TEST BANK for Understanding Anatomy & Physiology:A Visual,Auditory,Interactive Approach 3E by Sloan

TEST BANK

TEST BANK

Part I: Foundation of the Body Chapter 1: Orientation to the Human Body Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life Chapter 3: Cells Chapter 4: Human Microbiome

Part II: Covering, Support, and Movement of the Body Chapter 5: Tissues Chapter 6: Integumentary System Chapter 7: Bones & Bone Tissue Chapter 8: Skeletal System Chapter 9: Joints Chapter 10: Muscular System

Part III: Regulation and Integration of the Body Chapter 11: Nervous System Chapter 12: Sense Organs Chapter 13: Endocrine System

Part IV: Maintenance of the Body Chapter 14: Blood Chapter 15: Heart Chapter 16: Vascular System Chapter 17: Lymphatic & Immune Systems Chapter 18: Respiratory System Chapter 19: Urinary System Chapter 20: Fluid, Electrolyte, & Acid-Base Balance Chapter 21: Digestive System Chapter 22: Nutrition & Metabolism

Part V: Continuity Chapter 23: Reproductive Systems Chapter 24: Pregnancy & Human Development Chapter 25: Heredity

Chapter 1: Orientation to the Human Body

Matching Match the name of each organ system to its key components. a. integumentary system b. skeletal system c. muscular system d. lymphatic system e. respiratory system f. urinary system g. nervous system h. endocrine system i. circulatory system j. digestive system k. male reproductive system l. female reproductive system ____

1. Consists of stomach, small and large intestines, liver, and pancreas

____

2. Consists of skin, hair, and nails

____

3. Consists of kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra

____

4. Consists primarily of skeletal muscles

____

5. Consists of heart, arteries, veins, and capillaries

____

6. Consists of brain, spinal cord, nerves, and sense organs

____

7. Consists of ovaries, fallopian tubes, uterus, vagina, and breasts

____

8. Consists of pituitary gland, adrenals, pancreas, and thyroid

____

9. Consists of lymph nodes, lymphatic vessels, lymph, thymus, and spleen

____ 10. Consists of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs Match each term to its definition. a. distal b. proximal c. medial d. lateral e. superior f. inferior g. anterior h. posterior i. superficial j. deep ____ 11. Toward the back of the body ____ 12. Farthest from the point of origin Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

____ 13. Above ____ 14. At or near the body’s surface ____ 15. Toward the body’s midline ____ 16. Closest to the point of origin ____ 17. Toward the front of the body ____ 18. Below Match each term to its location on the body. a. frontal b. deltoid c. brachial d. inguinal e. pectoral f. sternal g. digital h. antecubital i. buccal j. cephalic k. lumbar l. calcaneal m. plantar n. pedal o. tarsal p. axillary ____ 19. Arm ____ 20. Lower back ____ 21. Armpit ____ 22. Heel ____ 23. Fingers ____ 24. Shoulder ____ 25. Sole of the foot ____ 26. Forehead ____ 27. Chest ____ 28. Front of elbow ____ 29. Foot ____ 30. Cheek ____ 31. Groin ____ 32. Ankle Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 33. Which organ system produces immune cells and has a role in fluid balance? a. Integumentary system b. Circulatory system c. Endocrine system d. Lymphatic system ____ 34. Which organ system protects organs, allows for support and movement, and also plays a key role in blood formation? a. Circulatory system b. Muscular system c. Skeletal system d. Nervous system ____ 35. Which type of tissue covers the body’s surface? a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Muscle d. Nerve ____ 36. Bone, cartilage, and adipose tissue are all types of a. epithelial tissue. b. connective tissue. c. muscle. d. nerve tissue. ____ 37. The type of plane that divides the body horizontally into upper and lower portions is called a a. sagittal plane. b. frontal plane. c. transverse plane. d. coronal plane. ____ 38. Most illustrations that show the contents of the abdominal cavity use what type of plane? a. Sagittal b. Transverse c. Horizontal d. Frontal ____ 39. Which of the following correctly describes the anatomical position? a. Standing erect, facing forward, with arms outstretched b. Standing erect with arms at sides, palms facing backward, face and feet facing forward c. Standing erect with arms overhead, face and feet facing forward d. Standing erect with arms at sides and with palms, face, and feet facing forward ____ 40. The dorsal cavity contains the a. thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities. b. cranial and spinal cavities. c. mediastinum and pleural cavities. d. abdominal and pelvic cavities.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

____ 41. The heart is located in the mediastinum, which is part of what cavity? a. Thoracic cavity b. Dorsal cavity c. Spinal cavity d. Cranial cavity ____ 42. A patient comes to the hospital for treatment of pain in the right hypochondriac region. Based on the organs located in that region, which organ might be causing the pain? a. Stomach b. Small intestines c. Gallbladder d. Appendix Completion Complete each statement.

43. The structure of the body is called ____________________; how it functions is called ____________________.

44. The human body is organized from the very ____________________ to the very ____________________.

45. The region proximal to the patellar region and distal to the inguinal region is the ____________________ region.

46. The region superior to the pubic region and inferior to the abdominal region is the ____________________ region.

47. The two major body cavities are the ____________________ and ____________________ cavities.

48. The constancy of the body’s internal environment is called ____________________.

49. ____________________ feedback is when an effector opposes the stimulus and reverses the direction of change.

50. During childbirth, the hormone oxytocin is released, which causes even greater contractions and an even greater release of oxytocin. This is an example of ____________________ feedback.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

Chapter 1: Orientation to the Human Body Answer Section MATCHING 1. ANS: J PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 2. ANS: A PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 3. ANS: F PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 4. ANS: C PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 5. ANS: I PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 6. ANS: G PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 7. ANS: L PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 8. ANS: H PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 9. ANS: D PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 10. ANS: E PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING

1

DIF: E

REF: 6

1

DIF: E

REF: 5

1

DIF: E

REF: 5

1

DIF: E

REF: 5

1

DIF: E

REF: 6

1

DIF: E

REF: 6

1

DIF: E

REF: 6

1

DIF: E

REF: 6

1

DIF: E

REF: 5

1

DIF: E

REF: 5

11. ANS: H PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 12. ANS: A PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 13. ANS: E PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 14. ANS: I PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 15. ANS: C PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 16. ANS: B PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 17. ANS: G PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 18. ANS: F PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING

1

DIF: E

REF: 7

1

DIF: E

REF: 7

1

DIF: E

REF: 7

1

DIF: E

REF: 7

1

DIF: E

REF: 7

1

DIF: E

REF: 7

1

DIF: E

REF: 7

1

DIF: E

REF: 7

19. ANS: C PTS: 1 KEY: REMEMBERING 20. ANS: K PTS: 1 KEY: REMEMBERING

DIF: M

REF: 9

DIF: M

REF: 9

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

21. ANS: P PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 22. ANS: L PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 23. ANS: G PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 24. ANS: B PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 25. ANS: M PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 26. ANS: A PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 27. ANS: E PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 28. ANS: H PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 29. ANS: N PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 30. ANS: I PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 31. ANS: D PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 32. ANS: O PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING

1

DIF: M

REF: 9

1

DIF: M

REF: 9

1

DIF: M

REF: 9

1

DIF: M

REF: 9

1

DIF: M

REF: 9

1

DIF: M

REF: 9

1

DIF: M

REF: 9

1

DIF: M

REF: 9

1

DIF: M

REF: 9

1

DIF: M

REF: 9

1

DIF: M

REF: 9

1

DIF: M

REF: 9

MULTIPLE CHOICE 33. ANS: D The lymphatic system produces immune cells and has a role in fluid balance. The integumentary system has a role in protection, temperature regulation, water retention, and sensation. The circulatory system distributes oxygen, nutrients, water, hormones, and other electrolytes; it also has a role in fluid and electrolyte balance.

The endocrine system produces hormones and regulates other systems.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 5 KEY: REMEMBERING 34. ANS: C The skeletal system protects organs, gives the body support and allows it to move, and also plays a role in the formation of blood cells. The circulatory system distributes oxygen, nutrients, water, hormones, and other electrolytes; it also has a role in fluid and electrolyte balance. The muscular system allows the body to move and produces heat. The nervous system regulates and coordinates other systems, and also has a role in sensation and memory.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 5 KEY: REMEMBERING 35. ANS: A Epithelial tissue covers the body surfaces. Connective tissue connects and supports parts of the body. Muscle contracts to produce movement. Nerve tissue generates and transmits impulses to regulate body function.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 4 KEY: REMEMBERING 36. ANS: B Bone, cartilage, and adipose tissue are all types of connective tissue.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 4 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 37. ANS: C A transverse plane divides the body horizontally into upper and lower portions. A sagittal plane divides the body lengthwise into right and left sides. A frontal plane divides the body lengthwise into anterior and posterior positions. A coronal plane is another name for a frontal plane.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 8 KEY: REMEMBERING 38. ANS: D Most illustrations that show the contents of the abdominal cavity use a frontal plane. A sagittal plane is used to illustrate the organs of the head or pelvic cavity. A horizontal plane is another name for a transverse plane.

A transverse plane is used by computed tomography scanners.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 8 KEY: APPLYING 39. ANS: D The anatomical position involves standing erect with arms at the sides and with face, palms, and feet facing forward.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 7 KEY: REMEMBERING 40. ANS: B The dorsal cavity contains the cranial and spinal cavities. The other cavities are all contained in the ventral cavity.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 10 KEY: REMEMBERING 41. ANS: A The mediastinum is part of the thoracic cavity. The dorsal cavity is located at the back of the body. The spinal and cranial cavities are part of the dorsal cavity.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 10 KEY: REMEMBERING 42. ANS: C The gallbladder is located in the right hypochondriac region. The stomach is found in the epigastric region.

The small intestines are in the right and left lumbar regions, right and left iliac regions, and hypogastric region. The appendix is in the right iliac region.

PTS: 1

DIF: D

REF: 11

KEY: ANALYZING

PTS: 1 DIF: E 44. ANS: simple, complex

REF: 3

KEY: REMEMBERING

PTS: 1 45. ANS: femoral

DIF: E

REF: 4

KEY: REMEMBERING

PTS: 1 46. ANS: pelvic

DIF: D

REF: 9

KEY: APPLYING

COMPLETION 43. ANS: anatomy, physiology

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

PTS: 1 47. ANS: dorsal, ventral ventral, dorsal

DIF: D

REF: 9

KEY: APPLYING

PTS: 1 48. ANS: homeostasis

DIF: E

REF: 10

KEY: REMEMBERING

PTS: 1 49. ANS: Negative

DIF: E

REF: 12

KEY: REMEMBERING

PTS: 1 50. ANS: positive

DIF: M

REF: 13

KEY: REMEMBERING

PTS: 1

DIF: M

REF: 13

KEY: APPLYING

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

Chapter 2: Chemistry of life Matching Match each term to its definition or characteristic. a. galactose b. electron c. radioactivity d. proton e. amino group f. glucose g. compounds h. carboxyl group i. cation j. glycogen k. catalyst l. polar m. buffer n. anion o. enzymes p. matter q. neutron r. atomic weight s. fructose 1. Positively charged atomic particle 2. Stored form of sugar in the human body 3. Having oppositely charged ends 4. COOH molecule 5. Atom with a positive charge 6. Substances that donate or remove H+ ions 7. Atom with a negative charge 8. Primary source of energy used by most of the body’s cells 9. Substance that enhances the rate of a chemical reaction 10. NH3 molecule Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11. What differentiates one element from another? a. The number of shells encircling the nucleus b. The number of electrons c. The number of neutrons d. The number of protons Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

12. What distinguishes elements from compounds? a. Elements can be broken down into two or more compounds. b. Elements have only one kind of atom. c. Elements do not combine with compounds. d. Elements do not react with other elements.

13. Which four elements make up more than 96% of the human body? a. Oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, and iron b. Carbon, hydrogen, calcium, and oxygen c. Nitrogen, oxygen, carbon, and sodium d. Oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen 14. Electrons are found a. orbiting around the nucleus in circular paths. b. moving around the nucleus in concentric clouds. c. in individual clouds (one electron per cloud) that orbit the nucleus. d. in fixed positions on the rings that surround the nucleus.

15. Where are protons and neutrons located? a. Protons and neutrons orbit the nucleus in one or more concentric clouds. b. Protons orbit the nucleus in a cloud, and neutrons reside in the nucleus. c. Protons and neutrons both reside in the nucleus. d. Neutrons orbit the nucleus in a cloud, whereas protons reside in the nucleus.

16. What are the electrons in the outer energy level (shell) called? a. Covalent electrons b. Bonding electrons c. Valence electrons d. Ionic electrons 17. An atom is stable when the outer shell contains how many electrons? a. Four b. Six c. Eight d. Twelve 18. Why do atoms lose, gain, or share electrons? a. To release energy b. To obtain stability c. To increase bonding d. To form compounds 19. Which element makes up the greatest percentage of the body’s weight? a. Carbon b. Hydrogen c. Nitrogen d. Oxygen 20. Which statement about isotopes is true? a. Each isotope of an element has chemical properties that differ from those of other isotopes of the same element. b. Isotopes of an element have different numbers of protons.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

c. Some isotopes are unstable and decay. d. All isotopes emit radiation.

21. Adding or removing electrons from an atom results in the formation of a(n) a. isotope. b. different element. c. ion. d. change in the atom’s atomic weight.

22. Which factor differentiates one element from another? a. The number of neutrons b. The number of protons c. The type of bonds formed by the atoms of the element d. The number of energy levels in the electron cloud 23. What makes atoms electrically neutral? a. An equal number of protons and electrons b. The formation of ionic bonds c. An equal number of electrons and neutrons d. Neutrons, which neutralize the electrically charged protons and electrons 24. What causes an atom to emit radiation? a. The electron cloud emits small amounts of radiation as the electrons accelerate. b. Unstable isotopes emit radiation as they decay. c. Atoms emit radiation when covalent bonds break down. d. Atoms emit radiation when ionic bonds break down.

25. Transfer of electrons from an atom of one element to an atom of another element results in a. a covalent bond. b. an ionic bond c. a hydrogen bond. d. one unstable atom and one stable atom.

26. Covalent bonds form when a. positively charged hydrogen atoms attract negatively charged atoms. b. electrostatic forces bring atoms together to form a new molecule. c. two atoms share electrons to fill their outer shells. d. a nitrogen atom combines with a carbon atom.

27. How do water molecules form, and what factors create water’s hydrogen bond? a. Each of two hydrogen atoms donates its electron to an oxygen atom to fill its outer shell.

This forms two hydrogen anions and one oxygen cation. The larger oxygen cation attracts the two hydrogen anions, forming two attachments called hydrogen bonds and creating the neutral water molecule. b. Two hydrogen atoms covalently bond to an oxygen atom. This forms a water molecule that is weakly positive on the hydrogen side and weakly negative on the oxygen side.

These opposing charges form a mild attachment to other water molecules called a hydrogen bond. c. The single electron on the shell of a hydrogen atom bonds covalently to another hydrogen atom to complete both outer shells. This H2 molecule now has two weakly positive ends, which attract a weakly negative oxygen atom. This attachment is the hydrogen bond and forms the water molecule. d. The electrons of two hydrogen atoms form ionic bonds with an oxygen atom, forming a Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

water molecule with four free electrons on the oxygen side. The hydrogen side has a strong positive charge because the single protons are no longer countered by their electrons. The oxygen side is negatively charged because it now has more electrons than protons. The positively charged hydrogen side of one water molecule attracts the negatively charged oxygen side of another water molecule. Each hydrogen atom forms a weak attachment with two of an oxygen atom’s remaining electrons. These are the hydrogen bonds.

28. Electrons moving around a nucleus is an example of a. potential energy. b. kinetic energy. c. electrical energy. d. radiant energy.

29. Metabolism is a. the breakdown of food in the digestive tract. b. the creation of complex molecules from smaller units. c. all the chemical reactions that occur in the body. d. the chemical processes performed by the liver.

30. In general, what type of process is wound healing and what are the implications from the standpoint of energy? a. It is an anabolic process that releases energy. b. It is an anabolic process that requires energy. c. It is a catabolic process that releases energy. d. It is a catabolic process that requires energy.

31. Based on your understanding of catabolism, what does it means when a person is in a catabolic state? a. The person has an excess of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). b. The person is suffering from malnutrition and breaking down body tissues for fuel. c. The person has a high degree of energy because of the breakdown of chemical bonds. d. The person is still growing and requires energy to do so.

32. Which type of chemical reaction allows the body to create new proteins? a. Exchange b. Decomposition c. Synthesis d. Fusion 33. Which factors would increase the speed of chemical reactions that occur in the body? a. Increased levels of glucose in the blood b. Fever c. The presence of electrolytes d. The presence of catalysts e. B and D only f. C and D only g. A, B, and D only 34. Particles will separate out of a a. solution. b. colloid. c. suspension. d. mixture.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

35. How do mixtures differ from compounds? a. Mixtures are new substances with properties unlike the properties of the elements in the mix. b. Mixtures are either liquid or solid, whereas compounds are solid, liquid, or gas. c. Mixtures are not combined chemically. d. Mixtures cannot be separated by physical means, such as filtering.

36. Which of the following describes a solute? a. Particles of matter dissolved in a substance, often water b. Large particles of matter in a substance like water but not dissolved c. Particles that do not separate out of a clear liquid when allowed to stand d. Small particles that do not separate out of a cloudy liquid when allowed to stand e. A and D only f. B and D only g. A and C only 37. Which statement relates best to why water is so important to the human body? a. The average adult human body is about 60% water. b. Water is needed for most chemical reactions to take place. c. All the cells in the body are surrounded by water. d. Water lubricates many body tissues.

38. Which statement about acids is correct? a. The greater the percentage of nitrogen, the stronger the acid b. The greater the concentration of OH- ions, the stronger the acid c. The greater the concentration of H+ ions, the stronger the acid d. The greater the percentage of water, the weaker the acid 39. Acidity or alkalinity is determined using the a. Kelvin scale. b. acid test. c. pH scale. d. anion test.

40. What is the normal pH of human blood? Is it acidic, alkaline, or neutral? a. 7.35 to 7.45, slightly alkaline b. 7.5 to 7.9, alkaline c. 6.5 to 6.75, slightly acidic d. 7.0, neutral 41. The four main organic compounds in the human body are a. carbohydrates, bile acids, lipids, and proteins. b. carbohydrates, nucleic acids, proteins, and lipids. c. calcium carbonate, protein, carbohydrates, and hemoglobin. d. hemoglobin, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and protein.

42. Which element differentiates organic compounds from inorganic compounds? a. Oxygen b. Hydrogen c. Carbon d. Nitrogen

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

43. Which compound is the body’s main energy source? a. Protein b. Carbohydrates c. Fats d. Enzymes 44. Carbohydrates are categorized by a. their electrical charge. b. what type of bonds they contain. c. what food type they come from; for example, fruit or dairy. d. the length of their carbon chain.

45. Which type of carbohydrate provides the body with the most steady supply of energy and why? a. Monosaccharides, because they break down quickly b. Disaccharides, because they contain two sugar units bonded together c. Polysaccharides, because their multiple bonds take longer to break down d. Fatty saccharides, because fat slows digestion 46. Which lipid is a concentrated source of energy for the body? a. Phospholipids b. Triglycerides c. Steroids d. Cholesterol 47. What molecular configuration is necessary for a fat to be unsaturated? a. Every other carbon forms a single bond with hydrogen. b. The hydrocarbon chain contains all single covalent bonds. c. A carboxyl group bonds to the hydrocarbon chain. d. The hydrocarbon chain contains at least one double bond.

48. The basic building block of a protein molecule is a(n) a. carboxyl group. b. nitrogen atom. c. amino acid. d. R group.

49. Why are some amino acids called essential? a. They are essential for making bones and teeth. b. They make enzymes essential for the breakdown of food. c. They must be obtained from outside sources. d. The body must manufacture them.

50. Amino acids link together through a. protein bonds. b. peptide bonds. c. ionic bonds. d. hydrogen bonds.

51. A peptide bond forms when a. an R group links to an amino group. b. amino groups link together to form folds or spirals. c. a water group links to an amino group. d. an amino group links to a carboxyl group.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

52. A sequence of amino acids in a chain is called the a. carboxyl group. b. primary structure. c. polypeptide bond. d. amino group.

53. How do cells obtain energy? a. Energy is made in the liver and released into the blood for the cells to use. b. Cells break down protein molecules. c. Energy stored as fat is released into the blood. d. Cells break bonds in ATP molecules.

54. Nucleic acids and nucleotides form a. proteins. b. fatty acids. c. DNA and RNA. d. amino acids.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life Answer Section MATCHING 1. ANS: D PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 2. ANS: J PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 3. ANS: L PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 4. ANS: H PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 5. ANS: I PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 6. ANS: M PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 7. ANS: N PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 8. ANS: F PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 9. ANS: K PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 10. ANS: E PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING

1

DIF: E

REF: 19

1

DIF: E

REF: 29

1

DIF: E

REF: 22

1

DIF: E

REF: 31

1

DIF: E

REF: 21

1

DIF: E

REF: 28

1

DIF: E

REF: 21

1

DIF: E

REF: 29

1

DIF: E

REF: 24

1

DIF: E

REF: 31

MULTIPLE CHOICE 11. ANS: D The number of protons in the nucleus differentiates one element from another. The number of shells around the nucleus depends on the number of electrons, which is equal to the number of protons. The number of neutrons can vary but does not change the element.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 19 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 12. ANS: B Elements have only one kind of atom. They cannot be broken down into other constituents. Compounds can be broken down into two or more elements, not the other way around. Elements combine or react with other compounds as well as with other elements.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 17 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 13. ANS: D Oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen are the most abundant elements in the human body and account for 96% of its mass. Calcium, iron, and sodium are critically important to the body’s structure and function but combined they make up less than 2% of its mass.

PTS: 1 14. ANS: B

DIF:

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

E

REF: 17

KEY: REMEMBERING

Electrons move around the nucleus in concentric clouds that represent different energy levels. Electrons do not orbit in circular paths like the planets orbit the Sun. The electron cloud can contain many electrons and does not orbit the nucleus but surrounds it. Electrons do not maintain fixed positions.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 19 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 15. ANS: C Protons and neutrons are located in the nucleus of the atom. Neither particle ever orbits the nucleus.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 19 KEY: REMEMBERING 16. ANS: C The outer energy level is called the valence shell and the electrons are called valence electrons. Covalent refers to a type of chemical bond between atoms. Although valence electrons are involved in chemical bonding, the term “bonding electrons” is not used. Ionic refers to a type of chemical bond that results in charged particles.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 20 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 17. ANS: C Atoms are stable when the outer shell has eight electrons. The shell closest to the nucleus can hold two electrons; each shell after the inner shell can hold eight.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 19 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 18. ANS: B Atoms lose, gain, or share electrons to achieve a full outer shell and stability. Energy is not released by bonding but is released by breaking bonds. The bonding of two atoms does not necessarily result in a compound; atoms of the same element bond to each other.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 20 KEY: REMEMBERING 19. ANS: D Oxygen makes up 65% of body mass. Carbon is next at 18%. Hydrogen and nitrogen comprise 10% and 3%, respectively.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 18 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 20. ANS: B All isotopes of an element have identical chemical properties. Isotopes of an element have different numbers of neutrons, not protons. Only unstable isotopes emit radiation as they decay.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 20 KEY: REMEMBERING 21. ANS: C Ions are atoms that have either lost or gained electrons, which changes the atom from electrically neutral to charged. Isotopes result from a change in the number of neutrons. Adding or removing electrons does not create a different element. The number of protons added to the number of neutrons equals the atomic weight.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 21 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 22. ANS: B The number of protons is unique to each element. The number of neutrons distinguishes an element from its isotopes. The types of bonds formed by an element do not distinguish it from another element. Although the number of energy levels around the nucleus of different elements varies, it does not distinguish one element from another.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

D

REF: 19

KEY: ANALYZING

23. ANS: A Atoms are neutral because the number of negatively charged electrons equals the number of positively charged protons. Ionic bonding produces a charged molecule. Neutrons are not charged, so they cannot cancel out electrons or “neutralize” a charge.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 19 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 24. ANS: B An unstable isotope will seek a more stable state by emitting radiation from its nucleus. Electron clouds do not emit radiation. Breaking chemical bonds releases energy, not radiation.

PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: 20 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 25. ANS: B Transfer of electrons from one atom to another is the definition of ionic bonding. Covalent and hydrogen bonds do not involve transfer of electrons. Ionic bonding creates a stable molecule because both atoms have full outer shells.

PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: 21 KEY: ANALYZING 26. ANS: C Covalent bonding occurs when electrons are shared by two atoms so that each has a complete outer shell of eight electrons. The attraction of hydrogen atoms to oxygen atoms is an example of hydrogen bonding.

Electrostatic forces pull ions together; no electrons are shared. Nitrogen and carbon are involved in peptide bonds.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 22 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 27. ANS: B Water molecules form when two hydrogen atoms covalently bond (i.e., share electrons) to an oxygen atom.

The two hydrogen atoms have weak, positive charges, whereas the oxygen side has a weak, negative charge.

The partially positive oxygen side of one water molecule is attracted to the partially negative hydrogen side of another molecule. This results in a weak attachment called a hydrogen bond. Hydrogen does not donate its electron, it shares it with the oxygen atom. Therefore, it does not form ions and the water molecule is not neutral. Hydrogen atoms do not first bond to each other and then to an oxygen atom. Each hydrogen bonds with the oxygen separately. Two covalently bonded hydrogen atoms will have no free electrons to share with an oxygen atom. The hydrogen atoms form covalent bonds, not ionic bonds.

PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: 22 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 28. ANS: B Kinetic energy is energy in motion; thus, the movement of electrons is an example of kinetic energy. Potential energy is stored energy. Electrical energy is the movement of charged particles. Radiant energy is energy that travels in waves, like heat generated by a light bulb.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 23 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 29. ANS: C Metabolism refers to all chemical processes that occur in the body. Digestion of food is just one example of a metabolic process, as is the creation of complex molecules. The liver and its many processes are critical to metabolism, but it is not the only organ involved.

PTS: 1 30. ANS: B

DIF:

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

E

REF: 23

KEY: REMEMBERING

Wound healing involves the creation of many new cells, which is an anabolic process and requires energy. A catabolic process is the breakdown of complex substances into their constituent units. Catabolic processes release energy.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 23 KEY: APPLYING 31. ANS: B In states of health, the body performs both catabolic and anabolic processes at the cellular level all the time.

However, if a person is said to be in a catabolic state, it means that the person is malnourished and is breaking down important body tissues for energy. The body manufactures ATP as it needs it but does not create it in excess. A person in a catabolic state has less energy. Stages of normal growth and development are considered anabolic stages.

PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: 23 KEY: APPLYING 32. ANS: C Synthesis is the creation of a complex substance from simpler substances. The body synthesizes protein from amino acids that it makes and from amino acids in food. An exchange reaction occurs when two molecules exchange atoms or groups of atoms; this type of reaction is not used to create new proteins. Decomposition is a process of breaking down, not building. Fusion has various meanings in science but none involves the creation of new proteins.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 24 KEY: REMEMBERING 33. ANS: E Both catalysts and heat (fever) speed up molecular reactions. An increased level of glucose in the blood will not speed up chemical reactions. Electrolytes are a normal component of blood and do not speed up reactions.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 24 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 34. ANS: C Particles settle out of suspensions because they are too large to dissolve. Solutions contain dissolved particles.

Colloids contain particles small enough to stay dispersed throughout the liquid but large enough to cause cloudiness. “Mixture” is a broad term for two or more substances that are physically combined. Solutions, colloids, and suspensions are three basic mixtures.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 26 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 35. ANS: C Mixtures are not combined chemically, they are blended together. Compounds, not mixtures, have unique properties unlike the properties of the combined elements. Mixtures can be liquid, solid, or gas. Mixtures can be separated by physical means, whereas compounds can be separated only by chemical means.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 25 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 36. ANS: G A solute consists of particles of matter dissolved in a substance so thoroughly that the liquid (called a solution) is clear. The particles must not separate out of the solvent when allowed to stand. A suspension contains large particles of undissolved matter. Particles are given the name solute only when they are small enough to be completely dissolved and the liquid becomes clear. A colloid contains small particles that don’t separate out of a cloudy liquid.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 26 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 37. ANS: B All the answers are true and important, but the fact that most of the chemical reactions required for life take place in water is the most important.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 25 KEY: APPLYING 38. ANS: C The greater the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) is, the stronger the acid is. The greater the concentration of OH- ions is, the stronger the base is. Nitrogen and water do not influence the degree of acidity.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 27 KEY: ANALYZING 39. ANS: C Acidity or alkalinity is measured on the pH scale, which determines the degree of H + or OH- ions in the solution. The Kelvin scale is a measurement of temperature. The term “acid test” has many uses, but it is not used to determine acidity or alkalinity of solutions. Chemists can analyze solution for the presence of anions, but that type of testing is not used for determining the concentration of H + or OH- in a solution.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 28 40. ANS: A The normal blood pH is 7.35 to 7.45, which is slightly alkaline.

KEY: REMEMBERING

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 28 KEY: REMEMBERING 41. ANS: B Carbohydrates, nucleic acids, proteins, and lipids are the four major organic compounds. Hemoglobin is a protein; calcium carbonate is a buffering dietary supplement; bile acids are not a major organic compound.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 29 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 42. ANS: C Carbon differentiates organic compounds from inorganic compounds. Oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen are a part of many organic compounds, but it is only by combining with carbon that the formation of all living things is possible.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 25 KEY: REMEMBERING 43. ANS: B Carbohydrates are the main energy source. Protein and fats can be converted into energy for the body, but only if carbohydrate intake is insufficient. Enzymes are catalysts for chemical reactions.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 29 KEY: REMEMBERING 44. ANS: D The length of the carbon chain is the basis for categorizing carbohydrates. Carbohydrates are not ions and do not have an electrical charge. The type of bond is not directly relevant to classification. Food source is not a scientific criterion for classifying carbohydrates.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 29 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 45. ANS: C Because polysaccharides contain many chemical bonds, they take longer to break down thus providing a steady supply of energy over several hours. Simpler carbohydrates such as monosaccharides and disaccharides are broken down quickly thereby releasing energy quickly. Although fat slows digestion, there is no such thing as a fatty saccharide.

PTS: 1 46. ANS: B

DIF:

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

D

REF: 29

KEY: CREATING

Triglycerides are a source of energy for the body. Phospholipids are important in the structure of the cell membrane. Steroids have many functions throughout the body but are not an energy source. Cholesterol is a steroid with multiple functions.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 30 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 47. ANS: D If the hydrocarbon chain contains at least one double bond, hydrogen cannot saturate the chain. Double bonds are required for the chain to be unsaturated. A hydrocarbon chain with all single covalent bonds is a saturated fat. A carboxyl group is part of a protein molecule.

PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: 30 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 48. ANS: C The basic unit of a protein molecule is an amino acid. The carboxyl group is part of a protein’s structure, but amino acids are the differentiating molecule. Nitrogen is essential to an amino acid but only when bonded to hydrogen. “R group” is the term used for the part of the amino acid that distinguishes it from other amino acids. It can be a single atom or a complex molecule.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 31 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 49. ANS: C Essential amino acids are those that the body cannot make and must be obtained from outside sources. The body needs amino acids to make many structures and substances, but essential amino acids must be ingested.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 31 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 50. ANS: B Amino acids link together with peptide bonds. “Protein bond” is not a term in current use. Ionic bonds are bonds between ions. Hydrogen bonds are weak bonds between a slightly positive hydrogen atom and a slightly negative oxygen or nitrogen atom in another. Hydrogen bonds may be present in large protein molecules, but hydrogen bonds do not form new molecules; they are simply weak attractions between polar atoms.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 32 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 51. ANS: D Peptide bonds are formed when the amino group of one amino acid links to the carboxyl group of another amino acid. The term “R group” is a “placeholder” for whatever other atom or molecule bonds to the carbon atom of an amino acid. Amino acid chains spiral or fold depending on their function. A water molecule bonding to an amino group is not a peptide bond.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 32 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 52. ANS: B A protein’s primary structure is a simple chain of amino acids. All amino acids have a central carbon atom with an amino group and a carboxyl group bonded to it. A polypeptide is a sequence of amino acids, but it is not a type of bond. The amino group consists of one atom of nitrogen covalently bonded to two hydrogen atoms. It is a functional part of one amino acid, not a sequence of them in a chain.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 32 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 53. ANS: D Cells obtain energy by breaking phosphate bonds in the ATP molecule. The liver does not release energy into the bloodstream; cells release energy when they need it. Proteins, fats, and carbohydrates can all be used for energy production; however, those substances must first be converted to ATP.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 33 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 54. ANS: C Nucleic acids and nucleotides form DNA and RNA. Proteins are formed from amino acids. Fatty acids are components of lipids. Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen are the elements that make amino acids.

PTS: 1

DIF:

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

M

REF: 33

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

Chapter 3: Cells TRUE/FALSE 1) Cytoplasm is located between the cell membrane and the nuclear envelope. ⊚ true ⊚ false 2)

The framework of a cell membrane is a lipid bilayer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3)

Energy is stored in ATP molecules in ribosomes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

4)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum does not. ⊚ true ⊚ false

5)

Peroxisomes and lysosomes are sacs that contain enzymes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

6)

The Golgi apparatus and endoplasmic reticulumtake part in secretion. ⊚ true ⊚ false

7)

Cilia and flagella extend from certain cells, enabling them to move. ⊚ true ⊚ false

8)

A cell that secretes abundant amount of proteins would have many nucleoli. ⊚ true ⊚ false

9) If a nerve cell has a greater concentration of Na + on the outside of the cell membrane compared to inside, then the movement of Na + towards the outside of the cell is by diffusion. ⊚

true

⊚

false

10) Facilitated diffusion moves a substance following its concentration gradient, with the aid of a carrier protein. ⊚

true

⊚

false

11)

Active transport uses energy provided by ATP molecules. ⊚ true ⊚ false

12)

Proteins are manufactured in mitochondria. ⊚ true ⊚ false

13)

Microfilaments and microtubules are part of the cytoskeleton.

1

© 2020 F. A. Davis Company

yright

⊚ 14)

⊚

false

Chromatin consists of DNA and protein. ⊚

15)

true

⊚

false

The nucleus is in the nucleolus. ⊚ true ⊚

false

true

16)

Certain white blood cells take in bacteria by phagocytosis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

17)

Filtration requires hydrostatic pressure. ⊚ true ⊚ false

18)

Transcytosis combines diffusion and active transport. ⊚ true ⊚ false

19)

During interphase, a cell rests. ⊚ true ⊚

false

20) The correct sequence of the stages of the cell cycle are interphase, mitosis, cytoplasmic division, and differentiation. ⊚ 21)

true

⊚

false

Cell division consists of mitosis and cell differentiation. ⊚

true

⊚

false

22) During metaphase of mitosis, chromosomes first condense and can be seen when stained and viewed under a microscope. ⊚ true ⊚ false 23)

During anaphase of mitosis, centromeres and replicated chromosomes separate. ⊚ true ⊚ false

24)

During telophase of mitosis, chromosomes elongate and form chromatin threads. ⊚ true ⊚ false

25)

Abnormal rates of mitosis can lead to poor wound healing and delayed growth. ⊚ true ⊚ false

26)

All cell types divide at the same rate.

2

© 2020 F. A. Davis Company

⊚

true

⊚

false

27)

All cell types can divide a limitless number of times. ⊚ true ⊚ false

28)

A telomere is a type of hormone that controls the cell cycle. ⊚

true

⊚

false

29)

Loss of cell cycle control can cause cancer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

30)

The process by which cells specialize is called differentiation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3

© 2020 F. A. Davis Company

yright

MULTIPLE CHOICE 31)

About how many cells constitute the adult human body?

A) B) C) D)

50 to 100 million 50 to 100 billion 50 to 100 trillion 50 to 100 quadrillion

32) The body is made up of many different cell types, from small circular red blood cells to the elongated smooth muscle cells 20X their size. Why is there such variation in size and shape?

A) B) C) D) 33)

Different cell sizes are due to nutritional differences.

Variations in size and shape allow different cell types to perform unique functions.

Variations in cell shape and size are due to chromosomal differences between cells.

Cell size and shape does not vary among cell types.

What are the three major parts of a cell?

A) B) C) D)

Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, and vesicles.

Nucleus, nucleolus, and nuclear envelope.

Microtubules, ribosomes, and centrosomes.

Nucleus, cytoplasm, and cell membrane.

34) A cell is surrounded by an extremely thin, flexible membrane. Why is the membrane selectively permeable?

A) It allows all substances to pass through, making it easier to absorb nutrients.

B) It allows all organic substances to pass through, but excludes all inorganic substances that could be harmful.

C) It allows some substances to pass through and excludes others based on size, polarity, and other factors.

D) It does not allow any substances to pass through as they could damage the cell.

35) Cell membranes are described as a fluid mosaic that maintains stability while still allowing movement. What component is responsible for most of the flexibility of the membrane?

A) Phospholipid bilayer B) Integral proteins C) Polysaccharides D) Carbohydrates

4 © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

36)

What are the major components of the cell membrane?

A) B) C) D)

Lipids and carbohydrates Proteins and carbohydrates Lipids and proteins Carbohydrates and polysaccharides

37) Which of the following correctly describes the structural organization of the cell membrane?

A) A solid, rigid layer of phospholipid with loosely bound protein molecules.

B) A bilayer of phospholipid molecules in which protein molecules are embedded and can move.

C) Rigid layers of protein molecules in which carbohydrate molecules are suspended.

D) Three layers; lipid on the inside, protein in the middle, and carbohydrates (and polysaccharides) on the outside.

38)

A protein that spans the cell membrane is termed a(n) A) B) C) D)

39)

receptor protein integral protein peripheral protein anchoring protein

Cellular adhesion molecules are A) B) C) D)

.

.

peripheral proteins integral proteins lipids receptors

40) When you scrape your skin, white blood cells arrive to fight infection. To slow down near the site of the cut, they use selectin to provide traction. Since selectin helps white blood cells bind to a surface, what type of protein is selectin?

A) Cellular adhesion molecule B) Integral protein C) Cellular binding molecule D) Receptor 41)

What best describes endoplasmic reticulum?

A) A component of the cytoskeleton.

B) A cellular inclusion.

C) A nuclear pore.

D) A network of interconnected membranes.

5

© 2020 F. A. Davis Company

yright

42) Buildup of incorrectly folded proteins induces a stress response known as unknown protein response (UPR). When prolonged, UPR has a high correlation with neurodegenerative diseases such as Parkinson’s. Which organelle is likely malfunctioning and allowing for the buildup?

A) Mitochondrion B) Vesicle C) Nucleus D) Lysosome 43)

Vesicles can be formed from the A) B) C) D)

membrane.

lysosomal nuclear cell mitochondrial

44) Anderson’s disease results in the failure to secrete large proteins called chylomicrons.

Which organelle is most likely affected?

A) Nucleus B) Lysosome C) Vesicle D) Mitochondrion 45)

Which of the following describes a lysosome?

A) A double-membraned organelle that is the "powerhouse" of the cell.

B) A complex network of interconnected membranes that is a communication system within the cell.

C) A tiny, membranous sac that contains enzymes that degrade worn cell parts and debris.

D) A non-membranous structure that is essential for mitosis.

46) A young man who ran 6 miles a day throughout high school is injured during his first season running cross country in college. He must rest for three months and then gradually begin exercising again. The skeletal muscles in his lower limbs decrease in size during this prolonged period of inactivity. The organelles that break down his muscle proteins are .

A) peroxisomes B) lysosomes C) centrosomes D) ribosomes

6 © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

47)

For which of the following organelles are the structure and function correctly described?

A) Endoplasmic reticulum: a network of interconnected membranes forming sacs and canals that packages protein molecules for secretion.

B) Ribosome: membranous vesicle containing digestive enzymes.

C) Golgi apparatus: particles composed of protein and RNA which synthesize proteins.

D) Mitochondrion: non membranous structure that synthesizes proteins.

48)

What is the correct sequence of organelles and cell parts involved in milk secretion?

A) B) C) D)

Cell membrane, vesicles, Golgi apparatus, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleus.

Nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, vesicles, cell membrane.

Nucleus, nucleolus, nuclear envelope, cell membrane.

Vesicles, Golgi apparatus, mitochondrion, cell membrane.

49) ATP is used to power many cellular processes. Some genetic disorders are the result of defects in ATP creation. Which organelle is likely affected in these disorders?

A) Mitochondrion B) Ribosome C) Peroxisome D) Golgi apparatus 50)

What is the main function of cristae in mitochondria?

A) B) C) D)

To produce enzymes for reactions.

To increase chemical transport in mitochondria.

To facilitate diffusion of substances into the mitochondria.

To increase the surface area for chemical reactions.

51) One function of liver cells is lipogenesis, the process of converting excess dietary carbohydrates to lipids. What organelle in the liver cell performs this function?

A) Golgi apparatus B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) Rough endoplasmic reticulum D) Mitochondria 52)

What cytoskeletal structures are not found in all cell types?

A) B) C) D)

Microtubules Microfilaments Myofibrils Intermediate filaments 7

© 2020 F. A. Davis Company

yright

53) During cell division, it is likely the chromosomes will not separate properly if the centrioles fail to attach to what structure?

A) Centromeres B) Cilia C) Nucleus D) Microtubules 54)

How is DNA molecules stored in the nucleus?

A) B) C) D)

55)

As free molecules.

Complexed with protein, forming chromatin.

Bound via RNA to the nuclear envelope.

Complexed with protein on the nuclear envelope.

What is found within the nucleolus?

A) B) C) D)

DNA only RNA and protein DNA and protein RNA only

56)

What is the function of the nucleus?

A) To direct the activities of the cell.

B) To form mitochondria.

C) To transfer energy.

D) To provide shape to the cell.

57)

Which organelle contains the nucleolus?

A) B) C) D)

58)

Themitochondrion The endoplasmicreticulum The Golgiapparatus The nucleus

Which of following does not influence the rate of molecular movement?

A) B) C) D)

Distance The concentration of the substance.

The amount of energy available for transport molecules.

The molecular weight of the diffusing molecules.

8 © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

59) Salt is placed in a glass of water. Slowly the salt begins to move from one area to another area. What factor caused the movement of the salt?

A) Distance gradient B) Distance vector C) Concentration vector D) Concentration gradient 60)

What characteristic does simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion have in common?

A) Both require cellular energy for the transport of substances.

B) Both move water across a semipermeable membrane.

C) Both require a special carrier molecule to move substances across the membrane.

D) Both move a substance from a region of higher concentration to one of lower concentration without using cellular energy.

9

© 2020 F. A. Davis Company

yright

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

61)

The cytoplasm consists of organelles suspended in

.

62)

The process by which a cell receives and responds to incoming messages is called signal .

63)

Solutions that have a higher osmotic pressure than body fluids are

64)

Somatic cell division is called

65)

A partly specialized cell that is the daughter of a stem cell is a(n)

66)

A cell undergoing

.

. cell.

loses its shape, forms a bubble, and falls apart.

67) Krabbe disease results from an abnormality that affects the the brain.

of nerve cells in

10 © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) FALSE 22) FALSE 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE 26) FALSE

27) FALSE 28) FALSE 29) TRUE 30) TRUE 31) C 32) B 33) D 34) C 35) A 36) C 37) B 38) B 39) A 40) A 41) D 42) D 43) C 44) C 45) C 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) A 50) D 51) B 52) C

53) A 54) B 55) B 56) A 57) D 58) C 59) D 60) D 61) Cytosol 62) Transduction 63) Hypertonic 64) Mitosis 65) Progenitor 66) Apoptosis 67) Lysosomes

11

© 2020 F. A. Davis Company

Chapter 4: Human Microbiome a.

extracellular matrix

k.

mesoderm

b.

epithelial tissue

l.

adipose tissue

c.

chondrocytes

m.

areolar tissue

d.

reticular fibers

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

Lines body cavities Supports small structures such as capillaries Cartilage cells The body’s largest membrane Bone cells Inner layer of fertilized egg Lines the interior of the esophagus Outer layer of fertilized egg Secretes fluid that prevents friction as the lungs expand

10.

11.

Middle layer of fertilized egg A key component of connective tissue

1.

ANS: E

PTS: 1

DIF: E

REF: 58KEY: REMEMBERING 2.

ANS: G

PTS: 1

DIF: E

REF: 61KEY: REMEMBERING 3.

ANS: F

PTS: 1

DIF: E

REF: 62KEY: REMEMBERING 4.

ANS: B

PTS: 1

DIF: E

REF: 66KEY: REMEMBERING 5.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

DIF: E

REF: 67KEY: REMEMBERING

6.

ANS: J

PTS: 1

DIF: E

REF: 57KEY: REMEMBERING

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis

7.

ANS: H

PTS: 1

DIF: E

REF: 66KEY: REMEMBERING ANS: I PTS: 1 KEY: REMEMBERING 9.

ANS: C PTS: 1 8.

DIF: E

REF: 57

DIF: E

REF: 66KEY: REMEMBERING

10.

ANS: K

PTS: 1

DIF: E

REF: 57KEY: REMEMBERING 11.

ANS: D

PTS: 1

DIF: E

REF: 61KEY: REMEMBERING 12.

MULTIPLE CHOICE The human microbiome is best described as: a. The collection of all human cells in the body. b. The genetic material of all the microorganisms living in and on the human body. c. The sum of all pathogenic bacteria in the body. d. The viruses present in the human gut.

ANS: B The human microbiome refers to the entire community of microorganisms (bacteria, viruses, fungi, and others) and their collective genetic material, which inhabit various parts of the human body.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 58 KEY: UNDERSTANDING

13.

Which of the following body sites contains the densest population of microbes in the human microbiome? a. Skin b. Mouth c. Large intestine d. Lungs ANS: C The large intestine harbors the densest and most diverse microbial population due to its nutrient-rich environment.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 58 KEY: UNDERSTANDING

14.

Which of the following statements about the human microbiome is true? a. It is present only in the gastrointestinal tract. b. It remains constant throughout a person's life. c. It plays a role in immune system development.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis

d. All microbes in the microbiome are harmful to humans.

ANS: C The human microbiome plays a crucial role in the development and regulation of the immune system. It is present in multiple body sites and is dynamic over a lifetime.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 58 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 15.

Dysbiosis refers to: a. The balance of microbes in the human microbiome. b. A condition where microbial balance in the microbiome is disrupted. c. A healthy interaction between microbes and the human host. d. The complete absence of microbes in the human body.

ANS: B Dysbiosis is a condition where the normal balance of the microbiome is disrupted, which may contribute to diseases like inflammatory bowel disease or obesity.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 58 KEY: UNDERSTANDING

16.

Which factor does NOT influence the composition of the human microbiome? a. Diet b. Age c. Genetic makeup d. Blood type ANS: D Blood type has no significant influence on the microbiome composition, while diet, age, and genetics are major factors.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 57 KEY: REMEMBERING

17.

How does the microbiome contribute to digestion? a. By directly absorbing nutrients from food. b. By producing digestive enzymes to break down complex carbohydrates. c. By replacing digestive cells in the stomach lining. d. By preventing nutrient absorption in the small intestine.

