Burton's Microbiology For the Health Sciences 9th edition by Paul G. Engelkirk - Test Bank

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following individuals is 1. considered to be the “Father of Microbiology”?

Anton van Leeuwenhoek Louis Pasteur Robert Koch Rudolf Virchow

2.

A) B) C) D)

3.

A) B) C) D)

A) B) C) D)

B) C) D)

Microorganisms that live on dead and decaying organic material are known as indigenous microflora. parasites. pathogens. saprophytes.

4. The study of algae is called algaeology. botany. mycology. phycology.

5.

A)

The microorganisms that usually live on or within a person are collectively referred to as germs. indigenous microflora. nonpathogens. opportunistic pathogens.

The field of parasitology involves the study of which of the following types of organisms? arthropods, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and viruses arthropods, helminths, and certain protozoa bacteria, fungi, and protozoa bacteria, fungi, and viruses

6.

A) B) C) D)

7.

A) B) C) D)

8.

A) B) C) D)

9.

A) B) C) D)

10.

A) B) C) D)

Rudolf Virchow is given credit for proposing which of the following theories? abiogenesis biogenesis germ theory of disease spontaneous generation

Which of the following microorganisms are considered obligate intracellular pathogens? chlamydias, rickettsias, Mycobacterium leprae, and Treponema pallidum Mycobacterium leprae and Treponema pallidum Mycobacterium tuberculosis and viruses rickettsias, chlamydias, and viruses

Which one of the following statements is true?

Koch developed a rabies vaccine.

Microorganisms are ubiquitous.

Most microorganisms are harmful to humans.

Pasteur conducted experiments that proved the theory of abiogenesis.

Which of the following are even smaller than viruses? chlamydias prions and viroids rickettsias cyanobacteria

Which of the following individuals introduced the terms “aerobes” and “anaerobes”?

Anton van Leeuwenhoek Louis Pasteur Robert Koch Rudolf Virchow

Use the following to answer questions 11-15: Match the following names with the correct phrases. a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek b. Robert Koch c. Louis Pasteur d. Rudolf Virchow e. Alexandre Emil Jean Yersin

11. Developed vaccines for anthrax and rabies.

12. Proposed the theory of biogenesis.

13. Discovered the etiologic agent of plague.

14.

The first person to observe live bacteria and protozoa.

Developed an experimental procedure that could be used to prove that a specific 15. microorganism is the cause of a specific infectious disease.

Use the following to answer questions 16-20: Match the following items with the correct statements. a. pathogens b. nonpathogens c. opportunistic pathogens d. indigenous microflora e. saprophytes

16.

Organisms that live on dead or decaying organic matter.

17. Microorganisms that do not cause disease.

Microorganisms that usually do not cause 18. disease, but can cause disease under certain circumstances.

19. The microorganisms that live on us and in us.

20.

The most common causes of infectious diseases or microbial intoxications.

A) B)

All infectious diseases are caused by pathogens.

True False

A) B)

22. Pathogens greatly outnumber nonpathogens.

True False

21.

23.

A) B)

24.

A) B)

Using microorganisms to clean up the environment is known as bioremediation.

True False

Microorganisms are essential in the field of genetic engineering.

True False

A) B)

Microorganisms probably appeared on earth about 3.5 million years ago.

True False

A) B)

Anton van Leeuwenhoek's experiments 26. helped to prove that microorganisms cause disease.

True False

A) B)

Louis Pasteur and Robert Koch made 27. significant contributions to the “Germ Theory of Disease.”

True False

A) B)

Pasteurization is a process that kills all 28. microorganisms present in the liquid being pasteurized.

True False

25.

29.

A) B)

30.

A) B)

Microorganisms contribute more oxygen to our atmosphere than plants do.

True False

Infectious diseases that are transmitted from animals to humans are known as zoonoses.

True False

Use the following to answer questions 31-34: Match the following names with the correct statements.

a. Robert Koch b. Louis Pasteur c. Rudolf Virchow d. Antony van Leeuwenhoek

This German scientist proposed the theory of 31. biogenesis—that life can arise only from preexisting life.

This Dutchman built single lens microscopes 32. as a hobby and is believed to be the first person to see live bacteria and protozoa.

This German physician developed a step-bystep scientific method to prove that a 33. particular microorganism causes a particular disease and contributed to what is known as “the germ theory of disease.”

This French scientist discovered that microorganisms are responsible for 34. fermentations, contributed to disproving abiogenesis, and contributed to what is known as “the germ theory of disease.”

Answer Key 1.

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A B D D B B D B B B c d e

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B B D B B B c d e a b e b c d a A B A A B B A B A A c d a b

A) B) C) D)

A millimeter is equivalent to how many nanometers?

1,000 10,000 100,000 1,000,000

A) B) C) D)

Assume that a pinhead is 1 mm in diameter.

How many spherical bacteria (cocci), lined up 2. side-by-side, would fit across the pinhead.

(Hint: Use information from Table 2-1.)

100 1,000 10,000 100,000

1.

A) B) C) D)

What is the length of an average rod-shaped bacterium (bacillus)?

3 µm 3 nm 0.3 mm 0.03 mm

A) B) C) D)

What is the total magnification when using the high-power (high-dry) objective of a 4. compound light microscope equipped with a × 10 ocular lens?

40 50 100 400

A) B) C) D)

How many times better is the resolution of the 5. transmission electron microscope than the resolution of the unaided human eye?

1,000 10,000 100,000 1,000,000

3.

A) B) C) D)

How many times better is the resolution of the 6. transmission electron microscope than the resolution of the compound light microscope?

100 1,000 10,000 100,000

A) B) C) D)

How many times better is the resolution of the transmission electron microscope than the 7. resolution of the scanning electron microscope?

100 1,000 10,000 100,000

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w

w

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A) B) C) D)

5. transmission electron microscope than the resolution of the unaided human eye?

1,000 10,000 100,000 1,000,000

gt

A) B) C) D)

Which one of the following individuals is 9. given credit for developing the first compound microscope?

Anton van Leeuwenhoek Hans Jansen Louis Pasteur Robert Hooke

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an

tb

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A) B) C) D)

The limiting factor of any compound light 8. microscope (i.e., the thing that limits its resolution to 0.2 µm) is the: number of condenser lenses it has. number of magnifying lenses it has. number of ocular lenses it has. wavelength of visible light.

e

A) B) C) D)

A compound light microscope differs from a 10. simple microscope in that the compound light microscope contains more than one: condenser lens. magnifying lens. objective lens. ocular lens.

Use the following to answer questions 11-15: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. 10 b. 100 c. 1,000 d. 1,000,000 e. 1,000,000,000

11. The number of nanometers in a micrometer.

The resolving power of the compound light 12. microscope is __________ times better than the resolving power of the unaided eye.

13. The number of micrometers in a millimeter.

The resolving power of the transmission electron microscope is __________ times 14. better than the resolving power of the scanning electron microscope.

The resolving power of the transmission electron microscope is __________ times 15. better than the resolving power of the unaided eye.

Use the following to answer questions 16-20: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. 0.2 nm b. 20 nm c. 0.2 µm d. 1 µm e. 0.2 mm

16. The width of a typical coccus.

w

18.

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17. The resolving power of the unaided eye.

The resolving power of the scanning electron microscope.

The resolving power of the transmission electron microscope.

gt 19.

tb

es

The resolving power of the compound light microscope.

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20.

A) B)

The wavelength of visible light limits the size 22. of objects that can be seen with the compound light microscope.

True False

e

A) B)

Anton van Leeuwenhoek is given credit for 21. developing the first compound light microscope.

True False

A) B)

The resolving power of compound light 23. microscopes can be improved by adding additional magnifying lenses.

True False

A) B)

A brightfield microscope can be converted to a darkfield microscope by replacing the 24. condenser on a brightfield microscope with a darkfield condenser.

True False

25.

A) B)

A) B)

Primary syphilis is usually diagnosed in the 26. clinical microbiology laboratory by the use of a scanning electron microscope.

True False

27.

A) B)

28.

A) B)

29.

A) B)

Transmission electron microscopes are used to study surface features.

True False

A magnifying glass could be considered a simple microscope.

True False

The total magnification achieved when the oil immersion lens is used is 1,000 ×.

True False

Fluorescence microscopy is often used in immunology laboratories.

True False

A) B)

Fluorescence microscopy is often used in immunology laboratories.

True False

A) B)

The resolving power of electron microscopes is much better than that of compound light 30. microscopes because the wavelength of electrons is much longer than that of visible light.

True False

29.

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n si

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A) B) C) D)

w

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31.

The approximate resolving power of the unaided human eye is: 0.2 cm.

0.2 mm.

0.2 µm.

0.2 nm.

gt

.m ks

an

tb

A) B) C) D)

The approximate resolving power of the compound light microscope is: 0.2 cm.

0.2 mm.

0.2 µm.

0.2 nm.

es

32.

e

The reason that better resolution cannot be achieved with the compound light 33. microscopes used in the lab (i.e., the limiting factor of the compound light microscope) is the: “high-tech” capabilities of the company that we purchased them from. manner in which the objective lenses were ground. fact that the eyepiece (ocular) magnification is only ×10. wavelength of visible light.

A) B) C) D)

A) B) C) D)

The total magnification achieved in the laboratory when using the high-power (high34. dry) objective of the compound light microscope is: 40×.

100×.

400×.

1,000×.

A) B) C) D)

The total magnification achieved in the laboratory when using the oil immersion 35. objective of the compound light microscope is: 40×.

100×.

400×.

1,000×.

36.

A)

B)

C) D)

37.

A) B) C) D)

Which one of the following statements is not true?

The scanning electron microscope is used to examine the surfaces of various objects and its resolving power is approximately 20 nm.

The transmission electron microscope is used to examine very thin sections of various specimens and its resolving power is approximately 1,000 times better than the resolving power of the unaided human eye.

0.5 mm = 500 µm = 500,000 nm.

Better resolution can be achieved using transmission electron microscopes than can be achieved using scanning electron microscopes.

The unit of measure usually used to describe bacterial size is: millimeters. micrometers. nanometers. angstroms.

37.

A) B) C) D)

The unit of measure usually used to describe bacterial size is: millimeters. micrometers. nanometers. angstroms.

Answer Key

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D B A D D B A D B B c c c b d d e b a c B A B A B B A A A B B C D C D B B

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B B C D C D B B

A) B) C) D)

Molecules of extrachromosomal DNA are also known as: Golgi bodies. lysosomes. plasmids. plastids.

A) B) C) D)

A bacterium possessing a tuft of flagella at 2. one end of its cell would be called what kind of bacterium? amphitrichous lophotrichous monotrichous peritrichous

A) B) C) D)

One way in which an archaean would differ 3. from a bacterium is that the archaean would possess no: DNA in its chromosome. peptidoglycan in its cell walls. ribosomes in its cytoplasm.

RNA in its ribosomes.

A) B) C) D)

Some bacteria stain Gram-positive and others 4. stain Gram-negative because of differences in the structure of their: capsule. cell membrane. cell wall. ribosomes.

1.

5.

A) B) C) D)

Of the following, which one is not found in procaryotic cells? cell membrane chromosome mitochondria plasmids

A) B) C) D)

The Three-Domain System of classification is 6. based on differences in which one of the following molecules? mRNA peptidoglycan rRNA tRNA

7.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following is in the correct sequence?

Kingdom, Class, Division, Order, Family, Genus Kingdom, Division, Class, Order, Family, Genus Kingdom, Division, Order, Class, Family, Genus Kingdom, Order, Division, Class, Family, Genus

A) B) C) D)

Which one of the following is never found in prokaryotic cells? flagella capsule cilia ribosomes

A) B) C) D)

The semipermeable structure controlling the 9. transport of materials between the cell and its external environment is the: cell membrane. cell wall. cytoplasm. nuclear membrane.

8.

10.

A) B) C) D)

In eucaryotic cells, what are the sites of photosynthesis? mitochondria plasmids plastids ribosomes

10.

A) B) C) D)

In eucaryotic cells, what are the sites of photosynthesis? mitochondria plasmids plastids ribosomes

Use the following to answer questions 11-15: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. plastids b. mitochondria c. ribosomes d. endoplasmic reticulum e. golgi complex

11.

Membrane-bound organelles where photosynthesis occurs.

12.

The sites of protein synthesis in procaryotic cells.

Considered a “packaging plant,” where 13. proteins are packaged into membrane-bound vesicles.

Membrane-bound organelles where energy is 14. produced by the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain.

15.

Found in procaryotic cells as well as eucaryotic cells.

Use the following to answer questions 16-20: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. pili

b. cilia c. eucaryotic flagella d. capsules e. procaryotic flagella

16.

Short, hairlike projections used as organelles of locomotion by some eucaryotic cells.

17.

Found on some bacteria; they serve an antiphagocytic function.

18.

Found on some bacteria; they enable the bacteria to adhere to surfaces.

19. Composed of a protein called flagellin.

Long, whiplike structures having an internal 20. organization that is described as a “9 + 2” arrangement of microtubules.

A) B)

The internal structure of procaryotic flagella 21. is the same as the internal structure of eucaryotic flagella.

True False

A) B)

The internal structure of eucaryotic cilia is the 22. same as the internal structure of eucaryotic flagella.

True False

23.

A) B)

The production of endospores by bacteria is a reproductive mechanism.

True False

23.

A) B)

24.

A) B)

The production of endospores by bacteria is a reproductive mechanism.

True False

Bacteria never have cilia and eucaryotic cells never have pili.

True False

A) B)

The 3-Domain System of classification is 25. based on differences in the structure of transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules.

