Test Bank for The Science of Psychology; An Appreciative View 4th Edition by Laura King - Complete

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The Science of Psychology: An Appreciative View 4th Edition Laura A. King 2023

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The Science of Psychology: An Appreciative View, 4th Edition by Laura A. King.

ISBN-10 1259544370 ISBN-13 978-1259544378

Test bank for The Science of Psychology: An Appreciative View, 4th Edition by Laura A. King

ISBN-10 1259544370 ISBN-13 978-1259544378

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TABLE OF CONTENTS Chapter 1: What is Psychology?

Chapter 2: Psychology's Scientific Method Chapter 3: Biological Foundations of Behavior Chapter 4: Sensation and Perception Chapter 5: States of Consciousness Chapter 6: Learning Chapter 7: Memory Chapter 8: Thinking, Intelligence, and Language Chapter 9: Human Development Chapter 10: Motivation and Emotion Chapter 11: Gender, Sex, and Sexuality Chapter 12: Personality Chapter 13: Social Psychology Chapter 14: Industrial and Organizational Psychology Chapter 15: Psychological Disorders Chapter 16: Therapies Chapter 17: Health Psychology

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Prof.Exams Chapter 1: What is Psychology?

TB-The Science of Psychology3E|Laura King

Chapter 1: What is Psychology?

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Psychology is a rigorous discipline that tests assumptions, bringing scientific data to bear on the questions of central interest to human beings. Which of the following sets of four attitudes is at the core of this scientific approach?

A) critical thinking, understanding, objectivity, and curiosity B) scientific thinking, understanding, objectivity, and questioning C) critical thinking, skepticism, objectivity, and curiosity D) critical thinking, skepticism, subjectivity, and questioning E) scientific thinking, skepticism, subjectivity, and curiosity

1)

2) The first modern psychologist to be primarily interested in understanding the unconscious mind was A) Wilhelm Wundt B) Edmund Thorndike C) Ivan Pavlov D) Abraham Maslow E) Sigmund Freud

2)

3) Who highlighted the reproductive advantages of environmentally adaptive traits?

A) Aristotle B) John Locke C) Charles Darwin D) Plato E) Carl Jung

3)

4) The beginning of psychology as a science began in the discipline of A) philosophy B) sociology C) chemistry D) alchemy E) physics

4)

1

5) Which of the following situations might be conducted by a structuralist and reflects the method of introspection?

A) Asking subjects to remember a list of words B) Documenting subjects' descriptions of an experience C) Testing rats in a maze to see how fast they learn D) Watching a group of people in a public place E) Rewarding subjects for solving problems

5)

6) William James was a prominent American whose interest in pragmatism led him to an approach emphasizing the adaptability of the mind and behavior, which eventually came to be named A) functionalism B) psychoanalysis C) behaviorism D) psychodynamism E) structuralism

6)

7) If you were a psychologist who was labeled a structuralist, you would be interested in the ________ of the mind, using ________ as your primary research method.

A) function; introspection B) levels; association C) function; behaviorism D) structures; introspection E) structures; behaviorism

7)

8) With which school of psychology is Wilhelm Wundt associated?

A) Evolutionary B) Humanism C) Behaviorism D) Functionalism E) Structuralism

8)

9) Wilhelm Wundt used the scientific method when he collected systematic, detailed self-reports of the individuals he studied in a controlled laboratory setting. Wundt and his followers concentrated on discovering the basic elements of mental processes.

Their approach was thus called A) structuralism B) psychodynamic C) behaviorism D) evolutionary E) functionalism

9)

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10) William James saw the mind as flexible and fluid, characterized by constant change in response to a continuous flow of information from the world. James called this natural flow of thought a "stream of consciousness." A core question in functionalism is: A) Why is human thought prejudiced?

B) Why is human thought irrational?

C) Why is human thought distinctive?

D) Why is human thought adaptive?

E) Why is human thought unreliable?

10)

11) Evolutionary theory implies that the way we are, at least in part, is the way that is best suited to survival in our environment. This perspective could be used to explain how A) behaviors such as discrimination are learned B) animals that adapted to their environment are more likely to reproduce C) children in large families have very different personalities D) attitudes of prejudice are developed E) twins separated at birth have similar personalities

11)

12) The specialist most likely to have a medical degree is a(n) A) psychiatrist B) clinical psychologist C) industrial/organizational psychologist D) counseling psychologist E) developmental psychologist

12)

13) The positive psychology movement is A) the push for less emphasis on research involving animals B) the push for less science and more intuition in psychological research C) the movement to focus on use of medication to help individuals feel better D) the movement to focus on therapy rather than research E) the push for stronger emphasis on research focusing on topics such as happiness

13)

14) Wilhelm Wundt is to ________, as William James is to ________.

A) functionalism; behaviorism B) behaviorism; functionalism C) structuralism; functionalism D) structuralism; behaviorism E) idealism; realism

14)

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15) If you are interested in the functionalist approach to psychology, you would be most interested in A) free will B) the purpose of behavior C) the use of rewards and punishments D) thoughts associated with a particular sound E) traumatic memories

15)

16) You place a raisin on your tongue and report the following: "Rough, sweet, and grainy." You are using a method called A) identification B) functionalism C) introspection D) exploration E) structuralism

16)

17) Psychologists who study the role of the brain in psychological processes use the A) sociocultural viewpoint B) neuroscience perspective C) humanistic viewpoint D) psychoanalytic approach E) psychodynamic approach

17)

18) Samantha is suffering from fatigue and sometimes cannot make herself get out of bed. She feels that the world is a sad, unhappy place. Dr. Powell and Samantha examine her feelings and consider the relationships in her life which may have affected her view of life. Dr. Powell is a professional in the field of A) health psychology B) neuropsychology C) evolutionary psychology D) clinical psychology E) physiological psychology

18)

19) Dr. Wade uses PET scans to explain that the difference between a male and a female is apparent in the structure and function of the brain. Dr. Wade's specialty is A) evolutionary psychology B) neuropsychology C) clinical psychology D) cultural psychology E) personality psychology

19)

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20) Psychologists who use psychological principles to solve problems in schools and businesses are practicing A) psychiatry B) therapy C) basic science D) behaviorism E) applied science

20)

21) Psychology is a science that is continuing to develop new ideas and perspectives. One new branch of psychology that emphasizes human strengths and centers on topics such as hope, optimism, happiness, and gratitude is known as A) sociocultural psychology B) existential psychology C) Gestalt psychology D) cognitive psychology E) positive psychology

21)

22) A(n) ________ might be employed to work with architects to determine the best working arrangement, color, and lighting for a work place, hospital, or research laboratory.

A) industrial-organizational psychologist B) clinical psychologist C) counseling psychologist D) sociocultural psychologist E) evolutionary psychologist

22)

23) Dr. Lane is observing subjects' reactions to stimuli presented in first the left and then the right visual fields. Dr. Lane is most likely a A) evolutionary psychologist B) clinical psychologist C) psychiatrist D) neuropsychologist E) cognitive psychologist

23)

24) A dating web site advertises that you can take a computerized test to find your perfect "soul mate." The psychologist who designed the test and methodology for the matching system was probably a A) cognitive psychologist B) developmental psychologist C) counseling psychologist D) personality psychologist E) clinical psychologist

24)

5

25) Kara was surprised to learn that certain hand signals which indicate a "job well done" in the United States are socially unacceptable in other countries. This finding comes from A) cognitive psychology B) cross-cultural psychology C) personality psychology D) educational psychology E) social psychology

25)

26) Psychologists rely on ________, which is the process of thinking reflectively and productively and evaluating evidence.

A) natural selection B) critical thinking C) megacognition D) functionalism E) structuralism

26)

27) Professor McDonald believes that most women prefer tall and physically strong partners because this preference enhanced the survival of our ancestor's genes. This viewpoint best illustrates the A) social-psychoanalytic perspective B) cognitive perspective C) evolutionary perspective D) sociocultural perspective E) psychodynamic perspective

27)

28) Dr. Cole's research has indicated that removing the whiskers from animals shortly after birth will reduce the ability of neurons to commit to tactile sensation. His research is in the area of A) behavioral science B) reactive science C) neuroscience D) evolutionary science E) cognitive science

28)

29) During a therapy session, Jan shares her deepest thoughts and early childhood memories in order to unlock the causes of her troubling thoughts and behaviors. This approach is related to the A) cognitive perspective B) social-cognitive perspective C) psychodynamic perspective D) humanistic perspective E) behavioral perspective

29)

6

30) According to the ________, we are in control of our lives and have the capacity for positive growth.

A) trait perspective B) cognitive perspective C) behavioristic perspective D) humanistic perspective E) psychodynamic perspective

30)

31) Humanism denies the role of determinism, but elevates the role of A) suggestion B) Gestalt C) unconscious D) society E) free will

31)

32) Cross-cultural research on happiness has found that A) most people report low levels of happiness B) people who live in the far north or far south are not very happy C) people who have to hunt for their food are not happy D) most people are happy E) happiness levels have changed dramatically in the United States

32)

33) Dr. Vance tests individuals' abilities to comprehend abstract metaphors. Dr. Vance is probably a A) behaviorist B) educational psychologist C) humanistic psychologist D) psychoanalyst E) cognitive psychologist

33)

34) J. B. Watson and B. F. Skinner believed that A) consciousness should always be investigated through the process of individual introspection B) consciousness could be investigated through dream analysis C) psychology should focus on interactions with the environment that can be seen and measured D) psychological methods could be developed to study the process of human cognition E) psychology should study both outwardly observed behaviors and inborn mental motivations

34)

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35) Cognitive psychology can best be described as A) a subspecialty of psychology based exclusively on observation rather than experimentation B) the study of feelings and emotions C) the study of higher mental processes D) the area of psychology which attempts to reduce judgmental thinking E) the therapeutic applications of critical thinking

35)

36) Professionals in the field of developmental psychology A) specialize in the changes various crises bring to personality B) attempt to determine how individuals' attitudes change over time C) attempt to anticipate the development of mental disorders D) study infant development exclusively E) specialize in the study of human growth and change over the life span

36)

37) Dr. Ames studies the way groups of people make decisions. She is a A) health psychologist B) social psychologist C) experimental psychologist D) developmental psychologist E) personality psychologist

37)

38) An evolutionary psychologist would disagree with which of the following statements?

A) The traits which one looks for in a potential spouse are based on characteristics which have allowed humans to survive.

B) The traits of members of a species who are presently living are the result of survival of the fittest.

C) Survival of the fittest only applies to the human animal.

D) They would agree with them all.

E) Some behaviors are pre-wired into species, because they assist in maintaining the reproductive ability of the species.

38)

39) If a NFL player wanted to see a psychologist to improve his game, what type of psychologist might he consult?

A) Sport psychologist B) Cognitive psychologist C) Health psychologist D) Humanistic psychologist E) Community psychologist

39)

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40) Who was a leading proponent of behaviorism in the United States until his/her death in 1990?

A) Ivan Pavlov B) Carl Rogers C) Albert Bandura D) John Thorndike E) B. F. Skinner

40)

41) During a therapy session, Mrs. Brown has been asked to discuss her emotions related to objects in her dreams. Mrs. Brown and her therapist are delving into the A) universal mind B) preconscious mind C) objective mind D) unconscious mind E) natural mind

41)

42) Dr. Abrams is interested in studying thoughts and emotions that are normally inaccessible to a person's awareness. He is trying to understand the A) natural mind B) unconscious mind C) preconscious mind D) objective mind E) universal mind

42)

43) If you go to medical school and decide to specialize in psychological disorders, you would be most likely to consider the practice of A) psychiatry B) surgery C) health psychology D) clinical psychology E) counseling psychology

43)

44) You have volunteered to participate in a study that will ask you questions about lifestyle habits, such as drinking, smoking, and engaging in high-risk sexual behavior.

Which kind of psychologist is most likely conducting this study?

A) Industrial-Organizational psychologist B) Social psychologist C) Health psychologist D) Educational psychologist E) Quantitative psychologist

44)

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45) The main difference between psychiatrists and clinical psychologists is that psychiatrists A) have extra training in research methods B) earn M.D. degrees and can prescribe medicine C) have Ph.D. degrees but cannot prescribe medicine D) have Ph.D. degrees and can prescribe medicine E) are licensed to practice therapy

45)

46) Which type of psychologist might work in an elementary school and administer placement tests to students?

A) Developmental psychologist B) Clinical psychologist C) Cognitive psychologist D) Qualitative psychologist E) School psychologist

46)

47) A psychologist is studying optical illusions to determine how they "trick" the brain.

This psychologist most likely specializes in the area of A) personality B) cognitive perception C) biological psychology D) sensation and perception E) learning and memory

47)

48) Dr. Daack has spent a lifetime studying how adults solve problems. It is likely that Dr. Daack specializes in A) cognitive psychology B) clinical psychology C) counseling psychology D) health psychology E) biological psychology

48)

49) Dr. Zimand is studying testosterone levels and aggression in adult males. It is likely that Dr. Zimand specializes in the ________ approach to psychology.

A) clinical B) evolutionary C) biological D) sociocultural E) personality

49)

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50) Which of the following psychologists emphasized that psychology should be about what people do—their actions and behaviors—and should not concern itself with things that cannot be seen, such as thoughts, feelings, and goals?

A) B. F. Skinner B) Edward Titchner C) David Buss D) Carl Rogers E) Albert Bandura

50)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

51) Psychologists are meeting at Anston University to form a team that will investigate the emotion of fear. Identify how each of the psychologists might contribute to this study by defining the perspectives below and providing an example to show how they might investigate fear as an emotion from their point of view a. Psychodynamic b. Behaviorist c. Cognitive d. Humanistic e. Neuroscientist

52) A college wants to promote their psychology department's program and has decided to develop an ad campaign for a magazine/internet site. You have been chosen to write a description for each of the areas of specialization they offer. Be sure to define the area and provide an example of a possible career a student could pursue with each of the following specializations: a. sensation and perception b. motivation and emotion c. psychology of women and gender d. social psychology e. industrial and organizational (I/O) psychology f. community psychology

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Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED1

1) C 2) E 3) C 4) A 5) B 6) A 7) D 8) E 9) A 10) D 11) B 12) A 13) E 14) C 15) B 16) C 17) B 18) D 19) B 20) E 21) E 22) A 23) E 24) D 25) B 26) B 27) C 28) C 29) C 30) D 31) E 32) D 33) E 34) C 35) C 36) E 37) B 38) C 39) A 40) E 41) D 42) B 12

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED1

43) A 44) C 45) B 46) E 47) D 48) A 49) C 50) A 51) Scoring Guide for Question 1: Students should provide a clear explanation of the perspective and then provide an example that relates to the perspective, specific to the emotion of fear. Answers should be written in complete sentences.

Sample answers below are NOT all inclusive, but provide examples to help grade the question. For each definition and example the student earns 1 point, the total number of points for this question being 10.

Point 1: Definition of the perspective: emphasizes unconscious thought, the conflict between biological drives (such as the drive for sex) and society's demands, and early childhood family experiences.

Practitioners of this approach believe that sexual and aggressive impulses buried deep within the unconscious mind influence the way people think, feel, and behave.

Point 2: Example to show how the psychologist might investigate the cause of the fear: Fears may have been developed from a traumatic childhood experience, something that happened to the child when he was little that the child might not remember and is still bothering the individual as an adult.

Point 3: Definition of the perspective: emphasizes the scientific study of observable behavioral responses and their environmental determinants. It focuses on an organism's visible interactions with the environment—that is, behaviors, not thoughts or feelings.

Point 4: Example: Fears might be learned from an experience encountered, such as being bit by a dog, now an individual has a fear of all dogs; how an individual might see someone else in the family with a fear of insects and now they have developed the same fear.

Point 5: Definition of the perspective: emphasizes the mental processes involved in knowing how we direct our attention, perceive, remember, think, and solve problems. In the cognitive view, an individual's mental processes are in control of behavior through memories, perceptions, images, and thinking.

Point 6: Example: Fears are the interpretations of a perception and the thoughts related to an event which an individual may not be able to control; memories of something related to the feelings of fear persist and affect the individual's ability to function in a specific situation.

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Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED1

Point 7: Definition of the perspective: emphasizes a person's positive qualities, the capacity for positive growth, and the freedom to choose one's destiny. Humanistic psychologists stress that people have the ability to control their lives and are not simply controlled by the environment.

Point 8: Example: an individual overcomes fear of being left alone or not accepted by a group by working hard to develop a positive self concept and make new friends that help them to feel loved and accepted. People may fear change but overcome the fear by setting goals that are attainable and help them to take steps towards achieving them.

Point 9: Definition of the perspective: is the scientific study of the structure, function, development, genetics, and biochemistry of the nervous system. Neuroscience emphasizes that the brain and nervous system are central to understanding behavior, thought, and emotion. Neuroscientists believe that thoughts and emotions have a physical basis in the brain.

Point 10: Example: individuals have physical reactions to circumstances that create fear responses; measuring physiological changes in the body and learning to control breathing, heart rate, body temperature, blood pressure can help people deal with fearful situations. Understanding how the autonomic nervous system works helps people to control reactions to situations.

52) Scoring Guide for Question 2: Students should provide a clear description of each area of specialization and then give an example of a career in which this area of psychology would be applicable. Answers should be written in complete sentences.

Sample answers below are NOT all inclusive, but provide examples to help grade the question. For each description and example the student earns 1 point, the total number of points for this question being 10.

Point 1: Description: Researchers, who study sensation and perception, focus on the physical systems and psychological processes that allow us to experience the world—to smell the Thanksgiving turkey in the oven (Yeshurun & Sobel, 2010) and to see the beauty of a sunset (Keen, 2011).

Point 2: Career example: Working in a research facility that helps to find causes for sensory problems; working in a perfume industry to help develop scents that attract the opposite sex; researching what odors help people concentrate; researching what colors calm people down or increase their appetites.

Applications can be found in interior design, advertising, business and industry.

Point 3: Description: Researchers from a variety of specializations are interested in motivation and emotion, two important aspects of experience. Research questions addressed by scientists who study motivation include how individuals persist to attain a difficult goal and how rewards affect the experience of motivation (Boekaerts, 2010).

Point 4: Career example: Finding ways to help teachers and students increase motivation in the classroom; working with sports teams; helping doctors and parents know what kind of rewards to use 14

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED1

with children that would help develop positive behaviors; applying research on emotion to the treatment of emotional disorders. Private consulting as well as working with others in businesses, school psychology.

Point 5: Description: Social psychology deals with people’s interactions with one another, relationships, social perceptions, social cognition, and attitudes (Bohner & Dickel, 2011; Erber & Erber, 2011). Social psychologists are interested in the influence of groups on individuals’ thinking and behavior and in the ways that the groups to which we belong influence our attitudes.

Point 6: Career example: working to reduce racial prejudice within schools, businesses and community groups; exploring how the presence of others influences performance and applying this information to increase production in a factory or business. Providing information to individuals on how to maintain close, personal relationships with peers, family, dating and marriage partners. These may include therapy, private consulting, teams of consultants, community agencies and organizations.

Point 7: Description: I/O psychology is often divided into industrial psychology andorganizational psychology. Among the main concerns of industrial psychology are personnel matters and human resource management. Industrial psychology is increasingly referred to as personnel psychology.

Organizational psychology examines the social influences in organizations, as well as organizational leadership.

Point 8: Career example: Providing companies with research findings to help with interviewing techniques, personnel issues, grooming individuals for positions as supervisors and management.

Research on leadership could be applied to business, government, educational institutions, manufacturing, etc.

Point 9: Description: Community psychology concentrates on improving the quality of relationships among individuals, their community, and society at large. Community psychologists are practitioner scientists who provide accessible care for people with psychological problems. Community-based mental health centers are one means of delivering services such as outreach programs to people in need, especially those who traditionally have been underserved by mental health professionals Point 10: Career example: Providing the resources to hospitals, clinics, and agencies in the community to help develop programs that work well in a particular community; helping to develop programs in schools to deal with bullying and violence; working with agencies that assist the homeless and other individuals that do not have healthcare.

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Prof.Exams Chapter 2: Psychology's Scientific Method

TB-The Science of Psychology3E|Laura King

Chapter 2: Psychology's Scientific Method MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Ashton wants to study butterflies using the scientific method. Which of these represents a step, or steps, in the scientific method?

A) Ashton, watching the butterflies, notices a phenomenon in their feeding behavior.

B) Ashton has performed steps in the scientific method with each of these activities.

C) Ashton tests his prediction by recording objective information on the butterflies.

D) Ashton makes a logical educated guess to predict the butterflies' future behavior.

E) None of these steps are part of the scientific method.

1)

2) Joaquin has been assigned a primary research project in his psychology class. He is to observe student behavior during a learning task and attempt to form a/an ________.

In order to do this, he must be able to articulate a broad idea that describes principles and events, and how they may be related.

A) theory B) hypothesis C) algorithm D) operational definition E) scientific method

2)

3) A theory can be defined as A) a naturalistic observation of problem-solving behavior B) application of scientific method through statistics C) an attempt to test behavior and thought process D) the basis for relationships among facts and principles E) a final conclusion related to a research problem

3)

4) What, if anything, is wrong with overgeneralizing the findings of a study that has a very small sample size?

A) Studies with small sample sizes don't have control groups.

B) The people in the sample may all share a characteristic that does not generalize to a larger population.

C) Studies with small sample sizes don't have experimental groups.

D) Nothing, sample size is irrelevant.

E) There typically isn't random assignment in studies with small samples.

4)

1

5) Allie has developed a theory concerning test grades. She believes that there is a relationship between her study frequency and the resulting grade. In order to test her theory, she would first develop a A) hypothesis B) principle C) test D) theory E) strategy

5)

6) It has been proposed that students have difficulty returning to their academic schedule after a holiday or break. Specifically, it has been predicted that there will be more student absences on the Monday following spring break than on the Friday prior to spring break. The first statement describes the ________, while the second is the A) hypothesis; theory B) correlation; theory C) theory; hypothesis D) design of the study; research method E) prediction; procedure

6)

7) Confidentiality requires that A) data from a study is never disclosed B) data from a study is stored without names attached C) participants are given a full description of the study D) participants have a right to view the results of a study E) participation in a study is voluntary

7)

8) Confidentiality requires that A) participation in a study is voluntary B) data from a study is never disclosed C) data from a study is stored without names attached D) participants have a right to view the results of a study E) participants are given a full description of the study

8)

9) Which of the following provides an objective, detailed description of how a variable is measured and observed in a particular study?

A) an operational definition B) a theory C) a procedure D) a hypothesis E) an experimenter

9)

2

10) If a psychologist were to study "love" she would need to have a(n) ________ love.

Without this specific information, the hypothesis could not be tested.

A) correlational factor to B) theory of C) operational definition for D) point of view concerning E) statistical approach to the study of

10)

11) Archival research, naturalistic observation, survey research, and case studies are A) case study research methods B) experimental research methods C) developmental research methods D) longitudinal research methods E) descriptive research methods

11)

12) ________ attempts to view behavior without disturbing the environment or the subjects.

A) Naturalistic observation B) Controlled observation C) Restricted design research D) Restricted correlational research E) Experimental research

12)

13) Kevin had completed his first day of naturalistic observation of adolescents at the local high school but he was concerned about the difference his presence in the classrooms made on adolescent behavior. This is an important issue since, in truly naturalistic research, researchers A) should not be unobservable B) cannot manipulate the independent variable C) must not change the situation D) should not be in the same room E) must be seen, and not heard

13)

14) "This cannot be the real opinion of the entire student body! She didn't ask me!" Haley complained. Her psychology teacher explained that A) a representative sample of responses can indicate the view of the majority B) a survey is handed out only to very specific individuals in the sample C) Haley is correct because an accurate survey would have asked all of the members of the student body the same question D) freshmen are excluded due to their lack of experience E) responses to surveys are very complex and are seldom understood

14)

3

15) The smaller the standard deviation, the less variability in a dataset. A small standard deviation indicates that, on average, A) scores indicate extreme variability B) scores are close to the mean C) scores indicate extreme reliability D) scores are far from the mean E) scores are very far apart

15)

16) A history class has agreed to be subjects of research for psychology students. Half of the class has been asked to study for the next test while listening to classical music.

The remaining students have been asked to study in a silent environment. The test scores of the two groups will be compared. ________ is the dependent variable.

A) the subject of the test B) the reading speed C) the size of the class D) the test scores E) the cultural background of the students

16)

17) A correlation coefficient indicates a(n) ________ between two variables.

A) problem exists B) unknown exists C) dependent variable exists D) cause and effect E) relationship

17)

18) Scientists conducted a study involving two variables. Their research indicated a strong positive correlation between the two variables. This means that A) there is no observable association between the variables B) as one variable increases, the other decreases C) there is a very good chance the two variables are causal D) there has been an error in the calculations E) as one variable increases, the other also increases

18)

19) Professor Jordan has suggested to his students that a correlation exists between the number of hours spent in serious study and one's grade on the final exam. He would like his students to improve their test scores by increasing study time. The professor is describing a A) positive correlation B) mean score C) negative correlation D) standard deviation E) illusory correlation

19)

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20) "The problem with drinking coffee in the evening," complained Saundra, "is that it interferes with my ability to fall asleep. My mind keeps racing, but my body is so tired!" Saundra recognizes ________ between caffeine intake and sleep.

A) the negative correlation B) the mean C) the significance D) the positive correlation E) the causal relationship

20)

21) The tendency to overgeneralize about the subjects in research and to expect them to be more homogenous than they really are is called A) subject bias B) racial bias C) prejudice D) experimenter bias E) scapegoating

21)

22) In scientific research, the group which receives treatment is called the A) experimental group B) control group C) dependent group D) independent group E) sample group

22)

23) In experimental research, the group which is not subjected to the independent variable is called the A) treatment abstained group B) observation-only group C) placebo group D) control group E) experimental group

23)

24) Group A received progressive relaxation training prior to test taking, while Group B received no treatment. Group A is the ________, while Group B is the ________.

A) control group; treatment group B) experimental group; observation-only group C) treatment group; placebo group D) experimental group; control group E) placebo group; control group

24)

5

25) Deception in research is ethically allowed A) if the participants agree to it ahead of time B) under no circumstances C) if the anticipated benefits outweigh the anticipated costs and participants are debriefed D) only in the case of a double-blind study E) in medical research only

25)

26) Random assignment of participants is important in order to ensure that A) groups have equal and balanced composition B) all participants having specific characteristics are viewed in a single group C) everyone gets a fair chance to participate in the experiment D) genders and ages are viewed independently E) independent variables are not restricted

26)

27) A properly designed hypothesis will test the theory by predicting A) the random assignment of the experimental and control groups B) participant error and its effect upon the results of the experiment C) the changes in the dependent variable caused by the independent variable D) the changes in the independent variable caused by the dependent variable E) the reduction of randomness caused by the experimental treatment

27)

28) ________ is a method by which researchers combine results across studies to establish the strength of an effect.

A) substantiation B) replication C) verification D) beta-analysis E) meta-analysis

28)

29) The ethical obligation to tell participants about the study once participation in the study is complete is called A) participant consent B) deception C) bias D) debriefing E) informed consent

29)

6

30) Amy conducted an experiment for her psychology class using student volunteers and collecting data on their responses. When she was done collecting, she summarized her data using measures of central tendency and of dispersion. She also computed a confidence level of .001 for her results. What kind(s) of mathematical methods for reporting her data did she use?

A) inferential statistics, then descriptive statistics B) descriptive statistics for both activities described C) qualitative statistics, then quantitative statistics D) descriptive statistics, then inferential statistics E) inferential statistics for both activities described

30)

31) A team of psychology students would like to expose their classmates to an embarrassing experience in order to gather data for their term project. Their instructor has asked them to read the ethical guidelines published by the American Psychological Association. She wants them to understand that A) participants need to be informed of the nature of the procedures before consenting B) college students are exempt from disclosure of the procedures C) they cannot conduct a study in which people will feel embarrassed D) they cannot engage in deception E) most college students regard such experiments as a positive idea and experience

31)

32) If you take a psychological assessment test and you receive the feedback that you "scored in the 90th percentile," you most likely took a(n) A) case study B) standardized test C) inventory D) structured interview E) survey

32)

33) A male experimenter is friendlier towards female participants than to his male participants. This is an example of A) ethical bias B) independent variable variation C) the placebo affect D) experimenter bias E) dependent variable variation

33)

7

34) Neither the participants nor the experimenter knew which group had received the treatment.

This could be considered a A) experimenter expectation B) single-blind experiment C) placebo experiment D) double-blind experiment E) participant expectation

34)

35) You believe that working women are happier than women who do not work outside the home. You predict that working women are less socially isolated than women who work at home and that this could be why they are happier. You have just formulated a(n) A) operational definition B) variable C) case study D) representative sample E) hypothesis

35)

36) In surveys of adolescents, adolescents claim that they begin smoking cigarettes because of peer pressure. In observing adolescent groups, however, you rarely see an adolescent offer another student a cigarette or ask another student whether they would like to smoke. You predict that peer pressure is NOT the primary reason that adolescents smoke cigarettes. You have just formulated a(n) A) variable B) observation C) hypothesis D) theory E) negative correlation

36)

37) The small group of participants observed in a research study are referred to as the A) experimental group B) control group C) models D) sample E) study group

37)

8

38) The "third variable problem" refers to A) a situation where the proper dependent variable was not measured B) the possibility that a variable that was not measured actually accounts for a relationship that was found C) a study in which an independent variable was not manipulated D) the possibility that a variable was too strong to overlook E) a study where the results find a zero correlation

38)

39) Which of the following is an example of research using the survey method?

A) Dr. Gomes studies his patients while they undergo psychological counseling.

B) Dr. Adele watches children as they learn to read.

C) Dr. Trooper gets children's school grades and test scores.

D) Dr. Frank asks people how many hours of TV they watch per week.

E) Dr. Yang reviews the videotape of his participants watching a movie.

39)

40) Which of the following is a technique that would NOT fall under the survey method?

A) Video taping B) Face-to-face interviews C) Telephone interviews D) Observation E) Paper-and-pencil questionnaires

40)

41) Dr. Jimand studies the adjustment of 20 Bosnian students to college life in the United States by living in the dorm and attending classes with them. Dr. Jimand is using A) the survey method B) formal experimentation C) an improper method of observation D) naturalistic observation E) the clinical method

41)

42) The Nun Study, in which researchers followed up with a group of nuns repeatedly over the course of 20 years, is an example of what type of research?

A) Longitudinal B) Naturalistic C) Experimental D) Unethical E) Cross-sectional

42)

9

43) Which of the following is an example of a case study?

A) conducting a series of interviews over a year with a student who has an anxiety disorder B) observing the study habits of students in the library versus those of students in the cafeteria C) asking all of the general psychology students to write in a journal before they go to sleep D) asking all general psychology students to complete a mood survey for extra credit E) assigning half the psychology students to computerized instruction and half to the traditional classroom

43)

44) A correlational study is used to A) determine the relationship between variables B) determine cause and effect C) determine dependent and independent variables D) establish a baseline for further study E) establish a representative population

44)

45) A variable is defined as A) anything with an operational definition B) anything that can change C) anything that can be assigned a numerical value D) anything that stays constant E) anything that is not easily changed

45)

46) How is the correlational method different from naturalistic observation?

A) The natural observation cannot be used to determine cause and effect.

B) The correlational method allows for behavior that is more natural than behavior observed in a laboratory setting.

C) The correlational method explains the causal nature of a relationship.

D) The correlational method involves the use of more than one variable.

E) The correlational method is not limited to real world settings.

46)

10

47) You want to determine the relationship between caffeine intake and performance on a mid-quarter exam. As students sit down to take the exam, you ask them to write the number of cups of tea, soda, or coffee they ingested two hours prior to the exam. You also obtain their exam scores. You calculate the correlation coefficient between the two variables to be +0.82. What can you conclude?

A) Drinking coffee caused better scores.

B) The more caffeine students consumed, the better their scores.

C) Coffee had nothing to do with the test scores.

D) 82 percent of the students consumed caffeine prior to the exam.

E) The more caffeine students consumed, the worse their scores.

47)

48) What does the size of a correlation coefficient indicate?

A) The strength of the relationship B) The size of the variables C) The strength of the causal factor D) The number of data points E) The direction of the relationship

48)

49) What does the positive or negative sign of a correlation coefficient indicate?

A) The number of data points B) The direction of the relationship C) The cause of the relationship D) The difficulty of making a prediction E) The strength of the relationship

49)

50) Which of the following correlation coefficients is indicative of the strongest relationship between the two variables?

A) +0.65 B) –0.24 C) 0.00 D) –.94 E) +0.87

50)

51) We can predict participants' scores on Variable A with perfect accuracy by knowing their scores on Variable B; and higher scores on Variable A are associated with higher scores on Variable B. What is the correlation coefficient for the correlation between Variables A and B? A) –1.00 B) +2.00 C) +0.50 D) 0.00 E) +1.00

51)

11

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

52) In a study looking at the relationship between playground aggression and time spent playing with toy guns, the correlation coefficient is +0.64.

• Draw a graph indicating the approximate appearance of the line that would represent this correlation.

• Discuss the strength and direction of the relationship.

• Explain what this coefficient means in terms of playing with toy guns and playground aggression.

• Briefly explain a research method that could be used to acquire this information.

• Identify who you would choose for your sample.

• State the independent variable in the study.

• State the dependent variable in the study.

• Identify one important ethical concern you would have if you conducted the study.

53) Dr. Schwartz wants to investigate the relationship between the use of herbal medicines and the reduction of depressive symptoms in women. She got permission to use the freshman class of college women at her local university. She met with the women, explained the purpose of her research, and surveyed them to find out which women were already using herbal medicines. Now she wants to set up an experimental design to determine how the use of herbal medicines would affect the moods of other women in the freshmen class. Set up a research design for this study, and include all of the following in your explanation: • Write a hypothesis for Dr. Schwartz.

• Explain how she will choose her sample from the freshman class.

• Describe the operational definitions of the TWO key variables in her study.

• Identify and explain how Dr. Schwartz will conduct the actual study.

• Based on the information provided, identify ONE possible problem with the population of women she has chosen to study.

• Identify how experimenter bias or participant bias might affect this study and how Dr. Schwartz could control for this.

• Identify ONE statistical technique that Dr. Schwartz could use to represent the relationship she might find between the two variables in her study.

12

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED2

1) B 2) A 3) D 4) B 5) A 6) C 7) B 8) C 9) A 10) C 11) E 12) A 13) C 14) A 15) B 16) D 17) E 18) E 19) A 20) A 21) D 22) A 23) D 24) D 25) C 26) A 27) C 28) E 29) D 30) D 31) A 32) B 33) D 34) D 35) E 36) C 37) D 38) B 39) D 40) D 41) D 42) A 13

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED2

43) A 44) A 45) B 46) E 47) B 48) A 49) B 50) D 51) E 52) Answers will vary.

53) Answers will vary.

14

Prof.Exams Chapter 3: Biological Foundations of Behavior

TB-The Science of Psychology3E|Laura King

Chapter 3: Biological Foundations of Behavior MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) In a neural chain, which part of the neuron will transmit information to the next cell?

A) axon B) nucleus C) dendrite D) myelin sheath E) synapse

1)

2) The nucleus of a neuron is located in the A) dendritic spine B) axon hillock C) synapse D) cell body E) terminal stub

2)

3) The primary function of dendrites is to A) receive incoming information B) keep the cell alive C) transmit outgoing information D) translate incoming information E) secrete hormones

3)

4) Before the age of three, the brain has a greater physical capacity for modification and change. This is called A) complexity B) assimilation C) plasticity D) accommodation E) integration

4)

5) What is the correct route a message takes within a neuron?

A) Axon, cell body, dendrite B) Dendritic nodules, synapse, axon terminals C) Dendrite, cell body, axon D) Synaptic nodules, dendrite, axon E) Cell body, dendrite, axon

5)

1

6) When a neuron is at its resting state, what is the status of the charges on each side of the cell membrane?

A) There is a positive charge on both the outside and the inside of the cell membrane.

B) There is a positive charge in the beginning of the cell membrane and then it becomes negative C) There is a negative charge on the outside of the cell membrane and a positive charge on the inside.

D) There is a negative charge on both the outside and the inside of the cell membrane.

E) There is a negative charge on the inside of the cell membrane and a positive charge on the outside.

6)

7) Uncle Manny had Parkinson's disease, suffering from muscular rigidity and tremors.

He had low levels of which neurotransmitter?

A) Dopamine B) GABA C) Oxytocin D) Acetylcholine E) Serotonin

7)

8) If you were a neurologist and wanted to study a patient who presented with symptoms of bipolar disorder consisting of alternating episodes of mania and depression, which of the neurotransmitters might you first examine?

A) Serotonin B) Dopamine C) Acetylcholine D) Glutamate E) Norephinephrine

8)

9) What neurotransmitter plays an important role in human bonding?

A) Endorphins B) Glutamate C) Serotonin D) Norepinephrine E) Oxytocin

9)

2

10) The neuron's cell membrane permits some substances to pass through but not others; this is because the membrane is A) depolarized B) very thin C) semipermeable D) electrically charged E) covered with myelin

10)

11) Most ________ lie between the axon of one neuron and the dendrites of another.

A) nodes of Ranvier B) synapses C) myelin sheath D) cell bodies E) interneurons

11)

12) According to the all-or-none principle, what would happen if a cell were depolarized twice the normal amount needed to produce an action potential?

A) The action potential would have an inhibitory effect on the next neuron.

B) The action potential would not be affected by the strength of the depolarization.

C) The cell would be activating two different neurotransmitters.

D) Nothing would happen because the cell must be polarized to fire.

E) The strength of the action potential would be proportionate to the depolarization.

12)

13) The terms somatic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system are best associated with the A) central nervous system B) limbic system C) somatosensory area D) peripheral nervous system E) sympathetic nervous system

13)

14) Low levels of which neurotransmitter is most directly associated with depression?

A) GABA B) Acetylcholine C) Serotonin D) Oxytocin E) Dopamine

14)

3

15) If a doctor told you that insufficient nutrients were being transported from your blood vessels to your neurons, you might suspect that the problem was in your A) Purkinjie cells B) Ranvier cells C) bipolar cells D) glial cells E) cerebral cells

15)

16) A neurologist says that your aunt has a condition affecting her central nervous system.

Your uncle is not sure what that means and you tell him that the problem could be anywhere in the A) thalamus or hypothalamus B) brain or spinal cord C) hindbrain, midbrain, or forebrain D) corpus callosum or the basal ganglia E) peripheral or central nerve fibers

16)

17) You are listening to a lecture. Then the bell rings in the hallway. When you hear these stimuli, it is ________ neurons that carry electrochemical messages from your ears to your brain.

A) sensor B) indige C) motor D) affere E) effere y nt nt nt

17)

18) The lecture you were listening to is over. The bell that rang in the hall signaled the end of class. You get up out of your seat, pick up your things, and walk out the classroom door.

Which kind of nerves sent the signals from your brain to initiate your physical movements?

A) Efferent B) Afferent C) Indigent D) Sensory E) Indifferent

18)

19) Which division of the nervous system is composed of all the nerves that are not part of the brain and spinal cord?

A) The central nervous system B) The peripheral nervous system C) The somatic nervous system D) The autonomic nervous system E) The afferent nervous system

19)

4

20) Essential body functions such as heartbeat, breathing, digestion, sweating, and sexual arousal are under the control of the A) cerebral cortex B) somatic nervous system C) endocrine system D) autonomic nervous system E) interneural system

20)

21) Which of the following are the two integrated parts of the autonomic nervous system?

A) Afferent and efferent nervous systems B) Sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems C) Sensory and parasensory nervous systems D) Thalamic and hypothalamic nervous systems E) Central and the peripheral nervous systems

21)

22) If you have escaped from a stressful situation, and you experience increases in salivation, constriction of the lungs, contraction of the bladder, and an activation of the digestive tract, you know that your ________ nervous system is primarily responsible for these operations.

A) sympathetic B) somatic C) efferent D) parasympathetic E) afferent

22)

23) You are sitting in a public place next to a new acquaintance to whom you are attracted. You feel this person's hand touch yours. You move your hand to return the gesture. Your heart beats faster and you feel "butterflies" in your stomach. Your hand movement was initiated by your ________ nervous system. Your increased heart rate and stomach contractions were initiated by your ________ nervous system.

A) sympathetic; parasympathetic B) somatic; autonomic C) skeletal; parasympathetic D) autonomic; somatic E) parasympathetic; sympathetic

23)

24) Which division of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for physiological symptoms such as increased heart rate and butterflies in the stomach?

A) Sympathetic B) Circulatory C) Somatic D) Efferent E) Parasympathetic

24)

5

25) Your somatic nervous system, which includes motor nerves, is ________ in nature, while your autonomic nervous system, which communicates with your internal organs, is A) afferent; efferent B) primary; secondary C) voluntary; involuntary D) involuntary; voluntary E) efferent; afferent

25)

26) Your brain has instructed your body muscles to move so that you avoid an oncoming bicyclist. Which division of the nervous system carried the information to your muscles?

A) Sympathetic nervous system B) Autonomic nervous system C) Somatic nervous system D) Central nervous system E) Parasympathetic nervous system

26)

27) Imagine that you show up to try out for the soccer team and you feel extremely stressed due to the competition for a place on the varsity squad. A "fight-or-flight" response is sparked by the ________. This reaction quickly mobilizes the body's physiological resources to prepare us to deal with threats to survival.

A) peripheral nervous system B) autonomic nervous system C) central nervous system D) sympathetic nervous system E) parasympathetic nervous system

27)

28) After finishing a psychology test, you try to relax by engaging in some meditation techniques. Doing these exercises should increase the response of the ________ nervous system and result in slower heart and respiration rates and less muscular tension.

A) somatic B) central C) peripheral D) sympathetic E) parasympathetic

28)

6

29) An action potential is a brief wave of positive electrical charge that sweeps down the axon as the sodium channels in the axon membrane open and close. The action potential causes a change in ________ potential as it moves along the axon. The movements of sodium (Na +) and potassium (K + ) ________ into and out of the axon cause the electrical changes.

A) electrical; cells B) chemical; cells C) chemical; ions D) electrical; ions E) chemical; neurotransmitters

29)

30) You walk to class, and you do not have to think consciously about how to walk.

When you get there, even though the lecture is boring and you are tired you quickly notice and come to attention when another student drops a heavy book behind you.

The structure that plays an important role in bringing you to attention by manipulation of various neurotransmitters is the A) hippocampus B) amygdala C) reticular formation D) frontal lobe E) hypothalamus

30)

31) The ability for nerve cells in the brain to change their purpose demonstrates what capacity of the brain?

A) electrochemical transmission B) complexity C) maturation D) lesioning E) plasticity

31)

32) If a person's cerebellum was damaged in an accident, you would expect the person to have a problem with A) talking and understanding B) seeing and hearing C) thinking and reasoning D) breathing and heart rate E) balance and muscle coordination

32)

7

33) A person who walks in a jerky, uncoordinated way may well have a disorder involving the A) midbrain B) cerebellum C) cerebral cortex D) forebrain E) hypothalamus

33)

34) Which part of the nervous system regulates breathing?

A) amygdala B) medulla C) Wernicke's area D) hypothalamus E) forebrain

34)

35) At the base of the brain is the ________which contains the medulla and the pons.

A) forebrain B) reticular formation C) corpus callosum D) midbrain E) hindbrain

35)

36) The ________ is the part of the hindbrain that is primarily responsible for breathing and upright posture.

A) pons B) reticular formation C) medulla D) cerebrum E) cerebellum

36)

37) The reticular formation is primarily responsible for A) motor coordination and the integration of complex muscle movements B) controlling breathing and regulating reflexes to maintain an upright posture C) stereotyped patterns such as walking, sleeping, or turning to attend to a sudden noise D) memory formation and recall E) control and coordination of balance, hearing, and parasympathetic function

37)

8

38) One of the pleasure centers of the brain is found in the A) hippocampus B) corpus callosum C) cingulate gyrus D) thalamus E) hypothalamus

38)

39) Within the limbic system, the amygdala plays a key role in ________ and the hippocampus plays a key role in ________.

