Test Bank for Organizational Behavior; Bridging Science & Practice Version 4.0 by Talya Bauer- Compl

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Organizational Behavior: Bridging Science and Practice Version 4.0 Talya Bauer Berrin Erdogan 2023

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Organizational Behavior: Bridging Science and Practice Version 4.0 by Talya Bauer & Berrin Erdogan.

ISBN-10 1453337679 ISBN-13 978-1453337677 Test bank for Organizational Behavior: Bridging Science and Practice Version 4.0 by Talya Bauer & Berrin Erdogan

ISBN-10 1453337679 ISBN-13 978-1453337677

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TABLE OF CONTENTS Chapter 1: Organizational Behavior at Work Chapter 2: Diversity and Inclusion at Work Chapter 3: Individual Differences and Perception at Work Chapter 4: Attitudes and Behaviors at Work Chapter 5: Theories of Motivation at Work Chapter 6: Designing a Motivating Work Environment Chapter 7: Stress and Emotions at Work Chapter 8: Communication at Work Chapter 9: Groups and Teams at Work Chapter 10: Conflict and Negotiation at Work Chapter 11: Decision Making and Creativity at Work Chapter 12: Leading at Work Chapter 13: Power, Influence, and Politics at Work Chapter 14: Organizational Structure and Change at Work Chapter 15: Organizational Culture at Work

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Chapter 1 - Organizational Behavior at Work Multiple Choice 1. Organizational behavior is the study of a. organizational strategy b. individuals and groups at work c. psychology of individuals d. behavior of consumers ANSWER: b 2. Organizational behavior may be analyzed at different levels of analysis. Studying how a manager's personality affects departmental effectiveness is an example of which level of analysis? a. organization b. individual c. group d. None of the above ANSWER: c 3. Which of the following is accurate for learning? a. It needs to take place in a classroom setting. b. skills and knowledge should be easy to acquire. c. change in knowledge and skills should be permanent. d. all employees should have similar levels of knowledge ANSWER: c 4. Which of the following is related to learning? a. Learner readiness to learn b. Learner motivation to learn c. Supportive learning environment d. All of the above.

ANSWER: d 5. When trying to memorize your nine digit social security number, you probably memorized it in small groups such as 999-32-1990. This is an example of: a. Chunking b. Overlearning c. Using mnemonic devices d. Visualizing ANSWER: a 6. Which is accurate relating to overlearning? a. It is related to reduced performance and overload. b. It is useful for achieving performance in high stakes contexts. c. It is synonymous with cramming. d. Refers to the point where practice needs to be stopped.

ANSWER: b

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7. Which of the following is NOT related to greater recall of information? a. Grouping information into smaller units b. Repetition c. Viewing material as meaningful d. Studying intensively a short time before an exam ANSWER: d 8. By using a combination of oral and visual modes in a workplace presentation, the audience a. will probably be bored. b. tends to become overwhelmed with information. c. will typically retain only information presented visually. d. will more likely have their preferences met.

ANSWER: d 9. Amar took geometry in high school but did not use this knowledge for years. During an internship in college, he needed geometry to solve a problem and found that he remembered how to apply the various formulas. In this situation, Amar was relying on a. short-term memory. b. long-term memory. c. repetition. d. chunking.

ANSWER: b 10. Ichiro feels overwhelmed during the lengthy orientation program for his new job, as there’s a lot to learn. He decides to begin grouping information he receives into categories, such as personnel, government regulations, and systems operations. After this point, connections begin to make sense and Ichiro feels more confident.

What learning strategy is being used? a. chunking b. repetition c. motivation d. overlearning ANSWER: a 11. Learning and reviewing information multiple times over a longer period of time is a learning technique known as a. memorizing. b. assigning meaning. c. repetition. d. cramming.

ANSWER: c 12. A person who prefers kinesthetic learning, prefers a. doing things and by actively engaging with the material. b. reading and seeing diagrams and flow charts. c. listening to others in lectures and conversations. d. watching videotaped lectures.

ANSWER: a

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13. Those with a preference for visual learning prefer to learn a. from reading and seeing diagrams. b. by doing things and engaging in trial and error. c. from reading and listening simultaneously. d. by listening to a lecture.

ANSWER: a 14. Someone who prefers to learn by listening to others is likely someone who prefers a. kinesthetic learning b. auditory learning. c. mathematical learning. d. visual learning.

ANSWER: b 15. Someone with a preference for _________ learning is typically a student who prefers to learn things by trial and error. a. visual b. auditory c. kinesthetic (tactile) d. emotional ANSWER: c 16. Those with a preference for auditory learning have a preference for learning by a. drawing pictures to help them understand material. b. taking notes during lectures to force them to pay attention. c. using charts to summarize the main points of class material. d. recording lectures to refer to them later.

ANSWER: d 17. When it comes to learning styles, the text recommends that you a. focus on becoming visual learning. b. learn and practice adapting to multiple styles. c. work on improving your preferred learning style. d. avoid situations not aligned with your learning strengths.

ANSWER: b 18. What statement is accurate about the benefits of notetaking as a learning tool? a. For most, taking notes is a distraction from the learning and retention process. b. Taking notes in longhand helps the learner encode and retain information better. c. Highlighting key words, concepts and phrases on a document is preferred over notetaking as a learning tool. d. Taking notes on a laptop is preferred because it allows the learner to take more notes at a faster rate.

ANSWER: b 19. What is suggested about creating flashcards and using these for quizzing as a learning tool?

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a. It’s an ineffective method for retention of complex information. b. It’s only necessary in situations which require overlearning. c. It’s a good way to encode, retain, and test yourself all at one time. d. It’s a good way to become stressed about test-taking.

ANSWER: c 20. For researchers, hypotheses are a. entities that take on different values. b. research tools that elicit respondents’ reactions to specific questions. c. the process of writing out thoughts and emotions on a regular basis. d. tentative guesses for expected observations that can be tested.

ANSWER: d 21. An entity that takes on different values during the research process is a. a hypothesis. b. a variable. c. a survey. d. a field study.

ANSWER: b 22. A famous study examined how different aspects of the work environment, such as lighting, the timing of breaks, and the length of the workday, impacted worker productivity. As this was conducted gathering survey data from real workers at an operational plant, it is an example of a. a field study. b. a case study. c. a lab study. d. a meta-analytic study.

ANSWER: a 23. Research conducted outside the workplace and performed under very controlled conditions is called a a. case study. b. survey. c. field study. d. lab study.

ANSWER: d 24. During an experiment, the control group a. receives experimental manipulation. b. is an entity that can take on different values. c. receives no experimental manipulation. d. is an entity which is subject to frequent change.

ANSWER: c 25. Santiago wants to thoroughly understand the issues that created the severe economic straits Boeing currently finds itself experiencing. He should consider what kind of a research study? a. a case study b. a survey

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c. a field study d. a laboratory study ANSWER: a 26. A hospital wanted to determine whether a wellness program that focused on walking to enhance employee health would cut down on employees’ use of health benefits. Employees in the Accounting Department were invited to participate and received a $25 gift card for taking part in the program. Employees in the Laboratory Department did not participate in the program. Health benefits data were examined for both departments. This scenario represents which type of research study? a. a case study b. a survey c. an experimental field study d. a laboratory study ANSWER: c 27. A small University wanted to determine whether a wellness program that focused on walking to enhance employee health would cut down on employees’ use of health benefits. Employees in the Liberal Arts Department were invited to participate and received a $50 gift card to Best Buy for taking part in the program.

Employees in the Engineering Department did not participate in the program. Health benefits data were examined for both departments. In this scenario, the Liberal Arts Department employees are a. the treatment group. b. the control group. c. the survey group. d. the case group.

ANSWER: a 28. A big University wanted to determine whether a wellness program that focused on walking to enhance employee health would cut down on employees’ use of health benefits. Employees in the Liberal Arts Department were invited to participate and received a $50 gift card to Best Buy for taking part in the program.

Employees in the Engineering Department did not participate in the program. Health benefits data were examined for both departments. The Engineering Department employees described in this scenario could be labeled the a. treatment group. b. control group. c. case group. d. survey group.

ANSWER: b 29. An organization using essay type performance reviews subjects thousands of completed performance evaluations to a text analysis. By comparing the number of words used and the emotional tone of the words, used, the analyses showed that when evaluating female employees, managers wrote shorter and used more negative words to describe employee performance. This is an example of which type of study? a. Laboratory study b. Case study c. Machine learning d. Meta analysis.

ANSWER: c 30. Researchers use meta-analysis to

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a. compare a treatment group and a control group in an experiment. b. conduct a study in an actual organization. c. summarize research findings from studies on related topics. d. conduct an in-depth analysis of a single industry or company.

ANSWER: c 31. A measure that is high in validity a. demonstrates a link between correlation and causation. b. shows consistency in measurement. c. indicates a strong relationship between two variables. d. measures what it is intended to measure.

ANSWER: d 32. Lindsey administered a test to a job candidate three different times. She is looking at the scores and sees that they are 85, 87 and 85 out of 100, and notes that the scores are fairly consistent. In other words, the test is a. valid. b. reliable. c. strong. d. relevant.

ANSWER: b 33. In analyzing the data, a researcher notes that as employee absences increase, scores on performance evaluations decrease. This suggests a. there is a correlation between employee absenteeism and employee performance. b. employee absence causes poor performance. c. employee absence is a reliable measure. d. employee performance is a valid measure.

ANSWER: a 34. What aspect of Big Data refers to its scale or scope? a. visibility b. variety c. veracity d. volume ANSWER: d 35. Predictive analytics is used in organizational behavior research to a. understand what has happened. b. focus on what is likely to happen. c. determine what should be done in the future. d. identify what changes must happen.

ANSWER: b 36. An analytic approach that focuses on understanding what has happened in the past is a. descriptive analytics. b. prescriptive analytics. c. data analytics.

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d. predictive analytics.

ANSWER: a 37. Research indicates that the most important determinant of ethical behavior in an organization is a. firing employees who endorse being unethical b. the leadership commitment to ethical behavior. c. having higher levels of monitoring d. distributing organizational rewards equally ANSWER: b 38. Scraping personal data about employees from social media and using them in organizational decision making a. Introduces data privacy concerns. b. May be necessary to protect the organization against poor publicity c. Is financially costly due to human resources to be dedicated to the task d. Is helpful in the creation of an ethical culture.

ANSWER: a 39. Which of the following is not one of the workplace trends facing organizations? a. Increased technology and automation b. Higher information quality c. Aging workforce d. Lack of employee engagement ANSWER: b 40. How a company manages your data and respects your privacy is a(n) ___________ decision. a. investor b. ethical c. human resources d. accounting ANSWER: b 41. Evaluating organizations against the performance criteria of economic, social, and environmental viability refers specifically to a. sustainable business practices. b. strong employee engagement. c. the triple bottom line. d. six sigma metrics.

ANSWER: c 42. When an organization headquartered in the United States sends its accounting work to China, it is participating in a. the gig economy. b. sustainable business practices. c. offshoring d. GDPR. ANSWER: c

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43. Boeing decides to lay off some of its IT workers, and instead have the same services provided by Dell. This is an example of: a. Outsourcing b. Offshoring c. Scaling d. Crowdsourcing ANSWER: a Completion 44. The systematic study and application of knowledge about how individuals and groups act within the organizations where they work is called _____________.

ANSWER: organizational behavior 45. The three key levels of analysis in organizational behavior are ___________, ___________ and ___________.

ANSWER: individuals; groups; organizations 46. ___________ is defined as a relatively permanent change in knowledge or skill produced by experience.

ANSWER: Learning 47. If you prefer to learn by lectures, conversations, and videos, you are a(n) __________ learner.

ANSWER: auditory 48. ________ are tentative guesses on an expected observation that can be tested.

ANSWER: Hypotheses 49. In an experimental design, the group that receives experimental manipulation is called the __________ group.

ANSWER: treatment 50. __________ is to accuracy in measurement, as ___________ is to consistency in measurement.

ANSWER: Validity; reliability 51. ___________ refers to a relationship between two variables.

ANSWER: Correlation 52. The three approaches to analytics refer to descriptive, __________, and prescriptive analytics.

ANSWER: predictive 53. Tomas is fully involved in and enthusiastic about his work and his firm. He strives to support the firm’s mission and goals, while also improving his own talents. This is an example of ___________.

ANSWER: employee engagement 54. The triple bottom line refers to evaluating organizations against the three performance criteria of __________, ___________, and ___________ viability.

ANSWER: economic; social; environmental 55. ___________ occurs when an organization asks an outside organization to perform functions that it could have performed itself.

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ANSWER: Outsourcing 56. ______________ consists of temporary and flexible jobs where organizations hire independent contractors instead of full time workers.

ANSWER: Gig economy Essay 57. Identify each levels of analysis in organizational behavior and provide an example of each.

ANSWER: The first level is that of the individual. When I am examining my personality to assess how I handle ambiguity and how flexible I am, I am using individual analysis.

The second level is the group level. When I look at how my decision on a topic changes because of who I am working with on a project, I am performing group analysis.

Finally, the third level is the organization level. When I look at the dress policy of my company and how it impacts what I wear to work on a daily basis, I am performing organization analysis.

58. Define organizational behavior and briefly discuss some of the other disciplines from which it draws to create its theories and models.

ANSWER: Organizational behavior is the systematic study and application of knowledge about how individuals and groups act within the organizations where they work.

OB is rooted in such disciplines as political science (power and influence), medical science (stress and its impact), sociology (team processes), and psychology (personality and motivation).

59. Sam is choosing his classes for next term at State University. His advisor suggests he take Organizational Behavior. Sam says, “Why would I take that class? It’s all common sense anyway.” Take the role of his advisor and sell Sam on the value of the course.

ANSWER: Organizational behavior matters because of all the things individuals, employers, and organizations care about. You care about getting a good job, making better decisions, and keeping your stress level as low as possible. Each of these topics is discussed in the course.

Employers care about OB because it prepares employees to be better communicators, enhances their interpersonal skills, and enhances a strong work ethic.

Organizations care about OB because time and time again it has been found that people make the organization. To learn how to help yourself, your group and your organization, take OB. Now you may say that OB is all common sense, but research continually indicates to us that individuals have faulty memories and that their perceptions do not always match reality. The study of OB addresses all these concerns and assists us in being better employees who are more satisfied and productive. If a course assists you in all these ways, doesn’t it seem like it’s worth taking?

60. You are an instructor in an organizational behavior course. Discuss how you might prepare a lesson on motivation that would be equally effective for all students in the class whether they are auditory, kinesthetic or visual learners.

ANSWER: A motivation lesson might begin with a PowerPoint presentation where the concept of motivation is defined, and the types of motivation theories are presented. The PowerPoint presentation might be handed out to the students prior to the presentation so that students can take notes on those handouts. The use of PowerPoint slides, which feature diagrams and notes on motivation concepts and theories, satisfies the visual learner and to some extent, the kinesthetic learners. Since the instructor is talking about each slide and the information on it, and perhaps giving examples of

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events from actual firms that underscore that information, an auditory learner will also be satisfied.

Following the presentation of basic background information on the subject through use of the PowerPoint slides, an experiential exercise could be completed wherein participants would role-play scenarios between a boss and his subordinates whom he is working to motivate. Again, the kinesthetic learner will be learning because of the opportunity to participate in the exercise and actually carry out the motivational approaches.

Because all of the audience will be exposed to all the learning styles, it will also help them to become better at learning to process information in different ways.

61. Review three general techniques that students may use to help maximize their learning success.

ANSWER: Three strategies help students maximize their learning: effective notetaking, quizzing, and internships and practicums.

Effective notetaking: Taking notes during lectures and on assigned readings is a common way for students to learn and retain information. In a study comparing notes taken using a laptop versus writing them out in longhand found some interesting differences. Those taking notes on a laptop produced more notes than those writing them out longhand. However, those who wrote them out in longhand had better retention. If verbatim retention is needed, laptop notetaking may be better. But, if the goal is to encode and retain information, taking notes in longhand may be preferred. One way to consider the best of both of these approaches is to take notes in longhand using a computer stylus on a laptop that accepts screen input. This allows you to obtain the benefits of both approaches.

Quizzing: Until you actually test the assumption that you have effectively integrated the new information into your memory, it is tough to know if you can recall that information. Thus, quizzing yourself and taking prepared quizzes are great ways to see if you really know as much as you think you do. And, if you find areas where your knowledge is not solid, you can focus more time and attention on studying those areas and less on areas where you’ve already mastered the knowledge.

Internships and Practicums: There is no substitute for hands-on experience as a way to learn. In addition, students who have more work experience are more successful in securing employment.

Both internships and practicums are ways for students to gain experience, and students should try to complete as many as possible while earning their degrees.

62. Briefly describe the difference between a control group and a treatment group. What is their importance in organizational behavior research?

ANSWER: In a study employing an experimental design, the control group is the group that does not receive any experimental manipulation, while a treatment group is the group that does receive the experimental manipulation.

A comparison between the two groups indicates the impact the treatment had in the study.

63. Differentiate between a causal and a correlational relationship. Provide an example which demonstrates these relationships.

ANSWER: A causal relationship is one in which one variable, event, or situation causes a second variable, event, or situation to occur. For example, individuals in asbestos-insulated buildings often contract cancer, and asbestos has been shown to be a carcinogen. Thus, asbestos causes cancer.

A correlational relationship is one in which the strength of the relationship between two variables is measured. For example, research indicates that as job satisfaction increases, so does job performance. Job satisfaction does not cause job performance, it simply increases it.

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64. Describe a field study that you could carry out in a 20-person customer service department of a firm to assess the impact a monetary bonus has on the speed with which a task is completed.

ANSWER: The researcher could conduct a field study using an experimental design to address this scenario.

First divide the department into two groups. One group will be the control group and will not be subjected to any experimental manipulation and will continue to perform its job exactly as it has in the past. The second group will be the treatment group. This group will receive the monetary bonus.

Next decide on the monetary bonus. For purposes of this experiment, we will use a $5 gift certificate as the bonus. Next, determine the standards in place that will measure performance. In this scenario, the job is to handle incoming customer phone calls, some positive, some negative. The former standard of performance was to complete each phone call in 12 minutes. The new standard is to complete each call in 10 minutes.

All customer service representatives are required to meet the new standard. For the treatment group, however, every time a representative does complete a phone call in 10 minutes or less, he or she will receive a gift card. Those in the control group have the new standard but they have no card provided them for calls less than or equal to the 10-minute mark.

When comparing the results of the experiment, see how many more calls make the standard established in the treatment group compared to the control group. If there are a higher number of calls in the treatment group than the control group, you have established that the bonus card system is an effective incentive.

65. Define the concept of triple bottom line. Include an example which describes this concept in action.

ANSWER: A triple bottom line is evaluating organizations against three performance criteria including economic, social, and environmental viability. Walmart, for example, looked at the impact packaging for its products had on its costs, on the environment, and on its customers. Its findings led to the chain’s requirements for all suppliers to make smaller packages.

66. What are some key trends that produce challenges and opportunities for organizational behavior?

ANSWER: It feels like it’s been one ethical scandal after the other in the business world. Wells Fargo, Facebook, Enron Corp., Samsung, WorldCom, and Halliburton Energy Services have all participated in activities that can be described in terms ranging from poor judgment to outright illegal behavior.

The immediate response by government of ethical lapses within organizations was the SarbanesOxley Act, which went into effect in 2002. This act consists of 11 specific requirements aimed at greater accountability, which companies must comply with in terms of financial reporting.

Online data privacy is a concern for individuals, and for the companies that capture this data.

Governments are starting to regulate how companies manage data.

Studies suggest that fostering engagement, a concept related to passion, in employees has a significant impact on the corporate bottom line. Engaged employees are those who are performing at the top of their abilities and happy about it. But according to statistics that Gallup has drawn from 300,000 companies in its database, 87% of employees worldwide are not engaged at work.

Technology has transformed the way that work is completed and represents a challenge because of the speed with which that technology advances. The opportunity from this trend, however, is the fact that access to information is very open now and the playing field has been leveled. Determining the quality and accuracy of information in this fast-paced environment can prove very difficult.

There are few barriers to information today, which has created huge opportunities around the globe.

Of course, information by itself is not as important as having the right information at the right time. A major challenge for individuals with such vast amounts of information is learning how to evaluate the

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quality of the information they find.

Companies are beginning to examine their practices not just for greater profitability, but also for greater sustainability. It is of great interest to many firms that the environment is turned over to our future generations in a condition that will not only sustain our children but allow them to grow and prosper.

The workforce in America is an aging one. While that represents many work opportunities for young people who will replace retirees, it also threatens many firms as the retirees take with them knowledge which is so vital to the continued growth and development of the firm.

The increasing globalization of business, with the regular practice of outsourcing and offshoring to address labor costs, represents challenges of culture integration and acceptance.

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Chapter 2 - Diversity and Inclusion at Work Multiple Choice 1. Compositional differences among people in a work unit are referred to as a. culture. b. diversity. c. stereotypes. d. externalities.

ANSWER: b 2. Which law prohibits discrimination based on race, color, sex or national origin? a. Sarbanes-Oxley Act b. Americans with Disabilities Act c. Family and Medical Leave Act d. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act ANSWER: d 3. What is considered a potential benefit of effective diversity management? a. greater creativity in decision making b. better service to customers c. higher productivity of operations d. All of the above ANSWER: d 4. Research reveals that ___________ is necessary to make diversity an advantage for organizations. a. staff turnover b. conflict c. inclusion d. technology ANSWER: c 5. In a survey of 500 large companies, those with the largest percentage of female executives a. performed better than those with the smallest percentage. b. experienced less conflict than those with the smallest percentage. c. experienced more employment litigation than those with the smallest percentage. d. recorded lower average stock prices than those with the smallest percentage.

ANSWER: a 6. The similarity-attraction phenomenon may explain which of the following? a. Minorities are hired as often as their Caucasian counterparts. b. Individuals with disabilities are hired as often as those without disabilities. c. Having women on selection committees tend to increase the number of women who are hired. d. Women and men have equal access to mentoring opportunities.

ANSWER: c

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7. Demographic traits make up a part of a. deep-level diversity. b. invisible diversity. c. collective diversity. d. surface-level diversity.

ANSWER: d 8. Surface-level diversity traits include a. values. b. age. c. attitudes. d. None of the above.

ANSWER: b 9. An example of a deep-level diversity traits is a. gender. b. age. c. attitudes. d. race.

ANSWER: c 10. Our first interaction with individuals makes us aware of a. surface-level diversity. b. collective diversity. c. deep-level diversity. d. value-based diversity.

ANSWER: a 11. Which approach might be most successfully used to manage the similarity-attraction phenomenon in an organization? a. Allow new employees to decide for themselves who they work best with. b. Provide management training programs that make managers aware of the similarity-attraction phenomenon. c. Develop a recruiting program based upon peer referrals. d. Match new employees to mentors that are similar in terms of race, gender, or tenure.

ANSWER: b 12. A faultline is a. an attribute along which a group is split into subgroups. b. a generalization about a particular group of people. c. the way in which people are similar or different from each other. d. the values, beliefs and customs that exist in a society.

ANSWER: a

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13. A workgroup has three Caucasian males who are new employees and three Black females who have been with the firm an average of 15 years. How would you categorize the likely faultline in this group? a. There is no faultline in the group. b. There will be a strong faultline in the group. c. There will be a weak faultline in the group. d. There will be a faultline of medium strength in the group.

ANSWER: b 14. Research indicates that groups with faultlines exhibit what characteristic? a. Teams with faultlines make more effective decisions. b. Teams with strong faultlines are more cohesive. c. Teams with strong faultlines have the potential to perform well if they can establish certain norms. d. Teams with weak faultlines are more creative.

ANSWER: c 15. A stereotype is a. an attribute along which a group is split into subgroups. b. a generalization about a particular group of people. c. a way in which people are similar or different from each other. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: b 16. “Asians are more talented in math than other ethnic groups” is an example of a a. surface-level diversity trait. b. faultline. c. stereotype. d. deep-level diversity trait.

ANSWER: c 17. In his ten years as the local fire chief, George has hired many female firefighters, but has never recommended any of them for leadership positions. What is a reasonable assumption about this situation? a. George is unqualified for his position. b. George wants to establish faultlines in the department. c. George believes women should not work in this profession. d. George has an implicit bias against female firefighters.

ANSWER: d 18. The faculty of a Midwestern business school is comprised of 33 males and 4 females. The past five candidates hired have all been male. There seems to be a(n) ___________ diversity issue in this workplace. a. age b. race c. religion d. gender ANSWER: d

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19. Gender discrimination is prohibited by which law? a. Age Discrimination Act b. Americans with Disabilities Act c. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act d. Occupational Safety and Health Act ANSWER: c 20. One explanation for the 15% earnings gap between men and women in the U.S. is that a. women lack the high-level skill set that men possess. b. women have education gaps due to time off for marriage. c. women are underrepresented in high-paying occupations. d. women refuse to negotiate for higher levels of pay.

ANSWER: c 21. Dominic tells his boss that a member of his team, Brianna, is having trouble keeping up with her spreadsheet because women just aren’t as good at math. This is an example of a a. a stereotype. b. hard bias. c. longitudinal bias. d. a faultline.

ANSWER: a 22. Dale reads an unusually excellent report on a new engineering process for his firm and is surprised to find out the author is a young female engineer rather than one of the senior male engineer who normally writes reports. This is a. calculated stereotyping. b. a faultline. c. similarity-attraction bias. d. unconscious bias.

ANSWER: d 23. The underrepresentation of women in executive or upper-level management positions is termed a. the glass cliff. b. the glass ceiling. c. the gender diversity issue. d. sexual harassment.

ANSWER: b 24. On Trend Apparel sales associates are generally attractive to college students. Individuals who work in the stock room unpacking and readying clothing for displays tend to be young employees. This scenario suggests that On Trend Apparel may need to examine their recruiting efforts to address ___________ diversity in their stores. a. gender b. age c. religious d. race ANSWER: b

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25. According to research, which statement regarding race diversity in the American workplace is correct? a. Highly paid minority managers indicate that they have experienced very few situations in the workplace where race was an issue. b. Most American employees surveyed indicate that their firms are effective at hiring and promoting minorities. c. Ethnic minorities experience a slight wage gap but no glass ceiling in U.S. workplaces. d. Overt discrimination against ethnic minorities still occurs in many U.S. workplaces.

ANSWER: d 26. What does research say is related to higher levels of employee turnover among Black employees? a. firm does not value diversity b. firm does not offer flex-time options c. firm does not promote from within d. firm does not offer educational reimbursement ANSWER: a 27. Based on employment statistics, age diversity at work will continue growing. Thus, findings from research examining age diversity will become increasingly useful in managing the workforce. Which statement about those research findings is accurate? a. The fastest growing labor participation rate is among those under age 30. b. Older employees are more likely to be absent from their jobs. c. Older workers display higher levels of citizenship behaviors. d. Younger workers must deal with more age-related stereotypes of being less qualified.

ANSWER: c 28. Age is positively correlated with which work behavior? a. absenteeism b. compliance with safety rules c. high turnover d. None of the above ANSWER: b 29. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act prohibits discrimination against a. employees older than 65. b. employees age 40 or older. c. employees under age 30. d. employees of any age.

ANSWER: b 30. It is against the law for a company in the U.S. to a. modify an employee’s work schedule to allow religious participation. b. allow dress code modifications at work for religious purposes. c. force employees to participate in a religious activity. d. pay individuals of different religious faiths different amounts.

ANSWER: c 31. What is the intent of the Americans with Disabilities Act?

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a. Requires a firm to hire individuals with disabilities. b. Requires a firm to interview individuals with disabilities. c. Prohibits discrimination in employment against individuals with any physical disabilities. d. Prohibits discrimination in employment against individuals with physical or mental disabilities if these employees are otherwise qualified to do their jobs with or without reasonable accommodation.

ANSWER: d 32. Which circumstance describes reasonable accommodations for employees with disabilities? a. modifications in employee schedules b. providing transportation to the workplace for employees unable to drive themselves c. paying less to a disabled worker who is unable to perform all aspects of the job d. assignment of essential job functions to other employees ANSWER: a 33. What federal law was extended in 2020 by the Supreme Court to provide employment protections to lesbian, gay, and transgender individuals? a. Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act b. Family and Medical Leave Act c. Americans with Disabilities Act d. Civil Rights Act of 1964 ANSWER: d 34. What is a recommended response if you are asked an illegal interview question? a. Immediately ask to speak with the interviewer’s supervisor. b. Try to address the concern expressed by the question. c. Get angry and tell the interviewer you may consider legal action. d. Answer the question in full and hide your feelings about it.

ANSWER: b 35. What is a valid suggestion for managing demographic diversity? a. Approach diversity as the responsibility of everyone in the company. b. Make minority group employees accountable for diversity. c. Institute affirmative action programs with quotas. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: a 36. If traffic is bad, Beth sometimes cannot pick up her daughter at daycare on time. She asks her boss if she can leave an hour earlier each day, and work at home a few hours each weekend. Both Beth and her boss are happy with this arrangement. This workplace solution is an example of a. affirmative action. b. an I-deal. c. inclusive culture. d. unfair favoritism.

ANSWER: b 37. An accounting firm ensures that the candidate pool for its new graduate program is diverse by recruiting at both public and private colleges and universities throughout 10 states, and posting information on multiple social media sites. This describes which type of affirmative action program?

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a. tie-breaker b. simple elimination of discrimination c. preferential treatment d. targeted recruitment ANSWER: d 38. The affirmative action program about which the most negative perceptions are held is a. simple elimination of discrimination. b. tiebreakers. c. preferential treatment. d. targeted recruitment.

ANSWER: c 39. What is a viable piece of advice to offer someone who wants to support an inclusive workplace? a. Try to play the devil’s advocate in conversations about discrimination. b. If you witness injustice, speak up. c. Support preferential treatment programs whenever possible. d. Avoid offering your opinion unless you have special qualifications.

ANSWER: b 40. The values, beliefs, and customs that exist in a society refer to its a. culture. b. diversity. c. power distance. d. biases.

ANSWER: a 41. Collectivistic cultures are those in which a. people tend to define themselves as individuals and form looser ties with their groups. b. people tend to value achievement and competitiveness as well as acquisition of money and other material objects. c. people tend to have strong bonds to their groups, and group membership forms a person’s selfidentity. d. people tend to value maintaining good relationships, caring for the weak, and quality of life.

ANSWER: c 42. Cultures that are comfortable in unpredictable situations and have high tolerance for ambiguity are best described as a. low uncertainty avoidance cultures. b. collectivistic cultures. c. high uncertainty avoidance cultures. d. individualistic cultures.

ANSWER: a 43. A culture that values maintaining good relationships, caring for the weak and quality of life is most likely a a. a low power distance culture. b. a masculine (aggressive) culture.

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c. a high power distance culture. d. a feminine (nurturing) culture.

ANSWER: d 44. High power distance cultures tend to a. view an unequal distribution of power as relatively acceptable. b. prefer predictable situations and have low tolerance for ambiguity. c. emphasize caring for the weak and quality of life. d. are comfortable in unpredictable situations and have high tolerance for ambiguity.

ANSWER: a 45. A culture categorized by high uncertainty avoidance is a. Denmark. b. Jamaica. c. Greece. d. China.

ANSWER: c 46. Which culture is not characterized as feminine (nurturing) in its orientation? a. Norway b. Japan c. Sweden d. Costa Rica ANSWER: b 47. Which culture is most likely to be categorized as one in which people define themselves as individuals, and form looser ties with their groups? a. Pakistan b. Guatemala c. Australia d. China ANSWER: c 48. If someone from a strongly collectivist culture was asked to, “Tell me about yourself,” he or she might say a. I want to be a doctor when I graduate. b. I like playing video games. c. I am a black belt in karate. d. I am the third child of a doctor and a lawyer.

ANSWER: d 49. Which statement about collectivists and individualists is accurate? a. In collectivistic societies, family bonds are highly influential in people’s daily lives. b. Collectivists are equally friendly with both in-group and out-group members. c. Individualists are unlikely to openly discuss their dislikes, personal goals, or accomplishments. d. Individualists emphasize conformity to the group, especially in the workplace.

ANSWER: a

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50. Which statement accurately describes cultures high in power distance? a. There is a higher degree of egalitarianism. b. Managers are believed to be more powerful and deserving of respect. c. Managers and subordinates use first names in the workplace. d. There is higher utilization of participative decision-making practices.

ANSWER: b 51. Companies in cultures high in uncertainty avoidance tend to a. have a very short, simple recruiting and selection process for new employees. b. have written employment contracts for employees. c. have limited numbers of policies and procedures in employee handbooks. d. enter a large number of foreign markets.

ANSWER: b 52. Cultures which are considered high in femininity tend to value what attribute in the workplace? a. maintaining good relationships b. acquiring money and power c. competitiveness d. high achievement ANSWER: a 53. Priya is planning on an international business career following graduation. She is meeting with a career counselor to ensure that she is preparing herself as fully as possible. What advice will the counselor likely offer her? a. There is no need to learn a foreign language; English has become the global business language. b. Become familiar with different cultures by visiting several countries in a short amount of time. c. Be proactive in developing a strong social support network. d. Keep any cultural misunderstandings or mistakes to yourself to avoid showing weakness.

ANSWER: c 54. Understanding the tightness or looseness of culture means understanding its a. degree of direct communication. b. beliefs and customs. c. level of technological proficiency. d. openness to change.

ANSWER: d 55. An individual described as ethnocentric believes that a. no culture is superior to any other. b. his or her culture is superior to other cultures. c. every culture offers something of value. d. men and women are equally talented.

ANSWER: b 56. What is a good suggestion for managing cultural diversity? a. For the most effective international experiences, train individual employees thoroughly in one culture before moving on to another.

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b. Keep in mind that local employees in the foreign country are too immersed in the culture to help you understand their culture. For a more objective viewpoint, other expatriates are more useful. c. There is a very high probability that problems experienced on an expatriate assignment are due to cultural differences and misunderstandings. d. Culture changes, sometimes quickly; do not assume that what was true a year ago is true today.

ANSWER: d 57. Which statement regarding cultural diversity and ethics is correct? a. In a study, Koreans suggested that being ethical was compatible with being profitable. b. In a study, American subjects viewed environmental damage as more ethical than their Korean or Indian counterparts. c. In a study, Americans viewed an auditing company sharing a client’s auditing information with another client as more ethical than Russians subjects did. d. In a study, Korean and Indian subjects found software piracy and nepotism less ethical than American subjects did.

ANSWER: b 58. When dealing with unethical behavior overseas, businesses must a. consider ethical context. b. follow international business law. c. maintain home country standards. d. throw ethical considerations out the window.

ANSWER: a 59. What did Amazon discover about the use of artificial intelligence in recruitment? a. It is a cost-effective and ethical tool for recruitment and candidate analysis. b. It yields a highly talented and diverse workforce. c. Its algorithms displayed bias from the data used to program them. d. It offers a bias-free tool for analyzing resumes.

ANSWER: c Completion 60. ____________ refers to compositional differences among people in a work unit.

ANSWER: Diversity 61. The tendency for individuals to be attracted to similar individuals is called the ____________ phenomenon.

ANSWER: similarity-attraction 62. Demographic traits like race, gender and age are part of _________ diversity.

ANSWER: surface-level 63. Diversity in values, beliefs and attitudes is called _________ diversity.

ANSWER: deep-level 64. A generalization about a particular group of people, like “men never ask for directions” is an example of a __________.

ANSWER: stereotype

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65. The ___________ is the invisible barrier that prevents women and minorities from advancing to higher and executive level positions.

ANSWER: glass ceiling 66. Requests for sexual favors or unwelcome sexual advances is ___________.

ANSWER: sexual harassment 67. The ___________ Act prohibits discrimination in employment against individuals with physical or mental disabilities if they are otherwise qualified to do their jobs with or without reasonable accommodation.

ANSWER: Americans with Disabilities 68. ___________ programs are those designed to recruit, promote, train and retain employees belonging to a protected class.

ANSWER: Affirmative action 69. The values, beliefs and customs that exist in a society are its ___________.

ANSWER: culture 70. ___________ cultures are those where people tend to have stronger bonds to their groups and group membership forms a person’s self-identity, whereas ___________ are those where people tend to define themselves as individuals and form looser ties with their groups.

ANSWER: Collectivistic; individualistic 71. A ___________ culture values achievement, competitiveness and the acquisition of money and other material objects.

ANSWER: masculine/aggressive 72. A ___________ is a person’s openness to learning about other cultures and communicating effectively in different cultural contexts.

ANSWER: global mindset 73. Technology that performs some of the decision making functions of humans is referred to as ___________.

ANSWER: artificial intelligence Essay 74. What is the role of inclusion regarding diversity in organizations?

ANSWER: Effective management of diversity is simply the right thing to do. Diversity is also a fact of organizational life, and it is here to stay.

Inclusion involves allowing individuals to bring aspects of themselves that make them unique to a group, while also being treated as organizational insiders. Inclusive organizations ensure that all individuals are allowed to participate in the organizational life fully, their voices are heard, and concerted efforts are made to remove barriers to the fair treatment of everyone.

Research has shown that a climate of inclusion is necessary to turn diversity into an advantage for organizations. Thus, it is important to consider diversity and inclusion together. Simply having diversity does not mean that the organization is inclusive, and without inclusiveness, diversity is not sufficient to yield positive outcomes.

75. Discuss why companies should consider implementing diversity programs.

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ANSWER: There are many different reasons for such programming, but some of the benefits of diversity initiatives include: • Higher creativity in decision making: The more diverse a group, the more options a group considers, which leads to higher-quality decisions. This increased quality could lead to more creative decisions that could positively impact the company’s bottom line.

• Better understanding and service to customers: The more a firm understands about the breadth of its customer base, the more opportunity is offered for growing a market or tapping a new market segment.

• More satisfied workforce: When employees feel fairly treated, they are more satisfied. More satisfied workers have less turnover.

• Higher stock prices: Companies with a more diverse workforce find that they have a higher stock price in the days following the announcement of diversity initiatives.

• Lower litigation costs: If a firm is being fair to its employees, there is no need for employees to file complaints against the firm for discriminating against them with regard to federal law. Obviously, a lack of complaints saves substantial litigation fees.

• Higher company performance: Those firms managing diversity effectively tend to perform better.

76. Briefly describe the similarity-attraction phenomenon.

ANSWER: The similarity-attraction phenomenon is the tendency for individuals to be attracted to similar individuals. So, individuals are more likely to have conflict with those who differ from them with regard to demographic characteristics like race, color, gender, etc. The phenomenon may explain some of the unfair treatment individuals experience.

For example, women tend not to be hired into higher-level positions in the firm. To progress to those levels, they may need to have a mentor to “show them the ropes.” But if only men are in those positions, they would, according to the phenomenon, pick others like them, so they would choose men. Hence, women never get the chance to be promoted.

77. Define and compare surface-level diversity and deep-level diversity. Provide an example of each.

ANSWER: Surface-level diversity includes traits that are visible to those around us and include such demographic traits as gender, race, and age.

Deep-level diversity includes values, beliefs, and attitudes. An example might be preferring to work alone instead of with a team.

78. What is the earnings gap and who is most likely to be negatively affected by it?

ANSWER: The earnings gap is the difference in salary level between men and women or between minorities and Caucasian males (generally).

Currently, the wage gap between men and women is that women earn 85% of that earned by men.

Minorities differ slightly from that figure with Hispanics making 70 cents for every dollar a Caucasian male earns and Black males earning 75 cents.

79. Shaun is a new manager for a Fortune 500 firm. He is preparing for his first assignment, which is to complete a diversity audit of his firm. What are some of the areas he should consider for assessment?

ANSWER: A number of demographic groups can be investigated in the firm. However, some of the major groups include: gender (what is the number of women in executive or higher level management positions, are there pay differences between women and other groups in the firm); race (again what

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is the number of minorities in upper management positions in the firm and what is their pay rate); age (how are older workers treated, are they stereotyped); religious (what accommodations are made for religious beliefs); disabled (what accommodations need to be made) and sexual orientation (does the firm have LGBTQ-supportive policies).

80. You are an organizational behavior consultant who has been brought into a firm to present some best practices with regard to managing demographic diversity. What are some best practices you could present to the firm’s executives?

ANSWER: Build a culture that respects diversity. All levels of the firm must support diversity.

Make managers accountable for diversity.

Institute diversity training programs.

Review recruitment practices and ensure the firm is targeting a diverse candidate pool.

Explain the role of I-deals and how they can benefit both employees and the firm.

Consider affirmative action programs to enhance diversity.

81. Think about Hofstede’s cultural framework. Describe your native culture in terms of these four cultural dimensions and provide examples to support your response.

ANSWER: Student answers will vary, but must reference the following concepts: Individualism refers to cultures where people define themselves as an individual and form looser ties with their groups. An example of an individualist culture is the United States where personal independence is valued. Collectivism refers to cultures where people have stronger bonds to their groups and group membership forms a person’s self-identity. An example of this type of culture is Mexico where the family is very important.

Low power distance is a society that views an unequal distribution of power as relatively unacceptable. In a low power distance culture, egalitarianism is the norm. A high power distance society views an unequal distribution of power as relatively acceptable. An example is Turkey, where elementary and high school students stand to greet their teachers when they enter the room.

A low uncertainty avoidance culture is comfortable in unpredictable situations and has high tolerance for ambiguity. An example is Russia, where companies do not have rule-oriented cultures.

A high uncertainty avoidance culture prefers predictable situations and has low tolerance for ambiguity. An example of this culture is Germany, where people prefer structure in their lives and like rules and procedures that manage situations.

Masculinity is a culture that values achievement, competitiveness, and the acquisition of money and other material objects. An example of a masculine culture is Japan where there is a separation of gender roles. Femininity is a culture that values maintaining good relationships, caring for the weak and quality of life. An example of a feminine culture is Sweden where work/life balance is important and work arrangements like telecommuting are popular.

82. You are an organizational behavior consultant who has been hired to present a training seminar to managers in a Fortune 500 firm about suggestions for managing cultural diversity in the firm. What are some of the major topics you will consider presenting during the seminar?

ANSWER: Student answers will vary, but should include most of the following: • Help employees develop a global mindset.

• Avoid ethnocentrism.

• Listen to locals.

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• Recognize that culture changes.

• Do not always assume that culture is the problem.

83. Why does ensuring ethical behavior require a special effort for diverse organizations? What kinds of factors are involved?

ANSWER: Employees with different backgrounds or demographic traits may vary in their standards of ethics.

For example, research shows that there are some gender differences when it comes to evaluating the degree of ethicality of hypothetical scenarios, with women utilizing higher standards.

Age is another demographic trait that influences the standards of ethics people use, with older employees being bothered more by unethical behaviors compared to younger employees. Similarly, one study showed that older respondents found some questionable negotiation behaviors such as misrepresenting information and bluffing to be more unethical compared to younger respondents.

Cultural diversity introduces challenges to managing ethical behavior, given that cultures differ in the actions they view as ethical. Cultural differences are particularly important when doing cross-cultural business. Keep in mind that the ethical standards held in different societies may emphasize different behaviors as ethical or unethical.

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Chapter 3 - Individual Differences and Perception at Work Multiple Choice 1. The interactionist perspective suggests behavior is a. a function of the person and the situation interacting with each other. b. solely a function of the person’s personality. c. solely a function of the situation. d. not predictable and cannot be profiled.

ANSWER: a 2. Person-job fit refers to the a. degree to which a person’s skill, knowledge, abilities, and other characteristics match the job demands. b. degree to which a person likes an organization. c. degree to which a person’s values, personality, goals, and other characteristics match those of the organization. d. degree to which a person’s attitude matches the culture of the work group.

ANSWER: a 3. Joaquin works as a math instructor at a local high school. Although he earns less than many of his friends, he values education and routine, and enjoys having his weekends and summers free. What can we reasonably assume about Joaquin’s work life? a. He has a high degree of person-job fit. b. He has a good relationship with his supervisor and coworkers. c. He has a high degree of person-organization fit. d. He is underqualified for his position.

ANSWER: c 4. An applicant-matching software program would indicate which personality trait would provide the best person-organization fit with a Wall Street investment firm? a. risk aversion b. risk-taking c. introversion d. stability ANSWER: b 5. Research on the interactionist perspective suggests a. there is a consistent positive relationship between person-organization fit and job performance. b. if there is a misfit between an individual and the organization, there are no extenuating circumstances that eliminate its impact. c. people who fit into their organization tend to be more satisfied with their jobs. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: c 6. Sonya has been out of work for two years so she accepts a position as a junior-level bookkeeper, when in the past she worked as a director of finance. Sonya is

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a. overqualified and likely to have a negative job attitude. b. overqualified and most likely to be very successful in the position. c. not a fit for the job because she won’t be able to fit in. d. not a fit for the job because her abilities don’t match the job’s demands.

ANSWER: a 7. Our values reflect a. the characteristics of our generational cohort. b. the initial thoughts and perceptions we form about people. c. our unattainable goals. d. what is most important to us.

ANSWER: d 8. According to Rokeach, which statement is accurate about values? a. Values are grouped into known and unknown categories. b. Values are hierarchically ordered. c. Values are shaped late in life. d. Values change constantly over time.

ANSWER: b 9. ___________ is a terminal value. a. Broad-minded b. Inner harmony c. Forgiving d. Obedient ANSWER: b 10. What is the best example of an instrumental value? a. imaginative b. self-respect c. family security d. a world of beauty ANSWER: a 11. Research indicates that Millennials tend to value a. work as central to life. b. high job security. c. work-life balance. d. quick promotion.

