TEST BANK for Biological Psychology 14th Edition By James W. Kalat

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What was the profound question posed by Gottfried Leibniz? a. What is the nature of matter and energy? b. Where do we go when we die? c. How can people learn to live together? d. Why is there something instead of nothing?

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What is meant by the mind–body problem? a. Where in the body is the mind located? b. Why are certain types of brain activity conscious? c. What happens during an out-of-body experience? d. Do you mind what I do with your body?

3. What is biological psychology’s point of view? a. The only effective way to treat psychological problems is through medications. b. Evolution steadily makes us better and smarter. c. We behave as we do because of evolved brain mechanisms. d. Mind and brain are fundamentally separate entities.

4. When you touch something, where does the conscious perception occur? a. In your hand b. In your brain c. Between your hand and your brain d. In both your hand and your brain 5. What happens when you see something? a. You send sight rays out of your eyes. b. Light rays cause a response in your brain. c. You send out sight rays that bounce back to your eyes. d. Light rays cause your eyes to send out sight rays.

6. What does monism mean? a. Both heredity and environment contribute to differences in behavior. b. Both hemispheres of the brain contribute to mental experience. c. You can think about only one thing at a time. d. Brain activity and mental experience are the same thing.

7. What is the opposite of dualism? a. Vegetarianism b. Pacifism c. Monism d. Solipsism 8. Mental activity and certain types of brain activity are, so far as we can tell, inseparable. This statement is consistent Powered by Cognero

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior with _____. a. Leibnitzism b. Descartism c. dualism d. monism 9. Your textbook lists which of these as one of the three points you should remember forever? a. Glutamate and GABA are the most abundant transmitters in the brain. b. The difference between human brains and other brains is mainly one of size. c. Mental activity and brain activity are inseparable. d. Ethical restraints put limits on what we can learn about the human brain.

10. Your textbook lists which of these as one of the three points you should remember forever? a. People differ in their sensations and behaviors because of brain differences. b. The transmission of an action potential depends on movements of sodium and potassium. c. The human brain is fundamentally different from that of all other species. d. Scientists agree that they will never understand the brain fully.

11. Which of these is NOT one of the types of explanation that biological psychologists use? a. The intention behind the behavior b. The brain mechanisms of the behavior c. How the behavior developed d. How the behavior evolved 12. What does a “functional” explanation of a behavior state? a. Why something evolved as it did b. How something develops during early life c. What intention someone has when doing something d. What brain chemistry produced an action 13. Moths fly away from a bat call because it triggers a reflex that turns the body. What type of explanation is this? a. Physiological b. Ontogenetic c. Evolutionary d. Functional 14. Moths turn away from anything they hear because that behavior enhances the chance of survival. What type of explanation is this? a. Physiological b. Ontogenetic c. Evolutionary d. Functional 15. A bird sings because testosterone has caused one part of its brain to grow. What type of explanation is this? a. Physiological Powered by Cognero

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior b. Ontogenetic c. Evolutionary d. Functional 16. A bird sings a particular song because it heard it during a sensitive period early in life. What type of explanation is this? a. Physiological b. Ontogenetic c. Evolutionary d. Functional 17. Two bird species sing similar songs because they had a recent ancestor in common. What type of explanation is this? a. Physiological b. Ontogenetic c. Evolutionary d. Functional 18. A male bird sings because the song attracts females and warns other males away. What type of explanation is this? a. Physiological b. Ontogenetic c. Evolutionary d. Functional 19. What are the four categories of biological explanations? a. Cortical, subcortical, spinal, and peripheral b. Electrical, chemical, mechanical, and intentional c. Excitatory, inhibitory, compensatory, and combinational d. Physiological, ontogenetic, evolutionary, and functional 20. What does an ontogenetic explanation emphasize? a. Intention b. Development c. Culture d. Mechanism 21. Explaining behavior by how the nervous system matures is what type of explanation? a. Dualistic b. Ontogenetic c. Evolutionary d. Functional 22. How does an evolutionary explanation of behavior differ from a functional explanation? a. An evolutionary explanation predicts how the behavior will change in the future. b. An evolutionary explanation relates a behavior to the maturation of the nervous system.

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior c. An evolutionary explanation explains why a behavior is advantageous. d. An evolutionary explanation traces a behavior to ancestral species.

23. A human infant grasps anything placed in the palm of the hand because of a reflex controlled by the spinal cord. What type of explanation is this? a. Physiological b. Ontogenetic c. Evolutionary d. Functional 24. A human infant grasps anything placed in the palm of the hand, but the reflex fades over time as inhibition develops.

What type of explanation is this? a. Physiological b. Ontogenetic c. Evolutionary d. Functional 25. Human infants grasp anything placed in the palm of the hand because humans inherited this response from monkeylike ancestors. What type of explanation is this? a. Physiological b. Ontogenetic c. Evolutionary d. Functional 26. An infant monkey grasps anything placed in the palm of the hand because this response enables it to cling to its mother. What type of explanation is this? a. Physiological b. Ontogenetic c. Evolutionary d. Functional 27. What education is usually necessary for someone to direct a research laboratory? a. A high school degree b. An undergraduate major in a scientific field c. A master’s degree d. A doctorate degree 28. Of the following, which is the most likely to conduct tests to determine the abilities and disabilities of people with brain damage? a. Counseling psychologist b. Neurochemist c. Comparative psychologist d. Neuropsychologist 29. What does a comparative psychologist compare?

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior a. Theories b. Animal species c. Brain areas d. Neurotransmitters 30. What is one reason for doing research on laboratory animals instead of humans? a. Research on animals enables us to predict how they will evolve. b. More research grants are available for laboratory research than for human research. c. Some mechanisms are easier to understand in another species. d. Ethical restraints do not apply to laboratory research.

31. What do “minimalists” say about animal research? a. Only minimal restraints should apply to animal research. b. Only government researchers should be allowed to do animal research. c. Only medical researchers should be allowed to do animal research. d. Only certain types of animal research should be acceptable.

32. What do “abolitionists” say about animal research? a. Only certain types of animal research should be acceptable. b. So little animal research happens today that it is not worth worrying about. c. Animals have the same rights as humans. d. All laws and regulations about laboratory research should be abolished.

33. What are “the three Rs” that apply to animal research? a. Receive, replace, reuse b. Remember, recover, reform c. Rebuke, reverse, refuse d. Reduction, replacement, refinement 34. In the United States, who decides whether a proposal for animal research is acceptable? a. The experimenters themselves b. The experimenters’ department chairperson c. An Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee d. The Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals 35. Sometimes a patient is invited to participate in a research study in which investigators will record from brain cells while the skull is open for brain surgery. What is the main ethical problem here? a. The pain the recordings will cause b. Being sure the informed consent is truly voluntary c. The probable damage to the cells being recorded d. The difficulty of comparing results with other investigators 36. Most research on the human brain has used a nonrepresentative sample of people, such as just men, or just white Americans. This type of sample poses the biggest problem for research on what topic? a. Brain anatomy Powered by Cognero

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior b. Evolution of synaptic mechanisms c. Effects of drugs d. Mechanisms of sensory organs 37. About how many neurons are in the human brain, and how variable is it? a. 86 million, and the number varies only slightly among individuals b. 86 million, and people vary in their neuron number more than they do in height c. 86 billion, and the number varies only slightly among individuals d. 86 billion, and people vary in their neuron number more than they do in height 38. Santiago Ramón y Cajal was famous for which of the following discoveries? a. Transmission at the synapses depends on chemicals. b. Mental illness has a biological basis. c. Genetic differences influence behavioral development. d. The brain is composed of cells.

39. Who first demonstrated that the brain is composed of individual cells? a. Charles Scott Sherrington b. Santiago Ramón y Cajal c. Otto Loewi d. Camillo Golgi 40. Why were biologists of the 1800s uncertain about whether the brain consisted of separate cells? a. Microscopes at that time were too expensive for biologists to use. b. Most scientists at the time believed in mind–body dualism. c. Most scientists at the time thought synaptic transmission was electrical. d. Neurons do not look like the body’s other cells.

41. What was unique about the time when Golgi and Cajal shared the Nobel Prize? a. Each one delivered the other one’s acceptance speech. b. They combined their acceptance speeches into a single address. c. They both gave their acceptance speeches in Latin. d. Their acceptance speeches contradicted each other.

42. What type of structures allow controlled entry of important chemicals through the plasma membrane of neurons? a. Lipid channels b. Protein channels c. Lipid receptors d. Protein receptors 43. Which structure in a cell performs metabolism to provide energy? a. Membrane b. Ribosome c. Nucleus Powered by Cognero

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior d. Mitochondrion 44. Which part of a neuron has chromosomes? a. The synapse b. The cell body c. The axon d. The dendrites 45. What function do mitochondria perform? a. Metabolism b. Protein synthesis c. Blood–brain barrier d. Protection of the chromosomes 46. Which cell structure has its own genes, separate from those in the nucleus? a. Ribosome b. Mitochondrion c. Membrane d. Endoplasmic reticulum 47. In which of these ways do mitochondria differ from the rest of the body? a. Mitochondria are inherited by RNA instead of DNA. b. Mitochondria are products of digestion instead of inheritance. c. You inherit mitochondria from your mother. d. You inherit mitochondria from your father.

48. Which of these would become more likely as a result of decreased mitochondrial activity? a. Epilepsy b. Thirst c. Depression d. Alcohol abuse 49. Why would impairment of mitochondria affect the brain more than other organs? a. Mitochondria form in the brain and then migrate to other organs. b. Mitochondria are essential for the blood–brain barrier. c. The brain synthesizes a wider variety of proteins than other organs. d. The brain uses more energy than other organs.

50. Compared to other cells, what is most unusual about neurons? a. Membrane b. Volume c. Shape d. Color

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior 51. Where is the soma of a motor neuron? a. In the cerebral cortex b. In the spinal cord c. In a muscle d. In the cerebellum 52. Which of these is one of the ways in which axons differ from dendrites? a. Axons curve, and dendrites are straight. b. Axons have a constant diameter, and dendrites taper. c. Axons convey messages toward the soma, and dendrites convey away from it. d. Axons convey messages electrically, and dendrites convey messages chemically.

53. How long are the longest axons? a. No more than a few millimeters b. Approximately five centimeters c. More than a meter d. Twice as long as the cell’s largest dendrite 54. How many dendrites and axons does a neuron have? a. Any number of dendrites, and any number of axons b. Any number of dendrites, and no more than one axon c. Three dendrites and one axon d. Just one of each 55. A neuron is likely to have more than one of which of the following? a. Soma b. Axon c. Dendrite d. Nucleus 56. What do dendritic spines do? a. They increase the area available for synapses. b. They hold the neuron in position. c. They synthesize proteins. d. They metabolize fuels.

57. As a rule, axons convey information toward what? a. Their soma b. Another cell c. A glia cell d. The myelin sheath 58. If you were to accidentally touch a hot stove with your hand, you would quickly pull your hand away. The information carried to the muscles in your arm to make them contract was carried by _____. a. afferent neurons Powered by Cognero

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior b. efferent neurons c. intrinsic neurons d. sensory neurons 59. What does a myelin sheath do? a. It insulates axons. b. It establishes the blood–brain barrier. c. It conducts action potentials. d. It surrounds a synapse.

60. In what way are invertebrate axons different than vertebrate axons? a. Vertebrate axons have a thicker diameter. b. Vertebrate axons have a faster sodium–potassium pump. c. Vertebrate axons have fewer branches. d. Vertebrate axons have myelin sheaths.

61. What is the difference between afferent and efferent axons? a. Afferent axons are in the central nervous system, and efferent axons in the periphery. b. Efferent axons are in the central nervous system, and afferent axons in the periphery. c. Efferent axons carry information in, and afferent axons carry it out. d. Afferent axons carry information in, and efferent axons carry it out.

62. Which animals have the longest axons? a. The fastest animals b. The most intelligent animals c. The largest animals d. The animals with the longest life span 63. Which type of neuron, if any, has the shortest axons? a. Sensory neuron b. Motor neuron c. Intrinsic neuron or interneuron d. No difference among them 64. What type of cell synchronizes the activity of a related group of axons? a. Astrocytes b. Microglia c. Oligodendrocytes d. Schwann cells 65. What type of cell removes dead neurons and prunes ineffective synapses? a. Astrocytes b. Microglia c. Oligodendrocytes Powered by Cognero

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior d. Schwann cells 66. According to the idea of a tripartite synapse, a synapse depends on the tip of an axon, the neuron receiving the message, and what else? a. The sodium–potassium pump b. Blood cells c. One or more microglia d. An astrocyte 67. According to the idea of a tripartite synapse, what does an astrocyte do at a synapse? a. Stores mitochondria for later use b. Synthesizes proteins to repair membranes c. Electrically stimulates the axon to release its transmitter d. Releases chemicals to modify input to the receiving cell 68. Why do we need a blood–brain barrier? a. To prevent proteins from leaking out of the brain b. To prevent high blood pressure from damaging the brain c. To enable more nutrition to reach the brain d. To protect the brain from viruses and harmful chemicals 69. What is a disadvantage of the blood–brain barrier? a. It produces electrical discharges. b. It forces the body to maintain high blood pressure. c. It keeps most nutrients out of the brain. d. It puts a limit on brain size.

70. Why are brain cancers so difficult to treat? a. Microglia tends to spread tumors within the brain. b. Chemotherapy drugs do not cross the blood–brain barrier. c. The brain receives more nutrition than any other organ. d. Brain cancers affect neurons and glia cells equally.

71. What type of chemical crosses the blood–brain barrier freely? a. Any chemical that has no electrical charge b. Any chemical that has nutritional value c. Any chemical that dissolves in fat d. Any chemical that dissolves in water 72. The brain uses active transport to pump which of the following into the brain? a. Antidepressant drugs b. Glucose c. Water d. Oxygen Powered by Cognero

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior 73. Because heroin exerts its effects faster than morphine, which of the following can we infer? a. Heroin crosses the blood–brain barrier more easily. b. Heroin carries a stronger electrical charge. c. Heroin dissolves more easily in the blood. d. Heroin has less similarity to the body’s own chemicals.

74. How do glucose and amino acids cross the blood–brain barrier? a. With active transport by proteins b. By dissolving in the fats of the membrane c. Through the gaps between endothelial cells d. By being broken down into their elements and then reassembled 75. What is the brain’s main fuel? a. Complex carbohydrates b. Fats c. Proteins d. Glucose 76. Which vitamin does the brain most need to metabolize glucose? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B-1, thiamine c. Vitamin B-6, pyridoxine d. Vitamin D 77. Can your gut bacteria do any good for your brain? If so, what? a. Yes, they release chemicals that cross the lining of the intestines into the blood. b. Yes, they generate the body’s circadian rhythm. c. Yes, they repair damage in the digestive system. d. No, they are only harmful.

78. What is one reason why antibiotic drugs sometimes cause anxiety and depression? a. The drugs sometimes stimulate extra activity by the mitochondria. b. The drugs sometimes fail to enter the brain. c. The drugs sometimes remove helpful bacteria from the gut. d. The drugs sometimes strengthen the blood–brain barrier.

79. What is one known reason why brain activity differs from one person to another? a. People have different hair colors. b. People have different eye colors. c. People have different species of bacteria in their intestines. d. People have different astrological signs.

80. Which of the following is one known way by which stress can lead to depression? a. By preventing thiamine from entering the brain Powered by Cognero

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior b. By changing the acid-to-base balance of the blood c. By impairing the ability of the eye’s lens to focus d. By altering the bacteria in the intestines 81. What is the advantage of an action potential for transmitting information, as compared to electrical conduction? a. An action potential conveys information more rapidly. b. An action potential does not decrease intensity as it travels. c. An action potential conveys information to more cells. d. An action potential can alter its amplitude and velocity.

82. When a neuron is at rest, how does the electrical charge compare for the inside and outside of the membrane? a. The answer varies from one neuron to another. b. The inside and outside are electrically neutral. c. The inside has a positive charge. d. The inside has a negative charge.

83. How are sodium and potassium distributed across the neuron membrane? a. Both are more concentrated inside the cell. b. Both are more concentrated outside the cell. c. Sodium is more inside, and potassium is more outside. d. Sodium is more outside, and potassium is more inside.

84. What does the sodium–potassium pump do? a. It pumps sodium and potassium out of the neuron. b. It pumps sodium and potassium into the neuron. c. It pumps sodium in and potassium out. d. It pumps sodium out and potassium in.

85. When the neuron membrane is at rest, what forces are acting on sodium ions? a. Both the electrical gradient and the concentration gradient tend to push them out of the cell. b. Both the electrical gradient and the concentration gradient tend to pull them into the cell. c. The electrical gradient pushes them out, and the concentration gradient pulls them in. d. The electrical gradient pulls them in, and the concentration gradient pushes them out.

86. When the membrane is at rest, why don’t sodium ions enter the cell? a. The concentration gradient pushes them out. b. The electrical gradient pushes them out. c. Both the concentration gradient and the electrical gradient push them out. d. The sodium gates are closed.

87. When the neuron membrane is at rest, what forces are acting on potassium ions? a. Both the electrical gradient and the concentration gradient tend to push them out of the cell. b. Both the electrical gradient and the concentration gradient tend to pull them into the cell. c. The electrical gradient pushes them out, and the concentration gradient pulls them in.

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior d. The electrical gradient pulls them in, and the concentration gradient pushes them out.

88. Why are sodium ions distributed across the neuron membrane the way they are? a. The sodium–potassium pump pushes them out of the cell. b. The sodium–potassium pump pulls them into the cell. c. The electrical gradient forces them out of the cell. d. The concentration gradient forces them out of the cell.

89. What does depolarization of a neuron membrane mean? a. Increasing its negative charge b. Decreasing its negative charge c. Making it unable to conduct an action potential d. Causing it to change shape 90. When a neuron membrane is depolarized enough to reach its threshold, what happens? a. The membrane opens its sodium channels. b. The membrane closes its sodium channels. c. The membrane closes its potassium channels. d. The sodium–potassium pump stops working.

91. When a neuron membrane opens, what happens at once? a. Potassium ions rapidly enter the cell. b. Potassium ions rapidly leave the cell. c. Sodium ions rapidly enter the cell. d. Sodium ions rapidly leave the cell.

92. What causes an action potential? a. Sodium and potassium ions exchanging positions within the cell b. Potassium ions leaving the cell c. Sodium ions leaving the cell d. Sodium ions entering the cell 93. When a neuron membrane is depolarized enough to reach its threshold, which ion channels open, if any? a. Just the sodium channels b. Both the sodium and potassium channels c. Just the potassium channels d. Neither the sodium nor the potassium channels 94. What is the all-or-none law of the action potential? a. Either all the sodium ions cross the membrane, or none of them do. b. For a given neuron, all action potentials are about equal in amplitude and velocity. c. At a given moment, either all neurons fire an action potential, or none of them do. d. At a given moment, either all sodium channels along the axon open, or none of them do.

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior 95. Because of the all-or-none law of the action potential, what is an axon unable to change? a. The frequency with which it produces action potentials b. The size of its action potentials c. The type of input it receives d. The distribution of sodium and potassium across its membrane 96. Because of the all-or-none law, what is the only way an axon can signal the difference between a weak signal and a strong signal? a. By changing the amplitude of its action potentials b. By changing the velocity of its action potentials c. By changing the frequency of its action potentials d. By changing the direction of its action potentials 97. The all-or-none law constrains which of the following? a. The dendrites b. The axon c. The cell body d. All three 98. When does the all-or-none law apply? a. Whenever a neuron receives a combination of excitatory and inhibitory messages b. Whenever a neuron has been inactive for more than 500 milliseconds c. Whenever a neuron is stimulated above its threshold d. Whenever adjacent neurons are stimulated at the same time 99. If a membrane is depolarized to twice its threshold, what happens? a. An action potential does not occur. b. The action potential is the same as usual. c. The action potential is stronger than usual. d. The action potential is faster than usual.

100. Which of the following opens the sodium and potassium channels of the axon? a. A change of concentration b. A change of voltage c. A change of resistance d. A change of temperature 101. At the peak of the action potential, what stops more sodium ions from crossing the membrane? a. The sodium–potassium pump pushes them out. b. The sodium gates close. c. The concentration gradient no longer attracts sodium. d. Sodium chemically reacts with the potassium.

102. After the peak of the action potential, what brings the membrane back to its resting potential? a. Sodium ions flow passively out of the cell.

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior b. Potassium ions flow passively out of the cell. c. The sodium–potassium pump restores the normal balance. d. Glia cells intervene to prevent further electrical change.

103. If a drug partly blocked a membrane’s potassium channels, what would be the result? a. Action potentials would travel more rapidly. b. The cell’s resting potential would be close to zero. c. The axon would no longer have a refractory period. d. Each action potential would last longer than usual.

104. After the peak of the action potential, what enables the membrane to get back to its resting potential? a. The sodium channels remain open but the potassium channels close. b. The sodium channels close but the potassium channels remain open. c. Both the sodium channels and the potassium channels close. d. Both the sodium channels and the potassium channels remain open.

105. How do local anesthetic drugs such as Novocain prevent pain? a. They attach to the chromosomes in the cell’s nucleus. b. They decrease the activity of the mitochondria. c. They block sodium channels on the membrane. d. They block potassium channels on the membrane.

106. What is the absolute refractory period of an axon? a. The time when its sodium concentration is equal to its potassium concentration b. The time when its membrane potential crosses zero c. The time when it is preparing to produce an action potential d. The time when it is incapable of producing an action potential 107. What causes the absolute refractory period of an axon? a. The sodium channels are closed. b. The sodium–potassium pump is working harder than usual. c. The sodium–potassium pump has stopped working. d. The glia cells have covered the nodes of Ranvier.

108. If an axon did not have an absolute refractory period, what would happen? a. The action potential would slow down and stop. b. The membrane would have a long delay between one action potential and the next. c. The axon would alternate between excitatory and inhibitory messages. d. The membrane would go into permanent depolarization.

109. Suppose the threshold of a neuron was the same as the neuron’s resting potential. What would happen? a. The cell would go into permanent depolarization. b. The cell would be unable to produce any action potentials. c. The cell would produce a spontaneous action potential after each refractory period.

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior d. The cell would produce one action potential, and then stop.

110. If axon A can produce more action potentials per second than axon B, what can we conclude? a. Axon A has a longer absolute refractory period. b. Axon A has a shorter absolute refractory period. c. Axon A has a higher threshold for excitation. d. Axon A has a lower threshold for excitation.

111. If one action potential started at the cell body (orthodromic) and another one started at the tip of the axon (antidromic), what would happen when they met at the center? a. Each would continue in its own direction. b. Each would bounce back the way it came. c. Both would cease. d. They would damage the axon.

112. If one action potential started at the cell body (orthodromic) and another one started at the tip of the axon (antidromic), they would stop when they met at the center. Why? a. The overstimulation would damage the axon. b. Each run into the other one’s refractory period. c. The sodium–potassium pump would cause the action potentials to cease. d. Each would fail to find the usual synaptic ending.

113. What does myelin accomplish? a. Faster action potentials b. Shorter absolute refractory periods c. Spatial summation d. Temporal summation 114. How is an action potential conducted in a myelinated axon? a. Through a sequence of synapses b. By a relay from one node of Ranvier to the next c. Without any movement of sodium or potassium d. In one jump from the start to the finish 115. In a myelinated axon, how would the action potential be affected if the nodes were much closer together? a. The amplitude of the action potential would increase. b. Transmission of the action potential would be slower. c. The action potential might not be able to jump from one node to the next. d. The action potential would back-propagate to the previous node.

116. In a myelinated axon, how would the action potential be affected if the nodes were much farther apart? a. The amplitude of the action potential would increase. b. Transmission of the action potential would be slower. c. The action potential might not be able to jump from one node to the next. d. The action potential would back-propagate to the previous node.

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior 117. What is the term for a neuron with no axon or a very short one? a. Inactive neuron b. Aberrant neuron c. Local neuron d. Degenerate neuron 118. Which of the following is true for a local neuron with no axon? a. It receives messages but cannot send them. b. It has graded potentials instead of action potentials. c. It has a larger than average cell body. d. It has longer than average dendrites.

119. Why is so little research done on local neurons? a. Local neurons are tiny. b. Local neurons are uncommon. c. Local neurons do not convey information. d. Local neurons are immature.

120. Which of the following is a nonsensical statement? a. The refractory period prevents the axon from going into permanent depolarization. b. Some people behave differently because of the bacteria in their intestines. c. People typically use only 10 percent of their brain. d. Many chemicals in the blood cannot get into the brain.

121. About what percentage of the brain does a person ordinarily use? a. 10 percent b. 30 percent c. 50 percent d. 100 percent

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

122. Our universe has equal amounts of matter and antimatter. a. True b. False 123. When you see something, you send sight rays out of your eyes. a. True b. False 124. When people try to imagine something “in their mind’s eye,” some have a detailed experience, and some have no experience at all. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior 125. Most neuropsychologists have a mixture of psychological and medical training. a. True b. False 126. Most research laboratories are headed by someone with a master’s degree. a. True b. False 127. The number of neurons is nearly the same for all healthy adult humans. a. True b. False 128. Santiago Ramón y Cajal used special staining techniques to show that the brain is composed of individual cells. a. True b. False 129. Most chemicals pass freely through the membrane of a neuron. a. True b. False 130. Decreased activity of mitochondria can lead to depression. a. True b. False 131. People inherit all their mitochondria from their mother. a. True b. False 132. Dendrites contain the nuclei, ribosomes, mitochondria, and other structures found in most cells. a. True b. False 133. Glia have dendrites and axons. a. True b. False 134. Neurons are distinguished from other cells by their shape. a. True b. False 135. The greater the surface area of a dendrite, the more information it can receive from other neurons. a. True b. False 136. Dendritic spines increase the area available for synapses.

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior a. True b. False 137. An efferent axon carries information away from a structure. a. True b. False 138. It is possible to describe the same axon as both afferent and efferent. a. True b. False 139. Astrocytes synchronize the activity of a group of neurons. a. True b. False 140. Microglia removes viruses, fungi, and dead cells from the brain. a. True b. False 141. The primary role of glial cells is to act like “glue” or scaffolding to support the neurons. a. True b. False 142. Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes produce myelin. a. True b. False 143. The blood–brain barrier is made up of closely packed glial cells. a. True b. False 144. The brain uses more energy and oxygen than all other organs combined. a. True b. False 145. One reason for variations in people’s behavior is that they have different types of bacteria in their intestines. a. True b. False 146. Gut bacteria release both helpful and harmful chemicals. a. True b. False 147. Action potentials occur in both axons and dendrites. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior 148. Sodium ions are always more concentrated outside a neuron membrane than inside. a. True b. False 149. The resting potential of the neuron membrane prepares it to respond rapidly to a stimulus. a. True b. False 150. An axon indicates the strength of a stimulus by altering the amplitude or velocity of its action potentials. a. True b. False 151. The all-or-none law applies to both axons and dendrites. a. True b. False 152. Local anesthetic drugs such as Novocain block pain by attaching to sodium gates in the neuron membrane. a. True b. False 153. The sodium–potassium pump enables a neuron membrane to return to its resting potential shortly after an action potential. a. True b. False 154. When an action potential starts, it back-propagates into the cell body and its dendrites. a. True b. False 155. Back-propagation of the action potential into the dendrite of the sending neuron facilitates changes associated with learning. a. True b. False 156. Other things being equal, myelinated axons conduct impulses faster than unmyelinated ones do. a. True b. False 157. Many local neurons do not have an axon. a. True b. False 158. People typically use only 10 percent of their brain. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

159. The two kinds of cells that compose the brain are neurons and ____________________.

160. The scientist who demonstrated that the brain consists of individual cells was ____________________.

161. The cell structure that performs metabolism to provide energy is the ____________________.

162. The interruptions in a myelin sheath are the ____________________.

163. A neuron with its axon and dendrites confined to a single structure is called a(n) ____________________.

164. The mechanism that blocks most harmful chemicals from entering the brain is the ____________________.

165. Chemicals can freely pass through the blood–brain barrier if they dissolve in ____________________.

166. The main source of nutrition for the brain is ____________________.

167. To use glucose, the brain needs ____________________.

168. The resting potential of the neuron membrane is caused mainly by the negatively charged ____________________ inside the cell.

169. An axon produces an action potential only if the depolarization reaches the cell’s ____________________.

170. The action potential reaches its peak when the ____________________ gates in the membrane close.

171. The time just after the peak of an action potential, when the membrane is unable to produce another action potential, is the ____________________ period.

172. The insulating material that covers many vertebrate axons, enabling them to conduct action potentials faster, is called ____________________.

173. Santiago Ramón y Cajal made what discovery about the brain?

174. Why would we expect an interneuron (intrinsic neuron) to have a shorter axon than a sensory or motor neuron?

175. Describe the structure of the blood–brain barrier and explain why it is important.

176. Provide a summary of the all-or-none law of action potentials.

177. Describe how the brain transports essential chemicals.

178. How could COVID-19 harm the brain, even if the virus does not enter the brain?

179. What are the advantage and disadvantage of sending information by action potentials instead of electricity?

180. Describe the key aspects of the resting potential.

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior 181. What would happen if the sodium–potassium pump of a neuron stopped working?

182. When the neuron membrane is at rest, how do the electrical gradient and concentration gradient affect sodium ions and potassium ions?

183. How does an axon indicate the strength of the stimulus that excited it?

184. After the peak of the action potential, what causes the membrane to return to its resting potential?

185. In a myelinated axon, how would the action potential be affected if the nodes were much closer together? How might it be affected if the nodes were much farther apart?

186. Explain the function and process of a neuron’s refractory period.

187. What is the role of the myelin sheath?

188. Using motor and sensory neurons as examples, explain the difference between afferent and efferent axons.

189. What are the advantages and disadvantages of the blood–brain barrier?

190. If you have a cavity filled at the dentist, you might receive Novocain to prevent feeling any pain. How does Novocain exert that effect?

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior Answer Key 1. d 2. b 3. c 4. b 5. b 6. d 7. c 8. d 9. c 10. a 11. a 12. a 13. a 14. d 15. a 16. b 17. c 18. d 19. d 20. b 21. b 22. d 23. a 24. b 25. c Powered by Cognero

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior 26. d 27. d 28. d 29. b 30. c 31. d 32. d 33. d 34. c 35. b 36. c 37. d 38. d 39. b 40. d 41. d 42. b 43. d 44. b 45. a 46. b 47. c 48. c 49. d 50. c 51. b Powered by Cognero

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior 52. b 53. c 54. b 55. c 56. a 57. b 58. b 59. a 60. d 61. d 62. c 63. c 64. a 65. b 66. d 67. d 68. d 69. c 70. b 71. c 72. b 73. a 74. a 75. d 76. b Powered by Cognero

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior 77. a 78. c 79. c 80. d 81. b 82. d 83. d 84. d 85. a 86. d 87. d 88. a 89. b 90. a 91. c 92. d 93. b 94. d 95. b 96. c 97. b 98. c 99. b 100. b 101. b 102. b Powered by Cognero

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior 103. d 104. b 105. c 106. d 107. a 108. d 109. d 110. a 111. c 112. b 113. a 114. b 115. b 116. c 117. c 118. b 119. a 120. c 121. d 122. False 123. False 124. True 125. True 126. False 127. False Powered by Cognero

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior 128. True 129. False 130. True 131. True 132. False 133. False 134. True 135. True 136. True 137. True 138. True 139. True 140. True 141. False 142. True 143. False 144. False 145. True 146. True 147. False 148. True 149. True 150. False 151. False 152. True 153. False Powered by Cognero

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior 154. True 155. True 156. True 157. True 158. False 159. Glia 160. Cajal

Ramon y Cajal Santiago Ramon y Cajal 161. Mitochondrion 162. Nodes of Ranvier 163. Intrinsic 164. Blood–brain barrier 165. Fats 166. Glucose 167. Thiamine

Vitamin B-1 168. Proteins 169. Threshold 170. Sodium 171. Absolute refractory 172. Myelin 173. He demonstrated that the brain consists of individual neurons.

174. An interneuron has its axon confined within one structure in the brain.

175. Tightly joined endothelial cells form the capillary walls in the brain, making the blood–brain barrier. This protects the brain from harmful viruses, bacteria, and chemicals that might otherwise be able to enter the brain and cause damage.

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior 176. The amplitude and velocity of the action potential are roughly the same every time and they are independent of the intensity of the stimulus that initiated it.

177. The brain has several transport mechanisms. Small, uncharged molecules, including oxygen and carbon dioxide, cross freely. Water crosses through special protein channels in the wall of the endothelial cells. Also, molecules that dissolve in the fats of the membrane cross easily. Examples include vitamins A and D and all the drugs that affect the brain—from antidepressants and other psychiatric drugs to illegal drugs such as heroin. How fast a drug takes effect depends partly on how readily it dissolves in fats and therefore crosses the blood–brain barrier. For a few other chemicals, the brain uses active transport, a protein-mediated process that expends energy to pump chemicals from the blood into the brain. Chemicals that are actively transported into the brain include glucose (the brain’s main fuel), amino acids (the building blocks of proteins), and others.

178. The virus constricts capillaries and thereby decreases blood flow to the brain. It also increases the immune response, and an excessive immune response can attack the body’s organs, including the brain.

179. The advantage is that the message arrives intact. An electrical impulse in your body would weaken as it passed over distance. The disadvantage is that a stimulus starting closer to the brain reaches it sooner than one starting farther away.

You could also say that a disadvantage is that your brain is always just slightly out of date on what is happening in the body.

180. A neuron is covered by a membrane that prevents most chemicals from passing. When at rest, the membrane maintains an electrical gradient, also known as polarization—a difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of the cell. The neuron inside the membrane has a slightly negative electrical potential with respect to the outside, mainly because of negatively charged proteins inside the cell. This difference in voltage is called the resting potential.

Sodium ions are concentrated mostly outside the cell, and potassium ions are concentrated mostly inside.

181. With each action potential, the sodium concentration inside the cell would increase, until eventually the cell became permanently depolarized and unable to produce more action potentials.

182. Both gradients tend to pull sodium into the cell. The electrical gradient tends to pull potassium into the cell, and the concentration gradient tends to push it out.

183. The axon can vary the frequency with which it produces action potentials.

184. Potassium ions leave the cell, during a time when their gates are more open than usual.

185. If the nodes were closer, the action potential would travel more slowly. If they were much farther apart, the current might not be able to stimulate the next node enough to reach its threshold.

186. Beginning at the peak of an action potential, the cell is in a refractory period, during which it resists the production of further action potentials. In the first part of this period, the absolute refractory period, the membrane cannot produce an action potential, regardless of the stimulation, because the sodium gates have snapped shut. During the second part, the relative refractory period, a stronger-than-usual stimulus is necessary to initiate an action potential. Throughout both the absolute and relative refractory periods, potassium is flowing out of the cell at a faster-than-usual rate. The refractory period prevents the action potential from flowing backward in the axon.

187. Myelin sheath is a fatty substance produced by glial cells that wraps around the axons of neurons and speeds up neurotransmission. It can also provide the axon with nutrients needed for proper functioning.

188. An afferent axon brings information into a structure, whereas an efferent axon carries information away from a structure. Sensory neurons detect sensory information (e.g., light and pressure) and convert that energy into neural Powered by Cognero

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01_The_Cellular_Foundations_of_Behavior impulses. That information is sent to the brain via afferent pathways. Motor neurons carry information from the brain and spinal cord to muscles and glands via efferent pathways. Within the nervous system, an axon can be an efferent from one structure and an afferent to another.

189. The blood–brain barrier blocks most viruses and other harmful chemicals from entering the brain. However, it also makes it difficult for nutrients to enter the brain, and it prevents chemotherapy drugs and many other medications from entering the brain.

190. It binds to sodium channels on the axon and thereby prevents sodium from entering. If sodium cannot cross the membrane, an action potential cannot travel to the brain to send the pain message.

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02_Synapses

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What did Charles Sherrington discover? a. The structure of axons and dendrites b. The main principles of synapses c. The chemicals used as neurotransmitters d. The genetics of mental illness 2. What conclusion followed from the discoveries of both Sherrington and Cajal? a. Excitation competes with inhibition. b. Neurons are separate from one another. c. Unconscious processes influence much of behavior. d. Mental illness has a biological basis.

3. Sherrington based his conclusions on what type of research? a. Behavioral effects of drugs b. Microscopic examination of the nervous system c. Recordings from single neurons d. Measurement of reflexes 4. In Sherrington’s research, what was the effect of making a cut in the spinal cord? a. It stopped all reflexive responses. b. It stopped any coordination between the left side and the right side. c. It caused the animal to go into prolonged sleep. d. It made reflexive responses more consistent.

5. What was Sherrington’s evidence that synaptic transmission requires a special process? a. Chemical injections into the spinal cord can excite or inhibit reflexes. b. Reflexes are slower than axon transmission. c. The intensity of a reflex varies from one dog to another. d. A reflexive movement produces a change in the EEG. 6. Sherrington concluded that synaptic transmission differs from axon conduction, based on his measurements of what? a. The effects of drugs b. The behavioral differences among species c. The speed of reflexes d. The chemicals released at synapses 7. Why did Sherrington measure the delay between a stimulus on the foot and a reflexive response? a. To compare myelinated axons with unmyelinated ones b. To compare the speed of reflexes among species that evolved from a common ancestor c. To compare the speed of a reflex to the speed of axonal transmission d. To find the correlation between speed of response and cognitive abilities 8. Why is the speed of conduction through a reflex arc slower than the speed of conduction of an action potential?

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02_Synapses a. The longest axons have the slowest action potentials. b. Transmission is slowed at the synapse. c. Interneurons have thicker axons than other neurons. d. A reflex arc has more myelin.

9. What does the presynaptic neuron do? a. It stores transmitters for other neurons to use. b. It prepares another neuron to release chemicals. c. It releases chemicals into the synapse. d. It receives synaptic messages.

10. What is meant by temporal summation at a synapse? a. Transmission at a synapse is slower than transmission along an axon. b. Inputs from several locations combine their effects on a neuron. c. Repeated stimuli in a short time combine their effects on a neuron. d. A single stimulus can cause flexion of one muscle and extension of another.

11. Rapidly repeating a mild stimulus produces a response that a single stimulus does not. What does this observation demonstrate? a. Spatial summation b. Temporal summation c. Inhibitory synapses d. Delayed transmission at the synapse 12. What is meant by spatial summation at a synapse? a. Transmission at a synapse is slower than transmission along an axon. b. Inputs from several locations combine their effects on a neuron. c. Repeated stimuli in a short time combine their effects on a neuron. d. A single stimulus can cause flexion of one muscle and extension of another.

13. A combination of stimuli produces a response that a single stimulus does not. What does this observation demonstrate? a. Summation b. Myelination c. Inhibition d. Back-propagation 14. Rapidly repeated stimuli produce a response that a single stimulus does not. What did Sherrington infer from that observation? a. Synapses show temporal summation. b. Synapses show spatial summation. c. Synapses can be either excitatory or inhibitory. d. Synapses transmit more slowly than axons.

15. Stimuli from several locations produce a response that a single stimulus does not. What did Sherrington infer from that Powered by Cognero

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02_Synapses observation? a. Synapses show temporal summation. b. Synapses show spatial summation. c. Synapses can be either excitatory or inhibitory. d. Synapses transmit more slowly than axons.

16. When would a researcher be most likely to observe temporal summation? a. After a combination of excitatory and inhibitory stimuli b. After a rapid succession of subthreshold stimuli c. After a single stimulus greater than the threshold d. After simultaneous subthreshold stimuli at neighboring locations 17. When would a researcher be most likely to observe spatial summation? a. After a combination of excitatory and inhibitory stimuli b. After a rapid succession of subthreshold stimuli c. After a single stimulus greater than the threshold d. After simultaneous subthreshold stimuli at neighboring locations 18. Charles Sherrington would agree with which statement about reflexes? a. Conduction through a reflex arc is faster than conduction along an axon. b. Repeated stimuli in a short time has a cumulative effect. c. Each neuron merges with another one. d. Excitatory synapses are more important than inhibitory synapses.

19. To measure temporal summation in single cells, what does a researcher measure? a. Electromagnetic waves at the scalp b. Depolarizations of the postsynaptic neuron c. The flow of neurotransmitters d. The velocity of the action potential 20. Which of these is a difference between temporal summation and spatial summation? a. Temporal summation is excitatory and spatial summation is inhibitory. b. Temporal summation is inhibitory and spatial summation is excitatory. c. Spatial summation requires inputs from more than one axon. d. Temporal summation requires inputs from more than one axon.

21. What is an EPSP? a. Excitatory postsynaptic potential b. Extra positive sensory perception c. Ever present state of psychosis d. Elevated probability of special position 22. How does a graded potential differ from an action potential? a. A graded potential releases a neurotransmitter.

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02_Synapses b. A graded potential can be either excitatory or inhibitory. c. A graded potential does not travel to neighboring areas. d. A graded potential is half as large and half as fast as an action potential.

23. What happens during an EPSP? a. Sodium enters the neuron. b. Potassium enters the neuron. c. Potassium exits the neuron. d. Chloride enters the neuron.

24. If one axon produces quickly repeated EPSPs onto a neuron, what is the result? a. Spatial summation b. Temporal summation c. Cancellation d. Inhibition 25. If three axons produce an EPSP onto the same neuron at the same time, what is the result? a. Spatial summation b. Temporal summation c. Cancellation d. Inhibition 26. Does an EPSP cause an action potential? a. No, it has no effect on action potentials. b. No, it inhibits the probability of an action potential. c. Yes, always. d. Only if it raises the membrane potential to the threshold.

27. Does an IPSP cause an action potential? a. No, it has no effect on action potentials. b. No, it reduces the probability of an action potential. c. Yes, always. d. Only if it raises the membrane potential to the threshold.

28. Which statement accurately describes depolarization and hyperpolarization? a. Depolarization produces excitation, and hyperpolarization produces inhibition. b. Depolarization produces inhibition, and hyperpolarization produces excitation. c. Depolarization increases the threshold, and hyperpolarization decreases it. d. Depolarization deceases the threshold, and hyperpolarization increases it.

29. When a dog uses the flexor muscles of a leg, it relaxes the extensor muscles of the same leg. What did Sherrington infer from this observation? a. Spatial summation b. Temporal summation Powered by Cognero

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02_Synapses c. Electrical synapses d. Inhibitory synapses 30. What ordinarily prevents simultaneous contraction of the extensor muscles and flexor muscles of a single limb? a. The pattern of blood flow to the two kinds of muscles b. Coordinated inputs from the cerebral cortex c. The tendons and ligaments attached to the muscles d. Inhibitory synapses in the spinal cord 31. A normal, healthy animal never contracts the flexor muscles and the extensor muscles of the same leg at the same time. Why not? a. Flexion and extension are actually movements of the same muscle. b. The muscles are mechanically connected in a way that prevents both from contracting. c. An interneuron sends excitatory input to one and inhibitory input to the other. d. Animals learn early in life not to attempt such movements.

32. What was Sherrington’s evidence for the existence of inhibitory synapses? a. Transmission through a reflex arc is slower than transmission along an axon. b. When a dog uses the flexor muscles of a leg, it relaxes the extensor muscles of the same leg. c. Two weak pinches in a row cause a reflex that a single pinch does not. d. Pinches on several adjacent points cause a reflex that a single pinch does not.

33. Flexion of one of a dog’s legs coordinates with extension of the other legs and relaxing the extensor muscles of the leg with flexion. To explain all this, what did Sherrington assume? a. Spatial summation and temporal summation b. Myelin sheaths and back-propagation c. Interneurons and inhibitory synapses d. EPSPs and IPSPs 34. In Sherrington’s time it was not, but today, we take for granted the concept of _____. a. EPSP b. inhibition c. excitatory synapses d. temporal summation 35. How do inhibitory synapses affect a neuron? a. They decrease its metabolism. b. They prevent its electrical potential from changing. c. They hyperpolarize it. d. They depolarize it.

36. What is an IPSP? a. Internal Physiological State of Processing b. Implicit Partial Sensory Perception c. International Psychological Society Procedure Powered by Cognero

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02_Synapses d. Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potential 37. What do both an EPSP and an IPSP do? a. Alter the frequency of a spontaneous firing rate b. Prevent a change of the membrane’s electrical potential c. Partially open the membrane’s sodium channels d. Partially open the membrane’s potassium channels 38. If you found that a given neuron continually produces about 10 action potentials per second, what should you conclude? a. The neuron is receiving a steady stream of EPSPs. b. The neuron is receiving a steady stream of IPSPs. c. The neuron has a spontaneous firing rate. d. The neuron has been damaged.

39. What term describes the fact that a neuron produces action potentials at times when it receives no input? a. Injury potentials b. All-or-none law c. Spontaneous firing rate d. Dale’s law 40. At which type of synapses does input from an axon hyperpolarize the postsynaptic cell, moving the cell’s charge farther from the threshold and decreasing the probability of an action potential? a. Inhibitory synapses b. Excitatory synapses c. Either an excitatory or an inhibitory synapse d. Neither an excitatory nor an inhibitory synapse 41. Which of the following is true of both EPSPs and IPSPs? a. They can be conducted along an axon. b. They are always graded potentials. c. They depolarize a membrane. d. They hyperpolarize a membrane.

42. What determines the “decision” for a neuron to fire at a given moment? a. The frequency of EPSPs b. The ratio of EPSPs to IPSPs c. The spontaneous firing rate d. The difference between the resting potential and the threshold 43. What is meant by the “spontaneous firing rate” of a neuron? a. The difference between its resting potential and its threshold b. Its frequency of action potentials when not stimulated c. The velocity of its action potentials d. The amount of stimulation needed to produce an action potential Powered by Cognero

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02_Synapses 44. Which scientist’s work first established the idea of inhibiting an impulse? a. Sherrington b. Cajal c. Loewi d. Pavlov 45. How do synaptic connections differ from a typical electrical wiring diagram? a. Synaptic effects can be either on or off. b. Synaptic effects go in both directions. c. Synaptic effects are not exactly additive. d. Synaptic effects are permanent.

46. How do synaptic connections differ from a typical electrical wiring diagram? a. Synaptic effects can be fast and brief or slow and lasting. b. Synaptic effects are excitatory. c. Synaptic effects go in both directions at the same time. d. Synaptic effects are the same from one time to another.

47. A dog’s flexion reflex occurs faster after a strong stimulus than after a weaker stimulus. What could explain this finding? a. The stronger stimulus produces faster action potentials. b. An action potential of greater amplitude releases more neurotransmitters. c. A stronger stimulus produces more spatial and temporal summation. d. A stronger stimulus bypasses the interneuron in the spinal cord.

48. If neuron A inhibits neuron B, and B inhibits C, how would stimulating A affect C (if at all)? a. It would have no effect. b. It would increase C’s firing rate. c. It would decrease C’s firing rate. d. It would cause a temporary decrease followed by an increase.

49. Which one of Sherrington’s inferences about the synapse was wrong? a. Transmission at a synapse is slower than transmission of impulses along an axon. b. Transmission at the synapse is primarily an electrical process. c. Synapses can be either excitatory or inhibitory. d. Synapses make spatial summation and temporal summation possible.

50. What research first demonstrated chemical transmission at synapses? a. Loewi transferred fluid from one frog’s heart to another. b. Sherrington measured the speed of reflexes in dogs. c. Eccles measured EPSPs and IPSPs in isolated neurons. d. Volkow demonstrated the effects of drugs on behavior.

51. Otto Loewi stimulated one frog’s heart to increase its rate, and then transferred some fluid from that heart onto a Powered by Cognero

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02_Synapses second frog’s heart. What happened? a. The second frog’s heart increased its rate. b. The second frog’s heart decreased its rate. c. The second frog’s heart continued its usual rate. d. The two frogs fell in love.

52. Otto Loewi stimulated one frog’s heart to increase its rate, and then transferred some fluid from that heart onto a second frog’s heart. What conclusion emerged from the results? a. Synaptic transmission is (at least sometimes) electrical. b. Synaptic transmission is (at least sometimes) chemical. c. Synaptic transmission requires both electrical and chemical processes. d. Synaptic transmission is the same as transmission along an axon.

53. How did Otto Loewi demonstrate chemical transmission at synapses? a. He measured dogs’ reflexes under the influence of drugs likely to affect synapses. b. He injected presumed neurotransmitters and observed effects on behavior. c. He collected fluids released at a synapse and analyzed their chemistry. d. He stimulated a frog’s heart and transferred chemicals to another frog.

54. What fact about synapses makes it possible to develop drugs for psychiatric uses? a. Synapses have the property of spatial summation. b. Synapses have the property of temporal summation. c. Synapses can have either fast, brief effects or slow, long-lasting effects. d. Most synaptic transmission is by chemicals.

55. Compared to other neurotransmitters, what is unusual about nitric oxide? a. It is a source of nutrition. b. It is a gas. c. It is released by astrocytes instead of neurons. d. It occurs only in the hippocampus.

56. Which neurotransmitter also dilates blood vessels? a. Nitric oxide b. Dopamine c. Acetylcholine d. Substance P 57. What item in the diet provides building blocks for nearly all neurotransmitters? a. Carbohydrates b. Fats c. Vitamins d. Proteins 58. Most neurotransmitters are synthesized from what type of chemical? a. Amino acids Powered by Cognero

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02_Synapses b. Fats c. Glucose d. Complex carbohydrates 59. Dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine comprise which group of chemicals? a. Purines b. Catecholamines c. Amino acids d. Vitamins 60. Which of the following are catecholamine neurotransmitters? a. Glutamate and GABA b. Dopamine and norepinephrine c. Acetylcholine and serotonin d. Substance P and neuropeptide Y 61. The transmitter serotonin is synthesized from which component of the diet? a. Omega-3 fatty acids b. Glucose c. The amino acid phenylalanine d. The amino acid tryptophan 62. Eating foods with higher or lower amounts of tryptophan will affect your production of what? a. Acetylcholine b. Serotonin c. Glucose d. Vitamin D 63. Why does consuming phenylalanine decrease brain serotonin? a. It decreases the solubility of serotonin in the blood. b. It competes with serotonin for entry to the brain. c. It forms a tight chemical compound with serotonin. d. It decreases the temperature of the brain.

64. Why does eating carbohydrates increase brain serotonin? a. The resulting increase in energy makes it easier to synthesize serotonin. b. The resulting increase in insulin removes certain amino acids from the blood. c. The resulting increase in body temperature lets serotonin cross the blood–brain barrier. d. The resulting increase in digestion helps the body break down proteins.

65. How does insulin increase the entry of tryptophan into the brain? a. By weakening the blood–brain barrier b. By removing competing amino acids from the blood c. By increasing the brain’s metabolic rate Powered by Cognero

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02_Synapses d. By altering the chemical structure of tryptophan 66. What do the vesicles in a neuron do? a. They form the myelin sheath. b. They store neurotransmitters. c. They regulate the sodium–potassium pump. d. They surround the mitochondria.

67. When an action potential reaches the tip of an axon, what happens? a. Sodium ions leave the axon. b. Calcium ions enter the axon. c. Magnesium ions enter the axon. d. Metabolism slows down.

68. When an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal, which ion must enter the presynaptic terminal to evoke release of the neurotransmitter? a. Calcium b. Magnesium c. Potassium d. Lithium 69. An action potential causes the release of neurotransmitters by doing what? a. Opening calcium channels b. Opening potassium channels c. Closing sodium channels d. Closing calcium channels 70. If some chemical blocked calcium from entering the tip of an axon, what would be the result? a. The neuron would go into permanent depolarization. b. The axon would become hyperpolarized. c. The axon would continuously, spontaneously release its neurotransmitter. d. The axon could no longer release its neurotransmitter.

71. What is exocytosis? a. Propagation of the action potential b. Inhibition of the action potential c. Release of neurotransmitter d. Storage of neurotransmitter 72. Which of the following enables synaptic transmission to be as fast as it is? a. The synaptic cleft is very narrow. b. The synaptic cleft contains a viscous chemical. c. The postsynaptic cell attracts the neurotransmitter electrically. d. A concentration gradient propels the neurotransmitter.

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02_Synapses 73. What is the synaptic cleft? a. The time required for a message to pass through the synapse b. The receptor on the postsynaptic neuron c. The scaffold that holds the synapse in place d. The gap between the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons 74. What enables the nervous system to sometimes send a brief message and sometimes a long-lasting message? a. Axons vary in their degree of myelination. b. Axons vary in their conduction velocity. c. Axons release different neurotransmitters. d. Axons differ in their length.

75. In what way is synaptic transmission different from an on/off system? a. A synaptic message can be neutral. b. A synaptic message can go in both directions at the same time. c. A synaptic message can be brief or long-lasting. d. A synaptic message can indicate degrees of uncertainty.

76. What determines the type of effect a neurotransmitter exerts on the postsynaptic neuron? a. The width of the synaptic cleft b. The postsynaptic neuron’s receptors c. The relative concentrations of sodium and potassium d. The velocity of the action potential 77. What type of effect occurs at an ionotropic synapse? a. Fast and brief b. Fast and long-lasting c. Slow and brief d. Slow and long-lasting 78. What type of effect occurs at a metabotropic synapse? a. Fast and brief b. Fast and long-lasting c. Slow and brief d. Slow and long-lasting 79. How does an ionotropic synaptic receptor exert its effects? a. It activates a second messenger inside the neuron. b. It increases the activity of the mitochondria. c. It opens a channel for one type of ion to pass. d. It increases the activity of the sodium–potassium pump.

80. How does a metabotropic synaptic receptor exert its effects? a. It activates a second messenger inside the neuron.

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02_Synapses b. It increases the activity of the mitochondria. c. It opens a channel for one type of ion to pass. d. It increases the activity of the sodium–potassium pump.

81. What is the brain’s most abundant neurotransmitter? a. Dopamine b. Serotonin c. Glutamate d. Acetylcholine 82. What is the most abundant neurotransmitter at inhibitory ionotropic synapses? a. GABA b. Norepinephrine c. Glutamate d. Nitric oxide 83. What is one difference between ionotropic and metabotropic synapses? a. Ionotropic effects are excitatory. b. Ionotropic effects are inhibitory. c. Ionotropic effects are faster. d. Ionotropic effects last longer.

84. What is one difference between ionotropic and metabotropic synapses? a. Metabotropic effects are excitatory. b. Metabotropic effects are inhibitory. c. Metabotropic effects are faster. d. Metabotropic effects last longer.

85. What is at the center of an excitatory acetylcholine receptor? a. A calcium channel b. A potassium channel c. A sodium channel d. A chloride 86. What type of synaptic receptor can produce effects that last minutes? a. Ionotropic b. Metabotropic c. Either type d. Neither type 87. Which of these is one way in which metabotropic receptors differ from ionotropic ones? a. Metabotropic receptors can be either excitatory or inhibitory. b. Metabotropic receptors produce brief and rapid effects. c. Metabotropic receptors respond to a wider variety of transmitters.

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02_Synapses d. Metabotropic receptors open an ionic channel.

88. Which of these is one way in which metabotropic receptors differ from ionotropic ones? a. Metabotropic receptors depend on altering the blood flow. b. Metabotropic receptors are always inhibitory. c. Metabotropic receptors respond to only glutamate or GABA. d. Metabotropic receptors depend on the action of a second messenger.

89. Which of these is one way in which metabotropic receptors differ from ionotropic ones? a. Metabotropic receptors open two ion channels instead of one. b. Metabotropic receptors are always excitatory. c. Metabotropic receptors can influence a larger part of the cell. d. Metabotropic receptors send a message back to the presynaptic cell.

90. When a neurotransmitter attaches to a metabotropic receptor, what does it do? a. It closes an ion channel. b. It opens an ion channel. c. It bends the receptor. d. It provides nutrition to the cell.

91. What is a “second messenger” at a synapse? a. A transmitter sent from the postsynaptic neuron to the presynaptic neuron b. A transmitter sent by the presynaptic neuron to cancel a previous message c. A chemical that detaches a neurotransmitter from its receptor d. A chemical within the postsynaptic neuron 92. Where does a “second messenger” carry its message? a. Within the postsynaptic neuron b. Back to the presynaptic neuron c. To the surrounding glia d. To similar neurons in the area 93. What does a metabotropic synapse have, that an ionotropic synapse does not? a. A synaptic cleft b. A protein embedded in the membrane c. An ion channel d. A second messenger 94. Why is the response in a metabotropic synapse slower than the one for an ionotropic synapse? a. In the metabotropic synapse, the synaptic cleft is filled with a viscous substance. b. The metabotropic synapse uses a second messenger. c. A metabotropic synapse has more than one neurotransmitter. d. Cells with metabotropic synapses have an unmyelinated axon.

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02_Synapses 95. How do neuromodulators differ from the neurotransmitters released at an ionotropic synapse? a. Neuromodulators diffuse to several receptors. b. Neuromodulators produce a briefer effect. c. Neuromodulators produce only excitatory effects. d. Neuromodulators change the structure of an axon.

96. How does a neuromodulator differ from the neurotransmitters released at an ionotropic synapse? a. A neuromodulator goes from the postsynaptic neuron to the presynaptic neuron. b. Dendrites and cell bodies can release a neuromodulator. c. A neuromodulator controls the blood supply. d. A neuromodulator carries an electrical charge.

97. Why is an ionotropic receptor better suited to vision and hearing than a metabotropic receptor? a. Ionotropic responses produce a rhythm. b. Ionotropic responses spread more widely in the brain. c. Ionotropic responses are fast and brief. d. Ionotropic responses are more persistent.

98. Taste and smell have slower onset and offset than vision or hearing. What can we infer? a. Taste and smell use unmyelinated axons. b. Taste and smell use myelinated axons. c. Taste and smell use ionotropic receptors. d. Taste and smell use metabotropic receptors.

99. Under what condition are ionotropic receptors more suitable than metabotropic receptors? a. When coordination between left and right is important b. When precise timing is important c. When spread across much of the brain is important d. When many inputs contribute to the same behavior 100. The fact that a transmitter such as serotonin attaches to many types of receptors has which consequence? a. Drugs can have specialized effects on behavior. b. Mood swings are common during adolescence. c. People tend to imitate the behaviors of other people. d. Any unusual stimulus tends to grab attention.

101. LSD and similar psychedelic drugs attach to the same receptor as which transmitter? a. Serotonin b. Acetylcholine c. Glutamate d. Substance P 102. How do opiates exert their effects on behavior? a. They alter receptors in the skin.

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02_Synapses b. They alter the blood flow to the brain. c. They attach to receptors in the brain. d. They alter the flow of action potentials in the axon.

103. What is the function of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase? a. It synthesizes acetylcholine from the diet. b. It increases the sensitivity of the postsynaptic cell to acetylcholine. c. It breaks acetylcholine down into components for recycling. d. It converts acetylcholine into serotonin.

104. What do the transporter proteins at the synapse accomplish? a. Scaffolding b. Back-propagation c. Myelination d. Reuptake 105. After glutamate or other common transmitters attach to their receptor at a synapse, what happens to most of the transmitter? a. The postsynaptic neuron uses it for fuel. b. It goes back into the presynaptic neuron. c. It becomes part of the membrane. d. It breaks down into its component atoms.

106. How do amphetamine and cocaine exert their effects on behavior? a. They inhibit the transporters for dopamine and other transmitters. b. They attach to serotonin receptors. c. They shift blood flow from the subcortical areas to the cortex. d. They increase the velocity of action potentials.

107. If serotonin axons were destroyed, LSD would still have its effects, but if dopamine axons were destroyed, cocaine would lose its effects. Why? a. LSD increases serotonin release, and cocaine decreases dopamine release. b. LSD attaches to dendrites, and cocaine attaches to axons. c. LSD influences mitochondria, and cocaine influences regeneration. d. LSD attaches to receptors, and cocaine increases release.

108. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) produces the same effects as what (but more slowly)? a. Serotonin b. Glutamate c. Cocaine d. Alcohol 109. Why do the effects of methylphenidate (Ritalin) differ from those of cocaine? a. Methylphenidate enters the brain more slowly. b. Methylphenidate attaches to a different receptor.

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02_Synapses c. Methylphenidate inhibits what cocaine excites. d. Methylphenidate excites what cocaine inhibits.

110. What is the function of a reverse transmitter? a. It tells the presynaptic neuron to increase its release. b. It tells the presynaptic neuron to decrease its release. c. It tells the postsynaptic neuron to increase its sensitivity. d. It tells the postsynaptic neuron to decrease its sensitivity.

111. What is unusual about anandamide and 2-DG, compared to other transmitters? a. They bind to receptors on the presynaptic neuron. b. They bind to receptors on the myelin sheath. c. They bind to receptors on microglia. d. They bind to receptors without any known function.

112. How do cannabinoids affect the nervous system? a. They bind to all types of receptors in the brain. b. They bind to the same receptors as serotonin. c. They bind to the same receptors as dopamine. d. They bind to receptors on the presynaptic neuron.

113. How do cannabinoids affect the nervous system? a. They inhibit release from the presynaptic neuron. b. They increase receptor sensitivity to GABA. c. They shift the pattern of blood flow in the brain. d. They decrease the velocity of action potentials.

114. For what purpose have animals evolved electrical synapses? a. In cases where comparison of stimuli is important. b. In cases where attention to motion is important. c. In cases where prolonged activity is important. d. In cases where exact synchrony is important.

115. What happens at a gap junction? a. Neurotransmitters pass more slowly than at other synapses. b. Neurotransmitters pass in both directions at the same time. c. Calcium ions enter the presynaptic neuron. d. Sodium ions pass freely at all times.

