Sense And Nonsense About Crime, Drugs, and Communities 8th Edition by Samuel Walker - Test Bank

Test Bank and Answer Key TRUE/FALSE 1. While crime rates are down, most criminologists feel that this is a statistical artifact rather than a genuine decline.

ANS: F

REF: 2-3 2. Explaining the crime drop might involve broad changes in behavior that are beyond the reach of social science to explain.

ANS: T

REF: 5 3. Traditionally, crime policy has not demanded high quality research evidence of effectiveness for its implementation or continuation.

ANS: T

REF: 12-13 4. While ineffective crime policies may be expensive, they cannot actually cause harm.

ANS: F

REF: 13-14 5. America has two crime problems: one problem affects the poor minority inner-city population while the other affects the poor rural white population.

ANS: F

REF: 16-17 6. America’s crime problem is primarily a drug problem.

ANS: F

REF: 16-17

7. According to findings of the Sentencing Project, the public believes the justice system is far more lenient than it really is.

ANS: T

REF: 15 8. There have been no signs of reversal of the imprisonment boom.

ANS: F

REF: 19 9. The war on crime raises expectations of a victory and an end to the problem rather than the goal of decreasing crime to a tolerable level.

ANS: T

REF: 22 10. A comprehensive social ledger on imprisonment would take into account the combined effect of adverse impacts on the “collective efficacy” of neighborhoods.

ANS: T REF: 25 11. The public health arena has few similarities with the field of crime control.

ANS: F

REF: 30-31 12. While drug decriminalization has traditionally been a liberal proposal, a surprising number of prominent conservatives endorse drug legalization.

ANS: T

REF: 40-41 13. Both liberals and conservatives acknowledge the influence of the family on the likelihood that an individual will or will not commit crime.

ANS: T

REF: 35-37

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Regarding crime in America, select the most accurate statement a. property crime is down, but violent crime has been rising steadily since the 1970s b. both property and violent crime have been increasing steadily for two decades c. both property and violent crime are at their lowest levels since 1993 d. no discernible trends can be determined using crime data from the last 10 years ANS: C

REF: 1-2 2. The increasing crime rate in the U.S. a. began in the early 1960s b. contributed to crime being a major issue in American politics c. has instilled fear that ripped our social fabric as people moved out of their communities d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: D

REF: 3 3. The following evidence indicates that the crime drop is genuine a. reliable NCVS data shows similar trends to UCR reports b. we have seen crime drop for two years in a row c. crime is down in every city in the nation d. statistics don’t lie ANS: A

REF: 3 4. Explanations for the recent crime drop a. have not yet been considered due to the newness of the trend b. are complex and difficult to assign to one factor c. suggest that the addition of many new police officers and zero tolerance policies have been more influential than tough new sentencing laws and increased incarceration d. pinpoint one single factor that the majority of criminologists agree on ANS: B

REF: 5

5.

Select the most accurate statement a. contextual factors such as a shifting proportion of crime-prone young people in the population and the economic downturn have not likely impacted the crime rate b. contextual factors include changes in corrections that have reduced crime while policy factors include changes in policing that have reduced crime c. the interplay of contextual factors and criminal justice policies best explains the great crime drop d. distinguishing between contextual and policy factors that affect the crime rate is a fruitless effort since these factors are arguably a false dichotomy ANS: C

REF: 9 6. Evidence-based policy originated in a. educational policies b. health care policies c. the 1994 Violent Crime Control Act d. Canada’s economic policies ANS: B

REF: 12 7. One of the consequences of criminal justice practitioners’ traditional reliance on good intentions rather than solid evidence in criminal justice policymaking has been a. a misinterpretation of crime data as showing a 10-12 year decline b. an overemphasis on contextual factors as indicators of success c. inexpensive and effective policies such as Scared Straight d. the continuation of expensive but ineffective policies such as DARE ANS: D

REF: 13 8. The Cambridge-Somerville Youth Study and Scared Straight are examples of a. the first evidence-based crime policies in the U.S. b. well-intentioned treatment that can cause harm in the absence of research evidence on effectiveness c. punitive responses to crime stemming from increased crime rates of the 1960s d. the interplay between contextual and policy factors in policy making ANS: B

REF: 13-14

9.

Select from the following list the item that is NOT a requirement of evidence-based policy a. intentions and instinct b. empirical evidence of effectiveness c. high quality research designs d. replication of findings ANS: A

REF: 14-15 10. A systematic review of all available research studies on a particular topic is known as a. evidence-based policy c. meta-analyses b. replication d. contextual analyses ANS: C

REF: 15 11. Walker argues that the first obstacle to developing sensible and effective crime policies is a. that they do not employ evidence-based standards b. that people do not understand the nature of the crime problem or how the justice system works c. the drastic underfunding of crime policies d. that they are based on the idea that “one size fits all” ANS: B

REF: 15 12. When Walker talks about America's two crime problems, he is referring to a. crimes known to police and unreported and undetected crime b. property crime and violent crime c. those affecting poor minorities and white middle class d. street crime and white-collar corporate offenses ANS: C

REF: 16 13. The crime problem within the United States in comparison to other countries is one of a. property crimes b. sexual assaults c. lethal violence d. drug use ANS: C

REF: 16-17

14.

During the past 40 years, incarceration rates have a. decreased in urban areas and increased in rural areas b. increased in urban areas and decreased in rural areas c. remained steady overall d. increased exponentially ANS: D

REF: 18 15.

The most important force contributing to the imprisonment boom has been a. the implicit racism of the justice system b. the recent trend of directing crime policy efforts toward white-collar rather than street crime c. a popular belief that the justice system has been and still is soft on crime d. the lack of funding for representation of the accused in court ANS: C

REF: 19 16. One of the consequences of our wars on crime and drugs has been a. a reduction in the racial polarization of the U.S. b. the U.S. maintaining the highest incarceration rate in the world c. a massive reduction in the number of emergency room admissions reporting mention of cocaine use d. reduced fear of crime ANS: B

REF: 18 17. The imprisonment boom in America can be partially attributed to a. the wars of drugs and crime b. determinate sentencing laws, such as truth in sentencing and mandatory sentences c. restrictions on good time that limit early release d. all of the above ANS: D

REF: 19

18. The wars on crime and drugs has disproportionally affected a. younger Latino female population b. older White middle class c. young African American males d. lower class Whites ANS: C

REF: 20-21 19. Research on drug use and drug convictions shows that a. minorities are far more likely to use drugs and to be convicted for that use b. racial patterns in drug use correlate closely with racial patterns in drug convictions c. drug convictions in the U.S. correspond with racial patterns of drug use at a state level, but not at the federal level d. racial patterns in arrest are not consistent with evidence on drug use ANS: D

REF: 21 20. One criticism of Michelle Alexander’s ideas about crime policy and race is that a. she gives too much credence to the gains of the civil rights movement b. she embraces the conservative view while ignoring the liberal view c. she unfairly blames minorities for their part in creating mass incarceration d. she confuses the results of the war on crime with the intent of the great change in U.S. imprisonment policy ANS: D

REF: 20 21. Which of the following justifications were provided for the claim that war is the wrong metaphor for crime? a. it raises unrealistic expectations for eliminating crime b. it suggests we are fighting a foreign enemy c. it leads to the demonization of criminals d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: D

REF: 22

22. A “social ledger” for incarceration would include a. a list of the races and religions of all people who have been incarcerated b. the impact on people who are stopped and frisked illegally c. a discussion of liberal vs. conservative ideology d. an explanation of the way in which criminal justice policy unfairly harms minorities ANS: B

REF: 24 23. This book will focus primarily on the crimes of a. murder and other violent crimes b. drug possession and use c. robbery and burglary d. juvenile delinquency ANS: C

REF: 28 24. Regarding prevention and punishment a. while prevention is appealing, our efforts should focus on punishment since the war on crime cannot be won b. soft drug treatment programs are unable to prevent crime as effectively as tough sentencing policies such as the three-strikes law c. prevention was a fad crime policy, and we need to stick with a healthy diet of punishment d. this is arguably a false dichotomy since all crime policies are designed to prevent crime ANS: D

REF: 29 25. According to Walker, which of the following would be considered the most sensible crime policy goal? a. a series of different policies that produces a modest crime reduction b. a moderately expensive policy that reduces crime by 15% in 5 years c. a simple policy that produces quick and dramatic changes d. Walker argues that a sensible crime policy goal is impossible to define ANS: A

REF: 30

26. A 2013 article in the prestigious Journal of the American Medical Association (JAMA) argues that we can learn much from the successes in other areas when we try to deal with gun violence.

One important lesson is that a. community efforts are more effective than policy changes b. a sweeping policy change is needed to make inroads in solving a problem c. it takes a village to help individuals d. several approaches reinforce each other to achieve a significant result ANS: D

REF: 31-32 27. The state of the economy, as reflected in the unemployment rate, has _________ on criminal behavior. a. negligible effects b. direct implications c. uneven results, depending on race, d. statistically proven effects ANS: B

REF: 32 28. Extravagant promises about crime reduction have been made by a. community and religious programs b. both liberals and conservatives c. liberal presidents but not conservative presidents d. conservative presidents but not liberal presidents ANS: B

REF: 32 29. Crime-control theology conflicts most directly with which of the following? a. community-focused programs c. evidence-based practices b. the prevention-punishment dichotomy d. substantive criminal law ANS: C

REF: 33 30. In his discussion of conservative and liberal theology, Walker notes that a. liberals embrace the crime-control model while conservatives prefer the due process model b. conservatives blame problems on harsh punishment and call for rehabilitation c. liberals call for punishment similar to parental discipline, even though the real world of the CJS does not work like a family d. conservatives believe criminals have low self-control, while liberals believe social factors such as economic opportunities influence behavior ANS: D

REF: 34-37 31. Examples of conservatives and liberals switching sides include all but which issue?

a. legalization of drugs b. offender reentry

c. increased law enforcement presence d. decreased prison sentences

ANS: C

REF: 40-41 32. Liberals and conservatives generally disagree on their preference for crime-control measures.

Which of the following statements most accurately summarizes their respective preferences? a. liberals prefer shaming while conservatives prefer reintegration b. conservatives prefer retribution and deterrence while liberals prefer rehabilitation c. liberals prefer general deterrence while conservatives prefer specific deterrence d. conservatives prefer prevention while liberals prefer punishment ANS: B

REF: 34-37 33. In terms of the theoretical causes of crime which statement most accurately reflects liberal and conservative theology? a. conservatives believe poverty causes crime while liberals believe crime causes poverty b. liberals focus on the moral causes while conservatives focus on practical causes c. liberals believe criminals are made while conservatives believe criminals are born d. conservatives believe in rational choice and low self-control; whereas, liberals believe in peer influence and economic opportunity ANS: D

REF: 34-37 34. Both liberal and conservative theology is flawed. Which of the following flaws were noted in the chapter? a. conservatives feel too many loopholes allow criminals to beat the system b. liberals feel too many loopholes allow criminals to beat the system c. liberals are guilty of blaming everything on overly soft punishments d. conservatives are guilty of blaming everything on overly harsh punishments ANS: A

REF: 38 35. Conservatives embrace the _____(1)_____ model while liberals embrace the _____(2)_____ model. a. (1) due process (2) crime-control b. (1) crime-control (2) due process c. (1) community-focused (2) evidence-based d. (1) evidence-based (2) community-focused ANS: B

REF: 39-40

SHORT ANSWER 1. Explain why no single factor can be considered the cause of the crime decline in the 1990s.

REF: 3-6 2. Compare and contrast traditional crime policy with evidence-based crime policy.

REF: 11-15 3. Explain why waging “war” is the wrong way to deal with crime, and describe how a “social ledger” would be a useful addition to crime policy.

REF: 22-26 4. Describe how the false dichotomy of prevention and punishment affects the development of crime policy.

REF: 29 5. Discuss how the wars on crime and drugs have impacted incarceration and how it serves to undermine the collective efficacy of neighborhoods.

REF: 25-36 6. Differentiate between conservative and liberal theology.

REF: 33-37

Test Bank and Answer Key TRUE/FALSE 1. The day-to-day administration of justice is less complex than the formal machinery of the justice system.

ANS: F REF: 2-1 2. Walker proposes that most crime control ideas are based on false assumptions about how the CJS works.

ANS: T REF: 2-2 3. Walker suggests that most of the time, the system operates in a chaotic and arbitrary manner.

ANS: F REF: 2-4, 2-5 4. Neither version of the New Cynicism adequately explains how the justice system handles routine cases on a day-to-day basis.

ANS: T REF: 2-2, 2-3 5. The Crime Commission’s model takes a systems approach to the administration of criminal justice.

ANS: T REF: 2-6, 2-7 6. The wedding cake model highlights significant differences in case processing within each layer and consistent patterns in case processing between layers.

ANS: F REF: 2-8 7. Celebrated cases distort public perceptions about criminal justice.

ANS: T REF: 2-9 8. The majority of cases are celebrated cases that involve the full criminal process including the criminal trial.

ANS: F REF:2-8, 2-9

9. The defining factor that makes a case celebrated is a celebrity offender.

ANS: F REF: 2-9 10. The factor that differentiates second- and third-layer felonies is the frequency with which the courtroom workgroup sees cases in the different layers as similar in other ways.

ANS: F REF: 2-11 11. The majority of suspects in prior-relationship robbery cases are convicted.

ANS: F REF: 2-14 12. Data on career-criminal prosecution programs show that they are less effective than was hoped because these offenses were already being treated seriously.

ANS: T REF: 2-18 13. Based on lower court research, Walker concludes that lower courts are very different from the upper courts, but there are significant differences between courts in different jurisdictions ANS: T REF: 2-21

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Walker argues that the American CJS is so complex, because a. it is based on English common law, but we have added our own statutory laws piecemeal over time to fill in the gaps b. of our capitalist economy and democratic political system c. it is made up of one federal and 50 state systems with their own substantive and procedural rules d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: C REF: 2-1 2. The various state court systems a. are uniform in their procedures b. vary in criminal laws and their punishments

c. clearly follow federal guidelines for criminal punishment d. maintain uniform criminal laws, but vary in their punishments

ANS: B REF: 2-1 3. The ____(1)______ is the civics-book picture of justice while the ____(2)______ portrays a chaotic CJS. a. (1) old idealism (2) new cynicism c. (1) new cynicism (2) old idealism b. (1) liberal idealism (2) conservative d. (1) liberal cynicism (2) conservative idealism cynicism ANS: A REF: 2-2, 2-3 4. Select the most accurate statement: a. old idealists provide a description of the day-to-day handling of routine cases that is closer to reality than the new cynics’ description b. conservative cynics provide a description of the day-to-day handling of routine cases that is closer to reality than the liberal cynics’ description c. new cynics see irrational decision making undermining effective crime control while old idealists believe chaos of the system produces systematic discrimination d. conservative cynics see irrational decision making undermining effective crime control while liberal cynics believe chaos of the system produces systematic discrimination ANS: D REF: 2-2, 2-3

5. Walker uses which of the following terms to describe the routine handling of cases on a day-today basis? a. chaotic and discriminatory c. consistent and predictable b. chaotic and arbitrary d. inconsistent and unpredictable ANS: C REF: 2-4, 2-5 6. Walker argues that the problem is that our system is a. too lenient c. both too lenient and too severe b. too severe d. neither too lenient or too severe ANS: C REF: 2-5 7. The Crime Commission’s model a. emphasizes significant differences between types of cases and the consistent disposition of cases within each category b. emphasizes the interrelationships among agencies and the ways decisions at one point in the system affect decisions at other points c. is a visual representation of the consistency and predictability of the system d. is a visual representation of the chaos and unpredictability of the system ANS: B REF: 2-6, 2-7 8. The major limitation of the Crime Commission’s model that the wedding cake model addresses is a. the way decisions at one point in the system affect decisions at other points b. the need to have a clear and concise graphic to communicate the function of the model c. the systematic mistreatment of racial and ethnic minorities in CJ case processing d. the consistent pattern in which similar cases are disposed of and the significant differences between types of cases ANS: D REF: 2-8

9.

Which of the following statements most accurately summarizes the type of cases within each layer of the wedding cake? a. the largest layer of the cake contains serious felonies because these are the most frequently occurring cases in the CJS b. the top layer contains celebrated cases, the second layer contains serious felonies, the third layer contains less serious felonies, and the bottom layer contains misdemeanors c. although celebrated cases make up the top and smallest layer of the cake, they are examples of the typical cases handled routinely by the CJS on a day-to-day basis d. the top layer contains celebrated cases, the second layer contains less serious felonies, the third layer contains serious felonies, and the bottom layer contains misdemeanors ANS: B REF: 2-8–2-21 10. What characteristics do cases in the top layer of the wedding cake share? a. they are all serious felonies committed with a weapon and resulting in injury to the victim b. they are part of the largest volume of cases and are not considered worth much to the courtroom workgroup c. these are all cases where a prior relationship exists between the victim and the offender d. they involve a famous person, a gruesome crime, or result in landmark Supreme Court rulings ANS: D REF: 2-8, 2-9 11. What impact do celebrated cases have on public perceptions? a. educational, because they teach the public about routine case processing by the CJS b. sentimental, because the public feels badly for the poor and minority offenders thrust in front of television cameras on a regular basis c. distorted, because people mistakenly assume they are typical of all cases when they are not d. none, because the public realize that these are atypical cases and that is what makes them newsworthy ANS: C REF: 2-9, 2-10 12. One of the unique elements of criminal justice case processing that is more often present in celebrated cases than other cases is a. a trial c. a plea bargain b. a public defender d. a conviction ANS: A REF: 2-8, 2-9

13. Criminal justice officials use ALL BUT WHICH of the following criteria to determine the seriousness of a crime a. the nature of the crime c. injury to the offender b. the use of a weapon d. the relationship between victim and suspect ANS: C REF: 2-11 14.

The factors that criminal justice officials consistently use to classify cases include which of the following? a. the race and class of the victim and the offender b. the relationship between victim and offender and the suspect’s prior record c. the number of cases on the docket and the offender’s remorse d. none, criminal justice officials do not handle cases consistently or predictably ANS: B REF: 2-11

15. Judgments made by the courtroom workgroup regarding second-layer cases a. are based on shared definitions of seriousness that promote consistent processing b. are more likely than other types of cases to be based on extralegal factors c. highlight the discretion and lack of predictability among American courtroom workgroups d. are made uniformly using charging guidelines that limit discretion ANS: A REF: 2-11, 2-12 16. Parolees being sent back to prison for violations of the terms of their parole supervision is called a. front-load sentencing c. upfront sentencing b. back-end sentencing d. up-ending ANS: B REF: 2-13, 2-14 17. Compared to suspects in prior-relationship robberies, suspects in stranger robberies a. were twice as likely to be incarcerated if c. were less likely to be convicted of felonies convicted b. were more likely to plea bargain d. were convicted 50% more of the time ANS: D REF: 2-14

18.