True False

A) B)

One way that archaeans differ from bacteria is 26. that archaeans possess more peptidoglycan in their cell walls.

True False

A) B)

Chitin is found in the cell walls of algae, but 27. is not found in the cell walls of any other types of microorganisms.

True False

A) B)

Tyndallization is a process that kills spores as well as vegetative cells.

True False

A) B)

Procaryotic cells do not contain endoplasmic 29. reticulum, Golgi bodies, mitochondria, plastids, or membrane-bound vesicles.

True False

28.

30.

A) B)

In eucaryotic cells, ribosomal RNA (rRNA) molecules are manufactured in the nucleolus.

True False

Use the following to answer questions 31-35: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. cellulose b. chitin c. peptidoglycan d. teichoic acids

Found in the cell walls of both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, but greater 31. quantities are found in the cell walls of Grampositive bacteria.

32.

Found in the cell walls of algae, but not in the cell walls of other microorganisms.

Found in the cell walls of Gram-positive 33. bacteria, but not in the cell walls of Gramnegative bacteria.

34.

Found in the cell walls of fungi, but not in the cell walls of other microorganisms.

Found in the cell walls of both Gram-positive 35. and Gram-negative bacteria, but not found in the cell walls of archaeans.

Use the following to answer questions 36-43:

Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. pili b. slime layer c. procaryotic flagella d. capsules e. eucaryotic flagella

36.

Have an internal organization described as a “9 + 2” arrangement of microtubules.

A type of glycocalyx having an organized 37. structure and found firmly attached to bacterial cell walls.

38.

Some play a role in bacterial conjugation (“bacterial mating”).

39. They often serve an antiphagocytic function.

40.

Terms like monotrichous and peritrichous describe their location.

41.

Some of these thin, hairlike appendages enable bacteria to adhere to surfaces.

Some Pseudomonas species produce this type of glycocalyx, which lacks an organized 42. structure and is only loosely attached to the bacterial cell wall.

43. Used to make Hib vaccine.

Use the following to answer questions 44-49: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. mitochondria b. ribosomes c. endoplasmic reticulum d. cilia e. plastids

44.

Membrane-bound organelles where photosynthesis occurs.

45.

The sites of protein synthesis in procaryotic cells.

Membrane-bound organelles where energy is 46. produced by the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain.

Short, hairlike projections that are used as 47. organelles of locomotion by some eucaryotic cells.

48.

Found in procaryotic cells as well as eucaryotic cells.

49.

The sites of protein synthesis in eucaryotic cells.

Use the following to answer questions 50-55: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. found in both procaryotes and eucaryotes b. found only in procaryotes

c. found only in eucaryotes d. not found in either procaryotes or eucaryotes

50. endoplasmic reticulum

51. capsids

52. chromosomes

53. plastids

54. cilia

55. mitochondria

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C C B C C C B C A C a c e b c b d a e c B A

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e b c b d a e c B A B A B B B A A A c a d b c e d a d c a b d e b a d b b c d a c c c

A) B) C) D)

Which one of the following steps occurs during the multiplication of animal viruses, 1. but not during the multiplication of bacteriophages? assembly biosynthesis penetration uncoating

2.

A) B) C) D)

A) B) C) D)

3. Most procaryotic cells reproduce by: binary fission budding gamete production spore formation

4.

A) B) C) D)

5.

A) B) C) D)

Which one of the following diseases or groups of diseases is not caused by prions? certain plant diseases chronic wasting disease of deer and elk Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease of humans “mad cow disease”

The group of bacteria that lack rigid cell walls and take on irregular shapes is: chlamydias. mycobacteria. mycoplasmas. rickettsias.

At the end of the Gram staining procedure, Gram-positive bacteria will be: blue-to-purple. green. orange. pink-to-red.

6.

A) B) C) D)

7.

A) B) C) D)

8.

A) B) C) D)

9.

A) B) C) D)

Which one of the following statements about rickettsias is false?

Diseases caused by rickettsias are arthropodborne.

Rickets is caused by a Rickettsia species.

Rickettsia species cause typhus and typhuslike diseases.

Rickettsias have leaky membranes.

Which one of the following statements about Chlamydia and Chlamydophila spp. is false?

They are obligate intracellular pathogens.

They are considered to be “energy parasites.”

The diseases they cause are all arthropodborne.

They are considered to be Gram-negative bacteria.

Which one of the following statements about cyanobacteria is false?

Although cyanobacteria are photosynthetic, they do not produce oxygen as a result of photosynthesis.

At one time, cyanobacteria were called bluegreen algae.

Some cyanobacteria are capable of nitrogen fixation.

Some cyanobacteria are important medically because they produce toxins.

Which one of the following statements about archaeans is false?

Archaeans are more closely related to eucaryotes than they are to bacteria.

Both archaeans and bacteria are procaryotic organisms.

Some archaeans live in extremely hot environments.

The cell walls of archaeans contain a thicker layer of peptidoglycan than the cell walls of bacteria.

eucaryotes than they are to bacteria.

Both archaeans and bacteria are procaryotic organisms.

Some archaeans live in extremely hot environments.

The cell walls of archaeans contain a thicker layer of peptidoglycan than the cell walls of bacteria.

B) C) D)

A) B) C) D)

An organism that does not require oxygen, grows better in the absence of oxygen, but can 10. survive in atmospheres containing some molecular oxygen is known as a/an: aerotolerant anaerobe. capnophile. facultative anaerobe. microaerophile.

Use the following to answer questions 11-15: Match the following items to the correct phrase. a. diplococci b. diplobacilli c. staphylococci d. streptobacilli e. streptococci

11.

Spherical bacteria arranged in pairs are called ____________________.

12.

Rod-shaped bacteria arranged in chains are called ____________________.

13.

Spherical bacteria arranged in clusters are called ____________________.

14.

Rod-shaped bacteria arranged in pairs are called ____________________.

15.

Spherical bacteria arranged in chains are called ____________________.

Use the following to answer questions 16-20: Match the following items to the correct phrase. a. chlamydias b. cyanobacteria c. mycoplasmas d. rickettsias e. spirochetes

16.

The bacteria that cause syphilis and Lyme disease are ____________________.

____________________ are obligate intracellular pathogens that cause diseases 17. such as trachoma, inclusion conjunctivitis, and urethritis.

18. ____________________ are photosynthetic.

19. ____________________ have no cell walls.

____________________ are obligate intracellular pathogens that cause diseases 20. such as typhus and Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

21.

A) B)

All diseases caused by Rickettsia spp. are arthropodborne.

True False

A) B)

22. Viruses contain both DNA and RNA. True False

A) B)

The cell walls of archaeans contain a thicker 23. layer of peptidoglycan than bacterial cell walls.

True False

24.

A) B)

On entering a bacterial cell, all bacteriophages immediately initiate the lytic cycle.

True False

A) B)

Mycoplasmas cannot grow on artificial media.

True False

A) B)

26. Viruses are the smallest infectious agents.

True False

25.

27.

A) B)

A) B)

28. Prions are infectious RNA molecules.

True False

29.

A) B)

Rickettsia spp. and Chlamydia spp. cannot be grown on artificial media.

True False

HIV is an enveloped, double-stranded RNA virus.

True False

29.

A) B)

30.

A) B)

HIV is an enveloped, double-stranded RNA virus.

True False

Organisms in the genus Vibrio are curved bacilli.

True False

Use the following to answer questions 31-35: Match the following items to the correct phrase. a. Fastidious bacteria b. Mycoplasma spp. c. Clostridium and Bacillus spp. d. Mycobacterium and Nocardia spp. e. Vibrio species

31. Bacteria without cell walls.

32. Acid-fast bacteria.

33. Curved, Gram-negative bacilli.

34. Spore-forming bacteria.

35.

Use the following to answer questions 36-41: Match the following items to the correct phrase. a. viroids b. virions

Bacteria having complex nutritional requirements.

c. prions d. temperate phages e. virulent phages

36.

Viruses that infect bacteria and cause the lytic cycle to occur.

37. Term meaning complete viral particles.

38.

Are known to cause some plant diseases, but no animal diseases.

39. Infectious protein molecules.

40. Infectious molecules of RNA.

41.

Cause diseases such as Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease, “mad cow disease,” and “scrapie.”

Use the following to answer questions 42-45: Match the following items to the correct phrase. a. Most Streptococcus spp. b. Staphylococcus spp. c. Neisseria spp. d. Streptococcus pneumoniae

42. Gram-positive cocci in clusters.

43. Gram-positive diplococci.

44. Gram-negative diplococci.

45. Gram-positive cocci in chains.

Use the following to answer questions 46-51: Match the following items to the correct phrase. a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Campylobacter spp. b. Clostridium spp. c. E. coli, most Staphylococcus and Streptococcus spp. d. Mycobacterium and Nocardia spp. e. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Haemophilus influenzae

46. Facultative anaerobes.

47. Microaerophiles.

48.

Some species are aerotolerant anaerobes and some species are obligate anaerobes.

49.

Fastidious bacterial pathogens that will grow on chocolate agar but not on blood agar.

50. Capnophiles.

51. Acid-fast bacteria.

Answer Key 1.

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D A A C A B C A D A a d c b e e a b c d A B B B B B A B A A b d e c a e b a c a c b d c a c a b e a

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c b d c a c a b e a d

1.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following statements about algae and fungi is/are true?

Algae are photosynthetic, whereas fungi are not.

Algal cell walls contain cellulose, whereas fungal cell walls do not.

Fungal cell walls contain chitin, whereas algal cell walls do not.

All of the above

A) B) C) D)

2. All of the following are algae except: desmids. diatoms. dinoflagellates. sporozoa.

A) B) C) D)

3. All of the following are fungi except: molds.

Paramecium.

Penicillium. yeasts.

4.

A) B) C) D)

5.

A) B) C) D)

A protozoan may possess any of the following except: cilia. flagella. hyphae. pseudopodia.

Which one of the following terms is not associated with fungi? conidia hyphae mycelium pellicle

6.

A) B) C) D)

7.

A) B) C) D)

All of the following terms can be used to describe hyphae except: aerial and reproductive. septate and aseptate. sexual and asexual. vegetative.

A lichen represents a symbiotic relationship between which of the following pairs? a fungus and an ameba a yeast and an ameba an alga and a cyanobacterium an alga and a fungus

A) B) C) D)

8. A stigma is a: light-sensing organelle. primitive mouth. thickened membrane. type of plastid.

A) B) C) D)

If a dimorphic fungus is causing a respiratory 9. infection, which of the following might be seen in a sputum specimen from that patient? amebae conidia hyphae yeasts

A) B) C) D)

10. Which one of the following is not a fungus?

Aspergillus Candida Penicillium Prototheca

Use the following to answer questions 11-20: Match the following items with the correct phrase.

a. algae b. fungi c. lichens d. protozoa e. slime molds

11.

Yeasts and molds are examples of ____________________.

12.

All ____________________ are photosynthetic.

13.

____________________ are classified by their means of locomotion.

14.

The cell walls of ____________________ contain chitin.

15.

The cell walls of ____________________ contain cellulose.

____________________ rarely cause 16. infectious diseases, but cause a variety of microbial intoxications.

17.

____________________ are examples of a symbiotic relationship known as mutualism.

____________________ cause diseases such 18. as African sleeping sickness, babesiosis, cryptosporidiosis, malaria, and toxoplasmosis.

19.

Diseases caused by ____________________ are called mycoses.

20.

Toxins produced by ____________________ are called phycotoxins.

21.

A) B)

22.

A) B)

23.

A) B)

24.

A) B)

A) B)

Protozoa in the category known as Mastigophora move by means of cilia.

True False

A dimorphic fungus would exist as a mold inside the human body.

True False

The organism that causes a “red tide” is an alga.

True False

25. Volvox is a multicellular alga.

True False

26.

A) B)

Slime molds possess characteristics of both fungi and protozoa.

True False

A stigma is an organelle that pumps water out of the cell.

True False

A) B)

27. Sexual spores are also known as conidia.

True False

28.

A) B)

29.

A) B)

30.

A) B)

Classification of fungi is based on the type of conidia that they produce.

True False

Protozoa that move by means of pseudopodia are in a category known as Sarcodina.

True False

Fungi can cause both infectious diseases and microbial intoxications.

True False

Use the following to answer questions 31-35: Match the following items with the correct phrase. a. Prototheca b. Pfiesteria piscicida c. dinoflagellates d. a red marine alga e. Euglena

31.

Has caused massive fish kills along the east coast of the United States.

32.

Associated with red tides and paralytic shellfish poisoning.

33. The source of agar.

34.

The only alga known to cause an infectious disease.

35.

Classified as an alga by some taxonomists and a protozoan by others.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

D D B C D C D A D D b a d b a a c d b a A B B A A B B B A A b

Answer Key

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

B B A A B B B A A b d c a e

1.

A) B) C) D)

2.

A) B) C) D)

3.

A) B) C) D)

A) B) C) D)

A) B) C) D)

6.

C)

Glucose, sucrose, and cellulose are examples of: carbohydrates. disaccharides. monosaccharides. polysaccharides.

Which one of the following nitrogenous bases is not found in an RNA molecule? adenine guanine thymine uracil

4. Which of the following are purines? adenine and guanine adenine and thymine guanine and uracil guanine and cytosine

5.

A) B)

Which of the following are the “building blocks” of proteins? amino acids monosaccharides nucleotides peptides

Which one of the following is not found at the site of protein synthesis?

DNA mRNA rRNA tRNA

Which of the following statements about DNA is (are) true?

DNA contains thymine but not uracil.

DNA molecules contain deoxyribose.

In a double-stranded DNA molecule, adenine on one strand will be connected to thymine on the complementary strand by two hydrogen bonds.