116. When a protein or peptide hormone attaches to a neuron receptor, the effect resembles what? a. The effect at an ionotropic synapse b. The effect at a metabotropic synapse c. The effect at one of the nodes of Ranvier d. The effect at an autoreceptor Powered by Cognero

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02_Synapses 117. The effects of a hormone are similar to those of what? a. The sodium–potassium pump b. A reverse transmitter c. An ionotropic synapse d. A metabotropic synapse 118. What structure in the brain releases hormones that control other hormone glands? a. The cerebral cortex b. The pituitary gland c. The pineal gland d. The substantia nigra 119. The releasing hormones produced by the hypothalamus control the activity of what? a. The amygdala b. The dopamine synapses c. The pituitary gland d. The muscles 120. What part of the nervous system secretes vasopressin and oxytocin? a. Prefrontal cortex b. Medulla c. Amygdala d. Hypothalamus

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

121. Transmission at synapses occurs in the same way as does transmission along axons. a. True b. False 122. Charles Sherrington inferred the existence and properties of synapses, based on observing reflexes in dogs. a. True b. False 123. Measurements of the speed of a reflex implied a delayed process at the synapse. a. True b. False 124. Inhibitory synapses prevent a leg’s extensor and flexor muscles from contracting at the same time. a. True b. False 125. Sherrington helped to establish the idea of inhibition in the nervous system. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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02_Synapses 126. Spatial summation is the result of synaptic inputs from different locations arriving at the same time. a. True b. False 127. Inhibitory synapses hyperpolarize the postsynaptic cell. a. True b. False 128. Most neurons produce action potentials even when they receive no stimulation. a. True b. False 129. Loewi demonstrated chemical transmission at synapses by chemically analyzing substances at a synapse. a. True b. False 130. Nitric oxide (NO) causes blood vessels to dilate. a. True b. False 131. Acetylcholine is one example of a catecholamine neurotransmitter. a. True b. False 132. Most of the known neurotransmitters are synthesized from amino acids. a. True b. False 133. A neurotransmitter takes almost a tenth of a second to diffuse across the synaptic cleft. a. True b. False 134. Each neuron releases one and only one neurotransmitter. a. True b. False 135. The most abundant neurotransmitter in the nervous system is glutamate. a. True b. False 136. The most abundant neurotransmitter in the nervous system is dopamine. a. True b. False 137. The most abundant neurotransmitter in the nervous system is serotonin.

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02_Synapses a. True b. False 138. The most abundant inhibitory neurotransmitter in the nervous system is GABA. a. True b. False 139. Metabotropic synapses use a large variety of transmitters. a. True b. False 140. At an electrical synapse, the membrane of one neuron makes direct contact with the membrane of another. This contact is called a gap junction. a. True b. False 141. Metabotropic synapses produce effects that last longer than ionotropic synapses. a. True b. False 142. Ionotropic synapses make use of a second messenger. a. True b. False 143. Hallucinogenic drugs attach to serotonin receptors. a. True b. False 144. After a transmitter attaches to its receptor at a synapse, the presynaptic neuron may reabsorb much of the transmitter. a. True b. False 145. Amphetamine and cocaine attach to the same receptors as dopamine. a. True b. False 146. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) does the same things as cocaine, but more slowly. a. True b. False 147. Cannabinoids stimulate the same receptors as opiates, but more slowly. a. True b. False 148. Some of the brain’s synapses transmit messages electrically. a. True Powered by Cognero

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02_Synapses b. False 149. The effects of hormones are similar to those of ionotropic synapses. a. True b. False

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

150. The scientist who first inferred the existence of synapses and demonstrated their properties was ____________________.

151. The phenomenon that repeated stimuli within a brief time have a cumulative effect on a synapse is called ____________________ summation.

152. The phenomenon that synaptic inputs from separate places combine their effects is called ____________________ summation.

153. IPSP stands for ____________________.

154. An EPSP opens neuron channels for the ion ____________________.

155. One example of a catecholamine neurotransmitter is ____________________.

156. The nearly spherical packets in the presynaptic neuron that store high concentrations of neurotransmitters are called ____________________.

157. The type of synaptic receptor that quickly opens an ion gate is called ____________________.

158. The type of synaptic receptor that operates by means of a second messenger is called ____________________.

159. The proteins that move neurotransmitters back into the presynaptic neuron are called ____________________.

160. The contact between neurons at an electrical synapse is called a ____________________ junction.

161. Oxytocin influences uterine contractions, milk release, and ____________________.

162. In what way did Cajal’s discoveries mesh well with Sherrington’s discoveries?

163. What was Sherrington’s evidence for the existence of inhibitory synapses?

164. What ion gates open during an EPSP and an IPSP? 165. When Sherrington measured the reaction time of a reflex (i.e., the delay between stimulus and response), he found that the response occurred faster after a strong stimulus than after a weak one. How can you explain this finding?

Remember that all action potentials—whether produced by strong or weak stimuli—travel at the same speed along a given axon.

166. Suppose neuron X has a synapse onto neuron Y, which has a synapse onto Z. Presume that no other neurons or Powered by Cognero

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02_Synapses synapses are present. An experimenter finds that stimulating neuron X causes an action potential in neuron Z after a short delay. However, she determines that the synapse of X onto Y is inhibitory. Explain how the stimulation of X might produce excitation of Z. 167. How did Otto Loewi demonstrate chemical transmission at synapses?

168. List the sequence of events that occur in synaptic transmission.

169. Describe the main chemical events at a synapse.

170. How could your diet influence the amount of serotonin in the brain?

171. Briefly compare the differences between ionotropic and metabotropic receptors. Include their mechanisms of action and how they explain the difference in the effects on the postsynaptic cell.

172. How are neurotransmitters removed from the synapse?

173. How do amphetamine, cocaine, and methylphenidate (Ritalin) affect synapses?

174. If serotonin axons were destroyed, LSD would still have its full effects. However, if dopamine axons were destroyed, amphetamine and cocaine would lose their effects. Explain the difference.

175. How do cannabinoids affect synapses?

176. How are hormones similar to and different from neurotransmitters?

177. Why is methylphenidate generally less disruptive to behavior than cocaine, despite the drugs’ similar mechanisms?

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02_Synapses Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. d 4. d 5. b 6. c 7. c 8. b 9. c 10. c 11. b 12. b 13. a 14. a 15. b 16. b 17. d 18. b 19. b 20. c 21. a 22. b 23. a 24. b 25. a Powered by Cognero

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02_Synapses 26. d 27. b 28. a 29. d 30. d 31. c 32. b 33. c 34. b 35. c 36. d 37. a 38. c 39. c 40. a 41. b 42. b 43. b 44. a 45. c 46. a 47. b 48. b 49. b 50. a 51. a Powered by Cognero

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02_Synapses 52. b 53. d 54. d 55. b 56. a 57. d 58. a 59. b 60. b 61. d 62. b 63. b 64. b 65. b 66. b 67. b 68. a 69. a 70. d 71. c 72. a 73. d 74. c 75. c 76. b Powered by Cognero

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02_Synapses 77. a 78. d 79. c 80. a 81. c 82. a 83. c 84. d 85. c 86. b 87. c 88. d 89. c 90. c 91. d 92. a 93. d 94. b 95. a 96. b 97. b 98. d 99. b 100. a 101. a 102. c Powered by Cognero

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02_Synapses 103. c 104. d 105. b 106. a 107. d 108. c 109. a 110. a 111. a 112. d 113. a 114. d 115. d 116. b 117. d 118. b 119. c 120. d 121. False 122. True 123. True 124. True 125. True 126. True 127. True Powered by Cognero

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02_Synapses 128. True 129. False 130. True 131. False 132. True 133. False 134. False 135. True 136. False 137. False 138. True 139. True 140. True 141. True 142. False 143. True 144. True 145. False 146. True 147. False 148. True 149. False 150. Sherrington

Charles Sherrington 151. temporal 152. spatial Powered by Cognero

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02_Synapses 153. inhibitory post-synaptic potential 154. sodium 155. dopamine

norepinephrine epinephrine 156. vesicles 157. ionotropic 158. metabotropic 159. transporters

transporter proteins 160. gap 161. sexual pleasure 162. Cajal demonstrated that each neuron is separate from another, instead of merging as a single unit. Sherrington demonstrated that a special type of communication takes place at the junction between one neuron and the next.

163. A pinch that stimulated the flexor muscles of a leg inhibited the extensor muscles of that leg and the flexor muscles of the other legs.

164. During an EPSP, the sodium gates open. During an IPSP, either potassium gates open for potassium to leave the cell, or chloride channels open for chloride to enter the cell.

165. A strong stimulus produces more frequent action potentials. Therefore, temporal summation will reach the threshold sooner and produce an action potential sooner (and therefore a faster response).

166. Cell Y, which has a spontaneous firing rate, inhibits Z. When X inhibits Y, the result is to decrease the inhibition of Z, which also has a spontaneous firing rate. Therefore, Z will produce more frequent action potentials. (Inhibition of inhibition is common in the nervous system.)

167. He stimulated nerves that increased or decreased the heart rate of one frog. He took fluid from around where the nerve had stimulated that heart and applied it to a second frog’s heart. That fluid increased or decreased the second frog’s heart rate. Therefore, the stimulation of the first frog’s heart had released chemicals that affect synapses.

168. The sequence of events involves synthesis, storage, release, diffusion, activation of receptor, and inactivation/reuptake.

169. 1. The neuron synthesizes chemicals that serve as neurotransmitters. It synthesizes the smaller neurotransmitters in the axon terminals and synthesizes neuropeptides in the cell body.

2. Action potentials travel down the axon. At the presynaptic terminal, an action potential enables calcium to enter the cell. Calcium releases neurotransmitters from the terminals and into the synaptic cleft, the space between the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons.

3. The released molecules diffuse across the cleft, attach to receptors, and alter the activity of the postsynaptic neuron.

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02_Synapses 4. The neurotransmitter molecules separate from their receptors.

5. The neurotransmitter molecules may be taken back into the presynaptic neuron for recycling, or they may diffuse away.

6. Some postsynaptic cells send reverse messages to control the further release of neurotransmitters by presynaptic cells.

170. The amino acid tryptophan, the precursor to serotonin, crosses the blood–brain barrier by a special transport system that it shares with other large amino acids. Serotonin levels rise after you eat foods richer in tryptophan, such as soy, and fall after you eat something low in tryptophan, such as maize (American corn). However, tryptophan has to compete with other, more abundant large amino acids, such as phenylalanine, which share the same transport system. You could increase tryptophan entry to the brain by decreasing consumption of proteins containing phenylalanine. Another way is to eat carbohydrates. Carbohydrates increase the release of the hormone insulin, which takes several competing amino acids out of the bloodstream and into body cells, thus decreasing the competition against tryptophan.

171. Ionotropic receptors open ion channels as soon as the neurotransmitter attaches and close when the neurotransmitter is removed, making the effects rapid and short-lived.

Metabotropic receptors use a second messenger system to affect many different activities in the cell, which are slower but long-lasting.

172. An enzyme breaks down acetylcholine into inactive components, which then re-enter the presynaptic neuron for recycling. Other neurotransmitters re-enter the presynaptic neuron intact by way of specialized membrane proteins called transporters. Neuropeptides diffuse away from the synapse.

173. All three inhibit the transporters for dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine, thereby decreasing reuptake and prolonging the effects at those synapses. Methylphenidate, when taken as a pill, has slower onset and offset of effects.

174. LSD attaches to serotonin receptors. It could still affect them, regardless of whether any axons were also affecting them. Amphetamine and cocaine act by decreasing reuptake at dopamine (and other) synapses and therefore prolonging the effects of released dopamine. If dopamine axons were destroyed, amphetamine and cocaine would have nothing to prolong.

175. Some synapses use a reverse transmitter back to the presynaptic neuron to inhibit further release of its transmitter.

Cannabinoids mimic those reverse transmitters and therefore decrease the release of both excitatory and inhibitory transmitters.

176. Hormones attach to receptors that produce effects like those of metabotropic synaptic receptors. However, whereas neurotransmitters are released near the receptors they might stimulate, hormones circulate throughout the body, affecting receptors wherever they might be. A neurotransmitter is analogous to a phone call, directed to a particular individual, and a hormone is analogous to a radio station, directed to anything tuned to the right station.

177. Methylphenidate (Ritalin), another stimulant drug, is often prescribed for people with attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder. Methylphenidate blocks the reuptake of dopamine in the same way that cocaine does, at the same brain receptors. The differences between methylphenidate and cocaine relate to the time course. Cocaine users typically sniff it or inject it to produce a rapid rush of effect on the brain. People taking methylphenidate pills experience more gradual effects without a sudden rush. Still, blocking reuptake has a consequence. A methadone pill increases arousal at first, but a few hours later, the user may experience reduced energy and motivation.

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What term describes the connections from the brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body? a. Peripheral nervous system b. Central nervous system c. Enteric nervous system d. Extremely nervous system 2. What does dorsal mean? a. Toward the back b. Toward the stomach c. Toward the head d. Toward the tail 3. What does ventral mean? a. Toward the back b. Toward the stomach c. Toward the head d. Toward the tail 4. What is the opposite of dorsal? a. Somatic b. Central c. Ventral d. Lateral 5. When a person stands in the normal position, where is the dorsal part of the brain? a. On the top b. On the bottom c. At the front d. At the back 6. When a person stands in the normal position, where is the ventral part of the brain? a. On the top b. On the bottom c. At the front d. At the back 7. In anatomy, what is the opposite of lateral? a. Dorsal b. Ventral c. Medial d. Superior 8. In anatomy, what term means toward the midline?

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods a. ventral b. dorsal c. medial d. lateral 9. If two structures are both on the left side of the body, what is their relationship to each other? a. Lateral b. Medial c. Contralateral d. Ipsilateral 10. If one structure is on the left side of the brain and another is on the right side, what is their relationship to each other? a. Lateral b. Medial c. Contralateral d. Ipsilateral 11. In anatomy, what is the opposite of proximal? a. Anterior b. Ventral c. Distal d. Ipsilateral 12. Which term describes a plane through the brain as seen from the side? a. Sagittal b. Horizontal c. Frontal d. Coronal 13. A frontal plane—that is, one showing the brain as seen from the front—is also known as what? a. Sagittal b. Horizontal c. Contralateral d. Coronal 14. What is a ganglion? a. A cluster of neuron cell bodies b. A tract of axons c. A protuberance on the surface of the brain d. A fold or groove in the surface of the brain 15. What is a gyrus? a. A cluster of neuron cell bodies b. A tract of axons Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods c. A protuberance on the surface of the brain d. A fold or groove in the surface of the brain 16. What is a sulcus? a. A cluster of neuron cell bodies b. A tract of axons c. A protuberance on the surface of the brain d. A fold or groove in the surface of the brain 17. How do the dorsal and ventral roots of the spinal cord differ in function? a. The dorsal roots are for involuntary actions, and the ventral roots are for voluntary actions. b. The dorsal roots are for voluntary actions, and the ventral roots are for involuntary actions. c. The dorsal roots are for sensation, and the ventral roots are for motor control. d. The dorsal roots are for motor control, and the ventral roots are for sensation.

18. Someone with spinal cord damage has lost sensation from one part of the body. Where is the damage? a. The left side of the spinal cord b. The right side of the spinal cord c. The dorsal roots of the spinal cord d. The ventral roots of the spinal cord 19. Someone with spinal cord damage has lost muscle control for one part of the body. Where is the damage? a. The left side of the spinal cord b. The right side of the spinal cord c. The dorsal roots of the spinal cord d. The ventral roots of the spinal cord 20. For both the spinal cord and the brain, how does gray matter differ from white matter? a. Gray matter has cell bodies, and white matter has just axons. b. Gray matter has just axons, and white matter has cell bodies. c. Gray matter has healthy cells, and white matter has damaged cells. d. Gray matter has damaged cells, and white matter has healthy cells.

21. What happens if the spinal cord is cut at a given segment? a. The brain loses both sensation and motor control from just that segment. b. The brain loses both sensation and motor control from that segment and below. c. The brain loses just sensation from just that segment. d. The brain loses just motor control from that segment and below.

22. Where would you find the dorsal root ganglia? a. In the white matter of the spinal cord b. In the gray matter of the spinal cord c. Just outside the spinal cord d. At the center of the spinal cord Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods 23. Which system prepares the body for “fight or flight” activities? a. The parasympathetic nervous system b. The sympathetic nervous system c. The enteric nervous system d. The somatic nervous system 24. Which system prepares the body for “rest and digest” activities? a. The parasympathetic nervous system b. The sympathetic nervous system c. The enteric nervous system d. The somatic nervous system 25. What do these have in common: the sweat glands, adrenal glands, muscles that constrict blood vessels, and muscles that erect the hairs of the skin? a. They receive input from only the sympathetic nervous system b. They receive input from only the parasympathetic nervous system c. They receive input from only the enteric nervous system. d. They receive no input from any part of the nervous system.

26. Why is the sympathetic nervous system called “sympathetic”? a. The response tends to increase cooperation with other people. b. The ganglia often act together as a single system. c. The output generally produces a repetitive rhythm. d. The response by one person tends to copy that of any nearby person.

27. What is a synonym for the parasympathetic nervous system? a. The craniosacral system b. The sympathetic nervous system c. The enteric nervous system d. The rostrocaudal system 28. Which fibers extend from the parasympathetic ganglia into the organs themselves? a. Preganglionic b. Postganglionic c. Ventral root d. Dorsal root 29. Why does being nervous interfere with sexual arousal? a. Nervousness shifts most activity to the left side of the brain. b. Nervousness shifts most activity to the right side of the brain. c. Nervousness inhibits the parasympathetic nervous system. d. Nervousness inhibits the sympathetic nervous system.

30. Most axons of the sympathetic nervous system release what transmitter? a. GABA Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods b. Glutamine c. Serotonin d. Norepinephrine 31. Over-the-counter cold remedies exert their effects by inhibiting which of the following? a. The parasympathetic nervous system b. The sympathetic nervous system c. The enteric nervous system d. Blood flow to the nose 32. Why do over-the-counter cold remedies increase heart rate and blood pressure? a. They stimulate the dorsal roots of the spinal cord. b. They stimulate the prefrontal cortex. c. They stimulate the sympathetic nervous system. d. They stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system.

33. The hindbrain consists of what? a. The medulla, pons, and cerebellum b. The medulla and the spinal cord c. The tectum, tegmentum, and thalamus d. The posterior part of the cerebral cortex 34. What do the cranial nerves do? a. They control the muscles of the arms and legs. b. They communicate between the left and right hemispheres of the brain. c. They control the organs and the muscles of the head. d. They communicate between the forebrain and the hindbrain.

35. Which of the following is a part of the hindbrain? a. Amygdala b. Thalamus c. Cerebellum d. Hippocampus 36. The cranial nerves that control heart rate and breathing come from what part of the nervous system? a. Cerebellum b. Medulla c. Spinal cord d. Hypothalamus 37. How many pairs of cranial nerves do humans have? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods d. 12 38. The medulla can be regarded as an enlarged portion of which structure? a. The pons b. The cerebellum c. The spinal cord d. The cranial nerves 39. Opiate overdoses are dangerous because opiates inhibit control of heart rate and breathing by which structure? a. Parietal cortex b. Cerebellum c. Thalamus d. Medulla 40. If you look at a human brain, you are unlikely to see the midbrain. Why not? a. It is darker than the rest of the brain. b. It is microscopic in size. c. It is inside the thalamus. d. The forebrain surrounds it.

41. The tectum, superior colliculus, and inferior colliculus are part of which structure? a. Hindbrain b. Midbrain c. Forebrain d. Spinal cord 42. The superior colliculus is most important for which sensory system? a. Hearing b. Vision c. Balance d. Olfaction 43. The forebrain has input and output from which sides? a. Input from the ipsilateral side, output to the ipsilateral side b. Input from the contralateral side, output to the contralateral side c. Input from the ipsilateral side, output to the contralateral side d. Input from the contralateral side, output to the ipsilateral side 44. The cerebral cortex receives most of its input from which structure? a. Medulla b. Cerebellum c. Thalamus d. Spinal cord

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods 45. Which sensory system sends input directly to the cerebral cortex, bypassing the thalamus? a. Vision b. Olfaction c. Hearing d. Pain 46. Which part of the brain controls output from the pituitary gland? a. Amygdala b. Medulla c. Hypothalamus d. Prefrontal cortex 47. Damage to which structure is most likely to impair feeding, drinking, sexual behavior, and temperature regulation? a. Occipital cortex b. Hypothalamus c. Corpus callosum d. Fusiform gyrus 48. Which structures are included among the basal ganglia? a. Caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus b. Tectum, superior colliculus, and inferior colliculus c. Olfactory bulb, hippocampus, and amygdala d. Medulla, pons, and cerebellum 49. The hindbrain includes which structures? a. Cerebellum, medulla, and pons b. Ventral roots, dorsal roots, and central canal c. Substantia nigra, superior and inferior colliculus d. Hippocampus, hypothalamus, and thalamus 50. The midbrain includes which structures? a. Cerebellum, medulla, and pons b. Ventral roots, dorsal roots, and central canal c. Substantia nigra, superior and inferior colliculus d. Hippocampus, hypothalamus, and thalamus 51. The forebrain includes which structures? a. Cerebellum, medulla, and pons b. Ventral roots, dorsal roots, and central canal c. Substantia nigra, superior and inferior colliculus d. Hippocampus, hypothalamus, and thalamus 52. Which of these is part of the forebrain? a. Medulla Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods b. Pons c. Cerebellum d. Hippocampus 53. What are the ventricles of the brain? a. Indentations that separate one gyrus from the next b. Tracts of neurons connecting the thalamus to the cortex c. Membranes on the surface d. Fluid-filled cavities 54. Each hemisphere contains: a. two large lateral ventricles. b. three large lateral ventricles. c. one of the two large lateral ventricles. d. three of the six large lateral ventricles.

55. What fills the brain’s ventricles? a. Cerebrospinal fluid b. Axons c. Blood vessels d. Glia cells 56. Which of these conditions might develop if the flow of cerebrospinal fluid is blocked? a. Phenylketonuria b. Alzheimer’s disease c. Parkinson’s disease d. Hydrocephalus 57. Which of these can cause hydrocephalus? a. Accumulation of beta-amyloid in the brain b. Inability to metabolize phenylalanine c. Obstructed flow of cerebrospinal fluid d. A breakdown of the blood–brain barrier 58. What are the meninges? a. Blood vessels to the brain b. Bundles of axons c. Cavities filled with cerebrospinal fluid d. Membranes surrounding the brain 59. What do the corpus callosum and anterior commissure have in common? a. They produce CSF. b. They connect the two hemispheres. c. They are made up of gray matter.

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods d. They have six laminae.

60. The corpus callosum is composed of what? a. Cell bodies b. Dendrites c. Axons d. Glia 61. Why is the corpus callosum white matter? a. It contains only cell bodies. b. It contains only axons. c. It has a low level of activity. d. It has a high level of activity.

62. How does the organization of the brain differ among mammalian species? a. The location of the visual cortex and auditory cortex varies. b. The connections among cortical areas are different. c. The neurotransmitters are different. d. They differ in size, but not much else.

63. How do the brains of primates differ from those of other mammals of similar size? a. Primates have a smoother cortical surface. b. Primates have larger neurons. c. Primates have more neurons per volume. d. Primates have almost twice as many neurotransmitters.

64. How does an elephant’s brain compare to that of a human? a. Elephants have a cerebral cortex, but no cerebellum. b. Elephants have their visual cortex and auditory cortex in different places. c. Elephants have larger neurons, but fewer of them. d. Elephants have more neurons, but they are smaller.

65. How does the brain of humans and other primates differ from other mammals? a. The cerebellum is substantially smaller than average, compared to total brain volume. b. The visual cortex and auditory cortex are in different locations. c. The cerebral cortex forms a larger percentage of the brain. d. The neurons are larger than average.

66. How does the organization of the brain differ among mammalian species? a. The location of the visual cortex and auditory cortex varies. b. The connections among cortical areas are different. c. The neurotransmitters are different. d. They do not differ very much and are remarkably similar, but size varies greatly.

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods 67. Which brain area forms a nearly constant percentage of the brain in most mammalian species? a. Medulla b. Prefrontal cortex c. Cerebellum d. Midbrain 68. How does the size of the cerebellum vary among mammalian species? a. It is nearly the same proportion of the brain for almost all species. b. As the total brain size increases, the percentage occupied by the cerebellum decreases. c. As the total brain size increases, the percentage occupied by the cerebellum increases. d. The cerebellum is largest in those species with the fastest locomotion.

69. Why do the thicknesses of laminae IV and V vary from one cortical area to another? a. Lamina IV has axons, and lamina V has dendrites. b. Lamina IV has sensory information, and lamina V controls movement. c. Lamina IV controls motivation, and lamina V controls learning. d. Lamina IV controls excitation, and lamina V controls inhibition.

70. What is the relationship between the laminae and the columns of the cortex? a. Cortical areas with more laminae have fewer columns. b. Cortical areas with more laminae have more columns also. c. The laminae are parallel to the columns. d. The laminae are perpendicular to the columns.

71. If a group of neurons have similar properties, what is probably true of them? a. One is in the left hemisphere and the other is in the right hemisphere. b. They are in the same lamina. c. They are in the same column. d. They have the same number of dendrites.

72. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is most important for visual information? a. Occipital b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Frontal 73. Where in the cortex is the occipital lobe? a. Ventral to the thalamus b. Dorsal to the thalamus c. At the anterior end d. At the posterior end 74. Damage to which area could cause cortical blindness? a. Parietal cortex Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods b. Prefrontal cortex c. Corpus callosum d. Occipital cortex 75. How does complete cortical blindness differ from eye damage? a. Someone with cortical blindness has a better chance of recovery. b. Someone with cortical blindness does not generate circadian wake–sleep rhythms. c. Someone with cortical blindness loses visual imagery and visual dreams. d. Someone with cortical blindness loses color vision but continues to see shapes.

76. The parietal lobe is most important for which type of sensation? a. Hearing b. Touch c. Vision d. Taste 77. Which of these terms is synonymous with postcentral gyrus? a. Primary visual cortex b. Primary somatosensory cortex c. Primary auditory cortex d. Corpus callosum 78. The primary somatosensory cortex is in which lobe of the cortex? a. Occipital b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Frontal 79. Someone who suddenly loses the ability to identify objects by feeling them has probably suffered damage to what area of the cerebral cortex? a. Occipital lobe b. Parietal lobe c. Temporal lobe d. Frontal lobe 80. Which lobe of the cortex is the primary area for auditory sensations? a. Occipital b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Frontal 81. The temporal lobe of the cortex contains the primary target for which type of sensation? a. Touch b. Vision Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods c. Pain d. Hearing 82. Hallucinations are most often associated with increased activity in which area? a. Hypothalamus b. Cerebellum c. Corpus callosum d. Temporal cortex 83. What are the typical symptoms of Klüver-Bucy syndrome? a. Dizziness, nausea, and prolonged hiccups b. Sleeplessness and difficulty coordinating vision with movement c. Inability to coordinate the left and right halves of the body d. Fearlessness and inappropriate eating and sexual behaviors 84. What enables the temporoparietal junction to perform so many functions? a. Both its incoming and its outgoing axons conduct at a high velocity. b. All six of its laminae are equally thick. c. It receives input from vision, hearing, and the body senses. d. It uses an unusually large variety of neurotransmitters.

85. Alosha is a person with damage to the temporal junction in the right hemisphere. It is most likely that Alosha has an impaired ability to: a. feel a touch on the skin. b. see multicolor images. c. imagine how something would appear from someone else’s perspective. d. think in an organized manner.

86. The primary motor cortex is in which lobe of the cerebral cortex? a. Frontal b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Occipital 87. Which of the following is in the frontal lobe of the cerebral cortex? a. Primary visual cortex b. Primary auditory cortex c. Primary motor cortex d. Primary somatosensory cortex 88. What does the precentral gyrus control? a. Movement b. Circadian rhythm c. Mood Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods d. Hunger and thirst 89. How does the size of the prefrontal cortex vary across species? a. It forms nearly the same percentage of the brain in most species. b. It forms a larger percentage of the brain in predator species. c. It forms a larger percentage of the brain in prey species. d. It forms a larger percentage of the brain in species with larger brains.

90. What happens in your brain when you don’t need to concentrate on anything? a. Nearly all neurons revert to their spontaneous firing level. b. The left hemisphere becomes more active than the right hemisphere. c. The right hemisphere becomes more active than the left hemisphere. d. Activity increases in the default network.

91. When, if ever, does your default network increase its activity? a. When you are daydreaming or imagining. b. When you are concentrating on a single topic. c. When you are nervous. d. Never. Its activity is always the same.

92. What was the intended purpose of prefrontal lobotomies? a. To control tardive dyskinesia b. To decrease the severity of epileptic seizures c. To treat schizophrenia and other disorders d. To control aggressive behavior by prisoners 93. What led to the abandonment of prefrontal lobotomies? a. The rise of Institutional Review Boards to oversee ethics b. The decision to arrest the main practitioners of lobotomies c. The onset of drug treatments for psychiatric disorders d. The decreased prevalence of mental illness 94. One lobe of the cerebral cortex has major contributions to movement, working memory, and decision making. Which lobe is that? a. Occipital b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Frontal 95. The anterior portion of the prefrontal cortex is most important for which of the following? a. Binocular vision b. Hunger and thirst c. Circadian rhythms d. Decision making Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods 96. Suppose a person that has experienced brain-damaged seems normal in many ways but often makes impulsive decisions without considering all the pros and cons. Where would you expect to find the brain damage? a. Substantia nigra b. Corpus callosum c. Occipital cortex d. Prefrontal cortex 97. Which of the following describes the goal of the Human Connectome Project? a. To map the white matter of the brain b. To describe all the genes that affect the brain c. To explore the social relationships among people d. To describe all the neurotransmitters in the brain 98. The “binding problem” refers to which question? a. How do we combine words into a sentence? b. How do we coordinate vision with movement? c. How do we combine visual, auditory, and touch information about an object? d. How do we transfer information between the left and right hemispheres?

99. Why is the “binding problem” a theoretical problem at all? a. The left and right hemispheres control opposite sides of the body. b. Vision, hearing, and touch activate different cortical areas. c. Many of the brain’s neurons have no axon, or only a short one. d. Understanding a long sentence requires memory to hold more than seven items at once.

100. What is the large-scale integration problem? a. Understanding how sensations in different brain areas combine b. Understanding how axons find their targets during early development c. Understanding how evolution led to the complexity of the human brain d. Understanding how blood is distributed to the brain areas that need it 101. Under what circumstances do we bind our visual and auditory perceptions as a single object? a. When they come from the same place at the same time b. When they are equally familiar to us c. When they activate the left and right hemispheres equally d. When they are similar in strength and duration 102. For us to bind visual and auditory perceptions as a single object, what must be true of those perceptions? a. They are both familiar. b. They are equally strong. c. They are simultaneous. d. They excite the left and right hemispheres equally.

103. For you to bind visual and auditory perceptions as a single object, what must be true of those perceptions? a. Both perceptions send their input to the same nucleus of the thalamus.

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods b. You perceive them as coming from the same place. c. You have much familiarity with both perceptions. d. Both perceptions activate the same type of neurotransmitter.

104. Suppose someone repeatedly strokes your hand and a rubber hand next to it, at the same time in the same way, while you watch. Within a few minutes, which of these is likely to happen? a. You become numb in the hand that has been stroked. b. You feel a tingling sensation in your other, unseen hand. c. You feel as if you have three hands, including the rubber one. d. You feel an urge to strike the person who has been playing with your hand.

105. What was significant about the discovery of Broca’s area? a. It showed that different brain areas could have different functions. b. It showed that evolution had made a sudden change in brain anatomy. c. It showed that genetic changes can alter brain anatomy. d. It showed that intelligence depends on a single “g” factor.

106. The first demonstration that a brain area controlled a particular aspect of behavior pertained to which type of behavior? a. Language b. Hunger c. Sexual arousal d. Criminal activity 107. Why is it difficult to draw scientific conclusions from the study of human brain damage? a. Most people recover quickly after brain damage. b. Few people have damage to one and only one area. c. Brain-damage people cannot understand the instructions. d. It is illegal to seek informed consent from brain-damaged people.

108. What is the similarity between ablations and lesions? a. Both produce hallucinations. b. Both produce genetic changes. c. Both produce damage. d. Both produce epileptic seizures.

109. Which of the following is a way to produce a temporary “virtual lesion”? a. Magnetic resonance imaging b. Strong transcranial magnetic stimulation c. Optogenetics d. Positron emission tomography 110. What does strong transcranial magnetic stimulation cause? a. A virtual lesion b. An increase in some behavior Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods c. Genetic modification d. Increased coordination between the left and right hemispheres 111. Optogenetics is used for which purpose? a. To control the activity of a group of neurons b. To measure the activity of a group of neurons c. To control the growth of a group of neurons d. To discover what transmitter a group of neurons uses 112. Which of these methods would be used least often with humans? a. Optogenetics b. Functional magnetic resonance imaging c. Electroencephalography d. Magnetoencephalography 113. What is the advantage of optogenetics, as opposed to electrical stimulation of the brain? a. Optogenetics does not insert anything into the brain. b. Optogenetics produces a permanent change in behavior. c. Optogenetics controls a more limited group of neurons. d. Optogenetics produces only excitation, not inhibition.

114. Which of these methods can be used to produce either excitation or inhibition of neurons? a. Optogenetics b. Magnetic resonance imaging c. Magnetoencephalography d. Positron emission tomography 115. What method can control excitation or inhibition of a particular type of cell in a single area with millisecond accuracy? a. Transcranial magnetic stimulation b. Positron-emission tomography c. Stereotaxic instrument d. Optogenetics 116. What is the purpose of both electroencephalography and magnetoencephalography? a. To provide stimuli to which an animal might react b. To alter the early development of the brain c. To record changes in brain activity d. To produce changes in brain activity 117. Electroencephalography and magnetoencephalography both do what? a. Record activity on the scalp b. Stimulate brain activity c. Insert electrodes into the brain Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods d. Provide a map of brain anatomy 118. Which of these records changes in brain activity from one millisecond to the next? a. Magnetoencephalography b. Functional magnetic resonance imaging c. Positron emission tomography d. Optogenetics 119. What is the disadvantage of PET scans? a. They require removal of brain tissue. b. They require inserting an electrode into the brain. c. They expose the brain to radioactivity. d. They expose the brain to powerful magnetic fields.

120. Which of the following does a PET scan measure? a. The response of hemoglobin to a magnetic field b. The brain areas that are using the greatest amount of glucose c. The changes in electrical activity at various places on the scalp d. The changes in magnetic fields at various places on the scalp 121. Which of the following does fMRI measure? a. The response of hemoglobin to a magnetic field b. The brain areas that are using the greatest amount of glucose c. The changes in electrical activity at various places on the scalp d. The changes in magnetic fields at various places on the scalp 122. What are the advantages and disadvantages of EEG and MEG? a. They are precise about the timing of activity, but only approximate about location. b. They are precise about the location of activity, but only approximate about timing. c. They are easy to perform, but they expose the brain to radiation. d. They are safe to perform, but they require someone to hold the head steady for hours.

123. Which of the following imaging methods provides good evidence for general trends, but in most cases, is not reliable enough to draw conclusions about an individual person? a. MRI b. fMRI c. X-rays d. EEG 124. Computerized axial tomography uses what kind of energy to create an image? a. X-rays b. Magnetic fields c. Radioactive decay d. Psychic energy Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods 125. Which of these methods would be most suitable for locating a tumor in someone’s brain? a. EEG b. fMRI c. PET scan d. CT scan 126. How is computerized axial tomography (CT) similar to magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)? a. They are methods for stimulating brain activity. b. They are methods for visualizing brain anatomy. c. They are methods for recording brain activity. d. They are methods for analyzing the results of an experiment.

127. How does fMRI differ from MRI? a. fMRI measures anatomy and MRI measures activity. b. fMRI measures activity and MRI measures anatomy. c. fMRI measures the location of activity, and MRI measures its timing. d. fMRI measures the timing of activity, and MRI measures its location.

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

128. The peripheral nervous system includes the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system. a. True b. False 129. The dorsal roots of the spinal cord carry sensory information and the ventral roots carry motor information. a. True b. False 130. Cell bodies of motor neurons are located outside the spinal cord. a. True b. False 131. The white matter of the spinal cord is at the center of the cord. a. True b. False 132. The sympathetic system activates the “fight or flight” response. a. True b. False 133. The sweat glands and adrenal glands receive sympathetic input only. a. True b. False 134. The muscles that constrict the blood vessels and muscles that erect the hairs of the skin receive parasympathetic input Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods only. a. True b. False 135. Parasympathetic neurons use acetylcholine as their neurotransmitter. a. True b. False 136. Depending on the location and type of damage, people with damage to the cerebellum may have impairments with timing. a. True b. False 137. Cranial nerves control breathing and heart rate. a. True b. False 138. Depending on the location and type of damage in the cerebellum, persons with such damage may have impairments of learning, memory, attention, visual-spatial processing, language, recognizing emotional expressions, or social behavior. a. True b. False 139. The midbrain is more prominent in mammals than in reptiles or fish. a. True b. False 140. The cortex receives most of its sensory information through the thalamus. a. True b. False 141. The hippocampus is part of the forebrain. a. True b. False 142. The ventricles of the brain are filled with fluid. a. True b. False 143. The locations of the visual cortex, auditory cortex, and so forth vary from one mammalian species to another. a. True b. False 144. The brains of birds are organized similarly to those of mammals. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods 145. The cerebellum occupies a nearly constant percentage of the brain in nearly all mammals. a. True b. False 146. The laminae of the cerebral cortex are perpendicular to the columns. a. True b. False 147. Someone who becomes totally blind because of damage to the visual cortex still has visual imagery and visual dreams. a. True b. False 148. The temporal lobe contributes to hearing, vision, motivation, and emotion. a. True b. False 149. The default network increases its activity when you daydream. a. True b. False 150. When you play a guitar, you know that the object you see and feel is also the object you hear, because the vision, touch, and hearing information all funnel into a central spot in the brain. a. True b. False 151. Stereotaxic surgery has become a more common method than it used to be. a. True b. False 152. Transcranial magnetic stimulation can be used to either stimulate or inhibit neural activity. a. True b. False 153. Optogenetics can be used to either stimulate or inhibit neural activity. a. True b. False 154. Optogenetics is a common method to study human brain functioning. a. True b. False 155. Electroencephalography and magnetoencephalography provide excellent resolution for both location and timing. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods 156. PET scans and fMRI provide excellent resolution for both location and timing. a. True b. False

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

157. The special part of the autonomic nervous system that controls the stomach and intestines is called the ____________________.

158. The opposite of dorsal is ____________________.

159. The opposite of contralateral is ____________________.

160. A ganglion is a cluster of ____________________.

161. A sulcus separates one ____________________ from another.

162. Sensory neurons enter the spinal cord through the ____________________ root ganglia.

163. The craniosacral system, the “rest and digest” part of the autonomic nervous system, is called the ____________________ nervous system.

164. The hindbrain consists of the medulla, the pons, and the ____________________.

165. The cerebral cortex receives nearly all its sensory information through the ____________________.

166. The part of the brain that controls hormone release from the pituitary gland is the ____________________.

167. The caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus are major components of the ____________________.

168. The four fluid-filled cavities of the forebrain are known as ____________________.

169. The primary visual cortex is in the ____________________lobe.

170. The primary auditory cortex is in the ____________________ lobe.

171. The primary somatosensory cortex is in the ____________________ lobe.

172. The primary motor cortex is in the ____________________lobe.

173. The ____________________ is also active when your brain replays recent experiences, an important process for storing memories.

174. The cortical areas that increase their activity when you are daydreaming are known as the ____________________ network.

175. The term for removal of a brain area is ____________________.

176. The term for damage to a brain area is ____________________.

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods 177. The method that uses light to excite or inhibit a limited group of neurons is called ____________________.

178. The “f” in fMRI stands for ____________________.

179. MRI stands for ____________________.

180. Explain why a human’s back and the top of the head would be labeled dorsal.

181. Describe the basic functions and components of the autonomic nervous system.

182. Explain why being nervous interferes with sexual arousal, with reference to the autonomic nervous system.

183. What is meant by the “default network”?

184. What is the binding problem, and why is it a theoretical issue?

185. Briefly describe the main categories of methods for studying brain function.

186. What are the advantages and disadvantages of EEG and MEG, compared to PET and fMRI?

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. b 4. c 5. a 6. b 7. c 8. c 9. d 10. c 11. c 12. a 13. d 14. a 15. c 16. d 17. c 18. c 19. d 20. a 21. b 22. c 23. b 24. a 25. a Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods 26. b 27. a 28. b 29. c 30. d 31. a 32. c 33. a 34. c 35. c 36. b 37. d 38. c 39. d 40. d 41. b 42. b 43. b 44. c 45. b 46. c 47. b 48. a 49. a 50. c 51. d Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods 52. d 53. d 54. c 55. a 56. d 57. c 58. d 59. b 60. c 61. b 62. d 63. c 64. c 65. c 66. d 67. c 68. a 69. b 70. d 71. c 72. a 73. d 74. d 75. c 76. b Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods 77. b 78. b 79. b 80. c 81. d 82. d 83. d 84. c 85. c 86. a 87. c 88. a 89. d 90. d 91. a 92. c 93. c 94. d 95. d 96. d 97. a 98. c 99. b 100. a 101. a 102. c Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods 103. b 104. c 105. a 106. a 107. b 108. c 109. b 110. a 111. a 112. a 113. c 114. a 115. d 116. c 117. a 118. a 119. c 120. b 121. a 122. a 123. b 124. a 125. d 126. b 127. b Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods 128. True 129. True 130. False 131. False 132. True 133. True 134. False 135. True 136. True 137. True 138. False 139. False 140. True 141. True 142. True 143. False 144. True 145. True 146. True 147. False 148. True 149. True 150. False 151. False 152. True 153. True Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods 154. False 155. False 156. False 157. enteric nervous system 158. ventral 159. ipsilateral 160. neuron cell bodies 161. gyrus 162. dorsal 163. parasympathetic 164. cerebellum 165. thalamus 166. hypothalamus 167. basal ganglia 168. ventricles 169. occipital 170. temporal 171. parietal 172. frontal 173. default network 174. default 175. ablation 176. lesion 177. optogenetics Powered by Cognero

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods 178. functional 179. magnetic resonance imaging 180. Anatomically, the human back is labeled as being dorsal, while the stomach is labeled as being ventral. However, anatomical labels were assigned in animals that walk on four legs (instead of upright like humans). In a four-legged animal, the top of the head would be in the same line as the back, making the top of the head also dorsal. In humans, we hold our head differently when we stand upright; however, the same anatomical terms are used. Therefore, the top of our head is dorsal.

181. The autonomic nervous system consists of neurons that receive information from and send commands to the heart, intestines, and other organs. Its two parts are the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. The sympathetic nervous system, a network of nerves that prepare the organs for vigorous activity, consists of chains of ganglia just to the left and right of the spinal cord’s central regions (the thoracic and lumbar areas). These ganglia are connected by axons to the spinal cord. Sympathetic axons prepare the organs for “fight or flight”— increasing breathing and heart rate and decreasing digestive activity. Because the sympathetic ganglia are closely linked, they often act as a single system “in sympathy” with one another, although an event may activate some parts more than others.

The parasympathetic nervous system facilitates vegetative, nonemergency responses. The term “para” means “beside” or “related to,” and parasympathetic activities are related to, and generally the opposite of, sympathetic activities. For example, the sympathetic nervous system increases heart rate, but the parasympathetic nervous system decreases it. The parasympathetic nervous system increases digestive activity, whereas the sympathetic nervous system decreases it. The parasympathetic system also promotes sexual arousal, including erection in males. Although the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems produce contrary effects, both are constantly active to varying degrees, and many stimuli arouse parts of both systems.

182. The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for the onset of sexual arousal. Being nervous stimulates the sympathetic nervous system and inhibits the parasympathetic nervous system.

183. The default network consists of the temporoparietal junction and several parts of the prefrontal cortex. It dominates brain activity when you don’t need to concentrate on any immediate problem. They are active when you daydream, think about your past, imagine your future, or try to understand other people’s words and actions.

184. The binding problem is the question of how you combine visual, auditory, and touch experiences to perceive something as a single object. For example, if you play a piano, you perceive the sound as coming from the keys that you see and touch. This theoretical issue arises because visual, auditory, and touch information project to different areas of the cortex, and do not funnel into a single central area.

185. 1. Examine the effects of brain damage. After damage or temporary inactivation, what aspects of behavior are impaired?

2. Examine the effects of stimulating a brain area. Ideally, if damaging some area impairs a behavior, stimulating that area should enhance the behavior.

3. Record brain activity during behavior. We might record changes in brain activity during fighting, sleeping, finding food, solving a problem, or any other behavior.

4. Correlate brain anatomy with behavior. Do people with some unusual behavior also have unusual brains? If so, in what way?

186. EEG and MEG provide excellent temporal resolution of activity in the cortex, but only approximate resolution of the location. Also, they are suitable for recording activity near the surface of the brain, not anything in deeper layers. PET and fMRI provide excellent resolution of location, but relatively poor resolution about timing. Also, their results require averaging over many trials or over many people, and they do not provide reliable information about a given individual.

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03_Anatomy_and_Research_Methods

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What are enzymes? a. Chemicals that regulate the expression of genes b. Combinations of DNA bases that code the order of RNA bases c. Combinations of RNA bases that code the order of proteins d. Proteins that regulate chemical reactions in the bo 2. What does it mean to be “homozygous” for a gene? a. Having the gene on the X chromosome b. Having the gene on the Y chromosome c. Having the same gene on both chromosomes d. Having different genes on the two chromosomes 3. What does it mean to be “heterozygous” for a gene? a. Having the gene on the X chromosome b. Having the gene on the Y chromosome c. Having the same gene on both chromosomes d. Having different genes on the two chromosomes 4. If your body clearly shows the effect of a heterozygous gene, what do we know about that gene? a. It is recessive. b. It is dominant. c. It is on the X chromosome. d. It is on the Y chromosome.

5. If you have high sensitivity to tasting PTC and your mother also tastes it easily, what if anything can we predict about your father’s ability to taste it? a. Your father tastes it easily. b. Your father does not taste it easily. c. Your father has an intermediate ability to taste it. d. We can make no prediction.

6. If you have high sensitivity to tasting PTC and your mother does not taste it easily, what if anything can we predict about your father’s ability to taste it? a. Your father tastes it easily. b. Your father does not taste it easily. c. Your father has an intermediate ability to taste it. d. We can make no prediction.

7. Suppose “T” is a dominant gene for the ability to taste phenylthiocarbamide (PTC) and “t” is a recessive gene for the inability to taste it. Which couples could possibly have both a child who tastes it and a child who does not? a. Father TT, mother tt b. Father Tt, mother TT c. Father Tt, mother Tt Powered by Cognero

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity d. Father tt, mother tt 8. What is an autosomal gene? a. A gene on either the X or Y chromosome b. A gene on anything other than the X or Y chromosome c. A gene that is activated in a particular cell d. A gene that is inactivated in a particular cell 9. What happens if a recessive gene is on the X chromosome? a. It will show its effects only in men. b. It will show its effects more often in men. c. It will show its effects only in women. d. It will show its effects more often in women.

10. Why is red-green color deficiency more common in men than in women? a. It depends on a dominant gene on the X chromosome. b. It depends on a recessive gene on the X chromosome. c. It depends on a dominant gene on the Y chromosome. d. It depends on a recessive gene on the Y chromosome.

11. If a man has red-green color deficiency, what can we infer about his parents? a. His father also has red-green color deficiency. b. His mother also has red-green color deficiency. c. His mother has a recessive gene for red-green color deficiency. d. Both of his parents have a recessive gene for red-green color deficiency.

12. If a woman has red-green color deficiency, what can we infer about her parents? a. Her mother also has red-green color deficiency. b. Her father has a dominant gene for red-green color deficiency. c. Both of her parents have a dominant gene for red-green color deficiency. d. Both of her parents have a recessive gene for red-green color deficiency.

13. Sex-limited genes are: a. present in both sexes but active mainly in one sex. b. present only in males. c. present only in females. d. present in both sexes and active in both sexes.

14. What is meant by a “sex-limited” gene? a. A gene that becomes active during sexual behavior b. A gene that is activated by sex hormones c. A gene on the X chromosome d. A gene on either the X or Y chromosome

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity 15. A gene controls how much chest hair a man develops. Women have the same gene but do not develop chest hair. What type of gene is this? a. An X-linked dominant gene b. An X-linked recessive gene c. A sex-limited gene d. A Y-linked gene 16. What is one reason why “identical” twins might have genetic differences? a. Either of the parents might have recessive genes. b. Genes can change through Lamarckian evolution. c. Mutations can occur whenever a cell divides. d. They might have different fathers.

17. In genetics, what is meant by a “microdeletion”? a. Removal of a gene from some cells and not others b. Loss of part of a protein c. Loss of part of a chromosome d. Temporary inactivation of a gene 18. What does a “microdeletion” remove? a. Part of a chromosome b. Part of a neuron c. Part of a protein d. Part of a brain wave 19. Proteins called histones bind DNA into a shape that is like: a. a straight line. b. an X chromosome. c. a Y chromosome. d. string wound around balls.

20. What does an epigenetic change do? a. It increases or decreases the expression of a gene. b. It changes the frequency of a gene in the entire population. c. It duplicates or deletes part of a chromosome. d. It increases or decreases the probability of a mutation.

21. A DNA molecule is like a string wound around which of the following? a. Another string b. A box c. A triangle d. A ball 22. What happens when an acetyl group attaches to a histone on a DNA molecule? a. Increased probability of a microduplication Powered by Cognero

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity b. Increased rate of mitosis c. Increased expression of a gene d. Increased probability of a mutation 23. How does a mutation differ from an epigenetic change? a. A mutation is temporary. b. A mutation changes a chromosome’s structure. c. A mutation occurs after birth. d. A change in the environment causes a mutation.

24. Heritability ranges from what to what? a. 0 to 1 b. −1 to +1 c. 1 to 100 d. −100 to +100 25. Most estimates of heritability are based on comparisons of what? a. Cultures b. Neurons c. Twins d. Molecules 26. Twins who are “from two eggs” are called what? a. Dizygotic b. Monozygotic c. Virtual d. Conjoined 27. Which of the following is true of monozygotic twins? a. They originate from a single fertilized egg. b. They are as closely related to each other as brother and sister. c. They grew up in the same environment, without genetic similarity. d. They grew up in separate environments.

28. Based on twin studies and adoption studies, researchers have found evidence for significant heritability of almost every behavior they have tested except: a. religious affiliation. b. sleep. c. speed of learning a second language. d. television watching.

29. What happens in a genome-wide association study? a. Researchers compare all the chromosomes of two groups of people b. Researchers test a hypothesis about a gene believed to be important.

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity c. Researchers modify a gene to determine its effects. d. Researchers compare the levels of activity of one gene in different cells.

30. Why is it important to study a large population of people in a genome-wide association study? a. A small sample would have a risk of an accidental finding. b. The researchers are looking for instances of a rare gene. c. Laws require researchers to use a representative sample of all ethnic groups. d. Many genes have different effects depending on people’s ages.

31. Why does a genome-wide association study have the risk of an accidental finding? a. It publishes data before they have been peer-reviewed. b. It deals with a nonrepresentative sample of the population. c. It relies on inaccurate measurements. d. It tests many hypotheses at once.

32. Why might the heritability of athletic ability vary from one human population to another? a. Heritability depends on the size of the population. b. The number of chromosomes might differ. c. The amount of environmental variation might differ. d. Some people are more athletic than others.

33. If we provided every child with an equally good environment, what would happen to the estimates of heritability? a. They would increase. b. They would decrease. c. They would increase for some behaviors and decrease for others. d. They would remain unchanged.

34. For humans, is the heritability of having two arms high or low, and why? a. It is high, because genes control the number of arms. b. It is high, because people in all cultures have two arms. c. It is low, because differences among people result from injuries. d. It is low, because no genes influence body development.

35. What we know about phenylketonuria (PKU) illustrates what point about genetics? a. An environmental intervention can modify a highly heritable trait. b. A change in the environment induces a change in the genes. c. Sex-linked genes exert effects on one sex more than the other. d. Nearly all traits depend on the influences of many genes.

36. If an infant has the genes causing phenylketonuria (PKU), what is the procedure for preventing or reducing the harm? a. Use CRISPR to alter the genes. b. Obtain special education. c. Follow a careful diet. d. Take medications that control serotonin synapses.

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity 37. What causes a gene to become more common from one generation to the next? a. Individuals with that gene survived better than average. b. Individuals with that gene reproduced more than average. c. Individuals with that gene were unusual in some way. d. Individuals with that gene contributed more to the welfare of their group.

38. What did Lamarckian evolution assume? a. Deterioration of the human genome in recent times b. Inheritance of acquired characteristics c. Survival of the fittest d. Sudden changes from one generation to the next 39. Biologists measure evolutionary “fitness” in terms of what? a. Economic success b. Health c. Reproduction d. Survival 40. Which of the following do evolutionary psychologists assume? a. Intelligence will continue to improve in later generations. b. People who actively use some ability will have children who are even better at it. c. A behavior characteristic of a species must have provided advantages. d. Evolution leads to longer and longer lifespans.

41. What do goosebumps and the infant grasp reflex have in common? a. They increase people’s chance for survival and reproduction. b. They provided advantages to our ancestors. c. They depend on similar activity by the parasympathetic nervous system. d. They are indicators of stress.

42. When, if ever, would the infant grasp reflex reappear in adults? a. When people are calmly meditating b. When people are highly motivated or strongly stimulated c. When the frontal cortex is damaged or inhibited d. When people think about their childhood 43. Why is altruistic behavior a theoretical challenge for evolutionary psychologists to explain? a. The behavior helps other people spread their genes. b. Altruism is more common in humans than in other species. c. The frequency of altruism varies from one culture to another. d. A gene for altruism has been difficult to locate.

44. Of the following, which is the most reasonable explanation of how altruistic behavior could evolve? a. Lack of selection against a gene that produces little cost Powered by Cognero

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity b. Selection for a gene that benefits the species c. Selection for a gene that might be useful in the future d. Selection for a gene that helps one’s relatives 45. What is meant by “kin selection” as an explanation for altruistic behavior? a. Individuals help others who have been helpful in the past. b. Individuals spread their own genes by helping their relatives. c. Individuals who help others provide benefits to the whole species. d. Individuals tend to select mates who are altruistic.

46. Reciprocal altruism can arise only under which of the following conditions? a. Food sources are abundant and varied. b. Individuals can recognize one another. c. Long-term memory fades over time. d. The population has at least as many females as males.

47. What do evolutionary theorists mean by “group selection”? a. Altruistic groups thrive better than uncooperative ones. b. Larger populations thrive better than smaller ones. c. Individuals that join a group thrive better than those that live alone. d. Groups select which members can join them.

48. Which of the following do the “homeobox” genes do? a. They control the rate of metabolism. b. They determine the size of the cerebral cortex. c. They determine whether an individual is male or female. d. They control the start of anatomical development.

49. During human embryological development, which of these happens first? a. Vision b. Hearing c. Movement d. Pain 50. During human embryological development, what drives the first movements? a. Responses to sounds b. Responses to touch c. Spontaneous activity in the spinal cord d. Imitation of the mother’s movements 51. Of the following brain areas, which takes the longest to become mature? a. The primary visual cortex b. The primary auditory cortex c. The prefrontal cortex Powered by Cognero

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity d. The spinal cord 52. Which of these is an important difference between human and chimpanzee brains? a. Human brains use a wider variety of neurotransmitters. b. The axons of human neurons conduct at a more rapid velocity. c. The human cerebral cortex includes more lobes. d. Human neurons continue proliferating longer in early development.

53. Which of these processes in the development of neurons continues throughout life? a. Proliferation b. Migration c. Differentiation d. Synaptogenesis 54. How long does myelination continue in humans? a. During the second trimester of pregnancy b. Until shortly after birth c. Until adolescence d. For decades 55. Myelination continues gradually and is modified by certain types of _____. a. exercise b. drug use c. diet d. learning 56. Which of these, if any, is completed during early development? a. Synaptogenesis b. Migration c. Myelination d. All three continue throughout life.

57. Which of these types of neurons continue to form throughout life in vertebrates? a. Motor neurons b. Auditory receptors c. Visual receptors d. Olfactory receptors 58. In what way do olfactory receptors differ from other sensory receptors? a. They send their output to the spinal cord instead of the brain. b. They continue to form throughout life. c. They have two axons instead of just one. d. They form electrical synapses in the brain.

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity 59. Do any new neurons form in any adult mammals? a. No. b. Yes, in the cerebral cortex. c. Yes, olfactory receptors. d. Yes, in all parts of the brain.

60. What did researchers measure when they demonstrated that no new neurons form in the cerebral cortex? a. The carbon-14 concentration in DNA b. The amount of oxygen attached to hemoglobin c. The concentration of radioactively labeled glucose d. The velocity of action potentials 61. When researchers measured the carbon-14 concentration in the DNA of cortical neurons, what conclusion did the results support? a. A varied diet promotes good metabolism in the cortex. b. Blood flow to the brain varies from one time of day to another. c. The cortex forms no new neurons after the year of birth. d. New neurons continue forming in the cortex throughout life.

62. New neurons form in which area of adult rodents, though possibly not in humans? a. Medulla b. Spinal cord c. Cerebral cortex d. Hippocampus 63. If someone grafts an extra limb onto a salamander, the extra leg moved in synchrony with the limb next to it. Why? a. Axons grow into the limb and find the right muscle. b. Each muscle responds only to the messages “tuned” to it. c. The salamander learns to use its muscles appropriately. d. The old and new limbs attach to each other.

64. What was Sperry’s evidence that axons grow to a specific target instead of attaching at random? a. He measured the velocity of a reflex and compared it to the velocity of an action potential. b. Transferring fluid from one frog’s heart to another changed the heart rate of the second heart. c. If he cut connections to a newt’s eye and inverted the eye, axons grew to their original targets. d. Newts with larger eyes had more axons from the eyes to the brain.

65. When Sperry cut connections to a newt’s eye and inverted the eye, the newt responded as if it saw the world upsidedown. What conclusion did he draw? a. Neurons grow to a specific target, following a chemical trail. b. Inverting the eye caused the brain to reorganize. c. Each neuron responds only to the signals to which it is tuned. d. Newts learn the relationship between what they see and what they do.

66. How does a growing axon find its target?

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity a. By electrical attraction b. By magnetic attraction c. By a chemical path d. At random 67. What is meant by “neural Darwinism”? a. The most successful neurons and synapses survive. b. Neurons keep improving from one generation to the next. c. Human neurons are similar to monkey neurons. d. All neurons feed their input to a central processor.

68. When waves of spontaneous activity sweep across the retina in early development, what is the result? a. Each retinal receptor forms an excitatory synapse with its neighbors. b. Each retinal receptor forms an inhibitory synapse with its neighbors. c. Each thalamic neuron attaches to one and only one axon from the retina. d. Each thalamic neuron finds axons from adjacent areas of the retina.

69. During early development, spontaneous waves of activity sweep across the retina. What would happen if something prevented these waves? a. More excitatory synapses than inhibitory synapses would form within the retina. b. More inhibitory synapses than excitatory synapses would form within the retina. c. Thalamic visual neurons would fail to connect to appropriate input. d. Visual connections would not develop across the corpus callosum.

70. Rita Levi-Montalcini made which of the following discoveries? a. Waves of retinal activity in early development help thalamic neurons connect properly. b. Neurons communicate at synapses by releasing chemicals. c. Sympathetic axons die if they do not form an attachment to a muscle. d. Axons find their targets by following a chemical trail.

71. What does nerve growth factor prevent? a. Far transfer b. Diaschisis c. Apoptosis d. Proliferation 72. What does apoptosis cause? a. Diaschisis b. Cell death c. Nerve growth factor d. Synaptogenesis 73. The sympathetic nervous system has enough axons to supply all the relevant muscles, with no axons left over. Why? a. Muscles send a message to the sympathetic ganglia telling how many axons to make.

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity b. Sympathetic ganglia make many axons, but those without connections die. c. Same genes control the sympathetic nervous system and the muscles. d. In early development, a stem cell divides into a neuron and a muscle cell.

74. What would happen if something prevented apoptosis? a. The corpus callosum would not develop. b. Neurons would form synapses with random partners. c. More neurons would survive. d. Axons would conduct impulses more slowly.

75. What do neurotrophins do? a. They develop into mature neurons. b. They cause apoptosis. c. They promote neuron survival and activity. d. They remove dead tissue from the brain.

76. Which of the following prevents apoptosis? a. Phenylalanine b. Acetylcholinesterase c. Neurotrophins d. Immunoglobulins 77. At what age does a person have the greatest number of neurons? a. During early development b. During adolescence c. During older ages d. Equally at all times of life 78. Which of the following is one reason why prenatal alcohol kills neurons? a. Alcohol blocks sodium gates in the axon. b. Decreased synaptic excitation increases apoptosis. c. Neurotrophins dissolve in alcohol. d. Alcohol mimics the effects of glutamate at synapses.

79. Which of the following is one of the explanations for fetal alcohol syndrome? a. Homeobox b. Diaschisis c. Apoptosis d. Synaptogenesis 80. If experimenters transfer a neuron form one part of the developing cortex to a different part, what happens? a. It fails to develop, and it dies. b. It retains the properties typical of its original area. c. It develops some properties typical of the new area.

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity d. It migrates back to its original area.

81. Researchers arranged for the optic nerve of a ferret to attach to what is ordinarily the auditory area of the thalamus.

What happened? a. The ferret reacted to lights as if it were hearing something. b. The synapses from the optic nerve to the thalamus became inactive. c. The auditory thalamus and cortex reorganized as visual areas. d. The ferret developed psychotic behaviors.

82. Which of these aspects of a neuron has the highest probability of changing over time? a. The shape of its dendrites b. The neurotransmitters it releases c. Its threshold for producing an action potential d. Its color 83. Which of the following is as beneficial for brain functioning in humans as in laboratory animals? a. Daily consumption of alcohol b. Living at high altitudes c. Physical exercise d. A vegetarian diet 84. Studying something difficult to try to boost overall intelligence is an effort to produce which of the following? a. Synesthesia b. Far transfer c. Neuronal proliferation d. Diaschisis 85. Which of the following (if true) would be an example of “far transfer”? a. Neurons of the visual and auditory systems ordinarily synchronize their activities. b. Neurons that release GABA as their transmitter send their axons to more distant targets. c. Doing Sudoku puzzles helps older people remember their appointments. d. Some people can communicate with others by mental telepathy.

