SSGI Black Belt Exam| Lean Six Sigma Master Black Belt Certification Exam 2025/26
SSGI Black Belt Exam Questions & Answers _ Fall 2025. The interpolation forecast represents a forecast using the actual data from which the regression equation was computed. Review Later True False A s long as the residuals create a random pattern around the zero line in a residual plot, the linear regression equation can be considered an appropriate fit to the data. Review Later True False When a linear equation is an appropriate model for a dataset, the distribution of data around the regression line should suggest a series of distributions centered on the regression line with constant variance across the range of the chart. Review Later Rectangular Skewed Normal Binomial When the variability around the regression line is the same for all values of the independent variable X this is referred to as . Review Later homoscedasticity Interpolation variability heteroscedasticity quadratic variation When an independent variable in a multiple regression model includes a value of X to a higher power, such as X squared, and this model produces a higher value of R-squared than a linear model, this suggests that the residual plot for the linear equation did not produce a random pattern around the zero line of the residual plot. Review Later True False When testing for multicollinearity, a regression can be run in which one of the suspected independent variables becomes the dependent variable and the other is the independent variable. Review Later True False A multiple regression model that has been shown to suffer from multicollinearity can not be used even for predictive purposes. Review Later True False Predictions when using a multiple regression equation can take which of the following forms. Review Later Point estimate Interval estimate Neither of the above Both of the above Multicollinearity cannot occur in a simple linear regression model. Review Later True False The challenge in a DOE is to find the combination of capable of producing an optimal response. Review Later output levels experiments fractional trials factor levels A four factor, two level design will require trials to explore the interaction between factors. Review Later 2 4 8 16 An OFAT does not fully cover the experimental design space. Review Later True False A design can cut the number of runs in a DOE without loosing too much information. Review Later fractional factorial full factorial one factor at a time one level at a time The main effect of factor A, in a two factor, two level experiment, is
found by computing the average response when factor A is high and then computing the average response when factor A is low. Finally the difference between the two is calculated. Review Later True False The significance of the main effect can be determined by the steepness of the line in the main effects plot. The less steep is the line, the more significant is the result. Review Later True False In an interaction plot for a two factor, two level experiment, the vertical lines are drawn above "A low" and "B low". Review Later True False Consider the following interaction analysis. Factor A is increased from low to high. The response increases by 40 points regardless of the level of B. This suggests a high level of interaction between A and B. Review Later True False If the lines on an interaction plot are parallel this suggests no interaction between the two factors. Review Later True False The most important variable in a two level two factor DOE is the one with the greatest change visible on the main effects plot when the factor is changed between two levels. Review Later True False A response surface that is curved can be represented by a function Review Later linear digital continuous quadratic Which of the following tools is not useful in identifying the possible factors in a DOE. Review Later FMEA RPN SIPOC All are useful The factors in a DOE that can not be accounted for are called . Review Later variables outputs noise responses In a DOE, the factors represent those variables over which the experimenter has control. Review Later True False Customer satisfaction in a DOE is an example of a variable. Review Later factor response process all of the above The alternative hypothesis states what it is you are trying to prove. Review Later True False In a hypothesis test, a critical value of 0.01 as compared to a critical value of 0.05 would make it more difficult to reject a null hypothesis. Review Later True False When testing a hypothesis that the population from which a sample has been taken is equal to or grater than a specific value, a two-tailed test is necessary Review Later True False A two sample t test is conducted. The results show that the calculated p-value is 0.06. The critical p-value is 0.05. The null hypothesis should be rejected. Review Later True False The computed value from a two sample t test measures how likely it would be to observe two samples this far apart that have been taken from the same population. Review Later True False Samples have been taken of a process before and after it has been improved. A two sample t test is conducted. The null hypothesis states that the two means are not equal. Review Later True False A health clinic with four facilities administers a patient satisfaction questionnaire at each of their