Third-layer cases differ from second-layer cases in that a. Third-layer cases are more likely to be dismissed or pled down b. there are more celebrities in second- than third-layer cases c. there are more second- than third-layer cases d. there are no differences between third- and second-layer cases ANS: A REF: 2-15

19. The liberation hypothesis refers to the liberation of a. misdemeanor cases from the requirement of attorneys and trials b. prosecutors and judges from conventional shared understandings of seriousness c. prosecutors and judges from requirements of procedural law d. modern courtroom workgroups from age old traditions ANS: B REF: 2-15 20. According to the NCVS, crime victims’ attitudes about the severity of crimes a. match the attitudes of the perpetrators of those crimes b. dispel conventional wisdom about how they should feel c. match the distinctions of criminal justice officials about the seriousness of crimes d. differ drastically from the attitudes of criminal justice officials regarding distinctions about the seriousness of crimes ANS: C REF: 2-16 21. What would happen if prior relationship was eliminated as a decision-making factor in case processing? a. the courtroom workgroup would be liberated from shared understandings of seriousness and would be more likely to rely on extralegal factors in case processing decisions b. case processing time would increase in second layer cases, but it would decrease in thirdlayer cases c. a large number of cases would move from the third to the second layer of the wedding cake, thereby increasing the overall punitiveness of the justice system d. the only cases that would be affected would be cases in the fourth layer, but due to such a large number of cases, there is a risk that the system would be overburdened ANS: C REF: 2-17

22. The conclusion drawn from research on career-criminal prosecution programs like the San Diego Major Violator Unit was that a. getting tough does not work if leniency is not the source of the problem b. getting tough increased the deterrent effect, because career criminals were previously treated leniently c. liberating the courtroom workgroup from traditional expectations moved more careercriminal cases from the third layer to the fourth layer of the wedding cake d. these programs convinced the public that cases of career criminals should be treated like celebrated cases ANS: A REF: 2-18 23. Regarding fourth-layer cases, we are reminded that a. the largest number of cases in American courts are serious acts of violence committed by chronic offenders against strangers b. the largest number of cases in American courts are misdemeanors c. a large number of cases in American courts are decided based on extralegal factors since the courtroom workgroup is liberated from shared understandings of seriousness d. a large number of cases has not caused the American court system to collapse, but rather each misdemeanor defendant as an attorney and a full trial ANS: B REF: 2-19 24. A study of lower courts in New Haven, CT revealed that a. jury trials were very popular b. there were not enough cases from which to ascertain any trends c. contrary to expectation, defendants were not arraigned en masse or given light sentences d. due to a large volume of cases and relative lack of seriousness, the formalities of felony process typical in second layer cases is rarely present ANS: D REF: 2-20 SHORT ANSWER 1. Compare and contrast the ideas of the Old Idealism with those of the New Cynicism.

REF: 2-2, 2-3 2. Compare and contrast the Crime Commission’s model with the wedding cake model of criminal justice administration.

REF: 2-6–2-8 3. Design an enhanced wedding cake model that demonstrates your understanding of the type of cases within each layer and the factors used by the courtroom workgroup to informally classify cases.

REF: 2-7–2-21

4. List the factors used by the courtroom workgroup to informally classify cases on the basis of their seriousness and show your understanding of the impact on case processing by discussing specific offenses.

REF: 2-11–2-13 5. Explain how the victim/offender relationship factor influences informal classification of cases into the CJ wedding cake and what changes may be seen if this was eliminated as a decisionmaking factor.

REF: 2-14–2-18 6. Describe the various findings about the true impact of the liberation hypothesis on case processing.

REF: 2-15–2-16 7. Defend the argument that the CJS is harsh on crime by using information from the chapter.

REF: 2-18, 2-19 8. Differentiate fourth-layer cases from those in the second layer of the CJ wedding cake.

REF: 2-11–2-13, 2-19–2-21

Test Bank and Answer Key TRUE/FALSE 1. A lack of data makes it difficult to evaluate our CJS. ANS: T REF: 3-1 2. A reexamination of the funnel effect using more recent BJS data found that this effect no longer exists.

ANS: F REF: 3-2 3. Cases are more likely to be rejected or dismissed because of evidence or witness problems than due process problems.

ANS: T REF: 3-6 4. Eighty-five percent of dismissals lead to the defendant’s leaving the criminal justice system.

ANS: F REF: 3-6 5. After eliminating weak cases, almost all indicted offenders are convicted, and the majority of convicted offenders are incarcerated.

ANS: T REF: 3-7 6. While the average maximum sentence length imposed has increased, time served has decreased.

As such, the net effect is no change in terms of assessing leniency.

ANS: F REF: 3-8

7. The odds of going to prison for murder, burglary, and larceny are much higher in the U.S. compared to England, Canada, and West Germany.

ANS: F REF: 3-10 8. Working together daily, the courtroom work group reaches a general consensus about how different cases should be handled, which is known as the going rate.

ANS: T REF: 3-11 9. Case processing is unaffected by the dynamics of the courtroom work group.

ANS: F REF: 3-12 10. Research has uncovered extensive disagreement among members of the courtroom work group in decisions regarding bail setting, plea bargaining, and presentence investigations.

ANS: F REF: 3-14, 3-15 11. The influence of the courtroom work group is irrelevant to the implementation of justice system policies.

ANS: F REF: 3-17, 3-18 12. While the courtroom work group has the power to frustrate legal reform, it does not have total control to completely nullify intended change.

ANS: T REF: 3-17 13. The criminal justice law of thermodynamics explains the chain reaction effect of criminal justice decision making.

ANS: T REF: 3-19, 3-20

14. The Innocence Project found that the most frequent contributor to wrongful conviction was erroneous eyewitness identification.

ANS: T REF: 3-23

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. If you know the offense and the offender’s prior record you can likely predict the outcome of a case. This outcome is also known as what? a. the going rate c. a loophole b. the funnel effect d. a downward departure ANS: A REF: 3-25 2. The conclusion that only 1% of all criminals go to prison is based on the __________ model that visually represents the flow of cases through the system. a. wedding cake c. going rate b. Funnel d. punitive ANS: B REF: 3-2 L 3. One of the reasons it is misleading to conclude that only 1% of all criminals go to prison is that a. this conclusion is based on data that is over 40 years old b. over a third of juvenile cases are transferred to juvenile court c. the number sentenced to death row are not included in the 1% figure d. this is not misleading, it is an accurate conclusion ANS: B REF: 3-2 4. Walker noted that our adult prosecution rate of __________ percent is hardly a sign of softness on crime. a. 1 c. 48 b. 27 d. 73 ANS: D REF: 3-3

5. According to BJS data from 2009, although only 36% of all convicted felony defendants were sentenced to prison, an additional __________ percent were sentenced to jail. a. 27 c. 35 b. 33 d. 59 ANS: C REF: 3-4 6. The major changes between the 1960s and 2009 have been a. greater likelihood of burglary suspects going to prison and lesser likelihood of assault suspects going to prison b. greater likelihood of those possessing a weapon going to prison, and lesser likelihood of larceny suspects going to prison c. a general increase in incarceration rates and increase in length of sentencing d. a general decrease in incarceration rates and increase in length of sentencing ANS: C REF: 3-4 7. __________ account for the majority of rejections or dismissals. a. lenient judges c. evidence and witness problems b. unrecorded arrests d. due process problems ANS: C REF: 3-5 8. Most cases that are dismissed are ultimately a. reviewed by judges in other jurisdictions b. referred to social services

c. lost to the CJS d. kept in the criminal justice system

ANS: D REF: 3-6 9. Some cases are rejected because of due process problems, but this is more likely to happen in ____(1)______ cases than ____(2)_____ cases. a. (1) robbery (2) weapons c. (1) violent (2) property b. (1) weapons (2) drug d. (1) drug (2) robbery ANS: D REF: 3-6

10. Testimony of witnesses or victims is the primary evidence in what type of cases? a. crimes against persons c. property crimes b. victimless crimes d. dismissed cases ANS: A REF: 3-5 11. The most important changes in sentencing during the past forty years have been spurred by a. good-time laws c. truth-in-sentencing laws b. mandatory minimum sentencing laws d. conviction laws ANS: B REF: 3-7 12. Time served, a measure of the justice system’s punitiveness, has changed in what way over time? a. remained the same c. decreased b. increased d. whether it increased or decreased depends on the type of offense ANS: B REF: 3-8 13. Mandatory sentencing laws and truth-in-sentencing laws in some states have contributed to a. decreases in average maximum sentence length imposed b. increases in average maximum sentence length imposed c. decreases in time served d. increases in time served ANS: D REF: 3-8 14. The standard liberal criticism is that our CJS is more _____(1)_____ than other countries, while conservatives argue that we are too _____(2)_____. a. (1) lenient (2) lenient as well b. (1) punitive (2) punitive as well c. (1) punitive (2) lenient d. (1) lenient (2) punitive ANS: C REF: 3-9

15. Our high incarceration rate in the U.S. is mainly the result of a. our high rates of violent crime and severe treatment of these offenders b. our tendency to send convicted offenders to prison c. our tendency to reject fewer cases involving African American d. our high rates of plea bargaining ANS: A REF: 3-10 16. Relative to other countries a. America is more punitive in our tendency to imprison serious offenders, and more punitive in terms of time served for property crimes b. America is similar in our tendency to imprison serious offenders, and similar in terms of time served for property crimes c. America is similar in our tendency to imprison serious offenders, but more punitive in terms of time served for property crimes d. America is punitive in our tendency to imprison serious offenders, but similar in terms of time served for property crimes ANS: C REF: 3-11 17. America has the highest __________ rate in the world. a. incarceration c. arrest b. conviction d. crime ANS: A REF: 3-10 18. The going rate a. is another name for sentencing guidelines b. refers to a shared understanding about how much cases are worth c. is a product of an unstable courtroom work group d. is commonly referred to as the local legal culture ANS: B REF: 3-12 19. A local jurisdiction’s going rate is established a. before cases reach the courtroom work group b. after cases reach the courtroom work group c. within the courtroom work group d. outside of the courtroom work group ANS: C REF: 3-13

20. The local legal culture is comprised of a. police, courts, and corrections b. adversaries, inquisitors, and administrators c. the courtroom work group, going rate, and administrative decisions d. prosecutors, defense attorneys, and judges ANS: D REF: 3-11 21. A system of justice where guilt or innocence is determined through the state’s presentation of the case and the defendant’s challenge of it that is overseen by a neutral judge is what type of system? a. administrative c. adversarial b. inquisitorial d. impossible ANS: C REF: 3-13 22. Walker argues that theoretically we have an _____(1)_____ system of justice, but in reality we have an _____(2)_____ system of justice. a. (1) adversarial (2) administrative c. (1) administrative (2) inquisitorial b. (1) adversarial (2) inquisitorial d. (1) inquisitorial (2) adversarial ANS: A REF: 3-13 23. One might consider the American CJS an administrative system of justice, because a. the determination of guilt or innocence is the result of a battle between prosecution and defense attorneys b. decisions are negotiated by the courtroom work group through consensus c. there is a presumption of guilt and the defendant’s rights are unprotected d. it is unlikely that the American CJS would be considered an administrative system ANS: B REF: 3-13

24. Select the most accurate statement a. courtroom work groups are surprisingly similar no matter what jurisdiction they are in b. less stable membership in the courtroom work group promotes consensus resulting in efficient case processing c. efficient processing of cases is more dependent upon caseload and resources than relationships among members of the courtroom work group d. stable courtroom work groups characterized by a sense of mutual respect process cases more efficiently than unstable work groups ANS: D REF: 3-15, 3-16 25. The ability of the courtroom work group to influence reforms in the justice system is best characterized as a. powerful c. hidden b. possible d. unlikely ANS: A REF: 3-16 26. Examples of the courtroom work group’s ability to thwart justice system reforms can be seen in a. the defense of life rule and Minnesota Sentencing Guidelines b. Minnesota Sentencing Guidelines, but not federal Sentencing Guidelines c. the granting of legal counsel under In re Gault and Gideon v. Wainwright d. there are no examples, because the courtroom work group lacks the power to influence reforms ANS: C REF: 3-16 27. Courtroom work groups can mitigate the effects of harsh sentencing laws, but they cannot a. nullify them completely b. selectively adopt them c. circumvent them d. choose to prosecute on their basis ANS: A REF: 3-17

28. The implementation of reforms by the courtroom work group is dependent upon a. the location of change as changes mandated from outside the courtroom work group face serious obstacles while changes initiated from within are likely to succeed b. the nature of the reform in that modest reforms requiring slight changes are likely to succeed c. the type of reform as unplanned developments affecting the workload of the justice system are more likely to succeed while policy changes face serious obstacles d. the caseload and resources of the courtroom work group as the time of the reform ANS: B REF: 3-18, 3-19 29. The criminal justice law of thermodynamics states that a(n) ____(1)______ in the severity of a penalty results in ____(2)______ application of that penalty a. (1) decrease (2) more frequent c. (1) increase (2) more frequent b. (1) decrease (2) less frequent d. (1) increase (2) less frequent ANS: D REF: 3-20 30. Examples of the criminal justice law of thermodynamics include a. In re Gault and speedy trial laws b. the death penalty and decriminalization of marijuana c. the death penalty and three strikes laws d. early release programs and three strikes laws ANS: C REF: 3-20 31. One of the consequences of the criminal justice law of thermodynamics is that a. the deterrent effect will be enhanced b. the intent of justice system reforms may be undercut c. the courtroom work group’s going rate will be impotent d. it shifts the power from the courtroom work group to policy makers ANS: B REF: 3-21

32. According to Walker’s discussion of mistakes in the CJS, select the most accurate statement. a. the extensive number of mistakes make loopholes larger and discrimination more pervasive b. a system as overburdened as ours is sure to make as many mistakes as it does c. mistakes are an inevitable result of the going rate d. we need to be hyper-vigilant to prevent further mistakes ANS: D REF: 3-25 33. According to the Innocence Project, all but which of the following are primary causes for wrongful conviction a. false identification b. rigorous scientific analysis c. improper evidence d. false confessions ANS: B REF: 70 34. Findings from the Innocence Project indicate that a. stable courtroom workgroups produce more mistakes than unstable work groups b. the courtroom work group can cover up willful misconduct or incompetence c. few mistakes occur in criminal justice processing and the consequences of those that do are minimal d. only 1% of defendants have been wrongfully convicted and sentenced to death, but none of them were executed ANS: B REF: 3-23

SHORT ANSWER 1. Explain why it may be misleading to conclude that only 1% of all criminals go to prison.

REF: 3-2—3-4 2. Describe some variables that have contributed to tougher sentencing in recent years.

REF: 3-7—3-9 3. Describe how the going rate in the U.S. is similar to and different from that in other countries.

REF: 3-9—3-11

4. Justify the suggestion that ours is an administrative rather than an adversarial justice system.

REF: 3-13—3-16 5. Describe the extent of power that the courtroom work group possesses to influence justice system reforms.

REF: 3-16—3-18 6. Show your understanding of the criminal justice law of thermodynamics by listing three possible implications of it.

REF: 3-19—3-21

Test Bank and Answer Key TRUE/FALSE 1. Findings from Wolfgang’s landmark Delinquency in a Birth Cohort study contributed to a shift in crime control policy from specific to general incapacitation.

ANS: F REF: 4-5—4-7 2. Wolfgang’s original findings have been confirmed by other cohort studies.

ANS: T REF: 4-7—4-9 3. Prevalence of criminality refers to participation in crime while persistence refers to continuing criminal activity.

ANS: T REF: 4-9—4-10 4. Wolfgang’s birth cohort study was published at a time when crime rates were slowly beginning to increase.

ANS: F REF: 4-10 5. Identifying and selectively incapacitating chronic offenders was difficult before the evidencebased policy movement but has since become much easier.

ANS: F REF: 4-19 6. Research indicates that the most accurate method of predicting chronic offending is the actuarial approach.

ANS: F REF: 4-14—4-15 7. The Texas death row inmate study relied on the clinical evaluation method of prediction.

ANS: T REF: 4-15—4-16

8. The Sentencing Commission’s evaluation of federal sentencing guidelines found that as criminal history scores increased so did recidivism rates.

ANS: T REF: 4-16 9. The effectiveness of the Rand prediction scale was assessed by correlating predicting scores with inmates’ actual reported criminal behavior.

ANS: T REF: 4-17 10. The method of estimating annual offending rates in the Rand Inmates Survey was a major advance over previous estimates because it relied on self-report data.

ANS: T REF: 4-19—4-20

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Wolfgang’s birth cohort research found what percent of the original cohort had at least one officially recorded contact with the police? a. 6% c. 35% b. 16% d. 95% ANS: C REF: 4-5 2. One of the implications regarding Wolfgang’s use of officially recorded police contacts as the measure of delinquency noted in the chapter was that a. this data did not capture property or violent crimes committed on school grounds b. the racial bias of police in Philadelphia resulted in arrest records for more minorities than Caucasian boys in the cohort c. the prevalence of offending was likely higher since the data did not capture crimes unknown to police d. all of the above ANS: C REF: 4-6

3. Wolfgang’s Delinquency in a Birth Cohort research uncovered some important offending trends including which of the following? a. a small percentage of delinquents are responsible for the majority of all crimes b. reasons why most delinquents stop committing illegal acts at some point c. that most young males have at least one officially recorded act of violence d. failing liberal policies contributed to increased rates of chronic offending in the 1960s ANS: A REF: 4-6 4. Wolfgang labeled members of the cohort a. delinquents and recidivists b. low, medium, and high-rate offenders c. nonoffenders, part-time offenders, and repeaters d. one-time offenders, nonchronic recidivists, and chronic delinquents ANS: D REF: 4-5—4-6 5. Wolfgang’s follow-up study using a 1958 cohort found a. offenders in the 1958 cohort began their criminal careers at an earlier age than the 1945 cohort b. a small percentage of the cohort was chronic recidivists, but they committed more and more serious crimes than the 1945 cohort c. the same pattern in chronic offending held for both boys and girls d. the original study was a fluke as similar patterns in chronic offending were not identified ANS: B REF: 4-7—4-8 6. Other cohort studies have found that a. chronic offending patterns in large urban areas differ drastically from those in small Midwestern communities b. the proportion of chronic offenders in a cohort increases as the proportion of minorities in an area increases c. a small group of offenders accounts for a high proportion of all crimes by the cohort d. chronic offending patterns in the U.S. are not found in other countries ANS: C REF: 4-9

7. One of the differences noted between the various cohort studies is that a. some rely on official records while others use self-report data b. some focus on violent offending while others focus on property offenses c. some emphasize the onset of criminal careers and others emphasize desistance from them d. some find chronic offending rates low as 5.8% and others as high as 9.5% in a cohort ANS: D REF: 4-7—4-8 8. Select the most accurate statement from the following list. a. criminal careers and career criminals are the same thing b. the prevalence of criminality refers to the rate at which criminals commit crimes c. persistence refers to the tendency for offenders to specialize in one type of crime d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: E REF: 4-9—4-10 9. The research studies discussed in this chapter have provided information on a. the prevalence of criminality and seriousness of offending b. the onset and desistance of criminal careers c. the persistence and desistance of criminal careers d. the frequency of offending and career length ANS: A REF: 4-7—4-9 10. Policies inspired by the career criminal research include which of the following? a. random police patrols, career criminal prosecution and job corps b. pretrial detention, selective incapacitation and intensive probation c. diversion, pretrial detention and electronic monitoring d. community policing, speedy trials and restitution ANS: B REF: 4-10—4-11 11. Some say timing is everything. Wolfgang’s original study was published at a time when a. the public was tired of getting tough and sought to prevent chronic offending b. the public was eager to explore responses to crime that existed outside the CJS c. crime rates had been rising and the public was disillusioned with liberal policies d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: C REF: 4-10