A) aggression; memory B) posture; aggression C) balance; posture D) memory; balance E) aggression; fear

39)

40) Body temperature, emotional states, and coping with stress are functions controlled by the A) hippocampus B) hypothalamus.

C) amygdala D) cingula gyrus E) corpus callosum

40)

41) Conscious experience and voluntary actions are mediated by the A) cerebral cortex.

B) cingulate cortex C) cerebellum D) sensory cortex E) limbic system

41)

42) If you had damage to your hippocampus, it would most likely impair A) sexual functioning B) memory recall C) autonomic functioning D) memory formation E) disease resistance

42)

43) Broca's area is usually located in the A) left hemisphere of the occipital lobe B) left hemisphere of the parietal lobe C) right hemisphere of the frontal lobe D) right hemisphere of the temporal lobe E) left hemisphere of the frontal lobe

43)

9

44) The structure of the brain that controls the production of speech is A) Broca's area B) corpus collosum C) Wernicke's area D) auditory cortex E) association area

44)

45) A drug that mimics or increases a neurotransmitter's effect is called a(n) A) agonist B) neurochemical messenger C) acetylcholine D) stimulant E) antagonist

45)

46) A drug that blocks the function of a neurotransmitter is called a(n) A) acetylcholine B) neurochemical messenger C) agonist D) depressant E) antagonist

46)

47) The area critical for processing visual information is the A) frontal lobe B) cerebellar cortex C) parietal lobe D) occipital lobe E) optic nerve

47)

48) fMRI can detect brain activity because A) oxygenated blood provides a stronger magnetic resonance than nonoxygenated blood B) parts of the midbrain are more magnetic than the cerebral cortex C) parts of the cerebral cortex are more magnetic than the forebrain D) parts of the hindbrain are more magnetic than the cerebral cortex E) oxygenated blood provides a weaker magnetic resonance than nonoxygenated blood

48)

49) The somatosensory area plays an important role in behaviors involving A) thirst B) smell C) touch D) emoti on

49)

10

E) hunge r

50) A researcher places closely spaced electrodes on her subjects' heads in order to study brain activity. She is using the A) PET technique B) EKG technique C) functional MRI technique D) EMG technique E) EEG technique ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

51) When you are learning how to surf you use many different parts of your brain to help you successfully stay on the surf board. Describe the function of each of the following brain structures and state an example of how each structure will help you to be successful as you attempt to catch the wave and stay on your surfboard.

• Motor cortex • Cerebellum • Sensory cortex • Occipital lobe • Frontal lobe • Reticular formation • Hypothalamus

11

50)

52) Damage to the brain can result in many different effects on behavior. State the function of each brain area and explain a probable effect on behavior if that structure of the brain was damaged and not functioning properly.

• temporal lobe • hippocampus • Wernicke's area • Broca's area • thalamus • amygdala • corpus callosum

53) Neurotransmitters are the chemicals that carry messages throughout the central and peripheral nervous systems. Hormones are chemical messengers for the endocrine system. Identify each of the following chemicals as a neurotransmitter or a hormone and provide an example of how it might affect human behavior.

• Acetylcholine • Dopamine • Serotonin • Endorphins • Norepinephrine • Glutamate • Oxytocin • Insulin

12

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED3

1) A 2) D 3) A 4) C 5) C 6) E 7) A 8) E 9) E 10) C 11) B 12) B 13) D 14) C 15) D 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) B 22) D 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) C 27) D 28) E 29) D 30) C 31) E 32) E 33) B 34) B 35) E 36) C 37) C 38) E 39) A 40) B 41) A 42) D 13

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED3

43) E 44) A 45) A 46) E 47) D 48) A 49) C 50) E 51) Answers will vary.

52) Scoring Guide for Question 1: Answers should be written in complete sentences. Sample answers below are NOT all inclusive, but provide examples to help grade the question. For each function specific of the brain structure and effect due to damage of that structure, the student earns 1 point, the total number of points for this question being 14.

Points 1 and 2: The temporal lobe receives information from the ears. Damage may cause loss of hearing.

Points 3 and 4: The hippocampus processes information into the long term memory. Damage would affect the ability to process and store new memories.

Points 5 and 6: Wernicke's area plays an important role in comprehension of language. Damage to this region causes problems in comprehending language; although an individual with an injury to Wernicke's area can produce words, he or she may not be able to understand what others are saying.

Points 7 and 8: Broca's area plays an important role in the production of speech. Damage may cause expressive aphasia (also called Broca's aphasia), a language disorder that involves the inability to produce language.

Points 9 and 10: The thalamus routes incoming messages to the appropriate cortical centers and transmits replies to the medulla and cerebellum. One area of the thalamus receives information from the cerebellum and projects it to the motor area of the cerebral cortex. Damage can cause tics and Parkinson's disease symptoms.

Points 11 and 12: The amygdala is involved in regulation of the emotions of fear and rage.

Uncontrollable anger, rage, violent behaviors towards others may result.

Points 13 and 14: The corpus callosum connects the brain cells in one hemisphere to those in the other.

In healthy brains, the two sides engage in a continuous flow of information via this neural bridge. If split, the two hemispheres will not communicate and could result in memory issues, speech issues. In split-brain patients, cutting the corpus callosum seemed to leave the patient with "two separate minds" that learned and operated independently.

14

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED3

53) Scoring Guide for Question 2: Answers should be written in complete sentences.

Sample answers below are NOT all inclusive, but provide examples to help grade the question. For each identification of the chemical as a neurotransmitter or hormone and example specific to how the chemical might affect behavior, the student earns 1 point. The total number of points for this question is 16.

Points 1 and 2: Neurotransmitter. Acetylcholine (ACh) usually stimulates the firing of neurons and is involved in muscle action, learning, and memory. Some of the drugs that alleviate Alzheimer symptoms do so by compensating for the loss of the brain's supply of acetylcholine.

Points 3 and 4: Neurotransmitter. Dopamine helps to control voluntary movement and affects sleep, mood, attention, learning, and the ability to recognize opportunities for rewarding experiences in the environment. Low levels of dopamine are associated with Parkinson's disease, a degenerative neurological disorder in which a person develops jerky physical movements and a tremor and has difficulty with speech and walking.

Points 5 and 6: Neurotransmitter. Serotonin is involved in the regulation of sleep, mood, attention, and learning. In regulating states of sleep and wakefulness, it teams with acetylcholine and norepinephrine.

Lowered levels of serotonin are associated with depression.

Points 7 and 8: Neurotransmitter. Endorphins are natural opiates—substances that depress nervous system activity and eliminate pain—that mainly stimulate the firing of neurons. As opiates, endorphins shield the body from pain and elevate feelings of pleasure.

Points 9 and 10: Can be identified as both. Norepinephrine (also called noradrenaline ) inhibits the firing of neurons in the central nervous system, but it excites the heart muscle, intestines, and urogenital tract. Norepinephrine alerts the individual to emergency situations by interacting with the pituitary and the liver. Norepinephrine functions as a neurotransmitter when it is released by neurons.

In the adrenal glands, norepinephrine is released as a hormone.

Points 11 and 12: Neurotransmitter. Glutamate has a key role in exciting many neurons to fire and is especially involved in learning and memory. Too much glutamate can overstimulate the brain and trigger migraine headaches or even seizures. Researchers have recently proposed that glutamate also is a factor in anxiety, depression, schizophrenia, Alzheimer's disease, and Parkinson's disease.

Points 13 and 14: Can be identified as both. Oxytocin plays an important role in the experience of love and social bonding. A powerful surge of oxytocin is released in mothers who have just given birth, and oxytocin is related to the onset of lactation (milk production) and breast feeding. Oxytocin is released as part of sexual orgasm and is thought to figure in the human experience of orgasmic pleasure and emotional attachment to romantic partners. Provocative research has related oxytocin to the way that some individuals respond to stress.

15

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED3

Points 15 and 16: Hormone. Insulin is an essential hormone that controls glucose (blood sugar) levels in the body and is related to metabolism, body weight, and obesity.

16

Prof.Exams Chapter 4- Sensation and Perception

TB-The Science of Psychology3E|Laura King

Chapter 4- Sensation and Perception MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) When you see the bright color and round shape of a tomato on the vine in your vegetable garden, smell its sun-warmed fragrance, hear the buzzing of a nearby bee, feel the velvety texture of the tomato's skin, and taste the flavor as you bite into it, your process of receiving stimulus energy from the environment is called A) cognition B) selective attention C) perception D) transduction E) sensation

1)

2) Every day, you see, hear, smell, taste, and feel stimuli from the outside world.

Collecting data about that world is the function of ________, and interpreting the data collected is the function of A) perception; sensation B) sensation; perception C) the spinal cord; the brain D) consciousness; perception E) the brain; the spinal cord

2)

3) When you see a light, you receive physical energy from a stimulus in the world.

Taking in this sort of stimulus is called A) photorecovery B) reuptake C) visual induction D) photoreception E) induction

3)

4) The type of processing that involves starting with a sense of what is happening and then applying that framework to information in the world is called A) referential B) logical C) autonomic D) bottom-up E) top-down

4)

1

5) If a person hears two tones that differ in intensity just barely enough to be detected 50% of the time, the point of detection would be the A) sensory threshold B) difference threshold C) transduction threshold D) minimal threshold E) absolute threshold

5)

6) The smallest intensity of a stimulus that you can detect 50 percent of the time is A) the absolute threshold B) the difference threshold C) the sensory threshold D) intensity threshold E) Weber's law

6)

7) An architect is designing apartments and wants them to be soundproof. She asks a psychologist what the smallest amount of sound is that can be heard. Her question is most related to A) the sensory receptors B) place theory C) the absolute threshold D) Weber's law E) the difference threshold

7)

8) You are studying in your dorm room, but your neighbor is blasting the television in the adjacent room. When you gently request that your neighbor turn the volume down until you cannot hear it, you are asking your neighbor to find your A) transduction level B) basilar level C) comfort level D) difference threshold E) absolute threshold

8)

9) If you are able to taste a quarter teaspoon of salt dissolved in a glass of water five times out of ten, you have attained your A) perceptual threshold B) difference threshold C) absolute threshold D) adaptation threshold E) taste threshold

9)

2

10) You watch a movie with some scenes set in a noisy bar, some scenes containing gunfire, and some scenes containing very quiet dialogue. The noisy scenes are very loud, and during the quiet scenes you can hear most of the dialogue, but you find that if the actors drop their volume on certain lines, you cannot hear what they are saying.

This reflects the fact that a message must exceed the ________ in order to be processed.

A) expectations B) absolute threshold C) lower limit D) upper limit E) arbitrary value

10)

11) What theory of perception proposes that detection of stimuli depends on a variety of factors including, but not limited to, physical intensity of the stimulus, fatigue of the observer, and expectancy?

A) Multiple perceptual context theory B) Opponent process theory C) Signal detection theory D) Absolute threshold theory E) Weber's theory

11)

12) You arrive at your friend's apartment for a big party at the end of the semester. When you first arrive, the music is so loud that it almost hurts your ears. After a couple of hours, even though the music is still at the same volume, it doesn't bother you any more, and you like it. This change over time describes the process of A) habituation B) sensory deprivation C) light adaptation D) transduction E) sensory adaptation

12)

13) You can't feel the waistband of your underwear (though you know it is there).This is the result of A) transduction B) sensory adaptation C) sensory deprivation D) transference E) difference thresholds

13)

3

14) What theory can be used to explain the various outcomes that occur when a doctor examines an X-ray in the hopes of detecting a tumor? The possible outcomes are: there is a tumor and either the doctor finds it or not; or there is not a tumor and the doctor either says there is or correctly says there is not.

A) Selective attention theory B) Signal detection theory C) Gate control theory D) Sensory perception E) Opponent process model

14)

15) The simultaneous distribution of sensory information across different neural pathways is called A) simultaneous processing B) top-down processing C) parallel processing D) binding E) bottom-up processing

15)

16) When you are paid $1 instead of $2, it is a big deal. When you are paid $91 instead of $92, it feels less painful. This is similar to A) Weber's law B) stimulus transduction C) absolute thresholds D) difference threshold E) perceptual constancy

16)

17) The purpose of parallel processing is to A) allow rods and cones to function simultaneously B) allow sensory information to travel rapidly through the brain C) slow down the processing of information that might get confusing D) prevent the misinterpretation of colors E) use binocular cues to perceive depth

17)

18) Regarding light, wavelength is the ________ and amplitude is the ________.

A) saturation; intensity B) brightness; saturation C) hue; saturation D) brightness; hue E) hue; brightness

18)

4

19) You are outside enjoying a beautiful day. The sky is bright blue. When the sun sets, the sky turns a gorgeous salmon pink. After the sun has set, the sky pales to pink, then lavender; as it gets dark, the sky becomes a deeper purple, then midnight blue, and finally it looks black. The color changes you perceive in the sky are due to the ________ of light that it reflects.

A) interpretation B) saturation C) purity D) wavelength E) amplitude

19)

20) The major purpose of the iris is to A) transduce light energy B) control the movement of the eye C) focus light on the retina D) protect the eye from injury E) regulate the amount of light entering the eye

20)

21) When you can tell the difference between candy apple red and fire engine red, it is partly because the light stimuli differ in their A) wavelengths B) visual acuity C) cone density D) visual purity E) X-rays

21)

22) The clear membrane just in front of the iris through which light first passes is the A) cornea B) rod C) fovea D) lens E) retina

22)

23) You are reading this question after light passes into your eyes. Those incoming light waves are then recorded by receptor cells located in your A) blind spot B) cornea C) retina D) optic nerve E) optic chiasm

23)

5

24) Toward the center of the retina, there is an area that contains only cones. This area is called the A) fovea B) optic chiasm C) chiasm D) optic nerve E) cornea

24)

25) Jane is having trouble sleeping. As she sits in bed looking around the darkened room, she notices that her peripheral vision seems to be better than her central vision. This is because vision in low light conditions A) requires more time for cones to fire B) depends on the cones C) doesn't require the retina D) depends on the rods E) doesn't require the use of the pupil

25)

26) You try to note the incredibly fine details of a computer microchip through a magnifying glass. On which area of the retina are you focusing this image?

A) Periphery B) Fovea C) Rods D) Ganglion E) Optic chiasm

26)

27) The crossover point where the right visual field information goes to the left hemisphere is called the A) retina B) corpus callosum C) optic nerve D) fovea E) optic chiasm

27)

28) The ________ is filled with a gelatinous material that helps focus light.

A) pupil B) fovea C) lens D) iris

28) E) retina

29) As light enters the eye, eventually it reaches the light-sensitive ________ at the back of the eye.

A) cornea B) blind spot C) lens D) retina E) fovea 6

29)

30) The main function of rods and cones is to A) minimize trichromaticism B) adjust sensory thresholds C) stretch wavelengths D) change light into a form of energy the nervous system can process E) adjust intensity of light

30)

31) Near the center of the retina there is a spot where there are no rods and no cones; this is because of the A) optic nerve B) ciliary muscle C) occipital nerve D) retinal degeneration E) clouding of the lens

31)

32) Bottom-up processing involves analysis that begins with the A) sensory receptors B) spinal cord C) cerebral cortex D) absolute threshold E) peripheral nervous system

32)

33) ________ is a process that involves coupling of the activity of various cells and pathways and helps integrate information about an object.

A) parallel integration B) perceptual integration C) depth perception D) parallel processing E) binding

33)

34) Subliminally presented stimuli A) can increase our absolute thresholds for visual images B) can never be consciously perceived C) can effectively influence purchases of consumer goods D) can sometimes be consciously perceived E) are usually mentally processed as completely as any other stimuli

34)

35) If a child asks you why we can see colors, and you want to answer according to the trichromatic theory of color vision, you might tell him it is because there are ________ different types of cones in the retina.

A) 3 B) 5 C) 4 D) 6 E) 2

35)

7

36) One way to think about how we process color images is that the ________ describes the events at the first level of neurons in the visual system, while the ________ best describes the activities of neurons in the rest of the visual system.

A) camera theory; opponent-process theory B) transduction theory; opponent- process theory C) opponent-process theory; trichromatic theory D) trichromatic theory; opponent-process theory E) opponent-process theory; camera theory

36)

37) Herman has color blindness. The colors that he cannot tell apart are always A) pastel colors B) red C) white and black D) complimentary colors E) red and green

37)

38) You stare at a bright red sign for a minute, then look away to a white wall. You see a green afterimage on the white wall. This is consistent with the finding that afterimages are usually seen in colors complementary to the colors of the original image, confirming a prediction made by the A) opponent-process theory B) dichromatic theory C) stereo-chemical theory D) complementary-process theory E) trichromatic theory

38)

39) ________ cues are cues that depend on the combination of the images in the left and right eyes.

A) Gradient B) Monocular C) Distance D) Binocular E) Depth

39)

40) Which theory of color vision most accurately describes the process of color vision at the level of the retina?

A) Place theory B) Opponent-process theory C) Dark adaptation theory D) Afterimage theory E) Trichromatic theory

40)

8

41) Your mother's and sister's voices have the same pitch and loudness, but you can tell them apart on the telephone. This is due to the perceptual quality or ________ of their voices.

A) wavelength B) amplitude C) tone timbre D) timbre E) frequency

41)

42) In depth perception, familiar size, height in field of view, and shading are examples of A) binocular cues B) feature detectors C) monocular cues D) stereograms E) gestalt cues

42)

43) You are listening to music with a wide dynamic range. What does amplitude have to do with the louder and softer sounds, the air, and your ears?

A) The louder sounds move faster through the air to your ears than the softer sounds do.

B) The louder and softer sounds you are hearing have nothing to do with the air.

C) With louder and softer sounds the location from which they are coming determine perception.

D) With louder sounds, air is pressing with more force on your ears; with softer sounds, air is pressing with less force on your ears.

E) With both louder and softer sounds, the air presses with equal force upon your ears.

43)

44) The different pitches of the beeps you hear on a touch-tone telephone are due to differences in the ________ of the beeps.

A) timbre B) intensity C) quality D) frequency E) decibels

44)

45) The unit of measure for the intensity of sound is A) loudness B) decibel C) pitch D) hue E) saturation

45)

9

46) The pinna is the ________ which is quite useful for collecting sounds from the environment.

A) external part of the ear B) organ of Corti C) curled structure of the inner ear D) inner eardrum E) middle portion of the ear

46)

47) The major function of the hammer, anvil, and stirrup of the middle ear is A) to amplify vibrations and pass them on to the inner ear B) to soften the tone of incoming stimuli for appropriate processing C) to clean the external auditory canal of any potential wax buildup D) to keep the vibrations from getting too painful E) to stir cochlear fluid so that bone conduction hearing can occur

47)

48) When sound waves enter the ear canal, they first A) vibrate the eardrum B) move the stirrup C) move the oval window D) vibrate the hammer E) vibrate the cochlea

48)

49) The bones of the middle ear are set into motion by vibrations of the A) vestibular membrane B) saccule C) cochlea D) basilar membrane E) eardrum

49)

50) When something warm touches your skin, you feel warmth. When something cold touches your skin, you feel coldness. If things both warm and cold touch your skin, stimulating adjacent thermoreceptors for warmth and cold, you will feel A) coldness only B) coldness and warmth C) pain D) warmth only E) neither warmth nor coldness

50)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

10

51) Bill works in a building that does not have air conditioning. His office is very warm and there is always a fan running, which is very noisy as it blows air. Whenever people visit Bill's office, they comment on the heat and the noise and ask how Bill can work in these conditions. Bill has been working here for years and comes to work dressed appropriately for the temperature he expects. Bill replies that he does not mind the heat and does not even notice the noise. He is able to concentrate, blocking out the fan noise as well as the voices of his coworkers, phones ringing, and people walking by his desk. When one of his coworkers talks to him, he can tell who is talking without even looking at them. When he is on the phone, he can concentrate on his call and ignore the talking that is going on all around him. He seems to be productive at his job, even when the temperature in the room goes above 85. Other office workers complain, but Bill seems to be quite comfortable. He says the only thing he needs to do during his break is to take a walk to keep his legs from falling asleep, since he works at the desk for 3 to 4 hours at a time. He also takes a 5 minute break every hour to rest his eyes. Working on the computer is tiring for him and he looks away from the screen to give his eyes a break from all the reading he has to do. He gets 2 coffee breaks a day and a half hour lunch so he can go to his favorite deli downstairs in the same building to buy whatever he feels like eating. Bill is content with his job and really dislikes when people complain all the time. Every day, the first thing Bill likes to do is greet his co-workers with a big smile and a motivational quote for the day. Use the following terms to describe the how Bill is experiencing his work environment. Define the term/phrase and provide an example to show how it relates to Bill's office situation described above.

• Difference threshold/ JND • Perceptual set • Selective attention • Timbre • Adaptation • Kinesthetic sense • Parallel processing

11

52) Gestalt is German for "configuration" or "form," and Gestalt psychology is a school of thought interested in how people naturally organize their perceptions according to certain patterns.

Define each Gestalt principle listed below and give an example of how the principle helps you to make sense of the play on the field during a baseball game. You can use examples related to watching a game on television or at the ballpark.

• the figure-ground relationship • the whole is different than the sum of its parts • closure • proximity • similarity

12

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED4

1) E 2) B 3) D 4) E 5) B 6) A 7) C 8) E 9) C 10) B 11) C 12) E 13) B 14) B 15) C 16) A 17) B 18) E 19) D 20) E 21) A 22) A 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) B 27) E 28) C 29) D 30) D 31) A 32) A 33) E 34) D 35) A 36) D 37) D 38) A 39) D 40) E 41) D 42) C 13

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED4

43) D 44) D 45) B 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) E 50) D 51) Answers will vary.

52) Answers will vary.

14

Prof.Exams Chapter 5- States of Consciousness

TB-The Science of Psychology3E|Laura King

Chapter 5- States of Consciousness MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) You are aware of the thoughts running through your mind and the emotions triggered by some of those thoughts. You are also aware of the sounds you hear and the things you see in the room and outside the window, and of the smell of coffee brewing in the kitchen, and the smell of freshly cut grass coming in the window. You would be considered to be in a state of A) transcendence B) heightened sensation C) consciousness D) concentration E) divided perception

1)

2) According to Freud, mental processes that occur without a person being aware of them are A) unconscious B) nonconscious C) daydreams D) conscious E) hallucinations

2)

3) Jordan has decided to go to sleep early. Although her eyes are closed and she is very relaxed, she has not yet fallen asleep. An EEG is most likely to indicate the presence of A) delta waves B) rapid eye movements C) alpha waves D) gamma waves E) sleep spindles

3)

4) Which of the following best characterizes a night's sleep?

A) The stages we pass through depend on how tired we are.

B) We alternate from the waking state to dream sleep about six times.

C) Our depth of sleep alternates up and down many times.

D) We pass from light sleep to dream sleep to deep sleep.

E) We begin the night in light sleep and end in deep sleep.

4)

1

5) When you go to check on your sleeping child, you observe that his eyes are moving back and forth rapidly under his eyelids. It is likely that he is A) dreaming B) awakening C) in a hypnagogic state D) in a state of self-hypnosis E) in the deepest level of sleep

5)

6) Circadian rhythm refers to A) the experience of jet lag following an extensive transoceanic flight B) ups and downs we routinely experience C) periodic physiological fluctuations in the body D) a pattern of biological functioning that occurs on a roughly 24-hour schedule E) the cycle of five distinct stages that we experience during a normal night's sleep

6)

7) Researchers have found that older adolescents tend to be sleepier early in the day than younger adolescents. Their research suggests adolescents' biological clocks undergo a shift as they get older, delaying their period of wakefulness by about an hour. A delay in the nightly release of ________, called ________, seems to underlie this shift.

A) a sleep-inducing neurotransmitter; serotonin B) a sleep-inducing hormone; lyptin C) a sleep-inducing hormone; melatonin D) a sleep-inducing neurotransmitter; melatonin E) a sleep-inducing hormone; dopamine

7)

8) Dreams occurring during ________ sleep are briefer, less vivid, and less emotionally charged compared to ________ sleep.

A) Stage 2; non-REM B) Stage 1; Stage 3 C) Stage 2; REM D) non-REM; REM E) REM; non-REM

8)

9) A class project required a student nurse to make hourly records of her own blood pressure and body temperature over a 30-day period. When the data were graphed, it became clear that these readings changed in a predictable way on a daily basis. The reason for this regularity is that many physiological processes are A) correlated with lunar rotation B) controlled by daily lunar cycles C) determined by subconscious expectations D) governed by molecular rhythms E) governed by circadian rhythms

9)

2

10) You participate in a sleep study at a university clinic. The researchers measure your body chemistry before, during, and after sleep. Which hormone do they find that follows a circadian rhythm and peaks just before you go to sleep?

A) Adrenaline B) Melatonin C) Cortisol D) Prolactin E) Epinephrine

10)

11) Your friend Helen works the night shift at the local grocery store every other day. She has trouble sleeping which is most likely due to A) damage to her suprachiasmatic nucleus B) too much melatonin C) the disruption of her circadium rythms D) too little melatonin E) fewer than normal periods of REM sleep per night

11)

12) William James described the human mind as a ________, or a continuous flow of changing thoughts and feelings.

A) stream of consciousness B) metacognition C) state of constant confusion D) subconscious experience E) state of heightened awareness

12)

13) The biological cycle of approximately 24 hours in length that regulates our pattern of sleep is called a(n) A) myoclonic event B) hallucinogenic experience C) out-of-body experience D) circadian rhythm E) non-REM sequence

13)

14) Thinking about thinking is called A) stream of consciousness B) analysis C) consciousness D) metacognition E) altered state of awareness

14)

3

15) Narcolepsy is a disorder involving A) sudden uncontrollable seizures B) periodic attacks of uncontrollable sleepiness C) periodic attacks of uncontrollable yawning D) the temporary cessation of breathing of during sleep E) difficulty staying and going to sleep

15)

16) What part of the brain is typically most involved in awareness?

A) Cerebellum B) Hypothalamus C) Amygdala D) Occipital cortex E) Cerebral cortex

16)

17) Sandra has been using an addictive drug that results in a very euphoric state. If she continues to use this drug she will A) need to use higher doses to experience the same desired effect B) not become dependent on the drug C) experience milder withdrawal symptoms D) not develop a tolerance to the drug E) need to use less of the drug to experience the same desired effect

17)

18) Which of the following disorders is characterized by the temporary cessation of breathing while asleep?

A) Sleep amnesia B) Narcolepsy C) Night terror D) Insomnia E) Sleep apnea

18)

19) Night terrors typically occur A) during non-REM sleep B) among older adults C) within three hours of falling asleep D) during REM sleep E) following sleep apnea

19)

4

20) Mr. Owens always sleeps restlessly, snoring and gasping during the night. It is most likely that Mr. Owens suffers from A) insomnia B) locked-in syndrome C) narcolepsy D) night terror E) sleep apnea

20)

21) Nightmares are to ________ as night terrors are to ________.

A) delta waves; alpha waves B) REM sleep; Stage 4 sleep C) Stage 1 sleep; REM sleep D) Stage 4 sleep; Stage 1 sleep E) Stage 2 sleep; Stage 4 sleep

21)

22) States of consciousness that require little attention and do not interfere with other activities are called A) automatic processes B) functional consciousness C) altered state of consciousness D) functional processes E) controlled processes

22)

23) What represents the most alert state of human consciousness?

A) Controlled processes B) Automatic processes C) Altered state of consciousness D) Uncontrolled processes E) Subconscious awareness

23)

24) During a heated argument with his teenage daughter, Mr. Reed suddenly lapsed into a stage of REM sleep. Mr. Reed apparently suffers from A) insomnia B) REM phasia C) REM rebound D) sleep apnea E) narcolepsy

24)

5

25) The concept of "theory of mind" is best described as A) individuals' misinterpretation of their own subconscious thoughts B) individuals' understanding that they and others think, feel, perceive, and have private experiences C) thinking about thinking D) individuals' understanding that they and others think similarly E) the psychological answer to the metaphysical concept of a soul

25)

26) Psychological research on sleep and memory has found that staying up all night to study for an exam is likely to A) increase memory performance B) decrease memory confusion C) improve test scores D) decrease memory performance E) improve brain function but not test scores

26)

27) What theory of dreaming proposes that dreaming involves information processing, memory, and problem solving?

A) Activation synthesis theory of dreaming B) Cognitive theory of dreaming C) Carl Jung's theory D) William James's theory E) Sigmund Freud's theory

27)

28) Sleepwalking occurs during ________ phase of the sleep cycle.

A) Stages 4 and 5 B) Stage 1 C) Stage 5 D) REM E) Stages 3 and 4

28)

29) Jerry is in the process of getting a divorce and is having trouble at his job. Previously he had not had any sleep disorders but is bothered by one now. Which disorder would he most likely have developed?

A) Narcolepsy B) Depression C) Insomnia D) PTSD E) Sleep apnea

29)

6

30) Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by A) excessively long sleep periods B) an anxious, panicky feeling C) sleepwalking and sleep talking D) inability to wake up in the early morning E) irresistible urges to fall asleep

30)

31) Grandpa is napping in his recliner, snoring loudly, when suddenly he stops snoring.

You look to see if he woke up, but he is still asleep and appears to not be breathing.

For a moment you wonder if he's dead, but suddenly he snorts and resumes snoring.

Grandpa is displaying A) sleep somnia B) sleep apnea C) narcolepsy D) somnambulism E) insomnia

31)

32) The sleep disorder narcolepsy occurs when individuals A) wake up earlier than desired, sometimes several times a night B) fall too deeply into a dream state during the middle of a sleep cycle C) stop breathing while they are sleeping D) fall unexpectedly into a deep sleep in the middle of daily activities E) have difficulty falling asleep at the hour at which they would like

32)

33) What do drugs, trauma, fatigue, hypnosis, and sensory deprivation have in common?

A) They produce altered states of consciousness.

B) They produce extreme negative emotional states.

C) They produce high levels of emotional consciousness.

D) They produce high levels of consciousness.

E) They produce the same brain wave activity.

33)

34) According to activation-synthesis theory A) dreams offer a unique opportunity for problem solving B) dreams are often, though not always, a sign of mental illness C) dreams are often, though not always, a sign of extrasensory perception D) dreams reflect the brain's efforts to make sense out of neural activity that occurs during sleep E) dreams are the key to the human unconscious

34)

7

35) A criticism of activation-synthesis theory is that A) dreams are caused by neurotransmitter levels B) dreams cannot be analyzed C) dreams are random D) life experiences stimulate and shape dreaming more than the theory acknowledges E) neural activity begins with the brain

35)

36) Kathy says that when she meditates, she feels like she becomes one with the universe.

Kathy has experienced A) an altered state of consciousness B) a period of divided consciousness C) a peak experience D) a hallucinogenic state E) latent mesmerism

36)

37) One of your friends sometimes displays higher than his usual levels of awareness, and another friend sometimes displays lower than her usual levels of awareness. These can be caused by drugs, trauma, fatigue, sensory deprivation, or possibly hypnosis.

You would call these conditions A) sleep disorders B) automatic processes C) waking subconscious awareness D) altered states of consciousness E) daydreaming

37)

38) Those who wish to reach a more perfect state of consciousness often engage in A) meditation B) hypnotic control C) divided consciousness D) drug use E) depersonalization

38)

39) A method of relaxation that involves focusing one's concentration on rhythmic breathing and not on thoughts or feelings is called A) flow B) astral projection C) hypnosis D) depersonalization E) meditation

39)

8

40) Charles has been told he must reduce the level of stress in his life. What consciousness-altering technique may help Charles?

A) Astral projection B) Stimulus incorporation C) Astral karma D) Meditation E) Depersonalization

40)

41) In terms of states of consciousness, hypnosis involves a A) weak defense against suggestibility B) dependence on a belief in supernatural powers C) high degree of controlled processing D) strong defense against suggestibility E) sense of deep relaxation and altered body awareness

41)

42) The divided-consciousness theory of hypnosis receives support from evidence that A) hypnotized people can be aware of pain sensation without experiencing emotional distress B) hypnotized people often seem to play the role of "good hypnotic subjects" C) hypnotized people can be forced to commit crimes D) hypnosis can block sensory input E) hypnosis can affect voluntary, but not involuntary behaviors

42)

43) From 1980 to 1990, drug use among teens A) increased but then decreased dramatically B) increased C) stayed the same D) decreased but then increased to baseline E) decreased

43)

44) Your mother must always have an early morning first cup of coffee. She usually has several more cups throughout the day. If she misses one in the afternoon, she gets a headache. This behavior is connected with ________ use/abuse.

A) cigarette B) both stimulant and hallucinogen C) hallucinogen D) depressant E) stimulant

44)

9

45) Your friend Sarah loves the warm feelings she feels toward everybody when she takes Ecstasy (MDMA). You want to warn her that repeated use of this drug could have lasting negative effects on which neurotransmitter?

A) Dopamine B) Thyroxine C) Norepinepherine D) Serotonin E) GABA

45)

46) Your friend reported feeling greater energy and a sense of well-being after taking a drug.

Medical tests reveal increased activity of her central nervous system. The drug she took is most likely some type of A) anti-depressant B) depressant C) tranquilizer D) stimulant E) hallucinogen

46)

47) You took a drug that lessened your feelings of fatigue, created an elevated mood, and decreased your appetite. Which of the following did you probably take?

A) Heroin B) Alcohol C) Valium D) Cocaine E) Amphetamine

47)

48) Amphetamines are classified as a ________ and ________ in the same class as nicotine and caffeine.

A) depressant; are B) stimulant; are C) stimulant; are not D) antibiotics; are not E) depressant; are not

48)

49) The most widely used stimulants are A) marijuana and cocaine B) cocaine and heroin C) alcohol and ephedra D) amphetamine and Valium E) caffeine and nicotine

49)

10

50) Tranquilizers and alcohol belong to a drug category called A) hallucinogens B) stimulants C) depressants D) sedatives E) narcotics

50)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

51) You and your friends are talking about how you are going to get through final exams and papers this semester. Virtually everybody intends to cram for the last week before tests, and nearly everyone will be writing papers the nights before they are due. You wonder how students' sleep patterns might affect their grades on their exams and papers. Identify how you might conduct a research study by explaining each of the following: • State your hypothesis and identify the independent and dependent variables.

• Explain how you will choose your subjects and what you will do as the lead researcher.

• Explain a descriptive method you would use to conduct the study and why you chose this method.

• Operationally define your variables.

• Identify and explain two factors that might interfere with this research study, specific to the design of the study.

52) You are planning a project for your health class on drug dependence and addiction. Most of the information you will need is in your psychology textbook. You've decided to discuss the following concepts/information in your presentation.

• Define addiction and tolerance.

• Explain how psychological dependence differs from physical dependence.

• What are the most addictive depressant drugs?

• What are the least addictive stimulant drugs?

• Explain how the drug cocaine affects neurotransmitters in the brain.

11

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED5

1) C 2) A 3) C 4) C 5) A 6) D 7) C 8) D 9) E 10) C 11) C 12) A 13) D 14) D 15) B 16) E 17) A 18) E 19) A 20) E 21) B 22) A 23) A 24) E 25) B 26) D 27) B 28) E 29) C 30) E 31) B 32) D 33) A 34) D 35) D 36) A 37) D 38) A 39) E 40) D 41) E 42) A 12

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED5

43) E 44) E 45) D 46) D 47) E 48) B 49) E 50) C 51) Answers will vary.

52) Answers will vary.

13

Prof.Exams Chapter 6- Learning

TB-The Science of Psychology3E|Laura King

Chapter 6- Learning MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) A reinforcer that is innately satisfying and does not require any learning to be perceived of as pleasurable is a(n) ________ reinforcer.

A) unconditioned B) conditioned C) secondary D) innate E) primary

1)

2) You feel fine as you sit down in your usual seat in German class. However, when Dr. Kraus announces that there will be a pop quiz on 100 of the most difficult vocabulary words covered in the last few class sessions, your heart starts pounding and you get a queasy feeling in your stomach. This reaction is most likely a(n) A) unconditioned stimulus B) conditioned response C) fear response D) unconditioned response E) conditioned stimulus

2)

3) Watson and Raynor used ________ as a conditioned stimulus in order to condition fear in Little Albert.

A) a loud noise B) a white fur coat C) a rabbit D) a scary mask E) a white rat

3)

4) Which of the following is NOT associated with Skinner?

A) Free will B) Operant conditioning C) The Skinner box D) Learned helplessness E) Schedules of reinforcement

4)

1

5) Mark's dog, Gus, sits whenever he says, "Sit." Mark now wants to teach Gus a new trick. He wants to teach him to bark each time he says, "Speak," but whenever Mark says, "Speak," Gus sits. The dog's behavior is an example of A) extinction B) contiguous occurrences C) generalization D) habituation E) contingent occurrences

5)

6) Dr. Meyer is known for his difficult pop quizzes. Immediately before he springs a pop quiz on his students, he typically goes to the classroom door and closes it. Students soon learn to anticipate a pop quiz whenever Dr. Meyer closes the classroom door.

Closing the door has become a(n) A) unconditioned stimulus B) unconditioned response C) stimulus reinforcement D) conditioned response E) conditioned stimulus

6)

7) Kelley is scolded each time she teases her little brother. Her mother notices that the frequency of teasing has decreased. Scolding Kelley is an effective A) positive punisher B) negative reinforcer C) negative punisher D) conditioner E) positive reinforcer

7)

8) Matt wants to train his dog, Buster, to sit on command. He gives Buster a doggie biscuit each time he sits when commanded, but only for the first 10 trials. He then changes the rules. Buster now has to sit on command three times before he gets a biscuit. Matt used ________ first, and then ________ to train Buster.

A) a fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement; a continuous reinforcement schedule B) a continuous reinforcement schedule; a fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement C) a continuous reinforcement schedule; a variable reinforcement D) a continuous reinforcement schedule; a fixed interval schedule E) a variable ratio schedule; fixed ratio schedule

8)

2

9) Four month old Baby Nimo quickly learns that he will be picked up if he cries. From a behaviorist perspective, picking up Baby Nimo whenever he cries A) is a positive reinforcer for Baby Nimo B) should be done only on a partial reinforcement schedule C) is a positive reinforcer for the person picking up Baby Nimo D) will have no effect on his crying behavior because Baby Nimo is too young to be aware of associative contingencies E) is a negative reinforcer for Baby Nimo

9)

10) Larry is grounded each time he hits his little brother. After a few times of being grounded, Larry's misbehavior towards his little brother decreases. Grounding Larry is an example of A) negative punishment B) positive punishment C) negative reinforcement D) positive reinforcement E) negative rewarding

10)

11) Anticipating a scary event whenever eerie music is played in a movie is a function of A) operant conditioning B) associative learning C) stimulus experience D) unconditional learning E) observational learning

11)

12) In ________ situations, organisms learn the association between two stimuli. In ________ situations, organisms learn the association between a behavior and a consequence.

A) classical conditioning; operant conditioning B) observational learning; classical conditioning C) classical conditioning; observational learning D) operant conditioning; classical conditioning E) trial and error learning; classroom

12)

13) Pavlov's dog automatically salivated to food because food is an innate A) unconditioned response B) conditioned response C) conditioned stimulus D) unconditioned stimulus E) None of these

13)

3

14) An example of an innate stimulus-response connection is A) laughing so hard you start to cry B) raising your hand before asking a question in a classroom setting C) sneezing in response to sniffing pepper D) having a temper tantrum when you are angry E) learning to ride a bike by watching your older brother doing so

14)

15) Pavlov's dog salivated each time food was presented. Salivation in this situation is the A) unconditioned response B) generalized response C) conditioned response D) conditioned stimulus E) unconditioned stimulus

15)

16) Pavlov's dog salivated to the sound of a bell because A) the bell had become associated with food B) the bell had become a conditioned response C) the bell had become an unconditioned response D) the bell had become a reinforcer for food E) the bell had become a reflex

16)

17) In Pavlov's classic study on classical conditioning, the bell was the ________ before conditioning and the ________ after conditioning had occurred.

A) conditioned stimulus; unconditioned stimulus B) neutral stimulus; conditioned stimulus C) conditioned stimulus; neutral stimulus D) neutral stimulus; reinforcer stimulus E) neutral stimulus; unconditioned stimulus

17)

18) Marcia is romantically involved with John, the "love of her life." Unfortunately, Marcia eventually discovers that John is a complete jerk, and she ends the relationship. One day in the mall, she suddenly gets a whiff of the cologne that John always wore. All the former good feelings come pouring back. The good feelings coming back is an example of A) spontaneous recovery B) discrimination learning C) emotional contagion D) contingency learning E) emotional amnesia

18)

4

19) Pavlov's dog salivates each time he hears a bell. Now, however, after several trials of salivating to the bell and NOT receiving any food, the dog stops salivating. What happened?

A) Extinction has occurred.

B) Spontaneous recovery wasn't triggered.

C) The contingency loop has been disrupted.

D) Generalization has been disrupted.

E) The dog realizes that the bell isn't food.

19)

20) In the experiment with little Albert conducted by Watson and Raynor, the baby was conditioned to fear a white rat. In this study, the unconditioned stimulus was A) a sealskin coat B) the white rat C) the fear D) a loud noise E) the researchers

20)

21) ________ is associated with conditioning fear in a baby, whereas ________ is associated with counterconditioning fear in a three year-old little boy.

A) Jones; Watson B) Watson; Thorndike C) Watson; Jones D) Watson; Raynor E) Raynor; Watson

21)

22) In operant conditioning A) the consequences of behavior produce change in the probability of the occurrence of the behavior B) the consequence is the behavior that is conditioned C) behavior is controlled by the environment D) the consequences of behavior is the conditioned response to environmental stimuli E) behavior is a consequence of the conditioned stimulus

22)

23) ________ is the species-specific biological predisposition to learn in certain ways but not others.

A) Adaptation B) Instinctive drift C) Conceptualization D) Instinctive learning E) Preparedness

23)

5

24) Skinner's position on the existence of free will in humans means that A) classical conditioning techniques instead of politics should be used to manage societies B) operant conditioning techniques instead of politics should be used to manage societies C) humans are qualitatively different from animals D) humans are quantitatively different from animals E) science can't be used to manage people

24)

25) Melvin is a new third grade teacher. He wants to encourage his students to complete all their assignments and to do well on them. Unfortunately, most of the students fail to complete their assignments even though they were academically capable of doing so. From a behavioral perspective, what should Melvin do?

A) Melvin should shape students by selectively reinforcing gradual approximations to the desired goal of completing 100% of the assignments.

B) Melvin should schedule appointments and talk with parents.

C) Melvin should separate the class into high and low achieving students and negatively reinforce the low achievers when they fail to complete their assignments.

D) Melvin should punish students who don't complete their work.

E) Melvin should reward all the students who get at least a 90% every test.

25)

26) Taste aversion is an adaptive behavior that helps to explain what biological constraint on learning?

A) Latency B) Maturity C) Instinctive drift D) Insight E) Preparedness

26)

27) Sign-tracking is a pattern of behavior in which A) primary reinforcers are likely to be less effective than secondary reinforcers B) the CR begins to differentiate from the UCR C) an organism recognizes the CS as a signal for UCS much more quickly than normally D) the CS becomes an object of more interest than the UCS E) Neither primary nor secondary reinforcers seem to increase the number of behaviors

27)

6

28) Bubba, a very smart German shepherd, has learned that if he barks at the neighbors while they're grilling, they will throw him a treat. When Paul is in the yard, Bubba never barks at the neighbors. According to operant conditioning principles, Bubba is demonstrating that he can A) learn to inhibit responding B) learn to trick his master into thinking he is a good dog C) generalize D) discriminate E) learn a partial reinforcement schedule

28)

29) If, through experience, you come to the conclusion that all things are beyond your control and therefore you should not even try, you are exhibiting A) extinction B) free will C) entity theory D) operant conditioning E) learned helplessness

29)

30) Positive punishment ________ and negative reinforcers ________.