6.

A) B) C) D)

7.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following statements about DNA is (are) true?

DNA contains thymine but not uracil.

DNA molecules contain deoxyribose.

In a double-stranded DNA molecule, adenine on one strand will be connected to thymine on the complementary strand by two hydrogen bonds.

All of the above statements are true.

The amino acids in a polypeptide chain are connected by: covalent bonds. glycosidic bonds. peptide bonds. both a and c.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following statements about nucleotides is (are) true?

A nucleotide contains a nitrogenous base.

A nucleotide contains a pentose.

A nucleotide contains a phosphate group.

All of the above statements are true.

A) B) C) D)

9. A heptose contains how many carbon atoms?

4 5 6 7

A) B) C) D)

10. Virtually all enzymes are: carbohydrates. nucleic acids. proteins. substrates.

8.

Use the following to answer questions 11-15: Match the following items with the correct phrases.

a. amino acids b. disaccharides c. fatty acids d. monosaccharides e. nucleotides

11.

____________________ are the “building blocks” of proteins.

____________________ consist of a 12. nitrogenous base, a pentose, and a phosphate group.

13.

____________________ are the “building blocks” of polysaccharides.

14.

Sucrose, lactose, and maltose are examples of ____________________.

15.

Fructose, galactose, and glucose are examples of ____________________.

Use the following to answer questions 16-20: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. a dehydration synthesis reaction b. DNA replication c. a hydrolysis reaction d. transcription e. translation

16.

The end product of ____________________ is a messenger RNA molecule.

Combining two monosaccharides to form a 17. disaccharide is an example of ____________________.

James Watson and Francis Crick were the first 18. to publish an article describing ____________________.

19.

The end product of ____________________ is a protein.

Breaking the bond in a disaccharide to 20. produce two monosaccharides is an example of ____________________.

A) B)

The covalent bonds that hold 21. monosaccharides together in a polysaccharide are called glycosidic bonds.

True False

A) B)

A DNA nucleotide consists of the following 22. three parts: a nitrogenous base, ribose, and a phosphate group.

True False

A) B)

The waxes in the cell walls of Mycobacterium 23. tuberculosis cause this organism to be acidfast.

True False

24.

A) B)

The basic structure of a cell membrane is a lipid bilayer.

True False

24.

A) B)

25.

A) B)

26.

A) B)

The basic structure of a cell membrane is a lipid bilayer.

True False

DNA polymerase is the only enzyme required for DNA replication.

True False

Genes that are expressed only when needed are called constitutive genes.

True False

A) B)

Polysaccharides, polypeptides, and nucleic acids are all examples of polymers.

True False

A) B)

During translation, amino acids are 28. “activated” by attaching to an appropriate rRNA molecule.

True False

A) B)

The peptide bonds that hold amino acids 29. together in protein molecules are examples of covalent bonds.

True False

27.

30.

A) B)

Use the following to answer questions 31-38:

In double-stranded DNA molecules, the two strands are held together by hydrogen bonds.

True False

Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. DNA polymerase b. RNA polymerase c. mRNA d. rRNA e. tRNA

31. A protein that plays a role in DNA replication.

32. The end product of transcription.

33. A protein that plays a role in transcription.

34. The location of codons.

35. The location of anticodons.

36.

An integral part of ribosomes, whether or not they are participating in protein synthesis.

37. Produced in the nucleolus of eucaryotic cells.

The molecule responsible for “activating” 38. amino acids, thus enabling them to be added to the growing polypeptide chain.

Use the following to answer questions 39-44: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. polypeptides b. polysaccharides

c. nucleic acids d. substrates

39.

The “building blocks” are held together by glycosidic bonds.

40.

Composed of “building blocks” that contain phosphorous.

41. Polymers that are composed of amino acids.

42. Enzymes are examples.

43. Cellulose, glycogen, and starch are examples.

44.

The “building blocks” are held together by peptide bonds.

Use the following to answer questions 45-49: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. sucrose b. lactose c. glucose d. ribose e. maltose

45. The disaccharide found in MacConkey agar.

46. A pentose.

47.

A disaccharide composed of glucose plus fructose.

48. Another name for dextrose.

49. A hexose.

Use the following to answer questions 50-53: Assume that you are taking an organic chemistry class. Your teacher has given you four organic compounds to analyze. She tells you that one is a carbohydrate, one is a hydrocarbon, one is a nucleic acid, and one is a protein.

Compound A contains only carbon and hydrogen. Of the four types of compounds which were given to you to analyze, which 50. one best describes Compound A? Compound A is a ____________________.

You discover that Compound B contains only carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. Of the four types of compounds which were given to you 51. to analyze, which one best describes Compound B? Compound B is a ____________________.

You discover that Compound C contains only carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen. Of the four types of compounds which were 52. given to you to analyze, which one best describes Compound C? Compound C is a ____________________.

You discover that Compound D contains only carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and phosphorous. Of the four types of compounds 53. which were given to you to analyze, which one best describes Compound D? Compound D is a ____________________.

Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

A A C A A D D D D C a e d b d d a b e c A B A A B B A B A A a c b c e

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

B A B A A a c b c e d d e b c a a b a b d a c c hydrocarbon carbohydrate protein nucleic acid

A) B) C) D)

Which one of the following characteristics do 1. animals, fungi, and protozoa have in common?

They obtain their carbon from carbon dioxide.

They obtain their carbon from inorganic compounds.

They obtain their energy and carbon atoms from chemicals.

They obtain their energy from light.

2.

A) B) C) D)

3.

A) B) C) D)

4.

A) B) C) D)

5.

A) B) C) D)

Most ATP molecules are produced during which phase of aerobic respiration? electron transport chain fermentation glycolysis Krebs cycle

Which of the following processes does not involve bacteriophages? lysogenic conversion lytic cycle transduction transformation

In transduction, bacteria acquire new genetic information in the form of: bacterial genes. naked DNA. R-factors. viral genes.

The process whereby naked DNA is absorbed into a bacterial cell is known as: transcription. transduction. transformation. translation.

A) B) C) D)

In lysogenic conversion, bacteria acquire new genetic information in the form of: bacterial genes. naked DNA. R-factors. viral genes.

A) B) C) D)

Saprophytic fungi are able to digest organic 7. molecules outside of the organism by means of: apoenzymes. coenzymes. endoenzymes. exoenzymes.

A) B) C) D)

The process by which a nontoxigenic 8. Corynebacterium diphtheriae cell is changed into a toxigenic cell is called: conjugation. lysogenic conversion. transduction. transformation.

6.

9.

A) B) C) D)

10.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following does (do) not occur in anaerobes? anabolic reactions catabolic reactions electron transport chain fermentation reactions

Proteins that must link up with a cofactor to function as an enzyme are called: apoenzymes. coenzymes. endoenzymes. holoenzymes.

Use the following to answer questions 11-15: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. autotrophs b. heterotrophs c. lithotrophs d. organotrophs e. phototrophs

11.

_______________ are chemotrophs that use inorganic chemicals as their energy source.

Organisms that use organic compounds as 12. their source of carbon are called ____________________.

Organisms that use organic compounds as 13. their energy source are called ____________________.

Organisms that use carbon dioxide as their 14. source of carbon are called ____________________.

15.

Organisms that use light as their energy source are called ____________________.

Use the following to answer questions 16-20: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. conjugation b. lysogenic conversion c. mutation d. transduction

e. transformation

In ____________________, bacteria acquire 16. new genetic information in the form of viral genes.

Oswald Avery and his colleagues discovered that DNA is the hereditary molecule while 17. performing ____________________ experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae.

In ____________________, bacteria acquire new genetic information as a result of 18. absorbing pieces of naked DNA from their environment.

In ____________________, genetic 19. information is passed from one bacterial cell to another via a hollow sex pilus.

In ____________________, bacteria acquire 20. new genetic information when bacteriophages inject bacterial genes.

A) B)

Dehydration synthesis reactions always involve the removal of a molecule of water.

True False

A) B)

The biosynthesis of polysaccharides, 22. polypeptides, and nucleic acids are examples of catabolic reactions.

True False

21.

A) B)

Oxidation–reduction reactions are paired reactions that involve the transfer of electrons.

True False

A) B)

Breaking a disaccharide down into its two 24. monosaccharide components is an example of a hydrolysis reaction.

True False

23.

25.

A) B)

Anabolic reactions are a cell's major source of energy.

True False

A) B)

The majority of the energy produced in 26. aerobic respiration is produced by the Krebs cycle.

True False

A) B)

In glycolysis, a 6-carbon glucose molecule is 27. broken down into two 3-carbon molecules of pyruvic acid.

True False

A) B)

Aerobic respiration is a more efficient method 28. of breaking down glucose than is fermentation.

True False

29.

A) B)

Virulent bacteriophages are responsible for lysogenic conversion.

True False

29.

A) B)

A) B)

Virulent bacteriophages are responsible for lysogenic conversion.

True False

30. Mutations are always harmful.

True False

Use the following to answer questions 31-35: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. conjugation b. transduction c. transformation d. transcription e. lysogenic conversion

31.

A) B)

Transfer of bacterial genes from one bacterial cell to another by a bacteriophage.

True False

A) B)

Transfer of genetic material from a donor cell to a recipient cell through a sex pilus.

True False

A) B)

The process by which a nontoxigenic 33. Corynebacterium diphtheriae cell becomes a toxigenic cell.

True False

32.

34.

A) B)

Occurs only in bacterial cells described as being “competent.”

True False

34.

A) B)

35.

A) B)

Occurs only in bacterial cells described as being “competent.”

True False

Acquisition of new genetic material by the uptake of naked DNA. True False

Use the following to answer questions 36-42: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. catabolic reactions b. anabolic reactions c. oxidation-reduction reactions d. aerobic respiration e. fermentation

A) B)

Paired reactions that involve the transfer of electrons.

True False

A) B)

Biochemical pathway involving glycolysis and the production of ethyl alcohol, lactic 37. acid, or other products from pyruvic acid; no Krebs cycle or electron transport chain involved; does not require oxygen.

True False

A) B)

Used to build complex organic compounds from simpler compounds; also known as 38. biosynthetic reactions; chemical bonds are created; energy is required.

True False

36.

A) B)

Biochemical pathway involving glycolysis, 39. the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain.

True False

A) B)

Used to break complex organic compounds into simpler compounds; also known as 40. degradative reactions; chemical bonds are broken; energy is released.

True False

A) B)

41. Which produces more energy: “d” or “e”?

True False

A) B)

42. Cannot take place in an obligate anaerobe.

True False

Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

C A D A C D D B C A c b d a e b e e a

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

A c b d a e b e e a d A B A A B B A A B B B B B B B B B B B B B B

1.

A) B) C) D)

2.

A) B) C) D)

It would be necessary to use a tuberculocidal agent to kill a particular species of: Clostridium.

Mycobacterium.

Staphylococcus.

Streptococcus.

Pasteurization is an example of what kind of technique? antiseptic disinfection sterilization surgical aseptic

A) B) C) D)

The combination of freezing and drying is known as: desiccation. lyophilization. pasteurization. tyndallization.

A) B) C) D)

Organisms that live in and around 4. hydrothermal vents at the bottom of the ocean are: acidophilic, psychrophilic, and halophilic. halophilic, alkaliphilic, and psychrophilic. halophilic, psychrophilic, and barophilic. halophilic, thermophilic, and barophilic.

3.

5.

A) B) C) D)

When placed into a hypertonic solution, a bacterial cell will: take in more water than it releases. lyse. shrink. swell.

A) B) C) D)

To prevent Clostridium infections in a 6. hospital setting, what kind of disinfectant should be used? fungicidal pseudomonicidal sporicidal tuberculocidal

A) B) C) D)

7. Sterilization can be accomplished by use of: an autoclave. antiseptics. medical aseptic techniques. pasteurization.

A) B) C) D)

The goal of medical asepsis is to kill ____________________, whereas the goal of 8. surgical asepsis is to kill ____________________. all microorganisms …pathogens bacteria…bacteria and viruses nonpathogens…pathogens pathogens…all microorganisms

9.

A) B) C) D)

10.

A) B) C) D)

Which one of the following types of culture media is selective and differential? blood agar MacConkey agar phenylethyl alcohol agar Thayer-Martin agar

All of the following types of culture media are enriched and selective except: blood agar. colistin-nalidixic acid agar. phenylethyl alcohol agar Thayer-Martin agar.

Use the following to answer questions 11-15: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. capnophiles b. fastidious organisms c. halophiles d. microaerophiles e. psychrotrophs

11.

Organisms that prefer salty environments are called ____________________.

Organisms that have especially demanding 12. nutritional requirements are called ____________________.

Organisms that prefer environments having 13. decreased concentrations of oxygen are called ____________________.

14.

Organisms that prefer refrigerator temperature are called ____________________.

Organisms that grow best in environments 15. containing increased concentrations of carbon dioxide are called _______________.

Use the following to answer questions 16-20: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. blood agar b. chocolate agar c. MacConkey agar d. phenylethyl alcohol agar e. Thayer-Martin agar

Although Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Haemophilus influenzae will not grow on 16. blood agar, they will grow on ____________________.

____________________ is a highly enriched and highly selective medium, used to isolate 17.

Neisseria gonorrhoeae from clinical specimens.

18.

____________________ is an example of a medium that is both enriched and differential.

19.

____________________ is selective for Gram-positive bacteria.

20.

____________________ is an example of a medium that is selective and differential.

21.

A) B)

A bacterial cell would swell and burst if placed in an extremely hypertonic solution.

True False

A) B)

Pasteurization is a method of sterilizing liquids.