ANSWER: c 12. Choosing a job that offers health care as part of its benefit package over a position that pays more but has no health care benefits might reflect the job seeker’s concern about a. inner harmony. b. creativity. c. family security. d. self-respect.

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ANSWER: c 13. Which statement about values is true? a. Values are developed early in life and remain stable over a lifetime. b. Values are not very stable; they change over short periods of time. c. Values affect decisions people make but have little impact on their behavior. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: a 14. A term for all of a person’s relatively stable feelings, thoughts, and behavioral patterns is a. values. b. personality. c. self-esteem. d. conscientiousness.

ANSWER: b 15. Findings on personality indicate that between the ages of 20 and 40, we a. become more emotionally stable and conscientious. b. continue to significantly increase in openness to new experiences. c. decrease in extraversion and agreeableness. d. still seek to establish our permanent personality.

ANSWER: a 16. When Andres asked his favorite professor for a personal reference letter, the professor wrote, “Andres is very curious and has many original thoughts. He is a bright young man with a creative flair.” Andres exhibits the personality trait of a. extraversion. b. agreeableness. c. conscientiousness. d. openness.

ANSWER: d 17. Laura takes a personality survey and finds she strongly exhibits the trait of agreeableness. Laura can be described as a. organized, punctual, systematic, and dependable. b. pleasant, tolerant, sensitive, and kind. c. outgoing, talkative, and sociable. d. curious, creative, and original.

ANSWER: b 18. Taylor complains to their friends every Friday night about the stresses and hassles of their job. Each week they tells their friends they are going to leave their company even though they have been working there for over five years. Taylor is likely to be a. high in conscientiousness. b. high in extraversion. c. low in agreeableness. d. None of the above.

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ANSWER: b 19. ___________ is the degree to which a person is anxious, irritable, aggressive and moody. a. Neuroticism b. Extraversion c. Conscientiousness d. Openness ANSWER: a 20. For men, which personality trait relates negatively to income level? a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. extraversion d. openness ANSWER: b 21. Across a variety of occupations and jobs, what personality trait most uniformly predicts how high a person’s performance will be? a. conscientiousness b. extraversion c. agreeableness d. openness ANSWER: a 22. Which personality characteristic tends to lead to effectiveness in jobs with a lot of opportunities to interact with others? a. openness b. conscientiousness c. extraversion d. agreeableness ANSWER: c 23. Empathy is to agreeableness as sociability is to a. neuroticism. b. conscientiousness. c. openness. d. extraversion.

ANSWER: d 24. Which of the Big 5 personality traits correlates negatively with job satisfaction? a. extraversion b. openness c. conscientiousness d. neuroticism ANSWER: d 25. Which descriptor is one of the “Big Five” personality traits?

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a. agreeableness b. neuroticism c. extraversion d. All of the above ANSWER: d 26. Negative affective people experience more a. awards and promotions. b. nervousness and anxiety. c. job satisfaction. d. help from coworkers.

ANSWER: b 27. When a team comprises mostly negative affective people, there tends to be a. lower absenteeism and greater participation. b. a faster path to mutually agreeable solutions. c. more creative decision making. d. less cooperation among members.

ANSWER: d 28. What strategy supports working effectively with an individual with a high level of negative affectivity? a. Provide constant feedback to encourage change. b. Let them complain without limits. c. Ask them for specific examples of what the problem is. d. Challenge them to prove their point.

ANSWER: c 29. The extent to which a person is capable of altering his or her actions and appearance in social situations is known as a. self-efficacy. b. self-monitoring. c. self-control. d. self-esteem.

ANSWER: b 30. Individuals high in self-monitoring tend to a. be more successful in their careers. b. experience lower levels of stress. c. be highly accurate at conducting performance evaluations. d. be more committed to their companies.

ANSWER: a 31. What advantage(s) to employers do people with proactive personalities bring to the workplace? a. tendency to exhibit higher levels of performance b. greater success in job searches c. make decisions related to personal interests d. All of the above

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ANSWER: a 32. Camila sees herself as a good person and a good employee. She is confident about her capabilities and derives great satisfaction from doing her job well. Based on what we know, we can say that Camila has a. high self-monitoring. b. high self-esteem. c. an external locus of control. d. a proactive personality.

ANSWER: b 33. Markus keeps saying to his boss, “I’m really concerned that I won’t be able to lead the project team. I just haven’t done this before. Maybe you should ask someone else.” Markus seems to have a. low openness to experience. b. low self-monitoring. c. a proactive personality. d. low self-efficacy.

ANSWER: d 34. Markus said, “If I just hadn’t had that argument with my girlfriend last night, I wouldn’t have been so upset and I would have done much better on my sales presentation today.” Markus exhibits a. high internal locus of control. b. high self-esteem. c. high self-monitoring. d. high external locus of control.

ANSWER: d 35. Individuals with an internal locus of control a. have an inclination to change the status quo. b. believe that what happens to them is their own doing. c. understand the situation and hope for the best. d. feel that things happen to them because of luck.

ANSWER: b 36. Marisol always seems to know who to talk to in her organization to get things done. When her immediate supervisor seemed less than enthusiastic about her proposal, she made sure to mention it to the manager in another department who shared it with his boss. Marisol was just approached about implementing her proposal. Marisol seems to have a. low self-efficacy. b. a proactive personality. c. low self-esteem. d. an external locus of control.

ANSWER: b 37. Among the limitations associated with using personality tests in employee selection is a. candidate inability to understand their application. b. candidates faking their answers. c. candidates refusing to take personality tests. d. a lack of relationship to person-organization or person-job fit.

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ANSWER: b 38. Anna sees five of her coworkers going out to lunch together and is sure that they must hate her because no one asked her to go. What Anna forgot is that she usually isn’t in the office on Tuesdays, so they didn’t even realize she was there. Anna may have a. low self-esteem. b. low self-monitoring. c. low self-efficacy. d. low neuroticism.

ANSWER: a 39. When an incomplete figure appears on a sheet of paper, we can discern the entire figure because we a. have selective perception. b. extrapolate from the information available to us. c. always visualize items in isolation. d. perceive our environment objectively.

ANSWER: b 40. Shanice and her coworkers just walked out of the office where they delivered a mock commercial for a proposed client’s cereal. Shanice says to her co-presenters, “I’m so sorry I messed up during the presentation.

I really did not mean to put up the slide with last year’s cereal box on it instead of the one for this year. I know we won’t get the account now, and it’s all my fault.” Shanice is exhibiting a. self-enhancement bias. b. false consensus error. c. self-effacement bias. d. perceptual stereotypes.

ANSWER: c 41. Although he is part of a seven-person cross-functional team, Bob takes credit for the group’s recent success during a private conversation with his boss. Bob is demonstrating a. self-effacement bias. b. self-enhancement bias. c. false consensus error. d. stereotyping.

ANSWER: b 42. Archie must hire a new administrative assistant for the department. This assistant is responsible for answering calls, ordering supplies, and processing various reports and invoices. He does not consider any of the fully qualified men who apply for the position, as this job has always been filled by a woman. In this situation, Archie’s decision making is shaped by a. stereotypes. b. self-fulfilling prophecy. c. false consensus error. d. selective perception.

ANSWER: a 43. Often the root cause of a self-fulfilling prophecy is a. self-effacement bias.

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b. stereotyping. c. false consensus error. d. selective perception.

ANSWER: b 44. Why can first impressions negatively affect the workplace? a. They are very fleeting. b. They are resilient even in the face of contrary evidence. c. They become dependent on the evidence that created them. d. They are likely to change over time.

ANSWER: b 45. Internal attribution attributes someone’s behavior to a. their specific characteristics. b. the situation. c. good luck. d. timing.

ANSWER: a 46. What is one of the three key factors in understanding what kind of attributions we make? a. past experiences b. mood c. neuroticism d. consensus ANSWER: d 47. In attribution, low distinctiveness is characterized by a. a person acting the same way as always in that situation. b. a person behaving differently than usual in different situations. c. a person behaving the same way in different situations. d. everyone else behaving in the same way.

ANSWER: c 48. Brant is the quarterback of his college football team. The team was 10-0, but lost this week after what Brant says was a very bad call by the referee. You can’t remember him ever complaining about referees, so you decide that this call is truly why the team lost. Your attribution was based on the fact that Brant displays a. low distinctiveness. b. high distinctiveness. c. high consistency. d. high consensus.

ANSWER: c 49. Xavier is the quarterback of his college football team. The team was 10-0, but lost this week after what Xavier says was a very bad call by the referee. You can’t remember Xavier ever saying anything about how the referees called any game, but he is very vocal about this call. You talk to other players on the team and they complain about the referee’s call also. Given what you know about the referee’s call, Xavier is using a. internal attribution.

Wdocs TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer) Chapter 3 - Individual Differences and Perception at Work

b. external attribution. c. self-serving bias. d. self-fulfilling prophecy.

ANSWER: b 50. Internal attribution occurs with a. low consensus, high distinctiveness, and high consistency. b. high consensus, high distinctiveness, and high consistency. c. low consensus, low distinctiveness, and high consistency. d. high consensus, low distinctiveness, and high consistency.

ANSWER: c 51. A tendency to attribute our successes to internal causes and our failures to the situation is evidence of a. self-fulfilling prophecy. b. self-serving bias. c. stereotyping. d self-effacement bias ANSWER: b 52. Which statement regarding individual differences and ethics is true? a. People with an economic value orientation tend to make more ethical choices. b. Employees with internal locus of control make more unethical choices. c. We tend to underestimate how ethical we are. d. How we make attributions in a given situation will determine how we respond to others’ actions.

ANSWER: d 53. What precaution must companies take when using artificial intelligence measures in hiring and selection? a. Avoid relying on interviewer’s judgments which contradict AI findings. b. Avoid seeking only new employees whose personalities match the firm’s highest performing employees. c. Focus more on candidates with high levels of openness and extraversion, and less on those with high levels of conscientiousness. d. Focus on machine learning algorithms which measure all aspects of personality without regard to job characteristics.

ANSWER: b 54. Hofstede found that countries differ on the equality or hierarchy among people, which he referred to as a. uncertainty avoidance. b. power distance. c. masculinity. d. individualism.

ANSWER: b 55. Generally, people from Europe and the United States have higher levels of ___________ than those from Asia and Africa. a. introversion b. extraversion

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c. disagreeableness d. agreeableness ANSWER: b 56. Which statement regarding the universality of personality traits is accurate? a. There is no difference in the dominant personality trait in countries across the world. b. In regions that suffered from infectious diseases, openness to experiences is less dominant. c. The five-factor model of personality traits is not universally useful. d. The presence of democratic values in a culture is associated with introversion.

ANSWER: b Completion 57. The ___________ perspective suggests behavior is a function of the person and the situation interacting with each other.

ANSWER: interactionist 58. Lucas is interviewing with a Wall Street firm. He notes that employees dress in business suits on a daily basis and address each other as Ms. and Mr. He decides that the firm’s culture is too conservative for him.

Lucas is concerned about person-___________ fit.

ANSWER: organization 59. ___________ are stable life goals that people have, reflecting what is most important to them.

ANSWER: Values 60. Views on acceptable modes of conduct, such as being honest and ethical, are ___________ values.

ANSWER: instrumental 61. ______________ is defined as relatively stable feelings, thoughts, and behavioral patterns a person has.

ANSWER: Personality 62. A person who is very curious, original, creative, and very adaptable to change is high in ___________.

ANSWER: openness 63. ___________ is the one personality trait that uniformly predicts how high a person’s performance will be across a variety of jobs.

ANSWER: Conscientiousness 64. Individuals high in ____________ are often effective managers and tend to demonstrate inspirational leadership behaviors.

ANSWER: extraversion 65. Dev is highly respected by his colleagues. When there is a problem, he quickly takes the initiative to find a solution and tries to remove all barriers to success. Dev has a _____________ personality.

ANSWER: proactive 66. When people believe that things happen to them because of luck, other people or a higher being, they are classified as high in ___________ locus of control.

ANSWER: external

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67. ___________ by test-takers could be a serious problem when using personality tests in employee selection because it can change the rank ordering of candidates.

ANSWER: Faking 68. You are a manager who believes that all young employees “goof off at work.” You therefore limit the number of assignments and responsibility given to your young employees. Lately you have noticed that the young employees in your department are texting on their cell phones, playing computer games, and just talking to each other quite a bit. This situation is an example of a ___________.

ANSWER: self-fulfilling prophecy 69. Three key factors in understanding attribution are ___________, _____________, and ______________.

ANSWER: consensus; distinctiveness; consistency 70. Masoud applies for a promotion. While he doesn’t meet the exact qualifications, he is sure he will interview well if he gets the chance and he has done a good job in his current position. He does obtain an interview but doesn’t get the promotion. Masoud is sure that the only reason he didn’t get the job is because the person who did get the promotion is good friends with the manager. This is an example of ___________ bias.

ANSWER: self-serving Essay 71. Name and describe the two types of fit companies are interested in assessing when hiring employees.

Explain the relationship between each type of fit and work behaviors.

ANSWER: The first type of fit is person–job fit. This is the degree to which a person’s skills, knowledge, abilities, and other characteristics match the job demands. The first thing many recruiters look for is the degree of person–job fit. This is not surprising, because person–job fit is related to a number of positive work attitudes such as satisfaction with the work environment, identification with the organization, job satisfaction, and work behaviors such as job performance.

Person–organization, the second type of fit, is the degree to which a person’s values, personality, goals, and other characteristics match those of the organization. When a person fits their job, there is greater satisfaction with the work environment and better job performance. When there is fit between a person and the organization where the individual works, this person tends to be more committed to the organization and remains at the firm longer. Clearly turnover is costly, so anything that helps avoid it is beneficial to a firm.

72. What is the difference between a terminal value and an instrumental value? What impact does an assessment of employee values have upon the workplace?

ANSWER: A terminal value is an end state people desire in life, such as leading a prosperous life. An instrumental value, in contrast, is a view on an acceptable mode of conduct such as being ethical.

Values that are important to people impact their decisions and behaviors. Further, values are stable aspects of a person’s life that influence their perspective on an ongoing basis.

The values a person holds may affect their employment. For example, someone who has an orientation toward strong stimulation may pursue extreme sports and select an occupation that involves fast action and high risk, such as firefighter, police officer, or emergency room physician.

Someone who has a drive for achievement may more readily act as an entrepreneur. Moreover, whether individuals will be satisfied at a given job may depend on whether the job provides a way to satisfy their dominant values. Therefore, understanding employees at work requires understanding the value orientations of employees.

73. Briefly discuss each of the five personality traits and the usefulness each has for personnel selection.

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ANSWER: Personality encompasses the relatively stable feelings, thoughts, and behavioral patterns a person has. Our personality differentiates us from other people. Understanding someone’s personality gives us clues about how that person is likely to act and feel in a variety of situations.

• • • • •

Openness is the degree to which a person is curious, original, intellectual, creative, and open to new ideas. People high in openness thrive in jobs and positions where they can be flexible and learn new things.

Conscientiousness is the degree to which a person is organized, systematic, punctual, achievement-oriented, and dependable. High conscientiousness is the trait most desired by recruiters as it uniformly predicts how high a person’s performance on the job will be.

Extraversion is the degree to which a person is outgoing, talkative, sociable, and enjoys being in social situations. These individuals are particularly effective in jobs involving sales.

Agreeableness is the degree to which a person is nice, tolerant, sensitive, trusting, kind, and warm. Agreeable people help others work consistently, thus they are good team members.

Neuroticism is the degree to which a person is anxious, irritable, aggressive, temperamental, and moody. These individuals experience a variety of problems at work, so identifying them in the interview will help a firm avoid the relationship issues they create as employees.

74. You work with Ronan, one of the most negative individuals you have ever met. How can you work more effectively with him?

ANSWER: Begin by recognizing the fact that you are not going to change him. A person’s personality is rather stable so criticizing his negativity will not change it.

Keep your emotional distance. It is very easy for their emotions to affect yours. As much as you can, maintain emotional distance from their negativity.

Be open-minded. Just because someone is negative does not mean that person is not right.

Set a time limit for your conversations with the negative person. Don’t let them consume you.

Empower the person to act on the things he complains about. Ask him what he would do to fix the problematic situation.

Ask for specifics. Let him provide details of the problem.

75. Compare self-esteem and self-efficacy. What challenges do these qualities present for managers?

ANSWER: Self-esteem is the overall positive feelings a person holds about himself or herself. Self-esteem is a more universal or overall assessment of one’s beliefs while self-efficacy focuses on beliefs related to performance. Self-efficacy is the belief that a person can perform a task. Individuals with high selfefficacy believe they can do a task and thus have a better chance of succeeding.

Managing employees with low self-esteem may be challenging at times, because negative feedback given with the intention to improve performance may be viewed as a judgment on their worth as an employee. Individuals with low self-esteem are sensitive to social feedback, and they interpret ambiguous situations as definitive signals of social exclusion, which in turn leads to negative selfevaluations. Therefore, effectively managing employees with relatively low self-esteem requires tact and providing lots of positive feedback when discussing performance incidents.

Research shows that self-efficacy at work is related to job performance. Thus, as a manager, you likely wish to encourage this trait. Strategies for increasing self-efficacy include: •

Hiring people who are capable of performing their tasks and training people to increase their self-efficacy.

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• •

Some people may also respond well to verbal encouragement. By showing that you believe they can be successful and effectively playing the role of a cheerleader, you may be able to increase self-efficacy.

Giving people opportunities to test their skills so that they can see what they are capable of doing (or empowering them) is also a good way of increasing self-efficacy.

76. Should personality tests be used in the employee selection process? Support your response with evidence.

ANSWER: Though turnover in the job is expensive and enhancing the person?organization and person?job fit is important, companies should exercise caution in using personality tests in selection, as the research on their validity and reliability is mixed.

Some experts believe that personality tests predict performance and other criteria such as job satisfaction and thus advocate their usage. Others believe that the nature of the personality tests themselves allow job candidates to fake their answers and that personality may not actually be such a good predictor of performance anyway. It is estimated that 20%–50% of all job applicants give fake responses in personality tests.

Another problem with personality tests is the uncertain relationship between performance and personality. Research has shown that personality is not a particularly strong indicator of how a person will perform at work. Some studies indicate that personality predicts only 10-15% of the variation in job performance. Our performance at work depends on many factors, and personality does not seem to be the key factor for performance.

In short, companies should avoid relying upon personality tests alone in making their selection decisions, but if used in concert with other selection techniques including cognitive ability tests, personality tests may improve the selection decision. However, the company should also make sure that the test does not discriminate against people on the basis of sex, race, age, disabilities, and other legally protected characteristics.

77. Briefly explain the three factors used in attribution. What role does attribution play in the workplace?

ANSWER: An attribution is the causal explanation we give for an observed behavior. If you believe that a behavior is due to the internal characteristics of an actor, you are making an internal attribution. An external attribution is explaining someone’s behavior by referring to the situation.

Three factors are the key to understanding what kind of attributions we make.

• • •

Consensus: Do other people behave the same way?

Distinctiveness: Does this person behave the same way across different situations?

Consistency: Does this person behave this way on different occasions in the same situation?

How we react to other people’s behavior would depend on the type of attributions we make. When faced with poor performance, such as missing a deadline, we are more likely to punish the person, if an internal attribution is made (such as “the person being unreliable”). In the same situation, if we make an external attribution (such as “the timeline was unreasonable”), instead of punishing the person we might extend the deadline or assign more help to the person. If we feel that someone’s failure is due to external causes, we may feel empathy toward the person and even offer help. On the other hand, if someone succeeds and we make an internal attribution (he worked hard), we are more likely to reward the person, whereas an external attribution (the project was easy) is less likely to yield rewards for the person in question.

78. Describe how perception informs how we make sense of our environment.

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ANSWER: Humans have many ways that we respond to our environment. While each person sees the same reality of a tree or a chair, our values, needs, and emotions affect our thoughts of what kind of tree or chair we are seeing. We go beyond the objective information available to us and apply our own perceptions of objects, self, and others.

When perceiving the physical environment, we fill in gaps and extrapolate from the available information; we may see a letter in a word that isn’t there just because our brain knows that it should be. When we look at the tree, we may feel it is smaller or larger because of what is surrounding it.

As humans, we also skew our assessments of ourselves, assuming characteristics we have are shared by others. We see characteristics in another person that we apply generally to others of the same sex or race, and stereotype them.

A negative or positive stereotype can lead to a self-fulfilling prophecy because without realizing it our actions and assumptions will lead to a predictable outcome. How we perceive someone, or how we are perceived, during a first impression is lasting and can impact all future interactions. Our interactions with others are colored by how we make internal and external attributions, assessing if other people act the same way, if a person acts that way consistently, or if the person changes in different situations.

79. You are a career development counselor at your university. You have been instructed by your supervisor to develop a program called, “Tips for Your First Interview.” What are some of the tips you can provide students as they prepare for that first interview? Why are these actions important?

ANSWER: It is imperative that students recognize the power of first impressions. It must be emphasized multiple times in the presentation that first impressions are lasting impressions. The more aspects of the initial interactions between interviewer and interviewee the student is prepared for, the more successful the interview will be.

Specific strategies include: • • • • • • • •

Impressions begin even before the interview. Make sure that your résumé looks professional and is free from typos and grammar problems. Have someone else read it before you upload or send your résumé.

Dress the part. Take a shower. Keep make-up, perfume, and jewelry light. Clean and trim nails. Wear clean and pressed clothes, even if your interview is through a video call.

Be prepared for the interview. Be ready with answers to standard questions. Prepare answers highlighting your skills and accomplishments and practice your message. Practice an interview with a friend.

Test the technology. If your interview will be via remote technology, be sure that you have a stable internet connection, test your microphone and camera, and reboot your computer a few hours before the call.

Research the company. If you know a lot about the company and the job in question, you will come across as someone who is really interested in the job.

Set up the workspace for a remote interview. Make sure that what is visible behind you is not a distraction to you or the interviewer. Be sure that the light is on your face (if the light is behind you, your face will not be visible).

Be on time to the interview. Being late will show that you either don’t care about the interview or you are not very reliable. Act professionally and treat everyone you encounter nicely.

During the interview, be polite. Use correct grammar, avoid filler words such as “umm” or “like,” show eagerness and enthusiasm, and watch your body language.

80. What value is added to a firm in knowing the nature of personality traits in other cultures?

ANSWER: Diversity in the workforce is a competitive advantage in today’s dynamic, global marketplace. A firm with an appreciation for market niches available due to the differences in culture, language, sexual

Wdocs TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer) Chapter 3 - Individual Differences and Perception at Work

orientation, gender, etc., can address those customers much more effectively by drawing on the diverse nature of its own workforce. Further, since securing a person?job and person?organization fit facilitates performance, and personality helps determine that fit, understanding the nature of personality traits in other cultures is important.

For example, while some countries seem to have a majority of extraverts, as in the United States and Europe, Asia and Africa do not share the same traits. Clearly the nature of sales and marketing will differ in these countries based upon these traits. Similarly, being cognizant of a country’s culture will assist you in competing more effectively in that market.

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Chapter 4 - Attitudes and Behaviors at Work Multiple Choice 1. Making sense of how people behave at work depends on understanding a. the job market. b. their work attitudes. c. their compensation schedule. d. the firm’s management structure.

ANSWER: b 2. A recent Society for Human Resource Management (SHRM) study reveals that ___________ indicate relative job satisfaction. a. very few respondents b. about half of respondents c. almost all respondents d. no respondents ANSWER: c 3. An attitude is a. an outcome of our efforts. b. the drive that energizes an individual. c. the degree to which people have freedom to decide how to act. d. our opinions, beliefs, and feelings about our environment.

ANSWER: d 4. If one looks at the number of studies conducted on attitudes, what seems to be the most important with respect to one’s job? a. organizational commitment b. job satisfaction c. satisfaction with supervisors d. cognitive ability ANSWER: b 5. Job satisfaction refers to a. the emotional attachment people have toward the company they work for. b. an unwritten understanding about what an employee brings to the work environment. c. the feelings people have toward their jobs. d. opinions and beliefs about our work environment.

ANSWER: c 6. Organizational commitment refers to a. the feelings people have toward their jobs. b. the emotional attachment people have toward the company they work for. c. an unwritten understanding about what an employee brings to the work environment. d. All of the above.

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ANSWER: b 7. Which strategy is most likely to enhance happiness at work? a. increasing the amount you are paid for the work b. avoiding projects that cause stress c. seeking a mentor d. knowing yourself and what you want from the job ANSWER: d 8. Which statement is true about organizational commitment? a. There is little overlap with job satisfaction. b. Organizational commitment is a strong predictor of performance. c. Organizational commitment reduces absenteeism. d. Relationships at work have little influence on organizational behavior.

ANSWER: c 9. Employees with which personality trait are most likely to experience high job satisfaction? a. Those who are strong in agreeableness. b. Those with neurotic personalities. c. Those with low self-esteem. d. Those who are introverted.

ANSWER: a 10. Which statement about personality traits is true? a. External locus of control and introversion result in positive work attitudes. b. Low self-esteem results in more positive work attitudes. c. People who are critical of themselves tend to experience less job satisfaction. d. All of the above..

ANSWER: c 11. Research on job characteristics indicates that a. people with a low variety of skills are generally more satisfied with their job. b. people usually prefer to work independently with a minimum of feedback. c. the task being performed does not impact job satisfaction. d. people who have a high growth need tend to expect their jobs to help them build new skills.

ANSWER: d 12. Harvey couldn’t wait to start his new job. He was told he would be working directly with clients to improve their lives. But Harvey soon realized that he was just an assistant to the people who worked with the clients, and he never left the office. Harvey likely experienced a. organizational justice. b. work-life imbalance. c. a psychological contract breach. d. high job satisfaction.

ANSWER: c

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13. Kiara noticed that several employees at work were rude to other employees and often made demeaning remarks. When she mentioned this to her manager, he said not to worry about it and just do her job. This demonstrates Kiara’s company’s lack of attention to a. realistic job previews. b. organizational justice. c. work-life balance. d. stress management.

ANSWER: b 14. Research on relationships at work indicates a. as long as some of our coworkers are our friends, being treated unfairly by the organization won’t matter that much. b. if pay is satisfactory, personal relationships don’t impact job attitudes. c. the development of a trust-based relationship with the manager is positively related to job attitudes. d. most people don’t expect, or even want, personal relationships with coworkers.

ANSWER: c 15. Role conflict, role ambiguity, organizational politics, and job insecurity are indicators of a. stress at work. b. high responsibility at work. c. work-life balance. d. organizational justice.

ANSWER: a 16. Which element is related to lower levels of organizational commitment? a. negative affective disposition b. manager consideration of our opinions and suggestions c. perceived fairness of company policies d. None of the above.

ANSWER: a 17. Companies may systematically track employee work attitudes through a. performance evaluation interviews. b. exit interviews. c. employee suggestions. d. overhearing workplace conversations.

ANSWER: b 18. Attitude surveys conducted by companies produce more useful information if a. surveys are completed electronically. b. management is perceived as credible by employees. c. past surveys were conducted but no action resulted from them. d. individual survey responses are made public.

ANSWER: b 19. Which statement about exit interviews is true? a. A departing employee’s manager should conduct the exit interview because the immediate supervisor knew the employee best.

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b. An exit interview tends to show the departing employee’s bias and is not typically useful. c. An exit interview always indicates how management can improve so other employees will not leave. d. An exit interview should be conducted by a second level manager for best results.

ANSWER: d 20. The degree to which a person successfully fulfills the factors included in the job description is called a. job satisfaction. b. job performance. c. organizational commitment. d. organizational attitude.

ANSWER: b 21. Which factor has a low correlation to job satisfaction? a. level of pay b. treatment by supervisors c. job characteristics d. All of the above.

ANSWER: a 22. What is the most powerful influence over job performance? a. work-life balance b. pay equity c. employee personality d. cognitive ability ANSWER: d 23. Reasoning abilities, verbal and numerical skills, analytical skills, and intelligence are all a. general mental abilities. b. personality traits. c. academic skills. d. job performance behaviors.

ANSWER: a 24. General mental ability is most important in which area of work? a. clerical b. management c. manual labor d. retail sales ANSWER: b 25. Marlene routinely volunteers to organize the company holiday party and summer picnic. Marlene demonstrates a high level of a. insecurity and the need for social acceptance. b. job performance. c. organizational citizenship behaviors. d. self-importance.

ANSWER: c

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26. Which person is most likely to produce a low level of organizational citizenship behaviors? a. Maria is an agreeable, conscientious employee of a large conglomerate. b. Randall’s boss is extremely family-oriented and recently allowed him to leave work early to attend his son’s after-school soccer game. c. Horatio is a young engineer with negative affectivity. d. Lian is a devoted employee who is happy at her work.

ANSWER: c 27. Which factor has been shown to be a cause of high levels of absenteeism in a firm? a. positive work attitudes b. personality c. age of the worker d. work-life imbalance ANSWER: d 28. Which work elements are the most highly correlated to job performance? a. positive employee relationships b. job engagement and job satisfaction c. high pay and relationship with manager d. good benefits and work-life balance ANSWER: b 29. People with which personality traits are most likely to exhibit citizenship behaviors? a. positive and independent b. conscientious and agreeable c. introversion and openness to experience d. risk taking and extraversion ANSWER: b 30. Theft and sabotage at work are examples of what type of behaviors? a. antisocial behaviors b. organizational citizenship behaviors c. counterproductive work behaviors d. negative work attitudes ANSWER: c 31. During the COVID-19 pandemic, employees sometimes showed up at work when they had symptoms of illness because they were afraid of losing their jobs. This is an example of what behavior? a. unscheduled absence b. absenteeism c. presenteeism d. poor work attitude ANSWER: c 32. Which factor is negatively correlated to frequency and duration of absenteeism? a. health b. poor work attitude

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c. work-life imbalance d. age ANSWER: d 33. Which recommendation might you give to a friend regarding ways to deal with late coworkers? a. Try ignoring lateness and not imposing negative consequences. b. Reward timeliness by verbally recognizing those who arrive on time. c. Schedule meetings when most people can attend, even if it doesn’t work for everyone. d. Consider assigning less work to those who are late so as not to inconvenience others.

ANSWER: b 34. Marshall was unhappy that he didn’t get a raise, so he quit and found a better paying job. This illustrates the concept of a. involuntary turnover. b. job embeddedness. c. voluntary turnover. d. relocation.

ANSWER: c 35. Which employee is most likely to turnover? a. Kirsten, who has been with the company for a long time. b. Fred, who has a negative work attitude. c. Bayleigh, who has little work-related stress. d. Tran, who is a high performer.

ANSWER: b 36. The primary reason for employee turnover is a. gender. b. work attitudes. c. age. d. general mental abilities.

ANSWER: b 37. Which statement regarding age and turnover is accurate? a. Programming opportunities offered to new hires, such as orientation, often fail to reduce the turnover of this group. b. Older individuals are more likely to turnover than younger individuals. c. Individuals who have been on the job only a short period of time are unlikely to turnover because they just got the job. d. Younger individuals have an easier time, overall, leaving a job than older individuals.

ANSWER: d 38. A factor in whether employees are absent from work, even when they are unhappy at their job, is their level of a. competitiveness. b. guilt. c. compassion. d. knowledge.

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ANSWER: b 39. When an ethical climate exists at a firm, studies suggest people are a. less likely to want to leave the firm. b. likely to only perform the duties of their job description. c. not as satisfied with their jobs. d. less committed to the firm.

ANSWER: a 40. Which statement accurately reflects a concern regarding monitoring employees in the workplace? a. Monitoring employee online activity is a good way of creating an ethical climate. b. Use of video cameras in the workplace will make employees feel the firm cares about ethics. c. High levels of employee monitoring increases citizenship behaviors. d. Monitoring employees can increase ethical compliance but may create a culture of mistrust.

ANSWER: d 41. When companies provide training to employees to teach them new skills, it results in positive changes in employees’ jobs and careers. This method is called a. career expansion. b. performance improvement measures. c. insourcing. d. upskilling.

ANSWER: d 42. Which factor related to job satisfaction is most likely to generalize across cultures? a. work-family conflict b. autonomy c. empowerment d. good relations with others ANSWER: d Completion 43. The investment of one’s mental, emotional, and physical energies into work is called job __________.

ANSWER: engagement 44. The feelings people have toward their job is called job __________.

ANSWER: satisfaction 45. __________ is the emotional attachment people have toward the company they work for.

ANSWER: Organizational commitment 46. An unwritten understanding about what the employee will bring to the work environment and what the company will provide in exchange is called a __________.

ANSWER: psychological contract 47. Helping new employees and working voluntary overtime are examples of __________.

ANSWER: organizational citizenship behaviors

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48. __________ are meetings with departing employees.

ANSWER: Exit interviews 49. Job __________ is the degree to which an employee successfully fulfills the factors included in the job description.

ANSWER: performance 50. Predictors of __________ include health problems, work-life balance issues, poor work attitudes and age of the employee.

ANSWER: absenteeism 51. Predictors of __________ include poor performance, poor work attitudes, stress, personality, and age of the employee.

ANSWER: turnover 52. SAS Institute advocates its employees create work/life balance by suggesting, “If you are working more than__________ hours, you are just adding bugs.”

ANSWER: eight 53. When people have strong links to the organization and leaving would entail significant sacrifices, they have __________.

ANSWER: job embeddedness Essay 54. Briefly describe how stress relates to job satisfaction, both positively and negatively.

ANSWER: Stress can be a two-way street. If role ambiguity is experienced (vagueness in relation to what one’s responsibilities are), role conflict (facing contradictory demands at work), organizational politics or lack of job security, satisfaction can be severely reduced. However, some stress can make us happy. Some people work best under deadlines, even tight deadlines. Furthermore, some people like having a great deal of responsibility and the stress which accompanies that simply makes them better at meeting the challenge.

55. What is the value of an exit interview for a firm?

ANSWER: Exit interviews are conducted with employees departing a firm. The intent behind them is to find out why the employee is leaving. The challenge is to make sure the employee is being “honest” with his or her reason for leaving. For example, if the interview is conducted by the employee’s immediate manager, the reason for leaving could actually involve that individual and to have the manager asking the questions would not probably gather the kinds of information needed to make appropriate changes. Turnover is expensive for a firm, both in lost productivity and in the need to engage in another recruiting effort, so every opportunity a firm has to keep turnover low should be addressed.

56. Give an example of how a psychological contract between an employee and a firm could be breached.

ANSWER: Student answers will vary.

When employees do not get what they expect from a company, a psychological contract can be breached. A psychological contract is an unwritten understanding about what the employee will bring to the work environment and what the company will provide in exchange.

For example, if you were told during your initial selection interviews with a firm that the firm was family friendly, but now the boss wants you to be available 24/7 and calls you on your companyissued cell phone at odd hours of the evening, you feel like the contract has been breached and you are sometimes, even often, dissatisfied.

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57. Rosaline is the superintendent of a school district. A new board of directors, to whom she is responsible, has just been elected and the philosophical direction the board wishes to take varies from the direction Rosaline has taken the district over the past five years. Rosaline is going to tender her resignation. How can she do so gracefully?

ANSWER: After working for five years to make your vision a reality, the likely urge is to vent your frustrations as loudly as you can. However, such an action, while refreshing for maybe five minutes, simply does not serve either party well in the future. Thus, Rosaline should consider the following advice: • •

• • • • •

Don’t quit on an impulse. We all have bad days and feel the temptation to walk away from the job right away. Yet, this is unproductive for your own career. Plan your exit in advance, look for a better job over an extended period of time, and leave when the moment is right.

Don’t quit too often. While trading jobs in an upward fashion is good, leaving one place and getting another job that is just like the previous one in pay, responsibilities, and position very frequently does not help you move upward in your career, and may lead to the perception that you are a “job hopper.”

When you decide to leave, tell your boss first, and be professional. Explain your reasons without blaming anyone and frame it as an issue of poor job fit.

Do not badmouth your employer. It is best not to bash the organization you are leaving in front of coworkers. Do not tell them how happy you are to be quitting or how much better your new job looks. There is really no point in making any remaining employees feel bad.

Guard your professional reputation. The world is a small place. People know others and tales of unprofessional behavior travel quickly to unlikely places.

Finish your ongoing work and don’t leave your team in a bad spot. Right before a major deadline is probably a bad time to quit. Offer to stay at least two weeks to finish your work, and to help hire and train your replacement.

Don’t steal from the company! Give back all office supplies, keys, ID cards, and other materials. Don’t give them any reason to blemish their memory of you. Who knows…you may even want to come back one day.

58. Describe the impact pay-for-performance systems could have on high and low performers in a firm.

ANSWER: Pay-for-performance systems can have a positive impact on a firm. First, the opportunity to enhance pay is afforded in these systems to those who perform well. Therefore, high performers will be paid well. Those who are not good performers may hasten their leave-taking from the firm because they are being paid less. However, in the pay-for-performance system, you only get paid less if you perform poorly. So poor performers are leaving, and that may not be all bad.

59. Tyreese is a 22-year-old, recent graduate of a large university. Given the research on age and turnover, what are some expectations a manager may have with regard to Tyreese’s likelihood of remaining with the firm for an extended time?

ANSWER: Research tends to suggest that younger employees are more likely to leave organizations. Young employees have fewer responsibilities and may be much more able to quit a job they don’t like. They also have been performing job searches more recently and so may find themselves getting job offers. Since young employees experience much more stress there is little bonding them to the firm and they again elect to leave the company. Anything the manager can do to address these issues might help to retain this young recruit.

60. Agnes is frustrated. This morning she called a meeting for 9:00 am sharp to discuss the new product launch. Though most of the key players were on time, Kim and Nelson were both 25 minutes late, making some excuses about how they had to make an important call before either could attend. That made four meetings in a row when they were late. Other members at the meeting are getting frustrated too, as you have to repeat information and re-explain key points. What should Agnes do?

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ANSWER:

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First, find out why they are late. Are they late because they are unhappy or dissatisfied? Or are they simply late because it is their nature to be so?

Don’t let the continued tardiness go unnoticed and “unpunished.” Ignoring the behavior may be saying to them that you somehow approve of what they are doing.

Find out what everyone’s schedules are. Maybe you really are scheduling meetings when they have standing phone appointments.

If they are late, require them to make up for their lateness by taking on some extra duties or responsibilities related to the project.

Remind people of the meeting. Sometimes we are just so busy in today’s dynamic work environment that we do forget commitments.

Reward those who do come on time. Food works well. Barring that, just thank everyone for being there on time!

Make sure you are on time. Creating a culture of timeliness within your group requires everyone’s effort, including yours.

61. Give an example of when turnover is a problem and when turnover is beneficial to a firm.

ANSWER: Turnover is a problem when there is no one to perform a job and the job is critical. Of course, this issue can be further compounded by the difficulty experienced by the firm in filling the open position.

Add to that the need to train an employee and wait until he or she “gets up to speed” on the job and the impact can be quite negative.

On the other hand, if you have an employee who simply is not performing well and may, in fact, be reducing the level of performance of those around him or her, then the turnover of the poor performer becomes a positive opportunity for the firm.

62. Marco is a 22-year-old accountant working in his first job at a major accounting firm in Philadelphia. When he is home in Virginia for a visit, he sits down for a chat with his father, who is a human resource director at a large manufacturing firm. Marco tells his father how unhappy he is that he chose to work for the Philadelphia firm. As he does his job, he realizes this is not what he wants to do for the rest of his life. What advice can dad provide him to help him be a happier worker?

ANSWER: Student answers will vary.

• • • • •

First, be positive. Any experience is a learning experience. You are never stuck forever anywhere.

If, indeed, the fit between you and the firm or you and the job is not what it should be, then find out what is wrong with the fit. Use this information as you begin a job search. Don’t however, have a knee-jerk reaction and just quit.

Get accurate information about the firm and the job. Maybe you are in a job that you just don’t fit, but maybe that is only a temporary assignment with better things to come.

Develop good relationships at work. The work relationships are part of your network and you never know when your network will come in handy.

Know when to leave. Gather information and weigh it carefully. Make sure the next organization or job is a good fit.

63. Discuss the dilemma companies face in trying to prevent their employees from behaving unethically by monitoring employees.

ANSWER: Preventing unethical behavior in employees can take many forms. One such option is to monitor employees through the use of video cameras and email scanning. Engaging in such monitoring activities, however, leads employees to feel like they are being treated unfairly and are being disrespected. The catch-22 arises that if you increase the level of monitoring in the firm, you do decrease the incidence of unethical behavior, but will likely decrease job satisfaction and commitment to the firm as well as job performance.

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64. Briefly discuss some reasons why SAS Institute is ranked on Fortune magazine’s “Best Places to Work” list.

ANSWER: SAS Institute successfully manages its employees. The company shows its employees that it cares, and in return, the employees are devoted to the firm. Turnover at SAS is less than 4%.

The firm maintains its positive relationship with its employees by providing them opportunities to work on interesting and challenging projects. In working on those projects, barriers are removed by the firm, so all the employee has to do is work on the project, no worries about equipment, rules, etc.

In addition, the perks offered to the employees are innovative and exciting and determined through employee satisfaction surveys. There are company athletic fields, a pool, gym memberships, tennis and basketball courts, on-site health care and the demand that employees go home to their families after a full 8-hour day.

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Chapter 5 - Theories of Motivation at Work Multiple Choice 1. Ability refers to a. having the resources, information, and support one needs to perform well. b. having the skills and knowledge required to perform the job. c. the intention of achieving a goal, leading to goal-directed behavior. d. the function of performance, motivation, and environment.

ANSWER: b 2. Which statement is true about motivation? a. Being motivated is the same as being a high performer. b. Motivation is the sole reason why people perform well. c. Motivation is a key influence over an employee’s performance level. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: c 3. In the workplace, motivation refers to a. the skills and knowledge required to perform the job. b. the intersection of performance and ability. c. the intention of achieving a goal, leading to goal-directed behavior. d. the only key to high performance.

ANSWER: c 4. Performance is a function of the interaction between a. motivation, ability, and environment. b. training and ability. c. personality and environment. d. intrinsic and extrinsic motivation.

ANSWER: a 5. What is the best example of intrinsic motivation? a. earning a good salary b. receiving a positive performance review c. enrolling in a class that your boss suggested d. mentoring someone at work because you enjoy it ANSWER: d 6. According to Maslow, an example of physiological needs may be satisfied by a. food. b. feeling danger-free. c. feelings of importance. d. human connections.

ANSWER: a

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7. How could a firm best satisfy an employee’s safety needs? a. Enroll the employee in a Microsoft Office training course. b. Provide an employee appreciation luncheon. c. Develop an employee softball league. d. Create a job security clause in the employment contract.

ANSWER: d 8. Daisha designs merchandise displays for a high-end department store. She often works late to make her displays especially creative and unusual because she enjoys the comments from shoppers. According to Maslow’s hierarchy, beyond pay, Daisha’s job performance most clearly satisfies what need? a. physiological b. love and belonging c. self-esteem d. safety and security ANSWER: c 9. One way to satisfy self-actualization needs is to a. pursue a master’s degree through a company’s tuition reimbursement program. b. go out to dinner once a month with coworkers from your department. c. get a $100 suggestion bonus from your firm for a cost saving tip you placed in your department’s suggestion box. d. none of the above relate to self-actualization.

ANSWER: a 10. Maslow’s theory of motivation suggests a. employee needs are ordered. b. employee needs are grouped in three categories. c. employee needs are divided into motivator and hygiene categories. d. employee needs are acquired as the result of life experiences.

ANSWER: a 11. The simple premise of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory is a. more than one human need operates at one time. b. all employees are motivated by similar treatment. c. individuals acquire three types of needs from their life experiences. d. human beings have needs that are hierarchically ranked.

ANSWER: d 12. Maslow’s theory of motivation has been criticized because a. research does not support the argument that satisfied needs no longer motivate behavior. b. its “frustration-regression” hypothesis has no practical implications for the workplace. c. the research methodology employed does not fully account for the attribution of cause to the individual or the situation. d. substantial empirical research has indicated little practical application of the theory.

ANSWER: a 13. Social needs could be satisfied by what workplace event, according to Maslow’s hierarchy?

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a. receiving an employee of the month award b. getting promoted to assistant manager from a supervisor position c. attending a department happy hour after work d. taking an online, self-paced training class ANSWER: c 14. Your paycheck could likely satisfy which needs identified by Maslow? a. physiological needs b. esteem needs c. safety needs d. All of the above ANSWER: d 15. Alderfer’s existence needs correspond to Maslow’s a. social needs. b. esteem needs. c. self-actualization needs. d. safety needs.

ANSWER: d 16. Alderfer’s growth needs correspond to Maslow’s a. social needs. b. safety needs. c. esteem needs. d. physiological needs.

ANSWER: c 17. In comparing Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory to Alderfer’s ERG theory a. ERG theory recognizes more than one need may operate at one time. b. Maslow’s theory recognizes more than one need may operate at one time. c. ERG theory is based upon observations of individuals in clinical settings, while Maslow observed workplace settings. d. Maslow’s theory suggests that individuals who are frustrated in their attempts to satisfy one need may regress to another one.

ANSWER: a 18. Alderfer’s theory of motivation revised Maslow’s theory of needs by a. relaxing the basic assumptions of Maslow’s theory of needs. b. insisting that needs are hierarchically based. c. reordering the hierarchy of needs. d. assuming needs are grouped into seven categories.

ANSWER: a 19. According to ERG theory, if an individual is frustrated in the growth opportunities of their job, a. they may advance to self-actualization needs. b. they may regress only to existence needs. c. they may regress to either relatedness or existence needs.

