Pass4sure HP0-918 dumps

Page 1

Exam

: HP HP0-918

Title

: HP Storage Data Protector 6.0 Fundamentals for Windows

Version : R6.1

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1. How can you collect debug files from distributed Data Protector clients in the environment? A. Use the omnidlc command. B. Use the devbra collector. C. Use the omnitrig process. D. Use the Web Reporting GUI. Answer: A 2. Which command checks the Data Protector services, the media management database consistency, and that there is at least one backup of the Data Protector database? A. omnicheck B. omnihealth C. omnidbcheck D. omnihealthcheck Answer: D 3. Between which instances is data moved during a disk staging object copy process? A. Media Agent and Disk Agent B. Media Agent and Media Agent C. Backup Session Manager and Disk Agent D. Backup Session Manager and Media Agent Answer: B 4. You are not able to configure a changer device on a remote media agent with the Data Protector SSE (Single Server Edition). What can you do to resolve this problem? A. Configure host access to the LUN. B. Install the required device driver for the library. C. Disable the RSM service on the agent system. D. Upgrade Data Protector to support remote devices. Answer: D 5. What communication technique is used for disk agent to media agent data transfer if the agents do NOT reside on the same host? A. RMI over LAN B. remote agents C. stream sockets D. pipe mechanisms Answer: C 6. What are the three key qualifiers Data Protector uses to identify file system objects in the database? (Select three.)

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A. device B. filenames C. hostname D. mountpoint E. description F. rawdisk sections Answer: CDE 7. What is a media pool? A. a collection of media of the same age B. a logical collection of media that belong together C. a concept that enables faster backup and restore D. a physical collection of media that is used by the same device Answer: B 8. How can you prevent multiple hosts from simultaneously attempting to utilize a device in one Data Protector cell? A. logical lock B. device lock C. lock names D. physical lock Answer: C 9. What is the maximum recommended size of a file depot for Windows? A. 50GB B. 100GB C. 200GB D. 600GB Answer: A 10. Which Data Protector feature simplifies shared access of several hosts to a physical device? A. redundant paths B. multipath devices C. device locking mechanism D. multiple device connections Answer: B 11. The Data Protector Backup Session Manager (BSM) runs on which system or systems in the cell? A. client only B. cell manager only

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C. client and cell manager D. dedicated installation server Answer: B 12. Which Data Protector process controls an active backup session? A. the DA (disk agent) on the Cell Client B. the MA (media agent) on the Cell Client C. the CRS (cell request server) on the Cell Manager D. the BSM (backup session manager) on the Cell Manager Answer: D 13. By default, which file is the Data Protector Database recovery file? A. obdb.dat B. obrindex.dat C. obdatafiles.dat D. obdbrecovery.dat Answer: B 14. Which media agent program can be used for interactively sending SCSI commands to a tape library? A. lma B. bma C. uma D. cma E. mma Answer: C 15. A tape library with two drives is connected to two hosts (host A and host B) using SCSI. Each host is accessing one drive through a dedicated SCSI connection. Host B also has access to the robotics interface. Which statement is true in this configuration? A. This configuration is not possible in a SCSI environment because all hosts need physical access to the robotics controller. B. Host A will need the media agent to control the robotics and perform all library operations for the local drive. C. Host B will need the media agent to control the robotics and perform all library operations. D. Both hosts A and B will require a "direct library" configuration to allow shared network control of the robotics. Answer: C 16. What are the benefits of enhanced incremental over conventional incremental backups? (Select two.) A. higher backup throughput

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B. detects renamed and removed files C. backup detects files with attribute changes D. backups are more secure due to better encryption E. files with longer names are detected and backed up Answer: BC 17. What must first be done on a Windows NT cell manager before upgrading Data Protector to version 5.5? A. Ensure that a Windows installation server is installed. B. Ensure the current Data Protector version is at the highest patch level. C. Install the latest Windows NT service pack. D. Upgrade Windows NT to a higher Windows version. Answer: D 18. How can you configure a mixed media library with Data Protector? A. Set up a MultiPath device. B. Set up one library definition per media type. C. Set the media type manually on the library slots. D. DP automatically configures the different media slots. Answer: B 19. Which hardware is automatically reconfigured by ASR (Automated System Recovery) if that hardware is replaced with a different type or size as part of the disaster recovery process? A. Hard drive B. Video card C. Network card D. Host bus adapter Answer: A 20. Which interconnect technology is supported for shared tape device resources in a cluster where the Cell Manager is installed in the cluster? A. SCSI B. Ethernet C. Fibre Channel D. SATA and SCSI Answer: C 21. Which installation tool is used to install the Data Protector Cell Manager on Windows? A. Microsoft Installer B. Omnisetup