12. According to the text, the two serious problems involved in translating chronic offender research into policy include a. identifying the chronic offenders and when they begin their careers b. the conflict between preventing chronic offending versus punishing it c. determining what kinds of crime they commit and why they stop d. the prediction problem and estimating how much crime they commit ANS: D REF: 4-12 13. Questions about chronic offenders that remain unanswered include a. when do they begin their criminal careers and can we identify them early? b. how much and what kinds of crime do career criminals commit? c. how long do chronic offenders remain active and when do they stop? d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: D REF: 4-11 14. Traditionally, identification of repeat offenders was based on a. guesses that took seriousness and prior record into consideration b. finger prints and intensive surveillance c. prediction instruments based on characteristics of at-risk kids d. amount of time spent in jails in prisons ANS: A REF: 4-12 15. There are several basic methods for predicting criminal behavior including which of the following? a. the actuarial method which is similar to presentence investigations b. the prior history method that sentencing guidelines are based on c. the clinical evaluation method which insurance companies use d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: B REF: 4-13 16. The prediction instrument used in the Wenk study used which of the prediction methods? a. actuarial and clinical evaluation b. actuarial and prior history c. prior history and clinical evaluation d. actuarial, prior history and clinical evaluation ANS: C REF: 4-14

17. The prediction instrument used in the Wenk study a. identified more true positives than false negatives b. identified more true negatives than false negatives c. identified more false negatives than false positives d. identified more false positives than true positives ANS: D REF: 4-14 18. Select the most accurate statement regarding correct and incorrect predictions a. true positives are correctly identified as likely to commit a violent act b. false negatives are incorrectly predicted not to be violent c. false positives are incorrectly predicted as likely to become violent d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: D REF: 4-14 19. Predictions of future dangerousness in the Texas death row inmate study a. were wrong in 95% of the cases c. resulted in 155 wrongful executions b. were right in 20% of the cases d. incorrectly gave 8 life sentences for each correct death sentence ANS: A REF: 4-16 20. The prediction method that plays a role in the federal sentencing guidelines is a. actuarial c. clinical evaluation b. prior history d. all of the above ANS: B REF: 4-16—4-17 21. The problem with the Sentencing Commission study is that a. it ignores offenders’ prior histories b. it uses race as a factor to determine future dangerousness c. it is based on false evidence d. it gives only broad, instead of specific, predictions ANS: D REF: 4-16—4-17

22. The Sentencing Commission’s evaluation of federal sentencing guidelines tells us that a. this prediction instrument is more accurate at predicting chronic offending than what judges were able to do b. this carefully designed prediction instrument is currently the most accurate method for predicting chronic offending c. people with longer prior records are more likely to commit future crime than people with shorter prior records d. prediction instruments are unnecessary, because chronic offenders are easily identified based on prior record and the seriousness of offense ANS: C REF: 4-17 23. The Rand Inmate Survey used which prediction method? a. actuarial c. clinical evaluation b. prior history d. all of the above ANS: A REF: 4-17 24. Evaluations of the seven-point prediction scale generated by Rand found that a. it was correct 51% of the time but grossly wrong 7% of the time b. it produced twice as many correct predictions as judges were able to do c. it was able to predict chronic offending in juveniles more accurately than in adults d. it was highly racist which prevented an accurate evaluation of its effectiveness ANS: A REF: 4-17—4-18 25. Which of the following factors were NOT used in Rand’s seven-point prediction scale? a. incarceration c. employment b. Drug use d. race ANS: D REF: 4-17 26. The results of Rand’s second attempt at predicting career criminals were published in a report entitled a. Selective Incapacitation b. Reducing the Prediction Problem c. Why the High-Rate Offenders Are Hard to Predict d. Delinquency in a Birth Cohort ANS: C REF: 4-18 27. The results of Rand’s second study that attempted to predict career criminals showed

a. b. c. d.

that self-reporting is a valid predictive method that arrest rates alone cannot predict high rate offenders that self-reporting is effective only among offenders who have graduated high school that arrest rates are a useful prediction tool

ANS: B REF: 4-18—4-19 28. Estimates of annual offending rates from the Rand Inmate Survey are best described as a. low rates with consistent nationwide trends b. average rates with consistent nationwide trends c. high rates with state-to-state variations d. unable to assess due to the prediction problem ANS: C REF: 4-20 LO: 11 29. Various estimates of annual offending rates tell us that a. there is no average career criminal c. offenders average 50 felonies a year b. rates vary but within a narrow range d. official records provide the best estimates ANS: A REF: 4-21 30. Regarding the practical consequences of estimating annual offending rates to calculate the amount of crime reduction we will get a. if lambda is large then the payoff will be much lower b. if lambda is large then we can expect a substantial reduction in crime c. if lambda is low then we can expect a substantial reduction crime d. none of the above ANS: B REF: 4-20

SHORT ANSWER 1. Compare and contrast Wolgang’s cohort study with Shannon’s cohort studies.

REF: 4-5—4-9

2. Distinguish between a criminal career and career criminal. Include in your answer the terms and concepts, along with their definitions, that help in determining this difference.

REF: 4-9—4-10 3. Summarize the studies that have sought to assess the accuracy of predictions regarding criminal behavior, and note which prediction methods were used in each study.

REF: 4-13—4-19 4. Compare and contrast the relative accuracy of predictions made in the various studies in the chapter along with the accuracy of judges in predicting chronic offending.

REF: 4-12—4-19 5. Describe the variance between different estimates of annual offending rates.

REF: 4-19—4-21

Test Bank and Answer Key TRUE/FALSE 1. Nationally, there are 2.2 sworn officers per 1,000 people in the United States.

ANS: T REF: 5-3 2. The police-population ratio is meaningless as a measure of police effectiveness.

ANS: T REF: 5-3 3. The Kansas City Preventive Patrol experiment proved that the level of police patrol correlates to a deterrent effect.

ANS: F REF: 5-5 4. Crackdowns are a modern innovative policing strategy that are focused and draw on partnerships with noncriminal justice agencies.

ANS: F REF: 5-10—5-12 5. Faster response time would not produce more arrests because police are called to few crimes in progress.

ANS: T REF: 5-15—5-16 6. Problem-oriented policing is a get tough approach to policing characterized by a short burst of intensive law enforcement involving many arrests of “problem” people.

ANS: F REF: 5-18

7. The majority of arrests are made by detectives who solve the crime based on leads from the victim or a witness.

ANS: F REF: 5-31—5-33 8. There is reason to believe that the exclusionary rule has professionalized police.

ANS: T REF: 5-39 9. Despite the Miranda warning a substantial proportion of suspects waive their rights and confess to police.

ANS: T REF: 5-41—5-42 10. Felony suspects are typically young, well educated, and savvy at manipulating bureaucracies .

ANS: F REF: 5-42—5-43 11. Providing suspects with a Miranda warning results in a net effect of a significant loss of convictions.

ANS: F REF: 5-41—5-43 MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The idea of putting more police on the street is very popular with a. conservatives d. all of the above b. Caucasians e. none of the above c. African Americans ANS: A REF: 5-2

2. One of the myths about policing is that a. patrol is the backbone of policing b. single-officer patrols are most efficient c. hiring more police means more patrol officers will be on the street d. police create a phantom effect ANS: C REF: 5-3 3. Regarding the standard measure of the level of police protection a. it is computed by dividing the annual number of crimes by the number of sworn officers b. the figure is meaningless because it does not tell us how departments utilize their officers c. the police/population ratio is consistent nationwide due to a federal mandate d. research indicates that the larger number of sworn officers per 1,000 population, the safer the city ANS: B REF: 5-3 4. A review of 27 studies on the relationship between the number of police officers and the crime rate found a. in 20% of studies more police correlated with lower crime rates b. in 45% of studies more police correlated with higher crime rates c. in 55% of studies more police correlated with higher crime rates d. in 95% of studies more police correlated with lower crime rates ANS: A REF: 5-4 5. A major concern about COMPSTAT’s effectiveness in NYC is that a. its findings cannot be replicated b. it ignores the importance of community relations c. the police did not fully understand how to use the computer system d. there is no way to show that the crime drop was due to COMPSTAT and not to other factors ANS: D REF: 5-22 6. The strategy of “pulling levers” refers to a. using all potential violations by the target b. removing all barriers to police activity c. working with community leaders to reduce crime d. increasing the police/population ratio in social disorganized areas ANS: A REF: 5-25 7. The goal of predictive policing is to a. focus police efforts geographically and on social problems b. prevent crimes by foreseeing when and where they will happen

c. reduce crime by targeting specific repeat offenders d. increase the police/population ratio in socially disorganized areas ANS: B REF: 5-28 8. Effectively, predictive policing differs little from a. smart policing techniques that involve careful planning b. the effects of residual deterrence c. using common sense to prevent crime d. crackdowns and stop-and-frisk policies ANS: C REF: 5-28---5-29 9. The Cincinnati Initiative to Reduce Violence was more effective in the long term than the Boston Gun Project because it a. focused on a lower-crime area b. created an organizational structure designed to ensure its continuity c. maintained long-term relationships between police officers and gang members d. relied on careful planning and a focus on specific people, locations and crimes ANS: B REF: 5-26 10. The Kansas City experiment found that a. the level of patrol has no effect on crime b. more police can reduce crime, but it is costly c. single-officer patrols are more efficient than two-officer patrols d. crime rates are correlated with police/population ratios ANS: A REF: 5-5 11. Residual deterrence refers to a. the invisibility of police patrols since they are spread so thin b. the absence of a deterrent effect from policing where one would be expected c. the myth that two-officer patrol are safer than single-officer patrols d. the tendency to think there are more police patrolling because we remember seeing them ANS: D REF: 99 LO: 5

12. In the Kansas City experiment, _____(1)_____ beats received no routine patrol while _____(2)_____ beats received two or three times the normal level of patrol. a. (1) control (2) proactive c. (1) reactive (2) control b. (1) proactive (2) reactive d. (1) reactive (2) proactive ANS: D REF: 5-5 13.

Deterrence requires which of the following factors? a. legitimate opportunities and serious penalties b. perceived threat and rational decision-making c. quick positive feedback and slow negative feedback d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: B REF: 5-7

14. The extensive use of CCTV as a crime fighting tool is used where? a. United States c. Canada b. England d. France ANS: B REF: 5-9 15. In assessing the deterrent effect of CCTV, it was most effective for a. property crimes overall b. violent crimes overall c. property crimes in specific locations d. violent crimes with significant others ANS: C REF: 5-9 16. A short burst of intensive law enforcement, involving many arrests, directed toward a particular area or a particular crime is known as what? a. problem-oriented policing c. SMART policing b. Crackdown d. Deterrent ANS: B REF: 5-10—5-11

17. Problems of crackdowns noted in the chapter include which of the following? a. they have been found to actually decrease deterrence b. they do not achieve the goals of community policing c. they are unfocused and encourage police misconduct d. they are expensive and do not result in more arrests ANS: C REF: 5-11—5-12 18. Some issues associated with the antidrug crackdown known as Operation Pressure Point were a. crime displacement into neighboring communities and police misconduct b. adaptation of drug dealers to the police strategies and the cost effectiveness of arrests c. the replacement of arrested offenders with another motivated offender d. all of the above ANS: D REF: 5-11—5-12 19. Faster response time will NOT produce more arrests because a. police are called to few crimes in progress and in many cases the victim can identify the suspect because they are acquaintances b. faster response time is correlated with an increase in police vehicle crashes which actually slows response time c. nationwide averages indicate that police already arrive on scene within seven minutes of being dispatched to a call d. it is detectives and their collection of blood, hairs and fibers that solve crimes not the speed with which patrol officers arrive on scene ANS: A REF: 5-16 20. Faster police response potentially makes a difference in ____ percent of crime calls: a. ten b. three c. twenty-five d. .01 ANS: B REF: 5-16 21. Policing strategies that involve careful planning, are data driven, and focus on particular crimes, locations, and suspects are known as a. COPS c. Smart policing b. COMPSTAT d. Zero ANS: C REF: 5-17 22. The program that mobilized officials from housing fire and public works to target drug hot spots in Oakland, CA is what type of policing program? a. scanning, analysis, response, assessment c. zero tolerance

b. Crackdown

d. problem oriented

ANS: D REF: 5-18 23. The major significance of the smart policing initiatives is a. their routine use of crackdowns and faster response time b. their evidence that police activity can diminish crime c. their focus on zero-tolerance strategies and holding precinct commanders accountable for crime trends in their area by providing immediate crime data through regular meetings d. their use of hiring, innovative and technology grants in order to increase the number of college-educated and well-paid police officers ANS: B REF: 5-17—5-18 24. Stop-and-frisk policies have the following impact on the social ledger: a. they erode trust in the police c. they contribute to community growth b. they increase poverty and homelessness d. they improve police-community relations ANS: A REF: 5-15

25. A Hot Spots experiment in Jersey City, NJ resulted in a. reduced crime in the targeted areas, but increased crime in the surrounding neighborhoods b. an increase in violent gun crimes among young men c. no significant changes d. decreased crime in both the targeted areas and surrounding neighborhoods e. none of the above ANS: D REF: 5-20

26. Solving crimes depends more on _____(1)_____ than on _____(2)_____. a. (1) faster response time (2) the number of sworn officers in a department b. (1) the policing strategy (2) existing relationships between the victim and offender c. (1) characteristics of the crime (2) the number of detectives d. (1) the clearance rate (2) blood samples and hair specimens ANS: C REF: 5-32 27. The key to solving crimes and making arrests is? a. response time c. information on a specific suspect b. media coverage d. detectives ANS: C REF: 5-32 28. Select from the following the most accurate statement. a. the typical case gets an average of about 40 hours of detective work b. detectives solved 86 percent of cases where a suspect was immediately identified and cleared an additional 12 percent through fingerprints, blood samples and hair specimens c. between 80 and 90 percent of all arrests are made by detectives instead of patrol officers d. between 60 and 80 percent of all arrests are made by patrol officers instead of detectives ANS: D REF: 5-32 29. The usefulness of fingerprints in solving crimes is indicated by what factual evidence? a. New York City police obtain usable prints in only about 10 percent of all burglaries b. suspects in Long Beach, CA are identified through fingerprints in 75% of cases c. the FBI database contains fingerprints of only 200 million individuals d. fingerprints have only increased the clearance rate from 12% to 15% ANS: A REF: 5-33 30. According to Harris, the problem with the fingerprint identification system in the U.S. is that a. it is illegal to collect fingerprints in several states b. the FBI database holds the fingerprints of only a small percentage of the population c. there is no official standard for the number of corresponding points to match prints d. the Miranda law prevents timely collection of evidence ANS: C REF: 110 LO: 17

31. According to conservatives, procedural rules a. are necessary to fight crime b. have handcuffed the police c. are a cost-effective way to selectively incapacitate chronic offenders d. encourage police corruption ANS: B REF: 5-35 32. According to Walker, a major drawback to drone use is a. that the expense does not justify their use b. their potential to increase crimes of theft and larceny c. the carbon footprint left by the drones d. the inefficiency of the lost contact between the police and the public ANS: D REF: 5-30 33. The exclusionary rule was established in which Supreme Court case? a. United States v. Leon b. Miranda v. Arizona c. Mapp v. Ohio d. New York v. Quarles ANS: C REF: 5-36 34. The purpose of the exclusionary rule is to a. protect suspects against self-incrimination b. deter police misconduct and protect individuals from it c. strengthen the relationship between police and prosecutors d. make improperly seized evidence inadmissible in federal court ANS: B REF: 5-36 35. The exclusionary rule mainly impacts what type of cases? a. commercial robbery c. robbery b. drug possession d. sexual assault ANS: B REF: 5-37

36. One of the reasons the exclusionary rule has such limited impact is that a. most defendants agree to a plea bargain before relying on this loophole b. most judges are on the side of the police not the defendant c. a good lead about a suspect solves more crimes than physical evidence d. it does not apply until a suspect is questioned rather than at the time of an arrest ANS: C REF: 5-37 37. The impact of the exclusionary rule a. is pervasive considering the fact that 80% of school children recognize it b. ranges from 48-90% of cases c. is stronger in violent cases but is more limited in cases of property crime d. is limited because few motions to suppress physical evidence are made and even fewer are successful ANS: D REF: 5-37 38. When it comes to invoking the exclusionary rule, judges a. vary in their willingness to use it c. in 49 of 50 states are unwilling to use it b. are almost all willing to use it d. choose to disregard it ANS: A REF: 5-38 39. The positive impact of the exclusionary rule a. was offset by weakened relationships between police and prosecutors b. has improved the professionalism of police work c. is that it increased the number of convictions made through improperly seized evidence d. there is no positive impact of the exclusionary rule ANS: B REF: 5-39 LO: 20 40. Most defense lawyers do not file motions to suppress the evidence because a. they do not believe their motions will be accepted b. they have little time to devote to any one case c. they do not accept the validity of the exclusionary rule d. none of the above ANS: B REF: 37-38 41. The Miranda warning a. is used in roughly 80% of cases, but is only used successfully in 10% b. provides a remedy for the rule set fourth in the 4th Amendment to the Constitution c. includes a right to remain silent and the right to a retained or appointed attorney

d. includes a right to an attorney of the suspect’s choice ANS: C REF: 5-40 42. The Miranda warning must be given a. whenever a suspect is in custody b. once probable cause is determined

c. at the moment of arrest d. before questioning

ANS: D REF: 5-40 43. Critics of Miranda argue that we should NOT look at the number of _____(1)_____ but at the number of _____(2)_____ due to Miranda or violations of it. a. (1) confessions police do not get (2) convictions overturned b. (1) convictions overturned (2) confessions police do not get c. (1) confessions police get (2) confessions police do not get d. (1) convictions overturned (2) convictions ANS: B REF: 5-41 44. The net effect is that Miranda results in a “loss” of convictions how frequently? a. less than 5% of the time b. between 10% and 15% of the time c. between 20% and 25% of the time d. half of the time ANS: A REF: 5-41

45. Research on Miranda in operation shows that many suspects __________ their Miranda rights. a. clearly understand b. acted on c. demanded protection for d. waived ANS: D REF: 5-41---5-42

46. According to Walker, suspects may waive their Miranda rights because they a. are skilled at manipulating the criminal justice system b. feel they have been wrongfully arrested c. feel guilty or hope to get a better deal in a plea bargain d. are intoxicated ANS: C REF: 5-42 47. One reason that suspects often cooperate with the police is that the typical robber a. believes that cooperation will avert arrest b. is searching for approval c. is impulsive and disorganized d. is crafty and manipulative ANS: C REF: 5-42---5-43 SHORT ANSWER 1. Defend the argument that simply hiring more police will not reduce crime using findings from the Kansas City and Newark studies.

REF: 5-4—5-8 2. Explain how carefully planned and focused policing strategies can be successful in reducing crime and disorder. Provide an example.

REF: 5-17—5-27 3. Summarize the reasons why more police might not enhance the deterrent effect.

REF: 5-4—5-8 4. Appraise the argument that the exclusionary rule handcuffs police.