ANS: B The microbiome produces enzymes and metabolites that help break down complex carbohydrates and other indigestible compounds.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 57 KEY: REMEMBERING

18.

What is the primary way newborns acquire their microbiome? a. Through genetic inheritance from their parents. b. From exposure to microbes during vaginal delivery or from the environment during birth. c. From the placenta before birth. d. Through breastfeeding only.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis

ANS: B Newborns acquire their microbiome through exposure to microbes during delivery and from their surroundings after birth.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 57 KEY: REMEMBERING 19.

Antibiotics can affect the microbiome by: a. Strengthening beneficial microbes while killing harmful ones. b. Killing a broad range of bacteria, leading to potential dysbiosis. c. Increasing the diversity of microbes in the gut. d. Targeting only pathogenic bacteria without affecting commensals.

ANS: B Antibiotics can disrupt the balance of the microbiome by killing both harmful and beneficial bacteria, potentially leading to dysbiosis.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 57 KEY: REMEMBERING

20.

Probiotics are: a. Microorganisms that naturally reside in the human body. b. Live bacteria and yeasts that may provide health benefits when consumed. c. Nutrients that feed beneficial microbes in the gut. d. Antibiotics that promote microbial balance.

ANS: B Probiotics are live microorganisms, such as certain bacteria and yeasts, that may promote health when consumed in adequate amounts.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 57 KEY: REMEMBERING

21.

The gut-brain axis refers to: a. The role of the brain in regulating digestion. b. The interaction between the gut microbiome and the nervous system. c. A direct connection between the gut and spinal cord. d. The influence of probiotics on brain structure.

ANS: B The gut-brain axis describes the bidirectional communication between the gut microbiome and the central nervous system, which influences brain function and behavior..

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 57 KEY: UNDERSTANDING

Mucous membranes arise from which layer of the fertilized egg?

22. a. b. c. d.

Endoderm Mesoderm Ectoderm Zona Pellucida

ANS: A

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis

Mucous membranes arise from the endoderm. The mesoderm and ectoderm give rise to other structures.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 57 KEY: REMEMBERING The nervous system arises from which layer of the fertilized egg?

23.

a. b. c. d.

Endoderm Mesoderm Ectoderm Zona Pellucida

ANS: C The nervous system arises from the ectoderm. The mesoderm and endoderm give rise to other structures.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 57 KEY: REMEMBERING

Bone, muscle, and blood arise from which layer of the fertilized egg?

24.

Endoderm Mesoderm Ectoderm

a. b. c.

ANS: B Bone, muscle, and blood arise from the mesoderm. The endoderm and ectoderm give rise to other structures.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 57 KEY: REMEMBERING

25.

Tissues are categorized into four main groups based on a. b. c. d.

cell shape. cell function. cell wall thickness. organ location.

ANS: B Cells are grouped into different tissues based on similarity of cell function. Cell shape is the basis for categorizing different epithelial tissue but not for grouping cells into tissues. Cell wall thickness is not a variable used to sort cells into tissues. The location of the organ does not influence tissue type.

PTS: 1

DIF: E

REF: 57

KEY: REMEMBERING

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis

What are the four categories of tissue?

26. a. b. c. d.

Neural, muscular, cardiac, and connective Vascular, neural, bone, and cardiac Neural, connective, muscular, and epithelial Epithelial, connective, muscular, and bone

ANS: C The distinct groups of tissue are neural (or nervous), connective, muscular, and epithelial tissue.

Cardiac tissue is muscular tissue, bone is made of dense connective tissue, vascular tissue (blood vessels) consist of muscular and epithelial tissue.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 57 KEY: REMEMBERING

Which cells can develop into many different cell types?

27. a. b. c. d.

Stem cells Chameleon cells Undeveloped cells Foundational cells

ANS: A Stem cells are special, undifferentiated cells that can develop into any of a number of different cell types such as a skin cell or a blood cell. Chameleon, undeveloped, or fundamental cells are not terms in use.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 57 KEY: REMEMBERING Which tissue covers the body’s surface and lines body cavities and many organs?

28. a. b. c. d.

Epithelial mucous membranes Epidermal tissue Connective tissue Epithelial

ANS: D Epithelium covers the body’s surface and lines body cavities, as well as lining many organs. It also forms certain glands. The epithelial mucous membrane is a specific type of epithelium. It does line some surfaces of the body, but not all; epithelial cutaneous membrane, for example, Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis

covers the body’s exterior. Epidermal tissue is the outer layer of skin. Connective tissue makes up many different body structures but does not line body cavities and cover the body’s exterior.

PTS: 1

DIF: M

REF: 58

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

What is a unique feature of transitional epithelium?

29.

It can form small, mucous-secreting vesicles called goblet cells.

It can change into any type of epithelial tissue.

It can stretch to accommodate changes in bladder size.

It is stronger than other types of epithelium.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C Transitional cells are a single layer of cuboidal cells that can stretch flat, which accommodates changes in bladder size. Goblet cells are modified columnar epithelium. Transitional cells cannot transform into other forms of epithelial cells and are not stronger than other types of epithelium.

PTS: 1

DIF: M

REF: 59

KEY: REMEMBERING

Which type of epithelium lines alveoli, and what is its function?

30. a. b. c. d.

Simple squamous epithelium, to allow for diffusion Stratified squamous epithelium, to provide protection Simple columnar epithelium, to secrete mucus Transitional epithelium, to allow for stretching

ANS: A Alveoli are lined with simple squamous epithelium to allow for the easy diffusion of gases. Other types of epithelium line other areas of the respiratory tract but are not found in the alveoli.

PTS: 1 DIF: D REF: 59 KEY: ANALYZING Which set of shapes is associated with epithelial cells?

31. a. b. c. d.

Squamous (flat), cuboidal, columnar Globular, elongated, striated Smooth, striated, cardiac Planar, spindled, disklike

ANS: A Squamous (flat), cuboidal, or columnar are terms that describe the shapes of epithelial cells.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis

Elongated, striated, smooth, cardiac, spindled, and disklike are terms associated with muscle and nerve tissue. Globular and planar are not used to describe tissue cell types.

PTS: 1

DIF: M

REF: 58

KEY: REMEMBERING

What is the main difference between exocrine and endocrine glands?

32.

Exocrine glands secrete substances into ducts, and endocrine glands secrete substances into the bloodstream Endocrine glands secrete substances into ducts, and exocrine glands secrete substances into the bloodstream Exocrine glands secrete hormones, and endocrine glands secrete tears, sweat, and gastric juices.

Exocrine and endocrine glands secrete hormones, but only exocrine glands secrete tears, sweat, or gastric j

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A Exocrine glands secrete substances into ducts, whereas endocrine glands secrete substances directly into the bloodstream. Endocrine glands secrete hormones; exocrine glands secrete such substances as tears, sweat, and gastric juices.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 58 KEY: UNDERSTANDING Which statement describes the function of simple squamous epithelium?

33.

a. b. c. d.

Strong, flexible fibers that resist stretching Helps insulate the body to conserve heat Joined by intercalated discs Allows for ready diffusion because of thinness

ANS: D Simple squamous epithelium allows for ready diffusion because of its thinness. Strong, flexible fibers that resist stretching are characteristic of collagen; adipose tissue insulates the body; and cells joined by intercalated discs are cardiac muscle cells.

PTS: 1 34.

DIF: M

REF: 59

KEY: REMEMBERING

Which type of epithelial tissue lines the digestive tract where it secretes mucus from its goblet cells? a. b. c. d.

Simple squamous epithelium Simple columnar epithelium Stratified squamous epithelium Simple cuboidal epithelium

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis

ANS: B Simple columnar epithelium secretes mucus from goblet cells into the gastrointestinal tract.

Simple squamous epithelium lines alveoli and does not secrete mucus. Stratified squamous epithelium does not secrete mucus; it forms the epidermis and lines the esophagus. Simple cuboidal epithelium is found in the ducts and tubules of many organs.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 59 KEY: REMEMBERING What are the key functions of epithelium?

35. a. b. c. d.

Protection, secretion, conduction, filtration Absorption, secretion, conduction, protection Protection, contraction, absorption, diffusion Protection, absorption, filtration, secretion

ANS: D The purposes of epithelium are protection, absorption, filtration, and secretion. Epithelium does not conduct electrical impulses, nor does it contract. Diffusion can occur through simple squamous epithelium, but it is not a key function.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 58 KEY: UNDERSTANDING

What characteristic distinguishes connective tissue from other types of tissue?

36.

a. b. c. d.

Its variety of cell shapes Its ability to stretch Its lack of blood supply Its extracellular matrix

ANS: D The key and distinguishing component of connective tissue is its extracellular matrix. Varying cell shape, elasticity, and lack of blood vessels are shared by other tissue types.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 61 KEY: UNDERSTANDING Which of the following statements about connective tissue is accurate?

37. a. b. c. d.

It covers the body’s surface.

Some of its key functions involve absorption, filtration, and secretion.

It contains no blood vessels.

It has an extracellular matrix consisting of protein fibers and fluid.

ANS: D

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis

The key component of connective tissue is the extracellular matrix, which consists of varying amounts of protein fibers and fluid. All of the other statements pertain to epithelial tissue.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 61 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 38.

The extracellular matrix consists of a. b. c. d.

fibers that vary in elasticity. protein fibers and fluid. tough fibers that form a framework. cells in a gel-like substance.

ANS: B The extracellular matrix consists of protein fibers and fluid. Elastic fibers are part of the extracellular matrix but are not the only fibers. The fibers in the extracellular matrix are not always tough; they can be fragile or gel-like. The extracellular matrix contains cells but is not made of cells.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 61 KEY: UNDERSTANDING

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis

Which statement about extracellular matrix is accurate?

39.

It varies in consistency based on the amount of protein fibers and fluid.

It creates the blood vessels and capillaries found in cartilage.

It provides oxygen and nutrients to bone, which does not have blood vessels.

It is essential for the formation of neurons.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A The matrix consists of varying kinds and amounts of protein fibers and fluids; it’s the variation in composition that gives the tissue its characteristics. Cartilage does not have blood vessels.

Bone does have blood vessels. The extracellular matrix is not a component of neural tissue.

PTS: 1

DIF: M

REF: 61

KEY: ANALYZING

Which phrase describes collagenous fibers?

40.

Has a striped appearance (striations) Strong and flexible Resembles a fine net Can stretch and recoil

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B Collagenous fibers are strong and flexible. Skeletal and cardiac muscle have striations, which are alternating light and dark bands that give the muscle a striped appearance. Reticular fibers resemble a fine net. Elastic fibers stretch and recoil.

PTS: 1

DIF: M

REF: 61

KEY: REMEMBERING

Which types of fibers are found in connective tissue?

41. a. b. c. d.

Fibrous, reticular, areolar, and elastic fibers Areolar, reticular, and collagenous fibers Collagenous, reticular, and elastic fibers Collagenous, reticular, areolar, and adipose fibers

ANS: C Connective tissue contains collagenous, reticular, and elastic fibers. Areolar tissue is a type of loose connective tissue that contains collagen and elastin fibers in a gel-type matrix. Likewise, adipose describes another type of loose connective tissue in which the majority of cells are fat cells.

PTS: 1

DIF: M

REF: 61

KEY: ANALYZING

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis

Which connective tissue fiber is most abundant in the human body?

42. a. b. c. d.

Collagenous fibers Elastic fibers Areolar fibers Adipose fibers

ANS: A Collagenous fibers are the most widespread and abundant. Elastin fibers are prevalent in tissue that must stretch but are not the most abundant. Areolar and adipose are types of connective tissue, not types of fibers.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 61 KEY: REMEMBERING The basic types of connective tissue are

43. a. b. c. d.

tendons, cartilage, bone, and blood. loose connective tissue, dense connective tissue, bone, and blood. fibrous connective tissue, cartilage, bone, and blood. collagen, cartilage, epithelium, and blood.

ANS: C The four basic types of connective tissue include fibrous connective tissue, cartilage, bone, and blood. Dense connective tissue comprises tendons. Loose and dense connective tissue are types of fibrous connective tissue. Collagen is a protein that forms some of the fibers found in dense connective tissue; epithelium is not a connective tissue.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 61 KEY: REMEMBERING Which statement about fibrous connective tissue is accurate?

44. a. b. c. d.

It can be loose or dense.

It forms bone.

It forms cartilage.

It is composed of chondrocytes.

ANS: A Fibrous connective tissue may be loose or dense. Bone and cartilage are different types of connective tissue, not fibrous connective tissue. Chondrocytes are the cells that make up cartilage— another type of connective tissue.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 61 KEY: REMEMBERING

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis

Blood is considered connective tissue because

45.

it connects everything in the body. it has collagenous fibers. it contains many types of cells. it has an extracellular matrix.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D The extracellular matrix identifies blood as a connective tissue. Blood can be thought of as “connecting” everything in the body, and it does contain collagenous fibers and many types of cells; however, it is the extracellular matrix that makes it connective tissue.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 61 KEY: ANALYZING What makes up the extracellular matrix of blood?

46.

a. b. c. d.

Blood cells Reticular fibers Collagenous fibers Plasma

ANS: D The extracellular matrix of blood is plasma, in which blood cells are suspended. Unlike other connective tissues, blood does not contain any fibers.

PTS: 1

DIF: M

REF: 62

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

Which structure transmits impulses to the soma?

47. a. b. c. d.

Axons Dendrites Intercalated discs Neuroglia

ANS: B Dendrites are short processes that extend from the soma of a nerve cell and transmit impulses from other cells to the soma. Axons transmit impulses to other cells. Intercalated discs are a feature of cardiac muscle. Neuroglia cells protect and assist neurons.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 64 KEY: UNDERSTANDING

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis

Which is the defining feature of nervous tissue?

48.

It consists of cells.

It is found only in the brain.

It is found only in the spinal cord.

It is very excitable.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D A high degree of excitability distinguishes nervous tissue from other tissues and allows it to communicate rapidly with cells in other parts of the body. All tissue, not just nervous tissue, consists of cells. Nervous tissue is also found outside the brain and spinal cord.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 64 KEY: REMEMBERING What are the main structures of a neuron?

49.

Soma, axon, dendrite Soma, neuroglia, dendrite, axon Nucleus, dendrite, axon Soma, organelle, dendrite

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A The main structures of a neuron are soma, axon, and dendrite. Neuroglia are a specific type of nervous tissue cell. Organelles and the nucleus are contained in the soma.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 64 KEY: UNDERSTANDING Which best describes the soma of a neuron?

50. a. b. c. d.

The soma surrounds the nucleus.

The soma is the large cell body of the neuron.

The soma is a branch of a dendrite.

The soma is the long fiber that extends from the cell nucleus.

ANS: B The soma is the large body of a neuron. Although the nucleus is situated within the soma, the more important point is that it is the body of the neuron. It is not a branch of a dendrite. The long fiber that extends from the body is the axon.

PTS: 1

DIF: M

REF: 64

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis

Which cells protect and support neurons?

51.

a. b. c. d.

Neurocytes Neuroblasts Neuroma Neuroglia

ANS: D Neuroglia cells are the cells that protect and support the neurons. Neurocyte is a generic term for neuron or any type of nerve cell. Neuroblasts are immature cells that may develop into either neurons or neuroglia. A neuroma is a tumor on nerve tissue.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 64 KEY: REMEMBERING Types of muscle tissue include

52. a. b. c. d.

skeletal, striated, and cardiac. cardiac, somatic, and skeletal. smooth, striated, and cardiac. cardiac, smooth, and somatic.

ANS: C Smooth, striated (also called skeletal), and cardiac muscle comprise the three types of muscle tissue. Skeletal and striated are the same type of muscle tissues. Somatic refers to the body and is not a type of muscle tissue.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 64 KEY: UNDERSTANDING Smooth muscle

53. a. b. c. d.

is composed of soma, a muscle fiber. attaches to major bones. forms the heart muscle. lines the digestive tract and controls blood vessel diameter.

ANS: D Smooth muscle lines the digestive tract and controls blood vessel diameter. It lines many other organs as well. A soma is the large cell body of a neuron. Skeletal muscle attaches to bone, not smooth muscle. Muscle tissue in the heart is different from other muscle tissue and is called cardiac muscle.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 64 KEY: UNDERSTANDING

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis

Skeletal muscle is known by what other names?

54.

a. b. c. d.

Vascular and involuntary Striated and involuntary Autonomic and smooth Striated and voluntary

ANS: D Skeletal muscle can be called striated muscle because of the light and dark bands, called striations, that give skeletal muscle its striped appearance. It also is called voluntary muscle because we can control movement of these muscles voluntarily. Vascular, involuntary, and smooth refer to smooth muscle, which is controlled by the autonomic nervous system.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 64 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 55.

Which statement accurately describes the most important difference between cardiac muscle and smooth muscle? a. b. c. d.

Smooth muscle is under voluntary control, whereas cardiac muscle is not.

Cardiac muscle has special junctions called intercalated discs that smooth muscle does not.

Smooth muscle has no role in controlling blood pressure, whereas cardiac muscle does.

Cardiac muscle is found in blood vessels, whereas smooth muscle is found in other organ systems, such as respiratory and digestive tracts.

ANS: B The intercalated discs that form the junctions between cardiac cells allow it to transmit electrical impulses rapidly. Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are involuntary muscles; smooth muscle controls blood pressure by changing the diameter of blood vessels. Cardiac muscle is found only in the heart.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 64 KEY: UNDERSTANDING 56.

What is granulation tissue, and what is its role in wound healing? a. b. c. d.

It is newly formed epithelial tissue; it lines wound cavities forming layer upon layer to fill the wound.

It is tissue made of stem cells that develop into any type of tissue; it replaces different types of tissue that we destroyed or damaged when the wound occurred.

It is connective tissue that fills in the wound cavity and forms scar tissue.

It is smooth muscle and epithelial tissue, which fills the wound and forms new blood vessels.

ANS: C Granulation tissue is connective tissue that fills in and reconnects disrupted tissue during wound Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis

healing. Granulation tissue is not epithelial tissue, although reepithelialization is part of wound healing. Granulation tissue is not made of stem cells or smooth muscle.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 65 KEY: UNDERSTANDING

Which cells clean up cellular debris and bacteria in a wound?

57.

a. b. c. d.

White blood cells Fibroblasts Epithelial cells Red blood cells

ANS: A White blood cells ingest bacteria and cellular debris to keep the wound bed clean. Fibroblasts secrete collagen. Epithelial cells form under the scab to cover and close the wound with functional tissue. Red blood cells transport oxygen.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 65 KEY: UNDERSTANDING Membranes consist of

58. a. b. c. d.

smooth muscle and epithelium. nervous tissue and squamous cells. connective tissue and/or epithelial tissue. muscle tissue and a single layer of columnar epithelium.

ANS: C Membranes are made of connective tissue and/or epithelial tissue. Muscle and nervous tissue are not components of membranes.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 66 KEY: UNDERSTANDING Membranes

59. a. b. c. d.

line body cavities, cover body surfaces, and separate organs. contain contractile cells that allow an organ to move. secrete hormones and other substances directly into the bloodstream. are a loose connective tissue dominated by fat cells.

ANS: A Membranes line body cavities, cover body surfaces, and separate organs (or parts of organs) from each other. Contractile cells are a feature of muscle tissue. Secretion of hormones directly into the bloodstream is an attribute of endocrine glands. The loose connective tissue dominated by fat cells is called adipose tissue.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 66 KEY: UNDERSTANDING

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis

60.

The main function of serous membranes is a. b. c. d.

secretion of mucus to cushion organs. secretion of watery fluid to reduce friction. lining body surfaces exposed to the outside environment. covering the exterior surface of the body.

ANS: B The primary purpose of serous membranes is to secrete serous fluid, which reduces friction as organs, especially the heart and lungs, expand and contract. Mucous membranes secrete mucus; they also line body surfaces exposed to the outside environment. Cutaneous membranes cover the exterior surface of the body.

PTS: 1

DIF: M

REF: 66

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis

TRUE/FALSE Nerve tissue heals primarily by regeneration.

ANS: F

61.

Nerve tissue has limited capacity to regenerate; it heals primarily by fibrosis.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 65 KEY: REMEMBERING Smooth muscle helps control blood pressure by changing blood vessel diameter.

ANS: T

62.

Smooth muscle, which exists in the walls of blood vessels, responds to autonomic stimuli by either contracting or dilating the blood vessel diameter. This has a profound effect on blood pressure.

PTS: 1 63.

DIF: M

REF: 64

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

Embryonic stem cells can differentiate into more than 200 types of specialized cells.

ANS: T Embryonic stem cells can develop into any cell arising from the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 57 KEY: UNDERSTANDING Adipose tissue is a connective tissue that protects various organs of the body.

ANS: T

64.

Adipose tissue is connective tissue composed primarily of fat cells; it helps cushion and protect organs.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 61 KEY: UNDERSTANDING Cartilage heals quickly because of its rich supply of blood vessels.

ANS: F

65.

Cartilage has no blood supply. Without a rich supply of oxygen and nutrients provided by blood, cartilage heals slowly.

PTS: 1 66.

DIF: E

REF: 62

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

The hardness of bone is due to mineral crystals contained within the extracellular matrix.

ANS: T Calcium and other mineral crystals give bone its density and hardness.

PTS: 1 DIF: M REF: 62 KEY: UNDERSTANDING

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis

Muscle tissue heals primarily by regeneration.

ANS: F

67.

Muscle tissue has a limited capacity for regeneration; it heals primarily by fibrosis.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 65 KEY: UNDERSTANDING The pleura, peritoneum, and pericardium are all serous membranes.

ANS: T

68.

The pleura, peritoneum, and pericardium are all serous membranes that secrete serous fluid to prevent friction as the organs under the membranes move.

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 66 KEY: UNDERSTANDING

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis

Chapter 5: Tissues MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which type of tissue allows for rapid communication between various parts of the body?

A. epithelial C. muscle B. connective D. nervous ANS: D REF: Page 82

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Nervous tissue

Memorization

2. Which type of tissue covers the body and lines many of the parts of the body?

A. epithelial C. muscle B. connective D. nervous ANS: A REF: Page 73

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Epithelial tissue

Memorization

3. Which is the most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the body?

A. epithelial C. muscle B. connective D. nervous ANS: B REF: Page 77

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Connective tissue

Memorization

4. Which type of tissue specializes in movement of the body?

A. epithelial C. muscle B. connective D. nervous ANS: C REF: Page 80

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Muscle tissue

Memorization

5. Which type of tissue can be classified by the shape of its cells?

A. epithelial C. muscle B. connective D. nervous ANS: A REF: Page 73

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Shape of cells

Memorization

6. Which type of tissue frequently has few cells embedded in an intercellular matrix?

A. epithelial C. muscle B. connective D. nervous ANS: B REF: Page 77

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Connective tissue

Memorization

7. Which two types of tissue have the greatest ability to repair themselves?

A. epithelial and muscle C. epithelial and connective B. connective and muscle D. muscle and nervous

ANS: C REF: Page 82

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Tissue repair

Memorization

8. Smooth, striated, and cardiac are examples of: A. epithelial tissue C. muscle tissue B. connective tissue D. nervous tissue ANS: C REF: Pages 80-81

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

9. The tissue connected and supported by glia cells is: A. epithelial tissue C. muscle tissue B. connective tissue D. nervous tissue ANS: D REF: Page 82

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

10. Adipose and areolar tissues are examples of: A. epithelial tissue C. muscle tissue B. connective tissue D. nervous tissue ANS: B REF: Page 78

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

11. The ideal body-fat percentage is considered to be: A. 8% to 12% for men and 12% to 15% for women B. 12% to 18% for men and 25% to 30% for women C. 15% to 18% for men and 20% to 22% for women D. 18% to 24% for both men and women ANS: C REF: Page 82

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Tissues and fitness (Health and Well-Being box)

12. What type of tissue is simple columnar tissue?

A. epithelial tissue C. muscle tissue B. connective tissue D. nervous tissue ANS: A REF: Pages 75-76

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

13. What type of tissue is bone tissue?

A. epithelial tissue B. connective tissue ANS: B REF: Page 79

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

C. muscle tissue D. nervous tissue DIF:

Memorization

14. What type of tissue is simple squamous tissue?

A. epithelial tissue C. muscle tissue B. connective tissue D. nervous tissue ANS: A

PTS:

1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 74

TOP: Tissues

15. What type of tissue is pseudostratified tissue?

A. epithelial tissue C. muscle tissue B. connective tissue D. nervous tissue ANS: A REF: Pages 76-77

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

16. Which tissue covers and lines many parts of the body?

A. epithelial tissue C. muscle tissue B. connective tissue D. nervous tissue ANS: A REF: Page 73

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

17. Which tissue forms a continuous sheet of cells with no blood vessels?

A. epithelial tissue C. muscle tissue B. connective tissue D. nervous tissue ANS: A REF: Page 73

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

18. Cells of which tissue have the ability to shorten?

A. epithelial tissue C. muscle tissue B. connective tissue D. nervous tissue ANS: C REF: Page 80

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

19. Which tissue contains few cells found in intercellular material called matrix?

A. epithelial tissue C. muscle tissue B. connective tissue D. nervous tissue ANS: B REF: Page 77

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

20. Which tissue is subdivided according to the shape and the arrangement of cells?

A. epithelial tissue C. muscle tissue B. connective tissue D. nervous tissue ANS: A REF: Page 73

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

21. Which tissue allows rapid communication between body structures?

A. epithelial tissue C. muscle tissue B. connective tissue D. nervous tissue ANS: D REF: Page 82

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

22. Glands are usually made up of which tissue?

DIF:

Memorization

A. epithelial tissue B. connective tissue ANS: A REF: Page 77

C. muscle tissue D. nervous tissue PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

23. Select the type of connective tissue that has a fluid matrix.

A. areolar C. blood B. bone D. fibrous connective ANS: C REF: Page 78

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

24. How does cartilage differ from other connective tissues?

A. its matrix is the consistency of a firm plastic B. its matrix is fluid C. cartilage has more cells D. cartilage consists of hematopoietic cells ANS: A REF: Page 79

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

25. Adipose tissue performs which of the following functions?

A. insulation C. support B. protection D. all of these are correct ANS: D REF: Page 78

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

26. The types of tissues that have the greatest capacity to regenerate are: A. epithelial and nervous C. connective and nervous B. epithelial and connective D. muscular and epithelial ANS: B REF: Page 82

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Tissue repair

Memorization

27. An unusually thick scar that develops in the lower layer of the skin is called a: A. tumor C. keloid B. collagen bundle D. neoplasm ANS: C REF: Page 82

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Tissue repair

Memorization

28. These cartilage cells are located within many tiny spaces throughout the matrix: A. osteons C. glial B. hematopoietic D. chondrocytes ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Pages 82-83 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

29. Since the bladder can expand and return to its normal size, which type of epithelial tissue might you find lining the wall of the bladder?

A. cuboidal B. transitional ANS: B TOP: Tissues

C. pseudostratified D. simple squamous PTS:

1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 79

30. You examine an epithelial tissue specimen, and it has multiple layers of thin, irregularly shaped cells. What type of tissue is this?

A. simple squamous C. stratified columnar B. stratified cuboidal D. stratified squamous ANS: D TOP: Tissues

PTS:

1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 74

TRUE/FALSE 1. There are three types of muscle tissue in the body: skeletal, voluntary, and smooth.

ANS: F REF: Page 73

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Muscle tissue

Memorization

2. One type of cell that makes up nerve tissue is a glia cell.

ANS: T REF: Page 82

PTS: 1 TOP: Nerve tissue

DIF:

Memorization

3. Connective tissue usually contains few cells embedded in an intercellular matrix.

ANS: T REF: Page 77

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Connective tissue

Memorization

4. Epithelial tissue can be classified based on the shape of the cells.

ANS: T REF: Page 73

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Epithelial tissue

Memorization

5. Nervous tissue and connective tissue have the greatest capacity to regenerate.

ANS: F REF: Page 82

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Tissue repair

Memorization

6. Because of muscle tissue’s ability to repair itself, someone who has survived a heart attack will eventually have cardiac muscle tissue that is fully healed and as good as new.

ANS: F PTS: TOP: Tissue repair

1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 83

7. It would be expected that squamous epithelial tissue would have a flat and scalelike appearance.

ANS: T REF: Page 74

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Epithelial tissue

Memorization

8. Stratified squamous epithelium often contains goblet cells that produce mucus that helps protect the tissue.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: Pages 75-76 TOP: Simple columnar epithelium 9. Cuboidal epithelium most often can be found in glands.

ANS: T REF: Page 77

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cuboidal epithelium

10. Alveolar connective tissue specializes in the storage of lipid or fat.

ANS: F REF: Page 78

PTS: 1 TOP: Adipose

DIF:

Memorization

11. Cartilage tissue gets its strength from the osteons that make up its matrix.

ANS: F REF: Page 79

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Bone and cartilage

Memorization

12. Intercalated disks are found in striated (skeletal muscle) tissue.

ANS: F REF: Page 79

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cardiac muscle tissue

13. Connective tissue covers the body and many of its parts.

ANS: F REF: Page 73

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Epithelial tissue

Memorization

14. Glia cells are an example of connective tissue.

ANS: F REF: Page 82

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

15. Smooth, striated, and cardiac tissues are examples of muscle tissues.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 80-81 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

16. An important part of muscle tissue is the matrix found in between cells.

ANS: F REF: Page 77

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

17. Both neurons and glia cells make up nervous tissue.

ANS: T REF: Page 82

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

18. Areolar, blood, bone, and cartilage are all examples of connective tissue.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Pages 77-78 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

19. Goblet cells are found in squamous epithelial tissue.

ANS: F REF: Page 76

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Epithelial tissue

Memorization

20. Pseudostratified epithelial tissue looks to be two cell layers thick but is actually only one cell layer thick.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: REF: Pages 76-77 TOP: Epithelial tissue

Memorization

21. The most abundant tissue in the body is muscle tissue.

ANS: F REF: Page 77

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Connective tissue

Memorization

22. The building block of bone tissue is called an osteon.

ANS: T REF: Page 79

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Connective tissue

Memorization

23. Hematopoietic tissue is a connective tissue responsible for blood cell formation.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: REF: Pages 78-79 TOP: Connective tissue

Memorization

24. A nerve cell usually has more axons extending from the cell body than dendrites.

ANS: F REF: Page 82

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Nervous tissue

Memorization

25. Because of its structure, substances can readily pass through the simple squamous epithelial tissue.

ANS: T PTS: TOP: Epithelial tissue

1

26. Epithelium is rich with blood supply.

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 74

ANS: T REF: Page 74

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Epithelial tissue

Memorization

27. Exocrine glands discharge their products directly into the blood.

ANS: F REF: Page 77

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Cuboidal epithelium

28. The terms osteon and Haversian system are synonymous.

ANS: T REF: Page 79

PTS: 1 TOP: Bone tissue

DIF:

Memorization

29. Bones are a storage area for calcium and provide support and protection for the body.

ANS: T REF: Page 79

PTS: 1 TOP: Bone tissue

DIF:

Memorization

30. Epithelial tissue is characterized by large amounts of intercellular matrix and few cells.

ANS: F REF: Page 77

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Epithelial tissue

Memorization

31. Transitional epithelium is unique in that it is composed of differing cell shapes in a stratified, or layered, epithelial sheet.

ANS: T REF: Page 77

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Classification based on layers of cells

32. Adipose tissue is a type of connective tissue.

ANS: T REF: Page 78

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Connective tissue

Memorization

33. Skeletal muscle cells are referred to as muscle fibers and are characterized by a high degree of contractility.

ANS: T PTS: TOP: Muscle tissue

1

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: Page 80

34. The structural quality and appearance of the matrix and fibers determine the qualities of each type of connective tissue.

ANS: T REF: Page 77

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Connective tissue

Memorization

35. When epithelial tissue is badly injured, a thick scar, or keloid, may develop.

ANS: F REF: Page 83

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Tissue repair

Memorization

36. Both axons and dendrites are found in nervous tissue.

ANS: T REF: Page 82

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Nervous tissue

Memorization

37. Hematopoietic tissue is the bloodlike connective tissue found in the red marrow cavities of bones, spleen, tonsils, and lymph nodes.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization REF: Pages 78-79 TOP: Blood and hematopoietic tissue MATCHING Match each tissue type to its corresponding description or example.

A. epithelial C. muscle B. connective D. nerve 1.

2.

3.

4.

tissue that covers the body and many of its parts tissue that contains glia cells tissue that makes up most of the heart tissue that has few cells embedded in the intercellular matrix

1. ANS: A REF: Page 73 2. ANS: D REF: Page 82 3. ANS: C REF: Page 81 4. ANS: B REF: Page 77

PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:

1 DIF: Epithelial 1 DIF: Nervous tissue 1 DIF: Muscle tissue 1 DIF: Connective tissue

Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization

Match each category of epithelial cells with its corresponding definition.

A. simple squamous D. pseudostratified columnar B. simple cuboidal E. stratified squamous C. simple columnar F. transitional 5.

6.

7.

8.

single layer of cube-shaped cells multiple layers of cells with flat cells at the outer surface single layer of cells; some are tall and thin and reach the free surface, and others do not layers of cells that appear cubelike when an organ is relaxed and flattened when the organ is distended by fluid 9. single layer of flat, scalelike cells 10. single layer of tall, thin cells; modification may appear goblet-shaped 5. ANS: B

PTS:

1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 77

TOP: 6. ANS: TOP: 7. ANS: TOP: 8. ANS: TOP: 9. ANS: TOP: 10. ANS: REF:

Classification based on layers of cells E PTS: 1 DIF: Classification based on layers of cells D PTS: 1 DIF: Classification based on layers of cells F PTS: 1 DIF: Classification based on layers of cells A PTS: 1 DIF: Classification based on layers of cells C PTS: 1 DIF: Pages 75-76 TOP: Simple epithelium

Application

REF: Pages 74-75

Application

REF: Page 76

Application

REF: Page 77

Application

REF: Page 74

Memorization

Match each term with its corresponding definition.

A. neuron D. cell body B. neuroglia E. dendrite C. axon 11. the cell body of the neuron 12. supportive cells of nervous tissue 13. cell process that transmits nerve impulses away from the cell body 14. the conducting cells of the nervous system 15. cell process that carries nerve impulses toward the cell body 11. ANS: REF: 12. ANS: REF: 13. ANS: REF: 14. ANS: REF: 15. ANS: REF:

D Page 82 B Page 82 C Page 82 A Page 82 E Page 82

PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:

1 DIF: Nervous tissue 1 DIF: Nervous tissue 1 DIF: Nervous tissue 1 DIF: Nervous tissue 1 DIF: Nervous tissue

Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization

Match each general tissue type with a corresponding specific tissue.

A. epithelial C. muscle B. connective D. nerve 16.

17.

18.

19.

bone and adipose tissue neurons and neuroglia tissue in the heart and the biceps of the arm tissue that lines the stomach and intestines

16. ANS: REF: 17. ANS: REF: 18. ANS:

B Page 79 D Page 82 C

PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS:

1 DIF: Connective tissue 1 DIF: Nervous tissue 1 DIF:

Memorization Memorization Memorization

REF: Page 81 19. ANS: A REF: Page 75

TOP: Muscle tissue PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Epithelial tissue

Memorization

Identify the type of muscle tissue with its corresponding definition A. cardiac muscle C. smooth muscle B. skeletal muscle 20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

cylindrical, striated, voluntary cells nonstriated, involuntary, narrow fibers with only one nucleus per cell striated, branching, involuntary cells with intercalated disks responsible for willed body movements also called visceral muscle found in the walls of hollow internal organs

20. ANS: REF: 21. ANS: REF: 22. ANS: REF: 23. ANS: REF: 24. ANS: REF: 25. ANS: REF:

B Page 80 C Page 81 A Page 81 B Page 80 C Page 81 C Page 81

PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:

1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle tissue 1 DIF: Memorization Smooth muscle tissue 1 DIF: Memorization Cardiac muscle tissue 1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle tissue 1 DIF: Memorization Smooth muscle tissue 1 DIF: Memorization Smooth muscle tissue

Match the type of connective tissue with its corresponding definition.

A. areolar connective tissue D. bone B. adipose E. cartilage C. fibrous connective tissue F. blood 26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

matrix is liquid contains numerous structural building blocks called osteons consists mainly of bundles of strong, white collagen fibers arranged in parallel rows specialized to store lipids consists of delicate webs of fibers and a variety of cells matrix is the consistency of a firm plastic or a gristlelike gel

26. ANS: REF: 27. ANS: REF: 28. ANS: REF: 29. ANS: REF:

F Page 78 D Page 79 C Page 79 B Page 78

PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:

1 DIF: Connective tissue 1 DIF: Connective tissue 1 DIF: Connective tissue 1 DIF: Connective tissue

Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization

30. ANS: REF: 31. ANS: REF:

A Page 78 E Page 79

PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:

1 DIF: Connective tissue 1 DIF: Connective tissue

Memorization Memorization

Match the term with its corresponding definition.

A. collagen D. goblet cells B. osteons E. scar C. glands 32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

dense fibrous mass clusters of tubes of secretory cells structural building blocks of bone tissue strong fibers found in dense fibrous connective tissue specialized cells that produce mucus

32. ANS: REF: 33. ANS: REF: 34. ANS: REF: 35. ANS: REF: 36. ANS: REF:

E Page 82 C Page 77 B Page 79 A Page 79 D Page 76

PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:

1 DIF: Tissue repair 1 DIF: Epithelial tissue 1 DIF: Connective tissue 1 DIF: Connective tissue 1 DIF: Epithelial tissue

Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization

Match the type of epithelial tissue with its location.

A. skin D. trachea B. wall of the urinary bladder E. air sacs in lungs C. kidney tubules F. inner surface of the large intestine 37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

transitional simple cuboidal pseudostratified stratified squamous simple squamous simple columnar

37. ANS: B REF: Page 77 38. ANS: C REF: Page 77 39. ANS: D REF: Pages 76-77 40. ANS: A REF: Pages 74-75 41. ANS: E

PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS:

1 DIF: Epithelial tissue 1 DIF: Epithelial tissue 1 DIF: Epithelial tissue 1 DIF: Epithelial tissue 1 DIF:

Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization

REF: Page 74 TOP: Epithelial tissue 42. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: REF: Pages 75-76 TOP: Epithelial tissue

Memorization

Match the type of connective tissue with its location.

A. areolar C. hematopoietic tissue B. fibrous connective tissue 43. red marrow cavities of bones 44. most widely distributed 45. tendons 43. ANS: REF: 44. ANS: REF: 45. ANS: REF:

C Page 79 A Page 78 B Page 79

PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:

1 DIF: Connective tissue 1 DIF: Connective tissue 1 DIF: Connective tissue

Memorization Memorization Memorization

Match the term with its corresponding description.

A. regeneration D. chondrocyte B. keloid E. matrix C. glia 46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

intracellular material found between cells cartilage cell growth of new tissue thick scar that develops in lower layer of the skin supporting nervous tissue cell

46. ANS: REF: 47. ANS: REF: 48. ANS: REF: 49. ANS: REF: 50. ANS: REF:

E Page 77 D Page 79 A Page 82 B Page 82 C Page 82

PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:

1 DIF: Connective tissue 1 DIF: Connective tissue 1 DIF: Tissue repair 1 DIF: Tissue repair 1 DIF: Nervous tissue

Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization

Match the general tissue type with its corresponding description.

A. epithelial tissue C. muscle tissue B. connective tissue D. nervous tissue 51.

52.

53.

54.

high degree of contractibility exists in more varied forms than any of the other tissue types function is rapid communication covers the body and many of its parts

51. ANS: REF: 52. ANS: REF: 53. ANS: REF: 54. ANS: REF:

C Page 80 B Page 83 D Page 82 A Page 73

PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:

1 DIF: Muscle tissue 1 DIF: Connective tissue 1 DIF: Nervous tissue 1 DIF: Epithelial tissue

Memorization Memorization Memorization Memorization

Match the type of muscle tissue with its corresponding location.

A. skeletal muscle tissue C. cardiac muscle tissue B. smooth muscle tissue 55. heart 56. attached to bones 57. helps form the walls of blood vessels 55. ANS: REF: 56. ANS: REF: 57. ANS: REF:

C Page 81 A Page 80 B Page 81

PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:

1 DIF: Memorization Cardiac muscle tissue 1 DIF: Memorization Skeletal muscle tissue 1 DIF: Memorization Smooth muscle tissue

SHORT ANSWER 1. Name and describe the four types of tissues in the body. Give an example of each.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 TOP: Tissues

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 73

2. Describe how capable each tissue is in its ability to regenerate. Include an explanation of a keloid.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Tissue repair

Memorization

3. Differentiate among simple, stratified, and transitional epithelia.

ANS: Answers will vary.

REF: Pages 82-83

PTS:

1

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: Pages 74-77

TOP: Epithelial tissue

4. Explain why body composition is a good indicator of health and fitness.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis TOP: Health and well-being

REF: Page 82

5. Why is blood considered to be the most unusual type of connective tissue?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS:

1

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: Page 79

TOP: Blood tissue

6. Describe the three types of muscle tissue and give a location and function of each.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS:

1

DIF:

Application

REF: Pages 80-82

TOP: Muscle tissue

7. Briefly describe the connective tissue types and give their location in the body.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Connective tissue

Memorization

REF: Pages 78-80

8. Diana is 5 feet, 4 inches tall and weighs 125 pounds. She appears very healthy and fit, yet her doctor advised her that she is over-fat. What might be the explanation for this assessment?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis TOP: Health and well-being

REF: Page 82

9. List at least three functions of epithelial tissue.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS:

1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 73

TOP: Epithelial tissue 10. What are the three basic shapes of epithelial cells?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Epithelial tissue

Memorization

REF: Page 73

11. How do exocrine glands secrete their products?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Simple cuboidal epithelium

REF: Page 77

12. Name the two types of involuntary muscle tissue. Where is each found in the body?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Muscle tissue

Memorization

REF: Page 81

13. Classify epithelium according to the arrangement of the cells.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Epithelial tissue

Memorization

REF: Page 73

14. List the types of simple and stratified epithelium and give examples of each.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Epithelial tissue

Memorization

REF: Pages 74-77

15. Discuss the microscopic structure of bone tissue.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS:

1

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: Page 79

TOP: Bone tissue

16. Identify the two basic types of cells in nervous tissue.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Nervous tissue

Memorization

REF: Page 82

17. Summarize the structural characteristics of epithelial tissues that enable them to perform their specific functions.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS:

1

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: Pages 73-77

TOP: Epithelial tissue

18. Explain tissue typing and describe what occurs when a donated tissue is rejected.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Clinical application

Application

REF: Page 80

19. Explain the importance of measuring body composition.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Health and well-being

REF: Page 82

20. Many athletes work to reduce their body fat to the lowest possible percentage. What would happen if too little body fat were present?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis TOP: Health and well-being

REF: Page 82

21. Explain why epithelial and connective tissue have the greatest capacity to regenerate.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS:

1

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: Page 82

TOP: Tissue repair

22. Describe the different types of matrix found within connective tissue cells.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS:

1

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: Page 77

TOP: Connective tissue

Chapter 6: Integumentary System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The skin, as an organ, is also referred to as the A) B) C) D)

.

epidermis cutaneous membrane stratum corneum epithelium

2. The skin along with structures such as nails, hair, and sweat glands are part of the . a. b. c. d.

integumentary system dermis subcutaneous tissue exoskeleton

3. Injections that are administered into the tissues of the skin are called injections.

a. b. c. d.

subcutaneous intradermal intramuscular hypodermic

4. In the genetic disease called ichthyosis, the skin is rough, brown, and scaly because the uppermost layer cannot peel off as easily as it should. What layer of the skin is affected in this disorder? a. b. c. d.

Epidermis Basement membrane Dermis Subcutaneous layer

5.

What happens to keratinocytes as they are pushed from the deeper layers of the epidermis toward the surface? a. They continue to divide. b. They take on more pigment.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

1

c. d.

They die.

They become dermal cells.

6. What tissue type forms most of the dermis? a. b. c. d.

Stratified columnar epithelium Adipose tissue Stratified squamous epithelium Dense irregular connective tissue

7. Nerve fibers scattered throughout the dermis are associated with what structures? a. Hair, melanocytes, and keratinocytes b. Bone, tendons, and muscles c. Adipose and reticular tissue d. Muscles, glands, and sensory receptors 8. What are dermal papillae? a. b. c. d.

Bundles of dense connective tissue fibers.

Cluster of cells that produce hair.

Site where nails are anchored to fingers or toes.

Projections of dermal tissue between epidermal ridges.

9. The

is typically thicker than the

a. b. c. d.

.

stratum basale; stratum corneum papillary layer; reticular layer dermis; epidermis skin of the forearm; skin of the palm of the hand

10. Normally, melanin is confined to what area of the skin? a. b. c. d.

Epidermis Basement membrane Dermal papillae Stratum corneum

11. Consuming too many vegetables containing the pigment carotene can result in a tinge to the skin due to the deposit of the pigment in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. a. greenish b. yellowish c. bluish d. reddish 2 Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

12. Why does exposure to ultraviolet light darken the skin? a. b. c. d.

It stimulates the synthesis of melanin.

It stimulates the production of keratinocytes.

It stimulates the synthesis of keratin.

It stimulates proliferation of papillae.

13. What epidermal layer consists of a single layer of columnar cells that undergo mitosis? a. b. c. d.

Stratum corneum Stratum granulosum Stratum spinosum Stratum basale

14. What determines the color of skin? a. b. c. d.

The number of melanocytes in the epidermis.

The thickness of the epidermis.

The amount of melanin that melanocytes produce.

The density of hair.

15. The subcutaneous layer is comprised of what tissue type(s)? a. b. c. d.

Epithelial tissue Areolar and adipose tissue Epithelial tissueand areolar tissue Adipose tissue and skeletal muscle tissue

16. Blood vessels in the a. b. c. d.

supply epidermal cells with nutrients.

epidermis dermis stratum basale hair follicle

17. Skin cells play an important role in producing what vitamin? a. b. c. d.

Vitamin A Vitamin B Vitamin D Vitamin K

18. Which statement describes melanocytes in very dark skin?

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

3

a. b. c. d.

They are more abundant than they are in light skin.

They each contain one large pigment granule.

They lack pigment but shrivel up and turn black.

They contain numerous small pigment granules.

19. As keratinocytes age and are pushed further away from the dermis, they develop which help fasten the cells tightly together. This in turn helps the skin serve its protective function.

a. b. c. d.

melanin collagen keratin desmosomes

20. Epidermis is composed of a. b. c. d.

, whereas dermis is composed of

.

areolar tissue; columnar epithelial tissue dense irregular connective tissue; simple squamous epithelial tissue pseudostratified epithelial tissue; areolar tissue stratified squamous epithelial tissue; dense irregular connective tissue

21. What is the function of the dendritic cells of the epidermis? a. They are tough, waterproof cells that allow the skin to be a tough dry barrier. b. They serve as sensory receptors, detecting light touch. c. They produce a pigment that gives the skin its color and helps to protect DNA from UV radiation. d. They are phagocytic and help in triggering an immune response to any invading microbes.

22.

Granules called keratinocytes. a. proteosomes b. melanosomes c. melatonin vesicles d. transfer vesicles

serve to transfer pigment from melanocytes to nearby

23. What is the cause of cyanosis? a. b.

A buildup of cyanide in the skin Low blood oxygen levels

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

4

c. d.

