Philosophies And Theories For Advanced Nursing Practice 3rd Edition By Janie B. Butts, Karen L. Rich

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Philosophies and Theories for Advanced Nursing Practice Janie B. Butts and Karen L. Rich Test Bank Chapter1-26(Complete Questions & Answers)

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Chapter 1 – Philosophy of Science: An Introduction 1. Why are natural sciences also referred to as ―pure‖ sciences?

A. They are considered stand-alone bodies of unique knowledge.

B. They are the only sciences to which the scientific method can be applied.

C. They are the original sciences upon which all others are based.

D. They are not affected by subjectivity in the way other sciences are.

Ans: A 2. Which is not an example of an applied science as used in health care today?

A. Social work B. Psychotherapy C. Examination of care disparities D. Pathology Ans: D 3. Roberta firmly believes that individual experiences are the source of all knowledge in the world. As a scientist, she acknowledges her role as a participant in the experiments she performs and does consider herself merely a disconnected observer of phenomenon.

LhLiE Roberta’s views are most closTeE lySrT efB leA ctN ivKeSoE fw chRs. chCoOoM l of scientific thought?

A. Natural Science B. Human Science C. Applied Science D. Soft Science Ans: B 4. What is the ultimate goal of the scientific method?

A. Application of scientific results to a related body of knowledge in order to meet some type of human need.

B. Examination of the decisions made by a scientist to understand the ways in which subjectivity was introduced to the experiment.

C. Reproducible experimental results that do not take researcher individuality into account.

D. Improving the situation or process used in the experiment to yield more accurate results in repeat experiments.

Ans: C

5. Which of the following best describes the aim of natural sciences?

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A. Affirmation of the importance of cultural understanding by uncovering the common subjective biases of different disciplines.

B. Improvement of the quality of life by understanding what helps people maximize their functional abilities.

C. Utilization of knowledge by applying it to a specific purpose in order to better a situation or change viewpoints.

D. Development of knowledge for the sake of developing knowledge, discovering truth, and controlling outcomes.

Ans: D 6. Gretchen and Peter are graduate students in the same Physics lab. Their supervisor has asked both of them to perform the same experiment using the same procedure and equipment. After they’ve both completed their task, the compare their results and discover that they are nearly identical. Which of the five criteria for science does Gretchen and Peter’s discovery exemplify?

A. Intersubjective testability B. Reliability C. Definiteness and precision D. Coherence

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Ans: A

7. Which statement does not describe a general characteristic of philosophy?

A. Thinking for the sake of thinking.

B. Utilization of process and outcome.

C. Demarcation of wholeness and holism.

D. Application of epistemology and ontology.

Ans: C 8. Repetitive patterns of behavior dictated by past experiences is an example of which source of knowledge?

A. Doctrine B. Common sense C. Tradition D. Authority Ans: C

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9. Francisco is a chemist who rigidly applies the scientific method to all that he does, whether in the lab or out of it, and strongly believes that all relationships are governed by cause and effect. He sees little need for subjectivity in any area of his life, believing instead that the world is an external concept completely independent of individual thoughts or desires. Which philosophical school best describes Francisco’s outlook on the world?

A. Phenomenology B. Logical positivism C. Hermeneutics D. Post-structuralism Ans: B 10. Which statement would an adherent of the perceived view most likely make?

A. ―Observation is completely unbiased.‖ B. ―Descriptive law is the gold standard of science.‖ C. ―Individual phenomenon make up the whole that is the universe.‖ D. ―Theories are neither right nor wrong.‖ Ans: D 11. Which philosophy subscribes to the idea that the universe is a whole made of interrelated parts?

TESTBANKSELLER.COM A. Logical positivism B. Chaos and Complexity C. Post-Structuralism D. Hermeneutics Ans: B

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Chapter 2 – The Evolution of Nursing Science 1. Historically, nursing preparation was referred to as ―training,‖ and many nurses educated through the 1970s still use this term to refer to their education. Why is this terminology particularly problematic in light of the advances made in nursing science in the last 30 years?

A. On-the-job apprenticeships are no longer as prevalent as they were up through the late 1970s and early 1980s.

B. It places emphasis on nurses’ abilities to perform tasks rather than reason through and understand the purpose of their actions.

C. Most modern nurses pursue Master’s level education beyond their practice-based Bachelor’s education.

D. The last 30 years have seen nursing education move away from physician-taught courses in hospitals to professor-taught courses at universities.

Ans: B 2. During the 1960s, why did nursing scholars heavily emphasize a focus on the theoretical development of nursing as its own, independent discipline?

A. To support doctoral education for nurses that was discipline specific B. To prove that the logical positivist approach was a poor fit for the discipline C. To encourage and enhance the continued development of nursing science TESTBANKSELLER.COM D. To promote research by nurses in all fields, not merely nursing science Ans: C 3. Which argument best supports the idea of nursing as a professional discipline rather than an academic discipline?

A. ―Nursing is an applied science. Its practice component places an emphasis on the delivery of service by nurses rather than the development of academic knowledge.‖ B. ―Nursing is a discipline with unique substance. It borrows very little from other disciplines and, as a result, is beyond the realm of most academic programs in the sciences that acknowledge idea sharing across disciplines.‖ C. ―Nursing is a concept with a lengthy unofficial history. Individuals have been providing nursing care to others since the Crusades, and this professional provision of services predates formal education in the field.‖ D. ―Nursing is a relative newcomer to advanced education. For many years, nurses were educated or trained only at a Bachelor’s level, and advanced practice therefore has its roots in the profession itself rather than in academia.‖ Ans: A

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4. Which statement best describes the role that logical positivism plays in modern philosophical thought about nursing science and science in general?

A. It remains at the forefront of the understanding of science and dictates the ways in which scientific research is performed.

B. It works in concert with humanistic philosophies of science, with the opposing ideologies functioning as a system of philosophical checks and balances.

C. It no longer holds sway over the sciences, but its influence is so deeply ingrained in the field that it continues to impact modern ideas about science.

D. It has been completely discredited by postmodern philosophers and is regarded as a flawed relic of past scientific thinking.

Ans: C 5. During the 1960s and 1970s, the theory movement in nursing sought to ―prove‖ that nursing was a science by applying strict logical positivist philosophy to the discipline. Why was this application problematic from a philosophical standpoint?

A. It placed too great an emphasis on the art of nursing and left itself open to criticism by the postmodern school of philosophy.

B. It ignored the humanistic and social aspects of providing quality care and focused on the hard science involved.

C. It took too long to develop and by the time it came to fruition the logical positivist perspective had fallen out of fTaE voSr TwBitA hN mKoS stEscLieLnE tiR fic.dCiO scM iplines.

D. It was later disproved by feminist philosophers who unequivocally demonstrated that the logical positivist view was heavily biased against women and minorities.

Ans: B 6. Which statement most accurately encapsulates Thomas Kuhn’s proposed philosophy of science?

A. Science philosophy should address both the conceptual and empirical problems of science and serve as merely a problem-solving activity.

B. Science philosophy should focus on concept clarification and concept analysis based on theory development and synthesis.

C. Science philosophy should resolve conceptual problems in science without being limited to the development of theories.

D. Science philosophy should examine the process of science, rather than the product of science, according to a disciplinary matrix known as a paradigm.

Ans: D 7. Which philosophy is not part of the larger philosophical tradition known as postmodernism?

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A. Historicism B. Hermeneutics C. Critical social theory D. Feminism Ans: A 8. Which statement best describes the theoretical basis behind the postmodern understanding of knowledge?

A. Knowledge is a series of classical ―truths‖ that are colored by gender biases, and it gives rise to the theory of masculine superiority.

B. Knowledge in any field is determined through the discovery of a universal truth, and that truth is applicable to all questions that arise.

C. Knowledge and the knower are inseparable, and class and gender have significant influence on what is considered knowledge.

D. Knowledge is developed through observation of the natural world, and can be best applied to hard science.

Ans: C 9. A nurse who adopts a pluralistic view of nursing science would most likely perform which action?

TESTBANKSELLER.COM A. Follow the espoused values and overall worldview of the nursing discipline even it conflicted with his or her personal beliefs B. Utilize a problem-solving approach based on Laudan’s philosophy while applying the latest disciplinary trends to his or her practice C. Rely on research-proven nursing diagnoses and taxonomies and focus on universal, rather than individual, trends observed in his or her patients D. Draw upon a variety of perspectives from the many eras of nursing development to guide his or her personal practice Ans: D 10. The consensus statement crafted at the Knowledge Consensus Conference in Boston in 1998 addressed the following areas except: A. The nature of the human person B. The role of nursing theory C. The nature of the nurse as an individual D. The links of each area of understanding to nursing practice Ans: C 11. In which area is there a need for increased attention?

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A. Acceptance of pluralism B. Linking feminism to modern trends C. Increasing empirical orientation in conceptual work D. Theory development Ans: D

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Chapter 3 – The Essentials of the Doctor of Nursing Practice: A Philosophical Perspective 1. How did the first nursing doctorate offered by Columbia University in 1924 differ from the various practice-based degrees that were developed during the 1970s?

A. It was a PhD degree focused heavily on nursing theory rather than nursing practice.

B. It was practice-focused but did not have a well-defined curricula that was widely accepted.

C. It was a nursing-related EdD degree intended to prepare nurses to teach at the college level.

D. It was a PhD degree based in maternal-child nursing that emphasized the importance of clinical research.

Ans: C 2. Which event or series of events led to the eventual replacement of the DNS degree by the ND degree as the practice-focused nursing doctorate?

A. The shift in curricula from a practice focus to a theory focus that made the DNS similar to a traditional PhD. B. The introduction of the ―nurse as social engineer‖ philosophy that created a rift between academia and the AACN. TESTBANKSELLER.COM C. The failure to establish uniform curricula for the DNS that led to widely divergent programs around the country.

D. The creation of the AACN task force to evaluate the current status of practice doctorates in nursing.

Ans: A 3. Which aspect of the AACN’s Position Statement on the Practice Doctorate has impacted nursing education the most?

A. The provision for the establishment of the University of Kentucky’s DNP program under the direction of the AACN president.

B. The proposal of a curriculum model based on eight essentials of advanced nursing practice.

C. The recommendation that the DNP become the terminal practice-focused degree for nursing by 2015.

D. The requirement that all DNP, ND, and DNS programs seek accreditation by the AACN in order to ensure uniform curricula.

Ans: C 4. Which documents outline the curriculum standards for all DNP programs?

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A. Essentials of Doctoral Education for Advanced Nursing Practice and Position Statement on the Practice Doctorate B. Essentials of Doctoral Education for Advanced Nursing Practice and Practice Doctorate Nurse Practitioner Entry-Level Competencies C. Position Statement on the Practice Doctorate and Practice Doctorate Nurse Practitioner Entry-Level Competencies D. Practice Doctorate Nurse Practitioner Entry-Level Competencies and Middle-Range Theory in Principle and Practice Ans: B 5. Which ―essential‖ is primarily concerned with the scientific foundations of nursing practice?