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d. they will be motivated by the next higher need in the need hierarchy.

ANSWER: c 20. Which item is a motivator in Herzberg’s theory of motivation? a. working conditions b. salary c. company policy d. recognition ANSWER: d 21. What is a hygiene factor according to Herzberg’s theory of motivation? a. promotion opportunities b. interesting work c. salary d. achievement ANSWER: c 22. A criticism of Herzberg’s theory of motivation is that a. the primary research methodology used to arrive at hygiene and motivator factors is flawed. b. the classification of factors as hygiene or motivator is not as simplistic as it appears. c. the quality of supervisors or relationships may impact whether employees are assigned interesting work or recognized for their potential. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: d 23. According to acquired needs theory, individuals with a high need for affiliation a. want to influence others. b. have a strong need to be successful. c. desire to make an impact on the organization. d. None of the above.

ANSWER: d 24. What job would be best suited for someone with a high need for affiliation? a. accounting b. teacher c. engineer d. entrepreneur ANSWER: b 25. Norene is being considered for a managerial position at a prestigious firm. She completes a Thematic Apperception Test as part of an assessment center exercise for prospective managers. Facilitators will examine the results carefully for their manager choices knowing that a. individuals high in need for achievement may find it difficult to delegate authority to subordinates. b. individuals high in need for affiliation are especially effective at providing critical feedback to employees. c. individuals high in need for power have difficulties disciplining poor performers.

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d. individuals high in need for achievement are especially effective at coaching and meeting with subordinates.

ANSWER: a 26. Which of these is a need-based theory of motivation? a. Expectancy theory b. ERG theory c. Equity theory d. None of the above ANSWER: b 27. What is a process-based theory of motivation? a. Alderfer’s ERG theory b. Herzberg’s two-factor theory c. Skinner’s reinforcement theory d. McClelland’s acquired needs theory ANSWER: c 28. Which need-based theory has received the greatest amount of research support? a. Herzberg’s two-factor theory b. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs c. Alderfer’s ERG theory d. McClelland’s acquired needs theory ANSWER: d 29. McClelland designed a method of showing the subject an ambiguous image and having them write a story about it. This method is called the ___________ and it assesses the subject’s ___________. a. needs hierarchy; lowest-level need b. Thematic Apperception Test; dominant need c. Two-Factor Theory; motivators d. equity formula; input-output ratio ANSWER: b 30. Needs-based theories propose that a manager’s job is to determine what employees’ needs are and then to a. eliminate those needs. b. redefine those needs. c. redirect those needs. d. create the work environment that meets those needs.

ANSWER: d 31. Zoe and Zane are graphic designers at Highland Lithographics. Both have the same job description and were hired at about the same time. Earlier this month, Zoe found out that Zane makes $15.00 an hour while she makes $12.00. What theory of motivation best explains why Zoe went to her boss to complain about the pay disparity and try to get a raise? a. ERG theory b. Equity theory c. Expectancy theory

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d. Reinforcement theory ANSWER: b 32. Individuals who perceive severe inequity often strive to “balance the scales” by performing which action? a. stealing from the company b. arriving at work late c. quitting d. All of the above ANSWER: d 33. Three new nurses began working at the hospital on the same day. Each one is a new graduate with similar training, but they graduated from different universities. Nurse A finds out that Nurse B earns more per hour than they do, while Nurse C earns less than either one. In this scenario, who is an appropriate referent for Nurse A? a. Every nurse in the department. b. Every nurse employed by the hospital. c. Both Nurse B and C. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: c 34. Research on equity theory suggests a. those who perceive inequity increase their work performance. b. those who feel over-rewarded experience little distress over the situation. c. those who feel over-rewarded experience guilt over the situation. d. those who perceive inequity encourage their coworkers to work less hard.

ANSWER: b 35. Individuals who expect yearly wage increases without exhibiting increased performance may be labeled a. benevolents. b. entitleds. c. equitably insensitive. d. expectancy sensitive.

ANSWER: b 36. Interactional justice is understood to be a. the degree to which outcomes received from the organization are perceived to be fair. b. the degree to which fair decision-making procedures are used to arrive at a decision. c. the degree to which people are treated with respect, kindness, and dignity in interpersonal interactions. d. the belief that high levels of effort will lead to high performance.

ANSWER: c 37. In considering workplace distributive justice, it is accurate to note that a. high levels of justice create higher levels of organizational citizenship behaviors. b. high levels of justice create lower levels of employee commitment to the organization. c. low levels of justice create higher levels of customer satisfaction. d. high levels of justice lead to support of unionization.

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ANSWER: a 38. What advice should you keep in mind to increase your chances of being perceived as a fair person? a. People are selfish; they care only about their own justice level. b. Treat everyone equally when distributing rewards. Differentiation in rewards often leads to unfairness. c. Make your own decisions, as you are the boss and not accountable to those you supervise. d. Pay attention to how you talk to people. Be considerate of others.

ANSWER: d 39. Jake wonders if his late nights at the office over the past year have boosted his overall performance. This is an example of which aspect of expectancy theory? a. expectancy b. instrumentality c. valence d. equity ANSWER: a 40. How can managers best influence the perceptions of expectancy theory? a. Individuals with an internal locus of control and high self-esteem believe there is little connection between their effort and performance so a great deal of feedback is needed to motivate them. b. Regardless of the performance rating given on a performance evaluation, make certain that everyone gets a small raise annually. c. Recognize the good performance of individuals with cost effective items like coffee mugs and tshirts. d. Conduct employee surveys periodically to ascertain what employees consider to be rewards for performance and integrate that in some manner into the performance evaluation program.

ANSWER: d 41. In expectancy theory, valence is a. the perception that high levels of effort will lead to outcomes of interest like performance. b. the perception that performance is related to subsequent outcomes such as rewards. c. the anticipated satisfaction that will result from an outcome. d. the degree to which people are treated with respect, kindness, and dignity.

ANSWER: c 42. To influence instrumentality, managers can a. ensure that the environment facilitates performance. b. give employees choice over rewards. c. consistently reward high performers. d. encourage people to believe their effort makes a difference.

ANSWER: c 43. What scenario best demonstrates Steven Kerr’s observation “the folly of rewarding A while hoping for B”? a. A manager fails to acknowledge an employee who stayed after hours for one week to complete a report for an ill coworker. b. A manager fears the top salesperson will leave if she is criticized for being 15 minutes late every day.

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c. A manager promotes a subordinate known for a propensity to argue with coworkers to another department where an individual just retired. d. A manager who orders the release of manufactured parts with known defects to meet a deadline in spite of the company’s highly advertised quality commitment is rewarded.

ANSWER: d 44. What occurs with negative reinforcement? a. decreases the desired behavior b. decreases the frequency of negative behavior c. increases the desired behavior d. reduces the frequency of undesired behavior ANSWER: c 45. Positive reinforcement tends to a. decrease the desired behavior. b. decrease the frequency of negative behavior. c. increase the desired behavior. d. reduce the frequency of undesired behavior.

ANSWER: c 46. An example of extinction is a. nagging an employee to call a customer. b. suspending an employee for being late three days in a row. c. praising an employee for a well-written report. d. ignoring a coworker who is telling dirty jokes.

ANSWER: d 47. When reinforcers follow all examples of positive behavior, you are using a ___________ of reinforcement. a. variable ratio b. equity ratio c. continuous schedule d. fixed ratio schedule ANSWER: c 48. Praising the employee occasionally when the person shows up on time is an example of a(n) ___________ of reinforcement. a. variable ratio b. equity ratio c. continuous schedule d. fixed ratio schedule ANSWER: a 49. Which statement is accurate regarding disciplining employees? a. Sticks are usually more effective than carrots. b. Unfair punishment may not change unwanted behavior. c. Even for similar indiscretions, no two employees should be disciplined the same way. d. All of the above.

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ANSWER: b 50. The first step of an organizational behavior modification (OB Mod) program is a. evaluate and maintain. b. identify behavior to be modified. c. analyze behavior antecedents and outcomes. d. measure the baseline level.

ANSWER: b 51. When organizational behavior modification (OB Mod) is used to examine employee absenteeism, which step looks at why employees are absent? a. Step 1: Identify behavior to modify b. Step 2: Measure the baseline level. c. Step 3: Analyze behavior antecedents and outcomes. d. Step 5: Evaluate and maintain.

ANSWER: c 52. In simulations examining whether reinforcement theory explains ethical behavior, researchers found that a. subjects were less likely to cut kickback payments if there was a threat of punishment. b. subjects were less likely to continue kickback payments if they made a profit after providing the kickbacks. c. the perceived likelihood of punishment is not a major influence of ethical behavior. d. the severity of expected punishment was the primary predictor of whether subjects were inclined to behave unethically.

ANSWER: d 53. What statement reflects current thinking about the use of technology in organizational decision making? a. It makes decisions error-free. b. It can easily result in unfairness. c. It is fair but inefficient. d. It eliminates human bias.

ANSWER: b 54. What does recent research on motivation suggest? a. Ethical behavior is learned behavior. b. Satisfaction with social needs is a powerful motivator in industrialized countries. c. Subjects in different cultures do not vary in the level of need for achievement or affiliation. d. Valuing justice and fairness is a distinctive American-only value.

ANSWER: a 55. Research on motivation in different cultures indicates that a. high power distance cultures value having a voice in the justice process. b. Chinese study participants place the highest value on procedural justice. c. equity is not culture specific; all cultures utilize this method to achieve fairness. d. in industrialized nations, satisfaction with esteem needs was a more powerful motivator than satisfaction of physiological or security needs.

ANSWER: d

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Completion 56. Job performance is a function of the interaction between a person’s ___________, ability, and ___________.

ANSWER: motivation; environment 57. __________ motivation refers to performing your job well because it is related to desirable outcomes such as salary and a good performance review.

ANSWER: Extrinsic 58. Jordan feels strongly about satisfying his subordinates’ __________ needs. Therefore, each time someone does an outstanding job on some project, he calls the entire department together to formally recognize the individual’s accomplishment.

ANSWER: esteem 59. ___________ theory of motivation arranges needs in a hierarchy.

ANSWER: Maslow’s 60. Social needs are to Maslow as ___________ is to Alderfer.

ANSWER: relatedness 61. Herzberg’s two-factor theory of motivation suggests factors that are part of the context in which the job is performed are called ___________ factors.

ANSWER: hygiene 62. Jinni is participating in a study in which after looking at a picture, she will write a story describing the person in the picture, what that person is doing and why. Jinni is taking a ___________ to assess motivation themes.

ANSWER: Thematic Apperception Test 63. Under McClelland’s theory, individuals who focus on goals and deadlines have a need for ___________.

ANSWER: achievement 64. ___________ motivation theories see motivation as a rational process.

ANSWER: Process-based 65. Under ___________, we use social comparison to determine fairness.

ANSWER: equity theory 66. Equity theorists may refer to those who give without waiting to receive much in return as ___________.

ANSWER: benevolents 67. ___________ is the degree to which the outcomes received from the organization are perceived to be fair.

ANSWER: Distributive justice 68. The perception that high levels of effort will lead to performance is called ___________.

ANSWER: expectancy 69. Nevin ensures that his subordinates view rewards offered by the firm as desirable. Nevin is attempting to influence the ___________ element of expectancy theory.

ANSWER: valence

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70. ___________ is a motivation theory based on the work of Ivan Pavlov on behavioral conditioning and B. F. Skinner on operant conditioning.

ANSWER: Reinforcement theory 71. The form of reinforcement which involves presenting negative consequences following unwanted behaviors is ___________.

ANSWER: punishment 72. The Xenon Corporation just announced a new bonus program where managers can provide “on the spot” bonuses for an exceptional job done that day. Xenon is proposing to offer bonuses on a ___________ schedule.

ANSWER: variable ratio Essay 73. Briefly explain the role of motivation in determining employee performance. Include a description of the two most basic types of motivation.

ANSWER: Job performance is a function of the interaction between a person’s motivation, ability, and environment. Motivation, the intention of achieving a goal, helps a person try hard to accomplish a certain task. Motivation is not, however, sufficient for high performance and not the key reason why people perform well but is a key influence on performance.

Intrinsic motivation refers to pursuing an activity because it is inherently enjoyable and absent of apparent rewards. Extrinsic motivation refers to performing an activity because it is related to desirable outcomes such as financial rewards, status, or approval from others.

74. Compare and contrast Maslow’s hierarchy of needs to Alderfer’s ERG theory. How can they help us understand employee motivation?

ANSWER: Both Maslow’s hierarchy of needs and Alderfer’s ERG theory are need-based theories.

Maslow suggests there are five basic human needs: physiological, safety, social, esteem and selfactualization, which are arranged in a hierarchy. As one need is satisfied, the next need in the hierarchy drives behavior. Despite the lack of strong research support, Maslow’s theory found obvious applications in business settings. Understanding what people need gives us clues to understanding them. The hierarchy is a systematic way of thinking about the different needs employees may have at any given point and explains different reactions they may have to similar treatment. By making the effort to satisfy the different needs of each employee, organizations may ensure a highly motivated workforce.

Alderfer modifies Maslow’s theory by proposing that there are three needs, existence, relatedness, and growth. These needs are not arranged hierarchically but are grouped as categories.

Consequently, Alderfer is proposing that more than one need may operate at any time. In addition, Alderfer proposes a “frustration-regression hypothesis” in his theory. The hypothesis suggests that individuals who are frustrated when trying to satisfy one need may regress to another. The implication of this theory is that we need to recognize the multiple needs that may be driving individuals at a given point to understand their behavior and properly motivate them.

75. List and define each of the needs in Maslow’s hierarchy and provide an example of how a firm could try to satisfy each.

ANSWER: Physiological needs are those related to food, water, and shelter. A firm could satisfy each of these needs by paying an employee.

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Safety needs are satisfied when one is free from danger, pain, or uncertainty. Again, pay would be an example of how to satisfy these needs as the paycheck would enable the employee to purchase items to keep him free from danger (a car instead of walking on a busy highway).

Social needs are those of belonging to a group or being loved. Firms could create a golf league, take their employees out for dinner for the holidays or hold summer picnics to satisfy this need.

Esteem needs are those where one desires respect from others and wants to feel important. A program where employees are formally recognized for a job well done, like an “employee of the month” award would satisfy this need.

Self-actualization needs are where an employee desires to be “all they can be.” Offering employees a tuition reimbursement program would help satisfy this need.

76. Herzberg has been strongly criticized for his research finding that salary is a hygiene factor. Describe the nature of hygiene factors and how salary fits this category. What are the implications of this finding for managers in the workplace?

ANSWER: Hygiene factors are ones that are found in the context of the job environment. Herzberg argues, based upon his study, that these factors are those one would expect to have in his environment. For example, the physical environment should be one free from hazards, where it is not too hot or too cold in which to work. The worker, is, in essence, neutral when these environmental factors are as expected. Only when the factors are unexpected and problematic does the employee react and then he expresses dissatisfaction. For example, if the air conditioning in an office is broken during the summer months, sweltering employees will complain, likely very loudly. Herzberg contends that salary fits this profile. Clearly employees expect a certain level of salary, at least minimum wage, only when their pay is not at the level of the market, for example, will they complain about it and begin to pursue other options.

The important implications of Herzberg’s theory are that while managers need to be aware of environmental factors and their improvement, they are not sufficient to motivate an employee.

Context factors matter because when they are absent, employees are dissatisfied. The job and its content also must be addressed.

77. McClelland’s acquired needs theory has been assessed in various cultures. Choose a country with whose culture you are familiar. Describe some key aspects of the culture and which of the three needs might be most prevalent among residents of the country.

ANSWER: Student answers will vary, but should discuss the need for achievement, affiliation, and/or power.

One general example: Latin American cultures tend to focus on close-knit work groups with strong interpersonal interactions between individuals. A personal experience is that Latin American workers are extremely attuned to each other’s likes and dislikes. Mentioning that you like an individual’s shirt could very likely result in your receipt of a gift box the next day, containing an identical shirt. Clearly these specific examples reflect a need for affiliation orientation. There appears to be a lower need for power.

78. You are the new dean of the college of business administration at a major university. You’ve undertaken a salary review for non-tenured faculty members. You note that the OB instructor has similar credentials to the marketing instructor, but is paid $10,000 less per year for similar teaching duties. You are also aware that faculty members recently found out salaries of all instructors when the payroll office erroneously sent an email with that information attached. Based on your knowledge of equity theory, what reactions to the inequity might you expect, and how would you address them?

ANSWER: Student answers will vary.

Equity theory suggests that two ratios are assessed by an individual: first, a self-assessment ratio

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comparing one’s input to outcomes. If the outcome is favorable given the input invested, an individual feels equity. That self-assessed ratio is then compared against a referent. Again, the comparison leads to feelings of equity or inequity.

In this scenario, a comparison of the OB instructor to that of the marketing instructor, all things being equal, is going to make the OB instructor feel inequitably treated by the college.

Knowing the inequity felt by the OB instructor, the dean could pursue different options to address feelings of unfairness in the university system. For example, the dean might attempt to help the OB instructor alter their perception of their own or the referent’s inputs and outcomes. Specifically, the dean could help the OB instructor see that they really did not work as hard preparing their classes, or teach them as successfully as they believe (perhaps by providing student evaluation of such).

Other options to address the perceived inequity include having the referent increase inputs, having the OB instructor reduce inputs, or attempting to increase outcomes, change the comparison person (perhaps by comparing themselves to another OB instructor) and having the OB instructor leave the university.

79. Three major automobile manufacturers are closing many factories and laying off thousands of employees.

Based on the research on procedural justice, what recommendations could you make to the firms to be fair to those individuals?

ANSWER: Student answers will vary.

Some options the auto companies might utilize include providing the laid-off employees with advance notice of the job action, thus providing them an opportunity to prepare themselves for the major life impact.

Other options include allowing employees a voice in decision making, providing full explanations for the need for such job action, and treating all employees in a consistent manner (having a set procedure for determining who will be laid off and not deviating from the plan).

80. Twyla is a successful pharmaceutical salesperson. Her company has developed a new drug and has provided her the option of staying with the previous products or adding the new product to her account. Using expectancy theory, describe the thought process Twyla would go through to decide which option to take.

ANSWER: Student answers will vary.

Expectancy theory suggests that three factors should be examined. First is the notion of expectancy itself. Will my effort lead to high performance? In this case, does the salesperson believe she can sell the new drug? Will her current selling techniques allow her to maintain her high performance level?

The second issue to be considered is instrumentality. Instrumentality is the degree to which the person believes performance is related to rewards. Will the sale of this drug produce good commissions?

Finally, the notion of valence must be assessed. Is the size of the commissions sufficient to facilitate such increased effort? When these issues are considered in concert with one another, the motivation to pursue the action is determined. The role of the manager is to try to influence all these perceptions.

81. Define distributive, procedural, and interactional justice and note how they are related.

ANSWER: Distributive justice is the degree to which the outcomes received from the organization are perceived to be fair. Procedural justice refers to the degree to which fair decision-making procedures are used to arrive at a decision. Finally, interactional justice is the degree to which people are treated with

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respect, kindness, and dignity in interpersonal interactions.

The three concepts interact with each other and together. In short, the three types of justice are providing an opportunity for an employee to receive a fair outcome that was provided based upon a fair decision and awarded to the employee in a respectful, kind manner. Employers benefit from attending to all three types of justice.

82. Many firms are instituting wellness programs for their employees as a means to improve those employees’ health and well-being and to lower healthcare premiums. Use the stages of organizational behavior modification (OB Mod) to explain how to modify employee health in the workplace.

ANSWER: Stage 1: Identify the behavior to be modified. Overweight individuals, particularly those who are established as being clinically obese, represent real medical concerns both now and in the future.

Identifying those individuals whose BMI (body mass index) suggest they are candidates for medical problems down the road is an important first step.

Stage 2: Measure the baseline level. A firm can decide to institute a wellness program whereby they publicize the opportunity to privately find out your BMI. Many firms institute a team competition to get department members to be measured. The department with the most individuals measured, for example, may get gift cards to a local business.

Stage 3: Analyze its antecedents and outcomes: Once the BMI is assessed and the potential level of obesity in the firm determined, the firm can begin to determine the potential causes of the weight problem among its employees. Often the problem is a lack of exercise.

Stage 4: Intervene. If lack of activity is one contributing problem for the firm’s employees, a program addressing the issue can be created. Many firms are taking part in a walking program called “America on the Move.” The program distributes pedometers to all participants, and baseline numbers of steps in a daily routine are determined. Once that baseline is assessed, the firm attempts to encourage its employees to increase the number of steps daily. One goal might be to take 2,000 extra steps each day.

Stage 5: Evaluate and maintain. Teams are formed in departments of the firm to compete against one another as each individual and group attempts to reach the 2,000 steps per day goal. After a set time period, progress toward the goal is assessed and those teams and individuals achieving the goal are rewarded for their efforts. At one university instituting this program, goal achievers have their monthly insurance premiums reduced by an established formula for every month that goal is achieved. Clearly the overall effect is that employees become healthier and overall company healthcare premiums are reduced.

83. What is the role of motivation in ethical behavior? Use at least one motivation theory to discuss your views on this topic.

ANSWER: Students answers will vary.

For example, employees may engage in unethical behaviors to satisfy particular needs. Research has shown that those who have high need for affiliation and are at risk of being excluded are more likely to engage in unethical behavior that benefits their group. In other words, the desire to fit in and belong may motivate employees to engage in unethical actions as a way to gain status and belonging in a group.

One theory that has been particularly successful in explaining ethical behavior is reinforcement theory. Just like any other behavior such as performance or cooperation, ethical behavior is one that is learned as a result of the consequences following one’s actions.

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There are many organizational situations in which individuals may do unethical things but then experience positive consequences such as being awarded promotions for meeting their sales quotas. For example, in many hotels, staff members routinely receive kickbacks from restaurants or bars if they refer customers to those locations. Similarly, sales staff rewarded with spiffs (productspecific sales incentives) may give customers advice that goes against their own personal beliefs and in this sense act unethically. As long as unethical behavior is followed by positive consequences for the person in question, we would expect unethical behavior to continue.

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Chapter 6 - Designing a Motivating Work Environment Multiple Choice 1. Organizations wishing to increase worker motivation should pay particular attention to a. pay equity. b. growth opportunities. c. job design. d. workplace efficiency.

ANSWER: c 2. Scientific management’s focus is on a. goal setting. b. efficiency. c. flexibility. d. None of the above.

ANSWER: b 3. A key element of the scientific management philosophy is a. using training and specific instructions to maximize task variety. b. minimizing waste while still retaining high levels of autonomy. c. expanding the nature of tasks performed by employees to add more variety to the job. d. breaking down jobs into their simplest components to facilitate specialization.

ANSWER: d 4. What is an advantage to job specialization? a. Training costs are higher, but because of the specialized nature of tasks, they are learned more fully. b. The nature of the jobs leads to lower absenteeism. c. Staffing costs are lower because the repetitive nature of tasks makes skill requirements lower. d. Workers experience higher satisfaction because their jobs are easier.

ANSWER: c 5. When an organization moves employees from job to job at regular intervals, they are practicing a. job enrichment. b. job specialization. c. job rotation. d. job enlargement.

ANSWER: c 6. Job enlargement involves a. breaking down jobs into their simplest components. b. expanding the tasks performed by employees to add more variety. c. moving employees from job to job at regular intervals. d. giving workers more control over how they perform their own tasks.

ANSWER: b

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7. What technique gives workers more control over how they perform their job? a. job enrichment b. job specialization c. job rotation d. All of the above ANSWER: a 8. Frederick Taylor’s work led to a fundamental change in management philosophy. Which statement describes this change? a. It furthered the understanding that managers cannot influence the output levels of employees. b. It highlighted the need for hierarchy and structure. c. It paved the way for today’s automation and standardization. d. It increased the movement toward employee empowerment.

ANSWER: c 9. A caterer accepts a large order for a school function. On the morning of the event, stations are set up to make the 500 sandwiches ordered for that day. Station one has two individuals cutting sandwich buns, station two has four individuals placing the meats and cheeses on the rolls, station three adds condiments and wraps the sandwich. The individual who devised the sandwich-making production plan is operating under a a. job specialization approach. b. job rotation approach. c. job enlargement approach. d. job enrichment approach.

ANSWER: a 10. Job specialization can a. increase the number of employees needed to complete the job. b. minimize training costs. c. lead to greater motivation among employees. d. be especially effective in rapidly changing environments.

ANSWER: b 11. What is an advantage of job rotation? a. Employees become cross-trained due to their movement between jobs. b. Managers have greater scheduling flexibility in a job rotation system. c. Employees experience less boredom in a job rotation system. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: d 12. Marta works on an auto assembly line. Last year she was responsible for welding the upper panel of the wheel well onto the left rear wheel area. This year, she is also responsible for welding all parts of the entire left rear wheel area and checking for quality workmanship. Marta’s position underwent a job redesign using a. job specialization. b. job enrichment. c. job rotation. d. job enlargement.

ANSWER: d

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13. What strategy is shown to increase management flexibility and innovation? a. job rotation b. job enrichment c. job specialization d. job analysis ANSWER: a 14. Which statement about job enlargement is accurate? a. Job enlargement has more positive effects when employees are given simpler tasks. b. When jobs are enlarged, employees view themselves as less capable. c. Job enlargement is beneficial because it is positively related to higher quality customer service. d. The intent behind job enlargement is to decrease the variety of tasks to be performed so that human resources are used effectively.

ANSWER: c 15. Mateo works on an assembly line in a factory. Last month the assembly line processes were overhauled.

Mateo is still responsible for soldering electrical contacts on an appliance component, but now he is also expected to review each component for quality defects after he solders. If he notes any defects, he can place the component in the scrap bin. If he scraps five such pieces in succession, he is permitted to press an emergency button which stops the assembly line completely. This job redesign reflects the ___________ philosophy. a. job rotation b. job enlargement c. job enrichment d. job specialization ANSWER: c 16. Job crafting allows ___________ to make changes to the job description. a. the employee b. the frontline supervisor c. the human resources department d. the customer ANSWER: a 17. What is considered an outcome in Hackman and Oldham’s job characteristics model? a. task significance b. feedback c. satisfaction d. task variety ANSWER: c 18. What is designated as a psychological state in Hackman and Oldham’s job characteristics model? a. motivation b. meaningfulness c. creativity d. engagement ANSWER: b

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19. Which statement best describes Hackman and Oldham’s job characteristics model? a. The employee’s psychological state leads to a predictable level of job satisfaction. b. Five core job characteristics lead to three work-related outcomes which ultimately produce three psychological states. c. Five core job characteristics lead to three psychological states which lead to work-related outcomes. d. Work-related outcomes are analyzed for five core job characteristics.

ANSWER: c 20. Since the Hackman and Oldham model was developed in the 1970s, jobs have changed in what way? a. increased in autonomy and skill variety b. increased in turnover and job satisfaction c. decreased in task identify and responsibility d. decreased in motivation and satisfaction ANSWER: a 21. Task identity refers to a. the extent to which the job requires a person to utilize multiple high level skills. b. the degree to which a person is in charge of completing an identifiable piece of work from start to finish. c. whether a person’s job substantially affects other people’s health, work, or well-being. d. the degree to which a person has the freedom to decide how to perform their tasks.

ANSWER: b 22. Skill variety refers to a. the extent to which the job requires a person to utilize multiple high-level skills. b. the degree to which a person is in charge of completing an identifiable piece of work from start to finish. c. whether a person’s job substantially affects other people’s health, work, or well-being. d. the degree to which a person has the freedom to decide how to perform their tasks.

ANSWER: a 23. The purpose of employee feedback is to a. require a person to utilize multiple high-level skills. b. identify the work process from start to finish. c. inform people how effective they are being at work. d. help employees gain the freedom to decide how to perform tasks.

ANSWER: c 24. Lidia works as the administrative assistant for a busy real estate team. She schedules client appointments, and resolves many routine client questions or issues, although confidential matters are handled by individual agents. In addition, Lidia maintains the website for the entire team, and is responsible for its social media presence. Lidia’s job can be described as a. low in skill variety. b. high in task significance. c. high in task identity. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: b

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25. A position high in autonomy allows an employee to a. utilize multiple high-level skills. b. complete an identifiable piece of work from start to finish. c. substantially impact other people’s health, work, or well-being. d. have freedom to decide how to perform their tasks.

ANSWER: d 26. Which psychological state has research identified as the most important for employee attitudes and behaviors? a. responsibility b. knowledge of results c. motivation d. meaningfulness ANSWER: d 27. A Gallup study indicates ___________ of Americans indicate they find their work meaningful. a. about one in ten b. about one in three c. about half d. the vast majority ANSWER: a 28. Which statement regarding employee autonomy is accurate? a. It decreases employee effectiveness. b. It increases motivation at work. c. It decreases employee creativity. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: b 29. According to the formula for the motivating potential score of a job, the most important elements in deciding motivation potential are a. skill variety and autonomy. b. task significance and task identity. c. autonomy and feedback. d. skill variety and feedback.

ANSWER: c 30. What workplace strategy can help increase the feedback you receive? a. Avoid directly asking your superior for feedback. b. Develop a positive relationship with your manager. c. Defend yourself by explaining your behavior when you receive negative feedback. d. Seek positive feedback rather than negative feedback.

ANSWER: b 31. Structural empowerment refers to a. making managers more powerful in the work environment. b. the degree to which a person has higher order needs such as esteem and self-actualization.

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c. aspects of the work environment that give employees discretion, autonomy, and ability to do jobs effectively. d. the degree to which a person has the freedom to decide how to perform his tasks.

ANSWER: c 32. A factor which helps determine employee empowerment is a. organizational structure. b. access to information. c. manager’s leadership style. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: d 33. Which employee is most likely to report experiencing felt empowerment at work? a. Adam uses his judgment to approve the customer’s refund. b. Cara’s boss likes to review every customer email before it is sent. c. Felicia is waiting for approval to work overtime this week. d. Damien takes no interest in how the company operates.

ANSWER: a 34. Which statement is true about empowerment? a. The notion of empowerment is appropriate for all employees. b. Empowerment is a relatively easy concept to implement in the workplace. c. Employees who are nervous about empowerment may also worry about the increased responsibility. d. Empowerment is not related to job performance.

ANSWER: c 35. What strategy will best empower your employees? a. retain information on the job until it is absolutely needed. b. decrease employee power slightly so your manager accountability is not compromised. c. make sure managers continue to step in with routine responses to issues. d. change the company structure so employees have more power on the job.

ANSWER: d 36. The “M” in “SMART” goals stands for a. measurable. b. motivating. c. multipurpose. d. management.

ANSWER: a 37. Which statement regarding SMART goals is correct? a. Easy goals are the most effective goals. b. When goals are specific, stress is higher. c. Adding a time limit to a goal leads to disregard for long-term consequences. d. Effective goals tend to be aggressive.

ANSWER: d

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38. If you say to yourself, “As soon as I finish reading this chapter in my textbook, I am going to play Guitar Hero for an hour,” this specific goal has motivated you because a. it has given you direction. b. it has energized you to keep going until you have accomplished the goal. c. it has provided you with self-esteem. d. it has caused you to quit working.

ANSWER: b 39. Which condition contributes most to the effectiveness of goal setting? a. delayed feedback b. goal commitment c. time crunch d. group, as opposed to individual goals ANSWER: b 40. What is a common downside to goal setting? a. learning decreases b. adaptability increases c. broadmindedness develops d. ethical problems decrease ANSWER: a 41. Though goal setting is usually viewed as a positive process, there can be downsides if a. employees can adapt their behaviors in response to unplanned threats. b. employees lack skills necessary to reach the goals. c. rewards are established for coming close to, as well as achieving a goal. d. goals also account for meeting quality standards.

ANSWER: b 42. A management by objectives program includes a. detaching individual goals from organizational strategy. b. setting individual goals aligned with personal strategy. c. developing action plans. d. periodically reviewing your coworker’s goals.

ANSWER: c 43. The procedures, policies, and methods used to support and improve employee performance are known as a. operational oversight. b. performance management. c. appraisal operations. d. performance characteristics.

ANSWER: b 44. What are the two basic elements of a performance review? a. Managers set individual goals and communicate them to individual employees. b. Employee performance is measured and communicated to the employee. c. Employee performance is measured and shared with peers, customers. and subordinates.

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d. Managers evaluate and discuss aspects of employees’ performance with each other.

ANSWER: b 45. Traditionally, the most likely individual to rate an employee was a. an employee’s supervisor. b. a coworker of the employee. c. a customer of the employee. d. a subordinate of the employee.

ANSWER: a 46. 360-degree feedback is a. designed to provide feedback for promotion or pay decisions. b. used where competition between coworkers is prevalent. c. designed to provide feedback for developmental purposes. d. the most frequently used form of performance appraisal in U.S. firms.

ANSWER: c 47. Fair hearing refers to a. letting employees know what criteria are used in appraisal. b. documenting performance problems and using factual evidence in rating performance. c. ensuring that there is two-way communication during the appraisal process and the employee’s perspective is heard. d. the process where feedback is confidentially gathered from peers, customers, and subordinates.

ANSWER: c 48. In an employment review, adequate notice refers to a. letting employees know what criteria are used in appraisal. b. documenting performance problems and using factual evidence in rating performance. c. ensuring that there is two-way communication during the appraisal process and the employee’s perspective is heard. d. the process where feedback is confidentially gathered from peers, customers, and subordinates.

ANSWER: a 49. Patti, head of the Finance Department, must assess her large staff as a preliminary step in making staff cuts. The Human Resources Department directs her to rate 20 percent of employees as top performers, 70 percent as average performers, and 10 percent as poor performers. What type of system must Patti use? a. 360-degree feedback b. fair hearing c. relative ranking system d. absolute rating system ANSWER: c 50. Ranking systems, like those used by Uber, a. provide employees with concrete feedback on what their goals are for next year. b. are beneficial to a firm if they are used in a consistent manner and for a long period of time. c. can lead to employee stagnation and a performance-aversive culture. d. can carry the danger of lawsuits because of equal employment opportunity concerns with employees rated.

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ANSWER: d 51. Marvin and Ed are next-door neighbors, and their sons are best friends. They take the boys on many father-son outings and coach their soccer team together. Ed is Marvin’s boss at ABC Corporation, and always gives him high ratings. There may be bias in those ratings due to a. leniency. b. stereotypes. c. contrast. d. liking.

ANSWER: d 52. Harper’s boss knows she has had a difficult year. Harper is getting divorced after just two years of marriage and has been forced to move to a much smaller apartment. Although her performance has fallen substantially from the previous year, Harper’s boss Betty gives her a raise and a higher rating than she deserves. Betty secretly hopes Harper will be motivated to improve her performance. There may be bias in this review due to a. liking. b. leniency. c. stereotyping. d. fear of legal action.

ANSWER: b 53. To improve overall performance management, in addition to performance appraisals, a company should a. add an employee ranking technique. b. conduct frequent one-on-one meetings. c. plan an annual company picnic. d. institute a peer-review bonus system.

ANSWER: b 54. Research on performance incentives suggests a. employees report lower levels of pay satisfaction under pay-for-performance systems. b. firms with pay-for-performance systems have lower customer service. c. 75% of all American companies use a merit pay system. d. pay-for-performance systems are less effective at retaining higher performing employees than praise or recognition systems.

ANSWER: c 55. A piece rate system refers to a. a program providing one-time rewards to employees for specific accomplishments. b. a company-wide program where employees are rewarded for performance gains compared to past performance. c. a permanent pay raise based on past performance. d. a program where employees are paid based on individual output produced.

ANSWER: d 56. A mid-sized manufacturing company produced one thousand component assemblies in July of this year, far exceeding the previous record of 843 assemblies. One week later, the firm had grills brought on site and employees were treated to a steak luncheon. The steak grill-out is an example of a. an award. b. a bonus.

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c. gainsharing. d. merit pay.

ANSWER: a 57. Which statement regarding performance incentives is accurate? a. Employees who are heavily rewarded by commissions may overwhelm customers who provide them with a low probability of making a sale. b. When awarded stock options, employees tend to hold on to them rather than sell them. c. Profit sharing is an effective way of tying employee pay to individual effort. d. Gainsharing programs can be successful if the payout formula is generous and employees can participate in the management of the company.

ANSWER: d 58. Companies using sales commissions reward employees with a. permanent pay raises. b. a percentage of sales volume or profits generated. c. gift cards, awards, and plaques. d. one-time lump sum payments.

ANSWER: b 59. Which statement regarding goal setting and ethics is true? a. Research shows that goal setting sometimes leads to unethical behaviors for financial gain. b. The tendency to behave unethically occurs when employees know they are going to achieve their goals. c. People who behave unethically tend to constitute a large percentage of the workforce. d. When a high percentage of a CEO’s pay package consists of stock options, companies are less likely to misrepresent the financial situation of the company.

ANSWER: a 60. Companies can reduce the temptation to behave unethically by a. rewarding only those who reach high goals. b. rewarding everyone including those who completely missed their goals. c. withholding rewards from those who are demonstrating unethical behaviors. d. providing small recognitions for all behaviors even if the behavior has unethical overtones so that no employee feels they have been singled out.

ANSWER: c 61. In the United States, employers may use some electronic monitoring of employees as long as a. the behaviors are related to potential criminal activities. b. employees are notified in advance. c. monitoring takes place in the workplace, not the home office. d. employees explicitly agree in writing.

ANSWER: b 62. Which assertion is true regarding cultural aspects of motivation in a work environment? a. Mexican employees work very effectively in self-managed teams. b. Indian employees are very satisfied when they are empowered. c. Chinese employees are very motivated when goals are difficult.

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d. Peer appraisals are very effective in collectivist cultures.

ANSWER: c 63. Countries high in power distance and authoritarianism respond negatively to a. review systems where lower-level employees give performance feedback to their managers. b. review systems where higher-level employees give performance feedback to their employees. c. goal setting initiatives for management. d. goal setting initiatives for employees.

ANSWER: a Completion 64. The philosophy of __________ focuses on the most efficient method to perform a job.

ANSWER: scientific management 65. ___________ breaks down jobs into their simplest components and assigns them to employees so that they can perform tasks in a repetitive manner.

ANSWER: Job specialization 66. _____________ has been identified as the most important psychological state affected by job characteristics.

ANSWER: Meaningfulness 67. The degree to which people have the freedom to decide how to perform their tasks is referred to as ___________.

ANSWER: autonomy 68. ___________ describes the degree to which a person has higher-order needs such as esteem and selfactualization.

ANSWER: Growth need strength 69. Employees who feel motivated and have discretion to make decisions about the content and context of their job are ___________.

ANSWER: empowered 70. The acronym, SMART, stands for ___________, ___________, aggressive, realistic, and time-bound when discussing goal setting.

ANSWER: specific; measurable 71. The degree to which a person is dedicated to reaching the goal is called their ___________.

ANSWER: goal commitment 72. ___________ is a process in which employee performance is measured and then communicated to the employee.

ANSWER: Performance review 73. ___________ ensures that there is two-way communication during the appraisal process and the employee’s story is heard.

ANSWER: Fair hearing 74. A one-time reward that follows a specific accomplishment on the job is called a _________.

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ANSWER: bonus 75. The purpose of ___________ is to align company and employee interests by making employees owners.

ANSWER: stock options Essay 76. How do the job design techniques of job enlargement and job enrichment differ?

ANSWER: Job enlargement is the process of expanding the number and kind of tasks performed by the employee to add more variety in his work.

Job enrichment is the process where workers have more control over how they perform their tasks.

The key difference between the two is the nature of control, authority, or responsibility the worker has under job enrichment. For example, in job enlargement, the employee may be responsible on an auto assembly line for the entire left rear wheel component. There are, obviously, a number of specific tasks that would be part of producing that component. The job would be enriched, if in addition to completing tasks to produce the left rear wheel component, the employee was also responsible for checking the quality of the assembly arriving at his workstation. If the incoming assembly had quality defects, the enriched worker might be able to stop the entire assembly line.

77. Choose a job. Using Hackman and Oldham’s job characteristics model, analyze that job for its motivational properties. Comment on ways to enhance the job’s motivational properties and potential.

ANSWER: Student answers will vary. Example is college instructor.

Skill variety of the job would be high as instructors teach, develop materials, tutor, counsel, etc.

Task identity is high since the instructor has her own course and teaches it as she sees fit throughout the entire semester or term.

Task significance is also high as the instructor’s job affects students’ well-being among others.

Autonomy is high as instructors have the freedom to choose their own textbooks, make their own handouts, exams, etc.

Feedback is high as instructors are evaluated formally by their students, by their deans and by other groups including informally on websites such as ratemyprofessor.com.

These five factors lead to the instructors perceiving high meaningfulness in their work where they are responsible for outcomes (student grades) and acquire knowledge of results (how the students perform as well as how the instructor performs).

This, in turn, leads to overall job satisfaction, internal motivation, higher performance, and lower absenteeism and turnover.

Enhancing the motivational potential could occur through increasing autonomy and feedback to their highest levels possible.

78. What does each of the letters in the acronym, SMART, mean? Create an appropriate SMART goal for yourself which includes each of these elements.

ANSWER: Student examples will vary.

S is Specific.

M is Measurable.

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A is Aggressive.

R is Realistic.

T is Time-bound.

79. Vega is a new sales manager in a pharmaceutical organization. She decides that she wants to implement an MBO (management by objectives) approach in that department. Describe the steps she will complete to institute such a program.

ANSWER: Student answers will vary, but should reflect the following steps: 1. Setting company-wide goals derived from corporate strategy 2. Determining team- and department-level goals 3. Collaboratively setting individual-level goals that are aligned with corporate strategy 4. Developing an action plan 5. Periodically reviewing performance and revising goals Example: Vega will begin the process by setting company-wide goals derived from the pharmaceutical organization’s strategy. From that, team- and department-level goals are set. Next individual level goals will be collaboratively set between Vega and her employee. Both Vega and the employee must ensure that the goals are aligned with corporate strategy. Once the goals are set, an action plan is developed and implemented. Periodically, performance is reviewed, and the employee’s goals are revised as needed.

80. Briefly explain why goals can be motivating.

ANSWER: Goals give us direction. The goals tell you what to focus on; so they should be set carefully.

Employee goals should be aligned with company goals.

Goals energize employees. Even if you are tired of working toward a goal, having a specific goal in mind energizes you.

Goals present challenges. When goals are set and people reach them, they feel a sense of accomplishment.

SMART goals urge you to think outside the box and rethink how you are working. Goals have to be challenging and somewhat difficult to motivate.

81. Nathan has been a manager of the accounting department for eight months now. He will be holding his first performance appraisal meetings in the next few days. Describe some ways in which he could enhance the effectiveness of those performance appraisal meetings.

ANSWER: Present feedback in a constructive manner, focusing not on criticizing the person, but on discussing performance problems.

Increase employee participation throughout the meeting. When employees have the opportunity to present their side of the story, they react more positively to the overall appraisal process and feel the system to be fair.

Be knowledgeable about the employee’s performance and the job that is being evaluated.

Prepare before the actual meeting. Have the employee (ratee) complete a self-appraisal. The rater should have the performance review form completed before the joint meeting with specific examples of each kind of behavior evaluated indicated on that form. Also, handle all the logistics of that meeting, including having sufficient time to actually conduct the meeting.

During the actual meeting, give the employee plenty of opportunities to talk, and show empathy and support for the employee. One way to do so is to avoid opening the meeting with a criticism of the

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employee. Keep in mind that criticism of performance is acceptable but not of the person. Set goals and create an action plan.

After the meeting, make a conscious attempt to maintain a steady feedback schedule with the employee and to follow through on all goals set during the appraisal meeting.

82. Your university had decided to institute a relative ranking system in evaluating students in its business curriculum. In this system, for example, 10% of the students might receive As, 20% Bs, 60% Cs and 10% Ds. Discuss the potential issues surrounding such a grading system.

ANSWER: Most students are familiar with an absolute rating system. The grade you get depends only on your performance with respect to the objective criteria.

In contrast, in a relative ranking, you would get an A if you are one of the top 10% of the students in class, but you would get a B if you are between 10% and 20%. In a relative ranking system, your rating depends on how your objective performance (test grade) compares with the rest of the students’ grades in your class.

Research shows that ranking systems are often viewed more negatively. Perhaps the most important downside in an academic setting is that relative systems have limited value in giving concrete feedback about what to do next year to get a better ranking. This decreases student motivation to learn.

In general, this system may be counterproductive in the educational setting.

83. What are the three characteristics of appraisals that increase the perception that they are fair?

ANSWER: Adequate notice involves letting employees know what criteria will be used during the appraisal.

Fair hearing means ensuring that two-way communication occurs during the appraisal process and making certain that the employee’s story is heard.

Judgment based on evidence involves documenting performance problems and using factual evidence as opposed to personal opinions when rating performance.

84. You are a first-time supervisor who must conduct a performance review. Due to recent events, you will deliver this review remotely. What should you keep in mind to increase your effectiveness?

ANSWER: Experts recommend that performance conversations take place face to face. Feedback conversations are an opportunity to build relationships, strengthen organizational culture, and express empathy. However, when the conversation must take place remotely, select a videoconferencing platform to use, instead of conducting the review by telephone.

Turn on the video, paying attention to body language, and use supportive language to convey supportiveness. Displaying a problem-solving attitude will be important.

All other aspects of the formal performance review should be observed. Both sides discuss positive and negative instances of performance. Feedback must be presented in a constructive manner.

Instead of criticizing the person, the focus should be on discussing the performance problems and aiding the employee in resolving these problems.