Excess of carotene in the diet Excessive exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation

24.

Two thieves steal jewelry, and then drop it as they are escaping. The police recover the jewelry, and an officer explains on the evening news that fingerprints were obtained fromthe back of a watch. The thieves, whose prints are not on file, believe that they can escape prosecution by using acid to remove the epidermis on their fingerpads, so as not to be a match for the fingerprints on the watch. Why are they wrong? a. The prints are due to features of the subcutaneous layer, which are not destroyed. b. The prints are due to features ofthe dermis, which are not destroyed. c. The epidermis will rapidly regrow and re-form the ridges since they are genetically determined. d. The epidermis is too thick for the acid to completely remove the ridges.

25. The major blood vessels that supply the epidermis are in the a. b. c. d.

.

stratum basale basement membrane dermis stratum corneum

26.

You step out of the shower and vigorously rub your skin with a towel. If you were able to analyze the towel, you would find skin cells. They are most likely what type of cell?

a. b. c. d.

Melanocytes Dermal cells Keratinocytes Fibroblasts

27. What layer of the epidermis is absent from thin skin? a. b. c. d.

Stratum lucidum Stratum granulosum Stratum corneum Stratum basale

28.

Which is the most likely explanation for the defect in dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa, in which the skin develops blisters in response to any touch? a. b. c.

The skin has toomany melanocytes that produce too much melanin.

Melanocytes cannotproduce melanin.

Collagen fibers that attach the epidermis to the dermis break down.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

5

d.

The skin layers arereversed.

29. Water loss from the skin is minimal because of the structure of the a. b. c. d.

.

reticular layer of the dermis papillary layer of the dermis subcutaneous layer epidermis

30. What is the order of epidermal strata, from superficial to deep? a. b. c. d.

Corneum; lucidum; granulosum; spinosum; basale Basale; spinosum; granulosum; lucidum; corneum Corneum; granulosum; spinosum; lucidum; basale Basale; lucidum; spinosum; granulosum; corneum

31. What are corns? a. b. c. d.

Areas of white skin pigmentation Scaly areas on the scalp Keratinized conical masses Growths emanating from the nails

32. Name the tough fibrous protein that is responsible for the waterproof nature of skin. a. b. c. d.

Keratin Melanin Vitamin D Collagen

33. Structures within the skin, called accessory structures, originate from the

.

a. epidermis b. basement membrane c. dermis d. subcutaneous layer e.

34. What cell type produces the nail plates? a. b. c. d.

Cartilage cells (chondrocytes) Fibroblasts Melanocytes Specialized epithelial cells

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

6

35. The nail a. b. c. d.

overlies the nail

.

plate; bed plate; body matrix; bed bed; plate

36. What gives a nail its hardness? a. b. c. d.

Melanin Collagen Calcium Keratin

37. What forms the shafts of hair? a. b. c. d.

Live dermal cells Dead epidermal cells Live epidermal cells Dead dermal cells

38. Why might a pressure ulcer form? a. b. c. d.

An injury involving only the epidermis does not heal correctly.

Continual friction causes an overgrowth of epidermis.

Abrasions wear away the superficial layers of skin.

Loss of blood supply to the skin leads to necrosis of skin cells.

39. What is the source of stem cells within a hair follicle? a. Hair papilla b. Hair bulge c. Hair root d. Hair matrix e.

40.

After a severe burn, new skin may growoutward from the hair follicles. Why would new growth originate at the hair follicles? a. b. c. d.

Hair follicles are very resistant to fire and heat.

Abundant hair follicles are present on most body surfaces.

Hair follicles contain a region that gives rise to stem cells.

Hair follicles are located in the subcutaneous layer.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

7

41.

Blonde and red hair is due to the abundance of having more . a. keratin; melanin b. keratin; collagen c. pheomelanin; eumelanin d. promelanin; pseudomelanin

, whereas dark hair is due to

42. Arrector pili muscles are attached to what feature of the skin? a. Nail beds b. Sebaceous glands c. Stratum corneum d. Hair follicles e.

43. What is secreted by sebaceous glands? a. b. c. d.

Fat globules mixed with cellular debris Hormones Watery solution containing organic material Mucus

44. How might merocrine (eccrine) sweat glands be described? a. Most common in the armpits and groin b. Secrete in response to elevated body temperature c. Secrete in response to emotional stress d. Usually associated with hair follicles 45. Where are apocrine sweat glands most abundant? a. b. c. d.

On the forehead In the axillae At the back of the neck On the palms of the hands

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

8

46. How do merocrine (eccrine) sweat glands differ from sebaceous glands? layer.

A. Merocrine glands are in the dermis while sebaceous glands are in the subcutaneous B. Merocrine glands release their product onto the skin surface while sebaceous glands release their product into the blood.

C. Merocrine glands release a watery secretion while sebaceous glands release an oily secretion.

D. Merocrine glands are modified apocrine glands while sebaceous glands are modified ceruminous glands.

47. What type of glands secrete breast milk and ear wax? a. b. c. d.

Modified sebaceous glands Modified apocrine sweat glands Modified merocrine (eccrine) sweat glands Modified endocrine glands

48. What is the primary means of body heat loss? a. Conduction b. Convection c. Evaporation d. Radiation 49. What is a normal response to excessive loss of body heat in a cold environment? a. b. c. d.

Dermal blood vessels constrict.

Sweat glands become active.

Smooth muscles relax.

Dermal blood vessels dilate.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

9

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

50. The epidermal cells that have an immune function are the cells.

51. The deepest cells of the epidermis are those of the stratum 52. The pigment produced by melanocytes is 53. The 54.

The hair follicles.

.

.

of the subcutaneous layer acts as a heat insulator. sweat glands become active at puberty and possess ducts that open into

55.

Localized redness, swelling, warmth, and pain are indicators of response to injury.

, the normal

56.

Decreased hair growth, decreased number of sensory receptors in the skin, and inability to regulate body temperature are all signs of .

57.

A new acne medication works by significantly slowing down production of sebum. The structures targeted by this medication are the glands.

58.

While baking a pizza, Jack accidentally touches his arm against the top of the oven while trying to remove it. The area becomes very red, and shortly after the injury, a large blister forms.

While it is painful and warm, the burn isn’t dry or leathery and the skin isn’t blanched white or charred black. This is a type of burn called a burn.

59.

The process of

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

results in a dry, waterproof epidermis.

10

Chapter 6: Integumentary System Answer Section 1) B 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) C 6) D 7) D 8) D 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) A 13) D 14) C 15) B 16) B 17) C 18) B 19) D 20) D 21) D 22) B 23) B 24) B 25) C 26) C 27) A 28) C 29) D 30) A 31) C 32) A 33) A 34) D 35) A 36) D 37) B Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING 11

38) 39) 40) 41) 42) 43) 44) 45) 46) 47) 48) 49) 50) 51) 52) 53) 54) 55) 56) 57) 58) 59)

D B C C D A B B C B D A Dendritic Basale Melanin Adipose tissue Apocrine Inflammation Aging Sebaceous Deep partial thickness Keratinization

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 DIF: E REF: 6 KEY: REMEMBERING

12

Chapter 7: Bones & Bone Tissue MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which classification of bone protects organs or provides a large surface area for the attachment of muscles? a. Long bones b. Short bones c. Flat bones d. Irregular bones ANS: C Flat bones are thin, flat, often curved bones that protect organs. Others provide a large surface area for the attachment of muscles. Long bones have a long axis and work like levers to move limbs. Short bones tend to be shaped like cubes. Irregular bones are clustered in groups and come in various sizes and shapes.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 84

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

2. The central, shaftlike portion of a long bone is called the a. epiphysis. b. diaphysis. c. endosteum. d. periosteum.

ANS: B The central, shaftlike portion of a long bone is the diaphysis. The epiphysis is the head at each end of a long bone. The endosteum is a membrane that lines the medullary cavity. The periosteum is the fibrous membrane that covers the diaphysis.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 85

KEY: REMEMBERING

3. Which substance covers the surface of the epiphysis of a long bone? a. Red bone marrow b. Trabeculae c. Fibrocartilage d. Articular cartilage ANS: D A thin layer of hyaline cartilage called articular cartilage covers the surface of the epiphysis. Red bone marrow fills the medullary cavity of long bones in children. Trabeculae is the latticework of osseous tissue that makes up spongy bone; it is found in the ends of long bones. Fibrocartilage is a type of flexible cartilage found between vertebrae and in some joints; it does not cover the surface of the epiphysis of a long bone.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 85

KEY: REMEMBERING

4. Which statement correctly describes the periosteum? a. The periosteum secretes a lubricating fluid that eases bone movement. b. The periosteum contains blood vessels, making it crucial to bone survival. c. The periosteum contains bone-forming cells. d. The periosteum contains fibers that combine with the fibers of tendons. e. A, C and D

f.

B, C, and D

ANS: F Articular cartilage, which covers the epiphysis of long bones, secretes a lubricating fluid. The periosteum does not. The other statements correctly describe attributes of the periosteum.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 85

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

5. The medullary cavity in most adults is filled with a. red bone marrow. b. yellow bone marrow. c. spongy bone. d. the endosteum.

ANS: B The medullary cavity is filled with red bone marrow in children, but by adulthood, most of the marrow has turned into yellow marrow. The epiphysis is made of spongy bone. The endosteum is a thin, epithelial membrane that lines the medullary cavity.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 85

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

6. Which type of bone cell helps form bone, specifically the bone’s matrix? a. Osteoclasts b. Osteoblasts c. Osteocytes d. Fibroblasts ANS: B Osteoblasts help form bone, especially the cells of the bone’s matrix. Osteoclasts dissolve unwanted bone. Osteocytes are mature osteoblasts. Fibroblasts synthesize extracellular matrix and collagen.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 85

KEY: REMEMBERING

7. Which type of cell assists with the regulation of blood levels of calcium and phosphate? a. Osteoblasts b. Osteoclasts c. Osteocytes d. Fibroblasts ANS: C Osteocytes dissolve bone and also deposit new bone; in doing so, they assist with the regulation of blood levels of calcium and phosphate. None of the other cells assists with this process.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 86

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

8. What makes a bone unique from other connective tissue? a. Its strength b. Its matrix c. Its hardness d. Its density ANS: B Bone is unique from other connective tissues because of its matrix. The matrix gives bone its strength, hardness, and density.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 86

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

9. What makes bone unique from other connective tissue? a. It is nonliving tissue. b. Its matrix is hard and calcified. c. It doesn’t contain blood vessels. d. It is self-contained and doesn’t interact with other body systems.

ANS: B Bone is unique from other living tissue due to its matrix, which is hard and calcified. It is dynamic living tissue that contains a rich supply of blood vessels. Its interaction with other body systems is crucial for life.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 86

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

10. Calcium salts give bone its a. tensile strength. b. torsional strength. c. flexibility. d. compressional strength.

ANS: D Calcium salts allow bones to resist strong squeezing, forces called compressional strength. Its tensile strength comes from collagen fibers. Bone does not have much flexibility or torsional strength.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 86

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

11. Which of the following typically occurs when bones experience an increase in load? a. Osteocytes become more active dissolving unhealthy bone. b. Bone fibers become more compact, increasing tensile strength c. Osteocytes become more active creating new bone. d. The deposition of calcium salts increases, which increases compressional strength.

ANS: C When bone experiences an increase in load, osteocytes respond by creating new bone. None of the other answers is correct.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 86

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

12. Trabeculae are arranged in such a way so as to a. lighten bone. b. strengthen bone. c. allow space for bone marrow. d. increase tensile strength.

ANS: B Trabeculae are arranged along the lines of greatest stress so as to offer maximum strength. Their purpose is not to lighten bone or increase tensile strength. Red bone marrow fills the cavities between trabeculae, but this is not the primary reason for the arrangement of trabeculae.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

13. The basic structural unit of compact bone is a. a lacunae. b. an osteon.

REF: 86

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

c. a canaliculi. d. a lamellae.

ANS: B The basic structural unit of compact bone is the osteon. The osteon consists of concentric rings of matrix called lamellae; the lacunae are tiny gaps between rings of the lamellae. Canaliculi are microscopic passageways that connect the lamellae to each other.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 86

KEY: REMEMBERING

14. The passageways that carry blood and nutrients from the bone’s exterior to the osteocytes are a. canaliculi. b. Volkmann’s canals. c. haversian canals. d. central canals.

ANS: B The Volkmann’s canals connect the haversian canals, and carry blood and nutrients to the osteocytes in the bone’s interior. Canaliculi are microscopic passageways that connect the lamellae. There is nothing termed a “central canal” in bone.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 86

KEY: REMEMBERING

15. In a developing fetus, the bones of the skull and face begin as a. fibrous connective tissue. b. cartilage. c. bone. d. elastic connective tissue.

ANS: A The bones of the skull and face start out as fibrous connective tissue. None of the other answers is correct.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 88

KEY: REMEMBERING

16. In a developing fetus, most bones begin as a. fibrous connective tissue. b. cartilage. c. bone. d. elastic connective tissue.

ANS: B Most bones in a developing fetus evolve from cartilage.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 89

KEY: REMEMBERING

17. Which statement about red bone marrow is true? a. It fills nearly all of a child’s bones. b. It produces white blood cells. c. It fills the medullary cavities of the femurs and humerus in adults. d. It has the potential to change into yellow marrow. ANS: A

Nearly all a child’s bones contain red marrow. Over time, red marrow is replaced by fatty yellow marrow. Red marrow produces red blood cells. In adults, red marrow can be found only in the ribs, sternum, vertebrae, skull, pelvis, and upper parts of both the humerus and femur. Yellow marrow has the potential to turn into red marrow, not vice versa.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 88

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

18. The process of endochondral ossification begins in a. the skull. b. long bones. c. short bones. d. the pelvis.

ANS: B Endochondral ossification begins in the long bones.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 89

KEY: REMEMBERING

19. In the fetus, bone matrix is formed by a. osteoblasts. b. osteocytes. c. osteoclasts. d. fibroblasts.

ANS: A Endochondral ossification begins as osteoblasts start to replace chondrocytes.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 89

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

20. Bone formation begins at about a. 6 months’ gestation. b. 4 months’ gestation. c. 1 months’ gestation. d. 3 months’ gestation.

ANS: D Endochondral ossification begins at about 3 months’ gestation.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 89

KEY: REMEMBERING

21. When does the skull become completely ossified? a. At birth b. Three months of age c. Six months of age d. Two years of age ANS: D The skull is completely ossified by age 2. Before that, part of the skull still contains areas of fibrous connective tissue, called fontanels or “soft spots.”

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 88

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

22. Which statement about endochondral ossification is correct? a. A primary ossification center develops in each epiphysis, and ossification proceeds from epiphysis towards the diaphysis.

b. A primary ossification center develops in the middle of the diaphysis, and ossification proceeds from the diaphysis towards each epiphysis. c. A primary ossification center develops on the surface of the cartilage as chondrocytes turn into osteoblasts. d. Multiple ossification centers fill the bone marrow cavity, and ossification radiates from the interior of the bone toward the surface.

ANS: B A primary ossification center develops in the middle of the diaphysis, and ossification proceeds from the diaphysis toward each epiphysis. None of the other answers is correct.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 89

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

23. Which statement about the epiphyseal plate is correct? a. It appears when bone growth stops. b. It consists of a layer of hyaline cartilage and is the site of bone lengthening. c. It consists of a layer of spongy bone and is the site of bone widening. d. It appears after a fracture and is a form of scar tissue.

ANS: B The epiphyseal plate is a layer of hyaline cartilage at the end of each bone and is the site of bone lengthening. Sometime between the ages of 16 and 25, all of the cartilage of the epiphyseal plate is replaced with spongy bone, at which point bone lengthening stops and the epiphyseal plate “closes.”

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 89

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

24. Bone lengthening stops when a. all of the cartilage of the epiphyseal plate calcifies. b. the primary ossification centers cease to function. c. chondrocytes are no longer produced in the epiphyseal plate. d. osteoblasts are no longer produced in the epiphyseal plate.

ANS: C Bone lengthening stops when chondrocytes are no longer produced in the epiphyseal plate. At that point, the epiphyseal plate is replaced with spongy bone. The primary ossification centers are only functional in utero and do not contribute to bone lengthening after birth. Osteoblasts are not involved in bone lengthening at the epiphyseal plate.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 89

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

25. How does physical exercise affect bone? a. It stimulates the activity of osteoclasts and therefore accelerates bone resorption. b. It causes bone density to increase because bone adapts to withstand physical stress. c. It accelerates the release of calcium into the blood, which boosts serum calcium levels. d. It has no effect on bone.

ANS: B Bone adapts to withstand physical stress; therefore, it’s possible to increase bone density through physical exercise.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 86

26. Which type of fracture is most likely to occur in a car accident? a. Pathologic fracture b. Greenstick fracture

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

c. Spiral fracture d. Comminuted fracture ANS: D A comminuted fracture is one in which the bone is broken into pieces; this is most likely to occur in a car accident. A pathologic fracture is a break in a diseased or weakened bone. A greenstick fracture is one in which the fracture is incomplete. A spiral fracture is the result of a twisting force.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 91

KEY: APPLYING

27. Which of the following fractures is most likely to occur in young children and why? a. Children are more likely to have compound fractures because the tissue surrounding the bones is less dense than the tissue in adults. b. Children are more likely to have greenstick fractures because their bones contain more collagen than adult bones. c. Children are more likely to have comminuted fractures because rapid growth during childhood makes bones brittle. d. Children are more likely to have spiral fractures because the matrix is uneven.

ANS: B A greenstick fracture typically occurs in young children because their bones contain more collagen than adult bones do, causing the bone to splinter rather than break completely. None of the other answers is correct.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 91

KEY: ANALYZING

28. Uncomplicated fractures heal in a. 4 to 6 weeks. b. 8 to 12 weeks. c. 12 to 14 weeks. d. 6 months.

ANS: B Uncomplicated fractures heal in 8 to 12 weeks.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 92

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

COMPLETION 29. The epiphysis of a long bone is made of

bone.

ANS: spongy PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 85

30. The diaphysis of a long bone is made of

KEY: REMEMBERING bone.

ANS: compact PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 85

31. In growing children, a layer of cartilage called the from the diaphysis.

KEY: REMEMBERING separates the epiphysis

ANS: epiphyseal plate PTS: 1

DIF:

E

32. Bone is also called

REF: 85

KEY: REMEMBERING

tissue.

ANS: osseous PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 86

KEY: REMEMBERING

33. Mature osteoblasts that have become entrapped in the hardened bone matrix are called .

ANS: osteocytes PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 86

KEY: REMEMBERING

34. Spongy bone consists of a latticework of bone called

.

ANS: trabeculae PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 87

KEY: REMEMBERING

35. The infant’s skull contains areas of fibrous connective tissue called

.

ANS: fontanels PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 88

36. The process of destroying old bone is called

KEY: REMEMBERING .

ANS: resorption PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 90

KEY: REMEMBERING

37. The condition in which bones lose so much mass they become extremely brittle is called .

ANS: osteoporosis PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 90

KEY: REMEMBERING

38. The process that repairs minor traumas in bone and contributes to homeostasis by releasing calcium into the blood is called .

ANS: bone remodeling (remodeling) remodeling (bone remodeling) bone remodeling remodeling PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 90

39. A fracture in which the bone has pierced the skin is called a

KEY: REMEMBERING fracture.

ANS: compound PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 90

KEY: REMEMBERING

40. A fracture in a diseased or weakened bone, usually the result of a force that would not fracture a healthy bone, is called a fracture.

ANS: pathologic PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 91

KEY: REMEMBERING

Chapter 9: Skeletal System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The humerus a. is located in the arm. b. is distal to the radius and ulna. c. articulates with the clavicle at the acromioclavicular joint. d. is a bone of the axial skeleton.

ANS: A 2. The humerus a. contains the olecranon process. b. articulates distally with the ulna. c. forms a ball-and-socket joint where the olecranon process articulates with the

olecranon fossa. d. articulates with the scapula at the sternomanubrial joint.

ANS: B 3. The maxilla a. is the cheekbone. b. is a cranial bone. c. contains the upper teeth. d. articulates with the temporal bone at the TMJ. ANS: C 4. Which bone is found in the skull but not in the cranium? a. Occipital b. Parietal c. Sphenoid d. Mandible ANS: D 5. Which bone is found in the skull but is not a facial bone? a. Mandible b. Maxilla c. Occipital d. Zygomatic ANS: C 6. The zygomatic bone a. is a cranial bone. b. articulates with the mandible. c. holds the upper teeth. d. is called the cheekbone.

ANS: D 7. Which of the following is most descriptive of the atlas and the axis? a. Carpal b. Vertebral c. Coxal d. Cranial ANS: B 8. The occipital bone a. is a facial bone. b. contains the foramen magnum. c. is the cheekbone. d. articulates with the frontal bone at the coronal suture.

ANS: B 9. Which of the following word(s) is (are) related to the ribs? a. Acetabulum b. True, false, and floating c. Supination and pronation d. Fontanels ANS: B 10. Fontanels a. are present in fetal and infant skulls. b. allow expansion of the infant skull during growth. c. eventually fuse or seal. d. involve all of the above.

ANS: D 11. Which bone is described by the following: leg, shin, and medial malleolus? a. Fibula b. Tibia c. Talus d. Femur ANS: B 12. Which bone is distal to the acetabulum and proximal to the patella? a. Femur b. Tibia c. Fibula d. Calcaneus ANS: A 13. Which bone is distal to the femur and proximal to the tibia? a. Fibula

b. Patella c. Talus d. Coxal bone ANS: B 14. Which bone is formed by the ischium, ilium, and pubis? a. Sacrum b. Cranium c. Coxal bone d. Breastbone ANS: C 15. Which of the following is not a bone of the vertebral column? a. Atlas b. Sacrum c. Coccyx d. Coxal bone ANS: D 16. Which bones form the palm of the hand? a. Tarsals b. Phalanges c. Metacarpals d. Metatarsals ANS: C 17. Which bones are distal to the radius and ulna and proximal to the metacarpals? a. Pollux b. Carpals c. Tarsals d. Hallux ANS: B 18. The humerus is a a. bone of the axial skeleton. b. short bone. c. bone of the upper limbs. d. bone found only in the fetal skeleton.

ANS: C 19. Which of the following is located at the ends of a long bone? a. Diaphysis b. Periosteum c. Epiphysis d. Medullary cavity ANS: C

20. Cancellous refers to a(n) a. irregular bone. b. cartilage. c. spongy bone. d. osteon.

ANS: C 21. Which structure is the site of attachment for tendons? a. Endosteum b. Articular cartilage c. Periosteum d. Osteon ANS: C 22. Osteons are found primarily a. within the medullary cavity. b. in the diaphysis. c. on the outer surface of the articular cartilage. d. within the epiphyseal disc.

ANS: B 23. The palatine process of this facial bone forms which anterior part of the hard palate? a. Mandible b. Zygomatic c. Maxilla d. Sphenoid ANS: C 24. The coronal suture forms an immovable joint between the parietal bones and which bone? a. Occipital b. Frontal c. Temporal d. Sphenoid ANS: B 25. A foramen and meatus are a. short bones. b. curvatures. c. openings. d. joints.

ANS: C 26. Which structure refers to the shaft of a long bone? a. Diaphysis b. Epiphysis c. Periosteum

d. Bursa ANS: A 27. Which word(s) best reflect(s) the function of the epiphyseal disc? a. Blood cell formation b. Phagocytosis c. Secretion of synovial fluid d. Longitudinal growth ANS: D 28. Which of the following bones is not located in the lower limbs? a. Femur b. Tibia c. Ulna d. Tarsal ANS: C 29. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal refer to a. vertebrae. b. long bones. c. spinal curves. d. phalanges.

ANS: A 30. At which joint do the humerus and ulna meet? a. Hip b. Elbow c. Knee d. Wrist ANS: B 31. At which joint do the femur and tibia meet? a. Hip b. Knee c. Ankle d. Elbow ANS: B 32. At which joint do the femur and tibia meet? a. Tibiofemoral b. Proximal tibiofibular c. Distal tibiofibular d. Sacroiliac ANS: A 33. At which joint do the femur and coxal bone meet?

a. b. c. d.

Hip Knee Ankle Wrist

ANS: A 34. At which joint do the scapula and humerus meet? a. Hip b. Wrist c. Shoulder d. Elbow ANS: C 35. At which joint do the scapula and arm bone meet? a. Humeroulnar b. Radiocarpal c. Glenohumeral d. Sternoclavicular ANS: C 36. Injury to the epiphyseal disc of the tibia may a. stunt the growth of the injured leg. b. stimulate the bone to become cancerous. c. inhibit blood cell formation. d. cause arthritis.

ANS: A 37. Which bone structure is most concerned with hemopoiesis? a. Diaphysis b. Bone marrow c. Articular cartilage d. Epiphyseal disc ANS: B 38. Which of the following refers to an exaggerated thoracic curvature of the spine (hunchback)? a. Kyphosis b. Rickets c. Scoliosis d. Lordosis ANS: A 39. What is the outer lining of connective tissue that surrounds the diaphysis of a long bone and

contains the blood vessels that supply the bone?

Periosteum Endosteum Osteon Articular cartilage

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 40. The acetabulum a. receives the head of the femur. b. is the crest part of the iliac crest. c. is located anterior to the symphysis pubis. d. is a depression in the scapula.

ANS: A 41. Myelosuppression affects which structure? a. Articular cartilage b. Bone marrow c. Haversian system d. Epiphyseal disc ANS: B 42. The olecranon process is most associated with which joint? a. Hip b. Elbow c. Wrist d. Ball-and-socket joint ANS: B 43. The olecranon process is most associated with which joint? a. Glenohumeral b. Humeroulnar c. Radiocarpal d. Acromioclavicular ANS: B 44. Which of the following is a hinge joint? a. Sternomanubrial b. Metacarpophalangeal joint c. Coronal suture d. Anterior fontanel ANS: B 45. The ischial tuberosity a. is a part of the femur. b. is the part of the coxal bone upon which you sit. c. articulates with the head of the femur at the acetabulum. d. articulates with the head of the humerus at the glenoid cavity.

ANS: B 46. The obturator foramen is the a. large foramen in the coxal bone.

b. opening through which the medulla oblongata descends as the spinal cord. c. meeting place of the ilium, ischium, and pubis. d. space between the two iliac crests.

ANS: A 47. Which structure includes the calcaneus? a. Kneecap b. Wrist c. Heel d. Groin ANS: C 48. What group of bones includes the calcaneus? a. Metatarsals b. Tarsals c. Phalanges d. Carpals ANS: B 49. The greater and lesser trochanters are located on which bone? a. Tibia b. Fibula c. Coccyx d. Femur ANS: D 50. What is the type of projection that articulates with the glenoid cavity? a. Crest b. Trochanter c. Spine d. Head ANS: D 51. What is the term that refers to the replacement of cartilage by bone? a. Osteoporosis b. Osteomalacia c. Ossification d. Myelosuppression ANS: C 52. The ilium, ischium, and pubis a. are part of the appendicular skeleton. b. are processes located on the femur. c. are muscles that attach to the femur. d. form the coxal bone.

ANS: D

53. The lambdoidal suture in the skull is a(n) a. synovial b. hinge c. freely movable d. immovable

joint.

ANS: D 54. What is the classification of the intervertebral discs and the symphysis pubis? a. Fused b. Suture c. Immovable d. Slightly movable ANS: D 55. A synovial joint is a. freely movable. b. a suture. c. found only in the lower extremities. d. found only within the vertebral column and at the symphysis pubis.

ANS: A 56. What is the name of the “soft spots” in a baby’s skull? a. Sinuses b. Fontanels c. Synovial joints d. Sutures ANS: B 57. The diaphysis is the a. site of blood cell formation. b. growth plate. c. bone structure that is covered by articular cartilage. d. shaft of a long bone.

ANS: D 58. Which group is incorrect? a. Abnormal curvatures of the spine: scoliosis, kyphosis, lordosis b. Types of ribs: true, false, floating c. Bones of the upper extremities: humerus, radius, ulna d. Bones of the lower extremities: femur, tibia, clavicle ANS: D 59. Which group is incorrect? a. Spinal curvatures: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral b. Abnormal curvatures of the spine: scoliosis, kyphosis, lordosis c. Types of ribs: true, false, floating

d. Types of freely movable joints: hinge, ball-and-socket, and suture ANS: D 60. Which group is incorrect? a. Types of bones: long, short, flat, irregular b. Long bones: humerus, femur, tibia, parietal c. Bones of the skull: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital d. Abnormal curvatures of the spine: scoliosis, kyphosis, lordosis ANS: B 61. Which group is incorrect? a. Sinuses: frontal, maxillary, sphenoidal, ethmoidal b. Spinal curvatures: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral c. Bones of the lower extremities: femur, tibia, fibula d. Bones of the vertebral column: atlas, axis, coxal bone ANS: D 62. Which group is incorrect? a. Sinuses: frontal, maxillary, sphenoidal, ethmoidal b. Abnormal curvatures of the spine: scoliosis, kyphosis, lordosis c. Types of freely movable joints: hinge and ball-and-socket d. Types of movement: flexion, pronation, abduction, ossification ANS: D 63. Osteoclastic activity a. builds bone. b. raises blood calcium levels. c. secretes synovial fluid into joints. d. regulates the production of blood cells.

ANS: B 64. To measure the length of the humerus, you would measure from the a. olecranon process to the styloid process of the radius. b. acromion to the olecranon process. c. suprasternal notch to the xiphoid process. d. greater trochanter to the medial malleolus.

ANS: B 65. To measure the length of the breastbone, you would measure from the a. olecranon process to the styloid process of the radius. b. acromion to the olecranon process. c. suprasternal notch to the xiphoid process. d. greater trochanter to the medial malleolus.

ANS: C 66. The olecranon process articulates with the humerus to form a (the)

a. b. c. d.

ball-and-socket joint. shoulder joint. carpal tunnel. elbow.

ANS: D 67. Estrogen, progesterone, and growth hormone a. fuse the epiphyseal disc at age 6 years. b. stimulate the articular cartilage of one bone to fuse with the articular cartilage of an

opposing bone. c. affect the activity of the epiphyseal disc. d. stimulate osteoclastic activity, thereby increasing blood calcium.

ANS: C 68. The haversian system (osteon) is a. the cylindrical arrangement of dense bone. b. found only in cancellous bone. c. the red bone marrow. d. the connective tissue that surrounds a long bone.

ANS: A 69. Which of the following is not associated with the femur? a. Acetabulum b. Vertebra prominens c. Tibia d. Coxal bone ANS: B 70. The tibia a. articulates with the femur and the proximal and distal fibulae. b. is part of the axial skeleton. c. is the thin outer (lateral) bone of the leg. d. articulates with the acetabulum.

ANS: A 71. The mandible a. is the upper jaw bone. b. fuses to form the hard palate. c. articulates with the temporal bone. d. is part of the cranium.

ANS: C 72. Which of the following joints can engage in flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, and

circumduction? a. Glenohumeral b. TMJ c. Lambdoidal suture

d. Tibiofemoral ANS: A 73. The lateral and medial malleoli a. are located on the proximal tibia. b. are located on the distal fibula. c. articulate with the calcaneus. d. are associated with the ankles.

ANS: D 74. The sternomanubrial joint a. moves the clavicle. b. is a ball-and-socket joint. c. is located at the level of the second rib. d. is also called the jugular notch.

ANS: C 75. The diaphysis is a. composed primarily of compact bone. b. the growth plate. c. referred to as melogenous tissue. d. the inner lining of the medullary cavity.

ANS: A 76. The periosteum a. is tough connective tissue. b. is the outer lining of a long bone. c. provides a site of attachment for tendons. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 77. The carpals a. are short bones. b. articulate with the radius and ulna. c. are wrist bones. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 78. Which of the following is not a long bone or a long bone marking? a. Radius b. Femur c. Greater trochanter d. Suture ANS: D 79. Which of the following is not associated with the glenohumeral joint?

a. b. c. d.

Ball and socket Shoulder Olecranon process Freely movable

ANS: C 80. The type of joint movement at the humeroulnar joint is most similar to the movement at the a. b. c. d.

joint. proximal radioulnar distal tibiofibular glenohumeral tibiofemoral

ANS: D 81. Which bones form the elbow? a. Distal humerus, scapula b. Distal ulna, carpals c. Proximal humerus, distal ulna d. Distal humerus, proximal ulna ANS: D 82. With which of the following is the patella least associated? a. Tibiofemoral joint b. Proximal tibia c. Acetabulum d. Distal femur ANS: C 83. The lateral malleolus a. articulates with the proximal tibia. b. articulates with the medial malleolus. c. is a process on the distal tibia. d. is a process on the distal fibula.

ANS: D 84. The acetabulum a. receives the greater trochanter of the femur to form a ball-and-socket joint. b. is part of the femur. c. is formed by the ilium, ischium, and pubis. d. articulates with the sacrum.

ANS: B 85. What is true of all these joints: tibiofemoral, hip, glenohumeral, and humeroulnar? They are

all a. freely movable. b. ball and socket. c. restricted to the axial skeleton.

d. restricted to the upper extremities.

ANS: A 86. Which of the following bones articulate at a suture? a. Occipital and atlas b. Temporal and mandible c. Frontal and parietal d. Atlas and axis ANS: C 87. C1 to C7 refer to a. vertebrae. b. true ribs. c. false ribs. d. intervertebral discs.

ANS: A 88. Which of the following is true of the sternum? a. Composed of the manubrium, body, and xiphoid process b. Articulates with floating ribs c. Is part of the appendicular skeleton d. Articulates with the scapulae ANS: A 89. The vertebrae prominens a. is the space between L3 and L4 where a lumbar puncture is normally performed. b. refers to C1 and C2, the atlas and axis. c. is a fontanel. d. is C7.

ANS: D 90. Fontanels are a. paranasal sinuses. b. bone marrow structures that produce blood cells. c. composed entirely of compact bone. d. areas found in the infant skull that are not ossified.

ANS: D 91. There is no intervertebral cartilage between a. T12 and L1. b. L3 and L4. c. C7 and T1. d. atlas and axis.

ANS: D 92. Which of the following is least true of the occipital bone?

a. b. c. d.

Contains condyles that articulate with C1 Contains the mastoid process and the external auditory meatus Contains the foramen magnum Is a cranial bone

ANS: B 93. Measurement from the acromion to the olecranon process determines a. leg length. b. chest diameter. c. arm length. d. length of the forearm.

ANS: C 94. Which of the following is not part of the thoracic cage? a. True ribs b. Sternum c. Thoracic vertebrae d. Coxal bones ANS: D 95. The carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges a. are part of the axial skeleton. b. are facial bones. c. form the hand. d. include the hallux.

ANS: C 96. Which of the following is most descriptive of the calcaneus? a. Pollex b. Phalange c. Hand d. Tarsal bone ANS: D 97. The symphysis pubis is a slightly movable joint associated with the a. coxal bones. b. femur. c. sacrum. d. ischial tuberosity.

ANS: A 98. What’s it called: The person moves his left thigh away from the midline of the body? a. Abduction b. Flexion c. Plantar flexion d. Inversion

ANS: A 99. Which of the following is least true of the knee? a. Is a synovial joint that can normally be flexed, extended, and abducted b. Contains bursae, ligaments, and cartilage c. Is a hinge joint d. Is called the tibiofemoral joint ANS: A 100. Which of the following describes both the hallux and pollex? a. Hand b. Metacarpal c. Phalanges d. Ball and socket ANS: C 101. Which of the following is least true of the mandible? a. Is the lower jaw b. Forms the TMJ c. Articulates with the occipital bone d. Site of attachment for the muscles of mastication ANS: C 102. Osteoclastic activity a. breaks down bone. b. decreases blood calcium. c. strengthens bones. d. is restricted to the epiphyseal disc.

ANS: A 103. Which of the following is not true of the sphenoid bone? a. Contains the sella turcica, seat of the pituitary gland b. Forms the floor of the cranium c. Forms part of the eye socket d. Contains the foramen magnum ANS: D 104. The iliac crest a. has a good supply of bone marrow. b. is a fused vertebra. c. articulates with the sacrum. d. is also called the symphysis pubis.

ANS: A 105. Which of the following is true of the following terms: osteoblast, osteoclast, osteocyte, and

osseous tissue? a. All are immature bone cells

b. All increase blood calcium c. All refer to bone d. All refer to abnormal bone conditions ANS: C 106. What do the following terms have in common: arthrosis, arthroplasty, and arthritis? All a. are orthopedic surgical procedures. b. refer to joints. c. are inflammatory joint diseases. d. are malignant bone diseases.

ANS: B

Chapter 9: Joints MATCHING Match each term with its description. a. flexion b. extension c. hyperextension d. dorsiflexion e. plantar flexion f. abduction g. adduction h. circumduction 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

i. internal rotation j. external rotation k. supination l. pronation m. protraction n. retraction o. inversion p. eversion

Involves moving the toes or foot upward Involves bending a joint so as to decrease the angle of the joint Occurs when a bone spins toward the body’s midline The movement of a body part away from the midline of the body Moving the distal end of an appendage in a circle Straightening a joint so as to increase the angle between the bones Involves moving the toes or foot downward Movement that turns the palm upward Foot movement that turns the sole laterally, away from the other foot Moves a part forward Movement that turns the palms downward The movement of a body part toward the midline of the body The extreme extension of a joint beyond its normally straight position Foot movement that turns the sole medially, toward the other foot

1. ANS: D PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 2. ANS: A PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 3. ANS: I PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 4. ANS: F PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 5. ANS: H PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 6. ANS: B PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 7. ANS: E PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 8. ANS: K PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 9. ANS: P PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 10. ANS: M PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 11. ANS: L PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING

1

DIF: E

REF: 122

1

DIF: E

REF: 122

1

DIF: E

REF: 123

1

DIF: E

REF: 122

1

DIF: E

REF: 123

1

DIF: E

REF: 122

1

DIF: E

REF: 122

1

DIF: E

REF: 123

1

DIF: E

REF: 123

1

DIF: E

REF: 123

1

DIF: E

REF: 123

12. ANS: G PTS: 1 KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 1 13. ANS: C KEY: REMEMBERING 14. ANS: O PTS: 1 KEY: REMEMBERING

DIF: E

REF: 122

DIF: E

REF: 122

DIF: E

REF: 123

Match each joint type with an example of where it can be found in the body. a. pivot joint d. ball-and-socket joint b. hinge joint e. condyloid joint c. gliding joint f. saddle joint 15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

Elbow Joint formed by the first and second cervical vertebrae Thumb Distal end of the radius with the carpal bones of the wrist Tarsal bones of the ankle

15. ANS: B PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 16. ANS: A KEY: REMEMBERING 17. ANS: F PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 18. ANS: E KEY: REMEMBERING 19. ANS: C PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING

1

DIF: E

REF: 121

1

DIF: E

REF: 121

1

DIF: E

REF: 121

1

DIF: E

REF: 121

1

DIF: E

REF: 121

MULTIPLE CHOICE 20. In which type of joint are two bones joined by cartilage? a. Amphiarthroses b. Diarthroses c. Synovial joint d. Synarthroses ANS: A Amphiarthroses, which are also called cartilaginous joints, are two bones joined by cartilage.

Diarthroses and synovial joints describe the same type of freely movable joint. Synarthroses are fixed joints in which bones are joined by collagen fibers.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 119

KEY: REMEMBERING

21. Which type of joints are the suture joints in the skull? a. Cartilaginous joints b. Fibrous joints c. Diarthroses d. Amphiarthroses ANS: B An adult skull’s suture joints are fibrous joints. Cartilaginous joints are also called amphiarthroses.

Diarthroses are freely movable synovial joints.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 119

KEY: REMEMBERING

22. The most numerous and versatile of all the body’s joints are a. cartilaginous joints. b. fibrous joints. c. synarthroses. d. synovial joints.

ANS: D Synovial joints are the most numerous and versatile of all the body’s joints. Cartilaginous joints are only slightly movable. Fibrous joints, which are also called synarthroses, are fixed joints.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 120

KEY: REMEMBERING

23. What is the sheet of connective tissue that encloses the joint cavity of synovial joints called? a. Synovial membrane b. Bursae c. Joint capsule d. Synovial capsule ANS: C The joint capsule extends from the periosteum of each articulating bone and encloses the joint cavity.

The synovial membrane lines the inside of the joint capsule. Bursae are synovial sacs filled with fluid.

There is no such thing as a synovial capsule.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 120

KEY: REMEMBERING

24. Which features of synovial joints are credited with providing friction-free movement? a. Joint capsule and ligaments b. Synovial membrane and ligaments c. Synovial membrane and articular cartilage d. Articular cartilage and bursae ANS: C The synovial membrane secretes synovial fluid, a slippery, viscous fluid that lubricates the joint.

Articular cartilage covers bony surfaces. It’s the combination of synovial fluid and articular cartilage that allow friction-free movement. Ligaments help bind bones more firmly together. Bursae ease friction where muscles and tendons pass over bone.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 120

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

25. Which of the following is true of synovial fluid? a. It is secreted by articular cartilage. b. It fills the joint capsule c. It contains phagocytes. d. Its appearance within a joint signifies an inflammatory process.

ANS: C Synovial fluid contains phagocytes to remove debris. It is secreted by the synovial membrane; it exists within the joint cavity, not the joint capsule; it occurs normally and does not signify an inflammatory process.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 120

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

26. Which are the least mobile of all synovial joints? a. Pivot joints b. Saddle joints c. Condyloid joints d. Gliding joints ANS: D Surrounding ligaments limit the movement in gliding joints, making them the least mobile of all synovial joints.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 121

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

27. Which type of synovial joint offers the widest range of movement? a. Pivot joints b. Hinge joints c. Ball-and-socket joints d. Condyloid joints ANS: C Ball-and-socket joints offer the widest range of motion. Pivot joints allow the bones to rotate. Hinge joints allow only back-and-forth movements. Condyloid joints are the least mobile, allowing only limited sliding.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 121

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

28. Which joint allows flexion and extension as well as side-to-side movement? a. Hinge joint b. Condyloid joint c. Pivot joint d. Gliding joint ANS: B Condyloid joints allow flexion and extension, as well as side-to-side movement. A hinge joint allows only back-and-forth movement. A pivot joint allows bones to rotate. A gliding joint allows only limited sliding movement.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 121

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

29. Which of the following joints is more mobile than it is stable? a. Shoulder b. Elbow c. Knee d. Hip ANS: A The shoulder is more mobile than it is stable; therefore, it is supported by a number of muscles, tendons, ligaments, and bursae.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

30. The rotator cuff is found in the a. knee. b. shoulder. c. hip. d. elbow.

REF: 124

KEY: REMEMBERING

ANS: B The rotator cuff, which is formed by the tendons of several surrounding muscles, helps hold the head of the humerus in the shallow glenoid cavity.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 124

KEY: REMEMBERING

31. Osteoarthritis occurs when a. synovial membranes degenerate with age. b. an inflammatory process destroys synovial fluid c. the body’s antibodies attack the synovial membrane. d. articular cartilage softens and degenerates.

ANS: D Osteoarthritis occurs when, with age, the articular cartilage softens and degenerates, sometimes to the extent that bone is exposed to bone, resulting in pain. Synovial membranes do not normally degenerate with age. An inflammatory process does not destroy synovial fluid. Rheumatoid arthritis occurs when the body’s antibodies attack the synovial membranes, leading to degeneration of the articular cartilage and thickening of the synovial membrane.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 126

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

COMPLETION 32. The two pubic portions of the os coxae are joined by a pad of cartilage called a .

ANS: symphysis PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 119

33. The cartilage that absorbs shock in the knee joint is the

KEY: REMEMBERING .

ANS: meniscus PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 125

KEY: REMEMBERING

34. The ligaments running alongside the knee that keep the knee from rotating when the joint is extended are called ligaments.

ANS: collateral fibular collateral and tibial collateral fibular and tibial collateral tibial collateral and fibular collateral tibial and fibular collateral PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 125

KEY: REMEMBERING

35. The ligament that runs across the knee joint and helps keep the knee from hyperextending is called the .

ANS: anterior cruciate ligament

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 125

KEY: REMEMBERING

36. The ligament that runs across the knee joint and helps limit sideways motion is the .

ANS: posterior cruciate ligament PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 125

KEY: REMEMBERING

37. Another name for the humeroscapular joint is the

.

ANS: shoulder PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 124

38. Another name for the tibiofemoral joint is the

KEY: ANALYZING .

ANS: knee PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 125

KEY: ANALYZING

Chapter 10: Muscular System MATCHING Match each muscle with its function or description. a. sternocleidomastoid j. latissimus dorsi b. frontalis k. brachialis c. trapezius l. triceps brachii d. external intercostals m. brachioradialis e. internal intercostals n. quadriceps femoris f. rectus abdominis o. sartorius g. transverse abdominal p. iliopsoas h. deltoid q. gastrocnemius i. pectoralis major 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

Abducts, flexes, and rotates the arm Adducts the humerus and extends the upper arm backward, such as when climbing or swimming Raises and lowers the shoulders The longest muscle in the body; aids in flexion of the hip and knee Elevate the ribs during inspiration Flexes the lumbar region of the spinal cord to cause bending over at the waist The prime mover when extending the forearm One of the bulging muscles of the calf Flexes the head The prime mover when flexing the forearm Raises the eyebrows when glancing upward Flexes and adducts the upper arm, such as when climbing or hugging Flexes the thigh The most powerful muscle in the body

1. ANS: H PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 2. ANS: J PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 3. ANS: C PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 4. ANS: O PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 5. ANS: D PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 6. ANS: F PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 7. ANS: L PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 8. ANS: Q PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 9. ANS: A PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 10. ANS: K PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 11. ANS: B PTS:

-

1

DIF: M

REF: 147

1

DIF: M

REF: 147

1

DIF: M

REF: 147

1

DIF: M

REF: 149

1

DIF: M

REF: 146

1

DIF: M

REF: 146

1

DIF: M

REF: 148

1

DIF: M

REF: 151

1

DIF: M

REF: 145

1

DIF: M

REF: 148

1

DIF: M

REF: 145

KEY: REMEMBERING 12. ANS: I PTS: 1 KEY: REMEMBERING 13. ANS: P PTS: 1 KEY: REMEMBERING 14. ANS: N PTS: 1 KEY: REMEMBERING

DIF:

M

REF: 147

DIF:

M

REF: 149

DIF:

M

REF: 149

MULTIPLE CHOICE 15. Which of the following correctly describes skeletal muscle? a. It is known as voluntary muscle. b. It consists of short, branching fibers that fit together at intercalated discs. c. It is found in the digestive tract, blood vessels, and airways. d. It is called nonstriated because it does not appear striped when examined under a microscope.