clinics. Their objective is to determine if patient satisfaction differs across these locations. Which of the following tests would be appropriate. Review Later One sample t Two sample t Multi sample t ANOVA Consider an I-MR-chart for plotting the range. The point that is plotted on the chart is calculated by taking the absolute value of the difference between successive observations. Review Later True False The UCL in an I-MR range chart is 3 standard errors of the mean on either side of the process mean where the estimate of the standard error of the mean is the average MR divided by 1.128. Review Later True False The I-MR chart is unusual in that the results of individual samples (samples of size 1) are plotted on a chart. In other process control charts it is the mean of larger samples that is plotted. Review Later True False In a U-Chart, The UCL and LCL change because the value of can change with every sample. Review Later u n IU c If the LCL in U-Chart is negative, it is positioned at zero. Review Later True False An inspection unit is 100. The sample size is 400. The subgroup size is . Review Later 0.25 4 100 400 The inspection unit and the number in a sample are the same. Review Later True False A U-Chart measures the average number of nonconformities per inspection unit sampled. Review Later True False The value of u is equal to the number of nonconformities divided by the . Review Later sample size subgroup size inspection unit population size The number of inspection units changes with every sample. Review Later True False The sample size must be the same as the IU. Review Later True False When determining the sample size for a given confidence interval, as the size of the desired interval becomes smaller the sample size decreases. Review Later True False A sample of 100 items is taken from a process that has been adjusted after it was found that its mean had shifted. The sample mean is 65. The sample standard deviation is 10. Which of the following is a 90 percent confidence interval. Review Later 62 to 68 59 to 69 63 to 67 65 to 67 Consider that 100 samples of size 35 are taken from a distribution of sample means . A 95 percent confidence interval is then constructed around the mean of each of these samples. How many would be expected to include the true but unknown mean of the distribution of sample means? Review Later 5 50 90 95 The performance of four groups must be compared. The sample size is small and the distributions are not normally distributed. Which of the following tests would be appropriate? Review Later Two Sample t Mann-Whitney Kruskal-Wallis One Sample t The calculated p-value for a One Sample Sign test is 0.246. Using the conventional value for p, the null hypothesis
cannot be rejected. Review Later True False Parametric tests that rely on the assumption of normality can deliver erroneous conclusions when sample sizes are small. Review Later True False Which of the following tests require that distributions from which samples are taken is normally or close to normally distributed? Review Later MannWhitney Kruskal-Wallace One Sample t One Sample sign None of the above The median statistic is used in nonparametric hypothesis tests because the median is less sensitive to extreme values like those found in a skewed distribution. Review Later True False The Mann-Whitney test is used to determine if a single sample is equal to a target value. Review Later True False A One Sample t Test has been undertaken. The number of plus and minus signs are equal. There is likely no difference between the sample result and target. Review Later True False Which of the following is not a nonparametric hypothesis test? Review Later Mann-Whitney Test Two Sample t Test Wilcoxon Test Kruskal-Wallis Test In a One Sample Sign test, the sample outcome is ranked. Review Later True False A marketing manager would like to compare three possible national advertising campaigns to determine if there is a difference between them. They have convened a group of 30 people and will assign 10 at random to each of the three possible strategies. After viewing the marketing campaign they will be asked how likely they would be to purchase the product. Likelihood would be rated on a scale of 1 to 10. Which of the following tests would be used to determine if there is a difference between their responses? Review Later Sign test Whitney-Mann One Sample t Kruskal-Wallace A SIPOC diagram does not include delays and other measures of inefficiency. Review Later True False A process map not only includes process steps but also includes work flow decisions. Review Later True False Which of the following is a high-level map of a process that does not include much detail. Review Later Process Map SIPOC diagram FMEA CTQ map The X-Y matrix compares the correlation between inputs and outputs for the purpose of determining the most important inputs in a process. Review Later True False Which of the following can be used to identify inputs to the X-Y matrix?