A. Essential I B. Essential III C. Essential IV D. Essential VI Ans: A 6. How does Essential V pertain to advanced practice nurses?

NuKlS A. Interprofessional collaborT atE ioS nTinBaAm titE ieL reLdEhR ea.ltC hcOaM re environment B. Evaluation, integration, translation, and application of evidence-based practice C. Analysis of environmental data in the evaluation of population health D. Involvement in healthcare policy and advocacy Ans: D 7. Essential II describes preparation of the DNP nurse in organizational and systems leadership. Which two other Essentials involve utilization of the leadership concepts presented in Essential II? A. Essential III and Essential IV B. Essential III and Essential V C. Essential V and Essential VI D. Essential V and Essential VIII Ans: C 8. How is focusing on the scientific underpinnings of nursing practice paradoxical in terms of discipline development?

A. It requires practitioners to adopt practice values of other disciplines rather than the unique knowledge of their specialty.

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B. It requires nursing to emerge from other academic disciplines rather than from its own professional discipline.

C. It requires nurses to adopt the logical positivist viewpoint in their study even though the must adopt a humanistic viewpoint in their practice.

D. It requires collaboration with professionals in other discipline rather than relationship building within nursing itself.

Ans: A 9. Middle-range theories in nursing can best be described as: A. simplistic and general in focus.

B. abstract and broad in type.

C. concrete and narrow in scope.

D. didactic and restrictive in practice.

Ans: C 10. Why is the application and integration of interdisciplinary theories by advanced practice nurses problematic for the discipline from a philosophical standpoint?

A. It promotes a pluralistic view of the discipline that does not necessarily align with the accepted worldview of the profession.

B. It dilutes nursing’s uniqueTnE esS sT anBdAmNaK kS esEitLdLifEfiR cu.ltCtO oM differentiate as its own discipline.

C. It leads to an overemphasis on logical positivist-based science at the expense of postmodern ideals.

D. It lessens the importance nursing’s human and social focus by introducing other ideological focuses.

Ans: B

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Chapter 4 – Theory as Practice 1. Which statement about a theory is false?

A. Theory is multifaceted, complex, and dynamic.

B. There is one widely accepted definition of what theory is and is not.

C. Theory falls into two broad categories--commonsense and scientific.

D. The overarching goal of theory is to explain phenomenon.

Ans: B 2. Which statement most likely does not describe a commonsense theory?

A. The other students in your class have more free time because they study less than you do.

B. All of your professors are involved in a plot to overthrow the president of your university.

C. You haven’t heard from your sister lately because she is busy studying for her final exams.

D. The number of hours spent studying for exams, a student’s willingness to ask questions, and completion of course homework are directly related to the final grade.

Ans: D 3. Which phrase does not describe one of the three main goals of scientific theory?

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A. Separation of theory from practice B. Description of a phenomenon being studied C. Prediction about future relationships D. Explanation that ―makes sense‖ of observed events Ans: A 4. Which analogy most accurately defines scientific theory?

A. Scientific theory definitively describes practice in much the same way that a dictionary definitively describes the meanings of different words.

B. Scientific theory components are combined in different ways to produce different theories in much the same way that beads are strung together in different ways to produce different necklaces.

C. Scientific theory represents only the thought-based aspects of a discipline (rather than the action-based aspects) in much the same way that a flag represents the physical entity of a country (rather than its individual people).

D. Scientific theory components are specific to only one particular theory in much the same way that a key is specific to one particular lock.

Ans: B

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5. Which question would be least appropriate to ask if you were interested in examining health promotion from a scientific theory perspective as opposed to another type of perspective?

A. What influences health behavior among older adults?

B. Why is education level associated with certain outcomes?

C. What is the ultimate end of health promotion?

D. Do attitudes lead to behavior change among adolescents?

Ans: C 6. What is the common element of both commonsense and scientific theories?

A. Cause-and-effect questioning B. Universal law development C. Meaning attribution D. Personal sense-making with daily applications Ans: C 7. Which phrase is not one of the four steps upon which theory and practice is built by healthcare professionals?

A. Questioning the status quoTESTBANKSELLER.COM B. Seeking plausible and meaningful answers C. Applying a pluralistic approach to theory understanding D. Building narrative structure for questions and answers Ans: C 8. You are having a discussion about individual responsibility for wellness with a friend who is a behavioral science major. As the discussion proceeds, you find that he is having a hard time understanding the basic components of the theory you are presenting. Which statement represents the most likely explanation for his misunderstanding?

A. He is approaching the theory from a different context than the one in which it was created.

B. The narrative you have developed for the theory is not fully developed and is confusing as a result.

C. He does not have the background in the basic sciences necessary for understanding the more technical components of the theory.

D. Your understanding of the theory is incomplete and you are unable to provide a coherent explanation of it.

Ans: A

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9. Which theoretical context would be most likely to be concerned with healthy community living?

A. Western ethics theory B. Public policy theory C. Nursing theory D. Behavioral science theory Ans: B 10. Freire’s proposed relationship between theory and practice most closely aligns with which Aristotelian experience-knowledge pairs?

A. Theoria and epistme B. Praxis and phronesis C. Epistme and phronesis D. Theoria and praxis Ans: B

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Chapter 5 – Components and Levels of Abstraction in Nursing Knowledge 1. Which statement does not accurately describe a holarchy?

A. Within a holarchy, a holon coordinates and includes other holons on subordinate levels.

B. Individual holons only interact with the holons located above or below them in the hierarchy.

C. Each level within a holography is an independent entity, yet each is also part of a larger whole.

D. One can think of a holon as a node that functions independently but also interacts with other holons or nodes.

Ans: B 2. In nursing, the most accepted health, and nursing.

concepts are human beings, environment,

A. disciplinary B. philosophical C. theoretical D. metaparadigm Ans: D

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3. Enid is a scholar who has focused her research on nursing philosophy. In her work, Enid is especially concerned with the creation and categorization of nursing knowledge, and she frequently explores questions such as ―What can we know about certain phenomena?‖ and ―How do we know what we know about these phenomena?‖ Based on this description, Enid appears to be most concerned with which area of philosophical inquiry?

A. Epistemology B. Ontological C. Logic D. Ethics Ans: A 4. Daniel believes that external stimuli are responsible for all human actions and reactions.

Accordingly, he believes that phenomena are not worthy of study unless they can be objectively isolated, observed, defined, and measured. Daniel’s stance most closely aligns with which world view of nursing?

A. Reciprocal interaction B. Reaction C. Interaction D. Simultaneous action

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Ans: B 5. Helene is attempting to determine whether a particular set of concepts is best classified as a conceptual model or as a theory. As she reflects on the concepts, she decides their primary purpose is to describe and explain a specific, concrete phenomenon commonly encountered in nursing practice. This conclusion suggests that the set of concepts should likely be classified as a: A. grand theory.

B. narrow-scope theory.

C. middle-range theory.

D. conceptual model.

Ans: C 6. Most scholars believe that the goodness of a particular theory depends upon that theory’s: A. narrowness.

B. structure.

C. utility.

D. broadness.

Ans: C

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7. Theory Z states the assumed nature of the cause-and-effect relationship between Concept X and Concept Y. Theory Z is therefore a(n): A. explanatory grand theory.

B. explanatory middle-range theory.

C. predictive grand theory.

D. predictive middle-range theory.

Ans: D 8. In nursing, the relationship between theory development and practice is known as the: A. conceptual–theoretical–empirical formalization.

B. concept–theory–evidence formalization.

C. conceived–theorized–elicited formalization.

D. conceive–test–explain formalization.

Ans: A 9. A(n) is an instrument, experimental condition, or procedure used to observe or measure a middle-range theory concept.

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A. quality indicator B. empirical indicator C. quality descriptor D. empirical descriptor Ans: B 10. University Hospital has just updated its comprehensive code of nursing ethics. In doing so, University Hospital is engaging in which activity?

A. Translating a philosophy into nursing practice B. Translating a metaparadigm into nursing practice C. Translating a conceptual model into nursing practice D. Translating a theory into nursing practice Ans: A

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Chapter 6 – Complexity Science and Complex Adaptive Systems 1. Which statement is false?

A. Multiple scholars from the physical and biological sciences predict that complexity science will become the preeminent approach of the twenty-first century.

B. Complexity science promotes a deeper understanding of living things as dynamic, adaptive beings.

C. Over the course of the last hundred years, science has primarily employed an analytic/reductionist paradigm—and it has done so with little success.

D. Complexity science is not a single theory, but rather an emerging model of interdisciplinary study.

Ans: C 2. In a system that conforms to chaos theory: A. behaviors may appear to exhibit patterns when analyzed in a linear fashion, but when analyzed using nonlinear approaches, they are determined to be completely random.

B. behaviors may appear to be random when analyzed in a nonlinear fashion, but when analyzed using linear approaches, they exhibit dynamic patterned variation.

C. behaviors may appear to exhibit patterns when analyzed in a linear fashion, but when analyzed using nonlinear approaches, even more intricate patterns are discovered.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM D. behaviors may appear to be random when analyzed in a linear fashion, but when analyzed using nonlinear approaches, they exhibit dynamic patterned variation.

Ans: D 3. Which term is not a major concept of nonlinear mathematics?

A. Fractals B. Insensitivity to initial conditions C. Scaling D. Focus on simple rules Ans: B 4. In the context of a complex system, emergence is best defined as: A. new and unexpected behavior that arises from the unpredictability of the system itself.

B. the appearance of patterns as one examines the behavior of the many individual elements within the system.

C. identification of a structure that is self-similar and repeating.

D. the study of patterns of coordinated behavior in living things.

Ans: A

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5. Which choice is the best example of a complementary pair?

A. Random – chaotic B. Isolated – alone C. Objective – subjective D. Reductive – analytic Ans: C 6. ―The activities, behaviors, and patterns within a CAS arise without the imposition of an overall plan or the presence of a central control mechanism.‖ This statement reflects the fact that CASs are: A. self-organizing.

B. characterized by embeddedness.

C. sensitive to initial conditions.

D. governed by complex rules.

Ans: A 7. Why is diversity critical for a complex adaptive system?

TeBctAoNf KthSeEsyLsLteEmRw.iC A. Diversity means that no oT neEaSsp ll O bM e too greatly affected by a particular initial event or condition.

B. Diversity prevents the system from developing deterministic patterns.

C. Diversity prevents the elements of the system from engaging in self-organization.

D. Diversity provides for novelty and is a source of the capability for adaptation.

Ans: D 8. According to Plsek, organizations that function as CASs need only three types of simple rules. Which statement is not one of those rules?

A. Rules that point to a general direction or set of goals B. Rules that concentrate decision-making authority in the hands of the organization’s leaders C. Rules that set boundaries and/or prohibit certain behaviors D. Rules that grant permission and provide incentives for certain behaviors Ans: B 9. ―In health care, the personhood of the participants is an important part of all relationships, as are affect and emotions. In addition, genuine relationships between patients and clinicians, between multiple clinicians, between clinicians and the community, and within clinicians

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themselves are essential to humanistic care.‖ This statement most closely reflects the approach known as: A. relationship complexity care.