True False

A) B)

Archaeans that live in or near hydrothermal 23. vents at the bottom of the ocean are halophilic, barophilic, and thermophilic.

True False

22.

A) B)

Archaeans that live in or near hydrothermal 23. vents at the bottom of the ocean are halophilic, barophilic, and thermophilic.

True False

24.

A) B)

25.

A) B)

26.

A) B)

27.

A) B)

28.

A) B)

29.

A) B)

30.

A) B)

Lyophilization is an excellent method of killing microorganisms.

True False

Antiseptic technique is a type of aseptic technique.

True False

In an autoclave, microorganisms are killed by ethylene oxide.

True False

The goal of disinfection is to kill all microorganisms.

True False

It is not possible to culture protozoa in the laboratory.

True False

Rapid freezing, using liquid nitrogen, is an excellent method of killing microorganisms.

True False

Microorganisms can be killed by direct exposure to ultraviolet light.

True False

30.

A) B)

Microorganisms can be killed by direct exposure to ultraviolet light.

True False

Use the following to answer questions 31-34: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. enriched and differential b. enriched and selective c. selective and differential d. selective only e. differential only

31.

Phenylethyl alcohol agar and Thayer-Martin agar.

32. MacConkey agar and mannitol salt agar.

33. Sabouraud dextrose agar.

34. Blood agar.

Use the following to answer questions 35-41: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a disinfection b. pasteurization c. sanitization d. sterilization

The complete destruction of all living 35. organisms, including cells, spores, and viruses.

36.

The use of antiseptics is an example of a __________ technique.

Autoclaving for 15 to 20 minutes at 15 psi 37. and 121°C is one method of accomplishing this.

38.

The destruction or removal of pathogens by physical or chemical methods.

Heating to 60°C for 30 minutes is one method 39. of accomplishing this; sufficient to kill pathogens and reduce total bacterial counts.

40.

Heating in a 160°C oven for 2 hours would accomplish this.

The reduction of microbial populations to 41. levels considered safe by public health standards.

Use the following to answer questions 42-47: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. mesophiles b. thermophiles c. psychrophiles d. psychrotrophs e. halophiles

The brightly colored algae that grow in the 42. hot springs at Yellowstone National Park are examples.

43.

Organisms in this category could grow on mannitol-salt-agar.

44. Most human pathogens are in this category.

45.

Bacteria that live in the ocean are examples, regardless of the temperature of the water.

46.

A specific group of microorganisms whose optimal growth temperature is 4°C.

47. Vibrio cholerae is an example.

Use the following to answer questions 48-50: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. hypertonic b. hypotonic c. isotonic d. gin and tonic

Crenation of red blood cells would occur if 48. they were placed into a(n) __________ solution.

Adding large quantities of salt or sugar to various types of foods is a way of preserving 49. them. If bacteria should enter such foods, they would find themselves in a(n) __________ environment.

50.

If red blood cells were placed into a(n) __________ solution, they might hemolyze.

Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

B B B D C C A D B A c b d e a b e a d c B B A B A B B B B A b c d a d a d a b d c b

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

d a d a d a b d c b e a e d e a a b

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following is least likely to be 1. taken into consideration when deciding which antibiotic to prescribe for a patient? patient's age patient's underlying medical conditions patient's weight other medications that the patient is taking

2.

A) B) C) D)

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following is least likely to lead to drug resistance in bacteria? a chromosomal mutation that alters cell membrane permeability a chromosomal mutation that alters the shape of a particular drug binding site receiving a gene that codes for an enzyme that destroys a particular antibiotic receiving a gene that codes for the production of a capsule

Which one of the following is not a common 3. mechanism by which antimicrobial agents kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria? damage to cell membranes destruction of capsules inhibition of cell wall synthesis inhibition of protein synthesis

A) B) C) D)

Multidrug therapy is always used when a patient is diagnosed as having: an infection caused by MRSA. diphtheria. strep throat. tuberculosis.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following terms or names has 5. nothing to do with the use of two drugs simultaneously? antagonism Salvarsan Septra synergism

4.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following terms or names has 5. nothing to do with the use of two drugs simultaneously? antagonism Salvarsan Septra synergism

6.

A) B) C) D)

7.

A) B) C) D)

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following scientists discovered penicillin?

Alexander Fleming Paul Ehrlich Selman Waksman Sir Howard Walter Florey

Which of the following scientists is 8. considered to be the “Father of Chemotherapy”?

Alexander Fleming Paul Ehrlich Selman Waksman Sir Howard Walter Florey

9.

A) B) C) D)

10.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following is not a common mechanism by which antifungal agents work? by binding with cell membrane sterols by blocking nucleic acid synthesis by dissolving hyphae by interfering with sterol synthesis

All the following antimicrobial agents work by inhibiting cell wall synthesis except: cephalosporins. chloramphenicol. penicillin. vancomycin.

All the following antimicrobial agents work by inhibiting protein synthesis except: chloramphenicol. erythromycin. imipenem. tetracycline.

10.

A) B) C) D)

All the following antimicrobial agents work by inhibiting protein synthesis except: chloramphenicol. erythromycin. imipenem. tetracycline.

Use the following to answer questions 11-15: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. Bactrim and Septra b. chloramphenicol, erythromycin, and tetracycline c. isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol, and streptomycin d. methicillin, nafcillin, oxacillin, and cloxacillin e. penicillin and cephalosporin

11.

____________________ are examples of antibiotics that are produced by fungi.

____________________ are in a class of 12. drugs known as penicillinase-resistant penicillins.

13.

____________________ are examples of drugs that are used to treat tuberculosis.

14.

____________________ are examples of drugs that inhibit protein synthesis.

____________________ are examples of 15. drugs that could be destroyed by βlactamases.

Use the following to answer questions 16-20: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. a chemotherapeutic agent b. an antibiotic

c. an antifungal agent d. an antiviral agent e. an antimicrobial agent

16.

Acyclovir is specifically used as ____________________.

____________________ is any chemical or 17. drug that is used to treat any disease or medical condition.

____________________ is a substance produced by a microorganism that is effective 18. in killing or inhibiting the growth of another species of microorganism.

19.

Any drug used to treat an infectious disease is called ____________________.

20.

Amphotericin B is specifically used as ____________________.

A) B)

Strains of Staphylococcus aureus known as 21. MRSA are resistant to methicillin, but are susceptible to most other antibacterial agents.

True False

A) B)

Bacteria can develop resistance to a particular antimicrobial agent as a result of a 22. chromosomal mutation or the acquisition of a new gene.

True False

23.

A) B)

A bacterial cell that receives an R-factor becomes multidrug resistant.

True False

A) B)

A “superinfection” is an infection that cannot be cured.

True False

A) B)

Using two different antimicrobial agents to treat a patient's infection is referred to as 25. antagonism if the result that is achieved is much better than that which could have been achieved using only one of the drugs.

True False

A) B)

Because he discovered penicillin, Alexander 26. Fleming is often referred to as the “Father of Chemotherapy.”

True False

A) B)

Bacteria can become drug resistant as a result 27. of transduction, transformation, or conjugation.

True False

A) B)

28. All antimicrobial agents are antibiotics.

True False

24.

A) B)

Administering an antibiotic to a patient to treat one type of infectious disease could 29. actually cause other types of infectious diseases in that patient.

True False

30.

A) B)

Bacteria that acquire the genes that code for an MDR pump become multidrug resistant.

True False

Use the following to answer questions 31-35: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. penicillin, bacitracin, cephalosporins, vancomycin b. ampicillin and carbenicillin c. methicillin, oxacillin, cloxacillin, nafcillin d. tetracycline, chloramphenicol, erythromycin, streptomycin e. penicillin and cephalosporins, but not bacitracin and vancomycin

31.

Semisynthetic penicillins that are known as penicillinase-resistant penicillins.

32.

Examples of antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis.

33.

Semisynthetic penicillins that are not resistant to penicillinase.

34.

Examples of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis.

35. Examples of antibiotics produced by molds.

Use the following to answer questions 36-38: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. Enterococcus spp. b. MRSA c. Clostridium difficile d. Escherichia coli e. Enterobacter spp.

A superinfection with this organism can lead 36. to antibiotic-associated diarrhea and pseudomembranous colitis.

The only drugs that can be used to treat infections caused by these Gram-positive 37. cocci in clusters are vancomycin, Synercid and Zyvox; unfortunately, some strains have even developed resistance to these antibiotics.

38.

“Superbugs” known as VRE are vancomycinresistant strains of __________.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

C D B D B C A B B C e d c b e d

Answer Key

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

A B B C e d c b e d a b e c B A A B B B A B A A c a b d e c b a

A) B) C) D)

1. A symbiont could be a(n): commensal. opportunist. parasite. all of the above

A) B) C) D)

The greatest number and variety of 2. indigenous microflora of the human body live in or on the: colon. genitourinary tract. mouth. skin.

3.

A) B) C) D)

Escherichia coli living in the human colon can be considered to be a(n): endosymbiont. opportunist. symbiont in a mutualistic relationship. all of the above

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following sites of the human body does not have indigenous microflora? bloodstream colon distal urethra vagina

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following would be present in 5. highest numbers in the indigenous microflora of the human mouth? α-Hemolytic streptococci β-Hemolytic streptococci Candida albicans Staphylococcus aureus

4.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following would be present in 6. highest numbers in the indigenous microflora of the skin?

Candida albicans coagulase-negative staphylococci Enterococcus spp.

Escherichia coli

A) B) C) D)

The indigenous microflora of the external ear 7. canal is most like the indigenous microflora of the: colon. mouth. skin. distal urethra.

8.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following are least likely to play a role in the nitrogen cycle? indigenous microflora nitrifying and denitrifying bacteria nitrogen-fixing bacteria bacteria living in the root nodules of legumes

A) B) C) D)

Microorganisms are used in which of the following industries? antibiotic chemical food, beer, and wine all of the above

A) B) C) D)

The term that best describes a symbiotic relationship in which two different 10. microorganisms occupy the same ecologic niche but have absolutely no effect on each other is: commensalism. mutualism. neutralism. parasitism.

9.

niche but have absolutely no effect on each other is: commensalism. mutualism. neutralism. parasitism.

A) B) C) D)

Use the following to answer questions 11-15: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. commensalism b. mutualism c. neutralism d. parasitism e. synergism

When two microorganisms occupying the same environmental niche have absolutely no 11. effect upon each other, it is known as ____________________.

12.

Bacterial vaginosis is an example of ____________________.

____________________ is a symbiotic relationship of benefit to one of the 13. symbionts, but neither beneficial nor harmful to the other.

____________________ is a symbiotic 14. relationship of benefit to one of the symbionts, and detrimental to the other.

15.

A lichen is a classic example of ____________________.

Use the following to answer questions 16-20: Match the following items with the correct phrases.

a. cyanobacteria b. denitrifying bacteria c. nitrifying bacteria d. nitrogen-fixing bacteria e. saprophytes

In the nitrogen cycle, bacteria called 16. ____________________ convert atmospheric nitrogen gas into ammonia in the soil.

17.

____________________ live in the root nodules of legumes such as alfalfa and clover.

____________________ are capable of 18. converting the nitrogen within a dead plant or animal into ammonia in the soil.

In the nitrogen cycle, soil organisms called 19. ____________________ convert ammonia into nitrites, and nitrites into nitrates.

In the nitrogen cycle, soil organisms called 20. ____________________ convert the nitrogen in nitrates to nitrogen gas in the atmosphere.

A) B)

No microorganisms are able to live in the 21. stomach because of the extremely low pH of the stomach contents.

True False

A) B)

Microbial communities known as biofilms are 22. interesting, but they have no medical significance.

True False

A) B)

Microorganisms are unable to live in the colon owing to the lack of oxygen there.

True False

A) B)

Some of the bacteria used in bioremediation 24. are naturally occurring, but others have been genetically engineered.

True False

23.

25.

A) B)

Many of the members of our indigenous microflora have the potential to cause disease.

True False

A) B)

There could be as many as 100 trillion microorganisms that live on us and in us.

True False

A) B)

The most common organisms in the 27. indigenous microflora of the mouth are various species of β-hemolytic streptococci.

True False

26.

28.

A) B)

29.

A) B)

Microbes cause thousands of different types of plant diseases.

True False

Most relationships between humans and microbes are beneficial rather than harmful.

True False

29.

A) B)

30.

A) B)

Most relationships between humans and microbes are beneficial rather than harmful.

True False

Beneficial microorganisms far outnumber harmful ones.

True False

Use the following to answer questions 31-37: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. commensalistic b. mutualistic c. parasitic d. saprophytic e. synergistic

31.

Organisms that live on dead and decaying organic matter are said to be __________.

The type of relationship that termites have 32. with the cellulose-eating protozoa that live in their intestinal tract.

A symbiotic relationship that is beneficial to 33. both parties (symbionts) is said to be a __________ relationship.

34.

A lichen is an example of a __________ relationship.

A symbiotic relationship that is beneficial to one party (symbiont), but of no consequence 35. to the other is said to be a __________ relationship.

The type of relationship that humans have 36. with the Escherichia coli organisms that live in their colon.

A symbiotic relationship that is beneficial to 37. one party (symbiont), and detrimental to the other is said to be a __________ relationship.

Use the following to answer questions 38-40: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. α-Hemolytic streptococci b. coagulase-negative staphylococci c. Lactobacillus spp. d. Escherichia coli e. Candida albicans

38.

The most common member or members of the indigenous microflora of the vagina.

39.

The most common member or members of the indigenous microflora of the skin.

40.

The most common member or members of the indigenous microflora of the mouth.

