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ARCHITECT S GUIDEBOOK FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS Set 1- Solved Question Papers (GATE- 1991 to 2017, UPSC- 2015-2016)

Ar. Swapnil Vidhate B. Arch. (University of Mumbai) M. Plan (NIT, Bhopal)

Published by: Ar. Swapnil S. Vidhate PWD-30, Panchsheel Nagar, Main Road, Bhopal- 462003. Phone: +91-9975603199 e-mail: ISBN (13)- 978-9-35-267484-8 ISBN (10)- 9-35-267484-7


Information contained in this book has been obtained by author from sources believed to be reliable and are correct to the best of his knowledge. Every effort has been made to avoid errors and omissions and ensure accuracy. Any error or omission noted may be brought to the notice of the author which shall be taken care of in the forthcoming edition of this book. However, author does not guarantee the accuracy or completeness of any information published herein, and does not take not responsibility or liability for any inconvenience, expenses, losses or damage to any one resulting from the contents of the book. The author of the book has taken all possible care to ensure that the contents of the book do not violate any existing copyright or other intellectual property rights of any person in any manner whatsoever. In the event, the author has been unable to track any source and if any copyright has been infringed, the facts may be brought to the notice of the author in writing for corrective action. Send all correspondence to: Ar. Swapnil S. Vidhate Email:

First Edition: August 2016. Second Edition: March 2017.

Price: Rs. 1000/-


Architecture is one of many prestigious careers available to young individuals for work. It carries a level of education superior to that of many other career options. After 5 years of graduation years, many students opt to pursue higher education for specialization. Today almost all admissions processes for Architecture and planning specialization courses are based on some entrance exams like GATE, CEED, State CET etc. in India. The number of students are increasing every year which making the level of competitive exams higher and higher. The recruitment of architects and planners in various government agencies is also done by preliminary examinations. But no standard books are available in the market for preparation. Thus, this book is compiled and published as a guidebook to help students and architects for those exams. This book will provide the past trends of questions asked in the exams with their solutions with detailed explanations for better understanding. The book contains all GATE- Architecture & Planning papers from 1991 to 2016 as well as UPSC-CPWD 2015-2016 exam papers for recruitment of architects. The book not only provides the questions and answers but also the explanations will be helpful for understanding the basic concepts, formulae and relevant information about the question which students had learnt in the academic years. The Author welcomes suggestions from the readers for improving the book in any manner.

Ar. Swapnil Vidhate (Author)



I express my sincere thanks to my family and friends for their constant help, support and encouragement in compiling and publishing the work in this book. Thank you.

-Ar. Swapnil Vidhate

Index Question Paper

Page No.

01. GATE 2017


02. GATE 2016


03. GATE 2015


04. GATE 2014


05. GATE 2013


06. GATE 2012


07. GATE 2011


08. GATE 2010


09. GATE 2009


10. GATE 2008


11. GATE 2007


12. GATE 2006


13. GATE 2005


14. GATE 2004


15. GATE 2003


16. GATE 2002


17. GATE 2001


18. GATE 2000


19. GATE 1999


20. GATE 1998


21. GATE 1997


22. GATE 1996


23. GATE 1995


24. GATE 1994


25. GATE 1993


26. GATE 1992


27. GATE 1991


28. UPSC 2015


29. UPSC 2016




Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1. A right-angled cone (with base radius 5 cm and height 12 cm) as shown in the figure below, is rolled on the ground keeping the point P fixed until the point Q (at the base of the cone, as shown touches the ground again. By what angle (in radians) about P does the cone travel?

(A) 5 /12

(C) 24 /5

(B) 5 /24

(D) 10 /13

Ans. D Explanation: Slant height of cone= 13 cm. Shaded area = 2 r = 10 (Circumference of Base of cone) i.e. Circumference covered by the cone in 1 rotation. Circumference of total path with radius 13 cm = 2 r = 2 x

x 13

= 26


Thus, angle covered by the rotating cone= (10 /26 ) x 2 = 10 / 13

Q.2. As the two speakers became increasingly agitated, the debate became ________. (A) Lukewarm

(C) Forgiving

(B) Poetic

(D) Heated

Ans. D

Q.3. ion. P states that S has at least 3 cars. Q believes that S has less than 3 cars. R indicates that to his knowledge, S has at least one car. Only one of P, Q and R is right. The number of cars owned by S is. (A) 0

(C) 3

(B) 1

(D) Cannot be determined



Q.4. In a company with 100 employees, 45 earn Rs. 20,000 per month. 25 earn Rs. 30,000. 20 earn Rs. 40,000. 8 earn Rs. 60,000 and 2 earn Rs. 1,50,000. The median of the salaries is (A) Rs. 20,000.

(C) Rs. 32,300.

(B) Rs. 30,000.

(D) Rs. 40,000.

Ans. B Explanation: To find the median, the data needs to be arranged in ascending order. Here, the salary of 100 employees will be arranged in ascending order as, 20,000 (1st employee), 20,000 (2 nd employee)



Rule to find out median of odd number of observations (n) is, median = (n+1) th term. 2 Rule to find out median of even number of observations (n) is, median is mean of = (n/2) th & {(n/2) +1}th term. Here, number of observations are 100. Thus median = mean of (100/2) th term+ {(100/2) +1}th term = mean of (50th term + 51th term) Thus, Median of salaries = (30,000 +30,000)/2 = 30,000. Q.5. He was one of my best ______ and I felt his loss ________ (A) Friend, keenly

(C) Friend, keener.

(B) Friends, keen

(D) Friends, keenly.

Ans. D

Q. 6

Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6. The growth of bacteria (lactobacillus) in milk leads to curd formation. A minimum bacterial population density of 0.8 (in suitable units) is needed to form curd. In the graph below, the population density of lactobacillus in 1 liter of milk is plotted as a function of time, at two different temperatures 25 0c and 37 0c. Consider the following statements based on the date shown in the graph: i. The growth in bacterial population stops earlier at 370C as compared to 25 0C. ii. The time taken for curd formation at 25 0C is twice the time taken at 370C.



Which one of the following options is correct? (A) Only i

(C) Both i and ii

(B) Only ii

(D) Neither i and ii

Ans. A

Q.7. wear their caste-marks and their own choice of facial hair on parade, being again reprimanded by the commander-inance than this of European prejudice with

According to this paragraph, which of the statements below is most accurate? (A)

-in-chief was moved by this demonstration of his prejudice.





(D) The commander-in-chief was exempt from the European prejudice that dictated how the sepoys were to dress. Ans. C

Q.8. Let S1 be the plane figure consisting of the points (x, y) given by the inequalities I x - 1 I

I y +2 I

be the plane figure given by the inequalities xunion of S1 and S2. The area of S is 2

(A) 26

(C) 32

(B) 28

(D) 34

Ans. C



BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Explanation: For plane figure S1:


means, -2 < x-1 < 2

i.e. -1 < x < 3 (adding 1 on both sides)

I y +2 I

-3 < y+2 < 3

i.e. -5 < y < 1 (Subtracting 2 from both sides) For plane figure S2: x-


means if x=0 then y=2 & if y=0 then x=-2 Also, and


Thus, in above equation of S2, If x=3 then y=5. Here, area of union = Area of rectangle + Area of Triangle. = (6 X 4) + (1/2 X 4 X 4) = 32 Q.9. What is the sum of the missing digits in the subtraction problem below? 5____ - 48_89 1111 (A) 8

(C) 11

(B) 10

(D) Cannot be determined

Ans. D Explanation: The figures can be (50100, 48989) and (50000, 48889). Thus, sum of the missing digits can be either 8 or 10.

Q.10. Two very famous sportsmen Mark and Steve happened to be brothers and played for country K. your country Which one of the following can be inferred from this conversation? (A) Mark was known to play better than James.

(C) James and Steve were good friends.

(B) Steve was known to play better than Mark.

(D) James played better than Steve.

Ans. B




Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1. In a multi-storied building, the type of plumbing system suitable for reusing the sullage for nonpotable use is (A) Single stack system

(C) One pipe system

(B) Partially ventilated single stack system

(D) Two pipe system

Ans. D Explanation: In two pipe system, the soil water (containing human excreta) and waste water (Containing floor water of bathroom, kitchen, washing area, etc.) both are separated from each other in two different stacks. The soil water pipe needs to be connected to either main municipal sewer connection or need to be disposed of in septic tank near the site. The waste water however, can be treated, recycled on site by various techniques and can be used for non-potable uses like gardening, flushing, floor washing, etc.

Q.2. Which of the following processes is NOT adopted in solid waste management? (A) Incineration

(C) Flocculation

(B) Pyrolysis

(D) Sanitary landfill

Ans. C Explanation: Flocculation process often known as Coagulation- Flocculation process for chemical treatment of drinking water. This technique is applied prior to sedimentation and filtration (e.g. rapid sand filtration) to enhance the ability of a treatment process to remove particles. Coagulation is a process used to neutralize charges and form a gelatinous mass to trap (or bridge) particles thus forming a mass large enough to settle or be trapped in the filter by using alum as coagulant. Flocculation is gentle stirring or agitation to encourage the particles thus formed to agglomerate into masses large enough to settle or be filtered from solution.