B. responsive relationship care.

C. complex-responsive care.

D. relationship-centered care.

Ans: D 10. With , researchers change organizational patterns by actively engaging stakeholders in the change process.

A. appreciative inquiry B. action research C. reductionist inquiry D. positive deviance Ans: B

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Chapter 7 – Critical Theory and Emancipatory Knowledge 1. Which is not a fundamental pattern of knowing in nursing?

A. Ethics B. Epistemologics C. Aesthetics D. Empirics Ans: B 2. Which statement accurately reflects a fundamental assumption of emancipatory knowing?

A. Language carries power meanings.

B. All knowledge is value-neutral.

C. Social oppression is natural and unavoidable.

D. Research is an apolitical activity.

Ans: A 3. As a nurse, Sheila works hard to establish caring relationships with her coworkers, her patients, and her patients’ families. According to Habermas, this activity is most directly related to which area of human interest?

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A. Technical interest B. Emancipatory interest C. Political interest D. Practical interest Ans: D 4. According to Freire’s theory of human liberation, the members of the dominant group in a society: A. lack a sense of unity with one another.

B. are barred from realizing their full human potential.

C. deny the self and internalize the consciousness of others.

D. work to preserve the status quo.

Ans: D 5. Freire’s theory of human liberation states that disadvantaged groups must accomplish several steps in order to move toward freedom. The first of these steps is: A. consciousness of emotion, or developing love for self and for those who are privileged.

B. consciousness raising, or coming to realize the actual circumstances of one’s own situation.

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C. consciousness of unity, or acknowledging that others are also disadvantaged and joining with them to take action.

D. consciousness of actions, or identifying what potential courses of action are feasible but have not yet been tried.

Ans: B 6. Darla has just been hired as the chief nurse practitioner at a community health clinic.

Upon starting her new job, Darla notices that the clinic serves a disproportionately large percentage of female immigrants, many of whom have sexually transmitted infections and/or appear to be victims of sexual and physical abuse. Darla immediately begins to analyze various factors that may be contributing to this phenomenon, including the possibility of sex trafficking in the neighborhood. Then, she compiles a list of some of the political and social structures that appear to support these factors. In taking these steps, Darla is most directly demonstrating which trait of critical emancipatory practice?

A. Context B. Dialectic analysis C. Critique D. Reflexivity Ans: C 7. Steven is a nurse at a drugTreEhS abTiB litA atN ioKnSfaEcL iliLtyE. R In.oCrdOeM r to better understand his patients’ experiences, Steven asks them to share stories about their daily lives, including how and why they began using drugs and what sorts of events compel them to use on a daily basis. Using these stories as a starting point, Steven next encourages the patients to brainstorm some ways that they can work to avoid and prevent situations that trigger their drug use. In taking these steps, Steven is most directly demonstrating which trait of critical emancipatory practice?

A. Reflexivity B. Context C. Critique D. Dialectic analysis Ans: B 8. In critical emancipatory nursing practice, reflexivity involves asking which question?

A. ―Do I know what I do, and do I do what I know?‖ B. ―What do I know, and how do I know it?‖ C. ―Are the subjects central to the research, or are the researchers central instead?‖ D. ―What is wrong with the situation, and why does this injustice exist?‖ Ans: A

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9. Helen has just finished reading a new research report. In reflecting on the report, Helen first considers whether the researchers’ methods were sound. Next, she asks herself what ideology the researchers appeared to be working from, as well as who will truly benefit if the researchers’ findings are used as a basis for nursing practice. Here, Helen’s activities illustrate how the emancipatory approach can strengthen which essential of advanced nursing practice?

A. Organizational and systems leadership for quality improvement B. Policy for advocacy in health care C. Scientific underpinnings for practice D. Interprofessional collaboration for improving health outcomes Ans: C 10. When examining a policy initiative from an emancipatory perspective, which question would the nurse least likely ask?

A. Is this initiative good for the state of nursing as a profession?

B. Who benefits from this initiative?

C. Which social values does this initiative reflect?

D. From which motives does this initiative arise?

Ans: A

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Chapter 8 – Feminist Ethics: Some Applicable Thoughts for Advanced Practice Nurses 1. Care-focused feminists are particularly concerned with: A. taking political action to eliminate or ameliorate unfair and systematic discrimination.

B. the moral implications of personal relationships.

C. taking political action to limit the power of the dominant group.

D. the moral implications of power relationships.

Ans: B 2. According to Carol Gilligan, when women are in the first level of moral reasoning, they tend to: A. overemphasize others.

B. overemphasize self.

C. overemphasize both self and others.

D. place proper emphasis on self in relation to others.

Ans: B 3. According to philosopher Nel Noddings:

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A. men are more capable of rational moral reasoning than women are; however, women surpass men in their ability to incorporate their feelings and sense of personal ideal when making moral decisions.

B. both men and women are equally capable of rational moral reasoning, although most men prefer to consult their feelings and sense of personal ideal when making moral decisions.

C. women are more capable of rational moral reasoning than men are; however, men surpass women in their ability to incorporate their feelings and sense of personal ideal when making moral decisions.

D. both men and women are equally capable of rational moral reasoning, although most women prefer to consult their feelings and sense of personal ideal when making moral decisions.

Ans: D 4. ―A person cannot truly care for someone if she is economically, socially, or psychologically coerced to do so.‖ This statement best meshes with the philosophy of which feminist theorist?

A. Sheila Mullett B. Carol Gilligan C. Sara Ruddick D. Virginia Held

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Ans: A 5. Each statement represents a different idea of what war is about. Which statement most closely reflects maternal thinking?

A. ―War is about defending our overall way of life.‖ B. ―War is about destroying human lives.‖ C. ―War is about winning against one’s enemies.‖ D. ―War is about establishing a position of power.‖ Ans: B 6. The National Organization for Women is most closely aligned with which approach to feminism?

A. Liberal feminism B. Third-wave feminism C. Radical feminism D. Multicultural feminism Ans: A 7. A radical-libertarian feminTisEt S wT ouBldAN mK osSt E liL keLlyEaRg. reC eO wM ith which statement?

A. ―Only women suffer when they are required to exhibit feminine characteristics only and men are required to exhibit masculine characteristics only.‖ B. ―Both men and women suffer when women are required to exhibit masculine characteristics and men are required to exhibit feminine characteristics.‖ C. ―Both men and women suffer when women are required to exhibit feminine characteristics only and men are required to exhibit masculine characteristics only.‖ D. ―Only men suffer when women are required to exhibit feminine characteristics only and men are required to exhibit masculine characteristics only.‖ Ans: C 8. When it comes to the issue of assisted reproduction, radical-cultural feminists: A. look forward to the day when ectogenesis entirely replaces the natural process of pregnancy.

B. argue that women should be free to have children when they want to, how they want to, and with whom they want to.

C. believe that such technologies are always detrimental to women.

D. caution that such technologies might be dangerous to both women and society.

Ans: D

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9. Global feminists are particularly attuned to: A. the ways in which upper-class women in First World countries take advantage of lowerclass women living in the same countries.

B. the ways in which women in First World countries experience the same types of subordination as women in Third World countries.

C. the ways in which women in First World countries take advantage of women living and working in Third World countries.

D. the ways in which upper-class women in Third World countries take advantage of lowerclass women living in the same countries.

Ans: C 10. Of the following statements, which would least likely be attributed to a third-wave feminist?

A. ―Women should always resist the pressure to comply with cultural standards of beauty.‖ B. ―If a woman wants to dress provocatively because doing so helps her feel beautiful, that is her prerogative.‖ C. ―In some circumstances, participating in pornography can be empowering for women.‖ D. ―The concept of universal sisterhood is elusive, if not impossible.‖ Ans: A

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Chapter 9 – Theories and Models in Ethics 1. Ethics is most concerned with which area of philosophical inquiry?

A. Ontology B. Epistemology C. Axiology D. Metaphysics Ans: C 2. Which statement most accurately describes the relationship between ethics and morals?

A. ―Morals involve philosophical consideration of what is good and bad, whereas ethics involves incorporating moral principles into one’s activities of daily life.‖ B. ―Ethics is a systematic approach to understanding matters of right and wrong, whereas morals are specific beliefs derived from doing ethics.‖ C. ―There is no difference between ethics and morals; the two terms can always be used interchangeably.‖ D. ―Ethics are standards of right and wrong as determined by society, whereas morals are standards of right and wrong as determined by a particular individual.‖ Ans: B

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3. According to Russell (1945), philosophy is an intermediate discipline between: A. theology and ethics.

B. ethics and science.

C. science and theology.

D. morals and ethics.

Ans: C 4. ―Common morality‖ is best defined as: A. normative beliefs and behaviors about which the members of a society generally agree.

B. a moral stance that is shared by two or more individuals.

C. any moral principle that is embraced by two or more theories of ethics.

D. a description of the primary patterns of ethical behavior exhibited by members of a specific subculture.

Ans: A 5. ―Dennis is engaging in Behavior X. A majority of philosophers argue that Behavior X is unethical. Therefore, Dennis is acting unethically and should cease Behavior X.‖ This statement reflects the pitfall in moral reasoning known as the:

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A. theory/situation gap.

B. is/ought gap.

C. descriptive/normative gap.

D. are/were gap.

Ans: B 6. A(n) theory of nursing is one that is invented for a purpose, includes specific goal content, is prescriptive in nature, and includes a list of aspects of related activity.

A. situation-producing B. intrinsic C. extrinsic D. description-producing Ans: A 7. Which statement most closely reflects Beckstrand’s assertions about nursing practice?

A. ―Nurses require moral theories that are both explanatory and prescriptive; not only do they need to know what is good, but they also need to know how to apply these ideas of goodness in everyday practiceT.‖ESTBANKSELLER.COM B. ―Nurses must develop their own unique practice theories by asking what needs to be accomplished, how it will be accomplished, and in what context it will be done.‖ C. ―A good nursing practice theory is marked by the traits of clarity, coherence, comprehensiveness, simplicity, explanatory power, justificatory power, output power, and practicability.‖ D. ―Nurses don’t need a practice theory at all. Instead, they must have access to scientific and ethical theories, because all of the knowledge they need is reducible to these two fields.‖ Ans: D 8. Aquinas’s natural law theory is best classified as a: A. rights-based theory.

B. rule-based theory.

C. consequentialist theory.

D. communitarian theory.

Ans: B 9. Which statement most accurately reflects Kant’s view of ethics and morality?

A. ―An action is ethical if it attempts to promote the greatest good and inflict the least harm that is possible in a situation.‖

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B. ―A person is acting ethically as long as he or she is not violating the rights of others.‖ C. ―Each rational being is ethically bound or obligated to act first and foremost from a sense of duty. Indeed, only dutiful actions have moral worth.‖ D. ―Everything fundamental in ethics derives from communal values, social goals, and traditional practices.‖ Ans: C 10. ―Although seat belt laws may limit some people’s individual liberties, they are nonetheless ethical because they ultimately protect all members of society from injury and higher auto insurance costs.‖ This statement is rooted in which ethical theory?

