Abnormal Psychology An Integrative Approach, 6th Edition International Edition by David Barlow – Tes

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Sample Test CHAPTER 3: ASSESSING AND DIAGNOSING PSYCHOPATHOLOGY

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The systematic evaluation of psychological, biological, and social factors in a person with a possible mental disorder is known as clinical ________________.

2. assessment 3. interpretation 4. validation 5. standardization

ANS: A DIF: Easy OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Factual

2. The process of determining whether an individual’s symptoms meet the criteria for a specific psychological disorder is called _____________.

3. prognosis 4. diagnosis 5. classification 6. analysis

ANS: B DIF: Easy OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Factual

3. The process of clinical assessment is psychopathology has been equated to using a _________ to determine the source of the problem.

4. funnel 5. hose 6. bucket 7. plow

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

4. In order to be useful, assessment techniques should be based on _______________.

5. beliefs 6. attitudes 7. evidence 8. assumptions

ANS: C DIF: Easy OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

5. Typically, the first part of the assessment process is to 6. conduct psychological testing to assess the problem.

7. determine a diagnosis and rule out other alternatives.

8. discuss with the client the various therapeutic interventions that are possible.

9. have the client describe the major difficulties he/she is having.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c

MSC: TYPE: Applied

6. In the first interview with Frank, a patient described in the textbook, he stated that he had been having intrusive thoughts that he tried to prevent by performing certain movements. Based on this information, you might predict that Frank would be diagnosed with _____________.

7. major depressive disorder 8. obsessive­compulsive disorder 9. a personality disorder 10.

schizophrenia

ANS: B DIF: Difficult OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Applied

7. A measurement which is consistent is considered to be _____________.

8. valid 9. reliable 10.

standardized

11.

accurate

ANS: B DIF: Easy OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c

MSC: TYPE: Factual

8. If the short version of a test yields the same results as a longer version, then you could conclude that the brief version had _________ validity.

9. concurrent 10.

divergent

11.

predictive

12.

excessive

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Applied

9. Clifton had been experiencing a number of psychological issues, so he decided to go to a psychiatrist to see what was wrong. Dr. A told him he had major depressive disorder. He decided to seek a second opinion.

Dr. B diagnosed him with generalized anxiety disorder. Wanting yet another opinion, he went to Dr. C who told him he was obsessive­ compulsive. This demonstrate poor _______________.

10.

test­retest reliability

11.

concurrent validity

12.

descriptive validity

13.

inter­rater reliability

ANS: C DIF: Moderate OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Applied

10. to

The process of clinical assessment results in narrowing the focus

11.

concentrate on problem areas that seem most relevant.

12.

consider a broad range of problems.

13.

cover all possible problems.

14.

concentrate on all problem areas equally.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c KEY: WWW MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

11.

In order to develop useful standards for a test, it is important to use a normative group that consists of a

12.

small group of people who are very similar to each other.

13.

large group of people who all share a key characteristic.

14.

large group of very diverse people.

15.

small group that differs from the population at large.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

12.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic concepts that help determine the value of a psychological assessment procedure?

13.

Reliability

14.

Subjectivity

15.

Validity

16.

Standardization

ANS: B DIF: Easy OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

13.

Treminitia, who had recurrent headaches, fatigue, and loss of appetite, received different diagnoses from several psychologists. In terms of assessment, this indicates a problem with _______.

14.

reliability

15.

subjectivity

16.

validity

17.

standardization

ANS: A DIF: Difficult OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Applied

14.

In terms of psychological assessment, which of the following describes the concept of validity?

15.

Two or more “raters” get the same answers

16.

An assessment technique is consistent across different measures

17.

Scores are used as a norm for comparison purposes

18.

An assessment technique measures what it is designed to measure

ANS: D DIF: Moderate OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c KEY: WWW MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

15.

Mr. J., a 40­year­old recent immigrant to the United States comes from a working­class background and is just learning to speak English.

He applies for a job and is given a test. His score is compared to others who have taken the test, mostly young college graduates whose native language is English. Mr. J. thinks this is unfair. In fact, this is an issue of __________.

16.

reliability

17.

classification

18.

validity

19.

standardization

ANS: D DIF: Difficult OBJ: 1; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Applied

16.

A clinical interview should be based on information from the client’s ___________.

17.

past life

18.

family history

19.

current life

20.

all of the above

ANS: D DIF: Easy ­72 OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

17.

In trying to understand and help an individual with a psychological problem, the psychologist will obtain detailed information about the person’s life as part of a _____________.

18.

physical exam

19.

clinical interview

20.

mental status exam

21.

brain scan

ANS: B DIF: Moderate OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c KEY: WWW MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

18.

As part of a psychological assessment, a mental status exam is used to find out how a person thinks, feels, and behaves; its primary purpose, however, is to determine 19.

if a psychological disorder might be present.