Q.3. Tuscan and Composite orders are associated with (A) Greek Architecture

(C) Byzantine Architecture

(B) Islamic Architecture

(D) Roman Architecture

Ans. D Order




The column shaft height is 7 times its diameter and typically plain rather than fluted, with a simple Tuscan style capital and base.




The composite order is a mixed order, combining the volutes of the Ionic order capital with the acanthus leaves of the Corinthian order.

Q.4. In which of the following models does the private partner own the revenue as well as the risk associated with the project for limited period of time? (A) Build, Own, Operate (BOO)

(C) Design, Build, Finance, Operate (DBFO)

(B) Build, Own, Operate, Transfer (BOOT)

(D) Design, Bid, Build (DBB)

Ans. B Explanation: Build-Own-Operate-Transfer (BOOT) arrangement involves the transfer of responsibility for constructing, financing and operating a single facility to a private sector partner for a fixed period of time. At the end of that period, the responsibility reverts to the public party.

Q.5. The unit for measuring sound absorption in a room is (A) Sabin

(C) Decibel

(B) Phon

(D) Hertz

Ans. A

Q.6. The design element provided to ensure the safety of a vehicle traveling at a prescribed speed along the curved segment of a highway is (A) Shoulder

(C) Median

(B) Super-elevation

(D) Footpath

Ans. B Explanation: Super-elevation is the amount by which the outer edge of a curve on a road or railway is banked above the inner edge. It helps to offset centripetal forces developed as the vehicle goes around a curve. Along with friction on the road, super-elevation keeps a vehicle from going off the road.

Q.7. Select the right option representing strategic components arranged in ascending order of specified minimum area under smart city mission of Government of India. (A) Greenfield development- Redevelopment- Retrofitting. (B) Redevelopment- Greenfield development- Retrofitting (C) Retrofitting- Redevelopment- Greenfield development (D) Redevelopment- Retrofitting- Greenfield development. Ans. B


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Explanation: Smart City Mission of Govt. of India has three options for area based proposal. The appropriate site for either of three types of development: retrofitting means addition of smart features in the existing core city (approx. 500 acres), redevelopment means proposal with entire demolition of existing built mass in core city (approx. 50 acres) or Greenfield development means entire fresh development at the fringe part of the city (approx. 250 acres).

Q.8. Which of the following processes is NOT used for corrosion resistance of cast iron? (A) Painting

(C) Quenching

(B) Epoxy coating

(D) Galvanizing

Ans. C Explanation: Quenching is the most commonly used process to harden steel by rapid cooling technique. In this process, cast steel and iron are heated to between 815 and 900 °C (1,500 to 1,650 °F), with careful attention paid to keeping temperatures throughout the workpiece uniform . This follows soaking of material in air and followed by rapid cooling. This can prevent the formation of all crystal structure, resulting in amorphous metal or "metallic glass".

Q.9. In Geographic Information System, DEM represents information on (A) Vegetation cover

(C) Water Table

(B) Soil Type

(D) Topography

Ans. D Explanation: DEM stands for Digital Elevation Model. DEMs are typically used to represent the bareearth terrain, void of vegetation and manmade features.

Q.10. As per the CPWD handbook on Barrier Free and Accessibility 2014, Government of India, the minimum length of a straight ramp in meter to raise a wheelchair to the plinth level of 600 mm will be ______ Ans. 7.2 m As per CPWD handbook on Barrier Free and Accessibility 2014, maximum gradient of ramp should be 1:12. It means to raise a height of 1 m (1000 mm), it requires 12 m (12000 mm) length of ramp. Thus, to raise a wheelchair to height 600 mm, it requires 12 X 600 = 7200 mm = 7.2 m ramp Q.11. A pointed arch having two centers and radii greater than the span is known as (A) Lancet arch

(C) Roman arch

(B) Gothic arch

(D) Drop arch

Ans. A



Gothic Arch

Roman Arch

Drop Arch

Q.12. Slenderness ratio of a column is represented as: (A) Effective length/ Cross-sectional area

(C) Actual length / Cross- sectional area

(B) Effective length/Radius of gyration

(D) Actual length / Radius of gyration.

Ans. B

Q.13. ArchiCAD, Autodesk Revit, Digital Project Designer (CATIA) and Vector works Architect are examples of (A) Statistical Analysis Software

(C) BIM Software

(B) GIS Software

(D) Image Processing software

Ans. C Explanation: BIM stands for Building Information Modeling. It is an intelligent 3D model-based process that equips architecture, engineering, and construction professionals with the insight and tools to more efficiently plan, design, construct, and manage buildings and infrastructure.

Q.14. In one liter of paint, volume of solid pigment and volume of non-volatile binder are 400 cc and 600 cc respectively. The pigment volume concentration number of the paint is _____ Ans. 0.4 Explanation: cc stands for cubic centimeters, a unit of volume. So, 1000 cc means 1 liters. Here, pigment volume concentration = 400/1000 = 0.4

Q.15. Liquidated damage refers to the (A) Cost borne by the contractor to rectify defects within defect-liability period. (B) Compensation paid on breach of contract to the affected party by the other party (C) Money paid by the insurance company to the owner of insured property if is damaged.


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE (D) Money earned by te owner from selling damaged property through auction. Ans. B (As per GATE-Official Key) Explanation: Refer UPSC-CPWD 2015, Q.71 for more information.

Q.16. Excellence in Design for Greater Efficiency (EDGE) programme DOES NOT focus on (A) Lower carbon emission

(C) Cost effectiveness

(B) Greater resource efficiency

(D) Labour safety.

Ans. D

Q.17. (A) Expansion joint in large span concrete members. (B) Interface between an already setting concrete and fresh batch of concrete (C) Structural crack arrested by embedding metal rods. (D) Joining of two similar metals in vacuum Ans. B Explanation: An advancing face of a concrete pour, which could not be covered by fresh concrete before expiry of initial setting time (due to an unscheduled stoppage or delay on account of breakdown in plant, inclement weather, low rate of placement or any other reason), is called a cold joint.

Q.18. The grade-separated interchange suitable for 3-legged road intersection is (A) Trumpet

(C) Diamond

(B) Full Clover leaf

(D) Partial Clover leaf

Ans. A Intersection


Full Clover leaf



Trumpet interchange is a popular form of three leg interchange. If one of the legs of the interchange meets a highway at some angle but does not cross it, then the interchange is called trumpet interchange.

It is a four-leg interchange and is used when two highways of high volume and speed intersect each other with considerable turning movements. The main advantage of cloverleaf intersection is that it provides complete separation of traffic. In addition, high speed at intersections can be achieved. However, the disadvantage is that large area of land is required. Therefore, these are provided mainly in rural areas.




Diamond interchange is a popular form of fourleg interchange found in the urban locations where major and minor roads crosses. The important feature of this interchange is that it can be designed even if the major road is relatively narrow.

A partial cloverleaf interchange is a modification of a cloverleaf interchange. It may be used in lieu of a diamond when development or other Partial clover physical conditions prohibit construction in a leaf quadrant, or where heavy left turns are involved. A continuous flow design is required where two major facilities intersect.

Q.19. Data on years or more (A) Housing density

(C) Housing Price

(B) Housing Shortage

(D) Housing affordability

Ans. B Explanation: Housing Shortage is defined as insufficient housing / lack of housing to accommodate the existing population. The standard household size depends upon the existing infrastructure available in the area, location of the area, etc. If the household size exceeds this standard size, it shows sharing of single dwelling unit by one or more households.

Q.20. The Pritzker Architecture Prize for the year 2016 has been awarded to (A) Alejandro Aravena

(C) Stephen Breyer

(B) Frei Otto

(D) Yung Ho Chang

Ans. A


posed by

(A) Le Corbusier

(C) Gordon Cullen

(B) Louis Kahn

(D) Kevin Lynch

Ans. C Explanation: Refer GATE-2010, Q.17 for more information.

Q.22. Which of the following tree has a columnar form? (A) Delonix Regia

(C) Polyalthia Longifolia

(B) Tamarindus Indica

(D) Callistemon lanceolatus

Ans. C



Botanical Name


Polyalthia Longifolia


Q.23. Minimum points required for GRIHA certification is (A) 35

(C) 50

(B) 40

(D) 60

Ans. C (As per Official GATE Key) Explanation: As per New Rating thresholds, below table shows the GRIHA rating with respect to points achieved in Building Design and Construction. New Rating Thresholds 25-40 41-55 56-70 71-85 86 or more

GRIHA Rating 1 Star 2 Star 3 Star 4 Star 5 Star

Q.24. The CARTOSAT 2C satellite recently launched by ISRO (A) is a geo-synchronous satellite.

(C) Was launched using a GSLV rocket

(B) is a part of IRNSS GPS satellite system

(D) Has high spatial resolution.