A. Utilitarianism B. Communitarianism C. Deontology D. Rights theory Ans: A

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Chapter 10 – Educational and Learning Theories 1. Which scenario best exemplifies the principles of classical conditioning?

A. Andrew is a toddler and is in the middle of toilet training. When Andrew uses the toilet, his mom gives him a sticker as a reward. Andrew really likes stickers and begins using the toilet on a regular basis so that he can get more of them.

B. Suzanne is a young professional and is a smoker. During her breaks, she goes outside to smoke with several of her coworkers. After several weeks of doing so, Suzanne finds that the smell of their secondhand smoke makes her feel ill and, as a result, has no desire to smoke anymore.

C. Tyrone is a teenager and has been saving his money to buy a car. His school class at school is planning a three-day trip to Florida, and Tyrone would really like to go. However, his dad told him that in order to go he would have to pay his own way. Tyrone decides to forego the trip so he does not deplete his car fund.

D. Gretchen is child and is friends with the neighbor girl. Gretchen has a beautiful dollhouse that the neighbor enjoys playing with. Gretchen knows the neighbor’s family cannot afford to buy such a dollhouse, so she lets the neighbor play with the dollhouse whenever she wants.

Ans: B 2. Carlos is afraid of snakes. To help Carlos overcome his fear, his therapist first shows him pictures of snakes and then gives him a toy snake to handle. Eventually, she and Carlos visit TESTBANKSELLER.COM the reptile house at the zoo where Carlos can observe snakes at a distance in their glass enclosures. Finally, the therapist asks a friend who keeps pet snakes to bring some of the smaller, nonpoisonous snakes in so Carlos can pet them. The method Carlos’ therapist is using to help him overcome his fear is an example of: A. rechaining events.

B. fatiguing the response.

C. systematic desensitization.

D. interfering with S-R associations.

Ans: C 3. Your beagle, Nolan, has recently acquired the habit of howling anytime the ice maker in your freezer comes on. You suspect Nolan does not like the noise it makes and would like to correct his behavior through nonreinforcement. Which approach best describes a method of nonreinforcement that might help you break Nolan of his howling?

A. Ignore Nolan when he begins to howl at the ice maker and assume he will eventually adapt to the noise.

B. Spank Nolan on the backside and tell him he is a bad dog anytime he howls at the ice maker.

C. Give Nolan a dog treat anytime the ice maker comes on and he does not howl at it.

D. Shut off the ice maker so it no longer turns on and makes the noise that upsets Nolan.

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Ans: A 4. Which statement would a Gestalt theorist most likely make when describing his or her theory to someone who was unfamiliar with it?

A. ―People strive to make sense of confusing realities by structuring events in their own personal, idiosyncratic ways.‖ B. ―Learning occurs by incorporating information into existing frameworks or changing existing frameworks as a result of new information.‖ C. ―Most learning occurs through observation of the behavior of other people and vicarious reinforcement of their successes.‖ D. ―Conditioned responses to stimuli by passive learners eventually leads to behavioral patterns that produce learning.‖ Ans: A 5. Which concept is an important component of cognitive learning theory?

A. Learning is a passive activity.

B. Thinking develops in stages over the lifespan.

C. Repetition and practice strengthen learning.

D. People are motivated to learn by external rewards.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM Ans: B 6. Which idea is common to both cognitive learning theory and social constructivism?

A. Individual approaches to learning are reflective of past experience.

B. Social contexts mold a shared reality for a group of learners.

C. Education is a social experience impacted by interaction with others.

D. Learning is controlled by the ways people make sense of their social world.

Ans: C 7. According to psychodynamic learning theory, which student is most likely motivated by Id impulses?

A. A student who argues with an instructor over a low grade B. A student obsessed with getting good grades C. A student who works well independently D. A student who procrastinates and cheats off of others Ans: D

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8. Which classroom activity would a human learning theorist be least likely to object to completing?

A. A free-writing assignment in which students are encouraged to share their feelings about healthcare policy today.

B. A quiz that requires students to have memorized the bones of the human arm and hand.

C. A formal lecture about wellness promotion delivered by a subject matter expert.

D. A worksheet about nursing philosophies that requires students to fill-in-the-blanks with a particular word or phrase.

Ans: A 9. Which theory is not supported by neuropsychological research?

A. Behaviorist theory’s emphasis on stimulus and response.

B. Piaget’s theory of assimilation and accommodation.

C. Humanist theory’s emphasis on the importance of emotions.

D. Freud’s theory of conscious and unconscious forces.

Ans: A 10. Which generality about learning is not common to the majority of learning theories?

ToBtiAonN.KSELLER.COM A. Learning is intertwined wT ithES em B. Learning is influenced by environment.

C. Learning is a passive process.

D. Learning is impacted by self-concept.

Ans: C

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Chapter 11 – Health Behavior Theories 1. Which choice is not one of the three most dominant theories or models of health behavior in use today?

A. The transtheoretical model B. The representational approach C. Social cognitive theory D. The health belief model Ans: B 2. Gretchen is considered at an increased risk for developing breast cancer due to a family history of the disease. She has scheduled a mammogram and will have to pay the costs completely out of pocket because her insurance does not cover the cost. This expense will be a hardship for Gretchen, but she feels the benefits of having the mammogram outweigh the cost. If Gretchen’s behavior is considered from the standpoint of the health belief model, which criteria for action does it best fit?

A. Perceived severity B. Self-efficacy C. Perceived barriers D. Cue to action

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Ans: C 3. Which health behavior theory examines not only an individual’s view of their actions, but whether or not the individual believes family members and friends would approve or disapprove of their behavior?

A. The theory of planned behavior B. The transtheoretical approach C. The social ecological model D. Social cognitive theory Ans: A 4. Warren is a heavy smoker who suffers from a frequent ―smoker’s cough.‖ The cough worries him, and he knows on a conscious level that it is the result of his smoking habit. He has not actually made any moves toward changing his behavior, but he has thought a lot about it and worrying about what will happen to his family if he does not stop smoking. If Warren’s behavior is viewed according to the transtheoretical model, which stage of change does it best fit?

A. Preparation B. Contemplation

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C. Maintenance D. Pre-contemplation Ans: B 5. Becca suffers from an eating disorder and has been undergoing a program to change her habits and help her make healthier choices about food and her nutritional needs. She has been successful in the program for more than six months, but last week she experienced a relapse and fell back into her old patterns. If you were to examine Becca’s behavior from a transtheoretical viewpoint, to what would you most likely attribute Becca’s relapse?

A. Inadequate teaching and support for the new behavior B. Social and family pressures to fall back into old patterns C. Lack of understanding of the program and its goals D. Problems with her motivation and self-efficacy levels Ans: D 6. Which is not a strategy typically employed by social cognitive theorists to increase patient self-efficacy?

A. Formalized behavior contracting B. Small, incremental goal setting SoTnBitA C. Behavior reinforcement anTdEm orN inKgSELLER.COM D. Mentoring Ans: D 7. Louis is an advanced practice nurse who focuses his attention on behavior change in high school students. He spends a lot of time working with the administration at the local high school to create support communities for students with substance abuse problems. Louis hopes that these communities will help students with problems change their behaviors and adopt a healthier lifestyle. Which health behavior theory most closely aligns with Louis’ work?

A. The representational approach B. Students direct the entire learning experience.

C. The theory of planned behavior D. Students passively participate in the learning process.

Ans: C 8. Which two disciplines does the representational approach rely on in the development of patient interventions?

A. Health psychology and educational theory

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B. Health psychology and social science C. Social science and educational theory D. Cognitive theory and social science Ans: A 9. Which statement about the biobehavioral factors that impact the behavior change process is true?

A. Biobehavioral factors are completely controllable through high self-efficacy.

B. Biobehavioral factors are sometimes mistaken for withdrawal syndromes.

C. Biobehavioral factors may be physiological or genetically determined.

D. Biobehavioral factors are rarely linked to life-threatening health habits.

Ans: C 10. According to the health behavior model, which statement exemplifies a cue to action?

A. The personal realization that having unprotected sex puts an individual at increased risk for contracting a sexually transmitted disease.

B. A public service announcement encouraging sexually active adults to be tested for sexually transmitted diseases.

C. Acknowledgement that the cost of using sexual protection is outweighed by the benefits of protecting personal sexual T heEaS ltT h.BANKSELLER.COM D. Concern for the health and safety of sexual partners who may be exposed to any sexually transmitted diseases an individual may be carrying.

Ans: B

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Chapter 12 – Theories Focused on Interpersonal Relationships 1. Which statement best describes the impacts of the psychiatric care movement and psychotropic drug development during the 1960s and 1970s on the nursing theory?

A. They gave rise to modern and postmodern theories of nursing.

B. They scientifically disproved the majority of theories based on Freud’s work.

C. They gave rise to nursing theories that focused on interpersonal communication.

D. They created a niche for Peplau’s theory about the nurse-patient relationship.

Ans: C 2. Which action would most likely occur during the preorientation phase of Peplau’s theory?

A. The nurse and the patient become acquainted with one another and begin building rapport.

B. The nurse identifies the various resources available to the patient and teaches him or her how to use them.

C. The nurse and patient develop a plan of care and engage in formal contracting regarding that plan.

D. The nurse would confront his or her own thoughts, feelings, and preconceptions about the patient and the disorder.

Ans: D

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3. Which statement would an adherent of Orlando’s nursing process theory most likely make?

A. ―Patients and nurses develop relationships that have a clear, time-sensitive endpoint.‖ B. ―Patient’s individual needs should always come before those of the health care organization.‖ C. ―Patient wholeness exists on a continuum of being ill and being well that must be accepted and adapted to.‖ D. ―Patients and their families should be taught how to cope with illness and understand its meaning.‖ Ans: B 4. According to Travelbee’s human-to-human relationship model, what is the basic goal of nursing?

A. Caring B. Quality of life C. Defining nurse-patient relationships D. Sympathy

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Ans: A 5. According to Paterson and Zderad, why is nursing a call and response relationship?

A. Nursing theories call for nursing practice to change and the discipline responds by reforming educational standards.

B. Nurses call for revisions of theory reflective of their experience and theorists respond with new theoretical explanations.

C. Patients call for care with the expectation that unmet needs will be satisfied and nurses respond with intention of providing that care.

D. Health care systems call for more efficient nursing care that is less expensive and nurses respond by turning back to older theories of care.

Ans: C 6. Which nursing theorist is credited with the idea that curing is the domain of medicine and caring is the domain of nursing?

A. Hildegard Peplau B. Jean Watson C. Margaret Newman D. Joyce Travelbee Ans: B

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7. Which statement best describes the relationship between disease states and non-disease states according to Newman’s theory of health as expanding consciousness?

A. They are in opposing forces within an individual.

B. They are opposite ends of the individual healthcare spectrum.

C. They are two halves of a single whole that do not diminish one another.

D. They are different ways of understanding the reality of individual health.

Ans: C 8. Which non-nursing theory focuses on knowledge as the result of decision making rather than decision making based on knowledge.