REF: 5-36—5-39 5. Defend the argument that the Miranda warning has not reduced confessions.

REF: 5-40—5-43

Test Bank and Answer Key TRUE/FALSE 1. Liberals typically favor deterrence-oriented policies because they favor prevention.

ANS: F REF: 6-1 2. Scared Straight programs are designed to deter by provoking fear in order to make crime seem more costly than beneficial to juveniles.

ANS: T REF: 6-14—6-15

3. The “pulling levers” strategy has been shown to be effective in deterring crime because it is focused on select targets.

ANS: T REF: 6-8 4. The fatalistic offender assumes that they will escape arrest and reap the rewards that crime has to offer.

ANS: F REF: 6-13 5.

An analysis of Rand Inmate Survey data revealed that the inmates acted rationally in calculating the costs and benefits of crime.

ANS: T REF: 6-13—6-14

6. To this date, Ehrlich’s is the only high quality death penalty research that proves the death penalty deters murder.

ANS: F REF: 6-18

7. Walker proposes that the death penalty does not deter homicides.

ANS: T REF: 6-20 8. The typical victim in an alcohol-related crash is the drunk driver who has no criminal justice record of drunk driving.

ANS: T REF: 6-23 9. Crackdowns are an effective strategy that deters drunk driving for a long period of time.

ANS: F REF: 6-25 10. Walker credits much of the decline in the motor vehicle death rate to social policies rather than criminal justice policies.

ANS: T REF: 6-31—6-33 .

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The theory of deterrence a. is the oldest criminal justice theory on record b. is one of the youngest criminal justice theories on record c. is simple but its application to actual practice is complex d. is complex in its requirements but simple to practice ANS: C REF: 6-1 2. It is important to distinguish between a. the costs and benefits of deterrence based policies in the criminal justice system b. the deterrent effect of the criminal law and the effect of other social institutions c. ineffective traditional forms of deterrence and effective modern forms of deterrence d. the deterrent effect and the effects of prevention-based criminal justice policies ANS: B REF: 6-2

3. The theory of deterrence rests on a number of assumptions including a. severity of punishment is more important than its certainty b. the notion that the CJS is the only institution able to promote deterrence c. the use of UCR data to communicate risk of apprehension to potential offenders d. people have to perceive consequences as unpleasant and act rationally ANS: D REF: 6-3—6-4 4. _____(1)_____ deterrence is directed at individual offenders while _____(2)_____ deterrence is directed at society as a whole a. (1) specific (2) general c. (1) absolute (2) marginal b. (1) general (2) specific d. (1) marginal (2) absolute ANS: A REF: 6-5 5. This deterrence type refers to a relative improvement over what we are currently achieving a. perceptual b. structural c. marginal d. general ANS: C REF: 6-5 6. One of the reasons for being skeptical about how effectively deterrence-oriented policies are translated into practice is that a. these policies are interpreted differently by police than they are by the courts b. they are typically avoided by liberal courtroom work groups c. we haven’t had the funding to implement these policies as intended d. the social stigma attached to crime commission is lost given frequent arrests of African American males ANS: D REF: 6-11 7. Evaluations of Scared Straight programs revealed that a. they were not implemented as intended b. none of them reduced crime and some had adverse outcomes c. they were not cost-effective d. they deterred more chronic offenders than first-time offenders ANS: B REF: 6-14—6-15

8. Programs known as __________ exposed juveniles to prison conditions in order to provide direct evidence of the unpleasant consequences of criminal behavior. a. Brutalization Experience c. Scared Straight b. Magic Bullet d. Diversion ANS: C REF: 6-14---6-15 9. Liberal policy makers favor a. Eliminating all deterrence-based policies b. Crackdowns, for their deterrent effect

c. Explaining the results of crime to teens d. Investing in social policies

ANS: D REF: 6-10---6-11 10.

Reasons provided to explain why offenders commit crime when they assess the bad consequences include ALL BUT WHICH of the following a. offenders consistently underestimate financial rewards of crime b. offenders act impulsively c. offenders perceive no legitimate or meaningful work opportunities d. offenders overestimate the immediate, short-term gains ANS: A REF: 6-13

11.

The real risk of arrest and punishment is a. Almost impossible to assess b. High in rural areas, low in cities c. Fairly low d. High in cities, low in rural areas ANS: C REF: 6-11

12. The pulling levers strategy focuses on a. b. c. d.

all potential offenders of property and violent crimes offenders and associates known to police offenders in prison who committed a gun-related crime offenders who are sex offenders

ANS: B REF: 6-8

13. The key elements of “pulling levers” that demonstrate how it is a focused application of deterrence include ALL BUT WHICH of the following a. b. c. d.

a focus on a select target group a message that was clearly heard by the target audience delivering on the threats and promises made relying on the perceptions of people in the community

ANS: D REF: 6-8 14. The larger “regime” of punishments for homicide includes all EXCEPT the following a. Financial aid to pursue a GED b. Escaping arrest c. The death penalty d. Life without parole ANS: B REF: 6-10 15. The risk of arrest for drug sales is a. 1 in every 45 sales b. 1 in every 10,000 sales c. 1 in every 4,500 sales d. 1 in every 500 sales ANS: C REF: 6-12 16. Sellin’s comparative research showed that a. homicide rates increased in states when they abolished their death penalty and decreased when it was reinstated b. each execution deterred seven or eight murders c. states with the death penalty did not have lower crime rates than states that did not have the death penalty d. homicides decreased in the months following an execution ANS: C REF: 6-17—6-18 LO: 9

17. Ehrlich’s research purported to prove that a. each execution deterred seven or eight murders b. each execution contributed to an additional seven or eight murders c. each execution deterred 17 or 18 murders d. each execution contributed to an additional 17 or 18 murders ANS: A REF: 6-18 18. Critics of Ehrlich’s death penalty research assert that his formula a. does not control of the variables that affect the murder rate b. explains trends between the 1930s and 1960s but does not explain trends between the 1980s and 1990s c. does not explain trends between the 1930s and 1960s when executions declined while the crime rate declined or remained stable d. cannot explain trends during the moratorium on the death penalty from 1972-1976 ANS: C REF: 6-18 19. The National Academy of Science’s report has shown a. the death penalty has a strong deterrence effect on crime b. the death penalty has moral and constitutional properties c. there is no conclusive evidence on the deterrent effect of the death penalty d. the death penalty affects the murder rate ANS: C REF: 6-19 20. The three issues regarding the merits of the death penalty are morality, constitutionality and ________. a. rationality c. deterrence b. severity d. relevance ANS: C REF: 6-17 21. According to the National Academy of Science’s research, one serious conceptual and empirical flaws in virtually all of the studies on the death penalty is a. the exclusion of the possibility of clemency b. the inclusion of other punishments, such as prison terms c. failure to consider studies from other countries d. the exclusion of potential murderers’ response to the risk of execution ANS: D REF: 6-19

22.

Which Supreme Court decision upheld the constitutionality of the death penalty where there were guidelines to control its application? a. Gregg vs. Georgia b. Furman vs. Georgia c. Sellin vs. New York d. Lovett vs. Virginia ANS: A REF: 6-17

23. Current data indicate that a. 31% of all traffic fatalities are caused by impaired drunk drivers b. 31% of all traffic fatalities are alcohol related c. 31,000 people are killed each year by drunk drivers d. 31% of drivers who have consumed alcohol are impaired by it ANS: B REF: 6-21 24. Select the drunk driving myth from the following list a. people with a serious drinking problem and many arrests frequently beat the system b. alcohol related does not mean alcohol was the cause of the accident c. most drivers killed in alcohol-related crashes do not have a history of drunk driving d. the criminal justice system is tough on drunk drivers ANS: A REF: 6-22 25. The reality of driving after drinking is that a. it is limited to a few dangerous people b. innocent bystanders are the typical victims of alcohol-related crashes c. a small number of people with serious drinking problems and many arrests are responsible for the majority of alcohol-related fatalities d. drinking and driving is a routine part of a society where driving is universal and drinking is an acceptable social custom ANS: D REF: 6-21---6-22 26. It is a myth to think that innocent drivers or bystanders are the typical victims of alcohol related crashes when faced with evidence from the chapter that a. 66% of people killed have at least three prior drunk driving arrests b. 66% of people killed are drivers in other cars, some of whom were impaired by alcohol c. 66% of people killed are the drunk drivers themselves d. innocent drivers or bystanders are the typical victims of alcohol related crashes ANS: C REF: 6-23 27. Among the myths concerning drunk driving is a. that those with serious drinking problems beat the system

b. a grossly exaggerated bi-annual number of deaths due to drunk driving c. innocent drivers and bystanders are typically the victims of alcohol-related crashes d. all of the above ANS: D REF: 6-20---6-21 28. There are several reasons for thinking that tougher punishment is likely to work with drunk driving, including the fact that a. the certainty requirement is already being met so a more severe punishment will strengthen the deterrent effect b. the drunk driver meets all of the assumptions set forth in the theory of deterrence c. people who drink and drive have a stake in society and feel threatened by the stigma of arrest d. a & c ANS: C REF: 6-24 29. The Road Safety Act in England demonstrated a. initial deterrence decay as there was a decline in traffic fatalities and injuries upon implementation of the law that increased over time b. a deterrence program based in fear that has a zero-tolerance policy for any traffic infraction c. the failure of interlock breathalyzer systems in cars d. how access to public transportation reduces drinking and driving ANS: A REF: 6-25 30. The announcement effect may change the behavior of a. the public, but not the police c. the police, but not the public b. the public and the police d. neither the public or the police ANS: B REF: 6-25---6-26 31. One of the main problems with drunk driving crackdowns is that a. they require long-term behavior change b. they are unconstitutional c. the risk of arrest is extremely low d. people avoid them by taking side streets ANS: C REF: 6-26

32. One of the factors undermining the deterrent effect of a crackdown on drunk driving cases in court is that a. the punishment is delayed so the speedy element of deterrence goes unmet b. offenders do not perceive the consequences as unpleasant c. crackdowns reduce the specific deterrent while increasing the general deterrent d. mandatory sentences may be evaded ANS: D REF: 6-28 33. Data on evasion of the law in drunk driving cases shows that a. it is more common among prosecutors than judges b. evasions may be deliberate or unintentional c. evasion of drunk driving laws is universal d. evasion does not occur ANS: B REF: 6-29 34. Traffic fatality trends reveal that a. the motor vehicle death rate has declined since 1927 including a 37% decline between 2003 and 2011 b. crackdowns are credited with 50% of the decline in the motor vehicle death rate c. the motor vehicle death rate has declined but drunk drivers have switched to motorcycles d. the motor vehicle death rate has increased dramatically since the 1980s ANS: A REF: 6-30—6-31 35. Explanations for the trends in motor vehicle death rates include a. safer cars b. changing attitudes and behavior due to socialization c. limited driving privileges for teens and raising the legal drinking age to 21 d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: D REF: 6-32—6-33

36. Walker proposes that a. crackdowns and tougher penalties are the most effective means for reducing drunk driving and traffic fatalities b. criminal law strategies have more promise for reducing drunk driving and traffic fatalities c. a combination of criminal law and alternative strategies can effectively reduce drunk driving and traffic fatalities d. drunk driving and fatalities cannot be reduced ANS: C REF: 6-37—6-38 SHORT ANSWER 1. Describe the assumptions that must be met in order for deterrence-oriented policies to be effective.

REF: 6-3—6-6 2. Explain which of the assumptions of deterrence are and are not being met according to research on people’s perceptions of a deterrent.

REF: 6-8—6-14 3.

Defend the claim that the death penalty does not produce a deterrent effect.

REF: 6-17—6-19

4.

.

Describe the various myths that surround drunk driving.

REF: 6-20—6-21

5.

Discuss the effectiveness of criminal justice enforcement and alternative strategies for reducing drunk driving and traffic fatalities.

REF: 6-22—6-37

Test Bank and Answer Key TRUE/FALSE 1. Incarceration strategies seek to limit the discretion of judges who are viewed by conservatives as lenient bleeding hearts.

ANS: T REF: 7-1 2. Prosecutors refuse to set bail higher than the minimum amount required in bail guidelines.

ANS: F REF: 7-5—7-6 3. Statistics show that the majority of felony defendants released prior to trial return for their court date.

ANS: F REF: 7-8 4. Pretrial drug testing did not help to predict rearrests for those persons on bail.

ANS: T REF: 7-9 5. Selective incapacitation proved to be a better crime control measure than gross incapacitation.

ANS: F REF: 7-13—7-14 6. One of the major issues with Zedlewski’s study was not taking into consideration the replacement factor ANS: T REF: 7-20

7. Accurate estimates of crime reduction due to gross incapacitation should take into consideration the law of diminishing returns as well as the replacement effect.

ANS: T REF: 7-19—7-20 8. Overall, the Nation’s Toughest Drug law had no significant effect on crime and drug use.

ANS: T REF: 7-27 9. Mandatory sentencing, such as three strikes and sentencing guidelines, is not an effective means of reducing serious crime.

ANS: T REF: 7-35 10. Current sex offender and registration laws focus on the most dangerous sex offenders who engage in the rape and kidnapping of children.

ANS: F REF: 7-43—7-44

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Getting criminals off the street by locking them up is what type of strategy? a. liberal b. the standard U.S. strategy c. traditionally liberal, but now conservative d. traditionally conservative, but now liberal ANS: B REF: 7-1

2. In the 1970s, public opinion about preventive detention began to change, leading to the following: a. courtroom work groups decided that preventive detention for juveniles was unconstitutional b. the majority of offenders arrested were not charged c. courtroom work groups began locking up allegedly dangerous offenders d. judges started releasing most offenders on bail ANS: C REF: 7-6 3. One of the factors that contributed to the first bail reform movement was a. the get tough mood b. the great rise in serious crime c. an innovative way to release defendants on their own recognizance (ROR) d. research findings that defendants not released on bail were more likely to be convicted and imprisoned ANS: D REF: 7-4 4. The first bail reform movement resulted in a. a decrease in the percentage of people held in jail awaiting trial b. an increase in the percentage of people held in jail awaiting trial c. the removal of employment status as a criterion for bail d. the addition of employment status as a criterion for bail ANS: A REF: 7-4 5. By the 1980s public support for preventive detention a. Was justified by a string of serial killers on the loose b. had declined c. Was widespread d. the public has never supported preventive detention ANS: C REF: 7-6 6. The 1970 District of Columbia preventive detention law was a. the kick off for America’s imprisonment boom b. used by judges to hold all felony defendants for 120 days c. implemented in all states by 1976 d. nullified by prosecutors by setting bail at a level beyond a defendant’s financial means ANS: D REF: 7-5

7. For what reason was the 1970 District of Columbia preventive detention law rarely used? a. it was found to be unconstitutional within the first year that it was implemented b. federal prosecutors chose not to use it and continued setting high bail for defendants they wanted to detain c. bleeding heart judges continued to release defendants without prosecuting and punishing them d. it was actually used extensively and resulted in a major increase in our nation’s prison population ANS: B REF: 7-5 8. As a result of the 1984 Bail Reform Act a. the method of detention shifted b. the overall detention rate increased c. pretrial crime declined dramatically d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: A REF: 7-6 9. Select the most accurate statement regarding crime committed by felony defendants in large urban counties who are released prior to trial. a. 10% were rearrested for a misdemeanor b. 11% were rearrested for a felony c. 60% were rearrested for a felony d. 45% were rearrested for a misdemeanor ANS: B REF: 7-8 10. Regarding pretrial drug testing as a method for predicting crime on bail a. except for marijuana use it did not help predict arrests b. except for cocaine use it did not help predict arrests c. except for heroin use it did not help predict arrests d. it has been found unconstitutional ANS: C REF: 7-9

11. A natural experiment in predicting the dangerousness of juveniles revealed that a. some prediction instruments are can effectively identify only high risk offenders b. there were five true positives for every false positive c. judges were remarkably inaccurate in identifying which juveniles were high risk and which were low risk d. judges were reasonably accurate in identifying high risk juveniles at the expense of a high rate of false positives ANS: D REF: 7-10—7-11 12. Walker proposes that preventive detention __________ reduce __________ crime. a. (1) will (2) minor b. (1) will not (2) serious c. (1) will (2) serious d. (1) will not (2) minor ANS: B REF: 7-11 13. Regarding speedy trials, Walker points out that a. speedy trials can reduce failure to appear b. speedy trials can reduce crime c. the courtroom workgroup evades speedy trial laws d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: D REF: 7-12 14. The crime policy of incapacitation a. seeks to reduce crime by imprisoning offenders b. seeks to reduce crime by imprisoning offenders and rehabilitating them c. seeks to reduce crime by imprisoning offenders and seeks to specifically deter them d. All of the above e. none of the above ANS: A REF: 7-13

15. A policy designed to lock up only the few high-rate offenders or career criminals is known as a. pretrial detention b. preventive detention c. selective incapacitation d. gross incapacitation ANS: C REF: 7-14 16. Locking up large numbers of offenders regardless of their criminal histories is a. deterrence b. mandatory sentencing c. selective incapacitation d. mass incarceration ANS: D REF: 7-14 17. The political reality is that we have completely ignored ____(1)______ in favor of ____(2)______. a. (1) mass incarceratoin (2) rehabilitation b. (1) deterrence (2) incapacitation c. (1) gross incapacitation (2) mandatory sentences d. (1) selective incapacitation (2) mass incarceration ANS: D REF: 7-13---7-14 18. One of the criticisms leveled against Zedlewski’s conclusions was that a. He suggested that a reduction in crime produces a direct reduction in CJS costs b. He only analyzed data on gross, but not selective incapacitation strategies c. He was working for a liberal organization at the time of his research d. He deliberately used incorrect statistical analyses to draw his conclusions ANS: A REF: 7-19 19. Zedlewski calculated that a. it takes 20 years of being on an imprisonment binge before crime will be reduced b. Each dollar spent imprisoning a criminal saves $17 in total social costs c. if fully implemented, three-strikes sentencing in California would reduce crime by 15% d. The financial investment in incarceration is unwise because incarceration does not reduce the crime rate ANS: B REF: 7-18

20. A cross-state comparison of changes in incarceration rates and crime rates in 17 states showed that a. As incarceration rates increased crime rates decreased b. states that spent more money on corrections had lower crime rates c. increases in incarceration rates reduced crime in the South, but not in the West d. No clear patterned relationship between incarceration rates and crime rates existed ANS: D REF: 7-21 21. One problem with Durlauf and Nagin’s proposal to apply the savings from a reduced prison population to innovative police programs is that a. the police are uncooperative in c. Criminologists are unlikely to develop the implementing innovative programs tools to determine who would benefit from selective incapacitation b. the new incarceration policy bears signs d. the plan would require a significant of racial and ethnic disparity increase in social services costs ANS: C REF: 7-23 22. A strategy for preventing crime that requires a prison sentence or specifies the least amount of time that must be served is known as what? a. mandatory sentencing c. preventive detention b. specific incapacitation d. truth in sentencing ANS: A REF: 7-24 23. An evaluation of the Rockefeller Drug law found that a. Heroin dealers were deterred by the nation’s toughest drug law b. due to the mandatory sentencing provisions truth in sentencing was achieved c. slippage resulted in a decline of arrests leading to indictments and convictions d. a diffusion of benefits reduced trafficking of cocaine and marijuana as well ANS: C REF: 7-26—7-27 24. The Nation’s Toughest Drug Law provides an example of a. bleeding heart liberal judges who are too lenient with convicted offenders b. How mandatory sentencing laws lead to early dismissals and increases in sentencing delays c. a cost-effective way to achieve incapacitation, deterrence and rehabilitation d. racial discrimination that can occur in any part of the criminal justice system ANS: B

REF: 7-27 25. The most current reforms to the Rockefeller drug law impacted penalties in various ways, including ALL BUT WHICH of the following? a. eliminated mandatory sentencing for certain classes of first time drug-related felonies b. allowed for resentencing of certain offenders incarcerated for drug-related offenses c. allowed judges to sentence those convicted to probation or alternative treatment programs d. mandated the incarceration of all persons convicted of felony drug offenses ANS: D REF: 7-28—7-29 26.