Use the following to answer questions 41-45: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. decomposers and saprophytes b. denitrifying bacteria c. nitrifying bacteria d. nitrogen-fixing bacteria

e. nitrogen-unfixing bacteria

Some of these bacteria live in and near root 41. nodules of plants called legumes, including alfalfa, clover, peas, soy beans, and peanuts.

42.

Convert nitrogen in the air into ammonia in the soil by a process called nitrogen fixation.

Convert the nitrogen that is found in dead 43. plants and animals to ammonia in the soil by a process called ammonification.

44.

Convert nitrates in the soil to nitrogen in the air by a process called denitrification.

45.

Convert ammonia in the soil to nitrites and nitrates by a process called nitrification.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

D A D A A B C A D C c e a d b d d e c

Answer Key

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

C c e a d b d d e c b B B B A A A B A A A d b b b a a c c b a d d a b c

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following terms best describes 1. chlamydial genital infection in the United States? arthropodborne disease epidemic disease pandemic disease sporadic disease

2.

A) B) C) D)

3.

A) B) C) D)

4.

A) B) C) D)

5.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following are considered reservoirs of infection? carriers contaminated food and drinking water rabid animals all of the above

The most common nationally notifiable infectious disease in the United States is: chlamydial genital infections. gonorrhea. the common cold. tuberculosis.

Which of the following arthropods is the vector of Lyme disease? flea mite mosquito tick

The most common zoonotic disease in the United States is: Lyme disease. plague. rabies.

Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

A) B) C) D)

Which one of the following organisms in not 6. one of the four most likely potential biologic warfare or bioterrorism agents?

Bacillus anthracis Ebola virus Variola major Yersinia pestis

A) B) C) D)

All of the following are major steps in the 7. treatment of a community's drinking water except: boiling. filtration. flocculation. sedimentation.

A) B) C) D)

The largest waterborne epidemic ever to 8. occur in the United States occurred in which of the following cities?

Chicago Los Angeles Milwaukee New York City

A) B) C) D)

9. Typhoid fever is caused by a species of: Campylobacter.

Escherichia.

Salmonella.

Shigella.

10.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following associations is incorrect? ehrlichiosis…tick malaria…mosquito plague…flea Rocky Mountain spotted fever…mite

Use the following to answer questions 11-15: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. communicable diseases b. endemic diseases c. epidemic diseases d. pandemic diseases e. sporadic diseases

Diseases that are always present in a 11. population are known as ____________________.

Diseases that are transmissible from person to 12. person are known as ____________________.

Diseases that occur only occasionally in a 13. particular population are known as ____________________.

Because large numbers of cases of AIDS, malaria, and tuberculosis are presently 14. occurring in many different countries, they are known as ____________________.

Diseases with unusually high numbers of cases that often occur in one particular 15. geographic location are known as ____________________.

Use the following to answer questions 16-20: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. biting flies

b. bugs c. lice d. mosquitoes e. ticks

The causative agents of dengue fever, filariasis, malaria, West Nile encephalitis, and 16. yellow fever are all transmitted by ____________________.

____________________ transmit the causative agents of babesiosis, ehrlichiosis, 17.

Lyme disease, relapsing fever, and Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

The causative agent of American trypanosomiasis (Chagas's disease) is 18. transmitted by arthropods in a class of insects known as ____________________.

____________________ transmit the 19. causative agents of epidemic typhus and trench fever.

African sleeping sickness, leishmaniasis, and 20. onchocerciasis are transmitted by various types of ____________________.

21.

A) B)

22.

A) B)

Influenza is an example of a contagious disease.

True False

Zoonotic diseases are diseases that humans acquire from zoo animals.

True False

A) B)

Zoonotic diseases are diseases that humans acquire from zoo animals.

True False

A) B)

The largest waterborne outbreak ever to occur 23. in the United States was caused by Giardia lamblia.

True False

22.

A) B)

Water containing 1 coliform per 100 mL would be considered potable.

True False

A) B)

The most common zoonotic infection in the 25. United States is Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

True False

24.

A) B)

Soil can contain the spores that cause botulism, gas gangrene, and tetanus.

True False

A) B)

Chlamydial genital infections and gonorrhea are the two most common nationally 27. notifiable infectious diseases in the United States.

True False

A) B)

The levels of chlorine routinely used for water 28. treatment are sufficient to kill Giardia cysts and Cryptosporidium oocysts.

True False

26.

A) B)

Yersinia pestis, the bacterium that causes 29. plague, is one of the pathogens most often discussed as a potential biologic weapon.

True False

A) B)

Gonorrhea is considered to be a 30. communicable disease, but not a contagious disease.

True False

Use the following to answer questions 31-33: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. endemic disease b. epidemic disease c. pandemic disease d. sporadic disease

31.

Several dozen people having nausea and diarrhea several hours after a church picnic.

32.

A disease that occurs only every once in a while in a particular geographic region.

33.

A disease that is always present in a particular geographical region.

Use the following to answer questions 34-37: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. Cryptosporidium parvum

b. Ebola virus c. Escherichia coli O157:H7 d. Hantavirus e. Legionella pneumophila

34.

The cause of an epidemic associated with hamburgers and a popular fast food chain.

35.

The cause of the epidemic that occurred in the four corners area of the United States in 1993.

36.

The cause of the epidemic that occurred in Philadelphia in 1976.

37.

The cause of the epidemic that occurred in Milwaukee in 1993.

Use the following to answer questions 38-43: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. body louse b. “crab” louse c. flea d. mite e. tick

An arachnid ectoparasite; one species causes 38. human scabies; larval forms of some species are referred to as “chiggers.”

39. An insect ectoparasite; the vector of plague.

40.

An arachnid ectoparasite; the vector of Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

Pediculus humanus var. corporus; an infestation with these insects is known as 41. pediculosis; in the trenches in World War I, these were known as “cooties.”

42. An insect called Phthirus pubis.

43.

An arachnid ectoparasite; the vector of Lyme disease.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

B D A D A B A C C D b a e d c d e b c a A B B A B A A B

Answer Key

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

a A B B A B A A B A A b d a c d e a d c e a b e

A) B) C) D)

1. A nosocomial infection is one that: a patient develops during hospitalization or erupts within 14 days of hospital discharge. affects only the nose. is acquired in the community. the patient has at the time of hospital admission.

A) B) C) D)

2. An example of a fomite would be: a drinking glass used by a patient. bandages from an infected wound. soiled bed linens. all of the above

A) B) C) D)

Which one of the following Gram-positive 3. bacteria is most likely to be the cause of a nosocomial infection?

Clostridium difficile Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pneumoniae Streptococcus pyogenes

A) B) C) D)

Which one of the following Gram-negative 4. bacteria is least likely to be the cause of a nosocomial infection? a Klebsiella spp. a Salmonella spp.

Escherichia coli Pseudomonas aeruginosa

5.

A) B) C) D)

Protective (reverse) isolation would be appropriate for a patient: infected with MRSA. with leukopenia. with pneumonic plague. with tuberculosis.

6.

A) B) C) D)

A) B) C) D)

A patient suspected of having tuberculosis has 7. been admitted to the hospital. Which one of the following is not appropriate? droplet precautions source isolation standard precautions use of a type N95 respirator by healthcare professional who are caring for the patient

8.

A) B) C) D)

9.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following is not part of standard precautions? handwashing between patient contacts placing a patient in a private room having negative air pressure properly disposing of needles, scalpels, and other sharps wearing gloves, masks, eye protection, and gowns when appropriate to do so

Which of the following statements about medical asepsis is false?

Disinfection is a medical aseptic technique.

Handwashing is a medical aseptic technique.

Medical asepsis is considered a clean technique.

The goal of medical asepsis is to exclude all microorganisms from an area.

Which of the following statements about source isolation is false?

Air entering the room is passed through HEPA filters.

The room is under negative air pressure.

Source isolation is appropriate for patients with tuberculosis, influenza, or chickenpox.

Transmission-based precautions will be necessary.

10.

A) B) C) D)

Contact precautions are required for patients with: Clostridium difficile-associated diseases. infections caused by multidrug-resistant bacteria. viral hemorrhagic fevers. all of the above

Use the following to answer questions 11-15: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. arthropodborne infections b. community-acquired infections c. iatrogenic infections d. nosocomial infections e. nosocomial zoonoses

Infections that patients develop while hospitalized or within 14 days of hospital 11. discharge are considered to be ____________________.

Infections that patients have on hospital 12. admission are considered to be ____________________.

____________________ may result if healthcare workers fail to wash their hands 13. after handling laboratory animals or pets being used for pet therapy.

Infections that are actually caused by 14. healthcare workers are specifically known as ____________________.

Each year, in the United States, approximately 15. 2 million hospitalized patients develop ____________________.

Use the following to answer questions 16-20: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. airborne precautions b. contact precautions c. droplet precautions d. medical aseptic technique e. surgical aseptic technique

In addition to standard precautions, ____________________ must be used when 16. managing a patient with streptococcal pneumonia.

17.

The goal of ____________________ is to render and keep objects and areas sterile.

In addition to standard precautions, 18. ____________________ must be used when managing a tuberculosis patient.

The goal of ____________________ is to 19. reduce the number and transmission of pathogens.

In addition to standard precautions, ____________________ must be used when 20. managing a Clostridium difficile–associated disease.

21.

A) B)

A) B)

Most of the pathogens involved in nosocomial infections come from the patients themselves.

True False

An infection that results from urinary 22. catheterization would be considered an iatrogenic infection.

True False

23.

A) B)

Bacteria are the only pathogens that have become drug resistant.

True False

A) B)

A patient with tuberculosis should be placed in protective isolation.

True False

A) B)

A superinfection with Clostridium difficile could lead to diseases such as antibiotic25. associated diarrhea and pseudomembranous colitis.

True False

A) B)

One of the major factors contributing to nosocomial infections is the failure of 26. healthcare personnel to follow infection control guidelines.

True False

24.

27.

A) B)

Joseph Lister is considered the “Father of Handwashing.”

True False

A) B)

A leukopenic patient should be placed in a patient room having positive air pressure.

True False

A) B)

Members of a hospital's Infection Control 29. Committee would investigate outbreaks and epidemics that occur within that hospital.

True False

A) B)

By practicing standard precautions, healthcare workers will be protected from becoming 30. infected, regardless of the type of infectious disease that the patient has.

True False

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following is the major source of 31. the pathogens that cause nosocomial infections? hospital staff members the hospital air conditioning system the patients' own indigenous microflora visitors to the hospital

A) B) C) D)

Which one of the following organisms is not 32. one of the four most common causes of nosocomial infections?

Escherichia coli Enterococcus spp.

Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pyogenes

28.

A) B) C) D)

32. one of the four most common causes of nosocomial infections?

Escherichia coli Enterococcus spp.

Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pyogenes

33.

A) B) C) D)

34.

A) B) C) D)

35.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following types of patients should be placed into reverse isolation? a patient with tuberculosis a patient infected with MRSA a leukopenic patient a patient with pneumonic plague

__________ infections are always caused by physicians or other healthcare workers. iatrogenic community-acquired nosocomial contagious

__________ infections are the most common type of nosocomial infections. blood respiratory postsurgical wound urinary tract

Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

A D B B B B A D A D d b e c d c

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

D A D d b e c d c e a d b A A B B A A B A A B C D C A D

A) B) C) D)

A) B) C)

Assuming that a clean-catch midstream urine was processed in the Clinical Microbiology 1. Laboratory (CML), which one of the following colony counts is (are) indicative of a urinary tract infection?

10,000 CFU/mL 100,000 CFU/mL >100,000 CFU/mL both b and c

Which one of the following statements is not true about the disk-diffusion method of antimicrobial susceptibility testing? (Note: 2. information about susceptibility testing can be found on the CD-ROM that accompanies this book.)

A pure culture of the organism is required.

It is also known as the “Kirby-Bauer test.”

The plate should be incubated in a CO2 incubator for 12 hours.

The test should be performed in the exact manner described by the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI).

D)

3.

A) B) C) D)

4.

A) B) C) D)

Which one of the following statements about cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) specimens is false?

They are collected only by physicians.

They are treated as STAT (emergency) specimens in the laboratory.

They should always be refrigerated.

They should be rushed to the laboratory after collection.

All clinical specimens submitted to the CML must be: properly and carefully collected. properly labeled. properly transported to the laboratory. all of the above

A) B) C) D)

Which one of the following methods of antimicrobial susceptibility testing is the most 5. accurate? (Note: information about susceptibility testing can be found on the CDROM that accompanies this book.) agar dilution method disk-diffusion method macro broth dilution method micro broth dilution method

A) B) C) D)

Which one of the following methods of antimicrobial susceptibility testing is the most popular method in the United States? (Note: 6. information about susceptibility testing can be found on the CD-ROM that accompanies this book.) agar dilution method disk-diffusion method macro broth dilution method micro broth dilution method

7.

A) B) C) D)

A) B) C) D)

Who is primarily responsible for the quality of specimens submitted to the CML? microbiologist who is in charge of the CML pathologist who is in charge of “the lab” person who collects the specimen the person who transports the specimen to the CML

Which one of the following is not one of the 8. four major, day-to-day responsibilities of the CML? identify (speciate) pathogens isolate pathogens from clinical specimens perform antimicrobial susceptibility testing when appropriate process environmental samples

9.

A) B) C) D)

10.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following sections is least likely to be found in the CML of a small hospital?

Bacteriology Section Mycology Section Parasitology Section Virology Section

In the Mycology Section of the CML, molds are identified by: biochemical test results macroscopic observations microscopic observations a combination of b and c

Use the following to answer questions 11-15: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. agar dilution method b. disk-diffusion method c. macro broth dilution method d. micro broth dilution method

Because the ____________________ of antimicrobial susceptibility testing uses large 11. numbers of test tubes, this method is impractical for use in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory.