A. Existentialism and phenomenology B. Positive psychology C. Interpersonal relations theory D. Humanistic theory Ans: A 9. Which statement about transpersonal psychology is false?

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A. It posits that mystical experiences help humanity reach its highest potential.

B. It is a religious or spiritual movement rather than an academic discipline.

C. It stems from psychoanalysis, behaviorism, and humanistic psychology.

D. It seeks to describe and integrate mysticism with modern psychological theory.

Ans: B 10. Sullivan’s theories, which formed the basis for much of Peplau’s work, are associated with which non-nursing theory of relationships?

A. Humanistic theory B. Positive psychology C. Phenomenology D. Interpersonal relations theory Ans: D 11. Which statement is not an element of a Recovery-Oriented Care System?

A. Actively avoiding risks of failure B. Encouraging accurate portrayals of the illness C. Focusing on strengths D. Encouraging individualityTESTBANKSELLER.COM Ans: A

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Chapter 13 – Environmental Philosophy and Theories 1. Which statement would most likely be aligned with an explanatory environmental theory rather than a normative environmental theory?

A. A course of action for cleaning up a toxic waste dump that includes step-by-step instructions for the clean-up process B. An argument for the protection of endangered species protection based on the rights of the species in question C. An account of the ways in which human activities impact climatic changes, which in turn impact human welfare D. An organization devoted to providing medical attention and shelter to animals displaced by natural disasters Ans: C 2. Why is it important for advanced practice nurses to have an understanding of environmental theories and the discourses they engender?

A. The interaction of facts and values in environmental discourses informs many health care decisions.

B. Patients with strong opinions about ecological discourses may refuse certain types of medical treatment.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM C. The outlook of most health care institutions is ruled by concern for human well-being only, and neglects non-human discourses.

D. Most modern human diseases are the result of anthropocentric discourses that ignored the problems introduced by environmental discourses.

Ans: A 3. Which would least likely happen in an ecological system that has exceeded its carrying capacity?

A. The ecosystem would collapse.

B. One population would survive at the expense of others.

C. Resources would be in short supply.

D. Portions of the population would die off.

Ans: B 4. The resource use and waste production of a person or group based on the amount of land needed to support that person’s or group’s consumption habits is more commonly known as: A. the holistic impact.

B. distributive justice.

C. the ecological footprint.

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D. normative justice.

Ans: C 5. Which statement would an adherent of environmental value theory least likely make?

A. ―Land and animals have morally relevant interests that are important to environmental decision making.‖ B. ―The life of a nonhuman is valuable if that animal provides a service or brings joy to a human being.‖ C. ―Animals can experience suffering just like humans can and, as such, humans have moral duties to them.‖ D. ―Humans have an obligation to protect nonhumans from unnecessary harm because every creature has intrinsic value.‖ Ans: B 6. Value theories that oppose anthropocentrism are often referred as: A. cosmocentric.

B. naturacentric.

C. zoocentric.

D. biocentric.

Ans: D

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7. According to Singer’s application of environmental value theory, why does the life of a dog have less moral value than that of a typical human?

A. The dog does not fear death and his death produces less sorrow for those that love him than a human death.

B. The dog experiences pain without understanding it and has no conception of life after death.

C. The dog contributes less to society than a human and is incapable of feeling empathy for those around him.

D. The dog is primarily driven by instinct rather than morals and cannot reason through his actions.

Ans: A 8. According to holistic theory, where does the value of an ecosystem come from?

A. Its value comes from the sum of its constituent parts.

B. Its value comes from the fact that is its own entity.

C. Its value comes from its utility to human beings.

D. Its value comes from its importance to other ecosystems.

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Ans: B 9. Which statement would an adherent of holistic theory most likely make?

A. ―The survival of each individual member of a species is vital to the survival of that species as a whole.‖ B. ―The survival of any given species is only important only to the extent that it is essential to the survival of other species.‖ C. ―The survival of an entire species is more important than the survival of any one of its individual members.‖ D. ―The survival of a species is vital only if humans find utility in that species or its individual members.‖ Ans: C 10. What is the primary difference between environmental justice theory and other environmental theories?

A. It takes the moral value of nonhumans for granted, rather than having to prove their importance.

B. It assumes that the environment does not have a set carrying capacity, rather than assuming carrying capacity as a universal truth.

C. It posits that the environment ultimately controls humanity, rather than humanity controlling the environment. TESTBANKSELLER.COM D. It is a theory applied to the environment, rather than a theory developed of the environment.

Ans: D

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Chapter 14 – Economic Theories 1. Why would economics as a science cease to exist without the concept of scarcity?

A. Consumers and producers would no longer have to make the trade-offs between alternatives that create the economic problem.

B. Producers would be unable to maximize their profits because consumers would hold all of the economic power.

C. Markets would cease to exist because there would no longer be a distinction between consumers and producers.

D. Non-market institutions would take over the role formerly held by producers and be governed by interests unrelated to profit.

Ans: A 2. Why are uncertainties related to disease incidence and treatment efficacy of particular concern to health care economists?

A. Uncertainties open the door to government intervention, making it impossible to apply standard economic principles to health care.

B. Uncertainties generate asymmetrical information and data about health care that make economic analysis impossible.

C. Uncertainties lead to inefficiencies in resource allocation that must be compensated for by TESTBANKSELLER.COM non-market institutions.

D. Uncertainties render the competitive forces model insufficient to regulate rising health care costs.

Ans: C 3. Which concept is common to both classical economics and social exchange theory?

A. Human behavior is assumed to be rational.

B. Producers are assumed to seek maximum profits.

C. Supply and demand are assumed to function independently.

D. Consumers are assumed to have perfect information available when making decisions.

Ans: A 4. Which statement about markets, consumer and producer behavior in markets, and market theory is false?

A. Market consumers attempt to maximize utility based on preference and price.

B. Market theory states that the market achieves competitive equilibrium based on allocative efficiency.

C. Market competition is the mechanism for setting supply and demand.

D. Market producers attempt to maximize profits based on their mix of input and output.

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Ans: C 5. Which scenario best exemplifies the concept of opportunity cost?

A. Arthur has been offered a promotion to department manager. The promotion means more hours at work and more responsibilities, but includes only a title change and not an increase in salary.

B. Louisa has a small bakery that generates a modest profit for her. She knows if she pools her profits for two years she will have enough money to expand her bakery and increase her profits.

C. Bernardo has been offered a chance to invest in a startup company that has the potential to generate a great deal of profit if it is successful. Since the cost to invest is very high, he must decide if the potential profit is worth the risk.

D. Beth has enough money to either buy her son a new pair of jeans before winter or get him vaccinated against the flu. She knows that once she chooses one alternative, she will be unable to afford the other.

Ans: D 6. According to the demand curve, if the price of an item goes down, what happens to the demand for that item?

A. It goes down.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM B. It goes up.

C. It remains the same.

D. It fluctuates unpredictably.

Ans: B 7. Noah just received his allowance and goes to the grocery store to buy candy with it. He purchases four candy bars and heads over to the park to eat them. If the law of marginal utility is applied to Noah’s consumption of the candy bars, which assumption is probably true?

A. He will enjoy each candy bar a little bit less than the previous candy bar.

B. He will desire additional candy bars a little bit more with each candy bar.

C. He will be able to eat a little bit less of each candy bar than the previous candy bar.

D. He will realize that consuming four candy bars at one sitting is wasteful.

Ans: A 8. According to the supply curve, if the price of an item goes down, what happens to the demand for that item?

A. It goes down.

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B. It goes up.

C. It remains the same.

D. It fluctuates unpredictably.

Ans: A 9. When examining a supply curve and a demand curve that have been plotted on the same set of axes, where will you find the equilibrium point?

A. At the point between the highest demand peak and the lowest supply valley.

B. At the point between the highest supply peak and the lowest demand valley.

C. At the point where the two curves end.

D. At the point where the two curves intersect.

Ans: D 10. Why are cost-benefit analyses of health care often problematic or controversial from a human standpoint?

A. They generate a ration of health-related units to dollars that is not easily applicable to real world situations.

B. They are biased toward economic efficiency and fail to take costs like suffering and death into account.

C. They compare only two alTteErnSaT tivBeAs N foKr S anEoLpLtiE onR,.oC fteOnMneglecting viable third and fourth options.

D. They focus on disease trends to determine allocation of funds, often ignoring less common illnesses.

Ans: B

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Chapter 15 – Theories of Organizational Behavior and Leadership 1. What did Frederick Winslow Taylor believe about managers?

A. Managers and workers were opposed to each other’s ideals and values.

B. Managers needed to operate in hierarchical structures.

C. Managers should scientifically determine the best way to do a job, select the best employee for a job, to train the employee, and to share results with the workers.

D. Managers should instill loyalty and commitment to the organization in the workers.

Ans: C 2. Max Weber developed the: A. Bureaucratic Theory.

B. Theory of Administration.

C. X and Y theories.

D. Hawthorne Studies.

Ans: A 3. From the Hawthorne Studies, two facets of an organization were identified. These were: A. a hierarchical organizationTE anSdTaBwAoN rkKerS-bEaL seLdEoR rg.aC niO zaMtion.

B. a technical organization and a human organization.

C. a hierarchical organization and a human organization.

D. a technical organization and an administrative organization.

Ans: B 4. Which statement best describes the beliefs of Herbert Simon?

A. ―Administration consists of proportions as to how men would behave if they wished their activity to result in the greatest attainment of administrative objectives with scarce means.‖ B. ―The most successful organizations tended to maintain states of differentiation and integration consistent with the diversity of the parts of the environment and the required interdependence of these parts.‖ C. ―The only meaningful way to study an organization is to study it as a system.‖ D. ―To be stable, a cultural change has to penetrate all aspects of a nation’s life.‖ Ans: A 5. Fred Fielder proposed that group performance was based on a balance between the leader’s style and his or her level of control. This model is referred to as: A. a change theory model.

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B. Taylorism.

C. a general systems model.

D. a contingency model.

Ans: D 6. Which statement most accurately encapsulates Henry Mintzberg’s research and findings?

A. The best managers are those that are empathetic with their workers and provide emotional support and guidance.

B. Conflict in organizations is inevitable and a manager’s most important function is to manage conflict.

C. Managers function in three distinct roles: informational roles (nerve center, spokesperson, disseminator), interpersonal roles (figurehead, leader, liaison), and decisional roles (entrepreneur, negotiator).

D. Managers that do not embrace change will harm their organizations, as organizations must change and evolve to survive.

Ans: C 7. Which statement most closely resembles the beliefs and work of Ludwig von Bertalanffy?

A. Workers are motivated by primal needs first and foremost as outlined by Abram Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.TESTBANKSELLER.COM B. Managers must manage the processes of unfreezing, moving, and refreezing.

C. Successful managers must coordinate labor and balance internal power struggles simultaneously.

D. Nonlinear relationships exist between variables and a small change in one may cause a big change in the others.

Ans: D 8. Which statement best describes the force field model by Kurt Lewin?