Ans. D Explanation: CARTOSAT Satellite was launched by ISRO in June 2016. The applications of the satellite include cartographic applications, urban and rural applications, coastal land use and regulation, utility management like road network monitoring, water distribution, creation of land use maps, precision study, change detection to bring out geographical and manmade features and various other Land Information System (LIS) and Geographical Information System (GIS). The satellite used for remote sensing purpose are Polar Synchronous and they are launched by Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV). Thus, above question can be answered by deleting A, B, C options.

Q.25. The principle of Eminent Domain is the power to (A) Restrict exercise of rights in land through zoning and environmental laws (B) Control land use (C) Retain land use (D) Acquire and take possession of property in order to promote public interest. Ans. D



Q. 26

Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26. Match the classical urban planning theories in Group-I with their proponents in Group II Group I P. Concentric Zone Model Q. Sector Model R. Multiple Nuclei Model S. Factorial Ecology

Group II 1. Berry and Horton 2. Homer Hoyt 3. Ernest Burgess 4. Shevky and Bell 5. Harris and Ullman

(A)P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-5

(C) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-1

(B) P-3, Q-2, R-3, S-5

(D) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-1

Ans. D Urban Planning Theory


Concentric Zone Model

Ernest Burgess

Sector Model

Graphical Presentation of theory

Homer Hoyt

Multiple Nuclei Model

Harris and Ullman

Factorial Ecology

Berry and Horton


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Q.27. Match the development schemes by Government of India in Group I with their objectives in Group II Group I P. PMAY Q. AMRUT R. NRuM S. HRIDAY

Group II 1. Housing for All 2. Rural cluster development 3. Heritage city development 4. Urban mobility improvement 5. Urban rejuvenation

(A) P-1, Q-5, R-4, S-3

(C) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2

(B) P-1, Q-5, R-2, S-3

(D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-5

Ans. B Explanation: Scheme PMAY AMRUT NRuM HRIDAY

Long Form of Scheme Pradhan Mantri Aawas Yojana Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and urban transformation National Rurban Mission Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana

Objectives 1. Housing for All 2. Urban Rejuvenation 3. Rural cluster development 4. Heritage city development

Q.28. In year 2001, a district with 4000 manufacturing jobs had a 10% share of total manufacturing jobs within the state. In year 2011, the state recorded 15% drop in manufacturing jobs whereas, share of the district in total manufacturing jobs within the state increased to 15%. Additional manufacturing jobs created in the district between year 2001 and 2011 is ________ Ans. 1100 Explanation: Year 2001 2011 Net Increase

Jobs in District 4000 5100 1100

% of jobs in District compared to state 10% 15%

Q.29. Match the instruments in Group I with the corresponding tests in Group II Group I P. Pycnometer R. Los Angeles Apparatus S.

Group II 1. Initial and final setting time 2. Abrasion test 3. Surface hardness test 4. Slump test 5. Apparent specific gravity

(A) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-5

(B) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

Ans. A


Total Jobs in State 40,000 34,000 (-15%)


Used for testing



Apparent specific gravity

Surface hardness test Apparatus

Los Angeles Apparatus

To determine the Los Angeles abrasion value. It is also used to find the suitability of aggregates for use in road construction.

Initial and final setting time Apparatus

Q.30. A site has a unidirectional slope of 30 0 with the horizontal along its longer side. The projected dimensions of the site on the horizontal plane measures 30m X 40m. Using cut and fill method the site has to be levelled parallel to the horizontal plane. The minimum amount of earth to be excavated in cubic meter is ______ Ans. 3463 m3 Explanation: Draw Cross-Section of site as shown in figure below.


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Volume of existing site section = (Cross Section Area) X Length of shorter side = [1/2 X 40 X (tan30 X40)] X 30 = 13856 m3


This volume needs to be converted into cuboid of dimensions 30 m X 40 m X h (2) Equating 1 & 2, h= 11.546 m (BF) CF = BC-BF = (tan300 x 40)


= 11.548 As per 30-60-90 principle, m Thus, volume of area need to be cut and filled = ½ X 20 X 11.546 X 30 = 3463 m3

Q.31. A circular plate inclined at an angle ø with horizontal plane generates an ellipse as top view with major axis and minor axis of 5cm and 2.5 cm respectively. The value of ø in degrees is ____ Ans. 60 Explanation: The above problem can be illustrated as shown in figure. Thus, in triangle, Cos ø = 5/10 = ½. Thus, ø = Cos-1 (1/2) = 600.



Q.32. Match the terminologies in Group I with their description in Group II Group I P. Pruning Q. Felling R. Hoeing S. Mulching

Group II 1. Cutting of trees 2. Removing broken branches from trees for better growth. 3. Maintaining moisture content in soil by a protective layer 4. Indiscriminate cutting of branches to reduce the size of a tree 5. Loosening the ground to remove weeds

(A) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3



(D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-1

Ans. A Pruning- Removing broken branches from trees for better growth

Feeling- Cutting of trees

Hoeing- Loosening the ground to remove weeds

Mulching- Maintaining moisture content in soil by a protective layer

Q.33. Calculate the volume of cement in cubic meter required for making 10 cubic meter of M20 grade Plain Cement Concrete Work, assuming the ratio of dry concrete mix to wet concrete mix as 1.52. Ans. 2.88 Explanation: Composition of M20 Grade Concrete (C: S: A) = 1: 1.5: 3. (Total 5.5) i.e. 5.5-unit volume of concrete contains 1 unit volume of cement. Thus, 1 cu.m. volume of concrete contains 0.19 cu.m. volume of cement. Thus, 10 cu.m. volume of concrete contains 1.9 cu.m. volume of cement. For wet concrete mix, it requires 1.52 times more volume as given by the ratio of dry concrete mix: wet concrete mix. Thus, for making 10 cu.m. of wet concrete mix, 1.52 x 1.9 = 2.88 cu.m. of cement. Q.34. The optimistic, most-likely and pessimistic time for developing a new product are 12 months, 15 months and 17 months respectively. Calculate the expected time in months. Ans. 14.84 months Explanation: Expected Time (te) = (to + 4tm + tp) 6


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Where, to = Optimistic time, tm = Most likely time, tp = Pessimistic time. Thus, (te) = (to + 4tm + tp)/6 = {12+ (4 x 15) + 17}/ 6 = 14.84 months

Q.35. A fluorescent light source consumes 40 W electric power and has luminous efficacy of 40 lm/W. Illumination in lux at a distance of 3 m from this light source is ______ Ans. 177.78 Explanation: To find out Illumination produced from light source. E = I / d2 Where, E= Illumination on surface (lux), I= Illumination intensity from source (cd) d= distance from light source Here, I = Luminous efficacy of lamp X Power consumption of lamp = 40 lm/W X 40 W = 1600 lm. E= 1600 / 32 = 177.78 lux. Q.36. Fee of contractor for a project has the following provisions. Basic fee= 15% of actual cost of work incurred. Bonus = 20% of savings from estimated cost of work Penalty = 20% of cost overrun. If the estimated cost of the project is Rs. 60,000 and the actual cost is Rs. 70,000. Then the total fee of contractor in Rupees is _______ Ans. 8,500 Estimated Cost of Project Actual Cost of Project Cost Overrun Basic Fee (15% of Actual cost) Bonus Penalty (20% of overrun) Thus, Fees of Contractor (Basic Fee- Penalty)

Rs. 60,000 Rs. 70,000 Rs. 10,000 0.15 X 70,000 = 10,500 Rs. Nil (Project cost exceeds estimated cost) 0.20 X 10,000 = 2000 Rs. 10,500-2000 = 8,500 Rs.

Q.37. For a symmetrical two-dimensional truss as shown in the above figure, vertical force in kN acting on the member PQ is ______

Ans. 0


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Q.38. Associate the structural systems in Group I with the buildings in Group II. Group I P. Folded Plates Q. Shell R. Tensegrity S. Pneumatic (A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Group II 1. Kurilpa Bridge, Brisbane 2. Eden Project, Cornwall. 3. Riverside Museum, Glasgow. 4. MIT Auditorium, Boston. 5. 30, St. Mary Axe, London (C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-5

(B) P-5, Q-4, R-3, S-1

(D) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

Ans. A Structural System

Used in Building- Architect

Folded Plates

Riverside Museum, GlasgowZaha Hadid


MIT Auditorium, Boston- Eero Saarinen


Kurilpa Bridge, Brisbane- Cox Rayner Architects with Arup


Eden Project, CornwallNicholas Grimshaw

Diagrid System

30, St. Mary Axe, London (Also known as Gherkin Tower)- Norman Foaster & partners



BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Q.39. Match the distinguished housing projects in Group I with their architects in Group II Group I P. Nagakin Capsule Tower, Tokyo, Japan Q. Tara Apartment, New Delhi, India R. Habitat 67, Montreal, Canada S. Byker Wall, New Castle, England

Group II 1. Walter Gropius 2. Moshe Safdie 3. Ralph Erskine 4. Charles Correa. 5. Kisho Kurokawa