The ____________________ of antimicrobial 12. susceptibility testing is also known as the “Kirby-Bauer method.”

The ____________________ of antimicrobial 13. susceptibility testing is considered to be the “gold standard.”

In the United States, the ____________________ is currently the most 14. popular method for performing of antimicrobial susceptibility testing.

Agar plates are used in both the agar dilution 15. method and the ____________________ of antimicrobial susceptibility testing.

Use the following to answer questions 16-20: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. Bacteriology Section b. Mycology Section c. Mycobacteriology Section d. Parasitology Section e. Virology Section

Mycoses are diagnosed in the 16. ____________________ of the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory.

Tuberculosis is diagnosed in the 17. ____________________ of the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory.

Hair clippings, nail clippings, and skin scrapings are most often processed in the 18. ____________________ of the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory.

Susceptibility testing is routinely performed only in the Bacteriology Section and the 19. ____________________ of the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory.

Miniaturized biochemical test systems— known as “minisystems”—are most often 20. used in the ____________________ of the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory.

A) B)

Poor-quality clinical specimens are unlikely to produce clinically relevant results.

True False

A) B)

The Director of the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory (CML) is ultimately responsible 22. for the quality of clinical specimens submitted to the CML. True False

A) B)

Special disinfection procedures are required 23. to prevent indigenous microflora of the skin from contaminating blood cultures.

True False

21.

A) B)

Bacteriuria is a sure sign of urinary tract infection.

True False

A) B)

CSF specimens are treated as “stat” 25. specimens in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory.

True False

24.

A) B)

CSF specimens are treated as “stat” 25. specimens in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory.

True False

A) B)

CSF specimens should be refrigerated en 26. route to the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory.

True False

A) B)

There is no need to refrigerate urine 27. specimens for culture if they are clean-catch midstream specimens.

True False

A) B)

Many clinical specimens labeled “sputum” are actually saliva specimens.

True False

A) B)

The Clinical Microbiology Laboratory is part 29. of the Clinical Pathology Division of the Pathology Department.

True False

A) B)

β-Lactamase testing is always performed on 30. isolates of Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Haemophilus influenzae.

True False

28.

31.

A) B) C) D)

Which one of the following is the most common contaminant of blood cultures?

Staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus epidermidis Streptococcus pneumoniae Streptococcus pyogenes

A) B) C) D)

Which one of the following is the most common contaminant of blood cultures?

Staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus epidermidis Streptococcus pneumoniae Streptococcus pyogenes

A) B) C) D)

A urine culture was set up using a 0.001-mL calibrated loop. It yielded 100 colonies.

32.

Which of the following results would be reported to the physician?

100 CFU/mL 1,000 CFU/mL 10,000 CFU/mL 100,000 CFU/mL

31.

A) B) C) D)

Failure to refrigerate a urine culture specimen when a long time will elapse between 33. specimen collection and delivery to the laboratory is most apt to result in: an abnormally high colony count an abnormally low white blood cell count contamination of the specimen by members of the patient's indigenous microflora death of the pathogen

Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

D C C D A D C D D D c b a d b b c b c

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

D c b a d b b c b c a A B A B A B B A A A B D A

1.

A) B) C) D)

A) B) C) D)

2. Neurotoxins are produced by: Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani.

Clostridium difficile and Clostridium perfringens.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.

3.

A) B) C) D)

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following virulence factors enable(s) bacteria to attach to tissues? capsules endotoxin flagella pili

Which of the following pathogens produce enterotoxins?

Bacillus cereus and certain serotypes of E. coli Clostridium difficile and Clostridium perfringens Salmonella spp. and Shigella spp. all of the above

A bloodstream infection with 4. ____________________ could result in the release of endotoxin into the bloodstream.

Clostridium difficile or Clostridium perfringens Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Escherichia coli Staphylococcus aureus or Mycobacterium tuberculosis Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes

5.

A) B) C) D)

A) B) C) D)

Communicable diseases are most easily transmitted during the: incubation period. period of convalescence. period of illness. prodromal period.

6. Enterotoxins affect cells in the: respiratory tract. genitourinary tract. gastrointestinal tract. central nervous system.

7.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following bacteria is least likely to be the cause of septic shock?

Escherichia coli Haemophilus influenzae Mycoplasma pneumoniae Neisseria meningitidis

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following produces both a cytotoxin and an enterotoxin?

Clostridium botulinum Clostridium difficile Clostridium tetani Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following virulence factors 9. enable(s) bacteria to avoid phagocytosis by white blood cells? capsule cell membrane cell wall pili

8.

10.

A) B) C)

Which of the following can cause toxic shock syndrome?

Clostridium difficile and Clostridium perfringens Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Mycobacterium tuberculosis Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Escherichia coli

10.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following can cause toxic shock syndrome?

Clostridium difficile and Clostridium perfringens Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Mycobacterium tuberculosis Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Escherichia coli Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes

Use the following to answer questions 11-15: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. coagulases b. enterotoxins c. kinases d. necrotizing enzymes e. neurotoxins

The ____________________ produced by 11. Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani are examples of virulence factors.

The ____________________ produced by 12. Clostridium perfringens and Streptococcus pyogenes are examples of virulence factors.

13.

_______________ are exoenzymes that cause clot formation.

14.

_______________ are exoenzymes that dissolve clots.

_______________ are produced by Clostridium difficile, Salmonella spp., 15.

Shigella spp., Vibrio cholerae, and certain serotypes of E. coli.

Use the following to answer questions 16-20: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. adhesins b. endotoxin c. hyaluronidase d. integrins e. leukocidins

____________________ is a virulence factor 16. that is found in (and released from) the cell walls of Gram-negative bacteria.

The molecules on the surfaces of host cells that pathogens are able to recognize and 17. attach to are known as receptors or ____________________.

Molecules on the surfaces of pathogens that are able to recognize and bind to molecules 18. on the surfaces of host cells are known as ligands or ____________________.

19.

____________________ is also known as “spreading factor.”

20.

____________________ are toxins that destroy white blood cells.

21.

A) B)

Bacterial capsules protect bacteria from being phagocytized by leukocytes.

True False

22.

A) B)

23.

A) B)

A headache is a classic example of a sign of a disease.

True False

To cause disease, all bacterial pathogens must first attach to some tissue in the body.

True False

A) B)

Rickettsias and chlamydias are examples of obligate intracellular pathogens.

True False

A) B)

Babesia spp., Ehrlichia spp., and Plasmodium 25. spp. are examples of intraerythrocytic pathogens.

True False

24.

A) B)

The exoenzyme that causes toxic shock syndrome is called erythrogenic toxin.

True False

A) B)

The neurotoxins produced by Clostridium 27. botulinum and Clostridium tetani cause a spastic, rigid type of paralysis.

True False

A) B)

Although most people use the terms “infection” and “infectious disease” 28. synonymously, microbiologists define infection as colonization by a pathogen.

True False

26.

A) B)

Although most people use the terms “infection” and “infectious disease” 28. synonymously, microbiologists define infection as colonization by a pathogen.

True False

A) B)

29. Avirulent strains do not cause disease.

True False

A) B)

It is thought that the waxes in the cell walls of 30. Mycobacterium tuberculosis protect this pathogen from digestion within phagocytes.

True False

Use the following to answer questions 31-35: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. acute disease b. asymptomatic disease c. chronic disease d. latent disease e. systemic disease

31. Cold sores and shingles are examples.

32. The same as a subclinical disease.

33.

A disease that has an insidious (slow) onset and lasts a long time.

34. A disease that has spread throughout the body.

35.

A disease that has a sudden onset, but does not last long.

Use the following to answer questions 36-40: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. capsules b. pili c. M-protein d. kinases e. hyaluronidases

Enable certain strains of Neisseria 36. gonorrhoeae to adhere to the inner walls of the urethra.

37.

Enable Streptococcus pneumoniae to avoid being phagocytized early in the infection.

38.

A virulence factor specifically associated with Streptococcus pyogenes.

39.

Enable some bacteria to penetrate deeper and deeper into tissues.

40.

Enable some staphylococci and streptococci to dissolve clots.

Use the following to answer questions 41-45: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. neurotoxin b. enterotoxin c. diphtheria toxin d. endotoxin e. erythrogenic toxin

41.

Produced by some strains of Streptococcus pyogenes.

42. Tetanospasmin is an example.

43.

Its presence in the bloodstream can lead to fever and septic shock.

44. Produced by Clostridium botulinum.

45. Produced by Clostridium difficile.

Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

D A D B C C C B A D e d a c b b d a c e A B B A B

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

d a c e A B B A B B B A A A d b c e a b a c e d e a d a b

A) B) C) D)

Host defense mechanisms—ways in which the body protects itself from pathogens—can 1. be thought of as an army consisting of how many lines of defense?

2 3 4 5

2.

A) B) C) D)

3.

A) B) C) D)

4.

A) B) C) D)

5.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following is not part of the body's first line of defense? fever intact skin mucus the pH of the stomach contents

Each of the following is considered a part of the body's second line of defense except: fever. inflammation. interferons. lysozyme.

Which of the following is not a consequence of activation of the complement system? attraction and activation of leukocytes increased phagocytosis by phagocytic cells (opsonization) lysis of bacteria and other foreign cells repair of damaged tissue

Each of the following is a primary purpose of the inflammatory response except: to localize the infection. to neutralize any toxins being produced at the site. to prevent the spread of microbial invaders. to stimulate the production of opsonins.

A) B) C) D)

6. Which of the following cells is a granulocyte? eosinophil lymphocyte macrophage monocyte

A) B) C) D)

All the following would be considered an aspect of microbial antagonism except: competition for nutrients. competition for space. production of bacteriocins. production of lysozyme.

A) B) C) D)

8. Which of the following function as opsonins? antibodies antigens complement fragments both a and c

7.

9.

A) B) C) D)

10.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following statements about interferons is false?

Interferons are virus-specific.

Interferons have been used to treat hepatitis C and certain types of cancer.

Interferons produced by a virus-infected cell will not save that cell from destruction.

Interferons produced by virus-infected rabbit cells cannot be used to treat viral diseases in humans.

Which of the following is not one of the four cardinal signs or symptoms of inflammation? edema heat loss of function redness

Use the following to answer questions 11-15: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. bacteriocins b. chemotactic agents c. complement fragments d. cytokines e. interferons

_______________ are chemical mediators 11. that enable cells to communicate with each other.

When attached to the surface of particles or 12. cells, ____________________ can facilitate phagocytosis.

Proteins produced by one bacterial species 13. that kill other bacterial species are known as ____________________.

____________________ are small, antiviral 14. proteins that are produced by virus-infected cells.

15.

____________________ attract leukocytes to sites where they are needed.

Use the following to answer questions 16-20: Match the following items with the correct phrases.

A. chemotaxis B. opsonization

C. phagolysosome D. phagosome E. vasodilation

A ____________________ is a membrane16. bound vesicle containing only an ingested object.

17.

The directed migration of leukocytes is known as ____________________.

A ____________________ is a membrane18. bound vesicle containing an ingested object and digestive enzymes.

19.

____________________ is an increase in the diameter of blood vessels.

____________________ is a process by which phagocytosis is facilitated by the 20. deposition of antibodies or complement fragments onto the surface of particles or cells.

A) B)

Lactoferrin and transferrin are proteins that 21. bind iron, and therefore deprive pathogens of this essential nutrient.

True False

22.

A) B)

Pyrogenic substances cause the production of pus.

True False

A) B)

Interferons are virus-specific, but are not species-specific.

True False

A) B)

Complement is the name of a single plasma 24. protein that “complements” the actions of the immune system.

True False

23.

25.

A) B)

Eosinophils are much better phagocytes than neutrophils.

True False

A) B)

Phagocytes can only ingest objects that they are able to attach to.

True False

A) B)

The terms “leukemia” and “leukopenia” both 27. refer to an abnormally low number of circulating leukocytes.

True False

A) B)

28. Ehrlichia spp. are intraleukocytic pathogens.

True False

26.

29.

A) B)

Chemokines are chemotactic agents that are produced by various cells of the human body.

True False

A) B)

Perspiring, swallowing, and urinating are all 30. considered to be part of the first line of defense.

True False

Use the following to answer questions 31-34: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. chemotaxis b. leukocidin c. leukocytosis d. leukopenia e. vasodilation

31.

A decreased number of white blood cells in the peripheral bloodstream.

32.

Increase in the diameter of blood vessels; an initial event in inflammation.

33.

An increased number of white blood cells in the peripheral bloodstream.

Considered to be the first phase of phagocytosis; the means by which phagocytic 34. cells are attracted to sites where they are needed.

Use the following to answer questions 35-39: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. basophils b. eosinophils

c. macrophages d. neutrophils

35.

Fixed or tissue ____________________ are called histiocytes.

Like mast cells, these cells release histamine 36. and other chemical mediators during type I hypersensitivity reactions.

Increased numbers of these cells are found in 37. the peripheral blood stream during allergic reactions and helminth infections.

38.

These cells are also called polymorphonuclear leukocytes, polys, or PMNs.

39.

These cells are monocytes rather than granulocytes.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

B A D D D A D D A C d c a e b d a c

Answer Key

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

A C d c a e b d a c e b A B B B B A B A A A d e c a c a b d c

1.

A) B) C) D)

A) B) C) D)

2. Antibodies are secreted by: basophils. macrophages. plasma cells.

T cells.

3.

A) B) C) D)

4.

A) B) C) D)

5.

A) B) C) D)

6.

A) B) C) D)

Of the following, which is the least likely to be involved in cell-mediated immunity? antibodies cytokines macrophages T cells

Humoral immunity involves all the following except: antibodies. antigens.