A. A series of steps of unfreezing, moving, and refreezing in which change is not a one-time event but a dynamic balance of these forces B. A balance between a hierarchical structure and a desire for empowerment on the part of the workers C. A constant search for equilibrium within the organization D. A way to measure productivity using scientific principles and calculations Ans: A

9. What is the difference between Theory X and Theory Y?

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A. Theory X is based on beliefs that the average person dislikes work; Theory Y is based on the belief that the average person enjoys work.

B. Theory X is based on beliefs that the average person dislikes work; Theory Y is based on the belief that workers are governed by higher-order needs.

C. Theory X is based on beliefs that the average person dislikes work; Theory Y is based on the belief that workers are loyal to their organization.

D. Theory X is based on beliefs that the average person seeks out work that they enjoy; Theory Y is based on the belief that workers want to participate in all decision-making processes within their organization.

Ans: B 10. William Ouchi developed: A. Theory X B. Theory Y C. Theories X and Y D. Theory Z Ans: D

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Chapter 16 – Theoretical Approaches to Quality Improvement 1. Which person kept detailed records of deaths and was able to mathematically prove that unsanitary conditions in hospitals led to patients’ deaths?

A. Florence Nightingale B. Joseph Juran C. W. Edwards Deming D. Philip B. Crosby Ans: A 2. The end-result system was proposed by: A. Florence Nightingale and it tracked the number of patient deaths.

B. Joseph Juran and it focused on quality improvement as a process.

C. Ernest Codman and it linked hospital treatment to patient outcomes.

D. Avedis Donabedian and it focused on total quality management (TQM).

Ans: C 3. Which phrase is not one of W. Edwards Deming’s Fourteen Points for Management?

A. Adopt the new philosophyTESTBANKSELLER.COM B. Drive out fear C. Institute new leadership D. Reward employees consistently Ans: D 4. Which statement best describes W. Edwards Deming’s beliefs about quality?

A. Focusing on the process of quality is more important than focusing on the product.

B. Quality is defined by a company’s slogan.

C. Quality in production is defined by numerical quotas.

D. Quality can be achieved by solving immediate problems as they arise.

Ans: A 5. W. Edwards Deming believed that quality initiatives must come: A. from the bottom-up, with the front-line workers suggesting ways for improvement.

B. form customer feedback as only the customers can be objective about their experience with the end product.

C. from the leadership, from the top-down, and employees must be taught how to improve quality continually.

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D. as a set of proposals from focus groups and committees comprised of customers, workers, and managers.

Ans: C 6. Joseph Juran’s trilogy consists of: A. quality control, quality process, and quality improvement.

B. quality control, measurable results, and evaluation.

C. observation, quantifiable results, and total quality management.

D. quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement.

Ans: D 7. Which step falls under Joseph Juran’s concept of quality control?

A. Identify the customers B. Establish measurement C. Diagnose to find causes D. Determine customer needs Ans: B 8. One of the strengths in PhT iliE pS CT roBsbAyN’sKtS heEoL ryLoEnRq. uC alO ityMis that: A. it is solely based on statistics and therefore objective.

B. he believes in aiming quality efforts at the lower operational levels.

C. it gives attention to transforming the quality culture of an organization.

D. he believes in aiming the quality efforts at the higher operational levels.

Ans: C 9. According to Crosby, a company that wanted to improve their processes but failed likely had: A. called their effort a process.

B. employed quality control staff who were cynical.

C. unending patience for results, and no sense of urgency.

D. aimed their efforts toward the higher operational staff.

Ans: B 10. A hospital has: A. internal customers.

B. external customers.

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C. both internal and external customers.

D. no customers, just patients and physicians.

Ans: C

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Chapter 17 – Theories Focused on Health Inequity and Health Disparity 1. The National Institutes of Health defines health disparities as differences in ―the overall rate of disease incidence, prevalence, morbidity, mortality, or survival rates in the population as compared to the health status of the general population.‖ What is missing from this definition?

A. Health aspect of the issue B. Differences between populations C. Comparison with the general population D. Ethical injustice that underlies the differences Ans: D 2. After completing a health assessment, the clinician determines that a Black client is demonstrating signs of hypertension even though the blood pressure is at the higher end of the normal range and all other diagnostic indicators are negative for the health problem.

Which statement best explains this clinician’s behavior?

A. Clinicians’ implicit biases influence their conduct and communication B. Clinicians’ biased perceptions negatively impact minority patient outcomes C. Clinicians’ implicit biases influence their diagnostic and treatment decisions D. Clinicians’ implicit biases can lead to discriminatory statistical interpretation

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Ans: D 3. Which category of the multilevel ecological model of health disparities addresses smoking and illegal drug use?

A. Individual lifestyle factors B. Living and working conditions C. Social and community networks D. Age, sex, and constitutional factors Ans: A 4. What is a major focus when addressing the category of general socioeconomic, cultural, and environmental conditions within the multilevel ecological model of health disparities?

A. Racism B. Marital status C. Education level D. Health insurance Ans: A

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5. Which model of health disparities is most highly regarded in maternal child health literature?

A. Ecological model B. Life course model C. Biased care model D. Trajectory of health model Ans: B 6. Which is a major belief within the weathering theory of health disparities?

A. Mother’s history lives on in each one of us B. Maternal disadvantages predict health at birth C. Stress negatively affects a woman’s health status D. Health at birth partly predicts education, income, and long-term disability Ans: C 7. Which statement best explains the concept of praxis within the critical race theory?

A. Prioritizing the study of racial influences on outcomes B. Ways of knowing that result from critical analysis of one’s personal experiences C. Knowledge from theory, reTsE eaSrcThB , pAeN rsK onSaEl L exLpE erR ie.nC ceO s,Mand practice inform one another D. Perspectives of socially marginalized groups are the central axis around which topic discourse revolves Ans: C 8. When implementing the Health Equity Action Research Trajectory conceptual model, what is the focus of the second phase?

A. Identifying solutions for health disparities B. Investigating health disparities epidemiologically C. Implementing actions to address health disparities D. Testing theories that explain how various disparities arise Ans: D 9. What should nurses do to develop cultural confidence?

A. Attend cultural competence workshops B. Analyze how cultural differences influence care approaches C. Commit to a lifelong process reflecting on personal biases and prejudices D. Study knowledge about different cultural groups perspectives on health care

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Ans: C 10. What should a nurse do to demonstrate that racism negatively impacts patient care?

A. Suggest cultural competence workshops be held at health care facilities B. Embrace patient advocacy and speak out against bias and structural racism C. Volunteer to learn more about the cultural groups in which the nurse interacts D. Recommend the consistent use of care interventions regardless of the cultural group Ans: B

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Chapter 18 – Models and Theories Focused on Nursing Goals and Functions 1. Which area of patient health is not directly addressed in Nightingale’s 13 canons for nursing practice?

A. Observing and recording patient behavior B. Ensuring patient comfort and continuity of care C. Caring for the holistic, spiritual aspects of the patient D. Providing appropriate food and stimulation for the patient Ans: C 2. Which selection most closely matches the definition of the health metaparadigm according to the concepts outlined by Nightingale?

A. Independence B. Psychological, social, biological, and physiological interactions C. A positive high-level state that is personally defined D. Being well and using one’s talents well Ans: D 3. According to Nightingale’T sE mS odTeB l,AwNhK atSisEtL heLiEmRp. etC usOfM or the cooperation of the nurse, nature, and the patient in the reparative process?

A. The nurse’s devotion to his or her calling B. The patient’s desire for health C. The tendency of biological systems to seek balance D. The human tendency to alleviate the suffering of others Ans: B 4. Which statement is not one of the 14 basic patient needs as outlined by Henderson?

A. To develop adequate self-care habits B. To worship according to one’s faith C. To move and maintain desirable postures D. To participate in various forms of recreation Ans: A 5. According to Henderson, which phrase is not one of the four inseparable components of the person?

A. The sociological components

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B. The spiritual component C. The biological component D. The intrapersonal component Ans: D 6. Francisco is a nurse who works with elderly individuals. Many of his patients are bedridden and Francisco does his utmost to help them avoid the formation of pressure ulcers and treat those ulcers appropriately when they do occur. Which of the 14 basic patient needs outline by Henderson is Francisco tending to when he engages in these activities?

A. Avoiding dangers in the environment B. Selecting suitable clothing C. Moving and maintaining desirable postures D. Keeping the body cleaned and well groomed to protect the integument Ans: C 7. According to Johnson’s model, if a patient is experiencing a problem with the eliminative subsystem, what is the theoretical cause of that problem?

A. Emotional factors B. Disease-causing agents C. Environmental factors TESTBANKSELLER.COM D. Imbalance in a secondary subsystem Ans: C 8. Which statement does not describe one of the three notions Johnson’s model uses to describe the relationship between the person as a behavioral system and the environment?

A. Systems impact the environment more than the environment impacts systems.

B. Balance is essential for effective and efficient functions.

C. Nursing is an external regulatory force that acts to restore balance.

D. The system manages its relationship with the environment.

Ans: A 9. A statement that describes an aspect of Pender’s model would be: A. an external regulatory force that acts to preserve patient behavior at an optimal level.

B. the act of raising consciousness of health-promoting behaviors and promoting selfefficacy.

C. management of the environment to put patients in the best possible situation for the natural laws of health to act upon them.

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D. the act of assisting an individual in the performance of activities contributing to health to help him or her gain independence.

Ans: B 10. Which statement is not one of the seven assumptions upon which Pender based her model?

A. Health professionals are part of a patient’s interpersonal environment.

B. Self-initiated pattern reconfiguration leads to behavior change.

C. Persons seek to express their unique human potential.

D. Behavior is the sum of a person’s physical, biological, and social factors.

Ans: D

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Chapter 19 – Models and Theories Focused on a Systems Approach 1. Which statement best describes the assumption of the general systems theory that is a common thread in Roy’s, King’s, and Neuman’s nursing models?

A. The world is made up of interconnected systems, and all systems can function independent of one another when the need arises.

B. The world is made up of interconnected systems, and one system produces the energy necessary for the next to function.

C. The world is made up of interconnected systems, and dysfunction in one system impacts other systems.

D. The world is made up of interconnected systems, and if one system fails the others will compensate for it.

Ans: C 2. Which phrase is not one of the four components of veritivity as defined by Roy? A. Humankind’s shared purpose B. Activity and creativity for the common good C. Human existence’s purpose D. Moral sense value

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Ans: D

3. Roland is thirteen and was beaten up by two bullies on the way home from school today.

When the bullies approached him, he felt his heart begin to race and his face grow flush. His older brother told him this is called the ―fight-or-flight‖ response and occurs when the body releases hormones when in a dangerous situation. If Roland’s fight-or-flight reaction is considered in terms of Roy’s coping processes, it would best be described as a: A. cognator process.

B. regulator process.

C. stabilizer process.

D. innovator process.

Ans: B 4. Which mode described by Roy could be used to describe behaviors related to an individual’s relationships with others?

A. Interdependence B. Role function C. Self-concept D. Group

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Ans: A 5. Which definition of health most closely resembles that proposed by King?

