Test Bank for Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3E by Karin VanMeter & Robert Hubert

TEST BANK

2023

COMPLETE Elaborated Test Bank for Microbiology for The Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition Karin C. VanMeter Robert J. Hubert 2023

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition

by Karin C. VanMeter & Robert J. Hubert ISBN-10 0323757049 ISBN-13 978-0323757041 Test bank for Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition by Karin C. VanMeter & Robert J. Hubert

ISBN-10 0323757049 ISBN-13 978-0323757041

THIS IS NOT THE ACTUAL BOOK. YOU ARE BUYING it is the Official Test Bank in e-version INSTANT DOWNLOAD >The test bank is what most professors use as a template when making exams for their students, which means there’s a very high chance that you will see the exact questions in the tests! >The file is either in.pdf, excel, or zipped in the package and can easily be read on PCs and Macs. >Delivery is INSTANT. You can download the files IMMEDIATELY once payment is done.

If you have any questions, please feel free to contact us. Our response is the fastest. All questions will alwaysbe answered in 6 hours, most of the time within 30mins.

We also faced similar difficulties when we were students, and we understand how you feel. But now, with the Official Test Bank, you will be able to

* * * * * *

Anticipate the type of the questions that will appear in your exam.

Know the correct answers to those questions.

Reduce the hassle and stress of your student life.

Improve your studying and get a better grade!

Get prepared for examination questions.

Save you time and help you understand the material.

TABLE OF CONTENTS

Section 1: Basic Science Chapter:1. Scope of Microbiology Chapter:2. Chemistry of Life Chapter:3. Cell Structure and Function Chapter:4. Bacteria and Archaea Chapter:5. Viruses Chapter:6. Eukaryotic Microorganisms

Section 2: Tools for Study and Control of Microorganisms Chapter:7. Physical and Chemical Methods of Control Chapter:8. Microbiological Laboratory Techniques Chapter:9. Microbiological Laboratory Safety Issues Chapter:10. Pharmacology Chapter:11. Antimicrobial Drugs

Section 3: Infection, Disease, and Defense Chapter:12. Infection and Disease Chapter:13. The Immune Response and Lymphatic System

Section 4: Effects on Specific Body Systems Chapter:14. Infections of the Integumentary System, Soft Tissue and Musculoskeletal System Chapter:15. Infections of the Respiratory System Chapter:16. Infections of the Gastrointestinal System Chapter:17. Infections of the Nervous System and Sensory Structures Chapter:18. Infections of the Cardiovascular and Circulatory Systems

Chapter:19. Infections of the Urinary System Chapter:20. Infections of the Reproductive System

Section 5: Factors Contributing to the Effects of Microorganisms on Human Health Chapter:21. Sexually Transmitted Infections/Diseases Chapter:22. Human Age and Infections Chapter:23. Microorganisms in the Environment and Effects on Human Health Chapter:24. Emerging Infectious Diseases Chapter:25. Biotechnology

Should you face any challenges, do not hesitate to send an email to: sturdydrone2707@gmail.com

We respond and resolve to all queries within 6 hours: Alternative links:

Link I : Test bank - Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition by Karin C. VanMeter & Robert J. Hubert - Complete, Elaborated and Latest Test Bank. ALL Chapters (1-25) Included and Updated for 2023 - Browsegrades

Chapter 01: Scope of Microbiology VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In the sixteenth century a father-and-son team, by the name of

, produced a

compound microscope consisting of a simple tube with lenses at each end. a. van Leeuwenhoek b. Semmelweis c. Janssen d. Hooke ANS: C

REF: p. 3

2. “Animalcules” were first described by a. Robert Hooke. b. Antony van Leeuwenhoek. c. Hans Janssen. d. John Needham.

ANS: B

REF: p. 3

3. Micrographia, a publication illustrating insects, sponges, as well as plant cells, was published

by a. b. c. d.

Robert Hooke.

Antony van Leeuwenhoek.

Hans Janssen.

John Needham.

ANS: A

REF: p. 3

4. Low-power microscopes designed for observing fairly large objects such as insects or worms

are a. b. c. d.

electron microscopes. dark-field microscopes. fluorescence microscopes. stereomicroscopes.

ANS: D

REF: p. 5

5. A microscope that provides a three-dimensional image of a specimen is a a. dark-field microscope. b. transmission electron microscope. c. bright-field microscope. d. scanning electron microscope.

ANS: D

REF: p. 7

6. The tool of choice to observe living microorganisms is the a. bright-field microscope. b. phase-contrast microscope.

c. fluorescence microscope. d. electron microscope.

ANS: B

REF: p. 6

7. Which scientist is most responsible for ending the controversy about spontaneous generation? a. John Needham b. Joseph Lister c. Louis Pasteur d. Robert Koch ANS: C

REF: p. 8

8. Fossils of prokaryotes go back a. 4.0 to 5.0 b. 3.5 to 4.0 c. 2.5 to 3.0 d. 2.2 to 2.7 ANS: B

billion years.