ANS: A Skeletal muscle is known as voluntary muscle because it can be contracted at will. Cardiac muscle consists of short, branching fibers that fit together at intercalated discs. Smooth muscle is found in the digestive tract, blood vessels, and airways. Smooth muscle is also called nonstriated, whereas skeletal muscle is striated.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 131

KEY: REMEMBERING

16. What is the delicate connective tissue that covers each muscle fiber? a. Endomysium b. Epimysium c. Perimysium d. Periosteum ANS: A Endomysium is a delicate connective tissue that covers each muscle fiber. Epimysium is a connective tissue that surrounds the whole muscle. Perimysium encases the fascicles. Periosteum covers bone.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 132

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

17. What are fascicles? a. Muscle cells b. Groups of muscle fibers c. Types of tendons d. Neurons that innervate muscles ANS: B Muscle fibers are grouped in bundles called fascicles. Muscle cells are called muscle fibers. There is no such thing as a “type” of tendon. Neurons that innervate muscles are not called fascicles.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 132

KEY: REMEMBERING

18. What is the name of the connective tissue that surrounds the muscle as a whole? a. Endomysium b. Epimysium c. Perimysium d. Periosteum

ANS: B A layer of connective tissue called the epimysium surrounds the muscle as a whole and binds all the muscle fibers together. Endomysium is a delicate connective tissue that covers each muscle fiber.

Perimysium encases the fascicles. Periosteum covers bone.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 132

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

19. How does muscle attach to muscle? a. Muscle fibers of one muscle merge with the fibers of the other muscle. b. The epimysium extends past the muscle and merges with the epimysium of the other muscle. c. The epimysium extends past the muscle as a flat sheet of connective tissue that fuses with the covering of the other muscle. d. Muscle does not attach to muscle; it only attaches to bone.

ANS: C When muscle attaches to muscle, it does so when the epimysium of one muscle extends past the muscle as a flat sheet of connective tissue called an aponeurosis. The aponeurosis then fuses with the covering of the other muscle. Muscle usually attaches to bone; however, it occasionally attaches to another muscle.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 132

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

20. What is an aponeurosis? a. A strong, fibrous cord that attaches muscle to bone b. Connective tissue that covers each muscle fiber c. Connective tissue that surrounds the muscle outside the epimysium d. A flat, broad tendon that attaches muscle to another muscle ANS: D A tendon is a strong, fibrous cord that attaches muscle to bone. Connective tissue that covers each muscle fiber is the epimysium. Connective tissue that surrounds the muscle outside the epimysium is called fascia.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 132

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

21. What are myofibrils? a. Long protein bundles that fill the sarcoplasm and store glycogen b. The membrane surrounding each muscle fiber c. Tubules that allow electrical impulses to travel into the muscle cell d. Another name for muscle cells ANS: A Myofibrils are long protein bundles that fill the sarcoplasm of a muscle cell; they store glycogen and oxygen. The membrane surrounding each muscle fiber is the sarcolemma. Transverse (T) tubules allow electrical impulses to travel into the muscle cell. Muscle fibers are another name for muscle cells.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 133

22. What is the chief function of T tubules? a. They allow electrical impulses to travel deep into the cell. b. They store the calcium ions necessary for muscle contraction. c. They contain myofilaments necessary for muscle contraction. d. They store glycogen and oxygen.

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

ANS: A T tubules allow electrical impulses to travel deep into the cell. The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores calcium ions. Myofilaments are fine fibers of which myofilaments are made. Myofibrils store glycogen and oxygen.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 133

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

23. What are the units of contraction in a muscle called? a. Myofilaments b. Z lines c. Sarcomeres d. Sarcolemmas ANS: C Thin and thick myofilaments stack together in a type of latticework to form units called sarcomeres. Z disks or Z lines serve as an anchor point for the thin filaments at the end of each sarcomere. This is where muscle contraction occurs. The sarcolemma is the membrane that surrounds each muscle fiber.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 134

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

24. According to the sliding-filament model of contraction, how does muscle contraction occur? a. The myosin heads propel the actin myofilaments toward the center of the sarcomere; this pulls the Z disks closer together, which shortens the sarcomere and the entire muscle. b. The actin heads propel the myosin filaments toward the center of the sarcomere; this pulls the Z disks closer together, which shortens the sarcomere and the entire muscle. c. The myosin heads propel the actin myofilaments toward the center of the sarcomere. This causes the myofilaments to shorten, which pulls the Z disks closer together to shorten the sarcomere and the entire muscle. d. Both the actin and myosin myofilaments shorten, which shrinks the sarcomere and pulls the Z disks closer together. As the Z disks move closer together, the muscle contracts.

ANS: A The myosin heads latch on to the actin myofilaments, forming a crossbridge. The myosin heads propel the actin myofilaments toward the center of the sarcomere; this pulls the Z disks closer together, which shortens the sarcomere and the entire muscle.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 134

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

25. Besides ATP, muscle contraction requires a. sodium. b. potassium. c. calcium. d. tropomyosin and troponin.

ANS: C Besides ATP, contraction requires calcium. When calcium is absent, tropomyosin and troponin, the two protein molecules entwined with the actin filament, block the sites where the myosin heads would attach. With the sites blocked, a crossbridge cannot form and contraction cannot occur.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 134

KEY: APPLYING

26. Which statement correctly describes the sequence of events in muscle contraction? a. An impulse triggers the release of acetylcholine (ACh), which diffuses across the synaptic cleft to stimulate the sarcolemma to release ATP. The ATP triggers the actin and myosin

filaments to shorten, and muscle contraction occurs. b. An impulse triggers the release of acetylcholinesterase into the synaptic cleft. This causes calcium ions to be pumped into the T tubules. The calcium allows the myosin heads to latch on to the actin filaments and muscle contraction occurs. c. An impulse triggers the release of acetylcholine (ACh), which diffuses across the synaptic cleft to stimulate the T tubules to release calcium. The calcium binds with troponin on the actin filaments, which permits the myosin heads to latch on and muscle contraction occurs. d. An impulse triggers the release of acetylcholine (ACh). This stimulates the sarcolemma, which sends an impulse to the actin and myosin filaments. The myosin heads then latch on to the actin filaments, pulling the Z disks closer together, and muscle contraction occurs.

ANS: C An impulse triggers the release of acetylcholine (ACh), which diffuses across the synaptic cleft to stimulate the T tubules to release calcium. The calcium binds with troponin on the actin filaments, which permits the myosin heads to latch on and muscle contraction occurs. Acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme that breaks down any remaining ACh in the synaptic cleft.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 135

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

27. In the disease myasthenia gravis, the body produces antibodies against receptors for acetylcholine (ACh). As a result, not all ACh can find a receptor. Based on your knowledge of how muscle contraction occurs, what key symptoms would you expect to see and why? a. Paralysis, because all ACh must be bound to a receptor for contraction to occur b. Tetany, because the muscle will fire excessively as the ACh attempts to find a receptor c. Weakness, because not all of the AChs will find a receptor, resulting in poor nerve transmission d. Muscle spasms, because the ACh remaining in the synaptic cleft will irritate the receiving nerve ANS: C If the body produces antibodies against receptors for ACh, not all ACh can find a receptor, resulting in poor neural transmission and profound muscular weakness.

PTS: 1

DIF:

D

REF: 136

KEY: APPLYING

28. Which factor influences the strength with which a muscle fiber contracts? a. The amount of acetylcholine released into the synaptic cleft b. The amount of calcium released c. The length of the muscle fiber before the contraction begins d. The size of the muscle fiber ANS: C The strength of contraction of an individual muscle fiber depends upon the length of the fiber before the contraction begins. This is called the length-tension relationship. None of the other answers is correct.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 137

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

29. If impulses reach a muscle fiber so rapidly that fibers don’t have a chance to relax completely before the next impulse arrives, what condition will occur? a. Twitch b. Treppe c. Incomplete tetanus d. Complete tetanus

-

ANS: C The state of rapid contraction with only partial relaxation is called incomplete tetanus. Twitch is a single, brief contraction. Treppe is when each successive twitch contracts more forcefully than the previous one. Complete tetanus occurs if impulses arrive so fast the muscle cannot relax at all and one prolonged contraction occurs.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 138

KEY: ANALYZING

30. Most skeletal muscles remain in a state of a. relaxation. b. treppe. c. incomplete tetanus. d. complete tetanus.

ANS: C Most skeletal muscles normally remain in a state of incomplete tetanus, which involves rapid contraction with only partial relaxation. At some point, muscle fibers relax; however, to allow for this without the muscle falling limp, the motor units of a muscle fire in an asynchronous, overlapping pattern. Treppe is a phenomenon in which each successive twitch contracts more forcefully than the previous one. Complete tetanus is when impulses arrive so quickly that the muscle does not have time to relax.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 138

KEY: APPLYING

31. How do the muscles of a sprinter running the 400-yard dash in 50 seconds receive most of their energy? a. The aerobic respiration of fatty acids b. The breakdown of creatine phosphate c. The anaerobic respiration of glucose d. The aerobic respiration of glucose ANS: C Anaerobic respiration of glucose is useful for intense bursts of activity. The aerobic respiration of fatty acids is used for energy when oxygen is plentiful. Muscles break down creatine phosphate at the beginning of exercise, but it can supply only enough fuel for about 20 seconds of high-energy activity.

The aerobic respiration of glucose is used for a muscle at rest.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 140

KEY: APPLYING

32. How do muscles obtain their energy after about 10 minutes of moderate exercise, and what benefit does it have over other methods? a. Muscles obtain their energy by metabolizing fatty acids; this is beneficial because fatty acids are plentiful. b. Muscles obtain their energy through anaerobic respiration of glucose; this is beneficial because anaerobic respiration can generate energy quickly. c. Muscles obtain their energy through aerobic respiration of glucose; this is useful because it produces more ATP than anaerobic respiration. d. Muscles obtain their energy by breaking down ATP; this is useful because creatine phosphate is plentiful.

ANS: C

-

When exercise begins, muscles break down creatine phosphate, which is stored in muscle. This can furnish muscles with enough fuel for about a minute of moderate activity. If exercise continues before the supply of oxygen has reached an acceptable level, muscles switch to anaerobic respiration of glucose. This generates energy quickly, but it produces lactic acid as a by-product, which leads to muscle fatigue. After about 10 minutes of moderate activity, oxygen has become available, and muscles switch to aerobic respiration of glucose. This is preferable because it produces more ATP than anaerobic respiration and because it produces carbon dioxide and water as a by-product, which is not toxic to the muscles like lactic acid is.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 140

KEY: APPLYING

33. When extending the forearm a. the triceps brachii is the prime mover, and the brachialis is the synergist. b. the triceps brachii is the synergist, and the brachialis is the prime mover. c. the triceps brachii is the prime mover, and the brachialis is the antagonist. d. the triceps brachii is the antagonist, and the brachialis is the prime mover.

ANS: C When extending the forearm, the triceps brachii triggers the movement, making it the prime mover.

The brachialis is the antagonist, opposing and balancing the movement.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 141

KEY: APPLYING

COMPLETION 34. A skeletal muscle cell is called a

.

ANS: muscle fiber PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 132

KEY: REMEMBERING

35. The connective tissue surrounding the muscle outside the epimysium is called .

ANS: fascia PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 132

KEY: REMEMBERING

36. The epimysium of a muscle sometimes extends past as a flat sheet of connective tissue called an that then fuses with the covering of another muscle.

ANS: aponeurosis PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 132

37. The plasma membrane that surrounds a muscle fiber is called a

KEY: REMEMBERING .

ANS: sarcolemma PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 133

38. Thick myofilaments consist of a protein called consist of a protein called

KEY: REMEMBERING , whereas thin myofilaments

.

ANS: myosin, actin PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 133

KEY: REMEMBERING

39. Between the end of a motor nerve and a muscle fiber is a narrow space called a .

ANS: synaptic cleft PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 135

KEY: REMEMBERING

40. The continuous state of partial contraction that allows you to stand and hold your head up is called .

ANS: muscle tone PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 136

KEY: REMEMBERING

41. A neuron and all the fibers it stimulates are called a

.

ANS: motor unit PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 137

KEY: REMEMBERING

42. The minimum voltage needed to cause a muscle fiber to contract is called the .

ANS: threshold PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 137

KEY: REMEMBERING

43. In an contraction, the muscle changes length to move a load whereas the tension in the muscle remains the same.

ANS: isotonic PTS: 1

DIF:

E

44. In an remains the same.

REF: 139

KEY: REMEMBERING

contraction, the tension in the muscle increases whereas its length

ANS: isometric PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 139

45. Anaerobic respiration produces a by-product called .

KEY: REMEMBERING that leads to muscle

ANS: lactic acid, fatigue PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 140

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

46. The end of the muscle that attaches to the more stationary bone is called the whereas the end with the more mobile attachment is called the

, .

ANS: origin, insertion PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 141

47. A lack of use causes a muscle to shrink, or

KEY: REMEMBERING .

ANS: atrophy PTS: 1

-

DIF:

E

REF: 141

KEY: REMEMBERING

Chapter 11: Nervous System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is most related to the “feed-and-breed” system? a. Pyramidal tracts b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Craniosacral outflow d. Rapid heart rate, palpitations, sweating ANS: C 2. Which of the following is most characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system? a. Adrenergic b. Norepinephrine c. Fight-or-flight response d. Feed-and-breed system ANS: D 3. Which neurotransmitter is secreted by a cholinergic fiber? a. Adrenaline b. Epinephrine c. Acetylcholine d. Norepinephrine ANS: C 4. What is another term for thoracolumbar outflow? a. Vagal discharge b. Parasympathetic nervous system c. Sympathetic nervous system d. Limbic system ANS: C 5. Which of the following is not an effector organ for the autonomic nerves? a. Skeletal muscle b. Visceral smooth muscle c. Glands d. Cardiac muscle ANS: A 6. Which of the following is characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system? a. Fight-or-flight response b. Thoracolumbar c. Paravertebral ganglia d. Postganglionic fiber is cholinergic ANS: D

7. Which of the following is characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system? a. Craniosacral outflow b. Cholinergic fibers only c. Paravertebral ganglia d. Postganglionic transmitter is ACh ANS: C 8. The effects of adrenal medullary secretion most resemble a. craniosacral outflow. b. firing of the somatic motor neurons. c. sympathetic nerve discharge. d. vagal discharge.

ANS: C 9. An adrenergic fiber is one that a. innervates the adrenal medulla. b. is a preganglionic fiber. c. originates in the midbrain. d. secretes norepinephrine as its transmitter.

ANS: D 10. Which of the following is an adrenergic fiber? a. Postganglionic parasympathetic b. Preganglionic sympathetic c. Preganglionic parasympathetic d. Postganglionic sympathetic ANS: D 11. Sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves a. are somatic motor neurons. b. supply voluntary skeletal muscles. c. include the phrenic, sciatic, and brachial nerves. d. innervate the viscera.

ANS: D 12. A drug that causes the heart to beat stronger and faster is called a. parasympatholytic. b. sympathomimetic. c. sympatholytic. d. anticholinergic.

ANS: B 13. Which of the following is an effect of postganglionic parasympathetic discharge? a. Slowed heart rate b. Increased blood pressure c. Dilation of the pupil of the eye

-

d. Stronger contraction of the heart ANS: A 14. Vasomotor tone is a. a vasoconstrictor effect caused by background firing of the sympathetic nerves. b. a vagally induced peripheral vasodilation. c. caused by parasympathomimetic drugs. d. caused by sympatholytic drugs.

ANS: A 15. Paravertebral ganglia a. are part of the craniosacral outflow. b. “drive” the vagus nerve. c. are located within the organs of innervation. d. are also called the sympathetic chain ganglia.

ANS: D 16. Which of the following is least descriptive of thoracolumbar outflow? a. Fight or flight b. Muscarinic and nicotinic receptors c. Sympathetic nervous system d. Paravertebral ganglia ANS: B 17. Alpha and beta receptors are a. associated with the parasympathetic nervous system. b. associated with craniosacral outflow. c. located on the paravertebral ganglia. d. activated by norepinephrine.

ANS: D 18. Which of the following is least associated with monoamine oxidase (MAO)? a. Enzyme that degrades norepinephrine b. Found within all cholinergic nerve terminals c. Associated with sympathetic activity d. Associated with adrenergic fibers ANS: B 19. A beta1-adrenergic agonist a. increases heart rate. b. causes the release of acetylcholine. c. blocks the effects of norepinephrine at its receptor site. d. lowers blood pressure.

ANS: A 20. Atropine is classified as a muscarinic antagonist or blocker and therefore is

-

a. b. c. d.

parasympathomimetic. sympatholytic. vagolytic. sympathomimetic.

ANS: C 21. Muscarinic receptors are a. activated by norepinephrine. b. located on the effector organs of the sympathetic nervous system. c. activated by catecholamines such as adrenalin and dopamine. d. activated by ACh. ANS: D 22. Which of the following is least true of the vagus nerve? a. Cholinergic b. Slows heart rate c. Effect on the heart is eliminated by a beta1-adrenergic blocker d. Transmitter is ACh ANS: C 23. Vagal discharge activates a. muscarinic receptors. b. alpha1-adrenergic receptors. c. beta1-adrenergic receptors. d. the paravertebral ganglia.

ANS: A 24. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation causes vasoconstriction of the blood vessels, thereby

elevating blood pressure. Which of the following drug classifications lowers blood pressure?

Vagolytic Sympatholytic Parasympathomimetic Vagomimetic

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 25. Sympathetic nerve stimulation causes relaxation of the breathing passages (bronchodilation).

Which of the following drug classifications achieves this effect?

Beta2-adrenergic agonist Alpha1-adrenergic blocker Vagomimetic Parasympathomimetic

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 26. A preoperative patient received an antimuscarinic drug (atropine). Which drug-related

postoperative consequence is this patient likely to experience? a. Decreased heart rate b. Difficult urination

-21-2021 05:58:18 GMT -05:00

17674285/CH12/

c. Elevated blood pressure d. Excess salivation ANS: B 27. A patient has vagally induced bradycardia (slow heart rate). Which of the following will

relieve the bradycardia?

Muscarinic antagonist Beta1-adrenergic blocker Vagomimetic drug Alpha1-adrenergic agonist

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 28. Which of the following is most descriptive of dual innervation of the autonomic nervous

system?

Muscarinic and nicotinic Alpha and beta Sympathetic and parasympathetic Beta1 and beta2

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 29. Which group is incorrect? a. Adrenergic receptors: alpha, beta b. Cholinergic receptors: muscarinic, nicotinic c. Neurotransmitters: norepinephrine, ACh, dopamine d. Sympathetic responses: decreased blood pressure, decreased heart rate, anxiety ANS: D 30. Which of the following is least related to the sympathetic nervous system? a. Vagomimetic effect b. Adrenergic fibers c. Alpha and beta receptors d. Paravertebral ganglia ANS: A 31. Which of the following is most related to the postganglionic sympathetics? a. Muscarinic receptors b. ACh c. Alpha and beta receptor activation d. Craniosacral outflow ANS: C 32. Muscarinic receptors are associated with a. paravertebral ganglia. b. preganglionic parasympathetic fibers. c. postganglionic parasympathetic fibers. d. all fibers that secrete ACh.

ANS: C 33. Which of the following is (are) most related to the muscarinic receptors? a. Paravertebral ganglia b. ACh c. Fight-or-flight response d. Adrenergic fibers ANS: B 34. Which of the following is true of the preganglionic fibers of both the sympathetic and

parasympathetic nervous systems? Both are adrenergic. secrete ACh. synapse at the paravertebral ganglia. are targets of beta blockers.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 35. Muscarinic activation is a. a consequence of vagal discharge. b. a response to the binding of NE to its adrenergic receptors. c. a fight-or-flight response. d. achieved by sympathetic discharge.

ANS: A 36. A vagolytic effect a. is a fight-or-flight response. b. is achieved by beta blockade. c. increases heart rate. d. refers to muscarinic activation.

ANS: C 37. Beta adrenergic blockade a. dilates the respiratory bronchioles and therefore relieves the symptoms of asthma. b. is apt to induce tachycardia. c. decreases heart rate but also causes bronchoconstriction. d. mimics sympathetic outflow.

ANS: C 38. Which of the following is true of AChase, MAO, and COMT? a. Terminate adrenergic receptor activation b. Are enzymes that degrade neurotransmitters c. Are adrenergic neurotransmitters d. Are neurotransmitters that activate nicotinic receptors ANS: B 39. An anticholinergic or antimuscarinic effect a. causes miosis and bradycardia.

b. is characterized by an increased heart rate and urinary retention. c. resembles a vagomimetic response. d. resembles a fight-or-flight response.

ANS: B 40. Which of the following is descriptive of a panic attack? a. Muscarinic activation b. Vagomimetic c. Fight or flight d. All of the above ANS: C 41. Increased heart rate, increased blood pressure, bronchodilation, diaphoresis, and pupillary

dilation (mydriasis) are consequences of activation of the adrenergic receptors. anticholinergic effect. vagomimetic activity. alpha1 blockade.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 42. Thoracolumbar outflow is described as a. fight or flight. b. vagomimetic. c. sympathomimetic. d. More than one of the above are true.

ANS: D

Chapter 12: Sense Organs MATCHING Match the name of each sensory receptor to the type of sensation detected by each. a. chemoreceptor d. nociceptor b. mechanoreceptor e. photoreceptor c. thermoreceptor f. proprioceptor 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Respond to tissue damage; also known as pain receptors Respond to factors such as pressure or stretch that change the position of a receptor Allow you to orient your body in space and to know the position of your body parts React to various chemicals, including odors and tastes Respond to light; found only in the eye

1. ANS: D PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 2. ANS: B PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 3. ANS: F PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 4. ANS: A PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 5. ANS: E KEY: REMEMBERING

1

DIF: E

REF: 206

1

DIF: E

REF: 206

1

DIF: E

REF: 206

1

DIF: E

REF: 206

1

DIF: E

REF: 206

Match each eye structure to its location or function. a. sclera f. ciliary body b. cornea g. lens c. retina h. anterior cavity d. iris i. posterior cavity e. choroid j. canal of Schlemm 6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

A ring of colored muscle that works to adjust the diameter of the pupil A thin layer of light-sensitive cells that make up the neural inner layer Highly vascular tissue layer that supplies oxygen and nutrients to the retina and sclera Outermost layer of the eye Large eye cavity filled with vitreous humor Drains aqueous humor from the anterior chamber Sits over the iris and admits light into the eye Secretes aqueous humor Changes shape for near and far vision

6. ANS: D PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 7. ANS: C PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 8. ANS: E PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 9. ANS: A PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING

1

DIF: E

REF: 217

1

DIF: E

REF: 217

1

DIF: E

REF: 217

1

DIF: E

REF: 217

10. ANS: I PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 11. ANS: J PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 12. ANS: B KEY: REMEMBERING 13. ANS: F PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 14. ANS: G KEY: REMEMBERING

1

DIF: E

REF: 218

1

DIF: E

REF: 218

1

DIF: E

REF: 217

1

DIF: E

REF: 217

1

DIF: E

REF: 218

MULTIPLE CHOICE 15. Which statement about sensory receptors is true? a. Each sensory receptor can respond to a variety of stimuli, such as cold, heat, or pain. b. Sensory receptors are evenly distributed throughout the body. c. The intensity of pain depends on the number of fibers stimulated. d. The brain identifies the location of pain because each part of the body contains a different type of receptor.

ANS: C The intensity of pain depends on the number of fibers stimulated. Each sensory receptor responds to a different type of stimulus. Some parts of the body contain more sensory receptors than other parts. The brain identifies the location of pain because each sensory neuron responds to stimuli in a certain area, called a receptive field.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 206

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

16. A patient comes to the emergency department complaining of a dull, aching pain in his lower abdomen. He is experiencing pain carried on a. fast pain fibers. b. slow pain fibers. c. nociceptors. d. the spinoreticular tract.

ANS: B Slow pain fibers are congregated on deep body organs and produce a dull, aching pain. Fast pain fibers are abundant in the skin and mucous membranes, and produce a sharp, localized pain at the time of injury. Nociceptors are the general category of pain receptors, and can be either fast or slow fibers. The spinoreticular tract carries pain signals to the limbic system.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 207

KEY: APPLYING

17. Identify the proper path of the main pain pathway, beginning with the site of injury and ending at the point where the person becomes aware of pain. a. Injured tissues stimulate nociceptors; the pain signal then travels to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, the spinothalamic tract relays pain signal to thalamus; the thalamus relays the pain signal to the postcentral gyrus b. Injured tissues stimulate nociceptors; the pain signal travels to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord; the spinoreticular tract relays the pain signal to the thalamus; the thalamus relays the pain signal to the postcentral gyrus c. Injured tissues stimulate nociceptors; the pain signal travels to the spinoreticular tract; the spinoreticular tract relays the pain signal to the hypothalamus and limbic system

d. Injured tissues stimulate the dorsal horn of the spinal cord; the spinothalamic tract stimulates the spinoreticular tract; the spinoreticular tract stimulates the thalamus; the thalamus relays a signal to the limbic system ANS: A Injured tissues stimulate nociceptors, which then send a pain signal to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. There, the spinothalamic tract relays a pain signal to the thalamus, which, in turn, relays the pain signal to the postcentral gyrus. At that point, the person becomes aware of the pain. The spinoreticular tract bypasses the thalamus and travels to the hypothalamus and limbic system. These areas trigger the emotional and behavioral responses to pain.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 207

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

18. A patient comes to the hospital with a severe crush injury of the leg. He is complaining of severe pain.

He also says he is feeling very nauseous and, after a few minutes, vomits. What is the best explanation for the nausea and vomiting? a. Chemicals released from tissues in the injured foot flooded the digestive system, producing nausea and vomiting. b. Nociceptors from the lower limbs travel along a similar pathway as chemical receptors from the digestive tract, causing the body to confuse the location of the stimulus. c. Pain signals traveling along the spinoreticular tract carried signals to the hypothalamus and limbic system, triggering nausea as a response to pain. d. The spinothalamic tract relayed a signal to the thalamus and postcentral gyrus, which reacted to the pain by producing nausea.

ANS: C Pain signals travel up the spinal cord along both the spinothalamic tract and the spinoreticular tract.

The spinoreticular tract carries signals to the reticular formation of the brainstem, stimulating both the hypothalamus and the limbic system. This triggers emotional and behavioral responses to pain, such as fear and nausea. The spinothalamic tract carries signals to the postcentral gyrus of the cerebrum, which produces an awareness of pain. Tissues in an injured area would not release chemicals that cause nausea. Nociceptors do not follow similar pathways as chemical receptors.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 207

KEY: APPLYING

19. Taste buds send gustatory impulses to the brain through which cranial nerves? a. Facial, glossopharyngeal, or vagus b. Olfactory, facial, or vagus c. Facial only d. Glossopharyngeal only ANS: A Taste buds send gustatory impulses to the brain by way of either the facial, glossopharyngeal, or vagus nerves. The cranial nerve used depends upon the location of the taste bud stimulated. The olfactory nerve governs the sense of smell. Although an impaired sense of smell may be linked to a loss of taste, taste buds do not send impulses through the olfactory nerve.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 209

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

20. What triggers the process of the sense of smell? a. Odor molecules entering the nasal cavity bind to cilia projecting from the ends of olfactory receptor cells. b. Chemicals in saliva trigger receptors for the olfactory nerve. c. Odor molecules entering the nasal cavity excite the olfactory bulbs under the brain’s frontal lobe.

d. Chemicals in saliva stimulate nerve fibers in the soft palate, which, in turn, synapse with neurons in the olfactory bulbs.

ANS: A Odor molecules entering the nasal cavity bind to cilia projecting from the ends of olfactory receptor cells. This then stimulates an impulse along nerve fibers leaving the nasal cavity through pores in the ethmoid bone. These fibers then synapse with other neurons in olfactory bulbs, and the signal continues to the primary olfactory cortex in the brain.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 210

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

21. Where are the structures for hearing found? a. Vestibule b. Cochlea c. Semicircular canals d. Middle ear ANS: B The cochlea, which is found in the inner ear, contains the structures for hearing. The vestibule contains organs necessary for the sense of balance. The semicircular canals contain structures for the maintenance of equilibrium and balance. The middle ear contains the auditory ossicles and the tympanic membrane, which transmit sound waves to the cochlea.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 212

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

22. Which of the following is a structure of the middle ear? a. Semicircular canal b. Vestibule c. Malleus d. Cochlea ANS: C The malleus is a structure in the middle ear. The semicircular canals, vestibule, and cochlea are structures of the inner ear.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 211

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

23. In the process of hearing, which action directly stimulates nerve impulses along the cochlear nerve? a. The vibration of the stapes against the oval window b. Sound waves striking the tympanic membrane c. Ripples in the perilymph striking the round window d. Ripples in the perilymph over the hairs of the organ of Corti ANS: D Movement of perilymph stimulates the hairs of the organ of Corti to send impulses along the cochlear nerve. Vibration of the stapes against the oval window causes movement in perilymph. Sound waves striking the tympanic membrane cause the tympanic membrane to vibrate, which triggers movement in the auditory ossicles. Ripples in the perilymph dissipate by striking the round window.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 213

24. Which two structures play a key role in the process of balance? a. Cochlea and vestibule b. Vestibule and malleus c. Cochlea and semicircular canals

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

d. Vestibule and semicircular canals ANS: D The vestibule and semicircular canals play a key role in the process of balance. The cochlea contains the organs for hearing. The malleus is a key structure in hearing.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 214

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

25. Which of the following would cause the otoliths inside the vestibule to shift and stimulate the vestibular nerve? a. Sudden head rotation b. Bending forward at the waist c. Loud noises d. Ear wax in the external auditory canal ANS: B Tilting the head causes the otoliths to shift. Head rotation causes endolymph inside the ampulla to pull on hair cells, which, in turn, stimulates the vestibular nerve. Neither loud noises nor ear wax in the external auditory canal would cause the otoliths to shift.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 214

KEY: APPLYING

26. Which eye structure(s) secretes a thin mucous film to help keep the eyeball moist? a. Tarsal glands b. Lacrimal puncta c. Sclera d. Conjunctiva ANS: D The conjunctiva secretes a thin mucous film to help keep the eyeball moist. Tarsal glands secrete oil to slow the evaporation of tears. The lacrimal puncta are tiny pores through which tears drain. The sclera is formed from dense connective tissue.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 214

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

27. Which of the following cranial nerves are involved when you “roll your eyes”? a. Abducens b. Trochlear, Oculomotor c. Trochlear d. Oculomotor, Abducens ANS: B The superior and inferior oblique muscles allow you to “roll” your eyes. The superior oblique muscle is innervated by the trochlear nerve; the inferior oblique muscle (along with all other eye muscles) is innervated by the oculomotor nerve. The abducens stimulates the lateral rectus muscle.

PTS: 1

DIF:

D

REF: 216

KEY: ANALYZING

28. What is the center point of the retina as seen through an ophthalmoscope? a. Fovea centralis b. Macula lutea c. Optic disc d. Ciliary body ANS: B

The macula lutea is the center point of the retina. The fovea centralis is a depression inside the macula lutea. The optic disc is medial to the macula lutea. The ciliary body is in the middle vascular layer and is not part of the retina.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 217

KEY: REMEMBERING

29. Which part of the retina produces the sharpest vision and why? a. The macula lutea produces the sharpest vision because it resides in the center of the retina. b. The optic disc produces the sharpest vision because it concentrates the light. c. The fovea centralis produces the sharpest vision because it is linked to the optic nerve. d. The fovea centralis produces the sharpest vision because most of the cones are concentrated here.

ANS: D The fovea centralis produces the sharpest vision because most of the cones are concentrated here. The macula lutea does reside at the center of the retina, but it has nothing to do with producing sharp vision. The optic disc contains no photoreceptors, so it produces a blind spot in the visual field. Nerve fibers converge to become the optic nerve at the optic disc.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 217

KEY: REMEMBERING

30. What would happen if the canal of Schlemm becomes obstructed? a. The flow of aqueous humor from the posterior to the anterior cavity would cease, and pressure in the anterior cavity would drop. b. The flow of aqueous humor out of the anterior chamber would cease, and pressure in the anterior chamber would rise. c. The flow of aqueous humor out of the posterior chamber would cease, and pressure within the posterior chamber would drop. d. The flow of aqueous humor into the anterior cavity would cease, and pressure in the anterior cavity would rise.

ANS: B The anterior and posterior chambers are part of the anterior cavity. Aqueous humor flows from the posterior chamber through the pupil and into the anterior chamber, after which it drains into the canal of Schlemm. If the canal of Schlemm becomes blocked, aqueous humor would accumulate first in the anterior chamber and then in the posterior chamber, increasing pressure in the entire anterior cavity.

Such an increase in pressure results in a condition called glaucoma. The posterior cavity is filled with vitreous humor, not aqueous humor. Aqueous humor would continue to flow out of the posterior chamber, whereupon it would accumulate in the anterior chamber. Aqueous humor would also continue to flow into the anterior cavity.

PTS: 1

DIF:

D

REF: 218

KEY: ANALYZING

31. The curvature of the lens of the eye changes shape to allow the eye to focus on a near object; this is called a. refraction. b. accommodation. c. convergence. d. emmetropia.

ANS: B Accommodation is a process in which the curvature of the lens changes to focus the light rays from a near object. Refraction occurs when light rays entering the eye are bent so they focus on the retina.

Convergence is when the eyes move to align the visual axis of each eye toward an object. Emmetropia is a condition in which light rays focus on the retina without the need of a corrective lens.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 219-221

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

COMPLETION 32. When a stimulus is continuous and the firing frequency of a nerve begins to slow, the sensation diminishes. This is known as .

ANS: adaptation PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 206

KEY: REMEMBERING

33. Drugs used to relieve pain are called

.

ANS: analgesics PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 208

KEY: REMEMBERING

34. Pain originating from a deep organ that is sensed as if it is originating from the body’s surface is called pain.

ANS: referred PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 208

KEY: REMEMBERING

35. The sensations of pressure, touch, stretch, and temperature are known as senses.

ANS: general PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 207

KEY: REMEMBERING

36. Most taste buds are located in protrusions of the tongue called

.

ANS: papillae PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 209

KEY: REMEMBERING

37. The structure that transmits sound waves from the outer to the middle ear is the .

ANS: tympanic membrane PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 211

38. Nerve fibers leave the eye at the nerve.

KEY: UNDERSTANDING , converging to form the

ANS: optic disc, optic PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 217

KEY: REMEMBERING

39. The process of bending light rays so they focus on the retina is called

.

ANS: refraction PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 219

KEY: REMEMBERING

40. The process of moving the eyes so that the visual axis of each eye points toward an object and light rays fall on the corresponding spot on each retina is called .

ANS: convergence PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 219

41. The photoreceptor cells responsible for night vision are called

KEY: REMEMBERING .

ANS: rods PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 222

KEY: REMEMBERING

Chapter 13: Endocrine System MATCHING Match each hormone with its effects. a. thyroid-stimulation hormone (TSH); also named thyrotropin b. prolactin c. growth hormone (GH); also named adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) d. somatotropin e. luteinizing hormone (LH) f. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) g. oxytocin h. vasopressin 1. Stimulates milk production in the mammary glands in female individuals 2. Acts on the entire body to promote protein synthesis, lipid and carbohydrate metabolism, and bone and skeletal muscle growth 3. Stimulates contraction of the uterus during childbirth 4. Stimulates ovulation in female individuals 5. Acts on the kidneys to reduce urine volume 6. Stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete thyroid hormone 1. ANS: B PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 2. ANS: D PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 3. ANS: G PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 4. ANS: E PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 5. ANS: H PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 6. ANS: A PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING

1

DIF: M

REF: 233

1

DIF: M

REF: 233

1

DIF: M

REF: 234

1

DIF: M

REF: 233

1

DIF: M

REF: 234

1

DIF: M

REF: 233

MULTIPLE CHOICE 7. Which of the following statements about the endocrine system is true? a. Endocrine glands are ductless glands that secrete their hormone into the bloodstream. b. Endocrine glands respond quickly to stimuli. c. The endocrine system exerts short-lived effects. d. The endocrine system adapts quickly to continual stimulation.

ANS: A Endocrine glands are ductless glands that secrete a hormone into the bloodstream. The endocrine system responds slowly to stimuli, exerts long-lasting effects, and adapts slowly to continual stimulation.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 229

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

8. Steroid hormones a. bind with a receptor on the cell wall, triggering a second messenger system. b. pass through the cell wall and bind with receptors in the nucleus of the cell. c. pass through the cell wall and activate specific enzymes, which trigger a reaction. d. attach to the cell wall and act as receptors for circulating hormones.

ANS: B Steroid hormones are derived from cholesterol; as a lipid, they pass easily through a cell’s membrane.

Once inside, they bind to receptors in the nucleus. Protein hormones bind to receptors on the cell surface, which triggers a second messenger system. The second messenger activates specific enzymes, which influence the cell’s reaction.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 231

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

9. What is a second messenger system? a. A set of hormones that carries primary hormones to target cells b. A chemical that prolongs the effects of a particular hormone c. A system that promotes a negative feedback loop to stop the secretion of a particular hormone d. A cascade of processes that influences a cell’s response to a hormone ANS: D A second messenger system is triggered by a protein-based hormone. The second messenger activates specific enzymes that influence cellular reactions, producing the cell’s response to the hormone. None of the other statements is correct.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 231

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

10. Protein-based hormones exert their effects by a. binding with a cell’s nucleus. b. activating enzymes within a cell. c. activating enzymes outside a cell. d. altering a cell’s DNA. ANS: B Protein-based hormones activate a second messenger system that, in turn, produces a second messenger. The second messenger activates enzymes that influence cellular reactions. Steroid hormones bind with a cell’s nucleus. Protein-based hormones do not activate enzymes outside of a cell.

They also do not alter a cell’s DNA. PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 231

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

11. The endocrine gland that influences more body processes than any other endocrine gland is the a. thyroid gland. b. pituitary gland. c. adrenal gland. d. pineal gland.

ANS: B The pituitary gland influences more body processes than any other endocrine gland.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 232

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

12. Which statement about the anterior pituitary is correct? a. It stores hormones synthesized by the hypothalamus. b. It releases its hormones into a system of blood vessels called the hypophyseal portal system. c. It consists of neural tissue. d. It holds hormones until stimulated by the nervous system to release them.

ANS: B The other answers pertain to the posterior pituitary.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 232

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

13. What is the mechanism whereby one endocrine gland stimulates another endocrine gland to secrete a hormone, which, in turn, causes the first endocrine gland to stop production of its hormone? a. Negative feedback b. Positive feedback c. Second messenger system d. Hormone-inhibiting mechanism ANS: A In negative feedback, one gland stimulates another gland to secrete its hormone. That hormone is then fed back to the first gland, telling it to stop further release of its hormone. In positive feedback, the hormone stimulates further release of the primary hormone. A second messenger system is used by protein-based hormones. There is no such thing as a hormone-inhibiting mechanism.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 235

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

14. The pineal gland secretes a. somatotropin. b. melatonin. c. oxytocin. d. gonadotropin.

ANS: B The pineal gland secretes melatonin. Somatotropin and gonadotropin are secreted by the anterior pituitary. Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 236

KEY: REMEMBERING

15. Which gland is part of both the endocrine and immune systems? a. Thyroid gland b. Pineal gland c. Thymus d. Adrenal glands ANS: C The thymus secretes two hormones that have a role in the development of the immune system.

Because it secretes hormones, it is part of the endocrine system. The actions of the hormones make the gland part of the immune system as well.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 236

KEY: APPLYING

16. Which hormone is secreted by the thyroid gland? a. Thyrotropin b. Parathyroid hormone c. Thymosin d. Calcitonin ANS: D The thyroid gland secretes calcitonin. Thyrotropin is thyroid-stimulating hormone, or TSH, which is secreted by the anterior pituitary. Parathyroid hormone is secreted by the parathyroid glands.

Thymosin is secreted by the thymus gland.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 237

KEY: REMEMBERING

17. What would you expect to occur in response to increasing blood levels of calcium? a. The parathyroid gland to secrete parathyroid hormone b. The thyroid gland to release calcitonin c. The thyroid gland to suppress release of calcitonin d. The adrenal medulla to secrete catecholamines ANS: B Increasing blood calcium levels would cause the thyroid gland to secrete calcitonin. This would cause calcium to move from blood to bone, causing blood calcium levels to decrease. Parathyroid hormone is released in response to low blood calcium levels. Catecholamines have nothing to do with blood calcium levels.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 238

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

18. Which of the following is one of the effects of parathyroid hormone? a. The movement of calcium from blood to bone b. The excretion of calcium in the intestines c. The reabsorption of calcium by the kidneys d. Increase the rate of metabolism ANS: C Parathyroid hormone increases blood calcium levels by increasing the removal of calcium from bone, reducing urinary excretion of calcium, and increasing absorption of calcium by the intestines.

Calcitonin increases the movement of calcium from blood to bone. Thyroid hormone increases the rate of metabolism.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 239

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

19. After undergoing surgical removal of the thyroid gland, the patient begins to experience severe muscle spasms. What is the most likely cause? a. Removal of the thyroid gland triggered a release of parathyroid hormone, which caused calcium to move from the bones into the blood. b. Removal of the thyroid gland would suppress levels of calcitonin, and blood calcium levels would decline. c. The parathyroid glands were most likely removed along with the thyroid, causing parathyroid hormone levels to decrease and blood calcium levels to decline. d. Removal of the thyroid gland interfered with the activation of vitamin D, interfering with the ability of the intestines to absorb calcium from food.

ANS: C The location of the parathyroid glands on the posterior surface of the thyroid sometimes leads to their accidental removal during removal of the thyroid gland. Consequently, secretion of parathyroid hormone would cease, and calcium levels would decline. Low blood levels of calcium lead to nerve excitability and resultant muscle spasms. Removing the thyroid gland would not trigger a release in parathyroid hormone; even if it did, parathyroid hormone would increase calcium levels. Calcitonin triggers the deposition of calcium in bone, so low levels would not cause a decline in blood calcium levels. Parathyroid hormone triggers the activation of vitamin D; however, even if the parathyroid glands have been removed, this would have a minimal effect on blood calcium levels as compared with the loss of parathyroid hormone.

PTS: 1

DIF:

D

REF: 240

KEY: ANALYZING

20. Hypersecretion of thyroid hormone may result in which disorder? a. Cretinism b. Goiter c. Gigantism d. Grave’s disease ANS: D Hypersecretion of thyroid hormone stimulates the body’s metabolism, resulting in a condition called Grave’s disease. Goiter is an enlarged thyroid gland, often due to dietary deficiency of iodine.

Gigantism results from hypersecretion of growth hormone.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 238

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

21. Calcitonin exerts its effect on which organ? a. Bones b. Kidneys c. Intestines d. Liver ANS: A Secreted by the thyroid gland, calcitonin triggers the deposition of calcium in bone, and thus promotes bone formation. It exerts no influence on the kidneys, intestines, or liver.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 237

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

22. How does thyroid hormone affect heat production? a. It causes shivering, which increases warmth. b. It stimulates metabolism, which increases warmth. c. It promotes the secretion of catecholamines, which dilates blood vessels and, therefore, increases warmth. d. It increases the heart rate, which promotes circulation to increase warmth.

ANS: B Thyroid hormone stimulates metabolism, which increases warmth. Thyroid hormone does not cause shivering or promote secretion of catecholamines. It does increase the rate and strength of heart contractions, but it is the increase in metabolism that leads to increased warmth.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 237

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

23. Which of the following statements about the adrenal cortex correct? a. It contains modified neurons called chromaffin cells. b. It acts as part of the sympathetic nervous system. c. It consists of three layers, each of which secretes a different corticosteroid. d. It helps boost glucose levels by breaking down glycogen into glucose.

ANS: C The adrenal cortex consists of three layers of glandular tissue, each of which secretes a different corticosteroid. The other statements pertain to the adrenal medulla.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 241

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

24. An increase in hormone output from the zona glomerulosa region of the adrenal cortex would mostly likely produce which sign? a. Increased levels of sodium b. Increased blood glucose levels c. Increased levels of potassium d. Dehydration ANS: A The zona glomerulosa secretes mineralocorticoids, the chief one being aldosterone. Aldosterone acts on the kidneys to promote sodium retention and potassium excretion. It also causes water retention. It does not affect blood glucose levels.

PTS: 1

DIF:

D

REF: 241

KEY: ANALYZING

25. During a time of stress, which layer of the adrenal cortex would you expect to be the most active? a. Zona glomerulosa b. Zona fasciculata c. Zona reticularis d. All three zones ANS: B The zona fasciculate secretes glucocorticoids, which help the body adapt to stress. The zona glomerulosa secretes mineralocorticoids and the zona reticularis secretes sex steroids.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 241

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

26. Which statement about glucocorticoids is correct? a. They aid in the repair of damaged tissue. b. They trigger inflammation. c. They boost the immune system, especially when secreted over a long term. d. They cause blood pressure to become unstable.

ANS: A Glucocorticoids help the body adapt to stress and repair damaged tissue by stimulating the breakdown of fat and protein, converting fat and protein to glucose, and releasing fatty acids and glucose into the blood. They also have an anti-inflammatory effect. They suppress, rather than boost, the immune system if secreted over a long term. They are essential for maintaining a normal blood pressure.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 241

KEY: REMEMBERING

27. What effect do glucagon, catecholamines, and glucocorticoids have in common?

a. b. c. d.

They are secreted in response to stress.

They boost blood glucose levels.

They cause blood glucose levels to fall.

They are secreted when blood glucose levels fall.

ANS: B Catecholamines and glucocorticoids are secreted in response to stress. Glucagon is secreted when blood glucose levels fall. All three boost blood glucose levels.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 241

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

28. Which of the following statements about the pancreas is correct? a. It is primarily an endocrine gland. b. It secretes digestive enzymes into the small intestine. c. Pancreatic islets consist of a single cell type. d. It lies just in front of the stomach.

ANS: B The pancreas is primarily an exocrine gland, and functions to secrete digestive enzymes into the small intestines. Pancreatic islets consist of several different cells types. It lies just behind the stomach.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 243

KEY: APPLYING

29. Which cells secrete the hormone insulin? a. Alpha cells b. Beta cells c. Delta cells d. Islet cells ANS: B Beta cells secrete the hormone insulin. The pancreatic islets contain alpha, beta, and delta cells.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 243

KEY: REMEMBERING

30. What occurs between meals when blood sugar levels decline? a. Alpha cells secrete the hormone glucagon. b. Beta cells secrete the hormone insulin. c. Delta cells secrete somatostatin. d. The zona fasciculata secretes glucocorticoids.

ANS: A Alpha cells secrete glucagon, which stimulates liver cells to convert glycogen into glucose and to convert fatty acids and amino acids into glucose, both of which help boost declining blood glucose levels. Insulin is secreted by beta cells after eating, when blood sugar levels rise. Somatostatin inhibits the release of both glucagon and insulin. The zona fasciculata does not respond to declining blood glucose levels.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 241|243

KEY: APPLYING

COMPLETION 31. The more

a cell has, the more sensitive it will be to a hormone.

ANS: receptors PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 231

32. The anterior pituitary consists of .

KEY: UNDERSTANDING tissue and is called the

ANS: glandular, adenohypophysis PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 232

KEY: REMEMBERING

33. The posterior pituitary consists of .

tissue and is called the

ANS: neural, neurohypophysis PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 232|234

34. The adrenal medulla consists of

KEY: REMEMBERING

; these cells secrete

.