As a supervisor, you should be knowledgeable about the employee’s performance. When it becomes clear that the person doing the evaluation has little understanding of the job being performed by the employee, reactions tend to be more negative.

85. Discuss an incentive system that an urban school system might use to motivate teachers. Describe why you chose this incentive system.

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ANSWER: Student answers will vary but must provide support for the incentive system chosen.

Merit pay is an incentive system being considered by many school systems. The system involves giving employees a permanent increase in pay based upon past performance. The notion of how to measure such performance in the education setting is, of course, controversial. Some options being instituted include rewarding teachers for increased standardized test scores and higher graduation rates. A formula is established whereby for every point higher a class scores on a standardized test compared to the previous year, a certain bonus is paid.

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Chapter 7 - Stress and Emotions at Work Multiple Choice 1. Stress is a. the body’s response to an environmental demand. b. experienced in the same way by everyone. c. a mental reaction but not a physical one. d. always a negative force in home or work life.

ANSWER: a 2. According to a recent Gallup poll, ___________ Americans report problems with job stress. a. few b. about half c. the vast majority d. all ANSWER: c 3. General Adaptive Syndrome refers to a. the theory asserting that highest stress occurs when control is low. b. the hypothesis that stress plays a general role in disease. c. the body’s response to good news. d. the mismatch among emotions, attitudes, beliefs, and behavior.

ANSWER: b 4. Hallie is having a stressful day. First, she spilled coffee all over her computer. Then she missed an important meeting because a client kept her on the phone too long. As she was leaving for home, Hallie realized her expense report was due, so she stayed late to complete it and missed dinner. In this scenario, what can be considered a hindrance stressor? a. spilled coffee on computer b. missed important meeting c. stayed late at work d. All of the above ANSWER: d 5. In what stress phase of the GAS model does the body release cortisol and begin to adjust to the demands of the stress? a. alarm phase b. exhaustion phase c. adaptation phase d. resistance phase ANSWER: d 6. The body’s “fight or flight” response causes which physical symptoms to occur? a. loss of focus b. digestion interruption c. decreased heart rate

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d. deep breathing ANSWER: b 7. It is finals week at State University and Allie has five finals in three days. She is so tired she just ate a chocolate bar loaded with caramel for dinner. Allie is probably experiencing the __________ of the General Adaptation Syndrome. a. exhaustion phase b. alarm phase c. resistance phase d. adaptation phase ANSWER: a 8. Allie glances at the clock and notes it is three hours until her first final of the week. She still has two chapters to study. Her heart rate increases, and she feels pain in the pit of her stomach. Allie seems to be experiencing symptoms of which stress phase? a. exhaustion phase b. alarm phase c. resistance phase d. stressor phase ANSWER: b 9. The demand-control model proposes that stress occurs when a. work places a lot of demands on someone with little control. b. work demands increase in alignment with job control. c. employees demand control over every aspect of their jobs. d. job control is high, but work demands are low.

ANSWER: a 10. According to the job-demands-resources (JD-R) model, job stress can be best managed by a. reducing job demands. b. decreasing resources available. c. increasing mindfulness. d. ignoring it.

ANSWER: a 11. Stressors are defined as a. demands to perform interactions and internal calculations that exceed the supply or capacity of time available for processing. b. states of consciousness in which a person is totally absorbed in an activity. c. events on the job which cause different people to feel different emotions. d. events or contexts that cause a stress reaction by elevating levels of adrenaline and forcing a physical or mental response.

ANSWER: b 12. Role ambiguity refers to a. vagueness in relation to job responsibilities. b. insufficient time and resources to complete a job.

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c. contradictory demands at work. d. processing demands that exceed the supply of time for such processing.

ANSWER: a 13. Facing contradictory demands at work is a form of a. role ambiguity. b. role conflict. c. role overload. d. information overload.

ANSWER: b 14. Someone experiencing role overload a. cannot reconcile the demands of work and home life. b. faces contradictory demands at work. c. has insufficient time and resources to complete a job. d. does not understand their job responsibilities.

ANSWER: c 15. Information processing demands that exceed the supply or capacity of time available for such processing are called a. role conflict. b. role ambiguity. c. role overload. d. information overload.

ANSWER: d 16. Which role stressor has been shown to have the strongest effects on poor performance? a. role ambiguity b. role conflict c. role overload d. All role stressors have equally detrimental effects on performance.

ANSWER: a 17. Gabriela is a new employee in the handbag department of a major department store. She is unsure whether she should simply stay on the sales floor and sell purses to customers, or focus on checking the stockroom to replenish items which have sold. Gabriela is experiencing a. information overload. b. role ambiguity. c. role overload. d. role conflict.

ANSWER: b 18. Jonathan is experiencing a real dilemma. His boss just informed him he must attend a dinner meeting Wednesday night with some important out-of-town clients. Jonathan’s daughter also called and said she will be dancing a solo at her dance recital on Wednesday evening. Jonathan is experiencing a. role conflict. b. role overload.

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c. information overload. d. role ambiguity.

ANSWER: a 19. Research on workplace stressors indicates a. role conflict is the strongest predictor of poor performance. b. when role ambiguity is low, new employees have a difficult time fitting into their new organizations. c. role conflict hurts job performance, but role overload has little impact on it. d. the fragmented fashion in which we work due to information overload impacts mental acuity and creativity.

ANSWER: d 20. Which statement regarding work-life conflict is accurate? a. Work demands and family demands are always incompatible. b. Work-life conflict has declined in recent years due to technology. c. Work-life conflict is greater for men than for women. d. Dual-earning households in the U.S. have contributed to greater work-life conflict.

ANSWER: d 21. Maria is a customer service agent for a large cellular carrier. During her shift, she handles a call from an irate customer who is screaming at her and calling her ugly names. This event would be considered a(n) a. role stressor. b. interpersonal stressor. c. challenge stressor. d. life change.

ANSWER: b 22. The Holmes-Rahe scale ascribes different stress values to life events. The work-related event with the highest number of stress points is a. having a conflict with your boss. b. experiencing a change in your work hours. c. getting new responsibilities at work. d. getting fired.

ANSWER: d 23. What is the best example of anticipatory stress? a. Anna’s coworker was just let go due to downsizing. Anna worries about whether she will get to keep her job. b. Renaldo feels anxious every time he thinks about what his supervisor said during his recent performance evaluation. c. Trisha is upset because she just lost an important sale that she has been working toward for a month now. d. Carlos’ son is home alone and has called Carlos at work three times in the past hour.

ANSWER: a 24. Stress may manifest itself physiologically. Chronic stress causes our bodies to a. work harder and more efficiently.

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b. suppress our immune systems. c. seek more sleep and reduce sensory input. d. secrete more age-protecting hormones.

ANSWER: b 25. Stress is related to which work outcome? a. higher turnover b. worse job attitudes c. decreased performance d. All of the above ANSWER: d 26. Ryan is a student at State University. He is the first to arrive at each of his classes and is very upset with the professor if class does not begin exactly on time. He studies late every night and will argue with his professor for every possible point on a multiple-choice exam. Ryan would likely be classified as having a. Type A personality. b. Type B personality. c. pessimistic personality. d. neurotic personality.

ANSWER: a 27. An individual with Type B personality is less prone to a. optimism. b. job satisfaction. c. calm decision-making. d. stress.

ANSWER: d 28. Research on individual differences in the type of stress experienced by employees indicates that a. workaholics enjoy work more than other employees. b. due to their stronger social networks, men process stress more effectively than women. c. men become depressed more often than women. d. individuals with Type A personalities are more likely to experience negative organizational outcomes.

ANSWER: d 29. The dimensions of psychological capital (PsyCap) are a. efficacy, optimism, hope, resilience. b. neuroticism, anxiety, goal-directed, competitive. c. pessimism, negative affect, hopelessness. d. compulsion, control, perfectionism.

ANSWER: a 30. The concept of flow refers to a. applying the principles of athletic performance to workplace performance. b. a state of consciousness where a person is totally absorbed in an activity. c. the regulation of feelings and expressions for organizational purposes.

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d. ongoing negative emotional states resulting from dissatisfaction.

ANSWER: b 31. What is an effective individual approach to managing stress? a. eating energizing foods such as fish, nuts, and seeds b. increasing the amount of sleep you get c. engaging in regular moderate exercise d. All of the above ANSWER: d 32. Work that flows offers a. a large number of breaks. b. mental disengagement. c. high pay. d. meaningful challenges.

ANSWER: d 33. Sleep research on stress indicates that a. stress contributes to toxic oversleeping. b. about one-third of U.S. adults report difficulties sleeping. c. work-life conflict makes good sleep easier to achieve. d. technology is attributed to a decline in insomnia.

ANSWER: b 34. What strategy can help stressed workers achieve psychological detachment? a. Take extra-long lunch hours. b. Make work checklists each night before bedtime. c. Avoid checking your work email at home. d. Leave work later than normal on most days.

ANSWER: c 35. Mindfulness is a stress-reducing concept most closely related to a. flow. b. rumination. c. procrastination. d. positive reappraisal.

ANSWER: a 36. Lakeisha and Kirk just got let go because their positions were eliminated after a merger. Kirk is furious and can’t sleep or eat. Lakeisha went to her community center to volunteer, feels fortunate she has an opportunity to help, and is sure something better will come along. Lakeisha is demonstrating ___________ in response to stress. a. mindfulness b. psychological detachment c. positive reappraisal d. autonomy ANSWER: c

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37. Effective time management techniques include a. prioritization. b. psychological detachment. c. procrastination. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: a 38. Organizations can take many steps in helping employees manage stress. Which approach would be recommended? a. Reduce flextime opportunities. b. Reduce manager-employee interactions. c. Increase employee autonomy. d. Increase workplace unpredictability.

ANSWER: c 39. Offering a compressed workweek is one method of providing ___________ for eligible employees a. flextime options b. social support c. telecommuting d. sabbaticals ANSWER: a 40. Employee Assistance Programs are offered by organizations in order to a. provide help to employees with personal problems. b. facilitate relationship development and camaraderie. c. allow paid time off for extended periods of time. d. offer advanced training to interested employees.

ANSWER: a 41. Which work event is most likely to produce a negative emotion? a. receiving positive feedback from your supervisor b. having your schedule changed without your consent c. finishing a major project on time d. responding to a customer question ANSWER: b 42. Which statement regarding positive emotions is true? a. Positive feelings result from counterproductive work events. b. Individuals feeling positive emotions are more realistic in their evaluation of the environment. c. Positive emotions are associated with less creativity, but higher productivity. d. Having positive emotions can lead to positive spirals of good outcomes.

ANSWER: d 43. Which statement regarding research on emotional contagion is true? a. Positive emotions can be contagious, but negative emotions are not. b. All people are equally susceptible to emotional contagion.

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c. Emotions are especially salient in teams and thus teams can exhibit emotional contagion just as individuals can. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: c 44. Affective Events Theory explores the effects of anger, fear, joy, love, sadness and ___________ in the workplace. a. jealousy b. anticipation c. surprise d. greed ANSWER: c 45. The premise of Affective Events Theory (AET) is a. universal emotions are expressed using similar facial movements across all cultures. b. events on the job cause different emotional reactions in different people. c. all cultures experience the ten basic emotions. d. individuals display similar reactions to positive and negative work events.

ANSWER: b 46. Jennifer dislikes her coworker, yet every morning she stops to pleasantly chat for a few moments on the way to her desk. Jennifer is using what emotional labor strategy? a. genuine acting b. surface acting c. deep acting d. cognitive acting ANSWER: b 47. Imagine that you are a salesperson in a major department store. Though you might not actually believe in this practice, you follow the policy of “the customer is always right” in your daily work at the store. However, since you do not agree with that view, you often experience a. flow. b. genuine acting. c. emotional contagion. d. cognitive dissonance.

ANSWER: d 48. What is the most effective way to alleviate cognitive dissonance at work? a. Engage in surface acting. b. Change the facts of the situation. c. Leave the situation. d. Smile more.

ANSWER: b 49. Someone who is high in emotional intelligence engages in what practice? a. increases their psychological distance from the workplace b. increases their awareness of their own and others’ emotions

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c. decreases their own needs and prioritizes others’ needs d. decreases their self-awareness while increasing their social awareness ANSWER: b 50. When you understand how others feel, you are exhibiting which of the building blocks of emotional intelligence? a. self-awareness b. self-management c. social awareness d. relationship management ANSWER: c 51. Noah knows that he is flexible, enjoys challenging goals, and is concerned about the security of his job.

Noah demonstrates which building block of the emotional intelligence concept? a. self-management b. relationship management c. social awareness d. self-awareness ANSWER: d 52. Research suggests high levels of emotional intelligence lead to which of the following? a. higher job satisfaction b. cognitive dissonance c. higher stress levels d. decreased autonomy ANSWER: a 53. Joshua Greene’s study of how our minds and bodies react to difficult situations found that a. differences in emotional engagement affect people’s judgments. b. human decisions are mostly rational, not impacted by emotion. c. magnetic imaging suggests emotional scenarios require less use of our brains compared to unemotional scenarios. d. humans use rationale and emotion to make decisions similar to how a computer would.

ANSWER: a 54. Research on stress and leisure time around the world supports which statement? a. Compared to Europeans, Americans work longer hours. b. Japanese work 500 hours less than their counterparts in the USA. c. Americans are better at time management than their European counterparts. d. Americans value their vacation and leisure time more than Europeans.

ANSWER: a 55. What does research suggest regarding emotion and culture? a. Basic emotions are unknown in some cultures. b. It is more appropriate to express emotions outwardly in individualistic cultures. c. Collectivistic cultures try to eliminate familial emotional expression. d. All cultures are similar in emotional scale and expression.

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ANSWER: b Completion 56. ___________ is the body’s reaction to a change that requires a physical, mental, or emotional adjustment or response.

ANSWER: Stress 57. A stressor that causes stress but may also provide opportunities for growth is a ___________ stressor.

ANSWER: challenge 58. The ___________ is a hypothesis by Hans Selye suggesting that stress plays a general role in disease by exhausting the body’s immune system.

ANSWER: General Adaptation Syndrome or GAS 59. Having insufficient time and resources to complete a job is called role ___________.

ANSWER: overload 60. ___________ conflict has been shown to be related to lower job and life satisfaction and it seems to be more problematic for women.

ANSWER: Work-life 61. The inability to let go of past events and obsessively thinking about them is known as ___________.

ANSWER: rumination 62. Jesse has a demanding job, and he is always tired and irritable. He never wants to do anything or has any energy. He is suffering from the negative state known as ___________.

ANSWER: burnout 63. Charlotte is always impatient. She seems to run around the office completing her work and everyone else’s, too. She makes sure she is the first one to arrive at work and the last to leave. Charlotte has a ___________ personality.

ANSWER: Type A 64. The state of consciousness when an individual is totally absorbed by an activity is referred to as ___________.

ANSWER: flow 65. To reduce stress, we can practice ___________, which means experiencing the present moment without thinking about the past or future.

ANSWER: mindfulness 66. The development of techniques such as prioritizing that help to make us more productive when we work is a strategy known as ___________.

ANSWER: time management 67. The ____________ Theory explores how events on the job cause different kinds of people to feel different emotions.

ANSWER: Affective Events 68. ___________ is the regulation of feelings and expressions for organizational purposes.

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ANSWER: Emotional labor 69. The mismatch between emotions, attitudes, beliefs, and behavior is ___________.

ANSWER: cognitive dissonance 70. The subject of ___________, examined by Daniel Goleman, looks at how people can understand each other more completely by becoming more aware of their own and others’ emotions.

ANSWER: emotional intelligence Essay 71. Explain what occurs during each phase of Hans Selye’s General Adaptation Syndrome.

ANSWER: Phase one is the alarm phase where an outside stressor jolts the individual insisting that something be done. This is the well- known “fight or flight” response.

Phase two is resistance, the phase where the body begins to release cortisol and draws on fats and sugars for energy to adjust to the demands of stress. While the body can draw on its reserves to hold off stress for a while, it cannot continue in this state forever.

Phase three is the exhaustion phase where the body’s stores of fats and sugars are depleted, and the prolonged release of cortisol has weakened the body considerably. To cope, many individuals reach for something sweet to restore the sugars.

72. Describe two workplace stressors and give an example of each.

ANSWER: Workplace stressors include role demands (role ambiguity, role overload, role conflict), and information overload.

Role ambiguity is the vagueness one feels about what responsibilities they hold. For example, when you begin a new job, you are often unclear what you are supposed to do.

Role conflict is when you have contradictory demands made on you at work. For example, your boss wants you to complete your project for next week while your team supervisor wants that project completed first.

Role overload is when you have insufficient time and resources to complete your job. For example, if you are doing your job and covering for an individual who is out on medical leave, you may feel pulled in many directions.

Information overload is simply the processing demands made on individuals where the time required to complete the tasks far exceeds the amount of time actually available. The number of emails many individuals receive in one day often far exceeds the amount of time available for responding.

73. Differentiate between a Type A personality and a Type B personality. Provide a real-life example of each type: this may be someone famous, or a fictional character.

ANSWER: A Type A personality is a person who displays high levels of speed/impatience, job involvement and hard-driving competitiveness. A good example of this personality type is Jeff Bezos, (former) CEO of Amazon.

Type B personalities are calmer than Type A personalities. They are more prone to thinking through situations than their Type A counterparts who tend to respond emotionally. A good example of this personality type is the character Joey from “Friends.”

74. Name and describe at least two individual approaches to managing stress. What approach do you personally find most effective?

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ANSWER: Student answers will vary.

The individual approaches to managing stress include: an energizing diet, adequate sleep, flow, moderate exercise, psychological detachment and relaxation, mindfulness and meditation, psychological coping and optimism, social support networks, and time management.

Flow is the concept of totally immersing yourself in the job.

Social support networks include coworkers, friends, and family.

75. You are the new human resource manager at Lands Corporation. You have just completed examining a great deal of company data. Turnover is much higher in this firm than at its competitors. The data you analyzed includes a series of transcripts of exit interviews conducted over the past eight months. Repeatedly, past employees describe being “burned out” and then choosing to leave the firm. What are some areas you can examine to develop organizational approaches to address and manage stress?

ANSWER: There are many approaches you can take to help employees handle stress in Lands Corporation.

One starting point might be to look at which jobs past employees were performing at the time of burnout. Are these jobs clearly defined? If the employee does not always know what they are supposed to be doing, they are more likely to feel stressed.

A second step is to examine those same job descriptions for the amount of autonomy given to each employee. Stress results when employees feel a lack of control.

Is the work environment fair, or is the work environment toxic? If the company does not value its employees and continually creates unfair scenarios for its employees, stress will result.

Social support can be an individual or organizational strategy. Individuals can reach out to others to have a connection, but organizations can also facilitate relationship development and camaraderie.

Having a supportive manager is perhaps the key resource when it comes to dealing with workrelated stress, so the careful selection and training of managers is an effective stress management technique.

Workplace loneliness is also an increasing challenge and can lead to employee stress. Ensuring a culture of inclusivity where all employees feel important and valued is one way that organizations may help employees feel less lonely.

Can you find any jobs which support telecommuting or other flexible scheduling? These approaches can help reduce stress.

Though universities were the first organizations to widely use employee sabbaticals, more and more companies are using programs to reduce stress and rejuvenate employees.

Employee assistance programs are not just for those experiencing problems with drugs and alcohol but for those experiencing many types of stress that negatively impact our lives.

Once you have analyzed Lands Corporation for these issues, you can begin to create action plans to address the burnout issue and ultimately the turnover.

76. Amina just brought her elderly mother to live at her house because of her mother’s current health problems.

What are some options her firm might offer her to help alleviate the work-life conflict she will inevitably experience?

ANSWER: The most obvious and, perhaps, easiest option a firm could offer would be a flexible schedule.

Flextime usually requires the employee to work some core hours and then permits that employee to

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work the remainder either before the core time or after.

Telecommuting is a second option that the firm could consider. Again, most firms require a set number of days or hours per week when the employee is physically working from the office. The remainder of days or hours are worked from home or other remote location. Other options include work sharing and family leave among others.

Additionally, although treating such stressors is beyond the scope of an organization or a manager, many companies offer their employees outside sources of emotional counseling. Employee Assistance Programs (EAPs) are often offered to workers as an adjunct to a company-provided health-care plan. If such programs are offered, it may be able to provide emotional support or other services.

77. As the head of human resources, you’re advising a new team leader in charge of a critical project. The previous team leader was a major source of conflict within the group, and the team has gotten off track. What key points should you share about positive and negative emotions in the workplace, and the role of emotional contagion?

ANSWER: Emotions drive our behavior, color our judgment, and shape our day-to-day experiences. Not everyone reacts to the same situation in the same way.

Positive emotions such as joy, love, and surprise result from our reaction to desired events. In the workplace, these events may include achieving a goal or receiving praise from a superior.

Individuals experiencing a positive emotion may feel peaceful, content, and calm. Positive feelings have been shown to support optimism, and a positive emotional state can make difficult challenges feel more achievable. They also support creativity.

Negative emotions such as anger, fear, and sadness can result from undesired events. In the workplace, these events may include not having your opinions heard, a lack of control over your day-to-day environment, and unpleasant interactions or conflict. The side effects of negative emotions are related to counterproductive work behaviors and add to negative moods.

Both positive and negative emotions can be contagious, with the spillover of negative emotions lasting longer than positive emotions. Contagion can be especially salient in a team setting.

Research shows that emotions are contagious and that team members affect one another. In a team, negative feelings may cause members to leave the team. It can also cause members to make more mistakes and find ordinary challenges difficult.

Overall, the key is to promote the positive emotions and work to manage the negative ones, so they don’t spread and become the norm.

78. Describe the Affective Events Theory and illustrate how it operates in organizations. Include a brief example.

ANSWER: Researchers Howard Weiss and Russell Cropanzano studied the effect of six major kinds of emotions in the workplace: anger, fear, joy, love, sadness, and surprise. Their theory argues that specific events on the job cause different kinds of people to feel different emotions. These emotions, and related emotions such as envy, in turn, may inspire actions that may serve to benefit or impede others at work.

In summary, Affective Events Theory looks at how events cause different kinds of people to feel different kinds of emotions.

As an example, imagine that a coworker unexpectedly brings you some of your favorite cookies.

You feel happy and surprised. The positive feelings you are experiencing cause you to want to do something that you had not planned before. So, you help someone else. Small moments of emotion

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such as this can influence your job satisfaction. The more the employee experiences positive emotions, the more satisfied the employee will be at work.

Conversely, if you were unfairly reprimanded by your manager, the negative emotions you experience may cause you to withdraw from work or to act mean toward a coworker. Over time, these tiny moments of emotion on the job can influence a person’s job satisfaction and performance.

79. Define the concept of emotional labor including the three major levels of emotional labor. Provide a realworld example of each level.

ANSWER: Emotional labor is the regulation of feelings and expressions for organizational purposes.

Imagine the worst job listed was customer service representative at a firm like Target. Complaining customers would make life in that job rather difficult.

Imagine one of those customers brought in a damaged good. The customer is complaining bitterly.

You simply smile and say that you have a full return policy up to thirty days after the purchase.

Though the customer is ranting and raving, you are smiling and practicing surface acting.

Deep acting may be an alternative. In deep acting, you empathize with the customer. Again, the customer is ranting and raving and you put yourself into their shoes and remark that you experienced the same difficulty when you purchased the same item.

Genuine acting is when individuals are asked to display emotions that are aligned with their own.

When you are asked to help train new employees for this customer service position, it is easy to look and feel competent, because you are good at your job. This is an example of genuine acting.

80. An organizational behavior researcher suggests that not only should mental intelligence be assessed in each individual, but emotional intelligence should also be determined. Do you agree? Provide support for your response.

ANSWER: Student answers will vary, but most individuals will probably disagree.

Either from a support or opposition viewpoint, the student can discuss the various building blocks.

Self-awareness, step one is something that all individuals should complete. What are you well versed in, what are your shortcomings? How can you improve on the negatives and cultivate the positives?

Self-management is the phase where you can direct your emotions in a particular manner when needed. Again, it is not a problem knowing how to direct and control your emotions and the relevant aspects of the audience supporting them.

Social awareness is when you are able to understand how others feel. Empathy is a difficult concept and may not be something many students will feel is a necessity.

Relationship management is when you help others manage their emotions. Since many individuals have difficulty managing their own, this may not be a very well-supported aspect of the emotional intelligence question.

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Chapter 8 - Communication at Work Multiple Choice 1. Research on communication in the workplace indicates that a. the relationship between miscommunication and negative outcomes is strong. b. poor communication is just a workplace annoyance, with little real impact. c. between 10 and 20 percent of a manager’s time is spent communicating. d. communication ability is mostly important in lower levels of organizations.

ANSWER: a 2. Organizational communication helps retain top-performing employees when firms a. work to increase harmony among top management. b. decrease employee feedback and assessment. c. keep employees informed about matters that affect them. d. communicate more effectively with customers.

ANSWER: c 3. Communication fulfills three main organizational functions which are a. transmitting information, sharing emotions, and coordination. b. forming, storming, and norming. c. control, collaboration, and coordination. d. training, explaining, and maintaining.

ANSWER: a 4. In the communication process model, the task of translating an idea into words is called a. decoding. b. encoding. c. sending. d. receiving.

ANSWER: b 5. The individual originating a message is called the a. sender. b. encoder. c. receiver. d. decoder.

ANSWER: a 6. Kendall texted his mother, “Ur never going 2 believe this. That prof gave me no credit for my paper. I h8 him.” (with emoticons included). When his mother received the message, it took her quite some time to decipher it. Kendall should have considered his audience when he ___________ the message. a. decoded b. validated c. received d. encoded Powered by Cognero

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ANSWER: d 7. A professor decides to post the syllabus on the university’s web-based site. She emails all her students prior to the start of the course, saying, “Your syllabus is available on our online learning management system. I will not be providing a copy to you.” In this scenario, the email represents what part of the communication process? a. receiver b. medium c. decoder d. noise ANSWER: b 8. A professor decides to post the syllabus on the university’s web-based site. She emails all her students prior to the start of the course, saying, “Your syllabus is available on our online learning management system. I will not be providing a copy to you.” Students come to the first class and ask why they are not receiving a syllabus.

This question represents what aspect of the communication model? a. noise b. feedback c. medium d. message ANSWER: b 9. If students try to go online to view a posted syllabus and the university’s computer system keeps shutting down as they try to access it, the students are dealing with which aspect of the communication model? a. message b. medium c. feedback d. noise ANSWER: d 10. A meta-analysis of over 9,000 teams found what aspect of communication to be most essential for team performance? a. quantity b. timeliness c. quality d. emotional content ANSWER: c 11. What is considered a barrier to communication? a. filtering b. semantics c. selective perception d. All of the above ANSWER: d 12. Charlie received the sales report and noted how badly the western sector performed. As he prepared a presentation for the weekly executive meeting, Charlie decided to focus his remarks on the northern and southern sectors, which had record sales levels, and refrain from mentioning the western numbers. This scenario is an example on the communication barrier of _______. It is also questionable in terms of ethics.

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a. filtering. b. selection. c. information overload. d. semantics.

ANSWER: a 13. What is a criterion often used in deciding whether or not to filter a message? a. status b. time available c. knowledge and perception of speaker d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d 14. Martina is the financial director of a small business. She recently read a memo from one department presenting a new idea for a product. During the discussion on the item afterward, Martina kept focusing on the cost of producing and marketing that product. The barrier facing Martina in this scenario is a. filtering. b. selective perception. c. emotional disconnects. d. semantics.

ANSWER: b 15. The personal filtering of what we see and hear so as to suit our own needs is a. filtering. b. semantics. c. selective perception. d. information overload.

ANSWER: c 16. A significant factor in increasing information overload in the workplace is a. selective perception. b. technology. c. the grapevine. d. lack of source credibility.

ANSWER: b 17. Which statement about workplace gossip is accurate? a. Research shows only a minimal amount of workplace communication occurs at the grapevine level. b. Effective managers avoid using the grapevine to send or receive information. c. Employees generally trust their peers as a source of information. d. Most employees pay little attention to workplace gossip.

ANSWER: c 18. The United States government created a database of jobs with associated codes related to how much each job deals with people, data, and things. This is called the Dictionary of Occupational Titles (DOT). However, the more commonly known DOT is the Department of Transportation. When Corinne starts telling her mother about her research about job codes using the DOT, her mother is very confused.

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a. selective perception b. lack of source familiarity or credibility c. filtering d. semantics ANSWER: d 19. What is a benefit of using jargon in workplace communication? a. It reinforces shared knowledge. b. It obscures the message. c. It can cause receivers to feel superior. d. It delays communication.

ANSWER: a 20. How can managers foster inclusiveness in workplace meetings? a. Allow more assertive members to drive the discussion. b. Ask direct questions of all members. c. Do not seek opinions from any male members. d. Focus on eliminating statements filled with emotion.

ANSWER: b 21. A good strategy to eliminate bias in language is to a. focus on clear, factual, and goal-oriented communication. b. refer to a person by one adjective. c. designate gender whenever possible. d. rely on terminology that feels comfortable to you.

ANSWER: a 22. Which statement about listening is correct? a. Listening takes practice and concentration. b. Effective listening has a behavioral and emotional component. c. Active listening creates a real-time relationship between sender and receiver. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: d 23. A communication receiver who is preparing their comment or answer and not really listening to the sender is a. actively listening. b. paraphrasing. c. confirming. d. rehearsing.

ANSWER: d 24. Active listening involves a. taking time to understand the points being made b. interrupting the message sender to clarify what she is saying. c. multitasking during communication.

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d. refraining from asking senders any questions about their messages.

ANSWER: a 25. What advice will help improve your listening habits? a. Paraphrase the speaker’s points to ensure you understand. b. Think about what you will say while the other person is talking. c. Interrupt the speaker to clarify and ensure you understand their point. d. Focus on listening for what you want to hear.

ANSWER: a 26. According to the textbook, communication can be categorized into three basic types: a. verbal, direct, and indirect. b. direct, passive, and implied. c. nonverbal, verbal, and written. d. factual, opinion, and emotional.

ANSWER: c 27. Angus is placing his workgroup’s lunch order over the phone with the Pizza Shoppe. He is using what type of communication? a. verbal b. direct c. nonverbal d. indirect ANSWER: a 28. Storytelling is an effective form of communication for what situation? a. assigning tasks to an employee b. explaining benefit package changes to employees c. orienting new employees to the company’s culture d. correcting an employee’s approach to a project ANSWER: c 29. An example of a crucial conversation is a. assigning routine work to an employee. b. taking part in a weekly meeting. c. asking for a raise. d. chatting about the firm’s holiday party plans.

ANSWER: c 30. Enrica is a career counselor in a university’s career development office. She is making recommendations to a student in a career planning session related to improving the quality of the student’s conversation. Which piece of advice should be deleted from Enrica’s list? a. Speak more than the receiver. b. Ask questions. c. Use eye contact and smile. d. Be receptive to new ideas.

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ANSWER: a 31. If you were doing business in the U.S. with someone who was born there, how might you nonverbally convey trustworthiness? a. Use direct eye contact. b. Mimic the other person’s posture and gestures. c. Smile and nod when they are speaking. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: d 32. Research indicates that about 55% of the information that receivers comprehend from a message comes from a. word choice. b. paralanguage. c. body language. d. message structure.

ANSWER: c 33. Verbal communication should be used when a. immediate feedback is needed. b. conveying facts. c. ideas are complicated. d. the message is complicated.

ANSWER: a 34. When is using written communication a better choice than verbal? a. when there is urgency for a response b. when a written record is needed c. when conveying emotion or feelings d. All of the above ANSWER: b 35. Communication that is asynchronous a. is written for one receiver but can be read by many. b. is written for one receiver and read by one receiver. c. is written by the sender and can be read any time by the receiver. d. is written for many but often read by only a few.

ANSWER: c 36. In the sentence, “I did not tell the teacher you were cheating,” if the word “I” was emphasized by the tone of your voice, what are you implying? a. Someone else told the teacher you were cheating. b. I was talking about someone else. c. I told the teacher you were cheating. d. This did not happen.

ANSWER: a Powered by Cognero

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37. In emails, the purpose of emoticons is to a. prevent information overload. b. add a professional touch. c. replace unnecessary words. d. provide clues to emotional content.

ANSWER: d 38. Information-rich channels convey more a. verbal information. b. nonverbal information. c. written information. d. nonessential information.

ANSWER: b 39. Effective managers tend to use more a. information-rich channels. b. verbal channels. c. written channels. d. nonverbal channels.

ANSWER: a 40. Which communication channel would be the most information-rich? a. written letters b. blogs c. emails d. videoconferencing ANSWER: d 41. Which communication channel has the lowest information richness? a. emails b. formal written documents c. blogs d. telephone conversations ANSWER: b 42. Prajit wants a record of his communication and is not physically near the person to whom he is communicating. He knows it will take the recipient of his message some time to understand the information conveyed. What communication channel should Prajit utilize? a. written report b. meeting c. telephone conversation d. blog ANSWER: a 43. Sydney is the human resource manager at Alba Company. She needs to lay off twenty employees who are all located at her facility. Which communication channel is best for delivering the layoff information?

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a. telephone conversation b. email c. face-to-face conversation d. videoconferencing ANSWER: c 44. Upward communication refers to a. communication that travels from frontline employees to management. b. communication from a single individual to many. c. communication that travels from one department to another. d. communications transmitted outside the organization.

ANSWER: a 45. What is an example of external communication? a. email to new employees b. press release c. employee attitude survey d. company suggestion box ANSWER: b 46. An external communication that combines the look of an article with the focused message of an ad is a. a web page. b. an advertorial. c. a press release. d. a catalog.

ANSWER: b 47. Which statement regarding communication and ethics is true? a. Ethical, forthright communication by an organization should occur internally as well as externally. b. During a crisis situation, a firm spokesperson’s level in the organization is not relevant if the message is fair. c. Executives should not change their communication style based on the culture of their audiences. d. Exxon Oil is widely recognized as demonstrating model communication during the Valdez incident.

ANSWER: a 48. Increased reliance on Zoom and other digital platforms during the COVID-19 pandemic caused an uptick in __________ for business communicators. a. active listening b. listener fatigue c. information processing d. emotional engagement ANSWER: b 49. When considering cross-cultural communication, business communicators must remember that a. norms for nonverbal communication are consistent across cultures. b. attempting to adapt to another culture in business dealings is not ethical or necessary.

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c. high situational context cultures “get down to business” in negotiating deals. d. even within the same culture, words can be misunderstood because of a lack of common experiences.

ANSWER: d 50. During a crisis for an organization, what is good communications practice? a. Issue a denial until all the facts are in. b. Have a low-level spokesperson handle the matter. c. Immediately counterattack and blame the media. d. Have a high-ranking company official communicate the response.

ANSWER: d Completion 51. Communication fulfills three main functions within an organization including ___________, transmission of information, and sharing emotions and feelings.

ANSWER: coordination 52. A ___________ originates the communication process.

ANSWER: sender 53. The communication ___________ can include email, phone, in person, or text message.

ANSWER: medium 54. Anything that interferes with or distorts the message being transmitted is ___________.

ANSWER: noise 55. ___________ is a communication barrier where information is withheld or distorted to manage a person’s reactions.

ANSWER: Filtering 56. Personal filtering of what we see and hear to suit our own needs is ___________.

ANSWER: selective perception 57. Words mean different things to different people; this is the concept of ___________.

ANSWER: semantics 58. Giving full attention to what other people say, taking time to understand the points made, asking questions as needed, and not interrupting at inappropriate times is called ___________.

ANSWER: active listening 59. The three types of communication are: ___________, ___________, and ___________.

ANSWER: verbal; written; nonverbal 60. A message that can be read at any time is ____________ unlike a conversation, which is carried out in real time.

ANSWER: asynchronous

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61. ___________ communication does a better job of conveying feelings while ___________ communication does a better job of conveying facts.

ANSWER: Verbal; written 62. ___________ is a term coined by Edward T. Hall to denote the different kinds of physical distance between people during person-to-person interactions.

ANSWER: Proxemics 63. Communication channels high in ___________, such as face-to-face conversations and videoconferencing, convey more nonverbal information and tend to be used by effective managers.

ANSWER: information richness 64. Advertising and public relations deliver specific business messages to individuals outside an organization.

These are types of ___________ communication.

ANSWER: external 65. ___________ is a shared set of beliefs and experiences common to people in a specific setting. It plays a role in our interpretation of certain words and gestures.

ANSWER: Culture Essay 66. Describe elements in the communication process. Use an organizational communication example to illustrate this process.

ANSWER: A sender encodes a message that translates an idea into words. The message is sent through a medium that may include spoken or written words or signs. The receiver receives the message and decodes it by assigning meaning to the words. The receiver may then decide to respond to the original message by also encoding or translating his idea into words. This process of responding is called feedback. The entire process from sender to receiver may be altered or distorted due to noise in the system. The noise can be external to the environment or internal. If too much noise impacts the encoding or decoding, or any other aspect of the communication process, miscommunication can occur.

Feedback occurs when the receiver encodes a message and sends it to the original sender.

A manager delivering an employee’s performance review is an example of this process. The manager, who initiated the communication, is the sender. The manager encodes a message summarizing the employee’s recent performance: “You have completed your work satisfactorily.”

The medium is an in-person meeting. The employee is the receiver: the person the message is intended to reach. The employee decodes the message and assigns meaning, in this case, the employee translates the manager’s message as “I am barely meeting my performance goals at work.” This meeting is taking place in a room with a closed door, so there is little environmental noise. However, the employee is also thinking about rumored layoffs in the company, and whether their job is at risk. This is a type of noise.

67. Using the process model of communications as a focal point, discuss how Clarence, an outside hire, might prepare for his first meeting as the new head of a marketing department.

ANSWER: The manager, Clarence, will initiate the meeting, so he will serve as the original sender. He must recognize that first impressions are lasting impressions, so the first message he sends is a critical communication to his future success in his position. Announcing the meeting would be the first communication and he wants to encode the message carefully to convey the importance of that meeting. It is at the initial meeting that the strategy for subsequent meetings will be set, so that Powered by Cognero

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importance must be obvious in the words chosen. The medium through which the meeting announcement will be sent must also be carefully considered. Multiple channels are always best since individuals’ schedules differ, and the medium choice is most dependent on which channel works best for which individual at any given moment in those busy schedules.

For all intents and purposes, email is effective, but bulletin board notices would also be workable as might face-to-face reminders of this meeting.

Clearly, words will be used in the various channels of communication, but some attention-getting symbols or signs might also be used. The receivers are all those in the marketing department. The words chosen for the communication might contain some jargon from the marketing area so that some credibility is initially established as well as some camaraderie, since those in other departments who may view, for example, the bulletin board reminder, may not understand that jargon. The marketing department members will decode the message and, hopefully, provide some feedback to Clarence. The feedback could itself be a written response email or simply showing up at the meeting at the designated time and place.

This entire communication scenario will take place within the context of noise in the environment.

Some examples of the distortions or interferences that may occur include the email for some recipients “bouncing back,” the recipients being distracted when they read the email and focus on the wrong date or time for the meeting, and/or some offense taken at words contained in the message because of their gender-basis or other aspects.

68. Name the three main organizational functions which communication fulfills and provide an example of each.

ANSWER: The three main functions of communication are: coordination, transmission of information, and sharing emotions and feelings.

• • •

Coordination would ensure that everyone is aware of the strategy and goals of the organization and all are working together toward them.

Transmission of information would be demonstrated by, for example, a written copy of the firm’s objectives such that all employees would know the goals and their general direction.

The sharing of emotions and feelings could be exemplified by praising a department for exceeding annual goals set—at a luncheon in their honor.

69. Name, describe, and provide an example of three barriers to effective communication in the workplace.

ANSWER: Barriers to communication include: • • •

•

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Filtering: a distortion or withholding of information to manage a person’s reaction. An example might be a manager who keeps negative comments about his department from his superior.

Selective perception is personal filtering of what we see and hear so as to suit our own needs. An example is when a sports fan reads the newspaper, he often does not “see” news stories but only those items related to sports.

Information overload is when the information processing demands on an individual’s time to perform interactions and internal calculations exceed the supply or capacity of time available for such processing. When an individual returns from vacation, they often have hundreds of email messages, phone messages, and memos to attend to.

Multitasking refers to performing more than one activity at the same time. However, paying attention to multiple communication media at the same time, such as texting while listening to a colleague, may best be characterized as the “illusion of multitasking.” Unlike listening to music and writing a report, which may be accomplished simultaneously, trying to Page 11

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communicate through multiple media usually does not result in positive outcomes, because the individual is switching attention from one task to another in quick succession.

Emotional disconnects are when there are opinion or personality differences which impact communication. I have had a terrible day already and then you say something to me that is actually pretty innocuous, but I take offense.

Lack of source familiarity or credibility. There is no common context for the sender and receiver in the communication situation. This is a prime example of why some jokes just fail to make anyone laugh.

Workplace gossip is an informal gossip network. Employees trust their peers as a source of messages, but the grapevine’s informal structure can be a barrier to effective communication from the managerial point of view. Sometimes people hear about events that will occur in a firm over lunch and then get the official email about it later.

Semantics are the meanings we give to words. SOX (Sarbanes-Oxley Act) is an acronym widely understood by accounting and finance people but is something lost on others not in the field.

Gender differences in communication. Women may be speaking less in high-stakes communication events such as meetings because there may be a backlash against women who are perceived to speak more than others, which does not exist for men who dominate conversations.

Differences in meaning between the sender and receiver: The perspectives of the two parties differ and miscommunication occurs. For example, I use generational slang like the word “cool.” I think it means, “that’s interesting,” you are from a previous generation, so you think it has to do with temperature.

Biased language: words or actions that offend or stereotype others. For example, gender bias is shown when the word “salesman” is used. To avoid gender bias, use the term “salesperson.”

Effective listening has been identified as a key skill in many professions, including sales managers, accountants, customer service employees, contractors, and health care professionals, among others. Not listening can be costly. For example, if every Starbucks employee misheard one $10 order each day, their errors would cost the company a billion dollars annually.

70. You own a small landscaping business and have 25 employees. Some of your employees work in the office with you, and others execute landscaping work at clients’ homes. Discuss at least two instances when written communication should be utilized in your business, and at least two when your choice should be oral communication.

ANSWER: Student answers will vary.

Written communication is used when conveying facts, the message needs to be part of a permanent file, there is little time urgency, you do not need immediate feedback, and ideas are complicated. For your company, you will utilize written communication when creating and signing a contract with a client, as a permanent record is needed for both parties. Additionally, you will use written communication when providing your staff with information about their wages and benefits. This is factual information with little time urgency.

Oral communication is used when conveying feelings and emotions, the message does not need to be permanent, there is time urgency, you need feedback, and the ideas are simple or can be simple with explanations. For your landscaping business, oral communication is appropriate when your jobsite manager calls on Monday morning and asks where the job sites are that week. The foreperson needs an immediate response, and typically offers feedback about how long each job will take the crew. You will also use oral communication to explain a simple procedure to the individual site Powered by Cognero

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managers, such as “Leave the invoice in the customer’s mailbox upon completion of the job.” This is a simple directive but has time urgency.

71. Min is the production department supervisor in a manufacturing firm. Recently rumors have been spreading through the department grapevine regarding a possible companywide downsizing that will lay off approximately 20% of the employees. If you were Min, how would you handle this situation?

ANSWER: The grapevine is an informal network and can be the key source of company information for many employees. It is a two-edged sword for managers and supervisors. The grapevine must be recognized as an organizational fact of life, but must also be managed, or the gossip within the grapevine will manage the department and, ultimately, the firm.

Since the grapevine is a grassroots structure, it is viewed as having a great deal of credibility. In fact, the grapevine is often viewed as having greater credibility than managerial information because it is located at the grassroots level. Managers like Min must be wary of politically motivated employees who will use the grapevine for misinformation or information supportive of their views.

In Min’s position, she must understand who the key information disseminators in the grapevine are and the manner in which they choose the type of information to disseminate, and how they so disseminate it. Once these two aspects are thoroughly understood, then Min can begin to place the nature of information needed—at the right time.

An alternative approach is to understand the dynamics of the grapevine and provide official communication that beats the grapevine to its dissemination.

72. Sergei has a career coach. The coach has just finished two extensive assessment sessions with Sergei and is now reporting on his results. The career coach tells Sergei that he has poor listening skills and must address them immediately before focusing on any other weaknesses. If you were the career coach, what tips might you provide to begin an improvement plan focused on enhancing active listening skills?

ANSWER: The first step in any listening improvement plan is to stop talking. If you are talking, you cannot be listening so the best first step is to just stop the talking.

It is also important to recognize if Sergei physically can hear. Many people do suffer from slight to moderate or worse hearing loss and may need some assistance.

Active listening is giving full attention to what other people are saying, taking the time to understand the points being made, asking questions as needed and not interrupting at inappropriate times.

Active listening creates a relationship between the sender and the receiver. The process focuses on how to eliminate rehearsing, which is when the recipient of a verbal message is not really listening because they are preparing to respond to your item or question. Active listening involves not only listening to the content of the message, but also the feelings associated with that message.

The “plan” to improve listening begins with deciding that you want to listen. Then, you need to show the sender that you are listening. Nonverbal cues can help convey that notion, for example, shaking your head as the sender speaks to acknowledge receipt of the message. In addition, what the sender has spoken can be repeated, either in full or in part to convey understanding.

Some quick pieces of advice for the active listening training include: • • • • Powered by Cognero

Start by stopping.

Don’t worry about what will be said when the time comes.

Paraphrase.