Federal Sentencing Guidelines are an example of a. preventive detention c. mandatory sentences b. selective incapacitation d. arbitrary sentencing ANS: C REF: 7-31

27.

The 2011 U.S. Sentencing Commission report found that a. the number of offenses carrying a c. There are disparities in applying the mandatory minimums mandatory minimum sentence had

halved between 1991 and 2010 b. One third of the convictions with a mandatory sentence involved drug trafficking

d. a minority of federal judges thought

mandatory sentences were “too high”

ANS: C REF: 7-33 28. Which of the following statements about life without parole is accurate? a. By 2012, one in nine U.S. prisoners d. LWOP sentences achieve a significant amount of crime reduction was serving a life term b. Two states account for more than half

(58 percent) of all the LWOP prisoners c. Courtroom work groups have wholeheartedly accepted the LWOP laws ANS: A REF: 7-33—7-34 29. The basic concept behind __________ is a mandatory life prison sentence for anyone convicted of a third felony. a. preventive detention c. chronic offenders guidelines b. selective incapacitation d. three strikes laws

ANS: D REF: 7-35 30. Three strikes laws are criticized for a. violating the principle of selective c. being crude instruments in the fight incapacitation against crime reduction b. not focusing on the most serious offenders d. all of the above ANS: D REF: 7-36—7-37 LO: 20 31. An evaluation of California’s three strikes law found that it a. Sent few people to prison for long terms, but more than expected b. selectively incapacitated only the most violent repeat offenders c. did not produce the intended reduction in crime d. reduced sentencing disparities through its mandatory provisions ANS: C REF: 7-39 32. The three strikes law in California a. Cost $6.5 billion to implement b. disproportionately affected people convicted of non-violent offenses c. reduced Index crimes below levels expected given the downward trend d. all of the above ANS: B REF: 7-38 33. Walker argues that three strikes laws a. are a classic example of overreaction to celebrated cases b. are arbitrary because they are not consistently implemented c. do not reduce crime d. all of the above ANS: D REF: 7-39—7-40 34. Advocates of sex offender registration and notification laws believe a. the laws will help police arrest and keep c. sex offenders reoffend at a high rate an eye on the sex offenders b. surveillance will deter sex offenders d. all of the above

ANS: D REF: 7-42 35. Registration and notification laws do not protect society from potential sex offenders because a. the majority of victims know the person who abused them b. the majority of sex offenders do not reoffend c. the majority of sex offenders do not register d. both a and b ANS: D REF: 7-43 36. Sex offender registration and notification laws pose a number of consequences, among them are a. the inclusion of persons who commit public order crimes, such as exposure and prostitution b. limiting the areas where registered sex offenders can live and impact the availability of treatment c. the failure to protect society from sex offenders given how they meet victims d. all of the above ANS: D REF: 7-43—7-46

SHORT ANSWER 1. Explain the role that the prediction problem plays in preventive detention by discussing pretrial detention and the natural experiment.

REF: 7-8—7-11 2. Compare and contrast the impact of the Washington D.C. preventive detention law with the Federal Bail Reform Act. REF: 7-3—7-7 3. Explain how mandatory sentencing laws are affected by courtroom work groups.

REF: 7-34—7-41 4. Discuss the detrimental effects, if any, of the three-strikes law.

REF: 7-37—7-41 5. Discuss why the sex offender registration and notification laws do not protect society from serious, potential sex offenders.

REF: 7-43—7-46

Test Bank and Answer Key TRUE/FALSE 1. According to the text, career criminal prosecution programs are an effective yet tough strategy.

ANS: F REF: 8-5---8-6 2. The insanity defense is raised in fewer than 1% of all criminal indictments.

ANS: T REF: 8-8 3. The insanity defense is considered a loophole because its successful use results in less time confined in a mental hospital than comparable guilty offenders spend in prison.

ANS: F REF: 8-10 4. The key issue with the insanity defense is the mens rea requirement that must be established in order to prove the defendant is guilty of the crime.

ANS: T REF: 8-12 5. One problem with sending more mentally ill people to prison through GBMI verdicts is that prisons cannot handle their current inmates with mental problems.

ANS: T REF: 8-15 6. GBMI is more a symbolic gesture than an effective reform of the system for mentally ill offenders.

ANS: T REF: 8-15---8-16 7. Conservatives see plea bargaining as a loophole while liberals believe it is a source of injustice.

ANS: T REF: 8-18

8. The ban on plea bargaining in Alaska proved that dangerous offenders had previously been beating the system.

ANS: F REF: 8-22 9. Formal rules on plea negotiations in King County increased the efficiency of case handling, although it did not significantly impact case handling.

ANS: T REF: 8-27 10. Conservatives believe post-conviction appeals allow offenders to escape punishment while liberals feel the possibility of recognizing error is a virtue of appeals.

ANS: T REF: 8-34 11. Limiting appeals positively impacts the rate of serious crimes.

ANS: F REF: 8-39

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The process of using one prosecutor to charge a defendant and then passing the case onto another prosecutor to try the case is called a. original defense c. vertical prosecution b. horizontal prosecution d. affirmative defense ANS: B REF: 8-1 2. Research findings that compared special prosecutions and traditional prosecutions found a. traditional prosecution eliminated plea bargains and improved conviction rates b. strength of the evidence and the likelihood of conviction shaped decisions for both prosecution officers c. special prosecution improved the conviction rate significantly d. special prosecution closed the loopholes that allow serious offenders to beat the system ANS: B REF: 8-2---8-3 3. The career criminal prosecution program in San Diego was characterized by

a. b. c. d.

elimination of both plea bargains and split sentences elimination of bail and restrictions on plea bargaining continuity of prosecution and restrictions on plea bargaining restrictions on split sentences and pretrial surveillance

ANS: C REF: 8-3 4. An evaluation of the San Diego Major Violator Unit found that a. the rate of failure to appear was zero and conviction rates increased dramatically b. the percentage of offenders convicted and sent to prison increased slightly c. the percentage of convicted offenders increased dramatically d. San Diego was soft on career criminals prior to the intense prosecution program ANS: B REF: 8-4 5. Many misunderstand split sentencing and believe a. sentences are split between rehabilitation and incapacitation and offenders are beating the system b. split sentences are just another word for probation where offenders are not actually incarcerated c. the criminal justice system is tough because split sentences include incarceration to jail and then prison d. the criminal justice system is weaker than it actually is if only accounting for offenders sentenced to prison and excluding split sentences ANS: D REF: 8-4 6. The reason why career criminal prosecution programs do not dramatically increase conviction rates and prison sentences is because a. the criminal justice system is already tough on repeat offenders who have committed a serious crime b. the courtroom work group tends to evade career criminal prosecution programs and dismisses these cases early on c. the courtroom work group tends to make decisions based on their local going rate which includes many plea bargains to lesser charges not covered in the programs d. All of the above e. none of the above ANS: A REF: 8-5 7. In the early 1980s __________ sparked a national outcry and changes to laws on the insanity defense. a. news coverage of the inhumane treatment of people in mental hospitals

b. research on the number of defendants who feign insanity to beat the rap c. John W. Hinckley’s acquittal for attempting to assassinate President Ronald Reagan d. all of the above ANS: C REF: 8-6 8. Changes in the insanity defense have included efforts to a. shift the burden of proof to the defendant c. allow for a “guilty by mentally ill” verdict in such cases b. abolish the insanity defense d. all of the above ANS: D REF: 8-7 9. Despite the fact that the insanity defense is raised in less than 1% of all criminal indictments, one poll found that people believed nearly __% of all criminal defendants used it. a. 95 c. 87 b. 66 d. 40 ANS: D REF: 8-8 10. Persons hospitalized after being found not guilty by reason of insanity a. can be released in as short as one week and most of them stay less than one month b. must pay for their psychiatric treatment where the state pays for incarceration c. spend more time confined in hospitals than comparable offenders sent to prison d. have usually feigned mental illness and escaped punishment through this loophole ANS: C REF: 8-10 11. The landmark Supreme Court case of Baxstrom v. Herold a. forced the release of persons held for long periods of time in mental hospitals and necessitated development of new procedures for continued confinement b. held offenders must pay for their psychiatric treatment where the state pays for incarceration c. held mentally ill offenders can be forced to take medications to help in their own defense d. allowed for the GBMI verdict ANS: A REF: 8-10 12. Steadman found that defendants claiming they were incompetent to stand trial spent how much time committed to an institution prior to trial? a. 2 days c. 2 months

b. 2 weeks

d. 2 years

ANS: D REF: 8-11 13. A recent review of the literature concluded that the recidivism rate for persons acqui tted by

reason of insanity was a. greater than that of felons b. no greater than that of felons

c. less than that of felons d. none of the above

ANS: B REF: 8-11 14. Currently, insanity is a(n) _____(1)_____ defense not a(n) _____(2)_____ defense. a. (1) affirmative (2) ordinary c. (1) rich person’s (2) poor person’s b. (1) over used (2) rarely used d. (1) extraordinary (2) ordinary ANS: A REF: 8-14 15. __________ has three flaws including that it does not guarantee treatment for the person who uses it. a. GBMI c. insanity defense b. NGRI d. banning the insanity defense ANS: A REF: 8-15 16. GBMI is a bogus reform because a. research demonstrates that the courtroom work group evades it b. it allows defendants to claim they are incompetent to stand trial and essentially beat the rap c. it affects defendants who would have been found guilty, not defendants who would have been found NGRI d. successful use of the insanity defense actually results in time spent in a mental hospital that is similar to what a guilty offender would serve in prison ANS: C REF: 8-16 17. The real function of the GBMI verdict is that it is a. cheaper to implement than NGRI b. symbolic to appease public opinion c. what the courtroom workgroup is doing d. intended to reduce serious crime

ANS: B REF: 8-16 18. The insanity defense has been misinterpreted and abused by a. defendants c. the public b. the courtroom work group d. politicians and journalists ANS: D REF: 8-17 19. What percent of all felony cases in large urban courts were settled by a guilty plea in 2006? a. almost none c. half b. a small minority d. the vast majority ANS: D REF: 8-18 20. When Alaska banned plea bargaining a. the courtroom work group evaded the ban b. the criminal courts collapsed c. there was a dramatic change in the rate of guilty pleas d. trials increased slightly ANS: D REF: 8-22 21. As a result of the plea bargaining ban in Alaska a. the rate of dismissals remained consistently low b. the rate of dismissals remained consistently high c. the rate of dismissals increased as predicted d. the rate of dismissals decreased surprisingly ANS: B REF: 8-22 22. One surprising result of the ban on plea bargaining was that a. cases moved through the courts faster than before b. discretion shifted upstream and police officers made fewer arrests c. the increase in trials increased case processing time d. prosecutors dismissed cases earlier and more quickly ANS: A REF: 8-22 23. The most significant result of the ban on plea bargaining in Alaska was that

a. b. c. d.

it increased the number of trials for defendants charged with serious crimes it increased sentence length for defendants charged with serious crimes it had no impact on defendants charged with serious crimes or substantial criminal records it closed the loophole and got tough on prior offenders charged with serious crimes

ANS: C REF: 8-23 24. What happened when plea bargaining was banned in Alaska? a. case disposition time increased b. the number of defendants demanding trials tripled c. less serious offenders were punished more severely d. plea bargaining became a hidden process ANS: C REF: 8-23---8-24 25. Plea bargaining reform in Washington included a. a ban on gun-related plea bargaining b. a highly structured and horizontal process of handling cases c. less supervision for attorneys d. a vertical approach to prosecution ANS: B REF: 8-25 26. An evaluation of King County’s reform of plea bargaining found a. bans on plea bargaining were unconstitutional and are quickly overturned b. crime was reduced because defendants who had previously been treated leniently went to prison which produced both a general deterrent and incapacitated dangerous offenders c. the plea bargaining charging guidelines significantly changed how cases were handled d. high consistency among cases as the courtroom workgroup collaborated on appropriate charges and punishment ANS: D REF: 8-26 27. Walker maintains that, based on the evidence, a. plea bargaining is a phantom loophole b. abolishing plea bargaining will reduce serious crime c. plea bargaining allows serious offenders to beat the system d. abolishing plea bargaining will reduce less serious crime ANS: A REF: 8-28

28. In studies of plea bargaining, it has been found a. that abolishing plea negotiations reduced serious crimes b. a vast change in the way the courtroom workgroup occurred c. a high degree of regularity and predictability occurs in the disposition of cases d. that the ability to predict the outcome is based on all charges filed ANS: C REF: 8-28 29. Conservatives feel that post-conviction appeals are a. necessary to minimize the occurrence of mistakes b. a loophole that undermines the deterrent effect c. a waste of time since so few are successful d. a good way to give the impression that justice is being done ANS: B REF: 8-34 30. The writ of habeas corpus a. is a device to challenge the detention of a person taken into custody b. is a three-year statute of limitations regarding post-conviction appeals c. was rejected by the Supreme Court in Fay v. Noia d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: A REF: 8-35 31. The Supreme Court decision Fay v. Noia would be most disliked by whom? a. prosecutors c. conservatives b. liberals d. inmates ANS: C REF: 8-36 32. A study of habeas corpus petitions found that a. they represented 4% of the civil court case filings in U.S. District Courts b. the most frequent claim was ineffective assistance of counsel c. only 1% of them succeeded d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: D REF: 8-36 33. The chapter reported appeals to be rarely used with the exception of

a. celebrated cases and civil disputes b. death row inmates and writ writers

c. habeas corpus petitions d. due process challenges

ANS: B REF: 8-37 34. The effect of the 1996 Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act is difficult to determine because a. it limits the time between crime and c. capital punishment fell out of favor a few punishment years after the law was passed b. it was repealed immediately because it d. courtroom work groups chose to negates the right to habeas corpus circumvent the law ANS: C REF: 8-38 35. One of the factors noted in the chapter that explains why so few cases are appealed is a. most inmates are executed before they are able to file appeals b. inmates are too poor and uneducated to hire attorneys c. most convictions are obtained through plea bargaining d. most inmates adapt to the routine of prison and want to stay ANS: C REF: 8-36

SHORT ANSWER 1. Defend the argument that special prosecution units do not result in any better or worse results than traditional prosecutions.

REF: 8-2---8-5 2. Defend the argument that defendants who successfully use the insanity defense are not beating the system.

REF: 8-8---8-13 3. Explain the costs and benefits of adopting the GBMI verdict.

REF: 8-14---8-16 4. Compare and contrast the actual effects of Alaska’s plea bargaining ban and King County’s reform of plea negotiations.

REF: 8-21---8-28 5. Defend the argument that limiting appeals will not reduce serious crime.

REF: 8-35---8-39

Test Bank and Answer Key TRUE/FALSE 1. Historically victims represented themselves before judges but in modern Anglo-American law there is no formal role for victims.

ANS: T REF: 9-3 2. Liberals have dominated the victims’ rights movement, but other political groups including feminists have also been active.

ANS: F REF: 9-4 3. By the early 1990s all states had passed victims’ rights laws.

ANS: T REF: 9-5 4. A victims’ rights clause has been added to the U.S. Constitution.

ANS: F REF: 9-5 5. Victim service programs include domestic violence shelters, financial compensation for victims, and witness assistance programs.

ANS: T REF: 9-6 6. Before the 1970s, domestic violence had not been recognized as a major social problem.

ANS: T REF: 9-9 7.

Studies have proven that the mandatory arrest of domestic violence offenders results in a reduction of crime.

ANS: F REF: 9-10

8. The incidence of intimate partner violence was not reduced between 1994 and 2010.

ANS: F REF: 9-12 9. Offenses against people with disabilities are reported to the police less often than offenses against non-disabled people.

ANS: T REF: 9-13 10. Federal funding for victim compensation programs are derived from fines and forfeitures and have specific documentation procedures.

ANS: T REF: 9-24 11. Among the goals of victims’ voice laws are to give victims a feeling of participation in the justice system and ensure offenders do not get off too easily.

ANS: T REF: 9-21 12. Victims’ rights laws include notification regarding bail, sentencing, and release from prison.

ANS: T REF: 9-21 13. The underlying assumption of broad “get tough” laws is that incapacitating offenders will reduce crime and therefore reduce the number of crime victims and to date this approach has been successful.