86. Do persons who are blind develop greater touch sensitivity? If so, where? a. Yes, on all parts of the body. b. Yes, on the right half of the body. c. Yes, on the fingers. d. No, not at all.

87. Is the brain of persons who are blind different from average in any way? If so, how? a. Yes, the occipital cortex becomes responsive to touch. b. Yes, the occipital cortex becomes inactive and shrinks. c. Yes, the corpus callosum becomes larger. d. No, no changes are demonstrable.

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity 88. Would temporarily inactivating the occipital cortex interfere with the sense of touch? If so, for whom? a. Yes, for almost anyone. b. Yes, for persons who are blind. c. Yes, for children. d. No, for no one.

89. What happens to the auditory cortex in people with hearing loss? a. It becomes inactive and shrinks. b. It becomes responsive to vision. c. It produces auditory hallucinations. d. It becomes part of the motor control system.

90. How does the brain change, if at all, in people who have practiced violin or similar instruments for many years? a. Neurons throughout the brain produce action potentials at more regular rhythms. b. A larger part of the cortex represents the fingers of the left hand. c. Neurons in the auditory cortex increase the velocity of their action potentials. d. No change is demonstrable.

91. Why does the somatosensory cortex of stringed-instrument players show changes in the right hemisphere and not in the left hemisphere? a. Players finger the strings with the left hand. b. The left hemisphere is specialized for language. c. The right hemisphere has a greater concentration of BDNF. d. The auditory cortex is larger in the right hemisphere.

92. What causes focal hand dystonia (“musician’s cramp”)? a. A change in how the brain represents the fingers b. A change in connections across the corpus callosum c. A change in the ligaments between muscles of the fingers d. A change in the ratio of excitatory to inhibitory neurotransmission 93. Focal hand dystonia (“musician’s cramp”) sometimes occurs under which of these conditions? a. Stimulant drugs overstimulate the motor cortex. b. Ligaments bind together the finger muscles of the left hand. c. Stressful experiences cause someone to develop tremors all over the body. d. The brain’s representation of each finger overlaps that of other fingers.

94. Focal hand dystonia based on a combination of extensive practice, anxiety, and what? a. Stimulant drugs b. Changes in environmental temperatures c. Diet d. Genetic predisposition 95. Adolescents tend to be more impulsive than adults. Why is immaturity of the prefrontal cortex unlikely to be the main explanation?

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity a. Adolescents are more impulsive in laboratory tests than in everyday life. b. Risky behavior increases throughout the teenage years. c. The prefrontal cortex inhibits only a few types of impulsive behavior. d. The prefrontal cortex is nearly mature by age 14.

96. How does risky behavior change as a function of age? a. It is nearly constant as a function of age. b. It reaches its peak at about age 40. c. It gradually decreases during the teenage years. d. It increases during the teenage years.

97. What is apparently the main reason for increased risky behavior in adolescents? a. A genetic mutation b. Gradual maturation of the prefrontal cortex c. Impaired functioning of anxiety responses in the amygdala d. The brain’s increased response to anticipated rewards 98. Which people who are older are most likely to retain their cognitive abilities? a. Those who live in a cool, rainy climate. b. Those who take early retirement. c. Those who remain physically active. d. Those who follow a vegetarian diet.

99. Why are reports of declining intellect in older ages somewhat misleading? a. The tests require people to remember events from long ago. b. The tests require people to remember current events. c. Most research studies included only small numbers of participants. d. The averages include people in the early stages of disorders.

100. What is the most common cause of brain damage in young people? a. Brain cancer b. Stroke c. Closed head injury d. Parkinson’s disease 101. If you see you are about to be in a crash, what should you do to protect your brain? a. Slowly turn your head from side to side. b. Close your eyes and cover your ears. c. Meditate. d. Tuck your chin and tighten your neck muscles.

102. What is ischemia? a. Accumulation of fluid b. Decreased activity of a neuron because of damage to other neurons Powered by Cognero

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity c. A blood clot that causes a stroke d. A ruptured artery that causes a stroke 103. What is hemorrhage? a. Accumulation of fluid b. Decreased activity of a neuron because of damage to other neurons c. A blood clot that causes a stroke d. A ruptured artery that causes a stroke 104. Which of the following is responsible for death of neurons during a stroke? a. Lower temperature b. Dehydration c. Excessive inhibition by GABA d. Overstimulation by glutamate 105. How does tPA (tissue plasminogen activator) protect the brain after an ischemic attack? a. By stimulating glutamate synapses b. By increasing brain temperature c. By repairing burst blood vessels d. By breaking up blood clots 106. Which types of chemicals minimize the damage from strokes, at least in laboratory animals? a. Antioxidants b. Cannabinoids c. Antibiotics d. Decongestants 107. What is diaschisis? a. Accumulation of fluid b. Decreased activity of a neuron because of damage to other neurons c. A blood clot that causes a stroke d. A ruptured artery that causes a stroke 108. What chemical can aid recovery from diaschisis? a. Amphetamine b. tPA (tissue plasminogen activator) c. Cannabidiol d. Alcohol 109. Do damaged axons grow back in mammals? a. Yes, regardless of the location. b. Yes, but only in the peripheral nervous system. c. Yes, but only in the cerebellum. d. No. Powered by Cognero

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity 110. In which animals, if any, do damaged axons in the spinal cord grow back? a. Elephants b. Rodents c. Fish d. None 111. Where do collateral sprouts form? a. In dendritic receptors b. In axons c. In microglia d. In mitochondria 112. Where does denervation supersensitivity occur? a. In dendritic receptors b. In axons c. In microglia d. In mitochondria 113. What is the similarity between musician’s cramp and the phantom limb? a. Both are caused by spontaneous activity of touch receptors. b. Both are caused by excessive activity at GABA synapses. c. Both are caused by brain reorganization. d. Both are caused by diaschisis.

114. After a finger is amputated, what happens to the cortical neurons that had responded to that finger? a. They become inactive and die. b. They become inactive but remain alive. c. They convert into astrocytes. d. They respond to neighboring fingers.

115. After an arm is amputated, what might happen to the cortical neurons that had responded to the arm? a. They might respond to stimulation of the face. b. They might respond to stimulation of the other arm. c. They might respond only during dreams. d. They might degenerate and die.

116. Suppose an arm is amputated, and the cortical neurons previously responsive to it start responding to face stimulation. When they are stimulated, what does it feel like? a. It feels like face stimulation. b. It feels like arm stimulation. c. It feels like neck stimulation. d. It feels like something impossible to describe.

117. Investigators recorded the details from the cerebral cortices of monkeys whose sensory nerves from one forelimb had been cut 12 years previously. They found that the stretch of cortex previously responsive to that limb was now responsive Powered by Cognero

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity to what? a. The torso b. The opposite leg c. The opposite arm d. The face 118. Suppose a patient uses only the right arm following injury that blocked sensation from the left arm. Of the following, which is most likely to encourage use of the left arm? a. Tie the right arm behind the person’s back. b. Blindfold the person. c. Decrease visual sensation on the right side of the body. d. Electrically stimulate the left arm.

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

119. A recessive gene shows its effects only in people who are homozygous for the gene. a. True b. False 120. Sex-limited genes are on the X or Y chromosome. a. True b. False 121. Genetic mutations occur only at the time of conception. a. True b. False 122. One example of an epigenetic effect is the fact that many genes increase their activity at puberty. a. True b. False 123. Histones bind DNA into a ball-like shape. a. True b. False 124. Researchers measure heritability by examining the chromosomes. a. True b. False 125. The heritability of any trait varies from one population to another. a. True b. False 126. A genome-wide association study has a serious risk of an accidental finding. a. True Powered by Cognero

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity b. False 127. A careful diet can modify the effect of some genes. a. True b. False 128. Because people do not use their little toes, the toes will shrink in future generations. a. True b. False 129. Because of modern medicine, humans have stopped evolving. a. True b. False 130. A gene spreads in the population only if individuals with that gene reproduce more than individuals without it. a. True b. False 131. Homeobox genes are virtually the same in all species, even plants. a. True b. False 132. Synaptogenesis and myelination continue to occur long after birth. a. True b. False 133. New neurons can form in the adult human cerebral cortex. a. True b. False 134. An axon finds its target by following a chemical trail. a. True b. False 135. When Sperry cut the optic nerve of newts, axons grew back to their original target. a. True b. False 136. Muscles send chemical messages to tell the nervous system how many axons to produce. a. True b. False 137. During early development, any axon that does not find a target cell will self-destruct. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity 138. During early development, alcohol kills neurons partly by apoptosis. a. True b. False 139. When the two main targets for the optic nerves of ferrets were damaged, the optic nerves attached to what is usually the auditory area of the thalamus. a. True b. False 140. After early development, the shape of a dendrite remains the same throughout the life. a. True b. False 141. Using a running wheel improves neural plasticity and learning, even for rodents in social isolation. a. True b. False 142. Practicing crossword puzzles or Sudoku puzzles helps older people improve their overall cognition. a. True b. False 143. Persons who are blind have increased touch sensitivity on the face as well as the hands. a. True b. False 144. Prolonged music practice produces measurable changes in the brain. a. True b. False 145. Musician’s cramp can be corrected by hand surgery. a. True b. False 146. The main reason for increased risk-taking in adolescence is the immaturity of the prefrontal cortex. a. True b. False 147. Physical exercise improves brain functioning in older ages. a. True b. False 148. Early intervention with the drug tPA can reduce the effect of an ischemic stroke, but not a hemorrhagic stroke. a. True b. False 149. A longitudinal study of adults over age 65 considered separately the results for those who did or did not have Powered by Cognero

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity elevated levels of chemical markers associated with Alzheimer’s disease. The people with those markers showed significantly lesser memory declines over time. a. True b. False 150. A chemical in marijuana can reduce the damage caused by a stroke. a. True b. False 151. A part of the behavioral loss after a stroke is caused by the decreased input to undamaged parts of the brain. a. True b. False 152. Spinal cord axons grow back after they are damaged in fish. a. True b. False 153. A phantom limb is caused by irritation at the stump where a limb was amputated. a. True b. False

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

154. Someone who has two copies of the same gene is ____________________ for that gene.

155. The chromosomes other than the X and Y chromosome are called ____________________ chromosomes.

156. An autosomal gene that is more active in one sex than in the other is called ____________________.

157. The field that deals with changes in the expression of genes is ____________________.

158. Twins who developed from a single egg, popularly called “identical” twins, are better described as ____________________.

159. The intellectual impairment that would otherwise result from PKU can be minimized by a diet low in ____________________.

160. Evolutionary theorists define fitness as ____________________.

161. Cells that continue to divide after others have differentiated are called ____________________ cells.

162. The area in which new neurons continue to form is the ____________________.

163. A neuron whose axon fails to connect to an appropriate target kills itself in a process called ____________________.

164. A chemical that promotes the survival and activity of neurons (preventing apoptosis) is called ____________________.

165. If training on one task produces improvement on unrelated tasks, the result is ____________________ transfer.

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity 166. “Musician’s cramp” is more formally known as ____________________.

167. Adolescents seek excitement, especially when they are trying to impress their ____________________.

168. The type of stroke caused by a blood clot or other obstruction in an artery is called ____________________.

169. A stroke caused by a ruptured artery is a ____________________.

170. The drug tPA is an abbreviation for ____________________.

171. Decreased activity of surviving neurons because of damage to other neurons is ____________________.

172. New branches of an axon are ____________________ sprouts.

173. Enhanced responses of synapses because of decreased input to a neuron’s other synapses is ____________________ supersensitivity.

174. Continuing sensation of an amputated body part is a ____________________.

175. How do sex-linked genes differ from sex-limited genes?

176. What is heritability, and how do researchers ordinarily measure it in humans?

177. When conducting a genome-wide association study, why is it important to study a large population?

178. What does the information about PKU (phenylketonuria) tell us about the relationship between heredity and environment?

179. Under what circumstances might evolution favor a gene promoting altruistic behavior?

180. What causes the first muscle movements in a developing embryo?

181. How did researchers demonstrate that no new neurons form in the adult mammalian cortex?

182. How did Roger Sperry demonstrate that axons find their target by following a chemical path?

183. What causes the sympathetic ganglia to have just enough axons to innervate all the appropriate muscles and organs, with no axons left over?

184. What would happen if someone injected antibodies against nerve growth factor into a developing nervous system?

185. How does apoptosis relate to fetal alcohol syndrome?

186. When researchers arranged for the optic nerve of a ferret to innervate the auditory portion of the thalamus instead of its usual site (on one side of the brain), what happened?

187. How does blindness affect the sense of touch?

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity 188. Researchers reported brain differences between musicians and non-musicians. Before concluding that music practice alters the brain, why was it important to do a longitudinal study of people practicing music?

189. What causes focal hand dystonia (“musician’s cramp”)?

190. What is the best explanation for increased risk-taking in adolescents?

191. Why is tPA (tissue plasminogen activator) helpful for ischemic strokes and not for hemorrhagic strokes?

192. Drugs that block dopamine synapses tend to impair or slow limb movements. However, some people who have taken such drugs for a long time experience involuntary muscle twitches or tremors. Propose a possible explanation.

193. What causes a phantom limb?

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity Answer Key 1. d 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. d 6. a 7. c 8. b 9. b 10. b 11. c 12. d 13. a 14. b 15. c 16. c 17. c 18. a 19. d 20. a 21. d 22. c 23. b 24. a 25. c Powered by Cognero

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity 26. a 27. a 28. a 29. a 30. a 31. d 32. c 33. a 34. c 35. a 36. c 37. b 38. b 39. c 40. c 41. b 42. c 43. a 44. d 45. b 46. b 47. a 48. d 49. c 50. c 51. c Powered by Cognero

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity 52. d 53. d 54. d 55. d 56. b 57. d 58. b 59. c 60. a 61. c 62. d 63. a 64. c 65. a 66. c 67. a 68. d 69. c 70. c 71. c 72. b 73. b 74. c 75. c 76. c Powered by Cognero

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity 77. a 78. b 79. c 80. c 81. c 82. a 83. c 84. b 85. c 86. c 87. a 88. b 89. b 90. b 91. a 92. a 93. d 94. d 95. b 96. d 97. d 98. c 99. d 100. c 101. d 102. c Powered by Cognero

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity 103. d 104. d 105. d 106. b 107. b 108. a 109. b 110. c 111. b 112. a 113. c 114. d 115. a 116. b 117. d 118. a 119. True 120. False 121. False 122. True 123. True 124. False 125. True 126. True 127. True Powered by Cognero

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity 128. False 129. False 130. True 131. True 132. True 133. False 134. True 135. True 136. False 137. True 138. True 139. True 140. False 141. True 142. False 143. False 144. True 145. False 146. False 147. True 148. True 149. False 150. True 151. True 152. True 153. False Powered by Cognero

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity 154. homozygous 155. autosomal 156. sex-limited 157. epigenetics 158. monozygotic 159. phenylalanine 160. the number of copies of one’s genes that endure in later generations.

161. stem 162. nose 163. apoptosis 164. neurotrophin 165. far 166. focal hand dystonia 167. peers 168. ischemia 169. hemorrhage 170. tissue plasminogen activator 171. diaschisis 172. collateral 173. denervation receptor 174. phantom limb 175. Sex-linked genes are on the X or (less commonly) the Y chromosome.

Only males have the Y chromosome genes. A recessive gene on the X chromosome is more likely to be evident in males, because a female would have to have that gene on both chromosomes to show its effects. A sex-limited gene is on one of the autosomal chromosomes, and therefore equally present in both males and females, but it is activated by hormones mainly or exclusively in one or the other.

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity 176. Heritability, which varies from zero to one, is an estimate of how much of the variance of some characteristic within a population depends on genetic differences. Researchers compare monozygotic twins to dizygotic twins. If monozygotic twins resemble each other more than dizygotic twins do, the characteristic has positive heritability. The greater the difference in similarity between monozygotic and dizygotic twins, the greater the heritability.

177. A genome-wide association study compares all the chromosomes, and all the genes, for two or more groups of people. Because it is testing a huge number of hypotheses (one for each gene), it has a high risk of reporting an accidental difference, unless the researchers use an unusually high standard for statistical significance. To achieve such a high level, they need a large sample.

178. A change in the environment—in this case, a special diet—can greatly modify the effects of a gene.Thus, to say that something has high heritability does not mean that the environment cannot alter it.

179. The easiest case is kin selection. Altruistic behavior toward your relatives helps spread your genes, because they share some of them, possibly including the hypothetical gene favoring altruism. A second possibility is reciprocal altruism, a tendency to help others who might help you in return. Reciprocal altruism requires an ability to recognize other individuals. A third, somewhat controversial possibility is group selection, a tendency for cooperative groups to thrive better than uncooperative ones. That possibility works best if the cooperative individuals can punish or expel uncooperative ones.

180. The fluid-filled cavity within the neural tube becomes the central canal of the spinal cord and the four ventricles of the brain, containing the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). The first muscle movements start at age 7½ weeks, driven by spontaneous activity in the spinal cord, while the sensory organs are not yet functional. That is, contrary to what we might guess, movements start before sensations.

181. The concentration of carbon-14 in the atmosphere increased during the era when countries were testing nuclear bombs in the atmosphere. That era ended with the Test Ban Treaty of 1963. Since then the concentration of carbon-14 has gradually decreased. DNA has the carbon-14 concentration that was present during the year of its formation. Researchers found that the DNA of neurons in the cerebral cortex has the carbon-14 concentration present when the person was born.

Therefore, no new neurons had formed there since then.

182. Sperry cut the optic nerves of newts, a species in which those nerves can grow back. He then inverted the eyes. After the nerves had grown back to a newt’s brain, the newt reacted to sights on the left as if they had come from the right, and sights below as if they had come from above. Sperry concluded that the axons had grown back to their original targets, not to the targets appropriate for the eye’s current position.

183. Early in development, the sympathetic ganglia produce far more neurons than necessary. Those neurons extend axons toward possible targets. Those that find an appropriate target receive from the target cell nerve growthfactor, which is a type of neurotrophin. If an axon fails to receive nerve growth factor, it and its neuron undergo apoptosis, meaning programmed cell death.

184. All axons from the sympathetic ganglia to the muscles and organs would self-destruct via apoptosis.

185. Alcohol facilitates inhibitory (GABA) synapses and decreases activity at excitatory (glutamate) synapses.Therefore, alcohol decreases total excitation. During early development, many neurons that fail to get enough stimulation undergo apoptosis (programmed cell death). Therefore, the result of much alcohol in the blood is the death of some neurons that otherwise would have survived.

186. The optic nerve made effective synapses and what would have been the auditory thalamus partly reorganized to become a partly normal visual cortex. The ferrets had been taught (on the other side of the brain) to turn one direction when they saw something and the other direction when they heard something. When the reconnected side of the brain was Powered by Cognero

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04_Genetics_Development_and_Plasticity exposed to a visual stimulus, the ferret turned in the direction indicating that it saw something.

187. Blind people show greater sensitivity to touch on the fingers (to which they pay much attention), but no greater sensitivity to touch on the lips. The occipital cortex, usually devoted to visual information, responds to touch information.

188. Evidence that musicians’ brains differ from those of other people could mean that practice changes the brain, or it could mean that people with a certain type of brain anatomy are more likely than others to become musicians. A longitudinal study showing gradual changes as people practiced music resolves the question.

189. Prolonged practice of piano or a stringed instrument causes expanded representations of the fingers in the brain. For some musicians,the result is overlapping representation of fingers in either the somatosensory cortex or the motor cortex.

As a result, it is difficult to feel one finger separately from another, or difficult to move one finger separately from another.

190. Although the prefrontal cortex is not fully mature in adolescents, its immaturity is not the primary reason for risky behavior. If it were, then risky behavior should decrease during the teenage years, whereas in fact it increases. The best explanation is that the brain’s response to rewards, and especially to the anticipation of rewards, increases during the teenage years. In short, teenagers become more and more likely to seek excitement.

191. The drug tPA breaks up blood clots, which are the problem in an ischemic stroke. A hemorrhagic stroke is caused by a ruptured blood vessel, and preventing blood clots would do no good.

192. Prolonged decrease of input to synapses causes denervation supersensitivity. After prolonged block of dopamine synapses, those synapses respond more easily to even slight stimulation.

193. After amputation of a limb, the neurons in the somatosensory cortex that used to respond to that limb have lost their input. By either collateral sprouting or denervation supersensitivity, these neurons become more responsive to input that previously had no effect on them. For example, cells previously responsive to the arm might become responsive to stimulation on the face. When that happens, a touch on the face activates these neurons, but it feels like the amputated arm, not the face.

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05_Vision

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What did Müller’s law of specific nerve energies try to explain? a. How peripheral nerves produce coordination between antagonistic muscles b. How excitatory and inhibitory input combine their influences at a synapse c. How brain activity differs between waking and sleeping d. How your brain tells the difference between visual and auditory input 2. . If you rub your eyes in a dark room, you see flashes of light. That observation illustrates which of the following? a. Klüver-Bucy syndrome b. The parasympathetic nervous system c. The law of specific nerve energies d. The absolute refractory period 3. If it were possible to flip your entire brain upside down without breaking any of the connections to sense organs, what would happen? a. The world would appear upside down and left-right reversed, but you would adjust. b. The world would appear upside down and left-right reversed, and you would not adjust. c. You would confuse your visual sensations with your auditory sensations. d. All your perceptions would remain the same.

4. How far can an ant see? a. About the length of its own body b. Four times the length of its own body c. Millions of miles d. Depends on the travel length of light 5. What happens when you see an object? a. You send sight rays from your eyes to the object. b. Light reflected from the object strikes your eyes. c. You send out sight rays and light strikes your eyes. d. Nothing passes in either direction between your eyes and the object.

6. Do cats see in complete darkness? If so, how? a. Yes, because they send out sight rays. b. Yes, because they have extra-sensory perception. c. Yes, but no one knows how they do it. d. No, vision in complete darkness is impossible.

7. How is the cornea similar to the lens of the eye? a. Both contain ganglion cells. b. Both are adjustable. c. Both are thicker toward the periphery of the eye. d. Both focus light onto the retina.

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05_Vision 8. The optic nerve comes from what type or types of cells? a. Rods and cones b. Bipolar cells c. Ganglion cells d. Rods, cones, bipolar cells, and ganglion cells 9. Where do the rods and cones of the retina send their input? a. To bipolar cells within the eyeball b. To bipolar cells in the thalamus c. To ganglion cells in the thalamus d. Directly to the cerebral cortex 10. Where do the bipolar cells of the retina send their input? a. To rods b. To cones c. To ganglion cells d. To the cerebral cortex 11. Where does light from the right side of the world go? a. To the left retina b. To the right retina c. To the left half of each retina d. To the right half of each retina 12. What causes the blind spot of the retina? a. The optic nerve exits the eye at that point. b. The lens cannot focus light at that point. c. Prenatal oxygen deficit causes damage at that point. d. The pupil casts its shadow at that point.

13. What is one reason why you don’t notice the blind spot of the eye in everyday life? a. Anything in the blind spot of one eye is visible to the other eye. b. The blind spot is too small to be noticeable. c. The blind spot is far toward the periphery of the visual field. d. The rods and cones in the blind spot have spontaneous activity.

14. What is the fovea? a. The border between the rod area and the cone area b. The point where the optic nerve exits the eye c. The center of the retina d. The area between the pupil and the retina 15. Where would you find midget ganglion cells? a. Only in the retina of infants Powered by Cognero

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05_Vision b. In the fovea of the retina c. In the periphery of the retina d. Equally in all parts of the retina 16. In which of these ways is a hawk’s eye specialized? a. It has an equal number of rods and cones. b. It has more receptors in the periphery than in the center of the retina. c. It has more receptors in the left eye than in the right. d. It has more receptors on the top half of the retina than the bottom.

17. Why is vision less detailed in the periphery? a. The lens focuses light onto the fovea alone. b. The blind spot is in the periphery. c. In the periphery, the cones compete with the rods. d. In the periphery, many receptors converge onto each bipolar cell.

18. Why does vision in the periphery have high sensitivity to faint light? a. Toward the periphery, the retina has more midget ganglion cells. b. Toward the periphery, the retina has more cones and fewer rods. c. Toward the periphery, the retina has more convergence of input. d. Toward the periphery, the light falls farther from the blind spot.

19. What are the effects from having so many receptors converge their inputs onto the bipolar cells in the periphery of the eye? a. Good perception of faint lights, but poor perception of detail. b. Good perception of location, but poor perception of faint lights. c. Good perception of faint lights, detail, and location. d. Good perception of detail, but poor perception of movement.

20. Which part of the retina is most sensitive to faint lights? a. The fovea b. The parafoveal region c. The periphery d. The area with an equal number of rods and cones 21. How does the anatomy of the eye differ between the fovea and the periphery? a. In the periphery, many receptors converge their input onto each bipolar cell. b. In the periphery, receptors send their input directly to ganglion cells. c. In the periphery, each receptor sends its input to more than one bipolar cell. d. In the periphery, receptors send their input directly back to the brain.

22. In which of these ways does foveal vision differ from peripheral vision? a. Foveal vision has better acuity but less sensitivity to dim light. b. Foveal vision has better acuity but less detection of color.

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05_Vision c. Foveal vision has greater sensitivity to dim light but less acuity. d. Foveal vision has greater sensitivity to dim light but less precise detection of location.

23. The fovea and the periphery of the eye are about equal for detecting which of the following? a. Color b. Faint light c. Movement d. Detail 24. Why is color vision better in the fovea than in the periphery of the retina? a. More receptors converge their input in the fovea. b. More receptors have spontaneous activity in the fovea. c. The fovea has more rods. d. The fovea has more cones.

25. What type of receptor sends input to midget ganglion cells? a. Hair cells b. Olfactory receptors c. Rods d. Cones 26. Why does the human brain receive more input from cones than from rods? a. Cones outnumber rods almost 20 to 1. b. More cones than rods converge their input onto a bipolar cell. c. Cones have a higher rate of spontaneous activity. d. Each foveal cone has a direct line to the brain.

27. Why do some people have greater ability to detect brief, faint, or rapidly changing visual stimuli? a. They have a higher ratio of receptors to bipolar cells. b. They have an equal ratio of cones to rods. c. They have more axons in the optic nerve. d. They had a briefer sensitive period during early development.

28. What is a consequence of having a higher than average number of axons in the optic nerve? a. Perception of a wider than average range of wavelengths of light b. Better detection of brief or rapidly changing stimuli c. Decreased effect of lateral inhibition d. Blurry vision toward the periphery of the visual field 29. If you found a species with a high ratio of cones to rods in its retina, what would you predict about its way of life? a. It is active in the day, and not at night. b. It is a prey species with dangerous enemies. c. It spends its time mostly in a forested area. d. It lives in a close-knit social group.

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05_Vision 30. How do we know that the world looks different to many birds and fish than it does to us? a. Their visual receptors detect ultraviolet radiation. b. Their visual cortex has fewer layers of neurons. c. Their optic nerves cross twice on the way to the brain. d. The pupil in their eyes has a different shape.

31. Compared to many birds, what is true of human color vision, and why? a. Humans are color-vision deficient, because we do not see infrared radiation. b. Humans are color-vision deficient, because we do not see ultraviolet radiation. c. Humans have better color vision, because we have three types of cones instead of two. d. Humans have better color vision, because we have three types of cones instead of one.

32. According to the trichromatic theory, or Young-Helmholtz theory, how do we perceive color? a. Each wavelength elicits a unique ratio of responses by three kinds of cones. b. Each neuron fires in proportion to the wavelength of light. c. Brain cells respond on continua from red to green, yellow to blue, and white to black. d. The cortex compares information from various parts of the retina.

33. According to the opponent-process theory, how do we perceive color? a. Each wavelength elicits a unique ratio of responses by three kinds of cones. b. Each neuron fires in proportion to the wavelength of light. c. Brain cells respond on continua from red to green, yellow to blue, and white to black. d. The cortex compares information from various parts of the retina.

34. According to the retinex theory, how do we perceive color? a. Each wavelength elicits a unique ratio of responses by three kinds of cones. b. Each neuron fires in proportion to the wavelength of light. c. Brain cells respond on continua from red to green, yellow to blue, and white to black. d. The cortex compares information from various parts of the retina.

35. Small blue dots look black from a distance, where small red, yellow, and green dots retain their colors. Why? a. Short wavelength cones are the least abundant. b. Short wavelength cones occur mostly in the periphery of the retina. c. Short wavelength light is less intense than other wavelengths. d. Short wavelength light is harder to focus than other wavelengths.

36. Why is the periphery of the retina nearly color-blind? a. The lens cannot focus light on the periphery of the retina. b. The periphery of the retina suffers damage during prenatal development. c. The periphery of the retina has few cones. d. The periphery of the retina has much convergence of input.

37. According to the trichromatic theory, what determines which color you see? a. The ratio of firing among three types of cones Powered by Cognero

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05_Vision b. The mean frequency of action potentials in an area of the retina c. The difference between the activity of the cones and the activity of the rods d. Changes in the velocity of action potentials coming from the retina 38. Which of the following is evidence in favor of the opponent-process theory of color vision? a. The Muller-Lyer illusion b. Color constancy c. Negative color afterimages d. The waterfall illusion 39. According to the opponent-process theory, under what circumstance would you perceive a yellow object as blue? a. If you had stared at a red object for the previous minute b. If you had stared at a yellow object for the previous minute c. If you had stared at a blue object for the previous minute d. If you had watched a rapidly flashing light for the previous minute 40. Which of the following is evidence in favor of the retinex theory of color vision? a. The relative frequency of color-vision deficiency in men and women b. Color constancy c. Negative color afterimages d. The waterfall illusion 41. What is color constancy? a. The ability to recognize an object’s color after a change in lighting b. The tendency of some people to see everything as shades of one color c. The ability to perceive color even in the faintest light d. The ability of people in all cultures to recognize the same colors 42. What do color constancy and brightness constancy demonstrate? a. Perceptions depend on contrast with surrounding objects. b. Early experience modifies the structure and function of the visual system. c. Vision depends on feedback between the cortex and the thalamus. d. Vision is more detailed in the fovea than in the periphery.

43. An object that reflects all wavelengths equally would ordinarily appear gray, but it may appear yellow, blue, or any other color, depending on what? a. The culture in which you grew up b. The ratio of cones to rods in your retina c. The brightness of the light d. Contrast with surrounding objects 44. Color vision deficiency demonstrates which fundamental point about perception? a. Each sensory system depends on a different part of the cerebral cortex. b. Color perception varies because of cultural differences.

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05_Vision c. Fatiguing a receptor can lead to a negative afterimage. d. Color is in the brain and not in the light itself.

45. What causes red-green color deficiency? a. A gene caused part of the visual cortex to develop upside-down. b. Part of the fovea has only rods instead of cones. c. The cornea and lens distort certain wavelengths of light. d. Two types of cones have the same photopigment.

46. Most axons of the optic nerve go to which structure? a. The amygdala b. The hippocampus c. The lateral geniculate nucleus d. The fusiform gyrus 47. Where does the optic nerve start? a. Area V1 of the cerebral cortex b. The lateral geniculate nucleus c. Rods and cones in the retina d. Ganglion cells in the retina 48. In humans, what crosses to the contralateral hemisphere at the optic chiasm? a. All of each optic nerve b. Half of each optic nerve, the part representing the temporal half of the retina c. Half of each optic nerve, the part representing the nasal half of the retina d. Nothing 49. If something damaged the axons that cross at the optic chiasm, sparing the axons that proceed to their own side of the brain, what would happen to vision? a. The left hemisphere would see with the right eye, and the right hemisphere would see with the left eye. b. The left hemisphere would see with the left eye, and the right hemisphere would see with the right eye. c. The left hemisphere would see the left visual field, and the right hemisphere would see the right visual field. d. The left hemisphere would see the right visual field, and the right hemisphere would see the left visual field.

50. What function does lateral inhibition serve in the visual system? a. It adjusts the pupil for changes in the intensity of light. b. It increases the speed of recognizing faces. c. It sharpens contrast at borders. d. It enables stereoscopic depth perception.

51. Which of the following makes inhibitory contact onto bipolar cells, which, in turn, make synapses onto amacrine cells and ganglion cells? a. Vertical cells b. Horizontal cells c. Ganglion cells Powered by Cognero

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05_Vision d. Midget ganglion cells 52. Which of these retinal cells has the widest spread? a. Rods b. Cones c. Bipolar cells d. Horizontal cells 53. What do the horizontal cells in the retina do? a. They surround the blind spot. b. They relay information from rods to cones. c. They stimulate ganglion cells. d. They inhibit bipolar cells.

54. If light shines equally on an area of the retina, the bipolar cells on the edge of that area respond more strongly than those in the center. Why? a. The lens focuses the light more sharply on them. b. They connect more directly to the ganglion cells. c. They receive less inhibition. d. They have a higher ratio of cones to rods.

55. If light falls equally on one patch of the retina, where will the bipolar cells respond most strongly? a. Equally throughout the illuminated patch b. In the center of the patch c. At the edge of the patch d. Just outside the edge of the patch 56. How do receptor cells and horizontal cells affect bipolar cells in the retina? a. Both receptor cells and horizontal cells excite bipolar cells. b. Receptors excite bipolar cells and horizontal cells inhibit them. c. Receptors inhibit bipolar cells and horizontal cells excite them. d. Both receptor cells and horizontal cells inhibit bipolar cells.

57. Why do ganglion cells have larger receptive fields than bipolar cells do? a. Ganglion cells are larger cells. b. Ganglion cells receive input from several bipolar cells. c. Ganglion cells receive most of their input from horizontal cells. d. Ganglion cells are more abundant in the periphery of the retina.

58. Some ganglion cells respond only to a stimulus: a. moving in a particular direction. b. input from bipolar cells. c. input from horizontal cells. d. objects that are only colored black or white.

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05_Vision 59. What is true of the parvocellular ganglion cells in the retina? a. They have small receptive fields, mostly in the periphery. b. They have small receptive fields, mostly near the fovea. c. They have large receptive fields, distributed evenly throughout the retina. d. They have large receptive fields, mostly near the fovea.

60. What is true of the magnocellular ganglion cells in the retina? a. They have small receptive fields, mostly in the periphery. b. They have small receptive fields, mostly near the fovea. c. They have large receptive fields, distributed evenly throughout the retina. d. They have large receptive fields, mostly near the fovea.

61. Which of the following do the magnocellular ganglion cells of the retina detect? a. Movement b. Color c. Detail d. Circadian patterns 62. How do the parvocellular and magnocellular ganglion cells of the retina differ? a. Parvocellular cells detect large patterns and magnocellular cells detect details. b. Parvocellular cells detect red vs. green, and magnocellular cells detect yellow vs. blue. c. Parvocellular cells detect color and magnocellular cells detect movement. d. Parvocellular cells detect movement and magnocellular cells detect color.

63. Where is the primary visual cortex? a. Parietal cortex b. Frontal cortex c. Temporal cortex d. Occipital cortex 64. What do people lose after damage to area V1? a. Color vision only b. Depth vision only c. Visual movement detection only d. All conscious vision 65. When you close your eyes and imagine a visual scene, where does the activity start? a. In the ganglion cells of the retina b. In the visual part of the thalamus c. In the memory and language areas of the cortex d. In the primary visual cortex 66. People with aphantasia and hyperphantasia differ in what? a. Their motion detection Powered by Cognero

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05_Vision b. Their visual imagery c. Their depth perception d. Their color vision 67. Hyperphantasia is more common among: a. young children than older adults. b. women than men. c. men than women. d. older adults than young children.

68. Which of these is true of visual imagery? a. It is equally intense for nearly all people. b. It occurs without any change in brain activity. c. It starts in language or memory areas and spreads to V1. d. It occurs rapidly in V1 and then spreads to other brain areas.

69. What is meant by “blindsight”? a. Detecting colors by touch instead of vision b. Responding to visual stimuli without perceiving them consciously c. Using echolocation to navigate in the dark d. Forming a visual image of something with one’s eyes closed 70. What does blindsight tell us about conscious vision? a. Area V1 is necessary for vision only in childhood. b. Area V1 is necessary for visually guided movement but not for conscious perception. c. Area V1 is necessary for conscious vision but not for all visually guided behaviors. d. Area V1 is necessary for all aspects of vision.

71. Which brain area is necessary for conscious visual perception? a. Area V1 b. The superior colliculus c. The fusiform gyrus d. The parietal cortex 72. Which of the following is responsible for many if not all cases of blindsight? a. Spontaneous neural activity in area V1 b. Connections from V1 to other cortical areas c. Connections to cortical areas outside V1 d. Sprouting of auditory neurons into V1 73. How does a simple cell differ from a complex cell in the visual cortex? a. A simple cell responds to a single point of light. b. A simple cell responds only in a fixed location. c. A simple cell responds only to one color of light.

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05_Vision d. A simple cell responds to one eye and not the other.

74. How does an end-stopped cell differ from a complex cell in the visual cortex? a. An end-stopped cell has a strong inhibitory area at one end of its bar-shaped receptive field. b. An end-stopped cell responds only to faces or other meaningful objects. c. An end-stopped cell responds to both colored light and white light. d. An end-stopped cell responds gets input from both parvocellular and magnocellular ganglion cells.

75. What is a simple way to determine whether a cell in the primary visual cortex is a simple cell or a complex cell? a. Compare how it responds to a single line vs. a face. b. Count the number of synapses attached to its dendrites. c. Tilt the stimulus and see whether the cell continues responding. d. Test whether it responds to a stimulus in one place or in several locations.

76. Which of the following suggests that certain cortical cells operate as feature detectors? a. The law of specific nerve energies b. Strabismus c. Blindsight d. The waterfall illusion 77. If a researcher sutures one eyelid shut for a kitten for its first few weeks of life, the cortex becomes unresponsive to that eye. Why? a. The unstimulated rods and cones stop receiving enough oxygen to survive. b. Synapses from the open eye inhibit those from the closed eye. c. The hemisphere that receives input from that eye shrinks. d. Axons from the deprived eye fail to form myelin.

78. If a researcher sutures one eyelid shut for a kitten for its first few weeks of life, the cortex becomes unresponsive to that eye. What would enable the cortex to remain somewhat responsive? a. Administer stimulant drugs during the period of deprivation. b. Provide auditory stimulation on the same side of the head as the deprived eye. c. Suture the other eye shut also. d. Give the kitten much opportunity for exercise.

79. What is the effect of closing one eye or two eyes early in a kitten’s life? a. Closing one eye has no effect. Closing both makes cortical cells unresponsive to both. b. Closing one eye has no effect. Closing both causes increased responsiveness in both. c. Closing one eye makes the cortex unresponsive to it. Closing both makes cortical cells sluggish and unselective. d. Closing one eye makes the cortex unresponsive to it. Closing both makes cortical cells unresponsive to both.

80. If the two eyes cannot point the same direction throughout early development, what is the result? a. Loss of all vision b. Better peripheral vision than foveal vision c. Poor depth perception Powered by Cognero

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05_Vision d. Degeneration of the corpus callosum 81. Why does childhood strabismus impair binocular depth perception? a. The corpus callosum fails to transfer information between hemispheres. b. No cell in the visual cortex gets matched input from both eyes. c. Inhibitory synapses become more abundant than excitatory synapses. d. The peripheral area of each retina dominates over the fovea.

82. What would cause a child to see lines in one direction more clearly than others? a. Astigmatism b. Strabismus c. Aphantasia d. Prosopagnosia 83. What causes astigmatism? a. A not-quite-spherical eyeball b. Eyes that do not point the same direction c. Impaired connections between the fusiform gyrus and area V1 d. A larger than average blind spot in the retina 84. If an infant is born with dense cataracts on both eyes that are surgically removed a few years later, what vision does the child have at first? a. Motion perception and depth perception b. Ability to see whether two objects are the same or different c. Ability to recognize which image matches something they feel d. None 85. If someone has dense cataracts and the cataracts are removed years later, what happens? a. The person has continuing limitations in depth and motion perception. b. The person has continuing limitations on color perception. c. The person remains permanently blind. d. The person gradually recovers all aspects of vision.

86. Which of these is another term for the ventral stream in the visual system? a. The “what” pathway b. The “where” pathway c. The “how” pathway d. The “why” pathway 87. The dorsal stream in the visual cortex is most important for which of the following? a. Circadian rhythms b. Facial recognition c. Visually guided movements d. Reading Powered by Cognero

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05_Vision 88. Following brain damage, someone cannot describe seen objects, but has no trouble walking around and avoiding objects in the way. Where is the probable damage? a. The superior colliculus b. The lateral geniculate c. The ventral stream d. The dorsal stream 89. Following brain damage, someone can read and describe seen objects, but cannot locate them. Where is the probable damage? a. The superior colliculus b. The lateral geniculate c. The ventral stream d. The dorsal stream 90. How do the dorsal and ventral streams of the visual system differ? a. The dorsal system sees black and white, and the ventral system sees color. b. The dorsal system sees color, and the ventral system sees black and white. c. They include different parts of the visual field. d. They control different aspects of behavior.

91. The inferior temporal cortex is especially important for which of the following? a. Controlling eye movements b. Identifying colors and levels of brightness c. Using vision to guide movements d. Recognizing familiar objects 92. If you recorded the responses of neurons in the visual system to some black-and-white object, and then reversed all the blacks and whites, which neurons, if any, would continue to respond to that object? a. Ganglion cells in the retina b. Simple cells in area V1 c. Cells in the inferior temporal cortex d. None 93. The fusiform gyrus responds most strongly to which of the following? a. Faces b. Colors c. Moving objects d. Horizontal and vertical lines 94. If brain damage caused someone to lose the ability to recognize faces, which of the following was probably damaged? a. Dorsal stream b. Superior colliculus c. Corpus callosum d. Fusiform gyrus Powered by Cognero

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05_Vision 95. People vary greatly in their ability to recognize faces, because of variations in which of the following? a. The ratio of cones to rods in the periphery of the visual field b. The capacity of their short-term memory c. Connections between the ventral stream and the dorsal stream d. Connections between the fusiform gyrus and the occipital cortex 96. How do responses in the inferior temporal cortex (ITC) differ from those in V1? a. Cells in the ITC continue responding if the areas of black and white are reversed. b. Cells in the ITC continue responding for seconds after the stimulus is removed. c. Cells in the ITC respond briefly to a change in stimuli, and then become silent. d. Cells in the ITC respond equally to visual and auditory stimuli.

97. Area MT, also known as V5, is especially important for which of the following? a. Coordinating vision with hand movements b. Recognizing faces c. Perceiving visual movement d. Color constancy 98. What happens after damage limited to area MT? a. Motion blindness b. Face blindness c. Color blindness d. Night blindness 99. What do face blindness and motion blindness have in common? a. They are caused by damage in the temporal cortex. b. They are caused by a lack of proper attention. c. They are caused by changes within the retina. d. They are caused by astigmatism.

100. What might cause someone to be unable to perceive visual motion? a. Damage to the muscles controlling the eyes b. Damage to brain area MT c. Fewer than average cells in the parvocellular pathway d. Astigmatism 101. What is meant by “motion blindness”? a. Inability to see that something is moving b. Inability to see while you are moving c. Visual impairment caused by a blow to the head d. Failure to use vision to guide movement 102. Which of these tasks would be easiest for someone who is motion blind? a. Driving a car Powered by Cognero

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05_Vision b. Filling a pitcher with water c. Playing catch d. Getting dressed 103. If you look in a mirror and shift your focus from one eye to the other, you do not see your eyes moving. Why not? a. The information falls onto the blind spot of the retina. b. Parts of your brain shut down during voluntary eye movements. c. The movement is too fast. d. The movement is too slight.

104. When does a normal, healthy person experience motion blindness? a. During voluntary eye movements b. When the light is too faint to stimulate the parvocellular system c. Shortly after awakening from a nap d. While running 105. Which of the following happens during a voluntary eye movement (saccade)? a. The default system of the brain becomes more active. b. Lateral inhibition increases in the retina. c. The magnocellular path increases its activity. d. Area MT decreases its activity.

106. Suppose area V1 is heavily damaged, but the connections from thalamus to area MT remain intact. Which aspect of vision would continue? a. Optical illusions b. Visual imagery c. Color perception d. Motion detection 107. What accounts for motion blindness during a saccade (voluntary eye movement)? a. Suppressed activity in area MT b. Decreased activity in the parvocellular system c. Slower action potentials in the optic nerve d. Suppressed activity in the corpus callosum 108. When you move your eyes, why does it not seem as if the world is moving? a. Area MT responds when an object moves relative to its background. b. The parvocellular system becomes inactive while the eyes are moving. c. Lateral inhibition increases in the retina. d. The brain compares the input from the left and right eyes.

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

109. Seeing a circle excites a set of neurons arranged in a circle. a. True Powered by Cognero

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05_Vision b. False 110. Anything that stimulates the receptors in the eye is interpreted as light. a. True b. False 111. If someone could flip your brain upside-down without breaking any of the axons from the retina, the world would look the same to you as it does now. a. True b. False 112. Even ants can see as far as humans can. a. True b. False 113. When you see something, you send rays out of your eyes. a. True b. False 114. All people have a blind spot in the eye. a. True b. False 115. The blind spot of the eye is the point where the optic nerve leaves the retina. a. True b. False 116. Rods provide most of the input to the visual cortex. a. True b. False 117. Hawks see down better than up. a. True b. False 118. Some people have more than twice as many axons in their optic nerve, compared to other people. a. True b. False 119. Some birds see ultraviolet light. a. True b. False 120. Most people have nearly equal numbers of short-, medium-, and long-wave cones. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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05_Vision 121. People are virtually color-blind in the periphery of their vision. a. True b. False 122. Negative color afterimages are evidence in favor of the trichromatic theory. a. True b. False 123. Color constancy is evidence in favor of the retinex theory. a. True b. False 124. Some women have more types of cones in their retina than men do. a. True b. False 125. The optic nerve extends directly from the retina to the visual cortex. a. True b. False 126. Lateral inhibition depends on the ability of horizontal cells to inhibit other cells. a. True b. False 127. During the progression from receptors to ganglion cells and beyond, receptive fields get larger. a. True b. False 128. Primate ganglion cells fall into three categories: parvocellular, magnocellular, and koniocellular. a. True b. False 129. Magnocellular cells occur mostly in the fovea. a. True b. False 130. When you imagine a visual image, activity starts in area V1 and spreads. a. True b. False 131. Hyperphantasia is more common among women than men, and it tends to be associated with math and science. a. True b. False 132. Some people accurately guess where an object is, even though they can’t consciously see it.

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05_Vision a. True b. False 133. The waterfall illusion is evidence favoring the idea of feature detectors. a. True b. False 134. Many properties of the visual system develop before birth. a. True b. False 135. If both eyes of a kitten are sutured for the first three weeks, the cortex becomes unresponsive to visual input. a. True b. False 136. Children who have dense cataracts for the first few years of life, and then have them removed, gain no useful vision. a. True b. False 137. Children who have dense cataracts for the first few years of life, and then have them removed, gradually gain all vision other than color vision. a. True b. False 138. Some people see well enough to identify objects but cannot use vision to find their way around. a. True b. False 139. Variations in brain anatomy cause some people to recognize faces better than others do. a. True b. False 140. Newborn infants pay more attention to faces than to most other sights. a. True b. False 141. It is possible to see an object without seeing that it is moving. a. True b. False 142. Voluntarily moving your eyes causes some brain areas to become less active. a. True b. False

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

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05_Vision 143. The rear of the eye, covered with receptors, is the ____________________.

144. Bipolar cells send input to ____________________ cells, whose axons form the optic nerve.

145. The point where the optic nerve exits the retina is the ____________________ spot.

146. The central portion of the human retina, with the most detailed vision, is the ____________________.

147. The ganglion cells in the human fovea, each connected to just one cone, are called ____________________ ganglion cells.

148. The type of visual receptor found in the fovea is a ____________________.

149. The Young-Helmholtz theory of color vision is also known as the ____________________ theory.

150. The theory devised to explain negative color afterimages is the ____________________ theory.

151. The theory devised to explain color constancy is the ____________________ theory.

152. The type of neuron that inhibits bipolar cells to produce lateral inhibition is a ____________________ cell.

153. Most of the optic nerve goes to the lateral geniculate nucleus in the ____________________.

154. The area in visual space from which light excites or inhibits a cell is the cell’s ____________________ field.

155. Whereas the parvocellular neurons are specialized for details, perception of movement and overall patterns depends on ____________________ neurons.

156. Area V1 is the primary ____________________ cortex.

157. The condition of having little or no visual imagery is called ____________________.

158. The ability to respond in some way to visual information without perceiving it consciously is called ____________________.

159. An explanation for blindsight is that some of the input from the eyes goes to areas other than ____________________.

160. A cell that responds to the sight of a bar or edge at any location within a large area is a ____________________ cell.

161. A condition in which someone’s eyes do not point the same direction is called “lazy eye,” or more formally as ____________________.

162. Blurring of lines in one direction because of an asymmetric curvature of the eyes is called ____________________.

163. The “what” pathway and the “where” or “how” pathways for vision are called the ____________________ stream and the ____________________ stream.

164. The inferior temporal cortex exchanges information with the prefrontal cortex with connections that are especially important for identifying difficult or ____________________.

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05_Vision 165. The brain area most important for recognizing faces is the ____________________ gyrus.

166. The hypothesis is that we evolved predisposed mechanisms for recognizing is evidenced by how people who were blind from birth exhibit elevated activity in the ____________________ when they feel models of faces.

167. Damage to area MT (also called V5) causes ____________________ blindness.

168. Explain how we see images from the external world.

169. You sometimes find that you can see a faint star on a dark night better if you look slightly to the side of the star.

Why? 170. When a television set is off, its screen appears gray. When you watch a program, parts of the screen appear black, even though the screen is displaying more light than when the set was off. What explains the black perception?

171. Describe the route for visual information, from the retinal receptors to the cortex.

172. What causes the blind spot of the eye?

173. How does foveal vision differ from peripheral vision?

174. According to the trichromatic theory, how do we perceive color?

175. What visual phenomenon does the opponent-process theory explain, which would be difficult to explain by the trichromatic theory?

176. What visual phenomenon does the retinex theory explain, which other theories do not?

177. Explain lateral inhibition.

178. How do parvocellular neurons differ from magnocellular neurons?

179. What is blindsight, and what is a probable explanation?

180. How could you tell whether a neuron in area V1 is a simple cell or a complex cell?

181. What evidence suggests that the visual cortex has feature detectors? And what evidence indicates that feature detectors do not fully explain vision?

182. What happens if one eye of a kitten is sutured shut for the first few weeks? What happens if both eyes are shut?

183. What are the specializations of the ventral and dorsal visual streams?

184. What enables some people to recognize faces better than others do?

185. Under what condition do normal people become briefly motion blind, and what causes this?

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05_Vision Answer Key 1. d 2. c 3. d 4. d 5. b 6. d 7. d 8. c 9. a 10. c 11. c 12. a 13. a 14. c 15. b 16. d 17. d 18. c 19. a 20. c 21. a 22. a 23. c 24. d 25. d Powered by Cognero

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05_Vision 26. d 27. c 28. b 29. a 30. a 31. b 32. a 33. c 34. d 35. a 36. c 37. a 38. c 39. b 40. b 41. a 42. a 43. d 44. d 45. d 46. c 47. d 48. c 49. d 50. c 51. b Powered by Cognero

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05_Vision 52. d 53. d 54. c 55. c 56. b 57. b 58. a 59. b 60. c 61. a 62. c 63. d 64. d 65. c 66. b 67. b 68. c 69. b 70. c 71. a 72. c 73. b 74. a 75. d 76. d Powered by Cognero

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05_Vision 77. b 78. c 79. c 80. c 81. b 82. a 83. a 84. b 85. a 86. a 87. c 88. c 89. d 90. d 91. d 92. c 93. a 94. d 95. d 96. a 97. c 98. a 99. a 100. b 101. a 102. d Powered by Cognero

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05_Vision 103. b 104. a 105. d 106. d 107. a 108. a 109. False 110. True 111. True 112. True 113. False 114. True 115. True 116. False 117. True 118. True 119. True 120. False 121. True 122. False 123. True 124. True 125. False 126. True 127. True Powered by Cognero

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05_Vision 128. True 129. False 130. False 131. False 132. True 133. True 134. True 135. False 136. False 137. False 138. True 139. False 140. False 141. True 142. True 143. retina 144. ganglion 145. blind 146. fovea 147. midget 148. cone 149. trichromatic 150. opponent-process 151. retinex 152. horizontal Powered by Cognero

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05_Vision 153. thalamus 154. receptive 155. magnocellular 156. visua 157. aphantasia 158. blindsight 159. V1 160. complex 161. strabismus 162. astigmatism 163. ventral; dorsal 164. ambiguous patterns 165. fusiform 166. fusiform gyrus 167. motion 168. When we see a tree, for example, our perception is not in the tree. It is in our brain. We see something only when light from it alters our brain activity. Even if we did send out rays from our eyes—and we don’t—when they struck some object, we wouldn’t know about it, unless they bounced back and returned to our eyes.

169. When you look slightly to the side, the light falls on an area of the retina with more rods and more convergence of inputs. The result is greater sensitivity to faint light.

170.

The black experience arises by contrast with the surrounding areas that are brighter.

171. Receptors connect to bipolar cells, which connect to ganglion cells, whose axons form the optic nerve. The optic nerves from the two eyes cross at the optic chiasm. Most of each optic nerve goes to the thalamus, which sends information to the visual cortex.

172. The optic nerve exits the retina at that point.

173. The fovea has cones, which are specialized for color vision. Toward the periphery, the balance becomes more and more rods, which do not produce color vision. In the fovea, each receptor connects to just one bipolar cell, which connects to one ganglion cell (A midget ganglion cell), whose axon goes to the brain, producing the most detailed vision. In the Powered by Cognero

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05_Vision periphery, many receptors converge onto each bipolar cell, producing summation that enables detection of faint light, but less sensitivity to detail.

174. The retina has three types of cones, sensitive to short-, medium-, and long-wavelength light. The relative rate of response by the three types determines the color.

175. If you stare at something of one color for a minute or so and then look away, you see a negative color afterimage.

176. Color constancy, the fact that you can recognize something as being the same color, even after the overall lighting has changed. For example, in a room with only green light bulbs, a banana still looks yellow.

177. When light shines on a group of receptors, they excite bipolar cells, but they also excite horizontal cells. Horizontal cells inhibit all the bipolar cells around them, regardless of whether those cells had been excited or not. A bipolar cell that is stimulated by light but surrounded by other stimulated cells will have its response somewhat reduced. A bipolar cell that is next to stimulated cells on only one side will be inhibited less. A bipolar cell that is not stimulated, but is next to stimulated cells, is inhibited without being excited. The result is to enhance the contrast at edges.

178. Parvocellular neurons have a small receptive field, adapted for detecting detail. They are also sensitive to color.

Magnocellular neurons have a large receptive field, color-blind, adapted for perceiving overall patterns and movement.

Parvocellular neurons are found in the fovea and nearby regions, whereas magnocellular neurons occur throughout the retina.

179. Some people with damage to area V1 can respond to visual stimuli that they do not perceive consciously, by moving their eyes toward something, reaching for it, imitating an expression, or indicating an object’s shape, color, or direction of movement, while insisting that they are just guessing. In many if not all cases, connections are intact between visual areas of the thalamus and cortical areas outside V1.

180. Find a pattern of light that stimulates it, such as a bar or an edge. Then move it to an adjacent area. If the cell responds to light only in one location, it is a simple cell. If it responds regardless of location within a larger area, it is a complex cell. Also, most complex cells respond best to a moving stimulus.

181. After staring at a waterfall or other scene with steady movement, one can look away and see what appears to be movement in the opposite direction by objects that are in fact stationary. That observation implies that the first experience had fatigued feature detectors sensitive to movement. However, when you look at an ambiguous display such as Mooney faces, interpreting the stimulus is a top-down process, not just a matter of recording the stimuli.

182. If one eye is shut during this early sensitive period, the cortex becomes unresponsive to it, because of inhibition from the active eye. If both are shut, the cortex remains responsive to them, but relatively sluggish and less selective than normal.

183. The ventral stream responds to the shape of an object, identifying faces, objects, scenes, and movement. The dorsal stream attends primarily to the location of an object, guiding movement on the basis of visual information.

184. People with more connections between the fusiform gyrus and the occipital face area recognize faces better than do people with fewer connections.

185. While making a voluntary eye movement (a saccade), people become briefly motion-blind because area MT and part of the parietal cortex decrease their activity and receive less than usual blood flow.

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The frequency of a sound corresponds to which aspect of perception? a. Loudness b. Pitch c. Timbre d. Location 2. The amplitude of a sound corresponds to which aspect of perception? a. Loudness b. Pitch c. Timbre d. Location 3. What happens to people’s hearing as they get older? a. Decreased ability to hear low frequencies b. Increased ability to hear low frequencies c. Decreased ability to hear high frequencies d. Increased ability to hear high frequencies 4. As a rule, which animals hear higher frequencies better than other animals do? a. Animals with larger heads b. Animals with smaller heads c. Predatory species d. Primates 5. Why do different musical instruments sound different when they play the same note? a. They differ in speed of onset. b. They differ in pitch. c. They differ in timbre. d. They differ in amplitude.

6. What is the function of the pinna? a. It increases the amplitude of vibrations on the oval window. b. It helps us understand the prosody of a sound. c. It helps us locate the source of a sound. d. It filters out the frequencies too high for us to hear.

7. After loss of your pinna on each side of the head, what aspect of your hearing, if any, would decrease? a. Loudness b. Timbre c. Localization d. Nothing 8. What is the function of the three tiny bones of the inner ear?

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses a. They amplify vibrations onto the oval window. b. They hold the cochlea and its membranes in place. c. They conduct vibrations from the cochlea to the auditory nerve. d. They adjust the ears to enable sound localization.

9. When ancient fish evolved into land animals, why did they need to evolve the elaborate mechanisms of the middle ear and inner ear? a. To remember sounds b. To distinguish among pitches c. To amplify sounds d. To protect the auditory cortex from damage 10. What stimulates the auditory receptors (hair cells)? a. Vibrations in the fluid in the cochlea b. Vibrations of the pinna c. Vibrations of the saccule and utricle d. Vibrations in the semicircular canals 11. What causes the auditory receptors (hair cells) to respond? a. Mechanical displacement b. Electromagnetic waves c. Vibrations of the saccule and utricle d. Neurotransmitters 12. Which of the following limits the applicability of the frequency theory of pitch perception? a. The blood-brain barrier b. The velocity of action potentials c. The refractory period of axons d. The speed of metabotropic synapses 13. The frequency theory is appropriate for explaining which aspect of hearing? a. Perception of higher frequencies of sound b. Perception of lower frequencies of sound c. Localization of the direction of a sound source d. Perception of the loudness of a sound 14. The place theory is appropriate for explaining which aspect of hearing? a. Perception of higher frequencies of sound b. Perception of lower frequencies of sound c. Localization of the direction of a sound source d. Perception of the loudness of a sound 15. According to the place theory, how do you identify the pitch of a sound? a. By a traveling wave that peaks at one point on the basilar membrane Powered by Cognero

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses b. By volleys of impulses phase-locked to peaks of the sound wave c. By which neurons the saccule and utricle stimulate d. By feedback between the auditory thalamus and the primary auditory cortex 16. The traveling wave that peaks at a particular point along the basilar membrane enables us to perceive which aspect of a sound? a. Location b. Loudness c. Pitch d. Timbre 17. How does the place theory of pitch perception differ from the frequency theory? a. The place theory says perception depends on the rate of firing. b. The place theory says perception depends on which neurons fire. c. The place theory says perception depends on hair cells along the basilar membrane. d. The place theory says perception depends on differences between left and right ears.

18. The “what” pathway of the auditory system combines auditory input with input from what other system? a. Vestibular b. Visual c. Somatosensory d. Synesthetic 19. What does it mean to be “motion deaf”? a. Unable to detect that a sound source is moving b. Unable to point to something producing a sound c. Unable to identify the pitch of a sound while one is moving d. Unable to localize sounds while one is moving 20. What is one way in which areas A1 and V1 differ? a. V1 is active during visual imagery, but A1 is not active during auditory imagery. b. V1 leads to “what” and “where” paths, but A1 leads to only one path. c. V1 damage causes blindness, but A1 damage doesn’t produce deafness. d. V1 development depends on experience, but A1 development does not.

21. Legion has experienced damage to area A1, which of the following could Legion still do? a. Understand speech b. Imagine sounds c. Localize a sound d. Recognize musical tunes 22. Most neurons in the primary auditory cortex (A1) respond best to what? a. A pure tone b. A dominant tone and its harmonics Powered by Cognero

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses c. A sound that is moving from one location to another d. Meaningful sounds, such as music or speech 23. Most neurons in the secondary auditory cortex respond best to what? a. A pure tone b. A dominant tone and its harmonics c. A sound that is moving from one location to another d. Meaningful sounds, such as music or speech 24. What cognitive change often occurs in people after damage to the auditory cortex? a. They regard something like “thunder” as a nonword. b. They have difficulty performing simple arithmetical calculations. c. They spend more time than usual imagining sounds. d. They increase their ability to multitask.

25. If a sound reaches one of your ears before the other, what does that enable you to do? a. Locate the source of the sound b. Determine the frequency of the sound c. Calibrate the loudness of the sound d. Store a memory of the sound in just one hemisphere 26. A difference between your ears in time of arrival of a sound helps you identify what type of sound? a. A sound with a sudden onset b. A high-frequency sound c. A low-frequency sound d. A familiar sound 27. A difference between your ears in loudness of a sound helps you identify what type of sound? a. A sound with a sudden onset b. A high-frequency sound c. A low-frequency sound d. A familiar sound 28. A phase difference of a sound between your ears helps you identify what type of sound? a. A sound with a sudden onset b. A high-frequency sound c. A low-frequency sound d. A familiar sound 29. Why does head size matter for localizing a sound? a. The tympanic membrane is larger for animals with a large head. b. Onset time is a more useful cue for animals with a large head. c. The pinna provides more useful information for animals with a small head. d. Phase differences are more useful cues for animals with a small head.