Don’t multitask while listening.

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Try to empathize with the speaker’s point of view.

Ask questions if confused.

Establish and retain eye contact.

Determine the goal of the communication.

Be surprised – listen with an open mind.

Pay attention to what is not said; body language is important.

73. You have been asked to teach a business communication lesson on business emails. What are some important topics and tips you can include in that lesson?

ANSWER: Knowing the volume of emails sent each day and the number each individual employee is faced with each day, companies should provide their employees with some assistance in using this form of written communication, which studies indicate is the second most popular form of communication worldwide.

Some tips include: • • • • • • • • • • • • •

Do not make email your default way of communication.

Do not send cc emails to everyone.

Do not send, “reply to all” responses to every email received.

Do not put anything into an email that you would not want the world to see.

Do not answer an email in anger or while feeling strong emotions.

Do not hit the send button until you are absolutely sure you wish to send the email.

Utilize spell-check before sending an email.

Use a subject line with the email.

Make your request early in the email, preferably in the first line if possible.

End your email with a brief sign-off like “thank you.”

Make sure to provide contact information on each email.

Keep it brief.

Make sure the email contains complete thoughts. Keep in mind that the recipient may not want to take the time to pull up and closely look at the preceding email and thus you want to make sure that recipient understands what you are conveying.

74. You will soon be graduating and looking for a first job. As a business student, what insight have you gained regarding communication and business? What can you do improve your communication profile in anticipation of your job search?

ANSWER: Student answers will vary. One example follows: other responses might reflect on business email dos and don’ts, or advice on active listening.

Communication can occur without you even realizing it. Consider the following: Is your email name professional? The typical convention for business email contains some form of your name. While an email name like “LazyGirl” or “DeathMonkey” may be fine for chatting online with your friends, they may send the wrong signal to individuals you email such as prospective employers.

Is your outgoing voice mail greeting professional? If not, change it. Prospective recruiters will draw certain conclusions if, upon calling you, they get a message that screams, “Party, party, party!”

Do you have a “private” social networking account on Pinterest, Google+, Instagram, YouTube, Twitter, or Facebook? If so, consider what it says about you to employers or clients. If it is information you wouldn’t share at work, it probably shouldn’t be there as your privacy is not assured.

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If you have not Googled yourself lately, you probably should. Potential employers have begun searching the Web as part of background checking, and you should be aware of what’s out there about you. It is possible to set up automated reports with Google so that every time your name (or any other term) is mentioned on the Web, you are alerted.

75. Your company has just received a phone call from the local news station requesting a response to a claim made on the air by a viewer. The viewer accuses your store of selling a toy she purchased that has made her child sick. The customer alleges that the paint used on the toy contains lead. Further, she has stated, on the air, that your firm was aware of the problem but because the toy is so popular and made exclusively for your store, you were unwilling to pull the item from the store shelves, choosing instead to make the profit on the toy.

What will you do?

ANSWER: This scenario is obviously a crisis situation and the communication used in this instance is critical.

Clear messages must be sent that are credible and that get to the parties necessary to address the issue and prevent further damage to your firm and the buying public.

A lesson learned from the Exxon Valdez incident is to make certain that a high-ranking official be the official spokesperson in any crisis. Also, keep in mind that while no one is happy when the unexpected occurs, they are even more unhappy when they find out you tried to hide something about the matter.

Also, make certain that all communication is ethical and forthright. If the truth is missing, people are demoralized. Employees want to be “in the know” and trusted with the truth about the business. If such a trust is established, employees are more loyal.

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Wdocs Chapter 9: Groups and Teams at Work

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Chapter 9 - Groups and Teams at Work Multiple Choice 1. A group is defined as a. a temporary team addressing a specific problem or issue until it is resolved. b. a cohesive coalition of people working together to achieve mutual goals. c. a collection of individuals interacting with each other in such a way that one person’s actions have an impact on the others. d. teams with members who are not located in the same physical space.

ANSWER: c 2. A formal work group is a. a collection of individuals who interact with each other such that one person’s actions have an impact on the others. b. made up of managers, subordinates, or both with close associations among group members that influence the behavior of individuals in the group. c. made up of two or more individuals who are associated with one another in ways not prescribed by the formal organization. d. a cohesive coalition of people working together to achieve happiness.

ANSWER: b 3. To successfully facilitate a group, a leader needs to move through a series of leadership styles over time.

Which style should a successful group leader first exhibit? a. delegator b. director c. coordinator d. coach ANSWER: b 4. What order did organizational psychologist Bruce Tuckman propose for group development stages? a. forming, norming, storming, performing, and adjourning b. forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning c. forming, storming, performing, norming, and adjourning d. forming, performing, storming, norming, and adjourning ANSWER: b 5. In what second stage of Tuckman’s map of group evolution do members try to share information about themselves with other members? a. norming b. storming c. forming d. performing ANSWER: c 6. What was the final stage that Tuckman added to his enhanced group development model? a. forming

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b. norming c. adjourning d. storming ANSWER: c 7. Which stage in Tuckman’s group development model is characterized by the establishment of ground rules and operating procedures by group participants? a. forming b. storming c. norming d. performing ANSWER: c 8. Tuckman’s forming stage is characterized by a. uncertainty, with observant, conflict avoidant group members who are trying to achieve several goals at once. b. competent group members who work interdependently as part of a greater entity. c. chaos with group members exploring power and influence roles. d. high energy with group members committed to each other and the overall goal.

ANSWER: a 9. Tuckman’s five-stage group evolution model asks which question in the performing stage? a. Are we using appropriate information on this task? b. Will I be accepted? c. Why do I have to listen to you? d. Can you help me plan this project?

ANSWER: a 10. Which statement correctly describes the forming stage of group development? a. Leadership does not matter at this stage. b. Group members are trying to learn about one another. c. Group members are cohesive and cooperative. d. Group members are trying to clarify what needs to be done and who needs to do it.

ANSWER: b 11. Miguel is part of an organizational behavior project group. The group decided on the overall theme of its project and individual members are now completing specific sections. Miguel has been emailing Betsy almost every day asking her opinion on various parts of his section. The group tends to sit together in class, and they have decided to go out for coffee after class next Tuesday. What phase of group development is Miguel’s group in? a. storming b. adjourning c. forming d. performing ANSWER: d 12. Jennifer has been very emphatic in her comments supporting the new addition to the product line.

Christopher has been equally spirited in his opposition to the new item. Gordon and Antonio seem to be

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leaning to Jennifer’s perspective while Marques supports Christopher. The discussion about the product has consumed the last hour of the meeting of the marketing group. At what stage of Tuckman’s model does this group seem to be functioning? a. forming b. storming c. norming d. performing ANSWER: b 13. An after-action review takes place during which stage of the group development model? a. adjourning b. storming c. norming d. performing ANSWER: a 14. Which assertion regarding Gersick’s punctuated equilibrium model is accurate? a. The model views group development as a linear process. b. Generally, groups are dynamic in their orientation. c. For most periods of time in groups, change is continuous and substantial. d. While disruption, chaos, and conflict are inevitable in a group, they can represent opportunities for innovation.

ANSWER: d 15. According to Gersick’s punctuated equilibrium model, groups repeatedly cycle through which two group development stages? a. storming and norming b. forming and performing c. forming and norming d. storming and performing ANSWER: d 16. A group where there is a great deal of camaraderie is a group experiencing a. high task commitment. b. cohesion. c. social loafing. d. collective efficacy.

ANSWER: b 17. Characteristics of cohesive groups include a. knowing each other before formation of the group. b. trust and information sharing. c. having a random pattern of communication. d. indifference regarding membership in the group.

ANSWER: b 18. Which factor is most likely to impact a group’s cohesion?

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a. size b. task c. industry d. past knowledge ANSWER: a 19. Eduardo is the new manager of Great Corporation. He is writing down a list of steps that he can follow to create and maintain a cohesive work group. Which step would appear on that list? a. Celebrate differences so everyone’s contribution is noticed. b. Give praise sparingly; if it is given too often, it loses its luster. c. Focus on supporting the “best and brightest” in the group. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: a 20. NASA endured the Challenger disaster when group members conformed with top managers’ decisions that launching the space shuttle in freezing temperatures was better than missing the launch window. This is an example of what group process? a. social loafing b. cohesion c. collective efficacy d. groupthink ANSWER: d 21. Symptoms of too much cohesion include a. failures are blamed on external factors. b. internal pressures to question the status quo. c. greater questioning of external constraints. d. tolerance for deviations.

ANSWER: a 22. Which group would be the most effective from a performance standpoint? a. A group with low task commitment and low group cohesion. b. A group with high group cohesion and low task commitment. c. A group with high task commitment and low group cohesion. d. A group with high group cohesion and high task commitment.

ANSWER: d 23. The Ringelmann effect is also known as a. group cohesion. b. collective efficacy. c. social loafing. d. groupthink.

ANSWER: c 24. As a group leader, effective counteractions to social loafing you should employ include a. defining each member’s tasks in front of the group. b. assigning engaging and rewarding tasks.

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c. making sure individual members feel needed. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: d 25. Collective efficacy refers to a. a tendency of individuals to put in less effort when working in a group context. b. a group’s perception of its ability to perform well. c. a group pressure level that increases the risk of making flawed decisions. d. the degree of camaraderie within the group.

ANSWER: b 26. Collective efficacy is most influenced by which factor? a. use of technology b. ties to the organization c. incentives and bonuses d. verbal persuasion ANSWER: d 27. How does a group differ from a team? a. A group is a cohesive coalition of people; a team is a collection of people. b. In a group, individuals have personal agendas. In a team, personal agendas are totally suppressed. c. Groups are always smaller and more cohesive than teams. d. A group is often a collection of people working independently on their own goals; a team is assembled to accomplish mutual goals.

ANSWER: d 28. Process loss refers to a. a group pressure phenomenon that increases the risk of the group making a flawed decision. b. a group’s perception of its ability to successfully perform well. c. any aspect of group interaction that inhibits group functioning. d. the tendency for individuals to put in less effort when working in a group context.

ANSWER: c 29. What is a key property of a team? a. compensation based on individual outcomes b. collaborative action c. clear simple goals d. independent tasks ANSWER: b 30. In which situation would a team be most clearly needed? a. Tasks to be performed are independent of one another. b. The organization benefits from shared goals. c. Few, specialized skills are required. d. Goals are low in complexity.

ANSWER: b

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31. Which tasks are performed by teams? a. production tasks b. idea-generation tasks c. problem-solving tasks d. All of the above ANSWER: d 32. Arielle is part of a team charged with developing a new name for a product. This is a(n) ___________ task. a. development b. production c. idea generation d. problem-solving ANSWER: c 33. Raoul is part of a team doing engineering design on an advanced hybrid automobile. Raoul’s team has completed designing the vehicle and are now ready to hand off to a new team who will build a prototype. The new team is responsible for a. development tasks. b. production tasks. c. idea generation. d. problem-solving tasks.

ANSWER: b 34. Idea generation tasks include a. making something such as a building, a product, or marketing plan. b. creative tasks such as brainstorming a new direction or creating a new process. c. coming up with plans for actions and making decisions. d. getting team members to work on all tasks simultaneously.

ANSWER: b 35. Task interdependence refers to a. the goal of team members working independently and combining their efforts to create a team’s outputs. b. one individual’s output becoming another’s input. c. team members working on each task in a process simultaneously. d. the degree that team members are dependent upon one another to get information, support, or materials from other team members.

ANSWER: d 36. An organizational behavior class has students working in teams to complete a final research paper. Taylor’s group has divided the paper up into sections, making each group member responsible for one section. Taylor is responsible for integrating all those sections. The group is organizing these tasks by using a. sequential interdependence. b. pooled interdependence. c. reciprocal interdependence. d. outcome interdependence.

ANSWER: b

Wdocs Chapter 9: Groups and Teams at Work

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37. The vice president informs the sales team that in the coming quarter, they will all receive the same bonus, based on the company’s total sales. Individual performance will not be a factor. The vice president is trying to motivate the team through use of a. pooled interdependence. b. reciprocal interdependence. c. outcome interdependence. d. sequential interdependence.

ANSWER: c 38. Task roles include contractor, creator, and a. cooperator. b. consul. c. coordinator. d. completer.

ANSWER: d 39. Boundary-spanning roles include coordinator and a. consul. b. cooperator. c. contributor. d. critic.

ANSWER: a 40. What kind of roles help to make groups feel more cohesive, and less likely to suffer from social loafing or groupthink? a. production-oriented roles b. boundary-spanning roles c. social-oriented roles d. task-oriented roles ANSWER: c 41. Adrian always challenges team members’ positions on various issues discussed in the weekly meeting.

Alecia told him yesterday, “I’m always prepared when I present ideas to our team because I know you will question everything and make us see the other side of every issue.” Adrian performs the task role of ___________ on the team. a. creator b. contributor c. critic d. completer ANSWER: c 42. The superintendent of the school district wants to emphasize a new focus on diversity and inclusion by writing a new mission statement for the district. She is engaged in the _____________ role. a. creator b. contractor c. communicator d. calibrator

Wdocs Chapter 9: Groups and Teams at Work

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ANSWER: a 43. If social roles are filled in a team, groups are likely to a. suffer process losses. b. be more cohesive. c. engage in social loafing. d. have more biases.

ANSWER: b 44. Because the ___________ role involves gathering information from the larger organization and informing those within the organization about team goals, activities, and success, it is often filled by the team manager. a. consul b. completer c. coordinator d. contractor ANSWER: a 45. What is an example of a temporary team? a. empowered team b. virtual team c. task force d. self-managed team ANSWER: c 46. What represents a unique challenge regarding the management of virtual teams? a. building trust with team members b. not being physically seen by managers c. nature of communication used with virtual team d. All of the above ANSWER: d 47. What statement is accurate about top management teams? a. Top management teams are most effective when there is limited diversity in their composition. b. Top management teams generally function within strict formal rules for team design or structure. c. Top management teams are important for their symbolic roles. d. Top management teams make few decisions on new products, markets and expansions.

ANSWER: c 48. In traditional manager-led teams, greater levels of hierarchy tend to lead to greater a. conflict. b. effectiveness. c. empowerment. d. member satisfaction.

ANSWER: a 49. Which statement is accurate regarding self-managed teams? a. Employees on self-managed teams have higher job satisfaction.

Wdocs Chapter 9: Groups and Teams at Work

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b. Self-managed teams have higher turnover. c. Self-managed teams lack direction. d. Employees on self-managed teams have higher skill variety.

ANSWER: a 50. In a team setting, empowerment means a. having the desire to reach goals. b. having the authority to conduct meetings. c. having the ability to make decisions. d. having the responsibility and authority to reach goals.

ANSWER: d 51. The ideal composition of a team should be first determined based on a. team member demographics. b. the nature of the team’s goals. c. the size of the organization. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: b 52. Research on team size suggests a. groups larger than 20 members are highly effective. b. teams with fewer members are less effective at working through differences. c. most have fewer than 10 members, but match size to team goals. d. there is little relationship between team size and performance.

ANSWER: c 53. What is a recognized benefit of team diversity? a. better and more creative solutions b. increased groupthink c. decreased conflict d. faster decision-making ANSWER: a 54. Norms refer to a. agreements on written ground rules, goals, and roles. b. shared expectations about how things operate within a group or team. c. formal approaches to decision making in the group or team. d. measures of camaraderie in the group or team.

ANSWER: b 55. Research and hands-on experience have demonstrated that teams are most successful when they determine shared values and goals, develop a communication strategy, and establish how decisions will be made and by whom, which is known as a. an operation manual. b. the team contract. c. a binding agreement. d. the team strategy.

Wdocs Chapter 9: Groups and Teams at Work

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ANSWER: b 56. To make a team contract meaningful, which section should be included? a. team compensation b. team standards c. team meetings d. team dynamics ANSWER: b 57. The idea that people can participate in a meeting without being embarrassed or experiencing retribution for their comments is referred to as a. psychological safety. b. team norms. c. team contracts. d. physiological protection.

ANSWER: a 58. If psychological safety can be established for a team, the benefits will include a. happier employees. b. higher profits. c. longer meetings. d. improved performance.

ANSWER: d 59. What strategy can cultivate psychological safety for a team? a. Establish peer support. b. Encourage longer meetings. c. Include human resources representatives in each meeting. d. Only allow managers to speak.

ANSWER: a 60. Teams that engage in performance debriefs are ___________ than those who do not. a. significantly happier b. substantially more effective c. experiencing greater conflict d. somewhat less effective ANSWER: b 61. What strategy can help ensure a successful meeting? a. Start the meeting when everyone arrives. b. Schedule more time than is needed for meetings. c. Manage the group dynamic for full participation. d. Let participants discuss whatever is on their mind.

ANSWER: c 62. Prior to the meeting, it is best practice to a. test any technology being used during the meeting.

Wdocs Chapter 9: Groups and Teams at Work

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b. send out a meeting reminder. c. create and distribute an agenda. d. complete all of the above.

ANSWER: d 63. As the meeting begins, some managers allow time to review the material being covered in the meeting, allowing everyone to a. create a new agenda. b. prepare a list of action items. c. get on the same page. d. invite others to the meeting.

ANSWER: c 64. What statement is accurate about effectively handling conflict within the team setting? a. Bring adversaries together on the same team to generate the best discussions. b. Create a team contract and outline expected behaviors. c. Disagreements among team members should be strongly discouraged. d. Allow the team members to hash out personal issues during the meeting.

ANSWER: b 65. One significant barrier to effective teams is a. overly helpful team members. b. lack of communication. c. presence of team conflict. d. high organizational commitment.

ANSWER: b 66. Kohsoom is a new project team leader. Jerome is chatting with him about some of the problems that could arise and prevent his team from being successful. Jerome offers what advice to overcome barriers to team success? a. Floundering often results from a lack of clear goals; clarify goals from the outset of the project. b. Disagreements among team members may be the result of long simmering personality conflicts; it’s not helpful to get involved in these disputes as it may just make it worse. c. Dominant personalities can only help a group; let those that are the most vocal have their say. d. Poor performance by a group member is probably due to lack of commitment; best to let those members go.

ANSWER: a 67. Which statement regarding ethics and teams is accurate? a. Research demonstrates that hierarchical systems always constrain team members more than a selfmanaged team does. b. Self-managed teams are viewed as a way to overcome the negative aspects of bureaucracy. c. Team pressure is often less powerful than managerial control. d. Team pressure is unlikely to result in unethical behavior by team members.

ANSWER: b 68. Agile methodology was developed to assist team projects by applying

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a. project management principles. b. conflict management techniques. c. SWOT analysis. d. growth need strength scales.

ANSWER: a 69. Collectivist societies tend to a. value individual achievement over interpersonal relationships. b. have employees who adapt readily to working in different teams. c. have employees who evaluate their group members higher than their counterparts in individualistic societies do. d. value loyalty much less than individualistic societies.

ANSWER: c 70. Which statement regarding power distance and teams is correct? a. People in high power distance countries expect unequal power distribution in the social, political, and economic areas. b. People in high power distance countries tend to use participative decision making. c. People in low in power distance countries limit participation and communication in teams. d. People in low in power distance countries define the roles of team members very strictly.

ANSWER: a Completion 71. A ___________ is a collection of individuals who interact with each other such that one person’s actions have an impact on the others.

ANSWER: group 72. Tuckman’s four-stage model of group development features the forming-___________-_____________performing stages.

ANSWER: storming; norming 73. Group members establish ground rules and define operating procedures during the ___________ phase of Tuckman’s model.

ANSWER: norming 74. The __________ model is a cyclical theory that suggests that change in groups occurs in radical spurts rather than incrementally over time.

ANSWER: punctuated equilibrium 75. ____________ groups have a collective identity, share a sense of purpose, work together on meaningful tasks, and establish a structured pattern of communication.

ANSWER: Cohesive 76. A ___________ is a cohesive coalition of people working together to achieve mutual goals.

ANSWER: team 77. According to Hackman, a ___________ task includes making something, such as a building, product, or marketing plan.

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ANSWER: production 78. Nataliya’s work team was asked to create a marketing campaign for the new line of herbal-flavored sparkling water. This is an example of a(n) __________ task in Hackman’s classification.

ANSWER: idea-generation 79. Task ___________ refers to the degree that team members depend on each other for information, support, or materials.

ANSWER: interdependence 80. Contractor, creator, contributor, completer, and critic are five ___________-oriented roles in the team role typology.

ANSWER: task 81. ___________-oriented roles help to keep teams operating effectively and feel more cohesive.

ANSWER: Social 82. ___________ teams are those where members are not located in the same physical place.

ANSWER: Virtual 83. Self-managed teams do not report directly to a supervisor but select their own leader. They are __________ teams, which means they have the responsibility as well as the authority to achieve their goals.

ANSWER: empowered 84. Shared expectations of how things operate within a group or team are known as ___________.

ANSWER: norms 85. ___________ include agreements on established ground rules, goals, and roles that serve as a road map for the team.

ANSWER: Team contracts Essay 86. List the stages in Tuckman’s model of group development including the phase added later in his work.

Briefly describe the nature of each stage. Use a group you have been a part of to demonstrate your response.

ANSWER: The stages are forming, storming, norming and performing with adjourning added later. Student examples will vary.

Forming is the initial stage where the group comes together for the first time. Example: When my study group decided to begin meeting each Monday evening, this was the forming step.

Storming is the second stage where group members keep up their guard but become more argumentative. Also, during this phase, group members explore their power and influence and stake out their territory by differentiating themselves from others. Example: When some members of my study group wanted to change the night we met, there was conflict. Some members were very persuasive, and ultimately, the time was changed to Tuesday afternoon.

Norming is the phase where group members establish their own ground rules and define operating procedures and goals. Example: Members of my study group agreed to share class notes with each other, but not with outsiders. Additionally, it seems that there is an unwritten rule about arriving on time and notifying other members if you will not be present.

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Performing is the phase where participants are getting the work done and paying attention to how they are doing it. Example: My study group gets down to business rather quickly during meetings and has developed a review schedule for the upcoming final exam.

Adjourning is the phase added later which is focused on how a group ends. Endings are often accompanied by emotions that can range from relief to grief. Example: My study group will disband immediately after the final exam.

87. You’ve just accepted a position as a team leader at work. What factors will determine the cohesion of your team? Discuss why it will benefit your team to be more cohesive.

ANSWER: Any of these factors impact group cohesion: • • • • •

Similarity: The more similar group members are with regard to gender, age, education, skills, attitudes, and values, the more likely the group will bond.

Stability: The longer a group stays together, the more cohesive it becomes.

Size: The smaller the group, the more cohesive the group.

Support: When group members support their fellow team members, their group identity strengthens.

Satisfaction: Cohesion is correlated with how pleased group members are with each other’s performance, behavior, and conformity to group norms.

There are many benefits in creating a cohesive group. Members are generally more personally satisfied and feel greater self-confidence and self-esteem when in a group where they feel they belong. For many, membership in such a group can be a buffer against stress, which can improve mental and physical well-being. Because members are invested in the group and its work, they are more likely to regularly attend and actively participate in the group, taking more responsibility for the group’s functioning.

In addition, members can draw on the strength of the group to persevere through challenging situations that might otherwise be too hard to tackle alone. Cohesion may help the team to perform more efficiently.

88. Your organizational behavior professor has divided the class into five groups and assigned a final research project to each one which counts for 50 percent of your final grade. You are not allowed to switch groups, so you must make the best of this situation. What strategies can help prevent social loafing as you undertake this project?

ANSWER: Student answers will vary, but should reference most of the following points: •

•

• •

Clearly define each member’s tasks in front of the entire group. If you assign a task to the entire group, social loafing is more likely. For example, instead of stating, “By Monday, let’s find several articles on the topic of stress,” you can set the goal of “By Monday, each of us will be responsible for finding five articles on the topic of stress.” When individuals have specific goals, they become more accountable for their performance.

Design and communicate to the entire group a system for evaluating each person’s contribution. You may have a midterm feedback session in which each member gives feedback to every other member. This would increase the sense of accountability individuals have. You may even want to discuss the principle of social loafing in order to discourage it.

Build a cohesive group. When group members develop strong relational bonds, they are more committed to each other and the success of the group, and they are therefore more likely to pull their own weight.

Assign tasks that are highly engaging and inherently rewarding. Design challenging, unique, and varied activities that will have a significant impact on the individuals themselves, the organization, or the external environment.

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Make sure individuals feel that they are needed. If the group ignores a member’s contributions because these contributions do not meet the group’s performance standards, members will feel discouraged and are unlikely to contribute in the future. Make sure that everyone feels included and needed by the group.

89. Hackman identified three major classes of tasks. List those classes and briefly describe them.

ANSWER: Teams differ in terms of the tasks they are trying to accomplish. Richard Hackman identified three major classes of tasks: production tasks, idea-generation tasks, and problem-solving tasks.

• • •

Production tasks are those involved with making something.

Idea generation tasks deal with creative tasks like brainstorming.

Problem-solving tasks refer to coming up with plans for action and making decisions.

90. Identify and briefly explain the three major types of team roles. Using this typology, consider a group you are currently involved with, and identify the primary group role you play.

ANSWER: The three types of team roles are task-oriented, social-oriented, and boundary-spanning. Student examples will vary.

Task-oriented roles: Include behaviors which advance the team’s work and processes: contractor, creator, contributor, completer, and critic. In a group project, my group role is usually contractor. I organize and coordinate the group’s actions.

Social-oriented role: Keeps the team operating effectively and cohesively. Includes calibrator, communicator, and cooperator. In group projects, my group role tends to be communicator. I like to make everyone feel welcome and part of the group.

Boundary-spanning roles: Helps connect the team to the larger organization, including coordinator and consul. My group role often includes being the coordinator to other groups.

91. Teams vary in the manner in which they are led. Choose one type of team leadership and briefly describe it.

ANSWER: Traditional manager-led teams have a manager who is outside the team. The manager assigns work to team members and has the power to hire and fire team members. Manager-led teams have little potential for autonomy.

Self-managed teams are those that manage themselves and do not report directly to a supervisor.

Team members select their own leader and can even take turns in the leadership role. A selfmanaged team has the potential for low, medium, or high autonomy.

Self-directed teams are a special form of self-managed teams where members determine who will lead them with no external oversight. Thus, the team makes all decisions internally about how work is done. There is the potential for high autonomy in this team.

92. As part of a Fundamentals of Business Communication course, students are placed in four-person teams to engage in various team activities throughout the course. The first exercise the groups are required to complete is the development of a team contract. Discuss what some key elements of that team contract should be, given that work produced by the team will be evaluated and will impact the individual grade achieved by a student.

ANSWER: Some categories to include are: •

Team goal: A mutually shared goal is paramount to building cohesion.

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Team roles: Who is responsible for what in the team? When assigning roles, first ensure that the team covers all three key categories of roles (boundary-spanning, task, and social).

Team decisions: How are decisions made in the team?

Team communication: Who will be the individual to inform all group members of meetings or cancellations? What medium will be used to communicate?

Team performance: What criteria will you use to evaluate your team members? What is good performance of a team?

93. Your boss has just asked you to lead a task force for a new project. You will be responsible for conducting all team meetings, and keeping your group on track. What advice does your boss provide in making your meetings as effective as possible?

ANSWER: Strategies may include those used before the meeting, during the meeting, and after the meeting.

Before the Meeting: • • • • • •

The very first step is to ascertain whether a meeting actually needs to be held. Sometimes meetings simply do not need to be held.

Decide who should be at the meeting, and only invite those. The more people who attend the meeting, the less each person will participate. There should be a reason why each person is invited to the meeting.

Decide how long the meeting should be and keep it short.

Create and distribute an effective agenda.

Determine how all members can attend: virtually or in-person.

Send a reminder prior to the meeting.

During the Meeting: • • • • • •

Start the meeting on time.

Get everyone on the same page.

Follow the meeting agenda.

Manage group dynamics for full participation.

Summarize the meeting with action items.

End on time.

After the Meeting: •

Follow up on action items.

94. Think about some common problems affecting teams. Discuss an issue you’ve experienced in a team or group, and the strategies used to overcome it. Were the measures successful? How was team functioning affected?

ANSWER: Common problems include challenges in knowing where to begin, dominating team members, poor member engagement and performance, lack of communication and coordination, and poorly managed team conflict. Student examples will vary.

Example: One common problem facing many teams is the domination by one or more team members. I have experienced this problem in a volunteer group. One member continually asserts that his ideas should be followed because they have been successful in the previous year.

Unfortunately, this has the result of hurting the momentum and creativity of the group. Other members are reluctant to suggest ideas for fear of being shot down.

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In this case, the team leader did little to improve the situation, and some members eventually dropped out of the group.

95. Why does culture affect the functioning of teams? Select one area of focus and discuss recent research findings.

ANSWER: People from different cultures often have different beliefs, norms, and ways of viewing the world.

Recent research on culture and team or group behavior includes the following: Harrison, McKinnon, Wu, and Chow explored the cultural factors that may influence how well employees adapt to fluid work groups. The researchers studied groups in Taiwan and Australia.

Taiwan ranks high on collectivism, while Australia ranks low. The results: Australian managers reported that employees adapted more readily to working in different teams, working under different leaders, and taking on leadership of project teams than the middle managers in Taiwan reported.

In other studies, researchers found that collectivism (measured at the individual level) had a positive relationship to the evaluation of a teammate.

Power distance is another culture dimension. People in high power distance countries expect unequal power distribution and greater stratification, whether that stratification is economic, social, or political. An individual in a position of authority in these countries expects (and receives) obedience. Decision making is hierarchical, with limited participation and communication. Countries with a low power distance rating, such as Australia, value cooperative interaction across power levels. Individuals stress equality and opportunity for everyone.

Another study by researchers compared national differences in teamwork metaphors used by employees in six multinational corporations in four countries: the United States, France, Puerto Rico, and the Philippines. They identified five metaphors: military, family, sports, associates, and community. Results showed national variation in the use of the five metaphors. Specifically, countries high in individualism (United States and France) tended to use the sports or associated metaphors, while countries high in power distance (Philippines and Puerto Rico) tended to use the military or family metaphors.

Further, power distance and collectivistic values were negatively associated with the use of teamwork metaphors that emphasized clear roles and broad scope. These results suggest that the meaning of teamwork may differ across cultures and, in turn, imply potential differences in team norms and team member behaviors.

Wdocs TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer) Chapter 10 - Conflict and Negotiation at Work

Chapter 10 - Conflict and Negotiation at Work Multiple Choice 1. Conflict refers to a. a process whereby two or more parties work toward an agreement. b. a process where an outside third party enters the situation with the goal of assisting the parties to reach an agreement. c. a process that involves people disagreeing. d. a process that involves bringing in a third party who has the authority to make decisions to which parties must adhere.

ANSWER: c 2. Anoop is a member of the engineering department and also serves on the Strategy 2025 team, which is crafting an engineering strategy for the firm’s future. He has a “Do not miss” meeting in the engineering department scheduled for Wednesday at 8 a.m. and just received an urgent email about a “Can’t miss” meeting for the strategy group at 8:15 a.m. Wednesday morning. Anoop is experiencing a. interpersonal conflict. b. role conflict. c. role ambiguity. d. group conflict.

ANSWER: b 3. What is an example of intrapersonal conflict? a. feeling inadequate about a task b. an argument between coworkers c. a conflict with a customer d. experiencing in-group bias ANSWER: a 4. Conflict between two individuals, such as coworkers in the same department, is also known as a. intrapersonal conflict b. interpersonal conflict. c. intergroup conflict. d. interdepartmental conflict.

ANSWER: b 5. Intergroup conflict occurs a. between two individuals. b. within the individual. c. between two departments. d. between team members.

ANSWER: c 6. Within an organization, conflict a. should always be avoided. b. can be healthy and necessary.

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c. has little lasting impact. d. is always problematic.

ANSWER: b 7. Which statement is accurate regarding the relationship between conflict and performance? a. Low conflict leads to medium performance. b. Medium conflict leads to high performance. c. High conflict leads to high performance. d. Low conflict leads to high performance.

ANSWER: b 8. Research on effective teams indicates that they experience a. high levels of relationship conflict throughout the project. b. moderate levels of process conflict at the beginning of the project timeline, which later decline. c. moderate levels of task conflict in the middle of the project timeline. d. moderate levels of relationship conflict and high levels of process conflict throughout the project.

ANSWER: c 9. Role ambiguity and role conflict are examples of a. intergroup conflict b. interpersonal conflict c. intrapersonal conflict d. intragroup conflict ANSWER: c 10. Personality differences or values differences often lead to a. intergroup conflict. b. interpersonal conflict. c. intrapersonal conflict. d. intragroup conflict.

ANSWER: b 11. What is considered a root cause of conflict in the workplace? a. organizational tenure b. task independence c. compatible goals d. personality differences ANSWER: d 12. In which scenario are you most likely to experience conflict? a. Resources within the firm are relatively plentiful and most departments in the organization are seeing a modest increase in their annual budget. b. Interdepartmental meetings have just concluded resulting in a list of goals for each department that are compatible with one another. c. The firm just instituted a matrix structure. d. Self-awareness exercises have been completed and most team members were categorized as Type B personality.

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ANSWER: c 13. Potential causes of conflict in the workplace include a. task interdependence. b. communication issues. c. limited resources. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: d 14. What is a positive outcome of conflict in the organization? a. increased creativity b. accurate assumptions c. decreased empowerment d. lowered morale ANSWER: a 15. What is a negative outcome of conflict in the organization? a. increased stress b. clarification of individual views c. increased participation d. All of the above ANSWER: a 16. Which factor is likely to increase your risk for violence in the workplace? a. supervising others b. dealing with valuables or exchanging money c. caring for others emotionally or physically d. All of the above ANSWER: d 17. As her supervisor, Tiguan must address the issue that Janie has been late to work three times in two weeks. Janie is otherwise an excellent employee. What is likely the best approach for Tiguan? a. Fire Janie the next time she is late. b. Try to help Janie resolve the issue. c. Work on ignoring the problem. d. Threaten Janie with firing the next time she is late.

ANSWER: b 18. What describes an effective way to manage organizational conflict? a. institute consensus decision making b. change the team composition to increase diversity c. create a common opposing force d. strengthen organizational hierarchy ANSWER: c

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19. If two marketing groups within a firm’s marketing department are vying against each other for a larger percentage of the budget, which option could the marketing manager consider that would be MOST effective in managing the conflict? a. Take a majority vote on what the two departments feel is the best budget allocation. b. Focus the attention of the two groups on a common “enemy” such as another firm that that they compete with for business. c. Change the composition of the two departments. d. Restructure the entire department so that teams are no longer used.

ANSWER: b 20. The conflict handling style that is uncooperative and unassertive is a. compromise. b. avoidance. c. accommodation. d. competition.

ANSWER: b 21. Which middle-ground conflict handling style is characterized by an individual’s desire to get their way but respect others’ goals? a. competition b. avoidance c. accommodation d. compromise ANSWER: d 22. The competition conflict handling style is a. a middle ground style. b. uncooperative and unassertive. c. cooperative and unassertive. d. highly assertive but low on cooperation.

ANSWER: d 23. Though no conflict handling style is perfect, which style seems to be the most effective in many different situations? a. accommodation b. compromise c. collaboration d. competition ANSWER: c 24. The national sales meeting will be held in wine country this year, and based on her performance, Nia should be attending. But after learning that a coworker wants to go because her sister lives nearby, Nia agrees to wait until next year. What conflict management strategy is Nia demonstrating? a. accommodation b. compromise c. competition d. collaboration ANSWER: a

Wdocs TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer) Chapter 10 - Conflict and Negotiation at Work

25. Nicholas is the production manager for a manufacturing firm. He has two supervisors who are continually in conflict due to personality differences. Nicholas should have held a meeting last week to discuss next year’s budget but cancelled it because the two supervisors had a verbal confrontation on the shop floor the previous day. What conflict handling style is Nicholas demonstrating? a. compromise b. collaboration c. avoidance d. accommodation ANSWER: c 26. The United Auto Workers (UAW) and Ford Motor Company were negotiating a new agreement to address industry issues during a severe economic downturn. Ford offered to consider delaying layoffs if the UAW agreed to changes in contractual work rules related to the jobs bank. This negotiation suggests the use of what conflict handling style? a. avoidance b. collaboration c. accommodation d. compromise ANSWER: d 27. Maris Manufacturing is a unionized company producing customized metal units for the medical equipment industry. Each contract negotiation is a contentious affair for the union and management. However, over the past few months both union and management officials have become concerned about the number of Maris employees who are experiencing alcohol-related issues. Last month alone, six employees sought medical assistance under the employee assistance program. Management and union officials will be meeting next week to address the issue. This is an example of what conflict handling style? a. accommodation b. collaboration c. compromise d. competition ANSWER: b 28. Which conflict handling style is indicated by an individual who says, “I don’t really care if we work this out”? a. accommodation b. collaboration c. avoidance d. compromise ANSWER: c 29. Which conflict handling style is indicated by an individual who says, “Maybe we can both agree to give in a little”? a. compromise b. collaboration c. accommodation d. avoidance ANSWER: a 30. With regard to conflict, which statement is accurate?

Wdocs TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer) Chapter 10 - Conflict and Negotiation at Work

a. The best solution often depends on the situation. b. A lack of disagreement indicates employees are satisfied. c. Conflict is inherently bad. d. A key to a healthy discussion is focusing on personalities, not tasks.

ANSWER: a 31. What would be an effective means of stimulating conflict? a. Assign someone to play cooperator. b. Encourage disagreement with no fear of reprisal. c. Create a common enemy. d. Build clarity into the situation.

ANSWER: b 32. Negotiation refers to a. the process that involves bringing in a third party who has the authority to act as a judge and will make a binding decision. b. the process that involves two people disagreeing. c. the process where a third party enters a situation with the goal of assisting the parties to reach an agreement. d. the process whereby two or more parties work toward an agreement.

ANSWER: d 33. What is the first phase of the negotiation process? a. investigation b. presentation c. determining BATNA d. bargaining ANSWER: a 34. During which phase of the negotiation process does an individual assemble the information gathered in such a manner that their position is supported? a. investigation b. determining the BATNA c. bargaining d. presentation ANSWER: d 35. Which statement is true regarding determining your BATNA? a. The party with less BATNA is in the best negotiating position. b. You must determine your own BATNA but there is little you can do with regard to the BATNA of the party with whom you are negotiating. c. Assessing the best alternative to a negotiated agreement assists you in deciding whether to accept an offer. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: c 36. Which statement regarding the bargaining phase of negotiation is correct?

Wdocs TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer) Chapter 10 - Conflict and Negotiation at Work

a. Bargaining gets the least amount of attention during negotiation. b. Making concessions during negotiation is a sign of weakness. c. A key to the bargaining phase is asking questions. d. This is the phase of negotiation where you determine your BATNA. ANSWER: c 37. Closure is the phase of the negotiation process where you a. either have come to an agreement or walk away from an unacceptable offer. b. discuss your goals and seek agreement. c. give up something to get something more important in return. d. assemble and present evidence to support your cause.

ANSWER: a 38. The department managers are gathering for a budget meeting. If the marketing manager gets the 10 percent increase he is requesting, the human resource manager cannot get any increase in her department budget. This is an example of what kind of negotiation strategy? a. integrative approach b. accommodating approach c. distributive approach d. concession approach ANSWER: c 39. If both parties involved in a budget negotiation seek to expand the overall budget so that each party gets more, this is an example of which kind of negotiation strategy? a. integrative approach b. accommodating approach c. distributive approach d. concession approach ANSWER: a 40. The first step to an integrative approach to negotiation is a. measuring your own piece of the pie. b. exploring options to achieving goals. c. adopting a cooperative stance. d. taking an adversarial approach.

ANSWER: c 41. What is the first step you must take in negotiating a higher salary? a. Overcome your fear. b. Get the facts. c. Make an offer. d. Build your case.

ANSWER: a 42. What is good advice to offer individuals who want to engage in successful negotiations? a. Don’t establish deadlines; when the negotiations are over, they are over. b. Rushing negotiations can be a good tactic.

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c. Be comfortable with periods of silence. d. Focus on disagreement first and then return to areas that are resolved.

ANSWER: c 43. Mediation refers to a. the process of bringing in a third party who has the authority to act as a judge and make a binding decision. b. the process where a third party enters the situation with the goal of assisting the parties to reach an agreement. c. the process whereby two or more parties work toward an agreement. d. the process that involves people disagreeing.

ANSWER: b 44. Lyle is a member of a union. His supervisor gave Lyle a three-day suspension for not wearing protective shoes on the manufacturing floor. Lyle appealed the suspension and the plant manager refused to rescind it.

The union wants to appeal this decision to a neutral third party for a ruling. What procedure does the union want to utilize? a. mediation b. negotiation c. arbitration d. accommodation ANSWER: c 45. A mediator should enter a negotiation when a. personal differences are detected. b. the parties are talking and tension is rising. c. the parties are unable to find a solution. d. a quick resolution is desired but not imperative.

ANSWER: c 46. Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) includes a. arbitration. b. mediation. c. other conflict resolution approaches. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: d 47. In negotiation, the use of deception seems to increase with a. cooperative motives. b. incentives for good performance. c. application of the Platinum Rule. d. shared goals.

ANSWER: b 48. Negotiating ethically includes a. keeping your promises. b. being mostly honest.

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c. treating others like they treat you. d. deception as long as you win.

ANSWER: a 49. What strategy is suggested for appropriately disagreeing with colleagues? a. Establish a culture which values dissent. b. Disagree early in the discussion. c. Try to disagree in real time. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: d 50. Which statement is accurate regarding negotiations around the world? a. Given their culture, Chinese negotiators are comfortable saying “no.” b. Some cultures find it disrespectful to negotiate prior to establishing a trusting relationship. c. Since Japan is a low context culture, information for negotiation is learned primarily from what is said. d. Eastern cultures tend view negotiations as a business activity while Western cultures see it as a social activity.

ANSWER: b Completion 51. ___________ is the process that involves people disagreeing.

ANSWER: Conflict 52. Miguel must resolve a customer’s complaint but was instructed never to offer a refund without clear product failure. Miguel is experiencing __________ conflict.

ANSWER: intrapersonal 53. Union and management conflicts are examples of ____________ conflict.

ANSWER: intergroup 54. Individuals tend to favor the group to which they belong, known as ___________.

ANSWER: in-group bias 55. When money, time, and equipment are scarce, this often causes competition between departments. The root cause of this conflict is ___________.

ANSWER: limited resources 56. A person with a(n) ___________ conflict handling style might say, “If it’s important to you, I can go along with it.”

ANSWER: accommodation 57. The conflict handling style in which people are highly assertive but low on cooperation is ___________.

ANSWER: competition 58. The ___________ conflict handling style has the most potential to be highly effective in many different situations.

ANSWER: collaboration

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59. The process where two parties work toward an agreement is ____________.

ANSWER: negotiation 60. BATNA stands for best alternative to ___________.

ANSWER: negotiated agreement 61. The ___________ phase of the negotiation process is where each party discusses their goals and seeks to get an agreement.

ANSWER: bargaining 62. A ___________ is giving up something to get something in return.

ANSWER: concession 63. The traditional “fixed-pie” approach where negotiators see the situation as a pie that has to be divided between them is an example of a(n) ___________ negotiation strategy.

ANSWER: distributive 64. The conflict resolution process where a neutral third party listens to each side’s case and makes a binding decision is called ___________.

ANSWER: arbitration 65. ___________ establish a way of doing what is right, fair, and honest.

ANSWER: Ethics Essay 66. Kiara is a new manager for a large firm. She is about to attend two weeks of management training. The first topic she will examine is that of conflict and its management. You are the instructor for the conflict seminar.

Describe the types of conflict Kiara and other managers may face in the workplace, their underlying causes, and some strategies for managing these conflicts.

ANSWER: There are three types of conflict that should be noted at the outset of the seminar session. These are intrapersonal, interpersonal and intergroup conflict.

Intrapersonal conflict arises when an individual does not know what is expected or wanted of him in the workplace or where he feels inadequate to perform a task. Perceived lack of trust of the employee, role ambiguity, and role conflict are causes of intrapersonal conflict. Clarifying the employee’s role and empowering them with various responsibilities are two viable options for managing this type of conflict in the workplace.

Interpersonal conflict is likely the most common form in the workplace. Personality differences are a key cause of such conflict. Problem-solving approaches that focus attention on the task or issue at hand and not on the personalities are two options to consider in dealing with this type of conflict. If neither of those works, there is always the possibility that a manager should consider moving or removing one of the personalities from the department.

Intergroup conflict is often found between groups in a single department or between departments in a workplace. In unionized settings in the United States, the union and management tend to have longstanding adversarial relations. One effective way of dealing with intergroup conflict is to create a common “enemy” for the clashing parties. Diverting their attention from each other and refocusing it on an outside group can actually result in more cooperation among group members and ultimately, a more cohesive group.

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67. Angelo is the new superintendent of a local school district. In his first two weeks on the job, he makes it a point to talk to every staff and faculty member as well as key stakeholders in the community. His assessment after those interviews is that the district is conflict-ridden. Seemingly everywhere he turns, intrapersonal, interpersonal, and intergroup conflicts are found. Discuss how he can get to the bottom of these conflicts and begin to reduce the overall level of conflict throughout the district.

ANSWER: Student answers will vary. An example follows: First, Angelo needs to determine the root causes of the conflicts. Such root causes can cover a wide spectrum but common ones include organizational structure, limited resources, task interdependence, incompatible goals, personality differences and communication problems.