ANS: modified neurons, catecholamines neurons, catecholamines PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 241

35. The adrenal cortex consists of .

KEY: REMEMBERING tissue; these cells secrete different types of

ANS: glandular, corticosteroids PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 241

KEY: REMEMBERING

36. The middle layer of the adrenal cortex is called the .

; it secretes

ANS: zona fasciculata, glucocorticoids PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 241

KEY: REMEMBERING

37. The innermost layer of the adrenal cortex is called the .

; it secretes

ANS: zona reticularis, sex steroids PTS: 1

DIF:

M

38. The principal mineralocorticoid is

REF: 241

KEY: REMEMBERING .

ANS: aldosterone PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 241

39. The principal glucocorticoid is

KEY: REMEMBERING .

ANS: cortisol PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 241

40. Vasopressin is another name for

KEY: REMEMBERING .

ANS: antidiuretic hormone ADH PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 234

KEY: REMEMBERING

41. The cells of the pancreas that secrete insulin are called

cells.

ANS: beta PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 243

KEY: REMEMBERING

42. A diminished number of insulin receptors results in a disorder called

.

ANS: diabetes mellitus PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 245

KEY: APPLYING

43. The cells of the ovarian follicle secrete the hormone

.

ANS: estrogen PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 248

KEY: REMEMBERING

44. The hormone that triggers the development of male sexual characteristics is ANS: testosterone PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 248

KEY: REMEMBERING

.

Chapter 14: Blood MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is an oxygen-carrying blood cell? a. Granulocyte b. Erythrocyte c. Thrombocyte d. Eosinophil ANS: B 2. Which blood cell fits this description: granulocytic, phagocytic, and motile? a. Thrombocyte b. Eosinophil c. Neutrophil d. Lymphocyte ANS: C 3. Monocytes and lymphocytes a. contain hemoglobin. b. are thrombocytes. c. are nongranular leukocytes. d. are hemostatic.

ANS: C 4. Which of the following is most descriptive of a reticulocyte? a. Thrombocyte b. Granulocyte c. Platelet d. Immature erythrocyte ANS: D 5. Rapid breakdown of which blood cell causes jaundice? a. Granulocyte b. Platelet c. Red blood cell d. Lymphocyte ANS: C 6. Which of the following causes granulocytopenia? a. Myelosuppression b. Hemolysis c. Phagocytosis d. Petechiae ANS: A

7. Thrombocytopenia a. refers to a deficiency of platelets. b. is caused by myelosuppression. c. may be accompanied by aplastic anemia and granulocytopenia. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 8. An infection is most often accompanied by a. thrombocytopenia. b. anemia. c. jaundice. d. leukocytosis.

ANS: D 9. Heme contains a. albumin. b. plasma. c. iron. d. erythropoietin.

ANS: C 10. Erythropoietin a. is secreted by the kidneys. b. stimulates the bone marrow to produce RBCs. c. is released in response to hypoxemia. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 11. Which of the following is the stimulus for the release of erythropoietin? a. Hypoxemia b. Low blood volume c. Low plasma pH (acidosis) d. Infection ANS: A 12. Which of the following best describes prothrombin and fibrinogen? a. Thrombolytic agents b. Anticoagulants c. Clotting factors d. Plasminogen activators ANS: C 13. Which of the following is least associated with hemostasis? a. Coagulation b. Platelet plug c. Phagocytosis

d. Blood vessel spasm ANS: C 14. Hemolysis causes a. leukocytosis. b. acidosis. c. hyperbilirubinemia. d. a prolonged prothrombin time and bleeding.

ANS: C 15. An antithrombin agent a. causes jaundice. b. prevents blood coagulation. c. fights infection. d. stimulates the synthesis of hemoglobin.

ANS: B 16. TPA (tissue plasminogen activator) a. prevents blood coagulation. b. causes thrombocytopenia. c. dissolves blood clots. d. prevents the formation of a platelet plug.

ANS: C 17. Which of the following is vitamin K dependent? a. Heparin b. Erythropoietin c. Intrinsic factor d. Prothrombin ANS: D 18. Intrinsic factor a. is necessary for the synthesis of prothrombin. b. is a clotting factor. c. is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12. d. stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells.

ANS: C 19. Which of the following is called extrinsic factor? a. Vitamin B12 b. Iron c. Heme d. Prothrombin ANS: A 20. Which of the following is most associated with a blood clot?

a. b. c. d.

Agglutination Hemophilia Fibrin strands Rh factor

ANS: C 21. Which type of anemia is associated with myelosuppression? a. Folic acid deficiency b. Aplastic c. Hemolytic d. Sickle cell ANS: B 22. Bilirubin is a breakdown product of a. leukocytes. b. neutrophils. c. red blood cells. d. platelets.

ANS: C 23. Leukocytosis and leukopenia are a. increased numbers of white blood cells. b. decreased numbers of white blood cells. c. abnormal numbers of white blood cells. d. the result of myelosuppression.

ANS: C 24. A decrease in the numbers of erythrocytes is called a. granulocytopenia. b. thrombocytopenia. c. polycythemia. d. anemia.

ANS: D 25. Which of the following is descriptive of a neutrophil? a. Platelet b. Phagocyte c. Plasma protein d. Oxygen carrier ANS: B 26. What is the normal pH of blood? a. 7.00 to 7.45 b. 7.35 to 7.45 c. 6.92 to 7.25 d. 7.45 to 7.80

ANS: B 27. Which cell is the “parent cell” of the three types of blood cells produced in the bone marrow? a. Erythrocyte b. Leukocyte c. Stem cell d. Megakaryocyte ANS: C 28. What is the name of the condition caused by a diet that is deficient in iron? a. Leukopenia b. Anemia c. Jaundice d. Kernicterus ANS: B 29. Which type of blood is called the universal donor? a. O b. AB c. A d. B ANS: A 30. Which of the following is caused by agglutination of the RBCs? a. Hemolysis b. Coagulation c. Crenation d. Hemostasis ANS: A 31. Why may a person who has had a gastrectomy (removal of the stomach) develop pernicious

anemia? a. The lack of gastric hydrochloric acid causes myelosuppression. b. Iron absorption is impaired. c. A major source of erythropoietin has been removed. d. Vitamin B12 absorption is impaired because of the lack of intrinsic factor.

ANS: D 32. What is the breakdown product of heme? a. Thrombin b. Plasmin c. Bilirubin d. Albumin ANS: C 33. Which of the following is descriptive of hyperbilirubinemia and kernicterus? a. Flushed

b. Yellow c. Blue d. Ecchymotic ANS: B 34. Which of the following types of blood can a person with type O blood receive safely? a. A type b. B type c. AB type d. O type ANS: D 35. Which of the following is most related to biconcave disc, hemoglobin, and erythropoietin? a. Granulocyte b. Thrombocyte c. “Poly” d. Red blood cell ANS: D 36. Which of the following is related to the white blood cell? a. Phagocytosis b. Oxygen transport c. Hemoglobin d. Bilirubin ANS: A 37. Which type of blood is called the universal recipient? a. Type O b. Type AB c. Type A d. Type B ANS: B 38. Which of the following is characteristic of the activated platelet? a. Granulocyte b. Bilirubin c. O2 transport d. Stickiness ANS: D 39. Kernicterus is most related to elevated plasma levels of which substance? a. Iron b. Bilirubin c. Fibrinogen d. Albumin ANS: B

40. Which of the following is most descriptive of the physiological role of the “poly”? a. Oxygen transport b. Phagocytosis c. Bilirubin metabolism d. Clot dissolution ANS: B 41. Which of the following is most likely to be depressed in the myelosuppressed patient? a. Prothrombin b. Albumin c. White blood cells d. Myelin sheath ANS: C 42. To which component of the red blood cell does oxygen loosely bind? a. Cell membrane b. Globin portion of the hemoglobin c. Iron molecule within heme d. Bilirubin component of the heme ANS: C 43. Which of the following is most likely to happen with the activation of plasminogen? a. The blood clots, or coagulates. b. The blood clot dissolves. c. Red blood cells agglutinate. d. Jaundice develops.

ANS: B 44. At the end of 120 days, the red blood cell a. is removed from the circulation and broken down. b. becomes known as a “poly.” c. becomes known as a reticulocyte. d. is converted to fibrin.

ANS: A 45. Plasma a. gives blood its red color. b. is the primary oxygen-carrying part of the blood. c. is considered intracellular fluid. d. is the fluid part of the blood.

ANS: D 46. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause erythroblastosis? a. The baby is Rh– and the mother is Rh–. b. The baby is Rh+ and the mother is Rh+. c. The baby is Rh+ and the mother is Rh–.

d. The baby is Rh– and the mother is Rh–.

ANS: C 47. Which of the following best characterizes the effects of hemophilia? a. High fever b. Infection c. Jaundice d. Bleeding ANS: D 48. Which of the following is most descriptive of the cause of hemophilia? a. Dietary induced b. Genetically induced c. Drug-induced myelosuppression d. Anemia of chronic renal failure ANS: B 49. Which function is most associated with fibrinogen, prothrombin, and calcium? a. Blood coagulation b. Platelet aggregation c. Fibrinolysis d. Blood cell production ANS: A 50. Which of the following conditions is caused by an overdose of heparin or warfarin sodium

(Coumadin)?

Bleeding Infection Jaundice Thrombosis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 51. What is another name for TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)? a. Anticoagulant b. Antiplatelet c. “Clot buster” (thrombolytic) d. Antihistamine ANS: C 52. Which of the following is necessary for prothrombin synthesis? a. Heparin b. Calcium c. Hemophilic factor d. Vitamin K ANS: D

53. What does the hematocrit measure? a. Phagocytic activity b. Blood-clotting activity c. Percentage of red blood cells in the blood d. The amount of bilirubin in the blood ANS: C 54. Which of the following does the prothrombin time measure? a. The amount of oxygen in the blood b. Clotting activity of the blood c. Bone marrow activity d. The degree or intensity of jaundice ANS: B 55. Donor blood is typed and cross-matched with the recipient’s blood to prevent which

conditions?

Infection and leukocytosis Myelosuppression and aplastic anemia Agglutination and hemolysis Petechiae formation and ecchymosis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 56. Both the red blood cell and white blood cell a. are classified as granulocytes or agranulocytes. b. contain iron that acts as a binding site for oxygen. c. contain hemoglobin. d. are produced in the bone marrow.

ANS: D 57. The word icterus refers to a. infection. b. bleeding. c. jaundice. d. fever.

ANS: C 58. Which of the following is most likely to be caused by the immobility of bed rest? a. Venous thrombosis b. Hemophilia c. Anemia d. Myelosuppression ANS: A 59. Which of the following is the most common cause of myelosuppression? a. Drugs, especially the anticancer drugs b. Bed rest c. Dietary deficiencies

d. Hereditary abnormalities of the bone marrow ANS: A 60. Which of the following is least descriptive of blood? a. The average man has 4 to 6 L of blood. b. The normal pH of blood is 7.35 to 7.45. c. Oxygenated blood is redder than unoxygenated blood. d. Water is three to five times more viscous than blood.

ANS: D 61. Petechiae formation a. is characteristic of sickle cell anemia. b. is most often prevented by a diet that is high in vitamin K. c. refers to pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin. d. is caused by a deficiency of reticulocytes.

ANS: C 62. Which of the following is most similar to fibrinolysis? a. Coagulation b. Petechiae formation c. Myelosuppression d. Thrombolytic effect ANS: D 63. Segs, polys, and band cells are a. immature red blood cells. b. agranulocytes. c. fragments of megakaryocytes. d. neutrophils.

ANS: D 64. Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils are all a. lymphocytes. b. granulocytes. c. phagocytic. d. heparin secreting.

ANS: B 65. Prothrombin, thrombin, and fibrinogen a. form the platelet plug. b. activate factor VIII (antihemophilic factor). c. are involved in coagulation. d. are responsible for agglutination.

ANS: C 66. Which anticoagulant is secreted by mast cells (basophils)?

a. b. c. d.

Plasmin EPO Vitamin K Heparin

ANS: D 67. Erythroblastosis fetalis is primarily a problem involving a. myelosuppression. b. lack of intrinsic factor. c. inability of the kidneys to secrete erythropoietin. d. agglutination and hemolysis.

ANS: D 68. Which group is incorrect? a. Steps in hemostasis: blood vessel spasm, platelet plug, coagulation b. Antigens: A, B, Rh factor c. Blood cells: fibrinogen, albumin, globulins d. Types of anemia: iron deficiency, pernicious, sickle cell ANS: C 69. Which group is incorrect? a. Plasma proteins: albumin, fibrinogen, globulins b. Antigens: A, B, Rh factor c. Types of anemia: iron deficiency, pernicious, sickle cell d. White blood cells: granulocytes, agranulocytes, megakaryocytes ANS: D 70. Which group is incorrect? a. Results of myelosuppression: granulocytopenia, aplastic anemia, hemophilia b. Antigens: A, B, Rh factor c. White blood cells: granulocytes, agranulocytes d. Plasma proteins: albumin, fibrinogen, globulins ANS: A 71. Which of the following is characteristic of erythrocytes? a. Formed by myeloid erythropoiesis b. Deficiency causes petechiae and bleeding c. Activation characterized by stickiness and formation of a plug d. Primarily concerned with phagocytosis ANS: A 72. Erythropoietin a. is synthesized in the bone marrow. b. stimulates the bone marrow to make RBCs. c. stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb iron from the urine. d. stimulates the digestive tract to absorb iron.

ANS: B 73. Which of the following is true of iron? a. Is in the heme part of hemoglobin b. Is necessary for erythropoiesis c. Binds reversibly to oxygen d. All of the above ANS: D 74. Chronic hypoxemia is most likely to induce a. leukocytosis. b. secondary polycythemia. c. platelet stickiness. d. jaundice.

ANS: B 75. The anemia of chronic kidney failure is a. caused by bone marrow depression. b. treated with EPO (erythropoietin). c. characterized by an elevated hematocrit. d. treated with IM injections of vitamin B12.

ANS: B 76. A deficiency of intrinsic factor a. decreases the absorption of vitamin K by the digestive tract. b. causes hemolysis and jaundice. c. is evidenced by a prolonged prothrombin time. d. causes a type of anemia that is treated with vitamin B12.

ANS: D 77. Which of the following is most likely to be characterized by severe pain, organ damage, and

hemolysis? a. A shift to the left b. Neutropenia c. Sickle cell anemia d. Hypoprothrombinemia ANS: C 78. Which of the following is descriptive of leukocytes? a. Fight infection b. Include granulocytes and nongranulocytes c. Include phagocytes d. All of the above ANS: D 79. Neutrophils and monocytes a. are megakaryocytes.

b. initiate the hemostatic mechanism. c. engage in phagocytosis. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: C 80. Rapid hemolysis causes a. hypoxemia and cyanosis. b. thrombocytopenia and bleeding. c. hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice. d. myelosuppression and infection.

ANS: C 81. What condition is most likely to cause “dilutional” anemia? a. Dehydration b. Infection c. Hypervolemia d. Neutropenia ANS: C 82. The administration of warfarin (Coumadin) a. blocks the absorption of vitamin K in the digestive tract. b. causes hypoprothrombinemia. c. removes thrombin from the circulation. d. activates plasminogen.

ANS: B 83. Hypoprothrombinemia a. inhibits coagulation. b. is thrombolytic. c. is caused by a factor VIII deficiency. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: A 84. A person who is taking warfarin (Coumadin) is advised to limit the intake of spinach and

broccoli because they are irritating to the lining of the digestive tract and can cause bleeding. interfere with the absorption of vitamin K by the digestive tract. contain lots of vitamin K, the antidote to Coumadin therapy. contain excess extrinsic factor.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 85. Activation of plasminogen a. depresses the bone marrow. b. dissolves blood clots. c. causes hemolysis and jaundice. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: B 86. Which of the following best describes a granulocyte? a. Myelocytic and hemostatic b. Granulocytic and antigenic c. Phagocytic and myelocytic d. Hemostatic and lymphocytic ANS: C 87. Which of the following blood cells is myelocytic and immature? a. Megakaryocyte b. Platelet c. Neutrophil d. Reticulocyte ANS: D 88. With which descriptive word(s) are the terms anisocytosis and poikilocytosis associated? a. Color and degree of immaturity b. Granular and agranular c. Shape d. Antigenic and hive producing ANS: C 89. Erythropoiesis is least associated with which of the following? a. Monoblast b. Bone marrow c. Reticulocyte d. Hemoglobin ANS: A 90. Identify the following: vascular spasm, platelet plug, coagulation. a. Hemopoiesis b. Hemostasis c. Homeostasis d. Poikilocytosis ANS: B 91. Which of the following words best describes the fate of iron following the normal degradation

of RBCs? Recycled Excreted in the urine Converted to bilirubin and excreted by the liver into the bile Converted to urea in the liver and excreted by the kidneys

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 92. Which of the following is true of the platelet? a. Is derived from the megakaryocyte

b. Is phagocytic c. Has a half-life of 3 months d. Is a mature reticulocyte ANS: A 93. In what way is the neutrophil similar to the monocyte? Both are a. phagocytic. b. hemostatic. c. derived from the megakaryocyte. d. granulocytic.

ANS: A 94. Erythropoietin is secreted a. in response to thrombopoiesis. b. in response to increasing blood levels of CO2. c. when prothrombin is activated to thrombin. d. when blood levels of oxygen decline.

ANS: D 95. What information is provided by the differential white count? a. The rate at which blood clots b. The percentage of white blood cells in a sample of blood c. The rate at which blood cells are produced by the bone marrow d. The lifespans of the different blood cells ANS: B 96. A hematocrit of 35% (male) is most often indicative of a. dehydration. b. the body’s response to exercise-induced heavy sweating. c. the physiological response to chronic lung disease (e.g., hypoxemia). d. deficiency of RBCs as in anemia.

ANS: D 97. Which of the following words is descriptive of a blast cell? a. Immature b. Enlarged c. Misshapen d. Excessive ANS: A 98. What is the most important role of hemoglobin? a. Transport of bilirubin b. Regulation of blood pH c. Regulation of blood glucose d. Transport of oxygen ANS: D

99. Leukopenia, granulocytopenia, and neutropenia a. define pancytopenia. b. cause jaundice. c. develop in response to erythropoietin. d. are terms that refer to a deficiency of white blood cells.

ANS: D 100. PMNs, polys, segs, and “shift to the left” are all terms that a. refer to blood clots. b. are related to erythrocytes. c. are related to white blood cells. d. indicate impending hemorrhage.

ANS: C 101. Stickiness, plug, and hemostasis are terms that are most related to a. neutrophils. b. phagocytes. c. platelets. d. albumin.

ANS: C 102. Which of the following best describes albumin? a. RBC, O2 transport b. Water balance, plasma protein c. Plasma protein, phagocytosis d. CO2 transport, immune response ANS: B 103. Which of the following is least descriptive of prothrombin? a. Hepatic synthesis b. Vitamin K dependent c. Albumin d. Activated by PTA and calcium ANS: C 104. PTA and calcium generate a. Thrombin b. Vitamin K c. Prothrombin d. Hemophilic factor ANS: A 105. Which of the following is least descriptive of hemophilia? a. Bleeding disorder b. Factor VIII deficiency c. Males are symptomatic; females are “carriers”

d. A pancytopenic event ANS: D 106. Which of the following is least related to the other words? a. Fibrinolysis b. Platelet plug formation c. tPA d. Plasmin ANS: B 107. Name the anticoagulant that interferes with the hepatic utilization of vitamin K in the

synthesis of prothrombin.

Clopidogrel (Plavix) Digoxin Coumadin Heparin

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 108. Which term best describes the following: A, B, AB, and O? a. Antibodies b. Megakaryocyte fragments c. Fibrin strands d. Antigens ANS: D 109. The prothrombin time is prolonged a. whenever blood fails to clot. b. as a response to anemia. c. in the presence of hypoprothrombinemia. d. whenever the patient becomes thrombocytopenic.

ANS: C 110. What happens when thrombin levels elevate locally? a. The patient bleeds. b. The patient becomes jaundiced. c. The blood clots. d. Prothrombin time is prolonged.

ANS: C 111. Which of the following is most apt to cause deep vein thrombosis? a. Thrombocytopenia b. Neutropenia c. Hemolysis d. Venous stasis ANS: D

112. Which of the following is common to all forms of severe anemia? a. Bone pain b. Hypoxemia c. Folic acid deficiency d. Iron deficiency ANS: B 113. Which of the following mom-baby combinations is most apt to induce erythroblastosis fetalis? a. Mom A(–), baby A(+) b. Mom A(–), baby O(–) c. Mom A(+), baby A(–) d. Mom A(+), baby A(+) ANS: A 114. Which of the following mom-baby combinations is most apt to induce erythroblastosis fetalis? a. Mom O(+), baby O(+) b. Mom AB(+), baby AB(–) c. Mom AB(–). Baby O(–) d. Mom AB(–), baby O(+) ANS: D 115. Which of the following is common to all forms of anemia? a. Elevated WBC count b. Thrombocytopenia c. Low hematocrit d. Leukocytosis ANS: C 116. A patient has had a (+) Guaiac test (stools) for 1 year. He is most apt to present to his primary

care physician (PCP) with low hematocrit and hematuria. vitamin B12 deficiency and pernicious anemia. low hematocrit and iron-deficiency anemia. hypoxemia and secondary polycythemia.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 117. A secondary polycythemia is most often due to a. hyperventilation. b. chronic hypoxemia. c. hypoglycemia. d. glucosuria.

ANS: B 118. The antithrombin activity of a drug a. delays clotting. b. is the major cause of petechiae formation. c. is caused by a platelet deficiency.

d. is reversed by vitamin K. ANS: A 119. What organ synthesizes many vitamin K–dependent clotting factors? a. Bone marrow b. Spleen c. Liver d. Kidney ANS: C 120. This blood cell is elevated in persons with allergies and parasitic diseases. a. Basophil b. Eosinophil c. Neutrophil d. Lymphocyte ANS: B 121. This blood cell secretes both histamine and heparin. a. Basophil b. Eosinophil c. Neutrophil d. Lymphocyte ANS: A

Chapter 15: Heart MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which layer of the heart allows it to act as a pump? a. Epicardium b. Myocardium c. Pericardium d. Endocardium ANS: B 2. Which slinglike structure supports the heart? a. Pericardium b. Chordae tendineae c. Myocardium d. Endocardium ANS: A 3. What is the hardest working cardiac chamber and therefore has the thickest myocardium? a. Right atrium b. Right ventricle c. Left atrium d. Left ventricle ANS: D 4. The right ventricle pumps blood to the a. right atrium. b. pulmonary veins. c. pulmonary artery. d. aorta.

ANS: C 5. A vessel(s) that carry(ies) blood from the pulmonary capillaries to the left atrium is (are) the a. aorta. b. pulmonary artery. c. pulmonary veins. d. vena cava.

ANS: C 6. The aorta receives blood from the a. right ventricle. b. pulmonary veins. c. pulmonary artery. d. left ventricle.

ANS: D

7. Blood flows from the right atrium through which atrioventricular valve to the right ventricle? a. Bicuspid b. Mitral c. Pulmonic d. Tricuspid ANS: D 8. Which of the following structures “sees” unoxygenated blood? a. Aorta b. Left ventricle c. Pulmonary artery d. Pulmonary veins ANS: C 9. Which of the following “sees” oxygenated blood? a. Venae cavae b. Pulmonary veins c. Right atrium d. Pulmonic valve ANS: B 10. Chordae tendineae are not associated with this valve. a. Aortic b. Mitral c. Tricuspid d. Bicuspid ANS: A 11. With which of the following is “lubb-dupp” associated? a. Myocardial contraction b. Ventricular depolarization c. Closing of heart valves d. Diffusion of O2 from the lungs to the blood in the pulmonary capillaries ANS: C 12. Which of the following supplies oxygenated blood to the heart muscle? a. Coronary arteries b. Pulmonary artery c. Pulmonary veins d. Cardiac veins ANS: A 13. Where does the cardiac action potential (cardiac impulse) normally originate? a. AV node b. Purkinje fibers c. Ectopic focus

d. SA node ANS: D 14. The pacemaker of the heart is located in the upper wall of the a. right atrium. b. right ventricle. c. left atrium. d. left ventricle.

ANS: A 15. Referring to the ECG, the P wave represents a. atrial contraction. b. ventricular relaxation. c. atrial depolarization. d. atrial repolarization.

ANS: C 16. Referring to the ECG, the QRS complex represents ventricular a. contraction. b. repolarization. c. relaxation. d. depolarization.

ANS: D 17. Which structure connects the cusps of the AV valves to the ventricles? a. Purkinje fibers b. AV node c. Bundle of His d. Chordae tendineae ANS: D 18. What are the conducting fibers that rapidly spread the electrical signal throughout the

ventricles?

Bundle of His Purkinje fibers SA node AV node

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 19. Which of the following is least related to the mitral valve? a. Left heart b. Bicuspid c. Semilunar d. Chordae tendineae ANS: C

20. All of the following are electrical terms except a. sarcomere. b. depolarization. c. action potential. d. repolarization.

ANS: A 21. Which of the following must precede ventricular contraction? a. Ventricular systole b. “Lubb-dupp” c. Ventricular depolarization d. Closing of the AV valves ANS: C 22. Which of the following semilunar valves “sees” oxygenated blood? a. Mitral b. Bicuspid c. Aortic d. Pulmonic ANS: C 23. The correct sequence is: Blood flows from the right atrium to the right ventricle to the

pulmonary artery to the a. pulmonary veins. b. coronary arteries. c. pulmonary capillaries. d. vena cava.

ANS: C 24. What event causes the pulmonic valve to open? a. The P wave b. An increase in the pressure within the right ventricle c. “Lubb-dupp” d. Contraction of the chordae tendineae ANS: B 25. Which layer of the heart has actin, myosin, and intercalated discs? a. Myocardium b. Endocardium c. Epicardium d. Pericardium ANS: A 26. The epicardium is a layer of the a. myocardium. b. diaphragm. c. pericardium.

d. endocardium.

ANS: C 27. The mitral and the bicuspid valves a. are semilunar valves. b. are both located on the right side of the heart. c. “see” only unoxygenated blood. d. are the same valves.

ANS: D 28. The pulmonic and aortic valves a. are atrioventricular valves. b. “see” only oxygenated blood. c. are attached to the ventricular walls by chordae tendineae. d. are semilunar valves.

ANS: D 29. The correct sequence is: Blood flows from the pulmonary capillaries to the pulmonary veins

to the left atrium to the left ventricle to the vena cava. pulmonary artery. aorta. circle of Willis.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 30. The atrioventricular node (AV node) a. is the pacemaker of the heart. b. is located in the upper part of the right atrium. c. has a rate that is normally faster than the SA node. d. delays the electrical signal coming from the atria into the ventricles.

ANS: D 31. The purpose of this structure is to delay the spread of the signal from the atrium to the

ventricles.

SA node Purkinje fibers Bundle of His AV node

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 32. Which of the following is an electrical event? a. “Lubb-dupp” b. Actin and myosin interaction c. Murmur d. Depolarization ANS: D

33. Which of the following is a result of ventricular contraction? a. The AV valves open. b. The semilunar valves close. c. Blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery and the aorta. d. Blood flows back into the atria.

ANS: C 34. Under what condition is blood most likely to flow “backward” (e.g., from the left ventricle

back into the left atrium)? a. Pulmonary artery hypertension b. Left ventricular hypertrophy c. An insufficient mitral valve d. Pulmonary edema ANS: C 35. What are ventricles “doing” during atrial contraction? a. Pumping blood into the great vessels b. Closing their AV valves c. Relaxing d. Opening their semilunar valves ANS: C 36. The Purkinje fibers a. open valves. b. pull on the cusps of the valves. c. conduct electrical signals throughout the ventricles. d. close valves.

ANS: C 37. Which cavity first receives unoxygenated blood from the vena cava? a. Right ventricle b. Left atrium c. Left ventricle d. Right atrium ANS: D 38. What is the name of the valve that prevents backflow of blood into the right atrium when the

right ventricle contracts?

Mitral Pulmonic Semilunar Tricuspid

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 39. What is the cause of the heart sounds “lubb-dupp”? a. Closing of the heart valves

b. Flow of blood through the coronary arteries c. The electrical signal as it moves through the AV node d. The firing of the autonomic nerves to the SA node ANS: A 40. Which of the following is not true of the heart? a. The heart is located within the mediastinum. b. The apex is located left of the sternal midline at the level of the fifth intercostal

space. c. The base of the heart is located at the level of the second rib. d. The pericardium is composed of actin and myosin.

ANS: D 41. Which of the following is least descriptive of the myocardium? a. Cardiac muscle composed of actin and myosin arranged in sarcomeres b. Thicker in the ventricles than the atria c. Thicker in the left ventricle than the right ventricle d. Thicker in the left atrium than the right ventricle ANS: D 42. Which of the following is a function of a valve? a. Regulates the direction of the flow of blood through the heart b. Regulates the amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin c. Regulates heart rate d. Directs the movement of the cardiac impulse ANS: A 43. Which of the following is true of the structures of the electrical conduction system? a. The AV valve is the pacemaker. b. In normal sinus rhythm, the electrical signal arises within the SA node. c. The His-Purkinje system spreads the electrical system from the right atrium to the

left atrium. d. The purpose of the AV node is to increase the speed at which the cardiac impulse

moves from the atria to the ventricles.

ANS: B 44. Which of the following is least true of the aortic valve? a. It is also called the left semilunar valve. b. It “sees” oxygenated blood. c. Blood flows from the ventricle through this valve into the pulmonary artery. d. An incompetent aortic valve allows blood to leak from the aorta back into the left

ventricle.

ANS: C 45. An accumulation of excess fluid in the pericardial space a. causes external compression of the heart. b. depresses the SA node, thereby eliminating pacemaker activity.

c. causes valvular stenosis. d. causes a left-to-right shunt.

ANS: A 46. A hole in the interventricular septum causes a. a right-to-left shunt. b. extreme cyanosis. c. blood to shunt from the left ventricle to the right ventricle. d. blood to shunt from the left ventricle to the pulmonary artery.

ANS: C 47. Which structure “sees” oxygenated blood? a. Tricuspid valve b. Pulmonary artery c. Pulmonary veins d. Right semilunar valve ANS: C 48. Which group is incorrect? a. Semilunar valves: pulmonic, aortic b. Atrioventricular valves: tricuspid, bicuspid, mitral c. Structures that carry oxygenated blood: pulmonary veins, left ventricle, aorta d. Structures that carry unoxygenated blood: right ventricle, venae cavae, pulmonary

veins ANS: D 49. Which group is incorrect? a. Semilunar valves: pulmonic, aortic b. Structures that carry oxygenated blood: pulmonary veins, left ventricle, aorta c. Layers of the heart: epicardium, myocardium, endocardium d. Abnormal heart rates: tachycardia, bradycardia, normal sinus rhythm ANS: D 50. Which group is incorrect? a. Atrioventricular valves: tricuspid, bicuspid, mitral b. Layers of the heart: epicardium, myocardium, endocardium c. Abnormal heart rates: tachycardia, bradycardia d. Parts of the conduction system: SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers,

medulla oblongata ANS: D 51. Which of the following is true of the myocardium? a. Contains thick and thin filaments b. Contains actin and myosin c. Is thicker in the left ventricle than in the right ventricle d. All of the above

ANS: D 52. During ventricular contraction, the a. AV valves close in response to intraventricular pressure. b. ECG is displaying the T wave. c. semilunar valves close, causing S1. d. ECG is displaying the P-R interval.

ANS: A 53. Which of the following is most related to “lubb” (of the lubb-dupp duo)? a. Called S1 b. Caused by the closure of the AV valves c. Occurs in response to ventricular contraction d. All of the above ANS: D 54. S2 is a. caused by the closure of the AV valves at the beginning of ventricular contraction. b. the second heart sound. c. the heart sound caused by the sliding of actin and myosin. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: B 55. The purpose of the right heart is to pump blood a. to the systemic circulation. b. into the aorta. c. to the left anterior descending and circumflex arteries. d. to the lungs for oxygenation.

ANS: D 56. Which of the following is not considered a “great” vessel? a. Left anterior descending artery b. Aorta c. Venae cavae d. Pulmonary artery ANS: A 57. Which of the following spaces does not contain the heart? a. Thoracic cavity b. Ventral cavity c. Dorsal cavity d. Mediastinum ANS: C 58. The semilunar valves a. receive blood from the contracting ventricles. b. are anchored by chordae tendineae.

c. “see” only oxygenated blood. d. “see” only unoxygenated blood.

ANS: A 59. Cells that spontaneously depolarize from resting membrane potential to threshold potential a. are called pacemaker cells. b. normally “live” within the chordae tendineae. c. are restricted to the SA node. d. are stored within the pericardium.

ANS: A 60. The heart a. lies within the mediastinal, thoracic, and ventral cavities. b. beats only in response to stimulation by the autonomic nerves. c. is located within the pleural cavity. d. is located between the fifth and twelfth ribs in the left thoracic region.

ANS: A 61. Stenosis of which valve causes right ventricular hypertrophy? a. Mitral b. Tricuspid c. Right semilunar d. Left semilunar ANS: C 62. Which of the following is true about the left ventricular myocardium? a. Pumps blood into the pulmonary artery b. Contraction is caused by the sliding of actin and myosin c. Receives oxygenated blood from the precordium d. Contains unoxygenated blood ANS: B 63. What is located at the second rib and fifth intercostal space? a. Base and apex of the heart b. Semilunar valves c. AV valves d. SA node and AV nodes ANS: A 64. The bicuspid and mitral valves a. are semilunar valves. b. “see” only unoxygenated blood. c. “see” only oxygenated blood d. are exit valves.

ANS: C

65. What are the two phases of the ventricular action potential (cardiac impulse)? a. Systole and diastole b. Filling and ejecting c. Depolarization and repolarization d. P wave and T wave ANS: C 66. Which of the following electrical events is caused by the outflow (efflux) of K+? a. P-R interval b. Depolarization c. QRS complex d. Repolarization ANS: D 67. In normal sinus rhythm (NSR), the a. cardiac impulse originates in the sinoatrial node. b. action potential originates in the AV node. c. AV node activates the SA node. d. action potential is generated by the sympathetic nerve.

ANS: A 68. During ventricular filling, the a. semilunar valves are open. b. AV valves are closed. c. QRS complex is “happening.” d. ventricles are relaxed.

ANS: D 69. Which of the following is true regarding the mediastinum? a. It is located within the pleural cavity. b. The lungs are located within the mediastinum. c. The mediastinum is located to the right of the midline of the sternum. d. The mediastinum is a space between the lungs.

ANS: D 70. Which of the following is located between the visceral and parietal pericardium? a. The mediastinum b. A space that contains serous fluid c. The precordium d. The endocardium ANS: B 71. Which structure is not perfused by the blood that is pumped from the right ventricle to the left

ventricle? a. Mitral valve b. Pulmonary artery c. Pulmonary veins

d. Aorta ANS: D 72. Which structure is not perfused by blood that flows from the pulmonary capillaries to the

aorta? a. Right atrium b. Aortic semilunar valve c. Mitral valve d. Pulmonary veins ANS: A 73. What structure is not perfused as blood flows from the venae cavae to the pulmonary veins? a. Right ventricle b. Left anterior descending artery c. Pulmonary artery d. Pulmonary capillaries ANS: B 74. Which of the following is part of the blood flow through the heart? a. Left atrium b. Left anterior descending artery c. Circumflex artery d. Right coronary artery ANS: A 75. In which structure is oxygen saturation lowest? a. Right atrium b. Pulmonary capillaries c. Pulmonary veins d. Left ventricle ANS: A 76. In which structure is the oxygen saturation highest? a. Pulmonary veins b. Venae cavae c. Right ventricle d. Pulmonary artery ANS: A 77. Which of the following is not part of coronary circulation? a. Left anterior descending artery b. Circumflex artery c. Pulmonary veins d. Posterior descending artery ANS: C

78. Which of the following best indicates why the left ventricular myocardium is thicker than the

right ventricular myocardium?

Left ventricular oxygen saturation is greater in the left ventricle.

The left ventricle works harder than the right ventricle.

The aortic valve is narrower than the pulmonic valve.

Left ventricular volume is less than right ventricular volume.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 79. Which of the following is true of the aorta? a. It distributes unoxygenated blood to the systemic circulation. b. It distributes oxygenated blood to the pulmonic circulation. c. It arises within the left ventricle. d. It is color coded blue to indicate its degree of oxygen saturation.

ANS: C 80. Which of the following best describes the function of the pulmonary artery? a. It carries unoxygenated blood to the right atrium. b. It supplies lung tissue with oxygenated blood. c. It carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium. d. It carries unoxygenated blood to the pulmonary capillaries, where gas exchange

occurs.

ANS: D 81. Which of the following is most descriptive of the tricuspid valve? a. “Sees” oxygenated blood b. Entrance valve: right ventricle c. Exit valve: right ventricle d. Semilunar valve ANS: B 82. Into what structure does blood reflux as a consequence of an incompetent aortic semilunar

valve?

Right atrium Circumflex artery Left ventricle Pulmonary artery

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 83. Both the semilunar valves a. are located in the left heart. b. are entrance valves. c. have chordae tendineae attached to their cusps. d. prevent the backflow of blood from the aorta and pulmonary artery into the

ventricles.

ANS: D 84. Which of the following is responsible for the opening and closing of the heart valves?

a. b. c. d.

Pressure exerted on the valves as the heart contracts and relaxes Electrical signals arising in the SA node The degree of oxygen concentration of blood in the ventricles The amount of blood in the heart

ANS: A 85. What is the cause of ventricular hypertrophy? a. The heart muscle is not receiving sufficient oxygen. b. The ventricle is working too hard. c. The person has an infection. d. There is excess fluid accumulating in the pericardial space.

ANS: B 86. What is the valvular response to the contraction of the ventricles? a. The AV valves open. b. The semilunar valves close. c. The pulmonic and aortic valves open. d. The entrance valves open.

ANS: C 87. Describe the valvular response to the relaxation of the right ventricle. a. The tricuspid valve opens b. The right AV snaps closed c. The pulmonic valve opens d. The semilunar valve in the right heart opens ANS: A 88. The intent is to measure pulmonary wedge pressure, a procedure that requires the

advancement of a catheter up to the pulmonary capillaries. The catheter is inserted into the left subclavian vein. Identify the structure that the catheter does not pass through on its way to the pulmonary capillaries. a. Right atrium b. Tricuspid valve c. Pulmonic valve d. Pulmonary veins ANS: D 89. Which of the following is a correct valvular position when the atria are contracting? a. The tricuspid valve is closed b. The pulmonic valve is open c. Both semilunar valves are open d. Both AV valves are open ANS: D 90. With regard to a ventricular septal defect, a. a right-to-left shunt occurs in the ventricles. b. oxygen saturation in the left ventricle decreases.

c. oxygen saturation in the right ventricle decreases. d. blood shunts from the left to the right ventricle.

ANS: D 91. When is coronary blood flow greatest? a. During ventricular contraction b. Immediately following the QRS complex on the ECG c. During ventricular diastole d. During ventricular systole ANS: C 92. Why may a “racing heart” (170 bpm) cause chest pain? a. Chemicals produced by the metabolizing cells stimulate the vagal pain receptors. b. A racing heart decreases diastole, the period when coronary blood flow is maximal. c. A racing heart decreases the time that the heart spends in systole. d. Excess waste produced by metabolizing myocardial cells causes microthrombi to

accumulate in the coronary arteries.

ANS: B 93. What causes S1 and S2? a. Closure of heart valves b. Firing of the SA node c. Opening of heart valves. d. Movement of the cardiac impulse along the His-Purkinje fibers ANS: A 94. Which of the following is least true of S2? a. Also known as dupp b. Heart sound c. Indicative of a gallop rhythm d. Heard at the beginning of ventricular relaxation (diastole) ANS: C 95. Which of the following is most true of S1? a. Also known as dupp b. Indicative of gallop rhythm c. Occurs during the beginning of ventricular systole with the closure of the tricuspid

and mitral valves d. It is the heart sound caused by the rapid movement of the action potential along the

His-Purkinje system.

ANS: C 96. Which of the following best describes the heart as a double pump? a. Atria and ventricles b. Right and left c. AV and semilunar d. Interatrial septum, interventricular septum

ANS: B 97. Initially a child with a ventricular septal defect (VSD) and pulmonic valve stenosis is

acyanotic. Over time, however, the pulmonic valve stenosis worsens and the child becomes cyanotic. What is the most probable explanation? a. The child becomes severely anemic and hypoxemic. b. The pulmonic stenosis elevates right ventricular pressure, thereby shunting unoxygenated blood from the right ventricle into the left ventricle; unoxygenated blood is then pumped to the systemic circulation. c. Blood is shunted from the left ventricle into the right ventricle. d. Excess blood in the right ventricle and pulmonary artery fills the alveoli, thereby causing hypoxemia and cyanosis.

ANS: B 98. Which of the following is true regarding cardiac blood flow? a. In the normal heart coronary blood flow increases with exercise. b. In a diseased heart coronary blood flow may be maximal at rest. c. In a diseased heart exertion may cause ischemia and angina. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 99. What is the significance of elevated plasma levels of AST, CPK, and LDH? a. Myocardial damage as in myocardial infarction b. A normal myocardial response to exercise c. An increase in coronary blood flow d. Early-onset exertional angina ANS: A 100. With which of the following are these words most related: electrical signal, action potential,

cardiac impulse, and nerve impulse?

Tricuspid and mitral atrioventricular valves Aortic and pulmonic semilunar valves Depolarization and repolarization Contraction and relaxation

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 101. Which of the following defines a nodal rhythm? a. Sinus rhythm is normal. b. The electrical signal arises within the SA node. c. The electrical signal arises within the AV node. d. The ventricular myocardium is fibrillating.

ANS: C 102. Heart rate is slowest if the pacemaker activity signal originates in the a. SA node. b. AV node. c. normal pacemaker of the heart.

d. ventricular conducting cells.

ANS: D 103. A signal is generated by the SA node and is regularly discharged to the rest of the conduction

system. Which of the following best describes this activity? a. Contraction and relaxation b. Automaticity and rhythmicity c. Sinoatrial node and atrioventricular node d. Lubb dupp ANS: B 104. Which of the following best describes a pacemaker cell? a. Restricted to the SA node b. Spontaneous depolarization c. Incapable of repolarization d. Stable resting membrane potential ANS: B 105. Under what condition will the AV node become the pacemaker? a. When its rate of spontaneous depolarization exceeds that of the ventricular

conduction cells b. As a normal response to sympathetic nerve discharge c. When its rate of spontaneous depolarization exceeds that of the SA node d. In the presence of normal sinus rhythm ANS: C

Chapter 16: Vascular System MATCHING Match each vascular structure to its function or characteristic. Terms may apply to more than one question. Some terms may not be used. a. arteries i. sinusoids b. tunica externa j. tunica media c. capillaries k. capacitance vessels d. tunica intima l. distributing arteries e. lumen m. conducting arteries f. resistance vessels n. metarterioles g. medium-sized veins o. large veins h. venules p. arterioles 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Lines all blood vessels- tunica externa Site for exchange of nutrients and oxygen- capillaries Layer of a blood vessel wall made of strong fibrous connective tissue- tunica externa Blood vessel containing one-way valves- medium-sized veins Produces chemicals that cause blood vessels to dilate or constrict- tunica intima Larger protein molecules can pass through these vessels- sinusoids Another name for veins based on their ability to carry varying amounts of blood- capacitance vessels Blood vessels with the thickest walls- arteries Another name for arterioles based on their ability to affect blood pressure- resistance vessels Layer of a blood vessel wall containing muscle and elastic tissue that allows a vessel to change diameter-tunica media Arteries closest to the heart-conducting arteries Also called “muscular” vessels- distributing arteries Collect blood from capillaries- venules Vessels that connect to capillaries on the arteriole side- metarterioles Also referred to as “elastic” vessels- conducting arteries Venules converge to form these- medium sized veins Veins closest to the heart- large veins Deliver blood to specific organs- distributing arteries Layer of blood vessel wall that provides support and protection- tunica externa Center space of a blood vessel- Lumen hhhhhhh

1. ANS: D PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 2. ANS: C PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 3. ANS: B PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 4. ANS: G PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 5. ANS: D PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 6. ANS: I PTS:

1

DIF: E

REF: 294

1

DIF: E

REF: 297

1

DIF: E

REF: 294

1

DIF: E

REF: 296

1

DIF: E

REF: 294

1

DIF: E

REF: 298

KEY: REMEMBERING 7. ANS: K PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 8. ANS: A PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 9. ANS: F PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 10. ANS: J PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 11. ANS: M PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 12. ANS: L PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 13. ANS: H PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 14. ANS: N PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 15. ANS: M PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 16. ANS: G PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 17. ANS: O PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 18. ANS: L PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 19. ANS: B PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 20. ANS: E PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING

1

DIF: E

REF: 296

1

DIF: E

REF: 296-297

1

DIF: E

REF: 296

1

DIF: E

REF: 294

1

DIF: E

REF: 295

1

DIF: E

REF: 295

1

DIF: E

REF: 296

1

DIF: E

REF: 295

1

DIF: E

REF: 295

1

DIF: E

REF: 296

1

DIF: E

REF: 296

1

DIF: E

REF: 295

1

DIF: E

REF: 294

1

DIF: E

REF: 296

MULTIPLE CHOICE 21. Which blood vessels connect the two sides of the vascular system? a. Arteries b. Veins c. Capillaries d. Venules ANS: C Capillaries have an arterial end and a venous end and connect the two sides of the vascular system.

Arteries are large vessels distant from the connection between the two sides. Venules, not veins, are connected to the capillary bed.

PTS: 1

DIF: E

REF: 293

KEY: REMEMBERING

22. How are capillaries organized? a. Each arteriole narrows until it becomes a capillary, after which it increases in diameter to become a venule. b. Capillaries are organized according to the needs of the tissue; some tissues have large

capillary networks because they require rapid exchange of nutrients, chemicals, or gases, whereas other areas have no capillaries because arterioles supply sufficient amounts of blood. c. Capillaries branch off of arterioles to form a bed, or network, of many capillaries. d. Capillaries branch into sinusoids where the exchange of nutrients and gases takes place.

ANS: C The functional unit or organization of capillaries is the “bed”—an extensive branching of microscopic vessels off the arterioles. The capillary bed greatly increases the cross-sectional area for the efficient exchange of gases and nutrients.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 297

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

23. Which blood vessels have the greatest ability to expand and recoil, and why is this important? a. Medium-sized veins, because it helps them carry varying amounts of blood b. Conducting arteries, so they can manage the surge of blood with systole and help propel blood during diastole c. Arterioles, because they must constrict or dilate to control blood pressure d. Capillaries, because they must supply more blood during stress or exercise ANS: B Conducting arteries must handle surges of blood under high pressure (during systole) followed by a rapid drop-off of pressure (during diastole). They manage these dynamics through expansion and recoil. Recoil, when the artery springs back to its original diameter, is forceful enough to keep blood moving forward during cardiac relaxation. Veins have the capacity to stretch, but they do not recoil like conducting arteries. By the time blood reaches the arterioles or the capillaries, various forces have converged to greatly reduce blood pressure; they do not need to expand.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 295|308

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

24. Why is it important for the tunica intima to be smooth? a. To make stretching easier b. To increase recoil power c. To help prevent aneurysms d. To help prevent blood clots ANS: D The tunica intima is the inner lining of blood vessels and the heart. It is critical that this surface be smooth, because when blood comes into contact with rough surfaces, small amounts can adhere and form clots. These tiny clots grow into large blood clots, which can be life-threatening if the entire clot, or pieces of the clot, breaks loose. Support of blood vessels is provided by the tunica externa.