20.

what type of treatment should be used.

21.

which medication would be most effective.

22.

whether the individual also has a medical condition.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

19.

Observing appearance and behavior during a mental status exam

20. is simply done to give the appearance that the clinician is paying attention.

21.

rarely yields useful information.

22.

can yield clues regarding the presence of certain disorders.

23.

may just confuse the diagnostic process.

ANS: C DIF: Easy OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

20.

In a mental status exam, a psychologist evaluates an individual’s thought processes by 21.

asking the person to read aloud.

22.

listening to what the person says.

23.

reading what the person has written.

24.

evaluating the person’s dreams.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

21.

When Abernathy went to a psychologist for the first time, the clinician asked him what the date was, what time it was, what year was it, and where they were. Which category of a mental status exam do these questions cover?

22.

Thought processes

23.

Appearance and behavior

24.

Sensorium

25.

Intellectual functioning

ANS: C DIF: Moderate OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Applied

22.

Determining mood and affect is an important part of the mental status exam. Although both of these terms refer to feeling states of the individual, it would be correct to say that mood is more _____________ than affect.

23.

pervasive

24.

severe

25.

changeable

26.

frequent

ANS: A DIF: Difficult OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c KEY: WWW MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

23.

A mental status exam covers all of the following categories EXCEPT ___________.

24.

intellectual functioning

25.

appearance

26.

behavior

27.

physical symptoms

ANS: D DIF: Easy OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

24.

In regard to a mental status exam, which of the following questions is NOT related to the concept of sensorium?

25.

What is today’s date?

26.

Where are you?

27.

Who are you?

28.

How old are you?

ANS: D DIF: Easy OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

25.

In a mental status exam, it is important to determine if the individual’s sensorium is clear and if he/she is “oriented times three.”

This refers to 26.

person, place, and time.

27.

day, month, and year of birth.

28.

ability to follow directions.

29.

spatial orientation.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

26.

The initial assessment of the patient in your textbook named Frank, who was anxious about his job and his marriage, revealed that he 27.

had intrusive thoughts.

28.

was disoriented.

29.

showed inappropriate affect.

30.

had a low intelligence level.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Applied

27.

All of the following describe how a psychologist conducts a clinical interview EXCEPT 28.

attempts to facilitate communication.

29.

uses non­threatening ways of seeking information.

30.

keeps patient information confidential in all circumstances.

31.

applies appropriate listening skills.

ANS: C DIF: Moderate OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

28.

In a clinical interview, the law regarding “privileged communication” does NOT apply if the patient 29.

threatens self­harm or harm to another person.

30.

relates a history of sexual abuse.

31.

has been mentally ill for more than five years.

32.

is hospitalized in a psychiatric facility.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

29.

The Anxiety Disorders Interview Schedule for DSM­IV is an example of a

30.

personality inventory.

31.

semistructured clinical interview.

32.

projective test.

33.

behavioral intervention.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

30.

Which of the following medical conditions might also produce symptoms of behavioral disorders or symptoms that mimic psychological disorders?

31.

Hyperthyroidism

32.

Cocaine withdrawal

33.

Both a and b

34.

Neither a nor b

ANS: C DIF: Difficult OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c KEY: WWW MSC: TYPE: Applied

31.

Behavioral assessments are used to formally assess an individual’s thoughts, feelings, and behavior in ____________.

32.

general

33.

context

34.

the abstract

35.

theory

ANS: B DIF: Easy OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Factual

32.

Four­year­old Roberto is very aggressive toward his peers, which results in poor peer relationships. A psychologist has been asked to assess Roberto’s aggressiveness and determine if he needs intervention. The psychologist would probably do what type of assessment?

33.

General

34.

Projective

35.

Cognitive

36.

Behavioral

ANS: D DIF: Moderate OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Applied

33.

As part of a behavioral assessment, psychologists sometimes use ___________ settings when it is not possible to do direct observation in a naturalistic setting.

34.

imaginary

35.

empirical

36.

analog

37.

virtual

ANS: C DIF: Moderate OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Factual

34.

Which of the following people would make a good candidate for a behavioral assessment?

35.

A very verbal adult

36.

A young child

37.

A person with a cognitive deficit

38.

Both b and c

ANS: D DIF: Easy OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Applied

35.

The reactivity phenomenon of self­monitoring procedures has been shown to 36.

increase desired behaviors.

37.

decrease undesired behaviors.

38. both increase desired behaviors and decrease undesired behaviors.

39. neither increase desired behaviors nor decrease undesired behaviors.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

36.

The ABCs of observation refer to the ___________ sequence.

37.

affect­behavior­cognition

38.

antecedent­behavior­cognition

39.

antecedent­behavior­consequence

40.

affect­behavior­consequence

ANS: C DIF: Moderate OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

37.