ANS: F REF: 9-29 MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The Victims' Rights Movement emerged in the a. 1960s c. 1980s b. 1970s d. 1990s ANS: B REF: 9-2

2. A professional public official handles criminal cases with the important purpose of a. removing vengeance from the criminal justice process b. ensuring the likelihood of justice due to his/her training and experience c. establishing that crime is an offense against society as a whole d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: D REF: 9-3---9-4 3. By the early 1990s every state had a. passed victims’ rights laws b. laws permitting victim impact statements c. legal challenges against the victim’s rights laws d. amended their constitution to include some victims’ rights ANS: A REF: 9-5 4. The impact of crime victims’ laws and programs can be evaluated from three different

perspectives: impact on the crime victims, impact on the CJS, and a. b. c. d.

psychological effects on the victims impact on offenders’ sentencing crime reduction impact on community-police relationships

ANS: C REF: 9-6 5. Examples of victims’ services include a. longer prison sentences b. financial compensation and counseling c. victim impact statements d. all of the above ANS: B REF:9-6 6. The traditional response of the police to domestic violence incidents had been a. to attend to the victim, but not to the offender b. to attend to the offender, but not to the victim c. to refer families to social service agencies d. a no-arrest approach ANS: D REF: 9-9

7. Examples of victims’ voice laws include a. police/victim recontact programs b. victim-offender mediation c. statements made at bail and parole hearings d. fear reduction programs ANS: C REF: 9-21 8. The most immediate needs for juvenile runaways and throwaways are a. treatment for alcohol or drug abuse and food b. shelter and food c. protection from crime and psychological intervention d. family intervention and police protection ANS: B REF: 9-14---9-14 9. Elderly people have the lowest violent crime victimization rate among all age groups, likely because a. they are less likely than other populations to report crimes perpetrated against them b. they have learned how to avoid victimization c. members of our society generally respect their elders d. they remain inside at night, due to a fear of crime ANS: D REF: 9-15 10. A major contributor to the problem of crime among the Native American population is a. distrust of police b. widespread ignorance of laws c. discriminatory laws d. geographical remoteness ANS: D REF: 9-17 11. Victims’ service programs are partially funded by a. the 1987 Booth v. Maryland case b. the 1984 Victims of Crime Act c. the 1983 Office for Victims of Crime d. the 1982 President’s Task Force on Victims of Crime ANS: B REF: 9-24

12. One notable problem with victim notification programs is a. the administrative burden it places on police departments b. the constitutionality of the programs c. they fail to offer concurrent social support to the victims d. that they display a racial bias ANS: A REF: 9-18 13. An evaluation of the Houston experiment that involved police officers contacting victims to express sympathy and offer further assistance or information found a. victims who were contacted expressed less fear of crime than those not recontacted b. victims who were recontacted expressed greater confidence in police than those not recontacted c. it met none of its goals and made some victims more fearful than those not recontacted d. victims reported that they preferred to be left alone ANS: C REF: 9-19 14. A study of protective orders in one state found that a. victims who made protective orders perceived a greater likelihood of being stalked and threatened b. they did not lead to reduced fear of violence against those who placed the orders c. it reduced reoffending due to surveillance of offenders d. as a whole, the subjects experienced lower rates of violence ANS: D REF: 9-12 15. The elderly are particularly vulnerable to certain crimes, such as a. sexual assault c. burglary b. car theft d. healthcare fraud ANS: D REF: 9-15 16. The first victims’ compensation law was passed in 1965 by a. New York c. California b. Illinois d. Florida ANS: C REF: 9-24

17. As of 2013, compensation programs around the country grant victims of crime almost a. $500 million yearly c. $5 million yearly b. $50 million yearly d. $500,000 yearly ANS: A REF: 9-25 18. Evaluations of victim compensation programs a. make them the most popular victims’ programs b. show that compensated victims have more favorable attitudes toward the CJS c. are more favorable for state-sponsored programs than federal programs d. have not been favorable as many requests are denied due to insufficient documentation ANS: D REF: 9-25 19. Victims’ voice laws a. are required under the Sixth Amendment to the Constitution b. seek to expand the victims’ voice in bail, sentencing and parole decisions c. were designed for the purposes of getting tough and promoting retribution d. were prohibited and ruled unconstitutional in Payne v. Tennessee e. all of the above ANS: B REF: 9-21 20. Among the goals of including victims’ voices in the justice system is to a. end the isolation of victims in the CJS and provide procedural justice b. provide a fair and balanced approach of retribution c. ensure procedural justice for the defendant through impact statements d. none of the above ANS: A REF: 9-21 21. In Booth v. Maryland the court a. reversed a death sentence because of statements read to the jury about the victim b. declared the reading of statements to the jury about the victim constitutional c. ruled that victim-impact statements were not unconstitutional d. ruled that victim-impact statements were constitutional ANS: A REF: 9-22 22. A national study of victim notification and victims’ voice laws found that a. a large proportion of victims participate in the bail hearing, but participation decreases

with each subsequent stage of criminal justice case processing b. 90% of victims were notified about bail and sentencing hearings, but only 20% were notified about parole hearings c. victims who were notified reported greater confidence in the police and less fear of crime d. most victims made an impact statement at sentencing but few did so at parole hearings ANS: D REF: 9-22 23. A study of Ohio felony cases in the late 1980s found that victim impact statements were submitted in __________ of the cases a. none c. half b. few d. most ANS: C REF: 9-23 24. A study of parole hearings in Pennsylvania found that victim impact statements a. had an insignificant effect on the chances of an offender being paroled b. had a very significant effect on the chances of an offender being paroled c. slightly increased the chance of a property offender being paroled d. had no effect on the chances of a sex offender being paroled ANS: B REF: 9-23 25. A survey of sixty-two victim service programs in North Carolina found that a. overall, victims were satisfied with the CJS system b. the programs were equally helpful to victims and witnesses c. virtually all victims were made aware of their right to make a victim-impact statement d. none of the above ANS: D REF: 9-20 26. In a 2000 study of nursing home residents, ____ percent of residents said that they had been abused. a. 14 b. 25 c. 30 d. 44 ANS: D REF: 9-16

27. The Elderly Victims Emergency Security Fund (EVESF) in Philadelphia succeeded in reducing incidences of violence against the elderly by a. providing doormen to their residences b. installing or replacing door locks c. educating them about fraud schemes d. intervening in cases of familial emotional abuse and neglect ANS: B REF: 9-15---9-16 28. Broad, “get tough” policies that have proved ineffective in reducing crime and assisting victims include a. sex offender registration and notification laws b. repealing the exclusionary rule c. preventive detention d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: D REF: 9-29 29. The evidence on victims’ voice laws shows that they have ________ effect on serious crime. a. an inverse b. no discernible c. a direct and strong d. a direct but weak ANS: B REF: 9-24 30. Today, how common are written policies on domestic violence in police departments? a. they are still quite uncommon b. they are common in urban areas, but rare in rural areas c. they are nearly universal d. they are common in “liberal” states, but rare in “conservative” states ANS: C REF: 9-10 SHORT ANSWER 1. Discuss the reasons why the victim has had no role in modern Anglo-American law.

REF: 9-3---9-4 2. Explain the value of serving special populations of crime victims.

REF: 9-8 3. Describe victim compensation programs and evaluate how well they impact victim attitudes toward the criminal justice system.

REF: 9-24---9-26 4. Discuss the various victims’ voice laws and their impact on victims along with issues of implementation.

REF: 9-21---9-24

Test Bank and Answer Key TRUE/FALSE 1. The 2008 Heller ruling drastically changed the existing gun control laws in the U.S. by finding that the ban on handgun possession in the home violates the Second Amendment.

ANS: F REF: 10-9 2. The majority of Americans favor background checks for gun purchases and tough criminal penalties for crimes committed with a gun.

ANS: T REF: 10-7 3. African-Americans are more likely than whites to own guns.

ANS: F REF: 10-8 4. Walker argues that one of the biggest problems in the U.S. related to gun control is an insufficient number of gun control laws.

ANS: F REF: 10-10 5. The Brady Bill is a demand reduction strategy for guns.

ANS: F REF: 10-5, 10-18 6. There is no evidence that gun buyback programs reduce crime.

ANS: T REF: 10-13, 10-14 7. The Kansas City Experiment combined problem-oriented policing with a focus on hot spots.

ANS: T REF: 10-32, 10-33

8. Research shows that robbery victims used a gun to resist the offender in 1.2 percent of all robberies.

ANS: T REF: 10-26 9. Get-tough laws on crime like the one in Michigan are significantly influenced by the going rate and the trickle-up phenomenon.

ANS: T REF: 10-31 10. Operation Ceasefire implemented various strategies to reduce gun-related violence, including interagency collaboration and strict enforcement of probation and parole conditions.

ANS: T REF: 10-34

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Walker summarizes the gun problem in the United States as a. exaggerated c. serious b. due to hunting rifles d. due to assault weapons ANS: C REF: 10-36 2. The unconstitutionality of the Washington D.C. gun control law is based on a. the prohibition of possession of assault weapons b. the prohibition of possession of handguns in the home for purposes of defense c. the prohibition of weapons to persons with criminal records d. the right provided in the Second Amendment in and of itself ANS: B REF: 10-9 3. According to the text, what is the major difference between supply reduction and demand reduction policies? a. supply reduction focuses on offenders, and demand reduction sees guns as the problem b. supply reduction sees guns as the problem, and demand reduction focuses on offenders c. supply reduction seeks to control gun ownership, and demand reduction seeks to preserve gun ownership as a universal right d. demand reduction seeks to control gun ownership, and supply reduction seeks to preserve gun ownership as a universal right

ANS: B REF: 10-5 4. A study of the impact of stand-your-ground laws found that a. they are associated with increases in homicides among white males b. they are associated with increases in homicides among African-American males c. the related incidents were self-defense situations in the face of serious threats to life d. most people accurately interpret the laws ANS: A REF: 10-29 5. The Small Arms survey estimates that there are currently over ____(1)______ million firearms including _____(2)_____ million handguns in circulation in the U.S. a. (1) 30 (2) 15 c. (1) 10 (2) 2 b. (1) 297 (2) 200 d. (1) 270 (2) 114 ANS: D REF: 10-8 6. Banning Saturday Night Specials would likely result in a. a substitution effect b. a trickle-up effect c. a decrease in violent crimes d. an increase in the use of other types of guns ANS: A REF: 10-15 7. Evaluations of crime in cities that have banned possession of handguns have found a. both violent and property crime declined as a result b. no conclusive evidence regarding the impact of the laws c. more crimes were committed with rifles and shotguns d. no cities have actually banned possession of handguns ANS: B REF: 10-11, 10-12 8. One of the major U.S. cities with a lot of violent crime that banned the possession of handguns was a. Kansas City c. Washington, D.C. b. Boston, Massachusetts d. none of the above ANS: C REF: 10-11

9. Many people believe the __________ establishes a right to own a gun. a. First Amendment c. Fourth Amendment b. Second Amendment d. Fifth Amendment ANS: B REF: 10-9, 10-10 10. One of the limits of attempting to outlaw possession of handguns is a. most gun crimes are not committed with handguns b. these laws violate Second Amendment rights c. most gun owners also own rifles or shotguns d. the large number of handguns in existence ANS: D REF: 10-12 11. A federal ban on handgun possession a. would be supported by the majority of Americans b. would have similar consequences to bans on alcohol and drugs c. is predicted to be the best way to reduce crime d. would be supported by conservatives and liberals ANS: B REF: 10-13 12. Banning the manufacture and sale of handguns a. would stimulate an international black market b. would have limited effect due to the number of guns already in existence c. is a creative and potentially effective way to reduce gun-related crime d. would be too invasive when the real problem is only assault weapons ANS: A REF: 10-13 13.

One of the problems with strategies to buy back handguns is a. the government does not have enough money to reimburse all handgun owners b. firearms are turned in by people who are the least likely to commit a gun crime c. offenders will simply switch to other weapons like knives d. this is a strategy with minimal problems and the potential to reduce crime ANS: B REF: 10-14

14. Studies of gun buyback programs have found a. no one turned in any guns b. little evidence of the impact on gun assaults or homicides

c. an unexpected trickle-up phenomenon d. the public were generally supported and gun-related crime declined significantly ANS: B REF: 10-14 15. Banning "Saturday night specials" a. would require a federal law and intrusive enforcement procedures in order for it to be effective b. is one gun control strategy that both liberals and conservatives can agree on c. will not accomplish what is intended due to their exaggerated role and the potential for substitution effect d. has already occurred in the majority of states but it is too soon to assess the impact of this ban on crime ANS: C REF: 10-14---10-15 16. The proposal to ban "Saturday night specials" suffers from the same problem of focusing on a small part of the problem as a. keeping guns out of the hands of “bad” people b. getting tough on gun-related offenders c. tightening Federal Firearms Licensing requirements d. prohibiting cop-killer bullets ANS: D REF: 10-15 17. In 2012, _____% of Americans supported banning assault rifles. a. 24 c. 44 b. 68 d. 54 ANS: C REF: 10-16 18. A study of the effectiveness of Federal Firearms Licensing laws found that a. few of the FFLs failed to comply with the federal regulations b. a small number of dealers were responsible for a high percentage of guns used in crime c. they were too expensive to implement and enforce in most states d. tightening the regulations had no effect on the number of FFLs or compliance with federal regulations ANS: B REF: 10-17 19. One example of a policy designed to keep guns out of the hands of “bad” people is

a. the Brady Bill b. the Kansas City Gun Experiment c. the Bartley-Fox Law

d. all of the above e. none of the above

ANS: A REF: 10-18 20. One of the key strategies of the Brady Law is a. intensive enforcement of illegal carry laws c. mandatory sentences b. banning gun possession d. background checks ANS: D REF: 10-18 21. One of the problems with gun control strategies like the Brady Bill is that a. enforcement of them requires serious intrusions on the part of the government b. it places stricter regulations on licensed dealers, but regulations are already strict c. few offenders obtain weapons from regulated retail outlet stores d. there are not enough laws of this type to be effective on a large scale ANS: C REF: 10-19 22. The Brady Law is highly dependent upon a. federal funding for enforcement b. official criminal history data

c. state-to-state variations in implementation d. BATF regulators

ANS: B REF: 10-19---10-20 23. The Kansas City Gun Experiment focused on a. mandatory prison terms for carrying a gun without a permit b. stricter punishment for violation of concealed weapons laws c. intensive enforcement of laws on the illegal carrying of handguns d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: C REF: 10-32 24. The Kansas City Gun Experiment seems to suggest that a. conservatives are right in their suggestion that guns don’t kill people, people kill people b. liberals are right in their suggestion that guns kill people c. tough mandatory sentences can deter offenders from using guns in the commission of crime d. a focused program to remove guns from the streets can reduce gun-related crime

ANS: D REF: 10-33 25. Laws that prohibit the carrying of a weapon on an airplane a. effectively achieve their goals b. are limited by the number of guns already in existence in society c. have not proven to effective at reducing gun-related crime on airplanes d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: A REF: 10-24 26. The gun show loophole is actually a small loophole because a. in most states, it is illegal to sell guns at gun shows b. people with a criminal history are barred from gun shows c. most dealers at gun shows have FFLs d. 45 states require background checks of gun purchasers at gun shows ANS: C REF: 10-22 27. The theory behind right-to-carry laws is that allowing people to carry concealed weapons a. can reduce fear of crime b. can deter violent crime c. can reduce the number of people violating laws that ban possession d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: B REF: 10-26 28. According to Walker, common sense tells us that increasing gun ownership for the purpose of self-defense a. would significantly decrease violent crimes b. would decrease confidence in the CJS c. its effectiveness is inconclusive d. would increase crime in high-violence neighborhoods ANS: D REF: 10-28 29. Laws that seek to get tough on offenders convicted of using guns a. are supported by both crime victims and liberals b. are popular as most states have them

c. are the only realistic policies for reducing gun-related crime d. are the only laws that do not violate Second Amendment rights ANS: B REF: 10-30 30. The Michigan law advertised as “one with a gun gets you two” a. intensively enforced illegal carry laws b. reduced gun crime prior to implementation due to the announcement effect c. had no significant impact on minimum sentences for serious gun crimes d. combined problem-oriented policing strategies with mandatory sentences e. all of the above ANS: C REF: 10-31 31. The trickle-up phenomenon refers to the tendency a. for "get tough" strategies to affect less serious crimes to a greater extent b. to get increasingly tougher in punishment strategies over time c. for mandatory sentences to produce diminishing returns d. for federal laws to encroach upon the protections offered by states ANS: A REF: 10-31 32. Similar to other "get tough" strategies, attempts to get tough on gun-related crime a. are never implemented as intended because they are not fully funded b. significantly reduced crimes such as gun-related homicide, assault and robbery c. continue to be criticized by conservatives who argue they fail because they are not tough enough d. do not achieve their intended results because the system is already tough on serious crime ANS: D REF: 10-30 33. Operation Cease Fire a. enforced a ban on gun possession in New York City b. attempted to reduce gun violence and gun-related homicide in Boston c. was an attempt to intensively enforce gun laws in Chicago d. was a liberal gun control strategy in Washington, D.C. ANS: B REF: 10-34 34. Operation Cease Fire involved a. pulling levers on probationers and parolees

b. c. d. e.

interagency collaboration a significant reduction in youth homicide all of the above none of the above

ANS: D REF: 10-34 35. According to Walker, the greatest problem with trying to regulate the sale of firearms is that a. it abrogates a constitutional right, so regulation will be opposed by the Supreme Court b. too many Americans are opposed to the regulations c. people with criminal records go directly to the black market d. there are always a few states that will refuse to implement such laws ANS: C REF: 10-23 36. Two explanations for the decline in gun incidents at school are The Great Crime Drop, and a. community policing initiatives that “pull levers” with local gang leaders b. decreased access to assault rifles by the general public c. “get tough” measures on offenders who enter schools with guns d. the implementation of a range of new security measures ANS: D REF: 10-25

SHORT ANSWER 1. Assess the problem of gun-related violence in the U.S. by summarizing the evidence on gun ownership and gun-related violence.

REF: 10-2---10-4, 10-7---10-9 2. Compare and contrast the various strategies that seek to ban guns and assess if each reduces crimes.

REF: 10-10---10-17 3. Assess the usefulness of strategies that seek to keep guns out of the hands of “bad” people.

REF: 10-17---10-25 4. Assess how the focused, proactive measures implemented at airports and schools can reduce gunrelated violence in those areas.

REF: 10-24---10-25 5.

Explain why banning guns from the mentally ill is an impractical strategy for reducing gun violence.

REF: 10-20---10-21

6. Describe the purpose of the Boston Gun Project, its strategy and its effectiveness to decrease the gun-related violence among young minority males.

REF: 10-33---10-35

Test Bank and Answer Key TRUE/FALSE 1. The concept of rehabilitation is the cornerstone of traditional liberal crime control policy.

ANS: T REF: 11-1 2. Martinson’s report does not meet the current standards of evidence-based crime policy analysis.

ANS: F REF: 11-4 3. The emphasis of probation is on treatment over supervision.

ANS: F REF: 11-7 4. Both conservatives and liberals are critical of parole.

ANS: T REF: 11-10---11-11 5. Intensive probation/parole supervision programs rest on a flawed assumption that increasing the intensity of supervision would enhance program effectiveness.

ANS: T REF: 11-14 6. Abolishing parole is an effective crime reduction policy ANS: F REF: 11-16 7. The Manhattan Court Employment Project provided a classic example of net widening.

ANS: T REF: 11-20

8. Net widening brings more people under the umbrella of the criminal justice system.

ANS: T REF: 11-20 9. Evaluations of boot camps have found positive long-term changes in behaviors.

ANS: F REF: 11-27 10. Passive electronic monitoring involves the use of ankle bracelets.

ANS: T REF: 11-28 11. Electronic monitoring programs have only been used with traffic violation offenders.

ANS: F REF: 11-29 12. An example of organic religion is a religiously-centered drug treatment program in a prison setting.

ANS: F REF: 11-33 13. Faith-based treatment programs that provide intentional religion are more effective in reducing crime than secular treatment programs.

ANS: F REF: 11-35 14. Drug courts specialize in handling only offenders with substance abuse problems by sentencing them to jail rather than a long prison term.