Each of the root causes identified could take substantial time and effort to address, but identification is always the first step. If organizational structure seems to be an issue, Angelo might consider changing it. He needs to understand how authority really flows in the district as well as how communication and decision making flow. Once that is assessed, the nature of changes needed may be obvious.

Limited resources are always an issue regardless of the nature of the organization, but Angelo may want to consider getting a clear handle on what each department’s budget is and how such budgets are determined yearly. He may want to institute some changes in identification of new spending items separating out, for example, those items basic to the educational process and required by law and those discretionary that enhance the curriculum.

Incompatible goals and communication problems could be intertwined. Understanding how information is disseminated to employees in the district may indicate a very haphazard pattern.

Some of the information partially or incompletely disseminated may be the district and individual goals. When that information is clarified and input appropriately received and processed, both problems may be addressed.

Personality differences are the common denominator in the conflicts of many organizations.

Focusing employee attention on the task and not the personalities involved is always the first step but sometimes that proves to provide only temporary relief and the ultimate step of moving or removing individuals must be assessed.

68. Omar and Justin are two long-time supervisors in the production department of a manufacturing firm who do not get along. Their animosity repeatedly spills over into the workplace. After overhearing yesterday’s fiveminute shouting match on the factory floor, their supervisor Karen is at wit’s end. Using the conflict handling style grid as a focal point, discuss various conflict management styles Karen might use to handle this situation, and their chances of success.

ANSWER: Student answers will vary but should provide adequate support for whichever style is chosen. ∙ The avoiding style is uncooperative and unassertive. People exhibiting this style seek to avoid conflict altogether by denying that it is there. While conflict avoidance may not be a significant problem if the issue at hand is trivial, it becomes a problem when individuals avoid confronting important issues because of a dislike for conflict or a perceived inability to handle the other party’s reactions. This style does not seem appropriate for this situation. ∙ The accommodating style is cooperative and unassertive. In this style, the person gives in to what the other side wants, even if it means giving up one’s personal goals. Since these two people exhibit great animosity toward each other, this style does not seem effective for this situation. ∙ The compromising style is a middle-ground style, in which individuals have some desire to express their own concerns and get their way but still respect the other person’s goals. Karen may be able to get Omar and Justin to compromise if they can agree on goals for the workplace. This approach may or not be successful. ∙ People exhibiting a competing style want to reach their goal or get their solution adopted regardless of what others say or how they feel. They are more interested in getting the outcome they

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want as opposed to keeping the other party happy, and they push for the deal they are interested in making. As both parties want to “win” in this situation, this style will likely not have the positive effect that Karen desires. ∙ The collaborating style is high on both assertiveness and cooperation. This is a strategy to use for achieving the best outcome from conflict—both sides argue for their position, supporting it with facts and rationale while listening attentively to the other side. The objective is to find a win–win solution to the problem in which both parties get what they want. This is the optimum style for resolving conflict, but it may take time and patience to resolve this situation.

69. The Challenger incident is widely recognized as a situation of groupthink at NASA. While some testing had indicated potential concerns with cold weather and the sustainability and performance of “O-rings” in the shuttle design, the desire of NASA executives to meet a timetable for budgetary and public relations reasons caused that information to not be properly presented in the debate over launch timing. What are some ways that NASA executives could stimulate conflict in such meetings to avoid future tragedies?

ANSWER: Conflict can be stimulated by encouraging people to raise issues and disagree with the status quo without fear of any retribution or reprisal. The freedom to dissent without retribution must be a part of the organization culture. Written procedures ensuring such positive conflict outcomes are a good beginning but a conscious management of vital discussions by a manager in which such dissent is featured is also critical.

Assign an employee a devil’s advocate role in all meetings. If you know that someone will always question the issue or the solution to it, you are more accepting and prepared for such dissent and it brings out the key inaccuracies in assumptions much faster.

Create competition among teams or individuals with “prizes” or bonuses for those who come up with the best solution to a problem or issue. Rewards that are understood, attainable, and appreciated are motivating.

Build ambiguity into the process. When clarity is not found, questions are asked and those questions can stimulate greater creativity or pinpoint problematic areas.

70. List the five phases of negotiation. Briefly describe what should take place during each step.

ANSWER: The five steps are investigate, determine your best alternative to a negotiated agreement, present, bargain, and close.

The first step in negotiation is the investigation, or information gathering stage. Surprisingly, the first place to begin is with yourself: What are your goals for the negotiation? What do you want to achieve? What would you concede? What would you absolutely not concede?

The next step is to determine your BATNA. This is an acronym that stands for the “best alternative to a negotiated agreement.” Thinking through your BATNA is important to helping you decide whether to accept an offer you receive during the negotiation. You need to know what your alternatives are. If you have various alternatives, you can look at the proposed deal more critically.

Your BATNA is an important indicator of how much power you have in the negotiation.

The third phase of negotiation is presentation. In this phase, you assemble the information you’ve gathered in a way that supports your position.

During the bargaining phase, each party discusses their goals and seeks to get an agreement. A natural part of this process is making concessions, namely, giving up one thing to get something else in return. Making a concession is not a sign of weakness—parties expect to give up some of their goals. Rather, concessions demonstrate cooperativeness and help move the negotiation toward its conclusion. One key to the bargaining phase is to ask questions. Don’t simply take a statement such as “we can’t do that” at face value. Rather, try to find out why the party has that

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constraint.

Closure is an important, but often overlooked, part of negotiations. At the close of a negotiation, you and the other party have either come to an agreement on the terms, or one party has decided that the final offer is unacceptable and therefore must walk away.

Sometimes at the end of negotiations, it’s clear why a deal was not reached. But if you’re confused about why a deal did not happen, consider making a follow-up call.

71. Mario is preparing to negotiate a marketing agreement for his product with an advertising firm. What are the key steps he should prepare for in that negotiation?

ANSWER: At the outset, Mario needs to do some investigation and gather information. The better informed you are, the better bargaining position you place yourself in. In Mario’s case, he should begin by looking at his own goals. What does he want to get out of the negotiation? What can he achieve? What can he concede?

His second step will be to develop his best alternative to a negotiated agreement or BATNA. The reason he is negotiating is to produce results that are better than what he could have obtained without negotiating, so what are those results? Thinking through his BATNA will assist him in ultimately deciding to go with the advertising firm or walk away searching for another option.

Mario must prepare for his presentation where he will bring together the information he has gathered in a manner that will support his position.

The actual bargaining will be when the two parties meet to discuss their goals and attempt to reach an agreement. Mario must keep in mind that a regular part of such bargaining is making some concessions. His BATNA will guide him in assessing such concessions. Further, Mario must understand that he can ask questions during this phase to ensure he is getting the best deal for himself and to understand, possibly, why a deal is not made.

Finally, the bargaining needs to come to a close, either with an agreement or with one or the other party walking away.

72. After two years with your firm, you’ve been offered a managerial position with a slight increase in salary.

The new position will require longer hours and some travel, and you feel the compensation offered is just not enough. Although you really want to move forward, what strategies can you use to effectively negotiate a higher salary before accepting this position?

ANSWER: Negotiation is a process whereby two or more parties work toward a mutual agreement. Your firm believes you are a good fit for this position. You would like to accept it. Work toward negotiating an acceptable salary by following these steps: 1. Overcome your fear. Many people don’t even begin a salary negotiation. We may be afraid of angering our employer. But if you do not ask, your manager will believe you are satisfied with the offer.

2. Get the facts. Before you enter into the negotiation, do some background research. What are other companies paying people in this position? Check sites such as Payscale.com, salary.com, and salaryexpert.com to get a feel for the market. Look at surveys conducted by your professional organization.

3. Build your case. How important are your skills to the organization? How have you contributed?

How are you likely to contribute in the new job? Make a list of your contributions. Be sure to focus on the contributions that your firm values most.

4. Know what you want. Set your target salary goal based on your research and the norms of what your organization will pay. Now ask yourself, if you don’t get this figure, will you accept the position?

Are there other alternatives, such as more vacation time?

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5. Begin assertively. Start the discussion on a strong but friendly note. “I think I’m worth more than you are offering.” List the ways you’ve contributed to the company.

6. Don’t make the first offer. Let your employer name a specific offer. You can do this by asking, “What salary could you approve?”

7. Listen more than talk. You will learn more by listening rather than talking. The more you listen, the better the person you are negotiating will feel about you—people tend to like and trust people who listen to them.

Throughout the negotiation process, try to: avoid common negotiation mistakes such as letting your ego or emotions get in the way, having unrealistic expectations, failing to negotiate and just accepting the first offer, or letting past negotiation outcomes affect the present ones.

73. Antonio is preparing to negotiate his individual contract with a financial services firm. He is nervous and does not want to shortchange himself. Provide some general advice for being successful at negotiations.

ANSWER: Focus on securing an agreement. If the goal is an agreement, when an issue arises that might lead to an impasse, simply set it aside as something you agree to disagree on and address it later.

Dealing with contentious issues at a later time or in a different environment often leads to their resolution.

Be patient. If there is no deadline in place to reach an agreement by, be flexible.

Recognize whose reality you are dealing with. Each side perceives their version of reality. Be clear on yours.

Deadlines: If a deadline is established, negotiators tend to move toward agreement as that deadline approaches.

Be comfortable with silence: After an offer or counteroffer is made, allow the other party to contemplate it. Do not expect an immediate response.

74. Alemeda has just been hired by an aluminum maker to negotiate supply agreements between the aluminum firm and various international companies. What are some cultural issues that Alemeda should keep in mind as she begins negotiations?

Alemeda should recognize that some cultures have a lower threshold for conflict than others. Countries like Japan and Korea, for example, prefer harmony to conflict. Americans and Germans, in contrast, have a higher tolerance for conflict as a way to work through issues.

The nature of the relationship between negotiating parties also differs based upon the culture. Americans are prone to “getting right down to business” while negotiators in Japan and China must establish a friendly, trustbased relationship before bargaining. Consequently, Japanese negotiators, because of their high context culture are likely to look for patterns in what is not said as well as what is said during negotiations and factor those patterns into their offers.

Similarly, the relationship between the negotiators impacts the view of the overall activity. Americans view the negotiation as a business activity while Brazilians see it as a social activity.

In all cases, Alemeda must assess the cultural implications of negotiations before initiating the activity.

DIF: Hard KEY: Bloom’s: Application REF: Section 10.6 75. You’ve just been assigned to a virtual team made of coworkers across the country. This team is tasked with recommending a benefits structure which is fair to all employees regardless of job title, age, seniority, background, marital or family status, gender, etc. You’ve been chosen for this team to represent a certain

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demographic group and want to ensure an equitable and strong recommendation. Keeping in mind that the group will always communicate virtually, discuss some strategies for managing conflict through this process, and negotiating with your colleagues.

ANSWER: 1. Disagree early. Disagreements are never easy but disagreeing early on before people become fully invested in a decision or approach can help.

2. Disagree often. A culture of disagreeing and valuing dissenting voices can be important for organizations to create and maintain. If no one ever disagrees, voicing concern becomes a bigger deal. If voicing disagreement is more common, that takes the pressure off and allows individuals more freedom to express themselves freely.

3. Take the edge off disagreement. Think carefully about word choices, history of past disagreements, and how things may be misunderstood to try to help avoid conflicts that are avoidable.

4. Choose a “safe word.” This is a relatively easy way for individuals to voice concern without it being a major conflict. It provides a signal that they need to slow down and consider everyone’s thoughts and opinions.

5. Try to disagree in real time. Avoiding the downfalls of written communication when sharing concerns or disagreeing can be an effective way to voice and resolve a potential conflict. By sharing your thoughts in a video call, you can save time and stress.

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Chapter 11 - Decision Making and Creativity at Work Multiple Choice 1. Making choices among alternative courses of action, including inaction, is a. decision making. b. programmed decisions. c. satisficing. d. consensus building.

ANSWER: a 2. Programmed decisions are those which a. require conscious thinking, information gathering and careful consideration of alternatives. b. are formulated to set the future course of an organization. c. include a set of parameters against which all potential options are evaluated. d. occur frequently enough that an automated response is developed for them.

ANSWER: d 3. Angelo works as the frozen food manager in a large grocery store. When his stock of two-pound bags of frozen shrimp gets down to two cases, he emails the warehouse to send ten cases to restock. The type of decision Angelo is making about restocking shrimp is a a. strategic decision. b. nonprogrammed decision. c. programmed decision. d. tactical decision.

ANSWER: c 4. Angelo works as the frozen food manager in a large grocery store. When his stock of two-pound bags of frozen shrimp gets down to two cases, he emails the warehouse to send ten cases to restock. The “automated” ordering of ten cases when supply gets to two cases in the store is called a(n) a. consensus decision. b. decision rule. c. alternative. d. analysis.

ANSWER: b 5. A unique, nonroutine, important decision requiring conscious thinking, information gathering, and careful consideration of alternatives is a(n) a. programmed decision. b. operational decision. c. nonprogrammed decision. d. decision rule.

ANSWER: c

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6. After much deliberation among the chancellor and executive staff, your university now requires proof of influenza and COVID vaccinations for admission to in-person classes for all students and educators. This is an example of a. a programmed decision. b. a nonprogrammed decision. c. analysis paralysis. d. decision criteria.

ANSWER: b 7. Strategic decisions refer to a. those that make the organization run on a daily basis. b. how things get done. c. those setting the course of the organization. d. those that occur frequently enough to have an automated response.

ANSWER: c 8. Who is most responsible for making strategic decisions? a. managers b. engineers c. low-level employees d. CEOs, executives, boards of directors ANSWER: d 9. An example of a question requiring a strategic decision is a. How often should I communicate with my new coworkers? b. How should we market the new product line? c. Should we downsize our organization? d. All of the above.

ANSWER: c 10. A decision which centers on how things get done is a(n) a. tactical decision. b. strategic decision. c. operational decision. d. programmed decision.

ANSWER: a 11. Tactical decisions are generally made by a. CEOs. b. engineers. c. managers. d. boards of directors.

ANSWER: c 12. Which question would require a tactical decision in response?

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a. Should we take over our competitor? b. How should we market the new product line? c. What should I say to the customers about our return policy? d. How will I balance my master’s degree workload with my work assignments?

ANSWER: b 13. Operational decisions refer to a. those things that employees do each day to make the organization run. b. problems that might happen in the future. c. those that set the course of the organization. d. issues that occur frequently enough to develop an automated response to them.

ANSWER: a 14. Operational decisions are typically made by a. managers. b. top management teams. c. employees throughout the organization. d. CEOs. ANSWER: c 15. An example of a question requiring an operational decision in response is a. Should we consider a merger with our biggest competitor? b. How often do I go back to the stockroom to get additional products for display? c. Should we develop a new corporate structure? d. Which advertising firm should we choose for our fall advertising campaign?

ANSWER: b 16. Declan, a marketing manager for an entertainment venue, will be listening to the advertising pitches from the final four firms today as he chooses the television ad campaign for the fall season. Declan is making a(n) a. programmed decision. b. strategic decision. c. tactical decision. d. operational decision.

ANSWER: c 17. Davina and Viv are members of the board of directors at Beta Corporation. They are giving very serious consideration to voting to merge their company with Zeta Company for enhanced efficiency, effectiveness, and competitive advantage. Davina and Viv are making a(n) a. strategic decision. b. tactical decision. c. operational decision. d. programmed decision.

ANSWER: a

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18. Britt is a shoe salesperson with a major department store chain that is currently running a “secret coupon sale.” The program allows salespeople to randomly award a savings coupon to any shopper of the salesperson’s choice. Who the salesperson chooses to award the coupon to is a(n) a. strategic decision. b. tactical decision. c. operational decision. d. programmed decision.

ANSWER: c 19. A series of steps that decision makers should consider if their goal is to maximize their outcome and make the best choice describes a. the bounded rationality model. b. the rational decision-making model. c. the intuitive decision-making model. d. the creative decision-making model.

ANSWER: b 20. What is the first step in the rational decision-making model? a. Establish decision criteria. b. Identify the problem. c. Weigh decision criteria. d. Generate alternatives.

ANSWER: b 21. The board of directors of Galaxy Industries must select a new CEO for the firm. As they anticipate having many qualified candidates to choose from, the board’s goal is to make an optimum choice for company future growth. Which decision-making model should the board utilize? a. the bounded rationality model of decision making b. the intuitive decision-making model c. the creative decision-making model d. the rational decision-making model ANSWER: d 22. The availability of too much information, leading to more and more time being spent on gathering information and thinking about it, but resulting in no decisions being made, is a. satisficing. b. analysis paralysis. c. wildstorming. d. anchoring.

ANSWER: b 23. When the goal of decision making is to make a generally satisfactory decision within reasonable time constraints, you should probably utilize a. the rational decision-making model. b. the intuitive decision-making model. c. the bounded rationality decision-making model.

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d. the creative decision-making model.

ANSWER: c 24. The bounded rationality model should be used to make decisions when a. the minimum criteria are clear. b. the decision is important. c. there is critical time pressure. d. new solutions need to be generated.

ANSWER: a 25. What does research indicate about the practice of satisficing? a. It is used more often by experts than novices. b. It is generally effective in making good decisions. c. It takes less time but leads to higher costs. d. None of the above.

ANSWER: b 26. The decision-making process where decisions are arrived at without conscious reasoning, arguing that experts make decisions by scanning the environment for cues to recognize patterns is a. the creative decision-making model. b. the bounded rationality model. c. the intuitive decision-making model. d. the rational decision-making model.

ANSWER: c 27. Marisol is a paramedic for the county ambulance service. Yesterday there was a terrible accident when a bus carrying senior citizens to a casino was struck by a small truck. Fifteen of the bus riders were killed and 25 injured. As Marisol arrived on the scene, she quickly made decisions as to which victims needed immediate care and who could wait. Marisol likely used what decision-making model in conducting triage? a. bounded rationality model b. creative decision-making model c. intuitive decision-making model d. rational decision-making model ANSWER: c 28. Experts make decisions in the intuitive decision-making models based on a. climate. b. mood. c. analysis. d. experience.

ANSWER: d 29. If you do not have enough relevant expertise to make a decision, you should avoid using a. bounded rationality decision-making model. b. rational decision-making model. c. creative decision-making process.

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d. intuitive decision-making model.

ANSWER: d 30. The creative decision-making process begins with a. verifying the feasibility of the solution. b. identifying the problem. c. gathering information and experience. d. setting the problem aside.

ANSWER: b 31. The incubation step in the creative decision-making process refers to a. the step where the decision maker consciously thinks about the problem. b. the step where the decision maker sets the problem aside and does not consciously think of it. c. the step where the decision maker gains insight into the problem and has a “Eureka!” moment. d. the step where the decision maker verifies the feasibility of the solution and implements the decision.

ANSWER: b 32. The three factors that researchers focus on to evaluate the level of creativity in the decision-making process are a. diversity, flexibility, innovation. b. agility, fluency, originality. c. fluency, flexibility, originality. d. immersion, incubation, illumination.

ANSWER: c 33. The creativity level evaluation factor of fluency refers to a. how different ideas are from one another. b. the number of ideas a person can generate. c. how unique someone’s ideas are. d. the set number of ideas a group must reach.

ANSWER: b 34. What is the final phase in the creative decision-making model? a. application b. incubation c. illumination d. immersion ANSWER: a 35. What personality traits indicate a tendency to be more creative? a. agreeableness and openness to experience b. conscientiousness and extraversion c. neuroticism and extraversion d. openness to experience and less conscientious

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ANSWER: d 36. Experts propose that creativity occurs as a result of the interaction between personality traits, attributes, and a. situational context. b. power. c. luck. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: a 37. To enhance organizational creativity, a manager might consider focusing on a. team composition. b. employee pay. c. technical training. d. use of attainable goals.

ANSWER: a 38. The SCAMPER framework offers options to spur creativity using what strategies? a. submit, change, adjust, manipulate b. substitute, combine, adapt, modify c. sweeten, combine, adjust, magnify d. submit, change, alter, minimize ANSWER: b 39. Jenn must decide which of two job offers she is going to choose. She begins her process by listing the key criteria she is looking for in a job including salary level, location, promotional opportunities, and so on. She then takes each job offer letter and carefully goes through each line assessing the offer in relationship to the criteria she established. Jenn is using what type of decision making? a. rational decision-making b. creative decision-making c. intuitive decision-making d. programmed decision-making ANSWER: a 40. Anita is looking for a summer job when she’s home from college. She decides to take the first job that pays minimum wage and will allow her to fit in a family vacation and a dental procedure. Anita is using the a. rational decision-making model. b. bounded rationality decision-making model. c. intuitive decision-making model. d. creative decision-making model.

ANSWER: b 41. Overconfidence bias occurs when a. the information that is more readily available is viewed as more likely to happen. b. information aligns with individual’s deeply held beliefs. c. individuals rely too heavily on a single piece of information.

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d. individuals overestimate their ability to predict future events.

ANSWER: d 42. Sara’s laptop started causing her problems. It was taking a long time to boot up and froze unexpectedly a number of times. Now the laptop has shut down completely and she cannot get it started. One of the group members on her project said to Sara, “You should have gone for help when it started acting up, now you’re delaying all of us.” This scenario is an example of what type of decision-making trap? a. framing bias b. anchoring c. hindsight bias d. sampling bias ANSWER: c 43. A family purchases a house and continually spends money repairing one part of it after another. A number of times, they should have sold the house, but they kept thinking that if they did just one more thing, the house would be great. This situation demonstrates what decision-making trap? a. anchoring b. escalation of commitment c. framing bias d. overconfidence bias ANSWER: b 44. The tendency for decision makers to be influenced by the way that a situation or problem is presented is a. escalation of commitment. b. anchoring. c. overconfidence bias. d. framing bias.

ANSWER: d 45. Escalation of commitment bias often occurs because a. decision makers do not want to admit they were wrong. b. deeply held beliefs are challenging to discount. c. persistence pays off. d. decision makers lack personal pride.

ANSWER: a 46. Which statement is accurate regarding judgments about correlation and causality bias? a. A correlation rules out other potential causes. b. A correlation between two variables is not evidence for causality. c. Temporal order indicates causality. d. An association between two variables is evidence for causality.

ANSWER: b 47. Selecting a new computer based on a low price without analyzing what software, warranties, and peripherals come with it is an example of a. availability bias.

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b. framing bias. c. escalation of commitment bias. d. anchoring and adjustment bias.

ANSWER: d 48. Indira overhears a professor in the school of business saying that having a finance degree guarantees you a job after graduation. She also notices some job postings for finance majors at the career center. Even though she is currently studying communications, Indira decides to change her major to finance immediately without doing any additional research. Indira’s decision seems to be affected by a. anchoring and adjustment bias. b. framing bias. c. escalation of commitment bias. d. availability bias.

ANSWER: d 49. Bettie’s Bakery sold out of their muffins every day last week. Bettie thought that it was because she changed the recipe slightly and now her customers loved the muffins. She decides to triple her muffin output for the following week. However, muffin sales fall because the temporary increase was related to purchases for Teacher Appreciation Week. Bettie experienced a(n) a. framing bias. b. correlation and causality bias. c. availability bias. d. overcooking bias.

ANSWER: b 50. One advantage of group decision making over individual decision is a. the decision is more creative. b. accountability is easier to determine. c. the decision-making process is more efficient. d. the implementation of the decision is more difficult.

ANSWER: a 51. The tendency to avoid a critical evaluation of ideas that the group favors is called a. anchoring. b. groupthink. c. analysis paralysis. d. wildstorming.

ANSWER: b 52. Which statement is true about group decision making? a. Group decision making is faster than individual decision making. b. Groups often perform lower than the best individual in the group. c. Groups make it easier to achieve accountability for decisions. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: b

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53. What is a symptom of groupthink? a. collective rationalizations b. low optimism c. direct time pressure d. illusions of diversity ANSWER: a 54. The decision-making technique designed to help with group decision making by ensuring that all members participate fully is a. majority rule. b. consensus. c. the Delphi Technique. d. the nominal group technique.

ANSWER: d 55. The Delphi Technique is a decision-making process used to a. generate best practices from experts. b. increase ethical awareness. c. guarantee representational fairness. d. gain support for a plan of action.

ANSWER: a 56. Which statement regarding group decision support systems (GDSS) is accurate? a. GDSS makes employees eager to share information. b. GDSS helps simplify the decision process. c. GDSS improves the output of group collaboration through higher information sharing. d. GDSS avoids all possibilities of information overload.

ANSWER: c 57. Managers should consider which guideline in determining whether a decision is ethical? a. Will I feel better or worse about myself after I make this decision? b. Does the decision break any organizational rules? c. Is the decision fair? d. All of the above.

ANSWER: d 58. What decision-making model encourages managers to consider cost-benefit analysis as a major factor, sometimes at the expense of ethical impact? a. bounded rationality model b. rational decision-making model c. intuition decision-making model d. creative decision-making model ANSWER: b 59. Decision makers must consider what critical factors in their use of big data?

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a. storage, searching, and sharing b. fairness, authority, equality, and loyalty c. fact, opinion, and judgment d. veracity, variety, velocity, and volume ANSWER: d 60. Which statement regarding decision-making styles in other cultures is correct? a. Chinese managers value quicker decision making more than their American counterparts. b. American decision makers value reflective decision and conflict de-escalation more than Chinese decision makers. c. Dutch managers tend to complete consensus decision making much more than their Japanese counterparts. d. Japanese managers like to build consensus within a group before the decision is made.

ANSWER: d Completion 61. ___________ is making choices among alternative courses of action including inaction.

ANSWER: Decision making 62. __________ decisions occur frequently and have automated responses developed for them, while ___________ decisions are unique and require conscious thinking, information gathering, and careful alternative generation.

ANSWER: Programmed; nonprogrammed 63. ___________ decisions set the course for an organization and are made by CEOs, while ___________ decisions are those that make the organization run and are made daily by employees.

ANSWER: Strategic; operational 64. When a decision is important and outcomes need to be maximized, use the ___________ to make your decision.

ANSWER: rational decision-making model 65. The ___________ decision-making model recognizes limitations of the decision-making process and thus the tendency of individuals to satisfice in their decisions.

ANSWER: bounded rationality 66. When time pressures arise, as when a life-or-death situation occurs, and an individual has expertise in the area, the ___________ is often used to make decisions.

ANSWER: intuitive decision-making model 67. SCAMPER is a checklist tool designed to help managers enhance and improve organizational ___________.

ANSWER: creativity 68. The phase of the creative decision-making process where the individual sets the problem aside and does not consciously think about it for a while is the ___________ phase.

ANSWER: incubation

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69. The group process of generating ideas that follow a set of guidelines including no criticism of ideas during the process, the notion that no idea is too crazy, and that builds on other ideas is ___________.

ANSWER: brainstorming 70. A firm boasts that its employees are clearly very satisfied because this year’s sales figures are up. This demonstrates ___________ bias.

ANSWER: correlation and causality 71. When individuals generalize from a single source of information rather than through large randomly drawn samples, ___________ bias can occur.

ANSWER: sampling 72. One of the symptoms of ___________ is the illusion of invulnerability which, when shared by all team members, creates excessive optimism and encourages them to take extreme risks.

ANSWER: groupthink 73. The ___________ is a group process using written responses to a series of questionnaires instead of physically bringing individuals together to make a decision.

ANSWER: Delphi Technique 74. ___________ refers to a simple decision-making rule in which each member of the group is given a single vote and the option receiving the greatest number of votes is selected.

ANSWER: Majority rule 75. A ___________ is a diagram where answers to yes or no questions lead decision makers to address additional questions until they reach the end of the tree.

ANSWER: decision tree 76. In Japan, nemawashi refers to building ___________ within a group before a decision is made.

ANSWER: consensus Essay 77. What is the difference between a programmed and a nonprogrammed decision? Give an example of each.

ANSWER: A programmed decision is a decision that occurs frequently enough that an automated response is developed for it. A nonprogrammed decision is one that is unique and requires conscious thinking, information gathering, and careful consideration of alternatives.

An example of a programmed decision is when a restaurant automatically re-orders napkins and placemats for use in the restaurant when the stock of those items gets to, for example, two cases in the stockroom. A nonprogrammed decision might be when a firm faces a crisis situation as when Quaker Oats was accused of using racial caricatures in its “Aunt Jemima” branded products.

78. Using the rational decision-making model as a template, discuss a recent decision you made. Be sure to describe each step.

ANSWER: Student answers will vary.

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Step one: Identify the problem.

Choosing a college to attend.

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Step two: Establish decision criteria.

Offers specific major, cost parameters, distance from home.

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Step three: Weigh decision criteria.

Prioritize each of the criteria, say the cost is the most important factor.

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Step four: Generate alternatives.

List the schools you are considering.

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Step five: Evaluate alternatives.

What is the positive and negative of each school?

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Step six: Choose the best alternative.

Pick a specific school.

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Step seven: Implement the decision.

Apply to the school of your choice and gain admission.

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Step eight: Evaluate the decision.

After a semester, do you still like it?

79. Compare the rational decision-making and the bounded rationality models. Explain when each model should be utilized in decision making.

ANSWER: The rational decision-making model is a series of steps that decision makers consider if their goal is to maximize the quality of their outcomes. The optimal outcome desired creates a need to thoroughly examine alternatives. This model should be utilized under three conditions: • • •

Information on alternatives can be gathered and quantified.

The decision is important.

You are trying to maximize your outcome.

The bounded rationality model recognizes the limitations of searching for alternatives and suggests that decision makers often satisfice, accepting the first alternative that meets minimum criteria because an exhaustive search is not possible. This model should be utilized under three conditions: • • •

The minimum criteria are clear.

You do not have or you are not willing to invest much time to make the decision.

You are not trying to maximize your outcome.

80. Differentiate between the intuitive and creative decision-making processes. Explain when each model should be utilized in decision making.

ANSWER: The intuitive decision-making process is one where experts scan the environment for cues and once a pattern is discerned, choose a course of action based upon their experience. This model should be utilized under three conditions:

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Goals are unclear.

There is time pressure and analysis paralysis would be costly.

You have experience with the problem.

The creative decision-making process is one where problem identification is followed by immersion, incubation, and then illumination, and finally verification and application. The creative process is characterized by the incubation period where the problem is set aside for a time period and illumination is the “Eureka!” moment when the decision is made. This model should be utilized under three conditions: • • •

Solutions to the problem are not clear.

New solutions need to be generated.

You have time to immerse yourself in the issues.

81. Risa is a new manager at XYZ Corporation. She is most interested in enhancing the creativity of her department. What recommendations would you suggest to her?

ANSWER: Four areas can be the focus of creativity enhancement efforts. They are team composition, team process, leadership, and culture.

Team composition might be enhanced if you diversify the team, change group membership or use leaderless teams to allow teams freedom to create without trying to please anyone up front.

Team process can be enhanced by engaging in brainstorming, using the nominal group technique, or using analogies to envision problems and solutions.

Leadership: Challenge teams so they are engaged, not overwhelmed; let people decide how to achieve goals, support and celebrate creativity, and role model creative behavior.

Culture: institute organizational memory; build a physical space conducive to creativity; and incorporate creative behavior into the performance appraisal process.

82. You volunteer at the local animal shelter. There are far too many abandoned pets in the shelter right now.

Sometimes animals must share a space, and it’s hard for the staff and volunteers to keep up with daily care.

You decide to apply creative decision making to generate workable ideas to increase the number of animals adopted from the shelter this month. Describe how the steps in the creative decision-making process help you approach this problem. Use specific examples to illustrate your response.

ANSWER: Creativity is the generation of new, imaginative ideas. The five steps to creative decision making are similar to rational decision making. In this scenario, you might proceed as follows: • •

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Problem identification: You identify the problem as the need to increase animal adoptions by 20 percent. This will alleviate current overcrowding, and lead to better care for all animals in the shelter.

Immersion: Thinking about the problem consciously and gathering information is the next step. A key to success in creative decision making is having or acquiring expertise in the area being studied. You decide to interview the shelter’s director, and to spend next weekend at the shelter to see the adoption process in action.

Incubation: During incubation, the individual sets the problem aside and does not think about it for a while. After your interview and spending time at the shelter, you think about the issues over the course of the next week.

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Illumination: This is the insight moment when the solution becomes apparent. In this case, you have an “aha” moment when you see local Girl Scouts selling cookies near the grocery store, realizing that you need to take adoptable pets into the community. You think about having an adoption pet fair at the library next weekend. All ages of people visit the library, and you believe the site of lovable pets available for adoption will increase interest among local residents.

Verification and Application: You receive permission from the shelter director to stage a trial adoption pet fair, with the help of three other volunteers. The library director also agrees to help and schedules a weekend for a trial run. You select five dogs and three cats for your first pet fair, and gather all the necessary supplies. At the end of the first day, you have received commitments from families to adopt five animals. The pet fair is successful and will be repeated next month.

83. Describe two decision-making biases and how to avoid them.

ANSWER: There are ten decision-making biases: Anchoring and adjustment bias is the tendency for individuals to rely too heavily on a single piece of information. To avoid this bias, the individual needs to gather sufficient data for assessment.

Availability bias occurs when more readily available information is incorrectly seen as also be more likely. To avoid this bias, we must be critical and selective in the information we assess.

Confirmation bias occurs when a certain idea or belief is held. Because we believe it, we focus and weigh information more heavily when it aligns with our beliefs and stop gathering information once we’ve found evidence in support of our beliefs. To avoid this bias, we must seek information which does not align with our beliefs.

Escalation of commitment is when individuals continue on a failing course of action after information reveals it may be a poor path to follow. The approach to dealing with this is to assess the scenario and make a clear decision recognizing that sometimes the best choice is to admit you failed.

Framing bias is the tendency for decision makers to be influenced by the way a situation or problem is presented. Avoidance of this bias occurs through simple awareness of the problem and a close monitoring of actions to discern when it occurs.

The fundamental attribution error occurs when good outcomes are attributed to personal characteristics, but undesirable outcomes are attributed to external circumstances. Avoidance of this bias requires closer monitoring.

Hindsight bias is the opposite of overconfidence bias as it looks backward in time where mistakes seem obvious after they have occurred. It is important that decision makers remember this bias when judging other people’s actions.

Judgment about correlation and causality bias occurs when individuals make inaccurate attributions about the causality of events. We must consider correlation, temporal order, and ruling out other potential causes. The third issue can be the most difficult to isolate.

Overconfidence bias is when individuals overestimate their ability to predict future events. To avoid this trap, stop and be realistic in your judgments.

Sampling bias occurs when individuals draw broad conclusions based on small sets of observations instead of more reliable sources of information derived from large, randomly drawn samples. A

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common example of sampling bias is using one’s own personal experience and treating it like the common experience: this must be avoided by decision makers.

84. You work for a company that was a subcontractor for the Challenger space shuttle. Cognizant of the groupthink that made the fateful launch decision, you want to ensure that such a condition does not exist in your firm. The company executives have decided that a seminar is necessary to define groupthink, its causes, and provide recommendations do avoid it in the future. You are in charge of that seminar. What general insight could you provide?

ANSWER: Groupthink is a group pressure phenomenon that increases the risk of the group’s making flawed decisions leading to a reduction in mental efficiency, reality testing, and moral judgment.

The eight symptoms of groupthink are: illusion of invulnerability; collective rationalization; unquestioned belief in the group’s inherent morality; stereotyped views of outgroups; direct pressure; self-censorship; illusions of unanimity; and the emergence of self-appointed mindguards.

To avoid groupthink, groups should: discuss the symptoms of groupthink; assign a rotating devil’s advocate; invite experts who are not part of core decision making; encourage a culture of difference; and debate the ethical implications of the decisions.

Individuals should: monitor personal behavior for signs of groupthink; check for self-censorship; carefully avoid mindguard behavior; avoid putting pressure on other group members to conform; and remind members of the ground rules for avoiding groupthink.

Finally, group leaders should break the group into subgroups from time to time; have more than one group work on the same problem; remain impartial and refrain from stating preferences at the outset of decisions; set a tone of encouraging critical evaluations throughout deliberations; and create an anonymous feedback channel through which all group members can contribute if desired.

85. Briefly describe the steps in the nominal group technique. What advantages does it provide in group decision making?

ANSWER: The nominal group technique (NGT) was developed to ensure all members in a group participate fully.

The first step is when each member of the group silently and independently writes down ideas. Step two is going around the room in order gathering all the ideas that were generated. This continues until all the ideas have been shared. The third step is a discussion that focuses on each of the ideas generated. Finally, the group votes on their favorite ideas.

Following the four-step NGT helps to ensure that all members participate fully, and it avoids group decision-making problems such as groupthink.

86. Caleb is the owner of a small business. He is deciding whether to expand his operation to a second location or remain only at his original site. He decides to perform a “premortem” on the project and has asked your assistance in making sure he covers all appropriate steps in the process. What recommendations would you provide him?

ANSWER: A premortem is designed to imagine what could go wrong and avoid it before spending any money or having to change course.

The five steps to be followed are: •

A planning team creates a plan outline for the issue.

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• • • •

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Either the existing group or a unique group imagines the issue at its worst. The group writes down all the reasons they can imagine that led to this failure.

The list of ideas is reviewed for additional ideas.

The issues are sorted into categories in a search for themes.

The plan should then be revised to account for the flaws detected.

87. What are the basic questions that should be asked to assess the ethics of a decision?

ANSWER: Student answers may vary, but should include most of the following: • • • • •

Is this decision fair?

Will I feel better or worse about myself after I make the decision?

Does this decision break any organizational rules?

Does this decision break any laws?

How would I feel if this decision were broadcast on the news?

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Chapter 12 - Leading at Work Multiple Choice 1. Leaders who hold a position of authority and utilize the power that comes from their position as well as personal power to influence others are called a. informal leaders. b. servant leaders. c. formal leaders. d. charismatic leaders.

ANSWER: c 2. The trait approach to leadership examines which factor? a. environmental influences b. leadership behaviors c. personality characteristics d. employee-leader relationships ANSWER: c 3. What is an example of a Big 5 Personality trait? a. self-esteem b. extraversion c. intelligence d. assertiveness ANSWER: b 4. The correlation between high intelligence and leadership is a. strong; the higher the IQ the better the leader. b. moderate; having a leader who is smarter, but not too smart, works best. c. unimportant; leaders do not need to be smart, just extraverted. d. low; leaders do not need to be smart, just conscientious.

ANSWER: b 5. Walker can control his emotions in multiple situations and always demonstrates empathy for others; he is internally motivated and has many admirable social skills. Walker has a. high mental ability. b. high emotional intelligence. c. low mental ability. d. low emotional intelligence.

ANSWER: b 6. Being organized, systematic, punctual, achievement-oriented, and dependable are characteristics of which personality trait? a. openness b. agreeableness c. extraversion d. conscientiousness

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ANSWER: d 7. Because they are sometimes seen as submissive, ___________ people who are good natured, modest, and avoid conflict are less likely to be perceived as leaders. a. neurotic b. conscientious c. agreeable d. extraverted ANSWER: c 8. Whitney is part of an organizational behavior project group. Her group members chose her as the leader of the group because she is always on task, on time for meetings, sets achievable goals, and is willing to assist anyone who needs help. Whitney is a. agreeable. b. extraverted. c. conscientious. d. open.

ANSWER: c 9. The Big 5 personality trait ___________ has the strongest relationship to both leader emergence and leader effectiveness. a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. extraversion d. openness ANSWER: c 10. The degree to which a person is at peace with themselves and has an overall positive assessment of their self worth and capabilities is also known as a. agreeableness. b. self-efficacy. c. self-esteem. d. integrity.

ANSWER: c 11. Which statement regarding self-esteem and leadership is accurate? a. Leaders with high self-esteem support their subordinates more than leaders with lower self-esteem. b. Research shows a strong relationship between weight and being viewed as a leader, which may be accounted for by self-esteem. c. Those with high self-esteem have low integrity which may affect the image perceived by followers. d. Leaders with high self-esteem punish their subordinates less effectively, than do leaders with lower self-esteem.

ANSWER: a

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12. Darius finds out that his manager has been cheating employees out of pay bonuses. Darius’ manager seems to lack a. integrity. b. agreeableness. c. extraversion. d. neuroticism.

ANSWER: a 13. A key trait associated with leadership is a. high sensitivity. b. high introversion. c. high agreeableness. d. high integrity.

ANSWER: d 14. Which statement regarding traits and leadership is accurate? a. All traits are equally effective in predicting leadership potential across organizations. b. In large, bureaucratic organizations, leader traits have more impact on behavior than in a small, entrepreneurial organization. c. Traits have an equal impact on leader emergence and leader effectiveness. d. Recognition of leader traits can help select appropriate managers for organizations.

ANSWER: d 15. The most successful way to apply the trait approach in organizations is to a. pick the trait the organization lacks and hire for that. b. ignore people’s traits because they are unimportant to leadership. c. identify the conditions under which different traits are needed. d. rank the traits and then rank the person.

ANSWER: c 16. The two broad categories of leader behaviors are a. task-oriented and authority-oriented structures. b. productivity-oriented and initiating structures. c. employee-oriented and authority-oriented structures. d. task-oriented and people-oriented structures.

ANSWER: d 17. Task-oriented behaviors are also called a. authoritarian structure. b. consideration. c. initiating structure. d. neuroticism.

ANSWER: c 18. People-oriented behaviors include a. providing employees with instructions. b. treating employees with respect.

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c. structuring employee roles. d. planning for increased employee performance.

ANSWER: b 19. Research findings of leader behaviors suggest a. when leaders are task oriented, employees are more satisfied. b. task oriented behaviors tend to be more effective in large companies. c. extremely high levels of leader task-oriented behaviors may lead to burnout in employees. d. employees who work under people-oriented leaders are more productive.

ANSWER: c 20. When leaders make decisions alone without involving employees in the decision-making process, they are using a. laissez-faire decision making. b. participative decision making c. autocratic decision making. d. democratic decision making.

ANSWER: c 21. Nelson is the manager of a marketing department in a medium sized company. Nelson has six employees reporting to him. In deciding the goals for the department for next quarter, he schedules a meeting for employee input and direction. Nelson uses a(n) ___________ style of decision making in the marketing department. a. autocratic b. democratic c. laissez-faire d. supportive ANSWER: b 22. Research on decision-making styles finds a. laissez-faire decision making is positively related to employee satisfaction. b. democratic decision-making leads to higher employee productivity. c. employees often care more about the overall participation of the organizational climate than involvement in every single decision. d. scientists favor autocratic decision making over democratic decision making.

ANSWER: c 23. Behavioral approaches to leadership behaviors fail to consider a. the environment. b. the leader’s decision-making style. c. initiating structures and employee consideration. d. leadership effectiveness.

ANSWER: a 24. Contingency approaches to leadership focus on identifying a. universal leadership traits. b. situational differences and appropriate approaches. c. initiating structures and employee consideration.

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d. leaders’ decision-making styles.

ANSWER: b 25. Research on Fiedler’s Contingency Theory indicates a. predictions about where high LPC leadership will be effective are supported more than those where low LPC leadership is effective. b. there is full scientific support for the predictions of Fiedler’s theory. c. Fiedler’s theory is important because it recognizes the importance of the leadership context. d. Fiedler’s theory is a useful framework for thinking about which personality traits can predict leadership.

ANSWER: c 26. If you dislike working with a person and do not care for them on a personal level either, a. you would have a low least preferred coworker score. b. you would have a high least preferred coworker score. c. you would have a midrange least preferred coworker score. d. you would not have a least preferred coworker score.

ANSWER: a 27. Under Fielder’s contingency theory, an LPC (least preferred coworker) score is similar to a. an expectancy. b. a task structure. c. a decision-making style. d. a personality trait.

ANSWER: d 28. In situations of medium favorableness, a. low LPC leaders are most effective. b. high LPC leaders are most effective. c. medium LPC leaders are most effective. d. either low or high LPC leaders will be most effective.

ANSWER: b 29. Situational favorableness includes which condition? a. leader-leader relations b. position power c. motivation level d. people structure ANSWER: b 30. Paolo is a department manager in a family-owned retail store. He and his subordinates clash over scheduling and other procedural aspects of the job almost daily. While having the title of manager, Paolo makes few decisions for the department, instead implementing those relayed by the owner. The sales associate positions as well as his managerial position do not have specific duties tied to them; instead everyone is supposed to do “whatever it takes.” According to Fiedler’s contingency theory, the situation would best be described as a. favorable. b. medium favorable

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c. unfavorable. d. controlled.

ANSWER: c 31. If leader-subordinate relations are good, position power is low, and task structure is high, the situation would be categorized as a. favorable. b. medium favorable. c. unfavorable. d. controlled.

ANSWER: a 32. If leader-subordinate relations are poor, position power is low, and task structure is low, the situation would be categorized as a. favorable. b. medium favorable. c. unfavorable. d. controlled.

ANSWER: c 33. Situational Leadership Theory indicates that the optimum leadership style is dependent upon a. leader commitment. b. leader personality. c. employee openness. d. employee readiness.

ANSWER: d 34. Blanchard and Hersey’s Situational Leadership Theory describes employees in the earliest stages of development as a. high in task competence, but with low commitment. b. highly committed, but with low task competence. c. low in both commitment and task competence. d. high in both commitment and task competence.

ANSWER: b 35. Expectancy theory suggests individuals are motivated when a. effort leads to high performance. b. rewards lead to high performance. c. rewards are expected. d. low effort will be rewarded.

ANSWER: a 36. Which statement is accurate regarding House’s path-goal theory of leadership? a. The role of the leader in the path-goal theory is to match leadership style with employee needs. b. Each leadership style identified in the path-goal theory is effective depending on the trait(s) of the leader. c. House’s path-goal theory of motivation is based upon the equity theory of motivation.