A) strengthens behaviors; eliminate behaviors B) strengthens behaviors; strengthen behaviors C) strengthens behaviors; weaken behaviors D) weakens behaviors; weaken behaviors E) weakens behaviors; strengthen behaviors

30)

31) Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement?

A) exercising less after running a mini marathon so you will not get sore muscles B) putting your clothes in the closet after your mother yells at you C) waking up a few seconds before your alarm clock goes off in order to avoid the obnoxious alarm sound D) going shopping after getting a "B" on a difficult exam to reward yourself E) treating yourself to an iTunes gift card after cleaning your room

31)

32) A hitchhiker most likely gets rides on a ________ schedule of reinforcement.

A) variable ratio B) fixed interval C) continuous D) variable interval E) fixed ratio

32)

7

33) Kim is surprised and frustrated to find that her son's misbehavior actually increases when she yells at him. In operant terms, A) yelling is serving as a positive punisher instead of a negative punisher B) yelling is serving as a negative reinforcer instead of a negative punisher C) Kim should resort to corporal punishment as scolding is not working D) yelling is serving to reinforce the misbehaviors instead of punishing them E) Kim should just ignore the behavior and extinction will definitely occur

33)

34) A worker is paid $25 for every 20 wind chimes that she builds. On which schedule of reinforcement is she being paid?

A) fixed interval B) fixed ratio C) variable ratio D) variable interval E) continuous

34)

35) Behavior modification programs rely on what principles of learning to help people develop programs to change?

A) trial and error B) insight C) classical D) observational E) operant

35)

36) Some bears kept in captivity allow veterinarians to routinely give them total body checkups. These bears open their mouths for teeth cleaning and present their paws for nail clipping. Your friend wonders how anyone could ever get these dangerous animals to be so cooperative without anesthesia. You, however, a psychology student, quickly surmise that the bears had undergone an extensive ________ program.

A) fear extinction B) secondary reinforcement C) discrimination D) generalization E) shaping

36)

37) Which of the following is NOT one of the processes involved in observational learning?

A) motor reproduction B) retention C) reinforcement D) replication conditions E) attention

37)

8

38) Which process determines whether or not an imitated or modeled act will be repeated?

A) replication B) motor reproduction C) attention D) reinforcement E) punishment

38)

39) New York City residents tend to over-estimate the size of their city relative to other cities in the rest of the country. This distortion of the New Yorker's concept of their physical world illustrates the fact that their ________ have an egocentric component.

A) schematic maps B) geographical lexicons C) cognitive maps D) world views E) Tolman markers

39)

40) Who introduced the concept of cognitive maps to psychology?

A) Jones B) Skinner C) Bandura D) Thorndike E) Tolman

40)

41) One day, on the way home from work, you decide to explore a side street that you'd passed on several occasions. You are surprised to find that it runs parallel to the expressway and realize that it could be used as an alternate route to and from work.

Several weeks later, there is a major accident on your usual travel route and you remember the side street alternate route. You happily take this route home. This is an example of A) operant learning B) generalized learning C) discrimination learning D) associative learning E) latent learning

41)

9

42) Kamin demonstrated that the phenomenon of blocking involves the failure of a neutral stimulus to become a conditioned stimulus after repeated pairings with the unconditioned stimulus if the neutral stimulus A) brings to mind unpleasant memories B) is too weak C) provides an avenue of escape from a noxious stimulus D) provides redundant information E) is too strong

42)

43) Tolman demonstrated that rats can learn to run a maze correctly even though they were never reinforced for successfully running through it. This demonstrated the phenomenon of A) trial and error learning B) latent learning C) insight learning D) vicarious reinforcement E) modeling

43)

44) Which of the following is an example of instinctive drift?

A) A dog shoves his ball into the ground instead of carrying it in his mouth.

B) A pig shoves his ball into the ground instead of carrying it in his mouth.

C) A rat learns to run a maze for a cheese food reward instead of a peanut butter reward.

D) A raccoon learns to play basketball in a swimming pool instead of a stream.

E) A cat learns to open the screen door with its paw.

44)

45) Which of the following concepts would you have to explain if teaching about Bandura's model of observational learning?

A) reward and punishment B) unconditioned stimulus and conditioned stimulus C) retention and motor reproduction D) discrimination and extinction E) generalization and spontaneous recovery

45)

10

46) You are writing a paper on childrearing practices in the United States and are shocked to discover that J.B. Watson's book, Psychological Care of the Infant and Child (1928) became the official government endorsed guidebook for parents. This might surprise you because A) Watson felt that biological preparedness alone was sufficient for good parenting behavior B) Watson's Little Albert experiment would be considered unethical by today's standards C) Watson was not a scientist and did not conduct controlled experiments D) Watson felt that parents should encourage their children to defy the government E) Watson had been investigated by the government as a result of the Little Albert study

46)

47) Mary is a teacher in an inner city school that is considered "at-risk" because of low student achievement scores. She notices that most of the students at her school believe that academic ability or intelligence is a fixed, innate ability. What can Mary expect from students with this mindset?

A) They will not be affected by the label or teachers' expectations.

B) They won't be active in after-school programs.

C) They will be eager to learn despite the labels.

D) They may exhibit learned helplessness in academically challenging situations.

E) They will eventually come to understand that intelligence is fluid and not fixed.

47)

48) Your aunt is in a nursing home and you often drop by unannounced to visit. You intentionally want to surprise your aunt. Your brother, however, argues that surprise visits are stressful rather than pleasant and that you should let your aunt know when you're coming. Which position has research support?

A) There is a strong positive correlation with predictable visits and stress in the residents studied.

B) Research indicates that nursing home residents show better adjustment with unpredictable visits rather than predictable ones.

C) There is no indication that the nursing home residents will care when you come to visit.

D) Research indicates that nursing home residents show better adjustment with either predictable or unpredictable visits.

E) Research indicates that nursing home residents show better adjustment with predictable visits rather than unpredictable, random ones.

48)

11

49) One of your classmates is in an abusive relationship. Her boyfriend physically abuses her which has resulted in several visits to the hospital emergency room. In talking with her, you discover that she also was abused by her father as a child. You now begin to understand why she puts up with an abusive boyfriend instead of leaving him. This is a classic example of A) imposed assault B) victimization C) sociocultural differences in learning D) modeling E) learned helplessness

49)

50) A service dog "knows" that it is off-duty when it is not wearing its harness, but is on-duty when it is wearing the harness. The dog is demonstrating A) extinction B) secondary reinforcers C) generalization learning D) indiscriminate learning E) discrimination learning

50)

12

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

51) Your brother-in-law, Jim, knows that you are a psychology major and asks you to explain to him why he keeps going back to smoking after quitting on several occasions. When he is drinking his coffee in the morning he gets an urge to have a cigarette and when he goes out with his friends who smoke, he always ends up smoking. He has tried hypnosis but that did not work. He hid cigarettes in the trunk of his car and would sneak a smoke when he was not home. Your sister, Nancy, constantly yells at him and tells him he will die if he keeps smoking. He is eating more when he does not smoke and is irritable after 2 days of quitting. He especially wants a cigarette when Nancy yells at him! A. Explain each of the following concepts related to learning and use an example that relates to the scenario above.

• unconditioned stimulus • unconditioned response • conditioned stimulus • conditioned response • spontaneous recovery • positive punishment • negative punishment

13

52) Recent neuroscientific research has found that part of the amygdala might be related to the operant conditioning principle of reinforcement of behaviors. Using information that you have learned about the brain and neurotransmitters, as well a operant conditioning, how might you study this new finding? Address each of the following in your answer: • What is the function of the amygdala and how is this related to operant conditioning?

• What have animal studies found related to the release of dopamine and reinforcement?

• If you wanted to study this further, how would you choose participants for your sample?

• If you had some human volunteers who previously were found to have lowered levels of this neurotransmitter, what things might you try in an experiment?

Who would be in the experimental and control groups?

• What ethical concerns might you have if you were going to do this research study? Name 2.

• How would you control other variables that might affect your experiment?

14

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED6

1) E 2) B 3) E 4) A 5) C 6) E 7) A 8) B 9) A 10) A 11) B 12) A 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) A 17) B 18) A 19) A 20) D 21) C 22) A 23) E 24) B 25) A 26) E 27) D 28) D 29) E 30) E 31) C 32) A 33) D 34) B 35) E 36) E 37) D 38) D 39) C 40) E 41) E 42) D 15

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED6

43) B 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) D 48) E 49) E 50) E 51) Answers will vary.

52) Scoring Guide for Question 1: Answers should be written in complete sentences.

Samples below are NOT exclusive but provide examples to help grade the question. Each bulleted item must be explained with specific terms appropriate to the topic stated. The total number of points for this question is 12.

Points 1 and 2: The amygdala is located in the part of the brain that seems to induce pleasure, and has been found to be very much in charge of positive and negative emotional reactions. Recent neuroscientific research has found that input to the nucleus accumbens, an extension of the amygdala, tells the organism to repeat a reinforced behavior. If you are feeling happy, excited, euphoric as a result of a reward you have received after you have performed a specific behavior, this part of the brain might be increasing the likelihood that an associative relationship between the stimulus and the response behavior and this reinforcement might be developing…the reward of the feeling is a very strong, intrinsic reward, that would increase the likelihood that this behavior would be repeated.

Points 3 and 4: The neurotransmitter dopamine plays a key role in reinforcement. The brains of monkeys release dopamine when they eat food; moreover, they also release dopamine when there are signals in the environment that food may be available. Furthermore, animals given dopamine blockers show reduced responses to reinforcers.

Points 5 and 6: Choose a specific group of individuals, may explain why a certain age group is being used such as between the ages of 21 to 35. Take a baseline dopamine level on all of the subjects. Then divide the sample into two groups: one with low dopamine levels and one with normal dopamine levels for comparison. Identify the Experimental Group = low levels and the Control Group = normal levels.

Points 7 and 8: Identify the baseline dopamine levels when subjects are exposed to behavior reinforcers. Then with the subjects who have lowered dopamine levels, try various interventions shown to influence brain chemistry and function; for example, psychological interventions such as cognitive therapy; and biological interventions such as drugs. Then test post-treatment dopamine levels. If only certain interventions resulted in normalized dopamine levels in the subjects with initially lower levels, the experimenter might also try those same interventions with the subjects whose levels had not been 16

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED6

affected by other interventions, to see if any intervention(s) were effective in all individuals or not.

Finally, test the subjects whose dopamine levels were normalized by treatment, by exposing them to reinforcers again and seeing whether their responses were like those of the individuals with initially normal levels of dopamine.

Points 9 and 10: Concerns over the use of humans in any study, especially if the study might do harm to the participants. Answers can include discussion of any of the following: how an IRB must be used to review the study plans and approve it before it is conducted; use of any drug on the subjects might be a problem and of course their health would have to be considered; above all do no harm; informed consent would have to be provided; feedback after the experiment is over.

Points 11 and 12: Experimenter bias could be explained and could be controlled as well as participant bias by using the double-blind procedure: neither the experimenter nor the participants would know which group was the EG and CG, or which participants had the lower levels of dopamine. If a drug is used in the experiment then a placebo effect could occur, so use of the placebo should be explained.

17

Prof.Exams Chapter 7- Memory

TB-The Science of Psychology3E|Laura King

Chapter 7- Memory MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Consider the amazing memory ability of a fifty-nine-year-old man, Akira Haraguchi, to recite digits of pi. What process in the human memory system was utilized in the recitation of 80,000 digits?

A) decoding B) retrieval C) encoding D) storage E) cognition

1)

2) Imagine that you are a server in a fancy restaurant. When taking orders without writing anything down, which memory process will be used first?

A) encoding B) proactive attention C) generalization D) specified attention E) selective attention

2)

3) You are amazed at how the server in the fancy restaurant could remember accurately all the orders from you and your 11 friends without writing down any of the orders. It is likely, however, that while the server was taking your orders, he A) was also paying attention to the couple at the table beside you sneak food into the woman's large handbag B) was also thinking about how much longer he had to work C) didn't notice that there were 6 males and 6 females at your table D) was also paying attention to the couple at the table behind you arguing over their bill E) didn't notice the couple at the table behind you sneaking food to their pet poodle in the woman's large handbag

3)

1

4) Your mom is always giving you grief about the way you study. You patiently try to explain the concept of multitasking to her. You explain that individuals your age can study and play video games at the same time. Is your position supported by the information presented in the textbook?

A) Yes; several studies have confirmed that young adults below the age of 25 do well on memory tests of information that was acquired while performing other tasks.

B) No; studies have confirmed that benefits associated with multitasking work with music only.

C) Yes; several studies have confirmed that the millennial generation multitasks better than their parents.

D) Studies have confirmed that individuals do NOT do well on memory tests of information that was acquired while performing other tasks.

E) No; studies have confirmed that benefits associated with multitasking work with viewing TV only.

4)

5) Quesha is helping her roommate study for a psychology exam. She explains to her roommate the importance of "deeply processing" the information. By this, Quesha is referring to a model of memory encoding developed by A) Brooks and Dunn B) Craig and Dean C) Craik and Lockhart D) Phillips and Craig E) Craik and Dean

5)

6) Fifteen-year-old Matt and his father are in an electronics store looking at video game systems. Matt gives his father a complete breakdown of the pros and cons of each of the different video game systems on display. According to the theory of encoding processes, Matt is able to accurately recall all this information because he A) has played video games since he was 5 years old B) has processed this information at an intermediate level C) has deeply processed this information D) wants a video game system for his birthday E) has shallowly processed this information

6)

7) Kevin is studying for a vocabulary test. When he studies the word "braggart," he thinks of how his friend Billy acts whenever he gets a new toy. According to your textbook, Kevin is processing this word at a(n) A) intermediate level B) association level C) deep level D) shallow level E) personal level

7)

2

8) According to research, which is the most effective elaboration technique?

A) Think of smells B) Think of self-references C) Think of names and places D) Think of physical characteristics E) Think of sights and sounds

8)

9) ________ memory is the conscious recollection of facts and events, whereas ________ memory involves unconsciously knowing skills derived from past experience.

A) long-term; short-term B) working; long-term C) short-term; long-term D) non-declarative; declarative E) declarative; non-declarative

9)

10) Roger has just finished reading about Paivio's dual-code hypothesis in his psychology class. He decides to use Paivio's method when he studies for his French vocabulary test. This means that Roger will A) repeat each word in French as well as in English B) visualize the word and how it is spelled in French C) visualize the image associated with each French vocabulary word D) repeat each word at least twice before going to the next word on the list E) encode each French word in English as well as in Spanish

10)

11) According to the Atkinson-Shiffrin theory of memory, memory storage involves which of the following three systems?

A) sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory B) sensory memory, selective memory, and exhaustive memory C) sensory memory, working memory, and long-term memory D) attentive memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory E) sensory memory, selective memory, and long-term memory

11)

12) You tell your friends about the great time you had at a famous vacation amusement park. Most of the visual and auditory sensations that you experienced, and have now forgotten, were most likely processed in your A) sensory memory B) short-term memory C) personal memory D) long-term memory E) procedural memory

12)

3

13) You are engrossed in your favorite TV show in the living room. Your roommate yells for you to quickly bring a fly-swatter to the kitchen. Vaguely aware that a request is being made of you, you ask your roommate to repeat herself. Before she can reply, however, the words, "bring a flyswatter to the kitchen," play through your mind. This is an example of A) personal memory B) rebound memory C) echoic memory D) storic memory E) iconic memory

13)

14) The ability to consciously recall information from the past and recite it involves what type of memory?

A) Short-term B) Declarative C) Sensory D) Procedural E) Non-declarative

14)

15) Imagine that you were a participant in Sperling's classic study on iconic memory.

Why aren't you able to identify all the letters presented on the screen?

A) They weren't distinctive enough.

B) The font color interfered with processing.

C) They weren't presented audibly.

D) The font size was too small.

E) They are presented too briefly for you to identify them.

15)

16) Imagine that you were a participant in Sperling's classic study on iconic memory. You were not able to identify all the letters presented on the screen because you need enough time to transfer the letter information from________ memory to ________ memory.

A) long-term; sensory B) sensory; working C) personal; long-term D) short term; long-term E) sensory; short-term

16)

4

17) Short-term memory has a ________ capacity than sensory memory and a ________ duration.

A) less limited; longer B) more limited; longer C) more limited; shorter D) larger; shorter E) shorter; larger

17)

18) George Miller's classic paper on the "magical" seven plus or minus two phenomenon refers to a person's A) short-term memory B) long-term memory C) illicit memory D) personal memory E) sensory memory

18)

19) Your history teacher has suggested you read and chunk your chapters before you come to class. Chunking involves A) immediately forgetting relevant information B) immediately scanning information for relevant details C) packing information together into higher order units that can be remembered more easily D) defining key words and concepts from the reading E) using Miller's framework for memory retrieval

19)

20) After hearing a friend's telephone number for the first time, you are able to recite back to her all seven digits in perfect order. This feat is made possible by your A) memory digital system B) number recall capacity C) performance increment capacity D) digit rehearsal system E) memory span

20)

21) When asked to memorize the 15 letters, C I A C B S A B C F B I I R S, Mary reorganizes them into CIA, CBS, ABC, FBI, and IRS. Mary used the tactic of A) mental structuring B) visual structuring C) chunking D) acronyms E) cueing

21)

5

22) Implicit memory, procedural memory, and priming are all associated with A) non-declarative memory B) working memory C) short-term memory D) active memory E) declarative memory

22)

23) Unrehearsed information stored in short-term memory lasts about A) two hours B) one day C) 30 seconds D) five minutes E) three minutes

23)

24) Photographic memory is known as ________ and has been found to be ________.

A) eidetic imagery; common in females B) perfect memory; age independent C) eidetic imagery; common in males D) perfect memory; age related E) eidetic imagery; rare

24)

25) Short-term memory is ________ whereas working memory is ________.

A) passive; active B) active; inactive C) active; passive D) inactive; active E) passive; inactive

25)

26) You decide to go to a hypnotist to try to stop smoking. The hypnotist asks you to remember what it was like before you started smoking. Which memory system will you use to comply with this request?

A) your nondeclarative memory system B) your semantic memory system C) your episodic memory system D) your permastore memory system E) your long-term factual memory system

26)

6

27) You are relaxing beside a water display in the park. The quiet, scenic environment reminds you of a poem you read in English class last week. This is an example of A) how episodic and semantic memories can converge B) episodic memory C) semantic memory D) procedural memory E) how semantic and visual memories can converge

27)

28) Your friend, Vince, suffered serious brain injury to his cerebellum in a motorcycle accident. What effect will this have on Vince's life?

A) He won't remember the location of his motorcycle.

B) He won't remember how to ride his motorcycle.

C) He won't remember when he last rode his motorcycle.

D) He won't recognize the motorcycle when he sees it.

E) He won't remember the color of his motorcycle.

28)

29) Priming is a phenomenon that has been found to result in A) enhanced procedural memories B) enhanced retrieval of memories C) impaired verbal memories D) impaired semantic memories E) impaired explicit memories

29)

30) Although you have never been to the Fancy Foods Restaurant in your town, you weren't at all surprised when the hostess seats you, hands you the menu, and informs you that your server will soon be there to take your dinner order. Shortly after, a man in a Tuxedo comes to your table. You knew exactly what was going to happen because you A) have a script for what happens in a restaurant B) are a certified psychic C) have a friend who works there D) have been to other restaurants that serve a similar menu E) have been to similar Fancy Foods Restaurants in other towns

30)

7

31) Connectionist network theory differs from schema theory in that A) schema theory maintains that memory involves vague facts whereas semantic network theory maintains that memories are coherent reconstructions B) connectionist network theory maintains that exact memories are not clearly linked to each other whereas schema theory maintains that memories involve precise recoveries C) connectionist network theory and schema theory are different names for the same concept D) connectionist network theory maintains that memory reconstruction works only with repressed memories E) connectionist network theory maintains that memory involves specific facts whereas schema theory maintains that memories are not very exact

31)

32) An example of the hierarchical representation of information is A) the listings of addresses in a telephone directory B) the in text citations of your textbook C) the table of contents of your textbook D) the index of your textbook E) the listings of names in a telephone directory

32)

33) People very quickly adapt to the procedures and behaviors appropriate in church. The general knowledge of how to behave in church is called a A) church bulletin schema B) hierarchical node C) reconstructed memory D) semantic reconstruction E) script

33)

34) Mike waits until the night before his big exam to start studying. He maintains that last minute cramming keeps the information fresh in his memory. What does connectionist network research tell us about the effectiveness of "cramming"?

A) It is very effective, because the information will stay in short-term memory.

B) It is very effective if used with certain subjects like math and science.

C) It is very effective, because cramming automatically places new material in the middle of the appropriate region of memory.

D) It is very ineffective, because information is not tied in to related nodes.

E) It is very ineffective, because information takes longer than one night to transfer over to long-term memory.

34)

8

35) People who describe life experiences as going from bad to better are ________ than people who describe life experiences as going from good to bad.

A) more pessimistic B) less accomplished C) more naïve D) better adjusted E) smarter

35)

36) According to the schema theory of memory, memories are A) nodes of information B) chemical impulses C) specific factual locations D) large knowledge structures E) electrical impulses

36)

37) Long-term potentiation is a concept that explains A) how students can remember course material for several semesters B) how long-term memory can be inaccurate with the passing of time C) how memory functions at the neuronal level D) how cannibalized worms can pass on skills they had learned to the cannibals E) why students should study exam material over a period of days instead of hours

37)

38) Margaret fell down her basement stairs and suffered serious injury to her amygdala.

What memory problems is she most likely to have now?

A) Margaret will have difficulty with emotional memories.

B) Margaret will have difficulty remembering her address and telephone number.

C) Margaret will have difficulty with memory of physical skills.

D) Margaret will have difficulty with short-term memories.

E) Margaret will have difficulty adding numbers.

38)

39) Motivated forgetting is usually associated with what type of memories?

A) flashbulb memories B) factual information from studying C) autobiographical memories D) short-term memories E) traumatic memories

39)

9

40) John likes visiting his widowed mother and looking at family album pictures of his childhood. One of his favorite pictures is the one in which he is riding with his father on a big riding mower. John also likes the smell of freshly mowed grass. After reading the intersection segment of the memory chapter of your textbook, which cue do you predict will elicit the strongest emotional memory in John?

A) The cue of being with his mother will elicit the strongest emotional memory.

B) The cue of the smell of freshly cut grass will elicit the strongest emotional memory.

C) The cue of seeing his father's old riding mower will elicit the strongest emotional memory.

D) The cue of his favorite childhood picture will elicit the strongest emotional memory.

E) The cue of seeing someone cutting their grass with a mower similar to his father's mower.

40)

41) George has just graduated college and is going on his first big job interview. He has learned that there are twelve other applicants for the job. Because of information on the serial position effect that he learned in his psychology class, George asks to be either the first or the last candidate interviewed. Why? A) Research has shown that the serial position effect is used often by management to arbitrarily hire job applicants.

B) The serial position effect predicts that either the first or the last job applicant interviewed will be remembered better than the applicant interviewed second.

C) The serial position effect predicts that the candidate interviewed in the "middle" position will be viewed less favorably than the other two applicants.

D) Research has shown that interviewers ask harder questions to the first and last applicants being interviewed.

E) With only thirteen applicants, the serial position effect won't have any impact so George's interview position won't make any difference.

41)

42) According to the serial position effect, if you are a waiter trying to remember all the orders for a table of 7, you should pay particular attention to the ________ orders.

A) 3rd, 4th & 5th B) 1st & 2nd C) 7th and 8th D) 1st, 3rd, & 7th E) 6th & 7th

42)

10

43) Samantha prides herself in "never forgetting a face," although she frequently cannot put the correct name with a specific "face." According to your textbook, Samantha is really saying that she A) is better at facial retrieval than memory reconstruction B) is better at memory reconstruction than at memory recall C) is better at recognition than at recall D) is better at recall than at recognition E) is better at memory retrieval than at memory reconstruction

43)

44) Your roommate, Delores, asks your advice on how to best study for her final exams.

Because of your knowledge of context dependent memory, you recommend that she A) study quietly in the classroom in which she is to take her exam B) study with a partner in the dorm so they can discuss the information C) study by herself in the library where it is quiet D) study in the library with friends where it is quiet E) study in her room with her favorite rock music playing in the background

44)

45) Your friend, Stella, just broke up with her boyfriend, had a fight with her parents, and was fired from her job. She wants to decide whether or not she should still consider going to medical school, but you suggest that she wait before she makes any major decisions. Is this sound advice?

A) Yes; research on state dependent memory would predict that Stella would most likely be unrealistically optimistic about her chances for success in medical school in her current state of mind.

B) No; there is no research that can predict how her frame of mind would affect her decision making.

C) No; research on state dependent memory would predict that Stella has to make major decisions at this time in order to neutralize the negative memories.

D) No; research on state dependent memory would predict that Stella would objectively evaluate her chances for success in medical school in her current state of mind.

E) Yes; research on state dependent memory would predict that Stella would most likely just focus on her failures in her current state of mind and not apply to medical schools.

45)

46) Eyewitness accounts of crimes are A) always very accurate B) prone to errors C) never accurate D) most accurate when witnesses speak to each other before talking to police E) most accurate when there are only a few witnesses that talk to the police

46)

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47) According to your textbook, an individual's autobiographical memory A) forms the core of the individual's self esteem B) forms the core of the individual's memory system C) forms the core of the individual's life-time periods D) forms the core of the individual's social identity E) forms the core of the individual's personal identity

47)

48) On the ride home from her senior prom, Mary's date ran a red light and crashed into another vehicle. Twenty years later, Mary can still remember the song that was playing on the radio at the time of the crash. According to information presented in your textbook, Mary's memory of the accident A) is a flashback memory B) is probably not accurate C) is a flashbulb memory D) is a recurrent memory E) is a flash memory

48)

49) Twenty six children were kidnapped at gunpoint on a school bus in a horrific event in 1976. They and the bus driver escaped safely and later were documented as having the classic signs of A) traumatic memory B) personal episodic memory C) generative memory D) flashbulb memory E) personal semantic memory

49)

50) In the Chowchilla, California kidnapping case in 1976, school children were kidnapped at gunpoint before escaping. Several years after the event, a child psychiatrist interviewed the children. She reported that A) half of the children had notable errors and distortions in their memories of the chilling episode B) fewer than half of the children remembered any of the details of the chilling episode C) virtually all of the children remembered the exact details of the chilling episode D) the boys remembered more than the girls about the episode E) most of the children had notable errors and distortions in their memories of the chilling episode

50)

12

51) According to Hermann Ebbinghaus, A) motivated forgetting is a good treatment for overcoming traumatic events B) most forgetting occurs soon after we originally learn something C) most forgetting will take place due to inaccurate processing of the event D) most forgetting occurs long after we originally learn something E) motivated forgetting is a poor treatment for overcoming traumatic events

51)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

52) There are many explanations for how memory is processed, stored and recalled. Long-term memory is complex. At the top level, it is divided into substructures of explicit memory and implicit memory. Explicit memory can be further subdivided into episodic and semantic memory. Implicit memory includes the systems involved in procedural memory, classical conditioning, and priming.

Explain each of the concepts listed below and give an example that relates the concept to explain a memory in any of the following stages: encoding, processing, storage or retrieval.

• episodic memory • semantic memory • procedural memory • classical conditioning • priming • long-term potentiation

13

53) In college, I smelled Lysol brand cleaner in a building and immediately had a vivid, happy memory from my early childhood (age 3-5 in this case) of coming home to a bright, sunny kitchen where my grandmother was cleaning on a Saturday afternoon.

• What does the research say about the sense of smell relative to memory?

• How is smell different from the other senses?

• What structures in the brain are most related to sense of smell and memory?

• What are the implications of this related to memory?

• From what the research says about animals and the sense of smell, and its speculations about, humans, what do you think could be a good reason for prehistoric humans to have memory associations with emotions?

• Write an example of how smell and its connection to memory can be an important cue to an individual in a dangerous situation.

14

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED7

1) B 2) E 3) E 4) D 5) C 6) C 7) C 8) B 9) E 10) C 11) A 12) A 13) C 14) B 15) E 16) E 17) B 18) A 19) C 20) E 21) C 22) A 23) C 24) E 25) A 26) C 27) B 28) B 29) B 30) A 31) E 32) C 33) E 34) D 35) D 36) D 37) C 38) A 39) E 40) B 41) B 42) A 15

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED7

43) C 44) A 45) E 46) B 47) E 48) C 49) A 50) A 51) B 52) Scoring Guide for Question 1: Answers should be written in complete sentences.

Samples below are NOT exclusive but provide examples to help grade the question. Each bulleted item must be defined and an example provided that further explains memory in any of the following stages: encoding, processing, storage or retrieval. The total number of points for this question is 12.

Introductory information: Long-term memory is complex. At the top level, it is divided into substructures of explicit memory and implicit memory. Explicit memory can be further subdivided into episodic and semantic memory. Implicit memory includes the systems involved in procedural memory, classical conditioning, and priming. Students do NOT have to explain this but if they do the subdivisions should be accurate.

Points 1, 2, 3, and 4 refer to explicit memory (also called declarative memory ) is the conscious recollection of information, such as specific facts and events and, at least in humans, information that can be verbally communicated (Tulving, 2000). Examples of using explicit, or declarative, memory include recounting the events in a movie you have seen and recalling the names of the people in the president's cabinet. There are two subtypes of explicit memory: episodic and semantic.

Points 1 and 2: Episodic memory is the retention of information about the where, when, and what of life's happenings—basically, how we remember life's episodes. Episodic memory is autobiographical.

For example, episodic memory includes the details of where you were when your younger brother or sister was born, what happened on your first date, and what you ate for breakfast this morning.

Points 3 and 4: Semantic memory is a person's knowledge about the world. It includes your areas of expertise, general knowledge of the sort you are learning in school, and everyday knowledge about the meanings of words, famous individuals, important places, and common things. For example, semantic memory is involved in a person's knowledge of chess, of geometry, and of who the Dalai Lama, Barack Obama, and Lindsey Vonn are.

An important aspect of semantic memory is that it appears to be independent of an individual's personal identity with the past. You can access a fact—such as the detail that Lima is the capital of 16

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED7

Peru—and not have the foggiest notion of when and where you learned it. Your memory of your fi rst day on campus involves episodic memory. If you take a history class, your memory of the information you need to know to do well on the next test involves semantic memory.

Points 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 and 10 refer to implicit, a type of long-term memory that is related to nonconsciously remembering skills and sensory perceptions rather than consciously remembering facts.

Implicit memory (also called nondeclarative memory) is memory in which behavior is affected by prior experience without a conscious recollection of that experience. Implicit memory comes into play, for example, in the skills of playing tennis and snowboarding, as well as in the physical act of text messaging. Another example of implicit memory is the repetition in your mind of a song you heard in the supermarket, even though you did not notice the song playing. Implicit memory explains why you might find yourself knowing all the words to a song you hate. You have heard it so many times that you have memorized it without knowing it.

Three subsystems of implicit memory are procedural memory, classical conditioning, and priming. All of these subsystems refer to memories that you are not aware of but that influence behavior (Slotnick & Schacter, 2006).

Points 5 and 6: Procedural memory is an implicit memory process that involves memory for skills.

For example (assuming that you are an expert typist), as you type a paper, you are not conscious of where the keys are for the various letters, but your well-learned, nonconscious skill of typing allows you to hit the right keys. Similarly, once you have learned to drive a car, you remember how to go about it: You do not have to remember consciously how to drive the car as you put the key in the ignition, turn the steering wheel, depress the gas pedal, and step on the brake pedal. To grasp the distinction between explicit memory and procedural memory, imagine trying to describe to someone in words exactly how to tie a shoe—something you can do successfully in just a few seconds—without having a shoe around.

Points 7 and 8: Another type of implicit memory involves classical conditioning. If you were in a car accident many years ago and still get very anxious every time you are driving by the area where you had your accident, this would be an example of CC. The memory of what happened might come right back at you. If you were in a similar situation, say on a bridge, and it was not the same bridge where the accident occurred, you might still get the flash of memory, due to generalization.

Points 9 and 10: A final type of implicit memory process is priming. Priming is the activation of information that people already have in storage to help them remember new information better and faster (Hare & others, 2009). Words learned from a previous chapter might help you remember new words in this chapter if they are used as priming cues. Teachers do this when asking students questions in class to prompt their recall.

In a common demonstration of priming, individuals study a list of words (such as hope, walk, and cake). Then they are given a standard recognition task to assess explicit memory. They must select all 17

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED7

of the words that appeared in the list—for example, “Did you see the word hope? Did you see the word form?” Then participants perform a stem-completion task, which assesses implicit memory. In this task, they view a list of incomplete words (for example, ho _, wa _, ca_), called word stems, and must fill in the blanks with whatever word comes to mind. The results show that individuals more often fill in the blanks with the previously studied words than would be expected if they were filling in the blanks randomly. For example, they are more likely to complete the stem ho _ with hope than with hole. This result occurs even when individuals do not recognize the words on the earlier recognition task.

Priming can also spur goal-directed behavior. For example, Bargh and colleagues (2001) asked students to perform a word-search puzzle. Embedded in the puzzle were either neutral words ( shampoo, robin ) or achievement-related words ( compete, win, achieve ). Participants who were exposed to the achievement-related words did better on a later puzzle task, finding 26 words in other puzzles, while those with the neutral primes found only 21.5.

18

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED7

53) Scoring Guide for Question 2: Answers should be written in complete sentences.

Samples below are NOT exclusive but provide examples to help grade the question. Each bulleted item must be explained with specific terms appropriate to the topic stated. The total number of points for this question is 8.

Point 1: The text says that the sense of smell bears the strongest relationship of all the senses to memory, and that smell can trigger emotionally rich memories.

Points 2 and 3: Smell is different from the other senses because smells are processed differently in the brain: Nerves in the nose connect directly to the primary olfactory cortex, which leads directly to the amygdala and the hippocampus, which are respectively involved in emotion and in consolidation of memory.

Point 4: Smells have, as our text puts it, "a superhighway" to emotion and memory. (No other sense follows this neural pathway; other sensory nerves connect to the hypothalamus; see Chapter 5.)

Points 5 and 6: A good reason for prehistoric humans to have these associations of smells with emotions could be an adaptive one, enabling them to know how to react immediately to certain stimuli.

For example, prehistoric humans who smelled fresh meat or edible plants would find these smells pleasant, and would know that these were good to eat, while the smell of rotting meat or poisonous plants would smell unpleasant to them, and they would know they should not eat these. Also, if the smell of a large predatory animal which could kill a human were sensed by a prehistoric person, it would smell unpleasant, and the human would know (and probably remember from previous experiences) to run away.

Points 7 and 8: Here each student will write of an experience with smell and memory that could keep them safe, triggering a memory of a situation that was dangerous previously encountered. Therefore, each response will vary according to the individual. Students should also relate their experiences to the question.

19

Prof.Exams Chapter 8- Thinking, Intelligence, and Language

TB-The Science of Psychology3E|Laura King

Chapter 8- Thinking, Intelligence, and Language MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Cognitive psychology was considered a "revolutionary" development in psychology because A) John von Neumann used basic cognitive principles to develop the first modern computer B) it was a radical departure from psychoanalysis C) it was a radical departure from behaviorism D) it was a radical departure from the study of mental processes E) it was the first time psychologist studied unconscious processes of the mind

1)

2) Cognitive psychology studies all of the following except A) telepathy B) idea formation C) artificial intelligence D) decision making E) problem solving

2)

3) When using the computer as an analogy to explain the relationship between cognition and the brain, the brain is described as the computer's ________; cognition as its ________.

A) software; motherboard B) hardware; software C) hardware; hard drive D) software; hardware E) hard drive; floppy discs

3)

4) Although used often, the comparison between the computer and human information processing is oversimplified. Why? A) Computer information input is pre-coded and ambiguities are removed before processing.

B) Computers are currently unable to perform tasks better than humans.

C) Computer information is far too complex for such a comparison to be accurate.

D) Computer information is processed simultaneously, the human brain does not.

E) Computer information is too mathematically based for such a comparison to be accurate.

4)

1

5) Your roommate argues that computers can perform several complex tasks better and more accurately than humans. You counter her argument with the mention of ________, a task that only humans can perform.

A) developing new learning goals B) prescribing medical treatments C) recognition of faces and names D) diagnosing medical illnesses E) evaluating loan applications

5)

6) Your sorority sister argues that AI machines will become intent on domination of the human race as soon as they realize that they are intellectually superior to humans. As a psychology major, you scoff at this position and argue that AI machines will never come to the realization that they are smarter than humans because A) they don't have the self awareness necessary to come to this conclusion B) they aren't and never will be C) they can only do what they are programmed to do D) humans have the ability to learn new things E) human programmers will never let this happen

6)

7) After reading the section of the textbook on concepts, Mary Jo comes to the conclusion that A) concepts are abstract and have no practical applications B) concepts are a form of cognitive efficiency and economy C) concepts are the reason that there are linguistic differences between ethnic groups D) concepts are the way people communicate with each other E) concepts are not helpful to developing comprehension and understanding

7)

8) Dan is at an international food fest with his fraternity brother, Abayomi. When Dan is served a heaping dish of Mopane worm stew, Abayomi tells him reassuringly, "That's good food!" Given that Dan understands the concept of food, Dan knows that A) it would be very unwise to eat this "cuisine" B) his perception of "good" food is different than Abayomi's perception C) his algorithm for food is different than Abayomi's D) the concept of food is not universally agreed upon E) he should eat the food so as not to insult his friend

8)

2

9) Which of the following statements indicate a problem with the classical model of structuring concepts?

A) Conditioning takes place unconsciously.

B) Characteristics of a concept are not always easy to define.

C) All prototypes share defining properties.

D) Prototypes are not easy to find.

E) All instances of a concept share defining properties.

9)

10) The fact that ostriches and penguins are birds that don't fly is a limitation of the A) concept model of intelligence B) MI model C) classical model of concept structure D) the prototype model of concept structure E) AI model

10)

11) Which of the following would NOT be a defining property of an airplane?

A) It is silver.

B) It is used for transportation.

C) It has wings.

D) It has an engine.

E) It has tires.

11)

12) Which of the following best describes the difference between the classical model of concepts and the prototype model?

A) The classical model is less rigid than the prototype model.

B) The prototype model uses defining properties and the classical model uses characteristics.

C) The classical model uses defining properties and the prototype model uses characteristics.

D) The prototype model is all or none regarding concept structure.

E) The prototype model is more rigid than the classical model.

12)

13) In everyday situations, finding and framing problems can be difficult because most real-life problems A) suggest obvious operations B) provide clear definitions C) are beyond the average person's ability to solve D) are vague and ill-defined E) are specific and well-defined

13)

3

14) Problem solving in the real world often involves seeing and defining problems in situations that most others A) don't see as a problem B) don't want to deal with C) don't understand D) pretend not to notice E) are afraid to tackle

14)

15) Your textbook describes how Levi Hutchins, a young clockmaker, resolved to rise at 4 A.M. every morning. This resolution to wake up before sunrise each morning motivated Hutchins to invent the alarm clock. The most likely first step in solving the problem of waking up early was for Hutchins to A) find and frame the problem B) ask other individuals if they felt the same way C) rethink and redefine the problem D) evaluate the solutions E) employ good problem-solving strategies

15)

16) Jim needs a backyard shed to house his motorcycle. Although he has never built a shed, he decides to build one and buys a book of professionally drawn, detailed shed plans. In this situation, Jim is using a(n) A) prototype B) category C) algorithm D) heuristic E) script

16)

17) Sam manages a fast-food restaurant. He is frustrated because employees often call in sick at the last minute before they are supposed to start their shift. Given that Sam recognizes this problem, what should he do next?

A) Sam should define the problem in detail.

B) Sam should call a meeting with all his employees and explain the problem to them in language that they can understand.

C) Sam should threaten to fire anyone who calls in sick before they are supposed to start their shift.

D) Sam should ignore the problem.

E) Sam should hire a professional psychologist to assess the situation.

17)

4

18) Shantae is a sales representative and uses MapQuest to get driving directions to her clients' offices. Shante is using a(n) ________ to get to her destinations.

A) category B) algorithm C) representative heuristic D) availability heuristic E) prototype

18)

19) You have to study four chapters of information for your next test. If you decide to use the problem solving strategy of subgoaling, you would do which of the following?

A) You would decide who should be your study partner.

B) You would study the learning objectives for each chapter instead of reading the chapters.

C) You would only study the topics you are positive you do not understand.

D) You would break the topics to be studied into smaller areas and focus on each in an organized sequence.

E) You would cram the night before the test.

19)

20) An effective way to strategize your organization of subgoals is to A) work forward in your planning, first creating a subgoal closest to the start and finally creating a subgoal close to the final goal B) work backward in your planning; first creating a subgoal that is closest to the final goal, and then work backward to the subgoal that is closest to the beginning of the problem-solving effort C) not create more than two subgoals to address D) not create less than ten subgoals and rank them E) work forward in your planning; first think about the final goal, then the first goal and then order all the goals in between

20)

21) You have to cook dinner for 30 people on this coming Saturday. Your apartment is a mess, and you have nothing wear to wear. You decide to do your laundry Thursday night, buy the groceries on Friday, clean the apartment Saturday morning, and cook the dinner Saturday evening. This process of defining intermediate problems is known as A) using heuristics B) fixation C) subgoaling D) using algorithms E) functional fixedness

21)

5

22) What is the main difference between an algorithm and a heuristic?

A) An algorithm should only be applied to a small problem.

B) An algorithm always leads to a correct solution.

C) Algorithms take less time.

D) A heuristic is a problem-solving strategy.

E) Heuristics should only be applied to a small problem.

22)

23) What is the main disadvantage of using algorithms?

A) Solutions may take a long time.

B) They only work for small problems.

C) They only work for large problems.

D) They are very similar to trial-and-error.

E) Correct solutions are not guaranteed.

23)

24) ________ is a characteristic of good problem solvers.

A) Self assurance B) Self awareness C) Egocentrism D) Self confidence E) Humility

24)

25) When comparing algorithms and heuristics, what is the advantage of using heuristics for solving real-life problems?

A) Flexibility B) Accuracy C) Precision D) Mental set E) Convenience

25)

26) Monique routinely uses a shredder to shred her junk mail into confetti-sized pieces of paper which she then just throws away. When packing her glassware to move into a new apartment, she runs out of protective styrofoam packing material. Suddenly Monique gets the idea to empty her shredder and use the shredded junk mail confetti for packing material. Monique has A) overcome discrimination bias B) used an algorithm to solve her packing problem C) delayed getting the appropriate packing material D) used a heuristic to solve her packing problem E) overcome functional fixedness

26)

6

27) Which of the following would businesses need to avoid in order to stay successful over a period of many years?

A) Insight learning B) Concepts C) Thinking outside the box D) Scripting employees' roles E) Functional fixedness

27)

28) Carla is a first-semester freshman at State University. She succeeded in high school by cramming for exams and relying on parental pressure to get homework done. Now, however, she is finding that these strategies are no longer viable ways to succeed.

According to the text, Carla should A) get up 2 hours earlier to study for her exams B) move back home with her parents and commute to college C) "think outside the box" in order to succeed in college D) Rethink and redefine problems and solutions over time E) stay up later to study the night before exams

28)

29) Human beings will often reason from the specific to the general. That is, people often will form general rules and concepts based on specific experiences and examples.