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses 30. What structure enables us to localize sounds in the up–down axis? a. The semicircular canals b. The pinna c. The basilar membrane d. The tectorial membrane 31. How does the brain of people with amusia differ from the average? a. Smaller auditory cortex b. Fewer connections between auditory cortex and frontal cortex c. Fewer connections between thalamus and auditory cortex d. Fewer connections between auditory cortex and visual cortex 32. Which of the following increases the probability of developing absolute pitch? a. Playing with colored refrigerator magnets b. Musical training c. Living in a bilingual neighborhood d. An introverted personality 33. Do most people show any aspect of absolute pitch? If so, what? a. No, none at all b. Ability to listen to a note and say how many harmonics are present c. Ability to remember a single note and sing it an hour later d. Ability to recognize whether a song is played in its usual key 34. What causes conductive deafness? a. Impairment of the bones of the middle ear b. Damage to the cochlea c. Damage to the auditory nerve d. Damage to the auditory cortex 35. Which of the following could cause nerve deafness? a. Impairment of the bones of the middle ear b. Damage to the pinna c. Damage to the hair cells d. Damage to the auditory cortex 36. Which of the following sometimes has a cause that resembles the phantom limb phenomenon? a. Tinnitus b. Amusia c. Absolute pitch d. Aphantasia 37. If the auditory cortex receives less input than usual, how does it respond? a. It increases the velocity of action potentials to increase efficiency.

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses b. It rearranges the tonotopic map to make tones more distinct. c. It adjusts synapses to turn up the volume. d. It shifts from mostly a frequency code to mostly a place code.

38. Occasionally, people with hearing loss experience: a. otolithic interference. b. disorientation. c. auditory hallucinations. d. improved touch sensations.

39. Sean is an older person and has trouble understanding speech in a noisy environment. What could be contributing to Sean’s hearing difficulties? a. Changes in the corpus callosum have interfered with sound localization. b. Loud noises displace the tiny bones connected to the oval window. c. The auditory cortex “turns up the volume” of both speech and background sounds. d. The auditory cortex is responding to visual as well as auditory stimuli.

40. Hearing improves if the listener watches the: a. speaker’s breathing rate. b. background behind the speaker. c. speaker’s face. d. speaker’s shoulder movements.

41. What does the vestibular system enable you to do? a. Localize the source of a sound while it moves b. Read while jiggling your head c. Use lip-reading to understand speech d. Walk and talk at the same time 42. The vestibular system is responsible for which of these behavioral observations? a. Foods have a stronger taste while they are hot. b. You can localize sounds well in the air, but poorly when you are under water. c. You can describe the positions of your hands and feet without looking at them. d. You can read better while shaking your head than while shaking the page.

43. Which of these experiences would cause greatest stimulation in the semicircular canals? a. Drifting in a raft on a river b. Riding a roller coaster c. Lying in bed d. Waiting in line 44. Which of the following does your vestibular system tell your brain? a. How long you have been awake b. When to breathe Powered by Cognero

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses c. How much food is in your digestive system d. Which direction you are moving 45. What kind of touch stimulus does a Pacinian corpuscle detect? a. A cold one b. A sudden one c. A painful one d. A pleasant one 46. Why can human females detect narrower grooves by touching them, than males can, on average? a. Females have a relatively larger somatosensory cortex. b. Females have smaller fingers. c. Females pay more attention to touch. d. Females keep their hands cleaner.

47. How do cold-sensitive neurons in the spinal cord differ from heat-sensitive neurons? a. Cold-sensitive neurons also respond to itch. b. Cold-sensitive neurons send messages directly to the cortex, bypassing the thalamus. c. Cold-sensitive neurons respond only to changes in temperature. d. Cold-sensitive neurons steadily increase their response as a cold experience continues.

48. To what extent does the nervous system maintain separate representations of touch, heat, pain, and other aspects of somatic sensation? a. The receptors vary, but all types of sensation merge in the spinal cord. b. The spinal cord has separate representations, but the various types merge in the cortex. c. Different types remain separate even in the cortex. d. Not at all. A single type of receptor responds to all types of somatic sensation.

49. The anterior cingulate cortex and the insular cortex respond to what aspect of skin sensations? a. Novelty or familiarity b. Location c. Pleasantness or unpleasantness d. Duration 50. Solan has experienced damage to area S1 and has no conscious perception of touch. Solan nevertheless reacts emotionally to touch. Which brain areas are probably responsible for Solan’s emotional response? a. Anterior cingulate and insular cortex b. Fusiform gyrus and primary motor cortex c. Areas A1 and V1 d. Piriform cortex and lateral geniculate 51. How are brain areas V1 and S1 similar? a. They synchronize their activity with each other. b. They receive their input from the same nucleus of the thalamus. c. Their activity corresponds to conscious perception.

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses d. Their activity depends mainly on metabotropic synapses.

52. What evidence suggests that the primary somatosensory cortex (S1) is essential for conscious touch perception? a. S1 has subareas responsive to several types of touch. b. Activity in S1 matches an illusory experience. c. S1 produces waves of activity synchronized with those of A1. d. S1 has more excitatory synapses than inhibitory synapses.

53. If Janeesha has trouble finding where parts of the body are, what is the probable location of damage to Janeesha’s brain? a. Anterior cingulate gyrus b. Somatosensory cortex c. Fusiform gyrus d. Corpus callosum 54. What is “numbsense”? a. The ability to imagine a skin sensation b. Ability to guess the location of touch without feeling it consciously c. Skin sensations felt in a phantom limb d. Sensations you feel while watching something happen to another person 55. Numbsense is analogous to which of the following? a. Amusia b. Nerve deafness c. Blindsight d. Phantom limb 56. Much research on pain has overlooked important differences because it focused too much on what? a. Males b. Old people c. Children d. Injured people 57. Activating certain neurons in the midbrain decreases pain sensitivity in: a. male mice, but not in females. b. female mice, but not in males. c. male mice and in females. d. neither male or female mice.

58. Much research on pain has overlooked the differences between which two groups? a. Left-handers and right-handers b. Natives and immigrants c. Males and females d. Young people and old people Powered by Cognero

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses 59. How does the pain pathway in the spinal cord differ from the touch pathway? a. The pain pathway crosses to the contralateral side immediately. b. The pain pathway is heavily myelinated and transmits impulses faster. c. The pain pathway releases only the neurotransmitter GABA. d. The pain pathway reaches the cortex without a stop in the thalamus.

60. In which of these ways is the CNS reaction to touch similar to its reaction to pain? a. One cortical area reports the location, and another area reports the emotional aspect. b. Myelinated axons convey the message fast, and then unmyelinated axons inhibit it. c. Axons cross to the opposite side in the spinal cord, and then they cross back in the brain. d. Conscious perception occurs in the spinal cord.

61. Suppose you suffer a cut through the spinal cord on the right side only. For the part of the body below that cut, where will you lose pain sensation? a. On the left side b. On the right side c. On both sides d. On neither side 62. Suppose you suffer a cut through the spinal cord on the right side only. For the part of the body below that cut, where will you lose touch sensation? a. On the left side b. On the right side c. On both sides d. On neither side 63. You can relieve emotional hurt feelings by taking what kind of pill? a. Acetaminophen b. Amphetamine c. Antidiuretics d. Antabuse 64. Which of the following effects has been reported for acetaminophen (Tylenol®)? a. Improving ability to multi-task b. Suppressing sexual motivation c. Decreasing prejudice d. Relieving hurt feelings 65. How do opiates reduce pain? a. By reducing blood flow to the somatosensory cortex b. By blocking pain receptors in the skin c. By slowing the conduction of myelinated axons d. By binding to receptors in the spinal cord and midbrain

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses 66. Which brain chemicals attach to the same receptors as morphine? a. Pheromones b. Endorphins c. Catecholamines d. Sodium and potassium 67. Morphine is effective for reducing what type or types of pain? a. The sharp pain of being cut b. Dull pain, such as postsurgical c. Neuropathic pain d. All types of pain 68. What does the gate theory say about pain? a. Pain increases the probability of feeling depressed. b. Pain increases the intensity of sights and sounds. c. The spinal cord has ways to decrease pain. d. Pain inhibits itch and itch inhibits pain.

69. How do the pain-relieving effects of cannabinoids differ from those of morphine? a. Cannabinoids act peripherally as well as in the CNS. b. Cannabinoids decrease dull pain instead of sharp pain. c. Cannabinoids produce only temporary relief. d. Cannabinoids produce their effects in the medulla.

70. What causes neuropathic pain? a. Chemicals released by damaged tissue b. Habitual use of alcohol c. Prolonged use of antidepressant drugs d. A gene on the Y chromosome 71. How does neuropathic pain differ from most other types of pain? a. Neuropathic pain is inherited. b. Neuropathic pain responds well to a placebo. c. Neuropathic pain is located to a single part of the skin. d. Neuropathic pain lasts longer.

72. Which type of chemical has shown some promise for relieving neuropathic pain? a. Catecholamines b. Acetaminophen c. Opiates d. Cannabinoids 73. How do the pain-relieving effects of capsaicin differ from those of morphine? a. Capsaicin decreases dull pain instead of sharp pain.

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses b. Capsaicin relieves neuropathic pain. c. Capsaicin acts mainly on the prefrontal cortex. d. Capsaicin’s effects last longer.

74. Why do opiates relieve dull pain and not sharp pain? a. Opiates act in the periphery and not in the central nervous system. b. Opiates act mainly by decreasing the velocity of action potentials. c. Opiates stimulate both glutamate and GABA receptors. d. Opiates block messages from thin fibers and not thick fibers.

75. Why is sodium channel Nav1.7 interesting to pain researchers? a. People with a mutation in that sodium channel feel constant pain. b. That sodium channel is known to have evolved more recently than others. c. That sodium channel occurs only in the anterior cingulate nucleus. d. Axons conveying pain rely mostly on that sodium channel.

76. How does a placebo affect pain? a. People say they feel better, but the brain shows no difference. b. The emotional response is decreased. c. The receptors themselves become desensitized. d. The pain axons slow their conduction velocities.

77. What evidence indicates that placebos relieve pain by something other than relaxation? a. A placebo relieves pain without any detectable effect on brain responses. b. A placebo can relieve pain in one body area without affecting others. c. A placebo slows the velocity of action potentials for pain axons. d. A placebo affects some people more strongly than others.

78. What is itch? a. A type of pain b. A type of touch c. A type of synesthesia d. A separate sensation 79. Varga is healing after a deep cut on the leg and now the wound is starting to itch. What type of treatment will help reduce the itchy feeling Varga is experiencing? a. Aspirin b. Acetaminophen c. Novocain d. Antihistamines 80. Which type of sensation transmits its impulses over the slowest axons? a. Hearing b. Taste Powered by Cognero

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses c. Itch d. Smell 81. What type of sensation inhibits itch? a. Pain b. Smell c. Vision d. Vestibular sensation 82. How do opiates affect itch sensations? a. They decrease itch. b. They increase itch. c. They make it more difficult to locate the site of itch. d. They cause itch to occur at regular intervals.

83. How do taste receptors differ from other sensory receptors? a. Taste receptors send their messages directly to the brain, not the thalamus. b. Taste receptors make electrical synapses, not chemical ones. c. Taste receptors are modified skin cells, not neurons. d. Taste receptors respond to both taste and smell.

84. How are taste receptors and olfactory receptors similar to each other? a. They have just five types, each sensitive to a different chemical. b. They send their input to just the right hemisphere of the brain. c. They are cast off and replaced by new receptors. d. They synchronize their action potentials to the person’s heart beats.

85. Where are the taste buds in adult humans? a. All over the tongue and the inside of the mouth b. At the tip of the tongue c. Along the edge of the tongue d. In the center of the tongue 86. What does the protein in a miracle berry do? a. It makes salty things taste sweet. b. It makes sweet things taste salty. c. It makes sweet things tasteless. d. It makes sour things taste sweet.

87. What do the effects of miracle berries and Gymnema sylvestre tell us about the sense of taste? a. We have receptors that are sensitive to just one taste. b. The brain interprets taste in terms of an across-fiber pattern. c. Each taste receptor responds to a wide variety of substances. d. Each taste produces a characteristic rhythm of action potentials.

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses 88. What do studies of taste adaptation and cross-adaptation tell us about the sense of taste? a. We have receptors that are sensitive to just one taste. b. The brain interprets taste in terms of an across-fiber pattern. c. Each taste receptor responds to a wide variety of substances. d. Each taste produces a characteristic rhythm of action potentials.

89. What do we conclude if two tastes produce cross-adaptation? a. They stimulate the same receptors. b. They produce different temporal patterns of action potentials. c. They send their input to different parts of the cortex. d. They have the same chemical structure.

90. In addition to sweet, sour, salty, and bitter, we have taste buds sensitive to what else? a. Chocolate b. Glutamate c. Cellulose d. Vitamins 91. Water mildly stimulates the taste receptors for what kind of taste? a. Sweet b. Sour c. Salty d. Bitter 92. How do we detect the taste of water? a. By its texture alone b. By its effect on sour receptors c. By its effect on sweet receptors d. By a separate type of receptor 93. Water has a distinctive what? a. Taste receptor b. Texture c. Bicarbonate d. Acid-to-base ratio 94. In addition to stimulating different receptors, how else do tastes differ? a. They have different effects on the olfactory system. b. They send their input to different lobes of the cerebral cortex. c. They generate different velocities of action potentials. d. They generate different temporal patterns of action potentials.

95. For jalapeños and related plants, what is the evolutionary advantage of producing capsaicin? a. It increases strength of the plant’s immune system.

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses b. It causes the plant’s fruits to last longer without deteriorating. c. It protects the plant from sudden changes in air temperature. d. It discourages mammals, but not birds, from eating the plant’s seeds.

96. Taste receptors for sweet, bitter, and umami resemble which of the following? a. Metabotropic synapses b. Ionotropic synapses c. Rods d. Cones 97. Why can we taste such a wide variety of chemicals as bitter? a. We have 30 or more types of bitter receptors b. We have a bitter receptor that is versatile enough to detect many types of chemicals. c. All bitter substances are chemically similar. d. Sweet and sour receptors can detect bitter substances.

98. What does it mean if sensory coding uses an across-fiber pattern? a. The response by each individual cell is ambiguous. b. Every receptor responds equally to all types of stimulation. c. The system uses at least four types of receptors. d. More than one lobe of the cortex contributes to the sensation.

99. Kani is a “supertaster.” How does Kani differ from other people? a. Kani has more types of taste receptors. b. Kani has better than average ability to imagine tastes. c. Kani has better than average judgment in choosing their wines. d. Kani has more taste buds.

100. When is a person’s taste sensitivity at its maximum? a. During childhood b. Early in pregnancy c. Around the time of menopause d. In old age 101. How did researchers demonstrate that the human sense of smell is better than most people thought? a. They showed that people can learn to name over a hundred types of odor. b. They showed that people in fact have more types of olfactory receptors than dogs or mice. c. They showed that people remember smells better than they remember sounds. d. They showed that people can follow a scent trail across a field.

102. Humans detect odors better than we generally imagine, although most of us are poor at what? a. Distinguishing sweet from bitter b. Detecting an odor as male or female c. Distinguishing odors from tastes Powered by Cognero

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses d. Naming the odors we detect 103. How many types of olfactory receptors do people have? a. Just one b. Three c. Seven d. Hundreds 104. Olfactory receptors operate in a way similar to which of the following? a. Metabotropic synapses b. Ionotropic synapses c. Rods and cones d. Hair cells of the ear 105. What is true of cells in the primary olfactory cortex (piriform cortex)? a. Each cell responds to just one odor. b. The response of a cell changes over time. c. Each cell has a neighbor that responds in the opposite way. d. Cells synchronize their activity with the person’s heartbeat.

106. What is the main way in which the COVID virus impairs the sense of smell? a. It damages skin cells that support receptors in the nose. b. It slows the action potentials from the nose to the brain. c. It damages the primary olfactory cortex (piriform cortex). d. It prevents receptors from summating their inputs.

107. What people tend to have the best ability to detect odors? a. Young men b. Old men c. Young women d. Old women 108. What is synesthesia? a. Greater than average ability to produce visual imagery b. Continued sensation in an amputated limb c. Experience in one sense caused by stimulation to a different one d. Insensitivity to pain 109. When researchers found 10 people who all experienced A as red, C as yellow, and so forth, what did those people have in common? a. As children, they watched the same television shows. b. As children, they played with the same refrigerator magnets. c. As adolescents, they experimented with the same drugs. d. As adolescents, they listened to the same music.

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses 110. What behavioral evidence indicates that synesthesia is real, and not something that people claim to experience? a. People with synesthesia find a 2 among 5s faster than usual if they have different synesthetic colors, and slower if they have the same color. b. It is easy to teach someone to develop synesthesia. c. Some people’s synesthetic associations match the colors of refrigerator magnets they played with in childhood. d. Many people change their synesthetic associations from one year to the next.

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

111. Children hear higher frequencies of sounds than adults do. a. True b. False 112. The pinna helps us locate the source of a sound. a. True b. False 113. The structure of the ear is the same in fish as in mammals. a. True b. False 114. The frequency theory of pitch perception is best for explaining the highest frequencies that we hear. a. True b. False 115. Spots along the basilar membrane resonate to a tone the same way a piano string does. a. True b. False 116. Like the visual system, the auditory system has both a “what” and a “where” pathway. a. True b. False 117. People with loss of the primary auditory cortex are completely deaf. a. True b. False 118. The auditory cortex is important for thinking about anything related to sounds. a. True b. False 119. For localizing a sound, phase and onset time are more useful to large animals than small animals. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses 120. People with absolute pitch are born with that ability. a. True b. False 121. Facilitating the excitatory synapses and decreasing the inhibitory synapses, or “turning up the volume knob” to increase the sound, improves hearing most of the time, and in a noisy environment, it decreases the background noise. a. True b. False 122. The vestibular system helps you read signs while you are walking. a. True b. False 123. The semicircular canals record the position of your head at rest. a. True b. False 124. Cold-sensitive neurons in the spinal cord respond only to changes in temperature. a. True b. False 125. Heat-sensitive neurons in the spinal cord respond only to changes in temperatures. a. True b. False 126. Touch information from both the head and the rest of the body enters the nervous system through spinal nerves. a. True b. False 127. Each spinal nerve innervates (connects to) a limited area of the body called a dermatome. a. True b. False 128. Some people accurately guess where on the body they have been touched, even though they did not feel it consciously. a. True b. False 129. Activating certain neurons in the midbrain decreases pain sensitivity in female mice, but not in males. a. True b. False 130. In the spinal cord, information about both touch and pain crosses immediately to the contralateral side. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses 131. Pain-relieving drugs also reduce hurt feelings. a. True b. False 132. Opiate drugs relieve pain by acting on the pain receptors. a. True b. False 133. When people report less pain after taking a placebo, the brain still shows the same response to pain as it did previously. a. True b. False 134. Itch is a type of pain. a. True b. False 135. Researchers identified special receptors for itch and a special peptide that itch releases in the nervous system. a. True b. False 136. Several species of carnivores have no taste buds sensitive to sweets. a. True b. False 137. Taste receptors are modified skin cells. a. True b. False 138. You have taste buds along the sides of your tongue, but not in the center. a. True b. False 139. The “taste” of water is just its texture. a. True b. False 140. People have 30 or more types of receptors for bitter tastes. a. True b. False 141. Jalapeños taste hot to mammals, but not to birds. a. True b. False 142. All adults have nearly the same number of taste buds on the tongue.

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses a. True b. False 143. People are capable of following a trail of scent across a field. a. True b. False 144. People have hundreds of types of olfactory receptors. a. True b. False 145. People periodically replace their taste and olfactory receptors. a. True b. False 146. A sharp decline in odor sensitivity is often an early sign of a serious disorder. a. True b. False 147. Men and women are about equal in their sense of smell. a. True b. False

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

148. Pitch corresponds to the ____________________ of a sound.

149. Two musical instruments, such as violin and clarinet, playing the same note at the same loudness nevertheless differ with regard to ___________________.

150. The auditory receptors are known as ____________________ cells.

151. The organization of the auditory cortex parallels that of the visual cortex ____________________.

152. The fancy name for “tone deafness” is ____________________.

153. Anything that prevents the bones of the middle ear from transmitting sound waves to the cochlea will cause ____________________ deafness.

154. The saccule, utricle, and the three semicircular canals produce ____________________ sensation.

155. The ability of certain people after damage to area S1 to “guess” the location of touch on the skin, without feeling it consciously, is known as ____________________.

156. A drug that has been reported to reduce hurt feelings is ____________________.

157. The brain chemicals that attach to the same receptors as morphine are called ____________________.

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses 158. The theory devised to explain why the same injury hurts more at some times than others, or why it hurts some people more than others, is ____________________ theory.

159. A barrage of painful stimuli potentiates the cells responsive to pain so that they produce chronic pain known as ____________________ pain.

160. A protein in miracle berries changes taste receptors such that sour juices taste ____________________.

161. How many types of olfactory receptors do most mammals have? ____________________ 162. The structure of an olfactory receptor is like a(n) ____________________ neurotransmitter receptor.

163. On average, two people chosen at random probably differ in about ____________________ of their olfactory receptor genes.

164. Someone who perceives each letter and number as having a particular color has the condition known as ____________________.

165. What is the frequency theory of pitch perception, and why does it apply to lower frequencies and not to higher frequencies?

166. What is a major way in which the primary visual cortex differs from the primary auditory cortex (other than the obvious fact that one is visual and the other is auditory)?

167. Why is the difference in onset time a more useful cue to sound localization for some animal species than it is for others?

168. What type of people are most likely to develop absolute pitch?

169. Why is it harder to read while jiggling a page than while jiggling your head?

170. If you had a cut through the left or right half of your spinal cord, why would it affect touch sensations and pain differently?

171. How is emotional pain (hurt feelings) similar to physical pain?

172. Why do we know that itch is not just a type of pain?

173. What do the observations about taste adaptation and cross-adaptation tell us about taste receptors?

174. What evidence showed that people’s sense of smell is better than most people had previously supposed?

175. What factors contribute to individual differences in olfactory sensitivity?

176. How much do people differ in their sense of smell?

177. What evidence shows that synesthesia is real, and not just pretended?

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. c 4. b 5. c 6. c 7. c 8. a 9. c 10. a 11. a 12. c 13. b 14. a 15. a 16. c 17. b 18. b 19. a 20. c 21. c 22. b 23. d 24. a 25. a Powered by Cognero

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses 26. a 27. b 28. c 29. b 30. b 31. b 32. b 33. d 34. a 35. c 36. a 37. c 38. c 39. c 40. c 41. b 42. d 43. b 44. d 45. b 46. b 47. c 48. c 49. c 50. a 51. c Powered by Cognero

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses 52. b 53. b 54. b 55. c 56. a 57. a 58. c 59. a 60. a 61. a 62. b 63. a 64. d 65. d 66. b 67. b 68. c 69. a 70. a 71. d 72. d 73. d 74. d 75. d 76. b Powered by Cognero

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses 77. b 78. d 79. d 80. c 81. a 82. b 83. c 84. c 85. c 86. d 87. a 88. a 89. a 90. b 91. b 92. b 93. b 94. d 95. d 96. a 97. a 98. a 99. d 100. b 101. d 102. d Powered by Cognero

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses 103. d 104. a 105. b 106. a 107. c 108. c 109. b 110. a 111. True 112. True 113. False 114. False 115. False 116. True 117. False 118. True 119. True 120. False 121. False 122. True 123. False 124. True 125. False 126. False 127. True Powered by Cognero

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses 128. True 129. False 130. False 131. True 132. False 133. False 134. False 135. True 136. True 137. True 138. True 139. False 140. True 141. True 142. False 143. True 144. True 145. True 146. True 147. False 148. Frequency 149. Timbre 150. Hair 151. Visual 152. Amusia Powered by Cognero

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses 153. Conductive Middle-ear 154. Vestibular 155. Numbsense 156. Acetaminophen Tylenol 157. Endorphins 158. Gate 159. Neuropathic 160. Sweet 161. Hundreds 162. Metabotropic 163. Metabotropic 164. Synesthesia 165. According to the frequency theory, the basilar membrane vibrates in synchrony with sound waves, causing the auditory nerve to produce action potentials at that frequency. This theory works for lower frequencies, but people can hear up to 20,000 Hz, and the refractory period of the axon prevents action potentials from approaching that level.

166. After damage to the primary visual cortex, people become blind. Damage to the primary auditory cortex impairs perception of speech, music, and other meaningful sounds, but it does not make one totally deaf.

167. Difference in onset time is useful for animals with a large head, but not for animals with a small head, because the difference in arrival times at the ears would not be large enough.

168. In addition to people with a genetic predisposition, people with early musical training and people who speak a tonal language have an increased probability of developing absolute pitch.

169. When you move your head, the vestibular system monitors the head movements and makes compensatory movements of your eyes. It can’t help when you jiggle the page.

170. The axons conveying pain cross immediately to the opposite side of the spinal cord, whereas the axons conveying touch travel up the ipsilateral side of the cord until they reach the medulla. Therefore, a cut through half of the spinal cord would destroy touch information from that side of the body, and pain information from the opposite side.

171. Emotional pain activates the same brain areas that respond to physical pain, especially the cingulate cortex, which responds to the emotional aspect of pain. Also, acetaminophen, known as a pain reliever, reduces hurt feelings.

172. Itch has special receptors and it releases a special peptide in the nervous system. The axons transmitting itch information are slow, even slower than pain axons. Pain inhibits itch. If you get Novocain to avoid pain while a dentist drills your teeth, the itch sensations return before the touch or pain sensations return.

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06_Hearing_the_Mechanical_Senses_and_the_Chemical_Senses 173. Adaptation to a taste, such as sour, reduces responses to other sour tastes without significant effects on sweet, salty, bitter, or umami. Other cross-adaptation studies show that we have a limited number of types of taste receptors, each sensitive to a limited range of chemicals.

174. Young people who were blindfolded and forced to wear gloves were able to follow a trail of scent across a field.

175. People differ in olfactory sensitivity because of genetics, age, illness, and gender.

176. They differ substantially. On average, two people chosen at random differ in about 30 percent of their olfactory receptor genes. Compared to anyone else you know, you probably experience some smells stronger, and some weaker.

177. People who have different synesthetic colors for the numbers 2 and 5 can find the 2s among a swarm of 5s faster than average.

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07_Movement

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What is the relationship between axons and muscle fibers? a. Each muscle fiber receives input from just one axon. b. Each axon connects to just one muscle fiber. c. Each axon connects to many muscle fibers, and each muscle fiber gets input from many axons. d. Most muscle fibers receive no input from any axon.

2. Why can you move your eye muscles more precisely than your biceps? a. The eye muscles are fast-twitch fibers. b. The eye muscles respond to a different neurotransmitter. c. The eye muscles have a higher ratio of axons to muscle fibers. d. More of the brain is devoted to vision than to movement.

3. A neuromuscular junction is a type of what? a. Axon b. Synapse c. Muscle fiber d. Neurotransmitter 4. What neurotransmitter does an axon release to a skeletal muscle? a. Acetylcholine b. Glutamate c. Dopamine d. It varies from one muscle to another.

5. After your flexor muscle has moved your arm one direction, how could you move it back? a. Send an inhibitory neurotransmitter to the flexor muscle. b. Send no neurotransmitter to the flexor muscle. c. Send an excitatory neurotransmitter to the extensor muscle. d. Send an inhibitory neurotransmitter to the extensor muscle.

6. How can you move an arm or leg back and forth? a. Alternate between exciting your flexor and extensor muscles. b. Alternate between exciting and inhibiting your flexor muscles. c. Alternate between exciting and inhibiting your extensor muscles. d. Alternate between releasing glutamate and GABA at the muscles.

7. How does the movement of a fish change when the water gets colder? a. The fish moves at the same speed by using more muscles. b. The fish moves more slowly. c. The fish moves faster. d. The fish moves at the same speed by increasing the velocity of action potentials.

8. How does the movement of a fish change when the water gets colder?

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07_Movement a. The fish moves faster. b. The fish moves more slowly. c. The fish moves at the same speed but fatigues faster. d. The fish moves at the same speed but fails to control direction.

9. You could expect great sprinters and great marathon runners to differ in which ratio? a. Their ratio of fast-twitch fibers to slow-twitch fibers b. Their ratio of flexor muscles to extensor muscles c. Their ratio of glutamate to GABA d. Their ratio of axons to muscle fibers 10. Which of the following is true of slow-twitch muscle fibers? a. They are aerobic and they fatigue quickly. b. They are anaerobic and they fatigue quickly. c. They are aerobic and they resist fatigue. d. They are anaerobic and they resist fatigue.

11. You rely on your slow-twitch muscle fibers for which of the following? a. Control of heartbeat b. Control of stomach contractions c. Running up a hill at full speed d. Slowly walking and talking 12. What do proprioceptors detect? a. Temperature and pain b. Position or movement of a body part c. Tilt of the head d. Sense of time 13. What is true of a stretch reflex? a. Stretching a muscle causes a reflexive contraction. b. Stimulation causes a muscle to stretch. c. Stretching one muscle causes another muscle to stretch also. d. Stretching one muscle causes another muscle to contract.

14. What does a muscle spindle do? a. It detects the stretch of a muscle. b. It binds flexor and extensor muscles together. c. It detects the tension that results from a muscle contraction. d. It provides fuel and oxygen to a muscle.

15. What does a Golgi tendon organ do? a. It detects the stretch of a muscle. b. It binds flexor and extensor muscles together.

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07_Movement c. It detects the tension that results from a muscle contraction. d. It provides fuel and oxygen to a muscle.

16. A student holds their arm straight out and someone pulls it down slightly, it quickly bounces back. What receptor is responsible? a. Muscle spindle b. Golgi tendon organ c. Pacinian corpuscle d. Krause end bulbs 17. If you lift a heavy object, what receptor detects the tension? a. Pacinian corpuscle b. Golgi tendon organ c. Muscle spindle d. Vestibular organ 18. A physician who asks you to cross your legs and then taps just below the knee is testing your what? a. Central pattern generators b. Stretch reflexes c. Motor program d. Acetylcholine level 19. When a cat scratches itself at a rate of three or four strokes per second, what causes this rhythm? a. The muscles themselves b. A learned pattern in the cerebral cortex c. Cells in the spinal cord d. Tendons attached to the muscles 20. When a mouse goes through a sequence of grooming actions, sitting up, licking its paws, passing them over the face, closing the eyes, and so forth, what controls this sequence? a. A motor program controlled by the medulla b. A series of reflexes, each started by feedback from the previous action c. A habit that the mouse learned by trial and error d. A pattern of vibrations between the muscles and the tendons 21. What determines the rhythm of a cat’s scratching movements, or the wet-dog shakes? a. A set of neurons in the spinal cord b. The rhythm of activity produced by the stimulus itself c. The structure of the muscles d. Commands from the prefrontal cortex 22. What kind of muscles would you expect jaguars, cheetahs, and other great cats to have, mostly? a. Fast-twitch b. Slow-twitch c. Aerobic Powered by Cognero

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07_Movement d. Cardiac 23. Where is the primary motor cortex? a. In the frontal cortex, just anterior to the central sulcus b. In the parietal cortex, just posterior to the central sulcus c. At the junction between the parietal cortex and the temporal cortex d. In the most anterior portion of the temporal cortex 24. Axons from the primary motor cortex extend to what? a. The muscles b. The cerebellum c. The basal ganglia d. The brainstem and spinal cord 25. How do the actions of sneezing differ from those of talking and writing? a. They rely on aerobic muscles. b. They rely on slow-twitch muscles. c. They do not rely on a motor program. d. They do not depend on the cerebral cortex.

26. The primary motor cortex is also active when you: a. perform central pattern generated behaviors. b. activate a ballistic movement. c. imagine movements, remember movements, or understand verbs related to movements. d. respond to a stimulus with Golgi tendon organs.

27. What happens when people receive stimulation to the posterior parietal cortex? a. They make a sudden movement. b. They make a slow movement. c. They make quick alternating movements. d. They report an intention to make a movement.

28. When is the posterior parietal cortex most likely to be active? a. During a movement b. While getting ready for a movement c. After a movement is completed d. While inhibiting a movement 29. If someone electrically stimulated the posterior parietal cortex or the supplementary motor cortex, how would the results be similar? a. People would pause and then make a sudden movement. b. People would produce rapid tremors in the hands and feet. c. People would report an intention or desire to make a movement. d. People would repeat whatever was their most recent movement.

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07_Movement 30. When is the supplementary motor cortex most likely to be active? a. During a movement in response to a stimulus b. During a second or more before a voluntary movement c. While remembering or imagining a movement d. Shortly after a voluntary movement 31. With regard to movement, what do the posterior parietal cortex, the supplementary motor cortex, and the premotor cortex have in common? a. They send most of their output to the cerebellum. b. They contribute equally to the lateral and medial corticospinal paths. c. They are active after the completion of a movement. d. They are active before the start of a movement.

32. Kartu’s movements seem disorganized and illogical. What type of brain damage might be responsible? a. Prefrontal cortex b. Fusiform gyrus c. Cerebellum d. Supplementary motor cortex 33. What does the antisaccade task measure? a. Ability to coordinate the left and right halves of the body b. Ability to inhibit an impulse c. Ability to plan a sequence of behaviors d. Ability to vary the speed of a response 34. The antisaccade task measures the activity of which brain area? a. Cerebellum b. Prefrontal cortex c. Corpus callosum d. Supplementary motor cortex 35. In the antisaccade task, what type of movement does a psychologist observe? a. Reflexes b. Finger-to-nose movements c. Rapid alternating movements d. Eye movements 36. How does performance of the antisaccade task develop? a. It develops gradually as the prefrontal cortex matures. b. It starts developing prenatally and is mature by age one year. c. It begins developing at the start of puberty. d. It develops gradually as the cerebellum matures.

37. How does the prefrontal cortex aid performance of the antisaccade task? a. It compares the activity of the visual and auditory cortices.

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07_Movement b. It prepares to inhibit a response before the stimulus starts. c. It equalizes the activity of the left and right hemispheres. d. It increases the activity of the medial corticospinal tract.

38. Who has the greatest difficulty performing the antisaccade task? a. Bilinguals b. Left-handers c. Parents d. Children 39. What is a mirror neuron? a. One that increases activity in both the lateral and medial corticospinal paths b. One that produces a flexion on one side of the body and an extension on the other c. One that is active during a movement and while watching the same movement d. One that is active during a movement and during its inhibition 40. If a neuron were active both when you smile and when you see someone else smile, what would a researcher call that neuron? a. A primary neuron b. A Purkinje neuron c. A bilateral neuron d. A mirror neuron 41. To evaluate whether mirror neurons cause imitation, which question is most important? a. Where in the brain do those neurons occur? b. Can those neurons be demonstrated in other mammalian species? c. Do those neurons receive input from more than one type of sensation? d. When and how do those neurons develop their properties?

42. To conclude that mirror neurons help people imitate, what would someone have to demonstrate? a. Mirror neurons develop their properties before children start to imitate. b. Mirror neurons respond to both seeing and hearing someone else’s movement. c. Mirror neurons occur in the same brain areas of humans as in monkeys. d. Mirror neurons have different properties for people from different cultures.

43. Why are reports of imitation by newborn infants controversial? a. Some infants show imitation and some do not. b. Infants imitate some facial expressions and not others. c. Most parents do not permit research on their newborn infants. d. Some research groups report positive results and some do not.

44. After people practiced a certain task, some of their neurons responded to one movement of their own fingers and a different movement from watching someone else’s fingers. What does this tell us about mirror neurons? a. They are present in only certain parts of the nervous system. b. They are important for causing imitation.

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07_Movement c. They help to control both the lateral and medial corticospinal paths. d. They develop through learning.

45. How does hemiplegia differ from quadriplegia? a. Hemiplegia is a permanent condition. b. Hemiplegia affects the legs and not the arms. c. Hemiplegia affects just one side of the body. d. Hemiplegia is a temporary condition.

46. How does paraplegia differ from quadriplegia? a. Paraplegia is a permanent condition. b. Paraplegia affects the legs and not the arms. c. Paraplegia affects just one side of the body. d. Paraplegia is a temporary condition.

47. The lateral corticospinal tract originates from what structures? a. Cerebellum and basal ganglia b. Much of the cerebral cortex and parts of the midbrain and medulla c. Primary motor cortex and red nucleus d. Medulla and spinal cord 48. The medial corticospinal tract originates from what structures? a. Cerebellum and basal ganglia b. Much of the cerebral cortex and parts of the midbrain and medulla c. Primary motor cortex and red nucleus d. Medulla and spinal cord 49. The lateral corticospinal tract controls muscles of which body parts? a. Hands, fingers, and feet b. Neck, shoulders, and trunk c. Stomach and intestines d. Mouth and throat 50. The medial corticospinal tract controls muscles of which body parts? a. Hands, fingers, and feet b. Neck, shoulders, and trunk c. Stomach and intestines d. Mouth and throat 51. How do the functions of the lateral and medial corticospinal tracts differ? a. The lateral tract controls muscles on just one side of the body. b. The lateral tract controls muscles in the center of the body. c. The lateral tract controls fast-twitch muscles. d. The lateral tract controls slow-twitch muscles.

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07_Movement 52. The lateral corticospinal tract controls which muscles? a. Those of the ipsilateral side of the body b. Those of the contralateral side of the body c. Those of the trunk of the body d. Those of the digestive system 53. You would rely most heavily on your medial corticospinal tract for which of these behaviors? a. Playing a piano b. Signing your name c. Turning from side to side d. Waving goodbye 54. Which part of the human nervous system has more than half of the total neurons? a. Spinal cord b. Cerebral cortex c. Cerebellum d. Basal ganglia 55. Any behavior that requires aim or precise timing of short intervals relies on which brain area? a. Corpus callosum b. Fusiform gyrus c. Basal ganglia d. Cerebellum 56. Why would cerebellar damage impair basketball performance more than weight lifting? a. Weight lifting requires fewer years of practice. b. Weight lifting uses a smaller number of muscles. c. Weight lifting uses a larger number of muscles. d. Weight lifting does not require precise aim or timing.

57. If a sound predicts a puff of air to the eyes 1 second later, how would damage to the cerebellum affect the results? a. It would prevent learning the association. b. It would prevent proper timing of the response. c. It would prevent movement of the eyelid muscles. d. It would prevent generalization to other sounds.

58. Which brain area tends to be larger than average in top athletes for sports that require aim or timing? a. Cerebellum b. Basal ganglia c. Supplementary motor cortex d. Fusiform gyrus 59. The finger-to-nose test is a way to evaluate function of which brain area? a. Basal ganglia Powered by Cognero

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07_Movement b. Cerebellum c. Prefrontal cortex d. Corpus callosum 60. Which of the following produces symptoms that resemble damage to the cerebellum? a. Paraplegia b. Social phobia c. Broca’s aphasia d. Alcohol intoxication 61. How are the parallel fibers of the cerebellum arranged relative to each other and to the Purkinje cells? a. They are parallel to one another and parallel to the planes of the Purkinje cells. b. They are perpendicular to one another and parallel to the planes of the Purkinje cells. c. They are parallel to one another and perpendicular to the planes of the Purkinje cells. d. They are perpendicular to one another and perpendicular to the planes of the Purkinje cells.

62. If a larger number of parallel fibers in the cerebellum are active, what is the effect on the collective output of the Purkinje cells? a. The Purkinje cells increase the delay before their response. b. The Purkinje cells change where they send their output. c. The Purkinje cells increase their duration of response. d. The Purkinje cells increase their frequency of action potentials.

63. The cerebellum has reciprocal connections with what? a. Motor neurons in the spinal cord b. Hypothalamus c. Sympathetic nervous system d. Nearly all parts of the cerebral cortex 64. What structures compose the basal ganglia? a. Midbrain, pons, and medulla b. Thalamus, hypothalamus, hippocampus, and amygdala c. Caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus, and nucleus accumbens. d. Posterior parietal cortex, supplementary motor cortex, and premotor cortex 65. According to a popular hypothesis, what are the roles of the direct and indirect pathways of the basal ganglia? a. The direct path controls fast-twitch fibers, and the indirect path controls slow-twitch fibers. b. The direct path enhances a movement, and the indirect path inhibits competing movements. c. The direct path controls peripheral muscles, and the indirect path controls trunk muscles. d. The direct path is active during movement, and the indirect path is active at rest.

66. The basal ganglia are most important for which type of movements? a. Spontaneous, self-initiated movements b. Movements in response to a stimulus Powered by Cognero

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07_Movement c. Movements that require aim or precise timing d. Imitation of someone else 67. What tends to be characteristic of self-initiated behaviors, in contrast to stimulus-elicited actions? a. Self-initiated behaviors have less accurate aim. b. Self-initiated behaviors have a slower onset. c. Self-initiated behaviors use both sides of the body. d. Self-initiated behaviors are more repetitive.

68. How do the basal ganglia contribute to the control of movement? a. They select which movement to make. b. They control the aim and timing. c. They enable the movement to stop when it is completed. d. They increase the motivation and vigor.

69. In what way, if at all, does basal ganglia activity relate to motivation? a. The basal ganglia help to maintain constant behavior even when motivation is low. b. The basal ganglia increase vigor of response depending on the expected reward value. c. The basal ganglia become active only when you are competing against someone else. d. Basal ganglia activity has nothing to do with motivation.

70. If you respond more strongly to one stimulus than another because you remember the values associated with each of them, which brain area is responsible for that memory? a. Basal ganglia b. Cerebellum c. Fusiform gyrus d. Corpus callosum 71. What type of learning depends on the basal ganglia? a. Classical conditioning b. Learning new habits c. Memorizing a list d. Navigation 72. According to Libet’s study, what is the order of events in a voluntary movement? a. People form an intention, then activity begins in the premotor cortex, and finally the movement starts. b. People form an intention at the same time when activity begins in the premotor cortex, and a bit later, the movement starts. c. Activity begins in the premotor cortex, a bit later, people are aware of forming an intention, and finally the movement starts. d. Activity begins in the premotor cortex, and a bit later, people are aware of forming an intention, and simultaneously the movement starts.

73. Why have philosophers as well as psychologists been interested in Libet’s study on the timing of brain activity, decision, and movement?

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07_Movement a. The results seem to imply mind–body dualism. b. The results have major implications concerning heredity and environment. c. The results challenge the idea consciousness controls behaviors. d. The results conflict with the second law of thermodynamics.

74. When Libet asked people to report the time when they made a conscious decision to make a movement, why were his results philosophically interesting? a. The reported decision for the movement began before any brain activity. b. Brain activity for the movement began before the reported decision. c. Brain activity and the conscious decision happened at the same time. d. The conscious decision controlled a behavior without any brain activity.

75. What is a “readiness potential”? a. Muscle tension in preparation for a movement b. Activity in the motor cortex before a voluntary movement c. An action potential in a motor neuron d. A procedure for testing attention-deficit disorder 76. Why are Libet’s results about the timing of conscious decisions, brain activity, and movement difficult to interpret? a. The results are impossible to replicate. b. The procedure assumes that people can report the time of a decision. c. The measured activity came from a brain area not related to movement. d. The results for monkeys differ from those of humans.

77. Why is it difficult for someone to state the time of a decision to make a voluntary movement? a. Describing the decision interferes with the movement. b. Making the movement interferes with the decision. c. The decision is a gradual process. d. People do not like to describe their private experiences.

78. Parkinson’s disease results from loss of axons that release which transmitter? a. GABA b. Acetylcholine c. Serotonin d. Dopamine 79. Parkinson’s disease results from loss of axons that originate in which structure? a. Cerebellum b. Substantia nigra c. Primary motor cortex d. Thalamus 80. What is meant by a “progressive” disease? a. Its symptoms fluctuate from one time to another.

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07_Movement b. It moves from one body part to another. c. It improves over time. d. It gets worse and worse over time.

81. Which type of movement is most impaired in people with Parkinson’s disease? a. Eye movements to follow a moving object b. Reflexes c. Voluntary movements d. Movements controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system 82. The symptoms of Parkinson’s disease result when activity decreases in which brain area? a. Posterior parietal cortex b. Cerebellum c. Striatum d. Corpus callosum 83. Why does decreased activity in the striatum cause Parkinson’s disease? a. The striatum strengthens all reflexive behaviors b. The striatum motivates and energizes movement. c. Axons from the striatum form the medial corticospinal tract. d. Axons from the striatum form the lateral corticospinal tract.

84. Many people with Parkinson’s disease have which of these additional problems? a. Weight gain b. Depression c. Excessive itchiness d. Insomnia 85. Heritability of Parkinson’s disease is highest for which of the following? a. Early onset b. Late onset c. Men d. Women 86. The risk of Parkinson’s disease is higher among what type of workers? a. Those who work overtime and on weekends b. Those who work at night and try to sleep in the daytime c. Those who have much exposure to pesticides d. Those who work in offices without windows 87. What substances decrease the risk of Parkinson’s disease? a. Alcohol and marijuana b. Seafood, beef, and pork c. Cauliflower and broccoli Powered by Cognero

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07_Movement d. Coffee, tea, and cigarettes 88. What was unusual about the introduction of L-dopa as a treatment for Parkinson’s disease? a. It emerged from a theory about the disease. b. It emerged from research on insects. c. It emerged from observations on people who took a recreational drug. d. It emerged from attempts to treat malaria.

89. L-dopa is more effective in some people than in others, probably because of what? a. A variation in the intestinal bacteria that metabolize L-dopa before it can enter the blood b. A variation in responses to viral infections c. Differences in histories of drug use d. Genetic predispositions to the effectiveness of L-dopa 90. How does L-dopa affect the brain? a. It increases blood flow to the brain. b. Neurons use it for fuel. c. Neurons convert it to dopamine. d. It increases the velocity of action potentials.

91. What is the main limitation of using L-dopa for Parkinson’s disease? a. It has the potential to become addictive. b. It often produces depressed mood as a side effect. c. It does not halt the progressive loss of neurons. d. It works better for men than for women.

92. Which of the following is often an effective treatment for Parkinson’s disease? a. A change in the sleep schedule b. Surgical removal of part of the basal ganglia c. Direct electrical stimulation of the brain d. A gluten-free diet 93. Which of the following has been an experimental treatment for Parkinson’s disease? a. Transplant of brain tissue b. Electroconvulsive shock therapy c. Steroid hormones d. Age-regression psychotherapy 94. What is the limitation about transplanting brain tissue for treating Parkinson’s disease? a. The transplanted cells survive only a few days. b. The operation is difficult and very expensive. c. The procedure is illegal in most places d. The procedure is beneficial only for people with severe symptoms.

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07_Movement 95. Haloperidol is a drug that blocks dopamine synapses. What effect would it probably have for Parkinson’s disease? a. It would postpone the onset of the disease. b. It would facilitate the benefits from L-dopa. c. It would make the condition worse. d. It would relieve some of the symptoms.

96. What are usually the first symptoms of Huntington’s disease? a. Arm jerks and facial twitches b. Insomnia and increased appetite c. Rigidity and slow movements d. Nightmares and delusions 97. Which of these is a difference between Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease? a. The heritability is higher for Parkinson’s disease. b. The treatments are more effective for Huntington’s disease. c. The loss of neurons happens more suddenly in Huntington’s disease. d. The loss of neurons is more widespread in Huntington’s disease.

98. Which of these conditions is caused by a single gene? a. Major depression b. Schizophrenia c. Huntington’s disease d. Parkinson’s disease 99. Why does damage to the basal ganglia in Huntington’s disease cause involuntary jerky movements? a. The basal ganglia control mostly the lateral corticospinal tract. b. The basal ganglia control mostly the medial corticospinal tract. c. Output from the basal ganglia to the thalamus is excitatory. d. Output from the basal ganglia to the thalamus is inhibitory.

100. Both Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease are classified as what type of condition? a. Hormonal b. Iatrogenic c. Progressive d. Psychogenic 101. What type of gene causes Huntington’s disease? a. An autosomal dominant gene b. An autosomal recessive gene c. An X-linked dominant gene d. An X-linked recessive gene 102. Genetically, what causes Huntington’s disease? a. A microdeletion of part of a chromosome Powered by Cognero

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07_Movement b. A gene with an excessive number of C-A-G repeats c. A single substitution of one DNA base for another d. An epigenetic change in the expression of one gene 103. Examination of someone’s chromosomes can reveal not only whether the person will get Huntington’s disease, but also what else? a. The probable response to treatment b. The probable age of onset c. The probable additional symptoms d. The probable number of relatives who will get the disease 104. For Huntington’s disease and a few other neurological conditions, what can predict the age of onset of symptoms? a. A count of how many times a triplet of DNA bases is repeated in one gene b. A measurement of the variation in blood flow to certain brain areas c. An evaluation of the types of bacteria in the intestinal tract d. An examination of the frequency of alpha waves in the EEG 105. How does the gene that causes Huntington’s disease exert its effects? a. It alters the structure of a protein that is important in the brain. b. It alters the structure of a protein that affects blood flow. c. It causes a decreased production of myelin. d. It decreases the production of several neurotransmitters.

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

106. Right-handed and left-handed children tend to draw profiles in opposite directions. a. True b. False 107. Smooth muscles are found mostly in the arms and legs. a. True b. False 108. Each muscle fiber receives input from only one axon. a. True b. False 109. Every axon to a muscle fiber releases the same transmitter. a. True b. False 110. Every muscle fiber is innervated by both excitatory and inhibitory transmitters. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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07_Movement 111. Fish swim more slowly in colder water. a. True b. False 112. Slow-twitch muscle fibers are anaerobic. a. True b. False 113. A ballistic movement, such as a reflex, is executed as a whole. a. True b. False 114. A cat scratches itself at the same rate regardless of what caused the scratching. a. True b. False 115. Recordings from brain activity enable some paralyzed people to control robotic arms. a. True b. False 116. The primary motor cortex sends axons to the muscles. a. True b. False 117. The primary motor cortex and the primary somatosensory cortex line up, side by side. a. True b. False 118. The primary motor cortex chooses the intended outcome and lets other areas select the combination of muscles. a. True b. False 119. Stimulating the posterior parietal cortex or the supplementary cortex causes a feeling of intention to make a movement. a. True b. False 120. Children perform the antisaccade task better than adults. a. True b. False 121. Psychologists use the antisaccade task to measure reflexes. a. True b. False 122. Performance on an antisaccade task declines in old age and as a result of schizophrenia, attention-deficit disorder, or Powered by Cognero

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07_Movement alcohol intoxication. a. True b. False 123. Research clearly demonstrates that mirror neurons are present from birth. a. True b. False 124. The lateral corticospinal tract controls movements of the neck and trunk. a. True b. False 125. The medial corticospinal tract controls muscles on both sides of the body. a. True b. False 126. If a stroke damages the primary motor cortex of one hemisphere, the result is impaired movement on the same side of the body. a. True b. False 127. The best description of the function of the cerebellum is that it controls balance and coordination. a. True b. False 128. The finger-to-nose test is a way to measure activity of the prefrontal cortex. a. True b. False 129. The arrangement of parallel fibers and Purkinje cells enables the cerebellum to control the timing of a response. a. True b. False 130. The basal ganglia are mostly important for spontaneous, self-initiated behaviors. a. True b. False 131. Self-initiated behaviors are slower than reactions to a stimulus. a. True b. False 132. The basal ganglia control the motivation and vigor of a response. a. True b. False 133. Cells in the basal ganglia store memories of the reward values associated with many objects.

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07_Movement a. True b. False 134. People make a conscious decision for a movement before brain activity for that movement begins. a. True b. False 135. Libet’s experiment that measured decisions and readiness potentials challenged the idea that we consciously decide what to do. a. True b. False 136. It is agreed that people can accurately report the time of making a conscious decision. a. True b. False 137. Both Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease are considered progressive diseases. a. True b. False 138. The heritability is as high for Parkinson’s disease as it is for Huntington’s disease. a. True b. False 139. People in some jobs have more risk of Parkinson’s disease than do people in other jobs. a. True b. False 140. Smoking cigarettes increases the risk of Parkinson’s disease. a. True b. False 141. The benefits of L-dopa for Parkinson’s disease were discovered by accident. a. True b. False 142. L-dopa treatment stops the progressive neuron damage in Parkinson’s disease. a. True b. False 143. Huntington’s disease is more common among Americans of European ancestry than among other people. a. True b. False 144. Huntington’s disease is caused by a single gene. a. True Powered by Cognero

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07_Movement b. False 145. Examining the chromosomes can predict whether someone will get Huntington’s disease and the probable age of onset. a. True b. False

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

146. The muscles that control the digestive system are ____________________ muscles.

147. The muscles that are antagonistic to flexor muscles are ____________________ muscles.

148. All axons to skeletal muscles release the transmitter ____________________.

149. The proprioceptor that responds to the stretch of a muscle by sending a message that contracts the muscle is a(n) ____________________.

150. The proprioceptor that detects increases in muscle tension is a ____________________.

151. The brain area that is most active immediately before a movement is the ____________________.

152. If you do something absentminded first thing in the morning, probably your ____________________ is not yet fully awake.

153. The antisaccade task measures the ability of the prefrontal cortex to ____________________.

154. Neurons that are activated both when you do something and when you watch someone else do the same thing are ____________________ neurons.

155. The axon path that controls contralateral movements of the hands and feet is the ____________________.

156. The axon path that controls bilateral movements of the neck and trunk is the ____________________.

157. In the cerebellum, parallel fibers are perpendicular to the planes of the ____________________ cells.

158. Fibers from the somatosensory cortex modify the movement based on ____________________.

159. The caudate nucleus and putamen together form the ____________________.

160. The caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus, and nucleus accumbens constitute the ____________________ ganglia.

161. Activity in the motor cortex in preparation for a voluntary movement is a ____________________ potential.

162. Parkinson’s disease is caused by loss of input from the substantia nigra to the ____________________.

163. Parkinson’s disease is caused by axons that release the transmitter ____________________.

164. The most common treatment for Parkinson’s disease is pills containing ____________________.

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07_Movement 165. Huntington’s disease can have onset at any age, but most often between the ages of ____________________.

166. How does a fish manage to move at the same speed when the water gets colder? And what is the consequence?

167. What is the function of Golgi tendon organs?

168. Why does a cat always scratch itself at a rate of three or four strokes per second, and what evidence supports this conclusion?

169. How do we know that cells in the motor cortex govern the outcome of a movement, rather than the muscle contractions themselves?

170. What is the antisaccade task, and what does it measure?

171. To determine whether mirror neurons explain imitation, what do researchers need to establish?

172. How do the functions of the lateral and medial corticospinal tracts differ?

173. How does the arrangement of parallel fibers and Purkinje cells enable the cerebellum to control the duration of a movement?

174. Which is faster, self-initiated movements or movements in response to a stimulus? And how does that difference relate to the brain structures controlling movement?

175. When Libet measured the timing of activities for a self-initiated movement, what was the order of occurrence of the movement, the reported time of deciding on the movement, and the start of the brain activity? And why is this study philosophically interesting?

176. What lifestyle factors increase or decrease the risk of Parkinson’s disease?

177. What can an examination of the chromosomes tell someone who has a family history of Huntington’s disease?

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07_Movement Answer Key 1. a 2. c 3. b 4. a 5. c 6. a 7. a 8. c 9. a 10. c 11. d 12. b 13. a 14. a 15. c 16. a 17. b 18. b 19. c 20. a 21. a 22. a 23. a 24. d 25. d Powered by Cognero

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07_Movement 26. c 27. d 28. b 29. c 30. b 31. d 32. a 33. b 34. b 35. d 36. a 37. b 38. d 39. c 40. d 41. d 42. a 43. d 44. d 45. c 46. b 47. c 48. b 49. a 50. b 51. a Powered by Cognero

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07_Movement 52. b 53. c 54. c 55. d 56. d 57. b 58. a 59. b 60. d 61. c 62. c 63. d 64. c 65. b 66. a 67. b 68. d 69. b 70. a 71. b 72. c 73. c 74. b 75. b 76. b Powered by Cognero

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07_Movement 77. c 78. d 79. b 80. d 81. c 82. c 83. b 84. b 85. a 86. c 87. d 88. a 89. a 90. c 91. c 92. c 93. a 94. b 95. c 96. a 97. d 98. c 99. d 100. c 101. a 102. b Powered by Cognero

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07_Movement 103. b 104. a 105. a 106. True 107. False 108. True 109. True 110. False 111. False 112. False 113. True 114. True 115. True 116. False 117. True 118. True 119. True 120. False 121. False 122. True 123. False 124. False 125. True 126. False 127. False Powered by Cognero

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07_Movement 128. False 129. True 130. True 131. True 132. True 133. True 134. False 135. True 136. False 137. True 138. False 139. True 140. False 141. False 142. False 143. True 144. True 145. True 146. Smooth 147. Extensor 148. Acetylcholine 149. spindle 150. Golgi tendon organ 151. Premotor cortex 152. Prefrontal cortex Powered by Cognero

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07_Movement 153. Inhibit a movement 154. Mirror 155. Lateral corticospinal tract 156. Medial corticospinal tract 157. Purkinje 158. Sensory information 159. Striatum Dorsal striatum 160. Basal 161. Readiness 162. Striatum Lateral striatum 163. Dopamine 164. L-dopa 165. L-dopa 166. In warmer water a fish relies mainly on red muscles, which do not fatigue. In colder water, the fish recruits more pink and white muscles, which can contract with enough strength to maintain the same swimming speed. However, these muscles fatigue faster, and so the fish cannot maintain its speed for as long as in warm water.

167. Golgi tendon organs, proprioceptors in the tendons at opposite ends of a muscle, respond to increases in muscle tension. Some muscles are so strong that they could damage themselves if too many fibers contracted at once. Golgi tendon organs detect the tension that results during a muscle contraction, sending messages to the spinal cord to inhibit the motor neurons. In doing so, they put on the brakes to prevent an excessive contraction.

168. Cells in the spinal cord generate this rhythm. The evidence is that those cells can generate the rhythm even if they are isolated from the brain, or if the muscles are paralyzed. They do not rely on sensory feedback.

169. A half-second stimulation of a spot in a monkey’s motor cortex caused a grasping movement that brought the hand to the mouth, regardless of where the hand had been at the start. The outcome was reliably the same, but the muscle movements had to vary.

170. In the antisaccade task, the instruction is to move your eyes as quickly as possible in the direction away from a moving object that you see. The task measures the prefrontal cortex’s ability to inhibit the natural impulse to look at the moving object.

171. They need to determine whether the neurons have these mirror properties from the start, before imitation begins, or whether they learn their properties as a result of interacting with other individuals.

172. The lateral tract controls muscles at the periphery of the contralateral side of the body, mainly the hands, fingers, and Powered by Cognero

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07_Movement feet. The medial tract has bilateral control of the muscles of the neck, shoulders, and trunk.

173. Parallel fibers are perpendicular to the planes of Purkinje cells. A parallel fiber activates one Purkinje cell after another. Depending on which parallel fibers are active, and how many are active, the combined response of Purkinje cells can be brief or more prolonged. The duration of response by Purkinje cells controls the timing.

174. Movements in response to a stimulus are faster. The basal ganglia control self-initiated movements, and their activity builds up relatively slowly.

175. Recordable activity in the brain came first, then the reported time of the decision, and finally the movement. This is a philosophically interesting result because it appears to demonstrate that our decisions are caused by unconscious processes.

176. Chronic exposure to pesticides, metals, or air pollution increases the risk. A traumatic head injury increases the risk.

Cigarettes, coffee, tea, and exercise (all of which increase brain stimulation) decrease the risk.

177. Examination of the chromosomes can indicate whether or not the person will develop the disease. It also indicates the approximate age when symptoms will begin.

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Why were many psychologists of the mid-1900s skeptical of the idea of self-generated circadian rhythms? a. They did not have the technology to study brain mechanisms. b. They did not understand the distinction between genetic and epigenetic. c. They believed in mind–body dualism. d. They believed all behaviors were responses to stimuli.

2. What does endogenous mean? a. Genetic b. Self-produced c. Subcortical d. Helpful 3. Which of these is triggered by an endogenous circannual rhythm? a. Sleep b. Breathing c. Hibernation d. Digestion 4. How do migratory birds know when to fly north for the spring? a. They respond to changes in temperature. b. They respond to changes in daylight. c. They have an endogenous circannual rhythm. d. They follow their food sources as they move north.

5. When an animal awakens at almost the same time every day in an unchanging environment, it provides evidence for which of the following? a. Zeitgebers b. Paradoxical sleep c. Endogenous circadian rhythms d. Endogenous circannual rhythms 6. Workers on certain submarines work 6 hours, relax 6 hours, and then sleep 6 hours. After weeks on this schedule, what happens to their circadian rhythms? a. It continues to average a bit more than 24 hours. b. It adjusts to produce an 18-hour rhythm. c. It produces a rhythm intermediate between 18 and 24 hours. d. It stops producing any rhythm at all.

7. Does human body temperature vary over a day? If so, when is it highest, on average? a. No, it is constant. b. Yes, it is highest in early morning. c. Yes, it is highest in late afternoon. d. Yes, it is highest in the middle of the night.

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep 8. When do young adults usually report their time of greatest positive mood? a. Early in the morning b. Late in the afternoon c. Just before bedtime d. While taking multiple-choice tests like this one 9. Why do most young adults report most pleasant mood in late afternoon? a. Mood depends on how long someone has been awake. b. Mood follows a circadian rhythm. c. Mood improves in preparation for a meal. d. Mood improves when sunlight decreases.

10. What is the main zeitgeber for the human circadian rhythm? a. Light b. Social activity c. Exercise d. Meals 11. A group of people are spending 3 months working in Antarctica during the winter. What affect on their usual patterns could lead to them finding it difficult to work together? a. Their work schedules keep them so busy that they can’t sleep enough. b. Their circadian rhythms drift out of phase with one another. c. After living together in close quarters for so long, they start to irritate one another and can’t sleep. d. They get homesick and can’t sleep.