Review Later SIPOC Fishbone diagram Process Chart All of the above can be used The inputs to an X-Y matrix are weighted using numbers between one and one hundred. Review Later True False Outputs in an X-Y matrix are ranked by their level of importance. The scale is usually 1 to 10. Review Later True False Which of the following is associated with Poka-Yoke? Review Later X-Y Matrix Mistake proofing Control chart design Voice of
the Customer is a qualitative tool that focuses on how a process, product or service might fail. Review Later FMEA VOC VOP LSL A Risk Priority Number is computed from which of the following estimates? Review Later Severity Occurrence Detection All of the above When Process Capability is , the process is likely to satisfy customer requirements Review Later less than one greater than one zero 100 percent A Taguchi Loss function implies that the loss to company as the process output varies on either side of the process mean remains constant regardless of how far the output varies from this mean. Review Later True False The UCL is 30, the LCL is 20. The LSL is 15 and the USL is 25. This process will customer expectations. Review Later True False For a process to meet customer expectations the LCL and UCL must be contained within the LSL and USL Review Later True False In an NP-Chart, the size of a sample can vary. Review Later True False In a P-Chart the size of the sample can vary Review Later True False When N>25, there is no need for a shortcut formula to determine the upper and lower control limits for an X-Bar chart. Review Later True False When N<12, the range is used as an estimate for the standard deviation when constructing an X-Bar chart. Review Later True False An Alpha or Type I error occurs when a sample mean exceeds the LCL or LCL but the process is still in-control. Review Later True False When a Six Sigma standard is used to design a process, the number of Defects Per Million Outcomes will be . Review Later 6219 320 3.4 6 A unit can have only one defect. Review Later True False Consider a step with a yield of 0.9. The second step has a yield of 0.8. The Rolled Throughput Yield of this process is . Review Later 0.9 0.8 1.7 0.72 Which of the following charts can be used to determine the cumulative probability that several sources contribute to a problem? Review Later Pareto Fishbone diagram Ordered Histogram histogram Consider 20 trials in an experiment where the probability of success on any one trial is 0.4. The mean of this distribution is . Review Later 0.4 0.2 8 0.8 The Sampling Distribution of the Mean is normally distributed for sample sizes of ten. Review Later True False A sampling distribution for sample sizes of 35 has a mean of 100 and a standard error of the mean of 5. What is the likelihood that a sample of 35 taken at random will fall between two standard deviations on either side of the mean of this distribution? Review Later 0.5 0.34 0.9 0.95 A project charter does not include . Review Later schedule WBS Risk mitigation plan It incudes all of the above. Which of the following is used to display a project schedule? Review Later Histogram WBS Gantt Chart Pareto Diagram Which of the
following represents tasks and their relationships to one another as an inverted hierarchical chart? Review Later Histogram WBS Gant Chart Pareto Diagram The mean process variation has shifted, but this shift has not been detected by the control chart. This is an example of an Alpha or Type I error. Review Later True False In the design of a control chart for process variation, when sample sizes are greater than 25, the centerline of the control chart will be the mean of several preliminary samples. Review Later True False The term Manage is not one of the steps in the DMAIC acronym. Review Later True False Primary cause variation is the variation of most concern in Six Sigma. Review Later True False Consider that an on-line order form contains 12 fields of information. To determine the DPMO 20, forms are sampled, and 14 defects uncovered. The DPMO is . Review Later 700000 0.0583 58333 none of the above NP and P charts are used to monitor discrete data. Review Later True False Even the most carefully designed processes cannot eliminate all traces of variation. Review Later True False Six Sigma focuses on monitoring in processes Review Later delays waste variation errors The reason that Six Sigma standards may not be set for a process is that standards this high may be costly to achieve. Review Later True False The intercept in a multiple linear regression model indicates the increase in the dependent variable for a unit increase in all the independent variables. Review Later True False A second independent variable has been added to a multiple regression model. When the first simple linear regression model was run, that independent variable was found to be significant. Since this variable was proven to be significant in the simple linear model, it will definitely remain significant once an additional independent variables added. Review Later True False The value of R-squared represents the unexplained variation for a regression equation. Review Later True False In regression, a two-tailed p-value test is used to determine if the coefficient of each independent variable is significant. Review Later True False In a multiple regression model, a test of significance for the regression equation is not necessary if all the independent variables prove significant. Review Later True False In multiple regression, the intercept must be tested to determine if it is significant. Review Later True False The residual in a multiple regression model represents the difference between the forecast result for a specific value of the independent variable and the actual result for that specific values. It is the difference between what would have been forecast using the regression equation and the actual result. Review Later True False
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