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Question #:1 - [RM 4: How information and technology enable the practice]
A release manager has decided on a policy of not allowing users to choose to accept software updates. What is this an example of?
A ‘pull’ approach
A ‘push’ approach
Continuous delivery
Continuous integration
Answer: B
Explanation
The document explains the difference between push and pull
ITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Management approaches in release management:"In a push approach, updates are deployed to users without giving them a choice, often to ensure compliance or security. In a pull approach, users can choose when to adopt updates" (Section 3.2.3).
Option A (A ‘pull’ approach) is incorrect because a pull approach allows users to choose when to accept updates, which contradicts the scenario.
Option B (A ‘push’ approach) is correct, as the policy of not allowing users to choose means the updates are automatically deployed to them, fitting the definition of a push approach.
Option C (Continuous delivery) and Option D (Continuous integration) are development practices, not release deployment strategies. Continuous delivery involves making releases available frequently, but it doesn’t specify whether users must accept them (push) or can choose (pull).
The scenario describes a push approach, making B the correct answer.
Question #:2 - [RM 2: The processes of the practice]
Which is a key input to the release planning and coordination process?
Documented findings on the success of a release
Updates to the continual improvement register
Details about the users who will be affected
Notifications to stakeholders about the release status
Answer: C
Explanation
The release planning and coordination process in ITIL 4 Release Management requires inputs toensure effective planning and execution of releases. The document ITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Management specifies:"Key inputs to release planning and coordination include details about the users who will be (Section 3.2.1). affected, as this helps in scheduling and communicating the release to minimize disruption"
Option A (Documented findings on the success of a release) is an output of a release evaluation, not an input to planning.
Option B (Updates to the continual improvement register) may inform long-term improvements but isn’ t a direct input to planning a specific release.
Option C (Details about the users who will be affected) is a critical input, as understanding the user base helps tailor the release schedule, communication, and impact mitigation strategies.
Option D (Notifications to stakeholders about the release status) is an output of the release process, not an input to planning.
The correct answer is C, as user details are essential for effective release planning and coordination.
Question #:3 - [RM 7: How to apply ITIL guiding principles for the practice]
A service provider is reviewing its release management practice. It has been found that most releases meet their objectives and are delivered on time. However, teams and organizations using the service provider’s services are complaining that sometimes software updates interrupt their work during peak business hours. What should the service provider do to improve the release management practice by applying the ‘collaborate and promote visibility’ guiding principle?
Ensure an excellent user experience
Review the effectiveness of release models
Optimize the practice for the value streams
Do not overcomplicate the practice
Answer: A
Explanation
The ‘collaborate and promote visibility’ guiding principle in ITIL 4 emphasizes working with stakeholders to ensure transparency and alignment with their needs. TheITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Management document advises:"Applying the ‘collaborate and promote visibility’ principle involves working closely with stakeholders, such as service consumers, to understand their needs and ensure releases do not disrupt their (Section 5.1). operations, thereby ensuring an excellent user experience"
The issue is that updates interrupt work during peak hours, indicating a lack of collaboration with users to understand their schedules and needs.
Option A (Ensure an excellent user experience) directly addresses this by implying collaboration with users to schedule releases at non-disruptive times, aligning with the principle.
Option B (Review the effectiveness of release models) is an internal activity and doesn’t directly involve collaboration with stakeholders.
Option C (Optimize the practice for the value streams) focuses on value stream efficiency but doesn’t specifically address user collaboration.
Option D (Do not overcomplicate the practice) is unrelated to the collaboration principle.
The correct answer is A, as ensuring an excellent user experience through collaboration directly applies the principle to address the issue.
Question #:4 - [RM 5: The role of the practice and suppliers in the practice]
A release manager is considering the involvement of third parties in the release management practice. Which release management activity is likely to have a dependency on third parties?
