?

(a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.

(b) Digital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades.

(d) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective.

69. With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.

2. It has a corpus of Rs. 4, 00,000 crore at present.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

70. Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news?

(a) It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government.

(b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.

(d) It is an important provision in ‘The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code’ recently implemented by the Government.

71. Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991?

1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously

2. Share of India’s exports in world trade increased.

3. FDI inflows increased.

4. India’s foreign exchange reserves increased enormously.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

72. Consider the following statements:

1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country.

2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

73. What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’?

1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.

2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.

3. It will enormously increase the gro wth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

74. ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and

(a) European Union

(b) Gulf Cooperation Council

(d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization

75. Consider the following statements:

1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.

2. TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.

3. TFA came into force in January 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Short noteS on PoVerty and unemPloyment

76. Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to:

(a) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels.

(b) Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes.

(d) Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme.

77. With reference to ‘National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)’, which of the statements given below is/are correct?

1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning.

2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

other SocIal Sector InItIatIVeS and IncluSIonS

78. Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’?

1. To create a wareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.

2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.

3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice.

4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

79. Consider the following in respect of ‘National Career Service’:

1. Na tional Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.

2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

other SocIal ProtectIon ProGrammeS

80. What is the purpose of Vidyanjali Yojana’?

1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India.

2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community.

3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

81. What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’?

(a) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and government’s education system and local communities.

(b) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.

(d) Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them.

GENERAl SCIENCE

lIfe ScIenceS

82. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?

1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.

2. There could be a drastic increase in the fung al infections of some cultivated plants.

3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

83. What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology?

(a) Production of biolarvicides

(b) Ma nufacture of biodegradable plastics

(d) Production of org anisms free of diseases

84. It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?

1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.

2. Setting up and engineering the alg ae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/ technology until the construction is completed.

3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

85. With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of `genome sequencing’, often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?

1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic mark ers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.

2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.

3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

86. Consider the following statements:

1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.

2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

chemIStry

87. Consider the following pairs: Commonly used material Unwanted or controversial chemicals found in them

1. LipstickLead

2. Soft drinksBrominated vegetable oils

3. Chinese fast food Monosodium glutamate

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

PhySIcS

88. Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays?

1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates.

2. Ro ll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs.

3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) None of the abov e statements is correct

89. What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)’ project?

(a) To detect neutrinos

(b) To detect gravitational waves

(d) To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems

GENERAl KNOWlEdGE & CuRRENT AFFAIRS

InternatIonal orGanIzatIonS

90. With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)’, consider the following statements:

1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms — Policy Responses and Governance Structure’.

2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

91. Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world?

(a) World Economic Forum

(b) UN Human Rights Council

92. The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to (a) ASEAN (b) BRICS (c) EU (d) G20

93. Consider the following statements:

1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations.

2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

94. The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/ an

(a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.

(b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.

(c) Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment.

(d) UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world.