(A) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3

(C) P-5, Q-2, R-1, S-4

(B) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-5

(D) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1

Ans. A Housing Project

Name of Architect

Nakagin Capsule Tower, Tokyo, Japan

Kisho Kurokawa

Tara Apartment, New Delhi, India

Charles Correa

Habitat 67, Montreal, Canada

Moshe Safdie

Byker Wall, New Castle, England

Ralph Erskine



BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Q.40. Match the architectural movements in Group I with their proponents in Group II P. Deconstruction Q. Historicism R. Metabolism S. Art Nouveau

Group I

Group II 1. Joseph Paxton 2. Kenzo Tange 3. Walter Gropius 4. Victor Horta 5. Frank O. Gehry

(A) P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(C) P-5, Q-2, R-3, S-3

(B) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3

(D) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5

Ans. A Architectural Movement



Frank O. Gehry


Joseph Paxton


Kenzo Tange

Art Nouveau

Victor Horta

Type of work


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Q.41. A proposed housing will have HIG, MIG and LIG units on a site measuring 60,750 sq.m. The buildable area of each category of units with respect to the total buildable area will be 30%, 50% and 20% respectively. The maximum allowable FAR is 2.5, ground coverage 45% and height 15m. The maximum buildable area in sq.m. of HIG units, considering a floor height of 3m for all categories wil l be _____ Ans. 41,006.25 sq.m. Site Area = 60,750 Sq.m. Maximum FAR = 2.5 Maximum Built-up area consuming full FAR = 2.5 X 60,750 = 1,51,875 sq.m. Maximum ground coverage = 45% = 0.45 X 60750 = 27,337.5 Sq.m. HIG MIG Max. buildable area 30 % = (0.30 X 1,51,875) No need to calculate = 45,562.5 sq.m. Max. ground 30 % of 27,337.5 sq.m. No need to calculate coverage = 0.30 X 27,337.5 = 8,201.25 sq.m. Max. floor possible as per height restriction = 15/3= 5 floors. Thus, maximum buildable area of HIG units = 5 X 8,201.25 = 41,006.25 sq.m.

LIG No need to calculate No need to calculate

Q.42. One acre of agricultural land has been given on a lease till perpetuity at an annual rent of Rs. 10,000 to be paid at the end of each year. Net Present Value of the land parcel in Rupees assuming discount rate of 5% per annum is _____ Ans. 2,00,000 Explanation: Net Present Value

= Annual Rent (annual net income) x (100 / interest rate)

(Capitalized value in perpetuity) = 10,000 x (100/5) = 2,00,000

Q.43. Match the planning tasks in Group I with the tools of analysis in Group II Group I P. Population Projection Q. Regional Resource allocation R. Trip distribution S. Design of water distribution network

Group II 1. Input-Output Analysis 2. Hardy Cross Method 3. Cohort Analysis 4. Gravity Model 5. Moving Observer Method

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(C) P-5, Q-1, R-3, S-4

(B) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1

(D) P-1, Q-3, R-5, S-2

Ans. A

Q.44. Match the parameters in Group I with their units in Group II Group I P. Traffic Flow Q. Traffic Density R. Right of Way S. Traffic Signal Cycle Length

Group II 1. Meter 2. Cycles/Second 3. Seconds 4. Vehicle/km 5. PCU/hr.



(C) P-5, Q-2, R-4, S-3

(B) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(D) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3

Ans. B Parameters Traffic Flow Traffic Density Right of Way Traffic Signal Cycle Length

Description Traffic flow of a particular road shows the average passenger car units (PCU) that travels per hour by that road. Traffic density of a particular section of the street is measured in terms of maximum vehicles that can travel along the particular length of that street Right of way is the term used to show the horizontal extent of the road. At signalized intersection, the traffic signal cycle is measured in seconds.

Q.45. Match the international events in Group I with their directives in Group II Group I P. Earth Summit, Rio de Janeiro, 1992 Q. UN Framework Convention on Climate Change, New York, 1992. R. UN Sustainable Development Summit, New York, 2015 S. Habitat II, Istanbul, 1996

Group II 1. Kyoto Protocol 2. Agenda 21 3. Heritage Conservation 4. Agenda 2030 5. Housing for All

(A) P-1, Q-5, R-4, S-3

(C) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5

(B) P-1, Q-5, R-2, S-3

(D) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-4

Ans. C

Q.46. A drainage basin of 180 hectares comprises 40% wooded area, 45% grassed area and 15% paved area. Runoff coefficients for wooded, grassed and paved areas are 0.01, 0.2 and 0.95 respectively. The composite runoff coefficient for the drainage basin is _____ Ans. 0.2365 Explanation: Area of drainage basin= 180 hectares Distribution Wooded Area (40%) Grassed Area (45%) Paved Area (15%) Area in hectares 72 81 27 Runoff coefficients 0.01 0.2 0.95 Quantity of runoff taking 0.72i 16.2i 25.65i as constant (Q= C x i X A) Total runoff (Q1) 0.72i + 16.2i +25.65i = 42.57 i Total runoff on drainage C X i X 180. (C- Composite runoff coefficient of entire drainage basin) basin of 180 hectares. (Q2) As, Q1 = Q2. 42.57 i = C X 180 i Thus, C= 0.2365


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Q.47. Value of bending moment in kN-m at point C for a beam as shown in the figure is

Ans. 28 kN-m. Explanation: Here, RB + RD = 20 +40 KN = 60 KN. Also, Bending Moment about point D = 0. Thus, RB x 5

40 x 2

20 x 7.5 = 0.

RB = 46 KN. Thus, RD = 14 KN. Thus, bending moment in kN-m at point C = RD x 2 m = 14 X 2 = 28 kN-m.

Q.48. Water flows through constricted circular pipe whose diameter at the constricted end is half of the non-constricted end. Velocity of water at the non-constricted end is 2 m/s. Velocity of water in m/s at the constricted end using the principle of continuity of flow is ______ Ans. 8 m/s Explanation: The volume of liquid Q passing through area A 1 & A2 in unit time is, Q= A1. V1 & Q= A2. V2 Where, V1 & V2 is the velocity of the liquid at that point respectively. The quantities must be equal for steady flow. Thus, A1. V1 = A2. V2 Thus, V1 / V2 = A2 / A1 Assume, A1 = Area at constricted end, A2 = Area at non-constricted end V1 = Velocity at constricted end, V 2 = Velocity at non-constricted end (2m/s) As per given condition of diameter, d1/d2 = 0.5. Thus, A1 / A2= (d1/d2 )2 = 0.25 A2. Thus, A2 / A1 = V1 / V2 = 4. Thus, V1 = 4 X 2 = 8 m/s. Q.49. Match the planning techniques in Group I with their salient features in Group II Group I P. Land Pooling Q. Action Plan R. Land Sharing S. Transfer of Development Rights

Group II 1. Assigning specific task on a short time horizon 2. Assembly privately owned land parcels for development 3. Agreement for reallocation of land between occupiers and owners 4. Assigning specific task on a long-time horizon 5. Incentive based voluntary shifting of FAR of a plot to another plot

(A) P-1, Q-5, R-4, S-3

(C) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-5

(D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-5

Ans. B


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Q.50. Match the land use classes in Group I with the use zones in Group II Group I P. Transportation Q. Commercial R. Public and Semi-Public S. Recreational (A) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-5

Group II 1. Sports Complex 2. Heritage and Conservation areas 3. Burial ground 4. BRT Corridor 5. Service Sector (C) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-2

(B) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D) P-4, Q-5, R-3, S-1

Ans. D

Q.51. In 2011, the population of a town was 5,00,000 and the number of housing units were 1,00,000. Calculate the additional number of dwelling units (DU) required by 2031 so that there is no housing shortage. The assumptions are i. 5% decadal increase in population. ii. New Du to be completed by 2021 is 10,000. iii. Number of DU which will become non-habitable by 2031 is 5000. iv. Average household size is 4.5. Ans. 17,500 Year Population Decadal increase Net Increase in Population in 1st decade Population Decadal increase Net Increase in Population in 2nd decade Population Number of DU as per population (Considering average HH size 4.5) Existing DU Housing Shortage Number of DU as per population (Considering average HH size 4.5) New DU completed by 2021 Net Shortage upto 2021 Net Housing shortage after 2021

2011 5,00,000 -

5,00,000/4.5 1,11,111 1,00,000 11,111

2021 5% 25,000 5,25,000

2031 5% 26,500 5,51,250



1,16,666 10,000 1,111 (1,16,666-1,11,111) +1,111 = 6666

Number of DU as per population (Considering average HH size 4.5) Net Housing shortage upto 2031

5,51,25 1,22,500 (1,22,5001,16,666) +6.666 = 12,500 5,000

DU which will become inhabitable by 2031 Net Shortage upto 2031 Additional number of DU required by 2031

12,500+5,000 17,500


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Q.52. Match the equipment in Group I with their applicants in Group II Group I P. PIR Q. FCU R. OLED S. BIPV

Group II 1. Air Conditioning 2. Lighting 3. Power Generation 4. Motion detection 5. Daylight Sensing

(A) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1

(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(B) P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-3

(D) P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-1

Ans. C Equipment




A passive infrared sensor (PIR sensor) is an electronic sensor that measures infrared (IR) light radiating from objects in its field of view. They are most often used in PIR-based motion detectors.