Which of the following is an example of the reactivity phenomenon?

38.

A man begins to eat less after joining a clinic weight loss program in which each participant’s weight is recorded weekly by a staff member.

39.

After joining a fitness club, a woman stops exercising in her home and instead walks 2 miles a day by herself.

40.

A man changes his brand of cigarettes after his father dies of lung cancer.

41.

On parents’ visiting day in a classroom, the previously well­ behaved children continue to show good behavior.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Applied

38.

An operational definition refers to identifying specific behaviors that are ________.

39.

abnormal

40.

harmful

41.

long­standing

42.

measurable

ANS: D DIF: Easy OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

39.

An observation that involves identifying specific behaviors that are observable and measurable is called a(n) _______________.

40.

informal observation

41.

formal observation

42.

unstructured observation

43.

self­observation

ANS: B DIF: Easy OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Factual

40.

Most of the “psychological tests” in popular magazines are _____________________.

41.

reliable

42.

valid

43.

for entertainment only

44.

informative and educational

ANS: C DIF: Easy OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c KEY: WWW MSC: TYPE: Applied

41.

Hannibal is presented with a series of cards that are blots of ink.

He is asked to state what he sees on these cards. Hannibal is probably taking a(n)

42.

personality inventory.

43.

response inventory.

44.

projective test.

45.

intelligence test.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Applied

42.

Which of the following describes a personality inventory?

43.

Determines the possible contribution of brain damage to the person’s condition 44.

Uses imaging to assess brain structure and/or function

45.

Assesses long­standing patterns of behavior

46.

Ascertains the structure and patterns of cognition

ANS: C DIF: Moderate OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

43.

A clinician who wished to assess the effects of treatment over a period of time would be most likely to do so by repeatedly administering a(n) ____________.

44.

neuropsychological test battery

45.

projective test

46.

intelligence test

47.

behavior rating scale

ANS: D DIF: Moderate OBJ: 2; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

44.

The projective type of psychological tests is based on _____________ theory.

45.

behavioral

46.

cognitive

47.

humanistic

48.

psychoanalytic

ANS: D DIF: Moderate OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c KEY: WWW MSC: TYPE: Factual

45.

When an individual describes what he/she sees in the ambiguous stimuli of the Rorschach test, it is assumed that the person’s _____________ thoughts are revealed.

46.

unconscious

47.

conscious

48.

preconscious

49.

subconscious

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

46.

A psychoanalytic therapist who wants to assess the unconscious thoughts and feelings of a patient would be most likely to use the __________ test.

47.

MMPI

48.

Bender Visual­Motor Gestalt Test

49.

Rorschach inkblot test

50.

Halstead­Reitan Neuropsychological Battery

ANS: C DIF: Difficult OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c KEY: WWW MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

47.

The Rorschach test is considered controversial because of all of the following concerns EXCEPT that 48.

the test is based on psychoanalytic theory.

49.

there is little or no data regarding its reliability or validity.

50. the inkblots have been changed many times since the test was developed.

51. until recently there were no standardized procedures for administering the test.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

48.

Dr. Jiminez is using Exner’s Comprehensive System to administer and score the Rorschach inkblot test. This specifies all of the following EXCEPT 49.

how the cards with the inkblots should be presented.

50.

exactly what the psychologist administering the test should say.

51.

the way in which the test taker’s responses should be recorded.

52.

the amount of time allowed for each inkblot card to be presented.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Applied

49.

The comprehensive system for administering and scoring the Rorschach inkblot test was developed because 50. a lack of standardized procedures affects the way the test taker responds to the questions.

51. it was discovered that inter­rater reliability had increased significantly.

52.

Hermann Rorschach was dissatisfied with the way his test was being given.

53. the previous scoring system was found to be difficult and time­ consuming.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

50.

The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) differs from the Rorschach inkblot test in that the person taking the TAT is asked to use his or her imagination to 51.

tell a complete story about a picture.

52. draw a picture based on a story that is read aloud by the examiner.

53.

write down responses after reading a short story.

54.

tell a story and draw a picture about it.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c KEY: WWW MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

51.

Which of the following is an accurate statement about the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)?

52.

Most psychologists interpret responses to the TAT cards in the same way.

53.

High inter­rater reliability exists among those administering the test.

54.

The TAT is used as a diagnostic test because validity is high.

55.

Many clinicians use the TAT to encourage people to talk more openly about their lives.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

52.

In regard to projective tests, research has found that most clinicians 53.

do not use projective tests.

54.

have their own ways of administering and scoring the tests.

55. use standardized procedures when administering and scoring the tests.

56.

rely on these tests to diagnose psychopathology.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Factual

53.

“The questions make sense to the person reading them and the wording of the questions seems to fit the type of information desired.” In regard to personality inventories, which type of validity is defined by the preceding statement?