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d. Leaders can create high performing employees by making sure employee effort leads to performance and that performance is rewarded with desired rewards.

ANSWER: d 37. Willie is a manager in a large manufacturing firm. He sets a tight production schedule every day and makes certain each employee knows what job they are performing that day and how to perform it. Willie appears to have a ___________ leadership style. a. directive b. supportive c. participative d. achievement-oriented ANSWER: a 38. Nina makes it a point to talk to her subordinates every day about what is going on in their personal lives.

She always congratulates them when they share successes and has a kind word and “a shoulder to cry on” if necessary when things are not going well. Nina has a ___________ leadership style. a. directive b. supportive c. participative d. achievement-oriented ANSWER: b 39. Under the path-goal theory framework, leaders who ensure their employees take part in decision making have a(n) ___________ leadership style. a. achievement-oriented b. supportive c. directive d. participative ANSWER: d 40. An achievement-oriented leader tries to a. make sure employees are involved in decision making. b. provide explicit directions for employees. c. provide emotional support to employees. d. set goals for employees and encourage them to reach their goals.

ANSWER: d 41. In which scenario would directive leadership be most effective? a. when tasks are stressful b. when employees have high abilities c. when tasks are boring and repetitive d. when employees have an external locus of control ANSWER: d 42. The information system department’s employees are highly skilled individuals who possess an internal locus of control. The firm is looking to hire a manager for the department to replace the retiring manager. What type of leadership style would likely be most effective with this group? a. supportive

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b. achievement-oriented c. participative d. directive ANSWER: c 43. Which statement regarding research on House’s path-goal theory is correct? a. House’s theory suggests that the leader’s style is fixed and the environment changes. b. The theory has been fully tested and verified. c. The theory’s greatest contribution is the importance of the leader’s ability to change styles depending on the circumstances. d. House’s theory is based upon Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.

ANSWER: c 44. Vroom and Yetton’s leadership decision tree helps leaders a. choose a static leadership style. b. develop employee competence and commitment. c. focus on their own positive leadership traits. d. determine how much involvement they should seek in making decisions.

ANSWER: d 45. According to the leadership decision tree, a leader who makes a decision alone using available information has a(n) a. autocratic decision-making style. b. consultative decision-making style. c. group decision-making style. d. laissez-faire decision-making style.

ANSWER: a 46. Heather meets with her subordinates on a regular basis to share concerns and information with the group.

She takes their feedback but makes decisions on her own. According to the leadership decision tree, Heather has a(n) ___________ decision-making style. a. laissez-faire b. consultative c. group d. autocratic ANSWER: b 47. ___________ leaders lead employees by aligning employee goals with the leader’s goals. a. Directive b. Transactional c. Transformational d. Autocratic ANSWER: c 48. Which trait is a tool that transformational leaders use to influence employees and create commitment to the company goals? a. contingent rewards b. management by exception

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c. intellectual stimulation d. religious inspiration ANSWER: c 49. Malcolm is the manager of his department. After performance evaluations, he gives those who have met their goals for the year a pay raise. He gives his employees their assignments and leaves them to do their work but does monitor them so that if he notices a potential problem, it gets resolved before causing difficulties.

What contemporary leadership style is Malcolm demonstrating? a. servant leadership b. transformational leadership c. transactional leadership d. laissez-faire leadership ANSWER: c 50. The key factor in the effectiveness of transformational leadership is a. trust. b. creativeness. c. extraversion. d. charisma.

ANSWER: a 51. Research shows a connection between which of these personality traits and charisma? a. extraversion, conscientiousness, cognitive abilities b. creativity, cognitive abilities, intelligence c. agreeableness, extraversion, creativity d. openness, agreeableness, extraversion ANSWER: a 52. Being charismatic is a. something that you are born with and cannot develop. b. the only thing that matters as a leader. c. something that can be increased through training. d. always a positive influence on an organization.

ANSWER: c 53. Which element of transformational leadership can have a dark side, as in the case of Jeff Skilling of Enron Corporation? a. trust b. individualized consideration c. intellectual stimulation d. charisma ANSWER: d 54. What is a true statement about leader-member exchange (LMX) theory? a. High LMX relationships involve an active dislike between the leader and member. b. In high LMX relationships, the leader has a trust-based relationship with the member. c. In low LMX relationships, both leader and member go above and beyond their job descriptions to assist the other party in succeeding.

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d. In high LMX relationships, the leader does their job and the member does theirs.

ANSWER: b 55. Which factor most contributes to building a high-quality leader-member exchange? a. leader fairness b. member support c. employee job satisfaction d. personality differences ANSWER: a 56. High-quality LMX is related to a. increased job satisfaction. b. higher turnover. c. reduced organizational commitment. d. lower citizenship behaviors.

ANSWER: a 57. What can employees do to improve the leader-employee relationship? a. Decrease empowerment demands. b. Seek feedback to improve their performance. c. Increase organizational expectations. d. Resist engaging in political behaviors.

ANSWER: b 58. The servant leadership approach defines a leader as one who a. serves the needs of others. b. stays true to themselves. c. aligns aligning employee goals with the leader’s goals. d. increases the performance of the group.

ANSWER: a 59. Servant leadership has an explicit focus on a. ethics. b. organizational change. c. productivity. d. authoritarianism.

ANSWER: a 60. An organizational outcome of servant leadership is a. decreased employee empowerment. b. higher employee turnover. c. organizational homogeneity. d. higher levels of customer service.

ANSWER: d 61. Authentic leadership describes effective leaders as those who a. serve the needs of others.

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b. stay true to themselves. c. ensure employees are involved in decision making. d. encourages employees to reach their goals.

ANSWER: b 62. What is a key characteristic of authentic leaders? a. They are afraid to act the way they are. b. They prioritize employee needs. c. They have no set priorities. d. They have high levels of personal integrity.

ANSWER: d 63. Abusive leaders are costly to organizations because of a. lost productivity. b. increased absenteeism. c. increased health care costs. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: d 64. For abusive leaders, research has found a correlation between their negative behavior with employees and their a. ability (or lack thereof) to regulate their emotions. b. inability to get attention. c. ability to get control of the situation. d. desire to establish trust.

ANSWER: a 65. Which statement is accurate with respect to gender differences in leadership style? a. Women are more relationally oriented, while men are task-oriented. b. Women tend to display more democratic and less autocratic styles as compared to men. c. Men display higher levels of transformational behaviors. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: b 66. As the analysis of leadership characteristics as evolved, the concept of what makes a strong leader has moved from a. abusive to all knowing and powerful. b. all powerful and knowing to humble and open to feedback. c. super-smart to average intelligence. d. tall and handsome to average and of moderate attractiveness.

ANSWER: b 67. What did the Milgram experiments teach us about leadership? a. Individuals use an innate compass in ethical decision making. b. Subordinates pay little attention to the ethics of those in authority. c. Individuals in positions of authority can influence unethical decision making. d. Ethical behaviors are culturally derived and supported.

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ANSWER: c 68. Which statement regarding leadership and ethics is accurate? a. People in positions of authority are influential in driving others to ethical or unethical behaviors. b. Ethics is a matter of organizational culture rather than leadership style. c. The contingency theories of leadership are explicit in noting the important role that ethics play in effective leadership. d. Ethical behaviors are a central component to transactional leadership theory.

ANSWER: a 69. Given the differences in cultures, modern leaders must a. focus on individualistic and performance-oriented leadership behaviors. b. use charisma to overcome cultural differences. c. focus on decisiveness as the only universal leadership trait. d. exhibit sensitivity to those differences and the ability to adapt their leadership styles.

ANSWER: d 70. According to the GLOBE project, what leadership traits appear to be universally desirable? a. intelligence, decisiveness, and charisma b. honesty, trustworthiness and fairness c. democratic decision making, empowerment, supportiveness d. None of the above.

ANSWER: b Completion 71. ___________ is the act of influencing others to work toward a goal.

ANSWER: Leadership 72. Those who demonstrate leadership by influencing others, but are without a formal position, are ____________ leaders.

ANSWER: informal 73. The trait of ___________ is being organized, systematic, punctual, achievement-oriented, and dependable.

It is positively related to leadership.

ANSWER: conscientiousness 74. Researchers at the Ohio State University and the University of Michigan found that there are two broad categories of behaviors related to leadership; they are ___________ leader behaviors and ____________ leader behaviors.

ANSWER: task-oriented (initiating structure); people-oriented (consideration) 75. When leaders display a ___________ decision-making style, they leave employees alone to make decisions.

ANSWER: laissez-faire 76. A ___________ score from Fiedler’s contingency theory means that an individual has a people-oriented personality and can separate their liking of a person from their ability to work with that person.

ANSWER: high LPC

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77. The three conditions creating Fiedler’s situational favorableness are leader-subordinate relations, position power, and ___________.

ANSWER: task structure 78. Kenneth Blanchard and Paul Hersey’s Situational Leadership Theory is an example of a ___________ approach to leadership.

ANSWER: contingency 79. Leaders who provide specific directions for employees, treat them well, care about them on a personal level and are encouraging, display the ____________ leadership style described by path-goal theory.

ANSWER: directive 80. A ___________ is a decision-making tool developed by Vroom and Yetton to help leaders determine how much involvement they should seek in making decisions.

ANSWER: decision tree 81. Those leaders who lead employees by aligning employee goals with the leader’s goals are ___________ leaders.

ANSWER: transformational 82. An appealing magnetic personality is also called _____________.

ANSWER: charisma 83. ___________ is the key factor in making transformational leadership more effective.

ANSWER: Trust 84. In a ___________ LMX relationship, the leader forms a trust-based relationship with the members.

ANSWER: high-quality 85. When a leader puts the employees first, they are exhibiting ___________ leadership.

ANSWER: servant Essay 86. Choose any two of the leadership theories presented in this chapter, define them and then compare and contrast the theories.

ANSWER: There are four sets of theories in this chapter: Trait theories, behavioral theories, contingency theories, and contemporary theories. Students can choose in the trait theory category to discuss specific traits like the Big 5 personality traits, mental and emotional intelligence, self-esteem, and integrity. Their discussions should center on the relationship between the individual trait and either leadership emergence or leadership effectiveness. The intent behind the trait theories was to define a limited number of attributes that could define a leader or the success of a leader. The major limitation of the trait theories is that they do not take into account the situation in which the leadership takes place.

A second group of theories that can serve as a comparison point are the behavioral theories. These theories look at what leaders actually do. The Ohio State and University of Michigan studies pointed out that leaders tend to demonstrate task- or people-oriented behaviors, and students can discuss the relationship between those behaviors and leadership effectiveness. Further, students can discuss the style of leader decision making and its relationship to leader effectiveness. The value of the behavioral theories is that they indicate the need to understand the context of leadership, and so the third category, contingency theory, might be a point of comparison for the writer.

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Contingency theories presented include Fiedler’s and House’s theories. Fiedler’s work assumed the leader style to be fixed and only the environment can be changed. House took a different track underscoring the importance of varying one’s style depending on the situation.

The final group of theories are contemporary theories including those of transformational, transactional, leader-member exchange, servant, and authentic leadership. Each of these new theories focuses on a different aspect of leadership, but all suggest that effective leaders need to change their style based upon the demands of the situation as well as using their own values and needs.

87. Differentiate between mental intelligence and emotional intelligence. What impact does either have on leadership in an organization?

ANSWER: Mental intelligence is represented by IQ and obviously reflects abilities such as mathematical and verbal comprehension. People who have high mental abilities are more likely to be viewed as leaders in their environment. However, intelligence is a positive but modest predictor of leadership, and when actual intelligence is measured with paper-and-pencil tests, its relationship to leadership is a bit weaker compared to when intelligence is defined as the perceived intelligence of a leader.

Research concludes having a leader somewhat smarter than followers is a good thing, whereas a wider gap may not be desirable.

Emotional intelligence is a concept popularized by Daniel Goleman and refers to individuals’ ability to control their own emotions, understand other people’s emotions, internal motivations, and their social skills.

Goleman suggests that mental ability gets the individual to the leader level but once there, emotional intelligence takes over, as everyone at the leader level has general intelligence.

88. Describe the ties between each of the Big 5 personality traits and leadership.

ANSWER: Extraversion is the Big 5 trait with the strongest relationship between both leader emergence and leader effectiveness.

Conscientious individuals are organized, take initiative and demonstrate persistence, so this factor also is tied to leader emergence, and then effectiveness in that position.

Openness is the trait representing originality and creativity and tends to lead to leader emergence, then effectiveness.

Agreeable people are modest, good-natured, and avoid conflict but are less likely to be perceived as leaders.

Clearly, neuroticism, which is being anxious, irritable, temperamental, and moody, is not a characteristic tied to leader emergence or effectiveness.

89. What contribution to building effective leaders does the trait theory offer?

ANSWER: The trait theories attempt to create a limited set of attributes that can define a leader or the success of the leader. While the number of traits is large and the theory does not account for the situation a leader faces, the notion of understanding leader attributes is a good way to begin building such strengths in your organization or your personal repertoire of skills. The more likely individuals are to demonstrate these attributes, the more likely they are to be successful and to make their organizations successful.

Despite problems in trait approaches, these findings can still be useful to managers and companies.

For example, knowing about leader traits helps organizations select the right people for positions of

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responsibility. The key to benefiting from the findings of trait researchers is to be aware that not all traits are equally effective in predicting leadership potential across all circumstances.

90. Consider what you’ve learned about behavioral approaches to leadership. Provide an example of a taskoriented leader you are familiar with, and a people-oriented leader. What did each leader contribute to the organization? Which style do you prefer to work for?

ANSWER: Student answers and examples will vary.

Task-oriented leader behaviors involve structuring the roles of subordinates, providing them with instructions, and behaving in ways that will increase the performance of the group. Task-oriented behaviors are directives given to employees to get things done and to ensure that organizational goals are met.

People-oriented leader behaviors include showing concern for employee feelings and treating employees with respect. People-oriented leaders genuinely care about the well-being of their employees, and they demonstrate their concern in their actions and decisions.

Both types of leader behaviors are beneficial to organizations, but for different reasons. For example, when leaders demonstrate people-oriented behaviors, employees tend to be more satisfied and react more positively. However, when leaders are task oriented, productivity tends to be a bit higher. Moreover, the situation in which these behaviors are demonstrated seems to matter.

In small companies, task-oriented behaviors were found to be more effective than in large companies. There is also some evidence that very high levels of leader task-oriented behaviors may cause burnout with employees.

Student preferences will vary regarding which type of leader they prefer to work for.

91. Describe each of the four leadership styles recognized by path-goal theory. Discuss under what circumstances each style is most effective.

ANSWER: The theory identifies four leadership styles. Each of these styles can be effective, depending on the characteristics of employees (such as their ability level, preferences, locus of control, and achievement motivation) and characteristics of the work environment (such as the level of role ambiguity, the degree of stress present in the environment, and the degree to which the tasks are unpleasant).

Directive leaders are those who provide specific directions to employees. They lead by clarifying role expectations, setting schedules, and making sure employees how what to do. This style works best when there is high role ambiguity for employees, where employees have low abilities and external loci of control.

Supportive leaders provide emotional support to employees. They treat employees well, treat people on a personal level and are encouraging. This style is most effective when the tasks are boring and repetitive and stressful.

The participative leadership style makes certain employees are involved in making important decisions. The style is most effective when employees have high-level abilities, when the decision is relevant to them and when they have a high locus of control.

The achievement-oriented leader sets goals for employees and encourages them to reach those goals. The circumstances under which this style works most effectively are when employees have high abilities and a high achievement motivation.

92. Compare and contrast transformational and transactional leadership.

ANSWER: Transformational leadership is where managers lead by aligning employee goals with the leader’s own. To do so, the leader uses charisma, individualized consideration, intellectual stimulation, and

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inspirational motivation.

In contrast, transactional leaders ensure that employees demonstrate the right behaviors because the leader provides resources in exchange. These resources include contingent rewards.

Transactional managers often use active management by exception as a tool to success.

Both of these leadership approaches are part of the contemporary body of work on leadership. Both have shown to lead to effectiveness, but the circumstances where that occurs obviously differs.

Transformational leadership is viewed as more effective because of the trust established in the relationship.

93. You oversee a new group of managers. All are qualified, but some lack the charisma to effectively reach employees in your organization. How might you train these individuals with the goal of increasing their overall charisma?

ANSWER: There is some argument as to whether charisma is an inherent characteristic and untrainable. If you do believe you can train charisma, you might want to consider: • • • • •

Teaching individuals how to create a vision that you understand and are immersed in and then demonstrate how to share that with others so they too pursue it with you.

This vision must be tied to history in the department or organization, so the notion of teaching the history or culture of the firm needs to be addressed in training.

Body language recognition is very important, so a session of training could be devoted to the study of body language and its implications.

Charisma involves confidence. Do self-esteem assessments during a training session and develop techniques to enhance self-esteem. Additional training and mentoring can also help.

Charisma also involves having novel approaches to problems, so training could focus on developing out-of-the-box thinking by using different brainstorming techniques including wildstorming.

94. Hanna wants to improve her relationship with her manager. Right now, she feels like she really does not know him well. She recognizes that part of the issue is that she works in her office with the door closed and opens it to meet with people only on an “as needed” basis. What are some recommendations you can provide?

ANSWER: Having a good relationship with her manager may substantially increase Hanna’s job satisfaction, improve her ability to communicate with her manager, and help her be successful at work. Some specific strategies include: • • • • •

Create interaction opportunities with your manager. Hanna should not stay in her office. Get out, ask questions.

Recognize that people are more attracted to others like them. Hanna needs to establish and convey the similarities she and her manager share so they have a common starting point.

Tactfully utilize impression management techniques. For example, compliment your manager on work-related issues.

Be a reliable employee. Trust is key to building and sustaining relationships.

Be aware that relationships develop early. Hanna created some issues for herself by staying in her office. She is working from behind, but using the right techniques, can catch up.

95. What implications do the Milgram experiments have for the concept of leadership?

ANSWER: The Milgram experiments, where subjects were directed by an individual in a lab coat to administer electric shocks to other people when those individuals gave a wrong answer to questions, demonstrates that people in positions of authority are influential in driving others to ethical or unethical behaviors.

Wdocs Chapter 12 - Leading at Work

TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer)

In the Milgram situation, the individuals giving the INCORRECT answers were actually actors, and the electric shocks subjects thought they were delivering were not real. Yet, the actors pretended the shocks were occurring. About two-thirds of the subjects continued to administer the shocks to INCORRECT answers even when those shocks reached “dangerous” levels.

These experiments showed us that organizations must keep in mind that people in positions of authority are influential in driving others to ethical or unethical behaviors. This has important implications for organizational responsibilities regarding leadership.

Wdocs TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer) Chapter 13 - Power, Influence, and Politics at Work

Chapter 13 - Power, Influence, and Politics at Work Multiple Choice: 1. The ability to influence the behavior of others to get what you want is a. charisma. b. power. c. conformity. d. pressure.

ANSWER: b 2. Which statement regarding power distribution research is accurate? a. Power distribution is visible in organizations. b. Individuals tend to rank themselves lower than their coworkers did. c. In comparing influence rankings given to managers, there was general agreement on the top five but no agreement on the bottom five. d. Power distribution tends to be invisible in educational institutions and government.

ANSWER: a 3. What is a positive consequence of power? a. Powerful leadership indicates high worker satisfaction. b. Powerful CEOs can align an organization to achieve goals. c. Power leads to worker conformity. d. Power often leads to corruption and the destruction of companies.

ANSWER: b 4. People’s tendencies to behave consistently with social norms is referred to as a. culture. b. alignment. c. conformity. d. dependency.

ANSWER: c 5. What did the Milgram experiment on conformity to authority reveal to researchers? a. Participants conformed because they were being financially rewarded. b. The researcher/experimenter’s gender and attractiveness was important in obtaining group compliance. c. Participants conformed because they were afraid of experiencing pain (shocks) themselves. d. The researcher/experimenter’s directiveness and legitimacy was important in obtaining group compliance.

ANSWER: d 6. What was a key factor in the experimental design of the Milgram conformity study? a. the use of confederates b. the use of real-life authority figures c. the use of actual shocks and associated pain d. the use of participant reward

Wdocs TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer) Chapter 13 - Power, Influence, and Politics at Work

ANSWER: a 7. Which statement regarding the Asch studies is accurate? a. Most participants in the Asch groups were unaware of the correct answer. b. A dissenting minority influenced the nature of response given by participants. c. Conformity with an incorrect answer was attributed to the perception that some members of the group were more intelligent. d. A dissenting minority response caused the participants to give the correct answer only if that minority also gave the right answer.

ANSWER: b 8. A meta-analysis using the Asch research design indicates that a. there is little difference in conformity in westernized versus non-westernized countries. b. the level of global conformity has been on a steep decline since the 1950s. c. there are higher levels of conformity in individualistic cultures than in collectivistic. d. the level of conformity in the United States has been declining for decades.

ANSWER: d 9. The strategic contingencies model suggests a. the more difficult it is finding a substitute, the less power held by the person with the substitute. b. the more unique your resource, the more power you will have. c. the more vital the resources you control, the less power you hold. d. the more dependent an individual is on another, the less power each possesses.

ANSWER: b 10. Cole is the only individual in his organization who speaks Spanish fluently. After his company recently purchased a firm located in Mexico, the CEO told Cole how valuable he is to the firm’s future. This scenario is an example of what factor in the strategic contingency model? a. scarcity b. dependent c. independence d. substitutability ANSWER: a 11. The value of the resource is its a. scarcity. b. substitutability. c. importance. d. dependency.

ANSWER: c 12. Deena works at a small brewery. She is the only person trained in changing out the labels on the automatic bottling machine. The brewery has high dependency on Deena because she has low a. scarcity. b. substitutability. c. importance. d. sustainability.

ANSWER: b

Wdocs TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer) Chapter 13 - Power, Influence, and Politics at Work

13. Which statement is accurate regarding the strategic contingency model? a. If the resources you control are vital to the organization, you will be viewed as a threat to the others and will have less job security. b. If there is a clear substitute that exists, the level of power held is greater. c. The more difficult something is to obtain, the less value it tends to have. d. The more dependent you are on another, the less power you have.

ANSWER: d 14. Managers at a pharmaceutical research and development firm have checkbooks that they carry around with them as they monitor subordinates. If a manager notes outstanding behavior by a subordinate, they can write the high-level performer a check on the spot. This is an example of the manager’s ___________ power. a. referent b. reward c. expert d. information ANSWER: b 15. Another firm made a substantial monetary offer to Henry to leave his current design job and go to work there. The CEO, on hearing some complaints about the size of Henry’s pay package, noted that “Henry is one of the few people in the industry who really understands what the customer wants and can design it into the product.” Henry has ___________ power. a. expert b. legitimate c. referent d. legitimate ANSWER: a 16. Professor Lamb is a fabulous speaker—funny, topical, and very knowledgeable about her subject. Her classes are always filled as soon as they open for scheduling and the waiting list to get into them is long.

Students never miss class and they highly recommend her to their friends. Professor Lamb has ___________ power. a. coercive b. legitimate c. referent d. reward ANSWER: c 17. When negotiating a deal on the purchase of a new automobile, Bradley had manufacturing cost data from his neighbor who worked for the car manufacturer. Bradley got himself a good deal on his purchase due to his ___________ power in the negotiation. a. referent b. legitimate c. information d. coercive ANSWER: c 18. Access to specific knowledge or skills is ___________ power. a. legitimate

Wdocs TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer) Chapter 13 - Power, Influence, and Politics at Work

b. information c. referent d. reward ANSWER: b 19. The ability to grant an increase in pay, a perk, or an attractive job assignment is ___________ power. a. referent b. information c. expert d. reward ANSWER: d 20. Coercive power is the ability to a. take something away or punish someone for noncompliance. b. influence due to the possession of knowledge or skill. c. access private or specific information. d. exercise one’s organizational role or position.

ANSWER: a 21. Power that comes from one’s organizational role or position is a. expert power. b. referent power. c. legitimate power. d. information power.

ANSWER: c 22. The ability to attract others, win their admiration, and hold them spellbound is a. power. b. influence. c. charisma. d. commitment.

ANSWER: c 23. Experts agree that when it comes to influence, it is best to a. rely on coercion. b. develop several tactics. c. utilize charisma instead of logic. d. avoid political pressure.

ANSWER: b 24. Someone who is using logic to influence uses a. reward or punishment. b. referent power. c. principles of reasoning. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: c

Wdocs TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer) Chapter 13 - Power, Influence, and Politics at Work

25. When a target agrees to a request and actively supports it, the target’s response is a. resistance. b. compliance. c. commitment. d. conformity.

ANSWER: c 26. The organization president spoke to members noting that the organization needed monetary donations immediately to reach its goals. She cited reasons why the money was needed and urged everyone to call their friends and family this week for donations. John dislikes asking anyone for money and decided not to make the calls. John is responding to the president’s influence tactics with a. resistance. b. conformity. c. compliance. d. commitment.

ANSWER: a 27. When the influence target does not wish to comply with the request and either passively or actively repels the influence attempt, they are exhibiting a. conformity. b. compliance. c. commitment. d. resistance.

ANSWER: d 28. The school district negotiator notes during contract negotiations with the teachers’ union that the district cannot afford a 5% wage increase. The district negotiator presents the current expenditure budget, the projected tax revenue and state contributions, and the falling community tax base as evidence of the lack of extra money for increases. The district negotiator is attempting to convince the teachers’ negotiator to pull back on demands using a. inspirational appeals. b. pressure. c. rational persuasion. d. personal appeals.

ANSWER: c 29. The Teach for America representative faced the college students and asked, “Do you want to make a difference in this world? Do you want to give back for all the good things you have had happen to you over your lifetime? Do you want to help a child have a chance, a chance like yours? Then, can you consider giving just nine months of your life to make a difference? Consider joining me and thousands of your peers in leading this country in a new direction by taking part in Teach for America.” The representative is using the ___________ influence tactic. a. rational persuasion b. personal appeal c. inspirational appeal d. pressure ANSWER: c 30. A seemingly logical argument can be flawed because of logical fallacies, which are

Wdocs TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer) Chapter 13 - Power, Influence, and Politics at Work

a. common errors that undermine an argument’s logic. b. reminders of previous discussions. c. impersonations of real events. d. radical personality imperfections.

ANSWER: a 31. “All I ever see are Chevrolets, so everyone must be buying a Chevy” is an example of a(n) a. red herring argument. b. bandwagon argument. c. circular reasoning argument. d. moral equivalence argument.

ANSWER: c 32. A logical fallacy that consists of insulting or attacking someone rather than their arguments is a(n) a. red herring argument. b. moral equivalence argument. c. bandwagon argument. d. ad hominem argument.

ANSWER: d 33. Using different forms of making others feel good about themselves is the influence tactic of a. exchange. b. ingratiation. c. pressure. d. personal appeal.

ANSWER: b 34. The use of client lists by advertisers and businesses to promote goods and services is an example of the ___________ influence tactic. a. pressure b. personal appeal c. exchange d. coalition ANSWER: d 35. Many weight loss products advertised on television feature doctors who note the safety and effectiveness of the product. This approach to convincing viewers to purchase the product is an example of the ___________ influence tactic. a. liking b. personal appeal c. pressure d. legitimating ANSWER: d 36. Getting a person to enter an employee assistance program for a substance abuse problem as a condition of keeping their job is an example of using the ___________ influence tactic. a. legitimating b. pressure

Wdocs TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer) Chapter 13 - Power, Influence, and Politics at Work

c. personal appeal d. consultation ANSWER: b 37. Which statement is accurate regarding impression management? a. Whether you are actively managing your image or not, people are forming impressions of you. b. Impression management has a minimal effect on your professional image or expectations. c. At work, the most effective approach to impression management is to be the person you want to be. d. You cannot actively shape the way people perceive you.

ANSWER: a 38. Your posture, hand gestures, and eye contact are all examples of what aspect of impression management? a. other-focused b. self-focused c. nonverbal d. personality ANSWER: c 39. Which statement best represents the self-focused strategy of impression management? a. “I like your tattoo.” b. “Maybe we could grab lunch?” c. “I am a hard worker.” d. “You must really be an expert in this.”

ANSWER: c 40. The ability to influence those in positions lower than yours is a. upward influence. b. downward influence. c. peer influence. d. diagonal influence.

ANSWER: b 41. Research on the direction of influence indicates a. as organization complexity grows, the need for upward influence decreases. b. the better the quality of the relationship between boss and subordinate. c. bosses who like their employees are more likely to interpret resistance as a problem. d. individuals at all levels of the organization need to be able to make and influence decisions.

ANSWER: d 42. Political behaviors in organizations include a. negotiating. b. alliance building. c. resolving conflicting interests. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: d 43. What statement is true regarding organizational politics?

Wdocs TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer) Chapter 13 - Power, Influence, and Politics at Work

a. Organizational politics are informal, unofficial, and behind-the-scene efforts to influence, increase power, or achieve objectives. b. Politics arise in an organization when there is a surplus of resources. c. Effective politics is all about winning at all costs. d. Organizational politics are universally bad for organizations.

ANSWER: a 44. If employees think that their organization is overly driven by politics, they a. have lower job satisfaction but are no less committed. b. perform worse on their jobs. c. demonstrate higher levels of job performance. d. increase their job commitment to compensate.

ANSWER: b 45. What is an individual antecedent of political behavior? a. political skill b. role ambiguity c. availability of resources d. tenure ANSWER: a 46. What is an organizational antecedent of political behavior? a. expectations of success b. limited resources c. political skill d. internal locus of control ANSWER: b 47. Within an organization, democratic decision making tends to lead to a. increased expectations of success. b. greater scarcity of resources. c. more political behavior. d. less job commitment.

ANSWER: c 48. Social network analysis is used to assess a. informal connections between people. b. political influence within an organization. c. the formal organizational hierarchy. d. the power structure between departments.

ANSWER: a 49. People who connect one network to another within the company or even across organizations are a. central connectors. b. boundary spanners. c. external specialists. d. peripheral specialists.

Wdocs TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer) Chapter 13 - Power, Influence, and Politics at Work

ANSWER: b 50. Aimee does not work for Core Company, but the human resource director calls her whenever he wants some advice on labor unions. Aimee is classified as a ___________ in a social network analysis. a. central connector b. boundary spanner c. external specialist d. peripheral specialist ANSWER: d 51. ___________ indicate emotional as well as informational support in a social network. a. Strong ties b. Weak ties c. Social ties d. Casual ties ANSWER: a 52. Brokering power in a social network means you a. have a high-level role in a social network. b. can introduce people to each other. c. have expert power in a social network. d. have knowledge that others desire.

ANSWER: b 53. Research indicates which aspect of impression management is increasing in importance in hiring decisions? a. applicants’ cover letters b. written applications c. applicants’ social media presence d. letters of recommendation ANSWER: c 54. In countries with high power distance a. decisions are sometimes based on loyalty, not performance. b. it is unclear who is in power. c. people expect small differences in pay. d. people perceive inequity to be inherently wrong.

ANSWER: a 55. Which statement is accurate regarding culture and perceptions of power? a. A country’s culture determines how people will attempt to influence each other. b. In Mexico, which has a higher power distance dimension than in the United States, lower-level managers can make decisions on behalf of their bosses. c. Rational persuasion is seen as more effective in China than in the United States. d. Chinese managers rated influence tactics like coalitions lower than their U.S. counterparts.

ANSWER: a Completion

Wdocs TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer) Chapter 13 - Power, Influence, and Politics at Work

56. ___________ is the ability to influence the behavior of others to get what you want.

ANSWER: Power 57. People’s tendencies to behave consistently with social norms is known as ___________.

ANSWER: conformity 58. The __________ studies looked at conformity and authority by having participants shock learners when those learners provided an incorrect response.

ANSWER: Milgram 59. When discussing dependency, the concept of ___________ means the uniqueness of a resource.

ANSWER: scarcity 60. Power derived from one’s role in the organization, such as a manager’s ability to assign projects, is ___________ power.

ANSWER: legitimate 61. ___________ power comes from knowledge and skills, such as the long-time employee who knows everything about company history and procedures.

ANSWER: Expert 62. _____________ refers to the principles of reasoning, especially regarding the structure of arguments related to deductive reasoning.

ANSWER: Logic 63. The influence tactic that uses facts, data, and logical arguments is ___________.

ANSWER: rational persuasion 64. The influence tactic where there is give and take such that if someone does something for you, you do something for them is called ___________.

ANSWER: exchange 65. ___________ is actively shaping the way others perceive you such as being concerned about your nonverbal, self-focused behaviors, and other-focused behaviors.

ANSWER: Impression management 66. The ability to influence your boss and others in positions above you is ___________ influence.

ANSWER: upward 67. People’s ability to relate well to others, self-monitor, inspire confidence and trust, and alter their reactions depending upon the situation they are in, is evidence of ___________.

ANSWER: political skill 68. The visual map of relationships between individuals is a ___________.

ANSWER: social network 69. One of the key roles in a social network is a ___________, or people who are linked to the greatest number of people.

ANSWER: central connector

Wdocs TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer) Chapter 13 - Power, Influence, and Politics at Work

70. In a social network analysis, ___________ are characterized by less frequent interaction with less emotional attachment, which are easier to maintain and thus people have more of them.

ANSWER: weak ties Essay 71. What is conformity? Provide an example of an instance where you have conformed.

ANSWER: Conformity is people’s tendencies to behave consistently with social norms. People conform because they want to fit in with and please those around them. On the other hand, conformity can be pretty serious, such as when it results in engaging in unethical behaviors. This might be because you trust the intentions of someone you admire and respect who has power over you.

There is also a tendency to look to others in ambiguous situations, which can lead to conformity.

Student examples will vary.

72. Discuss the two classic studies on conformity referenced in the text and what the implications of their findings are.

ANSWER: The Milgram studies involved an experimenter, study participants, and learners who were actually confederates chosen by the experimenter. The experimenter directed the participants to ask questions of the learners and when the learners were INCORRECT in their answers, to deliver a shock to those learners. The participants delivered shocks for INCORRECT answers long after the “fake” shocks would have been in a damaging range and long after they heard “screams” of pain from the learners. The study showed that people conform to the direction given to them by someone in authority.

In the Asch studies, individual participants were paired with confederates and asked about the length of lines. The confederates were to influence the individuals to say that two lines were the same length when one was clearly shorter than others. Research participants went along with wrong answers about 37% of the time. When a confederate acted as a dissenting minority, and gave the correct answer, the INCORRECT response decreased by 75%. In short, the power of a small dissenting minority was demonstrated.

Both studies demonstrate how authority can produce conformity. Also, conformity is a tendency people gravitate toward, so checks and balances must be put into place to ensure abuse does not occur.

73. Discuss the relationship between dependency and power.

ANSWER: Dependency is directly related to power. To ascertain how dependent you are on someone, you need to assess: • • •

Scarcity or the uniqueness of the resource. The more unique your resource and the more difficult to obtain, the higher the level of power you possess.

Importance or the value of the resource. The more important the resource, the more power you have.

Substitutability or the ability to find another option that works as well. The fewer options available, the more power possessed.

The interaction of the three factors determines the level of dependence and power. Possessing any of the three aspects of a resource could make others depend on you, two would make you extremely needed, and having all three could make you indispensable.

74. Choose a leader from entertainment, business, or government. Describe the kinds of power that leader possesses.

Wdocs TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer) Chapter 13 - Power, Influence, and Politics at Work

ANSWER: Student answers will vary. Answers should reference at least one source of power for the example: legitimate, reward, coercive, expert, information, or referent power.

Example: Barack Obama had legitimate power as the President of the United States. He had coercive power as the Commander-in-Chief of the Military. He could appoint individuals to cabinet positions, which gave him reward power. He had expert power given his years in government, and referent power based upon the size of his victory in the November 2008 election. His regular briefings on national security and domestic economic issues gave him information power.

Jeff Bezos had legitimate power as the CEO of Amazon. (Jeff Bezos plans to step down as Amazon’s CEO in 2021 to focus on other ventures.) While serving as CEO, he had coercive power over his employees through hiring and firing. He had reward power through raises and promotions.

He showed expert power because of his development of the products and systems that grew Amazon, and by insight into what customers want. He had information power acquired during indepth management meetings.

75. The type of influence tactic used varies based on the target. Discuss the three directions of influence, and their role in organizational decision making.

ANSWER: The three directions of influence within an organization are upward, downward, and peer.

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Upward: Upward influence is the ability to influence your boss and others in positions higher than yours. Upward influence may include appealing to a higher authority or citing the firm’s goals as an overarching reason for others to follow your cause. Upward influence can also take the form of an alliance with a higher status person (or with the perception that there is such an alliance).

Downward: Downward influence is the ability to influence employees in a position lower than yours. This is best achieved through an inspiring vision. By articulating a clear vision, you help people see the end goal and move toward it. You often don’t need to specify exactly what needs to be done to get there—people will be able to figure it out on their own. An inspiring vision builds buy-in and gets people moving in the same direction.

Peer: Peer influence takes place between coworkers. To be effective within organizations, peers need to be willing to influence each other without being destructively competitive.

There are times to support each other and times to challenge—the end goal is to create better decisions and results for the organization and to hold each other accountable.

76. Describe a scenario when someone attempted to influence you to do something. Indicate what influence tactics or tactics they used to get you to do what they wanted.

ANSWER: Student answers will vary. Among the influence tactics that can be presented are rational persuasion, inspirational appeals, consultation, ingratiation, personal appeal, exchange, coalition tactics, pressure and legitimating tactics.

One scenario that occurs on college campuses is where students come to speak to juniors and seniors to encourage them to join “Teach for America.” The speakers are usually recent graduates of the particular college who are part of the program and are attempting to recruit their peers to join the program. They use influence tactics centered on inspirational appeals particularly with regard to how the soon-to-be graduates can make a difference in the world before they begin their corporate lives. The inspirational appeals are accompanied by visuals showing how one can aid the country’s troubled youth.

77. Your boss is an avid supporter of Heifer International, a group dedicated to ending hunger by providing livestock to people in the developing world. Next weekend, Heifer International is holding a fundraising walk in your community, and your boss asks everyone for their support. Obviously, this falls outside your work responsibilities, but you feel this is a good cause. You just hate to give up your weekend. Using this scenario, discuss three potential responses to this influence attempt.

Wdocs TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer) Chapter 13 - Power, Influence, and Politics at Work

ANSWER: Student examples will vary. Responses to influence attempts include resistance, compliance, or commitment.

Resistance occurs when the influence target does not wish to comply with the request and either passively or actively repels the influence attempt. In this scenario, you tell your boss you are “busy” in order to dodge the request.

Compliance occurs when the target does not necessarily want to obey, but they do. In this scenario, you don’t really want to participate, but you give your boss $25 toward the cause.

Commitment occurs when the target not only agrees to the request but also actively supports it as well. In this scenario, you sign up for the fundraising walk and get several sponsors. You end up raising $300 and donate it to the charity. You enjoy the process and decide to become a more active volunteer in the future.

78. How can you use impression management in an interviewing situation?

ANSWER: Some key aspects of impression management for an interviewing situation fall under three categories: nonverbal, self-focused, and other-focused.

Nonverbal: When someone looks at you, what does your clothing have to say about you? Do you have body piercings? What will the interviewer, who likely will be of a different generation than you, think?

Self-focused: Promoting and enhancing your skills and positive qualities. What are you saying that conveys positive aspects of yourself? Are you demonstrating behavior that highlights your skills and qualifications?

Other-focused: Do you compliment your interviewer? Do you acknowledge the interviewers’ skills and experiences?

Research has shown that using a combination of these tactics is effective in a job interview setting.

79. Joan supervises a large department made up of several work groups. Unfortunately, members of two groups seem more interested in advancing their own interests than the organization’s goals, to the detriment of the work process. Joan does not want to threaten or coerce her staff but would like to get the department back on track. What advice can you offer her to help overcome this situation?

ANSWER: When members of the organization are more concerned about their own area of operations than doing what’s best for the entire organization, in the long run you may have a problem with turf wars.

Four steps can help overcome this situation: 1. Create a thematic goal. The goal should be something that everyone in the organization can believe in. The goal should be a single goal, qualitative, time-bound, and shared.

2. Create a set of defining objectives. This step should include objectives that everyone agrees will help bring the thematic goal to fruition.

3. Create a set of ongoing standard operating objectives. This process should be done within each area so that the best operating standards are developed. These objectives should also be shared across the organization so everyone is aware of them.

4. Create metrics to measure them. Measuring whether the standard operating objectives get done is a vital step in the process. Rather than someone else pointing out what isn’t working, all the people within the department will have the information necessary to come to this conclusion and correct the problem, because ultimately, everyone in the organization cares about achieving the thematic goal.

Wdocs TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer) Chapter 13 - Power, Influence, and Politics at Work

80. Choose a social network of which you are a part. How would you go about doing a social network analysis?

What would you be looking for in the results of that analysis?

ANSWER: Social networks are visual maps of relationships between individuals.

A social network analysis systematically looks at the structure of social relationships in the group.

Social network analysis shows who communicates with whom, who knows whom, and where gaps in communication or collaboration may exist. For example, you might look at who emails whom in a class group you have. Who calls whom? What do they talk about? How frequently do these actions occur?

After the data is collected, you use SNA software to determine the contacts and membership in the central connectors, boundary spanners, and peripheral specialist categories.

Further, you assess strong ties and weak ties by counting the frequency of ties. Both kinds of ties are important to understand where one might begin to lay the groundwork for a change in the group, for example.

Wdocs Chapter 14 - Organizational Structure and Change at Work

TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer)

Chapter 14 - Organizational Structure and Change at Work Multiple Choice 1. Organizational structure refers to a. the degree to which decision-making authority is concentrated at higher levels in the organization. b. how the work of individuals and teams within an organization is coordinated. c. the degree to which policies, procedures, job descriptions and rules are written and explicitly articulated. d. the number of employees reporting to a single manager.

ANSWER: b 2. The degree to which decision-making authority is concentrated at higher levels in an organization refers to a. formalization. b. centralization. c. mechanization. d. departmentalization.

ANSWER: b 3. What is a benefit of centralized organizational structure? a. greater employee empowerment b. enhanced creativity c. less pressure on higher level managers d. large cost savings in purchasing operations ANSWER: d 4. What is more characteristic of a decentralized organization than a centralized organization? a. employee exhaustion b. positive emotional climate c. more efficient operations d. negative employee attitudes ANSWER: b 5. In an organization, the union contract is explicit as to employee work rules, the tasks each individual employee will perform, the pay each employee will receive, how employees can move from one position to another, and so on. This is an example of a ___________ structure in the organization. a. centralized b. departmentalized c. hierarchical d. formalized ANSWER: d 6. A high degree of formalization can lead to a. less innovation. b. enhanced employee motivation.

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TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer)

c. slower decision making. d. greater employee satisfaction.

ANSWER: a 7. _________ refers to the number of levels within an organization. a. Hierarchy b. Function c. Structure d. Centralization ANSWER: a 8. The company is organized into accounting, marketing, human resource management, and production departments. Employees handle a wide variety of transactions. This firm has a a. divisional structure. b. functional structure. c. product structure. d. matrix structure.

ANSWER: b 9. The company was organized into the detergent area, the dishwashing soap area, and the health and beauty aid area. Marketing and manufacturing take place at each location. This firm has a a. divisional structure. b. functional structure. c. mechanistic structure. d. matrix structure.

ANSWER: a 10. Tall structures provide employees with a. increased role ambiguity. b. greater self-actualization. c. closer supervision. d. less opportunities for advancement.

ANSWER: c 11. Flat structures provide managers with a. more opportunities for close supervision. b. a broader span of control. c. increased job security. d. many advancement opportunities.

ANSWER: b 12. What is an organizational structure where employees work in self-managed teams without a formal manager? a. holacracy b. matrix

Wdocs Chapter 14 - Organizational Structure and Change at Work

TB-Organizational Behavior-Bridging Science & Practice(V4,Bauer)

c. functional d. divisional ANSWER: a 13. Highly formalized and centralized structures similar to bureaucracies are a. mechanistic structures. b. organic structures. c. matrix structures. d. product structures.

ANSWER: a 14. Organic structures can be described as a. highly formalized and centralized. b. a cross between a functional structure and a product structure. c. flexible and decentralized with low levels of formalization. d. focused on maximizing efficiency and minimizing costs.

ANSWER: c 15. Organic structures are conducive to a. strict and unchanging job descriptions. b. decreased employee autonomy. c. maximizing efficiency and minimizing costs. d. entrepreneurial activity and innovation.

ANSWER: d 16. Which statement regarding the matrix structure is correct? a. The matrix structure increases the frequency of informal communication but decreases the frequency of formal communication. b. The matrix structure is a response to uncertainty and dynamism in the environment. c. Matrix structures adhere to the unity of command principle. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: b 17. Matrix organizational structures are characterized by a. unity of command. b. manager independence. c. decreased response time for customer demands. d. increased communication within the organization.

ANSWER: d 18. Unity of command refers to a. a centralized organizational structure. b. the situation in which each employee reports to a single manager. c. the use of companywide goal setting. d. a strong organizational vision from executive leadership.

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ANSWER: b 19. What is good advice for individuals who have multiple bosses in a matrix structured organization? a. Set a schedule for days you work with each manager. b. Keep conflicts you are experiencing to yourself. c. Make sure all managers are familiar with your overall workload. d. Avoid establishing informal or personal relationships with managers.

ANSWER: c 20. An organization that eliminates traditional barriers between departments as well as barriers between the organization and the external environment is a a. matrix organization. b. functional organization. c. boundaryless organization. d. learning organization.