A Fan Coil Unit (FCU) is a simple device consisting of a heating and/or cooling heat exchanger or 'coil' and fan. It is part of an HVAC system found in residential, commercial, and industrial buildings.


An organic light-emitting diode (OLED) is a lightemitting diode (LED) in which the emissive electroluminescent layer is a film of organic compound that emits light in response to an electric current. OLEDs are used to create digital displays in devices such as television screens, computer monitors.


Building Integrated Photovoltaics (BIPV) System. Building Integrated Photovoltaics (BIPV) is the integration of photovoltaics (PV) into the building envelope. The PV modules serve the dual function of building skin replacing conventional building envelope materials and power generator


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Q.53. Associate the historic buildings in Group I with their predominant materials in Group II Group I P. Lingaraj Temple, Bhubaneshwar, India Q. Victoria Memorial, Kolkata, india R. Padmanabhapuram Palace, Thuckalay, India S.

Group II 1. Red Sandstone 2. Timber 3. Terracotta tiles 4. Sandstone and laterite 5. Marble

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-5

(C) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

(B) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-5

(D) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1

Ans. D Building

Predominant Material

Lingaraj Temple, Bhubaneshwar, India

Sandstone and laterite

Victoria Memorial, Kolkata, india


Padmanabhapuram Palace, Thuckalay, India

Delhi, India



Red Sandstone


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Q.54. As per National Building Code of India 2005, the maximum number of occupants per unit exit width of a doorway is 60, where unit exit width is 500 mm. The maximum permissible occupants in a theatre having four number of 2.2 m wide doors will be ______ Ans. 960 Explanation: Unit exit width is 500 mm (0.5 m). In the problem, door width is 2.2 m. Thus, effective width of door as per unit standards need to be considered as 2.0 m. instead of actual width 2.2 m. Thus, maximum number of occupants per door of 2 m width = (2/0.5) x 60 = 240 Thus, maximum number of occupants in a theatre with 4 doors = 240 x 4 = 960 Q.55. A room measures 3 m (width) X 4m (length) X 3m (height). The outdoor temperature is 36 0 C. The volumetric specific heat of air is 1300 J/Cu.m. 0C. The ventilation heat flow rate in Watts required to attain an internal room temperature of 26 0 C with 3 air changes per hour is _____ Ans. 390 W Explanation: Total volume of room = 3 x 4 x 3 = 36 m3 The amount of air changes in 3 turns per hour = 36 x 3 = 108 m 3 Ventilation heat flow rate in Watts = Total energy required

= 108 x 1300 x 10 = 1404000 Joule = 1404000 W 3600 = 390 W




Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 An apple costs Rs. 10. An onion costs Rs. 8. Select the most suitable sentence with respect to grammar and usage. (A) The price of an apple is greater than an onion. (B) The price of an apple is more than onion. (C) The price of an apple is greater than that of an onion. (D) Apples are costlier than onions. Ans. C

Q.2 The Buddha said,

grasping a hot coal with the intent of throwing it at

Select the word below which is closest in meaning to the word underlined above. (A)Burning

(C) Clutching

(B) Igniting

(D) Flinging

Ans. C

Q.3 M has a son Q and a daughter R. He has no other children. E is the mother of P and daughter-inlaw of M. How is P related to M? (A) P is the son-in-law of M.

(C) P is the daughter-in law of M.

(B) P is the grandchild of M.

(D) P is the grandfather of M.

Ans. B

Q.4 The number that least fits this set: (324, 441, 97 and 64) is (A)324




Ans. C (All other Numbers are perfect squares)

Q.5. It takes 10s and 15s, respectively, for two trains travelling at different constant speeds to completely pass a telegraph post. The length of the first train is 120 m and that of the second train is 150 m. The magnitude of the difference in the speeds of the two trains (in m/s) is (A)2.0




Ans. A 28

BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Train A t= 10 sec d=120 m Speed=d/t = 12 m/s

Q. 6

Train B t= 15 sec d= 150 m Speed= 10 m/s

Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 The velocity V of a vehicle along a straight line is measured in m/s and plotted as shown with respect to time in seconds. At the end of the 7 seconds, how much will the odometer reading increase by (in m)?

(A)0 (B) 3 (C)4 (D)5 Ans. D Explanation: The odometer readings will increase by 5. (The area shaded under the graph). Odometer is an instrument for measuring the distance travelled by a wheeled vehi cle. The no. of squares made by triangles of the graph will be equal to the readings increased in odometer.

Q.7 The overwhelming number of people infected with rabies in India has been flagged by the World Health Organization as a source of concern. It is estimated that inoculating 70% of pets and stray dogs against rabies can lead to a significant reduction in the number of people infected with rabies. Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above sentences? (A) The number of people in India infected with rabies is high. (B) The number of people in other parts of the world who are infected with rabies is low. (C) Rabies can be eradicated in India by vaccinating 70% of stray dogs. (D) Stray dogs are the main source of rabies worldwide. Ans. B

Q.8 A flat is shared by four first year undergraduate students. They agreed to allow the oldest of them to enjoy some extra space in the flat. Manu is two months older than Sravan, who is three months


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE younger than Trideep. Pavan is one month older than Sravan. Who should occupy the extra space in the flat? (A)Manu



(D) Pavan

Ans. C

Q.9 Find the area bounded by the lines 3x+2y=14, 2x-3y=5 in the first quadrant. (A) 14.95

(C) 15.70

(B) 15.25

(D) 20.35

Ans. B Explanation:


2x In equation (I), if x=0 then y=7. If y=0 then x= 4.67. In equation (ii), if x=0 then y= -1.67. If y=0 then x= 2.5. Plot these points on the rough graph. To find, intersection point of two lines convert the equations in the form of y=mx + c. y= y= 2/3x

(iii) iv)

from equation (iii) & (iv), -3/2x +7 = 2/3x

5/3. Thus, x= 4.

Put x=4 in equation (iii) then y=1 Thus, the intersection point has co-ordinates as (4,1) Subtract the area of smaller triangle from bigger triangle. (16.345-1.085= 15.26)

Q.10 A straight line is fit to a data set (ln x, y). This line intercepts the abscissa at ln x = 0.1 and has a (C) 0.014 (D) 0.030 Ans. A Explanation: Straight line passing through (x, y) with slope/gradient m equation, y= mx + c. Here, we have co-ordinates as (ln x, y), m= -0.02, The line intercepts the abscissa at x= 0.1, thus y=0. At y=0, Y= mx +c 0= -0.02(lnx) +c C= 0.002


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Thus, equation of line is, y= -0.02 (lnx)+0.002. Put value of x as x=5. Thus, y= -0.02(ln5) + 0.002 y= -0.02 (log5/loge) +0.002 y= -0.02 x 1.60 + 0.002 y= -0.032 + 0.002 = -0.03


Q. 25 carry one mark each.

(A) Concept of Vastu Shastra

(C) Heritage tower at Kathmandu

(B) Elevation feature of a Hindu Temple

(D) Construction method of Buddhist Architecture

Ans. C Explanation: The question was to check the current architectural updates. The Dharahara is the name of heritage tower situated in Kathmandu, Nepal. This tower was built in 1832 and collapsed on 25th April 2015 by the earthquake in Nepal.

Image of Actual situation of Dharahara Tower.

Dharahara Tower after earthquake.

(A) Pantheon, Rome

(C) Chrysler Building, New York

(B) Parthenon, Athens

(D) Johnson Wax Building, Racine

Ans. D Explanation: The Johnson Wax Building Headquarters, Racine, USA is designed by Frank Lloyd Wright. well as beam free structure. Total 77 columns support the structure with diameter of 23 cm at bottom and 550


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE cm at the top (where it expanded in a mushroom like form). The glass ceiling was placed upon these tubular mushroom columns.

The Johnson Wax Building Headquarters, Racine, USA

(A) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (B) Atal Mission for Renewal of Urban Transportation (C) Atal Mission for Redevelopment of Urban Transportation (D) Atal Mission for Renewal and Urban Transformation Ans. A

with (A) Japanese Garden (B) Chinese Garden (C) Mughal Garden (D) Egyptian Garden Ans. A Explanation: Japanese gardens include ponds, streams, islands and hills to create miniature reproduction of natural scenery. The other elements include Islands, bridges, man-made hills, stone lanterns, stone water basins, stepping stone pathways, borrowed scenery (Background at the garden from a particular point), tea houses. Vegetation mainly includes Shrubs, lawns, flowers, maple and cherry trees. Stone, gravel and sand to symbolize water. Thus, dry garden concept is used mostly in Japanese Gardens.