12. What interferes with the circadian rhythms of astronauts in orbit? a. Exposure to ionizing radiation b. Inability to exercise c. Expectation of 24-hour alertness d. Lack of a 24-hour zeitgeber 13. Why do people in east Germany prefer to wake up earlier than those in west Germany? a. East Germany is in a different time zone. b. Different customs were established when east Germany had a communist government. c. Businesses open earlier in east Germany. d. The sun rises earlier in east Germany.

14. Which of these is considered strong evidence that light is a strong zeitgeber? a. Most young adults prefer to awaken later than most older people do. b. People in east Germany prefer to awaken earlier than those in west Germany. c. People in an unchanging environment continue to produce a 24-hour rhythm. d. People working on a submarine have difficulty adjusting to an 18-hour work cycle.

15. Of the following, who would have the greatest difficulty keeping their alertness in phase with the clock?

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep a. Persons who are blind b. People who are hard of hearing c. Children d. People with limited mobility 16. Why do many persons who are blind periodically experience something similar to jet lag? a. Their sleep is more likely than average to be disturbed by any noise. b. Their circadian rhythms drift out of phase with the clock. c. They often suffer difficulties and anxieties related to travel. d. Their suprachiasmatic nucleus deteriorates from lack of input.

17. Ari is on a flight from California to New York. Ari will experience a disruption of circadian rhythms after crossing time zones known as: a. insomnia. b. a circadian shift. c. jet lag. d. a zeitgeber.

18. Why do many people who work the night shift fail to adjust well? a. They don’t stay on the night shift long enough. b. The workplace is colder at night than during the day. c. The artificial light at the workplace is not bright enough. d. The social environment for night workers is unpleasant.

19. Which of the following would improve alertness and health for workers on the night shift? a. More careful attention from the supervisors b. A substantial meal at the start of work c. Louder music in the workplace d. Brighter lights in the workplace 20. How does age affect being a morning person or an evening person? a. Young adults are most likely to be evening people, in all cultures. b. Young adults are most likely to be morning people, in all cultures. c. People establish themselves early as one or the other and do not change. d. The results vary from one culture to another.

21. What does the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) do? a. It generates the circadian rhythm. b. It controls the onset of REM sleep. c. It inactivates the postural muscles during REM sleep. d. It inhibits the spread of synaptic activity during sleep.

22. Which brain area generates the circadian rhythm? a. The locus coeruleus Powered by Cognero

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep b. The pineal gland c. The basal forebrain d. The suprachiasmatic nucleus 23. What evidence strongly indicates that the SCN produces the circadian rhythm itself? a. SCN activity increases during the day and decreases at night. b. The SCN is larger in animal species that have a more precise circadian rhythm. c. Input from special ganglion cells in the retina alter the activity of the SCN. d. SCN cells produce a circadian rhythm of activity after being isolated from the body.

24. What is unusual about the visual input to the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)? a. It does not depend on the optic nerve. b. It does not respond to short-wavelength (blue) light. c. It does not depend on rods or cones. d. It responds only to brief flashes of light.

25. What is unusual about the ganglion cells that project to the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)? a. They respond to light quickly but only briefly. b. They have their own photopigment. c. They respond only to cones. d. They respond only to rods.

26. Light can reset the SCN’s rhythm even after damage to all rods and cones. Why? a. The SCN itself responds to light. b. The SCN receives input from the pineal gland. c. The SCN receives input from skin cells that respond to light. d. The SCN receives input from ganglion cells that respond to light.

27. What information about light does the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) record? a. The average amount of light over time b. The direction of movement c. The variation in color among parts of the retina d. The distance to the source of light 28. Hansha has complete damage to her visual cortex and continues to wake and sleep in phase with sunlight. Why? a. Light stimulates receptors in the skin. b. Light stimulates the pineal gland directly. c. A branch of the optic nerve goes to the lateral geniculate nucleus. d. A branch of the optic nerve goes to the suprachiasmatic nucleus.

29. Yentil enjoys spending late evening hours playing online video games. Why may Yentil be finding it hard to sleep? a. Video game displays emit both light and sound. b. Video game displays emit mostly short-wavelength light. c. Video games display a great deal of movement.

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep d. Video game displays require attention to a particular location.

30. If you want to get to sleep on time, what should you avoid? a. Short-wavelength light late in the evening. b. Long-wavelength light late in the evening. c. Short-wavelength light early in the morning. d. Long-wavelength light early in the morning.

31. According to research on Drosophila, what produces the endogenous circadian rhythm? a. Feedback between RNA and proteins that inhibit RNA b. Receptors that respond to the average amount of light over time c. Receptors that monitor metabolic activity d. Receptors sensitive to magnetic fields 32. After the proteins TIM and PER reach a high level during the day, what causes their level to drop at night? a. The genes that produce these proteins become less active when the temperature drops. b. Rapid production of the proteins depleted the supply of the amino acids needed to make them. c. Decreased light decreases excitatory transmission throughout the nervous system. d. High levels of the proteins inhibit the genes that produce these proteins.

33. Mutations in the gene for the human PER protein cause changes in what? a. Length of the circadian rhythm b. Hours of sleep per night c. Ratio of REM to non-REM sleep d. Ability to stay awake during the day 34. What hormone does the pineal gland release? a. Luteinizing hormone b. Insulin c. Melatonin d. Adrenalin 35. Which of these releases melatonin? a. Thymus gland b. Pituitary gland c. Pineal gland d. Hypothalamus 36. In humans, what does melatonin cause? a. Wakefulness b. Sleepiness c. Increased metabolic rate d. Hunger

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep 37. Which of these is characteristic of unresponsive wakefulness syndrome? a. Brief periods of purposeful actions and limited speech comprehension b. No purposeful behavior but alternations between sleep and arousal c. Low brain activity but no responses to pain or noises d. No brain activity at all 38. Which of these is characteristic of a minimally conscious state? a. Brief periods of purposeful actions and limited speech comprehension b. No purposeful behavior but alternations between sleep and arousal c. Low brain activity but no responses to pain or noises d. No brain activity at all 39. Which of these is characteristic of a brain death? a. Brief periods of purposeful actions and limited speech comprehension b. No purposeful behavior but alternations between sleep and arousal c. Low brain activity but no responses to pain or noises d. No brain activity at all 40. A polysomnograph measures EEG and what else? a. Heart rate b. Body temperature c. Facial expressions d. Eye movements 41. What do alpha waves (8–12 per second) on an EEG indicate? a. Deep sleep b. Relaxation c. Attention d. Nervousness 42. When do K-complexes and sleep spindles occur in the EEG? a. Stage 1 sleep b. Stage 2 sleep c. Slow-wave sleep d. All phases of sleep equally 43. Sleep spindles are associated with which of the following? a. Memory consolidation b. Rapid eye movements c. Stomach contractions d. Fluctuations in body temperature 44. What causes the sleep spindles in stage 2 sleep? a. Control of body temperature Powered by Cognero

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep b. Exchange of information between thalamus and cortex c. Messages from the pons to inhibit the postural muscles d. Defense mechanisms against anxiety 45. What do large, slow waves on an EEG indicate? a. A low level of brain activity b. An increased level of brain activity c. Attention to a sensory stimulus d. Transition from one phase of sleep to another one 46. Which of the following would indicate that neuronal activity is highly synchronized? a. Alpha waves on the EEG b. Large, slow waves on the EEG c. Sleep spindles d. K-complexes 47. Why is REM sleep also known as paradoxical sleep? a. It is deep sleep in some ways and light in others. b. Activity in the left hemisphere does not match the activity in the right hemisphere. c. It differs from other sleep behaviorally, despite equal brain activity. d. Because a pair of docs discovered it.

48. Paradoxical sleep is synonymous with what? a. Sleep apnea b. REM sleep c. Non-REM sleep d. Narcolepsy 49. What does the EEG show during REM sleep? a. Sleep spindles and K-complexes b. Slow, large-amplitude waves c. Irregular, low-voltage fast waves d. Alpha waves similar to wakefulness 50. In terms of brain activity, REM sleep is most similar to what? a. Stage 1 sleep b. Stage 2 sleep c. Slow-wave sleep d. Wakefulness 51. In what way might REM sleep be considered “deep” sleep? a. Low brain activity b. Inhibited postural movements c. Low and steady breathing and heart rate Powered by Cognero

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep d. Increased rate of sleep spindles 52. Why are postural muscles least active during REM sleep? a. An increase in sleep spindles and K-complexes b. Synchronized activity in the cerebral cortex c. Decreased blood flow d. Inhibition from the pons and medulla 53. When (if at all) is REM most frequent? a. At the first part of the night’s sleep b. In the middle of the night’s sleep c. In the later part of the night’s sleep d. At all times equally 54. The onset of increased REM depends mainly on what? a. How long you have been asleep b. The time c. The temperature in the room d. The season of year 55. On average, how does sleep differ between young adults and older adults? a. Older adults have less slow-wave sleep. b. Older adults have less stage 1 sleep. c. Older adults have fewer transitions between one stage and another. d. Older adults have little or no REM sleep.

56. How does dreaming relate to REM sleep? a. Dreams are more likely during REM, but they also occur in non-REM. b. Dreams occur only during REM. c. Dreams occur during REM, but they are more common in non-REM. d. The probability of a dream is equal for REM and non-REM. 57. Which of the following has a major influence on arousal? a. Corpus callosum b. Anterior cingulate gyrus c. Ascending reticular formation d. Cerebellum 58. One part of the reticular formation that contributes to cortical arousal is known as the: a. Corpus callosum. b. Anterior cingulate gyrus. c. pontomesencephalon. d. Cerebellum.

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep 59. What does the locus coeruleus do? a. It increases attention to important information. b. It inhibits the cortex during sleep. c. It inhibits the postural muscles during REM sleep. d. It generates the PGO waves during REM sleep.

60. When is the locus coeruleus most active? a. During memorable or stressful events b. During non-REM sleep c. During the transition from sleeping to waking d. During restful wakefulness 61. What does the neurotransmitter histamine do? a. It decreases pain. b. It increases attention to meaningful events. c. It enhances drowsiness and sleep onset. d. It increases arousal and alertness.

62. Why do many allergy medications cause sleepiness? a. They block the effects of histamine in the brain. b. They block blood flow to the brain. c. They lower body temperature. d. They stimulate the production of serotonin.

63. The transmitter orexin is important for which function? a. Staying awake b. Focusing attention c. Inhibiting postural muscles during REM sleep d. Consolidating memories 64. Unlike adults, infants alternate between short waking periods and short naps. What can we infer about their neurotransmitters? a. Not much serotonin b. Not much norepinephrine c. Not much orexin d. Not much GABA 65. What would happen to the sleep–wake schedule of someone who lacked orexin? a. Alternation between brief periods of waking and sleeping b. Tendency to fall asleep earlier and awaken earlier c. Tendency to fall asleep later and awaken later d. Increased percentage of REM sleep early in the night 66. Which of these helps explain why older people often awaken in the middle of the night? a. Increased resting potential of axons releasing orexin Powered by Cognero

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep b. Decreased resting potential of axons releasing GABA c. Decreased ability of histamines to cross the blood–brain barrier d. Increased ability of epinephrine to cross the blood–brain barrier 67. During a prolonged period of wakefulness, what bases of DNA accumulates in the basal forebrain, inhibiting cells and increasing sleepiness? a. Adenosine b. Orexin c. Hypocretin d. Histamine 68. The PGO in PGO waves is an abbreviation for what? a. Pons-geniculate-occipital b. Paradoxical-general-optimal c. Periodic-GABA-orexin d. Phenylalanine-glutamate-oxygen 69. The stimulus to start REM sleep comes from dopamine release in the _____. a. basal forebrain b. locus coeruleus c. amygdala. d. pontomesencephalon 70. Why are we unconscious during sleep? a. Most neurons cease their spontaneous activity. b. The resting potential of neurons decreases. c. GABA inhibits synaptic spread of information. d. Sense organs stop sending messages to the thalamus.

71. Somnambulism (sleepwalking) illustrates what point about sleep? a. Some transmitters increase arousal and others increase sleep. b. PGO waves spread over the brain. c. Sleep progresses through stages. d. Sleep can be local within the brain.

72. Brindle wakes up but cannot move his arms or legs, what is happening? a. Part of your brain is still in REM sleep. b. Your hypothalamus has failed to release orexin. c. More blood is flowing to the brain and less to the periphery. d. You are in the first stage of Parkinson’s disease.

73. Sometimes people cannot move their postural muscles immediately after awakening. Why? a. The motor nerves are inactive until the body gets warmer. b. Opening the eyes to the light shocks the system.

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep c. Part of the brain is still asleep. d. Blood pressure is too low.

74. Lucid dreaming and somnambulism have what in common? a. They indicate a deficit of orexin. b. They illustrate that sleep can be local. c. They suggest the onset of a psychological disorder. d. They are more common in old age.

75. What is the best indicator of insomnia? a. Feeling tired the next day b. Taking more than 30 minutes to fall asleep c. Staying asleep less than 7 hours d. Awakening more than once during the night 76. Who is most likely to develop sleep apnea? a. College students b. Airline attendants c. Older women d. Overweight men 77. The symptoms of narcolepsy resemble which of the following? a. Stage 2 sleep b. REM sleep c. Somnambulism d. Parkinson’s disease 78. Which of the following often triggers an attack of cataplexy in a person with narcolepsy? a. Standing in one position for too long b. Reading c. Strong emotions d. Eating carbohydrates 79. Narcolepsy is caused by a deficiency of which transmitter? a. GABA b. Histamine c. Orexin d. Serotonin 80. What is the only behavioral disorder linked to a reliable biochemical marker? a. Autism spectrum disorder b. Narcolepsy c. Sleep apnea d. Attention deficit disorder Powered by Cognero

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep 81. Benito moves around vigorously during REM sleep. Benito is experiencing: a. somnambulism. b. REM behavior disorder. c. sleep apnea. d. night terrors.

82. What do night terrors and sleepwalking have in common? a. They occur repetitively on a 28-day cycle. b. They occur during non-REM sleep. c. They become more common in old age. d. They are caused by a deficit of orexin.

83. During sleep, fluid drains from the brain and spinal cord into the subarachnoid space, removing what? a. Orexin and histamines b. Potentially harmful proteins and waste products c. Peptides d. Viruses and bacteria 84. The fact that bacteria and jellyfish sleep suggests that the original function of sleep might be which of the following? a. Protection from predators b. Consolidation of memory c. Conservation of energy d. Readjustment of synapses 85. What happens to people’s body temperature during sleep? a. It decreases by 1 or 2 degrees. b. It increases by 1 or 2 degrees. c. It remains constant. d. It fluctuates rapidly.

86. What function do sleep and hibernation share? a. They synchronize the circadian rhythm. b. They conserve energy. c. They improve memory. d. They provide protection from predators.

87. If a hamster hibernates, what is the long-term effect? a. Digestive difficulties b. Improved memory c. Increased life span d. Impaired circadian rhythm 88. Which of the following animal species apparently lacks circadian rhythms? a. Great frigate birds Powered by Cognero

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep b. Dolphins c. Mexican cave fish d. Bears 89. What is special about the sleep of dolphins and whales? a. They sleep as much during the day as they do at night. b. They increase their body temperature during sleep. c. They have only REM sleep. d. They sleep on one side of the brain at a time.

90. What does the sleep pattern of migrating birds and great frigate birds tell us about sleep? a. Any period of decreased sleep impairs learning and cognition. b. Changes in air temperature alter the circadian rhythm. c. Social groups sleep better than isolated individuals. d. It is possible to decrease the drive for sleep, depending on circumstances.

91. What happens to sleep while a bird is migrating? a. The bird sleeps more hours than usual but on one side of the brain at a time. b. The bird sleeps more hours than usual, on both sides of the brain. c. The bird sleeps less than usual, with no loss of alertness or cognition. d. The bird sleeps less than usual but with clear impairment of alertness and cognition.

92. When do dolphins, whales, and elephants sleep less than usual? a. When food is readily available b. While responsible for protecting others c. When the weather is getting warmer d. While living in large social groups 93. Which type of animal tends to sleep more than average? a. Predators b. Vegetarians c. Ocean-dwelling d. Tree-dwelling 94. Adele wants to predict how many hours a day some species sleeps. What question would be most helpful to Adele in making that prediction? a. What is the animal’s average lifespan? b. Does the animal live near or far from the equator? c. Is the animal predator or prey? d. How intelligent is the animal?

95. Jazz wants to memorize something. When is the best time for Jazz to study it? a. While exercising b. In the middle of the day Powered by Cognero

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep c. Right before sleep d. Right before a meal 96. What process occurs during sleep to strengthen a memory? a. The hippocampus replays a pattern that occurred during learning. b. The corpus callosum synchronizes activity between the hemispheres. c. Norepinephrine facilitates neurons that were active during learning. d. Mitochondria in the cerebral cortex increase their metabolic rate.

97. Knowledge storage depends on highly synchronized _____. a. sharp wave ripples b. synaptic pruning c. bursts of norepinephrine d. muscle contractions 98. What is one important way that memories strengthen during sleep? a. The brain weakens or removes ineffective synapses. b. Some neurons shift from releasing GABA to glutamate. c. Metabolic rate increases in the cerebral cortex. d. In certain neurons, the sodium-potassium pump reverses direction.

99. How does sleep improve memory? a. Less effective synapses are removed. b. Overall brain activity increases. c. The ratio of sodium ions to potassium ions increases. d. Synapses increase their supply of serotonin and dopamine.

100. In general, which animal species get the highest percentage of REM sleep? a. The animals with the most total hours of sleep b. The animals that eat mostly plants c. The animals that live in the warmest climate d. The animals with the largest brains 101. At what age does REM occupy the greatest percentage of a person’s sleep? a. Infancy b. Adolescence c. Young adulthood d. Old age 102. People with severe, untreated sleep apnea get less than normal REM sleep, and they do develop abnormalities of what? a. The cornea b. The cerebellum c. The pons Powered by Cognero

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep d. The peripheral nervous system 103. How does the activation-synthesis theory of dreams differ from the neurocognitive model? a. The activation-synthesis theory relates dreams to activity in the cerebral cortex. b. The activation-synthesis theory assumes that most dreams include all the senses. c. The activation-synthesis theory emphasizes the role of sensory inputs. d. The activation-synthesis theory interprets dreams as wish fulfillments.

104. What criticism applies to both the activation-synthesis theory of dreams and the neurocognitive model? a. They apply to some types of people and not others. b. They assume that all dreams are wish fulfillments. c. They do not make specific testable predictions. d. They require people to remember dreams from early childhood.

105. According to the neurocognitive model, dreams begin with what? a. Stimulation of the sense organs b. Thoughts related to recent memories c. Repressed impulses d. Tension in the muscles 106. Dynah is woken up and reports a dream without content. Dynah was having a type of dream known as _____. a. a night terror b. a white dream c. a nightmare d. an activation without synthesis 107. During REM sleep, where does brain activity increase? a. Prefrontal cortex b. Areas important for emotional processing c. Motor cortex d. Primary visual cortex 108. According to the neurocognitive model, why are sudden scene changes common in dreams? a. The pons generates waves of activity that pass to the cortex. b. The postural muscles are inhibited. c. Activity in the prefrontal cortex is suppressed. d. Activity in the hippocampus is suppressed.

109. According to the neurocognitive model, why do dreams sometimes make an incoherent or illogical story? a. The brain tries to incorporate information coming from several sense organs. b. Increased activity in the amygdala means conflict between incompatible emotions. c. Low activity in the prefrontal cortex means poor memory for what just happened. d. Most real-life experiences are incoherent and illogical.

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep 110. What is meant by a “white dream”? a. A dream with an equal amount of positive and negative emotions b. A dream without any memorable content c. A dream with sounds but no vision d. A dream that makes no sense to anyone 111. When people who are suddenly awakened report that they were dreaming but they don’t remember any content, what is the probable explanation? a. It was an embarrassingly sexy dream, and they don’t want to talk about it. b. The dream evoked such strong emotions that it was immediately repressed. c. Activity in the posterior parietal cortex was at an intermediate level. d. Activity in the prefrontal cortex was at an increased level.

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

112. Birds know when to migrate, even if they are in a cage with no changes in light or temperature. a. True b. False 113. Alertness increases in the morning, even for people who went sleepless all night. a. True b. False 114. Workers on submarines successfully adapt their alertness to an 18-hour schedule. a. True b. False 115. Human body temperature remains at 37°C throughout the day and night. a. True b. False 116. People in east Germany prefer to awaken earlier than those in west Germany. a. True b. False 117. Most people find it easier to adjust when traveling across time zones west than when going east. a. True b. False 118. In every known culture, adolescents like to stay up later at night than other people do. a. True b. False 119. Blind and deaf animals continue generating circadian rhythms, although they slowly drift out of phase with the external world. a. True Powered by Cognero

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep b. False 120. Certain brain cells generate a circadian rhythm even after they are removed from the body. a. True b. False 121. Some ganglion cells in the retina respond to light without needing input from rods or cones. a. True b. False 122. People who are blind because of cortical damage can still synchronize their circadian rhythms to the pattern of day and night. a. True b. False 123. The discovery of the role of PER and other proteins responsible for circadian rhythms depended on research in mice. a. True b. False 124. A genetic mutation can cause the condition of a circadian rhythm longer than 24 hours, marked by difficulty waking up on time in the morning. a. True b. False 125. The hormone melatonin increases wakefulness in humans. a. True b. False 126. During a coma, all brain activity ceases. a. True b. False 127. Sleep spindles help to improve memory. a. True b. False 128. Slow, large-amplitude waves in the EEG indicate increased brain activity. a. True b. False 129. REM sleep and paradoxical sleep are the same thing. a. True b. False 130. REM sleep occurs mostly in the first part of the night’s sleep. a. True Powered by Cognero

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep b. False 131. Dreams occur only during REM sleep. a. True b. False 132. If a researcher cuts all sensory input to the medulla, the animal goes into permanent sleep. a. True b. False 133. The locus coeruleus releases norepinephrine mostly during sleep. a. True b. False 134. Norepinephrine increases attention to important information. a. True b. False 135. Orexin helps people stay awake. a. True b. False 136. In the cells that release orexin, the resting potential of the axon rises with aging and gets closer to the threshold for firing, and as a result, these cells are easily excitable, decreasing wakefulness. a. True b. False 137. The brain responds to speech, especially by an unfamiliar voice. a. True b. False 138. Sometimes one part of the brain is awake while another is asleep. a. True b. False 139. If you wake up but find that you cannot move your legs, that might just mean that part of your brain is still asleep. a. True b. False 140. Sleep apnea occurs most often in middle-aged men. a. True b. False 141. The amygdala, important for emotional processing, is active at the start of a REM period and at a narcoleptic attack. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep 142. Narcolepsy is caused by a deficit of a single transmitter. a. True b. False 143. Sleepwalking occurs during REM sleep. a. True b. False 144. Even bacteria and jellyfish have circadian rhythms of activity and inactivity. a. True b. False 145. Some hamsters hibernate. a. True b. False 146. Dolphins, whales, and migratory birds sometimes have weeks when they need much less sleep than usual. a. True b. False 147. Some animals sleep on only one side of the brain at a time. a. True b. False 148. Sleep improves memory largely by removing ineffective synapses. a. True b. False 149. Animals with the most total hours of sleep have the highest percentage of slow-wave sleep. a. True b. False 150. During REM sleep, some brain areas increase activity and others decrease it. a. True b. False 151. Sometimes people who are suddenly awakened say they were dreaming, but the dream had no content. That just means they forgot the dream. a. True b. False

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

152. An internally generated rhythm lasting about a day is a(n) ____________________.

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep 153. Most persons who are blind report frequent ____________________.

154. The brain area most responsible for circadian rhythms is the ____________________.

155. Melatonin is secreted by the ____________________.

156. Someone who is one step up from the unresponsive wakefulness syndrome, capable of brief periods of purposeful actions, is in a ____________________ state.

157. The device that measures sleep by a combination of EEG and eye movements is a ____________________.

158. K-complexes and sleep spindles are characteristic of stage ____________________ sleep.

159. During REM sleep, the postural muscles are inhibited by cells in the ____________________.

160. Axons from the locus coeruleus release the neurotransmitter ____________________ .

161. PGO waves are an abbreviation for ____________________.

162. During sleep, the spread of synaptic activity is blocked by increased release of ____________________.

163. For ____________________, much of the brain is asleep, but the motor cortex and a few other areas are awake.

164. During sleep apnea, a sleeping person has difficulty with ____________________.

165. Narcolepsy is caused by a deficiency of the transmitter ____________________.

166. The symptoms of narcolepsy resemble the ____________________ stage of sleep.

167. During sleep, fluid drains from the brain and spinal cord into the subarachnoid space, removing potentially harmful proteins and ____________________.

168. Variations in animals’ sleep habits make sense in terms of their eating habits and their need for ____________________.

169. The view that regards dreams as thinking under unusual circumstances is known as the ____________________ model.

170. What evidence indicates that humans have an internal biological clock?

171. What happens to the sleep schedule of people working in Antarctica in winter, during constant darkness?

172. Why do people in east Germany prefer to wake up and go to sleep earlier than people in west Germany?

173. From a biological standpoint, why would it be best to start high school classes later in the morning?

174. What evidence strongly indicates that the SCN produces the circadian rhythm itself?

175. How does light reset the timing of the circadian rhythm in the suprachiasmatic nucleus?

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep 176. How do the proteins TIM and PER relate to sleepiness in Drosophila?

177. How are memory and intelligence linked to sleep spindles?

178. Why might we regard REM sleep as light sleep in some ways and deep sleep in others?

179. What is an example to illustrate the fact that sleep can be local within the brain?

180. What causes narcolepsy?

181. How does sleep improve memory?

182. How does summer affect the sleep patterns of animals in the North or South polar regions?

183. What is one strength and one weakness of the “REM is important for strengthening memory” hypothesis?

184. According to the neurocognitive model, why do dreams sometimes make an incoherent or illogical story?

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep Answer Key 1. d 2. b 3. c 4. c 5. c 6. a 7. c 8. b 9. b 10. a 11. b 12. d 13. d 14. b 15. a 16. b 17. c 18. c 19. d 20. a 21. a 22. d 23. d 24. c 25. b Powered by Cognero

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep 26. d 27. a 28. d 29. b 30. a 31. a 32. d 33. a 34. c 35. c 36. b 37. b 38. a 39. d 40. d 41. b 42. b 43. a 44. b 45. a 46. b 47. a 48. b 49. c 50. a 51. b Powered by Cognero

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep 52. d 53. c 54. b 55. a 56. a 57. c 58. c 59. a 60. a 61. d 62. a 63. a 64. c 65. a 66. a 67. a 68. a 69. c 70. c 71. d 72. a 73. c 74. b 75. a 76. d Powered by Cognero

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep 77. b 78. c 79. c 80. b 81. b 82. b 83. b 84. c 85. a 86. b 87. c 88. c 89. d 90. d 91. c 92. b 93. a 94. c 95. c 96. a 97. a 98. a 99. a 100. a 101. a 102. a Powered by Cognero

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep 103. c 104. c 105. b 106. b 107. b 108. c 109. c 110. b 111. c 112. True 113. True 114. False 115. False 116. True 117. True 118. True 119. True 120. True 121. True 122. True 123. False 124. True 125. False 126. False 127. True Powered by Cognero

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep 128. False 129. True 130. False 131. False 132. False 133. False 134. True 135. True 136. False 137. True 138. True 139. True 140. True 141. True 142. True 143. False 144. True 145. True 146. True 147. True 148. True 149. False 150. True 151. False 152. Endogenous circadian rhythm 153. Sleep problems Powered by Cognero

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep 154. Suprachiasmatic nucleus SCN 155. Pineal gland 156. Minimally conscious 157. Polysomnograph 158. 2 159. Pons and medulla 160. Norepinephrine 161. Pons-geniculate-occipital 162. GABA 163. Sleepwalkers 164. Breathing 165. Orexin 166. REM 167. Waste 168. Defense 169. Neurocognitive 170. People who live in an environment with a light–dark schedule much different from 24 hours fail to follow that schedule and instead become wakeful and sleepy on a 24-hour basis. People working on a submarine with an 18-hour work schedule are one example.

171. People continue generating an approximately 24-hour rhythm, but different people generate slightly different rhythms until they are out of synchrony with one another. They find it more difficult to work together.

172. The sun rises about half an hour earlier at the eastern edge of Germany than at the western edge. Even when people try to follow the same work schedule, the sun continues to influence the timing of the circadian rhythm.

173. Most young people are evening types, tending to stay up late at night, and they reach their peak of alertness later in the day than do most older adults.

174. SCN cells produce a circadian rhythm of activity even if they are kept in cell culture isolated from the rest of the body. Also, when hamsters received transplanted SCN neurons, their circadian rhythm followed the pattern of the donor animals.

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08_Wakefulness_and_Sleep 175. Light excites a special population of ganglion cells that have their own photopigment, enabling them to respond to light even if they receive no input from rods or cones. These ganglion cells respond slowly and decline slowly when light ceases, and therefore, they provide information about the average amount of light over a period of time, rather than instantaneous changes.

176. The proteins TIM and PER remain low during most of the day and increase toward evening. They reach high levels at night, promoting sleep. They feed back to inhibit the genes that produce them, so that their level declines toward morning.

177. A sleep spindle is a burst of 12- to 14-Hz waves for at least half a second. Sleep spindles result from oscillating interactions between cells in the thalamus and the cortex. Sleep spindles increase after new learning, and the number of sleep spindles correlates positively with improvements in certain types of memory. Evidently, the sleep spindles relate to the consolidation of memory. Most people are consistent in their amount of spindle activity from one night to another, and the amount of spindle activity correlates more than 0.7 with nonverbal tests of IQ. 178. The increased brain activity indicates light sleep. However, the complete relaxation of most body muscles indicates deep sleep.

179. (1) In sleepwalking, the motor cortex and a few other areas are aroused while the rest of the brain is asleep. (2) During lucid dreaming, activity is high enough in the frontal and temporal cortex to enable conscious monitoring of the dreams that the rest of the brain is generating. (3) Sometimes people wake up but find that they are temporarily unable to move their arms and legs. The cells in the pons that inhibit the postural muscles during REM sleep have remained in that state while the rest of the brain awakened.

180. In people with narcolepsy, many of the cells that release orexin have become either dead or inactive. Orexin is important for maintaining wakefulness. Without orexin, people have attacks of a REM-like state into wakefulness.

181. Hippocampal activity repeats experiences of the day, strengthening those memories. The brain deletes the less effective synapses, enabling the ones important for new memories to stand out by contrast.

182. Many animals that live near the North or South Pole greatly decrease their sleep during summer, when the sun is constantly above the horizon. While male sandpipers are competing for mates above the Arctic Circle, many of them are active up to 23 hours per day for nearly three weeks, with no apparent harm to their health or alertness. Many reindeer and penguins have long periods of nearly constant wakefulness.

183. The hypothesis that REM is important for strengthening memory is supported by a study that found how a nap that included REM sleep enhanced performance on certain kinds of creative problem solving. Both REM sleep and slow-wave sleep have been linked to strengthening of memories. However, although memory consolidation does occur during REM, many people take antidepressant drugs that severely decrease REM sleep without causing memory problems.

184. Dreams are sometimes incoherent or illogical because low activity in the prefrontal cortex means poor memory for what has just happened.

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09_Internal_Regulation

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What is homeostasis? a. Keeping body variables within a fixed range b. Actions that anticipate future needs c. Balance of excitation and inhibition in the brain d. Changes in body temperature 2. What is allostasis? a. Keeping body variables within a fixed range b. Actions that anticipate future needs c. Balance of excitation and inhibition in the brain d. Changes in body temperature 3. If Zhanka’s body temperature is 98.9°F (37.2°C) in mid-afternoon, what does that mean? a. It means Zhanka has a slight fever. b. It means Zhanka has been working too hard. c. A slight elevation is normal in mid-afternoon. d. Zhanka needs to buy a new thermometer.

4. Your body burns more than half of its fuel for what function? a. Digestion b. Muscle movements c. Brain activity d. Maintaining body temperature 5. Which cells in the human body are most responsible for basal metabolism? a. Brown adipose cells b. Neurons and glia c. Heart muscle cells d. Skeletal muscle cells 6. How do reptiles regulate their body temperature, if at all? a. By changes in blood flow b. Behaviorally c. By shivering and sweating d. Not at all 7. Why do the smallest mammals and birds need to eat so much? a. They need to be constantly moving. b. They rapidly radiate heat. c. Their diet is low in calories. d. They reach sexual maturity early in life.

8. What is the only physiological mechanism for cooling the body?

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09_Internal_Regulation a. Shivering b. Evaporation c. Decreased blood flow to the skin d. “Goose bumps” 9. Why do people get “goose bumps” when it is cold? a. Increased blood flow to the skin forces the hairs outward. b. For our ancestors, this mechanism increased insulation. c. This action prevents sweating. d. We obtain sympathy from others.

10. According to your textbook, what is the main advantage of endothermy? a. It saves energy. b. It keeps us ready for vigorous activity. c. It enables us to eat a more varied diet. d. It improves the accuracy of our sense organs.

11. What advantage do endothermic animals have? a. They do not need to shiver or sweat. b. Their bodies are optimized for the environment in which they live. c. They can remain active when the environment is cool. d. They need little fuel to maintain their body temperature.

12. What is the advantage of maintaining a body temperature of 37°C instead of something cooler? a. It takes less energy to defend this temperature than a cooler one. b. Proteins are more stable at this temperature than at lower ones. c. It feels better to be warm than to be cold. d. Being warmer lets us run faster with less fatigue.

13. What is the advantage of maintaining a body temperature of 37°C instead of something much warmer? a. Blood would thicken at higher temperatures. b. Proteins are less stable at higher temperatures. c. Higher temperatures are uncomfortable. d. Higher temperatures would interfere with muscle movements.

14. Why does a male’s scrotum hang outside the rest of the body? a. Sperm production requires a lower temperature. b. Sperm production requires a higher temperature. c. The scrotum’s position makes it easier to stimulate. d. The scrotum’s position protects it from injury.

15. The mechanisms that regulate body temperature depend mainly on which brain area? a. Hypothalamus b. Prefrontal cortex Powered by Cognero

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09_Internal_Regulation c. Basal ganglia d. Cerebellum 16. Behavioral methods that regulate body temperature depend mainly on which brain area? a. Hypothalamus b. Prefrontal cortex c. Basal ganglia d. Cerebellum 17. What are the sources of input that enable the POA/AH to regulate body temperature? a. Temperature sensors in the heart and in the blood vessels. b. Temperature sensors in the skin and organs, and in the OVLT and SFO. c. Temperature sensors in the skin and organs, and in the POA/AH itself. d. Temperature sensors in the bones and in the blood vessels.

18. If Sharita had damage to her POA/AH, what would happen to her body temperature? a. She would shiver more, and her body temperature would increase. b. She would sweat more, and her body temperature would decrease. c. She would rely mostly on behavioral mechanisms to control temperature. d. She would not control her body temperature at all.

19. What does a fever do? a. It interferes with the hypothalamus’s ability to regulate body temperature. b. It prevents the autonomic system from producing either sweating or shivering. c. It blocks activity by the immune system. d. It raises the set point for body temperature.

20. When the immune system produces prostaglandins and histamines, what happens? a. You become more alert. b. You stop shivering or sweating. c. You develop a fever. d. You become hungry.

21. What causes a fever? a. Decreased responsivity of the sympathetic nervous system b. A change in activity of the hypothalamus c. A breakdown of the blood–brain barrier d. Inability of the heart muscles to maintain a consistent rhythm 22. When you have a fever, what causes the fever? a. The immune system delivers chemicals that stimulate the hypothalamus. b. The immune system decreases blood flow to the brain. c. The infective agent stimulates the heart to beat faster. d. The infective agent impairs the activity of the hypothalamus.

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09_Internal_Regulation 23. Is a fever helpful in any way? If so, what? a. No, a fever is harmful. b. Yes, a fever increases alertness. c. Yes, a fever inhibits the growth of bacteria. d. Yes, a fever improves appetite.

24. Why is a very high body temperature dangerous? a. Many proteins break down at high temperatures. b. High temperatures interfere with muscle contractions. c. High temperatures increase the ratio of excitation to inhibition in the brain. d. High temperatures stimulate excessive eating and drinking.

25. When your body is low on water, what does vasopressin do? a. It increases body temperature. b. It changes the set point of the hypothalamus. c. It constricts blood vessels. d. It increases urination.

26. When your body is low on water, what does vasopressin do? a. It increases digestive secretions. b. It makes urine more concentrated. c. It activates the immune system. d. It decreases blood pressure.

27. What is another term for vasopressin? a. Growth hormone b. Parathyroid hormone c. Antidiuretic hormone d. Luteinizing hormone 28. If you lacked vasopressin, would you drink more like a beaver or more like a gerbil? Why? a. You would drink more like a gerbil, because you would produce concentrated urine. b. You would drink more like a gerbil, because you would excrete much fluid. c. You would drink more like a beaver, because you would produce concentrated urine. d. You would drink more like a beaver, because you would excrete much fluid.

29. The tendency of water to flow toward an area of higher solute concentration is called what? a. Endothermia b. Set point c. Hypovolemia d. Osmotic pressure 30. What happens when you eat something salty? a. Vasopressin causes increased volume of urine.

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09_Internal_Regulation b. Osmotic pressure draws water from the cells. c. The hypothalamus triggers hypovolemic thirst. d. The immune system decreases its release of histamine.

31. Which of the following causes osmotic thirst? a. Eating salty foods b. A decrease in blood volume c. Activity by the immune system d. Decreased body temperature 32. An injection of concentrated sodium chloride triggers osmotic thirst, but equally concentrated glucose does not. Why not? a. Glucose has a higher molecular weight than sodium chloride. b. Glucose tastes sweet and sodium chloride tastes salty. c. Glucose is excreted in the urine and sodium chloride is not. d. Glucose enters cells freely and sodium chloride does not.

33. Receptors around the third ventricle, including the OVLT and SFO, are most important for what? a. Sex motivation b. Temperature regulation c. Thirst d. Hunger 34. What do the OVLT and the subfornical organ monitor? a. The balance between excitatory and inhibitory transmission b. Insulin and glucagon levels c. Heart rate and body temperature d. Osmotic pressure and blood volume 35. Which hormone helps you get through the night’s sleep without needing to urinate? a. Aldosterone b. Glucagon c. Insulin d. Vasopressin 36. The increased secretion of vasopressin shortly before bedtime serves what purpose? a. It increases drowsiness. b. It decreases heart rate. c. It lowers body temperature. d. It prevents dehydration.

37. The OVLT receives input from the digestive tract, tongue, and liver. Why is that important? a. The input rouses the OVLT from its usual quiescent state. b. The input changes the set point for blood osmolarity.

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09_Internal_Regulation c. The input prevents excessive food intake. d. The input enables the OVLT to anticipate the need for drinking.

38. Adding salt to the body’s extracellular fluids would have what effect? a. Decreased hypovolemic thirst b. Increased hypovolemic thirst c. Decreased osmotic thirst d. Increased osmotic thirst 39. Why are you likely to feel thirsty just before bedtime? a. Increased extracellular salt at this time stimulates osmotic thirst. b. Decreased blood pressure at this time stimulates hypovolemic thirst. c. You secrete vasopressin, which conserves water and increases thirst. d. Your immune system decreases activity, causing increased activity in the hypothalamus.

40. Severely dehydrated people stop drinking before _____. a. their insulin levels decrease b. they reach an optimal glucose level c. they have satisfied their need d. their body temperature drops 41. What causes hypovolemic thirst? a. Low osmotic pressure b. A salty meal c. Low blood volume d. Sodium deficiency 42. How does hypovolemic thirst differ from osmotic thirst? a. Someone with hypovolemic thirst prefers pure water. b. Someone with hypovolemic thirst prefers salty water. c. Someone with hypovolemic thirst drinks slowly. d. Someone with hypovolemic thirst drinks rapidly.

43. Menstruation or extensive sweating tends to increase the preference for what taste? a. Sweet b. Sour c. Salty d. Bitter 44. Although most specific hungers are learned, which one responds to a built-in mechanism? a. Calcium preference b. Vitamin C preference c. Salt preference d. Iron preference Powered by Cognero

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09_Internal_Regulation 45. What causes the adrenal glands to release more of the hormone aldosterone? a. Low body temperature b. High osmotic pressure c. Sodium deficiency d. Immune system activity 46. What does the hormone aldosterone do? a. It signals the brain about fat reserves. b. It increases body temperature. c. It facilitates serotonin synapses. d. It increases retention of sodium.

47. What is unusual about human eating, compared to other animals our size? a. Our digestive system is small. b. Our teeth are not very sharp. c. Our saliva is salty. d. Our enzymes digest proteins.

48. What do many theorists believe enabled humans to evolve a large brain? a. Our ability to store food for the winter. b. Our ability to digest both plants and meat. c. Our ability to cook food. d. Our ability to share food with one another.

49. Adults in various countries vary in their milk consumption because of differences in what? a. Cost of dairy products b. Ratio of sweet to sour taste buds c. Other sources of calcium d. Ability to digest lactose 50. People of what ancestry are least able to digest milk sugars? a. Southern European b. Northern European c. Arabic d. Southeast Asian 51. People of various countries vary genetically in their ability to digest what? a. Avocados b. Milk c. Bananas d. Cabbage 52. For which children, if any, does eating sugar increase hyperactivity? a. For children with ADHD Powered by Cognero

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09_Internal_Regulation b. For children without ADHD c. For all children d. For none 53. The evidence supports which of the following statements, if any? a. Eating fish improves cognition. b. Eating sugar induces hyperactivity. c. Eating turkey produces sleepiness. d. The evidence supports none of these statements.

54. Mothers who eat much seafood during pregnancy tend to: a. have children who perform better on tests of cognitive ability. b. have children with increased levels of hyperactivity. c. have children with low birth weight. d. maintain their pregnancy longer than average.

55. Why do many people feel sleepy after a large turkey dinner? a. Overeating causes sleepiness. b. Turkey is high in serotonin, which causes sleepiness. c. Turkey is high in tryptophan, which gets converted to serotonin. d. Eating with a large group of people causes sleepiness.

56. If you want to get more tryptophan into your brain, what should you eat? a. Carbohydrates b. Fats c. Turkey d. Fish 57. How does eating more carbohydrates increase tryptophan in the brain? a. Eating carbohydrates increases the appetite for eating proteins. b. The brain converts carbohydrates into tryptophan. c. Increased insulin removes phenylalanine from circulation. d. Digesting carbohydrates increases blood pressure.

58. Which of the following foods has been shown to improve cognitive functioning? a. Turkey b. Fish c. Asparagus d. Jalapenos 59. Prolonged, severe weight loss produces what adjustment? a. Dendrites increase their branching. b. The brain stops producing norepinephrine. c. Axons increase their resting potential.

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09_Internal_Regulation d. The blood–brain barrier becomes more rigid.

60. If axons increase their resting potential, what is the consequence? a. Time seems to go by more slowly. b. Inhibition at synapses becomes stronger than excitation. c. Reaction times become faster. d. Vision and other processes become less precise.

61. When college students ate their lunches by pumping liquid diet into their stomach, what happened? a. They ate more and more each day. b. They ate less and less each day. c. Many of them developed eating disorders. d. They reported a desire to taste or chew.

62. What evidence showed that taste is not sufficient for satiety? a. Animals that sham-feed do not become satiated. b. Students who ate lunch by pumping liquid into their stomachs felt unsatisfied. c. Anthropologists found chewing gum from thousands of years ago. d. Consumption of dairy products varies among cultures.

63. What is ordinarily the main signal to end a meal? a. Monitoring of the amount swallowed b. Release of the hormone ghrelin c. Distension of the stomach d. Increased entry of glucose into the neurons 64. How does the vagus nerve contribute to hunger or satiety? a. It stimulates stomach contractions. b. It stimulates digestion in the small intestine. c. It signals the hypothalamus about stomach distension. d. It signals the hypothalamus about the amount of food swallowed.

65. Which of the following is a major site for absorbing nutrients? a. The duodenum b. The stomach c. The esophagus d. The large intestine 66. Distension of the duodenum releases which hormone? a. Cholecystokinin b. Ghrelin c. Insulin d. Glucagon

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09_Internal_Regulation 67. Animals that lack sweetness receptors on the tongue, nevertheless, develop a preference for sugary foods and liquids, because of their effect on receptors in the _____. a. intestines b. cerebellum c. amygdala d. pancreas 68. In the periphery, how does CCK produce satiety? a. It increases nutrient absorption in the intestines. b. It facilitates the breakdown of carbohydrates. c. It hastens stomach distension. d. It increases insulin secretion.

69. What does CCK do in the periphery that tends to end a meal? a. It constricts the muscle between the stomach and duodenum. b. It increases blood flow to the duodenum. c. It increases the rate of flow of food through the intestines. d. It relaxes the walls of the stomach and duodenum.

70. How does CCK induce satiety in the hypothalamus? a. It stimulates neurons to release a chemical similar to CCK itself. b. It increases the resting potential of axons that release GABA. c. It alters the pH of the extracellular fluid. d. It blocks the receptors to which ghrelin would attach.

71. How does CCK affect eating? a. It causes a delay before the next meal. b. It decreases the preference for sweet tastes. c. It interferes with swallowing and digestion. d. It helps to end a meal.

72. What does insulin do? a. It tightens the muscle between the stomach and the duodenum. b. It breaks down carbohydrates into smaller molecules. c. It helps glucose enter cells. d. It helps nutrients cross from the intestine into the blood.

73. Which hormone prevents blood glucose levels from rising too rapidly after a meal? a. Insulin b. Glucagon c. Leptin d. Aldosterone 74. How does insulin affect glucose? a. It moves glucose out of cells and into the blood.

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09_Internal_Regulation b. It moves glucose into cells. c. It moves glucose from the stomach to the intestines. d. It makes glucose easier to digest.

75. What does glucagon do? a. It tightens the muscle between the stomach and the duodenum. b. It stimulates digestive juices in the intestines. c. It increases blood glucose levels. d. It moves glucose from the blood into cells.

76. Which of the following enables animals to store extra fat to prepare for hibernation? a. Increased insulin b. Increased glucagon c. Increased aldosterone d. Increased leptin 77. How do Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes differ? a. Type 1 is caused by lack of insulin. Type 2 is caused by excess insulin. b. Type 1 is caused by excess insulin. Type 2 is caused by lack of insulin. c. Type 1 is caused by poor response to insulin. Type 2 is caused by lack of insulin. d. Type 1 is caused by lack of insulin. Type 2 is caused by poor response to insulin.

78. Which of the following increases the risk of Type 2 diabetes? a. Air pollution b. Obesity c. Insufficient omega-3 fatty acids in the diet d. Lack of sunlight 79. What causes Type 2 diabetes? a. Cells become insensitive to the effects of insulin. b. The intestines decrease their ability to absorb glucose. c. The pituitary gland decreases its secretion of releasing hormones. d. The pancreas stops making or releasing insulin.

80. Why is untreated diabetes associated with increased hunger? a. Not enough glucose is entering the cells. b. Nutrients are slow to leave the intestines. c. Muscles are burning energy faster than usual. d. Food passes through the digestive system faster than usual.

81. Which of the following provides long-term regulation of eating? a. Stomach distension b. Duodenum distension c. Cholecystokinin Powered by Cognero

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09_Internal_Regulation d. Leptin 82. What secretes the hormone leptin? a. Fat cells b. The pancreas c. The liver d. The duodenum 83. What increases if your leptin levels are low? a. Appetite b. Activity level c. Salt preference d. Thirst 84. Which of the following would a low level of leptin cause? a. Salt preference b. Restless energy c. Lack of appetite d. Delayed puberty 85. What brain area is considered the “master area” for control of appetite? a. Arcuate nucleus of hypothalamus b. POA/AH c. Hippocampus d. Amygdala 86. Food deprivation causes an increase of which hormone? a. Insulin b. Aldosterone c. Ghrelin d. Leptin 87. Which of these hormones increases appetite? a. Leptin b. Insulin c. CCK d. Ghrelin 88. Lenlee recently quit smoking. Why does Lenlee now experience an increased appetite? a. Nicotine inhibits ghrelin secretion in the stomach. b. Nicotine increases insulin secretion by the pancreas. c. Nicotine stimulates hunger neurons in the hypothalamus. d. Nicotine stimulates satiety neurons in the hypothalamus.

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09_Internal_Regulation 89. How do the hunger neurons in the arcuate nucleus increase appetite? a. They inhibit neurons that inhibit the lateral hypothalamus. b. They excite neurons that excite the lateral hypothalamus. c. They inhibit neurons that excite the lateral hypothalamus. d. They excite neurons that inhibit the lateral hypothalamus.

90. What would be the effect if someone had a deficit of melanocortin receptors in the paraventricular nucleus? a. Overeating b. Loss of appetite c. Loss of temperature control d. Excessive thirst 91. Which of the following transmitters decreases appetite? a. Ghrelin b. Orexin c. Aldosterone d. Melanocortins 92. Output from the hunger cells also inhibits areas that facilitate what? a. Feeling tired b. Learning c. Sexual behaviors d. Glucose levels 93. Damage to the lateral hypothalamus produces what effect? a. More frequent meals b. Larger meals c. Lack of eating d. Aggressive behavior 94. Damage to the ventromedial hypothalamus produces what effect? a. More frequent meals b. Larger meals c. Lack of eating d. Aggressive behavior 95. What is the relationship between depression and obesity? a. Depression causes obesity. b. Obesity causes depression. c. Each of them increases the probability of the other. d. The two are unrelated.

96. People with Prader-Willi syndrome produce high levels of ghrelin. How does that affect them? a. Increased salt appetite Powered by Cognero

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09_Internal_Regulation b. Decreased salt appetite c. Overeating d. Loss of appetite 97. What do variants in the FTO gene do? a. They produce monogenetic obesity. b. They increase the probability of weight gain. c. They increase the probability of bulimia nervosa. d. They alter the metabolism of lactose.

98. Why did the Pima begin gaining weight in the mid-1900s? a. Increased stress and depression b. Spread of a genetic mutation c. Change in diet d. Change in climate 99. What happened after the introduction of high-fructose corn syrup and nonnutritive sweeteners? a. In both cases, obesity increased. b. In both cases, obesity decreased. c. Obesity decreased only after introduction of high-fructose corn syrup. d. Obesity decreased only after introduction of nonnutritive sweeteners.

100. The drug that is most effective for weight control binds to receptors for what chemical? a. Dopamine b. Insulin c. Serotonin d. Glucagon-like protein 1 101. Why is it risky to take an over-the-counter supplement to increase energy and decrease weight? a. Many supplements do not specify how many pills to take per day. b. Many supplements lose their potency before the recommended shelf date. c. Many supplements raise their prices from one month to the next. d. Many supplements contain unapproved ingredients.

102. GLP-1 increases activity in the satiety areas of the _____. a. duodenum b. pancreas c. cerebral cortex d. hypothalamus 103. How does ghrelin relate to bulimia nervosa? a. The same genes that elevate ghrelin also predispose to bulimia nervosa. b. An increase in ghrelin is one of the main causes of bulimia nervosa. c. Experiencing bulimia nervosa causes an increase in ghrelin.

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09_Internal_Regulation d. Elevating ghrelin helps to relieve bulimia nervosa.

104. In several ways bulimia nervosa resembles which of the following? a. Epilepsy b. Attention deficit disorder c. Drug addiction d. Schizophrenia 105. What is the usual age of onset for anorexia nervosa? a. Childhood b. Teenage c. Early twenties d. Thirties or forties 106. How do people with anorexia nervosa differ from most people who are starving? a. Anorexia is associated with vigorous physical activity. b. Anorexia is associated with a dislike of the taste of food. c. Anorexia is associated with hallucinations. d. Anorexia is associated with sleep apnea.

107. Why are some people skeptical of the idea that depression leads to anorexia nervosa? a. Very few people with anorexia experience depression. b. Treatments for depression are seldom helpful for anorexia. c. Depression and anorexia usually emerge simultaneously. d. Depression is more common in males, and anorexia is more common in females.

108. If a rat gets food for only an hour a day, and has access to a running wheel, it may develop some symptoms resembling anorexia nervosa, but only under what condition? a. The food is sweet and syrupy. b. The cage includes more than one rat. c. The rat had previous experiences of social defeat. d. The room is cold.

109. Temperature regulation is a likely explanation for which aspect of anorexia nervosa? a. Fear of becoming fat b. Age of onset c. Higher prevalence in women than men d. Increased exercise 110. One treatment for anorexia nervosa in Europe begins with what? a. High doses of antidepressant medications b. Isolating the patient from family members c. Allowing the patient to do the cooking d. Keeping the patient warm Powered by Cognero

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09_Internal_Regulation

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

111. When a small male garter snake emerges from hibernation, it secretes female pheromones. The purpose of the secretion is temperature regulation. a. True b. False 112. Your body temperature is higher in mid-afternoon than at night. a. True b. False 113. Hummingbirds let their body temperature fall at night, sometimes until the body almost freezes. a. True b. False 114. Maintaining constant body temperature requires more energy than all other body activities combined. a. True b. False 115. Mammals use behavioral methods of temperature regulation only when necessary. a. True b. False 116. Endothermy helps an animal remain ready for vigorous activity even in cold weather. a. True b. False 117. For mammals and birds, reproductive cells require a lower temperature than the rest of the body. a. True b. False 118. If you have a bacterial infection, a fever decreases your chance for survival. a. True b. False 119. The hormone vasopressin increases the volume of urine. a. True b. False 120. The hormone vasopressin helps you get through the night without being dehydrated. a. True b. False 121. The OVLT receives input from the tongue. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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09_Internal_Regulation 122. Someone with hypovolemic thirst will drink more of salty water than pure water. a. True b. False 123. Humans and other animals have a built-in mechanism to prefer salty tastes when they are sodium-deficient. a. True b. False 124. Ability to digest milk in adulthood depends largely on genetics. a. True b. False 125. Eating sugar makes children hyperactive. a. True b. False 126. Eating turkey makes people sleepy. a. True b. False 127. Eating carbohydrates helps tryptophan get into the brain. a. True b. False 128. It is possible to satisfy hunger by taste alone. a. True b. False 129. Stomach distension is usually the main signal to end a meal. a. True b. False 130. Distension of the duodenum releases a hormone that increases satiety. a. True b. False 131. Insulin and glucagon produce opposite effects on glucose. a. True b. False 132. Animals preparing for hibernation increase their insulin levels. a. True b. False 133. In both Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes, cells do not get enough glucose.

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09_Internal_Regulation a. True b. False 134. Leptin tells your brain how much fat you have. a. True b. False 135. Leptin injections help most obese people lose weight. a. True b. False 136. The arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus is considered the master area for controlling appetite. a. True b. False 137. Nicotine stimulates the satiety neurons in the hypothalamus. a. True b. False 138. Damage to the lateral hypothalamus impairs appetite. a. True b. False 139. The offspring from obese female lab animals developed changes in their hypothalamic anatomy and their insulin responses that decreased their own probability of obesity. a. True b. False 140. Depression is the main reason why people become obese. a. True b. False 141. If a female overeats during pregnancy, the offspring has an increased probability of obesity. a. True b. False 142. Monogenic obesity accounts for most cases of obesity. a. True b. False 143. The availability of nonnutritive sweeteners decreased the prevalence of obesity. a. True b. False 144. Many over-the-counter supplements to increase energy or decrease weight include a stimulant that was never approved by the Food and Drug Administration.

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09_Internal_Regulation a. True b. False 145. Bulimia nervosa is caused by abnormal levels of ghrelin and other chemicals. a. True b. False 146. In several ways, bulimia nervosa resembles drug addiction. a. True b. False 147. People with anorexia nervosa dislike the taste of foods. a. True b. False 148. It is possible to get a rat to show some of the primary symptoms of anorexia nervosa. a. True b. False 149. It is more likely that anorexia leads to anxiety or depression than that any psychiatric problem leads to anorexia. a. True b. False 150. One treatment for anorexia nervosa starts by keeping the person warm. a. True b. False

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

151. Mechanisms that keep body variables within a fixed range are called ____________________.

152. A single value that the body works to maintain is a ____________________.

153. Mechanisms that the body uses to anticipate needs are called ____________________.

154. More than half of the body’s energy goes to maintaining basal ____________________.

155. Physiological regulation of body temperature depends mostly on the ____________________.

156. The hormone that constricts blood vessels is ____________________.

157. Vasopressin is also known as ____________________ hormone.

158. The hormone that helps you get through the night without becoming dehydrated is ____________________.

159. Eating salty foods causes ____________________ thirst.

160. Losing fluid by bleeding or sweating causes ____________________ thirst.

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09_Internal_Regulation 161. The type of thirst that causes a preference for slightly salty water is ____________________ thirst.

162. The hormone that causes the kidneys and other organs to retain salt is ____________________.

163. Deficiency in sodium provokes ____________________, a drive to consume salty tastes.

164. At about the age of weaning, most mammals lose the intestinal enzyme ____________________.

165. Placebo-controlled studies confirm that the fatty acids in seafoods improve cognition in ____________________.

166. Stretching the stomach causes a message to the hypothalamus, conveyed by the ____________________ nerve.

167. Distension of the duodenum causes secretion of the hormone ____________________.

168. Entry of glucose into the cells depends on the hormone ____________________.

169. When hunger increases, blood glucose increases because of the effects of the pancreatic hormone ____________________.

170. An increase in fat cells decreases appetite by releasing the hormone ____________________.

171. The master area for controlling appetite is the ____________________ nucleus of the hypothalamus.

172. During food deprivation, the hormone that triggers stomach contractions and also increases hunger is ____________________.

173. Obesity that is caused by a genetic medical problem, such as Prader-Willi syndrome, is called ____________________ obesity.

174. The eating disorder that has been compared to drug addiction is ____________________.

175. The excessive exercise typical of anorexia nervosa has been interpreted as an attempt to regulate ____________________.

176. How does allostasis differ from homeostasis?

177. What physiological mechanisms increase body heat in a cool environment?

178. What advantage does endothermy cause?

179. Why did we evolve a tendency to maintain a body temperature around 37°C, instead of something much lower or much higher?

180. If you had damage to your POA/AH, what would happen to your body temperature?

181. What evidence indicates that fever is an adaptation to fight illness?

182. How does osmotic thirst differ from hypovolemic thirst?

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09_Internal_Regulation 183. How does vasopressin help you get through the night without becoming dehydrated?

184. What would be the effect of a deficit in the hormone aldosterone?

185. An injection of concentrated sodium chloride triggers osmotic thirst, but equally concentrated glucose does not.

Why? 186. What genetic difference causes people in some parts of the world to minimize their intake of dairy products?

187. What does the evidence say about the effect of eating sugar on hyperactivity?

188. What evidence showed that taste is not sufficient for satiety?

189. What are the two ways in which CCK (cholecystokinin) increases satiety?

190. What causes the two types of diabetes?

191. What causes increased release of leptin, and what does leptin do?

192. Name three hormones that increase satiety and one that increases hunger.

193. What evidence indicates that emotions are merely oe contributor, and usually not a large one to obesity?

194. How do syndromic, monogenic, and polygenic obesity differ?

195. What is the risk in over-the-counter supplements to increase energy or decrease weight?

196. What evidence suggests a parallel between bulimia nervosa and drug addiction?

197. What explanation has been proposed for the tendency of people with anorexia nervosa to exercise so vigorously?

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09_Internal_Regulation Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. c 4. d 5. a 6. b 7. b 8. b 9. b 10. b 11. c 12. d 13. b 14. a 15. a 16. a 17. c 18. c 19. d 20. c 21. b 22. a 23. c 24. a 25. c Powered by Cognero

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09_Internal_Regulation 26. b 27. c 28. a 29. d 30. b 31. a 32. d 33. c 34. d 35. d 36. d 37. d 38. d 39. c 40. c 41. c 42. b 43. c 44. c 45. c 46. d 47. a 48. c 49. d 50. d 51. b Powered by Cognero

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09_Internal_Regulation 52. d 53. a 54. a 55. a 56. a 57. c 58. b 59. c 60. d 61. d 62. a 63. c 64. c 65. a 66. a 67. a 68. c 69. a 70. a 71. d 72. c 73. a 74. b 75. c 76. a Powered by Cognero

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09_Internal_Regulation 77. d 78. b 79. a 80. a 81. d 82. a 83. a 84. d 85. a 86. c 87. d 88. d 89. a 90. a 91. d 92. c 93. c 94. a 95. c 96. c 97. b 98. c 99. a 100. d 101. d 102. d Powered by Cognero

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09_Internal_Regulation 103. c 104. c 105. b 106. a 107. b 108. d 109. d 110. d 111. True 112. True 113. True 114. True 115. False 116. True 117. True 118. False 119. False 120. True 121. True 122. True 123. True 124. True 125. False 126. False 127. True Powered by Cognero

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09_Internal_Regulation 128. False 129. True 130. True 131. True 132. True 133. True 134. True 135. False 136. True 137. True 138. True 139. False 140. False 141. True 142. False 143. False 144. True 145. False 146. True 147. False 148. True 149. True 150. True 151. Homeostasis 152. Set point 153. Allostasis Powered by Cognero

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09_Internal_Regulation 154. Metabolism 155. POA/AH

Preoptic area/Anterior hypothalamus 156. Vasopressin 157. Antidiuretic 158. Vasopressin 159. Osmotic 160. Hypovolemic 161. Hypovolemic 162. Aldosterone 163. Sodium-specific hunger 164. Lactase 165. Older people 166. Vagus 167. Cholecystokinin

CCK 168. Insulin 169. Glucagon 170. Leptin 171. Arcuate 172. Ghrelin 173. Syndromic 174. Bulimia nervosa 175. Temperature 176. Homeostasis maintains a variable at a constant level. Allostasis changes a variable to anticipate a future need.

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09_Internal_Regulation 177. Shivering or other muscle contractions, decreased blood flow to the skin, and (for most mammals) fluffing out the fur.

178. Endothermy enables an animal to be ready for vigorous activity without undue fatigue, even in cold weather.

179. A high temperature improves the ability of the muscles to contract vigorously. However, many proteins would become unstable at significantly higher temperatures.

180. You would be much less able to shiver, sweat, or control other physiological mechanisms that control body temperature. However, you could still try to find a place in the environment that keeps you close to your normal temperature.