54.

Predictive

55.

Face

56.

Construct

57.

Analytic

ANS: B DIF: Moderate OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

54.

All of the following statements are TRUE about the MMPI EXCEPT that 55.

there is little room for interpretation.

56.

the test is tedious and time­consuming.

57.

there is a version for adolescents.

58. individual responses are examined to determine a diagnostic pattern.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Factual

55.

As an assessment measure, the MMPI is considered unique because it is 56.

data based.

57.

theory based.

58.

based on the biological model.

59.

based on the humanistic approach.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

56.

If you were asked to compare and contrast the MMPI and the Rorschach inkblot test, you could say correctly that 57.

responses are interpreted individually in the MMPI.

58.

the pattern of responses is evaluated in the MMPI.

59. the Rorschach test is more tedious and time­consuming for the patient to complete.

60.

the Rorschach test more accurately predicts psychopathology.

ANS: B DIF: Difficult OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Applied

57.

Since the MMPI is ____________, the assessment concept known as reliability is increased.

58.

often interpreted by computer

59.

made up of many scales

60.

non­sexist

61.

well­researched

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

58.

The MMPI­2 differs from earlier versions of the MMPI because it

59.

is shorter.

60.

was normed on a much more diverse sample.

61.

is less reliable.

62.

is normed on a much more selective sample.

ANS: B DIF: Easy OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Factual

59.

Heinrich falsifies answers his answers on the MMPI so that he will look good. He will probably have a high score on the __________ scale.

60.

Cannot Say

61.

Lie

62.

Paranoia

63.

Defensiveness

ANS: B DIF: Easy OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Applied

60.

The MMPI is a notable measurement instrument because it

61. has been shown to be valid with a range of psychological problems.

62.

relies on subjective interpretations of patterns.

63.

is short and easy to administer.

64.

is the oldest test measure developed.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

61.

The MMPI­A, a new version of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, has been developed specifically for testing ____________.

62.

children with ADHD

63.

children with autism

64.

adults

65.

adolescents

ANS: D DIF: Easy OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Factual

62.

While taking the MMPI, James S. made an attempt to give himself an unrealistic positive image by falsifying answers and trying to appear as though he had no psychological problems. On the four MMPI scales that determine the validity of each test administration, you could accurately state that James S. probably had high scores on the ___________.

63.

L and F scales only

64.

F scale only

65.

L and K scales only

66.

Cannot Say scale only

ANS: C DIF: Difficult OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c

KEY: WWW MSC: TYPE: Applied

63.

The MMPI­2, a more recent version of the personality inventory, has been updated to reflect all of the following EXCEPT _____________.

64.

cultural diversity

65.

gender equality

66.

contemporary issues

67.

sexual values

ANS: D DIF: Moderate OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

64.

Which of the following describes an intelligence test?

65.

Determines the possible contribution of brain damage to the person’s condition 66.

Uses imaging to assess brain structure and/or function

67.

Assesses long­standing patterns of behavior

68.

Ascertains the structure and patterns of cognition

ANS: D DIF: Moderate OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c

MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

65.

The calculation of an IQ, previously done by using a child’s mental age, is now done by using a deviation IQ. This means that the child’s score is compared to the scores of others _____________.

66.

of the same age

67.

in the same grade

68.

who took the test at the same time

69.

with the same level of intelligence

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

66.

An intelligence test is a measure to

67.

determine a person’s intelligence.

68.

predict academic success.

69.

determine a person’s creativity.

70.

all of the above

ANS: B DIF: Moderate OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

67.

IQ tests measure all of the following abilities EXCEPT

68.

attention.

69.

memory.

70.

reasoning.

71.

adaptability.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

68.

In regard to IQ tests, which of the following statements is FALSE?

69.

IQ and intelligence are the same thing.

70.

An IQ test has predictive validity with respect to academic success.

71.

IQ tests measure abilities such as attention, memory, reasoning, and perception.

72.

Psychologists have different theories about which skills and abilities constitute intelligence.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

69.

The calculation of an IQ, previously done by using a child’s mental age, is now done by using a deviation IQ. This means that the child’s score is compared to the scores of others 70.

of the same age.

71.

in the same grade.

72.

who took the test at the same time.

73.

with the same level of intelligence.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c KEY: WWW MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

70.

The performance scales on the WISC­IV (Weschler Intelligence Scale for Children) measure all of the following EXCEPT ____________.

71.

factual knowledge

72.

psychomotor abilities

73.

ability to learn new relationships

74.

non­verbal reasoning

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 3; APALO: 4.2.c

MSC: TYPE: Factual

71.

Which of the following describes a neuropsychological test?

72.

Determines the possible contribution of brain damage to the person’s condition 73.

Uses imaging to assess brain structure and/or function

74.