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Q.5 The concept of Transit Oriented Development (TOD) refers to (A) Transit oriented planning in institutional campuses (B) High density development along a mass transit corridor (C) Orienting residential blocks towards the transit in a gated community (D) Spatial design for persons with disabilities along a mass transit corridor Ans. B Explanation: The integration of land use with transport syst


lopment, macro or micro that is focused around a transit node, and facilitates complete ease of access to the transit facility thereby inducing people to prefer to walk and use public transportation over


Q.6 The components measuring Human Development Index (HDI) of a nation are (A) Life expectancy, Education and Per Capita Income (B) Life expectancy, Economy and Housing (C) Health, Development and Per Capita Income (D) Housing, Health and Hygiene Ans. A Explanation: 'Human Development Index - HDI' A tool developed by the United Nations to measure and rank countries' levels of social and economic development based on four criteria: Life expectancy at birth, mean years of schooling, expected years of schooling and gross nationa l income per capita.

Q.7. As per the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 2010, the extent of

(A) 50

(C) 200

(B) 100

(D) 500

Ans. B Explanation: As per the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 2010, means area of the protected monuments declared as of national importance and extending to a distance of 100 meters in all direction.

means area in respect of

every ancient monuments and archaeological sites and remains declared as of national importance and extending to a distance of 200 meters in all direction.

represents the color (A) White

(C) Blue

(B) Black

(D) Green


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Ans. B Explanation: C- Cyan (Blue), M- Magenta (Pink), Y- Yellow, K-key (Black)

(A) Solid waste management

(C) Traffic management

(B) Disaster management

(D) Water management

Ans. A

Q.10 In a flat slab, the load is transferred through (A) Beam action (B) Membrane action (C) Plate action (D) Vector action Ans. C

Q.11 Map is an (A) Isometric projection (B) Orthographic projection (C) Axonometric projection (D) Oblique projection Ans. B

(A)B. V. Doshi (B) Dulal Mukherjee (C)Anil Laul (D) Himanshu Parikh Ans. D Explanation: Slum networking is a holistic approach for improving urban infrastructure, developed by Himanshu Parikh of Ahmedabad, India. It addresses a range of facilities needed by slum dwellers. Roads and footpaths storm drainage sanitation and sewerage water supply


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE earthworks and soft landscaping street lighting solid waste management This is achieved minimal donor funding by maximizing community participation and using microcredit systems.

(A) Peter Eisenman

(C) Daniel Libeskind

(B) Charles Correa

(D) Roger Angers

Ans. B

Q.14 The unit of Thermal Conductivity of a material is (A) W/ (m K)

(C) m K/W

(B) W/ (m2 K)

(D) m2 K/W

Ans. A Explanation: k-value

Thermal Conductivity

Thermal conductivity is the time rate of steady state heat flow through a unit area of a homogeneous material induced by a unit temperature gradient in a direction perpendicular to that unit area, W/ (m. K). R-value

Thermal Resistance

Thermal resistance is the temperature difference, at steady state, between two defined surfaces of a material or construction that induces a unit heat flow rate through a unit area, K m2/W. The value of the thermal resistance can be determined by dividing the thickness with thermal conductivity of the specimen. (R-value= thickness / k-value) C-value

Thermal Conductance

Thermal conductance is the time rate of steady state heat flow through a unit area of a material or construction induced by a unit temperature difference between the body surfaces, in W/m2 K. Cvalue, hence, is the reciprocal of the R-value and can be expressed as Equation. Consequently, the value of the thermal conductance can be calculated by dividing the thermal conductivity with the thickness of the specimen. (C= 1/R)

Q.15 A semicircular niche in the wall of a mosque, towards the direction of Mecca is known as (A) Sahn (C) Qibla (B) Mimbar

(D) Mihrab

Ans. D



View of Mosque

Plan of Mosque


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Q.16 As per CPWD Guidelines and Space Standards for Barrier Free Built Environment, the minimum turning radius for a wheelchair in mm is (A) 900

(C) 1500

(B) 1200

(D) 1800

Ans. A The turning radius for a wheelchair should be in the range of 750-900 mm for a ramp. (Source- Handbook on Barrier free design and Accessibility)

(A) Roads and flyovers (B) Escalators and elevators (C) Tensile fabric structures (D) Geodesic domes Ans. A Explanation: The vertical alignment of a road consists of gradients (straight lines in a vertical plane) and vertical curves. The vertical alignment is usually drawn as a profile, which is a graph with elevation as vertical axis and the horizontal distance along the centre line of the road as the hori zontal axis. Just as a circular curve is used to connect horizontal straight stretches of road, vertical curves connect two gradients. When these two curves meet, they form either convex or concave. The former is called a summit curve, while the latter is called a valley curve. Summit curves are the vertical curves having convexity upwards. These curves are introduced for the driving comfort and aesthetic purposes. A crest vertical curve is used at the top of a summit. The length of the curve is determined by two factors: stopping sight distance and rider comfort. If the curve is too short, then cars approaching the summit could become airborne. Drivers also need enough time to stop in case of debris on the road.

Q.18 As per Census of India 2011, Nagar Panchayat refers to (A) Rural area surrounded by a growing city

(C) Rural area adjacent to a nagar

(B) Urban area within a panchayat

(D) Urban area with a statutory local government

Ans. D

Q.19 Statutory setback of a building depends on (A) Building height

(C) Width of access road

(B) Property boundary

(D) Ground coverage

Ans. A Explanation: As per URDPFI guidelines, the setbacks in a building layout are provided subject to requirements of building height, the ventilation and fire safety requirements. Setbacks can be provided in two ways, i.e.; 1) Based on plot sizes:





2) Based on abutting road widths: The norms for setback, as per National Building Code, are indicated in the following tables: A. Front Setback:

B. Rear and Side setback for building height upto 10 m: Rear setback: the rear setback shall be minimum 1.8 m Side setback: the side setback shall be as follows: For detached buildings: Minimum 3 m on both sides, For semi-detached buildings: Minimum 3 m on one side, For row type buildings: No side setback is required. C. Rear and Side setback for building heights above 10 m:


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Q.20 Super plasticizer is added in a concrete mix to (A) Reduce the water-cement ratio for a given workability (B) Increase the water-cement ratio for a given workability (C) Reduce the flow (D) Reduce the content of coarse aggregate Ans. A Explanation: In ready-mix concrete industry, high degree of workability is needed. Extra water can be used to increase workability but it causes harm to the strength and durability of concrete. Hence, now a-days, it is very popular to use admixtures named plasticizers and super-plasticizers to reduce water requirement and to make concrete strong and workable. Plasticizers are the organic or combination of organic and inorganic substances which reduces water content for certain degree of workability, when added in mix.

Q.21 Shodhan House, Ahmedabad was designed by (A) Anant Raje (B) Le Corbusier (C) Louis I. Kahn (D) B. V. Doshi Ans. B SHODHAN HOUSE , AHMEDABAD

Q.22 Low-emissivity coating on a glazing unit (A) Increases the SHGC

(C) Reduces the SHGC

(B) Increases the VLT

(D) Increases the VLT and SHGC

Ans. C Explanation: Visible Light Transmission (VLT) The percentage of visible light that is transmitted through the glazing assembly. This is the essential characteristic for daylighting calculations. A perfectly clear window would have a VLT of 100 percent. Most practical assemblies for architectural use are between 35 and 80 percent. Solar Heat Gain Coefficient (SHGC) The percentage of total solar radiant energy that is transmitted through the assembly. This is the essential characteristic for solar gain calculations. For ordinary windows without special coatings, the SHGC and the VLT are the same and sometimes called the shading coefficient (SC). However, with modern coated windows, the SHGC is almost always lower than the VLT. Such window systems are generically referred to as low-emissivity or Low-E and are used in most commercial construction.

Q.23 Spatial connectedness in GIS refers to (A) Tomography

(C) Topiary

(B) Topography

(D) Topology

Ans. D


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Explanation: In GIS, topology is a collection of rules that, coupled with a set of editing tools and techniques, enables the geospatial data to more accurately model geometric relationships. Topology is defined through a set of rules that define how features may share a geographic space and a set of editing tools that work with features that share geometry in an integrated fashion.