ANS: F REF: 11-36---11-37 MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following terms is defined as a planned intervention that reduces an offender’s further criminal activity? a. rehabilitation c. diversion

b. aging out

d. intermediate sanction

ANS: A REF: 11-2 2. According to the text, the best crime reduction policy is? a. rehabilitation b. incapacitation c. getting older d. being female ANS: C REF: 11-18 3. Which of the following is true about Martinson's report on rehabilitation? a. it was titled "Nothing Works" b. no positive outcomes from rehabilitative programs could be identified c. the research was funded by a conservative political action committee d. his results were misinterpreted at a time when crime rates were soaring ANS: D REF: 11-4---11-5 4. Based on Martinson’s findings, what can we conclude about rehabilitation? a. rehabilitation programs have no positive effects so they should not be funded b. some programs work for some people but they depend on the conditions of delivery c. failing rehabilitation programs caused crime rates to rise in the 1970s d. we can draw no conclusions since there is no rigorous scientific research available ANS: B REF: 11-4 5. The most widely used rehabilitation program in the criminal justice system is a. aging out c. boot camp b. probation d. reentry ANS: B REF: 11-7 6. Evaluations of probation have found failure rates that range from _____________%. a. 25 to 15 c. 75 to 66 b. 65 to 12 d. 99 to 77 ANS: B REF: 11-8

7. The program that is seen as rehabilitative because it seeks to reintegrate offenders into the community is known as a. diversion c. home confinement b. boot camp d. parole ANS: D REF: 11-10 8. How do rearrest rates for offenders released on parole compare to those released unconditionally? a. there is little difference b. parolees were rearrested slightly more frequently c. those released unconditionally were rearrested far more frequently d. parolees are more likely to be rearrested for a felony while those released unconditionally are more likely to be rearrested for a misdemeanor ANS: A REF: 11-11 9. Research on offender reentry programs confirms a. parole is better than unconditional release b. those who desire to change have tools available to them c. the inadequacy of treatment services d. that regarding rehabilitation, nothing works ANS: C REF: 11-13 10. Regarding the role of the prediction problem in parole a. prediction instruments based on number of prison infractions are the most accurate b. we are no closer to a successful prediction formula today than we were in the 1920s c. judges are able to make predictions as accurate as sophisticated prediction formulas d. lack of an effective prediction formula has resulted in a shift toward unconditional release ANS: B REF: 11-13 11. Select the most accurate statement regarding intensive probation supervision a. it is a front-end rather than a back-end approach b. the goal is to remove offenders from the system quickly c. it is frequently combined with other intermediate sanctions d. it is disliked by both liberals and conservatives ANS: C REF: 11-14 12. Evaluations of intensive probation supervision programs find

a. lower rates of recidivism b. higher rates of recidivism

c. lower rates of technical violations d. higher rates of technical violations

ANS: D REF: 11-15 13. Intensive probation/parole supervision programs provide enhanced __________ of offenders a. supervision c. supervision and treatment b. treatment d. none of the above ANS: A REF: 11-14 14. Diversion programs are rooted in the assumptions of which criminological theory? a. rational choice c. self-control b. labeling d. differential association ANS: B REF: 11-18 15. Programs that involve a treatment component and the goal of getting offenders out of the CJS as early as possible are known as what? a. faith-based c. probation b. boot camp d. diversion ANS: D REF: 11-18 16. Diversion within the criminal justice system has encompassed a. police not arresting an individual c. case dismissals b. treatment services d. all of the above ANS: D REF: 11-18 17. Participants of the Manhattan Court Employment Project a. received counseling, short-term public assistance and a referral to a job opening b. had all of their charges dropped in exchange for pleading to a low level misdemeanor c. often dropped out of the program because it was more intrusive and punitive than prison d. increased their lifetime earnings by 25% compared to a control group ANS: A REF: 11-19 18. Net widening refers to a process where

a. b. c. d.

the loopholes in the CJS are widened and more offenders are able to slip through the social networks of an offender are treated in order to promote embedding more offenders are brought into the CJS rather than diverted out a range of treatment services likened to a web are provided to an offender

ANS: C REF: 11-20 19. One of the problems with net widening in a diversion program is that a. more offenders escape the CJS without receiving either treatment or punishment b. the cost savings are never realized because more people become part of the CJS process c. both programs are voluntary in nature and tend to compete with one another d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: B REF: 11-21 20. Among the reasons for the failure of diversion programs is a. contact between the offender and probation officers is too often b. program content offers too many options for offenders who need structure c. a coercion element that infringes on due process rights d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: C REF: 11-23 21. An evaluation of a juvenile diversion program found that a. diverted offenders had recidivism rates that were lower than both juveniles sent to juvenile court and juveniles released outright b. diverted offenders had recidivism rates that were similar to both juveniles sent to juvenile court and juveniles released outright c. a significant increase in the detention of juvenile arrestees, even though juvenile

arrests declined by about half d. a significant decrease in the detention of juvenile arrestees, even though juvenile

arrests grew by about half ANS: C REF: 11-21 22. The new intermediate punishments emphasize ____(1)_____ with little emphasis on _____(2)_____. a. (1) cost savings (2) effectiveness c. (1) diversion (2) punishment b. (1) juvenile treatment (2) adult treatment d. (1) surveillance and control (2) treatment

ANS: D REF: 11-24 23. Among the goals of boot camps are a. punishment of the offender b. rehabilitation c. reduction in overcrowding d. all of the above e. a & c only ANS: D REF: 11-26 24. Graduates of boot camps who had lower recidivism rates participated in camps with a. more treatment services d. all of the above b. more intensive sessions e. none of the above c. more intensive post-release supervision ANS: D REF: 11-27 25. One of the problems with boot camps is that a. they are only cheaper in the short term and most offenders require long stays to graduate b. as many as half of the offenders in them fail to complete the program c. offenders who successfully complete them have to repeat them if they join the military d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: B REF: 11-27 26. Home confinement a. is used for juvenile offenders only b. is basically a curfew

c. is more effective than probation d. is a complete failure

ANS: B REF: 11-28 27. A type of electronic monitoring technology that involves periodic random telephone calls to a probationer’s home is known as what? a. passive monitoring c. radio frequency b. active monitoring d. grosslink ANS: B REF: 11-28

28. One of the criticisms against electronic monitoring is that a. it promotes net widening b. few offenders actually complete the program c. it allows dangerous offenders to be prey upon innocent citizens d. the cost savings are small because a tiny proportion of all offenders are in electronic monitoring programs ANS: D REF: 11-29 29. If the purpose of electronic monitoring is to control offenders, it is a _____(1)_____, but if the purpose is to reintegrate offenders into the community, it is a _____(2)_____. a. (1) success (2) success c. (1) failure (2) success b. (1) success (2) failure d. (1) failure (2) failure ANS: B REF: 11-30 30. President George W. Bush created the Office of Faith-Based and Community Initiatives

in January 2001. When President Barack Obama entered office, he a. b. c. d.

kept the program intact changed the name of the office to “Belief-Based and Community Initiatives” eliminated all faith-based programs continued the program, but with a slight change in emphasis and name

ANS: D REF: 11-32 31. Regarding faith-based treatment a. intentional religion programs may or may not include religious services b. organic religion programs require religious services c. intentional religion programs require religious services d. both organic and intentional programs serve most religions ANS: A REF: 11-33---11-34 32. In evaluating the effectiveness of faith-based treatment programs a. organic religion was least effective in reducing crime b. there was higher recidivism rates among secular programs than faith-based ones c. there is inconclusive evidence that faith-based programs are more effective than secular ones d. intentional religion was most effective in reducing crime ANS: C REF: 11-35

33. Drug courts are an example of a. faith-based treatment b. intensive supervised probation

c. net widening d. diversion

ANS: D REF: 11-36 34. Drug courts a. began in the late 1980s in Florida b. have expanded significantly in the past 20 years c. provide a comprehensive plan of treatment and supervision d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: D REF: 11-36 35. With the advent of drug courts, the traditional role of ____________ has been altered a. prosecutors b. law enforcement c. judges d. probation officers ANS: C REF: 11-37 36. Properly managed drug courts are set apart from other diversion programs due to a. written criteria b. initial and ongoing planning c. access to various substance abuse treatment programs d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: D REF: 11-37 37. Evidence of the effectiveness of drug court programs shows that a. offenders who complete the programs have lower recidivism rates than those who do not participate b. offenders who complete the 8-week program have lower recidivism rates than those who complete the 26-week program c. the reason why so many fail is because the programs are not implemented and funded as they are intended to be d. nearly all of the offenders who are offered the option of a drug court program take it

ANS: A REF: 11-38 SHORT ANSWER 1. Evaluate the interpretation that nothing works based on the findings of the Martinson report.

REF: 11-3---11-5 2. Compare and contrast probation and parole and be sure to make mention of their goals and effectiveness achieving them.

REF: 11-7---11-13 3. Defend the use of diversion programs and then evaluate the effectiveness of such programs, and the impact of net widening.

REF: 11-17---11-23 4. Evaluate the use of intermediate punishments.

REF: 11-23---11-32 5. Evaluate the argument that faith-based treatment programs are more effective in reducing crime than secular treatment programs.

REF: 11-32---11-35 6. Provide the objectives of and assess the effectiveness of drug courts.

REF: 11-36---11-39

Test Bank and Answer Key TRUE/FALSE 1. Crime control policies have traditionally relied on external authority, such as law enforcement and punitive sentence, but procedural justice policies seek to cultivate internally based voluntary obligation ANS: T REF: 12-4 2. Where you have lawfulness you always find legitimacy.

ANS: F REF: 12-2---12-3 3. The procedural justice perspective says that people are motivated primarily by fear of punishment.

ANS: F REF: 12-5 4. Procedural justice issues appear to contribute to law-abiding behavior in terms of minor offenses but the effect on serious crimes is not yet known.

ANS: T REF: 12-7 5. The most important source of people’s attitudes toward the CJS is the courts.

ANS: F REF: 12-6 6. Research evidence shows the injustice of racial bias in drug enforcement to be perceived but not real.

ANS: F REF: 12-23

7. Research has shown that police are more likely to stop African Americans than whites.

ANS: T REF: 12-8 8. Respectful policing has a no significant effect on peoples’ assessment of police

legitimacy ANS: T REF: 12-9 9. One limitation of studies on procedural justice is the questions about its application to serious crime.

ANS: T REF: 12-12 10. The most important strategy for improving police-citizen encounters is to reduce police use of deadly force and use of excessive physical force.

ANS: T REF: 12-14 11. Procedural justice reforms to improve legitimacy are not applicable to the prison system.

ANS: F REF: 12-20 MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The ultimate goal of the CJS and other social institutions is to a. maintain an orderly society b. hold people accountable for their actions c. help people adjust to their social environment d. maintain the economic and political social order e. all of the above ANS: A REF: 12-1

2. The difference between traditional crime control policies and procedural justice policies is a. procedural justice policies demand rigorous evidence-based evaluations of their effectiveness whereas traditional crime control policies did not b. liberals and conservatives conflicted over traditional crime control policies but are largely in agreement when it comes to procedural justice policies c. traditional policies rely on external coercion to get people to obey the law whereas procedural justice policies seek to cultivate voluntary compliance with the law d. traditional crime control policies tend to be expensive to implement and subject to evasion by the courtroom workgroup whereas procedural justice policies are not ANS: C REF: 12-1 3. Tyler argues that a critical factor in people’s complying with the law is a. they are aware of the law c. they understand the consequences b. perceived legitimacy of the law d. all of the above ANS: B REF: 12-2 4. What is the difference between lawfulness and legitimacy? a. the two terms can be used interchangeably b. lawfulness refers to liberal policies while legitimacy refers to conservative policies c. lawfulness refers to citizens while legitimacy refers to the justice system d. lawfulness refers to behavior while legitimacy refers to perception ANS: D REF: 12-2---12-3 LO: 2 5. _____(1)_____ involves case outcomes while _____(2)_____ depends on how people feel they were treated. a. (1) lawfulness (2) legitimacy b. (1) distributive justice (2) procedural justice c. (1) legitimacy (2) cumulative disadvantage d. (1) procedural justice (2) perception ANS: B REF: 12-3

6. One of the key variables in people’s satisfaction with a system is the sense that a. they have an opportunity to participate and express their point of view b. it does not rely on coercive authority as a mechanism for gaining compliance c. the system promotes the greatest good for the greatest number d. the system itself displays lawful behavior ANS: A REF: 12-4 7. In studies of procedural justice, it was found that people who perceived they were treated fairly by criminal justice agents a. recidivated at a higher rate c. were more likely to accept plea negotiations without an attorney b. Were more likely to obey the law d. only committed minor offenses ANS: B REF: 12-6 8. Tyler’s research found that a sense of justice contributes to law-abiding behavior, but a limitation of the study was that he only asked people about what? a. juvenile delinquency c. domestic violence b. victimless crimes d. minor offenses ANS: D REF: 12-7 9. Studies have found that respectful policing practices a. are effective in low-crime neighborhoods, c. have a positive effect on peoples’ but have the reverse effect in high-crime assessment of police legitimacy neighborhoods b. have a strong impact on sentencing and d. have no discernible effect on peoples’ trial proceedings assessment of police legitimacy ANS: C REF: 12-9 10. In successful drug courts, the behavior of the judges a. contradict the principles of procedural c. show marked racial discrimination justice b. align with the principles of procedural d. has a trickledown effect to the behavior of justice all courtroom workers ANS: B REF: 12-10

11. The most important strategy for improving police-citizen encounters is a. to reduce escalation b. to reduce the impression of racial disparity c. to reduce police use of deadly force and excessive physical force d. to improve the police’s treatment of women, particularly in domestic violence incidents ANS: C REF: 12-14 12. There is evidence of significant racial disparity in the enforcement of a. murder c. gambling b. burglary d. drugs ANS: D REF: 12-23 13. For years, decriminalizing certain offenses was a major liberal policy recommendation. That changed because a. conservatives embraced the same policies c. decriminalization of those offenses undermined the principles of procedural justice b. most of those offenses have been d. those offenses are now recognized as decriminalized or deemphasized detrimental to society ANS: B REF: 12-21---12-22 14.

The amount of time lawyers spent with felony defendants in criminal courts a. was not associated with procedural justice b. had no impact on their behavior or attitudes toward the CJS c. had an effect on their recidivism rates d. was associated with their satisfaction with the criminal justice system ANS: D REF: 12-11

15. The evidence shows that the legitimacy of agencies in the criminal justice system a. can be changed only through serious c. can be built and maintained public relations campaigns b. is impervious to attempts to change d. has eroded to the point that it cannot be redeemed ANS: C REF: 12-13

16. Changing the legitimacy of the police system is important because a. it is commonly viewed as overburdened and poorly functioning b. the police system has the worst reputation of any part of the CJS c. police corruption is widespread d. it is the most visible component of the CJS ANS: D REF: 12-13---12-14 17. Since the 1970’s, the racial disparity in people shot and killed by the police has a. just about doubled c. been influence by distributive justice b. dropped by about half d. not changed, despite efforts to end it ANS: B REF: 12-14 18. The strategy of teaching officers to de-escalate encounters between the police and citizens is designed to eliminate a. the tradition of treating disrespectful actions as “contempt of cop” b. problem in due process c. the high recidivism rate of repeat offenders d. racial disparities in police proceedings ANS: A REF: 12-15 19. The practice of conducting regular beat meetings where officers and citizens discuss neighborhood problems and monitor progress of initiatives is intended to a. deescalate encounters between officers and citizens b. engage citizens to improve their sense of satisfaction with the police c. address problems of racial discrimination d. minimize complaints about criminal behavior ANS: B REF: 12-17 20. When criminal laws become out of step with the views of society, the result is a. a society of outlaws b. a sense of disconnect between citizens and the police c. a loss of legitimacy of the legal system d. an overall lack of morality among citizens ANS: C REF: 12-21

21. The Prohibition laws resulted in a. changes in procedural justice b. arrests for alternative offenses c. the evolution of organized crime d. increased respect for the law ANS: C REF: 12-21 22. Over the past fifty years, arrests for public drunkenness, disorderly conduct, and vagrancy a. have contributed substantially to crime declines in New York City b. have been completely eliminated c. have been on the upswing in large urban areas d. have been de-emphasized by police ANS: D REF: 12-22 23. The most significant area of conflict between the criminal law and the changing values of U.S. society is a. U.S. drug policy b. police treatment of minor offenders c. sentencing laws d. public disorder crimes ANS: A REF: 12-22 24. A prevalent criticism of U.S. drug policy on marijuana is a. that although it is barely used, its use is c. that it is the main focus of drug policy, still a punishable offense while the policy ignores more harmful drugs b. that it causes increased use of marijuana d. that marijuana use is a private matter ANS: D REF: 12-22

25. The evidence of significant racial disparities in drug enforcement a. is insignificant b. is quite strong c. is evident in only a few states d. is inconclusive ANS: B REF: 12-23 26. Changing the law of possession of small amounts of marijuana to a misdemeanor would likely result in a. deligitimization of the court system c. a sense that the CJS is illegitimate b. increased compliance with the law d. a sharp reduction in felony convictions and prison sentences ANS: D REF: 12-24 27. The purpose of an EIS (early intervention system) by the police department is to a. reduce use of force incidents by police officers b. reduce recidivism of offenders c. decriminalize minor crimes d. give citizens greater say in police matters ANS: A REF: 12-15---12-16 28. Research on citizen complaint procedures have found that a. it results in satisfaction on both sides b. its effectiveness is mixed c. it results in satisfaction on one side only d. it improves the legitimacy of the police ANS: B REF: 12-18 29. Research on complaint mediation programs has found that a. they do not affect legitimacy of the police system b. most citizens are dissatisfied with police behavior c. they result in similar levels of satisfaction of traditional complaint investigation procedures d. that they result in much higher levels of satisfaction than traditional complaint investigation procedures ANS: D REF: 12-19

SHORT ANSWER 1. Discuss the role that legitimacy plays in gaining compliance with the law.

REF: 12-2---12-5 2. Provide evidence that procedural justice makes a difference in the day-to-day world of criminal justice.

REF: 12-6---12-12 3. Give examples of changes that can be made in the police system to improve its legitimacy.

REF: 12-13---12-19 4. Summarize the rationale for decriminalization and its potential consequences.

REF: 12-21 5. Describe proposed changes to U.S. drug policy that would improve its legitimacy.

REF: 12-22---12-14

Test Bank and Answer Key TRUE/FALSE 1. Public hysteria over drugs and drug-related crime prevents sensible discussion of policy.

ANS: T REF: 13-3 2. The National Survey on Drug Use and Health collects self-report data on a sample of the general population and has found drug use to be limited to certain demographic groups.

ANS: F REF: 13-4 3. If there were success in substantially reducing illegal drug use, there would be a reduction in crimes associated with drug usage to the same degree.

ANS: F REF: 13-8 4. Research supports that there is a direct causal link between crime and drugs.

ANS: F REF: 13-6 5. Owls emphasize law enforcement to eradicate drug abuse while doves prefer prevention and treatment of drug abuse.

ANS: F REF: 13-9 6.

Minorities use illegal drugs more heavily than Caucasians.

ANS: F REF: 13-4

7. Interdiction efforts seek to stop the flow of drugs into the country while eradication deals with reducing production of drug plants in the field.

ANS: T REF: 13-13

8. Attempts to control products or services through the criminal law may create a criminal syndicate to provide the product or service.

ANS: T REF: 13-19 9. The Scared Straight program in which adult offenders told juvenile offenders about the horrors of imprisonment is an educational strategy known as moral appeal.

ANS: F REF: 13-22 10. DARE provides skills for recognizing and resisting social pressures to experiment with alcohol, tobacco and drugs, as well as developing skills in risk assessment and decision making.

ANS: T REF: 13-24---13-25 11. Properly managed drug court programs are effective in reducing both drug use and criminal behavior.

ANS: T REF: 13-32 12. The primary goal of therapeutic communities is to temporarily remove the external influences that contribute to drug dependency and using counseling to restructure the client’s personality.

ANS: T REF: 13-28---13-29 13. Maximalists support legalization of all drugs for adults only, while agnostics have no final position on the legalization debate.

ANS: F REF: 13-36 14. Drug legalization means the complete elimination of all forms of government control.

ANS: F REF: 13-36 15. The impact of legalizing drugs is well documented and is known to increase serious crime.