Assesses long­standing patterns of behavior

75.

Ascertains the structure and patterns of cognition

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 2; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

72.

A neuropsychological test measures abilities in which of the following areas?

73.

Learning

74.

Abstract reasoning

75.

Motor skills

76.

Cognition

ANS: D DIF: Moderate OBJ: 2; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

73.

Neuropsychological tests are used to assess whether or not an individual might ____________.

74.

be mentally retarded

75.

have a brain dysfunction

76.

have had a psychotic episode

77.

be in a depressed state

ANS: B DIF: Moderate OBJ: 2; APALO: 1.2.a(3) KEY: WWW MSC: TYPE: Applied

74.

If it were important to determine the exact location of brain impairment, which of the following tests would most likely be used?

75.

Bender Visual­Motor Gestalt Test

76.

Halstead­Reitan Neuropsychological Battery

77.

Gall Phrenological Brain Scan

78.

Stanford­Binet Intelligence Scale

ANS: B DIF: Difficult OBJ: 2; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Applied

75.

Although abnormalities in the structure and functioning of the brain can be detected by neuroimaging techniques, current research is also looking at 76. a possible association of these abnormalities with psychological disorders.

77. using brain­imaging techniques as a treatment for psychological disorders.

78.

preventing psychological disorders with neuroimaging techniques.

79.

changing brain functioning from abnormal to normal.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult OBJ: 4; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

76.

Recent research involving PET scans has shown that patients with Alzheimer’s disease have 77.

increased dopamine reuptake in the occipital lobes.

78.

increased serotonin levels in the temporal lobes.

79.

reduced glucose metabolism in the parietal lobes.

80.

reduced amino acid production in the frontal lobes.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult OBJ: 4; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Applied

77.

A procedure used to assess brain functioning much like a PET scan but is less accurate and uses a different tracer substance is ___________.

78.

SQUID

79.

SPECT

80.

TCM

81.

JCT

ANS: B DIF: Moderate OBJ: 4; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Factual

78.

In addition to MRI, PET, and CT, other brain­imaging techniques are currently in use or are now being developed. Which of the following is NOT one of these newer neuroimaging techniques?

79.

fMRI

80.

MEG

81.

SPECT

82.

EMG

ANS: D DIF: Easy OBJ: 4; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Factual

79.

A primary diagnostic technique for identifying seizure disorders is the ________.

80.

EEG

81.

DOT

82.

GSR

83.

ERP

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 4; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Factual

80.

When brief periods of EEG patterns are recorded in response to a specific event, the response is called a(n) ____________.

81.

evoked potential

82.

alpha wave

83.

electrodermal response

84.

artifact

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 4; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Factual

81.

A healthy adult at rest is most likely to show an EEG pattern characterized by a high level of _____________.

82.

alpha waves

83.

delta waves

84.

critical waves

85.

irregular

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 4; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Factual

82.

Sweat gland activity (electrodermal activity) is measured in order to assess ______________.

83.

stress and emotional arousal

84.

exhaustion

85.

brain damage

86.

sexual dysfunction and disorders

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 4; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

83.

When an assessment strategy shows a problem when none exists, it is referred to as a ________.

84.

false negative

85.

false positive

86.

negative outcome

87.

forecast error

ANS: A DIF: Difficult OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

84.

The problem with generating a false negative during an assessment strategy is that the patient 85.

will not receive treatment for an actual disorder.

86.

will receive treatment for a disorder they don’t have.

87.

will be tired of being tested.

88.

will be discredited.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

85.

According to the textbook, assessment of psycho­physiological response to emotional stimuli is important in treating all of the following EXCEPT _____________.

86.

sexual dysfunctions

87.

posttraumatic stress disorder

88.

hypertension

89.

cancer

ANS: D DIF: Difficult OBJ: 4; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

86.

The likely future course of a disorder is called its ____________.

87.

prognosis

88.

diagnosis

89.

etiology

90.

inference

ANS: A DIF: Easy OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c KEY: WWW MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

87.

Determining what is unique about an individual’s personality, cultural background, or circumstances can be termed a(n) ________ strategy.

88.

idiographic

89.

nomothetic

90.

classification

91.

categorical

ANS: A DIF: Easy OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Factual

88.

Identifying which general class of problems to which a presenting problem belongs is known as a(n) ________ strategy.

89.

idiographic

90.

nomothetic

91.

classification

92.

categorical

ANS: B DIF: Easy OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Factual

89.

When a taxonomic system is applied to a psychological problem, it becomes a ___________.

90.

diagnosis

91.

prognosis

92.

nosology

93.

nomenclature

ANS: C DIF: Easy OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Factual

90.

One important advantage of using a classification and diagnostic system like DSM­IV is that knowing a patient’s diagnosis 91.

helps the therapist to develop a treatment plan and prognosis.