This type of reasoning is termed A) metacognition B) problem spacing C) deductive reasoning D) inductive reasoning E) subgoaling

29)

30) Carlos believes that all of the people from another part of his town are snobs. He believes that the students from this area are rich and drive expensive sports cars to school. He is scheduled to perform with some of these students in an all-county musical presentation. If he assumes that these students will also be rich and snobby, he is using A) stereotype threat B) deductive reasoning C) critical thinking D) inductive reasoning E) descriptive reasoning

30)

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31) Bertha met two students from another school at a convention. She enjoyed their company a great deal and was very impressed with how nice they were. Bertha now believes that all of the students from that school must also be nice and is considering transferring there. Bertha is using A) inductive reasoning B) critical thinking C) deductive reasoning D) descriptive reasoning E) insightful reasoning

31)

32) According to your textbook, whenever scientists use theories to make predictions and then evaluate their predictions by making further observations, ________ is at work.

A) deductive reasoning B) cognitive processing C) problem solving D) inductive reasoning E) intuitive reasoning

32)

33) Top down processing is to ________ as bottom up processing is to ________.

A) deductive reasoning; algorithmic reasoning B) deductive reasoning; inductive reasoning C) problem solving; functional fixedness D) inductive reasoning; heuristical reasoning E) inductive reasoning; deductive reasoning

33)

34) If an intelligence test produces the same score over multiple administrations but it doesn't accurately measure intelligence, then the test is ________ but not ________.

A) divergent; convergent B) valid; representative C) valid; reliable D) reliable; valid E) convergent; divergent

34)

35) When scores on an intelligence test relate to important outcomes such as job performance, then the intelligence test has high A) standardization B) criterion validity C) correlational validity D) reliability E) distribution

35)

8

36) A mindful person is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT that he/she A) continues to create new ideas B) engages in automatic behavior C) is aware of more than one perspective D) is open to new information E) is flexible in his/her thinking

36)

37) According to Richard Lazarus, the first step in coping with a stressful situation involves evaluating the situation as a threat or as a challenge that can be overcome.

This step is called A) primary appraisal B) avoidance coping C) learned coping D) emotion-focused coping E) situation coping

37)

38) Every week during football season, Fred and his friends have fun following the local high school teams. Before the games, Fred never really talks too much about how the games will turn out. On Monday, however, it is a different scenario altogether. Fred is more than happy to share with his friends that the games came out exactly as he thought they would and why. Fred is demonstrating A) overconfidence bias B) inductive reasoning C) deductive reasoning D) hindsight bias E) illusory correlational bias

38)

39) The fact that we hear about airplane crashes on the news more often than we hear about automobile crashes may lead us to believe that we are more likely to die in a plane than a car. This is an example of a(n) A) availability heuristic B) illusory correlation C) representativeness heuristic D) subgoal strategy E) simulation heuristic

39)

40) Reappraising negative life events can lead to positive outcomes in a process called A) benefit finding B) reappraisal coping C) approach coping D) engagement E) approach-avoidance coping

40)

9

41) Your friend John is trying to learn Russian in college, but he has trouble learning to distinguish and to vocalize sounds that are used in Russian but are not used in his native English. Recent research indicates that John A) can learn the sounds through an emotional process of re-evaluating priorities.

B) cannot override the catalog of sounds he learned as an infant.

C) can learn the sounds through a cognitive process of unlearning previous habits.

D) has a problem in his Broca's area.

E) will never learn the sounds if he is older that 10.

41)

42) Sean's parents think he is very creative. His uncle James, however, repeatedly brings up the many times Sean's "hair-brained" ideas didn't succeed and argues that Sean is just a little weird and really isn't creative at all. According to the information in your textbook, is Uncle James correct?

A) No; creative thinkers learn to cope with unsuccessful projects and see failure as an opportunity to learn.

B) No; creative thinkers learn from their mistakes but don't think their work can be objectively evaluated.

C) Yes; true creativity is without weirdness.

D) No; creative thinkers make mistakes more than others but cannot be labeled weird.

E) Yes; true creativity produces a large percentage of successes compared to failures.

42)

43) Creative people tend to be eager to start each day because A) they are in the flow all the time and work harder B) they are usually highly motivated to create something C) they are more cheerful than less creative people D) they need less sleep than less creative people E) they have more energy than less creative people

43)

44) If a child's mental age is higher than her chronological age, this means that A) the child's IQ score is higher than normal B) the child's IQ score is lower than average C) a mistake has occurred because this result is not possible D) the child's IQ score is about average E) a mistake has occurred in the calculation of the IQ score

44)

45) A 6-year-old child with a mental age of 6 would have a ratio IQ of A) 90 B) 110 C) 100 D) 36

45)

10

E) 120

46) Why is coping included in a chapter on thinking, intelligence, and language?

A) Coping and the development of language are closely related.

B) Coping is essentially problem solving.

C) Thinking about coping is a problem-solving strategy.

D) Coping requires language.

E) Coping is strongly related to intelligence.

46)

47) A high school football coach decides to use the time taken to run up 100 stairs as a test for running endurance. He tests every team member on 3 consecutive days and finds that the times for each person are very much the same on all three trials. His test for endurance appears to have good A) correlation B) reliability C) validity D) generalizability E) standardization

47)

48) If you spend the day imagining about the outcome of the upcoming football game, and then a friend asks you what your favorite sport is and you say "football" even though basketball is actually your favorite, you have used and experienced A) divergence bias B) hindsight bias C) the availability heuristic D) confirmation bias E) the representative heuristic

48)

49) A psychologist has developed a new test to measure the verbal ability of third graders.

To determine the range of scores (and what is a good and bad score), he gives the test to 10,000 third graders. In the future, he will compare the performance of others to this reference group. This process of determining meaningful scores establishes testing A) means B) reliability C) norms D) criteria E) validity

49)

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50) Dr. Ambrose is administering an intelligence test, and one question asks, "In what month of the year is the Super Bowl played?" Students from countries outside of the United States may have problems with this question because it is probably A) culturally biased B) culture-fair C) not standardized D) too general E) unreliable

50)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

51) In many cases, our decision-making strategies are well adapted to deal with a variety of problems. Heuristics, for example, are intuitive and efficient ways of solving problems and making decisions; they are often at work when we make a decision by following a gut feeling.

However, heuristics and gut feelings can lead to mistakes.

Define the biases and heuristic errors listed below and state an example for each to show how they can lead to mistakes in our thinking.

• confirmation bias • base rate fallacy • hindsight bias • representativeness heuristic • availability heuristic

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52) At your school, the counselors use intelligence tests to determine your IQ and use this information to make various decisions about your education, such as the courses you can take in high school, if you should go to college, and the college major you should pursue. The tests they use must be valid and reliable, and standardized. You know this is very important but you are not sure that the test scores should be the ONLY way decisions are made about your intelligence.

A. Using the concepts listed below, explain how the counselors might explain the use of IQ tests as the best way to determine the courses or colleges a student should pursue. Define each concept and give an example specific to the opinion of the counselors to explain your statement.

• validity • reliability • standardization B. Briefly explain the theories listed below and use a specific example related to each theory to defend your opinion, that the use of IQ tests might NOT be the best way to determine the courses or colleges a student should pursue.

• triarchic theory of intelligence • Howard Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences

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Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED8

1) C 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) B 8) B 9) B 10) C 11) A 12) C 13) D 14) A 15) A 16) C 17) A 18) B 19) D 20) B 21) C 22) B 23) A 24) E 25) E 26) E 27) E 28) C 29) D 30) B 31) A 32) A 33) B 34) D 35) B 36) B 37) A 38) D 39) A 40) A 41) B 42) A 14

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED8

43) B 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) B 48) C 49) C 50) A 51) Scoring Guide for Question 1: Answers should be written in complete sentences.

Samples below are NOT exclusive but provide examples to help grade the question. Each bulleted item must be defined and an example provided that further explains how each concept can lead to mistakes in thinking. Examples will vary. The total number of points for this questions is 10.

Points 1 and 2: Confirmation bias—tendency to search for and use information that supports rather than refutes one's ideas Example: A politician accepts news that supports his views, and dismisses evidence that runs counter to these views.

Points 3 and 4: Hindsight bias—tendency to report falsely, after the fact, that one accurately predicted an outcome Example: You read about the results of a particular psychological study and say, "I always knew that," though in fact you have little knowledge about the issues examined in the study.

Points 5 and 6: Base rate fallacy—tendency to ignore information about general principles in favor of very specific but vivid information Example: You read a favorable expert report on a TV you are intending to buy, but you decide not to buy it when a friend tells you about a bad experience with that model.

Points 7 and 8: Representativeness heuristic—tendency to make judgments about group membership based on physical appearances or one's stereotype of a group rather than available base rate information Example: The victim of a holdup, you view police photos of possible perpetrators. The suspects look very similar to you, but you choose the individual whose hair and clothing look dirtiest and most disheveled.

Points 9 and 10: Availability heuristic—prediction about the probability of an event based on the ease 15

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED8

of recalling or imagining similar events Example: A girl from an extended family in which no family member ever attended college tells her mother that she wants to be a doctor. Her mother cannot imagine her daughter in such a career and suggests that she become a home healthcare aide.

52) Scoring Guide for Question 2: Answers should be written in complete sentences.

Samples below are NOT exclusive but provide examples to help grade the question. Each bulleted item must be defined and an example provided that further explain the concept specific to how IQ tests score ARE and ARE NOT the best ways to make decisions for the students.

Points 1 and 2: Validity—the extent to which a test measures what it is intended to measure. psychologist might validate an intelligence test by asking employers of the individuals who took the test how intelligent they are at work. The employers' perceptions would be a criterion for measuring intelligence. When the scores on a measure relate to important outcomes (such as employers' evaluations), we say the test has high criterion validity. The intelligence tests used in schools have been proven to be valid in there outcomes related to student progress in math and, English classes Points 3 and 4: Reliability—the extent to which a test yields a consistent, reproducible measure of performance. Reliability is the extent to which a test yields a consistent, reproducible measure of performance. That is, a reliable test is one that produces the same score over time and repeated testing.

Reliability and validity are related. If a test is valid, then it must be reliable, but a reliable test need not be valid. People can respond consistently on a test, but the test might not be measuring what it purports to measure. Many tests have been used, different forms of the same test and they have been proven to be reliable.

Points 5 and 6: Good intelligence tests are not only reliable and valid but also standardized.

Standardization involves developing uniform procedures for administering and scoring a test, as well as creating norms, or performance standards, for the test. Uniform testing procedures require that the testing environment be as similar as possible for all individuals. This is why in schools the teachers and administrator make sure that all of the students are testing in similar environments and are very careful when testing takes place. Norms are created by giving the test to a large group of individuals representative of the population for whom the test is intended.

Points 7 and 8: Students should explain the alternative view of the triarchic theory of intelligence.

Robert Sternberg says that intelligence comes in multiple (specifically, three) forms. An example of how the IQ test do NOT measure one of these forms would be a good example to use to defend this part of the question. These forms are:

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Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED8

• Analytical intelligence: The ability to analyze, judge, evaluate, compare, and contrast.

• Creative intelligence: The ability to create, design, invent, originate, and imagine.

• Practical intelligence: The ability to use, apply, implement, and put ideas into practice.

Points 9 and 10: Students should explain the theory of multiple intelligences: Howard Gardner suggests there are nine types of intelligence, or “frames of mind.” According to Gardner, everyone has all of these intelligences to varying degrees. An example of how the IQ test does NOT measure one of these “nine frames of mind” would be a good example to use to defend this part of the question.

These are described here, with examples of the types of vocations in which they are reflected as strengths:

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Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED8

• Verbal: The ability to think in words and use language to express meaning.

• Occupations: author, journalist, speaker.

• Mathematical: The ability to carry out mathematical operations.

Occupations: scientist, engineer, accountant.

• Spatial: The ability to think three-dimensionally. Occupations: architect, artist, sailor.

• Bodily-kinesthetic: The ability to manipulate objects and to be physically adept.

• Occupations: surgeon, craftsperson, dancer, athlete.

• Musical: The ability to be sensitive to pitch, melody, rhythm, and tone.

Occupations: composer, musician • Interpersonal: The ability to understand and interact effectively with others. Occupations: teacher, mental health professional.

• Intrapersonal: The ability to understand oneself. Occupations: theologian, psychologist.

• Naturalist: The ability to observe patterns in nature and understand natural and human-made systems. Occupations: farmer, botanist, ecologist, landscaper.

• Existentialist: The ability to grapple with the big questions of human existence, such as the meaning of life and death, with special sensitivity to issues of spirituality. Gardner has not identified an occupation for existential intelligence, but one career path would likely be philosopher.

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Prof.Exams Chapter 9- Human Development

TB-The Science of Psychology3E|Laura King

Chapter 9- Human Development MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following terms is most closely tied with the nurture side of the nature vs. nurture debate?

A) Range of phenotypes B) Phenotypic characteristics C) Optimal life experiences D) Observable characteristics E) Genotypic characteristics

1)

2) Habituation refers to the A) increasing awareness of a stimulus to which one is repeatedly exposed B) awareness that things continue to exist even when they cannot be perceived C) adjustment of current schemas to make sense of new information D) biological growth processes that are relatively influenced by experience E) decreasing responsiveness to a stimulus to which one is repeatedly exposed

2)

3) Kara is thrilled to find out she has finally become pregnant. She wants to make sure not to jeopardize the health of her baby. According to your text, she should avoid all of these, except A) smoking cigarettes B) all prescription drugs C) using the drug heroin D) exposure to rubella E) drinking alcohol

3)

4) Kara just brought her newborn baby home from the hospital. Family, friends and neighbors all came to visit. At first, every time the doorbell rang, the baby cried. But after a few days with the doorbell ringing often, the infant no longer cried at the sound. Based on the discussion of physical development in childhood in your textbook, what could likely be the reason for this?

A) Assimilation has occurred.

B) Habituation has occurred.

C) A sudden hearing loss has occurred.

D) Synaptic pruning has occurred.

E) Organized perception has occurred.

4)

1

5) A newly pregnant woman is warned by a doctor about teratogens. She does not know what these are and wants to look them up in a book, but is unsure where to look. You tell her that the teratogens named in your text include A) sugar B) testosterone C) serotonin D) dopamine E) alcohol

5)

6) The work of Harry and Margaret Harlow established that A) researchers cannot generalize how humans develop from studies using rhesus monkeys B) early social experience in humans is essential to normal functioning in adulthood C) humans are less dependent on contact comfort than rhesus monkeys D) human behavior is hardly more complex than that of rhesus monkeys E) contact comfort is more important than feeding in the attachment process

6)

7) Which psychologist articulated the steps of cognitive development from infancy to adulthood?

A) Erikson B) Kohlberg C) Piaget D) Vygotsy E) Freud

7)

8) A researcher pours two glasses of juice for a 7-year-old. The glasses are identical in shape and the child agrees they have the same amount of juice. When the researcher pours the contents of one glass into a taller and thinner glass, the child chooses the taller, thinner glass as the one with more juice. This child is likely in Piaget's ________ stage of development, and has not yet arrived in Piaget's ________ stage.

A) sensorimotor; preoperational B) conventional; post-conventional C) preoperational; concrete operational D) formal operational; concrete operational E) concrete operational; post-operational

8)

2

9) Larry and Carol are tested twice on moral reasoning. The first time, Kohlberg's measures are used, and Carol gets a lower score than Larry. The second time, Gilligan's approach is used, and both individuals score at the same level, that of Universal Ethical Principles (Stage 6.) Based on research reported in your text, what probably caused this discrepancy?

A) Kohlberg's approach is a justice perspective which men tend to favor, while Gilligan's is a care perspective which women tend to favor.

B) The data were contaminated by unknown test conditions.

C) On the first test, Carol was having a bad day.

D) The conclusions were inaccurate due to participant bias.

E) Kohlberg's approach is biased against women and Gilligan's is biased in their favor.

9)

10) Which of the following statements best describes moral reasoning at the conventional level?

A) What I did was illegal, but the family of the person I saved offered a huge reward.

B) What I did was illegal, but saving a life is what a good person is expected to do.

C) What I did was illegal, but I will be forgiven because I am not a bad person.

D) What I did was illegal, but nobody will ever find out.

E) What I did was illegal, but it saved somebody's life.

10)

11) According to Kohlberg, which of the following phrases describes the basis of moral reasoning in early childhood?

A) Do what you think is right.

B) Don't be a jerk.

C) I don't want to get caught.

D) It's the law.

E) We all have rights.

11)

12) You would expect an individual at a higher level of moral development to show an increase in A) concern over the ethics of a person's actions B) concern over how their behaviors might be judged by their peers C) concern over doing what society thinks is right D) concern over understanding rules and laws E) concern over the consequences of a person's actions

12)

3

13) Which technique used in studying infant perception involves giving an infant a choice of what to look at and then looking for a reliable preference for one stimulus over the other?

A) Preferential looking B) Non-differential looking C) Differential looking D) Habituation E) Aphasia

13)

14) The Eisenbergs want to raise their children to be highly moral. Which positive parenting strategies might they use to accomplish this?

A) Providing their children with an external moral orientation B) Providing their children with consistently strict discipline C) Providing their children with information on consequences they will receive D) Providing their children with information on expected behaviors E) Providing their children with rational logic rather than warmth

14)

15) A child that has a low activity level, is somewhat negative, and has a low mood intensity is said to have what type of temperament?

A) Slow-to-warm-up B) Aversive C) Difficult D) Easy E) Distant

15)

16) A child decides to steal a small item from a neighborhood store in order to be accepted into a club. The child reasons that the stealing behavior is acceptable because it is what his friends expect of him. According to Kohlberg, this child is operating at the ________ level.

A) concrete operational B) pre-conventional C) post-conventional D) pre-operational E) conventional

16)

17) ________ is a child's behavioral style and characteristic way of responding and is critical to understanding child development.

A) Self-regulation B) Personality C) Generativity D) Temperament E) Identity

17)

4

18) At the pre-conventional level of moral development, individuals decide right and wrong based on A) punishments or rewards B) parents rules C) a sense of duty D) individual ethical principles E) society's laws

18)

19) Emotion-coaching parents A) monitor their children's emotions and view negative emotions as a teaching opportunity B) tend to praise their children less than other parents C) tell their children how to feel in a given situation D) tend to reward their children more than other parents E) encourage their children to suppress emotions

19)

20) Which of the following is NOT one major difference between Erikson's theory and Freud's theory?

A) Freud's theory focused more on psychosexual development and Erikson's theory focused more on psychosocial development.

B) Erikson's theory is a stage theory, while Freud's theory is not a stage theory.

C) Freud believed that the personality is formed during early childhood, while Erikson believed that development continues throughout life.

D) In Freud's theory, conflicts and their resolution revolve more around early family relationships, while in Erikson's theory, they revolve more around relationships with both family and society.

E) Erikson viewed development as a series of conflicts or crises, Freud did not.

20)

21) Sammy is in third grade. When he won the spelling bee, he felt proud of his accomplishment. But when he could not complete his arithmetic assignment on time, he felt incompetent. Which of Erikson's developmental stages does this reflect?

A) Autonomy vs. shame and doubt B) Generativity vs. isolation C) Trust vs. mistrust D) Initiative vs. guilt E) Industry vs. inferiority

21)

5

22) Annie is a young adult who is in Erikson's stage known as intimacy vs. isolation.

What are the possible outcomes of her resolution of the conflict or crisis that typifies this stage?

A) She will acquire a sense of self, or will become confused about her role in life.

B) She will develop strong moral values, or perceive herself as deviant.

C) She will form meaningful relationships, or will become socially separate from others.

D) She will gain the ability to plan for herself, or will live within the limits of others.

E) She will learn to meet the demands of life, or will start to believe in her own inferiority.

22)

23) Erikson's theory is based on the assumption that A) development is driven by personal choices, independent of the actions of parents and others B) each person faces a set of predictable life-changing challenges at various stages of life C) life is full of disasters and the challenge we face is to suffer through without giving up D) most of the social behaviors we learn are acquired by watching other people behave socially E) most of the challenges we face are unconscious and cannot be avoided or controlled

23)

24) If 30-year-old Peter is unsure of what he should do with his life and where he fits in, Erikson would most likely agree that Peter did not successfully complete A) intimacy vs. isolation B) trust vs. mistrust C) generativity vs. stagnation D) autonomy vs. shame and doubt E) identity vs. identity confusion

24)

25) The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome are most likely to include A) depression B) below-average intelligence C) hyperactivity D) addictive tendencies E) visual impairments

25)

6

26) Which of the following best distinguishes the infancy stage from other stages of development?

A) Physical growth is most rapid in the first year B) It is when children are least likely to learn to speak C) Cognitive growth is five times greater than in any other developmental stage D) It is the only stage that has no emotional development E) Emotions are fully developed before the next developmental stage

26)

27) During the course of successful prenatal development, a human organism begins as a(n) A) fetus and finally develops into an embryo B) zygote and finally develops into an embryo C) zygote and finally develops into a fetus D) embryo and finally develops into a fetus E) cluster of eggs that finally becomes a zygote

27)

28) Developmental psychologists study physical, cognitive, and ________ changes throughout the human life cycle.

A) cross-sectional B) intradevelopmental C) socioemotional D) genetic E) embryonic

28)

29) The period known as infancy lasts approximately from A) birth to three years B) conception to two years C) birth to two years D) birth to one year E) conception to one year

29)

30) In Piaget's cognitive development theory, the ________ stage occurs during the period of infancy.

A) formal operational B) sensorimotor C) preoperational D) preconventional E) concrete operational

30)

7

31) You tried to play peek-a-boo with your 6-month-old infant, but whenever you hid your face, he would cry. You try it again three months later, and now he laughs and enjoys the game, trying to uncover your face with his hands. Your baby has now developed A) conservation B) object permanence C) hindsight bias D) habituation E) egocentrism

31)

32) In which stage of cognitive development does the child coordinate sensations and motor movements?

A) Premoral B) Initiative vs. guilt C) Egocentric D) Sensorimotor E) Physical motor

32)

33) "Out of sight, out of mind" can describe the behavior of a child who has not mastered the concept of A) object permanence B) attachment C) accommodation D) conservation E) separation anxiety

33)

34) According to Piaget, accommodation refers to A) adjusting current schemas in order to make sense of new experiences B) adjusting new experiences to fit into their schemas C) parental efforts to include new children in the existing family structure D) incorporating new experiences into existing schemas E) developmental changes in a child's behavior that facilitate social acceptance by family and peers

34)

35) Which of Piaget's stages of cognitive development is characterized by egocentric thought?

A) Concrete operational B) Post-operational C) Formal operational D) Sensorimotor E) Preoperational

35)

8

36) According to Piaget, egocentrism refers to A) the focus a young child has on his/her body functions B) the difficulty in realizing that things continue to exist even when they are not visible C) a sensorimotor need for self stimulation, as evidenced in thumb sucking D) young children's exaggerated interest in pleasure E) the difficulty in perceiving things from another person's point of view

36)

37) You give your younger brother Joe a bag of marbles. While he is playing with them, you ask him how many blue marbles there are. He correctly answers, "Nine!" You ask, "How many green marbles?" Joe says, "Four!" You then ask, "Are there more blue or green?" He responds, "Blue!"

Finally, you ask, "Are there more blue or round marbles?" Joe responds, "Blue!" He is most likely in which developmental stage?

A) Formal operational B) Concrete operational C) Preoperational D) Conventional E) Egocentric

37)

38) Four-year-old Jennifer mistakenly believes that her mother would like to receive a doll for Christmas. This best illustrates Piaget's concept of A) assimilation B) egocentrism C) object permanence D) accommodation E) conservation

38)

39) Recent research on prosocial behavior in children has found that A) children are inherently selfish B) parenting style has little effect on children's prosocial behavior C) an authoritarian parent is most likely to influence prosocial behavior D) a supportive parent is related to more prosocial behavior in children E) children do not engage in prosocial behavior

39)

40) Your child has entered the stage Piaget called preoperational. Which of these do you now expect your child to be able to do?

A) Read simple sentences B) Represent the world with symbols C) Perform mental operations D) Reverse mental operations E) Give logical reasons for knowing something

40)

9

41) If a child can understand that 2+2=4 and 4–2=2, then the child possesses the characteristic of A) algebra B) egocentrism C) abstract reasoning D) animism E) reversibility

41)

42) Between ages 7 and 11, many of the restrictions of earlier patterns disappear and children can think in sophisticated ways as long as what they are thinking about is tangibly represented.

Piaget calls this stage A) preoperational thought B) sensorimotor limits C) concrete operations D) formal operations E) conceptual thought

42)

43) The main class of male sex hormones is ________ A) the Y chromosome B) estrogens C) testosterones D) androgens E) the X chromosome

43)

44) If children cannot grasp the concept of conservation, they are unable to A) retain earlier schemas when confronted with new experiences B) deal with the discipline of toilet training C) understand that their parent is still in the room even if they cannot see him/her D) see things from the point of view of another person E) recognize that the quantity of a substance remains the same despite changes in its shape

44)

45) Reversibility is a skill usually not achieved until Piaget's ________ stage.

A) formal operational B) preoperational C) post-operational D) sensorimotor E) concrete operational

45)

10

46) A wise mother will give both her three-year-old and her four-year-old children identically shaped glasses of soft drink to avoid conflict over who has the most. This mother is showing her awareness of what limitation in her children's thinking skills?

A) Problems in equilibrium B) Problems with object permanence C) Problems with symbolism D) Problems with schema development E) Problems with the concept of conservation

46)

47) In a female embryo, what allows for the development of female sex organs?

A) Low levels of androgens B) Low levels of estrogens C) The presence of teratogens D) High levels of estrogens E) The absence of teratogens

47)

48) The process of sexual maturation that takes place at the beginning of adolescence is called A) animism B) puberty C) menopause D) menarche E) sex typing

48)

49) ________ is a person's ability to recover from or adapt to a difficult time, and is a key aspect to thriving.

A) Egocentrism B) Prosocial C) Resilience D) Tolerance E) Positive affect

49)

50) The average ages of the beginning and the peak of pubertal change in American males occur ________ those events in American females.

A) the same time as B) three years after C) two years before D) one year after E) two years after

50)

11

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

51) A. If you were asked by some students to help settle a controversy about whether heredity or environment is more important, what would you tell them? In your answer, include an explanation, with an example, of each of the following questions they have asked you: • What is the nature-nurture issue?

• How do psychologists study this issue through identical twins reared apart?

• How do psychologists study this issue through adoptive and biological children living together in the same home?

B. If you were thinking of doing a study on the personality development of fraternal twins of the same gender, how would you set up your research study?

• Write your hypothesis and identify the variables being studied.

• Identify who you would choose for this study and how they would be selected.

• Discuss what method you would use to collect your data and briefly describe how you would conduct the study.

12

52) As an expert in adult development, you have been asked to address a local group and discuss your research on the changes adults will experience after turning 40. You have outlined your talk and decided to include information on social, cognitive, and physical development. Explain how you would present the research findings on the following to your audience of very interested adults: • Biological theories of aging • Cellular clock theory • Free radical theory • Hormonal stress theory • Cognition in middle and later adulthood • Decrease in brain lateralization • Crystallized intelligence • Fluid intelligence • Socioemotional development in middle and later adulthood • Generativity vs. stagnation • Socioemotional selectivity theory

13

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED9

1) C 2) E 3) B 4) B 5) E 6) E 7) C 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) C 12) A 13) A 14) D 15) A 16) E 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) B 21) E 22) C 23) B 24) E 25) B 26) A 27) C 28) C 29) C 30) B 31) B 32) D 33) A 34) A 35) E 36) E 37) C 38) B 39) D 40) B 41) E 42) C 14

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED9

43) D 44) E 45) E 46) E 47) A 48) B 49) C 50) E 51) Scoring Guide for Question 1: Answers should be written in complete sentences.

Samples below are NOT exclusive but provide examples to help grade the question. Each bulleted item in part A must be explained and an example provided that further develops your explanation specifically related to the nature-nurture issue. Examples will vary. Each bulleted item in part B MUST relate to a study of fraternal twins of the same gender.

The total number of points for this question is 12.

A. Points 1 and 2: The nature-nurture issue raises the question of whether human behavior and cognition are influenced more by genetic or hereditary factors (nature), or by factors that exist in a person's environment (nurture). Psychologists now generally agree that both nature and nurture are important for understanding the causes of behavior and cognition, but the relative influence of nature and nurture remains a topic of research and debate.

A. Points 3 and 4: Because identical twins are genetically the same, researchers can infer that environment or nurture play a role in any behavioral or cognitive differences that they show. This is especially significant if identical twins were separated at birth and raised by different sets of adoptive parents in different environments. If identical twins display strong similarities, then heredity or nature would be looked at as a stronger contributing factor.

A. Points 5 and 6: A different approach lies in comparing people who are not genetically similar, such as adopted siblings, living in a shared environment. If these children display strong similarities, researchers are inclined to look at the effect of nurture on their behavior and cognition.

B. Points 7 and 8: Fraternal twin girls may have similar personalities because they share a similar family environment. The different activities that fraternal twin girls participate in can affect their personalities and make them very different. There are many different hypotheses students can write.

The variables in their hypotheses should be related to how the twins were nurtured and their personality traits; NOT focused on genetics or physical attributes.

B. Points 9 and 10: The student should suggest using fraternal twin girls…not identical twins and not 15

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED9

boys. They might mention how they would get parental permission, randomly selected twins from a register of twin girls at local hospitals in varied areas of the United States or may focus on only a certain area of the United States. Answers can vary but need to be accurate and should in some way show their understanding of what a representative sample would be for a study of this type.

B. Points 11 and 12: The student should discuss a longitudinal study of the same twins over a period of time (birth to 18 would be appropriate) and should suggest a survey method, or observational method …NOT an experiment. A brief explanation of how the case study, observations or survey would be conducted ( interviews or questionnaires) over a period of time and how the data would be collected should be accurate and specific to the hypothesis stated. Discussion of other variables that might influence the girls personality development might be discussed but are not required to get the points for this part of the question unless it is necessary due to the hypothesis that was developed by the student.

52) Answers will vary.

16

Prof.Exams Chapter 10- Motivation and Emotion

TB-The Science of Psychology3E|Laura King

Chapter 10- Motivation and Emotion MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) After watching an episode of the Dr. Phil TV show, Shanae wonders why anyone would want to air their interpersonal dirty laundry in front of 70 million viewers.

Shanae is wondering about the ________ of people who go on the Dr. Phil TV show.

A) legitimacy B) emotional state C) motivation D) sanity E) personality

1)

2) Joan goes to the kitchen looking for something to eat whenever she sees a television commercial concerning food. If you wanted to study Joan's behavior, you would be doing research on A) perception B) motivation C) thinking D) emotion E) sensation

2)

3) Dr. Know-it-All hosts a TV talk show. One of his guests, Joe College, complains of his intense annoyance with people who talk on their cell phones while driving. Joe asks Dr. Know-it-All to explain this reaction. Dr. Know-it-All immediately pronounces that Joe has an instinct for cell phone irritation. What is the problem with this explanation?

A) Instincts are based in evolutionary times.

B) Instincts cannot explain emotional behaviors.

C) Instincts cannot explain simple behaviors.

D) Instincts cannot explain complex behaviors.

E) This does not identify a signal for the irritation.

3)

4) You just ran a marathon in very hot weather and perspired heavily. According to drive reduction theory, your body will have a(n) ________ for water, which will produce a(n) ________ for water, which will lead to a(n) ________ to get water.

A) instinct; need; motivation B) drive; instinct; motivation C) motivation; drive; need D) need; drive; motivation E) instinct; need; drive

4)

1

5) You haven't eaten for four days when you finally have a candy bar. Which of the following is most likely? Your ________ is reduced, but your ________ is not.

A) motivation; instinct B) need; drive C) drive; motivation D) drive; instinct E) drive; need

5)

6) When you exercise, you begin breathing more rapidly to provide oxygen to your cells.

This increase in breathing is an example of A) homeostasis B) motivation C) satiation D) drive E) instinct

6)

7) After staying up all night to study for a math exam, you return to your dorm room after the test and sleep for seven hours. Your sleeping behaviour was regulated by the body's tendency to maintain A) self-determination B) homeostasis C) self-preservation D) your mental health E) basic metabolic functions

7)

8) If you have problems with homeostasis, which of the following is most likely?

A) When you stop exercising, your breathing starts to calm down.

B) When you exercise, your breathing gets slower.

C) When you exercise, your heart beats faster.

D) When it gets cold, you start to shiver.

E) When the temperature rises, you begin sweating.

8)

9) A thermostat in your house is a good analogy for A) drive B) instinct C) emotion D) motivation E) homeostasis

9)

2

10) A major criticism of drive reduction theory is that A) drives are not able to be controlled B) all behavior increases drives C) people sometimes behave in ways that increase drives D) all behavior reduces drives, so it doesn't really explain anything E) there are no behaviors that actually reduce drives

10)

11) Paige is an expert at golf and is bored by the thought of the upcoming tournament.

Mary is pretty good, and is somewhat excited, but not overly anxious. Sara has only recently learned to play, but has very high expectations and is really nervous about the tournament. According to optimum arousal theory, who will perform the best?

A) Sara will perform best.

B) They'll all do about the same.

C) Mary will perform best.

D) Paige will perform best.

E) The theory does not relate to this example.

11)

12) Darrin is a good piano player. If he is alone, he gets distracted and makes mistakes.

At a recital with strangers, he also makes mistakes. His best performance is typically when family and friends are nearby. This is an example of the A) Opponent-Process theory B) Cannon-Bard theory C) James-Lange theory D) Yerkes-Dodson law E) set-point theory

12)

13) When Cannon and Washburn measured stomach contractions with a balloon, they found that A) when subjects report their stomach contracting, they measured stomach relaxation B) when subjects report hunger, their stomach is contracting C) when subjects report thirst, their stomach is relaxed D) when subjects report they were relaxed, their stomachs were contracting E) when subjects report a full stomach, their stomach is relaxed

13)

14) Which of the following is evidence that signals other than those coming from the stomach are important in hunger?

A) Rich food in the stomach stops eating more quickly than water in the stomach.

B) People who have lap band surgery are never hungry.

C) Rats whose lateral hypothalamus has been destroyed do not experience hunger.

D) When people report hunger, the stomach is contracting.

E) When the stomach is full, people stop eating.

14)

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15) George failed a math test, lost his phone, and spilled spaghetti sauce on his best suit.

At the end of this day, he might describe the valence of his emotions as A) Positive B) Being in James's first stage C) Being in accordance with display rules D) Negative E) Fully affected

15)

16) The hormone cholecystokinin (CCK) A) signals you to start eating B) travels to the brain to signal hunger C) signals you to stop eating D) stops the digestion of food E) travels to the stomach to signal hunger

16)

17) Gary wants to lose weight by reducing his caloric intake. He eats a candy bar for breakfast instead of a bowl of cereal because the candy bar has fewer calories. Based on information presented in your textbook, is Gary doing the right thing?

A) Yes; the sugar from the candy bar will keep him from feeling hungry longer.

B) Yes; the candy bar will keep Gary from getting hungry longer than if he'd eaten the cereal.

C) Yes; the number of calories is the most important factor in losing weight.

D) No; the candy bar will cause Gary to get hungry sooner than if he'd eaten the cereal.

E) Gary should skip the calories at breakfast all together.

17)

18) Which of these theories of emotion includes a cognitive element?

A) The James-Lange theory B) The three-factor theory C) The James-Bard theory D) The Cannon-James theory E) The two-factor theory

18)

19) A need is to a physiological state as a drive is to a(n) A) physical state B) psychological state C) biological state D) innate state E) chemical state

19)

4

20) A man receives a small dose of the peptide CCK (cholecystokinin). The results from previous studies that have utilized this procedure suggest that he will A) be unable to respond to hunger or satiety signals sent from his stomach B) experience a strong desire to eat a larger-than-normal meal later in the day C) report feeling full after eating a smaller-than-normal meal D) experience a strong desire to binge or overeat E) shortly experience hunger pangs

20)

21) Leptin and cholecystokinin (CCK) are similar in that they are both A) estrogens B) related to feelings of satiety C) related to feelings of hunger D) androgens E) related to feelings of motivation

21)

22) What happens when your blood sugar level gets too low?

A) You feel vitalized.

B) You feel self-actualized.

C) You feel full.

D) You feel hungry.

E) You feel energized.

22)

23) Which of the following is most closely related to blood sugar control?

A) Fat cells B) Insulin C) Small intestine D) Stomach E) Neurotransmitters

23)

24) Debbie is interested in working on projects that will help fight childhood obesity. She is offered a job in a research laboratory that is studying the effects of leptin in weight control. Should she take the job?

A) Yes; leptin is a hormone that has been linked to human weight control issues.

B) No; leptin is only relevant to animal weight control.

C) Yes; leptin manufacturers have started producing it for human consumption.

D) Yes; leptin has been approved by the FDA as a weight loss drug for children.

E) No; leptin has severe side effects and has NOT been approved by the FDA.

24)

5

25) According to a recent study discussed in your textbook, successful dieters have a greater activation in the ________ when involved in controlling eating behavior than unsuccessful dieters.

A) bilateral cortex B) pineal gland C) prefrontal cortex D) lateral hypothalamus E) ventromedial hypothalamus

25)

26) Danielle is a normal weight female whereas Ron is an obese male. Whenever Danielle and Ron go out to dinner together, Ron always eats more food. Ron, a psychology major, correctly explains the fact that he eats more than Danielle by pointing out that A) men always eat more than women B) males have different levels of CCK than females C) he has more fat cells than Danielle and he isn't satiated with food until all his fat cells are full D) he is taller and leptin release is affected by height E) males release leptin more slowly than females

26)

27) If you have two obese parents, your risk of being overweight is A) 70 percent B) 5 percent C) 10 percent D) 40 percent E) no different than someone with no obese parents

27)

28) Anton's country is at war with a neighboring country. He is 18 and has decided to join his nation's military to protect his family from the enemy rather than continue on to college. In what way does this violate Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

A) Anton is putting his love and belonging needs above his safety needs.

B) Anton is putting his biological needs above his safety needs.

C) This scenario does not violate Maslow's hierarchy.

D) The love and belonging stage is applicable mainly to women.

E) Anton is too young to be in the esteem stage.

28)

6

29) "I am so tired of dieting. It seems like it controls my life. I wonder what my real weight would be if I just ignored it and ate only when I'm hungry." This dieter is curious about her A) instinctive weight B) established weight C) metabolic weight D) weight set point E) normal weight

29)

30) Edna loves a restaurant's sweet tea. Whenever she sees it, she drives right in and orders a sweet tea. This illustrates A) the effect of mindlessness on eating behavior B) the effect of being addicted to the caffeine in tea C) the effect of advertising on eating behavior D) the effect of learned associations on eating behavior E) the effect of suggestion on eating behavior

30)

31) Which of the following is not a characteristic of restrained eaters?

A) Eating moderate amounts of a variety of foods B) Eating small amounts of food and feeling guilty C) Chronic restriction of food intake D) Feeling guilty after splurging on sweets E) Binge eating when they stop dieting

31)

32) Paris thinks her best friend, Nicole, may be suffering from undiagnosed anorexia nervosa. She shares her concerns with Nicole, but Nicole insists that anorexia nervosa is "no big deal." What is the most serious consequence of anorexia nervosa?

A) It can cause personality changes.

B) It can cause mood swings.

C) It can impact relationships with family and friends.

D) It has the highest mortality rate of any psychological disorder.

E) It can impact logical thinking processes.

32)

33) Which of the following individuals is most at risk for developing anorexia nervosa?

A) Doug, age 20, who works out at the gym B) Latoya, who is 25 and lives in a predominately lower-class neighborhood C) Chuck, who wrestled in high school and had to lose weight to make his weight class D) Jill, who is 17 and lives in the suburbs E) Bertha, age 40, who yo-yo diets

33)

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34) Lidia graduated from college ten years ago and is considering a career change. She is eager to find a position that challenges her and allows her to grow as a person. To learn about potential career paths, she signs up for classes at the local community college. Lidia's desire to explore and grow as a person reflects A) extrinsic motivation B) maturity C) competence motivation D) homeostasis E) autonomy motivation

34)

35) Though her weight is normal, Ashley is terrified of becoming fat. She knows she should stick to a healthy diet, but she often consumes huge servings of junk food—up to 5,000 calories in one sitting. Desperate to keep from gaining weight, she then uses laxatives and diuretics ("water pills") to purge the calories. Ashley is suffering from A) a binge-eating disorder B) bulimia C) anorexia D) obesity E) an anxiety disorder

35)

36) Mary and Jill are both 24 years old. Mary has completed her Master's degree and has just taken a great job in her field, rented a nice apartment, and bought her first car. She is excited about this phase of her life. Jill meanwhile is still in school, feels burdened by student debt, and relies on money from her parents to meet her expenses.

Which of the women will have a greater sense of autonomy?

A) Mary will have a greater sense of autonomy.

B) Neither has yet achieved autonomy.

C) Research findings cannot be generalized to this example.

D) Both women will feel equally autonomous.

E) Jill will have a greater sense of autonomy.

36)

37) Don places a great deal of value on money, prestige, and his physical appearance.

According to your textbook, he is likely to experience ________ compared to someone who values the organismic needs.

A) less physical illness but less well-being B) lowered self-actualization and more physical illness C) lowered well-being but less physical illness D) increased self-actualization and more physical illness E) more well-being but less esteem

37)

8

38) Ray has played basketball all of his life because he loves the sport. He became so good that he was given the opportunity to play professionally and eventually he signed a very lucrative contract. After that contract ran out, the team offered him slightly more money, but he decided that it was not enough. Which of the following best explains Ray's behavior from a motivational perspective?

A) The team's offer was not made in time for Ray to make a good decision.

B) The intrinsic motivation has replaced Ray's extrinsic motivation to play basketball.

C) Ray is being selfish.

D) The extrinsic motivation has replaced Ray's intrinsic motivation to play basketball.

E) The team is not showing Ray the respect that he has earned.

38)

39) The highest and most elusive of Maslow's needs is A) belongingness B) esteem C) competence D) self-actualization E) self-determination

39)

40) According to Maslow, self-actualization is possible A) at any time B) only after all other needs in the hierarchy have been fulfilled C) only after love and belongingness needs are fulfilled D) in childhood E) during adolescence and adulthood

40)

41) Adding external rewards to a situation in which the person is already intrinsically motivated to perform usually results in A) no effect being noticed B) reduced extrinsic motivation C) enhanced extrinsic motivation D) reduced intrinsic motivation E) enhanced intrinsic motivation

41)

42) Which of the following is most related to extrinsic motivation?

A) Reward B) Self-esteem C) Mastery D) Education E) Persistence

42)

9

43) Setting goals, planning for the implementation of goals, and monitoring progress are all aspects of A) self-regulation B) intrinsic motivation C) self-reliance D) the self-determination theory E) broaden and build

43)

44) Richard Lazarus believed in the primacy of thinking. What does this mean?

A) Cognitive ability precedes interpretation of emotion B) Cognitive ability depends on intrinsic motivation C) Thoughts are a precondition for emotions D) Emotions come before thoughts E) Cognitive ability depends on extrinsic motivation

44)

45) Which of the following best describes cultural differences in the facial expression of emotion?

A) Asians are more expressive than Caucasians.

B) Caucasians are more expressive than Asians.

C) Facial expression varies from one culture to another.

D) African Americans are less expressive than Caucasians.

E) Facial expression of emotion does not differ significantly.

45)

46) From Maslow's perspective, motivation is primarily the result of A) instinctive responses to environmental stimuli B) specific responses to ethological, innate drives C) humans focusing on satisfying basic needs before moving to higher needs D) reinforcement of behaviors E) humans focusing on getting accepted and ignoring physiological needs

46)

47) If you had to write a research paper on Maslow's hierarchy of motives, which of the following titles would you choose to capture the essence of Maslow's theory?