NK cells. plasma cells.

Immunity that develops as a result of an actual infection is called: artificial active acquired immunity. artificial passive acquired immunity. natural active acquired immunity. natural passive acquired immunity.

Artificial passive acquired immunity would result from: having the measles. ingesting colostrum. receiving a gamma globulin injection. receiving a vaccine.

The vaccines that are used to protect people from diphtheria and tetanus are: antitoxins. attenuated vaccines. inactivated vaccines. toxoids.

6.

A) B) C) D)

7.

A) B) C) D)

8.

A) B) C) D)

The vaccines that are used to protect people from diphtheria and tetanus are: antitoxins. attenuated vaccines. inactivated vaccines. toxoids.

Natural passive acquired immunity would result from: having the measles. ingesting colostrum. receiving a gamma globulin injection. receiving a vaccine.

Which one of the following statements about IgM is false?

IgM contains a J-chain.

IgM has a total of 10 antigen-binding sites.

IgM is a pentamer.

IgM is a long-lived molecule.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following could be an effect of type III hypersensitivity? glomerulonephritis rheumatoid arthritis systemic lupus erythematosus all of the above

A) B) C) D)

Most likely, immunology got its start in 1890 10. when these scientists discovered antibodies while developing a diphtheria antitoxin.

Edward Jenner and Louis Pasteur Elie Metchnikoff and Robert Koch Emil Behring and Kitasato Shibasaburo Jonas Salk and Albert Sabin

9.

Use the following to answer questions 11-15: Match the following items with the correct phrases.

a. artificial active acquired immunity b. artificial passive acquired immunity c. natural active acquired immunity d. natural passive acquired immunity

The immunity that a fetus acquires in utero, as a result of receiving protective antibodies 11. from Mom's blood, is called ____________________.

The immunity that someone acquires as a 12. result of an infection is called ____________________.

The immunity that someone acquires after 13. receiving a shot of gamma globulin is called ____________________.

The immunity that someone acquires as a 14. result of receiving a vaccine is called ____________________.

The immunity that an infant acquires as a 15. result of breast-feeding is called ____________________.

Use the following to answer questions 16-20: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. antibodies b. antigens c. epitopes d. haptens e. immune complexes

16.

____________________ are also known as immunogens.

Molecules referred to as antigenic 17. determinants are also known as ____________________.

18.

____________________ are in a class of proteins called immunoglobulins.

Small molecules called ____________________ are antigenic only 19. when then are coupled with large carrier molecules such as proteins.

20.

A) B)

____________________ initiate type III hypersensitivity reactions.

Technically speaking, all antibodies are 21. immunoglobulins, but not all immunoglobulins are antibodies.

True False

A) B)

IgG is the largest of the five classes of immunoglobulins.

True False

A) B)

The primary function of NK and K cells is to 23. kill foreign cells, virus-infected cells, and tumor cells.

True False

22.

A) B)

Common allergic reactions, such as those 24. experienced in hayfever, are also known as anaphylactic reactions.

True False

25.

A) B)

26.

A) B)

IgM antibodies and basophils play major roles in anaphylactic reactions.

True False

The penicillin molecule is an example of a hapten.

True False

A) B)

Autoimmune diseases are always the result of type II hypersensitivity reactions.

True False

A) B)

With respect to a particular pathogen, detection of antibodies in a patient's blood 28. provides better proof of current infection than does detection of antigens.

True False

A) B)

If a person's immune system is not 29. functioning properly, that person is said to be immunocompetent.

True False

27.

A) B)

An IgM molecule can bind to 10 antigenic determinants, but they would all have to be 30. the antigenic determinant that stimulated the production of that IgM molecule.

True False

Use the following to answer questions 31-34: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. artificial active acquired immunity b. artificial passive acquired immunity c. natural active acquired immunity d. natural passive acquired immunity

Example of the immunity that results from the 31. body's response to an invading microorganism.

32.

Example of the immunity that results from the body's response to a vaccine.

Example of antibodies that a person receives 33. in an injection of gamma globulin (immune serum globulin).

Examples of maternal antibodies that a fetus receives across the placenta and maternal 34. antibodies that an infant receives in colostrum.

Use the following to answer questions 35-39: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. B lymphocytes (B cells)

b. macrophages c. mast cells d. TH lymphocytes (TH cells) e. TS lymphocytes (TS cells)

35.

Capable of producing antibody-secreting plasma cells after clone formation.

36.

They help regulate the immune response by turning off certain activities.

Phagocytic cells that act as “antigen37. presenting cells” in the immune response to (processing of) T-dependent antigens.

38.

The major target of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

39.

The only cells required in the immune response to T-independent antigens.

Use the following to answer questions 40-44: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. IgA b. IgD c. IgE d. IgG e. IgM

A monomer; the most common type of immunoglobulin; very high levels are 40. produced in the secondary (anamnestic) response to an antigen.

A pentamer; five monomers linked together by a J-chain; the first type of immunoglobulin 41. to be formed in the primary response to an antigen.

42.

A monomer; present on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

A dimer; two monomers linked together by a 43. J-chain; frequently found in mucous membranes.

44.

Produced by atopic individuals in response to allergens.

Use the following to answer questions 45-48: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. type I hypersensitivity reactions b. type II hypersensitivity reactions c. type III hypersensitivity reactions d. type IV hypersensitivity reactions

Immune complex reactions; antigen-antibody complexes become deposited in tissue (e.g., 45. the glomeruli of the kidneys), resulting in inflammatory damage.

Anaphylactic reactions; examples include hayfever symptoms, hives, asthma, and the 46. anaphylactic shock that could follow a bee sting or administration of penicillin.

47.

Cell-mediated reactions; antibodies don't play a major role.

Cytotoxic reactions; involve the lysis of cells; 48. the adverse reactions that follow incompatible blood transfusions are an example.

Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

A C C C C D B D D C d c b a d b c a d e A B A A B A B B B A c a b d a

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

A B B B A c a b d a e b d a d e c a c c a d b

1.

A) B) C) D)

2.

A) B) C) D)

3.

A) B) C) D)

4.

A) B) C) D)

5.

A) B) C) D)

A) B) C) D)

Otitis media is an inflammation or infection of the: ear. eye. brain. urinary bladder.

Keratitis is an inflammation or infection of the: conjunctiva. cornea. kidney. skin.

Which of the following is/are the most common cause of pharyngitis?

Escherichia coli Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pyogenes viruses

Which of the following is the most common cause of tooth decay?

Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus agalactiae Streptococcus mutans Streptococcus pyogenes

An infection of the urinary bladder is known as: cystitis. pyelonephritis. ureteritis. urethritis.

6. The most common cause of cystitis is: Candida albicans.

Escherichia coli.

Staphylococcus epidermidis.

Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

A) B) C) D)

6. The most common cause of cystitis is: Candida albicans.

Escherichia coli.

Staphylococcus epidermidis.

Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

A) B) C) D)

7. The most common cause of urethritis is: Chlamydia trachomatis.

Escherichia coli.

Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

Staphylococcus aureus.

8.

A) B) C) D)

9.

A) B) C) D)

10.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following terms means swollen lymph glands? lymphadenitis lymphadenopathy lymphangitis lymphitis

Inflammation or infection of the brain is called: encephalitis. meningitis. myelitis. otitis externa.

Which of the following is not one of the three most common causes of bacterial meningitis?

Escherichia coli Haemophilus influenzae Neisseria meningitidis Streptococcus pneumoniae

Use the following to answer questions 11-15: Match the following items with the correct phrases.

A) Encephalitis B) Myelitis

C) Nephritis D) Orchitis E) Pharyngitis

11. Testes

12. Throat

13. Brain

14. Kidney

15. Spinal cord

A) B)

All infectious diseases are caused by microbes.

True False

A) B)

17. “Carbuncle” and “boil” are synonyms.

True False

A) B)

The most common causes of sinusitis are 18. Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.

True False

16.

19.

A) B)

Most sore throats are caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.

True False

A) B)

20. “Bacteremia” and “septicemia” are synonyms.

True False

21.

A) B)

The most common cause of cystitis is Escherichia coli.

True False

A) B)

The most common cause of urethritis is Chlamydia trachomatis.

True False

A) B)

The yeast Candida albicans is one of the 23. three most common causes of vaginitis in the United States.

True False

22.

24.

A) B)

25.

A) B)

Streptococcus pneumoniae is one of the three major causes of bacterial meningitis.

True False

Meningitis could be caused by a virus, a bacterium, a fungus, or a protozoan.

True False

Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

A B D C A B

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

A B D C A B A A A A D E A C B A B B B B A A A A A

1.

A) B) C) D)

2.

A) B) C) D)

3.

A) B) C) D)

4.

A) B) C) D)

5.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following is the cause of smallpox? vaccinia virus varicella virus variola virus none of these choices

Which of the following are considered to be oncogenic?

Epstein-Barr virus and human papillomaviruses HIV and Ebola virus rubella and rubeola viruses variola and varicella viruses

Laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection is usually made by which of the following? electron microscopy growth of HIV in cell culture growth of HIV in embryonated chicken eggs immunodiagnostic procedures for the detection of antigen and antibodies

Which of the following is also known as infectious hepatitis? hepatitis A virus hepatitis B virus hepatitis C virus hepatitis D virus

Mosquitoes serve as vectors in all of the following viral diseases, except: dengue fever. hepatitis.

West Nile virus disease. yellow fever.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following viruses is/are not transmitted sexually? hantavirus herpes simplex viruses human immunodeficiency virus papillomaviruses

A) B) C) D)

7. Which of the following is a DNA virus? hepatitis A virus hepatitis B virus hepatitis C virus hepatitis D virus

6.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following is a type of herpes virus?

Epstein-Barr virus measles virus mumps virus rabies virus

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following viral diseases has 9. been acquired in the United States by handling pet prairie dogs? chickenpox hantavirus monkeypox smallpox

8.

10.

A) B) C) D)

Use the following to answer questions 11-15:

The disease known as severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is caused by a type of: coronavirus herpes virus papillomavirus picornavirus

Match the following items with the correct phrases.

A) Ebola virus B) Herpes simplex virus C) Variola virus D) Varicella-zoster virus E) Rubeola virus

11. Measles

12. Viral hemorrhagic fever

13. Chickenpox

14. Smallpox

15. Cold sores

Use the following to answer questions 16-20: Match the following items with the correct phrases.

A) Rotavirus B) West Nile virus C) Rubella virus D) A type of coronavirus E) Epstein-Barr virus

16. German measles

17. Infectious mononucleosis

18. Diarrhea

19. Encephalitis

20. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)

21.

A) B)

22.

A) B)

A) B)

Chickenpox and shingles are caused by the same virus.

True False

23. Koplik spots are a sign of smallpox.

True False

24.

A) B)

25.

A) B)

26.

A) B)

All human warts are caused by viruses in the genus Papillomavirus.

True False

Mumps is a rather mild disease, without any serious complications.

True False

West Nile virus is most commonly transmitted by tick bite.

True False

Epstein-Barr virus is associated with several types of cancer.

True False

A) B)

Some cases of genital herpes are caused by the same virus that causes cold sores.

True False

A) B)

Smallpox virus, monkeypox virus, and 28. chickenpox virus are all considered to be pox viruses.

True False

A) B)

29. Epstein-Barr virus is a type of herpes virus.

True False

A) B)

30. Genital warts can become malignant.

True False

27.

Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

C A D A B A B A C A E A D C B C E A B D A

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

A D C B C E A B D A A B B B A A B A A

1.

A) B) C) D)

2.

A) B) C) D)

A) B) C) D)

_______________ is the most common cause of pneumonia in the world.

Chlamydophila pneumoniae Legionella pneumophila Mycoplasma pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae

3. Gas gangrene is always caused by: Bacillus anthracis.

Clostridium spp.

Staphylococcus aureus.

Streptococcus pyogenes.

4.

A) B) C) D)

5.

A) B) C) D)

6.

A) B) C) D)

The most common sexually transmitted disease in the United States is caused by: Candida albicans.

Chlamydia trachomatis.

Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

Trichomonas vaginalis.

The bacterial species most frequently associated with necrotizing fasciitis is: Francisella tularensis.

Staphylococcus aureus.

Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Streptococcus pyogenes.

Which of the following diseases may be caused by Chlamydia trachomatis? inclusion conjunctivitis nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) trachoma all of these choices

Which of the following organisms is the most common cause of urethritis?

Candida albicans Chlamydia trachomatis Neisseria gonorrhoeae Trichomonas vaginalis

6.

A) B) C) D)

7.

A) B) C) D)

8.

A) B) C) D)

9.

A) B) C) D)

10.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following organisms is the most common cause of urethritis?

Candida albicans Chlamydia trachomatis Neisseria gonorrhoeae Trichomonas vaginalis

Which of the following organisms is the most common cause of cystitis?

Chlamydia trachomatis Escherichia coli Neisseria gonorrhoeae Trichomonas vaginalis

Which of the following is the most common arthropod-borne disease in the United States?

Lyme disease plague Rocky Mountain spotted fever tularemia

Which of the following diseases is not caused by a spirochete?

Lyme disease plague relapsing fever syphilis

Which of the following associations is incorrect?

Lyme disease . . . tick plague . . . rat flea Rocky Mountain spotted fever . . . tick typhoid fever . . . mosquito

Use the following to answer questions 11-15: Match the following items with the correct phrases.

A) Staphylococcus aureus

B) Staphylococcus epidermidis C) Streptococcus agalactiae D) Streptococcus pneumoniae E) Streptococcus pyogenes

_______________ is a common cause of 11. subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) and a less common cause of cystitis.