181. During a fever, the body will shiver or sweat to maintain its elevated temperature at a nearly constant level. Also, fish, reptiles, and immature mammals with infections use behavioral means to raise their temperature to a feverish level.

Furthermore, a moderate fever inhibits bacterial growth and increases the probability of surviving a bacterial infection.

182. Osmotic thirst is caused by increased concentration of salt (or other solutes) in the extracellular fluid. Someone with osmotic thirst is motivated to drink pure water. Hypovolemic thirst is caused by a loss of body fluid, after bleeding or sweating. Someone with hypovolemic thirst is motivated to drink water containing a moderate concentration of salt.

183. Vasopressin levels increase just before your usual bedtime, based on a circadian rhythm. The increased vasopressin motivates you to drink. Vasopressin also inhibits your need to urinate, enabling you to retain water during the night.

184. Someone with a deficit of aldosterone is unable to retain salt. The result is an increase in sodium-specific hunger.

185. Sodium chloride does not readily enter the cells, and it, therefore, causes osmotic pressure that causes water to leave the cells. Glucose does enter cells, avoiding the increase in osmotic pressure.

186. Adults in certain areas, such as East Asia, lack the enzymes that would enable them to metabolize lactose, the sugar in milk.

187. When children have been given snacks with and without sugar, on randomly selected days, and observed by people who did not know the type of snacks, no differences occurred in the children’s activity, play, or school performance. The belief that sugar causes hyperactivity is an illusion based on what people expect to see.

188. Animals that sham-feed do not become satiated, regardless of how much they taste.

189. When the duodenum releases CCK, the CCK constricts the sphincter muscle between the stomach and the duodenum, causing the stomach to fill faster and thus trigger satiety. Also, CCK stimulates the vagus nerve to send signals to the hypothalamus, causing cells there to release a neurotransmitter that is a shorter version of CCK itself. That transmitter signals satiety in the hypothalamus.

190. Type 1 diabetes results from an autoimmune attack that reduces or eliminates the ability of the pancreas to produce insulin. In Type 2 diabetes, cells become unresponsive to insulin. Type 2 diabetes occurs mostly in association with obesity and lack of exercise.

191. An increase in fat cells causes increased release of leptin. Leptin signals the brain about fat reserves, and thereby decreases appetite.

192. Insulin, CCK, and leptin increase satiety. Ghrelin increases hunger.

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09_Internal_Regulation 193. At one time psychologists assumed that obesity was a reaction to psychological distress. A review of 15 longitudinal studies found that depression increased the probability of obesity, and that obesity increased the probability of depression, but both effects were small. One study found obesity in 19 percent of people with a history of depression and in 15 percent of those who had never suffered depression. Another study found that the average adult with depression gained about a pound per year, whereas the average for everyone else was about 8/10 of a pound. So, emotions are merely one contributor, and usually not a large one.

194. Syndromic obesity results from a genetically determined medical illness, such as Prader-Willi syndrome. Monogenic obesity results from a single gene, such as a mutation in the gene for the melanocortin receptor. Polygenic obesity, the most common type, relates to many genes that slightly or moderately increase the probability of obesity.

195. Many such supplements include a stimulant that was not approved by the Food and Drug Administration. Athletes have been disqualified from competition because they tested positive for this drug, without knowing that they were taking it.

196. Eating tasty foods activates the same brain areas that addictive drugs do. Persons who are experiencing substance use disorder and cannot get drugs, sometimes overeat instead. Food-deprived people are more likely than others to use drugs.

Rats that were restricted to one hour per day of eating but given a very sweet, syrupy solution at that time showed brain changes similar to those of morphine use and showed withdrawal symptoms when deprived of the syrupy liquid.

197. Lack of eating causes the body to become cool, and heavy exercise increases body heat.

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What is meant by the term “sexual selection”? a. Hormones during a sensitive period have long-lasting effects on anatomy and behavior. b. Some people choose to change their gender identity. c. Evolution favors characteristics that make an individual more appealing to the opposite sex. d. Having an XX or XY chromosome pattern determines whether one develops as a female or male.

2. What explanation do evolutionary psychologists offer for the tendency of more men than women to seek multiple sex partners? a. Men have higher levels of testosterone. b. Society is more tolerant of men who have multiple partners. c. Men learn this behavior by watching other men. d. Men can spread their genes in this way.

3. What explanation do evolutionary psychologists offer for the tendency of husbands to be highly intolerant of a wife’s sexual infidelity? a. Men are physically stronger than women, on average. b. Society has a long history of intolerance of women’s infidelity. c. Men have higher levels of testosterone than women do. d. An unfaithful wife threatens his certainty that the children are his own.

4. Women are more likely than men to prefer a mate who is likely to be what? a. A good provider b. A good fighter c. Attractive d. Healthy 5. In countries where women have good economic opportunities of their own, their preference for a wealthy male is what? a. Substantially weaker b. Substantially stronger c. Minimally stronger d. Minimally weaker 6. Does a recessive gene on the X chromosome have more effect on males, females, or both equally? And why? a. It affects males more, because they have only one X chromosome. b. It affects females more, because they have two X chromosomes. c. It affects both equally, because every gene has some effect. d. It affects both equally, because of epigenetic influences.

7. What chromosome pattern characterizes Turner syndrome? a. XO b. XXY c. XYY d. YY Powered by Cognero

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors 8. What chromosome pattern characterizes Klinefelter syndrome? a. XO b. XXY c. XYY d. YY 9. What causes someone to develop either Turner syndrome or Klinefelter syndrome? a. The chromosomes b. Prenatal testosterone levels c. Prenatal estradiol levels d. The SRY gene 10. What do Turner syndrome and Klinefelter syndrome have in common? a. High probability of becoming transgender b. Increased height c. Decreased fertility d. Increased aggressive behavior 11. At one time, theorists expected that men with an XYY chromosome pattern would be prone to what? a. Violent behavior b. An increased probability of becoming transgender c. A high level of fertility d. Increased visual-spatial skills 12. What does the SRY gene do? a. It causes the development of testes. b. It causes the development of ovaries. c. It causes the development of either testes or ovaries, depending on one’s sex. d. It controls sexual orientation.

13. What controls whether a mammal develops testes or ovaries? a. The SRY gene b. The FTO gene c. The DISC-1 gene d. The Sonic Hedgehog gene 14. Is it possible to have both a penis and a clitoris? If not, why not? a. Yes, it is possible, but rare. b. No, because a fetus has either testosterone or estradiol, but never both. c. No, because both develop from the same prenatal structure. d. No, because there wouldn’t be enough room for both.

15. What causes male and female external anatomy to differ?

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors a. They are different from the start. b. They start the same, but testosterone makes them develop differently. c. They start the same, but the testosterone-to-estradiol ratio makes them develop differently. d. They start the same, but a gene on the X chromosome makes them develop differently.

16. Other than the testes and ovaries, what other gland produces a significant amount of androgens and estrogens? a. Adrenal gland b. Pancreas c. Thyroid gland d. Pituitary gland 17. What organ or organs produce estrogens? a. The ovaries only b. The ovaries and testes only c. The ovaries and adrenal glands only d. The ovaries, testes, and adrenal glands 18. What is the chemical relationship between androgens and estrogens? a. Both are steroid hormones. b. Both are protein hormones. c. Both are amine hormones. d. They are in different families of hormones.

19. How do organizing effects of hormones differ from activating effects? a. Organizing effects can occur at any time in life. b. Organizing effects have a feedback relationship with the hypothalamus. c. Organizing effects are long-lasting. d. Organizing effects influence brain activity.

20. When do organizing effects of sex hormones occur in humans? a. During adulthood b. Only during prenatal development c. During prenatal development and at puberty d. Equally at all times of life 21. At what time in human development do organizing effects determine whether the body develops female or male external genitals? a. At conception b. In the first trimester of pregnancy c. In the second trimester of pregnancy d. In the third trimester of pregnancy 22. How do activating effects of hormones differ from organizing effects? a. Activating effects are temporary.

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors b. Activating effects are excitatory. c. Activating effects occur during a sensitive period. d. Activating effects alter the muscles.

23. How do hormones determine development of male or female anatomy in a mammal? a. The timing of release of hormones determines male or female development. b. The ratio of testosterone to estradiol determines male or female development. c. Estradiol causes female development. d. Testosterone causes male development.

24. What would be the external genital appearance of a mammal exposed to high levels of both androgens and estrogens during early development? a. Intermediate between male and female b. Female c. Male d. Fully developed both male and female 25. What would be the external genital appearance of a mammal exposed to low levels of both androgens and estrogens during early development? a. Intermediate between male and female b. Female c. Male d. Fully developed both male and female 26. Jaden is a genetic male and has developed female external anatomy. What would cause Jaden to develop female external anatomy? a. High levels of estradiol during a sensitive period b. High ratio of estradiol to testosterone during a sensitive period c. Lack of testosterone during a sensitive period d. High levels of leptin during a sensitive period 27. Aeron is a genetic female and developed a partially masculinized external anatomy. What would cause Aeron to develop a partially masculinized external anatomy? a. Low levels of estradiol during a sensitive period b. Increased testosterone during a sensitive period c. Lack of all sex hormones during a sensitive period d. High levels of leptin during a sensitive period 28. What role does estradiol play, if any, in a female mammal’s early development? a. It is necessary for inhibiting male external anatomy. b. It is necessary for female external anatomy. c. It is necessary for female internal anatomy and sexual behavior. d. It has no effect on development.

29. In early development in rats, what happens when testosterone enters the brain?

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors a. It inhibits the effects of estradiol. b. It passes through the brain without influence. c. Much of it is converted to estradiol. d. The brain uses it as fuel.

30. In the developing rat brain, why does estradiol fail to affect brain development in females? a. Alpha-fetoprotein prevents estradiol from entering the cells. b. The brain develops before the gonads start producing estradiol. c. Cells of the hippocampus convert estradiol to testosterone. d. The brain lacks receptors for estradiol.

31. What did Margaret McCarthy’s research reveal about male–female differences in brain structure? a. The differences depend on activating effects of sex hormones. b. The mechanisms differ from one brain area to another. c. The differences explain most of the male–female differences in behavior. d. The mechanisms depend on genes and not hormones.

32. What did Margaret McCarthy’s research reveal about male–female differences in brain structure? a. The previous reports of structural differences were greatly overstated. b. The brain can be masculinized in one area and feminized in another. c. The structural differences differ from one culture to another. d. All the structural differences develop after birth.

33. Why do most people have a mixture of male-typical and female-typical brain structures? a. Brain anatomy develops at random. b. Early childhood experiences promote growth in different brain areas. c. The X chromosome shows up in some cells and the Y chromosome occurs in others. d. Different brain areas differentiate by different mechanisms and at different times.

34. One study found that mental health tended to be better among people whose brains were somewhere near what? a. Near the female side of the continuum from extremely male-typical to extremely female-typical if they were identified as male at birth. b. Near the male end of the continuum from extremely male-typical to extremely female-typical. c. Near the female end of the continuum from extremely male-typical to extremely female-typical. d. Near the middle of the continuum from extremely male-typical to extremely female-typical.

35. Prenatal sex hormones have been shown to influence which of the following? a. Eye color b. Political preferences c. Childhood toy and play preferences d. Probability of developing absolute pitch 36. Where do young males and females differ in their toy preferences? a. Across cultures and even in monkeys Powered by Cognero

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors b. Only in the United States c. Only in Westernized countries d. Only in families that provide boys and girls with different toys 37. Which of the following correlates with a child’s preference for boys’ toys? a. Age of the father b. Age of the mother c. Prenatal exposure to testosterone d. Number of cousins 38. Which hormone stimulates the mammary gland to release milk? a. Estradiol b. Oxytocin c. Leptin d. Adrenocorticotropin 39. Which of the following experiences releases oxytocin? a. Running b. Orgasm c. Drinking d. Dreaming 40. During male sexual arousal, testosterone primes part of the hypothalamus to release which transmitter? a. Serotonin b. Dopamine c. Norepinephrine d. Acetylcholine 41. How do androgens and estradiol increase sexual motivation? a. By increasing attention to social signals b. By increasing heart rate and blood pressure c. By priming the hypothalamus to release serotonin d. By facilitating dopamine release in the medial preoptic area 42. Why do many antidepressant drugs decrease sexual arousal? a. Serotonin increases blood flow. b. Serotonin inhibits blood flow. c. Serotonin increases dopamine release. d. Serotonin inhibits dopamine release.

43. On average, how do testosterone levels differ between married and unmarried men of the same age, and why? a. Married men have higher levels because of a consistent partner. b. Married men have higher levels because men with high levels are more likely to marry. c. Married men have lower levels because frequent sex decreases testosterone levels.

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors d. Married men have lower levels because men with lower levels are more likely to marry.

44. What treatment often helps male sex offenders reduce their sexual impulses? a. Ritalin (methylphenidate) b. Viagra c. Anti-androgen drugs d. Naloxone 45. Which hormone prepares the uterus for pregnancy? a. Vasopressin b. Progesterone c. Oxytocin d. Aldosterone 46. What is responsible for the nausea that is common during pregnancy? a. Excessive secretion of ghrelin in the stomach b. Activation of the hypothalamus by high levels of estradiol c. Fluctuating activity at one type of serotonin receptor d. Low levels of dopamine release 47. How does the combination pill prevent pregnancy? a. By decreasing blood flow to the uterus b. By creating an intrauterine environment in which sperm cannot survive c. By bursting the surface of the ovum d. By blocking the surge of hormones that release an ovum 48. What hormone is most important for female sexual desire? a. Testosterone b. Estradiol c. Oxytocin d. Adrenocorticotropin 49. A woman’s level of estradiol has its largest effect on her probability of which of the following? a. Engaging in sexual intercourse b. Initiating sexual activity c. Rejecting sexual activity d. Altering her voting preferences 50. Kyleena is experiencing increased levels of estradiol. Where is Kyleena in her menstrual cycle? a. Just after menstruation b. During the preovulatory phase c. During the midluteal phase d. During the follicular phase

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors 51. When is a woman’s estradiol level at its lowest? a. During menstruation b. During the preovulatory phase c. During the midluteal phase d. During the follicular phase 52. When is a woman most likely to act sexy and initiate sexual activity? a. Just after menstruation b. During the preovulatory phase c. During the midluteal phase d. During the follicular phase 53. What two hormones promote milk production and maternal behavior in female mammals? a. Progesterone and thyroid hormone b. Adrenocorticotropin and leptin c. Oxytocin and prolactin d. Estradiol and testosterone 54. What hormone promotes parental behavior in male mammals that participate in care for the young? a. Progesterone b. Adrenocorticotropin c. Oxytocin d. Estradiol 55. Two species of voles differ in whether the male bonds with a female and helps care for the young. Which hormone is responsible for this difference? a. Testosterone b. Estradiol c. Adrenocorticotropin d. Vasopressin 56. Ordinarily, male meadow voles show no attachment to their mates, and they contribute nothing to infant care. How did researchers change all that? a. By increasing the male voles’ vasopressin b. By decreasing the male voles’ testosterone c. By having the male voles watch males of another vole species d. By increasing the male voles’ estradiol 57. Men with more versus less active forms of the vasopressin receptor differ on average in which of the following? a. Probability of becoming transgender b. Probability of a successful marriage c. Probability of completing college d. Probability of becoming obese 58. What can cause a male rodent or a never-pregnant female rodent to develop maternal behaviors?

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors a. Increased olfactory sensitivity b. Opportunity to watch others display maternal behaviors c. Classical conditioning of the maternal responses d. Prolonged exposure to baby rodents 59. What happens if a never-pregnant female rat is left with baby rats for a few days? a. At first she avoids them but over time she develops most maternal behaviors. b. She shows maternal behaviors at first but later abandons them. c. She shows maternal behaviors at once and continues until the babies are mature. d. She shows no maternal behaviors at any time.

60. In rats and mice, how does maternal behavior just after giving birth differ from maternal behavior later? a. The later behavior requires visual sensitivity. b. The later behavior is less hormone dependent. c. The later behavior is more hormone dependent. d. The later behavior is more reflexive.

61. If a man contributes to child care, what changes when he starts taking care of a baby? a. Increased estradiol and decreased oxytocin b. Decreased testosterone and increased prolactin c. Increased estradiol and also increased testosterone d. Increased luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone 62. Antipsychotic drugs that block dopamine would probably have what effect on sexual behavior? a. Increased sex drive b. Decreased sex drive c. “Fluid” sexual orientation d. Lack of inhibitions 63. What is an intersex? a. Someone with intermediate sexual anatomy b. Someone who is changing genders c. Someone with both male and female sex organs d. Someone attracted to both males and females 64. What is the most common cause of an intermediate sexual anatomy? a. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia b. Turner syndrome c. Klinefelter syndrome d. The XYY condition 65. What causes congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)? a. Either Turner syndrome or Klinefelter syndrome b. A genetic abnormality in the hypothalamus Powered by Cognero

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors c. A tumor in the pituitary gland d. Limited ability to produce cortisol 66. What causes congenital adrenal hyperplasia? a. Too much release of estradiol by the adrenal glands b. Too little release of estradiol by the adrenal glands c. Too much release of cortisol by the adrenal glands d. Too little release of cortisol by the adrenal glands 67. In congenital adrenal hyperplasia, why does the pituitary gland oversecrete ACTH? a. A tumor in the hypothalamus sends it extra stimulation. b. It does not receive normal feedback from cortisol. c. High amounts of testosterone cause it extra stimulation. d. Low levels of estradiol lead to lack of inhibition.

68. In addition to cortisol and aldosterone, what other hormones does the adrenal gland secrete? a. Ghrelin and leptin b. Testosterone and estradiol c. ACTH and LH d. Insulin and glucagon 69. Which of the following might partly masculinize the external appearance of a genetic female (XX)? a. Inability to produce ACTH b. Inability to produce testosterone c. Inability to produce estradiol d. Inability to produce cortisol 70. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia results from disrupted feedback between which two structures? a. The pituitary and the ovaries b. The hypothalamus and the pituitary c. The ovaries and the adrenal glands d. The adrenal glands and the pituitary 71. Girls with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) are most likely to differ from other girls in what regard? a. Toy preferences b. Sentence structure c. Visual imagery d. Food preferences 72. If a girl is exposed to more than average testosterone during prenatal development, which of these is most likely to be influenced? a. Her hair and eye colors b. Her visual acuity c. Her intelligence Powered by Cognero

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors d. Her toy preferences 73. What type of person might develop testicular feminization? a. XY chromosomes and deficient production of cortisol b. XX chromosomes and deficient production of cortisol c. XY chromosomes and deficient receptor for androgens d. XX chromosomes and deficient receptor for estrogens 74. Testicular feminization results in what outcome? a. An XX chromosome pattern with exaggerated female appearance b. An XY chromosome pattern with partly or entirely female appearance c. An XX chromosome pattern with partly or entirely male appearance d. An XY chromosome pattern with exaggerated male appearance 75. How do people with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) and testicular feminization differ? a. CAH: male appearance. Testicular feminization: ambiguous appearance. b. CAH: female appearance. Testicular feminization: male appearance. c. CAH: female appearance. Testicular feminization: ambiguous appearance. d. CAH: ambiguous appearance. Testicular feminization: female appearance.

76. Many psychologists used to believe that anyone who was reared as a girl would develop a normal female gender identity. Observations of what type of people argues against this idea? a. Genetic males who appeared female at birth but developed male anatomy later b. Genetic females who appeared male at birth but developed female anatomy later c. Turner syndrome d. Klinefelter syndrome 77. A physician accidentally burned off one infant boy’s penis, and the parents agreed to raise the child as a girl. What happened? a. The child acted like a boy and later identified as male. b. The child accepted a female identity at all times. c. The child accepted a female identify but was bisexual. d. The child switched back and forth between male and female identities.

78. Nikki, at birth, had female appearing genitals but developed genitals with a male appearance at adolescence. What caused Nikki’s genitals to appear female at birth but develop the male appearance at adolescence? a. Inability to convert testosterone into dihydrotestosterone b. Inability to form normal amounts of cortisol c. Lack of receptors for androgens d. A mosaic of XO and XY chromosomes in different cells 79. Studies on genetic males who fail to produce 5-reductase support what conclusion? a. Most people’s sexual orientation is fluid. b. Early rearing experiences determine gender identity and sexual orientation. c. Prenatal hormones influence gender identity and sexual orientation.

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors d. Having an older brother influences sexual orientation.

80. According to current specialists, when, if ever, should a child with CAH undergo genital surgery to look more like a girl? a. As soon as possible b. At the start of puberty c. Only in adulthood, and only if the person requests it d. Never 81. When, if ever, does same-sex genital contact occur in animals other than humans? a. Only for animals in captivity b. Only for animals unable to find opposite-sex partners c. In many species under normal conditions d. Never 82. For whom do feminine-type behaviors in childhood strongly predict a homosexual orientation in adulthood? a. Boys b. Girls c. Both d. Neither 83. In which of these ways is sexual orientation different for women than for men? a. Women usually discover their sexual orientation earlier in life. b. Women’s sexual orientation depends on the number of older brothers. c. Bisexuality and sexual fluidity are more common among women. d. Women discover their orientation and men choose it.

84. What conclusion results from studies of the sexual orientation of twins? a. Monozygotic twins are more likely to be homosexual. b. Dizygotic twins are more likely to be homosexual. c. Monozygotic twins are more likely to be concordant for orientation. d. Dizygotic twins are more likely to be concordant for orientation.

85. What do twin studies indicate about the genetics of sexual orientation? a. Orientation is partly heritable, but the size of effect is uncertain. b. Orientation has 50% heritability. c. Orientation is 100% heritable. d. Orientation is independent of the genes.

86. Examination of the chromosomes has revealed what about the heritability of sexual orientation? a. No common gene has any effect on orientation. b. No common gene has more than a small effect on orientation. c. Heritability depends mainly on one gene identified on the Y chromosome. d. Heritability depends mainly on one gene identified on the X chromosome.

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors 87. The conclusion that sexual orientation is partly heritable depends mainly on what evidence? a. Comparisons between gay men and lesbian women b. Identification of a gene strongly linked to sexual orientation c. Comparisons of sexual orientation in many cultures d. Comparisons between monozygotic and dizygotic twins 88. Why is exclusive homosexuality puzzling from an evolutionary standpoint? a. Homosexual behavior does not occur in other species. b. The genes responsible for sexual orientation have not been found. c. The apparent prevalence of homosexuality varies among cultures. d. Gay men are less likely to have children.

89. What is one plausible hypothesis about how homosexuality could remain moderately common if most gay men do not reproduce? a. Relatives of gay men might also have decreased reproduction. b. An event in the environment could cause an epigenetic change. c. Relatives of gay men might have decreased openness to experience. d. Heterosexual men might be more likely to help their nieces and nephews.

90. Studies of twins in several countries found higher concordance for sexual orientation in monozygotic than dizygotic twins, and the magnitude of the effect _______. a. was only measured if the twins were exclusively same-sex oriented b. remained stable c. varied considerably d. was only measured if both twins responded to an ad about the study together 91. Of the following, which is the most plausible hypothesis about hormones and sexual orientation? a. Gay men have low testosterone levels. b. Lesbian women have low estradiol levels. c. Hormone levels at some point in prenatal development influences sexual orientation. d. Estradiol at some point in prenatal development influences sexual orientation.

92. The evidence supports which of the following as a possible explanation of some cases of a gay sexual orientation? a. Activity of the mother’s immune system during pregnancy b. Levels of testosterone and estradiol during adolescence c. The number and ages of sisters in the family d. Excess levels of 5-reductase in the blood 93. Which of the following increases the probability of a gay orientation? a. Living in a family with one or more older sisters b. Living in a family with an older, adopted brother c. Having a biological older brother, even if he did not live in the same house d. Having either an adopted or biological younger brother 94. The “older brother” effect on sexual orientation probably acts by which mechanism?

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors a. The mother’s immune system during pregnancy b. Play patterns during childhood c. Imitation during adolescence d. Altered schedules of eating and sleeping 95. How does a highly stressful experience during late pregnancy affect a rat’s offspring? a. The females developed a masculinized anatomy. b. The males developed a feminized anatomy. c. The females showed increased masculine-type sexual behaviors. d. The males showed increased feminine-type sexual behaviors.

96. How might prenatal stress alter sexual development? a. Stress elevates hormones that antagonize estradiol. b. Stress elevates hormones that antagonize testosterone. c. Stress increases the production of estradiol. d. Stress increases the production of testosterone.

97. How might having an older brother increase the probability of a gay orientation? a. Living with an older brother leads to roughhouse play in childhood. b. Exposure to the smell of the older brother inhibits the secretion of testosterone. c. The older brother’s girlfriends inhibit the secretion of testosterone. d. Some mothers develop antibodies against a protein that the Y chromosome makes.

98. How does INAH-3 relate to sexuality? a. On average, it is twice as large in transgenders as in other people. b. On average, it is twice as large in heterosexual males as in females. c. On average, it grows twice as large after someone has sexual experience. d. On average, it is twice as large in young adults as in older people.

99. What did Simon LeVay report about brain differences related to sexual orientation? a. Part of the hypothalamus is larger in heterosexual women than in homosexual women. b. Part of the hypothalamus is larger in heterosexual men than in homosexual men. c. Brain anatomy depends more on frequency of sexual activity than on sexual orientation. d. Brain anatomy does not differ between heterosexual and homosexual people.

100. Part of which brain area reportedly differs, on average, between gay men and heterosexual men? a. Primary visual cortex b. Cerebellum c. Hypothalamus d. Reticular activating system 101. In LeVay’s study, the volume of area INAH-3 correlated with which of the following? a. Age of reaching puberty b. Frequency of sexual activity Powered by Cognero

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors c. Cause of death d. Male sexual orientation 102. For transgender people, parts of which brain areas are most likely to resemble the experienced gender? a. Medulla and cerebellum b. Hypothalamus and amygdala c. Primary visual cortex and primary auditory cortex d. Dorsal striatum and corpus callosum 103. For 12-year-old children who express intense distress about their assigned gender, what do current authorities recommend? a. Sex-change surgery b. Hormones of the desired sex c. Puberty-blocking drugs d. No intervention yet 104. For children who request transgender surgery, current authorities recommend waiting until what age? a. Whatever age the child first makes the request b. 12 c. 16 d. 18

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

105. According to Charles Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection, individuals whose genes help them survive will produce more offspring, and therefore, those genes will spread in the population. a. True b. False 106. The tendency of females to prefer a male who can be a good provider is widespread among mammalian species. a. True b. False 107. Some genes influence differences between males and females by means other than hormones. a. True b. False 108. Prenatal testosterone has a lesser effect on genetic males than on genetic females. a. True b. False 109. Turner syndrome and Klinefelter syndrome are caused by a missing or extra chromosome. a. True b. False

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors 110. Organizing effects of hormones are more permanent than activating effects. a. True b. False 111. The SRY gene determines whether a mammal develops testes or ovaries. a. True b. False 112. Both the testes and the ovaries produce both testosterone and estradiol. a. True b. False 113. Adult hormone levels determine whether someone has mostly masculine or feminine behavior. a. True b. False 114. Prenatal testosterone produces male development and prenatal estradiol produces female development. a. True b. False 115. Injecting a genetic male with estradiol during early development feminizes his external appearance. a. True b. False 116. Women’s brains tend to age more slowly than men’s brains. a. True b. False 117. The metabolic rate in the brain declines more rapidly in males than in females. a. True b. False 118. The differences between male and female brains correlate strongly with male–female behavioral differences. a. True b. False 119. Most people’s brain structures are a mosaic of male-typical, female-typical, and neutral areas. a. True b. False 120. The average difference between boys and girls in toy preference is smaller than the average difference between men and women in height. a. True b. False 121. Prenatal hormones influence children’s toy preferences.

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors a. True b. False 122. Boys and girls prefer different toys only because they were socialized that way. a. True b. False 123. Sexual arousal and pleasure depends on testosterone for both males and females. a. True b. False 124. Sex hormones facilitate sexual desire and pleasure by stimulating dopamine release. a. True b. False 125. Men with higher testosterone levels are more likely to marry. a. True b. False 126. Many antidepressant drugs suppress sexual desire. a. True b. False 127. During the preovulatory period, a woman increases her probability of initiating sexual activity. a. True b. False 128. In rodents, the first days of parental behavior depend on hormones and the later days do not. a. True b. False 129. Increased vasopressin can increase a male vole’s loyalty to his mate and interest in caring for the young. a. True b. False 130. If the adrenal glands produce too much cortisol during early development, a female mammal develops a partially masculinized appearance. a. True b. False 131. Troops of monkeys or chimpanzees demonstrate different expectations for males and females. a. True b. False 132. A genetic deficiency in androgen receptors can cause a genetic male to develop looking like a typical female. a. True Powered by Cognero

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors b. False 133. Regardless of prenatal hormones, any child reared consistently as a female will develop a female gender identity. a. True b. False 134. Physicians have no clear consensus on whether surgery to “correct” the genital appearance should occur early, late, or not at all. a. True b. False 135. Same-sex genital contact occurs only in humans and laboratory animals. a. True b. False 136. On average, sexual orientation is more fluid in females than in males. a. True b. False 137. Many men change their sexual orientation. a. True b. False 138. Monozygotic twins are more likely to be homosexual than dizygotic twins are. a. True b. False 139. Variations in the prenatal environment account for some of the variation in sexual orientation among men. a. True b. False 140. On average, the brain structure differs slightly as a function of sexual orientation. a. True b. False 141. The prevalence of transgender people has increased since about 2005, especially male-to-female transitions. a. True b. False

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

142. Someone with Turner syndrome has the chromosome pattern ____________________.

143. Klinefelter syndrome is associated with the chromosome pattern ____________________.

144. The gene that determines whether a mammal develops male or female structures is abbreviated ____________________.

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors 145. Testosterone and estradiol are both in the category of hormones known as ____________________.

146. Hormones that act during a sensitive period to produce long-lasting effects are known as ____________________ hormones.

147. Testosterone and estradiol enhance sexual motivation and pleasure by inducing the hypothalamus and other brain areas to release the neurotransmitter ____________________.

148. Many antidepressant drugs decrease sexual arousal because they increase activity at ____________________ synapses.

149. A woman’s probability of initiating sexual activity increases during the ____________________ period of the monthly cycle.

150. A In many brain areas, the male–female differences depend on not only testosterone and estradiol but also the ____________________.

151. Two species of voles differ in whether or not males form pair bonds with females and help with the young. The difference is caused by brain levels of the hormone ____________________.

152. The most common cause of an intermediate sexual anatomy is CAH, which stands for ____________________.

153. The most common cause of an intermediate sexual anatomy, CAH, results when the adrenal glands during early development do not produce enough ____________________.

154. Frans de Waal, who spent his career observing primates, described all bonobos as ____________________.

155. The brain area reported to differ in size between gay and heterosexual men is abbreviated ____________________.

156. What explanation do evolutionary psychologists propose for why more men than women report seeking opportunities for multiple sexual partners?

157. What causes male mammals to develop one set of structures and females to develop another?

158. What would be the external genital appearance of a mammal exposed to a low level of both androgens and estrogens in early development?

159. How do organizing effects of hormones differ from activating effects?

160. Why is almost anyone’s brain a mosaic of male-typical, female-typical, and neutral areas?

161. What evidence supports the conclusion that prenatal hormones influence children’s toy preferences?

162. By what mechanism do testosterone and estradiol increase sexual motivation and pleasure?

163. Why do married men tend to have lower testosterone levels than unmarried men of the same age?

164. How do combination birth control pills prevent pregnancy?

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors 165. In rodents, how does the early stage of maternal care differ from the mechanisms of parental care a few days later?

166. What is the most common cause of an intermediate sexual anatomy, and how does it occur?

167. What is the status of genetic explanations for sexual orientation?

168. What evidence suggests that prenatal environment influences sexual orientation in some cases?

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors Answer Key 1. c 2. d 3. d 4. a 5. a 6. a 7. a 8. b 9. a 10. c 11. a 12. a 13. a 14. c 15. b 16. a 17. d 18. a 19. c 20. c 21. b 22. a 23. d 24. c 25. b Powered by Cognero

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors 26. c 27. b 28. c 29. c 30. a 31. b 32. b 33. d 34. d 35. c 36. a 37. c 38. b 39. b 40. b 41. d 42. d 43. d 44. c 45. b 46. c 47. d 48. b 49. b 50. b 51. a Powered by Cognero

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors 52. b 53. c 54. c 55. d 56. a 57. b 58. d 59. a 60. b 61. b 62. b 63. a 64. a 65. d 66. d 67. b 68. b 69. d 70. d 71. a 72. d 73. c 74. b 75. d 76. a Powered by Cognero

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors 77. a 78. a 79. c 80. c 81. c 82. a 83. c 84. c 85. a 86. b 87. d 88. d 89. b 90. c 91. c 92. a 93. c 94. a 95. d 96. b 97. d 98. b 99. b 100. c 101. d 102. b Powered by Cognero

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors 103. c 104. d 105. True 106. False 107. True 108. False 109. True 110. True 111. True 112. True 113. False 114. False 115. False 116. True 117. True 118. False 119. True 120. False 121. True 122. False 123. False 124. True 125. False 126. True 127. True Powered by Cognero

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors 128. True 129. True 130. False 131. True 132. True 133. False 134. True 135. False 136. True 137. False 138. False 139. True 140. True 141. False 142. XO 143. XXY 144. SRY 145. Steroid hormones

Steroids 146. Organizing 147. Dopamine 148. Serotonin 149. Preovulatory 150. Immune system 151. Vasopressin 152. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia Powered by Cognero

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors 153. Cortisol 154. Bisexual 155. INAH-3 156. A man can spread his genes either by being loyal to one woman and helping her raise children (presumably his own) or by trying to impregnate multiple women and hoping they can raise the children successfully. Men who acted in either of these ways in the past propagated their genes. A woman gains less by having multiple sex partners, because she can have a baby no more than once per nine months regardless of the number of sex partners.

157. At the first stage of a mammal’s development, the gonadal structures look alike. A male’s Y chromosome includes the SRY gene, which causes the undifferentiated gonads to develop into testes, which produce testosterone. Testosterone causes growth of penis, scrotum, and seminal vesicles. Because females have much lower testosterone levels, the gonads develop into ovaries, oviducts, uterus, and vagina.

158. A mammal exposed to low levels of both will appear female. External genital development depends on the presence or absence of androgens.

159. Organizing effects take place during a sensitive period of development and they produce long-lasting effects on anatomy and function. Activating effects can occur at any time. They produce activities that last only while the hormone is present.

160. Many brain areas differ on average between males and females. However, each of those areas matures at a different time, influenced by different genes, and influenced by different hormonal and immune mechanisms. The genes and epigenetic changes differ from one person to another, leading to different degrees of masculinization or feminization of each brain area.

161. Girls whose mothers had higher testosterone levels during pregnancy tend to play with boys’ toys more than the average for other girls. Also, in monkeys, infant males prefer “boys’ toys” and infant girls prefer “girls’ toys.”

162. Testosterone for males and estradiol for females prime part of the hypothalamus to release dopamine.

163. Men with lower testosterone levels are more likely to marry and less likely to seek additional sex partners after marriage.

164. The pills interfere with the feedback cycle between the ovaries and the pituitary. The steady level of estrogen and progesterone prevents the surge of FSH and LH that would otherwise release an ovum. The estrogen and progesterone also prevent an ovum from implanting in the uterus, and they make it harder for a sperm to reach the ovum.

165. The initial stage depends on hormones, especially estradiol and vasopressin. After a few days, the hormone levels drop but maternal (or sometimes paternal) care continues, caused by familiarity with the young. A never-pregnant female develops most aspects of maternal care if she remains with infants for a few days.

166. The most common cause is congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH). A genetic mutation prevents the adrenal gland from producing normal amounts of cortisol. Ordinarily, the pituitary secretes ACTH, which stimulates the adrenal gland to release cortisol and other hormones, including testosterone and estradiol. In the relative absence of cortisol, the pituitary gets little feedback, as if it had not been adequately stimulating the adrenal gland, and therefore, it sends more and more ACTH. Although the ACTH cannot get the adrenal gland to produce much cortisol, it does increase the production of the other hormones. The extra testosterone partly masculinizes development of a genetic female.

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10_Reproductive_Behaviors 167. Many studies have demonstrated greater concordance for sexual orientation between monozygotic twins than dizygotic twins. However, the size of the effect varies significantly. The consensus is that sexual orientation is partly heritable, but the degree of heritability is uncertain.

168. A gay orientation is slightly more probable among men who had an older biological brother, regardless of whether they lived together. In cases where a gay man had an older brother, the mothers tend to show elevated antibodies against a protein produced by the Y chromosome. That is, the mothers’ intrauterine environment during pregnancy acted against some aspect of typical male development. Also, research with rats showed that mothers exposed to great stress during one stage of pregnancy were likely to have male offspring that showed some aspects of female sexual behavior.

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11_Emotional_Behaviors

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Walter Cannon was the first to recognize which of the following? a. The sympathetic nervous system prepares us for fight or flight. b. All stressful situations cause similar reactions by the body. c. Facilitation of the startle reflex is a useful way to measure anxiety. d. The amygdala is a key area for the brain to react to emotional information.

2. For a small animal, seeing a predator at a distance activates mainly which of the following? a. Enteric nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Parasympathetic nervous system d. Peripheral nervous system 3. For a small animal, seeing a predator can activate mainly the sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous system, depending on what? a. Age of the animal b. Time of day c. Distance to the predator d. Temperature of the environment 4. What expression describes the parasympathetic nervous system? a. Fight or flight b. Think or stink c. Kiss or hiss d. Rest and digest 5. In which condition do experiences stop influencing heart rate, blood pressure, and sweating? a. Aphantasia b. Williams syndrome c. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia d. Pure autonomic failure 6. How does pure autonomic failure affect emotions? a. Less intense emotional feelings b. Difficulty distinguishing fear from anger c. Increased probability of anger and violence d. Loss of facial expressions 7. Pure autonomic failure most strongly impairs which aspect of emotions? a. Ability to distinguish pleasure from displeasure b. Ability to distinguish fear from anger c. Intensity of feelings d. Facial expressions Powered by Cognero

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11_Emotional_Behaviors 8. Other things being equal, which of the following would increase your probability of feeling angry? a. Looking to the right instead of the left b. Standing instead of lying down c. Eating lettuce instead of carrots d. Holding a pencil with your teeth instead of your lips 9. Other things being equal, which of the following would increase your chance of rating a movie as “very scary”? a. Watching the movie while standing up b. Watching the movie from the left side of the theater c. Watching the movie early in the morning d. Watching the movie in a cold room 10. Which of the following increases (slightly) your rating of a cartoon as being funny? a. Standing up b. Lying down c. Holding a pen with your lips d. Holding a pen with your teeth 11. The facial-feedback hypothesis makes which of these predictions? a. Children have to learn to recognize other people’s facial expressions. b. Psychotherapy can change the way people express negative emotions. c. Stimulating certain brain areas elicits specific emotions. d. Increased frowning will decrease happiness.

12. Which of the following would be a test of the facial-feedback hypothesis? a. Can people in different cultures recognize the same emotional expressions? b. Does holding a pen with your teeth make you feel happier? c. Does pressing gently on your eyes reduce heart rate? d. Does looking left or looking right alter emotional feelings?

13. What is the reported effect from using Botox to paralyze the frowning muscles? a. Impaired memory b. Increased anxiety c. Decreased depression d. Improved ability to understand others’ emotions 14. Laboratory studies have found support for the facial-feedback hypothesis that is reasonably dependable, _____. a. and it is a strong effect b. although it is an unstable effect c. although it is a small effect d. based on a −.80 correlation 15. Observations on pure autonomic failure support which theoretical statement about emotions? a. That feedback from a facial expression increases an emotional feeling Powered by Cognero

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11_Emotional_Behaviors b. That emotions are best described as continuous dimensions c. That intensity of emotional feeling depends on autonomic responses d. That emotional reactions are often faster than intellectual reactions 16. What is the relevance of Botox to the facial-feedback hypothesis? a. Botox to the frowning muscles improves emotional intelligence, as the hypothesis predicts. b. Botox to the frowning muscles decreases depression, as the hypothesis predicts. c. Botox to the frowning muscles increases anxiety, contrary to the hypothesis’s prediction. d. Botox to the frowning muscles increases anger, contrary to the hypothesis’s prediction.

17. Can you identify someone’s emotion by measuring autonomic activities? If so, how? a. No, you cannot. b. Yes. Heart rate distinguishes fear from anger. c. Yes, breathing rate distinguishes fear from anger. d. Yes, changes in skin temperature distinguish happiness from sadness.

18. Where is the limbic system of the brain? a. In the forebrain, as part of the temporal lobe of the cortex b. In the forebrain, surrounding the thalamus c. In the hindbrain, connecting the medulla to the pons d. In the midbrain, consisting of the superior and inferior colliculi 19. Which of the following is part of the limbic system? a. Amygdala b. Cerebellum c. Corpus callosum d. Fusiform gyrus 20. When researchers recorded brain activity during emotions, what conclusion resulted? a. Each emotion activates a different brain area. b. The activity evoked by any emotion varies among studies. c. Any emotion activates mostly the precentral gyrus of the cortex. d. Any emotion activates mostly the postcentral gyrus of the cortex.

21. Disgust largely activates the cortical area that is also responsible for what? a. Taste b. Anxiety c. Decision making d. Facial recognition 22. The insula, an area important for taste, is also especially important for which type of emotion? a. Disgust b. Surprise c. Pride Powered by Cognero

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11_Emotional_Behaviors d. Awe 23. Studies of brain responses to emotion tend to argue against which of the following? a. Facial-feedback hypothesis b. Behavioral activation system c. Selye’s theory of stress d. Six basic emotions theory 24. What dimensions of emotion did researchers find in the temporo-parietal junction of the right hemisphere? a. Happiness, sadness, and anger b. Oral, anal, genital c. Sociality, consistency, reactivity d. Polarity, intensity, and complexity 25. The behavioral activation system tends to be associated with which emotions? a. Happiness and sadness b. Happiness and anger c. Anger and fear d. Fear and sadness 26. The behavioral activation system tends to be associated with which part of the nervous system? a. Enteric nervous system b. Parasympathetic nervous system c. Left hemisphere d. Right hemisphere 27. People with greater right-hemisphere than left-hemisphere activity tend to be what? a. Talkative and extraverted b. Angry and disgusted c. Alert and attentive d. Withdrawn and cautious 28. Psychologists who support the idea of six basic emotions generally rely on what evidence? a. Studies of facial expressions b. Studies of brain responses c. Studies of infant behavior d. Studies of emotions in literature 29. What evidence indicates that some human emotional expressions are partly built-in? a. Most human expressions differ from those of apes and monkeys. b. On average, men and women use the same facial expressions. c. People with certain genetic mutations fail to experience normal emotions. d. People blind since birth have many expressions like sighted people.

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11_Emotional_Behaviors 30. What do comparisons across cultures tell us about human facial expressions? a. People everywhere have similar expressions in certain situations. b. Resemblances across cultures are no more than coincidental. c. People have precisely six invariant facial expressions. d. A happy expression in one culture could mean sadness in another.

31. Certain research studies overestimated people’s ability to recognize facial expressions of emotion because they used which research method? a. Short-term memory b. True-false questions c. fMRI d. Matching questions 32. Which of the following questions remains most doubtful or controversial among emotion researchers? a. Are any facial expressions similar across all human cultures? b. Can people everywhere match faces to emotion terms with better-than-chance accuracy? c. Do emotional expressions fall into a small number of discrete categories? d. Do we use more than just facial expressions to identify someone’s emotion?

33. On average, how do people differ, if at all, at recognizing other people’s emotional expressions? a. Old people do better than young adults. b. Women do better than men. c. People with psychopathic tendencies do better than average. d. No differences among people can be demonstrated.

34. Ability to recognize emotional expressions correlates with which of the following? a. Ratio of neurons to glia cells in the amygdala and the hypothalamus b. Density of axons connecting the receptors of the retina to cells in the thalamus c. Diameter of the corpus callosum d. Connections between the frontal cortex and the anterior temporal cortex 35. Researchers who doubt the idea of six basic emotions prefer what alternative? a. Only happiness and sadness are true emotions. b. Emotions vary along one or more continuous dimensions. c. People in highly literate societies experience more emotions than other people do. d. As humans continue to evolve, we develop more and more emotions.

36. What do researchers propose as an explanation of the biological usefulness of emotions? a. Emotions help us make quick decisions. b. Emotions help prevent fluctuations in sympathetic nervous activation. c. Emotions improve the accuracy of sensory systems. d. Emotions improve our accuracy of facial recognition.

37. Ashley is contemplating a moral decision, such as the trolley dilemma. Ashley is activating what brain areas? a. Brain areas that control motor coordination Powered by Cognero

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11_Emotional_Behaviors b. Brain areas that compare vision to hearing c. Brain areas that respond to emotions d. Brain areas that regulate hunger, thirst, and sex 38. Why do people with damage to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex choose the utilitarian option in moral dilemmas more than average? a. They are highly influenced by peer pressure. b. They consider long-term consequences more than short-term ones. c. They do not imagine the emotional impact. d. They make decisions more quickly than average.

39. Damage to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex increases which tendency in making decisions? a. Greater conformity to the majority opinion b. Longer delays in making decisions c. More choices based on emotional feelings d. More utilitarian choices 40. After a hamster attacks an intruder into its territory, how does its behavior change? a. It temporarily becomes inhibited about making further attacks. b. It temporarily becomes quicker to make further attacks. c. It temporarily becomes more likely to flee from danger. d. It temporarily becomes sleepy.

41. Is violent behavior prevalent in chimpanzees and bonobos? a. Yes, for some troops of chimpanzees, but not bonobos b. Yes, for all chimpanzees and some troops of bonobos c. Yes, for all troops of chimpanzees and bonobos d. No, for either chimpanzees or bonobos 42. What is known about the genetics of violent behavior in humans? a. Many rare genetic variants increase violent behavior. b. A gene on the Y chromosome is strongly linked to violent behavior. c. Two recessive genes combine their effects to produce violent behavior. d. Violent behavior in humans depends entirely on environment, not genetics.

43. What is one reason why studies of genetics of human violent behavior get widely varying results? a. Researchers measure violence in different ways. b. Genes for violence have been spreading in the population. c. Most studies have examined only Americans. d. Many researchers have used the wrong statistical tests.

44. The gene that is most widely studied with regard to human violent behavior regulates the production of what chemical? a. Adrenocorticotropic hormone b. 5-Hydroxy-indoleacetic acid Powered by Cognero

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11_Emotional_Behaviors c. Alpha feto-protein d. Monoamine oxidase A 45. A deficiency of monoamine oxidase A leads to a build-up of what chemical inside certain neurons? a. Serotonin b. Testosterone c. Cortisol d. ACTH 46. A deficiency of MAOA increases the build-up of serotonin inside neurons, evidently altering the brain in a way that increases the risk of antisocial behavior, especially in _____. a. males b. females c. males, but only during early adulthood d. females, but only during puberty 47. According to many but not all studies, a low-activity form of the MAOA gene combined with a seriously troubled childhood increases the probability of what? a. Korsakoff’s syndrome b. Williams syndrome c. Violent behavior d. Panic disorder 48. According to an influential report by Caspi and associates, the effect of the MAOA gene on antisocial behavior depends on what? a. Diet b. Childhood experiences c. Time of day d. Other genes 49. A procedure that temporarily increases testosterone in women has what behavioral effect? a. Increased dominance behaviors b. Increased sex drive c. Increased fearfulness d. Improved performance on videogames 50. What is meant by serotonin turnover? a. Amount of destruction of serotonin receptors b. Amount of increase of serotonin receptors c. Amount of serotonin released and replaced d. Difference between the excitation and inhibition caused by serotonin 51. Researchers use 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) to measure which of these? a. Stressful experience b. Serotonin turnover Powered by Cognero

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11_Emotional_Behaviors c. Brain metabolism d. Sex drive 52. Why would a researcher interested in aggressive behavior measure 5-HIAA? a. It is a hormone that decreases inhibitions. b. It is released simultaneously with cortisol. c. It is the main metabolite of serotonin. d. It is the substance the body converts to testosterone.

53. What does a measurement of 5-HIAA indicate? a. The ratio of excitatory to inhibitory serotonin synapses b. How many serotonin receptors occur in a brain area c. How much serotonin has been released and replaced d. How many brain areas respond to serotonin 54. Aggressive behavior correlates (at least weakly) with low release of what transmitter? a. Glutamate b. Serotonin c. Melanocortin d. Acetylcholine 55. Studies relating serotonin turnover to human aggressive behavior have had mixed results, depending partly on which of these? a. What time of day the researchers conducted the study? b. What time of year the researchers conducted the study? c. How the researchers measured aggressive behavior? d. How the researchers analyzed the statistics?

56. According to the dual-hormone hypothesis, aggressive behavior relates to what? a. Facilitation by testosterone and inhibition by cortisol b. Facilitation by both testosterone and cortisol c. Facilitation by testosterone and inhibition by 5-HIAA d. Facilitation by both testosterone and 5-HIAA 57. What type of behavior does cortisol facilitate? a. Caution b. Aggression c. Eating d. Sex 58. Cortisol increases during what type of emotion? a. Anger b. Anxiety c. Happiness Powered by Cognero

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11_Emotional_Behaviors d. Pride 59. Why is research on human aggressive behavior difficult? a. Experiments on serious violence are unethical. b. Violent behavior is controlled by instincts. c. Violent behavior is too rare for typical statistical tests. d. Brain areas controlling violence are hard to measure with fMRI. 60. Why is the startle reflex valuable to researchers? a. It is controlled by a single identified gene. b. It enables measuring anxiety in laboratory animals. c. Its occurrence marks the start of adolescence. d. It occurs in some people and not others.

61. Why do we know more about the brain mechanisms of anxiety than we do about other emotions? a. Researchers can measure anxiety better than other emotions in laboratory animals. b. Clinical psychologists have greater interest in anxiety than in other emotions. c. Anxiety depends on brain areas that are easier to reach surgically. d. Unlike other emotions, anxiety depends on a single neurotransmitter.

62. Which type of emotion can be measured in laboratory animals well enough to permit exploration of the brain mechanisms? a. Embarrassment b. Surprise c. Happiness d. Anxiety 63. Which reflex do researchers use to measure anxiety in laboratory animals? a. Ankle jerk reflex b. Stretch reflex c. Knee-jerk reflex d. Startle reflex 64. The startle reflex especially tenses muscles of which body area? a. Neck b. Stomach c. Wrist d. Jaw 65. What type of people show an enhanced startle reflex? a. People prone to angry outbursts b. People with insomnia c. People with much anxiety d. People experiencing jet lag Powered by Cognero

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11_Emotional_Behaviors 66. After damage to the amygdala, what happens to the startle reflex? a. It becomes constant, regardless of signals for danger or safety. b. It becomes weaker than usual, and it might disappear altogether. c. It becomes stronger than usual under nearly all circumstances. d. It fluctuates unpredictably from one occasion to the next.

67. What brain area is most responsible for the danger and safety signals that raise or lower anxiety? a. Amygdala b. Parietal cortex c. Reticular formation d. Lateral striatum 68. What does amygdala research tell us about the concept of fear? a. Fear is one of the six basic human emotions. b. Fear is a response that people learn gradually to experience. c. Fear in humans is unlike any experience that other animal species have. d. What we call fear is a combination of independent reactions.

69. The bed nucleus of the stria terminalis is most important for which aspect of anxiety? a. Directing attention to signals of danger b. The sudden increase in anxiety after a signal of danger c. The general background level of anxiety d. Inhibiting visible expressions of anxiety 70. How fast does the amygdala respond to the fear in someone’s face? a. Faster than the brain recognizes the face b. Just slightly after the brain recognizes the face c. Gradually over a period of seconds d. Only after combining input from vision, hearing, and memory 71. The amygdala responds most strongly to which type of emotional expressions? a. Expressions of happiness or sadness b. Expressions that include both sight and sound c. Expressions that require some effort to understand d. Expressions that are directed away from the viewer 72. SM, a woman with amygdala damage, shows what unusual feature of emotional experience? a. Fearlessness b. Unprovoked hostility c. Rapid mood swings d. Constant happiness 73. Two people with amygdala damage showed no fear under most circumstances. Which of the following did, nevertheless, evoke fear? a. Breathing concentrated carbon dioxide Powered by Cognero

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11_Emotional_Behaviors b. Watching a horror movie c. Standing too close to a stranger d. Holding a snake 74. Which of the following is true of SM, the woman with damage to her amygdala? a. She has a photographic memory. b. She seldom smiles or frowns. c. She seldom makes eye contact. d. She avoids standing close to other people.

75. Why do people with amygdala damage have trouble recognizing expressions of fear? a. They fail to make eye contact. b. They are incapable of experiencing fear. c. They are indifferent to other people’s feelings. d. They have impaired visual acuity.

76. Response of the amygdala correlates most strongly with which of these? a. Frequency of laughing b. Frequency of unpleasant emotions c. Frequency of injurious accidents d. Frequency of arguments 77. Which of the following predicts decreased risk of post-traumatic stress disorder? a. High activation in the prefrontal cortex b. High activation in the amygdala c. Larger than average hippocampus d. Larger than average cerebral ventricles 78. Panic disorder is characterized by periods of extreme arousal of what? a. The prefrontal cortex b. The enteric nervous system c. The parasympathetic nervous system d. The sympathetic nervous system 79. Of the following, who are most likely to experience panic disorder? a. Old women b. Old men c. Young women d. Young men 80. Which of the following might help you decrease your heart rate? a. Balance on one foot with your eyes closed b. Press gently on your eyes c. Scratch your left leg with your right hand Powered by Cognero

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11_Emotional_Behaviors d. Clap your hands in an irregular rhythm 81. Anjou is a person with joint laxity (being “double-jointed”). Anjou has an increased probability of what? a. Panic disorder b. Bipolar disorder c. Korsakoff’s syndrome d. Aphantasia 82. What neurotransmitter abnormality is most common in people with panic disorder? a. Decreased glutamate and increased serotonin b. Decreased norepinephrine and increased oxytocin c. Decreased GABA and increased orexin d. Decreased ghrelin and increased leptin 83. Acute stressful events stimulate orexin neurons that increase _____. a. the output of serotonin b. activity in the cerebral cortex c. heart rate, breathing rate, and blood pressure d. carbon dioxide levels in the blood 84. What tends to be unusual about the brain of people with PTSD? a. Larger than average prefrontal cortex b. Smaller than average amygdala c. Larger than average hippocampus d. Smaller than average hippocampus 85. How did researchers study whether size of the hippocampus was a cause or effect of PTSD? a. By examining the genes of people with PTSD b. By examining twins of people with PTSD c. By examining the spouses of people with PTSD d. By examining 5-HIAA in people with PTSD 86. What did researchers observe about war veterans with damage to the amygdala? a. Amygdala damage prevented PTSD. b. Amygdala damage caused PTSD. c. Having PTSD increased the risk of suffering amygdala damage. d. Having PTSD decreased the risk of suffering amygdala damage.

87. How do benzodiazepines relieve anxiety? a. By facilitating glutamate receptors b. By blocking serotonin receptors c. By facilitating GABA receptors d. By blocking acetylcholine receptors

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11_Emotional_Behaviors 88. Benzodiazepines enable which ion to cross into the postsynaptic neuron more readily? a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Chloride d. Calcium 89. Lane is a person experiencing PTSD. Lane is a participant in a treatment using MDMA. What is a disadvantage Lane will face using MDMA (“ecstasy”) treatment to decrease anxiety? a. The procedure is time-intensive and expensive. b. The benefits persist only briefly. c. MDMA causes intellectual deficits. d. MDMA produces its benefits for men but not women.

90. In what way are benzodiazepines and alcohol similar? a. Both facilitate glutamate synapses. b. Both facilitate GABA synapses. c. Both facilitate secretion of sex hormones. d. Both facilitate activity in the hypothalamus.

91. Under which definition, if either, would getting married count as a stressful event? a. Selye’s definition b. McEwen’s definition c. Both definitions d. Neither definition 92. Which gland releases cortisol? a. The pancreas b. The thyroid gland c. The pituitary gland d. The adrenal gland 93. What observation inspired Selye to develop his concept of stress? a. Folk tales throughout the world contain many of the same themes. b. Many people with childhood injuries become noted athletes later. c. Most dreams contain material related to recent memories. d. Many experiences and illnesses produce the same symptoms.

94. What function does cortisol play in the initial response to stress? a. It facilitates transmission at GABA synapses. b. It attacks viruses and bacteria. c. It decreases heart rate and blood pressure. d. It increases energy and alertness.

95. In response to stress, how does the role of the HPA axis compare with that of the sympathetic nervous system? a. The HPA axis reacts more slowly, but its effects last longer.

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11_Emotional_Behaviors b. The HPA axis reacts faster, but its effects are briefer. c. The HPA axis puts limits on the effects of the sympathetic nervous system. d. The HPA axis affects organs that the sympathetic nervous system cannot reach.

96. What happens to memory when people are under intense stress? a. They remember mainly useless details. b. They remember other stressful events clearly. c. They are unable to form new memories. d. They form new memories but rapidly forget them.

97. Which of these tends to happen when people are under intense stress? a. They develop unusual food cravings. b. They rely on habits instead of considering new options. c. They pause extra-long to consider their decisions. d. They retreat from social interactions.

98. What do cytokines do? a. Increase metabolism b. Prepare the uterus for pregnancy c. Stimulate the sympathetic nervous system d. Combat infections 99. Why do you have partial immunity against a disease you had before? a. The disease already damaged everything it can damage. b. Your blood vessels develop a coating that keeps out the intruder. c. You have B cells that remember the intruder. d. You have natural killer cells that remember the intruder.

100. What do prostaglandins do? a. They facilitate the sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous system, whichever one is active at the time. b. They attack viruses and bacteria. c. They increase metabolism and alertness. d. They cause the hypothalamus to produce fever and sleepiness.

101. How does prolonged stress cause fever? a. Stress prevents a balance between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. b. Stress causes an increased number of mitochondria per cell. c. Stress elevates cytokines that cause the hypothalamus to increase body temperature. d. Stressful experiences halt production of leukocytes.

102. Why do people experience fever and sleepiness during illness? a. Illness impairs the ability of the hypothalamus to maintain homeostasis. b. Fever and sleepiness represent conflict between the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems. c. Illness impairs the sodium-potassium pump in axons.

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11_Emotional_Behaviors d. Fever and sleepiness are among the body’s ways of fighting an illness.

103. Sleep and inactivity conserve energy so that the body can devote more energy to _____. a. lowering a fever b. digestion c. its immune attack against the intruders d. synaptic growth 104. Why do the effects of stress mimic the effects of illness? a. Both block the release of prostaglandins. b. Both release cytokines. c. Both impair the parasympathetic nervous system. d. Both decrease blood flow to the brain.

105. How does stress harm the hippocampus? a. Increased metabolic rate makes the hippocampus vulnerable. b. Expansion of surrounding areas puts pressure on the hippocampus. c. Suppression of the immune system breaks down the blood–brain barrier. d. Neurons undergo apoptosis because of inadequate stimulation.

106. What does the enteric nervous system control? a. Digestion b. Skeletal muscles c. Decision making d. Circadian rhythms 107. Why is the enteric nervous system important for understanding emotions? a. Bacteria in the intestines influence responses to stress. b. The enteric system balances sympathetic and parasympathetic effects. c. The enteric nervous system is the first part of the nervous system to reach maturity. d. The intestines secrete cortisol and cytokines.

108. How do the effects of prolonged stress compare with those of brief stress? a. Brief stress increases dopamine transmission, and prolonged stress increases norepinephrine. b. Brief stress activates the parasympathetic system, and prolonged stress activates the sympathetic system. c. Brief stress activates the immune system, and prolonged stress weakens it. d. Brief stress decreases body temperature, and prolonged stress raises it.

109. Which of these increases resilience? a. Weight gain b. Sleep apnea c. Unpredictability of events d. Social support

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11_Emotional_Behaviors

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

110. Most situations arouse both the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems. a. True b. False 111. When a small animal sees a predator at a distance, it arouses mostly its parasympathetic nervous system. a. True b. False 112. People with pure autonomic failure have more intense emotional experiences than average. a. True b. False 113. Paralyzing the muscles for frowning is an effective antidepressant. a. True b. False 114. Getting people to sit up straight, by modifying the height of the chair and the desk, may also improve mood. a. True b. False 115. Emotion theorists agree that people have six basic emotions. a. True b. False 116. Each of six emotions activates a different area of the cerebral cortex. a. True b. False 117. Inhibiting impulses depends more on the right hemisphere than the left hemisphere. a. True b. False 118. Many facial expressions, for similar situations, such as weddings, fireworks, or sports competitions, are similar for people throughout the world. a. True b. False 119. People’s ability to recognize facial expressions correlates with aspects of their brain anatomy. a. True b. False 120. Contemplating a moral dilemma activates brain areas that respond to emotions. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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11_Emotional_Behaviors 121. Research with mice also demonstrates a link between a genetic over-surplus of MAOA and later aggressive behavior. a. True b. False 122. Extreme violent behavior has been linked to many rare genetic variants. a. True b. False 123. Females can be aggressive toward one another also, but more often by gossip, shaming, or ostracism than by physical injury. a. True b. False 124. Temporarily increasing women’s testosterone levels increases their dominance behaviors. a. True b. False 125. Decreased serotonin turnover correlates with increased aggressive behavior. a. True b. False 126. According to the dual-hormone hypothesis, both testosterone and cortisol increase aggressive behavior. a. True b. False 127. Researchers use the startle reflex to measure anxiety in laboratory animals. a. True b. False 128. After damage to the amygdala, a rat no longer shows a startle reflex. a. True b. False 129. What we call fear is a combination of separate aspects that depend on different brain mechanisms. a. True b. False 130. At the sight of danger, the superior colliculus responds quite slowly and deliberately, sending a message via the thalamus to the amygdala. a. True b. False 131. Breathing concentrated carbon dioxide causes fear in anyone, even people with damage to the amygdala. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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11_Emotional_Behaviors 132. Measurements of amygdala response can predict which soldiers will respond more strongly to combat stress. a. True b. False 133. If you gently press on your eyes, you can decrease your heart rate. a. True b. False 134. Repeated stresses overexcite the amygdala and thereby damage mitochondria, producing abnormalities in synaptic transmission. a. True b. False 135. Post-traumatic stress disorder correlates with a larger-than-average hippocampus. a. True b. False 136. Soldiers who get brain damage that includes the amygdala are likely to develop PTSD. a. True b. False 137. Benzodiazepines decrease fear by stimulating the same receptors as morphine. a. True b. False 138. Alcohol reduces anxiety by facilitating GABA synapses. a. True b. False 139. Stressful experiences cause many of the same symptoms as an illness. a. True b. False 140. Cortisol increases energy and alertness. a. True b. False 141. Stress causes the adrenal glands to release cortisol. a. True b. False 142. The HPA axis reacts to stress faster than the sympathetic nervous system does. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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11_Emotional_Behaviors 143. The hypothalamus produces fever and sleepiness in response to an illness. a. True b. False 144. Fever and sleepiness are part of your body’s strategy to fight an illness. a. True b. False 145. Stress makes the hippocampus more vulnerable to damage. a. True b. False 146. Some people are more vulnerable to stress because of the bacteria in their intestines. a. True b. False

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

147. When a small animal sees a predator at a distance, it activates mostly the ____________________ nervous system.

148. The behavioral activation system is associated mostly with activity of the ____________________ hemisphere.

149. When people contemplate a moral dilemma, they compare the utilitarian and emotional aspects of the decision, and the comparison activates the ____________________.