92.

allows patients to fully participate in their own treatment.

93. permits the insurance company to have access to patients’ records.

94.

allows the therapist to see the patient as an individual.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

91.

Believing that it would not helpful, Dr. Thomas refuses to use the DSM­IV or any other diagnostic system. One problem that we may expect for this therapist is that it may be hard to

92. apply what has been learned from treating other patients with similar problems.

93.

think of patients as individuals.

94.

monitor the progress of patients in therapy.

95. convince patients that mental disorders do not define an individual’s personality.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Applied

92.

The dimensional approach to classification of mental disorders differs from the categorical approach because the dimensional system provides 93. lists of symptoms that are associated with all of the forms of psychopathology that are currently believed to exist.

94.

diagnostic labels based on the presence of specific symptoms.

95. information that is used to determine the cause and treatment of the disorder.

96. scales that indicate the degree to which patients are experiencing various cognitions, moods, and behaviors.

ANS: D DIF: Moderate OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

93.

The terms taxonomy and nosology refer to

94.

scientific classification.

95.

the accuracy of a diagnostic system.

96.

the reliability of a grouping of clinical symptoms.

97.

heoretical ideas that cannot be tested objectively.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Applied

94.

People who are correctly diagnosed with a DSM­IV disorder like Major Depressive Episode will 95. usually have at least some of the same symptoms as others with the disorder.

96. always have at least five of the same symptoms as others with the disorder.

97. typically have very few of the same symptoms as others with the disorder.

98. usually experience all of the same symptoms as others with the disorder.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c

MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

95.

Several clinicians interview a patient and use a new diagnostic system to independently provide the same diagnosis. We can say that it appears the new diagnostic system is _______________.

96.

reliable

97.

valid

98.

both reliable and valid

99.

neither reliable nor valid

ANS: A DIF: Difficult OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Applied

96.

The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders is a publication of the 97.

American Psychological Association.

98.

International Association of Psychologists.

99.

American Psychiatric Association.

100.

National Institutes of Mental Health.

ANS: C DIF: Easy OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Factual

97.

The term that describes the names or labels of the disorders is ___________.

98.

taxonomy

99.

nomenclature

100.

nosology

101.

none of the above

ANS: B DIF: Easy OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Factual

98.

The classical categorical approach to diagnosis assumes that each person with a particular disorder will 99.

be helped by recognizing the cause of the disorder.

100.

experience very few of the same symptoms.

101.

respond to the same treatments equally.

102.

experience the same symptoms with little or no variation.

ANS: D DIF: Difficult OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

99.

Quantifying a person’s moods, behaviors, and cognitions on a scale constitutes a(n) ______________ approach to understanding psychopathology.

100.

idiographic

101.

nomothetic

102.

dimensional

103.

prototypical

ANS: C DIF: Easy OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Factual

100.

Identifying certain essential characteristics of an entity while allowing for nonessential variations that don’t change is considered a(n) ____________ approach to understanding psychopathology.

101.

idiographic

102.

nomothetic

103.

dimensional

104.

prototypical

ANS: D DIF: Easy OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Factual

101.

A classical categorical approach to diagnosis is

102.

more useful in psychology than in medicine.

103.

more useful in medicine than in psychology.

104.

not appropriate in either medicine or psychology.

105.

equally useful in medicine and psychology.

ANS: B DIF: Moderate OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

102.

The dimensional approach to diagnosis is characterized by

103. quantification of patients’ experiences using scales measuring several areas such as anxiety or depression.

104. lists of symptoms that patients must experience for the diagnosis to be assigned.

105. essential elements that all patients must report for the diagnosis to be assigned but allowance for specific nonessential variations as well.

106. a theoretical explanation for the underlying cause of the disorder that is assumed to be shared by all patients experiencing similar symptoms.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

103.

The crucial test as to whether a diagnostic system has a high degree of validity is that it should result in 104.

an effective treatment plan.

105.

all clinicians reaching the same diagnosis for the patient.

106.

the accurate diagnostic label for the patient.

107. the same diagnostic label regardless of when the patient is evaluated.

ANS: C DIF: Difficult OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

104.

When a diagnosis tells the clinician what is likely to happen and possibly predict the course of the disorder and the likely effect of one treatment or another, the diagnosis has 105.

construct validity.

106.

predictive validity

107.

content validity.

108.

none of the above

ANS: B DIF: Moderate OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c

MSC: TYPE: Factual

105.

The extent to which a disorder would be found among the patient’s relatives is known as _________.

106.

familial sharing

107.

familial reliability

108.

familial validity

109.

familial aggregation

ANS: D DIF: Moderate OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Factual

106.

An important change in the DSM versions that followed DSM­III was 107.

the lack of a presumed theoretical cause for each disorder.

108.

a change from a dimensional to a categorical system.