ANS: F

F: 13-39 MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The hysteria over the drug problem involving crack babies was a. underestimated c. greatly exaggerated b. an accurate representation of the drug d. none of the above problem ANS: C REF: 13-2---13-3 2. The Drug Abuse Warning Network collects data from a. a self-report of high school seniors b. a nationally representative sample of persons 12 years old and older c. emergency room visits d. urine specimens of parolees ANS: C REF: 13-5 3. We can reasonably conclude that legalization of drugs will lead to a reduction in what type of drug crime? a. drug-defined d. all of the above b. drug-related e. none of the above c. crimes associated with drug use ANS: A REF: 13-38 4. Regarding the drug-crime connection a. drug-defined crimes refer to crimes caused by drug use and abuse b. crimes associated with drug use include the commission of robberies to get money to buy drugs c. drug-related crimes include violent behavior caused by the pharmacological effects of drugs d. drug-related crimes include possession and sale of illegal substances ANS: C REF: 13-7 5. The American drug policy is dominated by the __________ approach to drug policy. a. hawk c. dove b. owl d. crow ANS: A REF: 13-9

6. Select the most accurate statement regarding the different approaches to drug policy. a. hawks believe drug policy is the problem while doves emphasize supply reduction b. owls believe we should respond to drug abuse as a public health problem c. most liberals favor hawk-type policies while conservatives favor owl-type policies d. the radical dove approach is to legalize drugs while hawks emphasize supply reduction ANS: D REF: 13-9 7. The impact of the war on drugs is best summarized by which of the following statements? a. the number of arrests for drug offenses has increased and a larger proportion of drug offenders were Caucasians rather than racial minorities b. the number of people arrested for drug offenses now represents 12% of all arrests and our prison population has skyrocketed c. African-Americans are treated less harshly by the criminal justice system than Caucasians though they are only somewhat more likely to use illegal drugs d. African-Americans are treated harshly by the criminal justice system because they are far more likely to use illegal drugs ANS: B REF: 13-10 8. Racial bias is evident at what point in the criminal justice system? a. bail amounts for minority drug offenders b. harsher sentences for minority drug offenders for crack c. at every stage of the criminal justice system d. racial bias has not been established using research evidence ANS: C REF: 13-11 9. The use of local law enforcement efforts as a strategy for reducing drug abuse a. is an owl type of drug control policy b. is the best way to counter the replacement effect c. is unlikely to have much impact on the availability of drugs on the street d. is an effective long-term strategy because of the intensive geographical focus ANS: C REF: 13-2---13-3 10. Interdiction-type strategies a. attempt to stop the flow of drugs entering the country b. attempt to reduce the production of drug plants in the field c. are demand-reduction strategies that seek to intercede early into drug addiction d. are supply-reduction strategies that seek reduce the availability of drugs ANS: A REF: 13-13

11.

Attempts to reduce the production of drug plants in the field are known as what? a. interdiction c. demand-reduction b. eradication d. none of the above ANS: B REF: 13-13

12.

Increased drug interdiction efforts have resulted in a. an increase in incarceration in the U.S. b. a reduction in the number of drug arrests c. a noticeable decrease in the worldwide production of drugs d. no decrease in the worldwide production of drugs ANS: D REF: 13-15

13.

What effects of alcohol prohibition are similar to those of drug prohibition? a. turning casual users into criminals undermining respect for the law b. enforcement abuses including illegal searches and seizures c. the black market and corruption d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: D REF: 13-16---13-17

14. Historical examples where the criminal law was used to control wanted products or services show us that a. this is an effective way to change behavior b. it does not eliminate the prohibited behavior and may cause more harm than good c. the criminal justice system does a better job changing behavior than public health agencies d. most prohibited behaviors are considered immoral by the majority of Americans ANS: B REF: 13-18---13-19 16. One of the conclusions about using the criminal law to control products or services that a large number of people want is a. secondary crime will be prevented b. it enhances respect for the law c. someone will try to supply them d. it effectively changes behavior ANS: C REF: 13-18

17. Examples of behaviors that have been effectively controlled socially outside of the criminal justice system include a. smoking and automobile fatalities c. prohibitions of alcohol and abortion b. “just say no” and DARE d. all of the above ANS: A REF: 13-20---13-21 18. An educational strategy that seeks to change behavior by providing information and assumes people will not engage in certain behaviors such as drug use or risky sex is a. information dissemination b. moral appeal c. fear arousal d. affective education ANS: A REF: 13-21---13-22 19. An educational strategy that attempts to develop personal and social skills that will help people resist certain behavior is known as a. information dissemination c. moral appeal b. fear arousal d. affective education ANS: D REF: 13-22 20. The “Scared Straight” program used which of the educational strategies? a. information dissemination b. fear arousal c. moral appeal d. affective education ANS: B REF: 13-22 21. Why has the DARE program been a stable anti-drug educational program? a. it relies primarily on information dissemination b. it effectively reduces long-term drug use c. it is popular with parents, politicians and the police d. it relies on the most effective teaching method e. all of the above ANS: C REF: 13-25

22. Why is the DARE program ineffective? a. use of lecture rather than participative instruction b. influence of peers

c. lack of training of police officers d. all of the above

ANS: D REF: 13-25---13-26 23. AIDS education programs have been effective with _____(1)_____ but ineffective with younger gay males and ____(2)_____ with concern to unsafe sexual encounters. a. (1) adult gay men (2) the underclass c. (1) needle-drug users (2) female teenagers b. (1) female teenagers (2) adult gay men d. (1) needle-drug users (2) the underclass ANS: A REF: 13-27 24. People who engage in certain illicit behaviors that are most likely to respond to information dissemination programs are a. poor and desperate c. fifth and sixth graders b. prior offenders d. successful and educated ANS: D REF: 13-27 25. The least expensive and least controversial type of drug treatment program is what? a. therapeutic communities c. drug courts b. outpatient drug-free programs d. faith-based treatment ANS: B REF: 13-29 26. One of the major issues related to drug treatment is the __________ of treatment programs. a. cost c. availability b. toughness d. length ANS: C REF: 13-27 27. The most serious and disturbing problem with drug treatment programs is a. high rates of relapse b. clients who complete them are just as likely to use drugs c. they are expensive to implement d. determining how lengthy they should be

ANS: A REF: 13-30 28. Drug courts are seemingly more effective than other forms of drug treatment due to a. judicial involvement c. proper planning and management b. its selection process d. all of the above ANS: D REF: 13-33 29. One danger of overexpansion of drug courts is a. difficulty finding qualified judges b. persuading states to fund the courts c. admitting the extent of the drug problem in the U.S. d. admitting people who are not amenable to treatment, thus lowering the success rate ANS: D REF: 13-34 30. The biggest challenge for effective drug treatment is a. the ever-growing range of available drugs c. obtaining funding b. removing the stigma of drug treatment d. matching the right program with the right client ANS: D REF: 13-31 31. The case for legalization includes which of the following points? a. criminal prohibition has not reduced drug use b. we spend billions of dollars a year on the drug war c. the war on drugs produces harmful side effects d. all of the above ANS: D REF: 13-35 32. Those who believe in a drug legalization strategy involving the elimination of penalties for adult possession of marijuana and other less dangerous drugs are known as legalization a. maximalists c. minimalists b. moderates d. agnostics ANS: C REF: 13-36

33. The predicted effects of drug legalization depend on which strategy is proposed, but no matter what policy is adopted the following questions arise a. will we still be able to get tough with certain drug offenders? b. would drug use and predatory crime increase or decrease? c. would we criminalize tobacco use? d. will we continue to see fewer teens using marijuana?

ANS: B REF: 13-37 34. Karel’s legalization proposal includes the maintenance of which drug(s) as completely illegal? a. crack and PCP d. all of the above b. coca leaves e. none of the above c. psychedelic drugs ANS: A REF: 13-38 35. The danger of legalizing drugs is a. our society will crumble as everyone walks around in a drug-induced haze b. residents of other countries will pour into the U.S. to purchase drugs c. the mechanisms of socialization might be overwhelmed by the legislation d. drug dealers will turn to other dangerous criminal activity ANS: C REF: 13-39 SHORT ANSWER 1. Compare and contrast the four surveys used to measure the extent of the drug problem; include in your reply weaknesses of each.

REF: 13-4---13-6 2. Describe the drug policies emphasized by hawks, owls and doves.

REF: 13-8---13-10 3. Explain the rationale behind various drug supply-reduction efforts.

REF: 13-12---13-16 4. Differentiate between the four educational strategies.

REF: 13-21---13-22 5. Evaluate the argument that drug treatment programs are effective through consideration of the various types of programs, reduction in drug use and relapse.

REF: 13-27---13-31 6. Compare and contrast the legalization strategies and proposed effects presented by maximalists, moderates, minimalists and agnostics.

REF: 13-36

Test Bank and Answer Key TRUE/FALSE 1. One of the basic operating principles for effective community-focused crime prevention and control is that it requires the simultaneous application of several policies.

ANS: T REF: 14-3 2. In areas with higher levels of collective efficacy, lower crime rates were only found in the wealthier neighborhoods.

ANS: F REF: 14-7 3. An innovative policing strategy used in Boston’s Gun Project was “pulling levers” and the use of various criminal justice and social service agencies.

ANS: T REF: 14-9 4. One aspect of collective efficacy is the ceding of social control.

ANS: F REF: 14-6 5. Problem-solving courts focus on less serious “disorder” offenses and use alternatives to incarceration.

ANS: T REF: 14-13 6. By reducing the number of jail days, the Midtown Community Court achieved the anticipated cost savings.

ANS: T REF: 14-15

7. Reentry programming embraces the operating principles that guide problem-oriented policing and community prosecution.

ANS: T REF: 14-18 8. The majority of offenders leaving prison return to their old neighborhood.

ANS: F REF: 14-19 9. Research conducted by the Urban Institute found that many parolees had no health care and were not employed four to eight months after release.

ANS: T REF: 14-19 10. Prison industries have provided meaningful work for inmates.

ANS: F REF: 14-21 11. Front-loading parole services are hindered by huge caseloads.

ANS: T REF: 14-23 12. Restrictions on housing, employment opportunities, and civil disabilities adversely affect those released from prison.

ANS: T REF: 14-24---14-27 13. The Justice Reinvestment Initiative channels money from prisons to community-based programs.

ANS: T REF: 14-28 14. Restorative justice sanctions seek to punish the offender and build a bond between the victim and community.

ANS: F REF: 14-30

15. Restorative justice is dependent upon informal social control which is not as evident in a diverse and largely anonymous modern society.

ANS: T REF: 14-2 MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

The new community focus on crime control a. b. c. d.

is a liberal crime control strategy is a conservative crime control strategy enjoys a strong consensus among criminologists breeds extensive skepticism among criminologists

ANS: C REF: 14-2 2.

The basic operating principles for the community focus on crime control include a. a get-tough strategy that includes more arrests and mandatory sentences b. a geographic focus and partnerships between criminal justice and non-criminal justice agencies c. a shift in power back to criminal justice agencies that uses zero-tolerance policies d. a desire to find the single crime policy that will promote effective prevention and control ANS: B REF: 14-3---14-4 3. Even poor communities with __________ , in which there is some capacity to control the neighborhood, have lower crime rates than neighborhoods without it. a. collective efficacy c. embeddedness b. an offender reentry program d. all of the above ANS: A REF: 14-7 4. Trust among residents in a neighborhood and their shared expectations about social control is known as a. community policing c. neighborhood watch b. front-loading d. collective efficacy ANS: D REF: 14-6 5. An important policy implication of collective efficacy is? a. impact of environmental issues c. trust in local criminal justice agencies b. formal crime reduction strategies d. distrust in formal social control

ANS: C REF: 14-7 6. The community-focused program that involved a highly focused and multi-agency effort and active participation of community groups in order to reduce youth violence was known as a. The Boston Gun Project c. The Midtown Community Court b. The Chicago Area Project d. The New York Zero Tolerance Policy ANS: A REF: 14-9 7. Among the "pulling levers" strategies used in Operation Cease Fire was? a. using plea bargaining to get defendants to plead guilty b. arresting gang members with outstanding warrants c. providing post-release services within the first six months d. proactive supervision designed to reduce parolee recidivism ANS: B REF: 14-9 8. An evaluation of Operation Cease Fire found a. no change as the policy was not implemented as intended b. a decrease in the unemployment rate and a reduction in the level of drug activity c. a decrease in both violent and property crime in the treatment areas d. a decrease in youth homicides and number of calls to police regarding shots fired ANS: D REF: 14-10 9. One concern about innovations in policing, such as the SMART program, is a. implicit racial discrimination b. the negative impact on the surrounding neighborhood c. the continuity of reforms d. the legality of these innovations ANS: C REF: 14-11 10. The war on terrorism has affected community policing innovations by a. refocusing the attention of the police departments b. increasing the use of weapons by both civilians and police c. giving units more staff members d. improving the police’s efforts to target certain criminals ANS: A REF: 14-11

11. Studies on domestic violence and burglary found that collective efficacy a. Does not reduce crime in poor neighborhoods b. Decreases following a crime event in a neighborhood c. Increases following a crime event in a neighborhood d. Lowers rates of both domestic violence and burglary ANS: D REF: 14-8 12. Community prosecution applies the basic principles of __________ to the prosecution stage of the criminal process. a. traditional policing c. offender reentry programs b. problem-oriented policing d. restorative justice ANS: B REF: 14-11 13. The purposes of problem-solving courts are to a. target prosecution efforts on a particular problem, neighborhood or type of offender b. involve a long-term proactive partnership among the prosecutor’s office, law enforcement, the community and private organizations c. use alternatives to incarceration, strict monitoring of sentence conditions and rapid imposition of sentences d. all of the above ANS: C REF: 14-13 14. The Midtown Community Court grew out of which of the following problems? a. that punishment as a consequence did not change behavior in the desired direction b. that there were often no consequences of any sort for committing quality-of-life offenses c. that offenders were not punished severely enough for their wrongdoing d. that offenders were punished too severely for their wrongdoing ANS: B REF: 14-14 15. For which reason did the Midtown Community Court require sentenced offenders to wear bright blue vests and perform their community service within 24 hours of being sentenced? a. to make justice visible and swift b. to promote quick healing through restorative justice c. to enhance the deterrent effect d. all of the above e. a & c only ANS: E REF: 14-14

16. What did an evaluation of the Midtown Community Court find? a. sentences involving community service were higher than a comparable court b. jail sentences were less common than a comparable court c. average arrest-to-arraignment times were faster than a comparable court d. all of the above e. none of the above ANS: D REF: 14-15 17. The ability of community prosecution to reduce serious crime is questionable because a. it is not implemented as intended b. it does not get tough on offenders which is what is needed to reduce crime c. this is a loophole that allows serious offenders to escape prosecution d. whether focusing on quality-of-life crime reduces serious crime remains unproven ANS: D REF: 14-16---14-17 18.

According to Walker, the most important positive result of community courts is a. that community members become involved in the community b. that is rehabilitates minor offenders c. that the attention to disorder can help revitalize neighborhoods d. that it deters serious crime ANS: C REF: 14-17

19. The most important factor in parolees’ adjustment to society was found to be a. a job c. a place to live b. family support d. referral to substance abuse treatment ANS: B REF: 14-19 20. Those who return to the community must overcome a number of issues including? a. illiteracy c. gainful employment b. physical and mental health issues d. all of the above ANS: D REF: 14-20 21. Reentry programming embraces the operating principles that guide a. community prosecution and restorative justice

b. broken windows theory and problem-oriented policing c. problem-oriented policing and community prosecution d. community crime control and restorative justice ANS: C REF: 14-18 22. Petersilia makes a persuasive case for investing in prison programs that will provide

inmates with a. b. c. d.

meaningful work experience education anger management programs all of the above

ANS: D REF: 14-20 23.

American society has ignored recommendations for prison programming because a. all of the services ex-offenders need are already available b. of politics and attitudes regarding crime and criminals c. they have traditionally supported discretionary over mandatory release d. no research evidence indicates it is important or effective ANS: B REF: 14-21

24. One reason that prison industries have not succeeded is a. complications involving Social Security c. inmates’ lack of work experience and income tax payments b. inmates’ lack of free time d. lack of supervision ANS: C REF: 14-22 25. Providing post-release services in the first six months after a prisoner’s release is known as a. feedback effect c. ecometrics b. proactive supervision d. front-loading ANS: D REF: 14-22 26. Why have parole agencies failed to provide adequate services for parolees soon after release from prison? a. they want to give offenders time to get on their feet first b. they do not have the staff or resources to handle their caseloads c. they need time to process post-release paperwork and parole files

d. all of the above ANS: B REF: 14-23 27. How has the war on drugs provided ex-offenders with a unique barrier to employment? a. federal law requires states to revoke their drivers’ licenses b. convicted drug offenders are barred from holding jobs in nursing and as barbers c. parolees are subjected to urinalysis and lose their job if there is evidence of drug use d. a drug conviction bars parolees from receiving a job referral from his/her parole officer ANS: A REF: 14-25 28.

Many states restrict access for recently released offenders to which of the following? a. receiving welfare c. voting b. public housing d. all of the above ANS: D REF: 14-25---14-27

29. Denying voting rights to convicted offenders may keep them from a. reducing their likelihood of recidivism c. fully reintegrating into the community b. holding political office d. engaging in the restorative justice process ANS: C REF: 14-27 30. Although _______ vocational programs are the most popular training programs at the New York City Reformatory, all states prohibit convicted felons from working as __________. a. car repair; mechanics c. nursing; nurses b. hair care; barbers d. refrigerator repair; refrigerator technicians ANS: B REF: 14-25 31.

The Justice Reinvestment Initiative brings together several strands of thinking, including a. that parole is inefficient and poorly managed b. that our policy of mass incarceration is characterized by severe racial disparities c. that only “locking up” criminals will reduce crime d. that longer prison terms will better reduce crime ANS: B REF: 14-28

32. The restorative justice movement draws heavily on a. community persecution c. broken windows theory b. hot spots d. peacemaking traditions ANS: D REF: 14-31 33.

The most serious problem with the idea of restorative justice is that a. it requires tight-knit families and communities which have largely disappeared b. it is inappropriate for less serious offenses like property crimes c. it is too expensive to implement on the scale required for it to reduce crime d. neither victims nor offenders feel good about the results ANS: A REF: 14-32---14-33

34.

Restorative justice may well be appropriate and effective for whom? a. a repeat drunk driver b. a person who kills in self-defense c. the juvenile delinquent in a middle class neighborhood d. stranger rape ANS: C REF: 14-32

35. In his discussion of restorative justice, Braithwaite argues that _____(1)_____ social control has more effect on criminal behavior than ____(2)_____ social control. a. (1) formal (2) informal c. (1) lenient (2) harsh b. (1) informal (2) formal d. (1) harsh (2) lenient ANS: B REF: 14-31 SHORT ANSWER 1. Describe the theoretical underpinnings and the basic operating principles of community crime control.

REF: 14-2---14-7 2. Identify the most influential factors in the success of the Boston Gun Project and explain why such innovative programs can be difficult to replicate.

REF: 14-9---14-11

3. Assess the usefulness of community prosecution programs.

REF: 14-11---14-17 4. Identify and assess the impact of restrictions on offenders' post-release success.

REF: 14-24---14-27 5. Describe and critique the Justice Reinvestment Initiative.

REF: 14-28---14-30