150. Researchers measure serotonin turnover by examining levels of ____________________.

151. According to the dual-hormone hypothesis, aggressive behavior relates to facilitation by testosterone and inhibition by ____________________.

152. Emotion researchers study anxiety in laboratory animals by measuring changes in the ____________________ reflex.

153. Long-term generalized emotional arousal depends on a brain area called the ____________________.

154. Patient SM, who is almost totally fearless, has damage to her ____________________.

155. Patient SM experiences fear only after ____________________.

156. Some people are predisposed to anxiety disorder either because of increased responsiveness of the amygdala or less activation of the ____________________.

157. You can decrease your heart rate by pressing gently on your ____________________.

158. A study of more than sixteen thousand U.S. army soldiers found evidence for a genetic variant associated with anxiety disorders in people of ____________________.

159. Benzodiazepines decrease anxiety by facilitating transmission at ____________________ synapses.

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11_Emotional_Behaviors 160. Stress causes the adrenal gland to increase the hormone ____________________, which increases blood glucose and alertness.

161. During either an infection or a stressful experience, prostaglandins stimulate the ____________________ to produce fever, sleepiness, and other symptoms of illness.

162. The neurons that control the digestive system are the ____________________ nervous system.

163. What do observations on pure autonomic failure tell us about emotion?

164. What type of studies have researchers conducted to test the facial-feedback hypothesis?

165. Many studies reported that people throughout the world can recognize six facial expressions of emotion. What aspect of those studies led to overestimating people’s accuracy?

166. When emotion researchers are skeptical of the idea of six basic emotions, what alternative do they propose?

167. What brain activity influences decisions on moral dilemmas?

168. Why is it especially difficult to conduct research on the biological basis of aggressive behavior in humans?

169. What is the dual-hormone hypothesis of aggressive behavior?

170. Why has enabled researchers to study anxiety in laboratory animals more effectively than they can study other types of emotion?

171. What evidence supports the view that fear is a conglomerate of separate aspects, instead of being a single thing?

172. Patient SM has shown signs of fear only under what condition?

173. What physiological study could predict which people would have the worst responses to a combat trauma or similar stressful experiences?

174. How did researchers investigate whether a smaller-than-average hippocampus is a result of PTSD or a predisposing cause?

175. What do benzodiazepines do at synapses?

176. What observation led Selye to develop his concept of stress?

177. How does a stressful experience lead to fever, sleepiness, and other symptoms?

178. Beginning in 2009, the U.S. Army has studied healthy young people entering military service, many of whom experienced serious stress over the next few years. The ones expressing the greatest distress/least resilience showed what previous stress and coping personal history?

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11_Emotional_Behaviors Answer Key 1. a 2. c 3. c 4. d 5. d 6. a 7. c 8. b 9. d 10. d 11. d 12. b 13. c 14. c 15. c 16. c 17. a 18. b 19. a 20. b 21. a 22. a 23. d 24. d 25. b Powered by Cognero

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11_Emotional_Behaviors 26. c 27. d 28. a 29. d 30. d 31. d 32. c 33. b 34. d 35. b 36. a 37. c 38. c 39. d 40. b 41. a 42. a 43. a 44. d 45. a 46. a 47. c 48. b 49. a 50. c 51. b Powered by Cognero

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11_Emotional_Behaviors 52. c 53. c 54. b 55. c 56. a 57. a 58. b 59. a 60. b 61. a 62. d 63. d 64. a 65. c 66. a 67. a 68. d 69. c 70. a 71. c 72. a 73. a 74. c 75. a 76. a Powered by Cognero

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11_Emotional_Behaviors 77. a 78. d 79. c 80. b 81. a 82. c 83. c 84. d 85. b 86. a 87. c 88. c 89. a 90. b 91. a 92. d 93. d 94. d 95. a 96. b 97. b 98. d 99. c 100. d 101. c 102. d Powered by Cognero

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11_Emotional_Behaviors 103. c 104. b 105. a 106. a 107. a 108. c 109. d 110. True 111. True 112. False 113. True 114. True 115. False 116. False 117. True 118. True 119. True 120. True 121. False 122. True 123. True 124. True 125. True 126. False 127. True Powered by Cognero

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11_Emotional_Behaviors 128. False 129. True 130. False 131. True 132. True 133. True 134. True 135. False 136. False 137. False 138. True 139. True 140. True 141. True 142. False 143. True 144. True 145. True 146. True 147. parasympathetic 148. left 149. ventromedial prefrontal cortex Prefrontal cortex 150. 5-HIAA 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid 151. cortisol 152. startle Powered by Cognero

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11_Emotional_Behaviors 153. bed nucleus of the stria terminalis 154. amygdala 155. breathing concentrated carbon dioxide 156. prefrontal cortex 157. eyes 158. European ancestry 159. GABA 160. cortisol 161. hypothalamus 162. enteric 163. People with pure autonomic failure recognize what emotion a situation calls for, but they feel their emotions less intensely than before. The feeling aspect of emotion depends on feedback from autonomic activity.

164. They induced a smile by asking people to hold a pen with their teeth, or they prevented a smile by asking people to hold a pen with their lips. Then they asked people to rate how funny certain cartoons were.

165. People were given the emotion labels and they were asked to match them to six expressions. They did not have the option of saying that an expression matched none of the labels. If they know one of the expressions, such as happiness, they improve their guessing chance for the others. If they know five of the expressions, they get the sixth one for sure by process of elimination.

166. The alternative is that emotional experiences range along one or more continuous dimensions, such as pleasure to displeasure, and degree of arousal.

167. The ventromedial prefrontal cortex compares utilitarian (cognitive) information and the expected emotional outcome.

People with damage in this area tend to put less weight on the emotional aspects.

168. Because of ethical constraints, researchers can try to elicit only relatively trivial aggressive behavior in the laboratory, or they can rely on people’s self-reports. They cannot manipulate variables that might produce the kinds of real-world violence that we worry most about.

169. According to the dual-hormone hypothesis, testosterone facilitates aggressive behavior and cortisol inhibits it.

170. They have a simple, reliable way of measuring anxiety in animals—the intensity of the startle reflex, which increases after signals of danger and decreases after signals of safety.

171. One path through the amygdala is responsible for fear of pain, another path for fear of predators, and yet another for fear of aggressive members of one’s own species. One part of the amygdala controls changes in breathing, another controls avoidance of potentially unsafe places, and another controls learning which places are safest. The path from the amygdala responsible for freezing in the presence of danger is separate from the path controlling changes in heart rate, Powered by Cognero

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11_Emotional_Behaviors and it is also separate from the path for fleeing to escape. Yet another path from the amygdala inhibits appetite during intense fear.

In briefer terms, several parts of the amygdala and several paths from the amygdala control different responses associated with fear.

172. She showed intense fear after breathing concentrated carbon dioxide. However, she showed no fear when thinking about going through the same experience later.

173. People whose amygdala responds most strongly to brief presentations of unpleasant or frightening pictures are the people most likely to respond strongly to combat or similar trauma.

174. They found people with PTSD who had a twin that had not been in a traumatic situation and did not have PTSD. If the twin also has a smaller than average hippocampus, then that anatomy is a predisposing factor. If the hippocampus is smaller in the twin with PTSD, then it became smaller as a result of PTSD. And it is possible that both hypotheses are correct.

175. They attach to a site on a GABA-A receptor in a way that bends the receptor so that GABA can bind more easily. In that way the drugs facilitate GABA transmission.

176. He found that a wide variety of illnesses produce similar symptoms, including fever, loss of appetite, sleepiness, and increased immune activity. He then found that a variety of intense experiences produced the same symptoms.

177. In response to a stressful experience, the nervous system activates the immune system, which among other things produces more cytokines. The cytokines trigger production of prostaglandins that reach the hypothalamus, where they stimulate the hypothalamus to produce the same responses as occur in illness—fever, sleepiness, decreased appetite, and so forth.

178. Beginning in 2009, the U.S. Army has studied healthy young people entering military service, many of whom experienced serious stress over the next few years. The ones expressing the greatest distress—that is, the least resilience— were those with previous traumas, previous serious concussions, previous mental health issues, and no close social relationships.

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. How does instrumental conditioning differ from classical conditioning? a. In instrumental conditioning, the learner’s behavior affects the outcome. b. In instrumental conditioning, the CS and US are presented at the same time. c. Instrumental conditioning modifies the activity of the sympathetic nervous system. d. Instrumental conditioning modifies the activity of the parasympathetic nervous system.

2. According to Pavlov, what was necessary for learning to occur? a. A combination of activity at AMPA and NMDA synapses b. A strengthened connection between two brain areas c. Conscious understanding of the relationship between two events d. Synthesis of a unique type of RNA molecule 3. According to Pavlov, what happened as a result of classical conditioning? a. The probability of a rewarded response became greater. b. The animal showed an increased variety of behaviors. c. The animal reacted to the UCS as if it were the CS. d. The animal reacted to the CS as if it were the UCS. 4. Which of these observations argues against Pavlov’s explanation of classical conditioning? a. On average, a more intense US elicits a more intense CR. b. After repeated presentations of the CS alone, the CR declines. c. A CS paired with shock elicits a freezing response. d. A learned response to one stimulus generalizes to similar stimuli.

5. What did Lashley mean by “engram”? a. The physical representation of learning b. The stimulus to which a learner is responding c. A procedure for measuring brain activity d. A response that had not been predicted 6. Lashley’s search for the engram was an attempt to test whose theory of learning? a. Pavlov b. Sherrington c. Cajal d. Kandel 7. Why did Lashley make cuts in rats’ cerebral cortex? a. He was trying to test the functions of the hippocampus. b. He was trying to determine which neurotransmitters produced learning. c. He was trying to interrupt CS-US connections. d. He was trying to separate the effects of habituation and sensitization.

8. What evidence led Lashley to draw his conclusions of equipotentiality and mass action?

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence a. EEG studies showed equal activation throughout the brain during learning. b. Impairment of learning depended on the amount of damage rather than the location. c. Impairing any neurotransmitter produced the same impairment as any other neurotransmitter. d. Electrical stimulation of the brain could produce either reward or punishment.

9. Which of Lashley’s assumptions did later researchers reject? a. Learning requires modification of the activity at synapses. b. All memories have to consolidate, but some consolidate faster than others. c. Learning is distributed over many brain areas. d. Any convenient example of learning reveals the mechanisms of all learning.

10. In what brain area did Thompson and colleagues localize the engram for conditioned eyeblinks? a. Cerebellum b. Red nucleus c. Prefrontal cortex d. Hippocampus 11. Thompson and colleagues conducted classical conditioning training while one brain area was temporarily inactivated.

Which of the following would be evidence that the brain area was necessary for this type of learning? a. Slow learning during training, but loss of responses later b. Normal responses during training, but loss of responses later c. No responses during training, and later learning equal to untrained animals d. No responses during training, and later learning faster than untrained animals 12. Thompson and colleagues conducted classical conditioning training while one brain area was temporarily inactivated.

During that period, the animal made no responses, but after the brain recovered, the animal immediately showed conditioned responses. What conclusion followed? a. That brain area is responsible for the learning. b. That brain area relays the response but does not produce the learning. c. That brain area is irrelevant to the learned response. d. That brain area is necessary for the sensation but does not produce the learning.

13. How did Thompson test whether the red nucleus was necessary for learning a conditioned eyelid response? a. They recorded action potentials from the red nucleus during training. b. They ablated the red nucleus and then tried to train the response. c. They trained the response and tested it later while the red nucleus was suppressed. d. They suppressed the red nucleus during training and tested the response later.

14. Because Hebb could not imagine a chemical process that produced a rapid yet stable change in the brain, he proposed what distinction? a. Semantic memory vs. episodic memory b. Explicit memory vs. implicit memory c. Declarative memory vs. procedural memory d. Short-term memory vs. long-term memory Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence 15. How did Hebb propose that we store a short-term memory? a. By changing the pattern of grid cells b. By a reverberating circuit c. By long-term potentiation d. By growth of a connection across the cortex 16. Why did researchers have to revise the original concept of memory consolidation? a. A reminder can help someone retrieve a memory that seemed lost. b. Long-term memory has a much greater capacity than short-term memory does. c. People sometimes confuse a memory with something similar. d. Some long-term memories form much faster than others.

17. Why are highly emotional experiences easy to remember? a. Increased norepinephrine from the locus coeruleus b. Increased melanocortin from the arcuate nucleus c. Increased glutamate from the lateral striatum d. Increased ACTH from the anterior pituitary 18. What is meant by the “synaptic tag-and-capture” process? a. A weak memory stabilizes if an important memory follows it. b. A memory remains weak until it consolidates during sleep. c. A new memory replaces a similar old memory. d. Two or more similar memories combine to form one “gist” memory.

19. The delayed response task tests which of the following? a. Procedural memory b. Working memory c. Semantic memory d. Implicit memory 20. Parsha is keeping track of the current score of a game. What type of memory is Parsha using? a. Procedural memory b. Working memory c. Semantic memory d. Implicit memory 21. How does the brain hold a working memory? a. By forming a unique RNA molecule b. By growth of new dendrites c. By growth of new axons d. By a reverberating circuit 22. One cause of amnesia is “brain fog” that many patients suffer for months after recovery from what? a. A concussion Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence b. Damage to the occipital lobe c. A stroke d. COVID-19 or from cancer treatments 23. Which of these conditions is most likely to afflict people with Down syndrome in middle age? a. Panic disorder b. Williams syndrome c. Alzheimer’s disease d. Korsakoff syndrome 24. The APOE4 gene increases the risk of what disorder? a. Down syndrome b. Bipolar disorder c. Huntington’s disease d. Alzheimer’s disease 25. What gene is most strongly linked to Alzheimer’s disease? a. DISC-1 b. SRY c. FTO d. APOE4 26. What is known about the heritability of Alzheimer’s disease? a. Alzheimer’s disease is caused by diet, not by genes. b. Late-onset Alzheimer’s disease has higher heritability than the early-onset variety. c. The FTO gene causes many cases of early-onset Alzheimer’s disease. d. Alzheimer’s disease results from a combination of two recessive genes.

27. What chemicals accumulate in the brains of people with Alzheimer’s disease? a. Sodium and potassium b. -Amyloid and tau protein c. AMPA and NMDA d. BDNF and CaMKII 28. In 2021, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration granted conditional approval for a new drug to remove what as a treatment of Alzheimer’s? a. Tau protein b. -Amyloid c. AMPA d. BDNF 29. What is a likely explanation for why infant mice quickly forget their memories, but infant guinea pigs do not? a. Infant mice store memories in the cortex instead of the hippocampus. b. Infant mice have fewer neurotransmitters in the hippocampus.

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence c. Infant mice rapidly form new hippocampal neurons. d. Infant mice have a smaller hippocampus relative to total brain.

30. What are the consequences of rapid formation of new neurons in an infant hippocampus? a. Improved instrumental conditioning and impaired classical conditioning b. Improved classical conditioning and impaired instrumental conditioning c. Rapid learning and decreased forgetting d. Rapid learning but increased forgetting 31. Currently, what seems the most promising explanation for infant amnesia? a. Lack of gamma oscillations in the infant cortex b. Repression of painful early sexual conflicts c. Formation of many new hippocampal neurons in infants d. Inability of infants to store a long-term memory 32. Why did surgeons remove the hippocampus from patient H. M.? a. To remove a tumor that was growing there b. To try to treat schizophrenia c. To try to control epilepsy d. To try to prevent Alzheimer’s disease 33. Patient H. M. showed memory deficits after damage to what? a. His hip b. His hippopotamus c. His hypothesis d. His hippocampus 34. What is meant by anterograde amnesia? a. Memory loss that varies from one time to another b. Memory loss for semantic information c. Loss of memory for previous events d. Inability to form new memories 35. What is meant by retrograde amnesia? a. Memory loss that varies from one time to another b. Memory loss for semantic information c. Loss of memory for previous events d. Inability to form new memories 36. What is meant by a semantic memory? a. Something that seems like a memory, although it did not happen b. Memory from early childhood c. Memory of a personal experience d. Memory of factual information Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence 37. What is an episodic memory? a. Something that seems like a memory, although it did not happen b. Memory from early childhood c. Memory of a personal experience d. Memory of factual information 38. What type of memory is most impaired in patients with hippocampal damage? a. Implicit memory b. Episodic memory c. Procedural memory d. Semantic memory 39. Patient K. C. and other people with amnesia have exhibited just as much impairment at imagining the future as at describing what? a. Their image in a mirror b. The past c. What they want to do on their next birthday d. How different foods taste 40. Of the following, which one is most intact (normal) in patients with hippocampal damage? a. Episodic memories b. Procedural memories c. Explicit memories d. New declarative memories 41. Willa is practicing how to play the video game Tetris. What type of memory is Willa forming? a. Semantic b. Episodic c. Explicit d. Procedural 42. If you don’t recognize someone who mistreated you, but you nevertheless feel uncomfortable around that person without knowing why, what type of memory are you showing? a. Explicit b. Implicit c. Semantic d. Procedural 43. What general point emerges from studies of memory in brain-damaged people? a. Memory develops through a series of stages. b. Differences in memory capacity are mostly genetic in origin. c. People use only part of their brain at any time. d. People have several types of memory.

44. The delayed matching-to-sample task assesses what type of memory in laboratory animals?

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence a. Semantic memory b. Procedural memory c. Declarative memory d. Implicit memory 45. How does the hippocampus contribute to the contextual aspect of episodic memory? a. It stores all aspects of an experience by reverberating circuits. b. It learns something and then transfers the memory to the cortex. c. It stores a complete series of images, much like a movie. d. It coordinates representations in cortical areas, in order.

46. As time passes after an event, how does an episodic memory change? a. It becomes more “gist”-like, and it depends more on the cerebral cortex. b. It becomes less accurate, and it depends more on the cerebellum. c. It becomes a procedural memory, and it depends more on the lateral striatum. d. It becomes more elaborate, and it depends more on the hypothalamus.

47. As time passes after an event, how does representation of an episodic memory change? a. It starts in the hippocampus, and the hippocampus transfers it to the cortex. b. Representation in the hippocampus fades, and the cortical representation remains. c. It starts in both the hippocampus and cortex, and the cortical representation fades. d. Representation in both the hippocampus and cortex grows stronger.

48. How does memory storage in the hippocampus relate to memory storage in the cortex? a. The cortex slowly transfers memories to the hippocampus. b. Each memory depends on one or the other, not both. c. They develop in parallel from the start. d. The hippocampus slowly transfers memories to the cortex.

49. Why does recent human episodic memory include more detail than older memories? a. As time passes, axons use up their supply of neurotransmitters. b. As time passes, new neurons replace older neurons. c. As time passes, the hippocampus transfers all its content to the cortex. d. As time passes, the hippocampal representation fades.

50. When are sharp-wave ripples most likely to occur between the hippocampus and cerebral cortex? a. When you are falling asleep b. When you are repeating what someone else says c. When you are trying to remember something d. When you are listening to familiar music 51. What type of memory do the radial maze and the Morris water maze test? a. Verbal memory b. Social memory Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence c. Spatial memory d. Episodic memory 52. After damage to the hippocampus, what error do rats make in a radial maze? a. They often enter the same arm twice. b. They often fail to enter some of the correct arms. c. They often enter arms that are never correct. d. They often fail to enter any arms at all.

53. After damage to the hippocampus, how do rats behave in the Morris water maze? a. They continue swimming randomly with no evidence of memory. b. They slowly learn the correct location of the rest platform. c. They gradually learn only if they can always turn the same direction. d. They learn the correct location without problem, but they quickly forget.

54. What evidence suggests that spatial learning expands the hippocampus? a. The size of the hippocampus increases as children grow older. b. The size of the hippocampus increases during the day and decreases at night. c. London taxi drivers have a larger than average hippocampus. d. On average, men have a larger hippocampus than women do.

55. What group of people were shown to have a larger-than-average posterior hippocampus? a. London taxi drivers b. Paris police officers c. Washington politicians d. Tokyo baseball players 56. Moser, Moser, and O’Keefe shared a Nobel Prize for what discovery? a. Neurotransmitter activity in long-term potentiation b. The genetics of Alzheimer’s disease c. Cells responsible for spatial memory d. Results of human hippocampal damage 57. What is a “place cell”? a. One that responds to being in a particular location b. One that connects part of the left hemisphere to the same part of the right hemisphere c. One that directs the muscles to move from place to place d. One that is always in the same place in an animal’s brain 58. What would be most likely to cause a place cell to modify its responsiveness properties? a. Closing one’s eyes b. Returning to the same place within a short time c. Moving into a different environment d. Sniffing the environment Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence 59. When a rat pauses at a choice point in a maze, what do the place cells do? a. They imagine walking down one or another path. b. They become silent until the rat starts to move again. c. They continue to respond to the rat’s current location. d. They produce a random pattern of activity.

60. Evidence that rats can imagine the future came from recordings from what type of cell? a. Place cells b. Lateral striatum cells c. Visual cortex cells d. Glia cells 61. Many hippocampal cells that respond to place also respond to what else? a. Retinal disparity b. Temperature c. Time d. Salinity 62. What is a general way to describe hippocampal function? a. It evaluates plans for solving problems. b. It is responsible for short-term memory. c. It holds a memory long enough to transfer it to the cortex. d. It encodes ordered sequences.

63. Why are certain cells in the entorhinal cortex called grid cells? a. They have dendrites that spread out in the shape of a grid. b. They respond when an animal sees something shaped like a grid. c. They respond to locations distributed in a hexagonal grid. d. They have axons that spread out in the shape of a grid.

64. Where do the grid cells of the entorhinal cortex send their output? a. To face-recognition cells of the temporal cortex b. To place cells of the hippocampus c. To dopamine cells of the lateral striatum d. To satiety cells in the arcuate nucleus 65. In contrast to the hippocampus, the striatum is more important for what type of learning? a. Visual recognition b. Habits c. Semantic memories d. Declarative memories 66. What brain area is most specialized for probabilistic learning—i.e., learning what will probably happen when the outcome is not certain? a. Hippocampus Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence b. Reticular formation c. Parietal cortex d. Striatum 67. The striatum is primarily responsible for which type of learning? a. Acquiring and storing episodic memories b. Memories that people can easily describe in words c. Quickly adapting learned behaviors to a new environment d. Gradually learning habits 68. Most of the behaviorists of the mid-1900s studied gradual learning of habits, such as rats in a maze. What brain area were they (unknowingly) training? a. Cerebral cortex b. Hippocampus c. Striatum d. Cerebellum 69. Which of the following would be most impaired in Parkinson’s patients? a. Learning new semantic information b. Remembering episodic memories c. Recognizing faces d. Acquiring new habits 70. In probabilistic learning situations, how does initial learning differ from later learning? a. Initial learning depends on the cortex, and later improvement depends on the hippocampus. b. Initial learning depends on the striatum, and later improvement depends on the cortex. c. Initial learning depends on the cerebellum, and later improvement depends on the thalamus. d. Initial learning depends on the hippocampus, and later improvement depends on the striatum.

71. How is parietal cortex damage most likely to impair people’s memory? a. They remember what they read in a book and think it happened to themselves. b. They show normal skill learning at first, but they do not improve gradually later. c. They have difficulty remembering social interactions. d. They don’t spontaneously elaborate on their episodic memories.

72. People with atrophy in the temporal cortex experience _____. a. declarative dementia b. procedural dementia c. episodic dementia d. semantic dementia 73. What is the term for a synapse that increases its effectiveness because of simultaneous activity in the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons? a. Retrograde synapse b. Inhibitory synapse Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence c. Electrical synapse d. Hebbian synapse 74. Which of the following is a possible mechanism for classical conditioning? a. Place cells b. Hebbian synapse c. Electrical synapse d. Retrograde transmitter 75. Which of these slogans applies to Hebbian synapses? a. Cells that fire together wire together. b. The whole is different from the sum of its parts. c. A journey of a thousand miles begins with a single step. d. One for all, all for one.

76. What is true about a Hebbian synapse? a. It strengthens as a result of experience. b. It can be either excitatory or inhibitory, depending on the activity of nearly synapses. c. It responds to more than one neurotransmitter. d. It can send messages in either direction.

77. Why is Aplysia a popular species for studying physiological mechanisms? a. The types of synapses are nearly the same as those in humans. b. The neurons are virtually the same from one individual to another. c. It has only one excitatory transmitter and one inhibitory transmitter. d. It has mostly place cells and grid cells.

78. What causes habituation of the gill withdrawal response in Aplysia? a. Change in a synapse b. Muscle fatigue c. Decreased reactivity of the sensory neuron d. Decreased myelin 79. When serotonin blocks potassium channels on the presynaptic terminal, what is the effect on transmission? a. Briefer action potential and increased release of neurotransmitters b. Briefer action potential and decreased release of neurotransmitters c. Prolonged action potential and increased release of neurotransmitters d. Prolonged action potential and decreased release of neurotransmitters 80. A synapse that undergoes long-term potentiation is what type of synapse? a. Dopamine synapse b. Electrical synapse c. Inhibitory synapse d. Hebbian synapse Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence 81. What is meant by the “associativity of LTP”? a. Changes occur in both neurons and glia. b. Habituation of one synapse causes sensitization of another one. c. Pairing two stimuli increases responsiveness to the weak one. d. Strengthening one synapse strengthens many others also.

82. What is meant by the “specificity” aspect of LTP? a. Simultaneous stimulation by two axons produces more effect than one. b. Only the activated synapses become strengthened. c. Pairing two stimuli strengthens the weaker stimulus. d. AMPA synapses facilitate NMDA synapses.

83. What produces long-term potentiation? a. Input from a grid cell to a place cell b. A balance of excitatory and inhibitory input to a dendrite c. A combination of cortisol and norepinephrine d. A rapid series of excitations on a dendrite 84. How do AMPA and NMDA synapses differ? a. They respond to different drugs. b. They occur in different animal species. c. They respond to different neurotransmitters. d. One is excitatory and the other is inhibitory.

85. To which neurotransmitter(s) do AMPA and NMDA synapses respond? a. Both respond to GABA. b. Both respond to glutamate. c. AMPA responds to acetylcholine, and NMDA responds to norepinephrine. d. AMPA responds to glutamate, and NMDA responds to GABA. 86. Why is the NMDA receptor usually unresponsive to its neurotransmitter? a. It requires a combination of two neurotransmitters. b. Magnesium blocks its ion channel. c. It has a long refractory period after each opening. d. It is distant from the presynaptic neuron.

87. What enables an NMDA receptor to permit ions to pass through it? a. An increased concentration of calcium b. An increased concentration of sodium c. Hyperpolarization of the membrane d. Depolarization of the membrane 88. When an NMDA receptor opens, which ions pass through it? a. Chloride and bicarbonate Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence b. Sodium and calcium c. Sodium and potassium d. Potassium and chloride 89. Why is the entry of calcium into a neuron important for LTP? a. It causes a persisting depolarization of the membrane. b. It causes a persisting hyperpolarization of the membrane. c. It prevents magnesium from blocking the NMDA receptor. d. It activates a protein that regulates genes.

90. Which of these is likely to occur as a long-term effect of LTP? a. Decreased responsiveness at NMDA receptors b. Decreased responsiveness at AMPA receptors c. Greater responsiveness at NMDA receptors d. Greater responsiveness at AMPA receptors 91. During LTP, what happens at NMDA receptors? a. They open temporarily, and then they return to their usual state. b. They open temporarily, and then they become more sensitive than before. c. They open temporarily, and then they become less sensitive than before. d. They open and remain open.

92. After LTP, what is the effect of glutamate at the AMPA and the NMDA receptors? a. It stimulates both types of receptors. b. It stimulates neither type of receptor. c. It stimulates the NMDA receptors but not the AMPA receptors. d. It stimulates the AMPA receptors but not the NMDA receptors.

93. For which of the following is a stimulant such as caffeine most likely to aid memory? a. A better-than-average student b. Someone who is sleep-deprived c. Someone whose diet includes much sea food d. Someone who lives in the tropics 94. In the United States, how are over-the-counter memory supplements regulated? a. The FDA requires rigorous testing, the same as for drugs. b. The FDA requires a demonstration of benefit, but it ignores possible harm. c. The FDA checks to make sure the contents match what is on the label. d. No testing is necessary unless the company makes medical claims.

95. In the United States, is it possible to market a supplement that produces only placebo effects? a. Yes, if the advertisements do not make unverified claims. b. Yes, if it has no side effects. c. Yes, regardless of anything.

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence d. No, the FDA would prevent it.

96. Cocoa flavanols improve cognitive performance for many people by doing what? a. Dilating arteries b. Removing waste materials from the brain c. Strengthening synapse growth d. Increasing carbon dioxide in the blood 97. What is meant by the g factor in intelligence? a. Genetic b. Genius c. General d. Greater 98. What evidence led to the concept of the g factor in intelligence? a. People who do well on one intellectual task usually do well on others also. b. The correlation between IQ scores is higher for monozygotic than dizygotic twins. c. On average, performance on IQ tests has risen from one generation to the next. d. Certain genetic mutations lead to intellectual deficits.

99. Most of the evidence for heritability of intelligence comes from what? a. Attempts to improve people’s intelligence b. Comparisons of twins c. Examination of cultural differences d. Direct examination of chromosomes 100. How do estimates of intelligence vary with age, if at all? a. Reported heritability is highest in infancy, and then declines. b. Reported heritability is high only for children in school. c. Reported heritability increases as people grow older. d. Reported heritability is the same at all ages.

101. Do any identifiable genes have a major effect on intelligence? a. No. b. Yes, certain genes are known to produce genius levels. c. Yes, a few genes are responsible for most of the variation in the normal population. d. Yes, certain mutations can cause intellectual disability.

102. In what measurable way, if any, do human brains have an advantage over all other species? a. The human brain has the most neurons. b. The human brain has the most volume. c. The human brain has the highest brain-to-body ratio. d. The human brain does not excel over all others in any way.

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence 103. What species has the largest number of neurons? a. Elephants b. Dolphins c. Marmosets d. Humans 104. How do human brains differ from those of whales and elephants? a. Humans have a greater variety of neurotransmitters. b. Humans undergo long-term potentiation more rapidly. c. Human neurons are smaller and more numerous. d. Humans have more lobes of the cerebral cortex.

105. Why did later studies found a higher correlation between human brain size and intelligence than early studies did? a. Human intelligence has been increasing over the years. b. Human brain size has been increasing over the years. c. Later studies used more accurate IQ tests. d. Later studies used more accurate measurements of brain size.

106. Measurements of brain size, using MRI, correlate with IQ scores at about what level? a. Zero b. About 0.18 or 0.19 c. About 0.5 d. About 0.9 107. How do men and women compare in brain size and IQ scores, on average? a. Men have larger brains, but the IQ scores are equal. b. Men have larger brains and higher IQ scores. c. Men have larger brains, but women have higher IQ scores. d. Men and women are equal in both brain size and IQ scores.

108. Why would it be a mistake to measure people’s intelligence by measuring their brain size? a. It would be illegal and unethical. b. The correlation between brain size and intelligence is low. c. Measuring brain size is complicated and expensive. d. Brain size varies from one time to another.

109. The genetic differences between humans and other primates lead to what brain difference? a. A different ratio of neurons to glia cells b. Several different neurotransmitters and their receptors c. More prolonged embryological production of neurons d. More rapid long-term potentiation in the hippocampus 110. When researchers selectively bred guppies for large brains, which of these occurred? a. The guppies decreased their appetites.

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence b. The guppies decreased their reproduction. c. The guppies increased their activity levels. d. The guppies developed richer social behaviors.

111. Theorists believe that early humans were able to evolve greater intelligence because of an improvement in what? a. Exercise b. Nutrition c. Sexual activity d. Body temperature 112. When our ancient ancestors developed cooking, how did that lead to bigger brains? a. They evolved brains that were less dependent on glucose. b. They could evolve a smaller digestive tract that used less energy. c. They had to evolve the ability to remember complex recipes. d. The heat from the campfire facilitated development of neurons.

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

113. In instrumental conditioning, the experimenter pairs a conditioned stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus. a. True b. False 114. Lashley’s search for the engram assumed that learning required a strengthened connection across the cortex. a. True b. False 115. Lashley found that a cut in a particular place in the cortex interrupted a learned connection. a. True b. False 116. Thompson and colleagues demonstrated that eyeblink conditioning depended on the cerebellum. a. True b. False 117. Thompson and colleagues showed it was possible to prevent the unconditioned response without preventing learning. a. True b. False 118. Consolidating a memory requires holding it in short-term memory for a fixed period of time. a. True b. False 119. Highly emotional experiences cause release of chemicals that facilitate memory. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence 120. Reverberating circuits maintain working memories. a. True b. False 121. We have genes that suppress consolidation or increase forgetting under various conditions. a. True b. False 122. To hold something in working memory, the information reverberates among neighboring cells in the cortex. a. True b. False 123. One known gene greatly increases the risk of Alzheimer’s disease. a. True b. False 124. Heritability is higher for late-onset Alzheimer’s disease than for early onset. a. True b. False 125. In addition to genetics, sleep deprivation, insufficient dietary salt intake, and lack of exercise increase the risk of Alzheimer’s disease. a. True b. False 126. Alzheimer’s disease is linked to an increase of two brain chemicals, β-amyloid and CREB protein. a. True b. False 127. Infant amnesia occurs in many species, not just humans. a. True b. False 128. People forget most of their earliest memories because they don’t form enough new hippocampal neurons during infancy. a. True b. False 129. After damage to his hippocampus, patient H. M. lost all types of memory equally. a. True b. False 130. After damage to his hippocampus, patient H. M. still had intact working memory and procedural memory. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence 131. Damage to the hippocampus impairs episodic memory. a. True b. False 132. People who have impairment of episodic memory have trouble imagining the future. a. True b. False 133. The hippocampus learns something first and then transfers it to the cerebral cortex. a. True b. False 134. Sharp-wave ripples occur when the hippocampus and cortex exchange information. a. True b. False 135. London taxi drivers have a larger-than-average hippocampus. a. True b. False 136. Place cells occur mostly in the parietal cortex. a. True b. False 137. Place cells in the hippocampus anticipate where an animal is going. a. True b. False 138. Place cells and time cells are important for episodic memory. a. True b. False 139. Habit formation depends mainly on the hippocampus. a. True b. False 140. The striatum is specialized for probabilistic learning. a. True b. False 141. Hebbian synapses are mostly inhibitory. a. True b. False 142. The neurons of Aplysia are virtually the same from one individual to another. a. True Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence b. False 143. Habituation in Aplysia depends on a declining response in the sensory neurons. a. True b. False 144. In general, as one synapse strengthens, another one weakens. a. True b. False 145. Long-term depression (LTD) is an emotional response that occurs when some axons have been less active than others. a. True b. False 146. NMDA synapses are usually ineffective unless the dendrite is already stimulated. a. True b. False 147. AMPA and NMDA synapses both respond to glutamate. a. True b. False 148. AMPA and NMDA synapses are both metabotropic. a. True b. False 149. The formation of long-term potentiation depends on calcium entering the cell. a. True b. False 150. Long-term potentiation produces a lasting increase in response at NMDA receptors. a. True b. False 151. The FDA regulates over-the-counter supplements just as rigorously as it regulates drugs. a. True b. False 152. As people grow older, the measured heritability of their IQ scores declines. a. True b. False 153. Humans have a higher brain-to-body ratio than any other species of animal. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence 154. Humans have more neurons than any other species of animal. a. True b. False 155. Men have larger brains than women, on average, but equal IQ. a. True b. False 156. Guppies who were selectively bred for larger brain produced fewer offspring than average. a. True b. False

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

157. Lashley sought the physical representation of learning, which he called the ____________________.

158. Richard Thompson and colleagues demonstrated that learning a conditioned eyeblink in rabbits depended on this brain area: ____________________.

159. Strengthening a memory and making it a long-term memory is called ____________________.

160. The delayed response task is a way to measure ____________________ memory.

161. The gene on chromosome 21 that greatly increases the risk of Alzheimer’s disease is the ____________________ gene.

162. The two brain chemicals that are highly elevated in Alzheimer’s disease are ____________________.

163. Patient H. M. had severe memory problems after damage to his ____________________.

164. Inability to form new memories is called ____________________ amnesia.

165. Loss of memory for events before brain damage is called ____________________ amnesia.

166. Memory of personal events is called ____________________ memory.

167. Sharp-wave ripples occur when messages bounce back and forth between the ____________________ and the ____________________.

168. Place cells in the hippocampus receive much of their input from ____________________ cells in the entorhinal cortex.

169. Habit learning and probabilistic learning depend mainly on the ____________________.

170. A synapse that increases its responsiveness because of simultaneous activity in the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons is called ____________________ synapse.

171. Most known cases of long-term potentiation occur at synapses responsive to the neurotransmitter Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence ____________________.

172. Most of the time an NMDA receptor is unresponsive because its channel is blocked by ____________________.

173. In the context of memory mechanisms, LTP stands for ____________________.

174. Stimulant drugs sometimes improve memory or cognition when people lack ____________________.

175. Most of the evidence regarding heritability of human intelligence comes from studies of ____________________.

176. The one way in which the human brain clearly excels over others is in the number of ____________________.

177. What were Lashley’s methods and results in search of the engram of memory?

178. In Thompson’s experiments, what evidence indicated that the lateral interpositus nucleus (LIP) was necessary for learning, and the red nucleus was not?

179. Why did Hebb introduce the distinction between short-term memory and long-term memory?

180. What is currently the most plausible hypothesis to explain infant amnesia?

181. For patient H. M. and others with similar damage, what types of memory are most impaired, and what types are intact?

182. As time passes after the formation of an episodic memory, how does the representation change in the hippocampus and cerebral cortex?

183. What evidence shows that rats can anticipate the future (at least the very near future)?

184. How do the contributions of the striatum to memory contrast with those of the hippocampus?

185. What is a Hebbian synapse and how is it relevant to classical conditioning?

186. What evidence led Kandel and colleagues to conclude that habituation in Aplysia depends on a change in a synapse?

187. What are the three properties of long-term potentiation that make it an attractive candidate for explaining learning and memory?

188. As long-term potentiation forms, what takes place at AMPA and NMDA synapses?

189. Why should you be unimpressed with the statement that a supplement has been “clinically tested”? Why should you be unimpressed by a testimonial that “this product works for me”?

190. If we regard ourselves (humans) as the most intelligent species, what biological difference could account for that effect?

191. Whereas older studies showed essentially no relationship between brain size and human intelligence, later studies showed a significant (although still small) correlation. What made the difference in results?

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. d 4. c 5. a 6. a 7. c 8. b 9. d 10. a 11. c 12. b 13. d 14. d 15. b 16. d 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. b 21. d 22. d 23. c 24. d 25. d Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence 26. b 27. b 28. b 29. c 30. d 31. c 32. c 33. d 34. d 35. c 36. d 37. c 38. b 39. b 40. b 41. d 42. b 43. d 44. c 45. d 46. a 47. b 48. c 49. d 50. c 51. c Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence 52. a 53. c 54. c 55. a 56. c 57. a 58. c 59. a 60. a 61. c 62. d 63. c 64. b 65. b 66. d 67. d 68. c 69. d 70. d 71. d 72. d 73. d 74. b 75. a 76. a Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence 77. b 78. a 79. c 80. d 81. c 82. b 83. d 84. c 85. b 86. b 87. d 88. b 89. d 90. d 91. a 92. d 93. b 94. d 95. a 96. a 97. c 98. a 99. b 100. c 101. d 102. a Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence 103. d 104. c 105. d 106. b 107. a 108. b 109. c 110. b 111. b 112. b 113. False 114. True 115. False 116. True 117. True 118. False 119. True 120. True 121. True 122. False 123. True 124. False 125. False 126. False 127. True Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence 128. False 129. False 130. True 131. True 132. True 133. False 134. True 135. True 136. False 137. True 138. True 139. False 140. True 141. False 142. True 143. False 144. True 145. False 146. True 147. True 148. False 149. True 150. False 151. False 152. False 153. False Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence 154. True 155. True 156. True 157. engram 158. cerebellum lateral interpositus nucleus 159. consolidation 160. working short-term 161. APOE4 162. β-amyloid and tau protein 163. hippocampus 164. anterograde 165. retrograde 166. episodic 167. hippocampus; cerebral cortex 168. grid 169. striatum dorsal striatum 170. Hebbian 171. glutamate 172. magnesium 173. long-term potentiation 174. arousal 175. twins 176. neurons 177. He trained rats in mazes and a brightness discrimination task and then made cuts in the cortex, trying to interrupt a connection that was responsible for the learning. He found that no such cut produced a significant effect, implying that at Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence least the types of learning he studied did not depend on the growth of connections across the cortex.

178. If he suppressed the LIP during training, the rabbit showed no sign of remembering the training after the LIP recovered. If he suppressed the red nucleus during training, the rabbit made no responses during training but it showed clear evidence of remembering the training after the red nucleus recovered.

179. He reasoned that no physical or chemical change in the brain could happen fast enough to account for immediate memory and yet be stable enough to account for remembering the same event years later.

180. In early infancy, for humans as well as most other mammals (other than guinea pigs), many new neurons are forming in the hippocampus. As they form, they promote the formation of new memories, but they simultaneously interfere with retention of episodic memories that were already formed.

181. H. M. and others with similar damage experienced severe loss of episodic memory and severe anterograde amnesia for declarative memory. The working memory, implicit memory, and procedural memory of H. M. and others with similar damage remained intact or nearly intact.

182. The memory forms in both places from the start. As time passes, the representation in the hippocampus fades while it remains intact, or possibly strengthens, in the cortex. The result is that memory becomes more gist-like, with fewer contextual details.

183. While an animal is moving, place cells in the hippocampus anticipate where it will go. When a rat pauses at a choice point in a maze, its place cells become active in the proper order as if the rat were walking down one path or the other. It is in effect imagining what happens if it goes down one route or the other.

184. Whereas the hippocampus and surrounding areas are essential for declarative memory, especially episodic memory, the striatum is important for learning habits and skills, also for probabilistic learning (learning what will probably happen under certain conditions). The hippocampus can learn quickly, but learning in the striatum is slow and gradual. Another distinction is that the hippocampus orients behaviors toward external landmarks, and the striatum orients behaviors relative to the body (such as left/right).

185. A Hebbian synapse becomes strengthened when its input from the presynaptic neuron is paired with strong depolarization of the postsynaptic neuron. If a relatively weak input to a neuron (call it the CS) is paired with a stronger input (UCS) to that neuron, then the effectiveness of the CS input is strengthened.

186. Habituation is a decline of response to a stimulus. After an Aplysia shows habituation of the gill-withdrawal response to stimulation, direct stimulation of the motor neuron still produces the full response. That evidence shows that habituation does not depend on fatigue of the response. Recordings from the sensory neuron show that it continues to respond to the stimulus as strongly as before. These observations leave us with the conclusion that habituation depends on a change in a synapse between the sensory input and the motor output.

187. Specificity—If some of the synapses onto a cell have been highly active and others have not, only the active ones become strengthened. Cooperativity—Nearly simultaneous stimulation by two or more axons produces LTP more strongly than does repeated stimulation by just one axon. Associativity—Pairing a weak input with a strong input enhances later response to the weak input. In this regard, LTP matches what we would expect of Hebbian synapses.

188. Glutamate excites both types of ionotropic receptors. At first, it shows its effects at the AMPA receptors, but usually not at the NMDA receptors, because magnesium ions block the channel. Strong stimulation at one or more AMPA receptors depolarizes the membrane enough to dislodge the magnesium ions, enabling the NMDA receptor to respond to Powered by Cognero

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12_Learning_Memory_and_Intelligence glutamate and open its channel, letting sodium and calcium enter. The calcium sets in motion a series of reactions that strengthen the future responsiveness of the AMPA receptors. The long-term effect is increased AMPA response at those synapses, but a return to normal by the NMDA synapses.

189. Being clinically tested says nothing about the results of the test. A testimonial is no substitute for a double-blind placebo-controlled experiment.

190. Although humans do not have the largest brain volume or the greatest brain-to-body ratio, we do have the largest number of total neurons.

191. Later studies obtained a more accurate measurement of brain size, using MRI.

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13_Cognitive_Functions

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The left hemisphere of the brain sees which of the following? a. The light striking the right eye b. The light striking the left eye c. The right side of the visual field d. The left side of the visual field 2. Which of the following do both hemispheres control about equally? a. Speech b. Facial muscles c. Fingers of the right hand d. Fingers of the left hand 3. For which type of sensation does the left hemisphere receive input from both sides of the body equally? a. Vision b. Taste c. Touch d. Hearing 4. What is true about hemispheric control of speech in most left-handed people? a. Strong right-hemisphere control b. Right-hemisphere control of nouns and left-hemisphere control of verbs c. Either right-hemisphere control or mixed control d. Either left-hemisphere control or mixed control 5. Which of the following is composed entirely of axons? a. Corpus callosum b. Cerebellum c. Prefrontal cortex d. Hypothalamus 6. What does the corpus callosum do? a. It provides nutrition to the cortex. b. It passes information between the anterior and posterior parts of the cortex. c. It passes information between the hemispheres. d. It increases attention and arousal.

7. When does the left hemisphere begin to differ anatomically from the right hemisphere, if ever? a. The difference emerges during adolescence. b. The difference emerges after children learn to speak. c. The difference is apparent even in infancy. d. No anatomical differences are ever apparent.

8. What usually happens to the right hemisphere’s activity during speaking, as a child grows older?

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13_Cognitive_Functions a. The left hemisphere suppresses the right hemisphere’s speech activity. b. The right hemisphere gradually increases its speech activity. c. The right hemisphere’s activity during speech remains constant. d. The right hemisphere never had any participation in speech at any age.

9. Most adults with left-hemisphere damage lose their speech with little recovery. Young children with similar damage recover much better. Why? a. New neurons form in the cerebral cortex throughout childhood. b. In young people, both hemispheres have some speech abilities. c. Young children are still in school. d. Axons regrow faster during childhood than in adulthood.

10. In rabbits, the left eye connects to the right hemisphere and the right eye connects to the left hemisphere. Why is that not true for humans? a. Humans see a wider field of vision. b. Humans have a corpus callosum. c. Human eyes connect to the brain through the thalamus. d. Both human eyes face forward.

11. In humans, light from the right side of the visual field strikes which of the following? a. The right eye b. The left eye c. The right side of each retina d. The left side of each retina 12. In humans, light from the left side of the visual field strikes which of the following? a. The right eye b. The left eye c. The right side of each retina d. The left side of each retina 13. In humans, which of the following sees the right half of the visual field? a. The right eye b. The left eye c. The right side of each retina d. The left side of each retina 14. In humans, which of the following sees the left half of the visual field? a. The right eye b. The left eye c. The right side of each retina d. The left side of each retina 15. What is the optic chiasm? a. The point in the retina from which axons exit toward the brain Powered by Cognero

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13_Cognitive_Functions b. The point in the retina at which vision is most acute c. The first point in the brain where visual axons make a synaptic connection d. The point where some of the axons from each eye cross to the opposite side 16. In humans, about half the axons from the eye cross to the opposite hemisphere at what location? a. Anterior commissure b. Corpus callosum c. Lateral geniculate d. Optic chiasm 17. A vertical strip down the center of each retina, covering about 5 degrees of visual arc, connects __________. a. to the left hemisphere only b. to the right hemisphere only c. to both hemispheres d. directly to the occipital lobe 18. In humans, the left half of each retina receives visual information from which side of the world and sends its output to which hemisphere? a. It gets input from the right visual field and sends output to the right hemisphere. b. It gets input from the right visual field and sends output to the left hemisphere. c. It gets input from the left visual field and sends output to the right hemisphere. d. It gets input from the left visual field and sends output to the left hemisphere.

19. In humans, the right half of each retina receives visual information from which side of the world and sends its output to which hemisphere? a. It gets input from the right visual field and sends output to the right hemisphere. b. It gets input from the right visual field and sends output to the left hemisphere. c. It gets input from the left visual field and sends output to the right hemisphere. d. It gets input from the left visual field and sends output to the left hemisphere.

20. The left hemisphere of the brain receives its visual input from which of the following? a. The left eye b. The right eye c. The left half of each retina d. The right half of each retina 21. What does the right hemisphere see? a. The right visual field, by means of the left eye b. The left visual field, by means of the left eye c. The right visual field, by means of the left half of each retina d. The left visual field, by means of the right half of each retina 22. The split-brain operation was performed in an effort to relieve which of the following? a. Epilepsy b. Schizophrenia Powered by Cognero

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13_Cognitive_Functions c. Excessive violent behavior d. Double vision 23. Split-brain people have undergone surgery to which of the following? a. Prefrontal cortex b. Anterior commissure c. Optic chiasm d. Corpus callosum 24. Gandal is a person that experienced a split-brain surgery. What can Gandal do that other people cannot do? a. Shift rapidly between speaking one language and speaking another b. Move the hands at different speeds at the same time c. Turn one eye to the left and the other eye to the right d. Describe something felt with only the left hand 25. Which of the following would be difficult or impossible for a split-brain person? a. Pointing with the right hand to what the left hemisphere saw b. Pointing with the right hand to what the right hemisphere saw c. Talking about something the left hemisphere saw d. Focusing both eyes on the same object at the same time 26. A split-brain person would be unable to describe in words which of the following? a. Something seen only by the left half of each retina b. Something seen only by the right half of each retina c. Something seen only by the left eye d. Something seen only by the right eye 27. A split-brain person would be unable to describe in words which of the following? a. Something seen only in the left visual field b. Something seen only in the right visual field c. Something seen only by the left eye d. Something seen only by the right eye 28. Can a split-brain person name an object after feeling it with the right hand? With the left hand? a. Yes, with either hand b. No, with neither hand c. Only with the right hand d. Only with the left hand 29. When can a split-brain person say what a hand feels? a. Only after feeling it with the left hand b. Only after feeling it with the right hand c. After feeling it with either hand d. Only after feeling it with both hands at the same time Powered by Cognero

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13_Cognitive_Functions 30. A 3-year-old child can say whether two fabrics feel the same after feeling them with the same hand, but has difficulty after feeling them with different hands. What does this observation imply? a. Broca’s area is immature at age 3. b. Wernicke’s area is immature at age 3. c. The corpus callosum is immature at age 3. d. The optic chiasm is immature at age 3.

31. How did one split-brain person manage to answer correctly yes/no questions about information only the right hemisphere knew? a. The two hemispheres had learned to communicate telepathically. b. Part of the corpus callosum had grown back after the operation. c. The spinal cord passed information from one side to the other. d. The left hemisphere felt frowns produced by the right hemisphere.

32. What did Gazzaniga mean by the “interpreter”? a. The way Wernicke’s area communicates with Broca’s area b. The way the left hemisphere invents explanations for actions c. The way children infer the meanings of new words d. The way people guess the meaning of a sentence they did not hear entirely 33. What observation inspired Gazzaniga to propose the concept of “interpreter”? a. People understand an ambiguous word differently depending on the context. b. People react to nonverbal communication even when it conflicts with the words. c. The left hemisphere gradually suppresses speech contributions by the right hemisphere. d. The left hemisphere tries to explain actions the right hemisphere caused.

34. The right hemisphere is most important for which aspect of speech comprehension? a. The vocabulary b. The emotional tone c. The grammar d. Connecting speech to movement 35. Increased right-hemisphere activity tends to be associated with what emotional reaction? a. Depression b. Happiness c. Anger d. Pride 36. In one study, what did people with left-hemisphere damage do better than most other people? a. Proofread a document for spelling errors b. Draw different things with the two hands at the same time c. Guess whether someone was telling the truth or lying d. Learn to understand a foreign language 37. When people had the right hemisphere temporarily inactivated, which of these happened?

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13_Cognitive_Functions a. They spoke more rapidly and more grammatically. b. They described imaginary events as if they were real. c. They lost their ability to make mathematical calculations. d. They described their past experiences without emotion.

38. What is unique about human language, compared to other species’ communication? a. Ability to communicate emotional states b. Ability to use sounds c. Ability to improvise new combinations d. Ability to use gestures 39. Which animal species has shown the greatest ability to comprehend human language? a. Dolphins b. Bonobos c. Crows d. Gibbons 40. What conclusion comes from attempts to teach language to bonobos, parrots, and others? a. Language is an all-or-nothing item. b. Language arose as a byproduct of increased total intelligence. c. Classical conditioning is the most effective way to teach language. d. Language evolved from precursors in other species.

41. What is a likely explanation for bonobos’ success at understanding speech? a. The bonobos started young and learned by imitation. b. Bonobos’ brains have larger neurons than most other primates. c. The experimenters combined both classical and operant conditioning. d. The bonobos spent much time with human children.

42. What is characteristic of many people with Williams syndrome? a. Good episodic memory but poor procedural memory b. Good procedural memory but poor episodic memory c. Good language despite intellectual impairment d. High overall intelligence but poor language 43. What is the theoretical importance of Williams syndrome? a. It shows that language evolved from the use of gestures. b. It shows that the two hemispheres control different aspects of behavior. c. It shows the possibility of good reading despite poor vision. d. It shows that language is not a byproduct of intelligence.

44. The FOXP2 gene differs between which two groups? a. Men and women b. Humans and chimpanzees Powered by Cognero

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13_Cognitive_Functions c. Dyslexics and typical readers d. Bilinguals and monolinguals 45. A change in the structure of the larynx enables humans to increase the complexity of our _____. a. sentences b. sound production c. grammar d. conversations 46. The ability to master a foreign grammar begins to decline steadily after what age? a. 6 months b. 2 years c. 17–18 years d. 60–70 years 47. What evidence shows a sensitive period for language learning? a. Children who watch Sesame Street become better than average at language use. b. Children who are the slowest to start learning language tend to be below average later. c. Most children say their first sentence at about age 2 or 3. d. Deaf children who did not learn any language while young do not become proficient later.

48. If parents of a deaf child insist on teaching only spoken language and lip reading, what is the risk? a. The child may develop attention-deficit disorder. b. The child may become impaired at learning even sign language. c. The child may fail to develop a social attachment to the parents. d. The child may overdevelop one brain hemisphere or the other.

49. Why was the discovery of Broca’s area important in the history of neurology? a. It showed that brain anatomy is the same for humans as for chimpanzees. b. It showed that training could reverse the effects of brain damage. c. It showed that a brain area could have a distinct function. d. It showed that brain anatomy changes as people grow older.

50. People with Broca’s aphasia are most impaired on producing and understanding which type of words? a. Common nouns b. Proper nouns c. Verbs d. Prepositions and conjunctions 51. Payton is a person with Broca’s aphasia. Payton is most likely impaired in what? a. Any production of language b. Vocal language only c. All language comprehension d. Episodic memory Powered by Cognero

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13_Cognitive_Functions 52. Which of the following is characteristic of Wernicke’s aphasia? a. Difficulty forming new long-term memories, especially episodic memories b. Inability to describe anything seen in the left visual field or felt with the left hand c. Poor pronunciation and difficulty using and understanding grammar d. Difficulty remembering the names of objects 53. How does Broca’s aphasia differ from Wernicke’s aphasia? a. Broca’s aphasia impairs mostly understanding, and Wernicke’s impairs mostly production. b. Broca’s aphasia impairs mostly production, and Wernicke’s impairs mostly understanding. c. Broca’s aphasia comes from left-hemisphere damage, and Wernicke’s is from the right. d. Broca’s aphasia comes from right-hemisphere damage, and Wernicke’s is from the left.

54. What characterizes the speech of people with Wernicke’s aphasia? a. Speech is slow and poorly pronounced, but meaningful. b. Speech is slow, poorly pronounced, and usually meaningless. c. Speech is fluent, but it omits prepositions, conjunctions, and word endings. d. Speech is fluent and grammatical, but it omits most nouns.

55. How do the two hemispheres respond if someone speaks two languages? a. The left hemisphere controls the first language, and the right hemisphere controls the second. b. The left hemisphere controls understanding, and the right hemisphere controls speech. c. Both hemispheres share equal control for both understanding and speech. d. The left hemisphere controls speech, and the control of understanding is variable.

56. Where is the visual word form area? a. Right frontal cortex b. Right occipital cortex c. Left parietal cortex d. Left temporal cortex 57. Damage to the visual word form area a. causes blindness. b. impairs speech production. c. impairs speech formation. d. impairs reading without much effect on anything else.

58. Which of the following is common among children with dyslexia? a. Foveal vision is very acute, but peripheral vision is weak. b. The visual word form area responds to objects other than words. c. The auditory cortex fails to distinguish between one phoneme and another. d. The corpus callosum is thicker than average.

59. What is dualism? a. The belief that the left hemisphere operates independently from the right hemisphere Powered by Cognero

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13_Cognitive_Functions b. The belief that “only I am conscious” c. The belief that mind is separate from the body d. The belief that humans are conscious and other animal species are not 60. Materialism, mentalism, and identity are three versions of what belief? a. Monism b. Dualism c. Solipsism d. Liberalism 61. What is true, according to the identity position on the mind–brain relationship? a. Certain kinds of brain activity cause conscious experience. b. Conscious activity causes certain kinds of brain activity. c. Brain activity and consciousness are the same thing. d. Nothing can exist unless a mind is aware of it.

62. What did Chalmers mean by the “hard problem” of consciousness? a. Why does consciousness exist at all? b. What type of brain activity is necessary for consciousness? c. How can we tell whether an unresponsive person is conscious? d. How can we conduct meaningful research on consciousness?

63. What argues against the idea that consciousness is an “add-on” feature that evolved to aid survival and reproduction? a. Computers can do almost everything we do without consciousness. b. Much that we do depends on unconscious processes. c. Much of animal behavior is similar to human behavior. d. Consciousness depends on the cortex but not the cerebellum.

64. What do flash suppression, masking, and binocular rivalry accomplish? a. They are ways to prevent conscious perception of a stimulus. b. They are ways to determine whether an unresponsive person is conscious. c. They are ways to stimulate attention in an unresponsive person. d. They are ways to test the mentalism position on the mind–brain relationship.

65. What happens during both flash suppression and masking? a. Visual stimuli interfere with perception of auditory stimuli. b. Visual stimuli increase attention to auditory stimuli. c. Some type of visual stimulus prevents you from seeing something else. d. Some type of visual stimulus calls your attention to something you otherwise ignore.

66. Sometimes you might be conscious of a briefly flashed word, and sometimes not. How would your brain activity differ in the two cases? a. When you are not conscious of it, the stimulus doesn’t reach your visual cortex. b. When you are conscious of it, the activity spreads from the visual cortex to other areas.

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13_Cognitive_Functions c. When you are not conscious of it, activity from the visual cortex rebounds to the thalamus. d. When you are conscious of it, it produces unsynchronized patterns of brain activity.

67. If your left eye views red vertical stripes and your right eye views green horizontal stripes, what do you perceive? a. Yellow diagonal stripes b. A white field without stripes c. Alternation between seeing red stripes and green stripes d. Red stripes superimposed on green stripes 68. What happens when you are conscious of a stimulus that does not happen when the same stimulus is present while you are unconscious of it? a. The response to the stimulus spreads and strengthens. b. Rhythms of activity in the brain become more variable. c. Activity increases in the pineal gland. d. The response in the right hemisphere is greater than in the left.

69. What happens during binocular rivalry? a. Your brain fuses two images into something else. b. You are aware of two things at the same time. c. You temporarily become motion blind. d. At alternating times, you see with one eye at a time.

70. During binocular rivalry, what happens to the stimulus you do not see at a given moment? a. The stimulus does not even reach the visual cortex. b. The visual cortex responds to it but then you erase the representation. c. You store it in your hippocampus and dream about it later. d. You shift your attention to it if it is especially meaningful.

71. What difference between the cortex and the cerebellum may be important for consciousness? a. The cortex has more neurons and synapses. b. The cortex has both excitatory and inhibitory synapses. c. The cortex has reciprocal connections that enable feedback. d. The cortex has a higher rate of neuronal activity.

72. What does the phi phenomenon imply about consciousness? a. A stimulus can change your conscious perception of what came before it. b. Consciousness depends on reciprocal connections between cortical neurons. c. Conscious perception anticipates stimuli before they occur. d. It is possible to be conscious of something without paying attention to it.