A) Easy come, easy go B) The best is yet to come C) The power of the unconscious D) Keep those reinforcements coming E) Be all that you can be

47)

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48) William has volunteered to work in a war-torn country to try to improve the lives of the residents there. Assuming that the citizens have enough to eat and drink, what would they be in need of next? Use Abraham Maslow's perspective in answering.

A) Safety B) Cognition C) Esteem D) Belongingness E) Prioritize goals

48)

49) According to self-determination theory, people are most fulfilled when they satisfy which three fundamental needs?

A) hunger, self-esteem, and beauty B) hunger, thirst, and sex C) competence, autonomy, and relatedness D) hunger, esteem, and achievement E) hunger, security, and love

49)

50) The sociocultural standards that determine when, where, and how emotions should be expressed are called A) cultural expressions B) expression standards C) norms D) expressive rules E) display rules

50)

11

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

51) We are motivated to eat when we feel hungry, but sometimes we eat even when we are not hungry. Biological and psychological factors play a role in our behaviors related to eating and sometimes we do not feel as if we can control ourselves.

A. Identify how each of the following affect how hungry or full a person might be and state whether the behavior of the individual will result in the person wanting to eat or not.

• stomach contractions • cholecystokinin (CCK) • glucose • insulin • leptin • lateral and ventromedial hypothalamuses B. The reason so many people overeat to the point of becoming obese is a motivational puzzle because it involves eating when one is not in need of nutrition. Explain one biological and one psychological factor researchers have correlated with obesity.

52) Why are individual tempted to do things they know they should not? How can an individual keep from acting on his/her temptation? Explain three theories that attempt to answer these two questions and provide a specific example that either explains why an individual could or could not control his behavior.

12

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED10

1) C 2) B 3) A 4) D 5) E 6) A 7) B 8) B 9) E 10) C 11) C 12) D 13) B 14) C 15) D 16) C 17) D 18) E 19) B 20) C 21) B 22) D 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) C 27) A 28) A 29) D 30) D 31) A 32) D 33) D 34) C 35) B 36) A 37) B 38) D 39) D 40) B 41) D 42) A 13

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED10

43) A 44) C 45) E 46) C 47) E 48) A 49) C 50) E 51) Scoring Guide for Question 1: Answers should be written in complete sentences.

Samples below are NOT exclusive but provide examples to help grade the question. The total number of points for this question is 8.

Point 1: Every time an individual experiences hunger pangs, his stomach is also contracting.

Sure enough, a growling stomach needs food.

Point 2: The stomach tells the brain not only how full it is but also how much nutrient is present, which is why rich food stops hunger faster than the same amount of water. The hormone cholecystokinin (CCK) helps start the digestion of food, travels to the brain through the bloodstream, and signals us to stop eating.

Point 3: Glucose (blood sugar) is an important factor in hunger, probably because the brain critically depends on sugar for energy. One set of sugar receptors, located in the brain itself, triggers hunger when sugar levels fall too low. Another set of sugar receptors is in the liver, which stores excess sugar and releases it into the blood when needed. The sugar receptors in the liver signal the brain when its sugar supply falls, and this signal also can make you hungry.

Point 4: The hormone insulin also plays a role in glucose control. When we eat complex carbohydrates such as bread and pasta, insulin levels go up and fall off gradually. When we consume simple sugars such as candy, insulin levels rise and then fall sharply—the all-too-familiar "sugar low". Blood glucose levels are affected by complex carbohydrates and simple sugars in similar ways, so we are more likely to eat within the next several hours after eating simple sugars than after eating complex carbohydrates.

Point 5: Released by fat cells, the chemical substance leptin decreases food intake and increases energy expenditure or metabolism. Leptin's functions were discovered in a strain of genetically obese mice.

Because of a genetic mutation, the fat cells of obese mice cannot produce leptin. The obese mouse has a low metabolism, overeats, and gets extremely fat. Leptin appears to act as an anti-obesity hormone Point 6: The central role of the hypothalamus in regulating important body functions, including hunger.

14

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED10

The lateral hypothalamus is involved in stimulating eating. When this area is electrically stimulated in a well-fed animal, the animal begins to eat. If this part of the hypothalamus is destroyed, even a starving animal will show no interest in food. The ventromedial hypothalamus is involved in reducing hunger and restricting eating. When this area of an animal’s brain is stimulated, the animal stops eating. When the area is destroyed, the animal eats profusely and quickly becomes obese.

B. The reason so many people overeat to the point of becoming obese is a motivational puzzle because it involves eating when one is not in need of nutrition.

Point 7: Biological Role in Obesity: any of the three examples below can count for one point Some individuals do inherit a tendency to be overweight.

Set point, the weight maintained when the individual makes no effort to gain or lose weight. Set point is determined in part by the amount of stored fat in the body (Levin, 2010).

When people gain weight—because of genetic predisposition, childhood eating patterns, or adult overeating—their fat cell number increases, and they might not be able to get rid of extra ones.

Point 8: Psychological Role in Obesity: any of the three examples below can count for one point Time and place affect our eating. Learned associations of food with a particular place and time are characteristic of many organisms. If it is noon, we are likely to feel hungry even if we ate a big breakfast.

We also associate eating with certain places. Many people link watching television with eating and feel uncomfortable if they are not eating something while watching TV. Our earliest ancestors probably developed a preference for sweets and fatty foods because ripe fruit, a concentrated source of sugar (and calories), was accessible and because high-fat foods carried much needed calories. Today many people still have a taste for such foods, but unlike our ancestors’ ripe fruit (containing sugar plus vitamins and minerals), the soft drinks and candy bars we snack on fill us with nutrient-free calories. Furthermore, in modern life we rarely require the calorie counts that our ancestors needed to survive.

52) Scoring Guide for Question 2: Answers should be written in complete sentences.

Samples below are NOT exclusive but provide examples to help grade the question. The total number of points for this question is 6.

Point 1: The research of Walter Mischel and Dan Wegner found that trying not to think about a 15

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED10

temptation is likely to make you think about it more. They also found that distraction is one option, but if used, it should be a very consuming distraction in order to be effective.

Point 2: Examples will vary but should represent an accurate interpretation and application of the theory and state clearly whether the individual was successful or not in managing the temptation. When one is hungry and tempted to eat sweets, they might take a walk but they should walk for at least an hour or they might not be away from the situation long enough to control the temptation The more a person thinks about how much food they will NOT eat during the holiday season when having company over and visiting relatives, the harder it might be to not eat!

Point 3: Ayelet Fishbach's research found that goals and temptations are cognitively linked, so that if a person wants to resist a temptation, that person should focus on those goals which are threatened by the temptation. They discovered that if a person is primed with such a goal-threatening temptation, the priming actually activates that goal. Further, they found that this relationship is not reciprocal, because when we think of a goal-threatening temptation, we are likely to think also of the goal it threatens; but conversely, when we think of the goal itself, we are not as likely to think automatically of a temptation that threatens it.

Point 4 Examples will vary but should represent an accurate interpretation and application of the theory and state clearly whether the individual was successful or not in managing the temptation.

If a person is tempted to spend $1500.00 on a new laptop, they might think about how that will affect their ability to buy textbooks for the upcoming semester. If their goal is to be able to afford their books and pay their tuition bill, then maybe they will not buy the expensive computer. Maybe they will buy a cheaper laptop for $1000 and have the $500 for books.

Point 5: Roy Baumeister compares our willpower to a muscle, in that the more you exercise it, the stronger it becomes.

Point 6: Examples will vary but should represent an accurate interpretation and application of the theory and state clearly whether the individual was successful or not in managing the temptation.

If someone is very impulsive, the more they act impulsively the more they are conditioning themselves to react to situations in an impulsive manner. If tempted to do something dangerous if they are always acting impulsively they may not be able to stop and think before acting. Willpower can be practice, like any skill. Counting to 10 before acting; having a specific behavior planned out that every time the person feels tempted to act and practicing this over and over again may help control the temptation.

16

Prof.Exams Chapter 11- Gender, Sex, and Sexuality

TB-The Science of Psychology3E|Laura King

Chapter 11- Gender, Sex, and Sexuality MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) ________ refers to the properties of a person that determine his or her classification as male or female.

A) Identity B) Gender C) Gender type D) Sexual orientation E) Sex

1)

2) According to the text, biological characteristics are referred to as one's A) sexual orientation B) sex C) genome D) gender identity E) gender

2)

3) Professor MacArthur is lecturing on how gender stereotypes and culture affect differences in sexuality among men and women. The professor is a proponent of which of the following approaches?

A) biological B) evolutionary C) learning D) social cognitive E) social role

3)

4) An expectation of how a woman or man should think, act, and feel is referred to as a A) sexual belief B) gender base C) sexual script D) gender theory E) gender role

4)

1

5) ________ refers to the social and psychological aspects of being male or female.

A) Sexuality B) Gender C) Sexual orientation D) Sex E) Sexual preference

5)

6) Debbie is a warm nurturing individual who volunteers at the daycare located in her church. Debbie is best described as A) expressive B) undifferentiated C) androgynous D) instrumental E) mothering

6)

7) Pat is very assertive, nurturing, independent, and caring. Pat is best described as A) androgynous B) transgendered C) instrumental D) expressive E) dominant

7)

8) Gerald rates low on both scales of instrumentality and expressiveness. He is best described as A) undifferentiated B) transgendered C) expressive D) differentiated E) androgynous

8)

9) While sex typically refers to differences in the biology of males and females, gender typically refers to differences attributed to A) attitude B) temperament C) puberty D) socialization E) emotional development

9)

2

10) The SRY gene causes one to become A) androgynous B) male C) undifferentiated D) female E) sterile

10)

11) How do female brains differ from male brains?

A) Female brains have higher cortical volume.

B) The female hippocampus is more reactive to stress.

C) Female brains have more white matter.

D) The female frontal lobe is smaller.

E) Female brains are larger.

11)

12) Carolina tells her friends that she helps take care of her little brother because that is what girls are supposed to do. Carolina's statement describes her A) sexual script B) sexual type C) gender role D) sexual orientation E) gender identity

12)

13) Any man can be a great leader because men are strong, dominant, and rational. This statement reflects a gender A) stereotype B) orientation C) scheme D) prejudice E) script

13)

14) The difficulty that many divorced fathers experience when trying to gain custody of their children may be due to A) non-conforming behavior B) gender orientation C) gender stereotyping D) relational aggression E) sexual scripting

14)

3

15) Dr. Hendricks believes that differences in sexuality are the result of hormonal differences between men and women. Which of the following approaches does he favor?

A) medical B) social cognitive C) gender role D) biological E) evolutionary

15)

16) The research data on gender differences in intellectual abilities has revealed that A) boys and girls both struggle with visual spatial orientation B) boys struggle on tasks requiring object manipulation C) girls are superior in scientific problem solving D) girls have superior verbal abilities E) girls do poorly on most tasks that require mathematical computations

16)

17) Behaviors designed to harm another person physically or verbally are referred to as A) stereotypical B) irrational C) sadistic D) aggressive E) non-conforming

17)

18) In terms of exploring the connection between sex and gender, the biological approach focuses on A) neurotransmitters B) the environment C) societal expectations D) genes E) parenting style

18)

19) Dr. Watson is interested in the effects that higher than normal amounts of testosterone have on the gender of embryos. Dr. Watson favors the ________ approach.

A) social cognitive B) biological C) evolutionary D) humanistic E) cognitive

19)

4

20) Research on newborn and infant preferences in terms of gender-related items supports the ________ approach of gender development.

A) biological B) humanistic C) behavioral D) cognitive E) socio-cultural

20)

21) According to Darwin, sexual selection involves A) compromise and availability B) competition and choice C) gene quality and reproduction ability D) desire and emotion E) familiarity and economy

21)

22) Those who adhere to the ________ perspective examine gender development by looking at how experience influences the formation of a person's sense of gender.

A) psychodynamic B) biological C) social role D) social learning E) social cognitive

22)

23) Little Jimmy is watching television with his parents. He notices that when a person on the television says a mean thing, his mother frowns and his father laughs. Which theory of gender development suggests that Little Jimmy might start teasing his baby sister?

A) biological B) humanistic C) social cognitive D) evolutionary E) psychodynamic

23)

24) A mental framework for understanding what is considered appropriate behavior for males and females is called a gender A) schema B) role C) stereotype D) theme E) type

24)

5

25) The ________ theory best supports the statement: "A woman should stay home and care for the children and a man should go to work to provide for them."

A) social role B) evolutionary C) psychoanalytic D) biological E) social cognitive

6

25)

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED11

1) E 2) B 3) E 4) E 5) B 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) D 10) B 11) A 12) C 13) A 14) C 15) D 16) D 17) D 18) D 19) B 20) A 21) B 22) E 23) C 24) A 25) A

7

Prof.Exams Chapter 12- Personality

TB-The Science of Psychology3E|Laura King

Chapter 12- Personality MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Psychologists who study personality investigate which of the following?

A) the way people make decisions and solve problems B) the pleasantness or sociability of an individual C) relatively permanent changes in behavior due to experience D) the organization of sensation into a meaningful interpretation E) the enduring traits and qualities we demonstrate over time

1)

2) The strongest proponents of the human unconscious mind and its role in personality are A) trait theorists B) social cognitive theorists C) humanists D) behaviorists E) psychodynamic theorists

2)

3) If you secretly cheated on your significant other and now are constantly accusing him or her of harboring desires for other people, what defense mechanism are you likely using?

A) denial B) sublimation C) reaction formation D) repression E) projection

3)

4) Freud's concept of the ego is most likely referred to as the "executive of the personality" because A) it functions primarily in the conscious mind, which represents the highest level of mental functioning B) it must balance the needs of the id, superego, and reality C) it is the first to form and therefore the most senior personality structure D) it functions primarily in the unconscious mind and affects your dreams E) it generates and provides the psychic energy upon which the other personality structures depend

4)

1

5) The spoiled child within you is to the id as the harsh judge within you is to the A) pleasure principle B) ego C) superego D) libido E) conscience

5)

6) Carolyn was reared in a home where high moral principles dominated. She has attended Sunday school and church since early childhood. In high school, her boyfriend talked her into "sleeping" with him. Which Freudian personality structure may have affected Carolyn's behavior in this scenario?

A) id B) reality principle C) ego D) pleasure principle E) superego

6)

7) Michelle was reared in a home where high moral principles dominated. She has attended Sunday school and church since early childhood. In high school, her boyfriend tried to talk her into "sleeping" with him, but something from inside her told her not to. She felt very proud of herself afterward for holding her ground. Which Freudian personality structure made Michelle feel proud of her response?

A) id B) superego C) ego D) reality principle E) pleasure principle

7)

8) Cartoons sometimes depict personal conflict by showing an individual with an angel speaking into one ear and a devil speaking into the other ear. The angel represents Freud's idea of the ________ and the devil represents Freud's idea of the ________.

A) ego; id B) superego; id C) ego; superego D) id; ego E) superego; ego

8)

2

9) What defense mechanism is in play if every time Antony, a 30-year-old architect, experiences hardship, he goes home to his parents to find comfort in his childhood bedroom?

A) displacement B) regression C) reaction formation D) compensation E) repression

9)

10) Jeff experiences a lot of aggressive feelings toward his overprotective stepfather.

Because he is powerless to aggress openly against his stepfather, Jeff becomes a very aggressive forward on his basketball team. According to Freud, this is an example of A) repression B) projection C) sublimation D) castration anxiety E) displacement

10)

11) With regard to the question of whether personality is innate or learned, which of the following personality theory orientations places the most emphasis on conscious mental processes?

A) bio-constructionist B) humanistic C) trait D) social-cognitive E) psychodynamic

11)

12) Darin had an automobile accident in which his brother and another passenger were killed. Though Darin wasn't seriously hurt in the accident, he can't remember any of the accident details. Darin is engaging in which ego defense mechanism?

A) regression B) repression C) displacement D) reaction formation E) rationalization

12)

3

13) If you had to write a research paper on ego defense mechanisms, which of the following would be the most appropriate summary position?

A) In some situations, the use of defense mechanisms can be beneficial to psychological health.

B) Defense mechanisms are a person's conscious attempts to escape their problems.

C) Most healthy people do not use defense mechanisms after they become adults.

D) The most effective way to deal with a problem is to use an ego defense mechanism.

E) The use of defense mechanisms always indicates an impending psychological breakdown.

13)

14) Oberon has always been fascinated by fire, but he knows that it can be dangerous and sometimes lethal. When he finished high school, he decided to become a firefighter, and the job is extremely fulfilling for him. Freud would probably say that Oberon's fascination with fire A) is due to fixation in the phallic psychosexual stage B) is an example of a fantasy he had repressed from early childhood C) is symbolic of the superego D) has been sublimated into a socially desirable behavior E) is an example of the Oedipus complex transforming itself

14)

15) What defense mechanism is being used when the ego transforms an unacceptable motive, such as watching pornography, into the opposite, such as becoming a vocal advocate against pornography?

A) Regression B) Hypocrisy C) Sublimation D) Displacement E) Reaction formation

15)

16) According to Horney, women really did not want to have a man's physiological features; what they really wanted was A) more equal status B) a man to protect and shelter them C) adequate superegos and stronger moral convictions D) more control over their relationships with their husbands E) ego defense mechanisms, particularly intellectualization

16)

4

17) According to Jung, the deepest, impersonal layer of the mind that is shared by all humans is called the A) collective unconscious B) normative unconscious C) Id D) shared unconscious E) unconscious

17)

18) Freud's view that gender differences in personality development are due to anatomical differences between males and females was criticized by Karen Horney primarily for A) overestimating intelligence differences between males and females B) comparing men and women physically C) ignoring cultural and environmental influences on personality development D) underestimating cognitive differences between males and females E) dismissing the importance of parenting style on personality development

18)

19) Freud is to ________ as Horney is to ________.

A) Electra complex; Oedipus complex B) castration anxiety; penis envy C) penis envy; inferiority complex D) pleasure principle; need for security E) psychological growth; psychological pathology

19)

20) At home Carrie was moody, self-centered, and bossy. At social events, Carrie was the life of the party. She was funny, happy, and demonstrated social graces that none of her family ever saw at home. What is Jung's explanation of Carrie's behavior?

A) Carrie became her mandala at parties.

B) Carrie was her archetype at home.

C) Carrie was unconsciously acting out at the party.

D) Carrie adopted her persona at parties.

E) Carrie was her anima at home.

20)

21) According to Jung, the collective unconscious is expressed through A) positive regard B) archetypes C) the id D) the superego E) self-actualization

21)

5

22) According to Rogers, what is the name of the state when one's real self and ideal self do not overlap much?

A) Non self-actualization B) Unconditional regard C) Self indulgence D) Incongruence E) Congruence

22)

23) Alfred Adler would be most likely to endorse which of the following explanations for human behavior?

A) People are primarily motivated by their desires to seek pleasure and avoid pain.

B) People are primarily motivated by factors of which they are not consciously aware.

C) People are primarily motivated by sexual and aggressive instincts.

D) People are primarily motivated by their desire to overcome perceived shortcomings.

E) People are primarily motivated by innate physiological processes.

23)

24) Quesha recently started college, and her freshman orientation includes information on date rape and personal safety. Quesha realizes that she has few, if any, self-defense skills, so if she were attacked she would have no way to fight back. Determined to become more competent, she joins a martial arts club at her university. According to Adler, A) Quesha is motivated by the need for an animus B) Quesha is motivated by the idea that women and men should be considered equal C) Quesha is striving to make any attacker feel incompetent D) Quesha is motivated by the need for self preservation E) Quesha is striving to replace her feelings of inferiority with those of superiority

24)

25) The most serious criticism of those who believe strongly in Freud's ideas of human development is that A) it is questionable whether Freudians are allowed to change their perspective B) it is questionable whether Freudians would accept research results that call for serious changes in the theory C) it is questionable whether Freudian researchers know how to do research D) it is likely that Freud planted ideas in his patients minds and created false memories E) Freudian researchers lack scientific integrity

25)

6

26) Which of the following people would most likely be considered a self-actualizer, according to Maslow?

A) John, who leaves his wife and children and runs off to Tahiti to "find himself" B) Vince, who is the "life of the party" and has many friends C) Marion, who is a stay-at-home mom and is totally devoted to her husband and children D) Kristen, who is working as a teacher but dreams of becoming an actress E) Lucy, who appreciates art, music, and philosophy

26)

27) Belinda is in counseling and feels that she is on the brink of bursting through her psychological cocoon and becoming a butterfly. Belinda's therapist agrees with Belinda and feels strongly that Belinda has the innate ability to cope with stress and to control her life. Belinda's therapist is most likely a A) gestalt therapist B) humanist C) behaviorist D) trait theorist E) psychoanalyst

27)

28) According to humanistic theory, a child who receives ________ from her parents is likely to avoid the problems associated with ________, which determine the circumstances under which people approve or disapprove of themselves.

A) unconditional positive regard; conditions of worth B) conditions of worth; positive self-regard needs C) rewards; role confusion D) self-consistency; threats E) unconditional positive regard; self-actualization needs

28)

29) According to Rogers, a child who experiences regular punishment from parents and is only rewarded for good behavior is likely to develop knowledge of ________ A) conditions of self-hate B) situational worth C) positive self-regard D) conditions of worth E) unconditional positive regard

29)

30) Walter Mischel argued that, in regard to the persistence of personality characteristics A) Personality traits are rigidly fixed and never change.

B) Fully self-actualized individuals are able to modify their own personality traits.

C) For an individual, behavior is completely consistent.

D) Personality characteristics can change according to the situation.

E) Personality characteristics often change dramatically over a lifetime.

30)

7

31) Which of the following is NOT a method proposed by Rogers to develop a more positive self-concept?

A) unconditional positive regard B) defense mechanisms C) genuineness D) empathy E) self-acceptance

31)

32) Brittney is a counselor who believes that her clients have the innate ability to make good choices. She accepts each individual as they are and as a person in the process of change. It is important to her that her clients learn to evaluate themselves and not depend on the opinion of others. Brittney is practicing A) Jungian counseling B) social cognitive counseling C) psychoanalytic counseling D) trait exploration E) humanistic counseling

32)

33) What did Freud think about personality change?

A) Personality is not affected by parents influence on the ego.

B) Personality is set by age 6.

C) Personality is set by age 30.

D) Personality sets in early childhood but then changes during college years.

E) Personality is fluid and constantly changing.

33)

34) A psychoanalytic theorist who wants to criticize humanistic theories of personality but does NOT want to be critical of his own perspective would most likely point out which of the following?

A) Humanistic theories engage in circular reasoning by confusing explanation and description.

B) Humanistic theories rely too heavily on people's conscious reports of their experiences.

C) Humanistic theories have too many concepts that are hard to operationally define.

D) Humanistic theories are much too open to interpretation and examination by others.

E) Humanistic theories have failed to generate any additional research.

34)

8

35) Which of the following accurately describes how factor analysis is used to identify personality traits?

A) Factor analysis identifies single factors that are unrelated to others under study.

B) Factor analysis guides researchers who use projective tests.

C) Factor analysis permits trait inferences by examining people's responses to ambiguous stimuli.

D) Factor analysis allows researchers to create operational definitions of theoretically generated personality traits.

E) Factor analysis identifies clusters of highly correlated specific behaviors that are assumed to reflect a single factor.

35)

36) Octavia enjoys being around others and is well-known for her social grace. She is warm and engaging with everyone she meets regardless of whether the setting is the classroom, her workplace, a restaurant, or her own home. Since Octavia has a fairly stable way of relating to other people, we can say that her behavior is probably A) due to the Electra complex B) due to a strong Ego C) related to her desire for achievement D) a manifestation of her superego E) a manifestation of a personality trait

36)

37) What traits increase over the life span?

A) Conscientiousness and agreeableness B) Conscientiousness and creativity C) Agreeableness and humility D) Neuroticism and jealousy E) Jealousy and determination

37)

38) A person who is softhearted, trusting, and helpful might score high on what trait?

A) Introversion B) Conscientiousness C) Openness D) Agreeableness E) Extraversion

38)

39) A person who is reserved and private is low on what trait?

A) Neuroticism B) Openness C) Extraversion D) Agreeableness E) Introversion

39)

9

40) A person who is anxious and insecure is high on what trait?

A) Agreeableness B) Extraversion C) Determinism D) Openness E) Neuroticism

40)

41) Which statement best describes the relationship between neuroticism and emotion?

A) Neuroticism is a personality trait and therefore not related to emotional experience.

B) Neuroticism is related to extreme emotions, both positive and negative.

C) Neuroticism is related to feeling more negative mood.

D) Neuroticism is related to feeling more positive mood.

E) Neuroticism is related to the inability to interpret emotions accurately.

41)

42) If all you know about a person is that she is liberal, smart, and tolerant, what trait is she likely high on?

A) Emotional stability B) Openness C) Intelligence D) Agreeableness E) Conscientiousness

42)

43) What does "personology" refer to?

A) The study of how individuals operate within groups B) The study of the whole person C) An old, outdated term for personality psychology D) The study of the bumps on a person's head E) Positive psychology

43)

10

44) Your roommate hates listening to the news reports and refuses to read a newspaper.

He claims that people are getting worse and worse and that older people are just as irresponsible and mean as younger ones. Does the evidence support your roommate's position?

A) No, longitudinal research studies on personality show that, as they age, people become progressively more agreeable.

B) Yes, longitudinal research studies on personality show that people at all ages are becoming progressively less tolerant.

C) Yes, longitudinal research studies on personality show that people at all ages are becoming progressively more neurotic.

D) No, longitudinal research studies on personality show that people at all ages are becoming progressively more open.

E) No, longitudinal research cannot identify any correlations related to age and irresponsibility.

44)

45) If you are optimistic at age 20, we would expect you to be ________ at age 60.

A) conscientious B) cautious C) pessimistic D) cynical E) optimistic

45)

46) Susie is a typical extravert while her brother, Ed, is more of an introvert. Their mother, Marge, is worried that Ed isn't as emotionally happy and content as Susie and that he is socially anxious. As a psychology major familiar with the most recent research on this topic, you A) disagree with Marge's assessment and argue that Ed is probably NOT unhappy, socially anxious, or distressed B) tell Marge that there is no research that can assess a correlation between introversion and personality traits C) disagree with Marge's assessment but warns Marge NOT to leave Ed alone and to try to transform him into an extravert D) confirm Marge's fear that Ed is basically more unhappy than Susie E) confirm Marge's fear that Ed is basically more emotionally unstable than Susie

46)

47) A person who is intellectual, imaginative, and has a broad range of interests would mostly likely score highly on a measure of A) creativity B) openness C) extraversion D) agreeableness E) conscientiousness

47)

11

48) What aspect of Type A behavior is most strongly related to heart disease?

A) Anal retentiveness B) Assertiveness C) Hostility D) Competitiveness E) Impatience

48)

49) If you enter your boss's office and notice that only the front edge of his or her chair is worn, what might you conclude?

A) Your boss exhibits the Type B behavior pattern.

B) Your boss is very neurotic.

C) Your boss exhibits the Type A behavior pattern.

D) Your boss is very focused.

E) Your boss is very conscientious.

49)

50) ________ theories combine the behavioral and cognitive perspectives into an approach to personality that stresses the interaction of a thinking human with a social environment that provides learning experiences.

A) Social-cognitive B) Humanistic C) Psychodynamic D) Psychoanalytic E) Trait

50)

12

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

51) Shawn is a shy, creative young man. He enjoys playing video games, is very competitive when he is playing the games, and spends hours on the computer. In school he does not participate in class discussions and does not seem to be very interested in socializing with other students. His father was a computer game designer who passed away 2 years ago. Shawn's mom works two jobs and is not home much, and when she is home complains about how much time Shawn spends on the computer. Shawn's grades have been dropping ever since his dad's death and he has been fighting with his best friend, who also thinks he spends too much time alone. He started smoking about 6 months ago and his mom has been complaining about it. He told his counselor at school that he wants to design games like his father did but is afraid his mother will be disappointed with his decision. He does not want to disappoint his mom, but feels that playing the games is a way he can gain insight and skills that will help him in his career choice. When asked about his grades dropping, Shawn explains that he is not good at anything except gaming and he may as well not bother with subjects that will not be useful to him in his future. He feels guilty but also is determined to do what he wants to do with his life.

Personality theories would analyze Shawn's behaviors in different ways. Define each of the following concepts and use an example related to Shawn's situation that relates to the concept.

• displacement • introvert • reciprocal determinism • superego • learned helplessnesS • self-efficacy

52) The Big Five factors of personality —the broad traits that are thought to describe the main dimensions of personality—are neuroticism, extraversion, openness to experience, agreeableness, and conscientiousness.

Explain each dimension of personality and provide an example of how it is related to a personality trait or behavior an individual might display.

13

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED12

1) E 2) E 3) E 4) B 5) C 6) A 7) B 8) B 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) B 13) A 14) D 15) E 16) A 17) A 18) C 19) D 20) D 21) B 22) D 23) D 24) E 25) B 26) E 27) B 28) A 29) D 30) D 31) B 32) E 33) B 34) B 35) E 36) E 37) A 38) D 39) C 40) E 41) C 42) B 14

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED12

43) B 44) A 45) E 46) A 47) B 48) C 49) C 50) A 51) Scoring Guide for Question 1: Answers should be written in complete sentences.

Samples below are NOT exclusive but provide examples to help grade the question. The examples must relate to the situation described in the question. The total number of points for this question is 12.

Points 1 and 2: Displacement is a defense mechanism used when a person is dealing with anxiety.

Shawn is taking out his frustration, maybe his sadness over his father's death, on his best friend who is not at fault.

Points 3 and 4: Introverted personalities are less sociable and spend time with a few people rather than lots of people. They may appear shy, and may spend more time alone but they enjoy being alone and they do not need to be around a lot of people. Shawn enjoys playing games, does not feel as comfortable in the classroom, and does not need to socialize with others.

Points 5 and 6: Reciprocal determinism is a social cognitive concept. Personality is a result of the interaction of the individual, his environment, and how he thinks. The individuals thoughts affect how he behaves; his behavior affects how he thinks; his social environment affects both and these factors are interrelated. Shawn's behaviors are affected by his father's death, his mother's behaviors, his own personal thoughts and feelings as well as his home and school environments.

Points 7 and 8: Superego, a psychodynamic concept, relates to the conscience and the part of the personality Freud said was a result of the influence of parents. It affects the decisions of the ego. Shawn is worried his mom will be disappointed in him and feels guilty about his behavior. But he does not know what to do about it.

Points 9 and 10: Learned helplessness occurs when an individual thinks that there is nothing he can do to change the situation he is in, giving up and not seeing what he can do to change things.

Even when options are presented, the feeling that one cannot change his situation may persist. Shawn may be feeling this way, since he is not doing well in school and failing, but does not think he can do anything to change the situation.

15

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED12

Points 11 ad 12: Self-efficacy is the belief that one can master a situation and produce positive outcomes. Bandura has shown that self-efficacy is related to a number of positive developments; problem solving, becoming more sociable, starting and maintaining diet and exercise regiments, and quitting smoking. Self-efficacy determines whether or not someone will attempt to develop healthy habits. Shawn is not feeling this way, and is not sociable or participating in healthy behavior habits.

52) Scoring Guide for Question 2: Answers should be written in complete sentences.

Samples below are NOT exclusive but provide examples to help grade the question. The total number of points for this question is 10.

Points 1 and 2: Neuroticism is related to feeling negative emotion more often than positive emotion in one's daily life and to experiencing more lingering negative states.

Neuroticism has been shown as well to relate to more health complaints. In a longitudinal study, individuals were tracked for nearly seven years. Neuroticism was associated with dying during the study. In general, neurotic individuals appear to suffer in silence: Acquaintances and observers have difficulty detecting how neurotic another person is.

Points 3 and 4: Individuals high in extraversion are more likely than others to engage in social activities and to experience gratitude and a strong sense of meaning in life. In addition, extraverts are more forgiving. People rate extraverts as smiling and standing energetically and as dressing stylishly and observers know an extravert when they see one. One study found that extraverted salespeople sold more cars, especially if they were also good at picking up interpersonal cues.

Points 5 and 6: Openness to experience is related to liberal values, open-mindedness, tolerance, and creativity. Openness is also associated with superior cognitive functioning and IQ across the life span.

Individuals who rate themselves as open to experience are more likely to dress distinctively, to pursue entrepreneurial goals (for instance, starting their own business), and to experience success in those pursuits. Individuals high on openness to experience are also more likely to interact with others on Internet websites and to use social media.

Points 7 and 8: Agreeablenessis related to generosity and altruism, to reports of religious faith, and to more satisfying romantic relationships. There are also links between agreeableness and viewing other people positively. In online dating profiles, agreeable individuals are less likely than people who score low on this trait to lie about themselves.

Points 9 and 10: Conscientiousnessis a key factor in a variety of life domains. Researchers have found that conscientiousness is positively related to high school and college students' grade point averages.

Conscientiousness is also linked to better quality friendships, to higher levels of religious faith, and to a forgiving attitude. Conscientiousness is associated with dressing neatly, especially in the case of men 16

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED12

and, like openness, is related to entrepreneurial success. Low levels of conscientiousness are associated with criminal behavior and substance abuse.

17

Prof.Exams Chapter 13- Social Psychology

TB-The Science of Psychology3E|Laura King

Chapter 13- Social Psychology MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Babyface Nelson, so named because of his youthful appearance, was one of the most ruthless and dangerous gangsters in United States history. Based on person perception research findings, what kind of person do most people expect when they encounter someone with a babyish face?

A) We expect baby-faced individuals to be more open to new ideas than individuals with more mature faces.

B) We expect baby-faced individuals to be naïve, weak, honest, and less competent than individuals with more mature faces.

C) We expect baby-faced individuals to be more prone to acting out of control than individuals with more mature faces.

D) We expect baby-faced individuals to be smarter and more trusting than individuals with more mature faces.

E) We expect baby-faced individuals to be less likely to make smart decisions and trust them less that mature looking individuals.

1)

2) You have been asked to assist a defense attorney to plan how to best present a defendant's case. You insist that all the defense character witnesses be above average in looks. What is the most likely reason for your request?

A) The "beautiful is good" stereotype will cause the jurors to infer unstable attributions to the defendant.

B) The "beautiful is good" stereotype will facilitate the stereotype threat in the jury.

C) The "beautiful is good" stereotype will make the defense case more credible.

D) The "beautiful is good" stereotype will facilitate positive illusions in the judge.

E) The "beautiful is good" stereotype will facilitate positive illusions in the jury.

2)

3) Research suggests that which of the following faces would be rated as most attractive?

A) A face with unusually small ears and unusually large eyes B) A composite face of individuals from the same ethnic group blended to be very attractive C) A composite face of multiple faces that have been digitally blended to produce an "average" face D) A face in which the distinctive features of the face have been digitally enhanced E) A face with an unusually small forehead and unusually large lips

3)

1

4) Parents warn a new babysitter that their son, Dennis, is very aggressive and mischievous. As a result of this initial expectation, the babysitter starts calling Dennis, "Dennis the Menace" and he behaves in ways that elicit aggressive and mischievous behaviors from Dennis. This example best demonstrates the phenomenon called A) the self-fulfilling prophecy B) self-gratification C) the self-serving bias D) social conditioning E) the fundamental attribution error

4)

5) Carl Word and his colleagues (1974) found that white college students who were assumed to hold prejudiced attitudes already toward blacks sat farther away, conducted briefer interviews, and made more speech errors when interviewing black students. Which of the following constructs most readily explains the results from this study?

A) Social facilitation B) Self-fulfilling prophecies C) Group polarization D) Stereotype threat E) Group think

5)

6) A study by Robert Rosenthal and Lenore Jacobson (1968) found that children who were labeled as "late bloomers" at the start of the school year showed larger IQ gains than other, non-labeled students, even though these particular children were chosen randomly. The children's teachers were informed about these labels but the students themselves were not. The results from this study are most relevant to which of the following?

A) Self-esteem B) Self-fulfilling prophecy C) Mere exposure effect D) Dissonance theory E) Self-serving bias

6)

7) ________ theory contends that behaviors can cause attitudes.

A) Self-perception B) Self-determination C) Cognitive dissonance D) Self-serving E) Social comparison

7)

2

8) Chuck just met Elle Woods, a new Harvard law school student. Although Elle is very intelligent, she looks more like a blonde beauty queen than a law school student.

Chuck thinks that someone as beautiful as Elle is much less likely to do well in school. It seems that Chuck has a(n) ________ about beautiful blondes.

A) attribution B) a prejudice C) stereotype D) a negative delusion E) a negative illusion

8)

9) The fifth-grade teacher was surprised when her Japanese-American student, Hiroko, performed poorly in math. The teacher's reaction was due to A) polarization B) stereotyping C) groupthink D) deindividuation E) depersonalization

9)

10) You believe that your roommate didn't clean up the dirty dishes in the kitchen last night because he was exhausted after an unusually busy day at work. You are making a(n) ________ attribution.

A) prejudiced B) biased C) internal D) institutional E) external

10)

11) Within the context of a person trying to explain why she did well on a psychology exam, an internal attribution is to an external attribution as ________ is to ________.

A) intelligence; an easy test B) an easy test; luck C) luck; hard work D) personal interest; mandatory work E) hard work; intelligence

11)

12) According to self-perception theory, if you're not sure how you feel about something, what should you do?

A) Look to your emotions B) Ask a friend C) Look at your behavior D) Make a decision quickly E) Compare yourself to others

12)

3

13) Why people behave the way they do is interesting to social psychologists. Which of the following behaviors occurred due to a stable cause?

A) A man breaks up with his girlfriend when he finds out she cheated on him.

B) A woman breaks up with her boyfriend when she finds out he hates kids.

C) A company lays off 10 employees because of economic downturn.

D) A family is homeless after a tornado destroys their home.

E) A college student is lonely during the first semester on campus.

13)

14) You are watching golf and see Tiger Woods scowl. You would be making the fundamental attribution error if you assumed that A) he has a volatile personality B) he was bothered by a comment from the galley C) he thought it looked like it was going to rain D) he was thrown off by the flash of a camera E) he just missed a putt

14)

15) Your new roommate leaves dirty laundry all over her room and you assume she must be a slob. You ignore the fact that she is currently taking finals and working 40 hours per week. You are making a(n) A) availability error B) universality mistake C) fundamental attribution error D) availability heuristic E) confirmation bias

15)

16) When you do poorly on a test, you remind yourself of all the distractions you had at school that week. You may be displaying the A) self-serving bias B) confirmation bias C) self-objectification effect D) availability error E) displaced aggression effect

16)

17) Research has reported that ________ is the key social emotion involved with altruism.

A) love B) sympathy C) honesty D) empathy E) kindness

17)

4

18) Despite evidence to the contrary, Denise thinks she is smarter than most of the people in her class. Denise's unfounded attitude about herself is an example of A) an egotistic delusion B) a positive illusion C) a positive delusion D) a negative delusion E) an egotistic illusion

18)

19) Mary and her roommate are at the mall shopping for bathing suits for their upcoming spring break trip to the beach. Mary has an afternoon math test but feels she has plenty of time to find a bathing suit. By the time she leaves the mall for her exam, Mary has tried on a dozen different swim suits. Based on principles of social psychology, what can you predict about Mary's math test performance?

A) Mary's math test performance will be a function of how well she has studied.

B) Mary's math test performance will suffer because of self-objectification.

C) Mary's math test performance will suffer because she spent too much time at the mall.

D) Mary's math test performance will be better because of self-objectification.

E) Mary's math test performance will not change despite how well she studies.

19)

20) Lucy has a very high opinion of herself. This means that she will A) more likely be unhappy B) more likely be delusional C) more likely be judged as conceited by others D) more likely be judged positively by others E) less likely be delusional

20)

21) Because of the ________, most Democrats were surprised that George Bush, a Republican, won the majority of the popular vote in the 2004 presidential election.

A) positive consensus effect B) fundamental attribution error C) false consensus effect D) positive attribution effect E) negative attribution effect

21)

22) You watch as another student stumbles and drops her books in the hall. According to the fundamental attribution error, how would you explain the student's behavior?

A) She was probably lost and confused about where her classroom was.

B) She must have tripped over something.

C) She was trying to get out of someone else's way.

D) She couldn't help it; there were too many books to carry.

E) She is a clumsy person.

22)

5

23) Cindy recently played in a softball game in which she misplayed a ground ball for an error. Later in the same game, she made a great catch on a very difficult play.

According to the self-serving bias, she would attribute her error to ________ and her good catch to ________.

A) a bad bounce; good fielding skills B) a bad bounce; good luck C) bad fielding skills; luck D) bad fielding skills; good fielding skills E) bad luck; good luck

23)

24) Based on Steele's (1997) research on stereotype threat, we should be especially concerned about instructions for standardized tests if they A) ask for race/ethnic information BEFORE the test starts B) ask for race/ethnic information AFTER the test starts C) ask for names BEFORE the test starts D) are administered by men and women from different racial/ethnic backgrounds E) are culturally/racially sensitive

24)

25) You're are African American and your son, DeShawn, is in high school. DeShawn has been selected to take a national math test that could result in a college scholarship. On the basis of Claude Steele's findings with stereotype threat, you instruct DeShawn to NOT fill in any information regarding his race before he takes the exam. Why? A) Claude Steele's research indicates that providing racial identity information on an exam can make it easier for the test administrators to falsify the exam scores.

B) Claude Steele's research indicates that it is better to fill out the information after the exam has been completed when it is less likely to confuse you.

C) Claude Steele's research indicates that white Americans are threatened by African American males in testing situations.

D) Claude Steele's research indicates that providing racial identity information on an exam could trigger stereotype threat in DeShawn.

E) Claude Steele's research indicates that African American males are a stereotypical threat to white Americans in all situations.

25)

26) ________ is a neurotransmitter that has been linked to aggressive behavior when the levels of this chemical are too low.

A) Epinephrine B) Dopamine C) Testosterone D) Serotonin E) Norepinephrine

26)

6

27) If a male teenager plays with a gun and then acts aggressively, what might be the cause of the increased aggression?

A) Playing with the gun raised the boy's level of testosterone.

B) Playing with the gun was irrelevant to the increase in aggressive behavior.

C) Playing with the gun reminds the boy of the violent movie he watched.

D) Playing with the gun reduced activity in the boy's limbic system.

E) Playing with the gun lowered the boy's estrogen.

27)

28) Based on information presented in your textbook, how could negative stereotyping translate into racial/ethnic/gender discrimination?

A) Those that have been discriminated against will overtly blame themselves before they blame others.

B) Those that would negatively stereotype someone would not also overtly discriminate against them.

C) Those that would negatively stereotype someone would also covertly discriminate against them.

D) Research on stereotype threat shows that those in authority will more likely falsify minority test results.

E) Research on stereotype threat shows that negative stereotyping can cause a self-fulfilling tendency in its victims.

28)

29) "Am I as popular as Cathy?" This question is an example of gaining self-knowledge through the process of A) wishful thinking B) social comparison C) peripheral attribute D) individual comparison E) peer-review

29)

30) According to research cited in your book, which statement best reflects the relationship between self-esteem and aggression?

A) Aggression precipitates changes in self-esteem.

B) There is no relationship between self-esteem and aggression.

C) Depending on the study, high and low self-esteem are related to increased aggression.

D) Only high self-esteem is related to increased aggression.

E) Only low self-esteem is related to increased aggression.

30)

7

31) Cognitive dissonance theory states that individuals A) change behavior in order to be more popular B) change attitudes in order to be more popular C) do not perceive a discrepancy between attitudes and behavior D) try to make attitudes conform to behavior E) try to make attitudes conform to the majority opinion

31)

32) "Drinking may be harmful to my health, but I'll die having a good time." This statement illustrates an attempt to reduce A) attitude inconsistency B) cognitive dissonance C) moral inconsistency D) a classical dilemma E) the exposure effect

32)

33) Hugh bought a new calculator at Staples for $125. One week later, he saw an ad from Walmart showing the same calculator on sale for $65. Hugh said to himself, "I'm glad I got my calculator at Staples; the ones at Walmart are probably defective. I don't mind having paid more for mine." Hugh's statement reflects A) informational influence B) cognitive dissonance reduction C) self-perception bias D) differential association E) peripheral-route processing

33)

34) Juanita returned home after being away for several years. When she saw her father, whom she thought she disliked, she hugged him and cried. Based on her crying when she saw him, she determined that she must like him more than she thought. This is most consistent with the ________ of attitudes.