12.

Certain strains of _______________ are the so-called flesh-eating bacteria.

_______________ is a common cause of 13. bacterial pneumonia, meningitis, and otitis media.

14.

_______________ is the most common cause of toxic shock syndrome.

15.

_______________ is one of the most common causes of neonatal meningitis.

Use the following to answer questions 16-20: Match the following items with the correct phrases.

A) Plague B) Gas gangrene C) Lyme disease D) Syphilis E) Whooping cough

16. Borrelia burgdorferi

17. Treponema pallidum

18. Clostridium perfringens

19. Yersinia pestis

20. Bordetella pertussis

Use the following to answer questions 21-25: Match the following items with the correct phrases.

A) Gram-negative coccus B) Gram-positive coccus C) Gram-negative bacillus D) Gram-positive bacillus E) Spirochete

21. Borrelia burgdorferi

22. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

23. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

24. Staphylococcus aureus

25. Yersinia pestis

26.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following bacterial diseases is not transmitted by a tick?

Lyme disease Rocky Mountain spotted fever plague tularemia

26.

A) B) C) D)

27.

A) B) C) D)

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following diseases is not caused by an obligate intracellular pathogen? chlamydial urethritis human monocytic ehrlichiosis Rocky Mountain spotted fever typhoid fever

Which of the following bacteria is the most 28. common cause of antibiotic-associated diarrhea?

Clostridium difficile Escherichia coli Salmonella enteritidis Shigella sonnei

29.

A) B) C) D)

30.

A) B) C) D)

31.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following bacterial diseases is not transmitted by a tick?

Lyme disease Rocky Mountain spotted fever plague tularemia

Trachoma, the leading cause of blindness in the world, is caused by a __________ species.

Chlamydia Haemophilus Neisseria Rickettsia

Which of the following bacteria is not a common cause of neonatal meningitis?

Escherichia coli Listeria monocytogenes Neisseria meningitidis Streptococcus agalactiae

Which of the following bacterial diseases is not caused by an anaerobe? botulism gas gangrene tetanus tularemia

32.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following bacterial diseases is transmitted by a louse? epidemic typhus fever Lyme disease plague Rocky Mountain spotted fever

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following diseases is not caused by a spore-forming bacterium? anthrax diphtheria gas gangrene tetanus

A) B) C) D)

The etiologic agent of which of the following 34. bacterial diseases cannot be grown on artificial culture medium? gonorrhea leprosy plague salmonellosis

33.

35.

A) B) C) D)

36.

A) B)

Which of the following bacteria is associated with gastric and duodenal ulcers?

Campylobacter pylori Helicobacter pylori Salmonella enteritidis Shigella sonnei

Tuberculosis and Hansen disease (leprosy) are caused by Mycoplasma spp.

True False

37.

A) B)

38.

A) B)

39.

A) B)

It is possible for scarlet fever and toxic shock syndrome to be caused by the same pathogen.

True False

The most common cause of gas gangrene also causes a type of food poisoning.

True False

Diseases caused by Mycobacterium spp. are referred to as mycoses.

True False

A) B)

Botulism, gas gangrene, and tetanus are all caused by Clostridium spp.

True False

A) B)

41. Gangrene is always caused by a bacterium.

True False

A) B)

Trachoma, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, 42. and ehrlichiosis are all caused by obligate intracellular pathogens.

True False

A) B)

α-Hemolytic streptococci of oral origin and Staphylococcus epidermidis are common 43. causes of subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE).

True False

40.

44.

A) B)

45.

A) B)

Haemophilus influenzae is the most common cause of influenza.

True False

Meningitis can be caused by a virus, a bacterium, a fungus, or a protozoan.

True False

Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

B D B D D B B A B D B E D A C C D B A E E D A B C C D A A

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

E E D A B C C D A A C D A B B B B A A B A B A A B A

1.

A) B) C) D)

2.

A) B) C) D)

3.

A) B) C) D)

4.

A) B) C) D)

5.

A) B) C) D)

6.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following diseases is caused by an encapsulated yeast? coccidioidomycosis cryptococcosis histoplasmosis Pneumocystis pneumonia

Which of the following diseases is not caused by a dimorphic fungus? coccidioidomycosis cryptococcosis histoplasmosis sporotrichosis

Which of the following diseases is a synonym for ringworm infection of the nails? tinea barbae tinea cruris tinea nigra tinea unguium

Which of the following is the most common systemic fungal disease in the United States? cryptococcosis coccidioidomycosis histoplasmosis Pneumocystis pneumonia

One should associate the India ink preparation with diagnosis of which of the following? cryptococcal meningitis thrush tinea pedis yeast vaginitis

Bread molds are most commonly associated with which of the following diseases? thrush tinea versicolor vaginitis zygomycosis

6.

A) B) C) D)

Bread molds are most commonly associated with which of the following diseases? thrush tinea versicolor vaginitis zygomycosis

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following is the fungus most 7. often isolated from human clinical specimens?

Candida albicans Cryptococcus neoformans Histoplasma capsulatum Pneumocystis jiroveci

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following methods is the 8. quickest and most common way to diagnose yeast vaginitis? culture India ink preparation potassium hydroxide (KOH) preparation saline wet mount

A) B) C) D)

In the United States, Candida albicans causes 9. approximately __________ of the cases of vaginitis.

10% 25% 33% 50%

10.

A) B) C) D)

Use the following to answer questions 11-15:

Tinea cruris is a ringworm infection of which of these body sites? feet groin area nails palms of the hands

Match the following items with the correct phrases.

A) Black piedra B) White piedra C) Tinea nigra D) Tinea capitis E) Tinea pedis

11.

A ringworm infection of the scalp, eyebrows, and eyelashes

An infection of the palms of the hands and, 12. less commonly, the neck and feet caused by Hortaea werneckii

An infection of scalp hair and, less 13. commonly, eyebrows and eyelashes caused by Piedraia hortae

An infection of moustache, beard, pubic, and 14. axilla hair, usually caused by Trichosporon beigelii

15.

16.

A) B)

17.

A) B)

A ringworm infection of the soles and between the toes

Valley fever is another name for cryptococcosis.

True False

The yeast form of Histoplasma capsulatum is quite distinctive because of its large capsule.

True False

A) B)

Both histoplasmosis and cryptococcosis may 18. be acquired by inhalation of dried bat droppings (guano).

True False

A) B)

Molds in the genus Mucor are commonly referred to as bread molds.

True False

A) B)

If a patient is infected with a dimorphic 20. fungus, it is likely that fungal hyphae would be seen in the infected tissues.

True False

19.

21.

A) B)

22.

A) B)

A) B)

Tinea versicolor is caused by a yeast named Malassezia furfur.

True False

23. Mycetomas are respiratory infections.

True False

24.

A) B)

Pneumocystis pneumonia is a common contributory cause of death in AIDS patients.

True False

When grown at room temperature, Coccidioides immitis produces yeast colonies.

True False

24.

A) B)

25.

A) B)

When grown at room temperature, Coccidioides immitis produces yeast colonies.

True False

Histoplasmosis is the most common systemic fungal infection in AIDS patients.

True False

Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

B B D C A D A D C B D C A B E B B A A B A B B B A

A) B) C) D)

Humans develop malaria after the injection of Plasmodium ____________________ into the 1. bloodstream by an infected female Anopheles mosquito when she takes a blood meal. male and female gametocytes schizonts sporozoites trophozoites

A) B) C) D)

These Plasmodium life cycle stages must be ingested by a female Anopheles mosquito for 2. the Plasmodium life cycle to continue in the mosquito. male and female gametocytes schizonts sporozoites trophozoites

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following protozoal diseases is not transmitted via an arthropod vector?

African trypanosomiasis American trypanosomiasis babesiosis giardiasis

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following protozoal diseases is 4. least likely to be transmitted via blood transfusion?

American trypanosomiasis babesiosis malaria trichomoniasis

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following protozoal diseases is least likely to be transmitted via an infected 5. food handler who fails to wash his or her hands after using the bathroom? amebiasis cryptosporidiosis giardiasis toxoplasmosis

3.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following protozoal diseases is least likely to be transmitted via an infected 5. food handler who fails to wash his or her hands after using the bathroom? amebiasis cryptosporidiosis giardiasis toxoplasmosis

A) B) C) D)

You are visiting a friend whose parents raise pigs. Which of the following diseases are you 6. most likely to acquire by drinking well water at their farm? amebiasis balantidiasis cryptosporidiosis giardiasis

A) B) C) D)

You are working on a cattle ranch. Which of the following diseases are you most apt to 7. acquire as you perform your duties at the ranch? amebiasis balantidiasis cryptosporidiosis giardiasis

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following protozoal diseases are 8. you most likely to acquire by eating a rare hamburger? amebiasis balantidiasis giardiasis toxoplasmosis

9.

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following associations is incorrect?

African trypanosomiasis…tsetse fly amebiasis…fecally contaminated water Chagas' disease…mosquito toxoplasmosis…cats

A) B) C) D)

Which of the following is an example of an 10. infectious disease that is caused by a facultative parasite?

African trypanosomiasis giardiasis malaria primary amebic meningoencephalitis

Use the following to answer questions 11-15: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. Ciliata b. Mastigophora c. Sarcodina d. Sporozoa

African trypanosomiasis, American trypanosomiasis, giardiasis, and 11. trichomoniasis are caused by protozoa in the category of protozoa known as ____________________.

Protozoa in the category of protozoa known 12. as ____________________ move by means of pseudopodia.

Cryptosporidiosis, malaria, and toxoplasmosis 13. are caused by protozoa in the category of protozoa known as ____________________.

In the category of protozoa known as 14. ____________________, only one protozoan causes human disease.

A disease known as PAM is caused by a 15. protozoan in the category of protozoa known as ____________________.

Use the following to answer questions 16-20: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. oocyst b. ookinete c. schizont d. trophozoite e. zygote

In the malarial parasite's life cycle, a(n) 16. ____________________ contains numerous merozoites.

In the malarial parasite's life cycle, 17. sporozoites are produced within a(n) ____________________.

In the malarial parasite's life cycle, a(n) 18. ____________________ is a motile organism within the mosquito's stomach.

In the malarial parasite's life cycle, a(n) ____________________ may mature to 19. become a female gametocyte, a male gametocyte, or a schizont.

In the malarial parasite's life cycle, the 20. ____________________ is located on the outer wall of the mosquito's stomach.

A) B)

In a parasite's life cycle, the definitive host 21. harbors the adult or sexual stage of the parasite or the sexual phase of the life cycle.

True False

22.

A) B)

23.

A) B)

24.

A) B)

The amebae that cause amebic keratitis and PAM are good examples of obligate parasites.

True False

In the malarial parasite's life cycle, humans serve as definitive hosts.

True False

When causing infections, parasitic protozoa and helminths are endoparasites.

True False

A) B)

25. Scabies is caused by an insect.

True False

A) B)

In a parasite's life cycle, it is possible for a 26. particular arthropod to serve as both a host and a biologic vector.

True False

A) B)

It is possible to acquire cryptosporidiosis, 27. cyclosporiasis, and toxoplasmosis by ingesting oocysts.

True False

A) B)

Trichomonas vaginalis cannot survive very 28. long outside of the human body because it has no cyst form.

True False

A) B)

Toxoplasmosis could be acquired by eating raw or rare meat.

True False

A) B)

African trypanosomiasis and American 30. trypanosomiasis are transmitted by the same type of arthropod vector.

True False

29.

Use the following to answer questions 31-35: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. macroscopic examination of a fecal specimen b. microscopic examination of a fecal specimen c. microscopic examination of a “Scotch tape” preparation d. microscopic examination of a stained peripheral blood smear e. microscopic examination of a urogenital discharge or secretion

31.

The usual way in which African and American trypanosomiasis are diagnosed.

32.

The usual way in which giardiasis is diagnosed.

33. The usual way in which malaria is diagnosed.

34.

The usual way in which trichomoniasis is diagnosed.

35.

The usual way in which amebic dysentery is diagnosed.

Use the following to answer questions 36-40: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. a mosquito b. a type of fly c. mite d. reduviid bug e. tick

36. African trypanosomiasis

37. Chagas' disease

38. Babesiosis

39. American trypanosomiasis

40. Malaria

Use the following to answer questions 41-45: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. gametocytes, schizonts, and trophozoites b. microfilariae c. trophozoites or cysts d. trypomastigotes

e. eggs and larvae

Might be observed in a microscopically examined, stained, peripheral blood smear 41. from a patient who has African sleeping sickness.

Might be observed in a microscopically 42. examined, stained, fecal preparation from a patient who has giardiasis.

Might be observed in a microscopically 43. examined, stained, peripheral blood smear from a patient who has malaria.

Might be observed in a microscopically 44. examined, stained, fecal preparation from a patient who has amebic dysentery.

Might be observed in a microscopically 45. examined, stained, peripheral blood smear from a patient who has Chagas' disease.

Use the following to answer questions 46-50: Match the following items with the correct phrases. a. ingestion of cysts in contaminated drinking water b. ingestion of oocysts in contaminated water c. ingestion of oocysts from cat feces or cysts in contaminated meat d. direct (usually sexual) contact with an infected individual e. injection of sporozoites by an Anopheles mosquito

46.

The usual way in which toxoplasmosis is acquired.

47. The usual way in which giardiasis is acquired.

48.

The usual way in which cryptosporidiosis is acquired.

49.

The usual way in which trichomoniasis is acquired.

50. The usual way in which malaria is acquired.

Answer Key 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

C A D D D B C D C D b c d a c c a b d a A B B A B A A A

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

a A B B A B A A A A B d b d e b b d e d a d c a c d c a b d e