Release management alignment with other practices
Identifying an applicable model for a release instance
Performing a release according to an agreed model
Verifying a release according to the release plan
Answer: C
Explanation
Third parties, such as suppliers or vendors, often play a role in the execution of releases, especially when they provide components or services involved in the release. TheITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Management document states:"Performing a release according to an agreed model often involves dependencies on third parties, such as suppliers providing software updates, infrastructure, or support services, which need to be (Section 3.4). integrated during the release execution"
Option A (Release management alignment with other practices) is an internal coordination activity, less likely to directly involve third parties.
Option B (Identifying an applicable model) is a planning activity typically handled internally by the release manager.
A. B. C. D.
Option C (Performing a release according to an agreed model) directly involves executing the release, which often requires third-party components or services, creating a dependency.
Option D (Verifying a release) may involve third-party tools but is less dependent on their active participation compared to execution.
The correct answer is C, as performing the release is the activity most likely to depend on third parties.
Question #:5 - [RM 2: The processes of the practice]
An organization’s project and operational teams are concerned that individual releases involve some unnecessary activities and are missing some important activities. What is the BEST action for the organization to take to improve this situation?
Introduce proactive communication channels for the service provider to make release management processes more efficient
Review current release models, create additional models where appropriate, and automate where possible
Ensure that release management key metrics are integrated with metrics relating to deployment management and change enablement
Automate the release management activities together with development activities
Answer: B
Explanation
The concern about unnecessary and missing activities in releases points to issues with the release models being used. The document advises: ITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Management "To address inefficiencies in release processes, such as unnecessary or missing activities, organizations should review current release models, create additional models where appropriate to address gaps, and automate repetitive tasks to (Section 3.2.2). improve efficiency"
Option A (Introduce proactive communication channels) improves stakeholder engagementbut doesn’t directly address the issue of unnecessary or missing activities.
Option B (Review current release models, create additional models, and automate) directly tackles the problem by refining the release models to eliminate unnecessary activities, add missing ones, and enhance efficiency through automation.
Option C (Integrate metrics with deployment and change enablement) focuses on performance measurement, not process improvement.
Option D (Automate with development activities) addresses automation but doesn’t specifically tackle the issue of refining release activities.
The correct answer is B, as it directly addresses the root cause by improving release models.
Question #:6 - [RM 2: The processes of the practice]
A service owner is initiating the release planning and coordination process for a complex project. What is an example of the FIRST activity that the service owner should undertake in this instance?
Test the service components and take remedial action as necessary
Ensure that the release procedures are appropriate for the particular release under consideration
Select a release model that fits with the types of changes to be included in the release
Check that an automated notification has been sent to stakeholders
Answer: C
Explanation
The release planning and coordination process begins with defining the approach for the release. TheITIL® 4 document states: Practitioner: Release Management "The first step in release planning and coordination is to select an appropriate release model that fits the types of changes to be included in the release. This ensures (Section 3.2.1). that the release approach aligns with the nature and complexity of the changes"
Option A (Test the service components) is part of the release execution or testing phase, not the first step in planning.
Option B (Ensure that the release procedures are appropriate) is a subsequent step after selecting the model, to confirm procedural alignment.
Option C (Select a release model) is the first activity, as it sets the foundation for how the release will be structured and managed, especially for a complex project.
Option D (Check that an automated notification has been sent) occurs later, during the communication phase of the release process.
The correct answer is C, as selecting the release model is the initial step in release planning.
Question #:7 - [RM 1: The purpose of the practice]
An organization invested in the development and adoption of a common approach to release management. Which metric will help the organization to understand if this initiative has been successful?
Alignment of release management procedures between the organization and its suppliers
The percentage of releases that do not result in incidents
The satisfaction rating given by service consumers of individual releases
The number of releases that were implemented after the target implementation date
Answer: B
Explanation
A common approach to release management aims to improve the reliability and stability of releases. The document highlights key metrics for evaluating the success of ITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Management release management:"Key metrics for release management often include the percentage of releases that do (Section 5.3). not result in incidents, as this indicates the stability and reliability of the release process"
Option A (Alignment with suppliers) is a process improvement metric but doesn’t directly measure the success of the release outcomes.