109.

greater emphasis on validity and less concern for reliability.

110.

the inclusion of the humanistic view of pathology.

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

107.

One of the important changes from DSM­III­R to DSM­IV reflects our greater understanding of the multiple causes and influences on various mental states and disorders. This change is 108. less distinction between organically (physically) caused and psychologically based disorders in DSM­IV. 109. more distinction between organically (physically) caused and psychologically based disorders in DSM­IV. 110.

more distinction between neurosis and psychosis in DSM­IV.

111. less emphasis on the types of treatment that might be appropriate for each disorder in DSM­IV.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

108.

The best way to have a general idea about a patient’s overall level of functioning is to look at DSM­IV axis ___.

109.

I

110.

II

111.

III

112.

V

ANS: D DIF: Easy OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c

MSC: TYPE: Factual

109.

In contrast to previous editions of DSM, the fourth edition integrates possible social and cultural influences on diagnosis. All of the following questions relate to these influences EXCEPT, 110.

Does the clinician understand the cultural significance of the patient’s disorder?

111.

Does the patient accept Western models of disease or disorder?

112.

Is it acceptable in the patient’s culture to be physically ill but not mentally ill?

113.

Do the symptoms of the patient’s disorder meet the criteria for a DSM­IV diagnosis?

ANS: D DIF: Difficult ­90 OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Applied

110.

Using the multiaxial system of DSM­IV, disorders such as Major Depressive Episode, anxiety disorders, and learning disorders are coded on __________.

111.

axis I

112.

axis II

113.

axis III

114.

axis IV

ANS: A DIF: Easy OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Factual

111.

In the DSM­IV, medical conditions are coded on ___________.

112.

axis I

113.

axis II

114.

axis III

115.

axis V

ANS: C DIF: Easy OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Factual

112.

Keno’s depression began following his recent divorce and subsequent homelessness. The events of divorce and homelessness are coded on ____________ in DSM­IV.

113.

axis II

114.

axis III

115.

axis IV

116.

axis V

ANS: C DIF: Moderate OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Applied

113.

One of the most unreliable categories in current classification is in the area of _____________.

114.

schizophrenia

115.

anxiety disorders

116.

mood disorders

117.

personality disorders

ANS: D DIF: Moderate OBJ: 5; APALO: 4.2.c MSC: TYPE: Factual

ESSAY

1. Marisa goes to see a psychologist because she has been having some acute distress and seems overwhelmed. Describe the process that Marisa’s psychologist will use to reach a diagnosis and develop a treatment plan.

ANS: Marisa will be asked to describe her problem and any symptoms she is experiencing. She will relate all concerns regarding her behavior and thinking to the clinician, who will assess Marisa’s behavior and communication during

the interview. The clinician will form an initial diagnosis and those areas that need to be ruled out.

The clinician may do various types of psychological assessment to help determine the diagnosis. Where appropriate, certain neuropsychological testing or neuro imaging may be done,

The clinician will evaluate all assessment data and reach a diagnosis that will be presented in a multiaxial format.

Based on the diagnosis and possible theoretical orientation of the clinician, a treatment plan will be developed. The clinician will take into account the research data on the effectiveness of certain treatments for certain disorders.

2. Describe the major objectives and typical procedures of the mental status exam. Be sure to include the typical activities of the examiner and the intended outcomes of the process.

ANS: Mental status exams cover the following five categories:

­Appearance and behavior. The clinician records the client’s dress, appearance, and motor actions.

­Thought processes. The clinician listens to the patient talk in order to assess the rate and content of his/her speech.

­Mood and affect. The clinician observes the patient’s emotion, and actions regarding his/her feelings.

­Intellectual functioning. The clinician assesses the client’s vocabulary, memory, and overall intellectual functioning.

­Sensorium. The client’s general awareness of his/her surroundings is assessed.

The mental status exam is done to allow the clinician to make a preliminary determination of the areas of the patient’s behavior and condition that should be assessed further.

3. Projective tests such as the Thematic Apperception Test and the original Rorschach inkblot test are often criticized with regard to their reliability. Explain why the reliability of these tests may not be as good as a personality measure such as the MMPI.

ANS: Projective tests are based on the use of ambiguous stimuli onto which the client projects his/her own personality and unconscious fears and so reveal unconscious thoughts to the therapist. The TAT, which uses pictures as stimuli, and the Rorschach, which uses inkblots as stimuli, are both subject to variation in their administration and interpretation. Consequently, they are less reliable than more objective assessments such as the MMPI, which consists of multiple­choice questions and has clear norms and guidelines for its interpretation.

4. The DSM­IV is based on a multiaxial system. Explain the content of each axis and its contribution to understanding the patient.

ANS:

The five components of the DSM­IV listed below allow individuals with possible psychological disorders to be rated on five different dimensions, in order to facilitate diagnosis and treatment decisions.