Q.24 In a residential neighborhood, the net area of residential plots is 50 percent of the total area. If the population is 8000, the ratio of net density to gross density of the neighborhood is__________ Ans. 2.0 Explanation: Assume, Total area= 100 acres. Thus, Residential area= 50 acres. Population= 8000, Net Density= 8000/50, Gross Density= 8000/100. Thus, Ratio (Net Density/ Gross Density) =2

Q.25 A hemispherical earth mound of 3park. If the proportion of soil and sand for the construction is 3:2, the estimated volume of soil in cubic meters is ________ Ans. 4.15-4.30 Explanation: Volume of hemisphere= 2. . r3 = 2 x 3.14 x 1.53 = 7.0174 m3 3 3 Here, 3x+2x= 7.0174 m3. Thus x= 1.40. So, Volume of Soil= 3 x 1.40 = 4.20 m3

Q. 26

Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 Match the ancient cities in Group I with their characteristic features in Group-II P Q R S

Group-I Mohenjo-Daro Babylon Kahun Athens

(A)P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5

1 2 3 4 5

Group-II Agora Enclosed Court Grid Iron Street Pattern Forum Hanging Garden (C)P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1

(B)P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-2

(D)P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-3

Ans. C Mohenjo-Daro- Grid Iron Street Pattern

Babylon- Hanging Garden


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Kahun- Enclosed Courtyard


Roman- Forum

Q.27 Match the water purification stages in Group-I with the corresponding items in Group-II P Q R S

Group-I Coagulation Filtration Disinfection Softening

1 2 3 4 5

Group-II Ammonium hydroxide Sodium Zeolite Alum Sand Chlorine

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5


P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2

(C) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-4


P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2

Ans. D Explanation: Alum- It is both a specific chemical compound and a class of chemical compounds. The specific compound is the hydrated potassium aluminum sulfate. Alum has been used at least since Roman times for purification of drinking water. Alum in block form (usually potassium alum) can be used as a blood coagulant. Sand Filtration- Sand filters are used for water purification. There are three main types; 1. rapid (gravity) sand filters 2. up flow sand filters 3. slow sand filters


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE All three methods are used extensively in the water industry throughout the world. The first two require the use of flocculants chemicals to work effectively while slow sand filters can produce very high quality water free from pathogens, taste and odour without the need for chemical aids. Chlorine- It is one of the most commonly used disinfectants for water disinfection. Chlorine can be applied for the deactivation of most microorganisms and it is relatively cheap. Chlorine has been used for applications, such as the deactivation of pathogens in drinking water, swimming pool water and wastewater, for the disinfection of household areas and for textile bleaching. Sodium Zeolite- Zeolites are widely used as ion-exchange beds in domestic and commercial water purification, softening, and other applications.

Q.28 Match the software tools in Group-I with their field of application in Group-II


Group-I Radiance


Group-II Outdoor thermal environment




Construction management




Air-flow analysis




Acoustical design


Lighting analysis

(A)P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1

(C)P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B)P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D)P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5

Ans. C Radiance is a suite of programs for the analysis and visualization of lighting in design. Input files specify the scene geometry, materials, luminaires, time, date and sky conditions (for daylight calculations). Calculated values include spectral radiance (i.e. luminance + color), irradiance (illuminance + color) and glare indices. Simulation results may be displayed as color images, numerical values and contour plots. ODEON software is developed for simulating and measuring the interior acoustics of buildings. With the appropriate treatment, outdoor situations can be studied as well. Given the geometry and surfaceproperties, the acoustics can be predicted, illustrated and listened to. Rayman- Software for calculation of mean radiant temperature and thermal indices. Primavera- Primavera is an Enterprise Project Portfolio Management Software. It includes project management, product management, collaboration and control capabilities and integrates with other


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Q.29 Match the street layouts of ancient Indian settlements in Group-I with their corresponding types in Group II Group-I



1 Nandyavarta












(A)P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-5

(C)P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-1

(B)P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5

(D)P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Ans. B Please Refer GATE-2013- Q.7 for more information.

Q.30 Associate the terms in Group-I with the building hardware in Group-II. P

Group-I Parliamentary


Group-II Bar













(A)P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(C)P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B)P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(D)P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

Ans. C


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Parliamentary Hinge

Aldrop Bolt

Panic Bar

Mortise Lock

Q.31 Hoop and meridional forces are associated with (A)Dome ( B)Truss (C)Folded Plate (D)Space Frame Ans. A

Q.32 Match the Olympic stadia in Group-I with their Architects in Group-II Group I

Group II


Palazzetto dello Sport, Rome


Herzog & de Meuron


Olympic Arena, Tokyo


Frei Otto


Kenzo Tange


Roger Taillibert


P.L. Nervi


Nest, Beijing Olympia Stadium, Munich

(A)P-5, Q-2, R-1, S-4

(C)P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5

(B)P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D)P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

Ans. B Palazzetto dello Sport, Rome

Olympic Arena, Tokyo (Yoyogi National Stadium in Shibuya) Olympic Year 1964 Architect- Kenzo Tange.

Olympic Year 1960 Architect- P.L. Nervi.


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Olympia Stadium, Munich Olympic Year 1972 Architect- Frei Otto

Olympic Year 2008 Architect- Herzog & de Meuron

Q.33 Match the terms in Group-I with the related terms in Group-II P Q R S

Group I Acquisition Planning Permission Building plan sanction Mutation

1 2 3 4 5

Group II Ownership Construction Land cover Landuse Land

(A)P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(C)P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1

(B)P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D)P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-4

Ans. A

Q.34 Associate the structural systems of Group-I with buildings in Group-II Group II

Group I P


Millennium Dome, London


Diagrid Outrigger truss


HSBC, Hong Kong


Suspended floor


Taipei 101, Taipei


Cable stayed


Hearst Tower, New York


Sears Tower, Chicago

(A)P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-5

(C)P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

(B)P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(D)P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Ans. D


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Millennium Dome, London Architect- Richard Rogers Structural System- Cable stayed

HSBC, Hong Kong Architect- Norman Foaster Structural System- Suspended floor

Taipei 101, Taipei Architect- C. Y. Lee Structural System- Outrigger truss

Hearst Tower, New York Architect- Norman Foaster Structural System- Diagrid

Q.35 Associate the systems in Group-I with their applications in Group-II Group I P

Group II 1


Nisargruna Vortex-DEWAT Swale

2 3

Renewable energy generation Ground water recharge Solid waste management






Waste water treatment

(A)P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-3

(C)P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1

(B)P-1, Q-2, R-5, S-4

(D)P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1

Ans. C


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Nisargruna Biogas plant based on Biodegradable waste resource.

Vortex-DEWAT Decentralized waste water treatment

Swale In swales, storm water is slowed by strategic placement of check-dams

BIPV Building-integrated photovoltaics (BIPV) materials that are used to replace conventional building materials in parts of the building envelope such as the roof, skylights, or facades.

Q.36 Match the Houses in Group-I with their Architects in Group-II Group I

Group II


Villa Muller, Prague


Frank Gehry


Farnsworth House, Illinois Schroder House, Utrecht

2 3

Frank Lloyd Wright Adolf Loos


Dancing House, Prague

4 5

Mies vander Rohe Gerrit Rietveld

(A)P-5, Q-2, R-4, S-1

(C)P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4

(B)P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1

(D)P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3

Ans. B


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Villa Muller, Prague Architect- Adolf Loos Architectural Style-Modernism

Farnsworth House, Illinois Architect- Mies van der Rohe Architectural Style- International

Schroder House, Utrecht Architect- Gerrit Rietveld Architectural Style- De Stijl

Dancing House, Prague Architect- Frank Gehry Architectural Style- Deconstructivism

Q.37 Match the Books in Group-I with their Authors in Group-II Group I

Group II


Space, Time and Architecture



The Social Logic of Space Timeless Way of Building

2 3

Bill Hillier Christopher Alexander Rob Krier


Form, Space and Order


Sigfried Gideon


Francis D.K. Ching

(A)P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5

(C)P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3

(B)P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D)P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5

Ans. D

Q.38 Associate the green rating system in Group-I with the respective country in Group-II Group I P Q

CASBEE Green Mark

Group II 1 2

UAE China



GRIHA Estidama

3 4

Japan Singapore



(A)P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-1

(C)P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2

(B)P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2

(D)P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1

Ans. D

Q.39 Match the instruments in Group-I with the corresponding usage in Group-II Group I P

Group II 1


Pyranometer Heliodon


Shadow analysis Seismic intensity


Total Station


Wind velocity




Solar radiation


Land survey

(A)P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3

(C)P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-3

(B)P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(D)P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

Ans. C

Q.40 As per URDPFI guidelines, the number of Equivalent Car Space (ECS) required to accommodate ten cars, sixteen scooters and forty bicycles will be Ans. 18. Explanation: Number of ECS= (10 x 1) + (16 x 0.25) + (40 x 0.10) = 18.

Q.41 A steel I-beam section is subjected to a bending moment of 96kN-m. The moment of inertia of the 4 beam section is 24,000cm . The bending stress at 100mm above the neutral axis of the beam in MPa will be _______ Ans. 40. Explanation:


=Mxy I

M= 96 kN-m= 96000 N-m, y= 100mm= 0.1m, I= 24000 cm4= 24 x 10-5 m4 bend

= M x y = 96000 X 0.1 = 40 x 106 N/m2 I


24 x 10-5

= 40 MPa (1 MPa = 106 N/m2)


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Q.42 A room is mechanically ventilated through four air-conditioning ducts. The opening area of each duct is 0.35 sq.m. The air velocity in the duct is 0.5m/s. The temperature difference between the 3 ambient air and supply air is10°C.Volumetric specific heat of air is 1250J/m °C. Assuming one Ton of refrigeration (TR) equals 3.5kW, the cooling load of the room in TR will be _______ Ans. 2.45 - 2.55 Explanation: Total area of the duct = 4 x 0.35 = 1.4 sq.m., Velocity of air= 0.5m/s. Total volume of air in 1 sec.= Area x Velocity = 1.4 x 0.5 = 0.7 m3 Total volume of air in 1 hr. = 0.7 x 3600 = 2520 m3 Total energy required

= Volume of air x Specific Heat X Difference Between Temperature = 2520 x 1250 x 10 = 31500000 Joule = 31500000 W

As Watt (W)= Joule/ Sec.)