Option B (The percentage of releases that do not result in incidents) directly measures the effectiveness of the release process by assessing its impact on service stability, aligning with the goal of a common approach to reduce errors and disruptions.
Option C (Satisfaction rating) is a valuable metric but is more subjective and less directly tied to the operational success of a common approach.
Option D (Number of delayed releases) measures timeliness but not the quality or stability of the releases.
The best metric to assess the success of a standardized release management approach is the reduction in incidents, making B the correct answer.
Question #:8 - [RM 4: How information and technology enable the practice]
What automation tools should be used to help a release manager understand how the organization’s services are related to one another?
Analysis and reporting tools
Work planning and prioritization tools
Monitoring and event management tools
Enterprise architecture tools
Answer: D
Explanation
Understanding service relationships is critical for effective release management, especially to assess the impact of releases. The document states: ITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Management "Enterprise architecture tools help release managers understand the relationships between services, applications, and (Section 4.2). infrastructure, enabling better impact analysis and dependency mapping for releases"
Option A (Analysis and reporting tools) focuses on performance metrics, not service relationships.
Option B (Work planning and prioritization tools) aids in scheduling, not understanding service dependencies.
Option D (Enterprise architecture tools) is the correct choice, as these tools map out service relationships and dependencies, helping the release manager plan releases effectively.
The correct answer is D, as enterprise architecture tools are designed for this purpose.
Question #:9 - [RM 3: The roles and competencies of the practice]
A retail organization is hiring a new release manager. The vacancy description indicates that successful candidates should have good knowledge of technologies and platforms used by the organization, good knowledge of ITIL and DevOps, and experience in retail. What other skill is important to the release management role?
Knowledge of service management frameworks
Project planning and coordination
Technical expertise
D. Option C (Monitoring and event management tools) is used for real-time performancetracking, not structural relationships.
Understanding of the organization’s business
Answer: B
Explanation
The release management role in ITIL 4 requires a range of competencies to ensure effective coordination and execution of releases. The document states: ITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Management "A release manager must have strong project planning and coordination skills to manage the scheduling, communication, and (Section 3.3). execution of releases, ensuring alignment with organizational goals and minimal disruption"
Option A (Knowledge of service management frameworks) is already covered by the requirement of ITIL knowledge in the vacancy description, so it’s not an additional skill.
Option B (Project planning and coordination) is a critical skill for release managers, as they need to orchestrate complex release activities, manage timelines, and coordinate with stakeholders, which isn’t explicitly covered by the listed requirements.
Option C (Technical expertise) is implied by the requirement for knowledge of technologies and platforms, so it’s not an additional skill.
Option D (Understanding of the organization’s business) is important but less specific to release management compared to project planning, and the retail experience requirement already covers business context.
The correct answer is B, as project planning and coordination is a key additional skill for effective release management.
Question #:10 - [RM 4: How information and technology enable the practice]
A. B. C.
An organization manually checks that releases of new or changed products/services have been successfully completed. Which tools should be used to automate this process?
A.
B. C.
D.
Monitoring and event management tools
Workflow management and collaboration tools
Enterprise architecture tools
Analysis and reporting tools
Answer: A
Explanation
Automating the verification of release success involves tracking the performance and stability of the released services. The document notes: ITIL® 4 Practitioner: Release Management "Monitoring and event management tools can automate the verification of release success by tracking system performance and (Section 4.2). detecting anomalies post-release, ensuring the release meets its objectives"
Option A (Monitoring and event management tools) is correct, as these tools can automatically check system health and performance after a release, replacing manual checks.
Option B (Workflow management and collaboration tools) focuses on process coordination, not postrelease verification.
Option C (Enterprise architecture tools) is used for dependency mapping, not release verification.
Option D (Analysis and reporting tools) provides retrospective insights but doesn’t automate real-time verification.
The correct answer is A, as monitoring tools are best suited for automating release verification.
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