A. Health is a continuum of states of wellness and illness.

B. Health is a negotiation between a patient and a nurse.

C. Health is a goal that everyone strives for throughout their lifetime.

D. Health is a process of growth and development in the individual.

Ans: D 6. Which choice is not one of the five components of the nursing process proposed by King?

A. Communication B. Nursing goals C. Coordination D. Nursing judgment Ans: B 7. According to King’s hypothesis, why is perceptual accuracy an important component of nurse-client interactions?

A. It increases mutual goal seTttEinSgT . BANKSELLER.COM B. It increases the likelihood of goal attainment.

C. It decreases client stress and anxiety.

D. It decreases instances of role conflict.

Ans: A 8. According to Neuman’s model, when the amount of energy available to a system exceeds the amount of energy being used by the system, the system is in a state of: A. imbalance.

B. decline.

C. homeostasis.

D. surplus.

Ans: C 9. Gretchen is a kindergartener who just learned about the proper way to wash her hands to prevent the spread of germs. Based on Neuman’s model, Gretchen’s latest skill is best classified as which level of prevention?

A. Primary B. Secondary

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C. Tertiary D. Quaternary Ans: A 10. According to Neuman’s model, what is the purpose of outcome identification and planning?

A. Synthesizing comprehensive data about a client and a therapy.

B. Promoting system stability through energy conservation.

C. Determining the effectiveness of client interventions.

D. Evaluating the degree to which a client has met his or her goals.

Ans: B

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Chapter 20 – Models and Theories Focused on Human Existence and Universal Energy 1. Who was the pioneering theorist in energy-focused nursing?

A. Elizabeth Barrett B. Rosemarie Rizzo-Parse C. Margaret Newman D. Martha Rogers Ans: D 2. Which statement best defines the concept of openness according to Rogers’ theory?

A. Openness is the continuous change from lower to higher frequency wave patterns in human and environmental fields.

B. Openness is the occurrence of paranormal phenomena that are manifestations of changing field patterns.

C. Openness is the lack of boundary between human and environmental energy fields that allows energy to flow in an unbroken wave.

D. Openness is the continuous, unpredictable, increasing diversity of human and environmental field patterns.

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Ans: C

3. According to Rogers’ theory of accelerating evolution, what does accelerating change in human-environmental field patterning create?

A. Paranormal phenomenon B. New norms C. Knowledge D. Unpredictable patterns Ans: B 4. Margot is a patient who is near death and is experiencing a great deal of anxiety because she will be unable to visit her childhood home again before she dies. Which technique would you least likely use if you choose to treat Margot using Rogerian science?

A. Storytelling B. Movement C. Imagery exercises D. Relaxation techniques Ans: B

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5. According to Newman’s theory, how does illness help patients expand their consciousness?

A. It provides insight into what it really means to be ill and leads to revision of personal definitions of health.

B. It offers a new appreciation of what it means to be healthy and encourages positive health behavior change.

C. It teaches reliance on others and encourages therapeutic relationship building that carries over to other aspects of life.

D. It changes perceptions of time and space and offers opportunity to reflect on evolving patterns.

Ans: D 6. When diagramming Newman’s theory along a ―V‖, what does the base represent?

A. Potential consciousness B. Loss of individuality C. The choice point and beyond D. Absolute consciousness Ans: C

AN Man’s theory explain?

7. Which paradigm shift abouTtEthSeThB um anKbSoE dyLL doEeR s.

NC ewOm A. From the body as a reparable machine to the body as a dynamic energy field B. From the body as a sum of its parts to the body as a unified entity C. From the body as ill or well to the body as a fluctuating energetic force D. From the body as a concrete object to the body as a spiritual entity Ans: A 8. According to Parse, what do humans do to avoid confronting external reality?

A. They create patterns of relating that require them to engage in paradoxical rhythms.

B. They move beyond what is to what could be but resist new ways of seeing things.

C. They construct their own reality by attributing significance to situations.

D. They consciously alter their energy patterns in order to alter reality.

Ans: C 9. Which phrase is not one of the four research components Parse proposed for exploring the meaning of a person’s lived experiences?

A. Synthesis of information to identify study focus B. Development of new theories based on the research process

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C. Data gathering through dialogue D. Participant description of experiences Ans: B 10. Which choice identifies the three principles of Parse’s theory?

A. Illimitability, paradox, and freedom B. Personal meanings, freedom, and mystery C. Patterns of relating, cotranscend with the possibles and illumitability D. Personal meanings, patterns of relating, and cotranscend with the possibles Ans: D

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Chapter 21 – Models and Theories Focused on Competencies and Skills 1. According to Benner’s model, all of the following are characteristics of expert nurses except: A. they use maxims to guide their professional decision making.

B. they have a highly developed intuitive sense.

C. they prioritize tasks and act quickly and fluidly.

D. they rely on their strong analytical and problem-solving skills when situations do not progress as they originally anticipated.

Ans: A 2. Kara has been out of nursing school for about two-and-a-half years. Since graduating, she has worked as an oncology nurse at a local children’s hospital. In recent months, Kara has developed a sense of mastery for most of her job tasks, and she has become quite skilled at crafting care plans and seeing the long-term effects of her interactions with patients. Kara’s coping skills have also developed dramatically. Still, Kara has a hard time prioritizing tasks, and she tends to move more slowly than the more experienced nurses on her floor. Kara is also somewhat inflexible, performing the same nursing tasks in the same order and the same way for each of her patients. Based on this description, Kara would most likely fall within which characteristic of nursing within the AACN Synergy Model for Patient Care?

A. Advanced beginner B. Proficient C. Competent D. Novice

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Ans: C 3. Of the following choices, which is not among the seven domains of nursing practice identified by Benner?

A. Administering and monitoring therapeutic interventions and regimens B. The teaching-coaching function C. Monitoring and ensuring the quality of healthcare practices D. Effective management of static situations Ans: D 4. In creating the synergy model for patient care, the AACN’s ultimate goal was to: A. develop a model that was driven by patient needs and that linked clinical practice with nurses’ personal satisfaction.

B. develop a model that was driven by patient needs and that linked clinical practice with patient outcomes.

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C. develop a model that was driven by provider needs and that linked clinical practice with nurses’ personal satisfaction.

D. develop a model that was driven by provider needs and that linked clinical practice with patient outcomes.

Ans: B 5. In the context of the AACN synergy model, which is not regarded as a quality outcome related to nursing?

A. Complication rate B. Adherence to discharge plan C. Length of stay D. Nurse satisfaction Ans: D 6. According to the AACN model, synergy occurs when: A. the competencies of the nurse exceed the needs of the patient.

B. the needs of the patient exceed the competencies of the nurse.

C. the needs of the patient and the competencies of the nurse are well-matched.

D. the needs of the nurse are less than the needs of the patient.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM Ans: C 7. Malcolm is a patient in a critical care unit. The nurses on the unit have noted that Malcolm deals extremely poorly with both actual and potential stressors. In fact, every time a stressor arises, Malcolm seems to deteriorate further. Based on this description, the nurses would most likely place Malcolm: A. in level 1 with regard to the characteristic of vulnerability.

B. in level 1 with regard to the characteristic of resource availability.

C. in level 5 with regard to the characteristic of vulnerability.

D. in level 5 with regard to the characteristic of resource availability.

Ans: A 8. Of the following choices, which is not one of the three crucial elements of the RBC model?

A. Care provider’s relationship with self B. Care provider’s relationship with patients and their families C. Care provider’s relationship with the health care organization D. Care provider’s relationship with colleagues

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Ans: C 9. Community Hospital is seeking to transform the nature of its care environment. In order to help achieve this vision, the hospital creates a new mentoring program for its nurses. The hospital also explores various practices for increasing the amount of time nurses spend oneon-one with their patients, and it creates a new system for tracking patient satisfaction with the nurse-patient relationship. In the context of the RBC model, these efforts most directly involve which element for transforming the care delivery environment?

A. Inspiration B. Infrastructure C. Education D. Evidence Ans: B 10. The RBC model argues that the care environment cannot be transformed unless nursing leaders have the trait of competency. This means that the leaders must: A. believe that they possess the knowledge and skills necessary to bring about transformative change.

B. know how to work together toward a common goal.

C. make contributions, take ownership, and collaborate with others.

D. know their expectations aT ndEhSaT veBsAuN ppKoSrtEtoLL acEqR ui. reCthOeMskills needed to meet those expectations.

Ans: D

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Chapter 22– Theories Focused on Caring 1. The central premise of the nursing as caring theory is that: A. persons are caring from moment to moment.

B. persons are not whole or complete on their own.

C. persons cannot be caring until they enter into relationships with others.

D. all persons are caring by virtue of their humanness.

Ans: D 2. In Boykin and Schoenhoefer’s theory, the is the lived experience between a patient and a nurse that affects each person’s personhood.

A. collaborative situation B. call for nursing C. nursing situation D. call for caring Ans: C 3. Jean Watson is most closely associated with which framework for nursing?

A. The theory of human carinTgESTBANKSELLER.COM B. The nursing as caring theory C. The middle-range theory of caring D. The quality–caring model Ans: A 4. In Watson’s framework, a caring occasion occurs whenever: A. a nurse delivers one or more specific nursing interventions to a patient.

B. a nurse abandons his or her unique subjective reality and assumes that of another person.

C. a patient abandons his or her unique subjective reality and assumes that of the nurse.

D. a nurse and another person come together with their unique subjective realities and seek to connect in the present.

Ans: D 5. The clinical caritas approach differs from the theory of human caring in that: A. it places a lower emphasis upon the sacred and does not assume any connection between caring, spirituality, and human love.

B. it allows for the presence of existential-phenomenological-spiritual forces.

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C. it places greater emphasis upon the sacred and highlights the connections between caring, spirituality, and human love.

D. it disavows the presence of existential-phenomenological-spiritual forces.

Ans: C 6. What is an example of incorporating Watson’s theory of human caring into the clinical area?

A. Eliminating walking rounds B. Limiting visitor hours in critical care areas C. Encouraging the use of evidence-based practice D. Creating healing spaces for nurse time-outs Ans: D 7. Darrell is a critical care nurse. In his work, Darrell takes great care to engage in behaviors that let his patients know that they matter to him, and he is careful to assure each individual patient that he appreciates his or her unique reality. In doing these things, Darrell is carrying out which caring behavior identified in Swanson’s middle-range theory?

A. Knowing B. Being with C. Doing for D. Enabling

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Ans: B 8. Joanne Duffy was inspired to create the quality–caring model by what she saw as: A. the marginalization of caring behaviors as greater emphasis began to be placed on procedures, tasks, technology, and cost containment.

B. a measurable drop in the quality of patient outcomes as nurses focused more on caring than on clinical competency.

C. the complete disconnect between caring behaviors and the quality of patient outcomes.

D. the lack of a one-size-fits-all approach to caring for patients of all types.

Ans: A 9. According to Duffy, caring relationships differ from collaborative relationships in that: A. nurses are solely accountable for collaborative relationships but not for caring relationships.