73. What happens when people regain consciousness after anesthesia? a. Temporary decrease in transmission across the corpus callosum b. Increased activity at GABA synapses throughout the cortex c. Increased connectivity between subcortical and cortical areas Powered by Cognero

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13_Cognitive_Functions d. Increased blood flow to the pineal gland 74. Certain people in an unresponsive wakefulness state indicated consciousness by what? a. Laughing or crying in response to what someone said b. Moving their eyes to the left or right to answer yes/no questions c. Different brain activity after directions to imagine certain activities d. Squeezing the hand of a loved one while ignoring hands of unfamiliar people 75. How did researchers try to demonstrate consciousness in unresponsive people? a. By presenting different stimuli to the left and right eyes b. By using fMRI after asking people to imagine playing tennis c. By measuring blood flow to the skin after a painful stimulus d. By watching eye movements when familiar people entered the room 76. What is solipsism? a. The belief that I alone am conscious b. The belief that matter cannot exist unless a mind is conscious of it c. The belief that consciousness can be reduced to a purely physical explanation d. The belief that consciousness evolved to serve a particular function 77. Some insects and other invertebrates apparently feel pain, suggesting what? a. Conscious experience b. A lack of conscious experience c. They are socially oriented d. They have nervous systems that are only afferent 78. What empirical evidence supports the inference of conscious experience in monkeys? a. Their brain waves during REM and NREM sleep resemble those of humans. b. They respond as humans do to supraliminal and subliminal visual stimuli. c. They show both short-term and long-term memory. d. Their brains have the same neurotransmitters that humans have.

79. What is meant by “inattentional blindness”? a. When your mind wanders, your receptors become less sensitive. b. Closing your eyes decreases your attention level. c. You briefly become motion-blind while moving your eyes. d. You often don’t notice something changing in a complex scene.

80. How does bottom-up attention differ from top-down attention? a. Activity originating in the spinal cord causes bottom-up attention. b. Alpha waves cause bottom-up attention. c. An intention or motivation causes bottom-up attention. d. A new stimulus causes bottom-up attention.

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13_Cognitive_Functions 81. Top-down attention begins with activity in what part of the brain? a. Hypothalamus or amygdala b. Primary visual cortex or primary auditory cortex c. Interpositus nucleus of the cerebellum d. Prefrontal and parietal cortex 82. Tirin Moore’s research showed that neurons that control eye movements also control what? a. Motivation b. Emotion c. Attention d. Coordination 83. If you slightly stimulate neurons directing an eye movement, but not enough to cause the eye movement, what if anything happens? a. The activity fades without any effect on behavior. b. Attention shifts toward hearing more than vision. c. Attention shifts toward the last thing you saw. d. Attention shifts toward where the eyes would have moved.

84. Research on the neurons controlling eye movements supported which of these conclusions? a. It is possible to focus attention on several things at the same time. b. Ability for top-down attention increases as children grow older. c. The mechanisms of top-down attention overlap those of bottom-up attention. d. Emotional situations increase attention to nearly all types of information.

85. What happens when you are looking for something? a. You increase activity in the brain areas sensitive to emotional information. b. You decrease activity in the brain areas sensitive to emotional information. c. You spread your attention over more of the visual field. d. You focus your attention more narrowly on the fovea.

86. When people perform successfully on the Stroop task, they decrease activity in the brain areas important for which of the following? a. Top-down attention b. Emotion c. Reading d. Color vision 87. Which of the following is most likely to cause spatial neglect? a. Damage to the left hemisphere b. Damage to the right hemisphere c. Amputation of the left hand d. Amputation of the right hand 88. Suppose someone who is trying to divide a horizontal line in half picks a spot to the right of center. This result Powered by Cognero

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13_Cognitive_Functions suggests probable damage or malfunction in which part of the brain? a. The left hemisphere b. The right hemisphere c. The prefrontal cortex d. The primary visual cortex 89. A patient with spatial neglect can identify a large letter composed of small letters, but neglects one side when trying to cross off all the small letters. This observation supports what conclusion? a. Spatial neglect is a problem of peripheral vision. b. Spatial neglect is a problem of attention. c. Spatial neglect is a problem of understanding instructions. d. Spatial neglect is a problem of controlling eye movements.

90. If someone with spatial neglect reports feeling nothing with the left hand, which of the following would increase response to the left hand? a. Touch the left hand at the same time as the right hand. b. Cross the left hand to the right side of the body. c. Present a visual stimulus in the center of the visual field. d. Play some relaxing music.

91. When a rat had to decide whether it heard more clicks on the left or right side, how did cells in the posterior parietal cortex respond? a. One set counted the clicks on the left, and another counted clicks on the right. b. One set responded when the left side was ahead, and another responded when the right side was ahead. c. All the cells increased response when the left side was ahead and decreased when the right side was ahead. d. All the cells responded only to the most recent click.

92. When a rat had to decide whether it heard more clicks on the left or right side, how did cells in the prefrontal cortex respond? a. One set counted the clicks on the left, and another counted clicks on the right. b. One set responded when the left side was ahead, and another responded when the right side was ahead. c. All the cells increased response when the left side was ahead and decreased when the right side was ahead. d. All the cells responded only to the most recent click.

93. During a factual decision, which brain area acts as the “scorekeeper”? a. Prefrontal cortex b. Hippocampus c. Amygdala d. Parietal cortex 94. Suppose a monkey watches moving dots and has to respond whether it saw more dots moving left or right. What happens during the delay before it gets to respond? a. Two types of cells continue to respond at a fixed rate. b. The relative responses of two types of cells shift more strongly in one direction. c. The relative responses of two types of cells shift more toward equality.

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13_Cognitive_Functions d. The responses of both types of cells gradually fade.

95. If you have to learn which of two choices is better, how does the ventromedial prefrontal cortex function? a. It relays decisions made in other brain areas to the motor cortex. b. It learns about new information quickly. c. It gradually learns over many trials which choice is usually better. d. It favors a decision based on only the first few trials.

96. If you have to learn which of two choices is better, how do the basal ganglia function? a. They relay decisions made in other brain areas to the motor cortex. b. They learn about new information quickly. c. They gradually learn over many trials which choice is usually better. d. They favor a decision based on only the first few trials.

97. In a gambling situation, suppose someone consistently bets the same amount, even when the probability of winning changes. What brain area seems not to be working properly? a. Basal ganglia b. Prefrontal cortex c. Lateral hypothalamus d. Corpus callosum 98. In a gambling situation, suppose someone increases a bet after every win and decreases it after every loss, ignoring the overall tendency. What brain area seems not to be working properly? a. Basal ganglia b. Prefrontal cortex c. Lateral hypothalamus d. Corpus callosum 99. In a value decision, how do responses by the ventromedial prefrontal cortex differ from those of the basal ganglia? a. The ventromedial prefrontal cortex is more sensitive to rewards than punishments. b. The ventromedial prefrontal cortex excites, whereas the basal ganglia inhibit. c. The ventromedial prefrontal cortex monitors the average over many trials. d. The ventromedial prefrontal cortex adjusts more rapidly to new information.

100. In a value decision, how do responses by the basal ganglia differ from those of the ventromedial prefrontal cortex? a. The basal ganglia are more sensitive to rewards than punishments. b. The basal ganglia excite, whereas the ventromedial prefrontal cortex inhibits. c. The basal ganglia monitor the average over many trials. d. The basal ganglia adjust more rapidly to new information.

101. How would decision-making change as a result of prefrontal cortex damage? a. Extreme caution to avoid possible losses b. Decisions based on habits more than current information c. Random guessing d. Prolonged delay before making any decision Powered by Cognero

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13_Cognitive_Functions 102. Which of these tasks tests your ability to gradually learn the best strategy? a. Flash suppression b. Stroop task c. Binocular rivalry d. Iowa Gambling Task 103. Which of the following correlates with making better than average decisions? a. Being “double-jointed” b. Greater lung capacity c. Greater heart rate variability d. Greater blood pressure 104. When is a fluctuating blood pressure a risk factor for cognitive decline? a. During childhood b. In adolescence c. During early adulthood d. In old age 105. Looking at pictures of someone you love activates the same brain areas as which of these? a. Tool use b. Reading c. Visuo-spatial processing d. Addictive drugs 106. Which hormones are believed to intensify love relationships? a. Leptin and ghrelin b. Testosterone and cortisol c. Oxytocin and vasopressin d. Luteinizing hormone and thyroid hormone 107. Why are many neuroscientists skeptical of the reported social effects of oxytocin? a. The human brain does not produce oxytocin. b. Results in the United States differ from those of people in other parts of the world. c. Artificial administration of oxytocin produces only a brief change in behavior. d. Many studies used small numbers of participants.

108. How did monkeys respond after impairment of the dorsomedial prefrontal cortex? a. They failed to distinguish between monkeys that had or had not been cooperative. b. They avoided all contact with other monkeys. c. They paid more attention to other monkeys’ recent behavior than their past pattern. d. The paid more attention to other monkeys’ hand gestures than facial expressions.

109. What evidence implied that the dorsomedial prefrontal cortex is important for monkeys’ social behavior?

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13_Cognitive_Functions a. After damage there, monkeys spent most of their time staring into space. b. After damage there, monkeys treated all other monkeys equally. c. After damage there, monkeys became almost constantly aggressive. d. After damage there, monkeys attempted copulation with other species.

110. Which of the following is a common result of frontotemporal dementia? a. Loss of memory from experiences early in life b. Frequent, sudden attacks of anxiety c. Loss of control of the muscles in the legs d. Lack of response to other people’s distress 111. What brain areas are important for value decisions and also for understanding other people’s emotional expressions? a. Ventromedial prefrontal cortex and orbitofrontal cortex b. Putamen and caudate nucleus c. Left fusiform gyrus and right precentral gyrus d. Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

112. Anatomical differences between the left and right hemispheres are present even in infancy. a. True b. False 113. The right hemisphere is dominant for speech in most left-handers. a. True b. False 114. As children grow older, the left hemisphere inhibits the speech capacity of the right hemisphere. a. True b. False 115. In humans, the right eye connects to the left hemisphere and the left eye connects to the right hemisphere. a. True b. False 116. In humans, the left hemisphere gets its input from the right half of each retina. a. True b. False 117. The split-brain operation impaired people’s intelligence and motivation. a. True b. False 118. Split-brain people can draw circles with the two hands at different speeds at the same time. a. True Powered by Cognero

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13_Cognitive_Functions b. False 119. A split-brain person can describe something after feeling it with the right hand, but not the left. a. True b. False 120. The right hemisphere is more responsive than the left hemisphere to the emotional tone of communication. a. True b. False 121. Activity in the right hemisphere tends to be associated with a happy mood. a. True b. False 122. Many scientists believe that human language evolved from communication by gestures. a. True b. False 123. It is possible to develop good language despite intellectual impairment. a. True b. False 124. One genetic mutation impairs language development in people with otherwise normal intelligence. a. True b. False 125. People of any age can master the grammar of a foreign language. a. True b. False 126. It is important for a deaf child to concentrate on learning to lip read. a. True b. False 127. Children who begin sign language while still young learn much better than those who start later. a. True b. False 128. People with Broca’s aphasia are impaired mostly at remembering the names of objects. a. True b. False 129. Although people with Broca’s aphasia have trouble speaking, they can write or type without difficulty. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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13_Cognitive_Functions 130. Wernicke’s aphasia is associated with damage mostly in the auditory cortex. a. True b. False 131. In bilingual people, the left hemisphere controls speech for one language, and the right hemisphere controls it for the other. a. True b. False 132. One area in the temporal cortex responds selectively to written words, just as one area is specialized for recognizing faces. a. True b. False 133. For children with dyslexia, researchers have reported that the visual word form area responds more strongly than average to words, and less strongly than average to other objects. a. True b. False 134. Many studies have reported abnormalities in the right hemisphere for people with dyslexia, even early in life, before children would be taught to read. a. True b. False 135. Most philosophers and neuroscientists recognize that the mind is separate from the brain. a. True b. False 136. In experiments with flash suppression or masking, a stimulus reaches the visual cortex without becoming conscious. a. True b. False 137. When you are conscious of a visual stimulus, the representation spreads to much of the brain. a. True b. False 138. When you are conscious of a stimulus, it causes synchronized responses in many brain areas. a. True b. False 139. If your left eye sees something very different from your right eye, you superimpose one on the other. a. True b. False 140. The cerebral cortex is more important for consciousness than the cerebellum is, because the cortex has more neurons and synapses.

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13_Cognitive_Functions a. True b. False 141. Seeing something can change your conscious perception of something that came before it. a. True b. False 142. Some unresponsive people can answer yes/no questions just by changing their brain activity. a. True b. False 143. An experiment showed that monkeys show the same distinction between conscious and unconscious stimuli that people do. a. True b. False 144. The prefrontal cortex is important for both bottom-up and top-down attention. a. True b. False 145. Neural responses to the attended stimuli decrease and responses to other stimuli increase. a. True b. False 146. It is possible to direct your attention to something without looking at it. a. True b. False 147. Many people with right-hemisphere damage ignore the left side of the body. a. True b. False 148. Sensory neglect almost always reflects an impairment of sensory input. a. True b. False 149. For some factual decisions, the prefrontal cortex compares inputs from elsewhere and acts as a scorekeeper. a. True b. False 150. Part of your brain learns what is usually true and another part learns what has been true recently. a. True b. False 151. People with much heart rate variability tend to make better than average decisions. a. True Powered by Cognero

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13_Cognitive_Functions b. False 152. Sometimes the bacteria in your intestines affect your thinking. a. True b. False 153. Looking at a picture of someone you love activates the same brain areas as an addictive drug. a. True b. False 154. In many cases, frontotemporal dementia reduces people’s concern for others. a. True b. False

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

155. The left and right hemispheres exchange information mostly by the ____________________.

156. In most left-handed people, speech production depends mostly on the ____________________ hemisphere.

157. Almost half the axons from each human eye cross to the opposite hemisphere at the ____________________.

158. Split-brain people had surgical damage to the ____________________.

159. A split-brain person can say the name of an object after feeling it with the ____________________ hand.

160. A split-brain person can describe something only after seeing it in the ____________________ half of the retina.

161. Because of the tendency of the left hemisphere to invent explanations for actions of unknown cause, Gazzaniga proposed a concept he called the ____________________.

162. Understanding the emotional tone of a communication depends mainly on the ____________________ hemisphere.

163. The nonhuman species that showed the greatest understanding of language is the ____________________.

164. The condition in which people with intellectual impairments nevertheless develop good speech is known as ____________________ syndrome.

165. A child who learns no language while young may have permanent ____________________.

166. When damage in the left frontal cortex damages language production, it is called ____________________ aphasia.

167. When damage in the left temporal lobe impairs language comprehension and naming, it is called ____________________ aphasia.

168. People with Broca’s aphasia have the most trouble using and saying the _________ class of words.

169. Dyslexia occurs in all ____________________.

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13_Cognitive_Functions 170. People who become fluent in two or more languages, especially for people who are bilingual since infancy, hemispheric control of second language comprehension is ____________________.

171. The belief that mind and body (or brain) are separate is called ____________________.

172. The belief that mind and brain are inseparable is called ____________________.

173. The question of why consciousness exists at all is what Chalmers called the ____________________ problem.

174. The procedure of showing incompatible visual images to the two eyes is called ____________________.

175. When a dot alternating between two positions appears to be moving between them, we call that the ____________________ phenomenon.

176. People in an unresponsive wakefulness state alternate between ____________________.

177. If something in a complex scene changes slowly, you probably don’t notice it unless you were paying attention to it.

This phenomenon is called ____________________ blindness.

178. Both top-down and bottom-up attention depend on activity in the ____________________ cortex.

179. Spatial neglect is more common after damage to the ____________________ hemisphere.

180. When cells in the parietal cortex count the number of clicks on the left and right side, and a rat has to indicate which one had more, cells in the ____________________ cortex act as the scorekeeper.

181. If you need to learn the strategy for choosing the best choice, the basal ganglia learn what is usually the best choice, but new information can update the decision by activity in the ____________________ cortex.

182. Uterus contractions, maternal behavior, and social approach in many species depend on the hormone ____________________.

183. Mice groom one another responding to olfactory cues that indicate ____________________.

184. People often become insensitive to others’ feelings when they have developed ____________________ dementia.

185. Describe the connections from the eyes to the two hemispheres in humans.

186. Most adults with left-hemisphere damage lose their speech, with little recovery. Young children with similar damage recover much better. Why? 187. A split-brain person can name something after seeing it where, or after feeling it with which hand?

188. How did a split-brain person manage to answer yes/no questions correctly about information seen only in the left visual field?

189. What does the right hemisphere contribute to language comprehension?

190. What are possible explanations for why bonobos developed more impressive language skills than other Powered by Cognero

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13_Cognitive_Functions chimpanzees?

191. What observations argue against the hypothesis that language evolved as an accidental byproduct of increased intelligence?

192. What evidence supports the idea of a sensitive period for language learning?

193. What are the symptoms of Broca’s aphasia?

194. What are the symptoms of Wernicke’s aphasia?

195. What are three versions of monism?

196. What are three methods of presenting a visual stimulus while preventing conscious perception of it?

197. When someone becomes aware of a visual stimulus, how does it affect the brain in a different way than if it had not become conscious?

198. When you are aware of one image in binocular rivalry, how do we know that your brain did not completely discard the other image?

199. What is the most likely hypothesis about why the cerebral cortex is important for conscious perception, and the cerebellum is not?

200. What observation enabled researchers to infer that at least some people in an unresponsive wakeful state are conscious, despite their lack of activity?

201. What brain procedure would cause someone to pay more attention to something to the right?

202. What evidence indicates that spatial neglect is a problem of attention, not just sensation?

203. What happened in a rat’s brain when it had to indicate whether it heard more clicks on the left side or the right?

204. If you have to decide which bet is probably best, when the outcome varies, how do the contributions of the basal ganglia and the ventromedial prefrontal cortex compare?

205. What are the reasons to reserve judgment about many of the reported effects of oxytocin on human social behavior?

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13_Cognitive_Functions Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. b 4. d 5. a 6. c 7. c 8. a 9. b 10. d 11. d 12. c 13. d 14. c 15. d 16. d 17. c 18. b 19. c 20. c 21. d 22. a 23. d 24. b 25. b Powered by Cognero

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13_Cognitive_Functions 26. b 27. a 28. c 29. b 30. c 31. d 32. b 33. d 34. b 35. a 36. c 37. d 38. c 39. b 40. d 41. a 42. c 43. d 44. b 45. b 46. c 47. d 48. b 49. c 50. d 51. a Powered by Cognero

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13_Cognitive_Functions 52. d 53. b 54. d 55. d 56. d 57. d 58. b 59. c 60. a 61. c 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. c 66. b 67. c 68. a 69. d 70. d 71. c 72. a 73. c 74. c 75. b 76. a Powered by Cognero

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13_Cognitive_Functions 77. a 78. b 79. d 80. d 81. d 82. c 83. d 84. c 85. c 86. c 87. b 88. b 89. b 90. b 91. a 92. b 93. a 94. b 95. b 96. c 97. b 98. a 99. d 100. c 101. b 102. d Powered by Cognero

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13_Cognitive_Functions 103. c 104. c 105. d 106. c 107. d 108. a 109. b 110. d 111. a 112. True 113. False 114. True 115. False 116. False 117. False 118. True 119. True 120. True 121. False 122. True 123. True 124. True 125. False 126. False 127. True Powered by Cognero

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13_Cognitive_Functions 128. False 129. False 130. True 131. False 132. True 133. False 134. False 135. False 136. True 137. True 138. True 139. False 140. False 141. True 142. True 143. True 144. True 145. False 146. True 147. True 148. False 149. True 150. True 151. True 152. True 153. True Powered by Cognero

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13_Cognitive_Functions 154. True 155. corpus callosum 156. left 157. optic chiasm 158. corpus callosum 159. right 160. left 161. interpreter 162. right 163. bonobo 164. Williams 165. impairment 166. Broca’s or nonfluent 167. Wernicke’s or fluent 168. closed 169. languages 170. variable 171. dualism 172. monism or identity 173. hard 174. binocular rivalry 175. phi 176. sleep and wakefulness 177. inattentional change Powered by Cognero

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13_Cognitive_Functions 178. prefrontal or frontal 179. right 180. prefrontal 181. prefrontal or ventromedial prefrontal 182. oxytocin 183. distress 184. frontotemporal 185. Light from the right visual field strikes the left half of each retina. Axons from the left half of each retina go to the left hemisphere. Light from the left visual field strikes the right half of each retina. Axons from the right half of each retina go to the right hemisphere. In this manner, the left hemisphere sees the right visual field and the right hemisphere sees the left visual field.

186. In young people, both hemispheres have some speech abilities. By adulthood, most people have suppressed the right hemisphere’s speech activity.

187. That person could name an object seen in the right visual field, or felt with the right hand.

188. The left (speaking) hemisphere took a guess, either yes or no. The right hemisphere, which knew the correct answer, frowned if the guess was wrong. The left hemisphere felt the frown and corrected the guess. Both hemispheres can control and feel the facial muscles.

189. The right hemisphere is more responsive to the emotional tone of communication, often expressed by gestures or tone of voice.

190. They may simply have more language potential, given that in many ways they are more human-like. Also, they began language training when they were young, and they learned by observation and imitation.

191. People with a mutation in the FOXP2 gene have normal intelligence but many difficulties with language. Many people with Williams syndrome develop good (though not perfect) language despite intellectual deficits in other ways.

192. People who start learning a second language in early childhood learn the grammar and pronunciation much better than those who start later. Also, deaf children who are exposed only to spoken language early in life, and who fail to make much progress with lip reading, are permanently impaired at learning any kind of language, including sign language.

193. Poor production of language, by speech, writing, or any other method. Language produced is nevertheless meaningful. The produced language generally lacks prepositions, conjunctions, word endings, and other “closed class” words. Comprehension is adequate except when the meaning of a sentence depends on prepositions, conjunctions, or complex grammar.

194. Language production is fluent and grammatical, but it lacks the names of most objects. Language comprehension is poor.

195. Materialism is the belief that we will eventually explain consciousness in mechanical terms. Mentalism is the view that only minds are real, and nothing exists unless a mind is aware of it. The identity position holds that conscious Powered by Cognero

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13_Cognitive_Functions experiences and certain brain activities are the same thing.

196. flash suppression, masking, and binocular rivalry 197. The representation spreads from the visual cortex to other brain areas, including the prefrontal cortex, which then rebounds it back to the visual cortex to strengthen and prolong the representation.

198. If a stimulus gradually fades into the ignored image, it captures your attention faster if it is meaningful to you (for instance, if it is in your language instead of one you don’t understand).

199. The cerebral cortex compares and integrates several kinds of sensory and other information, using long-range reciprocal connections.

200. In response to an instruction to imagine playing tennis, these people activated the same areas that other people activate when imagining the same activity. When told to imagine walking through the house, a different set of brain areas became active, which were again the same ones active for other people imagining a walk through the house.

201. Slightly stimulate the frontal cortex cells that would direct an eye movement to the right.

202. A patient with neglect who sees a large letter composed of small letters can identify the large letter but neglects part of it when asked to cross off the small letters. Also, someone who neglects the left hand pays attention to it when it is crossed over the right hand.

203. In the posterior parietal cortex, one set of neurons kept track of the number of clicks on the left, and another set of neurons kept track of the number on the right. They sent their output to the frontal cortex, where certain cells compared the inputs and made a categorical, all-or-none judgment as to which side was ahead.

204. The basal ganglia gradually learn which choice is best. The ventromedial prefrontal cortex quickly learns what is true currently, and so it can update or overrule the basal ganglia when appropriate.

205. The usual procedure in experiments is to administer oxytocin by nasal spray. It is uncertain how much of it enters the brain, and it is unlikely that much of it enters fast enough for the brief experiments that are commonly reported. Also, most studies have used too few participants to detect an effect reliably.

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14_Psychopathology

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. With regard to drugs, what is an agonist? a. A drug that produces unfavorable effects b. A drug that produces favorable effects c. A drug that inhibits the effects of a neurotransmitter d. A drug that mimics the effects of a neurotransmitter 2. What is meant by the affinity of a drug? a. How rapidly it reaches the brain b. How long it remains in the brain c. How strongly it activates a receptor d. How strongly it binds to a receptor 3. What is meant by the efficacy of a drug? a. How rapidly it reaches the brain b. How long it remains in the brain c. How strongly it activates a receptor d. How strongly it binds to a receptor 4. What is true of a drug that has affinity but not efficacy? a. It produces more harm than benefits. b. It produces more benefits than harm. c. It does not bind to a receptor. d. It binds to a receptor but does not stimulate it.

5. Which of the following would be an antagonist? a. A drug with low affinity and high efficacy b. A drug with low affinity and low efficacy c. A drug with high affinity and high efficacy d. A drug with high affinity and low efficacy 6. Reinforcing stimulation releases which neurotransmitter? a. Acetylcholine b. Oxytocin c. Dopamine d. Serotonin 7. Reinforcing stimulation delivers transmission to which brain area? a. Lateral hypothalamus b. Hippocampus c. Nucleus accumbens d. Medial amygdala 8. Stimulant drugs such as cocaine increase or prolong the release of which neurotransmitter?

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14_Psychopathology a. Serotonin b. Dopamine c. Oxytocin d. Cholecystokinin 9. What do drug use, sex, gambling, and video game playing have in common? a. They increase the release of dopamine in the nucleus accumbens. b. They increase activity of the right hemisphere more than the left. c. They stimulate connections between the occipital and frontal cortices. d. They stimulate GABA synapses in the hippocampus.

10. Dopamine is important for what? a. For hearing more than vision b. For vision more than hearing c. For liking more than wanting d. For wanting more than liking 11. Which of the following triggers a craving even after prolonged abstinence? a. Increases in drug affinity b. Drug tolerance c. Withdrawal symptoms d. Cues associated with the habit 12. What changes in the brain after someone becomes addicted to a drug? a. Cues associated with the drug release more dopamine. b. The drug itself releases more dopamine in the nucleus accumbens. c. The nucleus accumbens becomes more responsive to other types of motivation. d. Dopamine receptors begin responding to other neurotransmitters also.

13. Which of these happens as a result of drug addiction? a. Increased pleasure from both the drug and other motivations b. Decreased pleasure from the drug but more from other motivations c. Decreased pleasure from the drug but increased craving d. Increased pleasure from the drug and increased craving 14. Repeated alcohol or cocaine use also decreases blood flow and metabolism in the prefrontal cortex, resulting in decreased ability to restrain _____. a. a person’s appetite b. feeling nauseous c. impulses d. falling asleep 15. Why is a relapse likely even after a period of abstention? a. Cues for the drug trigger a craving.

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14_Psychopathology b. Withdrawal symptoms continue indefinitely. c. Activity increases in the prefrontal cortex. d. Dopamine synapses become hyperactive.

16. The cues associated with an addictive substance are largely responsible for which of the following? a. Tolerance b. Cravings c. Withdrawal symptoms d. Pleasure 17. Nora Volkow is best known for her research on what? a. Autism spectrum disorder b. Schizophrenia c. Depression d. Drug addiction 18. The fact that drug cravings continue even when drugs release less dopamine demonstrates which distinction? a. The difference between agonists and antagonists b. The difference between tolerance and withdrawal c. The difference between affinity and efficacy d. The difference between liking and wanting 19. Rats that consistently receive a drug in a consistent location show more tolerance there than elsewhere. What conclusion follows? a. Tolerance depends on changes in the circulatory system. b. Tolerance is temporary. c. Tolerance is learned. d. Tolerance changes both liking and wanting.

20. Drug tolerance is greater if the drug is taken in the usual location than if it is taken elsewhere. What conclusion does this observation imply? a. Tolerance depends on learning. b. Tolerance depends on the metabolic breakdown of the drug. c. Tolerance depends on the release of hormones. d. Tolerance depends on changes in the release of dopamine.

21. If a rat has developed tolerance to the effects of a morphine injection, which of the following would decrease the tolerance? a. Less frequent morphine injections b. More frequent morphine injections c. Injections of more concentrated morphine d. Injections of salt water 22. If rats had an opportunity to self-administer heroin during a period of withdrawal from heroin, what happened? a. They developed a strong tolerance to the effects of the drug.

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14_Psychopathology b. They made the withdrawal period longer and more intense. c. They learned to use the drug to relieve distress. d. They increased their intensity of other motivations.

23. For which type of alcohol abuse is heritability highest? a. Mild b. Female c. Early onset d. Late onset 24. Early-onset alcoholism is more likely than late-onset alcoholism to be associated with which of the following? a. A family history of alcoholism b. Favorable response to treatment c. A series of life difficulties or traumatic experiences d. Gradual onset 25. Which is the only psychological disorder (other than Huntington’s disease) in which a single common genetic difference exerts a substantial effect? a. Alcohol abuse b. Major depression c. Schizophrenia d. Autism spectrum disorder 26. One gene is known to exert a strong effect on the probability of alcohol abuse. How does that gene exert its effects? a. By changing the release of steroid hormones b. By altering the taste and aftertaste of alcoholic beverages c. By influencing how strongly the prefrontal cortex inhibits impulses d. By controlling how the liver metabolizes alcohol 27. Why has alcohol abuse been less common in China and Japan than in many other countries? a. Genetic difference in how the liver metabolizes alcohol b. Long tradition based on religious prohibitions c. Difference in the ability to grow crops subject to fermentation d. Higher incidence of three-generation families in the same house 28. Variations in which enzyme correlate with different probabilities of abusing alcohol? a. The enzyme that breaks down acetaldehyde b. The enzyme that breaks down testosterone c. The enzyme that breaks down glucose d. The enzyme that breaks down serotonin 29. Which of the following is correlated with an increased probability of developing alcohol abuse? a. Growing up in a family of non-drinkers b. Being left-handed Powered by Cognero

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14_Psychopathology c. Low amounts of the enzyme that converts acetaldehyde to acetic acid d. Less-than-average intoxication after moderate alcohol intake 30. If you want to predict someone’s probability of developing alcohol abuse, which of these questions would be most decisive? a. Did you like the taste of alcohol the first time you tried it? b. How many of your friends drink alcohol at least occasionally? c. How much can you drink before you start feeling tipsy? d. When you look at this Rorschach Inkblot, what do you see?

31. How does Antabuse combat alcoholism? a. It changes how the liver metabolizes alcohol. b. It changes how the taste buds react to alcohol. c. It stimulates activity in the prefrontal cortex. d. It provides an alternative source of pleasure.

32. How does Antabuse work? a. It alters the ratio of excitation to inhibition in the hypothalamus. b. It alters the taste buds and olfactory receptors. c. It increases the ability to resist temptations. d. It makes people sick if they drink alcohol.

33. Why do placebos generally produce about the same effects as Antabuse? a. Placebos tend to relieve pain. b. Antabuse has no physiological effects. c. Placebos satisfy the craving for alcohol. d. People who think they are taking Antabuse stop drinking.

34. What does methadone do? a. It stimulates the same receptors as heroin or morphine. b. It blocks the receptors for heroin and morphine. c. It serves as a short-acting stimulant. d. It serves as a long-lasting stimulant.

35. Why is methadone an effective substitute for heroin or similar drugs? a. It stimulates increased activity in the prefrontal cortex. b. It satisfies the craving without disrupting behavior. c. It gradually eliminates the addiction. d. It offers a greater source of pleasure that is not addictive.

36. Is there a male-female difference in the prevalence of depression? If so, what is it? a. No, depression is equally common in males and females. b. Yes, depression is more common in middle-aged men than middle-aged women. c. Yes, depression is more common in women from puberty through menopause.

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14_Psychopathology d. Yes, depression is more common in females at any age.

37. During 2020, at the peak of the COVID-19 epidemic and a period of social unrest, prevalence of depression in the United States rose to _____ percent. a. 45 b. 15 c. 24 d. 30 38. Why has laboratory research on depression sometimes led to misleading results? a. Researchers studied only male animals. b. Researchers studied only juvenile animals. c. Researchers published the means without including the standard deviations. d. Researchers took the average from separate studies.

39. What is the usual sleep pattern for people with depression? a. A combination of snoring and sleep apnea b. Difficulty falling asleep and difficulty awakening in the morning c. Early onset of REM and early awakening d. Deep sleep with little or no REM 40. What type of depression shows the highest heritability? a. Male depression b. Female depression c. Early-onset depression d. Late-onset depression 41. Researchers identified four genetic variants linked specifically to _____ depression. a. male b. female c. early-onset d. late-onset 42. In contrast to early-onset depression, people with late-onset depression are more likely to have relatives with what type of problem? a. Anxiety problems b. Hormonal problems c. Attention problems d. Circulatory problems 43. Some languages use the same word for depression and what else? a. Schizophrenia b. Slow c. Mania d. Pain Powered by Cognero

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14_Psychopathology 44. How does the immune system produce some of the symptoms of depression? a. By increasing leukocytes b. By releasing cytokines c. By inhibiting testosterone and estradiol d. By increasing blood pressure 45. When the immune system releases cytokines, what do the cytokines produce? a. Increased sensitivity to bright lights b. Inactivity and loss of appetite c. Manic or hypomanic mood d. Decreased body temperature 46. How were the first antidepressant drugs discovered? a. By theoretical analysis of the symptoms of depression b. By trial and error c. By research on neurotransmitter receptors d. By research using fMRI 47. What do tricyclic antidepressant drugs do? a. They increase the synthesis of several neurotransmitters. b. They block reuptake of several neurotransmitters. c. They stimulate several neurotransmitter receptors. d. They shift most blood flow to the right hemisphere.

48. How do SSRIs differ from tricyclic antidepressants? a. SSRIs act directly on the receptors. b. SSRIs take effect faster and last longer. c. SSRIs act on just one neurotransmitter. d. SSRIs increase the synthesis of neurotransmitters.

49. What do MAOIs do? a. They directly stimulate several types of postsynaptic receptors. b. They decrease the breakdown of several neurotransmitters. c. They decrease the reuptake of several neurotransmitters. d. They increase the synthesis of several neurotransmitters.

50. What do tricyclics, SSRIs, and MAOIs have in common? a. They mimic the effects of certain transmitters. b. They increase the synthesis of certain transmitters. c. They increase the availability of certain transmitters. d. They increase the metabolic rate of certain neurons.

51. What is the disadvantage of using St. John’s wort as an antidepressant?

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14_Psychopathology a. Its effects are rapid, but they last only briefly. b. It impairs the recall of episodic memories. c. It decreases the effectiveness of other drugs. d. It causes a dangerous increase in blood pressure.

52. What evidence opposes the idea that depression is due to inadequate serotonin? a. SSRIs increase brain serotonin, but tricyclic drugs decrease it. b. SSRIs increase brain serotonin, but they also produce unpleasant side effects. c. Tricyclic drugs increase the availability of several neurotransmitters. d. SSRIs reach the brain quickly, but the benefits emerge weeks later.

53. When someone begins taking an SSRI or a tricyclic antidepressant, how soon are behavioral benefits likely to emerge? a. Within minutes to hours b. The next day c. Two or three days later d. Weeks later 54. Besides increasing neurotransmitter levels, what do typical antidepressant drugs have in common? a. They aid digestion. b. They stimulate the immune system. c. They facilitate neurotrophins. d. They increase cortisol levels.

55. What is BDNF important for? a. Synaptic plasticity and learning b. Production and release of steroid hormones c. Regulation of hunger, thirst, and body temperature d. Maintaining the blood–brain barrier 56. Standard antidepressants take effect only after their brain concentration builds up enough to do what? a. Increase the concentration of serotonin in the synaptic cleft b. Increase the production of cytokines c. Shift blood flow from the left hemisphere to the right hemisphere d. Facilitate the receptors for BDNF 57. What is one explanation for why most antidepressants show benefits only after weeks? a. The drugs cross the blood–brain barrier just one molecule at a time. b. Their concentration has to accumulate before they facilitate the BDNF receptor. c. Serotonin receptors are not prepared for a sudden increase in transmission. d. The drugs need that much time to diffuse to the center of the brain.

58. Antidepressant drugs have a. unlimited and stable effectiveness. b. unlimited and variable effectiveness.

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14_Psychopathology c. limited and variable effectiveness. d. no effectiveness.

59. Someone reports that after patients failed to respond to a tricyclic drug responded after a few weeks on an SSRI. What conclusion, if any, can we draw? a. Patients who do not respond to one drug should switch to another one. b. SSRIs are more effective than tricyclics. c. Different patients respond to different drugs. d. We draw no conclusion, because of the absence of a control group.

60. Someone reports that after patients with depression failed to respond to a tricyclic drug for a few weeks responded after a few more weeks on an SSRI. Before we conclude that the switch helped, what control group do we need? a. Patients who stayed on the tricyclic drug for the extra weeks b. Patients who took no drug at all c. Patients who had conditions other than depression d. Patients from a different ethnic group who got the same treatments 61. Controlled studies find little evidence that a. different doses of tricyclics produce different effects. b. different doses of SSRIs produce different effects. c. different doses of MAOIs produce different effects. d. different doses of atypical antidepressants produce different effects.

62. According to preliminary results, what is the advantage of using psychedelic drugs to treat depression, compared to other antidepressant drugs? a. Psychedelics have fewer side effects and risks. b. Psychedelics are less expensive. c. Psychedelics produce benefits faster. d. Psychedelics improve physical as well as mental health.

63. Why is ketamine more readily available as an antidepressant than other hallucinogenic drugs are? a. Ketamine produces fewer unfavorable side effects. b. Ketamine produces more long-lasting benefits. c. More extensive research has evaluated ketamine. d. The FDA approved ketamine for other purposes.

64. What is a likely explanation for why ketamine relieves depression more rapidly than standard antidepressant drugs? a. Ketamine attaches more strongly to the BDNF receptor. b. Ketamine enters the brain more rapidly and leaves more slowly. c. Ketamine increases the activity at all synapses, not just some. d. Ketamine increases the synthesis of several neurotransmitters.

65. How does the effectiveness of psychotherapy for depression compare to that of antidepressant drugs? a. Psychotherapy is effective only if it is combined with antidepressant drugs. b. Both can be effective, but antidepressant drugs are significantly more effective.

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14_Psychopathology c. They are about equally effective, and they have similar effects on the brain. d. They are about equally effective, but only antidepressant drugs show an effect on the brain.

66. How do the effects of psychotherapy for depression compare to those of antidepressant drugs? a. About half of all patients respond well to one, and half respond to the other. b. Psychotherapy produces smaller effects, and the drugs produce larger effects. c. They have similar effectiveness, but the benefits of the drugs usually last longer. d. They have similar effectiveness, but the benefits of psychotherapy usually last longer.

67. For what depressed patients, if any, is electroconvulsive therapy used today? a. For none b. For patients who have both depression and schizophrenia c. For depressed patients who did not respond to other therapies d. For patients who cannot afford other types of therapy 68. What are the advantages and disadvantages of electroconvulsive therapy for depression? a. It produces long-lasting benefits, but it works for only a small percentage of patients. b. It produces long-lasting benefits, but it is illegal in most places. c. It works rapidly, but the benefits usually don’t last long. d. It works rapidly, but it produces permanent memory loss.

69. Which of the following tends to reduce depression? a. A paleo diet b. Exercise c. Going to sleep later than usual d. Doing crossword puzzles 70. What change in sleep habits sometimes relieves depression? a. Going to bed earlier b. Going to bed later c. Sleeping in a warmer room d. Sleeping in a cooler room 71. What is the recommended treatment for seasonal affective disorder? a. Very bright lights every morning b. A high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet c. At least one full night without sleeping d. Meditation 72. What is the most common treatment for bipolar disorder? a. Psychotherapy b. SSRIs c. Lithium salts d. Very bright lights every morning Powered by Cognero

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14_Psychopathology 73. Which of the following is more common in women than in men? a. Autism spectrum disorder b. Bipolar disorder c. Schizophrenia d. Depression 74. Which of these is a “positive” symptom of schizophrenia? a. Lack of speech b. Delusions c. Poor social behavior d. Weak emotional expression 75. Which of these is a “negative” symptom of schizophrenia? a. Lack of social behavior b. Delusions c. Hallucinations d. Rambling, incoherent speech 76. When a healthy person’s working memory is overburdened, which of these symptoms of schizophrenia becomes likely? a. Alternation between two personalities b. Hallucinations c. Incoherent speech d. Catatonia 77. The most common cognitive impairments associated with schizophrenia correlate with lower-than-average heart rate variability, which implies abnormal functioning of what? a. The endocrine system b. The circulatory system c. The autonomic nervous system d. The limbic system 78. What is a “differential diagnosis”? a. One that rules out other conditions b. One that specifies the cause of the disorder c. One that specifies the treatment for the disorder d. One that specifies the subtype of the disorder 79. The main evidence for heritability of schizophrenia comes from what type of research? a. Comparisons of twins b. Examination of chromosomes c. Cross-cultural studies d. Examination of the brain 80. The concordance between dizygotic twins for schizophrenia is greater than the concordance for non-twin siblings.

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14_Psychopathology What conclusion does that result imply? a. Schizophrenia is partly heritable. b. Schizophrenia is hard to diagnose reliably. c. Environmental factors contribute to schizophrenia. d. Being a twin increases the risk of schizophrenia.

81. Why are studies of schizophrenia in adopted children ambiguous with regard to heritability? a. The father of an adopted child is often unknown. b. Schizophrenia is hard to diagnose reliably. c. Biological mothers provide the prenatal environment. d. Adopted children may or may not know that they were adopted.

82. Does a single gene ever produce a big increase in risk of schizophrenia? a. No. b. Yes, one gene causes schizophrenia, but researchers have not found it yet. c. Yes, some mutations or microdeletions greatly increase the risk. d. Yes, the APOE4 gene greatly increases the risk.

83. According to the two-hit hypothesis, what causes schizophrenia? a. A traumatic experience in childhood and a similar experience later b. Damage to both the left hemisphere and the right hemisphere c. A genetic predisposition plus an environmental impact d. A genetic mutation plus a microdeletion 84. Of these, which is the most likely explanation for the season-of-birth effect? a. Temperature at the time of birth b. Availability of proteins in the diet c. Maternal illness during pregnancy d. Differences in the age of children when they start school 85. Which of these is a likely explanation for the season-of-birth effect? a. Parents often become distracted during the spring. b. It is hard to get good nutrition in the winter. c. Babies often get dehydrated in the summer. d. Viral epidemics are common in the fall.

86. Does the probability of schizophrenia relate in any way to where people live? a. No, it is equally common in all locations. b. Yes, it is more common for people living in crowded cities. c. Yes, it is more common for people living on Caribbean islands. d. Yes, it is more common for people living in rural areas.

87. Could someone diagnose schizophrenia by examining the brain? a. Yes, people with schizophrenia have a smaller-than-average cerebellum.

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14_Psychopathology b. Yes, people with schizophrenia have fewer axons in the corpus callosum. c. Yes, people with schizophrenia have smaller-than-average cerebral ventricles. d. No, none of the brain abnormalities are consistent.

88. Most people with schizophrenia have behavioral anomalies similar to those of people with damage to which brain area? a. Corpus callosum b. Prefrontal cortex c. Cerebellum d. Hippocampus 89. How do first-generation antipsychotic drugs affect the synapses? a. They block dopamine synapses. b. They block reuptake of serotonin. c. They attach to the same receptors as marijuana. d. They attach to the same receptors as morphine.

90. Which of the following observations supports the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia? a. Some genetic microdeletions greatly increase the probability of schizophrenia. b. Schizophrenia is slightly more common among people born in the winter months. c. Abuse of amphetamine or similar drugs can cause hallucinations and delusions. d. The behavioral benefits of antipsychotic drugs gradually increase over weeks.

91. The ability of first-generation antipsychotic drugs to relieve schizophrenia correlates strongly with what effect on neurotransmitters? a. How strongly they attach to the BDNF receptor b. How rapidly they cross the blood–brain barrier c. How well they block reuptake of serotonin d. How well they block dopamine synapses 92. Which of these is a common side effect of first-generation antipsychotic drugs? a. Tardive dyskinesia b. Increased aggressive behavior c. Loss of appetite d. Sleep apnea 93. What is the advantage of second-generation antipsychotic drugs? a. Rapid onset of effects b. Month-long benefits after taking a single pill c. Less risk of weight gain d. Less risk of tardive dyskinesia 94. Antipsychotic drugs are most effective at relieving which symptoms of schizophrenia? a. The positive symptoms b. The negative symptoms Powered by Cognero

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14_Psychopathology c. The cognitive symptoms d. The social symptoms 95. In addition to dopamine, what other neurotransmitter system appears to be dysfunctional in schizophrenia? a. Cholecystokinin b. Acetylcholine c. Melanocortin d. Glutamate 96. According to the glutamate hypothesis, what is the chemical origin of schizophrenia? a. Reduced activity at NMDA receptors in the hippocampus b. Failure of glutamate neurons to migrate to the prefrontal cortex c. Inability to metabolize glutamate d. Slower than normal action potentials in neurons that release glutamate 97. The clumsiness and impaired voluntary eye movements of many children with autism imply decreased activity of what brain area? a. Corpus callosum b. Medulla c. Cerebellum d. Amygdala 98. What do parents often notice from early infancy about their child with autism? a. The child does not react comfortably to being held. b. The child consistently avoids making eye contact. c. The child develops a specialize skill or interest. d. The child has a smaller-than-average head.

99. What is most frequently observed about eye contact in children with autism? a. They consistently avoid eye contact. b. They maintain eye contact only briefly. c. They look at drawings of eyes, but not real eyes. d. Eyes do not readily attract their attention.

100. Apparently all the genes with strong links to autism affect which of the following? a. Maturation of the immune system b. Production of cytokines c. Thickness of the corpus callosum d. Early development of the forebrain 101. In what way does the “two-hit” hypothesis apply to autism as well as schizophrenia? a. Both the brain and the digestive system are abnormal. b. The child must inherit genetic mutations from both the mother and the father. c. Many cases result from both genetic and environmental influences.

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14_Psychopathology d. The condition results from a loss of both excitatory and inhibitory transmission.

102. An infection to a mother during pregnancy increases the risk of which disorders in her child? a. Drug abuse or bipolar disorder b. Rett syndrome or Williams syndrome c. Schizophrenia or autism d. Prader-Willi syndrome or social phobia 103. What aspect of diet during pregnancy decreases the probability of a child with autism? a. Maintaining a vegetarian diet b. Maintaining a paleo diet c. Consuming enough folic acid d. Consuming enough dairy products 104. If a child soon after birth has a gastrointestinal infection, the resulting inflammation can disrupt what? a. The development of the occipital lobe b. The development of the pituitary system c. The blood–brain barrier d. The dopamine receptors 105. After one child is born with autism, a brother or sister born in the next two years has a greater probability of autism than one born at a later delay. What does this observation imply about causes of autism? a. Autism spectrum disorder behaviors are learned by imitation. b. Prenatal environment has an important influence. c. Autism spectrum disorder has high heritability. d. Autism spectrum disorder has low heritability.

106. Which of the following is common for children with autism, at age 1 year? a. The brain is larger than average. b. The cerebral ventricles are larger than average. c. The brain’s norepinephrine concentration is higher than average. d. The axons conduct impulses faster than average.

107. What happens to brain size as a child with autism grows older (on average)? a. The brain is larger than average at age 1 year and grows still larger by adulthood. b. The brain is larger than average at age 1 year but about average in adulthood. c. The brain is about average at age 1 year but below average in adulthood. d. The brain is below average at age 1 year and becomes still smaller by adulthood.

108. According to research by Lauren Orefice, why do many children with autism spectrum disorder overreact to sounds and touches? a. Genes that cause autism decrease inhibition to the somatosensory nerves. b. Genes that cause autism increase the activity of neurons in the amygdala. c. Genes that cause autism increase the velocity of action potentials. d. Impulses rebound rapidly between the cortex and the thalamus.

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14_Psychopathology 109. According to reports by many parents, when do children with autism tend to act more like normal children? a. When they have a fever b. When they have gone without sleep c. When they are in the presence of other children d. When they have eaten a low-carbohydrate meal 110. Why do some children with autism behave more normally when they have a fever? a. Fever decreases appetite. b. Fever increases sleep. c. Fever decreases activity in the somatosensory cortex. d. Fever increases activity in the occipital cortex.

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

111. Most commonly abused drugs derive from plants. a. True b. False 112. A drug with high affinity and low efficacy is an antagonist. a. True b. False 113. Many types of reinforcing events release dopamine in the same brain area. a. True b. False 114. Dopamine is more important for liking than for wanting. a. True b. False 115. As people become addicted to a drug, it releases more dopamine. a. True b. False 116. Cues for a drug continue to grab attention even after a long period of abstinence. a. True b. False 117. Repeated alcohol or cocaine use also decreases blood flow and metabolism in the occipital cortex. a. True b. False 118. Tolerance to a drug is to a large extent learned. a. True Powered by Cognero

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14_Psychopathology b. False 119. The extinction procedures of classical conditioning can weaken drug tolerance. a. True b. False 120. Addictive behaviors depend mostly on efforts to avoid withdrawal symptoms. a. True b. False 121. Early-onset alcoholism has higher heritability than late-onset alcoholism. a. True b. False 122. For genetic reasons, Chinese and Japanese people are less likely than most others to abuse alcohol. a. True b. False 123. People who hold their liquor well are less likely than average to abuse alcohol. a. True b. False 124. Antabuse modifies how someone metabolizes alcohol. a. True b. False 125. Prolonged use of methadone weakens or eliminates an opiate addiction. a. True b. False 126. Men are more likely than women to become depressed. a. True b. False 127. Even after people recovered from COVID-19, they had an increased risk of depression. a. True b. False 128. A study of European women with recurrent severe depression identified two genes with a strong effect. a. True b. False 129. Stressful events provoke the immune system to release proteins that reduce activity level and decrease appetite. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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14_Psychopathology 130. The earliest antidepressant drugs were based on a theory of how depression affects the brain. a. True b. False 131. Antidepressants begin to relieve depression as soon as the drug reaches the serotonin synapses. a. True b. False 132. People need to take most antidepressant drugs for at least 2 weeks before experiencing any benefits. a. True b. False 133. Much of the benefit from antidepressant drugs comes from their ability to stimulate release of a neurotrophin. a. True b. False 134. Most controlled studies find that antidepressants are at least moderately more effective than placebos. a. True b. False 135. Psychotherapy is about as effective as antidepressant drugs, and its benefits tend to last longer. a. True b. False 136. Psychotherapy produces about the same effects on the brain that antidepressant drugs do. a. True b. False 137. Most people who respond well to psychotherapy do not respond well to antidepressant drugs. a. True b. False 138. When antidepressant drugs became available in the late 1950s, the use of ECT declined abruptly. a. True b. False 139. Most people with depression who go without sleep all night feel less depressed in the morning. a. True b. False 140. Bipolar disorder usually has its onset in later adulthood. a. True b. False 141. People with schizophrenia alternate between two personalities. a. True Powered by Cognero

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14_Psychopathology b. False 142. The “positive” symptoms of schizophrenia are the ones that provide some benefit. a. True b. False 143. The negative symptoms of schizophrenia are easier to treat than are the positive symptoms. a. True b. False 144. Hallucinations are considered a “positive” symptom of schizophrenia. a. True b. False 145. Drug abuse can produce some symptoms similar to schizophrenia. a. True b. False 146. If one monozygotic twin has schizophrenia, the other one is almost certain to have it also. a. True b. False 147. A few rare genes are known to greatly increase the risk of schizophrenia, mostly by disrupting the development of dopamine synapses or by interfering with the immune system. a. True b. False 148. People born in winter have a slightly increased probability of schizophrenia. a. True b. False 149. Schizophrenia is more common among people who live in rural areas. a. True b. False 150. The incidence of schizophrenia is elevated among people who immigrate from one country to another. a. True b. False 151. Physical, emotional, or sexual abuse during childhood increases the risk and the probable severity of earlier schizophrenia. a. True b. False 152. With long-term use, the side effects increase, and the effectiveness against schizophrenia often decreases. a. True Powered by Cognero

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14_Psychopathology b. False 153. The symptoms of schizophrenia depend on glutamate as well as dopamine. a. True b. False 154. Chronic ketamine use causes an increase of gray matter in several brain areas, similar to the pattern sometimes seen in patients with schizophrenia. a. True b. False 155. About two-thirds of people in the autism spectrum have average or above-average intellect. a. True b. False 156. People with autism avoid eye contact. a. True b. False 157. Many rare mutations can cause autism. a. True b. False 158. Over reactivity of sensory neurons correlates strongly with impaired social behavior and eye contact. a. True b. False 159. Good nutrition during pregnancy can reduce the probability of a child with autism spectrum disorder. a. True b. False 160. Some of the genes that cause autism increase the sensitivity of somatosensory nerves. a. True b. False 161. Many children with autism spectrum disorder behave more normally when they have a fever. a. True b. False

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

162. Many types of reinforcing experiences release the transmitter ____________________.

163. An insistent search for a drug even after prolonged abstinence is called ____________________.

164. Decreased effect of a drug after repeated use is called ____________________.

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14_Psychopathology 165. The liver metabolizes alcohol into acetaldehyde, and then metabolizes that into ____________________.

166. People who had abusive experiences in childhood are more vulnerable, as is a child whose mother drank too much alcohol during ____________________.

167. A similar but less harmful drug that is often substituted for heroin or morphine is ____________________.

168. The cognitive limitations of depression often persist even after successful treatment of the ____________________.

169. People with late-onset depression tend to have relatives who suffer not necessarily from depression but from problems with their ____________________.

170. SSRIs block reuptake of the transmitter ____________________.

171. Antidepressants facilitate release of the neurotrophin ____________________.

172. The most common treatment for seasonal affective disorder is ____________________.

173. The first, and still most common, treatment for bipolar disorder is salts of ____________________.

174. Weak emotional expression, speech, and socialization are known as the ____________________ symptoms of schizophrenia.

175. A diagnosis that rules out other possibilities is called a ____________________ diagnosis.

176. Loss of a small part of a chromosome is called a ____________________.

177. The proposal that schizophrenia depends on a combination of a genetic predisposition and an environmental impact is called the ____________________ hypothesis.

178. The season-of-birth effect is the observation that schizophrenia is slightly more likely for people who were born in the season of ____________________.

179. First-generation antipsychotic drugs block dopamine synapses, specifically ____________________.

180. Prolonged use of antipsychotic drugs often precipitates a movement disorder called ____________________.

181. A symptom of autism spectrum disorder includes repetitive movements known as ____________________.

182. Certain genes that cause autism increase the sensitivity of ____________________ nerves.

183. Many children with autism behave more like typical children when they have a ____________________.

184. What do drug use, sex, gambling, and video game playing have in common, neurologically?

185. As someone develops an addiction to a substance, what changes in terms of releasing dopamine, and how does this tendency relate to relapse?

186. One genetic variation has a substantial effect on the probability of alcohol abuse. How does it do so?

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14_Psychopathology 187. What behavioral difference predicts whether a young person is more or less likely to become a problem drinker?

188. Methadone users who try taking heroin experience little effect from it. Why? 189. A person with depressive disorder experienced severe illness due to COVID-19. What are some possible lasting effects of COVID-19 related to the person’s depressive disorder.

190. What observation suggests that early-onset depression and late-onset depression depend on different sets of genes?

191. Through what mechanism do stressful events precipitate depression?

192. How do the effects of SSRIs differ from those of tricyclic antidepressants?

193. Besides their effects on serotonin and other neurotransmitters, what other important biological effect do antidepressant drugs have?

194. What is the most likely explanation for why ketamine tends to relieve depression faster than standard antidepressant drugs do?

195. For the treatment of depression, what are the pros and cons of using psychotherapy instead of antidepressant drugs?

196. What are the usual treatments for seasonal affective disorder and bipolar disorder?

197. What are common treatments for bipolar disorder?

198. What are the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

199. Given that no common gene has a strong relationship to schizophrenia, how else can we explain the high heritability?

200. What is the two-hit hypothesis for schizophrenia?

201. What evidence supports the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia?

202. What are the advantages of second-generation antipsychotic drugs?

203. What does the American Psychiatric Association list as characteristics of autism spectrum disorder?

204. Having a sibling with autism who is close to your age increases your own risk more than having a sibling with autism who is much older or younger. What conclusion does this observation imply?

205. What explanation has emerged for the observation that many children with autism behave more like typical children when they have a fever?

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14_Psychopathology Answer Key 1. d 2. d 3. c 4. d 5. d 6. c 7. c 8. b 9. a 10. d 11. d 12. a 13. c 14. c 15. a 16. b 17. d 18. d 19. c 20. a 21. d 22. c 23. c 24. a 25. a Powered by Cognero

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14_Psychopathology 26. d 27. a 28. a 29. d 30. c 31. a 32. d 33. d 34. a 35. b 36. c 37. c 38. a 39. c 40. c 41. c 42. d 43. d 44. b 45. b 46. b 47. b 48. c 49. b 50. c 51. c Powered by Cognero

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14_Psychopathology 52. d 53. d 54. c 55. a 56. d 57. b 58. c 59. d 60. a 61. a 62. c 63. d 64. a 65. c 66. d 67. c 68. c 69. b 70. a 71. a 72. c 73. d 74. b 75. a 76. c Powered by Cognero

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14_Psychopathology 77. c 78. a 79. a 80. c 81. c 82. c 83. c 84. c 85. d 86. b 87. d 88. b 89. a 90. c 91. d 92. a 93. d 94. a 95. d 96. a 97. c 98. a 99. d 100. d 101. c 102. c Powered by Cognero

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14_Psychopathology 103. c 104. c 105. b 106. a 107. b 108. a 109. a 110. c 111. True 112. True 113. True 114. False 115. False 116. True 117. False 118. True 119. True 120. False 121. True 122. True 123. False 124. True 125. False 126. False 127. True Powered by Cognero

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14_Psychopathology 128. False 129. True 130. False 131. False 132. True 133. True 134. True 135. True 136. True 137. False 138. True 139. True 140. False 141. False 142. False 143. False 144. True 145. True 146. False 147. False 148. True 149. False 150. False 151. False 152. True 153. True Powered by Cognero

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14_Psychopathology 154. False 155. True 156. False 157. True 158. False 159. True 160. True 161. True 162. dopamine 163. craving 164. tolerance 165. acetic acid 166. pregnancy 167. methadone 168. mood problems 169. circulation 170. serotonin 171. BDNF

brain-derived neurotrophic factor 172. very bright lights 173. lithium 174. negative 175. differential 176. microdeletion 177. two-hit Powered by Cognero

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14_Psychopathology 178. winter 179. type D2 receptors 180. tardive dyskinesia 181. stereotyped behaviors 182. somatosensory 183. fever 184. They increase release of dopamine in the nucleus accumbens.

185. The drug itself releases less dopamine, but cues associated with the drug release more, and they continue to do so even after a long period of abstinence. A cue for the drug will grab attention and increase the probability of relapse, especially during a period of stress.

186. The liver metabolizes alcohol into acetaldehyde (toxic) and then into acetic acid (harmless). Many people, especially in southeast Asia, have a gene that slows the conversion of acetaldehyde to acetic acid. Therefore, if they drink much, they accumulate acetaldehyde and feel ill. Thus, the tendency is to avoid much alcohol.

187. People who show little sign of intoxication and little body sway are more likely to continue drinking. Follow-up studies indicate that they are more likely than average to become problem drinkers. In other words, people who “hold their liquor well” are more vulnerable.

188. Because methadone is already occupying the endorphin receptors, heroin cannot add much stimulation to them.

189. During 2020, at the peak of the COVID-19 epidemic and a period of social unrest, prevalence of depression in the United States rose to 24 percent. Even after people recovered from COVID-19, they had an increased risk of depression, anxiety, substance abuse, and cognitive decline 190. People with early-onset depression tend to have relatives with either depression or other psychological problems.

People with late-onset depression tend to have relatives with circulatory problems.

191. Stressful events activate the immune system, preparing the body for an infection. The immune system releases cytokines that conserve energy by reducing activity levels and decreasing appetite. Inactivity and loss of appetite are common symptoms of depression.

192. SSRIs decrease reuptake of only serotonin, and they produce generally milder side effects. Tricyclic drugs decrease reuptake of several neurotransmitters, including serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine.

193. They bind to the receptor for release of BDNF, a neurotrophin that is important for synaptic plasticity and learning.

194. Ketamine binds strongly to the BDNF receptor, increasing synaptic plasticity. Standard antidepressants bind more weakly and have to build up their concentration over weeks to produce a strong effect on that receptor.

195. Both are about equally effective, and apparently for mostly if not entirely the same people. Psychotherapy has no side effects, and its effects are more likely to be long-lasting. The disadvantage of psychotherapy is the inconvenience of frequent visits to the therapist.

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14_Psychopathology 196. The usual treatment for seasonal affective disorder is very bright lights in the morning. The usual treatment for bipolar disorder is lithium salts, and a second choice is certain anticonvulsive drugs.

197. The common pharmaceutical treatments for bipolar disorder are lithium salts and certain anticonvulsant drugs— valproate and carbamazepine. A consistent sleep schedule is also recommended.

198. The positive symptoms are hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, and grossly disorganized behavior. The negative symptoms are weak emotional expression, speech, and socialization.

199. Rare mutations and microdeletions can produce a large effect. Also, genes with small effects can combine with one another or with environmental influences.

200. Schizophrenia is the result of a combination of a genetic predisposition and impacts from the environment in prenatal/postnatal development, later in life, or both.

201. The effectiveness of antipsychotic drugs correlates highly with how effectively they block dopamine synapses. Also, abuse of stimulant drugs that increase dopamine activity can produce hallucinations and delusions.

202. They are less likely to produce tardive dyskinesia. Also they help somewhat with the negative and cognitive symptoms, which the first-generation drugs do not help.

203. The American Psychiatric Association (2013) lists the following characteristics of autism spectrum disorder: deficits in social and emotional exchange; deficits in gestures, facial expressions, and other nonverbal communication; stereotyped behaviors, such as repetitive movements; resistance to a change in routine; and either weak or exaggerated responses to stimuli, such as indifference to pain, panicked reaction to a sound, or displeasure at being touched.

204. Genetics cannot be the whole explanation for autism. Factors in the prenatal environment may contribute. The prenatal environment is more similar for siblings close in age.

205. Certain mutations that cause autism increase the sensitivity of somatosensory nerves by decreasing inhibitory input to them. Someone with stronger somatosensation will avoid physical contact with others and overreact to many stimuli.

When someone has a fever, the immune system releases chemicals that, among other effects, suppress activity in the primary somatosensory cortex. That will bring activity back to approximately normal.

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