ANSWER: c 21. Learning organizations use which approach to acquire knowledge that they can use to change behavior? a. conducting formal retrospective meetings b. studying customer habits c. benchmarking against best industry practices d. All of the above ANSWER: d 22. Two or more companies that find an area of collaboration and combine their efforts to create a partnership beneficial to both parties describes a a. strategic alliance. b. modular organization. c. matrix organization. d. learning organization.

ANSWER: a 23. An organization where all nonessential functions are outsourced is a a. strategic alliance. b. modular organization. c. matrix organization. d. learning organization.

ANSWER: b 24. Which statement regarding change is accurate? a. Organizational change may involve structure, strategy, policies, procedures, technology, or culture. b. Organizational change has limited forms in modern business. c. Organizational change usually involves technology, not the management of people. d. Organizational change is rarely successful.

ANSWER: a

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25. What is an external force that is creating change for organizations? a. technology b. workforce demographics c. market conditions d. All of the above ANSWER: d 26. The practice of outsourcing as a response to globalization has created what change for organizations? a. a reduction in the reliance on skilled workers b. a need to deal with employee stress c. a need to decentralize the organizational structure d. a need to decrease employee communication channels ANSWER: b 27. Moore’s law references a need for organizational change by highlighting a. rapid developments in technology. b. the growing service economy. c. the impact of small business failures. d. changes in market conditions.

ANSWER: a 28. The COVID-19 pandemic is an example of what external force impacting organizational change? a. organizational growth b. poor performance c. generational events d. workforce demographics ANSWER: c 29. The saying, “Nothing fails like success,” tells us what about organizational change? a. Successful firms find it easier to change than those performing poorly. b. High performance can lead to overconfidence and failure to change. c. Static upper-level management supports organizational level change. d. Successful companies use special practices to maintain the status quo.

ANSWER: b 30. The most negative reaction to a proposed change attempt is a. enthusiastic support. b. active resistance. c. passive resistance. d. compliance.

ANSWER: b 31. Carter is vehemently opposed to the restructuring of jobs in his department. He decides that since no one is listening to what he has to say, he will get their attention by damaging some parts he is making for tomorrow’s shipment. This is an example of what kind of change reaction?

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a. enthusiastic support b. passive resistance c. active resistance d. compliance ANSWER: c 32. Marta has been a part-time faculty member at the university for nine years. She teaches two to three writing courses a semester. Last month, the dean announced that next academic year, part-time instructors would be limited to teaching only two classes during the entire year. Marta is upset and tells her husband, “I may look into teaching at the community college next year but don’t let anyone at the university know.” This is an example of what kind of change reaction? a. passive resistance b. enthusiastic support c. compliance d. active resistance ANSWER: a 33. The new CEO has developed a plan that calls for company reorganization from a functional structure to a matrix one. In a meeting with her subordinates, manager Alecia says, “This will be great. You will still work for this area and me, but you’ll have variety and growth opportunities by reporting to a second manager for various projects. This new structure will help grow this company.” Alecia shows what reaction to this change? a. compliance b. enthusiastic support c. active resistance d. passive resistance ANSWER: b 34. Being disturbed by changes without voicing your opinion is a. active resistance. b. passive resistance. c. enthusiastic support. d. compliance.

ANSWER: b 35. In response to organizational change, compliance refers to a. going along with proposed changes with little enthusiasm. b. the most negative reaction to a proposed change. c. defending the change and encouraging others to offer support. d. being disturbed by changes without voicing those opinions.

ANSWER: a 36. A common reason that people resist change on the job is a. low job satisfaction. b. high self-esteem. c. feelings of certainty. d. fear of failure.

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ANSWER: d 37. Which statement regarding reasons employees resist change is correct? a. People with positive self-concept tend to resist change. b. People resist change even if it is personally beneficial to them. c. People are less likely to resist a change that is big in scope and has far reaching consequences. d. People resist change that negatively impacts their influence and power in the firm.

ANSWER: d 38. Abdul has been downsized. What is a good piece of advice to offer him? a. Polish your resume and job-hunting skills. b. Accept any severance packages without negotiation. c. Cut your losses and eliminate all company ties. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: a 39. What is the first step in Lewin’s model of planned change? a. executing planned changes b. making sure organizational members are ready for and receptive to change c. assessing the need for organizational change d. ensuring that change becomes permanent ANSWER: b 40. What is a stage of Lewin’s model of planned change? a. de-ice b. unfreeze c. assess d. resist ANSWER: b 41. Making sure that organizational members are ready for and receptive to change takes place during which step of the Lewin model? a. refreeze b. unfreeze c. assess d. change ANSWER: b 42. Ensuring that change becomes permanent and the new procedures become the norm represents what stage of Lewin’s model of planned change? a. refreeze b. unfreeze c. assess d. change ANSWER: a

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43. When organizations are getting ready for planned change, it is important to a. take things slowly; do not suggest a crisis is imminent. b. create a vision for change. c. communicate change on a need-to-know basis. d. provide rewards.

ANSWER: b 44. Which statement is accurate regarding the final stage of planned change? a. Employees should be informed of the results of change only after sufficient time has passed since the change effort. b. Declare victory early in making the change and get into a routine. c. Reward all employees regardless of whether they embraced the change effort. d. Change mindsets so change becomes a regular part of corporate culture.

ANSWER: d 45. After the planned change is implemented, it is important to a. reward those who embrace change. b. publicize success. c. build on prior change. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: d 46. Research indicates which type of organizational structure weakens the beneficial effects of ethical leadership? a. wide span of control b. tall structure c. narrow span of control d. matrix structure ANSWER: a 47. What is a more ethical alternative to downsizing? a. early retirement programs b. job sharing c. retraining programs d. All of the above ANSWER: d 48. The system where proposals at lower levels are signed and passed along to higher level management in an effort to build consensus is a. coalition building. b. the learning curve. c. the ringi system. d. strategic alliance.

ANSWER: c 49. Which statement regarding culture and change around the world is correct?

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a. France is relatively comfortable with change because it is low in uncertainty avoidance. b. Companies in the United States use inspirational appeals and rational persuasion as agents for change. c. Firms in Singapore and Hong Kong emphasize decentralization and embrace change. d. Japanese organizations are largely decentralized as evidenced by their ringi system.

ANSWER: b 50. Research has shown that ___________ was a key predictor of employee attitudes and performance during organizational change. a. ethical leadership b. the pace of change c. company size d. financial reward ANSWER: a Completion 51. ___________ refers to how individual work and team work within an organization is coordinated.

ANSWER: Organizational structure 52. The degree to which decision-making authority is concentrated at higher levels in an organization is ___________.

ANSWER: centralization 53. An organization where policies, procedures, job descriptions, and rules are written and explicitly articulated rates high in ____________.

ANSWER: formalization 54. A firm with several layers of management between frontline employees and the top level has a ___________ structure.

ANSWER: tall 55. The number of employees reporting to a single manager represents the manager’s ___________.

ANSWER: span of control 56. A pharmaceutical company with medical devices, consumer products, baby care, and health supplements as its departments is organized as a ___________ structure.

ANSWER: divisional 57. ___________ structures are highly formalized and centralized. They are similar to bureaucracies.

ANSWER: Mechanistic 58. A flexible, decentralized structure with low levels of formalization where communication lines are more fluid is a(n) __________ structure.

ANSWER: organic 59. __________ organizations, which combine functional structures with product structures, violate the unity of command principle.

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ANSWER: Matrix 60. ___________ is the movement of an organization from one state of affairs to another.

ANSWER: Organizational change 61. The most negative reaction to a proposed change attempt is ___________.

ANSWER: active resistance 62. Going along with proposed changes with little enthusiasm is ___________.

ANSWER: compliance 63. The first stage of Lewin’s process of change model is ___________, which ensures that employees are ready for change.

ANSWER: unfreezing 64. ___________ is the final stage of Lewin’s process of change model which ensures that the change becomes permanent.

ANSWER: Refreezing 65. The ___________ is used in Japan to build consensus by having proposals signed at lower levels and passed along to higher level management.

ANSWER: ringi system Essay 66. Choose a firm and discuss the nature of its structure using the four building blocks of structure as your focus. Use examples to illustrate your response.

ANSWER: Student responses will vary. But they should include a discussion of centralization, formalization, departmentalization, and hierarchical levels.

The university is generally centralized with key decisions made in the chancellor/president’s office and implemented at the college level.

The university is highly formalized with explicit policies, rules, and procedures in place to guide all activities from teaching to tuition payment by students. Everyone is covered by a general employee handbook and each school has specific additional rules.

The university is departmentalized into schools based on functional area.

The hierarchical levels include the chancellor/president, vice presidents, deans, full professors, associate professors, assistant professors, etc.

67. Compare and contrast mechanistic and organic structures.

ANSWER: Mechanistic structures resemble a bureaucracy and are highly formalized and centralized.

Communication tends to follow formal channels, and employees are given specific job descriptions delineating their roles and responsibilities. Mechanistic organizations are often rigid and resist change, making them unsuitable for being innovative and taking quick action. They also limit individual autonomy and self-determination, which will likely lead to lower levels of intrinsic motivation on the job.

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Organic structures are flexible and decentralized with low formalization. Communication lines are more fluid and flexible. Employee job descriptions are broader, and employees are asked to perform duties based on the specific needs of the organization at the time as well as their own expertise levels. Organic structures tend to be related to higher levels of job satisfaction on the part of employees. These structures are conducive to entrepreneurial behavior and innovativeness.

68. Andre has just been assigned to a project team after his organization restructured to become a matrix organization. What kinds of advice can you offer to help him deal with multiple bosses?

ANSWER: Having multiple bosses is a difficult adjustment for many individuals because we are accustomed to the unity of command structure. The potential for conflict with the multiple-boss, multipleduty/obligation structure is thus obvious.

Some tips to meet the challenges include: • • • • • •

Do not assume that having multiple bosses is necessarily a bad thing.

Make sure all your managers are familiar with your overall workload.

Make conflicts known to your bosses.

Do not be afraid to request a meeting with all your managers.

Make an effort to establish effective relations with each manager.

Be cognizant of the relationships among managers as well.

With these tips in mind, Andre should be able to make the adjustment.

69. One of the most change-producing events organizations have recently encountered is the COVID-19 pandemic. Consider how the pandemic impacted your daily life. In a brief essay, describe at least three changes precipitated by this generational event at your college or university OR your place of employment.

Discuss how well you believe this institution embraced and instituted change.

ANSWER: Students answers will vary, but should include specific examples of change-related events.

Responses should also assess how well the institution adapted to change.

Generational events test the agility of businesses and other institutions, and show the importance of being adaptable to sudden and long-lasting changes.

Examples of changes which took place at my university included an immediate move to online learning, the halt of the in-person classroom experience, the elimination of dormitory-based food service, and the cancelling of formal campus activities, including religious services, student advisement, campus-wide events (Founder’s Day, homecoming) club meetings, sporting events, concerts, etc.

70. Describe a time when a change occurred in an organization you are familiar with. Were you resistant to the change? Why or why not? How would you classify the reaction to change in this situation?

ANSWER: Student answers will vary. The response should specify the change initiated. Additionally, reaction to the change should be clearly noted with commentary on whether the student was resistant or not.

Example: A manufacturing firm reclassified secretarial jobs. The company suggested the reclassification was necessary because the nature of jobs had changed. In this particular organization, computers had been provided to all members of the firm. Thus, individuals throughout the organization were now able to type their own communication; they did not have to send work to the secretary for typing.

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Further, the organization had purchased a new telephone system so all organization members were able to put calls through to voice mail if they were busy. Again, secretaries had no need to answer phones. The overall result of the reclassification was that many secretarial jobs were placed at a lower level in the pay scale to reflect few duties performed. There was much vocal resistance to the plan, but that active resistance never rose to the level of sabotage.

Clearly, the fact that employees’ livelihoods were impacted made the change a difficult one for the firm to implement. Many secretaries ultimately left the firm without voicing their distress, a type of passive resistance.

71. You have just been downsized from the firm where you have worked for nine years. What can you do to recover?

ANSWER: Though a painful experience, given the economic circumstances and the fact that firms now compete in a global setting, downsizing is a possibility at any time for any level employee. To recover: • • • • • • •

Be calm. Easier said than done, but rational approaches to the incident as well as your next job search are needed at this critical time.

Do not get angry. This is not your fault; it is circumstances. Do not burn bridges because of those circumstances.

Know your rights. Make sure you understand severance packages and continued health insurance coverage.

Think about your ideal job situation. Are you in the right field? Are you in the right size firm?

Now is the time to make any changes that will help you realize your ideal job.

Get help. If the firm is not providing some job search assistance, find organizations that offer the resources you need including assistance on resume writing, job interview skills, etc.

Polish your resume and job-hunting skills.

Do not give up. You will find a job.

72. Describe an organization that you believe needs to undergo a change. Describe the change that is needed and, using Lewin’s model of planned change, discuss how you would implement that change.

ANSWER: Student answers will vary depending on the organization chosen.

Example: A family business owner of a mid-size manufacturing firm is aging and wants to leave the organization for retirement. He has two sons who are both part of the business, and both want to lead the organization. Before choosing a successor, he needs to work on stage one of change, unfreezing. He must prepare all employees of the firm and his external stakeholders for his departure. As founder, he is the face of the firm so he must inform everyone of his retirement plan, while ensuring a smooth transition that will not interrupt their service.

Once he informs the stakeholders of his plans, he must choose a leader. That leader must create a vision for the future. This vision must be communicated to the employees. A sense of urgency must be imparted as transitions cannot drag on but must take place. Change leaders need to be found who will serve as key supporters for the new leader. All management members must support each other and the employees as this change takes place.

Clearly, stage two is the actual change within the firm. As the transition to new leadership occurs, small wins must be publicized so the employees believe that the firm will continue to prosper. Any obstacles to success, such as the need for new organizational procedures or communication modes, must be overcome.

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The final stage of the change, refreezing, will be publicizing the success of the transition and how the firm continues to serve its customers. Employees who have embraced the change and helped the organization to thrive under new leadership should be rewarded.

73. Compare Kotter’s eight-stage process for change to Lewin’s three-stage model of planned change. Where do the stages correspond? What do both models tell us about organizational change?

ANSWER: Student answers will vary. Responses should discuss Kotter’s eight-stage process and note areas corresponding to Lewin’s three stage model.

Example: Kotter’s eight-stage process for change contains the following steps: 1. Create a sense of urgency when introducing the change effort.

2. Build a coalition.

3. Create a vision for change and make change a part of the vision.

4. Communicate a plan for change.

5. Eliminate obstacles to change.

6. Create small wins.

7. Build on change.

8. Make change a part of culture.

The first stage of Lewin’s model (unfreezing) corresponds to the first four stages of Kotter’s model.

These are all steps that an organization can take to ensure that employees are ready for change.

The second stage of Lewin’s model (change) involves implementing the planned changes involving technology, structure, culture, or procedures. This corresponds to stages five and six of Kotter’s model. In the course of actual change, the organization must eliminate obstacles, create small wins and provide support.

The third stage of Lewin’s model (refreezing) focuses on the long-term success of a change effort.

The revised ways of thinking, behaving, and performing should become routine. In Kotter’s model, stages seven and eight urge the organization to build on change and make it part of the culture. In other words, make change permanent.

Both models indicate that if change effort has been successful, change will have become a part of corporate culture. In other words, in addition to the changes in procedures, processes, or technology, the mindset of people will also have changed.

74. Grace has been with her firm for a year and sees a number of procedures that she feels can be changed to enhance efficiency and effectiveness. She has offered those suggestions during group meetings and even through written communication to her boss. No one seems to pay any attention to the suggestions she has offered. How can she get support for her suggested changes?

ANSWER: Grace might consider the following: • • • •

Listen to the naysayers. Grace may believe she has a great idea, but maybe it is not as good as she thinks. Those who dissent may offer suggestions for change that make the original proposal, now a viable one.

Assess whether your change is revolutionary. If Grace’s suggestions are dramatic changes, resistance is to be expected.

Involve those around you in planning the change. Grace should not provide everyone her suggestions but make them a part of building those ideas into a useful plan of action.

Do you have credibility? Grace has ideas for changes but how is she perceived in the organization? Grace must be honest with herself and assess whether others trust her and thus will be willing to follow through on her suggestions.

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Present data to the audience. Grace needs to not just say “this needs to be done”; she needs to provide rationale for that change and why it would be successful.

Appeal to the audience’s ideals. What is the purpose behind the suggestion? Will the suggestion in some manner make the company employees happier? Will it improve the company’s prospects?

Understand the reasons for resistance to change. Grace must understand why employees are ignoring her proposals. Do her suggestions threaten the personal influence of some members? Are employees afraid to fail if this suggestion is implemented?

As Grace reviews these items, she can reshape and reword her suggestions and resubmit them for consideration.

75. What impact does organizational structure have on ethics?

ANSWER: If the organizational structure is too rigid or hierarchical, employees are not provided opportunities to develop moral intelligence. This moral intelligence is key in assessing what is ethical or not in the business setting.

Similarly, when the structure prohibits an employee from making decisions with some degree of autonomy, ethical behaviors fail to develop. Employees do not have the opportunity to experience moral development.

Organizational structure also affects how effective leaders can be in role modeling and enforcing ethical behavior. One study showed that the effects of ethical leadership on employee behaviors such as performance, citizenship, and deviant behaviors depended on the span of control of the leader, with a wide span of control weakening the beneficial effects of ethical leadership.

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Chapter 15 - Organizational Culture at Work Multiple Choice 1. A system of shared assumptions, values, and beliefs that indicates what is appropriate and inappropriate behavior in an organization is a. culture. b. mission. c. goals. d. strategy.

ANSWER: a 2. Organizational culture consists of three levels: a. assumptions, moments, and beliefs. b. beliefs, values, and attitudes. c. hierarchies, rituals, and roles. d. assumptions, artifacts, and values.

ANSWER: d 3. Cultural assumptions lie below the awareness level. They reflect a. beliefs about human nature and reality. b. shared standards and goals. c. common principles. d. feelings about tangible elements of culture.

ANSWER: a 4. The visible and tangible elements of culture are referred to as a. assumptions. b. values. c. artifacts. d. beliefs.

ANSWER: c 5. Shared principles, standards and goals are a. artifacts. b. values. c. beliefs. d. assumptions.

ANSWER: b 6. The corner office, mahogany desks and credenzas, gold name plates on office doors, and reserved parking places are examples of a. cultural beliefs. b. cultural assumptions. c. cultural artifacts. d. cultural values.

ANSWER: c

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7. “People are generally dishonest” is an example of a a. cultural orientation. b. cultural artifact. c. cultural value. d. cultural assumption.

ANSWER: d 8. Security, safety, and social equality are all examples of a. cultural assumptions. b. cultural artifacts. c. cultural values. d. cultural orientations.

ANSWER: c 9. What is the most effective way to control employee behavior in an organization? a. employee handbooks b. online orientations c. strong corporate culture d. water cooler chats ANSWER: c 10. Peyton just started a new job at a new company. The first day there, she observes whether people eat lunch at their desks, if they take timed breaks, and if they leave right at 5 pm. She is trying to understand a. the organizational culture. b. the employee rules. c. the company mission. d. the potential for conflict.

ANSWER: a 11. Firms that are flexible, adaptable, and experiment with new ideas are ___________ firms. a. aggressive b. innovative c. stable d. outcome-oriented ANSWER: b 12. Firms with people-oriented cultures value a. fairness, supportiveness, and respecting individual rights. b. competitiveness and outperforming competitors. c. flexibility, adaptability, and experimenting with new ideas. d. precision and paying attention to details.

ANSWER: a 13. Companies that are collaborative and emphasize cooperation among employees have a(n) ___________ culture. a. people-oriented b. outcome-oriented

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c. detail-oriented d. team-oriented ANSWER: d 14. A culture that emphasizes precision and paying attention to details is a. a service culture. b. an aggressive culture. c. a detail-oriented culture. d. an outcome-oriented culture.

ANSWER: c 15. 3M Corporation provides its employees time each week to generate ideas for new products. This practice is responsible for the development of such products as Post-it® notes. This is evidence of a(n) ___________ culture. a. innovative b. people-centered c. detail oriented d. aggressive ANSWER: a 16. The Internal Revenue Service has many rules and regulations regarding the tax code and the filing of returns. The organization is large and bureaucratic. If an individual has issues with the agency, getting it resolved is a laborious process filled with red tape, and takes an extensive amount of time and patience to resolve. The Internal Revenue Service has a(n) ___________ culture. a. team-oriented b. stable c. people-oriented d. outcome-oriented ANSWER: b 17. NorthStar Manufacturing has a large sign posted in the firm’s parking area that keeps count of the number of days since the last accident in the firm. Currently, the number stands at 150. The count is changed every day in somewhat of a “ceremony,” and when 50 days go by without an accident, the firm provides a free lunch to all employees. Posters throughout the plant remind workers to wear protective clothing including earplugs, safety hats and glasses, and hard-toed shoes. NorthStar works hard to maintain a a. person-oriented culture. b. service culture. c. safety culture. d. stable culture.

ANSWER: c 18. The firm pays above average wages to its employees. Each employee is given at least two weeks of vacation and any time family matters arise, flexible arrangements are made to facilitate the employee. Each Thanksgiving, a turkey is provided to each employee, $100 gift certificates are given for the holidays, and during the summer, the firm pays for each employee and one guest to attend an all-expense-paid day at the local amusement park. This firm seems to be a(n) ___________ company. a. outcome-oriented b. service-oriented c. people-oriented

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d. team-oriented ANSWER: c 19. Clarkson Corporation has its sights clearly set on the Robinson Company. The firm’s employees often talk about “cutting Robinson off at the knees.” Recently, a lawsuit was filed against Clarkson because it raided the middle-level management level of the firm and hired away most of its managers, and its highest-performing sales staff. Clarkson has a(n) ___________ culture. a. service b. outcome-oriented c. stable d. aggressive ANSWER: d 20. Leaders who emphasize achievement, results, and action create a(n) ___________ culture in their organizations. a. outcome-oriented b. team-oriented c. detail-oriented d. people-oriented ANSWER: a 21. Research indicates that employees tend to stay longer in ___________ cultures. a. people-oriented b. outcome-oriented c. detail-oriented d. stable ANSWER: a 22. To ensure all cast members share and embrace the history of Walt Disney World, new hires at the resort must take courses on traditions at Disney. With these classes, the Walt Disney Company is creating a a. weak culture. b. counterculture. c. strong culture. d. subculture.

ANSWER: c 23. What characterizes a strong organizational culture? a. embraces change b. outperforms competitors c. gives daily communication and feedback d. shows consensus among employees on company values ANSWER: d 24. A group with a defined set of values unique to a limited cross-section of the organization is a. a subculture. b. a counterculture. c. a strong culture. d. a service culture.

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ANSWER: a 25. The culture of Altamira Corporation is characterized by participative decision making, innovation, and openness. Most employees feel part of the team. The accounting department, however, is run using authoritarian decision making to ensure efficiency and effectiveness. Accounting manager Stanley Jones believes in tight control to prevent errors. The department has a low error rate and high turnover. The accounting department’s culture could be classified as a a. strong culture. b. weak culture. c. side culture. d. counterculture.

ANSWER: d 26. Shared values and beliefs that are in direct opposition to values of the broader organizational culture represent a a. strong culture. b. weak culture. c. subculture. d. counterculture.

ANSWER: d 27. The seven distinct values in an organizational culture profile include a. innovation. b. outcome-orientation. c. team-orientation. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: d 28. Which statement regarding culture creation is correct? a. An organization’s culture is shaped only by internal environmental factors. b. New organization members are rarely taught the “way of business” in the firm; they simply acquire that knowledge through daily activities. c. When the organization’s way of doing business provides a successful adaptation to environmental challenges, those beliefs and values are retained. d. Studies show the only factor consistently found to determine culture creation in a firm is the founder’s values.

ANSWER: c 29. In addition to founders’ values and preferences, the other important factor in creation of organizational culture is a. management span of control. b. industry characteristics and demands. c. onboarding processes. d. company size.

ANSWER: b 30. If an industry is highly regulated, firms competing within it likely have a. bureaucratic structures. b. dynamic, innovative cultures.

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c. low concern for rules and authority. d. processes characterized by agility and quick action.

ANSWER: a 31. What is part of the culture maintenance phase? a. founder values b. industry demands c. leadership d. founder preferences ANSWER: c 32. In completing a Big 5 personality inventory, Landon was found to have high openness to experience. He would be most likely attracted to an organization like a. Target, where jobs tend to be structured in their duties and responsibilities. b. the IRS, which has a bureaucratic structure and authoritarian decision-making processes. c. Google, with a laid-back, innovative culture. d. General Motors, with a tradition-bound culture experiencing serious viability issues.

ANSWER: c 33. Which statement is accurate regarding the attraction-selection-attrition (ASA) process? a. Individuals self-select the companies for which they choose to work. b. Due to economic circumstances, companies today hire people for fit with job responsibilities and are unconcerned about fit with culture. c. The ASA process aids organizations in maintaining the relative heterogeneity of employee personalities and values. d. Person-organization misfit has little impact on employee turnover.

ANSWER: a 34. The process through which new employees learn the attitudes, knowledge, skills, and behaviors required to function effectively within an organization is a. attraction-selection-attrition. b. organizational socialization. c. mentoring. d. assessment.

ANSWER: b 35. If onboarding activities are successful, employees a. experience greater job satisfaction but are no more likely to remain with the firm than employees who did not onboard. b. feel comfortable in the organization but have no greater belief in their efficacy than those employees who did not onboard. c. feel accepted by their peers but do not necessarily share the values and norms of the larger organization. d. are more confident about their ability to perform in the organization and likely to remain longer with the firm.

ANSWER: d 36. During onboarding activities, successful employees are more likely to

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a. seek feedback. b. try to take over. c. wait and watch. d. None of the above.

ANSWER: a 37. Research on the employee role in onboarding activities indicates that a. feedback-seeking reduces employee adjustment. b. reactive individuals are more successful than proactive individuals. c. active relationship building is particularly important to avoid turnover in those firms lacking systematic onboarding activities. d. active networking often causes employee dissatisfaction.

ANSWER: c 38. Delphine has just accepted a new job. Her career counselor offers her what advice to ensure that Delphine gets “on board” in the new firm quickly? a. Leave every day exactly at quitting time to show you’re punctual and respectful of work-life boundaries. b. Do not worry about impression management. You got the job, so they already think you’re great. c. Do not ask too many questions, as this would reveal your weaknesses. d. Volunteer for high-profile projects and complete them effectively. Show your value to the firm.

ANSWER: d 39. A trusted individual who provides an employee with advice and support regarding career-related matters is a a. coworker. b. trainer. c. mentor. d. counselor.

ANSWER: c 40. What statement reflects the organization’s role in onboarding and orientation activities? a. Mentoring can replace most onboarding programs with the same level of success. b. The speed with which new employees learn the company’s culture is strongly influenced by the support of supervisors and managers. c. Adjustment to a new company is most effective with the “sink or swim” approach to onboarding. d. How companies complete onboarding doesn’t really matter much.

ANSWER: b 41. Research on mentoring suggests a. the mere existence of a program ensures its success. b. mentor and protégé input have little impact on satisfaction or success. c. mentor training enhances program outcomes. d. mentor characteristics are less important than willingness to participate.

ANSWER: c 42. Leaders influence organizational culture through a. role modeling.

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b. leader height. c. leader intelligence. d. press statements.

ANSWER: a 43. Which statement regarding the impact of reward systems on culture shaping is correct? a. A firm that uses a forced choice method of evaluation where a percentage of employees are ranked as excellent, average, and failures, and the failures are threatened with turnover, tends to have a team-oriented culture. b. Firms that reward based on how an employee meets a goal and not just whether the goal is met are likely to have highly aggressive cultures. c. A firm that rewards purely on goal achievement is likely to have an outcome-oriented culture. d. Rewarding, recognizing, and publicizing exceptional service may lead to a competitive atmosphere.

ANSWER: c 44. The visual elements of culture at a company include a. rituals. b. mission statement. c. stories. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: d 45. A statement of purpose describing who a company is and what it does is a. a policy. b. a ritual. c. a mission statement. d. a rule.

ANSWER: c 46. If the company mission statement does not affect employee behavior on a day-to-day basis, it a. has little usefulness in understanding the company’s culture. b. serves as an aspirational goal for employee behavior. c. guides managers, but not frontline employees. d. likely reflects only the founder’s philosophy.

ANSWER: a 47. A well-known Fortune 500 CEO dresses up in a different outlandish costume each year for a presentation during the annual stockholder meeting. The presentation is broadcast to all divisions and offices of the firm and employees enthusiastically view the proceedings. This scenario is an example of what visual element of culture? a. stories b. rituals c. policies d. artifacts ANSWER: b

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48. If the firm has a strict dress code policy in its employee handbook calling for male employees to wear “ties and white shirts, no pastels” and female employees to wear “dark skirts of knee length or below or conservative pantsuits” the culture of the firm is likely a. innovative. b. stable. c. aggressive. d. team-based.

ANSWER: b 49. Alcoa Corporation’s headquarters facility has a minimal number of traditional offices with four walls and a door. The elevators on each floor are located at the ends of the long corridors in out-of-the-way alcoves. An open-air escalator runs in the center of the building. Workers sit in low-walled cubicles in groups of four. Office equipment is centrally located on each floor. This physical layout encourages what kind of culture? a. aggressive b. team-based c. detail-oriented d. outcome-oriented ANSWER: b 50. What strategy can most effectively accelerate employees’ emotional identification with the company? a. telling stories about company history or successes b. using employee handbooks to delineate acceptable and unacceptable behavior c. adding in repetitive activities, like weekly meetings opened with calisthenics d. developing physical layouts which encourage communication ANSWER: a 51. What is the first step in increasing the chances of success in effecting a cultural change? a. creating a sense of urgency b. role modeling c. changing the reward system d. changing key players ANSWER: a 52. Tearing down the executive offices which line the windows of the building and replacing them with meeting rooms and comfortable employee lounges describes which step in effecting cultural change? a. training b. role modeling c. changing the reward system d. creating new stories and symbols ANSWER: d 53. Which statement is accurate regarding steps to effecting successful cultural change? a. Renaming a firm and creating a new logo for it constitutes a cultural change. b. Replacing some staff employees but not the CEO forces the establishment of a new value system in a firm. c. Slowly conveying information to managers on a “need-to-know basis” ensures establishment of a new value system.

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d. Thoughtfully developed, well administered training programs help establish new corporate norms of behavior.

ANSWER: d 54. To generate culture change at an organization, a common practice is to a. fire all current employees. b. remove the CEO and/or other top managers. c. share the emails of previous managers. d. publish salaries of top managers.

ANSWER: b 55. When the CEO publicly admits a mistake, and takes immediate steps to correct the problem, this demonstrates which aspect of organizational culture change? a. developing stories b. training c. creating a sense of urgency d. role modeling ANSWER: d 56. Studies indicate that the most influential factor in creating an ethical culture is a. the reward system. b. the training program. c. leadership. d. the attraction-selection-attrition process.

ANSWER: c 57. What is an indicator of a corrupt organization? a. no one allowed to disagree with leaders b. believing job security is above anything else c. failing to punish unethical actions or reward ethical acts d. All of the above.

ANSWER: d 58. In countries emphasizing harmony and conflict resolution, a(n) ___________ may more easily take root. a. team-oriented culture b. aggressive culture c. innovative culture d. counterculture ANSWER: a Completion 59. The system of shared assumptions, values, and beliefs that indicate what is appropriate and inappropriate behavior in an organization is ___________.

ANSWER: organizational culture 60. Beliefs about human nature and reality that are below awareness level are ___________.

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ANSWER: assumptions 61. The coveted corner office is an example of a cultural ___________.

ANSWER: artifact 62. Cultures that are flexible, adaptable, and experiment with new ideas are ___________ cultures.

ANSWER: innovative 63. ___________ cultures value competitiveness and outperforming competitors; they may not feature corporate social responsibility.

ANSWER: Aggressive 64. ___________ cultures tend to be predictable, rule-oriented, and bureaucratic.

ANSWER: Stable 65. A ___________ culture is one that is shared by organization members and is difficult to alter in business situations like mergers or acquisitions.

ANSWER: strong 66. A ____________ is a form of a ___________ that shares values and beliefs in direct opposition to the values of the larger organization.

ANSWER: counterculture; subculture 67. The most important factors in the creation of an organization’s culture are founder values and preferences as well as ___________.

ANSWER: industry demands 68. ___________ refers to the process where new employees learn the attitudes, knowledge, skills, and behaviors required to function effectively within the organization.

ANSWER: Onboarding 69. A ___________ program indoctrinates new employees to the company culture, as well as introduces them to their new jobs and colleagues.

ANSWER: formal orientation 70. A trusted person who provides an employee with advice and support regarding career-related matters is a __________.

ANSWER: mentor 71. A statement of purpose describing who the company is and what it does is a ___________.

ANSWER: mission statement 72. Repetitive activities within an organization that have symbolic meaning are called __________.

ANSWER: rituals 73. A key step in culture change is ___________, which occurs when employees modify their own beliefs and behaviors to reflect those of the leader.

ANSWER: role modeling Essay 74. What are the three levels of culture? List and describe them, using an example to illustrate each concept.

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ANSWER: Organizational culture can be thought of as consisting of three interrelated levels: assumptions, values, and artifacts.

The deepest level consists of assumptions that are taken for granted. They reflect organizational beliefs about human nature and reality. An example would be when employees are self-motivated and want to accurately complete their work on any given day.

The second layer consists of values. These are shared principles, standards, and goals. For example, a shared value at a small firm might be cost consciousness regarding use of company resources (office supplies and equipment, travel, overtime expenses, etc.). All employees work to utilize resources thoughtfully in their individual roles.

The outermost layer consists of artifacts. These are the visible and tangible elements of culture. An example of artifacts includes the physical environment of the workplace (closed offices vs. open floorplan) and dress code (jeans or suits). The artifacts do not provide a complete picture, but rather, provide clues regarding level of formality, openness, communication, etc.

75. Name three dimensions of culture used in the organizational culture profile (OCP) typology and provide an example which demonstrates each type.

ANSWER: Student answers will vary. The dimensions are detail-oriented, innovative, aggressive, outcomeoriented, stable, people-oriented, and team-oriented.

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A detail-oriented firm is Stitch Fix, which built its business around customer preference details and compiles this data to predict future purchases.

An innovative firm is Apple, which uses small teams with defined responsibilities to remain accountable and agile.

An aggressive firm is Wells Fargo, which set sales goals that were difficult to achieve and created a culture that led to corruption.

An outcome-oriented firm emphasizes attaining goals and rewards the attainment but not the goal process. Many salespeople work under such a culture if they are in a commission-only program. Nordstrom’s employees are dependent upon commissions for a large portion of their pay.

A stable organization is a school district, where the product and the way to “produce” it vary little over the years. Some organizations struggle when their stable culture makes cultural change more difficult. GM (a stable organization) had a difficult time emerging from bankruptcy because of its slow decision-making process.

A people-oriented culture is found at Costco. Costco offers a generous pay and benefits package and, in an industry where low pay and lack of benefits is prevalent, has managed to have low employee turnover.

A team-oriented culture emphasizes collaboration among employees. Southwest Airlines cross-trains staff so they can support each other when needed and holds twice-daily meetings to collaborate on problem-solving.

76. What is meant by a strong culture? Is a strong culture always an asset to the organization? Why or why not?

ANSWER: A strong culture is one that is shared by all organizational members. If most employees in the organization show consensus regarding the values of the company, this indicates the presence of a strong culture. Strong cultures have a powerful influence over the way employees think and behave.

A strong culture can be good or bad for an organization. An emphasis on customer service will lead to better customer relations, for example. Research has shown that organizations where culture is strong and adaptability is emphasized demonstrate better financial performance in dynamic environments, as having an adaptable culture is well-suited to a dynamic environment. Having consensus in

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cultural values can serve as an advantage.

However, if an organization has a strong, unethical culture, this can be detrimental. Another limitation is the difficulty of changing established organizational behaviors. If an organization with widely-shared beliefs decides to adopt a different set of values, unlearning the old values and learning the new ones will be a challenge, because employees will need to adopt new ways of thinking, behaving, and responding to critical events.

Finally, a strong culture may also be a liability during a merger. During mergers and acquisitions, companies inevitably experience a clash of cultures, as well as a clash of structures and operating systems. Culture clash becomes more problematic if both parties have unique and strong cultures.

77. Choose a familiar firm and discuss how its culture was created and is currently maintained. Use the culture creation-maintenance model to frame your discussion.

ANSWER: Student answers will vary. Responses should reference the following elements: founder values and preferences, and industry demands. For the maintenance aspect, students should discuss the attraction-selection-attrition process, new employee onboarding, leadership and the reward system.

Example: A popular midsize, local restaurant was created 50 years ago by a now deceased individual who believed in quality for your money and a friendly face. The founder felt that money was always tight for most people and a restaurant had to offer a better deal and experience than a customer could secure in their own home (“Good food at a good value.”) Industry barriers to entry are relatively low so the firm had few problems getting started.

The basic meals the firm offers, such as meatloaf, pot roast, pork chops, and homemade desserts, were a great success when the firm first opened, and they continue to draw people in today. The founder value of good food has not changed over the years.

The atmosphere of the restaurant has also not changed. Maintenance activities help retain that climate. The founder believed in good conversation over a meal in a friendly, supportive atmosphere. The hiring process reflects this culture. Interview questions focus heavily on assessing the candidate’s personality and ability to fit in. Further, having knowledge of the items offered on a daily basis is a key element of the selection decision.

The founder’s son now owns the restaurant and continues the same culture by role modeling the very values that originally made the place a success. Each day and evening, the current owner chats with customers at each table. Many customers are such regulars that personal questions about family are answered, further maintaining the key founding values. Menu items focus on the basic favorites sold since the restaurant opened. “Good food at a good value” remains the restaurant’s mission.

In order to maintain this positive atmosphere, the founder’s son has begun rewarding long-time employees, as well as exceptional service. For every year of service, the employee receives additional paid time off, and a larger bonus on their employment anniversary. If the owner “catches” an employee offering outstanding service, $50 cash is awarded on the spot. This ensures employee loyalty and commitment to service. Many of the staff have worked here for more than twenty years.

78. Design an onboarding program for a firm of your choice. Make sure to include what employee, leader, and coworker roles will be during the onboarding process.

ANSWER: An onboarding program teaches new employees the attitudes, knowledge, skills, and behaviors required to function effectively within an organization. While student answers will vary, they should mention what the key values of the organization are that need to be conveyed, how they will be conveyed and the roles of the leader, new employee, and coworkers.

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A formal orientation program indoctrinates new employees into the company culture, as well as introduces them to their new jobs and colleagues. An orientation program is important because it has a role in making new employees feel welcome, in addition to imparting information that may help new employees be successful in their new jobs. In this scenario, my onboarding program is designed to convey the organization’s commitment to teamwork and information-sharing. My firm’s orientation program will take place over the course of the employee’s first week. Each day will begin with a brief overview by a manager or staff member in a different department. The employee will shadow someone in that department for the morning, in order to understand its processes and begin establishing relationships.

The afternoons will be spent learning job-specific information directly from members of the employee’s new department.

The new employees need to seek feedback and network, gather information, and manage their first impressions. Keeping a journal or a daily log during orientation will be encouraged for all new employees. New employees are asked to gather as a group at the end of each day to discuss their impressions. A veteran employee will serve as the facilitator for this group.

Current coworkers need to convey information and support new employees in general.

Workers throughout the firm are involved in the onboarding process and asked to work directly with new staff members. Many current employees will be recruited to share a lunch hour with new staff members in an effort to establish ongoing relationships. All levels of employees (including managers) are encouraged to participate.

Leaders need to be cognizant of the style they exhibit and its influence on the program, role model the firm’s values and react consistently to the actions of those around them. All managers (leaders) are involved in some way in employee onboarding. Managers are required to participate in a mentoring program on a rotating quarterly basis.

79. You are reporting to your first full-time position tomorrow morning. What can you do to make sure you get “on board” immediately?

ANSWER: Student answers will vary, but some key elements that should be mentioned include: • • • • •

Gather information. Find out as much as you possibly can about the company and your job as quickly as you can. Be a good observer.

Manage your first impression. Dress appropriately, be friendly, and show your excitement to be part of the team.

Network. Develop relationships with your manager and with coworkers.

Seek feedback. Ask your manager or coworkers how well you are doing and whether you are meeting expectations. Listen to their suggestions.

Show success early on. Volunteer for high-profile projects where you will be able to demonstrate your skills.

80. What are some of the artifacts (visual elements) that represent the culture of your firm? (If you are not currently employed, choose any familiar organization to discuss).

ANSWER: Student answers will vary. Responses should reference mission statements, rituals, stories, physical layout, and rules and policies.

Example: Universities tend to have clear visual elements of culture. For example, a large midAtlantic university is physically located in a city but has a campus defined by small park islands on each of the campus’ borders with the city. Each of the buildings is clearly marked with the university emblem.

The deans of each of the university’s colleges cite the mission statement as a means of developing programming that reaches out to various groups and individuals in the city itself. (The mission

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statement is “the mission of the university is to serve the diverse campus and local communities by fostering mutually-beneficial partnerships designed to support neighbors in need.)

One interesting ritual each spring is the closing of a portion of a city road located in front of the student union to facilitate gurney and wheelchair races between fraternities and sororities and acts as a means of uniting the education and medical subdivisions of the university.

One of the campus classroom buildings is a very tall facility and is the most recognizable aspect of the campus. Stories abound, particularly around the Halloween season, of ghosts that haunt the halls. These stories are shared with incoming freshmen, especially with those who have classes in that location.

The university’s culture of inclusion and unity is conveyed successfully through these strategies.

81. You are applying for a job at a variety of different companies. How will you determine whether you will be a good fit at those firms?

ANSWER: The most important thing you can do is research all the firms. Do not just assume because you know the firm’s products, for example, that you would like to work there. Talk to people, go to job placement centers, use the Internet.

Other strategies include: • • • • •

Observe the physical environment when you go to the interview. How is the office laid out?

Do you like to work in an open floor plan? What is the dress code? Are employees pleasant?

Do most people seem friendly?

Read between the lines. Does the firm have an employee handbook? Is it flexible or extremely detailed?

How are you treated? Did they go out of their way to make you feel at home? Did they maintain contact with you after the initial interview? First impressions work both ways.

Ask questions. Take an active part in the interview beyond just answering your interviewer’s questions.

Listen to your gut. How do you feel about your experience?

82. Briefly describe the attraction-selection-attrition process and how it relates to organizational culture.

ANSWER: Culture is maintained through attraction-selection-attrition (ASA).

The attraction process is what initially draws an individual to apply for a position in a firm. What signals is the applicant picking up that suggest the firm will be some place they would want to work?

From the standpoint of the firm, what types of personalities and skills will best fit the firm’s needs?

The selection process identifies the fit between the applicant and the firm. This is the second component of the ASA process. Just as candidates are looking for places where they will fit in, companies are also looking for people who will fit into their current corporate culture. Many companies are hiring people for fit with their culture, as opposed to fit with a certain job.

Even after a company selects people for person–organization fit, there will be new employees who do not fit in.

Attrition is the process where an individual who has been brought into a firm is “weeded out” when they do not perform as successfully as they might, and the selection or attraction processes did not indicate such a scenario. Attrition also refers to the natural process in which the candidates who do not fit in will leave the company. Research indicates that person–organization misfit is one of the important reasons for employee turnover.

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83. A manufacturing plant has just inadvertently dumped potentially toxic waste into the local river. The community is outraged, and the city council demands action. However, many of the plant’s managers and employees do not seem concerned, and production carries on with “business as usual.” The firm’s CEO (located in another state) sees the need for change and contacts your consulting firm for advice. What advice might you offer to this firm regarding change within this facility? Discuss some specific steps needed to initiate this process.

ANSWER: Student answers will vary. Responses should reference some or all of the following concepts.

Changing company culture may be the key to company turnaround when there is a mismatch between an organization’s values and the demands of its environment. Some conditions demand change, such as this crisis. Specific steps to consider include: • •

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Creating a sense of urgency: In order for the change effort to succeed, it is important to communicate the need for change to employees (and the plant management, in this case.)

This crisis highlights the need for immediate change.

Changing key leaders or other key players: A leader’s vision is an important factor that influences how things are done in an organization. Thus, culture change often follows changes at the highest levels of the organization. Immediately firing the hiring ranking official at the plant sends a message that change will take place. To implement the change effort quickly and efficiently, it may be helpful to remove other powerful employees who are acting as a barrier to change. In this situation, individuals specifically responsible for the plant’s waste disposal were not doing their jobs and should be removed by the CEO. Role modeling: This is the process by which employees modify their own beliefs and behaviors to reflect those of the leader. The CEO of this firm is taking this breach seriously and taking immediate steps to correct it. The CEO will also establish a company-wide sustainability initiative.

Training: This involves teaching employees new norms and behavioral styles. A new training program regarding environmental safeguards must be established.

Changing the reward system: The criteria with which employees are rewarded and punished has a powerful role in determining the cultural values in existence. This firm should create a new whistleblower program, where employees are rewarded for pointing out environmental lapses.

Creating new stories and symbols: The success of the culture change effort may be increased by developing new rituals, symbols, and stories. Publicizing the plant’s environmental efforts throughout the affected community will help establish new stories and reinforce this change. Signage can also be added to the plant exterior indicating plant efforts to contribute to the community.