A) self-perception theory B) reactance theory C) self-esteem theory D) social learning theory E) balance theory

34)

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35) Mr. Wartle's high school students will soon be going to college. He would like to protect them from getting into financial trouble by opening up credit card accounts.

He uses a technique that involves giving them a weak version of the advertisement for a credit card and letting them argue against being persuaded by the ad. This technique is called A) Inoculation B) False comparison effect C) Foot-in-the-door D) Door-in-the-face E) Elaboration

35)

36) In Solomon Asch's study on conformity, approximately what percentage of participants conformed to the group's pressure to select the incorrect line?

A) About 50% of the participants B) All of the participants C) About 35% of the participants D) None of the participants E) About 90% of the participants

36)

37) When people pay close attention to the facts, the ________ is (are) the most persuasive, but when subjects are not paying full attention, such as during a television commercial, the ________ may work better.

A) emotional factors; attractiveness of the source B) emotional factors; credibility of the source C) message of the source; attractiveness of the source D) opinion of the source; importance of the message E) source's credibility; emotional factors

37)

38) Allison is at a workshop where a presenter is attempting to persuade people to make a rather risky but potentially profitable financial investment. After carefully considering the presenter's arguments, Allison finds this person's idea compelling and decides to invest. This example best demonstrates the A) door-in-the-face technique B) peripheral route to persuasion C) central route to persuasion D) decision making process E) norm of reciprocity

38)

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39) In his work on altruism, Dale Miller challenges the assumption that all people are inherently selfish. What statement best reflects his position?

A) People are socialized to be altruistic and usually do help others.

B) People are socialized to be altruistic but don't always follow through.

C) People are socialized to accept that humans are selfish because they are gullible.

D) People are socialized to believe humans are selfish, but they really are not.

E) People are socialized to believe humans are selfish, and they are.

39)

40) The advertising committee for a politician is going door to door and asking people to put a big ugly election sign on their lawn. If the people refuse, they ask them if they would consider putting a smaller sign on the lawn. The staff is using A) the foot-in-the-door strategy B) a negative appeal C) the door-in-the-face strategy D) a positive appeal E) the elaboration likelihood model

40)

41) A person on campus walks up to you and asks if you would be willing to wear a ribbon to show support for her cause. Though the ribbon is a bit unattractive, it is small so you agree to wear it. After agreeing to this request, the solicitor then asks you if you would be willing to make a donation of $15. This example best demonstrates the persuasion technique called A) lowballing B) the door-in-the-face C) the norm of reciprocity D) the foot-in-the-door E) highballing

41)

42) Joyce has the potential to be an honor student but frustrates her teachers because of her actions. Rather than working to succeed, she tends to "dummy down" to act more like the students that she hangs out with. She has at times answered questions incorrectly in class on purpose to be more like her friends. Which of the following perspectives would explain this?

A) Defense mechanisms B) Interactional social influence C) Cognitive social influence D) Normative social influence E) Informational social influence

42)

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43) The implication that ethnic outgroups are not only different, but are worse than your group is called A) ethnocentrism B) deindividuation C) scapegoating D) groupthink E) social identity

43)

44) Conformity is to obedience as A) Zajonc is to Milgram B) Zimbardo is to Asch C) Asch is to Milgram D) Milgram is to Zajonc E) Milgram is to Sherif

44)

45) The results of the Milgram study are particularly shocking because A) the subjects volunteered to be the "teacher" rather than the "learner" B) Milgram violated the ethical principles of his time C) the experimenter had no real power to force the subjects to comply D) the majority of participants who went all the way to 450 volts did so quite happily E) the subjects were coerced and never questioned the teacher

45)

46) According to ________, your feelings about a relationship are a function of how fair you feel the relationship is or whether you feel you get out as much as you put in.

A) the investment model B) social esteem theory C) the evolutionary approach D) social exchange theory E) social identity theory

46)

47) The ________ model proposes that relationships are likely to continue as long as there aren't any attractive tempting alternative options.

A) humanistic B) investment C) social exchange D) evolutionary E) social identity

47)

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48) Norman Triplett accurately predicted that bicycle-racing times would be faster when individuals raced ________. This effect is currently explained by the modern construct called ________.

A) in groups; group polarization B) separately; the primacy effect C) in groups; social facilitation D) in groups; groupthink E) separately; cognitive dissonance

48)

49) According to social loafing, if you have five people competing as one team in a tug-of-war contest, their combined effort level is likely to be A) more than the sum of their individual abilities B) the same for men, but different for women C) the same for women, but different for men D) less than the sum of their individual abilities E) the same as the sum of their individual abilities

49)

50) Dr. McCall found that class projects were of poorer quality when students worked in groups compared to when each student did an individual project. This difference can be explained by the phenomenon of A) the sleeper effect B) polarization C) competition D) social loafing E) groupthink

50)

12

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

51) Every day at school you observe the concepts you have studied in the chapter on social psychology through the behaviors of other students in your classes, in the hallways and on your sport teams. For each concept listed below, provide a definition and an example of a behavior you have witnessed in the school environment.

• fundamental attribution error • cognitive dissonance • social loafing • risky shift • confirmation bias • group facilitation

52) Sandy has been working on a new book and video that she believes will help students who need to work on the skills they need to interview successfully for internships and jobs. She wants to sell the book/video at the campus book store and has been thinking about how to advertise and get her message out to the students at the college. Considering all of the students are concerned about getting a job when they graduate, Sandy has been trying to develop an ad campaign that will address their concerns, interest them in her book, and selling her products.

Each of the following concepts are important to helping Sandy develop her advertising campaign and targeting her audience to buy her book/video. Provide a definition for each term and an example to show how each of the following might affect Sandy's decisions in developing her ad campaign or motivate students to purchase her products.

• central route to persuasion • peripheral route to persuasion • foot-in-the-door phenomenon • self-efficacy • social comparison • normative social influence

13

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED13

1) B 2) C 3) C 4) A 5) B 6) B 7) A 8) C 9) B 10) E 11) A 12) C 13) B 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) B 19) B 20) D 21) C 22) E 23) A 24) A 25) D 26) D 27) A 28) E 29) B 30) C 31) D 32) B 33) B 34) A 35) A 36) C 37) E 38) C 39) D 40) C 41) D 42) D 14

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED13

43) A 44) C 45) C 46) D 47) B 48) C 49) D 50) D 51) Scoring Guide for Question 1: Answers should be written in complete sentences.

Samples below are NOT exclusive but provide examples to help grade the question. The examples must relate to the situation described in the question. The total number of points for this question is 12 Points 1 and 2: Fundamental attribution error means that people overestimate the importance of traits and underestimate the importance of situations when they explain the behavior of others. When a student curses or walks down the hall and punches his locker, you say "What a jerk!" and think he can't control his temper. You do not think about the fact that he just got notice he is not graduating or that he did not get his acceptance letter to the college of his choice.

Points 3 and 4: Cognitive dissonance occurs when there is an inconsistency between one's attitudes and behavior. In order to resolve the dissonance, the inconsistency has to be resolved. A student you know cheated on a test, says she feels bad about it and does not like to cheat but since two other students were cheating she believes it is ok in this case since they will upset the teachers' curve. She changes her attitude to lessen the anxiety she feels over her behavior.

Points 5 and 6: Social loafing occurs when people in a group work less hard than they would individually. You do not like working in cooperative learning groups because your partners never seem to work as hard as you do.

Points 7 and 8: Risky shift involves group decisions being riskier than individual decisions. At school you hear students talking about buying alcohol for their party from some guy that you know that sells drugs to kids. You tell them about this but they all ignore you, saying that they are not buying drugs and there is nothing to worry about.

Points 9 and 10: Confirmation bias occurs when an individual looks for information that supports their ideas or opinions and ignore information to the contrary. You are in a debate with students over the new health care bill and you try to find information in the paper and online that supports your decision about why it is better than the way it used to be. You ignore the information on how it has affected the elderly in a negative way and how some people cannot go to the doctors of their choice. You only focus on how all children now have to have health care and how children can be covered until they are 26 15

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED13

yrs. old on their parent's policy.

Points 11 and 12: Group facilitation is the improvement of an individual's performance because of the presence of others. In gymnastics practice you work to perfect your vaults and you always perform best in the meet in front of the audience.

52) Scoring Guide for Question 2: Answers should be written in complete sentences.

Samples below are NOT exclusive but provide examples to help grade the question. The examples must relate to the situation described in the question. The total number of points for this question is 12.

Points 1 and 2: The central route to persuasion works by engaging someone thoughtfully with a sound, logical argument. The central route is more persuasive when people have the ability and the motivation to pay attention to the facts. Sandy could hold 15-30 minutes meetings in the student center during meal times to talk directly to students about the specific skills they will develop if they use her products.

Points 3 and 4: The peripheral route involves non-message factors such as the source's credibility and attractiveness or emotional appeals. The peripheral route is effective when people are not paying close attention or do not have the time or energy to think about what the communicator is saying. Television advertisers often use the peripheral route to persuasion on the assumption that during the commercials you are probably not paying full attention to the screen. Sandy could run 30 second ads on the campus TV station and radio station, using student testimonials to attract buyers.

Points 5 and 6: Foot-in-the-door phenomenon is usually present when a small request is made of an individual and when the person complies with or agrees with the request then a larger request is made to the same individual. Sandy could provide a sample chapter from the book, free, to students online or hard copies passed out in the student center, book store, or library to hook students.

Points 7 and 8: Self-efficacy is a belief about one's own ability or inability. In deciding to purchase this book and video, students need to be convinced that they will benefit from its content and it will help them with developing skills for interviews. Inventories could be used to attract students to find out what their current skills are and determine if they might need the product to make them more capable and this could affect their decision to buy the product. Short workshops might be used to attract students, especially targeting seniors on campus.

Points 9 and 10: Social comparison is the process by which we evaluate our thoughts, feelings, behaviors, and abilities in relation to other people. Social comparison helps us to evaluate ourselves, tells us what our distinctive characteristics are, and aids us in building an identity. If Sandy shows individuals in her ads or at her workshops that have the abilities and skills that she is promoting in her products that will aid students in their interviews, then students will compare themselves to these 16

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED13

individuals and this may motivate them to buy the products.

Points 11 and 12: Normative social influence results from people's desire to gain social approval.

College students are probably very concerned about gaining approval from their peers and if they believe that this product will aid them in developing skills that will gain them acceptance and help them with social skills, they may buy the product. Sandy will want to use students in her ads that have personality and physical traits that would be acceptable to students she is targeting, representing the norms of the campus student population.

17

Prof.Exams Chapter 14- Industrial and Organizational Psychology

TB-The Science of Psychology3E|Laura King

Chapter 14- Industrial and Organizational Psychology MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Industrial and organizational (I/O) psychology is A) the psychological study of industries and organizations themselves B) industries and organizations devoted to the study of psychology C) psychology conducted by industries and organizations D) the science of industry and how organizations relate to products they develop E) the science of psychology applied to work and the workplace

1)

2) Becca is asked by her employer to write up a description of her job that focuses on the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to do the work. What is her employer asking to her write?

A) a job evaluation B) a KSA (or KSAO) C) a performance evaluation D) a case study E) a structured interview

2)

3) How does vacation time compare between Europe and the United States?

A) Americans typically take twice as much vacation time as Europeans.

B) Americans typically take half as much vacation time as Europeans.

C) Europeans typically take three times as much vacation as Americans.

D) Europeans and Americans typically take similar amounts of vacation time.

E) Americans typically take three times as much vacation time as Europeans.

3)

4) Contemporary I/O psychology has its roots in A) the industrial revolution B) the history of industry and two world wars C) the technological revolution D) the two world wars E) the Great Depression

4)

5) Scientific management includes A) the philosophy that business is a social organization B) the philosophy that managers must learn scientific principles C) the philosophy that the worker must be psychoanalyzed to be managed D) the philosophy that scientific rigor supersedes efficiency at work E) the philosophy that the worker is a well-oiled machine

5)

1

6) The pioneer of scientific management was A) Elton Mayo B) Bill Gates C) Frederick Winslow Taylor D) Henry Ford E) Lillian Gilbreth

6)

7) Best known for conducting time and motion studies in the early 1900s were A) Frederick and Winslow Taylor B) Bill Gates and Donald Trump C) Henry Ford and Frank Rockwell D) Frank and Lillian Gilbreth E) Elton Mayo and Henry Ford

7)

8) Who invented the assembly line?

A) Henry Ford B) Elton Mayo C) Eli Whitney D) Frank and Lillian Gilbreth E) Frederick Winslow Taylor

8)

9) Whom did Henry Ford bring in to conduct time and motion studies to perfect the assembly line?

A) Samuel Morse B) Ford did it himself.

C) Frank and Lillian Gilbreth D) Frederick Winslow Taylor E) Elton Mayo

9)

10) ________ is a field which combines psychology and engineering, and focuses on safety and efficiency of human-machine interactions.

A) artificial Intelligence B) psychogenics C) economics D) ergonomics E) psychometrics

10)

11) Which of the following terms originated in the field of ergonomics?

A) Industrial Revolution B) applied behavior analysis C) assembly lines D) applied psychology E) time and motion studied

11)

2

12) Today, ergonomics specialists have expertise in which of the following areas?

A) The study of social and environmental psychology B) The study of learning theories C) The study of perception, attention, and cognition D) All of these are areas in which ergonomics specialists today have expertise.

E) None of these areas are involved in ergonomics.

12)

13) Who conducted the Hawthorne studies?

A) Henry Ford B) Frederick Winslow Taylor C) Edward Thorndike D) Elton Mayo E) Frank and Lillian Gilbreth

13)

14) What does the Hawthorne effect mean?

A) People perform better when they are given attention B) People perform better when they are given feedback C) People perform better when they are given reinforcement D) People perform better when they are given incentives E) People perform best when they are not aware that they are being watched

14)

15) The process of scientifically determining the monetary value of a particular occupation is called A) KSOA B) performance appraisal C) economic analysis D) job analysis E) job evaluation

15)

16) Which of the following is a correct statement about the way the Hawthorne Studies affected research?

A) They had a big effect on the use of hands on management style.

B) They had no real effect on research as they were later found to be invalid.

C) They reinforced the principles of scientific management.

D) They confirmed the idea that what was good for business was good for the employee.

E) They moved research away from time and motion and toward human relations.

16)

3

17) The human relations approach emphasizes which of the following?

A) Seeing the workplace as a social system B) Morale, attitudes, and values of workers and managers C) The use of skilled workers in specific job functions D) The human relations approach emphasizes all of these E) Humane treatment of workers

17)

18) Which is a correct statement about comparing the Industrial and/or Organizational parts of I/O psychology?

A) The Organizational part is more concerned with efficiency, safety, and cost effectiveness.

B) The Industrial part is more concerned with human relations and feelings of fulfillment.

C) The Organizational part is more concerned with applying scientific methods to understanding the complex processes involved with workers and the workplace.

D) The Industrial part is more concerned with cheap labor and competition in markets.

E) The Industrial part is more concerned with increasing efficiency and productivity through human resources.

18)

19) Research in the area of Industrial Organization psychology has discovered that the best places to work in the United States are characterized by A) flexibility and diversity B) being learning-oriented and open in communication C) Both A and B are correct.

D) high wages and big cash incentives E) laissez-faire management

19)

20) Which of these is not an essential element of a job analysis?

A) It helps to identify specific job-related information.

B) It breaks the job down into small units.

C) It follows a systematic, present procedure.

D) It states the amount of demand for the particular job.

E) It leads to an employee manual characterizing the job.

20)

21) Which of these is not informed by job analysis?

A) Legal concerns such as fairness in job requirements and hiring B) Job seekers looking to match jobs to their skills and interests C) the determination of market wages and pay rates for occupations D) Analysis of performance evaluations E) Personnel decisions such as hiring

21)

4

22) Which of these is true regarding research on today's job applicant pool?

A) Applicants with connections to insiders do not work as hard on the job as those who applied without knowing anybody in the company.

B) Applicants who apply over the internet are better quality candidates than those applying in other ways.

C) Applicants who are best qualified will not provide as many personal recommendations.

D) Applicants who are qualified make a smaller pool today due to more specific job descriptions and technological advances.

E) Applicants applying online comprise such a wide range that it is harder to judge the quality of the candidates than those answering newspaper ads or applying in person.

22)

23) In a company seeking to decrease the rate of falsified reports by employees, hiring managers could try to evaluate the honesty of a job applicant using any or all of the following measures, except A) an integrity test B) a work sample C) a biographical inventory D) an interview E) a personality interview

23)

24) Which of these is true regarding interviews?

A) Structured interviews predict job performance better than unstructured interviews.

B) Unstructured interviews are no more prone to memory biases than structured ones.

C) Unstructured interviews predict job performance better than structured interviews.

D) Structured interviews can be used to predict, with great accuracy, who will never steal from a company.

E) Structured and unstructured interviews are equally predictive of job performance.

24)

25) The term interviewer illusion means A) the tendency of interviewers to believe their first impression of an applicant B) the tendency of interviewers to believe lies from a candidate if they are positive C) the tendency of interviewers to believe a candidate who flatters them personally D) the tendency of the interviewer to be subjective in their assessment of an applicant E) the tendency of interviewers to believe they can know the truth via an interview

25)

5

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

26) Psychologists who do research on job satisfaction have discovered many factors that relate to individuals, their attitudes and many aspects of their jobs.

Based on what you have learned about Industrial and Organizational psychology, answer each question with information you have learned from the research on job satisfaction.

• What are some predictors of job satisfaction?

• How do different predictors of job satisfaction vary for different jobs and cultures?

• Discuss how pay and the individual person (employee) are factors related to job satisfaction, their relative importance, and the evidence of these.

• How is job satisfaction related to other aspects of the job, and what are they?

27) Suppose that you are a manager. Describe how your management strategies would differ if you used a.) a transactional leadership style, and b.) a transformational leadership style. What is one important difference between transactional and transformational leadership?

Choose one of the two styles of leadership and explain how the manager might handle a situation in the office where two of his workers are competing for a promotion and they are becoming too focused on the competition which is affecting the office atmosphere and productivity.

6

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED14

1) E 2) B 3) C 4) B 5) E 6) C 7) D 8) A 9) D 10) D 11) D 12) D 13) D 14) A 15) E 16) E 17) D 18) E 19) C 20) D 21) C 22) B 23) B 24) A 25) E

7

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED14

26) Scoring Guide for Question 1: Answers should be written in complete sentences.

Samples below are NOT exclusive but provide examples to help grade the question. Each bulleted item must be explained with at least 1 example provided to further show an understanding of the factor being discussed. The total number of points for this question is 8.

Points 1 and 2: Some predictors of job satisfaction include the local leadership of the organization; the existence of development opportunities; social support; feedback from supervisors; pay; amount of control; amount of structure; the individual worker's emotional disposition; and the fit of the worker to the job.

Points 3 and 4: Cross-cultural research has found that the job satisfaction of doctors depends more on opportunities for professional development, while the job satisfaction of nurses depends more on social support at work and feedback from supervisors. Also, when stressors, which detract from job satisfaction, were compared for Indian and American clerical workers, they had different responses: In India, the worst stressor was identified as lack of structure, while in America lack of control was identified as the worst stressor.

Points 5 and 6: Research has revealed that pay is not as influential to job satisfaction as we might expect. Some minimum wage workers have high job satisfaction while some earning a six-figure salary have low job satisfaction. One study found that the worker's perception that his or her pay was fair was more related to job satisfaction than the actual amount paid to him or her (Cohen-Charash & Spector, 2001). A number of studies support the idea that the individual employee has considerable influence on job satisfaction. A longitudinal study shows that the emotional makeup of an individual was related to job satisfaction and remained stable over 50 years (Staw, Bell, & Clausen, 1986).

Points 7 and 8: Much research has also found that the fit of the person to the job is the most important aspect of job satisfaction (Verquer, Beehr, & Wagner, 2003). Job satisfaction is associated with lower job turnover and absenteeism (Crampton & Wagner, 1994), and increase in organizational citizenship behaviors (Organ & Ryan, 1995), and better performance (Judge et al, 2001).

8

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED14

27) Scoring Guide for Question 2: Answers should be written in complete sentences.

Samples below are NOT exclusive but provide examples to help grade the question. Examples will vary. The total number of points for this question is 8.

Points 1 and 2: If I were a transactional leader, I would focus on the relationship of exchange between myself and my workers. I would use rewards for good work and punishment for inadequate work to motivate workers. I would clarify objectives, tasks, and methods and answer questions for my workers.

I would give them structure to help them be organized and stay on task. I would probably not micro-manage, but would manage by exception, only intervening when needed. I would work within the existing system.

Points 3 and 4: If I were a transformational leader, I would focus on changing rules more than enforcing them. I would demonstrate to my workers my commitment to ethical behavior and inspire them to follow my example. I would encourage workers to do their best. I would be responsible for providing intellectual stimulation to my workers. I would communicate to them that their contribution is necessary and valuable. I would also give individualized concern for each worker's well-being.

Points 5 and 6: One important difference between the two types of leadership is that transactional leaders work within the context of the organizational culture, while transformational leaders are more interested in defining and then redefining that culture.

Points 7 and 8: Students responses will vary depending on which style they chose to discuss. To get the points at least 2 specific examples need to be used that apply to this situation and show how the individual style of the leader would handle the situation in the office of loss of productivity and the two individuals who are competing.

9

Prof.Exams Chapter 15- Psychological Disorders

TB-The Science of Psychology3E|Laura King

Chapter 15- Psychological Disorders MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Abnormal behavior can be influenced by biological factors (such as genes), psychological factors (such as childhood experiences), and sociocultural factors (such as gender). The theoretical approach that would study all three of these factors is known as A) biopsychosocial B) psychosocial C) medical D) sociocultural E) biopsychological

1)

2) Typically three criteria are judged for behavior to be labeled abnormal, along with considering the context in which the behavior is presented. Abnormal behavior is usually A) deviant, scary, and different than the norm B) unhealthy, different than the norm, and dangerous C) unusual, unexplainable, and different than the norm D) unusual, dangerous, and persistent E) deviant, maladaptive, and a cause for distress

2)

3) Peter is 36 years old and has been diagnosed with a psychological disorder. His doctor believes Peter's disorder stems from malfunctioning neurotransmitters in Peter's brain. The doctor seems to be using which of these to understand Peter's disorder?

A) The etiological model B) The medical model.

C) Bandura's model D) The biopyschosocial model E) The DSM model

3)

4) The distinction between an obsession and a compulsion is that an obsession is ________ while a compulsion is ________.

A) an anxiety-producing thought; a recurrent, ritualistic behavior B) neurotic; psychotic C) a cause for clinical concern; to be expected to occur occasionally in most people D) persistent; seen only occasionally, even in disordered individuals E) defined by the DSM; defined primarily by legal authorities

4)

1

5) Behavior that is maladaptive can be described as behavior that A) is very rare, seen in 2% or less of the general population.

B) seems odd, but rarely endangers oneself or others.

C) interferes with effective functioning in important areas of life.

D) that seems odd, but rarely seems to cause distress to a person.

E) is generally believed to deviate from the normal standards of behavior that society expects.

5)

6) Many people have incorrect beliefs about abnormal behavior. Which of the following statements is actually true, and not an incorrect assumption about abnormal behavior?

A) Most people in a society do not show symptoms of abnormal behaviors.

B) Abnormal behavior is always deviant.

C) Once people have a mental disorder, they will always have it.

D) Normal and abnormal behaviors are always different in kind.

E) People with mental disorders are always dangerous.

6)

7) If your roommate acts in a way that is unusual (i.e., deviant) and it interferes with her schoolwork (i.e., dysfunctional), what would you need to know before deciding whether the behavior is abnormal?

A) You would need to know her vulnerability factors.

B) You would need to know her current stressors.

C) You would need to know the religious meaning of her behavior.

D) You would need to know whether she finds the behavior distressing.

E) You would need to know the cause of the behavior.

7)

8) Thirty-year-old Armand feels compelled to save objects that others might throw away. He is afraid that he will discard something he will need later, so his home is filled with old junk. Armand's neighbors have complained and are embarrassed. The criteria that govern decisions about abnormality are applicable in this case because A) Armand's behavior is distressing for his neighbors B) Armand's behavior deviates from the norm and is distressing for him C) saving junk suggests that Armand is paranoid D) hoarding behavior is normal through adolescence but should disappear by the time the person is in his early- to mid-twenties E) Armand's behavior has drawn the attention of other people

8)

2

9) Jason is very depressed. He has trouble going to work every day and often feels that life holds few rewards. The ________ aspect(s) of abnormal behavior applies to Jason.

A) personally distressful B) deviant and dangerous C) maladaptive and personally distressful D) maladaptive E) context

9)

10) What is the name of the manual psychologists use to classify mental disorders?

A) DSMB) NEOC) WAIS D) NCLB E) APA 5 R

10)

11) An implication of the medical model is that A) it can be applied by nonprofessionals as well as professionals B) the individual should not be blamed for the disorder C) the individual is the cause of abnormality D) the individual must be treated by a psychiatrist E) psychotherapy is preferred over medical treatments

11)

12) Marilyn is depressed a great deal of the time and seeks help from a doctor. She is diagnosed as having a mental illness caused by a chemical imbalance. Marilyn is most likely being treated by someone who adheres to the ________ model of psychological disorders.

A) biological B) psychological C) medical D) behavioral E) cognitive

12)

13) When treating a person with a psychological disorder, a therapist makes the assumption that the person's difficulties stem in large part from some unconscious conflicts that have produced anxiety. This therapist most likely identifies with the ________ perspective of psychological disorders.

A) behavioral B) sociocultural C) psychosocial D) cognitive E) psychodynamic

13)

3

14) What theoretical approach to psychological disorders would be most likely to consider a person's ethnicity when diagnosing a disorder?

A) Behavioral B) Sociocultural C) Ethnocentric D) Biological E) Cognitive

14)

15) Janice is impulsive, emotional, and insecure. Her relationships tend to be intense and unstable. She has threatened or attempted suicide many times. Which of these personality disorders might she best be diagnosed with?

A) Dependent B) Narcissistic C) Borderline D) Schizoid E) Antisocial

15)

16) Jerry is a social recluse who has few interactions with others. He believes that his parents are to blame for his lack of self-esteem and his inability to be successful at anything that he tries because of their critical evaluations of him. How would a humanist explain this?

A) Unconscious conflicts that result from ineffective early relationships with his parents have influenced his behaviors.

B) Rewards and punishments have shaped his behavior.

C) Jerry has a low self-concept because of the excessive criticism that he has experienced.

D) Jerry has a chemical imbalance.

E) Jerry must have suffered a traumatic event in his life and his parents do not understand how bad he feels.

16)

17) When investigating gender differences in psychological disorders, it has been found that women are most likely to suffer from ________ disorder(s) and men are more likely to suffer from ________ disorder(s).

A) schizophrenic; anxiety B) medical; internalizing C) sociopathic; mood D) depressive; antisocial personality E) internalizing; medical

17)

4

18) Of the following factors, ________ is related to the highest rates of mental disorders.

A) ethnicity B) low income C) age D) gender E) high income

18)

19) What did Rosenhan's study in 1973, when 8 adult volunteers were committed to a psychiatric hospital, demonstrate?

A) If you are treated for schizophrenia at an early age, you are likely to recover fully.

B) People only get worse in a psychiatric hospital.

C) Being labeled with a mental disorder changes the way even mental health professionals deal with you.

D) Boys were treated better than girls in the psychiatric hospital setting.

E) Volunteers are more likely to be susceptible to mental health issues.

19)

20) The large recent increase in the number of ADHD diagnoses involves which of the following factors?

A) Ethnic and gender B) Biological C) Both biological and sociocultural D) Physical and mental E) Sociocultural

20)

21) A person with a genetic predisposition to mental illness may develop a disorder after being subjected to intense stress. This is the essence of which model of psychological disorders?

A) the genetic model B) the DSM-5 model C) the diathesis-stress model D) the GAS model E) the medical model

21)

22) You happen to hear two psychologists discussing a client. They refer to the DSM-5.

The two psychologists are most likely having a discussion in the area of A) thinking and emotion B) motivation and emotion C) learning and memory D) sensation and perception E) abnormal behavior

22)

5

23) The main controversy surrounding the DSM-5 involves its A) overly strong reliance on the medical model B) overly strong behavioral orientation C) overly strong humanistic orientation D) overly strong psychoanalytic orientation E) overly strong sociocultural orientation

23)

24) Having an intense fear of making a speech in public is potentially a symptom of what disorder?

A) Social anxiety disorder B) Dissociative disorder C) Dysthymic disorder D) Schizophrenic disorder E) Panic disorder

24)

25) What is the most common form of social phobia?

A) Fear of parties B) Acrophobia C) Agoraphobia D) Fear of public places E) Fear of public speaking

25)

26) What is fear of strangers called?

A) agoraphobia B) xenophobia C) humanaphobia D) hydrophobia E) mysophobia

26)

27) When does a fear become a phobia?

A) when an individual will go to any length to avoid the object of the fear/phobia B) when an individual cannot specifically state what they are afraid of C) when a doctor diagnoses it as such D) when a person realizes their fear/phobia is irrational E) when a person can specifically identify what they are afraid of

27)

28) What differentiates people with OCD from those who don't have OCD, but may have some tendencies related to OCD such as experiencing anxiety provoking thoughts?

A) the presence of agoraphobia B) past sexual abuse C) over protective parents D) the ability to ignore or dismiss intrusive thoughts E) the presence of panic attacks

28)

6

29) Clive is convinced that his body is already dead and that he is alive only through his non-physical essence. His family and friends are a little frightened at his bizarre thinking. Clive is certainly suffering from A) a hallucination B) referential thinking C) a delusion D) a form of catatonia E) both a hallucination and a delusion

29)

30) Robert's teacher has sent several notes home to his family during the past school year.

Robert is inattentive, hyperactive, and impulsive. Robert will most likely be diagnosed with A) impulse reactivity B) emotional instability C) a learning disability D) bipolar disorder E) attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

30)

31) Critics of the medical model of abnormal behavior argue that ADHD reflects a(n) A) biological disorder rather than a psychological disorder B) inappropriate diagnosis of children with bipolar tendencies C) psychological disorder rather than a social construct D) example of racial profiling of African American children E) social construct rather than a psychological disorder

31)

32) Brad seems to be in a continuous state of anxiety though he is unable to identify the source of his feelings. The most likely diagnosis for Brad is A) dysthymia B) social phobia C) a phobia D) generalized anxiety disorder E) panic disorder

32)

33) Generalized anxiety disorder is to ________ as panic disorder is to ________.

A) mild; severe B) intermittent; steady C) severe; mild D) chronic; sudden E) sudden; chronic

33)

7

34) Anxiety disorders can be the result of overly strict parents according to the ________ perspective.

A) humanistic and social B) behavioral and cognitive C) psychological and sociocultural D) social and evolutionary E) psychodynamic and humanistic

34)

35) John has sudden attacks of intense fear in which his heart races, he feels faint, and he has trouble catching his breath. During these attacks, he worries that he is going to die. From this description, it sounds like John has a(n) A) panic disorder B) social phobia C) generalized anxiety disorder D) obsessive-compulsive disorder E) specific phobia

35)

36) Learned helplessness and pessimistic attributional style are two ways of understanding what types of factors in depression?

A) Psychological B) Biological C) Cognitive D) Sociocultural E) Behavioral

36)

37) Mireille began having brief episodes of overwhelming anxiety about a year ago. She doesn't know what causes them, but she has had them in the grocery store, at busy restaurants, and once while driving. Her heart pounds, she has difficulty breathing, and sometimes she feels like her body no longer belongs to her. She is afraid she will go crazy or have a heart attack. Based on this information, Mireille may have A) a panic disorder B) obsessive-compulsive disorder C) bipolar disorder D) a somatoform disorder E) a dissociative disorder

37)

8

38) Which of the following is most accurate regarding arachnophobia?

A) Anti-anxiety drugs are successful at treating approximately 30% of people with arachnophobia.

B) Arachnophobia is diagnosed 3 times more frequently in men than in women.

C) Fear of spiders is the defining feature of arachnophobia.

D) Approximately 30% of the population will suffer from arachnophobia at some point in their life.

E) Fear of losing control is the biggest problem for arachnophobics.

38)

39) In regard to schizophrenia, hallucinations and delusions are ________, while flat affect is a(n) ________.

A) negative symptoms; positive symptom B) symptoms; effect C) effects; symptom D) psychotic symptoms; neurotic symptom E) positive symptoms; negative symptom

39)

40) What cognitive process can serve as a protective factor against depression?

A) Altruism B) Learned helplessness C) Blended thinking D) Optimistic attributional style E) Pessimism

40)

41) Jillian can't bear to leave her home without washing all the linens and floors, vacuuming the carpets, and organizing everything in her cupboards. Because she knows that her behavior is extreme, she has tried to go to work without doing all these things, but she is overcome with such overwhelming dread that she never makes it all the way to the office. Jillian probably has A) a phobia B) generalized anxiety disorder C) obsessive-compulsive disorder D) panic disorder E) schizoid personality disorder

41)

42) Postmortem analysis of the brains of those who have committed suicide tend to show low levels of what neurotransmitter?

A) Dopamine B) Serotonin C) Epinephrine D) Androgen E) Norepinephrine

42)

9

43) Though they can occur independently, ________ frequently accompany obsessions and appear to serve the function of reducing the anxiety created by such disturbing thoughts.

A) manias B) delusions C) fugue states D) hallucinations E) compulsions

43)

44) As reflected by the content of suicide notes, what statement best represents the difference between those who attempt suicide from those who complete suicide?

A) Those who have asked for help in the past are less likely to complete suicide.

B) Those who are most depressed complete suicide.

C) Those who are chronically lonely and feel they are a burden to others are more likely to complete suicide.

D) Those who talk about their pets are less likely to complete suicide.

E) Those who talk about career accomplishments are less likely to complete suicide.

44)

45) Sandy experienced a horrific childhood. She was physically and verbally abused by her mother and sexually abused by a stepfather. Years later, she began experiencing anxiety symptoms. A diagnosis of ________ would best apply to her situation.

A) generalized anxiety disorder B) panic disorder C) post-traumatic stress disorder D) dissociative identity disorder E) phobic disorder

45)

46) If Eileen has a predisposition for developing schizophrenia, the diathesis-stress model of schizophrenia states that Eileen A) is most likely to develop the disease during periods of stress B) has schizophrenic siblings C) has less dopamine in her frontal lobes D) has excess serotonin in her frontal lobes E) will have symptoms of the disease by age 20

46)

10

47) Eeyore, the despondent and downcast donkey in A.A. Milne's Winnie the Pooh, is chronically morose but not so sad he can't function. For example, when Pooh says, "Good morning, Eeyore," Eeyore gloomily replies, "Good morning, Pooh Bear, if it is a good morning, which I doubt." Eeyore may have A) a conversion disorder B) an antisocial personality C) dysthymia D) bipolar disorder E) hypochondria

47)

48) Your roommate is acting very strangely. Although she has not slept much in the past few days, she says she is on top of the world. She has cleaned and re-cleaned her closets several times. She also took all her savings and invested in a questionable financial venture. This period of non-stop activity has lasted for well over a week and is in sharp contrast to the depression and fatigue she exhibited the previous semester.

The DSM-5 diagnosis would most likely be A) depressive mania B) bipolar disorder C) manic depression D) attention deficit hyperactivity disorder E) impulsivity depression

48)

49) A man is taken to the hospital where he is diagnosed with dissociative amnesia. It is likely that he A) probably has dissociative identity disorder also.

B) probably has OCD as well.

C) remembers most of his personal information, such as his address and phone number, but not his name.

D) has forgotten his personal information, but not how to speak a foreign language he knows.

E) has forgotten not only his personal information, but also how to drive a car or to do addition and subtraction.

49)

50) Frank believes that he is the finest fisherman ever and that, when he is out on the lake, thousands of people are in the surrounding area with binoculars watching his every move in the hopes of discovering his technique. This is an example of ________ in schizophrenia.

A) a hallucination B) misattribution C) negative affect D) a delusion E) flat affect

50)

11

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

51) Imagine you are in charge of an anxiety disorder clinic. A variety of subjects come to see you with all sorts of anxiety problems. Give an example of the type of behavior that would commonly be seen for each of the following disorders and identify the etiology (cause or significant antecedent) that is known to be correlated to each of the disorders.

• generalized anxiety disorder • panic disorder • specific phobia disorder • obsessive-compulsive disorder • post-traumatic stress disorder

52) There have been many movies portraying individuals that suffer from behavior disorders but often the movies exaggerate the behaviors and even portray the person with the disorder in a negative, incorrect way. One of the most misunderstood psychological disorders has been schizophrenia. If you were asked to help develop the character in a movie that suffers from a schizophrenic disorder, you would want to make sure your character was accurately portraying the seriousness of this illness.

Discuss how you would address each of the following in the development of your character in the movie. Explain the statement or provide an example of the concept listed, relating to your main character of the movie and his/her behavior.

1. Schizophrenia is NOT the same as Dissociative Identity Disorder 2. Positive symptoms 3. Negative symptoms 4. Paranoid schizophrenia 5. Catatonic schizophrenia

12

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED15

1) A 2) E 3) B 4) A 5) C 6) B 7) D 8) B 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) C 13) E 14) B 15) C 16) C 17) D 18) B 19) C 20) C 21) C 22) E 23) A 24) A 25) E 26) B 27) A 28) D 29) C 30) E 31) E 32) D 33) D 34) C 35) A 36) C 37) A 38) C 39) E 40) D 41) C 42) B 13

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED15

43) E 44) C 45) C 46) A 47) C 48) B 49) D 50) D 51) Scoring Guide for Question 1: Answers should be written in complete sentences.

Samples below are NOT exclusive but provide examples to help grade the question. Students' examples will vary but should contain some of the symptoms listed for the disorder as well as a specific explanation for the etiology of each of the disorders. The total number of points for this question is 10.

Points 1 and 2: Generalized anxiety disorder—persistent anxiety for at least 6 months and unable to specify the reasons for the anxiety. People are nervous all the time and worry about minor things, shifting their anxiety from one life aspect to another. Etiology includes biological genetic predispositions, a deficiency in the neurotransmitter GABA, and respiratory system abnormalities.

There are also sociocultural factors such as harsh standards that the individual cannot achieve or maintain, having overly strict and critical parents, or having a history of traumatic stressors in their lives.

Points 3 and 4: Panic disorder—recurrent sudden onsets of intense apprehension or terror, feelings of impending doom, chest pain, trembling, excessive sweating, dizziness, and feelings of helplessness.

Etiology includes biological predisposition (runs in families), an overactive nervous system, problems with neurotransmitters (norepinephrine and GABA), and hormonal factors. Sociocultural factors may include gender socialization and traumatic experiences.

Points 5 and 6: Specific phobia disorder—irrational, overwhelming, irrational fear of an object or situation. Biological factors have been identified as seen in identical twins both developing the phobia, even those that were reared apart. A neural circuit that includes the thalamus, amygdala, and cerebral cortex might be responsible for the behaviors associated with phobias, or a problem with serotonin.

Many behaviorists believe they can be learned, being around someone who has the same phobia might reinforce the fears and thus the person models the behavior of that person.

Points 7 and 8: Obsessive-compulsive disorder—anxiety-provoking thoughts that do not go away and/or urges to perform repetitive, ritualistic behaviors to prevent or produce some future situation.

These individuals dwell on normal doubts, repeat routines, become overwhelmed with anxiety if they do not, and find it difficult to function in normal, everyday situations. Etiology seems to point to a genetic component; MRI's and PET scans show increased activity in the frontal cortex, basal ganglia, 14

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED15

and thalamus. Less activity has been seen in the amygdala of patients with OCD. Psychological factors include stress.

Points 9 and 10: Post-traumatic stress disorder—exposure to a traumatic event such as war, rape, abuse, horrific accidents, oppressive situations, natural and unnatural disasters cause many of the symptoms of PTSD (anxiety, sleeplessness, flashbacks, excessive arousal, feelings of apprehension, impulsive outbursts).

52) Scoring Guide for Question 2: Answers should be written in complete sentences.

Samples below are NOT exclusive but provide examples to help grade the question. Students' examples will vary. The total number of points for this question is 10 NOTE: examples of movie characters, such as John Nash in A Beautiful Mind, or Nathanial in The Soloist could also be used to explain the behaviors of characters in movies. This question could be revised to allow students to use the actors' behaviors to explain 2 – 5.

Points 1 and 2: Schizophrenia involves the split of an individual's personality from reality, NOT the coexistence of several personalities within one individual, which is DID. Schizophrenics have disordered thoughts, inappropriate actions and emotions, abnormal motor behavior, and social withdrawal. Individuals with DID develop alters, each with their own memories, behaviors and relationships. They do not exist at the same time; they have specific "jobs" to do for the person; and most often they are not aware of each other (amnesia).

Points 3 and 4: Positive symptoms are a distortion or an excess of normal functions and characterize the disorder: they include hallucinations, delusions, thought disorders, and disorders of movement.

Examples of how the movie character might behave will vary but should be accurate examples of any of these symptoms.

Points 5 and 6: Negative symptoms reflect behavior deficits and the loss or decrease of normal functions. They reflect the absence of something. Flat effect, when the person shows little or no emotion, might be discussed. The inability to plan, initiate, or engage in social situations or goal directed behavior could be represented in the character they describe.

Points 7 and 8: Paranoid schizophrenia is characterized by delusions of reference, grandeur, and persecution. Examples of one or more of these types of delusions should be made relating to the character in the movie.

Points 9 and 10: Catatonic schizophrenia is characterized by bizarre motor behavior that sometimes takes the form of completely immobile stupor, holding bizarre postures. Sometimes they are fully conscious of what is going on around them, other times they are not. "Waxy flexibility" could be 15

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED15

explained with an example: the person's arm or leg is raised and then allowed to fall, but the limb stays in the new position.

16

Prof.Exams Chapter 16- Therapies

TB-The Science of Psychology3E|Laura King

Chapter 16- Therapies MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Sharon is seeing a new doctor after many different medications have failed to help with her condition. This doctor tells her that many well-designed studies suggest that electroconvulsive therapy is effective in the treatment of A) epilepsy B) depression C) panic attack disorder D) obsessive-compulsive disorder E) schizophrenia

1)

2) Mike takes Lithium to regulate his affect. This drug is particularly used to treat A) post-traumatic stress disorder B) schizophrenia C) panic attack disorder D) major depression E) bipolar disorder

2)

3) Elizabeth visited a psychiatrist who, after interviewing her, recommended either Paxil or Prozac. These are generally used to treat A) depression and anxiety B) psychosis C) schizophrenia D) social skills deficiencies E) bipolar disorder

3)

4) Prefrontal lobotomies were originally intended to eliminate A) obsessive thoughts B) emotional outbursts C) pedophilia D) hallucinations E) panic and anxiety

4)

1

5) Which perspective views abnormal behavior as the result of unresolved unconscious conflicts?

A) Social learning B) Cognitive C) Biological D) Psychoanalytic E) Humanistic

5)

6) A large body of research points to the conclusion that psychotherapy works.

Researchers have carried out literally hundreds of studies examining the effects of psychotherapy. The strategy used to analyze these diverse studies is ________, in which, as we have seen, the researcher statistically combines the results of many different studies.