­Axis I is used to rate a client’s major condition or disorder.

­Axis II is used to record enduring conditions such as personality disorders or mental retardations.

­Axis III is used to record a client’s physical or health condition.

­Axis IV reflects psychosocial and environmental problems that might have an impact on a disorder.

­Axis V indicates the client’s current level of adaptive functioning.

5. Labeling a patient with a diagnosis is often referred to as a “double­ edged sword” as the diagnostic label can both help and hurt the patient.

Explain the advantages and disadvantages (to the patient) of a diagnostic label.

ANS: The use of labels in diagnosis allows clinicians to formulate and compare diagnoses and to select treatment approaches. However, many psychological disorders carry with them significant stigma. Therefore, the label may diminish the client’s self­esteem or result in him/her being treated poorly by others.

Incorrect labels can also result in ineffective or harmful treatment choices.

CHAPTER 5: ANXIETY AND ITS DISORDERS

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following characterizes the mood­state known as anxiety?

2. Positive mood state 3. Reduced heart rate 4. Apprehension about the future 5. Muscle relaxation

ANS: C DIF: Easy OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Factual

2. Anxiety is closely related to which of the following psychological disorders?

3. Schizophrenia 4. Depression 5. Dementia 6. Psychosis

ANS: B DIF: Easy OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

3. People behave best when they are ___________.

4. very anxious 5. not anxious at all 6. a little anxious 7. fearful

ANS: C DIF: Easy OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Factual

4. When people are anxious, they 5. know it is irrational, but can’t help it.

6. believe their feelings are rational.

7. have trouble recognizing reality.

8. don’t realize they are feeling anxious.

ANS: A DIF: Easy OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

5. Anxiety is thought to be a____________ state, while fear is more_______.

6. future­oriented; immediate

7. short­term; long­term 8. real; irrational 9. immediate; future­oriented

ANS: A DIF: Easy OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Factual

6. The “flight or fight” response that is triggered by anxiety primarily involves the ____________ nervous system.

7. autonomic 8. parasympathetic 9. peripheral 10.

somatic

ANS: A DIF: Easy OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

7. “I’ve got to get out of here right now, or I may not make it!” This statement is most likely to be said by someone experiencing a(n) 8. episode of depression.

9. future­oriented mood state.

10.

fear reaction.

11.

parasympathetic “surge.”

ANS: C DIF: Moderate OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Applied

8. ____________ is characterized by apprehension because of future unpredictability, whereas ____________ is characterized by strong escapist tendencies.

9. Anxiety; fear 10.

Fear; anxiety

11.

Psychoses; neuroses

12.

neuroses; psychoses

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

9. Which of the following is NOT a basic type of panic attack?

10.

Situation bound

11.

Unexpected

12.

Situation predisposed

13.

Situation inevitable

ANS: D DIF: Easy OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Factual

10.

Mrs. Pan has an anxiety disorder in which she has occasional panic attacks when shopping at the mall. This type of panic attack is referred to as _______________.

11.

uncued

12.

situationally predisposed

13.

cued

14.

situationally bound

ANS: B DIF: Moderate OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Applied

11.

Which type of panic attack is most closely related to phobias?

12.

Situationally predisposed

13.

Situationally bound

14.

Unexpected

15.

Uncued

ANS: B DIF: Moderate OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Factual

12.

Lawanda was walking down the street on a bright sunny day when, all of a sudden, she had an abrupt attack of intense fear that totally surprised her. This is what type of panic attack?

13.

Situationally predisposed

14.

Situationally bound

15.

Cued

16.

Uncued

ANS: D DIF: Moderate OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Applied

13.

Hideki was attending his fifth baseball game at Condor Stadium, where he had previously had a panic attack. He did not know if he would have a panic attack today, but shortly after entering the stadium, he did. This type of panic attack is ____________.

14.

situationally predisposed

15.

situationally bound

16.

cued

17.

uncued

ANS: A DIF: Moderate OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Applied

14.

According to the DSM­IV­TR criteria, the symptoms of a panic attack develop abruptly and reach a peak within _____ minute(s).

15.

1

16.

10

17.

30

18.

60

ANS: B DIF: Easy OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Factual

15.

Fear activates a

16.

surge of autonomic energy so we can flee.

17.

psychological but not physiological response.

18.

physiological but not psychological response.

19.

decrease in autonomic energy so we can flee.

ANS: A DIF: Easy OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3) KEY: WWW MSC: TYPE: Conceptual

16.

Research suggests that we inherit a tendency to be tense, which is ____________.

17.

caused by a single gene

18.

caused by multiple genes

19.

related to depression

20.

related to schizophrenia

ANS: B DIF: Easy OBJ: 1; APALO: 1.2.a(3) MSC: TYPE: Factual