Elasticity is not related to the smoothness of the tunica intima. The smoothness of the tunica intima is not related to protecting against aneurysms.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 294

KEY: ANALYZING

25. Which is the correct order of vessels in the arterial system, starting at the heart? a. Elastic arteries, distributing arteries, resistance vessels, arterioles b. Conducting arteries, muscular arteries, elastic arteries, arterioles c. Distributing arteries, conducting arteries, elastic arteries, arterioles d. Conducting arteries, distributing arteries, arterioles, capillaries ANS: D

Conducting arteries, distributing arteries, arterioles, capillaries is the order in which arteries proceed from the heart. Elastic is another name for conducting arteries; muscular is another name for distributing arteries.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 295

KEY: REMEMBERING

26. Which is the correct order of vessels in the venous system, beginning with capillaries? a. Large veins, medium-sized veins, venules b. Venules, capacitance veins, muscular veins, large veins c. Venules, medium-sized veins, large veins d. Large veins, medium-sized veins, small veins, venules ANS: C The venous system begins with venules, which converge into medium-sized veins, which, in turn, converge into large veins. The venous system begins with venules and proceeds to larger vessels.

Capacitance vessels is a general term for the venous system because of its capacity for stretching to carry large amounts of blood.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 296

KEY: REMEMBERING

27. Which blood vessel has the most significant role in controlling the amount of blood reaching the tissues? a. Aorta b. Arteriole c. Venule d. Distributing artery ANS: B Arterioles can constrict or dilate to the greatest degree and, therefore, have the greatest influence on the amount of blood that reaches the tissues. The aorta is very distant from the tissues and does not directly influence how much blood reaches them. Venules carry blood away from tissues. Distributing arteries do not directly supply tissue; they distribute blood to the arterioles.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 295

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

28. Capillary walls are composed of a. two layers: the tunica media and the tunica intima. b. a single layer of endothelium with basement membrane. c. a single layer of connective tissue with endothelium. d. three layers: a layer of endothelium, a layer of smooth muscle and elastic tissue, and a layer of connective tissue.

ANS: B Endothelium, with a basement membrane, form the single-layer walls of capillaries. The walls do not have tunics like other blood vessel walls (layers of connective, elastic, or muscular tissue).

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 297

KEY: REMEMBERING

29. Which best explains how the vascular system maintains blood pressure? a. Arterioles dilate or constrict to provide the correct amount of resistance to blood flow. b. Medium-sized veins constrict to help maintain blood pressure when blood pressure drops.

c. Distributing arteries carry blood evenly throughout the body to maintain a stable blood pressure. d. Veins and arteries work together to maintain blood pressure at or near 110/70 mm Hg. ANS: A Arterioles affect blood pressure by constricting or dilating. This controls the resistance to blood flow, which helps regulate blood pressure. Veins can constrict to help maintain blood pressure, but this function primarily occurs only when there is a sudden decrease in blood volume. Distributing arteries can dilate or constrict but do not have much influence on blood pressure under normal circumstances.

Veins and arteries do work together to control blood pressure, but this oversimplifies. Also, blood pressure is not always maintained at 110/70; it varies according to activity level, emotional state, medications, and disease.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 295

KEY: ANALYZING

30. What happens as blood is transported from the aorta to the capillaries? a. Pressure increases b. Flow increases c. Resistance increases d. Velocity increases ANS: C As blood moves through increasingly smaller vessels, resistance increases. This would cause velocity, flow, and pressure to decrease.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 306

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

31. How does the cardiovascular system meet the metabolic needs of skeletal muscle during strenuous exercise? a. It maintains blood flow at a stable rate. b. It opens up capillary beds in skeletal muscle. c. It temporarily diverts blood from the gastrointestinal tract and brain to get extra blood to the muscles. d. It dilates capillaries to approximately twice their original diameter to accommodate the extra blood.

ANS: B Capillary beds in skeletal muscles, which are closed during periods of rest, open during strenuous exercise to meet increased oxygen demand and remove the waste products generated by exercise. The vascular system does not maintain blood at a stable rate but increases it when metabolic demands increase. Blood may be shunted from the gastrointestinal tract but is not shunted from the brain, which is extremely sensitive to decreases in blood flow. Capillaries do not have the capacity to double in diameter.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 297

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

32. What would occur in the capillary bed if osmotic pressure in the venule end was equal to osmotic pressure in the tissues? a. Oxygen would be replenished in the tissues. b. Protein would escape from the blood into the surrounding tissue. c. Waste products from the surrounding cells would enter the capillary. d. Carbon dioxide and waste products would remain in the tissue fluid.

ANS: D If osmotic pressure in the venule end was equal to osmotic pressure in the tissues, no force would exist to draw fluid and waste products back into the capillary. Therefore, carbon dioxide and waste products would remain in the fluid surrounding the cells. Oxygen enters the tissues primarily by diffusion at the arteriole end of the capillary. Proteins would not escape if osmotic pressure is equal because equilibrium is the sought-after state. Waste products would not enter the capillary because a difference in pressure is required for osmotic pressure to work.

PTS: 1

DIF:

D

REF: 299

KEY: APPLYING

33. Which process pushes plasma and dissolved nutrients through the arterial end of the capillary wall? a. Colloidal pressure b. Diffusion c. Osmosis d. Filtration ANS: D Plasma and dissolved nutrients are pushed through the capillary wall through a process called filtration. Colloidal pressure is another term for colloid osmotic pressure. Colloidal pressure, diffusion, and osmosis involve different mechanisms for exchanging nutrients and gases in the capillaries.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 299

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

34. What is diffusion from the standpoint of capillary exchange? a. Movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration b. Water moves through the capillary wall from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration c. Higher pressure within the capillary pushes plasma and dissolved nutrients through the capillary wall d. Albumin and other proteins in blood pull tissue fluid and cellular waste products into the cell ANS: A Diffusion is the movement of molecules of a substance from an area where it is more concentrated to an area where it is less concentrated. Osmosis is the movement of water molecules across a semipermeable membrane from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. In filtration, nutrients and plasma are pushed into the tissues because capillary blood is under greater pressure than the tissue fluid. As blood moves from the arterial end of the capillary to the venous end, albumin and other proteins create colloid osmotic pressure, which pulls fluid and waste products from the tissues into the bloodstream.

PTS: 1

DIF:

D

REF: 298-299

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

35. A patient who cannot walk because of severe arthritis develops edema in both ankles. Based on your understanding of edema, capillary pressure, and mechanisms of capillary exchange, which action would help decrease the patient’s edema? a. Restrict fluid intake. b. Elevate the patient’s legs. c. Provide a high-protein diet. d. Increase fluid intake.

ANS: B The patient’s edema is caused by increased capillary pressure because of inactivity and poor venous return. The higher capillary pressure is forcing more fluids into the tissues than can be reabsorbed.

Elevating the patient’s legs will help reduce capillary pressure and prevent more fluid from entering the tissues. Restricting fluid intake might seem to help at first, but the problem is not excess fluid. In fact, because she is retaining fluid in her legs, she has less fluid volume in her bloodstream than normal. Restricting fluid intake in this situation could cause dehydration. Adding protein will not help because her protein levels are not low. Increasing fluid intake would increase capillary pressure, filtration, and edema.

PTS: 1

DIF:

D

REF: 299

KEY: APPLYING

36. The coronary arteries arise from which major artery? a. Ascending aorta b. Left subclavian artery c. Common carotid artery d. Brachiocephalic artery ANS: A The coronary arteries branch off the ascending aorta. The other arteries branch off the aortic arch.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 301

KEY: REMEMBERING

37. Which area of the aorta supplies blood to the liver? a. Descending aorta b. Abdominal aorta c. Aortic arch d. Thoracic aorta ANS: B The abdominal aorta creates many branches that supply the internal organs including the liver.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 302

KEY: REMEMBERING

38. Which are the three branches of the aortic arch? a. Descending aorta, thoracic aorta, and left common carotid b. Brachiocephalic artery, thoracic aorta, and ascending aorta c. Left common carotid, brachiocephalic, and left subclavian arteries d. Left common carotid, right common carotid, and coronary arteries ANS: C The three branches of the aortic arch are the left common carotid, the brachiocephalic, and the left subclavian arteries. The ascending, thoracic, and descending aorta are different sections of the aorta rather than branches. The coronary arteries branch off the ascending aorta, and the right common carotid branches off of the brachiocephalic artery.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 301

39. The abdominal aorta divides into a. the right and left common mesenteric arteries. b. the right and left common iliac arteries. c. the right and left femoral arteries.

KEY: REMEMBERING

d. the right and left popliteal arteries.

ANS: B The abdominal aorta branches into the right and left common iliac arteries. The mesenteric arteries branch off the abdominal aorta above the common iliac arteries. The femoral and popliteal arteries are branches off the iliac arteries.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 301

KEY: REMEMBERING

40. Which arteries provide most of the brain’s blood supply? a. Right and left jugular arteries b. Right and left common carotid arteries c. Right and left subclavian arteries d. Right and left vertebral arteries.

ANS: B The right and left carotid arteries supply most of the brain’s blood. The jugular blood vessels are veins; the subclavian artery is a branch of the brachiocephalic artery. The subclavian arteries supply blood to the shoulders and arms.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 301

KEY: REMEMBERING

41. Which organs receive blood from the mesenteric arteries? a. Liver, spleen, stomach b. Intestines c. Kidneys and bladder d. Lungs ANS: B The mesenteric arteries supply blood to the intestines; the superior mesenteric artery nourishes most of the small intestine and part of the large intestine, whereas the inferior mesenteric artery supplies the remaining portion of the large intestine. The liver, spleen, and stomach each have their own blood supply (gastric, splenic, and hepatic arteries, respectively). The kidneys receive blood from the renal arteries, whereas the bladder receives blood from the common iliac arteries. The arteries that supply lung tissue with oxygenated blood are the bronchial arteries, which should not be confused with the pulmonary arteries that carry deoxygenated blood to the alveoli for exchange of gases.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 302

KEY: REMEMBERING

42. The most common site for routine assessment of heart rate is the a. radial artery. b. brachial artery. c. carotid artery. d. axillary artery.

ANS: A The radial artery, which can be palpated at the wrist, is the most common site for assessing heart rate.

The brachial artery is the most common site for blood pressure assessment. Assessing heart rate by palpating the carotid artery is recommended for emergencies (because it is closest to the heart and, therefore, may be easiest to assess). The axillary artery can be difficult to palpate and is rarely used to assess heart rate.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 302

KEY: REMEMBERING

43. The blood vessel that receives all blood returning from below the level of the heart is the a. superior vena cava. b. atrial vein. c. inferior vena cava. d. common iliac vein.

ANS: C The inferior vena cava receives all blood returning from below the level of the heart before emptying it into the right atrium. The superior vena cava receives all blood from above the level of the heart. The common iliac vein is a lower section of the large vein that becomes the inferior vena cava. The atrial vein is in the brain.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 304

KEY: REMEMBERING

44. Which blood vessel(s) does blood enter after leaving the portal vein? a. Sinusoids b. Hepatic veins c. Inferior vena cava d. Superior mesenteric vein ANS: A The portal (or hepatic portal) vein carries blood to the liver, where it circulates through the sinusoids.

Blood enters the hepatic vein only after it travels through the sinusoids. Blood from the portal vein enters the inferior vena cava from the hepatic veins. The superior mesenteric vein is one of the veins that converges with others to form the portal vein.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 305

KEY: REMEMBERING

45. What is the function of the pulmonary circulation? a. To bring deoxygenated blood to the alveoli for gas exchange b. To bring deoxygenated blood to the heart for circulation to the lungs c. To meet the metabolic needs of the pulmonary tissue d. To meet both the metabolic needs of the pulmonary tissue and bring blood to the alveoli ANS: A Bringing deoxygenated blood into close contact with the alveoli so that gas exchange can take place is the sole function of the pulmonary circulation. The venous system returns deoxygenated blood to the heart so it can be circulated to the lungs via the pulmonary arteries for oxygenation. The systemic circulation transports blood to the lungs to meet the metabolic needs of lung tissue, but it does not participate in the transportation of deoxygenated blood to the alveoli. The two systems are separate.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 300

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

46. How does blood flow through the pulmonary circulation? a. Right atrium, pulmonary trunk and right and left pulmonary arteries, lobar arteries, capillary beds, lobar veins, pulmonary vein, right ventricle b. Right atrium, pulmonary arteries, lobar arteries, capillary beds, lobar veins, pulmonary vein, left ventricle c. Right ventricle, pulmonary veins, lobar veins, capillary beds, lobar arteries, pulmonary artery, left atrium

d. Right ventricle, pulmonary arteries, lobar arteries, capillary beds, lobar veins, pulmonary vein, left atrium ANS: D Deoxygenated blood leaves the right ventricle, traverses the pulmonary trunk, and then travels via the right and left pulmonary arteries to the lobar arteries, which branch into smaller arteries until they end at the capillary beds. The capillary beds surround the alveoli and the exchange of gases takes place here. The oxygenated blood then begins its route back to the heart via the venules and veins that eventually merge to form the lobar veins and then the large pulmonary vein, which transports the blood to the left atrium. Deoxygenated blood does not bypass the left heart; it travels through the right heart to the lungs and then to the left heart. Deoxygenated blood does not bypass the right ventricle; it travels from the right atrium to the right ventricle, from which it is ejected into the pulmonary trunk.

Deoxygenated blood is transported to the lungs by arteries not veins.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 300

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

47. What effect does reducing peripheral resistance have? a. It decreases blood flow and increases blood pressure. b. It increases cardiac output. c. It increases blood flow and decreases blood pressure. d. It decreases cardiac output and increases blood pressure.

ANS: C Decreasing peripheral resistance increases blood flow and decreases blood pressure. Decreasing peripheral resistance also decreases cardiac output.

PTS: 1

DIF:

D

REF: 307

KEY: ANALYZING

48. How is it possible to have two separate circulatory systems (pulmonary and systemic)? a. The pulmonary arteries and veins reverse their function at the heart so that the pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood and the pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood. b. The heart is really two separate pumps; circulation to the lungs needs one pump, whereas circulation to the body needs a separate pump. c. The two systems are separate to prevent mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, which would cause the oxygen level to drop too low. d. The two systems are not truly separate; circulation of a specific sample of blood to the lungs occurs only after it has traveled through the body. It is one continuous system.

ANS: B The simultaneous circulation of blood to the lungs for reoxygenation and blood to the body for nutrients and gas exchange is possible because the heart is really two separate pumps. The right heart pumps blood to the lungs, and the left heart pumps blood to the body. Although sharing many properties and structures, the heart, divided by the septum, becomes two functionally and anatomically distinct units. Although the pulmonary arteries and veins are unusual in that they carry blood with oxygen levels opposite that of other arteries and veins, their functionality does not explain why two separate circulatory systems are possible. Likewise, the fact that mixing deoxygenated and oxygenated blood is not compatible with life does not explain how we avoid this problem. Although a specific sample of blood circulates through the system before entering the pulmonary circulation, both circulatory systems function simultaneously and separately. This is only possible because the right and left heart are separate pumps.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 300

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

49. What is a portal system of circulation? a. Circulation of blood through arteries to capillaries to veins and then to the heart b. An area of the venous system where blood slows to allow for nutrient absorption c. Circulation of blood through two capillary beds before returning to the heart d. Blood flow to and from the liver ANS: C A portal system of circulation is one in which blood travels through two capillary networks before it returns to the heart. Circulation of blood from arteries to capillaries to veins describes typical systemic circulation. The distinguishing feature of portal circulation is that the blood travels through two capillary beds; flow is not slowed down through a single capillary bed. Portal circulation does occur in the liver, but that does not describe what portal circulation means.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 300

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

50. Where is blood flow slowest, and what contributes to the diminished velocity? a. Flow is slowest in the capillaries because of their larger cross-sectional area and narrow diameter. b. Large veins have the slowest blood flow because they receive blood from several different medium-sized veins and they have valves that interfere with blood flow. c. Arteriole blood flow is slowest because they are farthest from the heart and are the narrowest arteries. d. Distributing arteries of the brain have the slowest flow of blood because they have a large cross-sectional area and many branches.

ANS: A Blood flow is slowest in the capillary beds because they have the greatest cross-sectional area because of the widespread branching of capillaries. Capillaries also are narrowest in diameter, which increases resistance and decreases flow rate. Blood flow in large-sized veins is faster than in the capillaries because as vessel diameter increases, resistance decreases. They have a much smaller cross-sectional area than capillaries. Arterioles are closer to the heart than capillaries, and they have a smaller crosssectional area. The distributing arteries in the brain (or anywhere in the vascular system) have a smaller cross-sectional area than capillaries.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 309

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

51. Although cardiac contractions supply some of the power propelling blood through the vascular system, what other property of the circulatory system keeps blood circulating? a. Arterial expansion and recoil b. Pressure gradients c. Valves in medium-sized veins d. Skeletal muscle and respiratory pumps ANS: B Resistance to blood flow causes pressure in the closed vascular system, which results in a pressure gradient—a gradual decline in pressure. Blood, like any fluid, will continue to flow by moving along the gradient from an area of high pressure to an area of lower pressure. Arterial expansion and recoil help propel blood through the system but are an effect of the contraction itself. Valves and the skeletal muscle and respiratory pumps are useful only in the venous system, where they help overcome the effects of gravity.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 306

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

52. The maximum pressure generated during ventricular contraction is called a. diastolic pressure. b. systolic pressure. c. stroke volume pressure. d. arteriole pressure.

ANS: B The maximum pressure generated during ventricular contraction is called systolic pressure. Diastolic pressure is generated during ventricular relaxation. Stroke volume is the amount of blood ejected with each ventricular contraction and does not involve pressure measurements. Arteriole pressure may be used to describe the amount of pressure in the arterioles; however, arteriole pressure is much lower than the maximum pressure.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 307

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

53. Where in the cardiovascular system are the highest and the lowest pressures found? a. Left ventricle (highest); right atrium (lowest) b. Aorta (highest), capillaries (lowest) c. Large arteries (highest), small veins (lowest) d. Aorta (highest), venae cavae (lowest) ANS: B The highest pressure is in the aorta, which is closest to the force of the ventricular contraction. The lowest pressure is in the capillaries, which are far removed from the left ventricle. The friction caused by the narrow diameter of capillaries also slows flow, as does the greater total cross-sectional area.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 306

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

54. What is peripheral resistance? a. Any property of the peripheral vascular system or blood that increases friction. b. Forces outside the vascular system that interfere with circulation, such as edema, excess weight, constrictive clothing, or conditions that impair leg mobility. c. Areas of the peripheral vascular system damaged because of age-related conditions such as stiffening of the arteries or plaque buildup that causes friction and hinders the blood flow. d. Peripheral vasoconstriction caused by abnormal release of hormones such as angiotensin I and II, epinephrine, rennin, aldosterone, and others.

ANS: A Peripheral resistance is any property of the peripheral vascular system or blood that increases friction, which hinders the flow of blood. It does not include factors outside the vascular system. Pathological conditions or abnormal secretion of hormones can increase peripheral resistance but are not the definition of it.

PTS: 1

DIF:

D

REF: 308

KEY: ANALYZING

55. Which is the most significant factor affecting peripheral resistance? a. Blood viscosity b. Blood vessel length c. Blood vessel diameter d. Blood pH

ANS: C Blood vessel diameter has the greatest influence on peripheral resistance. Vessel length and blood viscosity affect resistance but not to the extent that diameter does. Blood pH affects vessel diameter to some extent and, therefore, peripheral resistance. However, blood vessel diameter is still the main influencing factor.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 308

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

56. Which three factors determine blood pressure? a. Vessel diameter, blood viscosity, cardiac output b. Resistance, blood volume, cardiac output c. Heart rate, stroke volume, blood volume d. Vessel diameter, cardiac output, heart rate ANS: B Resistance, blood volume, and cardiac output determine blood pressure. Vessel diameter and blood viscosity are determinants of resistance. Heart rate affects cardiac output but is not a direct factor in determining blood pressure. Stroke volume is a factor of cardiac output.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 307

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

57. Which factors cause blood pressure to rise? a. Increased cardiac output b. Decreased cardiac output c. Decreased blood volume d. Increased blood volume e. Increased resistance f. Decreased resistance g. B and D h. A, D, and E ANS: H Blood pressure rises when cardiac output, blood volume, and/or resistance increase. Decreased cardiac output, decreased blood volume, and/or decreased resistance cause blood pressure to decrease.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 307

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

58. What causes the friction in blood vessels that affects blood pressure? a. Cardiac output and heart rate b. Blood viscosity and blood vessel diameter c. Damaged, broken capillaries and varicose veins d. Pressure gradients and blood flow ANS: B Friction in blood vessels, which is called peripheral resistance, is caused by blood viscosity and the diameter of the vessel walls. For example, thick blood within narrow vessels will result in greater resistance to blood flow than thin blood in large vessels, which would flow easily. Cardiac output and heart rate do not cause friction in blood vessels. Damaged capillaries and varicose veins may cause friction; however, they do not affect blood pressure in the arterial system. Pressure gradients are forces that enable circulation; blood flow does not cause friction but is affected by it.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 308

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

59. The pressure gradient in the vascular system must be high enough to overcome which of the following factors? a. Diastolic blood pressure b. Capillary pressure c. Peripheral resistance d. Gravity e. Preload forces f. Skeletal muscle pump and respiratory pump forces g. C and D ANS: G For circulation to occur, the pressure gradient must be high enough to overcome peripheral resistance and gravity. The diastolic pressure is the pressure in major arteries when the heart is at rest and is not a direct factor in blood circulation. Capillary pressure is the pressure within capillaries and is part of the pressure gradient itself, so it does not need to be “overcome.” The force of gravity must be overcome for blood in the venous system to flow against it on its way back to the heart. However, bear in mind that the venous system gets help from the skeletal muscle and respiratory pumps, as well as from valves in veins that stop blood from flowing backward from the pull of gravity.

PTS: 1

DIF:

D

REF: 308 | 311

KEY: ANALYZING

60. Which statement best explains why a person with a systolic blood pressure of 130 mm Hg might have a blood pressure of only 70 mm Hg in the arterioles. a. The person has abnormally high arteriole blood pressure. b. Blood is less viscous in the arterioles, and therefore requires less pressure to flow. c. The narrower diameter of the arterioles causes the drop in pressure. d. Pressure declines as the blood moves away from the heart.

ANS: D Blood pressure decreases as distance from the heart increases; therefore, pressure in the arterioles will be lower than pressure in the larger arteries. An arteriole pressure of 70 mm Hg is normal. Blood vessel diameter has a critical effect on blood pressure; however, the narrower the vessel, the greater the blood pressure.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 306

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

61. How is peripheral resistance related to blood pressure? a. Blood pressure must rise until it overcomes peripheral resistance. b. Peripheral resistance keeps the arteries healthy and toned, and therefore helps maintain normal blood pressure. c. Increased peripheral resistance helps maintain normal pressures throughout the circulatory system. d. As peripheral resistance increases, blood pressure decreases.

ANS: A Peripheral resistance is the force that must be overcome for blood to reach the tissues; therefore, the lower the peripheral resistance, the lower the blood pressure. Resistance is a necessary feature of the circulatory system—without it, the system would collapse—but in healthy individuals, peripheral resistance is adjusted to keep blood pressure normal.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 307

KEY: APPLYING

62. How does vasodilation decrease blood pressure? a. It increases cardiac output, which means less pressure is required to maintain blood flow to tissues. b. It increases venous return, which decreases the amount of pressure needed to return blood to the heart. c. It decreases resistance, which means less pressure is required to overcome the resistance. d. It slows blood velocity; less velocity requires less pressure.

ANS: C Vasodilation decreases resistance; the less the resistance, the less pressure required to overcome it.

Blood pressure increases with cardiac output. Vasodilation does not increase venous return.

Vasodilation increases velocity (flow).

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 308

KEY: ANALYZING

63. Which brain structure coordinates blood pressure control? a. Medulla b. Brainstem c. Baroreceptors d. Thalamus ANS: A The medulla coordinates blood pressure control. The brainstem contains the medulla, but it has many other structures and function as well. Baroreceptors have a role in short-term blood pressure control but are located in the carotid arteries and the aortic arch, not the brain. The thalamus has multiple functions especially related to the senses.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 310

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

64. What mechanisms assist venous return? a. One-way valves, increasing diameter of veins, peripheral resistance b. Pressure changes during breathing, one-way valves, thickness of the tunica media in medium-sized veins c. Skeletal muscle contractions, large-diameter lumen, thickness of the tunica media in medium-sized veins d. One-way valves, skeletal muscle contractions, pressure changes during breathing ANS: D Skeletal muscle contractions and pressure changes during breathing create conditions that propel blood upward toward the heart. These are called the skeletal muscle pump and the respiratory pump. Oneway valves in medium-sized veins below the level of the heart prevent the backward flow of blood from gravity. Peripheral resistance and the thickness of the tunica media are factors primarily affecting arterial dynamics; they do not play a role in returning venous blood to the heart.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 310

KEY: ANALYZING

65. What is the probable cause of ankle edema in a person with right-sided heart failure? a. Reduced capillary reabsorption b. Obstructed lymphatic drainage c. Increased capillary filtration

d. Increased colloid osmotic pressure ANS: C Right-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the veins and capillaries, which increases capillary filtration and, therefore, edema. The increased pressure forces fluid out of the capillaries faster than it can be reabsorbed. Edema caused by reduced capillary reabsorption is a result of low albumin levels, which decrease colloid osmotic pressure. Right-sided heart failure does not cause obstruction of lymphatic fluid. Increased colloid osmotic pressure would not cause edema; it would help resolve edema caused by reduced reabsorption.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 311

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

66. Which actions cause blood pressure to fall? a. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system b. Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system c. Secretion of the renin, angiotensin I, and angiotensin II d. Secretion of aldosterone e. Secretion of atrial natriuretic peptide f. Secretion of antidiuretic hormone g. A, C, and E h. B and E ANS: H Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system and the secretion of the hormone atrial natriuretic peptide cause blood pressure to fall. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system causes blood pressure to rise, as do the actions of the hormones renin, angiotensin I, angiotensin II, aldosterone, and antidiuretic hormone.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 299

KEY: REMEMBERING

COMPLETION 67. Arterial walls are

than venous walls because they are subjected to greater .

ANS: thicker, pressure stronger, force PTS: 1 68.

DIF:

M

REF: 306

carry blood away from the heart, and

KEY: UNDERSTANDING return blood

to the heart.

ANS: Arteries, veins PTS: 1

DIF:

E

69. Arteries in the brain unite to form the receives an adequate supply of blood.

REF: 303

KEY: REMEMBERING , which helps ensure that the brain

ANS: circle of Willis PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 303

70. The two major pathways of circulation are the system.

KEY: UNDERSTANDING system and

ANS: pulmonary, systemic systemic, pulmonary PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 300

71. The two principal veins of the legs are the veins.

KEY: UNDERSTANDING veins and the

ANS: great saphenous, popliteal saphenous, popliteal popliteal, saphenous popliteal, great saphenous PTS: 1

DIF:

72. The arms.

E

REF: 304

KEY: REMEMBERING

is the main vessel that receives blood from the head, shoulders, and

ANS: superior vena cava SVC PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 304

73. The two arteries that supply blood to the brain are the arteries.

KEY: REMEMBERING and

ANS: carotid, vertebral vertebral, carotid PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 303

74. An increase in blood volume will cause blood pressure to ANS: increase rise go up

KEY: REMEMBERING .

PTS: 1 75.

DIF:

M

REF: 307

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

is the actual volume of blood passing through a blood vessel, organ, or other part of the circulatory system in a given period.

ANS: Blood flow Blood velocity Flow Velocity PTS: 1

DIF:

M

76. The greater the blood’s

REF: 309

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

, the more it resists free flow.

ANS: viscosity (thickness, stickiness) viscosity (stickiness, thickness) thickness (viscosity, stickiness) thickness (stickiness, viscosity) stickiness (thickness, viscosity) stickiness (viscosity, thickness) viscosity stickiness thickness PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 308

KEY: REMEMBERING

Chapter 17: Lymphatic & Immune Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Besides immunity, what other function does the lymphatic system serve? a. Fluid balance b. Electrolyte balance c. Regulation of body temperature d. Prevents cancer cells from spreading ANS: A One of the roles of the lymphatic system is to absorb fluid that continually seeps out of capillaries and return it to the bloodstream. It does not play a role in electrolyte balance or the regulation of body temperature. The lymphatic system does not prevent the spread of cancer cells. Rather, cancer often spreads via the lymphatic system.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 316

KEY: REMEMBERING

2. Lymph differs from plasma in that lymph has a. a lower glucose content. b. a higher glucose content. c. a lower protein content. d. a higher protein content.

ANS: C Lymph has a lower protein content than plasma does.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 316

KEY: REMEMBERING

3. Which of the following statements about lymphatic vessels is correct? a. Lymphatic vessels originate at the terminal ends of capillaries. b. Lymphatic vessels have valves. c. Lymphatic vessels consist of tightly joined epithelial cells. d. Fluid moves through lymphatic vessels away from tissues and toward the heart.

ANS: B Lymphatic vessels have valves to prevent backflow, ensuring that lymph moves steadily away from the tissues and toward the heart. The vessels originate as blind-ended vessels in tissue spaces. They consist of loosely overlapped epithelial cells. The fluid flows one direction: away from tissues and toward the heart.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 316

4. Which of the following aids in the movement of lymphatic fluid? a. The beating of the heart b. Pulsations within nearby veins and capillaries c. Contractions of skeletal muscles d. Beating of cilia within lymphatic vessels ANS: C

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

Lymphatic fluid moves passively, aided by contractions within the lymphatic vessels themselves (not that of nearby veins or capillaries); this flow is aided further by the contraction of skeletal muscles.

The beating of the heart does not influence capillary flow. Lymphatic vessels do not contain cilia.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 317

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

5. Which of the following is a primary lymphatic organ? a. Thymus b. Tonsils c. Spleen d. Lymph nodes ANS: A Red bone marrow and the thymus are called primary lymphatic organs. The tonsils, spleen, and lymph nodes are secondary lymphatic organs.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 318

KEY: REMEMBERING

6. Lymph from the left arm drains into the a. superior vena cava. b. inferior vena cava. c. right subclavian vein. d. left subclavian vein.

ANS: D The thoracic duct drains lymph from the lower body and left side of the upper body into the left subclavian vein.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 318

KEY: APPLYING

7. T lymphocytes are “trained” to recognize foreign cells in the a. red bone marrow. b. spleen. c. bloodstream. d. thymus.

ANS: D T lymphocytes travel from red bone marrow to the thymus. There, they divide and mature. They are also “trained” to distinguish between the cells of the host body and foreign cells.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 318

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

8. What is a primary function of lymph nodes? a. Remove pathogens from the blood b. Remove pathogens from lymph c. Separate lymphatic fluid from plasma d. Destroy old red blood cells ANS: B As lymph flows along its course, it passes through multiple lymph nodes, which remove pathogens and foreign material. Blood does not flow through lymph nodes. Lymphatic fluid originates in tissue spaces as the fluid leftover after capillary exchange; it is not separated from plasma in lymph nodes.

One of the functions of the spleen—not lymph nodes— is to destroy old red blood cells.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 319

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

9. Which part of the lymph node forms and releases lymphocytes when an infection is present? a. Trabeculae b. Cortical nodules c. Sinuses d. Germinal centers ANS: D Germinal centers, which are at the center of cortical nodules, form and release lymphocytes when an infection is present. Trabeculae consist of connective tissue that divides the node into compartments.

Sinuses are lines with macrophages; lymph flows through the sinuses in the process of being filtered.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 319

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

10. A patient is undergoing treatment for breast cancer. After surgery, the pathology report shows the presence of cancer cells in the axillary lymph nodes. What is the most probable explanation for this finding? a. This is a good finding because it shows that the lymph nodes are doing their job to remove cancerous cells from the bloodstream. b. This finding confirms that the cancer began in the lymph nodes and spread to the breast. c. This is a good finding because the presence of the cancer cells allows the lymph nodes to release phagocytic white blood cells targeted specifically to the cancer cell. d. This finding indicates that cancer cells may have spread to other parts of the body.

ANS: D When cancerous cells break free of the original tumor, they often enter the lymphatic capillaries and travel to the nearest lymph node. There, the cells multiply and often break off and travel to the next node and other parts of the body. The lymph nodes don’t simply remove cancer cells from the body; the cells multiply within the node and eventually destroy the node. The cancer did not begin in the lymph node. The lymph node does not release phagocytic cells specific to the cancer cell.

PTS: 1

DIF:

D

REF: 320

KEY: ANALYZING

11. A patient comes to the hospital after losing a large amount of blood. Which function of the spleen is most important in this situation? a. The spleen’s ability to produce red blood cells b. The spleen’s role in the destruction of worn-out blood cells c. The spleen’s role in blood storage d. The spleen’s ability to ingest and destroy microorganisms ANS: C The spleen stores 20% to 30% of the body’s platelets. The spleen can rapidly add these into general circulation and boost blood volume. The spleen produces red blood cells in the fetus; after birth, it does so only in cases of severe anemia. This attribute may be useful once the patient is stabilized, but its beneficial effects would be much slower to realize. The spleen’s role in the destruction of old red blood cells and its ability to ingest and destroy microorganisms would not be significant in this situation.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 321

KEY: ANALYZING

12. Where is the spleen located? a. The upper left quadrant of the abdomen b. The upper right quadrant of the abdomen c. Behind the stomach d. The right lower quadrant of the abdomen ANS: A The spleen is located in the upper left quadrant of the abdomen, just inferior to the diaphragm.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 321

KEY: REMEMBERING

13. After the spleen destroys old red blood cells, it a. releases leftover hemoglobin into the circulatory system. b. creates bilirubin, which it secretes into the intestines. c. returns leftover iron and globin to the liver and bone marrow. d. stores leftover iron for later use.

ANS: C As macrophages in the spleen digest old red blood cells, they recycle the hemoglobin, salvaging the iron and globin and returning it to the bone marrow and liver for later use. The spleen does not release hemoglobin into the circulatory system; it also does not create bilirubin or store leftover iron.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 321

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

14. The skin and mucous membranes are part of the body’s a. first line of defense. b. second line of defense. c. third line of defense. d. specific immunity.

ANS: A The skin and mucous membranes are part of the first line of defense. The second line of defense includes mechanisms launched inside the body, such as the production of phagocytic white blood cells.

The third line of defense, which is the same thing as specific immunity, occurs when the body retains a memory of a pathogen after defeating it.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 322

KEY: REMEMBERING

15. The mucous membranes of the respiratory tract repel pathogens because they a. contain cilia, which propel pathogens out of the body. b. produce mucus, which traps pathogens. c. contain an acid mantle, which inhibits bacterial growth. d. consists of tough protein, which repels most pathogens.

ANS: B The mucous membranes produce mucus, which physically traps pathogens. In the respiratory tract, the mucus is swallowed and the pathogens are destroyed by stomach acid. Cilia in the respiratory tract help propel foreign particles, such as dust, out of the respiratory tract, but they have no real role in repelling pathogens. The skin contains an acid mantle, which inhibits bacterial growth. The skin also consists of tough protein, which repels most pathogens.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 322

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

16. Which of the following statements about interferon is correct? a. Interferon is produced by cells before being infected with a virus. b. Interferon binds to surface receptors of cells in the area surrounding an infection. c. Interferon triggers the production of enzymes within cells that have become infected. d. Enzymes produced within neighboring cells at the prompting of interferon prevent the virus from invading.

ANS: B A cell produces interferon after being invaded by a virus. The interferon binds to surface receptors on neighboring cells. This triggers the production of enzymes within cells that have not yet been invaded; these enzymes would prevent the virus from replicating if it managed to invade. The enzymes do not prevent the virus from invading.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 324

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

17. Which of the following is one of the actions of complement? a. Complement triggers a cascade of chemical reactions that result with the destruction of a bacterium. b. Complement coats cells, making them unattractive to pathogens. c. Complement triggers the production of enzymes in cells that prevent a bacterium from replicating. d. Complement alleviates inflammation.

ANS: A Complement triggers a cascade of chemical reactions that result with the destruction of a bacterium.

Complement coats pathogens, making them attractive to phagocytes. Complement does not prevent a bacterium from replicating. Complement stimulates inflammation.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 324

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

18. Which statement correctly describes the effect of inflammation upon healing? a. Swelling that accompanies inflammation delays healing because it compresses blood vessels, impairing the ability of neutrophils to enter the area. b. Heat that accompanies inflammation delays healing because the increased temperature slows the rate of tissue repair. c. Redness, or hyperemia, resulting from inflammation brings materials necessary for healing and, therefore, can be a beneficial part of the healing process. d. Swelling that accompanies inflammation is a sign of increased venous drainage and, therefore, is a positive sign of healing.

ANS: C Hyperemia (which produces redness and heat) brings materials necessary for healing, including oxygen and amino acids. Heat in the area also increases the metabolic rate and thus the rate of tissue repair. Swelling results from fluid leaking out of capillaries; this compresses veins, which reduces venous drainage while opening capillary valves to promote capillary drainage. This facilitates healing because lymphatic capillaries are more adept at removing bacteria, dead cells, and tissue debris.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 325

KEY: REMEMBERING

19. Which of the following is associated with specific immunity? a. Complement b. Interferon c. Immunoglobulins d. Neutrophils ANS: C Immunoglobulins are directed at a specific pathogen and, therefore, are a form of specific immunity.

Complement, interferon, and neutrophils are all used in nonspecific immunity.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 323-324|328

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

20. Injecting a vaccine of a dead or weakened pathogen imparts which type of immunity? a. Natural active immunity b. Artificial active immunity c. Natural passive immunity d. Artificial passive immunity ANS: B Vaccinations produce artificial active immunity. Natural active immunity is achieved when the body produces antibodies or T cells after being exposed to a particular antigen. Natural passive immunity results when a fetus acquires antibodies from the mother through the placenta. Artificial passive immunity involves injecting a serum obtained from a person or animal that has produced antibodies against a certain pathogen.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 327

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

21. The most abundant immunoglobulin is a. IgA. b. IgE. c. IgG. d. IgM. ANS: C IgG is the primary antibody of the secondary immune response. It also comprises 80% of all circulating antibodies.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 328

KEY: REMEMBERING

22. What role do helper T cells play in cellular immunity? a. They help the cytotoxic T cell destroy the antigen by binding to the surface of the antigen. b. They secrete chemicals that summon neutrophils and natural killer cells. c. They trigger the immune process by presenting a fragment of the antigen on its surface. d. They secrete chemicals that destroy the antigen.

ANS: B Helper T cells secrete the chemical interleukins, which attracts neutrophils, natural killer cells, and macrophages. They also stimulate the production of T and B cells. Cytotoxic T cells find the surface of the antigen and deliver a toxic dose of chemicals that will kill it. A phagocyte, such as a macrophage, reticular cell, or B cell, presents a fragment of the antigen on its surface.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 329

KEY: ANALYZING

23. A key difference between cellular and humoral immunity is that a. cellular immunity destroys pathogens outside the cell, whereas humoral immunity destroys pathogens inside the cell. b. cellular immunity destroys pathogens inside the cell, whereas humoral immunity destroys pathogens outside the cell. c. Cellular immunity is a nonspecific immunity, whereas humoral immunity is a specific immunity. d. Cellular immunity focuses on pathogens on the body’s surface, whereas humoral immunity focuses on pathogens in the body’s interior.

ANS: B Cellular immunity destroys pathogens inside the cell, whereas humoral immunity destroys pathogens outside the cell. Both are forms of specific immunity.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 329-330

KEY: ANALYZING

24. Humoral immunity mainly uses which type of cell? a. T cells b. B cells c. Neutrophils d. Antimicrobial proteins ANS: B Humoral immunity uses B cells. Receptors of a B cell bind to a specific antigen, after which the B cell engulfs the antigen. The B cell then creates a clone of B cells programmed against the antigen. Most of the B cells become plasma cells, which secrete antibodies against the antigen. Cellular immunity uses T cells. Neutrophils are used during the inflammatory response. Antimicrobial proteins are part of the complement system and interferons.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 330

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

25. Helper T cells a. prevent an antigen from attaching to a human cell. b. trigger agglutination. c. trigger the complement cascade. d. attract neutrophils, natural killer cells, and macrophages.

ANS: D All of the other answers are actions attributed to antibodies.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 329

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

26. When someone with a genetic predisposition to an allergy is first exposed to the allergen, the body responds by producing large amounts of a. mast cells. b. the antibody IgE. c. histamine. d. the antibody IgG. ANS: B

On first exposure, the body produces large amounts of IgE specific to the allergen. These antibodies bind to mast cells in the skin, lungs, upper airways, and stomach lining. On subsequent exposure, the mast cells release histamine and other inflammatory chemicals.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 331

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

27. The membrane attack complex destroys a bacterium by a. punching holes in the plasma membrane of the bacterium to allow fluid to rush out of the cell. b. punching holes in the plasma membrane of the bacterium to allow fluid and sodium to rush into the cell. c. delivering a toxic dose of chemicals to the bacterium. d. producing antibodies against the bacterium.

ANS: B The membrane attack complex punches holes in the plasma membrane of the bacterium. Fluid and sodium rush in, causing the bacterium to swell and burst. Cellular immunity uses cytotoxic T cells to deliver a toxic dose of chemicals to the antigen. Humoral immunity produces antibodies against an antigen.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 324

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

28. Fever helps fight antigens because the elevated body temperature a. kills the antigen. b. increases the reproduction of neutrophils. c. inhibits the reproduction of bacteria and viruses. d. stimulates the production of antibodies.

ANS: C An elevation in body temperature inhibits the reproduction of bacteria and viruses. It also promotes the activity of interferon. It does not, however, kill the antigen directly; nor does it increase the reproduction of neutrophils or stimulate the production of antibodies.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 326

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

COMPLETION 29. The right right

duct drains lymph for the upper right quadrant of the body into the vein.

ANS: lymphatic, subclavian PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 318

30. Lymphatic nodules residing in the small intestines are called

KEY: REMEMBERING .

ANS: Peyer’s patches PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 318

31. The cluster of lymph nodes in the groin area are called

KEY: REMEMBERING lymph nodes.

ANS: inguinal PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 319

KEY: REMEMBERING

32. Lymph fluid eventually returns to the

.

ANS: bloodstream Right and left subclavian veins PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 317

KEY: REMEMBERING

33. The single tonsil that sits on the wall of the pharynx, just behind the nasal cavity, is the tonsil.

ANS: pharyngeal PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 320

KEY: REMEMBERING

34. The body’s largest lymphatic organ is the

.

ANS: spleen PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 321

35. Within the sinuses of the spleen, imperfect platelets.

KEY: REMEMBERING digest worn-out red blood cells and

ANS: macrophages PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 321

KEY: REMEMBERING

36. Mucus, tears, and saliva contain an enzyme called

, which destroys bacteria.

ANS: lysozyme PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 322

37. The two most important phagocytes are

KEY: REMEMBERING and

.

ANS: neutrophils, macrophages macrophages, neutrophils PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 323

38. The process whereby inflamed cells summon neutrophils is

KEY: REMEMBERING .

ANS: chemotaxis PTS: 1

DIF:

M

39. The term for fever is

REF: 323

KEY: REMEMBERING

.

ANS: pyrexia PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 326

40. Any molecule that triggers an immune response is called an

KEY: REMEMBERING .

ANS: antigen PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 328

KEY: REMEMBERING

41. The chemical causes inflammatory responses that produce the symptoms of an allergy, such as runny nose, watery eyes, and congestion.

ANS: histamine PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 331

KEY: REMEMBERING

Chapter 18: Respiratory System

MATCHING Match each structure of the respiratory system to its location or function. a. trachea f. alveoli b. pharynx g. carina c. larynx h. palate d. bronchioles i. septum e. bronchi 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

Muscular tube commonly called the throat Where gas exchange takes place Large tubes (one for each lung) that serve as a passageway for air Cartilaginous ridge at the end of the trachea Small airways that lack supportive cartilage Acts as a passageway between the pharynx and trachea; also produces sound Large tube supported by C-shaped rings of cartilage; often called the “windpipe”

1. ANS: B PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 2. ANS: F PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 3. ANS: E PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 4. ANS: G PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 5. ANS: D PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 6. ANS: C PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 7. ANS: A KEY: REMEMBERING

1

DIF: E

REF: 338

1

DIF: E

REF: 341

1

DIF: E

REF: 340

1

DIF: E

REF: 340

1

DIF: E

REF: 340

1

DIF: E

REF: 339

1

DIF: E

REF: 340

MULTIPLE CHOICE 8. Air is warmed and moistened in the a. trachea. b. bronchi. c. larynx. d. nasal cavity.

ANS: D Air picks up moisture and heat from the nasal mucosa. The trachea conveys air from the larynx to the bronchi. The bronchi convey air into the lungs. The larynx acts as a passageway between the pharynx and trachea. None of the other structures warms or moistens air.

PTS: 1

DIF: E

REF: 338

KEY: REMEMBERING

9. Which region of the pharynx contains openings for the eustachian tubes? a. Oropharynx

-

b. Laryngopharynx c. Nasopharynx d. The eustachian tubes do not open into the pharynx ANS: C The right and left eustachian tubes open into the nasopharynx.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 338

KEY: REMEMBERING

10. Which region of the pharynx contains the tonsils? a. Oropharynx b. Laryngopharynx c. Nasopharynx d. The tonsils are not found in the pharynx ANS: A The tonsils are found in the oropharynx, which is a space between the soft palate and the base of the tongue.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 338

KEY: REMEMBERING

11. Which of the following is true about the larynx? a. It connects to the esophagus. b. It extends from the posterior nares to the soft palate. c. It contains openings for the eustachian tubes. d. It prevents food and liquids from entering the trachea.