A) observation analysis B) experimentation C) transference analysis D) correlation E) meta-analysis

6)

7) Dr. Frazier serves on the admissions committee at a local college, and also sees clients in her outpatient private practice for psychotherapy. During an admissions meeting with her colleagues, Dr. Frazier notices that one of her clients from the practice has applied for the school program. Dr. Frazier is concerned that this person would be an irresponsible student and shares this opinion with the committee. What ethical principle has Dr. Frazier violated?

A) Dr. Frazier did not violate any ethical standards.

B) She violated confidentiality in sharing that the client was "irresponsible," but was within ethical guidelines in acknowledging the client's participation in therapy.

C) She disregarded the client's goal of being able to attend college.

D) She violated the client's confidentiality by revealing to her colleagues that the applicant is being seen in therapy.

E) Statements A, B, and C are all true regarding Dr. Frazier's behavior as a therapist.

7)

8) The main goal of psychoanalysis is to A) demonstrate unconditional positive regard toward the client B) provide clients with insight into their unconscious conflicts C) persuade clients to abandon their irrational, misery-inducing beliefs D) train clients to avoid maladaptive patterns of behavior through modeling of appropriate behaviors E) provide clients with insight into their conscious decision making

8)

2

9) According to the psychoanalytic approach to psychotherapy, which of the following is an essential part of the job of a psychotherapist?

A) Point out inconsistencies in the patient's thoughts and behaviors B) Encourage the patient to transfer their negative feelings to a more appropriate alternative C) Interpret the disguised revelations of the unconscious mind to the patient D) Come to terms with their inability to talk with others about their problems E) Create an atmosphere that is so emotionally safe that clients will feel free to express the feelings they have denied awareness

9)

10) In psychoanalytic theory, transference is used to describe A) the phenomenon in which the patient comes to relate to the therapist in ways that resemble her or his other relationships B) efforts to redirect anxiety-provoking desires into socially acceptable actions C) the inability to see the real problem underlying the causes the disorder D) the repression of painful memories from conscious awareness E) the gradual shifting of the patients thoughts to more conscious issues

10)

11) Catharsis is a term used to describe A) a client's transfer of parental conflicts onto a therapist B) the venting of pent-up emotions C) learning to control emotions D) a client's resistance to a therapist's suggestions E) the process of redirecting unacceptable motives into a socially acceptable form

11)

12) Alice is trying to decide on a type of therapy. Two types that were recommended to her were Heinz Kohut's contemporary psychodynamic therapy, and humanistic psychotherapy. What do these therapies have in common?

A) They both believe that therapy should replace the patient's unhealthy childhood relationships B) They both believe the patient needs overcome issues related to their parental relationships C) They both believe that therapy should bring the patient's feelings into conscious awareness D) They both believe that empathy and understanding are needed in therapeutic interactions E) They both believe that repressed sexual motives are at the root of emotional disturbance

12)

3

13) Dr. Patterson says little to her depressed client. Instead, she waits for him to express his feelings and for him to decide what he wants to do about his problems. Dr. Patterson is using techniques most often used in A) cognitive-behavioral psychotherapy B) client-centered psychotherapy C) psychodynamic psychotherapy D) interpersonal psychotherapy E) Gestalt psychotherapy

13)

14) Psychotherapy is practiced by a variety of mental health professionals, including clinical psychologists, psychiatrists, counselors, and social workers. Which of the following professionals requires four years in medical school followed by internship and residency which allows the person to prescribe medicine?

A) Social workers B) Counselors C) Psychiatrists D) Clinical psychologists E) Counseling psychologists

14)

15) Cognitive-behavior therapy attempts to produce change by A) asking clients to give up irrational beliefs B) helping clients unlearn maladaptive behaviors C) asking clients to list what they want to change about themselves D) helping clients develop self-awareness and self-acceptance E) bringing the unconscious to consciousness

15)

16) Dianne is having difficulty overcoming her sadness over losing her friend in a horrible car accident. Her psychologist has recommended group therapy. A major advantage to group therapy is that A) clients have more opportunity to develop social skills B) clients can split the cost of therapy sessions between all members of the group C) it would not make the client talk as much since there are many people in the room D) it is better suited to clients with severe problems E) the therapist has less work to do because the clients do most of the work

16)

4

17) "My client must confront the conflicts which are left over from childhood and gain release from this burdening anxiety." This would be an appropriate statement for psychologists who practice A) humanistic therapy B) psychodynamic therapy C) cognitive therapy D) psychological therapy E) behavioral therapy

17)

18) Transference is an advantage in the therapeutic situation because A) it reduces anxiety B) it increases conflict C) it provides the person with love D) it stimulates resistance E) it provides an opportunity to re-create difficult relationships

18)

19) "First, I would like you to get in a comfortable position and begin the breathing techniques which we have been practicing. When you sense that you have arrived at complete relaxation, we will proceed." This therapist is initiating A) meditation or yoga B) contingency contracting C) systematic desensitization D) aversive therapy E) operant conditioning

19)

20) In all of the years that she had been a resident in the hospital, Helen had never made her bed or straightened her room. A new psychologist on the floor surprised her with instructions to do so before they met for the morning session. He would inspect the room and give "commissary bucks" to patients who completed the task on time. The psychologist is using A) a token economy B) systematic desensitization C) aversive conditioning D) contingency contracting E) negative reinforcement

20)

5

21) You are a humanistic therapist. A potential client is unfamiliar with your school of therapy and asks you to sum it up. You tell him the primary tenet of humanistic therapy is that A) irrational thought results in negative consequences B) individuals possess the capacity to heal themselves C) rational thought is the key to enlightenment D) abnormal behavior can be manipulated in therapy E) the unconscious mind can affect conscious behavior

21)

22) Josie went to a psychoanalyst but found his style too cold and uninvolved. She wanted a therapist with whom she could have more of a relationship. She switched to a Rogerian therapist, because the counseling environment is an important aspect of client-centered therapy.The setting should be one of A) easy transference of anxiety to the therapist B) arousal and positive challenge C) direct questioning and very specific suggestions made by the therapist D) motivated investigation using the therapist as teacher and the client as researcher E) warmth and acceptance

22)

23) "I have never been a good problem solver. I am not direct enough to be successful," the client complained. "You do not see yourself as a direct problem solver?" responded the therapist. This conversation is typical of A) rational-emotive therapy B) dialectical therapy C) projective therapy D) client-centered therapy E) group therapy

23)

24) One aspect of family therapy is the idea that a family member's symptoms are a function of the family relationships. If, for example, a teenage son is the scapegoat of the parents, which family therapy technique would be the most appropriate to use?

A) reframing B) validation C) structural change D) rationalization E) detriangulation

24)

6

25) Huey is offered a choice of Elavil or Nardil by his psychiatrist to treat his depression.

If tricyclic drugs increase norepinephrine and serotonin, and MAO inhibitors prevent the monoamine oxidase enzyme from breaking them down, then it must be important to Huey to A) decrease norepinephrine and increase serotonin B) have decreased levels of norepinephrine and serotonin C) choose the drug that will not affect either of these neurotransmitters D) increase norepinephrine and decrease serotonin E) have increased levels of norepinephrine and serotonin

25)

26) Reattribution is an example of a cognitive therapy technique which A) helps a client distract himself temporarily from painful memories.

B) incorporates elements of psychodynamic therapy.

C) helps a client properly identify responsibility for events.

D) helps a client see connections between ideas or thoughts and emotions.

E) was developed by Mary Cover Jones.

26)

27) A serious side-effect of certain antipsychotic drugs is tardive dyskinesia which A) has caused blindness in some patients.

B) is a serious neurological disorder.

C) is a precursor for dementia.

D) is a serious endocrine disorder.

E) can increase anxiety in many patients.

27)

28) Judy has suffered from schizophrenia for years. Only certain neuroleptic drugs have been effective in controlling her disorder. Unfortunately, after she began taking the drug, she experienced uncontrollable involuntary muscle movements of the face, hands, and arms. This side-effect is called A) tardive dyskinesia.

B) neurolepsis.

C) tricyclic syndrome.

D) metabolic syndrome.

E) avolitional movement.

28)

29) The most common form of psychotherapy in use today has proved effective in treating anxiety and mood disorders, schizophrenia, and personality disorders. It is called A) integrative therapy.

B) cognitive-behavior therapy.

C) Rogerian person-centered therapy.

D) psychodynamic therapy.

E) cognitive scaling therapy.

29)

7

30) The research on the effectiveness of Alcoholics Anonymous as a help for alcoholics shows A) some evidence that it works for women, but not for men.

B) clear evidence that it is no help at all.

C) mixed evidence on whether it works or not.

D) some evidence that it works for men, but not for women.

E) clear evidence that it works very well.

30)

31) Lithium is often an effective ________ drug.

A) antianxiety B) antipsychotic C) mood-stabilizing D) antidepressant E) neuroleptic

31)

32) The first step in systematic desensitization is A) teaching voluntary muscle relaxation B) presenting the CS C) dream analysis D) developing a mantra to be used while meditating E) finding the right dosage for the drug

32)

33) The second step in systematic desensitization is A) constructing a stimulus hierarchy B) teaching muscle relaxation C) adjusting the serum level of the drug D) teaching self-hypnosis strategies E) extinction

33)

34) Frank is seeing a therapist for his spider phobia. The therapist first teaches him muscle relaxation and then they develop a stimulus hierarchy. Frank is seeing a therapist who uses A) exposure therapy B) social skills training C) psychoanalysis D) systematic desensitization E) aversive therapy

34)

8

35) When resistance occurs in therapy, what event is taking place?

A) The client will not share deep personal problems.

B) The client opens up and shares difficult emotional feelings.

C) The therapist must resist growing attraction for the client.

D) The procedure of free association is inoperative.

E) The client reaches a point of no return and can become psychotic.

35)

36) Sherice started seeing a psychotherapist because of marital problems. She is unhappy because she feels her husband does not give her enough attention. After several sessions, she is quite taken with her male therapist because he gives her undivided attention. This growing affection for the therapist is called A) resistance B) latent content C) reflection D) obsession E) transference

36)

37) After several months in psychoanalysis, Ryan had an emotional outburst during which he cried and sobbed as he talked about a childhood experience. Freud termed this emotional release A) transference B) id release C) catharsis D) regression E) ego acceptance

37)

38) According to Freudian dream interpretation, the obvious content of a person's dream hides the true meaning or content of the dream, called the ________ content.

A) obtuse B) latent C) super ego's D) subliminal E) manifest

38)

9

39) Rob and Karen are married, but there are many tensions in their life together. Karen complains that Rob works too much and isn't available to help with the children and their home. Rob complains that Karen expends all of her emotional energy on the children and ignores him and his emotional needs. Their couples therapist suggests they try reframing, which is a technique that A) originated in Carl Rogers' work.

B) would require Karen to get a job outside the home, while Rob's takes on the home responsibilities.

C) restates the couple's problems as joint issues that they can resolve together.

D) helps with detriangulating the family issues.

E) is a behavioral technique that provides Rob with rewards for doing more work around the home.

39)

40) Sue is attending a group therapy session. The people in the group relate their own experiences dealing with the issues that the group focuses on. For Sue, listening to the others is A) not helpful because the others won't recognize her issues being preoccupied with their own.

B) helpful because it gives Sue a chance to practice her listening skills.

C) not helpful because Sue recognizes that the others seem to be almost helpless in the face of their common issues.

D) not helpful because she feels like the others get all the attention.

E) helpful because she recognizes others have been able to deal with their common problems.

40)

41) Dr. James teaches graduate students in clinical psychology. Since many of her students will practice in an ethnically diverse community, she has told them that A) the ethnicity of the therapist makes all the difference in the effectiveness of therapy.

B) most sub-cultures do not accept the validity of psychotherapy.

C) though it is true that often if a therapist is of the same ethnicity as the client, the client may do better in therapy, a skilled therapist who is culturally sensitive can be effective as well.

D) the ethnicity of the therapist makes no difference at all with regard to the effectiveness of therapy.

E) therapy is a white, middle class phenomenon and works well only with that group.

41)

10

42) Dr. Abraham is a feminist therapist. She believes that it is important to do which of the following in her treatment practice?

A) Recognize the effects of bias and discrimination on her female clients.

B) Assist clients in breaking free from traditional gender roles and stereotypes.

C) Encourage clients to be politically active to help eliminate gender bias in the workplace.

D) A and C only are correct.

E) A, B, and C are correct.

42)

43) If a therapist gives an alcoholic a drink laced with a nausea-inducing drug so that she or he will become ill after drinking the alcohol, the therapist is using A) aversive conditioning B) social skills training C) an unethical procedure D) systematic desensitization E) positive reinforcement

43)

44) The therapy based on the assumption that abnormal behavior is due to faulty ways of thinking and believing is A) Gestalt therapy B) psychoanalysis C) social-cognitive D) humanistic psychotherapy E) cognitive therapy

44)

45) Someone who uses cognitive restructuring believes that ________ are the causes of abnormal behavior.

A) childhood experiences B) chemical imbalances C) misplaced priorities D) maladaptive beliefs E) parental relationships

45)

46) Dr. Susan is your family therapist. She believes that to adequately understand psychological problems, she must understand the role that you play in the family system. Which of these statements supports that underlying belief?

A) Mothers and fathers are the cause of almost every psychological problem.

B) The individual must be aware of how his/her behavior hurts everyone else.

C) Problems of the individual are often caused by problems in the family.

D) Older siblings are usually relied upon to provide therapeutic solutions.

E) The individual must be cured before the remainder of the family is infected.

46)

11

47) Which of the following is a goal of couple's therapy?

A) To improve the communication between the partners B) To increase the amount of warmth between the partners C) To change what roles are played by each of the partners D) To decrease the number of rules set for each of the partners E) To decrease the power struggle that is always the cause of problems

47)

48) The assumption that psychological problems can originate in interactions among parents and siblings is the focus of A) behavioral therapies.

B) psychodynamic therapy.

C) client-centered therapy.

D) family therapy.

E) hierarchy therapies.

48)

49) The biomedical intervention for changing behavior that would be considered by most to be the final choice, after all else has failed, would be A) drug therapy B) electroconvulsive therapy C) institutionalization D) psychosurgery E) aversive conditioning

49)

50) Ivan is very depressed, and the danger of suicide is eminent. He is not responding to the drugs normally employed to treat depression. Which of the following treatments is most likely to prove helpful, in a short period of time, in reducing Ivan's depression and suicidal behavior?

A) Encounter groups B) Institutionalization C) Psychoanalysis D) Minor tranquilizers E) Electroconvulsive therapy

50)

51) John does not have much money, but requires the help of a mental health professional. He might best be served by contacting a A) humanistic therapist B) board certified psychiatrist C) community mental health center D) counseling psychologist E) his primary physician

51)

12

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

52) Different therapists address the same problem in very different ways. Many therapists take an eclectic approach, using the techniques that seem right for a given client and his or her problems.

For each of the therapies listed, briefly explain what the therapist would focus on as the cause of the problem a client may have and explain the therapy's emphasis which guides the therapist in the way he/she conducts the therapy.

• psychodynamic • humanistic • behavioral • cognitive • cognitive behavior

53) Different therapists address the same problem in very different ways. Many therapists take an eclectic approach, using the techniques that seem right for a given client and his or her problems.

Describe one technique for each of the approaches listed below, using an example to show how the technique might be used with a client suffering from a mood disorder or an anxiety disorder.

• Psychodynamic • Humanistic • Behavioral • Cognitive

13

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED16

1) B 2) E 3) A 4) B 5) D 6) E 7) D 8) B 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) D 13) B 14) C 15) B 16) A 17) B 18) E 19) C 20) A 21) B 22) E 23) D 24) E 25) E 26) C 27) B 28) A 29) B 30) C 31) C 32) A 33) A 34) D 35) A 36) E 37) C 38) B 39) C 40) E 41) C 42) A 14

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED16

43) A 44) E 45) D 46) C 47) A 48) D 49) D 50) E 51) C 52) Guide for Question: Answers should be written in complete sentences. The chart, 16.7 is an excellent guide to use when grading student responses. The number of points for this question is 10.

Points 1 and 2: The Psychodynamic approach—Discover underlying unconscious conflicts and work with client to develop insight. Client's problems are symptoms of deep-seated, unresolved unconscious conflicts.

Points 3 and 4: The Humanistic Approach—Client is not functioning at an optimal level of development. Develop awareness of inherent potential for growth in the client.

Points 5 and 6: The Behavioral Approach—Client has learned maladaptive behavior patterns. Help the client learn adaptive behavior patterns through changes in the environment or cognitive processes.

Points 7 and 8: The Cognitive Approach—Client has developed inappropriate thoughts. Guide the clients to help them change their feelings and behaviors by changing cognitions they have about themselves.

Points 9 and 10: The Cognitive Behavior—The cognitive approach to therapy assumes that how we think is an important part of how we feel, and that if we can change how we think about things —reinterpret events in more positive ways—we can feel better. A goal for cognitive-behavior therapy is to help us to alter our routine, automatic thinking habits.

53) Samples below are NOT exclusive but provide examples to help grade the question. The techniques used should be accurate examples relating to both the therapist's approach and appropriate for the treatment of disorder the student is using in the examples. Students' examples will vary. The number of points for this question is 8.

Point 1: Psychodynamic Therapies—Psychoanalysis, including free association, dream analysis, resistance, and transference: therapist interprets heavily what the patient is disclosing or the fact that they are not sharing.

Point 2: Examples will vary and could include discussion of dream analysis, projective testing, 15

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED16

transference, or free association.

Point 3: Humanistic Therapies—Person-centered therapy, including unconditional positive regard, genuineness, accurate empathy, and active listening; self-appreciation emphasized.

Point 4: Examples will vary but should relate to the ideas listed above; especially appropriate for depression.

Point 5: Behavioral Therapies—Observation of behavior and its controlling conditions; specific advice given about what should be done; therapies based on classical conditioning, operant conditioning.

Point 6: Examples will vary, but could discuss phobias that were learned and how implosive techniques, (classical conditioning), flooding or systematic desensitization techniques could be used.

OCD often is treated with operant conditioning/behavior modification techniques.

Point 7: Cognitive Therapies—A conversation with a client designed to get him or her to change irrational and self-deflating beliefs. Cognitive restructuring could be discussed; they use various techniques to challenge these thoughts and to consider different, more positive ways of thinking get clients.

Point 8: Students could refer to any of many cognitive techniques, including challenging idiosyncratic meanings, reattribution, decatastrophizing, scaling, distraction, or many others.

OR they might discuss Beck's Cognitive Therapy—Beck's approach derives from the idea that the goal of therapy is to help people to recognize and discard self-defeating cognitions. The therapist helps clients to identify their own automatic thoughts and to keep records of their thought content and emotional reactions. Inventories are used. Figure 16.5 describes some of the most widely used cognitive therapy techniques that students might mention in this part of their response.

16

Prof.Exams Chapter 17- Health Psychology

TB-The Science of Psychology3E|Laura King

Chapter 17- Health Psychology MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) A situation, circumstance, or event that threatens the individual and requires some form of coping mechanism best defines A) frustration B) conflict C) pressure D) stress E) anxiety

1)

2) Which of the following is not true of AIDS? A) Your behavior, rather than the group you belong to, puts you at risk for AIDS. B) A person infected with HIV is more vulnerable to viruses than an uninfected person's immune system would normally destroy.

C) New drug "cocktails" have cured AIDS. D) College students' sexual behaviors put them at a very high risk for contracting AIDS. E) Most individuals who contract HIV today will die of it.

2)

3) Which of the following is not a common sexually transmitted infection?

A) Genital herpes B) Shingles C) Gonorrhea D) HIV E) Agoraphobia

3)

4) A person who tries to quit smoking "cold turkey" A) will be more successful than using other methods B) is trying to stop without making any major lifestyle changes C) is pairing unpleasant consequences with the undesirable behavior (smoking) D) is taking antipsychotic drugs E) is using nicotine substitutes

4)

1

5) Smoking contributes to all of these except A) death from accidents B) increased risk of middle-ear disease in children C) death from heart disease D) death from cancer E) increased use of alcoholic beverages

5)

6) There is a distinct physiological pattern that emerges when people are exposed to strong and prolonged stress. Selye labeled this response pattern the A) transactional stress response (TSR) B) emergency response system (ERS) C) general adaptation syndrome (GAS) D) two-factor theory of stress E) chronic stress response (CSR)

6)

7) Tamika is about to compete in a triathlon. Though such a competition would likely inspire fear and nervousness in most people, Tamika is feeling good about the race because she believes she has the skills to successfully complete it. Tamika has high A) self-esteem B) self-concept C) self-control D) self-efficacy E) self-confidence

7)

8) What is the only safe-sex aid or strategy that helps to prevent sexually transmitted infections?

A) Only having oral sex B) Only having anal sex C) "The pill" D) Condoms E) None of these

8)

9) What is the main difference between the theory of reasoned action and the theory of planned behavior?

A) The theory of planned behavior includes the idea that perceptions of control over the outcome are important.

B) The theory of planned behavior includes precautions related to wanting too much control and becoming obsessive.

C) The theory of planned behavior includes the stages of change model.

D) The theory of reasoned action includes the stages of change model.

E) The theory of reasoned action includes the idea that perceptions of control over the outcome are important.

9)

2

10) Sam has a problem with alcohol. He gets substantially drunk at parties four to five nights a week and it is not uncommon for him to experience blackouts. Despite his friends' concerns, Sam doesn't think he has a problem and believes that he is just being a typical college student. Sam would most likely be classified as being in the ________ stage of change.

A) contemplation B) preparation C) precontemplation D) preaction E) denial

10)

11) Some of the characteristics that distinguish people who are in the ________ stage of change are that they possess a beginning awareness of their problem behavior but they are not yet ready to change it.

A) preparation B) contemplation C) action D) planning E) maintenance

11)

12) Which of the following statements would be most typical of someone in the preparation stage of change?

A) "All right! I'm actually taking steps to change this problematic behavior."

B) "I'm going to do something about this problem, starting first thing next week."

C) "I know that my behavior is problematic, but I'm just not ready to change it yet."

D) "I have been this way all my life. I doubt if I can change."

E) "Problem? What problem? I don't have a problem."

12)

13) One of the key factors that differentiates ________ from the ________ is awareness that a particular behavior is problematic.

A) planning; action B) the contemplation stage; the preparation stage C) the preparation stage; the action stage D) the pre-contemplation stage; the contemplation stage E) the contemplation stage; the action stage

13)

14) If you are involved in the process of trying to change a maladaptive behavior, you would most likely expend the largest amount of energy and effort during which stage?

A) the action stage B) the preparation stage C) the maintenance stage D) the contemplation stage E) the denial stage

14)

3

15) Bob decided that he was a bit overweight and in order to do something about it, he created a new exercise program, something he'd never tried before. Though he initially had some difficulty setting it up and sticking with it, he has consistently done his exercise workout for the last eight months. Though it is becoming more habitual, the program is still not yet automatic for him and he reinforces himself with new CDs each month if he has successfully completed his workouts. Bob would most likely be classified as being in the A) action stage B) willpower stage C) termination stage D) maintenance stage E) preparation stage

15)

16) One of the primary things that differentiates the maintenance stage from the preparation and action stages is that A) the amount of time the person spends in the stage B) there is awareness that there is a problem in the maintenance stage C) in the maintenance stage, the new behavior has become routine D) the maintenance stage is thought to involve more energy and effort than the other two stages E) it is only important to have stage-matched interventions in the maintenance stage

16)

17) You are trying to change your exercise routine in order to have a healthier lifestyle.

You develop a new exercise schedule and plan to implement it starting next month.

You are in the ________ stage of the stages of change model.

A) creative B) preparation C) precontemplation D) action E) contemplation

17)

18) A person has a problem with smoking. If this person were in the ________ stage of change, the best stage-matched intervention would be to inform him about the dangers of continuing this unhealthy behavior. However, if he were in the ________ stage, you would do well to provide him with training in specific skills that can help him to actually stop smoking.

A) precontemplation; planning B) preparation; contemplation C) contemplation; precontemplation D) precontemplation; preparation E) preparation; action

18)

4

19) An aerobic activity is defined as one that ________ the heart rate and ________ the body's need for oxygen.

A) decreases; increases B) increases; decreases C) increases; increases D) decreases; decreases E) increases; controls

19)

20) All of the following are examples of aerobic exercise EXCEPT A) weight lifting B) bicycling C) swimming D) walking E) running

20)

21) Research has found that compared to other developed countries, in the United States A) teen pregnancy rates are higher than in other countries B) sex education programs are more comprehensive than in other countries C) condoms are more available to teenagers than they are in other countries D) 10% fewer teenagers sexually active E) twice as many teenagers are sexually active as in other countries

21)

22) Interpreting a failure as an indication that personal coping resources were exceeded in a particular situation and that incidents such as these provide useful information are both essential aspects of A) relapse prevention programs B) problem-solving programs C) cooperative learning programs D) harm reduction programs E) the abstinence violation effect

22)

23) Which of the following is a research-supported criticism of the stages of change model?

A) It simply does not reflect the real world experiences of people who are trying to change habits.

B) It allows individuals to be in multiple stages at one time.

C) It appears to better describe motivation than behavior change.

D) It has never been successfully applied to smoking either tobacco or marijuana.

E) It appears to better describe attitude change than behavior change.

23)

5

24) Even if a person has adequate coping skills for dealing with high-risk situations, what is the likelihood that a relapse will occur?

A) Not likely B) unlikely C) Likely D) Very likely E) It depends on the high-risk situation.

24)

25) In a body that is well-conditioned by aerobic exercise A) the heart beats more slowly and efficiently B) slow-wave sleep increases C) sleep patterns are more regular D) oxygen is better utilized E) all of these

25)

6

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

26) The study of the brain and behavior acknowledges the impact of stress on the autonomic nervous system. Furthermore, an individual's state of consciousness, as well as the particular ways in which that person thinks about events, can influence life experiences. Stressful events affect our emotions, which are themselves psychological and physical events. Aspects of our personalities, too, may be associated with stress and can influence our health. Finally, social contexts, relationships, and work experiences can shape both an individual's experience of stress and his or her ability to cope with it. Your health, both physically and psychologically, is affected by many different factors.

Explain one research finding or a major concept from health psychology that has been identified in any 8 of the following 10 areas of psychological research you have studied: • neuroscience • sensation/perception • gender studies • developmental • motivation/emotion • emotion • learning/memory • personality • industrial/organizational psychology • social psychology

7

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED17

1) D 2) C 3) E 4) B 5) A 6) C 7) D 8) D 9) A 10) C 11) B 12) B 13) D 14) A 15) D 16) C 17) B 18) D 19) C 20) A 21) A 22) A 23) E 24) D 25) E 26) Scoring Guide for Question 1: Answers should be written in complete sentences.

Samples below are NOT exclusive but provide examples to help grade the question. Students' examples will vary. The may choose any eight of the 10 listed. The total number of points for this question is 8.

You could require 10 examples or less. You could give the student choices or assign specific items that you want them to address.

The focus for this question is to allow the student to show how interrelated the topics and concepts psychology are to understanding human behavior, specifically physical and psychological health.

Neuroscience : Physical changes that occur to the body or brain, stress responses, changes related to neurotransmitters or hormones; examples related to psychological disorders can be discussed or use of drugs to help relieve symptoms of physical and psychological illness 8

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED17

Sensation/Perception: The affect that stress, poor diet, lack of exercise can have on how the body receives stimuli from the environment; specific effects on vision due to poor health, diet Gender studies: The effect of stress related to gender identity issues, homosexuality, prejudice and discrimination Developmental: Aspects related to health at any age, age-related stressors, healthy aging, exercise, developmental processes and ways for individuals to grow through the lifespan Motivation/Emotion: Resilience and its effect on the capacity to avoid negative life experiences that affect motivation; physical and mental health issues related to leadership style Emotion: Negative emotions and stress related illness; catharsis; positive psychology and studies on gratitude; the interplay of positive emotions and resilience Learning/Memory: Stressors related to memory encoding, processing or recall; physical effects of alcohol and other drugs on learning and memory; stress related to eye witness testimonies; age related memory issues (dementia) Personality: Health factors related to personality traits including optimism, hardiness, happiness; Type A personalities and stress related disorders; self-efficacy and health Industrial/Organizational Psychology: work related stress and productivity; burnout; work place violence; research on how to make the workplace more efficient and workers experiences more positive Social Psychology: Benefits of being a part of a group; negative effects of scapegoating and prejudice; bullying issues

9

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Since psychology is a science it must A) use systematic procedures to study behavior and mental processes B) disregard any evidence of an unconscious in determining personality C) only study observable behavior D) be value-free in all aspects E) be performed in a laboratory setting

1)

2) Roots of modern psychology developed from A) phrenology and rationalism B) psychopathology and psychotherapy C) hypnosis and intelligence testing D) biology and philosophy E) parapsychology and mysticism

2)

3) Structuralism was concerned with the A) adaptive value of behavior B) elements of behavior C) environmental control of behavior D) cognitions that underlie problem-solving E) unconscious determinants of behavior

3)

4) The evolutionary perspective is most clearly related to which of the following?

A) Structuralism B) Functionalism C) Positive psychology D) Behaviorism E) Psychoanalysis

4)

5) An operational definition allows a researcher to determine how A) ethical a research study will be B) generalizable the results will be C) important the research might be D) much funding will be available to carry out the research E) a variable in a research study is measured or produced

5)

1

6) When generalizing from a sample to a population, it is essential that the sample is A) large in size B) representative of the population C) unaware they are being studied D) diverse in its characteristics E) generating data that fits a normal curve

6)

7) Case studies, surveys, and tests share which of the following characteristics?

A) They all require random samples.

B) A meta-analysis is not possible for these types of research.

C) It takes a combination of any two of these to determine cause and effect.

D) It takes many months for the data to be analyzed.

E) The participants are usually aware they are being evaluated.

7)

8) The results of two different correlational studies yield correlational coefficients of –.82 for the first study and +.82 for the second study. A valid conclusion concerning these results is that A) the studies must be replicated before a valid prediction can be made B) the correlational coefficient of +.82 is more predictive C) the correlational coefficients are equally predictive D) only the +.82 correlational coefficient indicates a causal relationship between the variables E) because of the possibility of confounding variables, correlations are not predictive

8)

9) The procedure used in experimental research that attempts to minimize preexisting differences between groups is A) ex post facto method B) random assignment C) the double-blind method D) distribution of placebos to both groups E) random sampling

9)

10) The process of random sampling ensures that A) subjects are placed into the control or experimental group by chance B) the sample will proportionally represent all aspects of the population C) there is less than a 5% chance of the conclusion being an error D) the standard deviation of the data is low E) all members of the population have an equal chance of being included in the sample

10)

2

11) Double-blind research is often used in experimental research to minimize the effects of A) poor operational definitions B) a lack of external validity C) the placebo effect D) the use of deception E) a small sample

11)

12) Which of the following would be most useful in determining how consistently a bowler scores close to his or her average?

A) Mode B) Standard deviation C) Range D) Median E) Mean

12)

13) In experimentation involving drugs, the placebo is given in place of the A) confounding variable B) independent variable C) dependent variable D) inert substance E) measured variable

13)

14) A researcher is conducting a study in social psychology that will involve the use of confederates and deception. Due to these experimental conditions the researcher cannot use A) the ethical guideline of debriefing B) the random assignment of subjects C) inferential statistics D) double-blind research E) single-blind research

14)

15) The amazing adaptive ability of the human brain to recover from an accident or injury is known as brain A) plasticity B) self-stimulation C) networking D) depolarization E) specialization

15)

3

16) Most nerve cells are located in the A) sympathetic nervous system B) central nervous system C) parasympathetic nervous system D) peripheral nervous system E) autonomic nervous system

16)

17) The all-or-none response describes A) the action potential B) communication across the corpus callosum C) dominant genes D) synaptic transmission E) the action of glial cells

17)

18) Unlike action potentials, neurotransmitters are A) intensity coded B) always inhibitory C) electrical in nature D) frequency coded E) governed by the all-or-none response

18)

19) Which investigative technique would a researcher use to determine what area of a chess player's brain is actively involved in planning his or her next move?

A) The PET scan B) Brain lesioning C) An MRI D) CT scan E) The EEG

19)

20) One conclusion based on the case of Phineas Gage is that A) language is usually stored in the left hemisphere of the brain B) the corpus callosum of an individual can be severed without any major side effects C) brain plasticity is more common in children younger than five D) a brain injury can dramatically alter an individual's personality and ability to plan intelligently E) the brain does not store memories in one particular location

20)

4

21) If an individual suffers from aphasia they most likely have had damage to which of the following?

A) Amygdala B) Broca's area C) Cerebellum D) Occipital lobe E) Association areas

21)

22) If a split-brain patient closes his or her eyes and holds an object in his or her left hand he or she is unable to verbally describe the object. If a person without a brain injury closes his or her eyes and holds an object in his or her left hand he or she is able to verbally report what the object is because A) split-brain patients have difficulty in accessing memories of words B) their corpus callosum is intact C) in a normal individual language is stored in both hemispheres of the brain D) they have greater brain plasticity E) language is typically stored in the right hemisphere of the brain

22)

23) The relationship between genes and the environment is best described as A) equal for all traits B) interactive C) independent D) excitatory E) inhibitory

23)

24) Top-down processing occurs A) in the sensory receptors B) in any part of the central nervous system C) prior to perception D) in the thalamus E) prior to transduction

24)

25) The intensity of a detected sensory stimulus is communicated to the brain by the A) the type of neurotransmitter involved B) specific afferent nerve pathways involved C) generation of more intense nerve impulses D) frequency and number of action potentials sent to the brain E) expectations of the perceiver

25)

5

26) As the intensity of a stimulus increases its difference threshold A) is equal to 50% of the initial stimuli B) does not change in value C) increases D) approaches zero E) decreases

26)

27) If a weatherman predicts a snow storm for the next day and it doesn't occur, in terms of signal detection theory this is a A) fallacy in thinking B) hit C) false alarm D) miss E) correct ejection

27)

28) Which of the following comparison of rods and cones is correct?

A) Cones are used to determine an objects color in very dim light.

B) The total number of rods and cones in the human eye is about 20 million.

C) Rods are mainly located in the fovea of the eye, while cones are more densely packed at the periphery of the eye.

D) Rods have a lower absolute threshold for light than cones do.

E) Cones are involved in top-down processing more than rods.

28)

29) The absolute threshold for the loudness of a sound is A) zero decibels B) 50 decibels C) is determined by the pitch of the sound D) unrelated to decibel level E) 20 decibels

29)

30) As an object gets closer to a perceiver A) perceptual constancy becomes more difficult to maintain B) there is an increase in binocular disparity C) Gestalt principles of perception become more relevant to perception D) there is a decrease in feature detection E) the less likely an individual is to rely on binocular cues to determine depth

30)

31) The study described in the paragraph is an example of which of the following?

A) Naturalistic observation B) Correlation C) Case study D) Longitudinal study E) Experiment

31)

6

32) The children with some hearing loss had damage to hair cells within their basilar membrane. Which of the following most accurately describes the nature of this hearing loss?

A) A sound afterimage is produced which disrupts auditory processing.

B) There is a mechanical problem with one of the three bones in the middle ear.

C) The loss is due to the sound not being conducted to the inner ear.

D) The sound energy is not being fully or accurately transduced to action potentials.

E) The damage prevents the neurons from firing more than a thousand times per second.

32)

33) The researcher discovered that children who lived on the lower floors were able to block out the low constant buzzing sound of the high intensity lights along the highway. This is best explained by the process of A) specialized feature detectors B) sensory adaptation C) parallel processing D) accommodation E) Weber's law

33)

34) Assume an adult sleeps approximately eight hours per night with a typical sleep pattern. Which of the following is more likely to occur during the first half of this adult's sleep cycle?

A) Nightmares B) Rapid heart beat C) Night terrors D) Beta waves E) The longest REM period

34)

35) The stage of sleep that typically follows REM sleep is A) stage one B) stage two C) stage three D) stage four E) a period of being awake

35)

36) Which psychological perspective states that dreams have important symbolic meaning?

A) Psychoanalytic B) Cognitive C) Behavioral D) Functionalist E) Biological

36)

7

37) Which of the following statements regarding hypnosis supports the hidden observer effect?

A) The hypnotized person is unaware he or she is hypnotized.

B) Hypnosis is an altered state of consciousness.

C) Virtually all people can be hypnotized.

D) Hypnosis is merely social role playing.

E) A swinging chain or ball is necessary to produce a hypnotic state.

37)

38) All psychoactive drugs A) cause hallucinations B) slow down mental reactions C) increase levels of the neurotransmitter dopamine in the brain D) are artificially produced in laboratories E) can lead to physical dependence but not to psychological dependence

38)

39) Classical conditioning involves changing the value of a A) conditioned response B) neutral stimulus C) unconditioned response D) unconditioned stimulus E) reflex

39)

40) Which of the following procedures in classical conditioning has been used to explain the formation of a phobia?

A) Generalization B) Extinction C) Spontaneous recovery D) Discrimination E) Counter-conditioning

40)

41) The law of effect explains A) the rate of extinction of a classically conditioned learned behavior B) why habituation occurs C) how behaviors are affected by their consequences D) how to pair the conditioned and unconditioned stimulus for rapid acquisition to occur E) the learning of unconditioned responses

41)

8

42) Which of the following describes a significant difference between classical and operant conditioning?

A) Classical conditioning occurs with animals and operant conditioning does not.

B) Extinction only occurs in classical conditioning.

C) Classical conditioning techniques are used by psychotherapists, while operant conditioning techniques are not.

D) The process of shaping does not occur with classical conditioning.

E) Classical conditioning explains complex behavior better then operant conditioning.

42)

43) After what type of reinforcement does extinction most rapidly occur?

A) Continuous reinforcement B) A fixed-interval schedule of reinforcement C) A variable-interval schedule of reinforcement D) A variable-ratio schedule of reinforcement E) A fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement

43)

44) The most rapid way to train a rat to press a bar would be to use the technique of A) trial and error learning B) latent learning C) insight learning D) shaping E) habituation

44)

45) The research of Robert Rescorla has modified the original explanation of classical conditioning by showing that the most important element in the acquisition of a conditioned response is A) the degree of latent learning B) how quickly the reinforcer comes after the behavior to be learned C) how reliably the conditioned stimulus predicts the unconditioned stimulus D) the activation of the amygdala as a consequence of the presentation of the unconditioned stimulus E) the number of pairings of the conditioned stimulus and unconditioned stimulus

45)

46) Taste aversion contradicts the Pavlovian model of classical conditioning because it shows a strong conditioned response can be acquired A) after one pairing of the neutral stimulus and unconditioned stimulus B) through observational learning C) by insight D) if the unconditioned stimulus comes before the conditioned stimulus E) during spontaneous recovery

46)

9

47) Latent learning demonstrates that significant learning can occur A) even if instinctive drift is evident B) regardless of the schedule reinforcement in effect C) if the unconditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented to the animal D) while in stage one or stage two sleep E) in the absence of immediate reinforcement

47)

48) Dual-code theory enhances memory because it allows for A) the memory to be stored simultaneously in the cerebellum and thalamus B) two different rehearsal sessions to encode the memory C) both a visual and verbal coding of the memory D) distributed and massed practice E) rehearsal and repetition

48)

49) In Sperling's classic research on sensory storage memory, the independent variable is the A) measurement of the memory span of the participants B) brief duration of the iconic image C) amount of letters remembered correctly D) time delay between disappearance of the grid and the arrival of the tone E) instruction to the participant to chunk the image

49)

50) Sarah Bellum is read the words team, trainer, basketball, practice, games, time outs, scrimmage, play, and fans. Later when tested for memory of the words, Sarah recalled the word coach. This is most likely due to the A) fact that the words are relate to a schema that includes the word coach B) feature of semantic processing during sensory storage memory C) cerebral cortexes capacity for long-term potential D) process of chunking to increase the capacity of short-term memory E) serial position effect

50)

51) Most flashbulb memories are A) quickly forgotten B) implicit C) chunked D) procedural E) episodic

51)

10

52) On the first day of school, a high school senior goes to the room that her first period class was in when she was a junior. This is an example of A) semantic interference B) implicit proactive interference C) procedural interference D) proactive interference E) retroactive interference

52)

53) A prototype of a concept is an example that A) is difficult to recall rapidly B) is most subject to the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon C) shares defining properties of the concept D) is most typical of the concept E) is processed by the brain in a parallel fashion rather than in a serial fashion

53)

54) A major advantage of using a heuristic rather than an algorithm is that heuristics A) often save time and resources B) are easier for children to apply C) guarantee a solution to the problem D) necessarily lead to more creative solutions E) involve an evaluation of all possible solutions

54)

55) Hugh Ristic needed to cross a large open field during a rain storm. A brand new garbage can with a light weight plastic lid was nearby. Hugh walked across the field and was soaked because he didn't think of using the lid as a covering to shield him from the rain. This inability to use the lid in this novel way is due to A) the confirmation bias B) critical thinking C) deductive reasoning D) functional fixedness E) the hindsight bias

55)

56) The sentence "store now milk buy go" is semantically acceptable but incorrect in terms of its A) linguistic relativity B) syntax C) morphology D) phonology E) deep structure

56)

11

57) Whorf and Sapir hypothesized that language A) deficits occur in children that are retarded B) determines the way members of a particular culture think C) acquisition develops in universal stages cross-culturally D) has a limited role in cognition E) spoken to infants has special characteristics

57)

58) The Yerkes-Dodson law states performance is best under A) low levels of arousal B) maximum parallel processing C) pressure to reestablish a homeostatic balance D) moderate levels of arousal E) high levels of arousal

58)

59) The goal of drive reduction within motivation is to A) reach optimum arousal B) minimize the effects of instincts on behavior C) reestablish a homeostatic balance D) provide an intrinsic incentive to continue the behavior E) reduce conflict in interpersonal relationships

59)

60) Research on the sexual practices of Americans has A) been conducted since the early 1900s B) found that cognition plays a limited role in sexuality C) shown that touch elicits the most arousal in both men and women D) often reported results based on biased samples E) found that homosexual and heterosexual individuals have similar levels of psychological adjustment

60)

61) Maslow's theory of self-actualization is A) evidence for the Yerkes-Dodson law B) hierarchical with lower needs having to be fulfilled before higher needs C) favored by behaviorists who proclaim individuals can shape their own behavior by controlling their environment D) a drive reduction theory E) activated within a person when they gain insight into unconscious processes that affect their behavior

61)

12

62) A psychologist who believes how we evaluate and interpret our physiological arousal determines our emotional experiences is likely to agree with A) the Schachter-Singer theory of emotion B) Maslow's theory of self-actualization C) the use of the polygraph in court D) the Cannon-Bad theory of emotion E) the James-Lange theory of emotion

62)

63) Although there is evidence for the universality of certain human facial expressions, the guidelines as to when, where, and how emotions should be expressed are known as A) role expectancies B) display rules C) attitudinal patterns D) emotional norms E) performance standards

63)

64) A common dependent variable researchers measure when studying perception in human infants is A) crying B) habituation C) maturation D) smiling E) grasping

64)

65) During infancy and early childhood the human brain A) is not modifiable by experience B) is too fragile to be studied extensively C) generates faster neural impulses D) has not yet developed the capability of plasticity E) has a dramatic increase in the number of synaptic interconnections

65)

66) A five-year-old child who is comforted by a doll attempts to give the doll to her teenaged babysitter when she seems upset. This behavior is an example of A) reversible thinking B) egocentrism C) underdeveloped object permanence D) lack of conservation E) concrete logical thought

66)

13

67) Systematic scientific logical problem solving is evident in the A) formal operational stage of cognitive development B) concrete operational stage of cognitive development C) sensorimotor stage of cognitive development D) child who can think logically about concrete events E) preoperational stage of cognitive development

67)

68) One significant way that Erikson's theory of development differs from Freud's theory of development is that Erikson A) put greater stress on the role of biological factors particularly in early childhood B) discounted the value of psychoanalysis in explaining development C) used experimental techniques in devising his theory of development D) emphasized latent learning in early childhood E) advocates that important developmental processes occur over the entire life span

68)

69) Typically, which of the following parental styles is most often correlated with socially competent and self-reliant children?