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C. Install script D. swinstall Answer: A 22. What will happen to an extra session that is started over the default or configured number of concurrent backups? A. The extra session will fail and the backup will be lost. B. The session will be queued and started when others finish. C. All of the backups will start at the same time to avoid backup loss. D. The extra backups will be scheduled to start at a time configured in the global file. Answer: B 23. When defining a logical tape library device, the access to a library is split into two paths. What are the paths? (Select two.) A. SCSI path B. data path C. network path D. control path Answer: BD 24. What is a consideration when planning multiple Data Protector cells between North America and Europe? A. each cell should be in a different time zone B. all cells must have their own dedicated server hardware C. a centralized Media Management Database should be installed D. the cell system clocks should be synchronized to the same time Answer: A 25. Who has ownership of a running backup and the resulting media set? A. the creator of the data B. the creator of the backup specification C. any user in the same user group as the data creator D. all operators in the same operator group as the data creator Answer: B 26. When backing up a Windows system, Data Protector supports which object types? (Select two.) A. client B. NetWare C. file system - HFS D. file system - VxFS

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E. file system - NTFS Answer: AE 27. What must be done when upgrading cluster-aware clients to Data Protector version 5.5? A. Upgrade each cluster node locally and then re-import the virtual server into the cell. B. Uninstall the client software on the clients, re-install the new client software locally, and re-import the clients into the cell. C. Remotely install the virtual server and re-import the client nodes into the cell. D. Delete all client nodes from the cell, remotely install the client software and re-import the virtual server into the cell. Answer: A 28. Which data characteristic best defines the most achievable data compression ratio? A. type B. size C. location D. block size Answer: A 29. What is a correct statement about SSH security in Data Protector environments? A. SSH2 is the only supported version. B. It is not supported on Windows systems. C. All of the cell communication is encrypted. D. It must be enabled in the global options file. Answer: B 30. Which logging level has the biggest influence on backup performance making the backup process slower? A. Log All B. No Log C. Log Files D. Log Directories Answer: A 31. Tapes may be initialized from the Data Protector GUI "Devices & Media" context. Which action performs this task? A. Initialize B. Format C. Import D. Export

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Answer: B 32. What is the restore performance of a synthetic full backup compared to a conventional full backup? A. the same B. considerably faster C. considerably slower D. faster by the number of tapes in the chain Answer: A 33. What is required to perform a valid image backup? A. A dynamic partition B. The partition table is known by DP. C. There is no open file on the target disk. D. The file size limit is 2GB for the partition. Answer: C 34. Access to the Data Protector Reporting functionality is granted to users in the admin group and to those with which user right or rights? A. Reporting, Monitor, and Log B. User, Device, and Media C. Monitor, Backup, and Restore D. Reporting and Notification Answer: D 35. Regarding Disaster Recovery, what information does the Phase 1 start-up file (P1S) contain? A. information on how to format and install all disks within a system B. information about the logical tape device C. information about system registry D. information on drivers and software to be loaded Answer: A 36. When configuring a backup, when does Static Device Allocation occur? A. when the backup specification is targeted at a specific physical device B. when each object defined in the backup specification is targeted at a specific logical device C. when each object defined in the backup specification is targeted at a specific physical device D. when several objects defined in the backup specification are targeted at several logical devices Answer: B 37. When using the restore into option for an object restore, the object will be restored into a different directory. What is important to know about restoring the object? (Select two.) A. The subdirectories must already exist.

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B. The subdirectories will be created as needed. C. The subdirectories will be appended to the destination path. D. If not specified, all files will be restored into a single directory relative to the system root (e.g. c:\). E. If not specified, all files in the subdirectories will be created as sparse files. Answer: BC 38. Assuming a default configuration, what is required to perform reporting and notification from a client system? (Select two.) A. user rights B. admin rights C. user interface D. operator rights E. reporting agent Answer: BC 39. When using One Button Disaster Recovery (OBDR), what is the minimum free space that should be on a boot partition during backup? A. 100 MB B. 150 MB C. 200 MB D. 250 MB Answer: C 40. Which file must be edited to enable single cell server restore within the cell? A. global B. hosts C. omnirc D. allow_hosts Answer: D 41. Data Protector provides an event driven notification system. Which notification methods are available? (Select two.) A. filter B. email C. paging D. broadcast E. store to database Answer: BD 42. You are going to perform an "eject" Logical Device Operation for a tape residing in a library. When will

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