ANS: D One of the functions of the larynx is to prevent food and liquids from entering the trachea. The laryngopharynx passes dorsal to the larynx and connects to the esophagus. The nasopharynx extends from the posterior nares to the soft palate and contains openings for the eustachian tubes.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 339

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

12. What purpose does mucus in the nasal cavity serve? a. Collect inhaled dust b. Remove pathogens from inspired air c. Warm inspired air d. There is no purpose; mucus in the nasal cavity is a sign of infection ANS: A Dust in inspired air sticks to the mucus, which is then swallowed. Mucus does not serve to remove pathogens. Air is warmed by contact with the mucosa. Mucus is normally present in the nasal passages, although excess mucus is a sign of infection.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 338

13. What function do the vestibular folds of the larynx serve? a. Produce sound b. Prevent food from entering the airway c. Remove dust from inspired air d. Anchor the larynx to the epiglottis ANS: B

-21-2021 06:33:08 GMT -05:00

17010352/Ch17/

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

The vestibular folds close during swallowing to keep food and liquids out of the airway. They play no role in speech. They also do not remove dust from inspired air or anchor the larynx to the epiglottis.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 339

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

14. Based on your knowledge of the anatomy of the lower respiratory tract, where is the most likely location for an aspirated (inhaled) piece of food to lodge and why? a. The alveoli, because they reside at the terminal end of the bronchioles b. The tertiary bronchioles, because they are less than 1 mm wide c. The right bronchus, because it is slightly wider and more vertical than the left bronchus d. The carina, because it is situated at the end of the trachea ANS: C The right bronchus is slightly wider and more vertical than the left, making it the most likely location for aspirated food or small objects to lodge.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 340

KEY: ANALYZING

15. What is the purpose of surfactant? a. To reduce friction between the pleural membranes during inspiration and expiration b. To provide a medium in which gas can dissolve c. To gather any dust particles that have entered the lungs in inspired air d. To reduce surface tension to keep the alveolus from collapsing during respiration ANS: D Surfactant reduces the force of attraction between water molecules to keep the alveolus from collapsing during respiration. Pleural fluid reduces friction between the pleural membranes during inspiration and expiration. A thin layer of fluid (not surfactant) coats the inside of each alveolus to allow gas to enter and leave the cell. Surfactant has no role in gathering dust.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 341

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

16. Which substance normally exists in the pleural cavity? a. Blood b. Fluid c. Mucus d. Air ANS: B The pleural cavity normally contains a small amount of slippery pleural fluid. Blood, mucus, and air are not normally found in the pleural cavity.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 343

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

17. What is the respiratory membrane and what is its role in ventilation? a. It lines the nasal cavity, where it serves to warm and moisten inspired air. b. It lines the bronchial tree, where it secretes a layer of protective mucus, which serves to purify air entering the respiratory tract. c. It consists of the alveolar epithelium, the capillary endothelium and their joined basement membranes; it provides the surface through which gas exchange occurs. d. It lines the thoracic cavity, where it aids in lung expansion.

ANS: C

-

The exchange of air occurs through the respiratory membrane, which consists of the alveolar epithelium, the capillary endothelium, and their joined basement membranes. The nasal cavity warms and moistens inspired air. A large portion of the membrane lining the bronchial tree is covered with a layer of protective mucus, which serves to purify the air entering the respiratory tract; it is not called the respiratory membrane, however. The parietal pleura lines the entire thoracic cavity.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 341

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

18. What is the main muscle responsible for pulmonary ventilation? a. Internal intercostal muscles b. External intercostal muscles c. Scalenes d. Diaphragm ANS: D The main muscle responsible for ventilation is the diaphragm. The internal and external intercostal muscles are crucial for ventilation; however, they are not the main muscle responsible. The scalenes are used during deep inspiration.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 344

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

19. Which of the following most accurately describes muscle activity during normal inspiration? a. Both the internal intercostal muscles and the diaphragm relax. b. Both the external intercostal muscles and the diaphragm contract. c. The internal intercostal muscles contract as the diaphragm relaxes. d. Both the external intercostal muscles and the diaphragm relax.

ANS: B During inspiration, the external intercostal muscles pull the ribs upward and outward, widening the thoracic cavity. The internal intercostal muscles assist in helping to elevate the ribs. The diaphragm contracts, flattens, and drops, enlarging the thoracic cavity. The internal intercostal muscles and the diaphragm relax during expiration.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 344

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

20. You notice that a patient’s sternocleidomastoid and scalene muscles are contracting with respiration.

What should you conclude based on this observance? a. The patient is breathing normally, using the normal muscles of inspiration and expiration. b. The patient is using his accessory muscles to exhale. c. The patient is using his accessory muscles to inhale. d. The patient is using the Hering–Breuer reflex to prevent lung overinflation.

ANS: C The sternocleidomastoid and scalene muscles are accessory muscles of respiration and aid in deep inspiration. The accessory muscles for forced expiration are the rectus abdominis and external abdominal obliques. The Hering–Breuer reflex detects stretch in the chest wall.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 344|346

21. The inspiratory and expiratory centers are located in the a. medulla. b. pons. c. cerebellum. d. diaphragm.

-

KEY: ANALYZING

ANS: A The inspiratory center for controlling inspiration resides in the medulla. The pons contains the apneustic and pneumotaxic centers. The cerebellum exerts no control over respiration. The diaphragm responds to neural input, but it does not contain the inspiratory or expiratory center.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 345

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

22. What role is served by the pneumotaxic center? a. It stimulates the inspiratory center to increase the length and depth of inspiration. b. It inhibits the apneustic and inspiratory centers to prevent overinflation of the lungs. c. It sends impulses to the abdominal and accessory muscles when more forceful exhalations are needed. d. It detects increasing levels of CO2 and triggers inspiration as needed.

ANS: B The pneumotaxic center inhibits both the apneustic and inspiratory centers to contribute to a normal breathing rhythm and prevent overinflation of the lungs. The apneustic center stimulates the inspiratory center to increase the length and depth of inspiration. The expiratory center sends impulses to the abdominal and accessory muscles when more forceful exhalations are needed. The cerebral cortex detects increasing levels of CO2 and triggers inspiration as needed.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 345

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

23. A patient is experiencing low blood levels of oxygen. Which of the following processes are most likely to occur? a. The Hering–Breuer reflex will trigger the muscles in the chest wall to expand and deeper inhalation occurs. b. The hypothalamus will sense the low oxygen levels and send signals to trigger for rapid respirations. c. Central chemoreceptors will detect the falling oxygen levels and send impulses to increase the rate and depth of breathing. d. Peripheral chemoreceptors will detect the falling oxygen levels and send impulses to increase the rate and depth of breathing.

ANS: D Low blood oxygen levels cause peripheral chemoreceptors to send impulses to the medulla to increase the rate and depth of respirations. The Hering–Breuer reflex is when receptors in the lungs and chest wall detect stretching and send signals to prevent lung overinflation. The hypothalamus and limbic system send signals that affect breathing in response to emotion. Central chemoreceptors monitor pH. PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 346

KEY: APPLYING

24. Which of the following statements is true? a. Intrapleural pressure is always greater than intrapulmonic pressure. b. Intrapleural pressure is always less than atmospheric pressure. c. Intrapulmonic pressure is always greater than atmospheric pressure. d. Intrapulmonic pressure is always less than atmospheric pressure.

ANS: B Intrapleural pressure is always slightly less than atmospheric pressure. This negative pressure allows the visceral pleura to cling even tighter to the parietal pleura and help expand the lungs as the ribs pull away. Intrapulmonic pressure is the pressure within the alveoli and the bronchi. This pressure falls with lung expansion and rises as the lungs recoil.

PTS: 1

DIF:

D

REF: 347

KEY: ANALYZING

25. The alveoli contain small amounts of fluid to a. prevent friction during respiration. b. permit gas exchange. c. decrease surface tension. d. ease the movement of the alveoli against surrounding tissues.

ANS: B The thin film of water coating the inner surface of each alveoli is necessary for gas exchange. It does not prevent friction or ease movement during respiration. Instead of decreasing surface tension, the water increases surface tension. Surfactant helps decrease surface tension.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 348

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

26. If someone experiences a loss of intrapleural pressure, what will occur? a. Breathing will stop. b. Sudden exhalation will occur. c. Sudden inhalation will occur. d. The lung will collapse.

ANS: D If the thoracic wall is punctured, air will rush in and the negative intrapleural pressure will be lost. The lung will recoil and collapse, resulting in what is called a pneumothorax. Breathing will not stop. It will also not cause sudden inhalation or exhalation.

PTS: 1

DIF:

D

REF: 348

KEY: APPLYING

27. The amount of air inhaled using maximum effort after a normal inspiration is called the a. residual volume. b. vital capacity. c. total lung capacity. d. inspiratory reserve volume.

ANS: D The amount of air inhaled using maximum effort after a normal inspiration is called the inspiratory reserve volume. The residual volume is the amount of air remaining in the lungs after a forceful expiration. Vital capacity is the amount of air that can be inhaled and exhaled with the deepest possible breath. Total lung capacity is the maximum amount of air that the lungs can contain.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 349

KEY: REMEMBERING

28. The amount of air inhaled and exhaled during quiet breathing is known as a. residual volume. b. tidal volume. c. vital capacity. d. total lung capacity.

ANS: B The amount of air inhaled and exhaled during quiet breathing is known as tidal volume. The residual volume is the amount of air remaining in the lungs after a forceful expiration. Vital capacity is the amount of air that can be inhaled and exhaled with the deepest possible breath. Total lung capacity is the maximum amount of air that the lungs can contain.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 349

KEY: REMEMBERING

29. Which factor is key in allowing the body to absorb oxygen and expel carbon dioxide? a. Variations in the pressures of the gases b. Variations in the volume of the gases c. Variations in vital capacity d. Variations in tidal volume ANS: A It is the variations in pressure that allows the body to absorb oxygen and expel carbon dioxide. The volume of gas certainly influences how much oxygen is available, but it is the differences in pressure that allow the body to absorb the oxygen.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 352

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

30. How is most of the carbon dioxide in the body transported? a. Dissolved in plasma b. Bound to hemoglobin to form carbaminohemoglobin c. Carried in the form of bicarbonate ions d. In the form of carbonic acid ANS: C The vast majority of carbon dioxide is carried in the form of bicarbonate ions. Carbonic acid is a precursor to bicarbonate. Lesser amounts of carbon dioxide are carried dissolved in plasma or bound to hemoglobin.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 353

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

COMPLETION 31. Projecting from the lateral wall of each nasal cavity are three bones called that create narrow passages.

ANS: conchae PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 323

KEY: REMEMBERING

32. A piece of cartilage called the closes over the top of the larynx during swallowing to direct food and liquids into the esophagus.

ANS: epiglottis PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 339

KEY: REMEMBERING

33. The nasal cavity is separated from the mouth by a bony structure called the

.

ANS: palate PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 338

34. The opening between the vocal cords is called the

KEY: REMEMBERING .

ANS: glottis PTS: 1

-

DIF:

E

REF: 339

KEY: REMEMBERING

35. A plate of bone and cartilage called the halves.

separates the nasal cavity into two

ANS: septum PTS: 1

DIF:

E

36. The right lung contains

REF: 338

KEY: REMEMBERING

lobes, and the left lung contains lobes.

ANS: three, two 3, 2 PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 342

KEY: REMEMBERING

37. The serous membrane covering the surface of the lungs is called the

.

ANS: visceral pleura PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 343

38. Pressure in the pleural cavity is inflation.

KEY: REMEMBERING than atmospheric pressure to assist with lung

ANS: lower PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 343

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

39. The principle that states that at a constant temperature, a given volume of gas will exert more pressure in a smaller space than it will in a larger space is known as .

ANS: Boyle’s law PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 347

40. The pressure that drives respiration is

KEY: REMEMBERING pressure.

ANS: atmospheric PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 347

41. The contribution of a single gas in any mixture of gases is called

KEY: UNDERSTANDING .

ANS: partial pressure PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 351

KEY: REMEMBERING

Chapter 20: Fluid, Electrolyte, & Acid-Base Balance

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What vascular structure is found between the afferent and efferent arterioles? a. Peritubular capillaries b. Renal artery c. Glomerulus d. Renal veins ANS: C 2. What is the major artery that supplies the kidneys? a. Carotid b. Portal c. Celiac axis d. Renal ANS: D 3. Which of the following is correct? a. One kidney b. One ureter c. Two urinary bladders d. One urethra ANS: D 4. The urinary tract is lined with a. serous membrane. b. the renal capsule. c. mucous membrane. d. tubular epithelium.

ANS: C 5. The renal cortex descends between the pyramids as the a. pelvis. b. collecting ducts. c. calyces. d. renal columns.

ANS: D 6. The renal capsule a. lines the tubules. b. lines the urinary bladder. c. surrounds the kidneys. d. outlines the trigone.

ANS: C

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

7. Which blood vessel(s) is (are) primarily concerned with reabsorption? a. Renal artery b. Glomeruli c. Renal vein d. Peritubular capillaries ANS: D 8. What is the urine-making structure of the kidney? a. Trigone b. Renal pyramid c. Renal capsule d. Nephron unit ANS: D 9. Where does aldosterone exert its effects? a. Glomeruli b. Efferent arteriole c. Distal convoluted tubule d. Ascending limb (loop of Henle) ANS: C 10. The efferent arterioles extend to become the a. peritubular capillaries. b. afferent arterioles. c. glomeruli. d. renal artery.

ANS: A 11. The proximal convoluted tubules extend to become the a. peritubular capillaries. b. collecting duct. c. descending limb (loop of Henle). d. glomeruli.

ANS: C 12. Urine flows from the ascending limb (loop of Henle) into the a. glomeruli. b. proximal convoluted tubule. c. distal convoluted tubule. d. ureter.

ANS: C 13. The calyces receive urine from the a. proximal convoluted tubule. b. collecting ducts. c. glomeruli. d. peritubular capillaries.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

ANS: B 14. ADH exerts its effects primarily on the a. proximal convoluted tubule. b. afferent arteriole. c. collecting duct. d. renal pelvis.

ANS: C 15. Which of the following is not “plumbing”? a. Glomeruli b. Ureters c. Urinary bladder d. Urethra ANS: A 16. The detrusor muscle is located in the a. urethra. b. renal pelvis. c. urinary bladder. d. glomeruli.

ANS: C 17. The word voiding refers to a. urine formation. b. catheterization. c. micturition. d. cystitis.

ANS: C 18. Which of the following words best describes the function of the urinary bladder? a. Filtration b. Storage c. Reabsorption d. Buffering of H+ ANS: B 19. Which structure is located between the renal pelvis and the urinary bladder? a. Urethra b. Trigone c. Urinary meatus d. Ureter ANS: D 20. The urinary meatus is a part of the a. ureter. b. urinary bladder. c. urethra.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

d. collecting duct.

ANS: C 21. The detrusor muscle is concerned with a. urine formation. b. micturition. c. sodium reabsorption. d. potassium excretion.

ANS: B 22. Kaliuresis refers to the renal excretion of a. sodium. b. bicarbonate. c. water. d. potassium.

ANS: D 23. Natriuresis refers to the renal excretion of a. K+. b. Na+. c. water. d. bicarbonate.

ANS: B 24. The renal excretion of Na+ is generally accompanied by the excretion of a. bicarbonate. b. water. c. albumin. d. renin.

ANS: B 25. The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) secretes a. aldosterone. b. ADH. c. angiotensin. d. renin.

ANS: D 26. Renin activates a. aldosterone. b. converting enzyme. c. angiotensinogen. d. angiotensin II. ANS: C 27. Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system a. reabsorbs K+ and eliminates Na+ in the urine. b. causes albuminuria.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

c. expands blood volume. d. causes hematuria.

ANS: C 28. Aldosterone a. depletes blood volume. b. causes potassium reabsorption. c. causes sodium excretion. d. causes Na+ and water reabsorption.

ANS: D 29. The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) is located near the a. collecting duct. b. afferent arteriole. c. ureter. d. renal pelvis.

ANS: B 30. The internal and external sphincters are associated with (the) a. renal pelvis. b. Bowman’s capsule. c. juxtaglomerular apparatus. d. urinary bladder.

ANS: D 31. Which of the following is not located within the urinary bladder? a. Trigone b. Detrusor muscle c. Internal sphincter d. Calyces ANS: D 32. Which of the following should not be found in the glomerular filtrate? a. Albumin b. Sodium c. Potassium d. Water ANS: A 33. Which of the following is most likely to cause polyuria? a. Oversecretion of aldosterone b. Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) c. Deficiency of ADH d. Activation of angiotensinogen ANS: C 34. Which of the following is not true of ADH? a. Secreted by the posterior pituitary gland Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

b. Secreted in response to low blood volume and concentrated plasma (as in

dehydration) c. Causes the renal excretion of sodium, potassium, and water d. Deficiency causes diabetes insipidus ANS: C 35. Which of the following is absorbed across the walls of the collecting duct under the influence

of ADH? Potassium Urea Water Albumin

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 36. Pyuria is indicative of a. infection. b. glomerular damage. c. deficiency of ADH. d. excess secretion of aldosterone.

ANS: A 37. Which substance is filtered by the glomerulus and is excreted in the urine (there is minimal

reabsorption)?

Albumin Glucose Sodium Creatinine

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 38. Cystitis refers to inflammation of the a. kidneys. b. meatus. c. urinary bladder. d. renal pelvis.

ANS: C 39. Which of the following is found in the kidney? a. Detrusor muscle b. Trigone c. Nephron units d. Urethra ANS: C 40. Bowman’s capsule is part of the a. nephron unit. b. renal pelvis. c. collecting duct. d. urinary bladder.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

ANS: A 41. What part of the nephron unit filters 180 L of water per day? a. Peritubular capillaries b. Glomeruli c. Calyces d. Trigone ANS: B 42. Creatinine is a. completely reabsorbed by the peritubular capillaries. b. a waste product that is filtered and not reabsorbed. c. a renal enzyme that activates angiotensinogen. d. a renal hormone that stimulates red blood cell production by the bone marrow.

ANS: B 43. A diuretic a. causes the excretion of sodium and water in the urine. b. causes hyperglycemia. c. blocks the effects of PTH. d. stimulates the reabsorption of sodium by the peritubular capillaries.

ANS: A 44. Which of the following occurs at the distal convoluted tubule? a. 180 L of water is filtered into the tubules. b. Renin is secreted. c. Urine flows from the distal convoluted tubule into the ascending loop of Henle. d. Sodium and water are reabsorbed.

ANS: D 45. Which of the following terms refers to the voluntary expulsion of urine? a. Polyuria b. Diuresis c. Micturition d. Dialysis ANS: C 46. With regard to reabsorption, which structure plays the most important role? a. Glomeruli b. Renal pelvis c. Urinary bladder d. Peritubular capillaries ANS: D 47. ADH a. is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. b. is a mineralocorticoid that is secreted by the adrenal cortex. c. stimulates the collecting duct to reabsorb water.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

d. increases the GFR. ANS: C 48. Low levels of oxygen stimulate the kidneys to secrete which hormone? a. Renin b. Aldosterone c. Erythropoietin d. Converting enzyme ANS: C 49. In the process of secretion, a substance moves from the peritubular capillaries into what

structure?

Glomeruli Calyces Renal pelvis Renal tubules

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 50. Under normal conditions, which substance is present in the urine? a. Creatinine b. Fibrinogen c. Myosin d. Albumin ANS: A 51. Which condition is associated with proteinuria? a. A bladder infection b. Urethritis c. Glomerular disease d. Deficiency of ADH ANS: C 52. Which hormone affects blood volume? a. PTH b. Erythropoietin c. Insulin d. Aldosterone ANS: D 53. Aldosterone a. is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. b. acts on the collecting duct blocking the reabsorption of water. c. stimulates the reabsorption of water but has no effect on potassium. d. is a mineralocorticoid that stimulates the reabsorption of sodium.

ANS: D 54. Which of the following is caused by a deficiency of erythropoietin? a. Oliguria Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

b. Anemia c. Albuminuria d. Cystitis ANS: B 55. Which of the following is caused by prolonged hypotension? a. Oliguria b. Albuminuria c. Cystitis d. Glomerulonephritis ANS: A 56. What is the meaning of an elevated serum creatinine? a. The kidneys are making too much creatinine. b. Too much creatinine is being reabsorbed by the peritubular capillaries. c. The kidneys are not filtering creatinine; this is a sign of kidney failure. d. The kidneys are excreting too much urine.

ANS: C 57. A drug is classified as a diuretic. Most likely, the drug a. decreases the GFR. b. blocks the tubular reabsorption of Na+. c. activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. d. causes the release of ADH. ANS: B 58. Which condition is characterized by hematuria and pyuria? a. Renal failure b. Diuresis c. Urinary retention d. Cystitis ANS: D 59. Renal failure causes anemia because of a. a lack of erythropoietin. b. gross hematuria. c. uremia-induced hemolysis. d. uremia-induced hypokalemia.

ANS: A 60. The urinary bladder a. contains only skeletal muscle. b. receives urine from two urethras. c. causes diuresis in response to ADH deficiency. d. causes micturition when the detrusor muscle contracts and the internal sphincter

relaxes.

ANS: D Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

61. When the arterial blood pressure declines to 70/50 mm Hg, a. GFR decreases. b. diuresis occurs. c. aldosterone secretion decreases. d. ADH secretion diminishes.

ANS: A 62. What happens at the glomerular membrane? a. Water and dissolved solute are filtered into Bowman’s capsule. b. The JGA cells release ADH. c. The JGA cells release aldosterone. d. Na+ is reabsorbed.

ANS: A 63. The distal convoluted tubule a. receives urine from the collecting duct. b. reabsorbs Na+ and water in response to aldosterone. c. is the nephron structure that is primarily associated with filtration. d. empties its urine into Bowman’s capsule.

ANS: B 64. A patient with stenosis (narrowing) of the renal artery is most likely to present with a. uremia. b. hypertension. c. albuminuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema. d. glucosuria.

ANS: B 65. Micturition a. is another term for urination. b. occurs across the glomerular membrane. c. is the opposite of voiding. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: A 66. Which of the following is true of glomerular function? a. It is unaffected by blood pressure. b. It is concerned with the filtration of 1.5 L/24 hr (of water). c. A decline in GFR (glomerular filtration rate) causes polyuria. d. An increase in GFR increases urine formation.

ANS: D 67. A deficiency of aldosterone causes a decrease in the tubular reabsorption of sodium and water,

causing a significant decrease in blood volume and azotemia and uremia. generalized edema. hypotension. anemia.

a. b. c. d.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

ANS: C 68. Which of the following is true of aldosterone? a. It is an androgen. b. It is the “salt-retaining” hormone. c. It causes the tubular reabsorption of sodium, potassium, and water. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: B 69. Which of the following urine-making processes occurs first? a. Urine concentration by the collecting ducts b. Glomerular filtration c. Reabsorption of Na+ d. Secretion of K+ ANS: B 70. Which of the following is false with regard to normal urine? a. Normal urine has E. coli as part of its normal flora. b. Urinary tract infections are more common in alkaline urine than in acid urine. c. Urine does not contain glucose. d. Urine does not contain significant amounts of albumin.

ANS: A 71. Glucosuria is most likely to cause a. hyperglycemia. b. uremia and azotemia. c. polyuria and dehydration. d. hematuria and anemia.

ANS: C 72. Renin a. is a hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. b. is called converting enzyme. c. activates angiotensinogen. d. Two of the above are true.

ANS: C 73. Angiotensin II a. is secreted by the JGA cells in the kidney. b. is converted to angiotensin I by renin. c. is a potent vasoconstrictor. d. inhibits the release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex.

ANS: C 74. Most tubular reabsorption takes place a. across the glomerular membrane. b. in response to aldosterone. c. in response to ADH. Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

d. across the proximal tubule.

ANS: D 75. A drug that blocks the effects of aldosterone a. decreases the reabsorption of Na+ and water. b. is kaliuretic. c. causes oliguria. d. Two of the above are true.

ANS: A 76. Glucose is not normally excreted in the urine because a. glucose cannot be filtered. b. all filtered glucose is reabsorbed. c. glucose is used up by the metabolizing nephron units. d. glucose is converted to ammonia in the distal tubule and excreted as urea.

ANS: B 77. Albuminuria is most indicative of a. an enlarged pore size of the collecting duct membrane. b. urinary incontinence. c. increased pore size of the glomeruli d. a deficiency of ADH and/or aldosterone.

ANS: C 78. Albuminuria and generalized edema (anasarca) are usually accompanied by a. cystitis. b. hypoalbuminemia. c. glucosuria. d. pyuria.

ANS: B 79. What is the earliest consequence of a decreased GFR, as in shock? a. Urinary retention b. Glucosuria c. Albuminuria d. Oliguria ANS: D 80. An anticholinergic (muscarinic antagonist) drug, such as atropine, prevents both the

relaxation of the urinary sphincter and the contraction of the detrusor muscle. You would therefore observe the patient for signs of a. uremia. b. urinary suppression. c. urinary retention. d. nephrotic syndrome.

ANS: C

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

81. Which of the following structures is considered “plumbing”? a. Collecting duct b. Ureter c. Glomerulus d. Two of the above are true.

ANS: B 82. Urea is a. transported from the liver to the kidneys by the blood. b. made in the liver. c. excreted by the kidneys. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 83. An elevated serum creatinine level is most indicative of a. urinary retention. b. declining renal function. c. urinary bladder infection. d. renal calculi.

ANS: B 84. The “urine-making” structure of the kidney is the a. urinary bladder. b. nephron unit. c. trigone. d. renal pelvis.

ANS: B 85. Glomerular filtration pressure is caused by a. intrathoracic pressure. b. pressure within the renal tubules. c. blood pressure. d. intraabdominal pressure.

ANS: C 86. A sudden decline in blood pressure to 80/45 mm Hg is most apt to a. increase GFR. b. increase glomerular filtration. c. cause oliguria. d. cause hematuria.

ANS: C 87. When does renal reabsorption occur? a. When water and dissolved solute move from the tubules into the peritubular

capillaries b. When water and dissolved solute move from the tubules into the glomerular

capillaries c. When water moves from the collecting duct into the renal pelvis Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

d. When water and dissolved solute move from the peritubular capillaries into the

renal tubules ANS: A 88. The collecting duct a. is primarily concerned with the concentration of urine. b. collects urine from the renal pelvis and pumps it into the ureters. c. collects urine from Bowman’s capsule and pumps it into the peritubular capillaries. d. is primarily concerned with micturition.

ANS: A 89. Which of the following is handled by the kidneys as either urea or ammonia? a. Carbon dioxide b. Creatinine c. Nitrogen d. Glucose ANS: C 90. Most diuretics work by a. increasing blood flow to the kidneys. b. increasing the urge to urinate. c. stimulating the contraction of the detrusor muscle. d. blocking the tubular reabsorption of Na+.

ANS: D 91. Severe hyperglycemia is most apt to induce a. glucosuria. b. osmotic diuresis. c. increased tubular solute load. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 92. The juxtaglomerular apparatus a. secretes angiotensin in response to a decline in blood pressure. b. is located within the walls of the collecting ducts. c. secretes aldosterone. d. is a blood pressure regulating structure.

ANS: D 93. Angiotensin II a. causes vasodilation. b. is secreted by the JGA. c. elevates blood pressure. d. activates angiotensinogen.

ANS: C 94. Most angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II primarily in the a. kidneys.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

b. JGA. c. lungs. d. liver.

ANS: C 95. The trigone, detrusor, and rugae are all related to the a. nephron unit. b. renal pelvis. c. Bowman’s capsule. d. urinary bladder.

ANS: D 96. Which of the following is true of aldosterone? a. Is secreted by the adrenal medulla b. Stimulates the distal tubule to reabsorb Na+ c. Stimulates the proximal tubule to reabsorb K+ d. Works on the collecting duct membrane to determine membrane permeability to

water ANS: B 97. A severe decline in blood pressure is most apt to induce a. respiratory acidosis. b. osmotic diuresis. c. oliguria. d. hematuria.

ANS: C 98. This hormone increases systemic vascular resistance and causes the release of aldosterone. a. b. c. d.

Renin Erythropoietin Brain natriuretic hormone Angiotensin II

ANS: D 99. Which of the following is true of dehydration? a. Is characterized by poor skin turgor and “tenting” b. Is accompanied by a decrease in urine specific gravity c. Causes a shift of water from the vasculature into the interstitium d. Is generally treated with a diuretic ANS: A 100. Which of the following is true of urea? a. Is an excretable form of nitrogen b. Is synthesized by the kidneys c. Is converted to ammonia by converting enzyme in the lungs d. Is a pancreatic proteolytic enzyme ANS: A Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

101. Hyperkalemia a. causes blood volume expansion and hypertension. b. refers to an elevation in serum potassium. c. is uncomfortable but never serious. d. is due to an accumulation of urea in the blood.

ANS: B

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

Chapter 21: Digestive System MULTIPLE CHOICE. 1) Mechanical digestion refers to A) the progressive dehydration of indigestible residue.

B) the input of food into the digestive tract.

C) the enzymatic breakdown of food.

D) the absorption of nutrients in the gut.

E) the effects of chewing, churning, and segmentation.

2) Which function(s) is/are NOT continuously regulated by the GI tract?

A) absorption B) motility C) secretion D) All of the above are regulated.

E) None of the above are regulated.

3) Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion?

A) stomach B) pancreas C) spleen

D) colon

E) esophagus

4) The is a significant site of absorption of water and electrolytes, but NOT of nutrients.

A) mouth B) stomach C) small intestine D) large intestine E) none of the above 5) Which of the following is the sequence of layers from the lumen to the outer wall of the digestive tract?

A) serosa, submucosa, mucosa, muscularis externa B) submucosa, mucosa, serosa, muscularis externa C) mucosa, submucosa, serosa, muscularis externa D) submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa, mucosa E) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa 6) The lamina propria and mucous epithelium are components of the A) serosa.

B) adventitia.

C) muscularis mucosa.

D) mucosa.

E) submucosa.

7) The layer of loose connective tissue beneath the digestive epithelium is the A) lamina propria.

B) muscularis mucosae.

C) submucosa.

D) submucosal plexus.

E) myenteric plexus.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

8) Contraction of the folds.

A) mucosa B) submucosa C) submucosal plexus D) muscularis mucosa E) adventitia

alters the shape of the intestinal lumen and moves epithelial pleats and

9) Rugae, plicae, and villi are all features that accomplish A) secretion of enzymes.

B) secretion of hormones.

C) an increase in surface area.

D) immune function.

E) mechanical digestion.

10) Intestinal crypts A) increase the surface area of the mucosa of the small intestine.

B) carry products of digestion that will not pass through the walls of blood capillaries.

C) produce new cells for the mucosa of the small intestine.

D) function in the absorption of nutrients.

E) A and C 11) Chief cells secrete A) pepsinogen.

B) gastrin.

C) mucus.

D) hydrochloric acid.

E) intrinsic factor.

12) Partiel or G cells of the stomach secrete A) cholecystokinin.

B) secretin.

C) gastrin.

D) enterokinase.

E) pepsin.

13) Peyer's patches are characteristic of the A) stomach.

B) esophagus.

C) pancreas.

D) ileum of small intestine.

E) colon.

14) The are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold some of the visceral organs in their proper position.

A) serosa B) adventitia C) mesenteries D) fibrosa E) lamina propria

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

15) Which of the following events does NOT occur when you swallow?

A) Respiration is inhibited.

B) The upper esophageal sphincter closes.

C) The glottis and epiglottis close.

D) The lower esophageal sphincter relaxes.

16) Mucus functions in A) protection.

B) lubrication.

C) enzyme activation.

D) A and B E) A, B, and C 17) In the digestive system, HCl is released by

, whereas HCO 3- is secreted primarily from the

.

A) parietal cells of the stomach, pancreas C) parietal cells of the stomach, liver

B) the pancreas, parietal cells of the stomach D) the liver, parietal cells of the stomach

18) Nutrient absorption occurs primarily in the A) stomach.

B) liver.

C) small intestine.

D) large intestine.

E) A and C 19) When eaten, nearly 90% of our dietary calories from fat are in the form of A) steroids.

B) phospholipids.

C) triglycerides.

D) cholesterol.

E) fat-soluble vitamins.

20) Bile is A) secreted by hepatocytes.

B) manufactured by the gall bladder.

C) released into the stomach.

D) A and B E) A, B, and C 21) An enzyme that will digest proteins into peptides is A) lipase.

B) amylase.

C) nuclease.

22) Most products of fat digestion are absorbed by A) capillaries.

C) lymphatic vessels.

D) maltase.

B) veins.

D) arterioles.

23) Decreased levels of bile salts in the bile would interfere with digestion of A) protein.

B) fat.

C) carbohydrates.

D) nucleic acids.

E) vitamins and minerals.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

E) trypsin.

24) In response to the arrival of acidic chyme in the duodenum, the blood levels of A) secretin rise.

B) cholecystokinin fall.

C) gastrin rise.

D) enterocrinin fall.

E) all of the above 25) A blockage of the ducts from the parotid glands would A) result in the production of more viscous saliva.

B) impair the lubricating properties of saliva.

C) interfere with carbohydrate digestion in the mouth.

D) eliminate the sense of taste.

E) all of the above 26) In response to the hormone secretin, the pancreas secretes a fluid A) rich in enzymes.

B) rich in bicarbonate.

C) rich in bile.

D) that contains only proteases.

E) that contains only amylase.

4 -

27) In response to the hormone cholecystokinin, the pancreas secretes a fluid A) rich in enzymes.

B) rich in bicarbonate.

C) rich in bile.

D) that contains only proteinases.

E) that contains only amylase.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

28) The largest collection of

tissue in the body is the gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT).

29) Digestion is essentially completed in the

.

30) The three sections of the small intestine, in order according to movement of its contents, are , and .

31) Most absorbed nutrients first enter the blood of the

system.

32) The primary complex carbohydrate ingested and digested by people is

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

.

,

33) After processing in the stomach, the gastric contents are referred to as 34) Bile salts aid in the digestion of fats by

.

large fat droplets.

Match the following structures with the appropriate description.

A. appendix B. colon C. duodenum D. ileum E. jejunum 1. distal-most section of small intestine 2. located at the ventral end of the cecum 3. section where chyme is processed to remove water and electrolytes, leaving waste products of digestion 4. location of most peptic ulcers Match the following structures with their functions.

A. pancreas B. pylorus C. rectum D. small intestine E. stomach 1. organ where most digestion occurs 2. location of the sphincter that prevents premature emptying of the stomach 3. organ that adds exocrine secretions to the duodenum via a duct 4. chyme is released from here Match the structure to its function.

A. mouth B. stomach C. rectum D. small intestine E. large intestine 1. Fat digestion is completed here.

2. Fat digestion begins here.

3. Protein digestion is completed here.

4. Protein digestion begins here.

5. Carbohydrate digestion is completed here.

6. Carbohydrate digestion begins here.

Match each product with the cell or region that secretes or contains it.

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

A. enzymes B. HCl C. HCO 3

D. mucus E. more than one of these 1. pancreatic cells 2. brush border 3. goblet cells 4. parietal cells Match the hormone with the correct statement.

A. gastrin B. cholecystokinin C. secretin D. motilin E. gastric inhibitory peptide 1. stimulates insulin release 2. stimulates bile release 3. inhibits gastric emptying 4. secreted by cells in the stomach

Copyright © 2020 F. A. Davis Company

Chapter 22: Nutrition & Metabolism MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not considered part of metabolism?

A. assimilation B. catabolism C. anabolism D. All of the above are part of metabolism.

ANS: A REF: Page 511

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

2. Which of the following is not a function of the liver?

A. producing plasma proteins B. producing bile for the chemical digestion of fat C. helping maintain the proper blood glucose level D. All of the above are functions of the liver.

ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 513

3. Which of the following is not a function of the liver?

A. detoxifying bacterial toxins B. detoxifying certain drugs C. storing iron D. All of the above are functions of the liver.

ANS: D REF: Page 513

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

4. Which of the following proteins produced by the liver is not involved in blood clot formation?

A. fibrinogen B. prothrombin C. albumin D. All of the above proteins are involved in blood clot formation.

ANS: C REF: Page 513

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

5. Which of the following is not true of the process of glycolysis?

A. It is the first step in carbohydrate metabolism.

B. It occurs in the mitochondria.

C. Its end product is pyruvic acid.

D. It does not require oxygen.

ANS: B REF: Page 513

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

6. Which of the following is not true of the citric acid cycle?

A. It is the last step in carbohydrate metabolism.

B. It occurs in the mitochondria.

C. One of its end products is carbon dioxide.

D. It requires oxygen.

ANS: A PTS: REF: Pages 513-514

1

DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

7. Which of the following is not true of the electron transport chain?

A. It occurs in the mitochondria.

B. It takes the high-energy electrons and converts them to energy in ADP. C. It is the third step in carbohydrate metabolism.

D. All of the above are true of the electron transport chain.

ANS: B REF: Page 514

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

8. Glycogenesis A. is also called glucose anabolism B. can occur in liver cells C. can occur in muscle cells D. All of the above are true of glycogenesis.

ANS: D REF: Page 515

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

9. Which is the only hormone that can reverse hyperglycemia?

A. glucagon C. insulin B. growth hormone D. hydrocortisone ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

DIF:

Application

10. Which hormone raises blood sugar levels?

A. glucagon C. insulin B. growth hormone D. both A and B ANS: D REF: Page 515

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

11. Which of the following is not true of fat metabolism?

A. Fat metabolism is used as a source of energy.

B. It is catabolized by the process of glycolysis.

C. Anabolized fat is stored in adipose tissue.

D. All of the above are true of fat metabolism.

REF: Page 515

ANS: B PTS: REF: Pages 515-516

1

DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

12. Which is not true of protein metabolism?

A. In a healthy person, protein anabolism occurs more often than protein catabolism.

B. In a healthy person, protein catabolism occurs more often than protein anabolism.

C. Nonessential amino acids are needed in the formation of proteins.

D. Amino acids can be built into complex proteins.

ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 516

13. Which of the following is not true of vitamins?

A. They are inorganic molecules.

B. They attach to enzymes to help them function.

C. They can act as antioxidants.

D. Too little or too much of a vitamin can be harmful.

ANS: A REF: Page 517

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals

14. The body is unable to store which of the following vitamins?

A. vitamin A C. vitamin D B. vitamin C D. vitamin K ANS: B REF: Page 517

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals

15. The condition scurvy results from a lack of vitamin A. A C. C B. E D. K ANS: C REF: Page 517

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals

16. Which statement about minerals is untrue?

A. They are inorganic substances.

B. They are as important as vitamins.

C. They assist in the function of enzymes.

D. Unlike vitamins, large amounts of minerals are not harmful.

ANS: D PTS: REF: Pages 517-518

1

DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals

17. Which of the following conditions is not considered part of basal conditions?

A. not digesting a meal B. being asleep C. being in a comfortably warm room D. All of the above are basal conditions.

ANS: B REF: Page 518

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Metabolic rates

Memorization

18. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The BMR must be lower than the TMR. B. The TMR must be lower than the BMR. C. Consistent caloric intake above the BMR will cause a gain in weight.

D. Both A and C are true.

ANS: A PTS: TOP: Metabolic rates

1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 518

19. The condition that results from a diet that is sufficient in calories but deficient in protein is called A. anorexia nervosa C. kwashiorkor B. marasmus D. bulimia ANS: C REF: Page 521

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

20. Which type of heat loss is the flow of heat waves away from the body?

A. evaporation C. convection B. radiation D. conduction ANS: B REF: Page 522

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

Memorization

21. Which type of heat loss occurs when liquid water turns to water vapor?

A. evaporation C. convection B. radiation D. conduction ANS: A REF: Page 522

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

Memorization

22. Which type of heat loss occurs when body heat is used to heat the air flowing away from the skin?

A. evaporation C. convection B. radiation D. conduction ANS: C REF: Page 522

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

Memorization

23. Which of the following is a method used by the body to conserve or generate heat?

A. reducing blood flow to the skin B. shivering C. increasing the level or metabolism-stimulating hormone D. All of the above are methods to conserve heat.

ANS: D

PTS:

1

DIF:

Memorization

REF: Page 522

TOP: Body temperature

24. Which of the following is a rise in body temperature that is used to help the immune system fight a pathogen?

A. malignant hyperthermia C. fever B. heat exhaustion D. hypothermia ANS: C REF: Page 522

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

Memorization

25. Which is an inherited condition that causes a rise in body temperature in response to some types of anesthesia?

A. malignant hyperthermia C. fever B. heat exhaustion D. hypothermia ANS: A REF: Page 523

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

Memorization

26. Which of the following is not true of catabolism?

A. Catabolism releases energy.

B. It is part of metabolism.

C. It builds smaller molecules into larger molecules.

D. All of the above are true of catabolism.

ANS: C REF: Page 511

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

27. Which of the following is not true of anabolism?

A. Anabolism releases energy.

B. It is part of metabolism.

C. It builds smaller molecules into larger molecules.

D. All of the above are true of anabolism.

ANS: A REF: Page 513

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

28. Which of the following is not true of ATP? A. It contains an adenosine group.

B. It stores energy for the body.

C. It can be used by the cell directly for energy.

D. All of the above are true of ATP. ANS: B PTS: REF: Pages 513-515

1

DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism

TRUE/FALSE 1. The way the body uses food is one definition for metabolism.

ANS: T REF: Page 511

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

2. The end products of catabolism are simpler molecules than the starting substances.

ANS: T TOP: Introduction

PTS:

1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 511

3. The end products of anabolism are simpler molecules than the starting substances.

ANS: F TOP: Introduction

PTS:

1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 511

4. Bile is made in the liver and breaks down fat to glycerol and fatty acids.

ANS: F REF: Page 513

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

5. The liver makes the plasma proteins albumin and fibrinogen, both of which are important in blood clot formation.

ANS: F REF: Page 513

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

6. The liver makes the plasma protein albumin, which helps maintain blood volume.

ANS: T REF: Page 513

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

7. The liver is able to store the fat-soluble vitamins A and E. ANS: F REF: Page 513

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

8. Glucose catabolism occurs in three reactions in this order: glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport system.

ANS: T REF: Page 513

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

9. Glucose is the cell’s first choice of energy because it can be used directly by the cell.

ANS: F REF: Page 513

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

10. The starting substance for glycolysis is glucose; the end product is carbon dioxide.

ANS: F REF: Page 513

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

11. The end product of glycolysis is the starting substance of the citric acid cycle.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 513

12. Of the three chemical processes in glucose catabolism, only glycolysis does not occur in the mitochondria.

ANS: T PTS: REF: Pages 513-514

1

DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

13. Of the three chemical processes in glucose catabolism, only glycolysis requires oxygen.

ANS: F PTS: REF: Pages 513-514

1

DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

14. In most people, glucose catabolism occurs more often than glucose anabolism.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 515

15. One of the end products of the electron transport system is ATP. ANS: T PTS: REF: Pages 513-514

1

DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

16. The ATP molecule is used by the direct source of energy.

ANS: T REF: Page 514

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

17. ADP has fewer phosphates than ATP, but it contains more energy.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 514

Application

REF: Page 515

18. Glycogenesis is an anabolic process for glucose.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

DIF:

19. The main function of the electron transport chain is to supply energy for the reattachment of the third phosphate onto ADP. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: Page 514

20. Insulin, a hormone made in the pancreas, is the only hormone that reduces the level of glucose in the blood.

ANS: T REF: Page 515

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

21. Glucagon, a hormone made in the pancreas, is the only hormone that increases the level of glucose in the blood.

ANS: F REF: Page 515

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

22. The primary function of fat in the body is to be catabolized for energy.

ANS: T REF: Page 515

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

23. Adipose tissue results from the anabolism of fat.

ANS: T REF: Page 516

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

24. In most people, protein anabolism occurs at a greater rate than protein catabolism.

ANS: T REF: Page 516

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

25. Nonessential amino acids are not needed by the body because they are not used to build human proteins.

ANS: F REF: Page 516

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

26. The reason nonessential amino acids do not need to be in the diet is because other substances can be converted to the nonessential amino acids.

ANS: T REF: Page 516

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

27. Nonessential amino acids are needed by the body as much as essential amino acids.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Nutrient metabolism

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 516

28. One difference between vitamins and minerals is that vitamins are organic compounds and minerals are inorganic compounds.

ANS: T REF: Page 517

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals

29. One difference between vitamins and minerals is that vitamins attach to enzymes and minerals attach to cell membrane receptors.

ANS: F REF: Page 517

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals

30. The body can store the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K. ANS: T REF: Page 517

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals

31. Scurvy results from a lack of vitamin K. ANS: F REF: Page 517

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals

32. Minerals are helpful in maintaining good health, but they are not as necessary as vitamins.

ANS: F REF: Page 517

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals

33. The basal condition assumes that a person is awake, has not just eaten, and is in an environment with a comfortable temperature.

ANS: T REF: Page 518

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Metabolic rates

Memorization

34. The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is always less than the total metabolic rate (TMR).

ANS: T PTS: TOP: Metabolic rates

1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 518

35. A person who consistently has a caloric intake greater than his or her BMR will gain weight.

ANS: F PTS: TOP: Metabolic rates

1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 518

36. Both too little thyroid hormone and too much thyroid hormone have a profound impact on a person’s BMR. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 520

37. Both marasmus and kwashiorkor result from an insufficient number of calories in the diet.

ANS: F REF: Page 521

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

38. A person can be eating a sufficient amount of food and still suffer from kwashiorkor.

ANS: T REF: Page 521

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

39. A person can be eating a sufficient amount of food and still suffer from marasmus.

ANS: F REF: Page 521

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

40. About 40% of the energy released from food is converted to heat.

ANS: F REF: Page 521

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

Memorization

41. The flow of heat waves away from the body defines conduction.

ANS: F REF: Page 522

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

Memorization

42. The transfer of heat energy to the air that is flowing away from the body defines convection.

ANS: T REF: Page 522

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

Memorization

43. An environment that has very high humidity would have the biggest effect on the body’s use of evaporation to cool itself.

ANS: T PTS: TOP: Body temperature

1

DIF:

Synthesis

REF: Page 522

44. Fever is always harmful to the body, and every effort should be made to reduce the fever to normal body temperature as soon as possible.

ANS: F REF: Page 523

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

Memorization

45. A person who has never had surgery has a low risk of malignant hyperthermia.

ANS: T PTS: TOP: Body temperature

1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 523

46. Even though they are not used for energy or structure, vitamins and minerals are required for proper nutrition.

ANS: T REF: Page 511

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

47. One end product of the anabolic process is energy.

ANS: F REF: Page 513

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

48. Assimilation occurs when food moves out of the digestive tract, usually the small intestine, and into the blood.

ANS: F REF: Page 511

PTS: 1 TOP: Introduction

DIF:

Memorization

49. The function of bile is mechanical digestion rather than chemical digestion.

ANS: T REF: Page 513

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

50. Blood going to the liver has already been through one capillary bed.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 513

51. Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm.

ANS: T REF: Page 513

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism

52. Most of the energy released by the citric acid cycle is in the form of ATP. ANS: F REF: Page 513

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism

53. One function of ATP is to store energy for the body.

ANS: F PTS: REF: Pages 514-515

1

DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism

54. Glucose anabolism is called glycolysis.

ANS: F REF: Page 515

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism

55. The hypersecretion of insulin by the pancreas can lead to diabetes mellitus.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 515

56. The secretion of too little insulin can lead to hyperglycemia.

ANS: T REF: Page 515

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism

57. If a person had a blood glucose level of 95 mg/100 ml of blood, it would indicate that too little insulin was being secreted by the pancreas.

ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Carbohydrate metabolism

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 515

58. Hypervitaminosis is much more likely to occur with fat-soluble vitamins than with watersoluble vitamins.

ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Vitamins and minerals

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 517

59. Both anorexia nervosa and bulimia are classified as behavioral disorders.

ANS: T PTS: REF: Pages 520-521

1

DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

60. Heatstroke and heat exhaustion are equally severe conditions.

ANS: F REF: Page 523

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

Memorization

61. The condition in which damage to tissue results from the formation of ice crystals is called hyperthermia.

ANS: F REF: Page 523

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

Memorization

MATCHING Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.