A) Neglectful B) Authoritarian C) Indulgent D) Slow to warm up E) Authoritative

69)

70) To determine an adolescent's stage of moral development Lawrence Kohlberg would A) give the adolescent a moral dilemma and then categorize the verbal justifications of the decision B) do a field experiment with the help of confederates where the adolescent had the option to act morally C) interview the individuals parents, friends, and teachers D) evaluate a story the adolescent would be asked to write about a moral issue E) ask the adolescent to explain the moral principles that a society should follow

70)

71) A cognitive perspective on the development of gender roles is known as gender A) identification theory B) modeling theory C) schema theory D) crystallized theory E) assimilation

71)

14

72) Alzheimer's disease involves a deficiency of which of the following neurotransmitters?

A) Dopamine B) Endorphins C) Serotonin D) GABA E) Acetylcholine

72)

73) Freud's original psychoanalytic theory was modified by the psychoanalysts Alfred Adler and Karen Horney who attributed more importance to A) prenatal nutrition B) social and cultural factors C) fixation D) the collective unconscious E) biological factors

73)

74) Which two conceptions from psychoanalysis both involve responding in socially acceptable ways?

A) The reality principle and sublimation B) Use of Freudian slips and free association C) The pleasure principle and displacement D) Id-driven behavior and catharsis E) Denial and regression

74)

75) Carl Rogers believes that if a person evaluates his or herself with conditions of worth, then he or she will A) develop an incongruency between the actual and ideal self B) project hostile feelings onto individuals he or she interacts with C) acquire intense feelings of inferiority D) regress to an earlier stage of development E) become depressed due to a lack of social reinforcement

75)

76) Since the technique of factor analysis was used to formulate the Big 5 personality factors, A) a person can only get select combinations of the five factors B) situational forces have minimal importance in explain behavior C) they are most likely only applicable to individualistic societies D) the factors are theoretically independent of each other E) projective techniques to discover an individual's traits have become more widespread

76)

15

77) Albert Bandura's social cognitive perspective on personality development emphasizes A) how cultures reveal the collective unconscious B) striving for self-actualization after lower needs are met C) reciprocal influences of the environment, cognitions, and behavior D) unconscious processing in the adult years E) the stability of the Big 5 traits over time

77)

78) Most cultures define intelligence A) based on observations by parents and teachers B) differently; often depending on one's ability to perform skills important within the culture C) by measuring the ability to think abstractly and systematically D) as being comprised of a similar set of skills E) as reflecting a person's level of creativity

78)

79) The scores of the Stanford-Binet intelligence test are normally distributed. If the test is given to 200 students, approximately how many students would be expected to get a score of 116 or above?

A) 84 students B) 30 students C) 2 students D) 15 students E) 50 students

79)

80) Which of the following is evidence of the Flynn effect?

A) The importance of divergent thinking B) Intelligence tests do not need to be re-normed periodically.

C) Genes significantly affect intelligence.

D) Environments significantly affect intelligence.

E) Creativity can be operationally defined and therefore studied objectively.

80)

81) Intellectual disability is a condition of limited mental ability which A) affects 15% of the American public B) affects conceptual skills, social skills, and practical skills C) is always genetic in origin D) can result from an adult developing Alzheimer's disease E) is so debilitating that the mentally retarded individual can lead a productive life only with constant supervision

81)

16

82) The tendency to attribute one's achievements to hard work and failure to outside causes beyond one's control is known as the A) the person situation debate B) self-serving bias C) stereotyping D) scapegoating E) the diffusion of responsibility

82)

83) The stereotype threat is an example of A) a self-fulfilling prophecy about performance of a task B) a prejudicial attitude towards a minority group C) followers of a charismatic leader being pressured to acquiesce with the leader's decisions D) an individual lacking an internal locus of control E) a central route of persuasion

83)

84) An advertisement for a tennis racket in Tennis Magazine is more persuasive if it uses A) perceived reactance B) the peripheral route to persuasion C) groupthink D) a central route to persuasion E) social facilitation

84)

85) Research has modified the original formulation of the frustration-aggression hypothesis by A) predicting the disparity between socioeconomic levels within a country explains who becomes aggressive when frustrated B) revealing that when some people get frustrated they do not become aggressive C) demonstrating the effects of hormones and neurotransmitters on aggression D) presenting evidence that primarily cultural factors determine levels of aggression E) indicating that genetics plays a minor role in the aggressive tendencies of animals

85)

86) Conformity is most evident in which of Kohlberg's six stages of moral development listed below?

A) Stage one B) Stage two C) Stage three D) Stage four E) Stage five

86)

17

87) Asch's study of conformity and Milgram's study of obedience both had to use which of the following procedures?

A) Random sampling B) Single-blind research design C) The use of a placebo D) The bogus pipeline E) Double-blind research design

87)

88) In a physical education class, students are practicing shooting foul shots. Social facilitation predicts performance will be the best under which of the following conditions?

A) Advanced players with a few people watching B) Beginners with many people watching C) Advanced players with many people watching D) Beginners with a few people watching E) Both beginners and advanced players will perform better if they are unknown to the crowd.

88)

89) Requiring college students to wear large visible name tags to attend a massive pep rally celebrating their schools winning of a football championship is a strategy used to minimize the negative potential outcome of A) group think B) social facilitation C) deindividuation D) cognitive dissonance E) the fundamental attribution error

89)

90) The Rosenhan study clearly demonstrated the negative effects of A) medication without psychotherapy B) electroconvulsive therapy on memory C) deinstitutionalization D) labeling a person as having a psychological disorder E) the medical model of abnormally

90)

91) The most significant difference between a fear and a phobia is that A) phobias are usually less intense than fears B) phobias are unlearned and fears are learned C) phobias are not treatable with psychotropic medications and fears respond well to such medication D) only phobias are linked to hallucinations and delusions E) phobias are more uncontrollable, disproportionate, and disruptive

91)

18

92) Which of the following perspectives propose an attributional explanation of depression?

A) Cognitive B) Biological C) Behavioral D) Psychoanalytic E) Sociocultural

92)

93) Bipolar disorder and depression are both classified as A) anxiety disorders B) mood disorders C) thought disorders D) dissociative disorders E) personality disorders

93)

94) Modern research on schizophrenia has shown A) it is often traceable to abuse in early childhood B) eventually all family members of the schizophrenic will show evidence of the disease C) lower levels of dopamine are correlated with a decrease in schizophrenic symptoms D) that some of the separate personalities formed by schizophrenia can be in touch with reality E) that drugs are ineffective in treating the symptoms of schizophrenia

94)

95) An individual with an antisocial personality often A) shows little concern for following the law and little guilt for breaking the law B) display multiple personalities that are relatively independent C) has memory gaps where he or she cannot recall large chunks of his or her life D) vacillates between delusions of grandeur and paranoia E) is often altruistic in social situations with family members

95)

96) Drugs that are administered to treat psychological disorders typically A) work to change processes at the level of the neurotransmitter B) reduce the size of the ventricles in the brain C) alter the physical structure of the brain D) modify the speed of neural impulses by increasing the effects of the myelin sheath E) rapidly change the chemical makeup of the cerebrospinal fluid

96)

19

97) A patient in psychoanalytic therapy that projects feelings they have for their mother onto the therapist is demonstrating A) resistance B) free association C) catharsis D) transference E) flooding

97)

98) Which of the following is the correct order of the steps involved in using systematic desensitization?

A) Have patient relax>construct an anxiety hierarchy>present the anxiety hierarchy B) Construct an anxiety hierarchy>present the anxiety hierarchy >have patient relax C) Present the anxiety hierarchy>have patient relax>construct an anxiety hierarchy D) Have patient relax>present the anxiety hierarchy>construct an anxiety hierarchy E) Construct an anxiety hierarchy>have patient relax>present the anxiety hierarchy

98)

99) An important statistical technique often employed to evaluate the combined effectiveness of diverse types of psychotherapy is A) random sampling B) determining the skewness of a distribution C) random assignment D) scatter plots E) meta-analysis

99)

100) Currently in the United States, A) it takes about the same number of years of full-time training to become a psychologist or psychiatrist B) clinical psychologist s do not practice psychoanalysis, only psychiatrists do C) only licensed psychologists and psychiatrist can conduct therapy D) some psychiatrists receive the new PSyD degree rather than the traditional MD degree E) all psychiatrists receive training in biomedical treatments of psychological disorders, but only some psychologists receive this training

100)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

101) Give an example of how each of the following four factors can be used by cast members to successfully rehearse for the play. (a) Levels of processing (b) Intrinsic motivation (c) Sublimation (d) Premack's principle

20

102) Give an example of how each of the following four factors can be involved in making the performance a success. (a) Broca's area (b) Yerkes-Dodson law (c) Selective attention (d) Social facilitation 103) Learning theorists believe that phobias are learned behaviors that occur due to conditioning. (a) Give an example of how a phobia can be acquired through classical conditioning. (b) Describe how the process of generalization is important for the acquisition of a phobia. (c) Distinguish between a phobia and a fear. (d) Describe how avoidance negative reinforcement maintains a phobia.

21

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED18

1) A 2) D 3) B 4) B 5) E 6) B 7) E 8) C 9) B 10) E 11) C 12) B 13) B 14) D 15) A 16) B 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) D 21) B 22) B 23) B 24) C 25) D 26) C 27) C 28) D 29) A 30) B 31) B 32) D 33) B 34) C 35) B 36) A 37) B 38) E 39) B 40) A 41) C 42) D

22

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED18

43) A 44) D 45) C 46) A 47) E 48) C 49) D 50) A 51) E 52) D 53) D 54) A 55) D 56) B 57) B 58) D 59) C 60) D 61) B 62) A 63) B 64) B 65) E 66) B 67) A 68) E 69) E 70) A 71) C 72) E 73) B 74) A 75) A 76) D 77) C 78) B 79) B 80) D 81) B 82) B 83) A 84) D

23

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED18

85) B 86) C 87) B 88) C 89) C 90) D 91) E 92) A 93) B 94) C 95) A 96) A 97) D 98) E 99) E 100) E 101) (a) Levels of processing Students must include some aspect of the following: Students use elaborative levels of processing to remember the lines for their parts in the play. They should relate the information to what they already know, make the information relevant to their own lives and remember the lines in context. They should see how their lines fit into the overall plot and structure of the play. (b) Intrinsic motivation Students must include some aspect of the following: Students will be more motivated and possibly more creative in preparing for the play if they are intrinsically motivated; that is if they are getting enjoyment for the behavior of practicing their lines or in performing in the play. Student must relate practicing to some aspect of personal enjoyment, satisfaction, or fun. (c) Sublimation Students must include some aspect of the following: Students in the play are redirecting or sublimating socially unacceptable energy into being a cast member which is socially acceptable. For example the cast member might want to be able to yell at an adult but this is considered socially unacceptable; however the individual has a part in the play where this is allowed and accepted. (d) Premack's principle Students must include some aspect of the following: Students must state in some fashion that they will be rewarded with the ability to exhibit a behavior they enjoy more than rehearsing or memorizing lines in the play. It must be clear that the more reinforcing or valued behavior comes after completion of the less desired behavior.

24

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED18

102) (a) Broca's area Students must include some aspect of the following: Students must state that language spoken during rehearsal or the play is produced by Broca's area.

Saying that language is comprehended here is not acceptable as that is usually considered to be the role of Wernicke's area. If the student places Broca's area in the right hemisphere but describes its function correctly that is acceptable. (b) Yerkes-Dodson law Students must include some aspect of the following: Students must state that the optimal level of arousal for cast members should be moderate (or a synonym for moderate is acceptable). They can state that optimal arousal is neither too high nor too low. (c) Selective attention Students must include some aspect of the following: Students must state that selective attention allows them to concentrate or focus on certain aspects of the environment while rehearsing or performing in the play and block out or ignore the rest. (d) Social facilitation Students must include some aspect of the following: Their performance will be better due to social facilitation as they are performing a well-practiced or rehearsed task in front of a large audience. If the student indicates they rehearsed better due to social facilitation this is acceptable as long as it is clear the rehearsal is in front of a sizable audience.

103) (a) Phobia acquisition Students must include some aspect of the following: A phobia is acquired when an initially neural stimulus is paired with an unconditioned stimulus to create a conditioned response similar to the conditioned response. For example a child is bitten by a small brown dog. The child now shows fear to other similar dogs. (b) Importance of generalization Students must include some aspect of the following: Generalization in classical conditioning is the process by which a response similar to the conditioned response is evoked by stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus. The phobia includes objects similar to the original conditioned stimulus. (c) Phobia and a fear Students must include some aspect of the following: A fear is an intense emotion characterized by a reaction to a threat. Fears are more proportional and rational than phobias which are persistent irrational fears often out of proportion to the phobic object. (d) Avoidance negative reinforcement/ phobia Students must include some aspect of the following: Avoidance negative reinforcement is the relief one receives from avoidance conditioning which is the establishment of behaviors that prevent reduce an aversive stimulus. Here a person avoids the phobia object thereby never learning that the phobic object might not be harmful. Avoiding the phobic object is an example of avoidance negative reinforcement which actually strengthens the phobia.

25

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The science of psychology began in which of the following settings?

A) The first convention of the American Psychological Association B) An operating room where hypnosis was first used C) A therapy session with Sigmund Freud D) The laboratory of Wilhelm Wundt E) A facility that trained animals

1)

2) Which of the following psychologists stressed the importance of consequences in shaping behavior?

A) B. F. Skinner B) Sigmund Freud C) Carl Rogers D) William James E) Edward Titchener

2)

3) The humanistic approach in psychology emphasizes A) cultural differences in perception and cognition B) the overriding importance of early childhood C) how natural selection modifies behavior over a long period of time D) the conflict between biological instincts and societal demands E) an individual's capacity to control his or her life

3)

4) The psychodynamic approach focuses on A) clinical case studies B) conscious mental processes C) drug treatment of psychological disorders D) experimental research E) self- determination of behavior

4)

5) Which of the following is true concerning operational definitions?

A) Variables only have one operational definition.

B) Operational definitions are only useful in experimentation.

C) They are necessary for the replication of research.

D) They are too problematic to use when measuring interpersonal factors.

E) It takes specialized training to use operational definitions.

5)

1

6) The descriptive research method with the greatest degree of generalizability is A) the survey B) the structured interview C) the standardized test D) naturalistic observation E) the case study

6)

7) The most appropriate research method for studying an individual with an unusual disease or psychological disorder is A) the survey B) the standardized test C) naturalistic observation D) the case study E) the structured interview

7)

8) Assume that four correlational studies are done that yield four different correlational coefficients. Three of the correlational coefficients are negative and one is positive.

The most predictive correlational coefficient is the one that is A) positive B) furthest from zero C) based on a randomly selected data set D) able to establish causation E) closest to zero

8)

9) If an experiment has internal validity, then the only significant difference between the experimental and control group is the A) operationally-defined variable B) dependent variable C) independent variable D) confounding variable E) measured variable

9)

10) A psychology graduate student has proposed administering a survey to undergraduate students in an introductory psychology class. Before conducting this research, the graduate student must get prior approval from A) the local district attorney B) his supervising professor C) the IRB (Institutional Review Board) of the university D) the American Psychological Association E) the president of the university

10)

2

11) Just before summer vacation, a teacher determines that the standard deviation of the heights of her class of 30 seventh graders is 5 inches. Assume that over summer vacation each student grows exactly 3 inches taller. Upon returning to school, their eighth grade teacher determines the standard deviation of their heights. The eighth grade teacher correctly computed this standard deviation to be A) 2 inches B) 5 inches C) the square root of 5 inches D) the square root of 3 inches E) 3 inches

11)

12) If a result is statistically significant then it A) is not likely based on chance B) has an important practical application C) has been replicated D) must be based on a large sample size E) eliminates the possibility of an invalid conclusion

12)

13) Which of the following describes making conclusions based on statistical probabilities?

A) Standard deviation B) Measures of central tendency C) Descriptive statistics D) Measures of dispersion E) Inferential statistics

13)

14) Ethical research on drugs that treat psychological disorders must A) have full informed consent given to the participants B) have been conducted on animals before people C) not involve the use of deception D) offer debriefing when the research is completed E) provide a guarantee to participants that the real drug works better than the placebo

14)

15) The most common cells in the brain are A) axons B) afferent neurons C) glial cells D) neural networks E) efferent neurons

15)

3

16) The process that occurs just prior to an action potential is A) autonomic nervous system arousal B) polarization C) depolarization D) reuptake E) plasticity

16)

17) Agonists are drugs that affect A) the strength of action potentials B) the speed of action potentials C) the actions of a neurotransmitter D) the thickness of the myelin sheath E) the size of the synaptic gap

17)

18) Temperature sensitive neurons that function like a thermostat are located in the A) hypothalamus B) thalamus C) cerebral cortex D) limbic system E) cerebellum

18)

19) The sensory switchboard of the brain is the A) hippocampus B) reticular formation C) limbic system D) thalamus E) hypothalamus

19)

20) Metacognition is the ability to monitor and modify thinking processes. This advanced evolutionary capability is controlled by the A) corpus callosum B) prefrontal cortex C) endocrine system D) temporal lobe E) cerebellum

20)

4

21) A new parenting book has a test to determine whether a child is a right-brained or left-brained individual. An informed neuroscientist would A) support such a test as being valid B) accept the results but would explain the child can be trained to use both sides of their brain equally C) accept the results as long as the test measured both preferences and motor behavior D) suggest that such a test is valid for adults, but not for children as their brains are still developing E) realize that such tests have little if any scientific basis

21)

22) Levels of which of the following neurotransmitters are involved in both Parkinson's disease and schizophrenia?

A) Endorphins B) Serotonin C) GABA D) Dopamine E) Oxytocin

22)

23) Which of the following drugs is an agonist for endorphins?

A) Morphine B) Nicotine C) Curare D) Prozac E) Insulin

23)

24) Which neurotransmitter can lead to paralysis in an individual if too little is present in the body, but can cause convulsions if too much is present?

A) Endorphins B) GABA C) Dopamine D) Acetylcholine E) Serotonin

24)

25) The selective breeding of rats has demonstrated that over multiple generations A) genes are relatively unimportant in affecting behavior B) rats born prematurely cannot acquire maze running skills C) genes can have an important influence on behavior D) researcher expectations are primary in determining the outcomes observed E) the weight of the rats is highly correlated with their ability to learn new information

25)

5

26) Sensory receptors A) transduce the energy into action potentials of different intensities B) are typically located inside the central nervous system C) are involved in top-down processing D) send their transduced information directly to the frontal lobe for processing E) are specialized to acquire a certain type of energy

26)

27) Weber's law states that the change in a stimulus A) is detected by a person if it is greater than the absolute threshold B) is perceived before sensed C) divided by the initial stimulus is a constant D) is unrelated to the intensity of the initial stimulus E) reflects an individual's perceptual set

27)

28) One important difference between signal detection theory and absolute threshold theory is that A) signal detection theory indicates that a person's readiness to respond is consistent across situations B) signal detection theory takes into account the perceiver's decision making process and expectations while absolute threshold theory does not C) absolute threshold theory is more useful in determining the range of perceivable stimuli D) signal detection theory is used to determine the minimal detectable stimulus E) absolute threshold theory takes into account false alarms while signal detection theory does not

28)

29) Transduction for vision takes place in the A) retina B) iris C) lens

29) D) pupil

E) cornea

30) The place on the retina where the optic nerve leaves the eye is A) called the fovea and is the location of the highest concentration of cones B) where transduction occurs C) called the blind spot because no rods or cones are located there D) on the boundary between the rods and cones E) where the process of accommodation is completed

6

30)

31) Which of the following is correct when considering the trichromatic theory of color vision and the opponent process theory of color vision?

A) The trichromatic theory of color vision explains afterimages better than the opponent process theory of color vision.

B) Both theories are valid but occur on different levels of visual processing.

C) The study of color blindness has been used as evidence for the validity of both theories.

D) Newer research by Hubel and Wiesel has shown the opponent process theory of color vision to be more accurate.

E) The trichromatic theory of color vision explains processing in the thalamus.

31)

32) The perception of pain A) is not influenced by the release of neurotransmitters B) initially occurs outside the central nervous system C) appears to be greater in newborn girls as compared to newborn boys D) can be significantly affected by culture E) depends on one major neural pathway that brings pain messages to the brain

32)

33) Chronic sleep deprivation is a major health concern in the United States and A) is inherited and surprisingly unrelated to daily stress levels B) is curable by using sleeping pills C) greatly affects both adolescents and older adults D) enhances an individual's ability to solve problems as it enhances creativity E) is not problematic unless a person is getting less than 75% of their required sleep

33)

34) The amount of REM sleep A) is difficult to measure in a sleep lab B) changes over the life span C) decreases as the night goes on D) predicts the likelihood of having a night terror E) is measured by the amount of delta waves recorded

34)

35) The theory that states that dreams result from the brain's attempt to create a story line from random neural messages is known as the A) activation-synthesis model B) frontal lobe model C) psychoanalytic model D) subconscious model E) cognitive-interpretive model

35)

7

36) An important current debate regarding hypnosis is whether A) psychotherapy enhances the effects of hypnosis B) hypnosis is an altered state of consciousness C) the hypnotized person is actually in stage one sleep while under hypnosis D) hypnosis is useful in treating pain E) Mesmer's explanation of hypnosis was accurate

36)

37) After taking a psychoactive drug for a length of time, it is likely a person will develop A) body tremors B) the capacity to naturally increase dopamine production in the brain C) less of a need for the drug D) a tolerance for the drug E) a greater psychological independence

37)

38) The most widely used psychoactive drug in the United States is A) cocaine B) alcohol C) amphetamines D) marijuana E) caffeine

38)

39) Within classical conditioning, the conditioned response A) is elicited by the unconditioned stimulus B) cannot occur after extinction unless reconditioning takes place C) mimics a biological response D) results when the unconditioned stimulus is followed by the conditioned stimulus E) occurs without prior training or experience

39)

40) Within classical conditioning, the generalized stimulus differs from the conditioned stimulus in which of the following ways?

A) The generalized stimulus elicits a conditioned response which cannot be eliminated by counter-conditioning.

B) The generalized stimulus occurs before the conditioned stimulus.

C) The generalized stimulus typically elicits a stronger response than the conditioned response.

D) The generalized stimulus elicits voluntary responses.

E) The generalized stimulus is not paired with the unconditioned stimulus.

40)

8

41) The dependent variable in experimentation concerning schedules of reinforcement is A) the time delay between the presentation of the conditioned stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus B) the type of reinforcement the experimenter delivers to the subject C) the amount of food that is used as reinforcement D) the response rate of the organism E) whether or not shaping has been used

41)

42) The post-reinforcement pause typically occurs for which schedule of reinforcement?

A) Continuous reinforcement B) A fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement C) A variable-ratio schedule of reinforcement D) A fixed-interval schedule of reinforcement E) A variable-interval schedule of reinforcement

42)

43) A comparison between negative reinforcement and punishment shows that A) punishment decreases behavior while negative reinforcement increases behavior B) negative reinforcement reduces unwanted behaviors more quickly than punishment C) punishment is the only effective way to change unwanted behavior D) negative reinforcement is a reduction in positive reinforcement until it becomes negative E) aversive stimuli are only involved with punishment

43)

44) In order to be optimally effective, punishment needs to be A) applied repeatedly B) delivered soon after the unwanted behavior, rather than delayed C) resistant to extinction D) an aversive unconditioned stimulus E) randomly applied to unwanted behavior, rather than purposively applied

44)

45) Which of the following is a description of a person solving a problem by insight?

A) Numerous solutions are tried until the correct one is discovered.

B) A perceptual reorganization occurs and the solution comes suddenly.

C) A cognitive map is developed prior to the solution.

D) Latent learning occurs just before the problem is solved.

E) A student imitates their teacher and gradually learns how to solve the problem.

45)

9

46) Superstitious behavior according to B.F. Skinner is when A) a token economy is used to modify behavior B) there is a lack of insight into one's behavior C) spontaneous recovery causes previously extinguished behavior to reappear D) a non-contingent relationship occurs between a behavior and a reinforcement E) an operantly-conditioned response is generalized

46)

47) Which of the following was an essential aspect in Bandura's studies of social learning in children?

A) Shaping B) Avoidance learning C) Observational learning D) Secondary reinforcement E) Role playing

47)

48) Two animals are blasted with a loud painful noise. One animal is consistently signaled a few seconds prior to the delivery of the noise. The second animal receives the noise without prior warning. According to current research, which of the following is true?

A) Both animals will have similar stress levels.

B) Both animals will habituate to the noise.

C) The first animal will show more stress as it is aware of the timing of the aversive event.

D) The second animal will be more likely to show learned helplessness.

E) Both animals will develop tinnitus.

48)

49) The methodological technique used by Sperling in his classic research on sensory storage memory involved A) a tone being sounded that indicated which of the three rows to recall B) the application of one aspect of dual code theory to sensory storage memory C) asking the participants to only recall vowels in the grid as opposed to consonants D) processing the information semantically E) the magic number 7 +/–2

49)

50) The concept of long-term potentiation explains how memory A) affects the imagery of an individual's dreams B) categorizes script by location of the event C) functions on the level of the neuron D) ability predicts creativity correlationally E) is enhanced by distributed practice rather than massed practice

50)

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51) When memorizing a list of words listed on flashcards, it would be advisable to mix up the order of the cards when studying to A) increase the capacity of the corpus callosum for quicker processing B) maximize the benefits of priming C) enable the use of eidetic memory as a mnemonic device D) minimize the serial position effect E) enhance distributed practice

51)

52) The inability for a cashier to recognize the front of a penny from a collection of pictures of pennies, some of which are inaccurately portrayed, is due to A) the forgetting curve B) the limited capacity of short-term memory C) memory decay D) retrograde amnesia E) encoding failure

52)

53) A shopper has lost his keys in a large mall. Retracing his steps in order to locate the missing keys is an example of the problem-solving strategy known as A) an algorithm B) the serial position strategy C) the method of loci D) a heuristic E) working memory

53)

54) Which of the following best promotes creativity?

A) Reliance on algorithms B) A mental set C) Intrinsic motivation D) The hindsight bias E) Convergent thinking

54)

55) Noam Chomsky has argued that language acquisition depends on A) maturation of the frontal lobe after adolescence B) observational learning of adults C) the child receiving environmental reinforcement for speaking D) the development of long-term verbal memory E) an innate capacity to acquire language

55)

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56) Before the age of six months, human infants have the capacity to A) distinguish the phonemes of any human language B) imitate the proper use of syntax C) respond to the semantics of a message D) attach specific meanings to words E) generalize the rules of language to other contexts

56)

57) Instincts are A) acquired through positive reinforcement B) learned behaviors C) simpler than reflexes D) useful in explaining human behavior E) innate actions typically triggered by a sign stimulus

57)

58) The set point refers to the A) stable weight that is maintained when no effort is made to gain or lose weight B) level of arousal that naturally occurs when a person is resting C) relationship between glucose and leptin levels D) homeostatic balance between the lateral hypothalamus and ventromedial hypothalamus E) consistent effect of drives upon needs

58)

59) Prior to 1970, both the American Psychological Association and the American Psychiatric Association considered homosexuality a A) behavior correlated to high levels of prenatal stress B) consequence of over-identifying with the same sexed parent C) response to a deficient hypothalamic set point D) result of a hormonal imbalance E) psychiatric disorder

59)

60) Maslow's theory of self-actualization is associated with which of the following psychological perspectives?

A) Behaviorism B) Psychoanalysis C) Gestalt D) Cognitive E) Humanistic

60)

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61) Madison, an elementary school-aged child who has played chess for years because she enjoys it, is suddenly given candy bars for playing chess. This is likely to increase her A) confidence level while playing chess B) ability to play chess creatively and imaginatively C) intrinsic motivation and love of playing chess D) chances of discontinuing playing chess if the candy bars are no longer presented E) enjoyment of playing chess only in the presence of others

61)

62) The James-Lange theory states that the experience of an emotion A) happens when the thalamus sends out simultaneous messages to the autonomic nervous system and cerebral cortex B) results from a cognitive appraisal of the situation C) is a result of changes in the skin's electrical conductivity D) often reflects conflicts from early childhood E) occurs after one perceives his or her body's unique physiological changes

62)

63) The belief that watching others behave aggressively will subsequently reduce one's level of anger is known as the A) facial feedback model B) conditioned suppression outcome model C) self-serving bias D) cognitive restructuring model E) catharsis hypothesis

63)

64) Some reflexes in newborn babies are A) learned through operant conditioning B) controlled by voluntary actions C) acquired by observational learning D) caused by teratogens E) no longer present after a few months

64)

65) Piaget's theory of cognitive development states that as children progress through a series of stages, their thinking A) is related to the quality of their nutritional intake B) comes under the control of more subtle environmental influences C) becomes qualitatively more advanced D) is more dependent on cultural expectations E) becomes less representational

65)

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66) In Piaget's theory of cognitive development, new schemas are most likely to occur during the process of A) logical thinking B) accommodation C) achieving object permanence D) thinking abstractly E) assimilation

66)

67) In Piaget's theory of cognitive development, logical thinking first occurs during the A) development of conservation B) sensorimotor stage C) concrete operational stage D) preoperational stage E) formal operational stage

67)

68) Compared to Piaget, Vygotsky's viewpoint on cognitive development puts more emphasis on A) the importance of critical periods B) the development of heuristics C) the use of mental imagery D) solving puzzles individually E) cultural factors and social interaction

68)

69) The strange situation test devised by Mary Ainsworth is used to A) see if human infants prefer cloth over wire food dispensers B) measure the level of shyness children experience with strangers C) assess an adolescent's ability to think abstractly in novel environments D) determine the type of temperament a child has E) study differences in infant attachment styles

69)

70) An important criticism of Kohlberg's theory of moral development is that he A) just observed an individual's actions B) only tested children up to the age of 12 C) tested moral thinking rather than moral behavior D) believed very few people went past stage two E) only did longitudinal research

70)

71) As people age through middle adulthood A) their fluid intelligence increases, while their crystallized intelligence decreases B) both their fluid and crystallized intelligence increase C) both their fluid and crystallized intelligence decrease D) both their fluid and crystallized intelligence become indistinguishable E) their crystallized intelligence increases, while their fluid intelligence decreases

71)

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72) During the middle adulthood stage of psychosocial development, Erikson postulated that psychologically healthy adults develop the attribute of generativity which is characterized by A) gaining psychological wisdom to overcome a mid-life crisis B) doing something to benefit the next generation C) producing new neurons to compensate for the loss of neurons due to aging D) learning how to adapt to reduction in perceptual processing speed E) developing creative ideas to improve the quality of their careers

72)

73) Which of the following psychoanalytic concepts supports the idea that early childhood experiences can be very influential in affecting later personality development?

A) Fixation B) Freudian slips C) Peer interactions D) Dream interpretation E) Sublimation

73)

74) The humanistic psychologist Carl Rogers proposed that psychologically healthy individuals have A) overcome a fixation from an earlier stage of development B) compensated for strong inferiority feelings C) successfully resolved their identity crisis D) no need to use defense mechanisms E) an actual self that is relatively similar to their ideal self

74)

75) Trait theories of personality development are often criticized for A) disputing a significant genetic basis for personality B) primarily studying children C) ignoring the importance of situational influences D) relying on clinical case studies E) emphasizing the influence of unconscious conflicts

75)

76) A comparison of Skinner and Bandura in terms of personality development shows that Bandura's perspective gives greater importance to which of the following factors?

A) Biological B) Instinctual C) Unconscious D) Environmental E) Cognitive

76)

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77) Projective personality tests typically assess a person by using A) a structured interview B) a self-report form C) naturalistic observation D) an ambiguous stimuli E) the strange situation test

77)

78) Assume that a thermometer consistently indicates a temperature that is 15 degrees below the actual temperature. The readings from this thermometer are A) reliable B) imprecise C) accurate D) valid E) normed

78)

79) Alfred Binet developed the first intelligence test A) in order to place children into classes most suited to their ability level B) to examine the stages of cognitive development in children C) so that the offspring of the more intelligent students could be studied longitudinally D) to study the relationship between socioeconomic level and intelligence E) to assist the government in determining immigration laws

79)

80) Which of the following statements is true concerning the relationship between data and the normal curve?

A) If the data from an experiment fits a normal curve the results are statistically significant.

B) For all normal curves a score above the mean is greater than the 50th percentile.

C) The mean is typically greater than the median in a normal curve.

D) All distributions based on large sample sizes have data that fits the normal curve.

E) If data from a test does not form a normal curve, the test is not valid.

80)

81) The results of the study that Lewis Terman conducted on intellectually gifted children A) gave researchers the idea to study twins raised apart to study the origins of intelligence B) revealed that the children he studied eventually became major creators or innovators in their given field of study C) confirmed beliefs that gifted children are often seriously maladjusted D) were considered strong evidence for nature rather than nurture in determining intelligence E) showed the children were socially well-adjusted

81)

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82) A driver observes a car passing at a high rate of speed and believes that the driver of the speeding car is a dangerous, reckless person. In reality, the other driver is a police officer in an unmarked car rushing to the scene of an accident. In this scenario, the first driver was susceptible to A) the frustration aggression hypothesis B) social facilitation C) the bystander effect D) the fundamental attribution error E) group polarization

82)

83) Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that the greatest attitude change occurs when a person behaves in a way contrary to their deeply held beliefs under conditions of A) social loafing B) deindividuation C) a minimal incentive D) a very large incentive E) informational conformity

83)

84) A furniture salesman convinces a potential buyer to sit on an expensive lounge chair in an attempt to make a sale. Which of these techniques is the salesman employing?

A) Altruism B) Door-in-the-face C) Self-serving bias D) Reciprocity E) Foot-in-the-door

84)

85) Research indicates that individuals are more likely to help a stranger in need when less people are present. One likely explanation for this is, when more people are present A) social facilitation motivates people not to get involved B) there is a diffusion of responsibility C) cognitive dissonance causes confusion as to how to act D) altruistic tendencies cannot be anonymous E) stereotypes are more likely to be acted on

85)

86) In an experiment, a subject conforms to the group to be accepted but privately does not concur with the group. This type of conformity reflects A) pro social influence B) normative influence C) central route influence D) informational influence E) peripheral influence

86)

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87) The operational definition of obedience in Milgram's classic study is A) the shock level when the learner stop responding B) the 450 volt shock level C) the directive to obey from the experimenter D) the amount of stress shown by the teacher during the experiment E) the shock level when the learner first protested being shocked

87)

88) Social loafing and deindividuation both involve A) feelings of diminished responsibility B) obedience C) group polarization D) scapegoating E) group think

88)

89) Research shows that when hostile or competitive groups cooperate and work together to accomplish a meaningful superordinate goal, tension is reduced. One technique that has been shown to accomplish this is A) teacher-directed consensual validation B) the mere exposure classroom strategy C) school-wide social facilitation D) the jigsaw classroom E) Pygmalion in the classroom

89)

90) The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-IV) is a resource relied upon by clinical psychologists and psychiatrists to A) find clinicians they can refer patients to if they move out of the area B) uncover the underlying potential causes of a disorder C) classify a disorder by specific diagnostic criteria D) discover recommended treatments for a variety of psychological disorders E) explain responses to the major projective tests

90)

91) Which of the following is a typical characteristic of the manic state of bipolar disorder?

A) Sadness B) Rational thinking C) Altruistic behavior D) Impulsivity E) Aggressive behavior

91)

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92) A comparison of dissociative identity disorder (DID) and schizophrenia shows that A) schizophrenia is the splitting of a personality into a number of relatively independent functional personalities B) disordered thought processes are characteristic of both schizophrenia and dissociative identity disorder C) enlarged ventricles in the brain are symptomatic of dissociative identity disorder D) schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder while dissociative identity disorder is not E) they both occur at about the same rate cross-culturally

92)

93) The incidence of schizophrenia A) is much higher for women than for men B) varies significantly depending on the culture C) is significantly lower than dissociative identity disorder D) is one to two percent of the American population E) has increased considerably with each new edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)

93)

94) A schizophrenic hears a voice that has no basis in the external world. Such an experience is a A) catatonic action B) hallucination C) neologism D) delusion E) compulsion

94)

95) The diathesis-stress model for explaining psychopathology A) states that early childhood experiences interact with stress to create psychological disturbances B) proposes that nutrition deficits increase stress levels to make it more likely for psychopathology to occur C) gives clear evidence that only the medial model of psychopathology is valid D) advocates the use of psychotherapy over psychotropic medications for treating psychological disorders E) suggests that a combination of genetic disposition and stress is involved with developing schizophrenia

95)

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96) The diathesis-stress model for explaining psychopathology A) states that early childhood experiences interact with stress to create psychological disturbances B) proposes that nutrition deficits increase stress levels to make it more likely for psychopathology to occur C) advocates the use of psychotherapy over psychotropic medications for treating psychological disorders D) suggests that a combination of genetic disposition and stress is involved with developing schizophrenia E) gives clear evidence that only the medial model of psychopathology is valid

96)

97) According to Carl Rogers, the goal of therapy is for clients to A) gain insight into conflicts stemming from early childhood and to experience a catharsis in regard to them B) understand their own genuine feelings and to establish greater congruence between their actual self and ideal self C) choose environments where more reinforcements are available D) learn ways of responding socially by modeling the therapist E) appreciate the value of conditions of worth and to accept them as guidelines to being happier

97)

98) Psychodynamic, humanistic, and cognitive therapists are similar in that they A) believe individuals can be helped significantly by non-directive counseling B) investigate the internal frame of reference of the client or patient C) stress uncovering unconscious memories D) use free association as an essential technique E) advocate authentic self-disclosure on the part of the therapist

98)

99) A comparison of clinical psychologists and psychiatrists reveals that A) psychiatrists are full medical doctors, while clinical psychologist cannot practice medicine B) in most states, clinical psychologists can prescribe psychotropic medications with specialized training C) clinical psychologists are more likely to use biologically-based therapies D) an internship is required only for clinical psychologists E) both undergo virtually identical training the first two years they are in their graduate programs

99)

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100) One of the most important ingredients of effective psychotherapy is for the A) therapist to imitate the client's body language to signal acceptance B) sessions to be tape recorded for further analysis C) client to feel supported by the therapist D) client to sit on a chair with the therapist out of view E) therapist to rarely disagree with the client

100)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

101) Dr. Randolph has developed a new medication that he believes will be effective in the treatment of narcolepsy. He will have to test this new drug to determine its effectiveness and has asked you to assist him.

State a hypothesis and describe how each of the following concepts can be used to ensure the validity of the experiment. (a) Operational definition of the dependent variable (b) Random assignment (c) Control group (d) Double-blind procedure (e) Control of confounding variables Assume that after inferential statistics are applied results are statistically significant. (f) Explain what statistical significance means and if it indicates the results are of practical importance. (g) Describe why it is valuable to replicate the study even if the results are statistically significant.

102) Give an example that shows how each of the following can be involved in the successful completion of a task: (a) Token economy (b) Self-efficacy (c) Use of an algorithm (d) Hippocampus (e) Cerebellum (f) Extrinsic motivation (g) Chunking (h) Insight

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Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED20

1) D 2) A 3) E 4) A 5) C 6) D 7) D 8) B 9) C 10) C 11) B 12) A 13) E 14) D 15) C 16) C 17) C 18) A 19) D 20) B 21) E 22) D 23) A 24) D 25) C 26) E 27) C 28) B 29) A 30) C 31) B 32) D 33) C 34) B 35) A 36) B 37) D 38) E 39) C 40) E 41) D 42) D

22

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED20

43) A 44) B 45) B 46) D 47) C 48) D 49) A 50) C 51) D 52) E 53) D 54) C 55) E 56) A 57) E 58) A 59) E 60) E 61) D 62) E 63) E 64) E 65) C 66) B 67) C 68) E 69) E 70) C 71) E 72) B 73) A 74) E 75) C 76) E 77) D 78) A 79) A 80) B 81) E 82) D 83) C 84) B

23

Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED20

85) B 86) B 87) B 88) A 89) D 90) C 91) D 92) D 93) D 94) B 95) E 96) D 97) B 98) B 99) A 100) C

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Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED20

101) The student must make a hypothesis indicting a relationship between taking a medication and a reduction in the symptoms or occurrence of narcolepsy. a. Operational definition of independent variable The student must describe an outcome of a reduction in the major symptoms of narcolepsy or in the occurrence of narcolepsy. Do not accept any description of the medication as that is the dependent variable. b. Random assignment The student must describe how the participants were placed into the control group and experimental group randomly or by some chance procedure. Accept group matching as a possible answer. Do not accept any discussion of having a representative or random sample as that is random sampling. c. Control group The student must discuss that a control is needed as a comparison group to the experimental group.

Accept any answer indicating that the control group gets a placebo in order to serve in some fashion as a comparison group to the experimental group. d. Double-blind procedure The student must describe that both the experimenter and the participants are unaware of who is in the control group or experimental group. Accept it if the student says no one is aware of who has received the drug or placebo. e. Control of confounding variables The student must describe how exercising control over experimental or environmental variables helps to ensure the validity of the experiment. For example any description of keeping the variables the same or nearly the same between the groups other than the independent variable is acceptable. f. Meaning of statistical significance/practical importance The student must describe statistical significance as the degree to which a result cannot reasonably be attributed to chance or random factors. It is the likelihood that the result is due to systematic factors rather than chance. It does not relate to practical importance. A result can be statistically significant yet trivial or not valuable in its applicability to the real world. g. Why valuable to replicate The student must discuss that the study should be replicated to further verify the results. Even if the experiment is done correctly, there is still a possibility the results found are due to chance rather than the independent variable. If a replication of the experiment also has statistically significant results this is further verification that the effect found is due to the systematic factor manipulated by the experimenter.

102) a. Token economy The student's description must include both of the following: how a behavior is maintained or initiated by a token economy within the framework of operant conditioning in order to complete a task. The student does not have to use the term "operant conditioning" but the behavior affected must be of a voluntary nature. Additionally, the reinforcement delivered must be a secondary reinforcer or generalized reinforcer. b. Self-efficacy The student must describe how the individual's belief in his or her capacity to successfully complete a task helps in achieving the desired behavior.

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Answer Key Testname: UNTITLED20

c. Use of an algorithm The student must describe how using a step-by-step methodical procedure guarantees a solution to a problem (the task). Do not accept any references to any procedure that relies on a heuristic. d. Hippocampus The student must describe how the hippocampus is involved in declarative memory or in the processing of short-term memories into long-term memories (consolidation). The memory must enable the person to successfully complete a given task. e. Cerebellum The student must describe how the cerebellum is involved in either procedural memories or the modulation of muscle movements to create or maintain coordinated movements. Either one of these must be linked to the individual successfully completing a task. f. Extrinsic motivation The student must describe how some external incentive (positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, or punishment) has reinforced or influenced an individual's behavior to lead them to successfully complete a task. Punishment is acceptable as an extrinsic motivating factor as long as it reduces behavior which hinders the person from completing the task successfully. g. Chunking The student must use the term "chunking" within the context of short-term memory. Chunking enables an individual to increase the overall capacity of the so-called magic number of short term memory (7 +/- 2). This increase must, in some way, enhance the ability of an individual to successfully complete a task. h. Insight Accept either of the following ways to answer this question: a. The student must indicate that an individual has a sudden accurate solution to a problem. Often this is based on a perceptual reorganization of some aspect of the problem.

The student must place the concept within psychotherapy whereby the patient gains awareness into the underlying source of behavioral, cognitive, or emotional difficulties and this insight makes the psychotherapy more successful.

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