3600 = 8750 W = 8.750 KW As per given information, 1 TR= 3.5 KW, thus 8.750 KW= 2.5 TR.

Q.43 A CPM network of a construction project is given in the figure below. The activity durations are mentioned in weeks. The project completion time in weeks will be ____________ Ans. 18 Explanation: The longest path (Critical Path) is 1-3-5-6. Thus Project completion time is 18 weeks.

Q.44 For a room with dimensions 4m×3m× 3m (L×B×H), the details of indoor acoustical treatment are as follows. Component




Percentage area






Absorption coefficient at 1000Hz






The reverberation time in seconds at 1000Hz is _________ Ans. 0.44



BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Explanation: Component

Wall (Total area= 42 sq.m.)

Ceiling (Total area = Floor (Total 12 sq.m.) area = 12 sq.m.)

Percentage area






Actual Area of acoustical treatment (sq.m.) (An)

0.3 x 42

0.7 x 42

0.4 x 12

0.6 x 12

= 12.6

= 29.4

= 4.8

= 7.2

Absorption coefficient at 1000Hz (an)






An x an







Reverberation time in seconds, RT= 0.161 x V A Where, V= Volume of Room A= total room absorption in sabins (A= a1A1 + a2A2 + a3A3 + a4A4 + (An is one section of absorbent area an is absorption coefficient) Thus, A= 5.04 + 2.94 + 2.88 + 0.72 + 1.2= 12.78 RT= 0.161 x V = (0.161 x 36) / 12.78 = 0.45 Sec. A Q.45. In 2001, the population and work force participation rate of a town were 30,000 and 30 percent respectively. The work force participation rate in the year 2011 increased to 34 percent. If the decadal population growth rate was 6 percent, the increase in the number of working people in the town in 2011was _____ Ans. 1812 Population-2001


Work force Participation (30%)


Population-2011 (30,000 + 6% growth) Work force Participation (34%) Thus, Increase in Work Force Participation

31,800 10,812 10,812-9,000 = 1812.

Q.46 In a 20 storey building with 3m floor to floor height, a passenger lift is hoisted by a steel rope. Weight of the lift car is 750kg and ultimate load the steel rope can carry is 39,000kg. Assuming a factor of safety of 20 for the steel rope and an average passenger weight of 75kg, the passenger capacity of the lift is _______ Ans. 16 Explanation: Load Capacity of Rope= 39,000 kg. Factor of Safety= 20 Actual load Carrying Capacity= Load Capacity/ Factor of Safety = 39000/20 = 1950 kg.


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Weight of lift car

= 750 kg.

Maximum load rope can carry= Actual load carrying capacity- Weight of lift car =1950


= 1200 Passenger Carrying Capacity= 1200/75=16

Q.47 One liter of acrylic paint can cover 16sq.m of wall area for the first coat and 24sq.m for the second coat. The walls of a lecture hall measuring12m×8m×4m (L× B×H) need to be painted with two coats of this paint. The hall has total glazed fenestration area of 12sq.m. The number of 4-liter paint containers required will be __________ Ans. 4 Total area of 4 walls= 2(8x4) + 2(4x12) = 160 sq.m. Total glazed fenestration (Window) = 12 sq.m. Thus, actual wall area to be paint = 148 sq.m. For first coat, Acrylic Paint (lit.) required= 148/16 = 9.25 lit. For Second coat, Acrylic Paint (lit.) required= 148/24 = 6.17 lit. Total paint required= 15.42 lit. Total number of containers= 15.42/4= 3.85

Q.48. A 250mm×250mm RCC column is reinforced with one percent steel. The permissible compressive stress of concrete and steel are 8N/mm2 and 150N/mm2 respectively. The axial load carrying capacity of the column in kN is _______ Ans. 260.812 Explanation: Area of column= 250 x 250= 62500 mm2 Thus, area of steel= (1/100) x 62500= 625 mm2 area of concrete= 62500-625= 61875 mm2 The axial load carrying capacity of a column is deduced from the formula. Pu= 0.4 Fck.Ac + 0.67 fy.Asc Where, Pu = Axial load carrying capacity. Fck = Compressive strength of the concrete. Ac = Area of concrete. fy = Compressive strength of the reinforcement Asc = Area of reinforcement. Pu = ( 0.4 x 8 x 61875) + (0.67 x 150 x 625) = 198000 + 62812.5= 260812.5 N= 260.812 KN. (Answer by GATE answer key is 585-595 kN)

Q.49 A solar photo-voltaic system is proposed to be installed at the roof top of a hostel. The cost of installation and the annual maintenance are INR 2,40,000 and INR 6000 respectively. It is expected to


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE generate 600 kWh of electricity per month. Assume unit price of electricity as INR 5. Ignoring the discount rate, the payback period of the investment in years is ______ Ans. 8 Explanation: Installation cost= 2,40,000 Rs. Maintenance cost = 6000 Rs. Per year. Total electricity per year= 600 x 12= 7200 kWh. Unit price, means price for 1 kWh= 5 Rs. Thus, total savings in one year= 7200 x 5 = 36,000 Rs. Annual maintenance = 6000 Rs. Thus, Net savings = 36000-6000= 30,000 Rs. Assume, x years will be required to pay back the investment. x = 2,40,000/30,000 =8 years.

Q.50 A pump is installed in an apartment building to lift water from ground level to the roof top water tank with the capacity of 10,000 liters. Total head of lift is 18 m and pumping time is 30 minutes to fill the tank completely. Assuming acceleration due to gravity (g) as 10 m/sec 2 and efficiency of the pump as 80 percent, the power requirement of the pump in kW will be ______ Ans. 1.2


Explanation: Capacity of tank(m)= 10,000 liters. h= 18m. t= 30 min. (1800 sec.) g= 10m/sec2 Efficiency of pump= 80%. As, Power= Energy/time= Work done/time = (mxgxh)/t = (10,000 x 10 x 18) / 1800=1000 Watt As, the pump has only 80% efficiency means it requires 20% more power than this, Thus, total power required= 1000 + (0.2x1000) = 1200 Watt = 1.2 KW.

Q.51 In a housing project, the number of LIG, MIG and HIG units are in the ratio of 1:1:2. The ratio of areas of the units is 3:5:8. Assume unit cost of construction is same for all the three types. For a no profit, no loss situation, if 10% discount is offered to LIG and MIG units on sale price, extra charge in percentage payable per HIG unit will be ________ Ans. 5 LIG



Assume, numbers




Assume, area




Total area




Assume, Cost of Construction=10, Thus Cost of all units=




10 % discount to LIG and MIG, thus Sale price=




There is difference of 800 Rs. Which needs to collected from HIG. Thus, additional charge in % on HIG= (800/16000) x 100 = 5%


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Q.52 The estimated number of bricks (unit size: 250 mm Ă&#x2014; 125 mm Ă&#x2014; 75 mm) for laying one course of a 250-mm thick brick wall using rat-trap bond for a running length of 3.9 meter will be _______ Ans. 36

Explanation: Total length of wall required= 3.9m= 3900 mm 1 unit of 3 bricks covers length of 325 mm. Thus, no. of units required for 3900mm= 3900/325= 12 units. Thus, total no. of bricks required= 12 x 3 = 36 bricks.

Q.53 The difference in invert levels between two pits separated by a distance of 30 meter is one meter. An intermediate pit is required to be constructed at a distance of 18 meter from the pit at higher level. Maintaining the same slope, the difference in invert levels of the new pit and the pit at lower level in mm will be _______ Ans. 400 Explanation: Distance: Depth Ratio = 30:1

Thus, 30/1= 18/x. Thus, x= 0.6 m Thus, level difference in invert level between higher and intermediate pit= 1-0.6 = 0.4m = 400 mm.

Q.54 A four-storey building with equal areas in each floor is required to be designed on a plot with FAR of 2.0. If the FAR is increased to 2.2, the percentage increase in ground coverage utilizing full FAR in both cases will be ________ Ans. 10 Case-I







Permissible Built-up area



Number of floors



Area of each floor (equal areas on all floor)



Ground coverage



Assume, plot area

Ground coverage changed by 5 on 50. Thus % increase in ground coverage= 5/50 x 100= 10%.


BY AR. SWAPNIL VIDHATE Q.55 A lamp source of 3200 candelas is mounted on a wall at a height of 2 meter from the workplane. It subtends an angle of incidence of 60 o with the center of the work plane. The illumination at the center of the work plane in Lux is _________ Ans. 100 Explanation: To find out Illumination produced from light source not perpendicular to surface E= I x cosø d2 Where, E= Illumination on surface (lux), I= Illumination intensity from source (cd) d= distance from light source From above formula, E= 3200 x Cos 60 = 100 lux. 42


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Architect's Guidebook for Competitive Exams  

This book will provide the past trends of questions asked in the exams with their solutions with detailed explanations for better understand...

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