A. glycolysis H. citric acid cycle B. glycogenesis I. anabolism C. catabolism J. glucose D. mineral K. electron transport chain E. ATP L. BMR F. assimilation M. vitamin G. TMR 1. the second process of glucose catabolism; it occurs in the mitochondria and uses oxygen 2. the number of calories needed per hour to keep the body alive, awake, and comfortable 3. the food the cell would prefer to use for energy 4. the process of glucose anabolism 5. term that refers to food entering the cell and undergoing many chemical changes 6. an inorganic substance that attaches to enzymes and helps them function 7. the last process in glucose catabolism; it occurs in the mitochondria and produces ATP 8. substance the body uses as its source of immediate energy 9. an organic substance that attaches to enzymes and helps them function 10. the first process in glucose catabolism; it occurs in the cytoplasm and does not use oxygen 11. process used to release energy from food 12. the total amount of energy used by the body per day 13. process that builds simple food molecules into more complex compounds 1. ANS: H REF: Page 513 2. ANS: L REF: Page 518 3. ANS: J REF: Page 513 4. ANS: B REF: Page 515 5. ANS: F REF: Page 511 6. ANS: D REF: Page 517 7. ANS: K REF: Page 514 8. ANS: E REF: Page 514 9. ANS: M REF: Page 517 10. ANS: A

PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS:

1 DIF: Memorization Nutrient metabolism 1 DIF: Memorization Metabolic rates 1 DIF: Memorization Nutrient metabolism 1 DIF: Memorization Nutrient metabolism 1 DIF: Memorization Introduction 1 DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals 1 DIF: Memorization Nutrient metabolism 1 DIF: Memorization Nutrient metabolism 0 DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals 0 DIF: Metabolism REF: Page 513

TOP: 11. ANS: REF: 12. ANS: REF: 13. ANS: REF:

Nutrient metabolism C PTS: Page 511 TOP: G PTS: Page 518 TOP: PTS: I Page 511 TOP:

0 DIF: Introduction 0 DIF: Metabolic rates 0 DIF: Introduction

Memorization Memorization Memorization

Match each of the following vitamins with its function.

A. vitamin D (calciferol) E. vitamin B3 B. vitamin A F. vitamin C (ascorbic acid) C. vitamin B12 G. vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) D. vitamin E (tocopherol) 1. helps in the manufacture of collagen fibers 2. helps maintain epithelial tissue and produces visual pigments 3. protects cell membranes from being catabolized 4. aids in calcium absorption 5. involved in blood production and other processes 6. helps enzymes in the citric acid cycle 7. helps enzymes that catabolize amino acids 14. ANS: REF: 15. ANS: REF: 16. ANS: REF: 17. ANS: REF: 18. ANS: REF: 19. ANS: REF: 20. ANS: REF:

F Page 518 B Page 518 D Page 518 A Page 518 C Page 518 E Page 518 G Page 518

PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:

1 DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals 1 DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals 1 DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals 1 DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals 1 DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals 1 DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals 1 DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals

Match each disorder with its corresponding definition or description.

A. malignant hyperthermia F. heatstroke B. heat exhaustion G. bulimia C. hyperthermia H. fever D. scurvy I. kwashiorkor E. marasmus J. anorexia nervosa 14. a serious condition in which the body is unable to maintain normal body temperature in a very warm environment; body temperature can rise to dangerous levels

15. results from too little vitamin C 16. results from a diet that has enough calories but too little protein 17. an inherited condition that causes an increase in body temperature in response to certain anesthetics 18. a behavioral disorder characterized by a chronic refusal to eat, often because of an abnormal fear of becoming obese 19. condition that occurs when the body loses a large amount of fluid resulting from heat-loss mechanisms in warm conditions; normal body temperature is usually maintained 20. results from an insufficient intake of both protein and calories 21. the inability to maintain normal body temperatures in very cold environmental conditions; characterized by a body temperature lower than 95° F 22. a behavioral disorder characterized by insatiable craving for food followed by periods of self-deprivation 23. an abnormally high body temperature brought about by a systemic inflammation response 21. ANS: F REF: Page 523 22. ANS: D REF: Page 517 23. ANS: I REF: Page 521 24. ANS: A REF: Page 523 25. ANS: J REF: Page 520 26. ANS: B REF: Page 523 27. ANS: E REF: Page 521 28. ANS: C REF: Page 523 29. ANS: G REF: Page 521 30. ANS: H REF: Page 522

PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP: PTS: TOP:

1 DIF: Memorization Body temperature 1 DIF: Memorization Vitamins and minerals 1 DIF: Memorization Metabolic and eating disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Body temperature 1 DIF: Memorization Metabolic and eating disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Body temperature 1 DIF: Memorization Metabolic and eating disorders 1 DIF: Memorization Body temperature 0 DIF: Memorization Metabolic and eating disorders 0 DIF: Memorization Body temperature

SHORT ANSWER 1. Define and give examples of the processes of anabolism and catabolism.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS:

1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 511

TOP: Introduction

2. List the functions of the liver. Which of these are specifically related to nutrition and metabolism?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

REF: Page 513

3. Explain the role of the hepatic portal system in helping to maintain a constant source of nutrients for the body.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Metabolic functions of the liver

REF: Page 513

4. Explain the process of glycolysis. Include the starting substance, the end products, and where it occurs.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

REF: Page 513

5. Explain the citric acid cycle. Include the starting substance, the end products, and where it occurs.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

REF: Page 513

6. What occurs in the electron transport chain?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

REF: Page 514

7. Defend the statement that the catabolism of all food substances has the goal of reattaching a phosphate group to ADP. ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Synthesis TOP: Nutrient metabolism

REF: Pages 514-515

8. Explain the process of glucose anabolism. Where does it occur?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

REF: Page 515

9. What is the result of fat anabolism?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

REF: Page 516

10. Explain what is meant by a nonessential amino acid. How can nonessential amino acids be obtained?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Nutrient metabolism

REF: Page 516

11. Explain how a diet that is low in carbohydrates would reduce the amount of fat in the body.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application TOP: Nutrient metabolism

REF: Pages 515-516

12. What are vitamins and what is their function in the body?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals

REF: Page 517

13. Name and give the function of four vitamins needed by the body.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals

REF: Page 518

14. What are minerals and what is their function in the body?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals

REF: Pages 517-518

15. Name and give the function of four minerals needed by the body.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Vitamins and minerals

REF: Page 519

16. What is the BMR? What is meant by basal conditions?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Metabolic rates

Memorization

REF: Page 518

17. If a person’s TMR is 2400 calories, would the BMR be more or less than this? Explain your answer.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS:

1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 518

TOP: Metabolic rates

18. Describe anorexia nervosa. Who is most at risk and how is it treated?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

REF: Pages 520-521

19. Explain the cycle of bulimia. What harmful consequences can result from bulimia?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

REF: Page 521

20. What is obesity? List the conditions for which obesity is a risk factor.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

REF: Page 521

21. Explain the protein-calorie malnutrition conditions marasmus and kwashiorkor.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: Memorization TOP: Metabolic and eating disorders

REF: Page 521

22. List and explain the four ways that heat is lost from the skin.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

Memorization

REF: Page 522

23. Why is sweating an inefficient way of cooling the body in a humid environment?

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS:

1

DIF:

Application

REF: Page 522

TOP: Body temperature

24. Explain the four conditions that occur when body temperature rises or there is a problem associated with the heat-loss mechanisms.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

Memorization

REF: Pages 522-523

25. Explain the two conditions that occur when the body is unable to keep itself sufficiently warm.

ANS: Answers will vary.

PTS: 1 DIF: TOP: Body temperature

Memorization

REF: Pages 522-523

Chapter 23: Reproductive Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The seminiferous tubules a. are located in the pelvic cavity. b. are tightly coiled structures that produce sperm. c. secrete testosterone. d. are primarily concerned with ejaculation.

ANS: B 2. The scrotum a. makes sperm. b. is a sac located between the thighs and holds the testicles. c. secretes androgens. d. contains the prostate gland and urethra.

ANS: B 3. What is the coiled structure that sits on top of the testes and is the place where sperm mature? a. Scrotum b. Epididymis c. Prostate gland d. Prepuce ANS: B 4. Which term refers to the penis and scrotum? a. External genitals b. Gonads c. Gametes d. Zygotes ANS: A 5. Which piece of skin, also called the foreskin, is removed during circumcision? a. Scrotum b. Penis c. Epididymis d. Prepuce ANS: D 6. Which structure carries both urine and semen? a. Vagina b. Urethra c. Ejaculatory duct d. Vas deferens ANS: B

7. What is the male copulatory organ called? a. Penis b. Vas deferens c. Prostate gland d. Testes ANS: A 8. Which cells secrete testosterone? a. Prostate gland b. Prepuce c. Interstitial cells d. Seminiferous tubules ANS: C 9. What state is caused by the filling of erectile tissue with blood? a. Impotence b. Orgasm c. Erection d. Emission ANS: C 10. What is the androgen that is necessary for sperm formation and for the development of the

male secondary sex characteristics?

ACTH Progesterone Chorionic gonadotropin Testosterone

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 11. Which term refers to the movement of sperm and glandular secretions from the testes and

genital ducts into the urethra?

Ejaculation Emission Orgasm Erection

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 12. Which hormone is also called interstitial cell–stimulating hormone and stimulates the

interstitial cells to secrete testosterone?

FSH Estrogen Luteinizing hormone Chorionic gonadotropin

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

13. Which of the following is the skin-covered muscular region located between the vaginal

orifice and anus?

Hymen Perineum Fallopian tubes Fimbriae

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 14. Implantation of the trophoblast occurs within which organ? a. Ovaries b. Fallopian tubes c. Oviducts d. Uterus ANS: D 15. The placenta forms in which organ? a. Uterus b. Fallopian tube c. Vagina d. Perineum ANS: A 16. The cervix is part of which organ? a. Uterus b. Fallopian tube c. Vagina d. Perineum ANS: A 17. The myometrium and the endometrium are layers of which structure? a. Ovaries b. Uterus c. Fallopian tubes d. Vagina ANS: B 18. Which of the following consists of a midpiece, head, and flagellum? a. Zygote b. Ovum c. Corpus luteum d. Sperm ANS: D 19. The fundus forms the upper part of which structure? a. Vagina b. Corpus luteum c. Graafian follicle

d. Uterus ANS: D 20. On what organ is the corpus luteum found? a. Uterus b. Fallopian tube c. Ovary d. Vagina ANS: C 21. If implantation occurs within the fallopian tube, the pregnancy is described as a. normal. b. ectopic. c. embryonic. d. menstrual.

ANS: B 22. Which of the following is referred to as external genitals? a. Gonads b. Vulva c. Oviducts d. Perineum ANS: B 23. What is the target of FSH and LH? a. Uterus b. Vagina c. Ovaries d. Cervix ANS: C 24. Which hormone promotes the maturation of the egg and helps develop the female

characteristics?

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) Androgen Estrogen Interstitial cell–stimulating hormone

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 25. Which of the following is a “guy thing”? a. Ovulation b. Emission c. Implantation d. Midcycle surge of LH ANS: B

26. What is the primary secretion of the corpus luteum? a. FSH b. hCG c. Progesterone d. Androgen ANS: C 27. What is the midcycle event stimulated by a surge of LH? a. Orgasm b. Menstruation c. Emission d. Ovulation ANS: D 28. What is the uterine lining called that is most responsive to the hormonal effects of estrogen

and progesterone?

Perineum Myometrium Fundus Endometrium

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 29. Which of the following is true of the ovaries and the testes? a. Secrete gonadotropins b. Located in the pelvic cavity c. Called gametes d. Called gonads ANS: D 30. Which of the following is true of the ova and sperm? a. Called gonads b. Incapable of meiosis c. Called gametes d. Require androgens for maturation ANS: C 31. Which structure is the major producer of testosterone in the male? a. Corpus luteum b. Testes c. Anterior pituitary gland d. Adrenal medulla ANS: B 32. Which structure contains 23 chromosomes? a. A fertilized ovum b. The corpus luteum c. A sperm

d. The corpus albicans ANS: C 33. Which structure secretes the gonadotropins? a. Adrenal cortex b. Testes c. Anterior pituitary gland d. Ovum ANS: C 34. Where are sperm produced? a. Vas deferens b. Ejaculatory duct c. Urethra d. Seminiferous tubules ANS: D 35. Which of the following is true of the vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, and urethra? a. Located in the scrotum b. Located in the testes c. Produce sperm d. Carry sperm ANS: D 36. Which structure surrounds the upper portion of the urethra and contributes to the formation of

semen?

Cowper’s glands Adenohypophysis Seminal vesicles Prostate gland

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 37. Which of the following can be detected by a rectal exam? a. An enlarged prostate gland b. Cystitis c. Sterility d. Gonorrhea ANS: A 38. Which of the following is not located in or on the ovary? a. Corpus luteum b. Graafian follicle c. Fertilized ovum d. Corpus albicans ANS: C

39. The cervix, fundus, and body a. are contents of the scrotum. b. are parts of the ovary. c. secrete estrogen and progesterone. d. are parts of the uterus.

ANS: D 40. Which structure is the primary secretor of estrogen and progesterone? a. Corpus albicans b. Endometrium c. Ovaries d. Anterior pituitary gland ANS: C 41. The broad ligament supports the a. prostate gland. b. testes. c. breasts. d. uterus.

ANS: D 42. The oviduct or fallopian tube a. is located between the cervix and the vagina. b. is the site of fertilization. c. is an anatomical extension of the ovary. d. connects the fundus with the cervix.

ANS: B 43. The acrosome a. secretes testosterone. b. is the tail of the sperm. c. contains enzymes that assist the sperm to fertilize an ovum. d. is an ovarian structure.

ANS: C 44. Semen a. is formed and stored within the scrotum. b. contains only testosterone. c. means seed. d. is made and stored within the prostate gland.

ANS: C 45. Which of the following always occurs during an erection? a. Ejaculation b. Secretion of testosterone c. Spermatogenesis d. Engorgement of the erectile tissue of the penis with blood

ANS: D 46. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) a. is secreted by the ovaries and testes. b. is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. c. exerts its effects primarily on the endometrium. d. stimulates the female and male gonads.

ANS: D 47. What is detected by a Pap smear? a. Cancer of the cervix b. Cystitis c. Genital warts d. Genital herpes ANS: A 48. Which of the following is most likely to cause sterility in the female? a. Benign prostatic hypertrophy b. Cystitis c. Repeated bouts of gonorrhea d. Torn hymen ANS: C 49. A woman is likely to develop a vaginal yeast infection after taking antibiotics because they a. weaken the hymen and allow pathogens to enter the vagina. b. alter the normal flora of the vagina. c. contain pathogens that migrate to the vagina from the blood. d. cannot kill microorganisms that grow in the vagina.

ANS: B 50. Which hormone stimulates the secretion of testosterone? a. FSH b. LH or ICSH c. Estrogen d. Human chorionic gonadotropin ANS: B 51. Which of the following is true of the interstitial cells? a. Secrete testosterone b. Are located within the prostate gland c. Produce sperm d. Line the ejaculatory ducts ANS: A 52. What is the consequence of severing the vas deferens? a. Interferes with testosterone secretion and therefore causes feminization

b. Prevents erection c. Prevents orgasm d. Induces sterility ANS: D 53. Which of the following is true of implantation? a. Occurs within the fallopian tubes or the oviducts b. Is achieved by the morula c. Is a uterine event achieved by the blastocyst d. Occurs within the ovaries ANS: C 54. The myometrium a. is the layer that sloughs during menstruation. b. is responsive to oxytocin. c. thickens in response to estrogen and progesterone. d. is the target of the gonadotropins.

ANS: B 55. Estrogen and progesterone are a. gonadotropins. b. secreted by the trophoblastic cells as they implant in the uterine wall. c. secreted by the ovaries. d. hormonal stimuli for the release of FSH and LH. ANS: C 56. In the nonpregnant state, a. the corpus albicans becomes hormonally active, secreting estrogen and

progesterone. b. the endometrium secretes hCG. c. hormonal secretion of the corpus luteum gradually declines. d. the zygote becomes hormonally active.

ANS: C 57. The proliferative phase of the uterine cycle a. immediately precedes the uterine secretory phase. b. is caused primarily by hCG. c. corresponds hormonally to the ovarian luteal phase. d. is the stage during which implantation occurs.

ANS: A 58. The corpus luteum a. is located within the uterus. b. is a placental structure. c. secretes gonadotropins. d. secretes large amounts of progesterone.

ANS: D 59. If implantation occurs within the fallopian tube, the a. greatest concern is the placenta previa. b. pregnancy is described as ectopic. c. pregnancy is considered normal. d. woman will continue to menstruate throughout the 9 months of fetal growth.

ANS: B 60. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) a. promotes the maturation of the egg. b. is responsible for female characteristics. c. maintains the corpus luteum. d. promotes the transformation of the corpus luteum into the corpus albicans.

ANS: C 61. An elevation of plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone a. stimulates the release of gonadotropins. b. prevents the release of FSH and LH. c. transforms the corpus luteum into the corpus albicans. d. causes menstruation.

ANS: B 62. Trophoblastic cells a. secrete oxytocin. b. are responsible for the milk let-down reflex. c. assist with implantation. d. are incorporated within the graafian follicle.

ANS: C 63. In the absence of human chorionic gonadotropin, a. the corpus albicans starts secreting progesterone. b. the rate of placental development accelerates. c. labor is initiated. d. the corpus luteum deteriorates into the corpus albicans.

ANS: D 64. The luteal phase of the ovarian cycle a. is responsible for menstruation. b. is responsible for the uterine secretory phase. c. elevates plasma levels of estrogen, progesterone, and hCG. d. precedes the LH surge.

ANS: B 65. The endometrium a. is the uterine lining that is most responsive to the hormonal effects of estrogen and

progesterone.

b. is the target of FSH and LH. c. forms the graafian follicle. d. is responsive to oxytocin during labor.

ANS: A 66. The zygote a. implants within the uterine lining. b. matures into the graafian follicle. c. is the fertilized ovum. d. is formed within the uterus.

ANS: C 67. The proliferative phase of the uterine cycle a. describes the deterioration of the corpus luteum into the corpus albicans. b. is primarily caused by the hormonal effects of progesterone. c. is primarily caused by the hormonal effects of hCG. d. refers to the estrogen-induced thickening of the endometrium.

ANS: D 68. Which of the following characterizes the Graafian follicle? a. Matures within the fallopian tube b. Is the mature follicle c. Secretes gonadotropins d. Causes the midcycle surge of LH ANS: B 69. The secretory phase of the uterine cycle a. is the endometrial response to progesterone. b. immediately follows the menstrual phase. c. refers to the hormonal response of the endometrium to the corpus albicans. d. refers to the adenohypophyseal response to declining plasma levels of estrogen and

progesterone.

ANS: A 70. Menstruation occurs in response to a. an LH surge. b. diminished plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone. c. elevated plasma levels of hCG. d. elevation of plasma levels of FSH and LH. ANS: B 71. The embryo a. refers to the baby-to-be from weeks 3 to 8. b. is the single-cell fertilized ovum. c. lives most of its life in the fallopian tube. d. refers to the fetus during the second trimester.

ANS: A 72. The morula a. occurs only if there is an ectopic pregnancy. b. is the unfertilized ovum that gets discharged with the menstrual blood. c. refers to the adorable pre-embryonic cluster of cells. d. spends its life embedded within the endometrium.

ANS: C 73. Which of the following is least true of or least associated with the placenta? a. The site at which baby-to-be breathes b. A very vascular structure c. Replaces the glandular secretion of the corpus luteum d. Nourishes the zygote as it matures into the morula ANS: D 74. Which group is incorrect? a. Parts of a sperm: head, body, tail b. Parts of the uterus: fundus, body, cervix c. Layers of the uterus: perimetrium, myometrium, endometrium d. Genital ducts: epididymis, ejaculatory ducts, vas deferens, prostate gland ANS: D 75. Which group is incorrect? a. Phases of the ovarian cycle: follicular phase, luteal phase b. Phases of the uterine cycle: menstrual phase, proliferative phase, secretory phase c. Reproductive hormones: estrogen, progesterone, hCG, testosterone d. External genitals: penis, scrotum, labia, mons pubis, cervix ANS: D 76. Which group is incorrect? a. Parts of a sperm: head, body, tail b. Genital ducts: epididymis, ejaculatory ducts, vas deferens, urethra c. Phases of the uterine cycle: menstrual phase, proliferative phase, secretory phase d. Phases of the ovarian cycle: proliferative phase, luteal phase ANS: D 77. Which of the following is true of the fimbriae of the fallopian tubes? a. They carry the fertilized ovum into the uterus. b. They sweep the ovum into fallopian tubes at ovulation. c. They help the sperm move from the uterus into the fallopian tubes. d. They are hormone-secreting cells that help maintain the pregnant state.

ANS: B 78. Which group is correct? a. Uterine layers: perimetrium, myometrium, cervix b. Gonads: zygote, ovaries, testes,

c. Steroids: testosterone, estrogen, progesterone, oxytocin d. Uterine parts: fundus, body, cervix ANS: D 79. Which of the following refers to “middle” pain ovulation? a. Impotence b. Mittelschmerz c. Chocolate cyst d. Corpus albicans ANS: B 80. Which of the following explains why the pregnant woman does not menstruate? a. The secretion of hCG maintains the integrity of the corpus luteum. b. The luteal secretion of estrogen and progesterone prevents the secretion of

gonadotropins. c. The luteal secretion of estrogen and progesterone prevents the adenohypophyseal secretion of FSH and LH. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 81. The labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, and vestibular glands a. are called the vulva. b. are external genitals. c. are called the pudendum. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 82. To which organ do these terms refer: womb, hysterectomy, and hystera? a. Vagina b. Ovary c. Uterus d. Oviduct ANS: C 83. Which of the following are secreted by the adenohypophysis? a. Oxytocin, prolactin b. FSH, LH, interstitial cell-stimulating hormone c. Estrogen, progesterone d. Testosterone, hCG ANS: B 84. Identify the glands that secrete these hormones: estrogen, testosterone, oxytocin, and

prolactin.

Testis, neurohypophysis, thyroid, adrenal medulla Ovary, corpus albicans, hypothalamus, adrenal medulla Ovary, testis, neurohypophysis, anterior pituitary gland Ovary, adrenal medulla, adenohypophysis, endometrium

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 85. Which of the following is the stimulus for the secretion of FSH and LH in the female? a. Elevated plasma levels of androgens b. Low plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone c. Elevated ovarian hormones d. Increased plasma levels of hCG ANS: B 86. Which hormone is characterized by the following: androgen, steroid, and interstitial cells? a. Gonadotropin b. Oxytocin c. Testosterone d. Prolactin ANS: C 87. Which of the following structures is characterized by the words infundibulum, fimbriae, and

fallopian tubes?

Ovaries Oviducts Uterus External genitalia

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 88. Which of the following are exocrine glands found in the male reproductive tract? a. Adenohypophysis, seminal vesicles, testes b. Testes, Cowper’s glands, prostate gland c. Bulbourethral glands, prostate gland, seminal vesicles d. Interstitial cells, seminiferous tubules, prostate gland ANS: C 89. Which of the following is a correct sequence regarding the flow of semen or semen-to-be? a. Vas deferens, seminiferous tubules, urethra b. Urethra, ejaculatory duct, vas deferens c. Seminiferous tubules, vas deferens, epididymis d. Vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra ANS: D 90. Sixty percent of the volume of semen comes from these glands. a. Seminal vesicles b. Prostate c. Bulbourethral glands d. Testes ANS: A 91. The prostate

a. surrounds the upper portion of the urethra and contributes to the formation of

semen. b. is an extension of the epididymis. c. is located within the seminiferous tubules. d. produces androgens.

ANS: A 92. Enlargement of the prostate may impede urination because a. the bladder becomes compressed. b. the prostate surrounds and compresses the urethra. c. the ureters are blocked. d. the ejaculatory duct is constricted.

ANS: B 93. What is in the “pill” that makes it contraceptive? a. Estrogen and progesterone b. Prostaglandins c. Human chorionic gonadotropin d. Prolactin ANS: A

Chapter 24: Pregnancy & Human Development MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. How many chromosomes does a zygote have? a. 46 b. 46 pairs c. 23 d. 12 ANS: A A zygote has 46 chromosomes, resulting when an egg (with 23 chromosomes) unites with a sperm (with 23 chromosomes).

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 466

KEY: REMEMBERING

2. The stage of development that begins at fertilization and lasts for 16 days is called the a. fetal stage. b. zygotic stage. c. embryonic stage. d. pre-embryonic stage.

ANS: D The pre-embryonic stage begins at development and lasts for 16 days. The fetal stage begins the eighth week and lasts until birth. There is no such thing as the zygotic stage. The embryonic stage begins after the sixteenth day and lasts until the eighth week.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 467

KEY: REMEMBERING

3. Gestation typically lasts about a. 40 weeks. b. 42 weeks. c. 39 weeks. d. 38 weeks.

ANS: A Gestation is measured from the first day of the last menstrual period, making the time until birth about 40 weeks, or 280 days.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 466

KEY: REMEMBERING

4. Most of the organs are developed during which stage of pregnancy? a. First trimester b. Second trimester c. The last week of the first trimester d. Third trimester ANS: B Most of the organs are developed during the second trimester, which ranges from week 13 through week 24.

PTS: 1

-21-2021 06:02:23 GMT -05:00

18203489/Ch24/

DIF:

E

REF: 466

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

5. What is the name of the blackberry-like cluster of cells that enter the uterine cavity 3 to 4 days after ovulation? a. Blastomere b. Morula c. Blastocyst d. Zygote ANS: B Three to four days after fertilization, the product of conception is a blackberry-like cluster of about 16 cells called a morula. It enters the uterine cavity, where it floats for 2 or 3 days. A blastomere consists of two daughter cells; it is formed within the fallopian tube. A blastocyst consists of an outer layer of cells and an inner cell mass. A zygote is a single cell that is formed when an egg and sperm unite.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 467

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

6. Implantation typically occurs approximately a. 3 days after fertilization. b. 2 days after fertilization. c. 6 days after fertilization. d. 10 days after fertilization.

ANS: C Implantation typically occurs 6 days after fertilization.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 467

KEY: REMEMBERING

7. Which portion of the blastocyst fuses with the endometrium? a. Trophoblast b. Embryonic disc c. Yolk sac d. Ectoderm ANS: A The trophoblast is the outer layer of cells of a blastocyst. The trophoblast fuses with the underlying endometrium. The embryonic disc is an inner cell mass. The yolk sac forms from the inner portion of the embryonic disc. The ectoderm is one of the germ layers that arise from the embryonic disc.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 468

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

8. What are the germ layers, and from what do they arise? a. The germ layers are an inner cell mass that flattens to form the embryonic disc. b. The germ layers are an inner cell mass that separates from the trophoblast to create the amniotic cavity. c. The germ layers are shoots sent out by the trophoblast to gain nourishment from the endometrium. d. The germ layers are three layers that arise from the embryonic disc and produce all the organs and tissues of the body.

ANS: D The germ layers arise from the embryonic disc and produce all the organs and tissues of the body. The inner cell mass of the blastocyst separates from the trophoblast to create the amniotic cavity; it then flattens to form the embryonic disc.

PTS: 1

-21-2021 06:02:23 GMT -05:00

18203489/Ch24/

DIF:

M

REF: 468

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

9. What is human chorionic gonadotropin, and what does it do? a. It is a hormone secreted by the trophoblast; it prompts the corpus luteum to secrete estrogen and progesterone. b. It is an enzyme secreted by the trophoblast to aid implantation. c. It is a hormone secreted by the corpus luteum to inhibit ovulation. d. It is a hormone secreted by the placenta to help maintain the uterine lining.

ANS: A The trophoblast secretes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), a hormone that prompts the corpus luteum to secrete estrogen and progesterone. Estrogen and progesterone stimulate endometrial growth and prevent menstruation.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 468

KEY: APPLYING

10. The mesoderm gives rise to a. cardiac muscle. b. the epidermis. c. the nervous system. d. the thyroid gland.

ANS: A Cardiac muscle arises from the mesoderm. The epidermis and nervous system both arise from the ectoderm. The thyroid gland develops from the endoderm.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 468

KEY: REMEMBERING

11. What key developmental task initiates the beginning of the embryonic stage? a. The placenta becomes functional b. The beginning of the fetal heartbeat c. The formation of the germ layers d. The development of a yolk sac ANS: C Once germ layers are formed about 16 days after conception, the embryonic stage begins. The placenta becomes functional and organs develop during the embryonic stage. The yolk sac develops during the pre-embryonic stage.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 469

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

12. Which statement about the amnion is accurate? a. The amnion is filled with fluid that supplies the embryo with nutrition. b. The amnion begins to develop at the time of conception. c. The fetus “breathes” and swallows the fluid in the amniotic sac. d. The fluid volume in the amnion remains stable because it is fed by the maternal blood supply.

ANS: C The fetus “breathes” and swallows the fluid in the amniotic sac. Amniotic fluid protects the embryo from trauma and changes in temperature; it does not supply the embryo with nutrition. The amnion develops during the embryonic stage, which begins about 16 days after conception. The fluid volume in the amnion remains stable because the fetus regularly urinates into the amniotic sac.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 469

KEY: ANALYZING

13. Which extraembryonic membrane serves as the foundation for the umbilical cord?

-21-2021 06:02:23 GMT -05:00

18203489/Ch24/

a. b. c. d.

Amnion Chorion Allantois Yolk sac

ANS: C The allantois serves as the foundation for the developing umbilical cord. The amnion is the amniotic sac. The chorion develops finger-like projections that penetrate into the uterus. In the area of the umbilical cord, the chorion forms the fetal side of the placenta. The yolk sac produces red blood cells until the sixth week and contributes to the formation of the digestive tract.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 469

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

14. Which extraembryonic membrane eventually forms the fetal side of the placenta? a. Amnion b. Chorion c. Allantois d. Yolk sac ANS: B The chorion develops finger-like projections that penetrate into the uterus. In the area of the umbilical cord, the chorion forms the fetal side of the placenta. The amnion is a transparent sac enveloping the embryo. The allantois serves as the foundation for the developing umbilical cord. The yolk sac produces red blood cells until the sixth week and contributes to the formation of the digestive tract.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 469

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

15. The umbilical cord contains a. two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein. b. two umbilical arteries and two umbilical veins. c. one umbilical artery and one umbilical vein. d. one umbilical artery and two umbilical veins.

ANS: A The umbilical cord contains two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 469

KEY: REMEMBERING

16. Blood returns to the fetus from the placenta via the a. umbilical arteries. b. umbilical vein. c. lacunae. d. chorionic villi.

ANS: B Blood returns to the fetus by way of the umbilical vein. The fetal heart pumps blood into the placenta via the umbilical arteries. Lacunae are sinuses around the villi in which maternal blood pools.

Chorionic villi project into the endometrium.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 469

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

17. Which of the following statements about the placenta is correct? a. Oxygenated blood flows from the placenta to the fetus through the umbilical arteries. b. Maternal and fetal blood mix in the placenta. c. The placenta secretes hormones necessary for the continuation of pregnancy.

-21-2021 06:02:23 GMT -05:00

18203489/Ch24/

d. The placenta effectively screens nicotine, alcohol and most drugs, thus protecting the fetus.

ANS: C The placenta secretes hormones necessary to maintain the pregnancy. Oxygenated blood flows from the placenta to the fetus through the umbilical vein. Maternal and fetal blood do not mix. Toxins such as nicotine, alcohol, and most drugs can cross the placenta.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 469

KEY: APPLYING

18. What role is served by the ductus venosus? a. It shunts blood from the right into the left atrium. b. It shunts blood around the liver. c. It shunts blood from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery. d. It shunts blood around the kidneys.

ANS: B The ductus venosus allows blood to bypass the liver and flow into the inferior vena cava. The foramen ovale shunts blood from the right to the left atrium. The ductus arteriosus shunts blood from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery. There is no shunt around the kidneys.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 471

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

19. If the ductus arteriosus fails to close at birth, what symptoms would you expect to see and why? a. Respiratory difficulty, because blood is bypassing the lungs b. Increased levels of toxins in the blood, because blood is bypassing the liver c. Decreased urine output, because blood is bypassing the kidneys d. Decreased nutrition, because blood is bypassing the stomach ANS: A The ductus arteriosus shunts blood from the right ventricle to the descending aorta, bypassing the lungs. If it fails to close after birth, it often results in respiratory difficulties. None of the other answers is applicable.

PTS: 1

DIF:

D

REF: 471

KEY: APPLYING

REF: 472

KEY: REMEMBERING

20. When does the fetal heart begin to beat? a. Day 12 b. Day 22 c. 8 weeks d. 20 weeks ANS: B The fetal heart begins to beat about day 22.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

21. Fetal movement can usually be felt about a. day 20. b. week 12. c. week 20. d. week 32.

ANS: C Fetal movement, called quickening, can usually be felt about week 20.

-21-2021 06:02:23 GMT -05:00

18203489/Ch24/

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 473

KEY: REMEMBERING

22. When is the fetal respiratory system first capable of gas exchange? a. Week 20 b. Week 28 c. Week 12 d. Week 32 ANS: B The respiratory system, although immature, is capable of gas exchange at 28 weeks.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 473

KEY: REMEMBERING

23. Which of the following is one of the factors thought to contribute to the onset of labor? a. An increase in progesterone b. A decline in estrogen c. The release of oxytocin d. Fetal movement ANS: C The onset of labor is thought to result from several factors, including declining levels of progesterone combined with increasing levels of estrogen (which leads to uterine irritability), the release of oxytocin, and uterine stretching. Fetal movement is not a factor in the onset of labor.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 475

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

24. Which of the following statements about the first stage of labor is correct? a. It is the shortest stage of labor. b. It begins after the rupture of fetal membranes. c. It is the stage in which the top of the baby’s head first appears. d. It ends when the cervix is fully dilated.

ANS: D The first stage ends, and the second stage begins, when the cervix is fully dilated. The first stage is the longest stage, lasting from 6 to 18 hours. The fetal membranes usually rupture during the first stage of labor, but that is not what marks the beginning of labor. The top of the baby’s head first appears during the second stage of labor.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 475

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

25. The second stage of labor ends when a. the membranes rupture. b. the cervix is fully effaced. c. the baby is born. d. the placenta is delivered.

ANS: C The second stage of labor ends when the baby is born. The membranes rupture and the cervix is fully effaced during the first stage of labor. The placenta is delivered during the third stage.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 476

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

26. During lactation, the release of which hormone forces milk into the ducts? a. Prolactin b. Oxytocin

-21-2021 06:02:23 GMT -05:00

18203489/Ch24/

c. Estrogen d. Progesterone ANS: B Oxytocin causes the lobules in the breast to contract, forcing milk into the ducts. This is known as the milk let-down reflex. Prolactin initiates the production of milk. Estrogen during pregnancy stimulates the growth of ducts throughout the mammary glands, whereas progesterone stimulates the development of acini at the ends of the ducts.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 477

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

COMPLETION 27. A fertilized egg is called a

.

ANS: zygote PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 466

KEY: REMEMBERING

28. The layer of cells and gel-like membrane encasing the ovum is called the

.

ANS: zona pellucida PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 466

29. Shortly after fertilization, the fertilized cell divides by , to produce two identical daughter cells.

KEY: REMEMBERING , a process called

ANS: mitosis, cleavage PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 467

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

30. The stage of development that begins the third week of gestation and lasts until the eighth week is called the stage.

ANS: embryonic PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 467

KEY: REMEMBERING

31. The stage of development that begins the eighth week and lasts until birth is called the stage.

ANS: fetal PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 467

32. The inner group of cells of the blastocyst becomes the cells becomes the .

KEY: REMEMBERING , and the outer group of

ANS: embryo, placenta PTS: 1

-21-2021 06:02:23 GMT -05:00

18203489/Ch24/

DIF:

M

REF: 467

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

33. The fine hair covering the fetus’s body is called

.

ANS: lanugo PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 473

34. A woman giving birth for the first time is called a

KEY: REMEMBERING .

ANS: primipara PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 475

KEY: REMEMBERING

35. The progressive thinning of the cervical walls is called cervical

.

ANS: effacement PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 475

KEY: REMEMBERING

36. Late in pregnancy, the uterus normally exhibits weak, irregular contractions called contractions, or “false labor.”

ANS: Braxton–Hicks Braxton Hicks PTS: 1

-21-2021 06:02:23 GMT -05:00

18203489/Ch24/

DIF:

M

REF: 475

KEY: REMEMBERING

Chapter 25: Heredity MATCHING Match the term to its correct definition. a. genetics b. heredity c. genes d. autosomes e. locus 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

f. g. h. i.

genome mutation nondisjunction chromosome

The location of a specific gene on a chromosome A complete set of genetic information for one person The study of inheritance Any chromosome other than an X or Y chromosome A permanent change in genetic material The process of passing traits from biological parents to children Segments of DNA When homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis Consists of long strands of tightly coiled DNA

1. ANS: E PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 2. ANS: F PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 3. ANS: A PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 4. ANS: D PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 5. ANS: G PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 6. ANS: B PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 7. ANS: C PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING 8. ANS: H PTS: KEY: REMEMBERING PTS: 9. ANS: I KEY: REMEMBERING

1

DIF: E

REF: 485

1

DIF: E

REF: 485

1

DIF: E

REF: 483

1

DIF: E

REF: 484

1

DIF: E

REF: 487

1

DIF: E

REF: 483

1

DIF: E

REF: 483

1

DIF: E

REF: 488

1

DIF: E

REF: 483

MULTIPLE CHOICE 10. How is gender determined? a. Through environmental variables b. By the presence or absence of certain chromosomes c. By the mother’s body temperature at the time of fertilization d. By the timing of fertilization ANS: B

-21-2021 06:02:59 GMT -05:00

18203470/Ch25/

Each gamete produced by the female contains only the X chromosome. Male sperm cells may contain either an X or a Y chromosome. Therefore, the union of an egg and a sperm may result in a female (with two X chromosomes) or a male (with one X and one Y chromosome). Environmental variables, body temperature, and the timing of fertilization do not influence sex.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 484

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

11. A person who has two alleles that are the same is said to be what? a. Heterozygous for the trait b. Homozygous for the trait c. Homologous for the trait d. Autosomal for the trait ANS: B A person who has two alleles that are the same is said to be homozygous for that trait. A person who is heterozygous has two alleles that are different. The term homologous refers to the similar-looking chromosome that pairs with another chromosome. The term autosome refers to nonsex chromosomes.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 485

KEY: REMEMBERING

12. A person who has two different alleles for the same trait is said to be what? a. Heterozygous for the trait b. Homozygous for the trait c. Homologous for the trait d. Autosomal for the trait ANS: A A person who has two alleles that are different is said to be heterozygous for the trait. A person who has two alleles that are the same is said to be homozygous for that trait. The term homologous refers to the similar-looking chromosome that pairs with another chromosome. The term autosome refers to nonsex chromosomes.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 485

KEY: REMEMBERING

13. A complete set of genetic information for one person is called a a. gene. b. genome. c. autosome. d. chromosome.

ANS: B A complete set of genetic information for one person is called a genome. Genes are segments of DNA that contain the traits that each person inherits. Autosomes are nonsex chromosomes. Chromosomes are long strands of tightly coiled DNA. All human cells (except for germ cells) contain 23 pairs of chromosomes.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 483|485

KEY: REMEMBERING

14. Which of the following occur in equal pairs in both males and females but do not play a role in determination of gender? a. Genomes b. Chromosomes c. Alleles d. Autosomes

-21-2021 06:02:59 GMT -05:00

18203470/Ch25/

ANS: D Autosomes are nonsex chromosomes. Twenty-two pairs of these chromosomes normally exist in humans. A 23rd pair of chromosomes carries the X and Y chromosomes, which determine a person’s gender. A genome is a complete set of genetic information for an individual contained within the 23 pairs of chromosomes. Alleles are variations of a gene.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 484

KEY: REMEMBERING

15. When two alleles for the same trait are both expressed, you know that a. both alleles are recessive. b. one allele is dominant. c. the alleles are codominant. d. the alleles are heterozygous.

ANS: C Codominant alleles mean that both traits will appear equally. (An example is AB blood type.) The term heterozygous refers to an individual having different alleles.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 485

KEY: REMEMBERING

16. What do you know about a person who has a recessive allele for a particular trait but who does not show that trait? a. He or she is heterozygous for that trait. b. His or her alleles are codominant. c. Two recessive alleles are present. d. A gene mutation has occurred.

ANS: A A person who is heterozygous for a trait has two alleles that are different. In that situation, the dominant allele will be expressed. If alleles are codominant, both alleles are expressed (such as in AB blood type). If two recessive alleles are present, the recessive trait will be expressed. A gene mutation is not a factor in the expression of dominant or recessive traits.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 485

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

17. Which of the following is most likely to produce a mutation in genetic material? a. Smoking b. High-fat diet c. Vitamin deficiency d. Exposure to certain chemicals ANS: D A mutation is a permanent change in genetic material and may occur spontaneously or may result from exposure to radiation, certain chemicals, or viruses. Lifestyle and environmental factors, such as smoking, high-fat diet, and air pollution, may influence whether or not a certain disease caused by a mutation expresses itself.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 487-489

KEY: REMEMBERING

18. Which statement about nondisjunction is correct? a. Nondisjunction occurs when a pair of chromosomes separates during meiosis. b. The most common cause of nondisjunction is a permanent change in genetic material. c. Color blindness is a common disorder resulting from nondisjunction. d. Nondisjunction results in one daughter cell lacking a particular chromosome.

-21-2021 06:02:59 GMT -05:00

18203470/Ch25/

ANS: D In nondisjunction, a pair of chromosomes fails to separate, meaning both chromosomes go to one daughter cell, while the other daughter cell does not receive a chromosome. When the matching chromosome is added during fertilization, one daughter cell has three of a particular chromosome (trisomy), while the other daughter cell has only one chromosome (monosomy). A permanent change in genetic material, called a mutation, is not involved in nondisjunction. Color blindness is a result of sex-linked inheritance.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 488

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

19. Klinefelter syndrome, which becomes apparent at puberty when secondary sexual characteristics fail to develop, results from a. nondisjunction of autosomal chromosomes. b. nondisjunction of sex chromosomes. c. disjunction of autosomal chromosomes. d. disjunction of sex chromosomes.

ANS: B When nondisjunction affects sex chromosomes, one daughter cell gets two X chromosomes.

Fertilization by a sperm with a Y chromosome results in XXY: Klinefelter syndrome. Disjunction is the normal separation process of homologous chromosomes; it does not result in a defect.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 489

KEY: REMEMBERING

20. What disorder resulting from nondisjunction of sex chromosomes causes a syndrome whose characteristics include a webbed neck and short stature? a. Klinefelter syndrome b. Cystic fibrosis c. Huntington’s disease d. Turner syndrome ANS: D Turner syndrome results when a girl is born with only one X chromosome. The syndrome becomes apparent at puberty when secondary sexual characteristics fail to develop. Other features include a webbed neck and short stature. Klinefelter syndrome results when a boy inherits an extra X chromosome. This disorder also becomes apparent at puberty when secondary sexual characteristics fail to develop, but other symptoms do not include a webbed neck or short stature. Cystic fibrosis and Huntington’s disease are single gene disorders.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 487|489

KEY: APPLYING

21. Which statement about female gametes is correct? a. Female gametes contain a single X chromosome. b. Female gametes contain two X chromosomes. c. Female gametes may contain either an X or a Y chromosome. d. Female gametes contain both an X and a Y chromosome.

ANS: A Each gamete produced by a female contains a single X chromosome. Gametes produced by a male may contain either an X or a Y chromosome. Gametes contain only one sex chromosome; the matching chromosome is supplied at the time of fertilization.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 484

22. Why does the locus of each gene not vary from person to person?

-21-2021 06:02:59 GMT -05:00

18203470/Ch25/

KEY: REMEMBERING

a. So that the genes supplied by the egg can align with the similar genes supplied by the sperm b. To prevent gene mutation c. So that fertilization can occur and produce offspring with equal genes from both parents d. So that a person’s gender can be determined ANS: A The location of a specific gene on a chromosome is called a locus, and the locus of each gene does not vary from one person to another. This allows the genes supplied by the egg to align with similar genes supplied by the sperm. The locus of a gene does not influence whether a mutation occurs. It also does not affect whether fertilization occurs. Gender is determined by sex chromosomes.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 485

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

23. Offspring express the trait of a dominant allele a. if one chromosome in a pair carries it. b. if both chromosomes in a pair carry it. c. Both A and B d. None of the above ANS: C A dominant allele overshadows the effect of a recessive allele, so it will be expressed even if only one chromosome in a pair carries it.

PTS: 1

DIF:

E

REF: 485

KEY: REMEMBERING

24. In general, what happens when an allele for brown eyes is paired with an allele for blue eyes? a. The offspring will be heterozygous for the trait and have brown eyes. b. The offspring will be homozygous for the trait and have blue eyes. c. The offspring will be heterozygous for the trait and have blue eyes. d. The offspring will be homozygous for the trait and have brown eyes.

ANS: A Because the alleles are different, the individual will be heterozygous for the trait. Also, because brown eyes are a dominant trait, that trait will overshadow the recessive blue eye trait. A person is homozygous for a trait when both alleles are the same.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 485

KEY: APPLYING

25. Which statement about sex-linked disorders is correct? a. A female who inherits an allele for a sex-linked disorder will develop Turner syndrome. b. A female who inherits an allele for a sex-linked disorder will never express any symptoms. c. A male who inherits an allele for a sex-linked disorder will always express the disorder. d. A male who inherits an allele for a sex-linked disorder will express the disorder only if he has a matching allele for the disorder.

ANS: C Sex-linked disorders are recessive and are carried on the X chromosome. Because the X chromosome is so much larger than the Y chromosome, a male does not have a matching dominant allele to overpower the X-linked recessive trait. Therefore, he would express the disorder. In contrast, a female, who would have a matching dominant allele, would only be a carrier of the trait. (It’s possible, however, for a female to express the disorder if she carries a matching recessive allele on her other chromosome, but this is rare.) Turner syndrome results from nondisjunction of sex chromosomes.

PTS: 1

-21-2021 06:02:59 GMT -05:00

18203470/Ch25/

DIF:

D

REF: 486

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

26. In autosomal recessive disorders, what happens to children who inherit one copy of the allele? a. The disorder manifests itself. b. They become carriers of the disorder. c. They are unaffected by the disorder. d. Any of the above is possible.

ANS: B Two copies of the defective allele must be inherited for the disorder to manifest itself; therefore, with only one allele, children can carry the disorder and pass it along to their children, but they will not personally manifest the disorder.

PTS: 1

DIF:

M

REF: 487

KEY: UNDERSTANDING

27. When one parent passes on a dominant defective allele, what chance does the child have of manifesting the disorder? a. A 100 percent chance b. A 75 percent chance c. A 50 percent chance d. A 25 percent chance ANS: C Because each child receives one copy of the gene from the mother and one from the father, he or she has a 50 percent chance of inheriting the defective gene and manifesting the disorder.

PTS: 1

-21-2021 06:02:59 GMT -05:00

18203470/Ch25/

DIF:

M

REF: 487

KEY: APPLYING