B. patients are solely accountable for caring relationships but not for collaborative relationships.

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C. nurses are solely accountable for caring relationships but not for collaborative relationships.

D. patients are solely accountable for collaborative relationships but not for caring relationships.

Ans: C 10. The revised quality–caring model states that the following relationships are necessary for quality caring except: A. Relationship with community B. Relationship with a higher power C. Relationship with healthcare team D. Relationship with self Ans: B

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Chapter 23 – Models and Theories Focused on Culture 1. A theory must include: A. grand theory.

B. cultural sensitivity.

C. abstract notions.

D. implicit assumptions.

Ans: D 2. Predictive theory: A. identifies how the properties and components relate to one another and accounts for the functions of the discipline.

B. identifies properties and components of a discipline, identifies meaning and observations, and describes which elements exist.

C. conjectures the relationships between the components of a phenomenon and predicts under which conditions the phenomena will occur.

D. addresses therapeutics and consequences of intervention.

Ans: C 3. Prescriptive theory:

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A. identifies how the properties and components relate to one another and accounts for the functions of the discipline.

B. identifies properties and components of a discipline, identifies meaning and observations, and describes which elements exist.

C. conjectures the relationships between the components of a phenomenon and predicts under which conditions the phenomena will occur.

D. addresses therapeutics and consequences of intervention.

Ans: D 4. Which statement best describes cultural imposition?

A. Cultural imposition is the practice of extending the policies and procedure of one organization to disenfranchised and minority groups.

B. Cultural imposition intrusively applies the majority cultural view to individuals and families.

C. Cultural imposition is a universal tendency to believe that one’s own worldview is superior to another’s worldview.

D. Cultural imposition is a characteristic or trait that puts a strain on or reproaches a group or individual’s reputation or being.

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Ans: B 5. Which model focuses on the areas of communication, space, social orientation, time, environmental control, and biological variations?

A. The Campinha-Bacote Model B. The Purnell Model C. The Giger and Davidhizar Model D. The Leininger Model Ans: C 6. Which is an assumption of care within Leininger’s Cultural Care Diversity and Universality Theory and Model?

A. Within a cultural care diversity and universality framework, nurses may take any or all of three culturally congruent action modes.

B. All healthcare professions need similar information about cultural diversity.

C. There are core similarities shared by all cultures.

D. Prejudices can be minimized through education.

Ans: A

ER 7. Which assumption can be T foEuS ndTiB nAthNeKPS urEnL elL lm od.eC l?OM A. Within a cultural care diversity and universality framework, nurses may take any or all of three culturally congruent action modes.

B. All healthcare professions need similar information about cultural diversity.

C. Cultural sensitivity includes empathy.

D. Prejudices can be minimized through education.

Ans: B 8. Which is not a domain of the Purnell model?

A. Workforce issues B. Nutrition C. Gender issues D. Communications Ans: C 9. If a patient does not speak English, how can the APN determine how much pain the patient is experiencing?

A. Use pain scales in the patient’s native language

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B. Use an interpreter C. Try to explain through pointing to the pain area and groaning and see if the patient nods D. Both A and B Ans: D 10. It is not enough for the nurse to be culturally competent; the organization must be culturally competent as well. Which approach would not be used by an organization to maintain cultural competence?

A. hiring on the basis of race and background to ensure a diverse workforce.

B. developing programs on diversity.

C. producing medical literature in different languages.

D. providing interpreters.

Ans: A

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Chapter 24 – The Praxis Theory of Suffering 1. Which model provides a way to conceptualize an individual’s emotional responses to illness and death?

A. The praxis theory of suffering B. The explication of suffering behaviors C. The model of enduring and emotional suffering D. The illness constellation model Ans: A 2. The two primary behavioral states in suffering are: A. enduring and relinquishment.

B. emotional suffering and relinquishment.

C. enduring and emotional suffering.

D. emotional suffering and comforting.

Ans: C 3. Which behavior is a basic human response to a threat to one’s physical or emotional wellbeing?

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A. Enduring B. Relinquishment C. Denial D. Suffering Ans: D 4. Which behavior is a response to the actual or threatened loss that causes feelings of chaos?

A. Enduring B. Relinquishment C. Denial D. Suffering Ans: A 5. Emotional suffering: A. can be controlled through escapism.

B. is often acutely experienced by those who are dying.

C. is incompatible with enduring.

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D. is often recognized on an individual’s face.

Ans: D 6. Degrees of enduring include: A. relinquishment.

B. hope.

C. anxiety.

D. denial.

Ans: C 7. Which statement best describes comforting?

A. Comforting is a process that occurs within a developing relationship.

B. Comforting is a one-time event.

C. Comforting should be handled only by the patient’s friends and family.

D. Comforting does not help those who are suffering, as they are beyond comfort.

Ans: A 8. The comforting interaction is:

TESTBANKSELLER.COM A. led by the caregiver.

B. patient led.

C. not present in a trauma situation.

D. never includes the administration of drugs or pharmaceuticals.

Ans: B 9. The comfort level is: A. a dynamic continuum between denial and forced relinquishment.

B. a dynamic continuum where patients fall between complete relinquishment and forced relinquishment.

C. a state of forced relinquishment.

D. a state of complete relinquishment.

Ans: B 10. Comforting strategies: A. include comfort talk and administering pharmaceuticals.

B. are focused on the nurse.

C. can be separated from suffering.

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D. none of the above.

Ans: A

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Chapter 25 – Theory Testing and Theory Evaluation 1. Which phrase most accurately defines conceptual models?

A. Statements or phrases that capture the essence of something B. Abstract general work from which theories are derived C. Statements about one or more concepts D. Diverse research works that form the basis of practice Ans: B 2. Why are empirical indicators used to test theory concepts and propositions?

A. They are free from the testing biases and errors of most measuring devices.

B. They offer a more complete representation of nursing concerns than other tools.

C. They function as real-world proxies for phenomena that aren’t directly observable.

D. They reduce the amount of time it takes to gather data and test the theory.

Ans: C 3. Which phrase provides context to a nursing theory?

A. A health-related condition or event of interest TESTBANKSELLER.COM B. The C-T-E model used to test the theory C. A nurse or research group studying the theory D. The conceptual framework upon which the theory is based Ans: A 4. Which statement does not describe one of the primary ways in which theory generation and theory testing differ from one another?

A. Theory development yields descriptive theories and theory testing yields descriptive, explanatory, or predictive theories.

B. Theory development moves from conceptual model to empirical indicator to theory in the C-T-E structure and theory testing moves from conceptual model to theory to empirical indicators.

C. Theory development relies on deductive reasoning and theory testing relies on inductive reasoning.

D. Theory development utilizes descriptive research and theory testing utilizes descriptive, correlational, or experimental research.

Ans: C 5. Which statement best represents one of the arguments against linking a conceptual nursing model to an existing theory from another discipline?

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A. The application of the borrowed theory to the nursing context ignores the nuances under which the theory was developed.

B. The assumptions of the borrowed theory are not directly transferable to a patient-care setting.

C. The validity of the borrowed theory has not been proven via systematic use in the nursing discipline.

D. The philosophical assumptions of the borrowed theory and the nursing model may not be congruent.

Ans: D 6. Which statement best describes the concept of specification adequacy?

A. The clarity of connections between the conceptual model, the theory, and the empirical indicators B. The amount of information about the conceptual model that is used to construct the C-TE structure C. The adherence of the theory research to universally recognized and defined research standards D. The extent to which a theory is socially and theoretically important Ans: B

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7. Which step in the process of C-T-E structure evaluation is concerned with evaluating empirical research methods?

A. Step 1 B. Step 2 C. Step 3 D. Step 5 Ans: C 8. Which is not one of the criteria used to evaluate a theory?

A. Linkage B. Internal consistency C. Parsimony D. Significance Ans: A 9. In order for a theory to be empirically adequate, what must it do or be?

A. It must yield reliable and valid quantitative data.

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B. It must be completely congruent with the theory concepts and propositions.

C. It must reveal no major flaws in the conceptual model or its propositions.

D. It must yield dependable and credible qualitative data.

Ans: B 10. Horace is taking part in a research study and has been asked to evaluate the C-T-E structures used by the study to generate theory. During his evaluation, Horace discovers that the study’s findings reveal a major flaw in the propositions used by the conceptual model being studied. Based on his findings, which statement is true about the research findings?

A. They are not operationally adequate.

B. They are not parsimonious.

C. They are not legitimate.

D. They are not empirically adequate.

Ans: C

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Chapter 26 – Using Theory in Evidence-Based Advanced Nursing Practice 1. Which statement best describes the relationship between theory and evidence in advanced practice nursing?

A. Theory and evidence are one and the same.

B. Evidence provides the framework upon which theory is built.

C. Theory informs the search for evidence through research.

D. Evidence proves or disproves theory veracity.

Ans: A 2. The theory-practice gap in nursing exists because: A. most theories are outdated and don’t fit modern practice.

B. theories are too complex for most practicing nurses to understand.

C. there is a lack of research proving the applicability of theories.

D. theories are typically viewed as formulations irrelevant to practice.

Ans: D 3. Why has interest in translational research in nursing surged in recent years?

A. Satisfaction with traditionT alErS esTeaBrA chNhKaS sE deLcL reE asRed..COM B. Emphasis on evidence-based practice has increased.

C. Veracity of traditional research methods has been disproved.

D. The theory-practice gap has widened.

Ans: B 4. What are descriptive theories best translated into?

A. Research protocols B. Comprehensive assessment tools C. Intervention protocols D. Patient assessment tools Ans: D 5. Which pair does not accurately reflect the relationship of a theory type to the research used to prove or disprove it?

A. Descriptive theory; descriptive research B. Explanatory theory; correlational research C. Correlational theory; descriptive research D. Predictive theory; experimental research

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Ans: C 6. Which step of the process for translating nursing theories into evidence-based tools is primarily concerned with evaluating the innovative action of a theory in practice?

A. The fourth step B. The fifth step C. The sixth step D. The seventh step Ans: C 7. What is the purpose of a scoping review of the nursing literature?

A. Evaluating the depth and breadth of information on a particular subject B. Determining how much literature is available on a particular subject C. Ranking the quality of the literature available on a particular subject D. Developing a general awareness of the variety of information on a particular subject Ans: B 8. What is pragmatic adequacy?

TESTBANKSELLER.COM A. The extent to which content of a theory is stated concisely B. The extent to which a theory can be empirically tested C. The extent to which a theory serves as evidence for practical actions D. The extent to which a theory is socially and theoretically important Ans: C 9. The Elm Street Clinic recently adopted a new patient assessment tool that was developed through translational research. Unfortunately, most of the clinic’s personnel do not like the tool and find it cumbersome to use. As a result, very few of them utilize it on a regular basis.

From a pragmatic adequacy standpoint, the assessment tool is lacking when it comes to which criterion?

A. Compatibility B. Consistency C. Feasibility D. Social meaningfulness Ans: C 10. When searching the published literature for information about a theoretical problem, which approach is the best place from which to draw search terms?

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A. The PICOT format B. Best practices C. Review summaries D. The conceptual model Ans: D

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