REF: p. 9

9. Molds belong to which of the following groups of eukaryotic organisms? a. Protozoans b. Archaea c. Fungi d. Algae ANS: C

REF: p. 11

10. The correct descending order of taxonomic categories is a. species, domain, phylum, kingdom, order, division, class, genus. b. domain, kingdom, phylum, class, family, order, genus, species. c. domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species. d. kingdom, domain, phylum, order, class, family, genus, species.

ANS: C

REF: p. 10

11. Complex communities of microorganisms on surfaces are called a. colonies. b. biofilms. c. biospheres. d. flora.

ANS: B

REF: p. 12

12. A relationship between organisms in which the waste product of one provides nutrients for

another is called a. mutualism. b. competition. c. synergism. d. commensalism.

ANS: D

REF: p. 12

13. Which of the following sites of the human body does not have a normal flora? a. Intestine b. Skin c. Vagina d. Blood ANS: D

REF: p. 12

14. Which of the following lack nucleic acids? a. Archaea b. Viruses c. Prions d. Bacteria ANS: C

REF: p. 11

15. The binominal system of nomenclature was originally developed by a. Pasteur. b. Linnaeus. c. Martini. d. Jenner.

ANS: B

REF: p. 11

16. Which of the following scientists performed the first vaccination against smallpox? a. Pasteur b. Jenner c. Semmelweis d. Koch ANS: B

REF: p. 9

17. Which of the following diseases is generally caused by contaminated food? a. Mumps b. Shigellosis c. Legionellosis d. Tuberculosis ANS: B

REF: p. 13

18. Which of the following diseases is transmitted via aerosols? a. Psittacosis b. Shigellosis c. Leptospirosis d. Giardiasis ANS: A

REF: p. 14

19. Which of the following organisms is used in the production of cheese? a. Propionibacterium shermanii b. Acetobacter aceti c. Giardia

d. Fusobacterium ANS: A

REF: p. 14

20. Which of the following scientists discovered the antibiotic properties of Penicillium? a. Alexander Fleming b. Louis Pasteur c. Joseph Lister d. Edward Jenner ANS: A

REF: p. 15

COMPLETION 1. In a compound light microscope the lens closest to the eye is the

lens.

ANS: ocular REF: p. 3 2. The total magnification of an object viewed with a compound microscope with an ocular lens

of 10 and an objective lens of 40 is 

.

ANS: 400 REF: p. 4 3. Another term for spontaneous generation is

.

ANS: abiogenesis REF: p. 7 4. Microorganisms of various species are often organized into complex communities on a

surface and are called

.

ANS: biofilms REF: p. 12 5. All bacteria are

cells.

ANS: prokaryotic REF: p. 10 6. Cells that contain a nucleus are ANS: eukaryotic REF: p. 10

cells.

7. The taxonomic resource for information on bacteria is

.

ANS: Bergey’s Manual of Systematic Bacteriology REF: p. 11 8. A relationship in which two organisms benefit is referred to as

.

ANS: mutualism REF: p. 12 9. The proteins implicated in spongiform encephalopathy are

.

ANS: prions REF: p. 11 10. The cleanup of various industrial wastes by living organisms is referred to as ANS: bioremediation REF: p. 15 MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Observing insects b. Three-dimensional images c. Cytoplasmic streaming d. Fluorescent dye e. Ultrathin sectioned specimens 1.

2.

3.

4.

Scanning electron microscope Phase-contrast microscope Transmission electron microscope Stereomicroscope

1.

2.

3.

4.

ANS: B ANS: C ANS: E ANS: A

REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 7 p. 6 p. 7 p. 5

Match the description below to the correct name from this list. a. Robert Koch b. Edward Jenner c. Louis Pasteur d. John Needham e. Joseph Lister f. Antony van Leeuwenhoek

.

c. fluorescence microscope. d. electron microscope.

ANS: B

REF: p. 6

7. Which scientist is most responsible for ending the controversy about spontaneous generation? a. John Needham b. Joseph Lister c. Louis Pasteur d. Robert Koch ANS: C

REF: p. 8

8. Fossils of prokaryotes go back a. 4.0 to 5.0 b. 3.5 to 4.0 c. 2.5 to 3.0 d. 2.2 to 2.7 ANS: B

billion years.

REF: p. 9

9. Molds belong to which of the following groups of eukaryotic organisms? a. Protozoans b. Archaea c. Fungi d. Algae ANS: C

REF: p. 11

NURSINGTB.COM

10. The correct descending order of taxonomic categories is a. species, domain, phylum, kingdom, order, division, class, genus. b. domain, kingdom, phylum, class, family, order, genus, species. c. domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species. d. kingdom, domain, phylum, order, class, family, genus, species.

ANS: C

REF: p. 10

11. Complex communities of microorganisms on surfaces are called a. colonies. b. biofilms. c. biospheres. d. flora.

ANS: B

REF: p. 12

12. A relationship between organisms in which the waste product of one provides nutrients for

another is called a. mutualism. b. competition. c. synergism. d. commensalism.

ANS: D

REF: p. 12

13. Which of the following sites of the human body does not have a normal flora? a. Intestine b. Skin c. Vagina d. Blood ANS: D

REF: p. 12

14. Which of the following lack nucleic acids? a. Archaea b. Viruses c. Prions d. Bacteria ANS: C

REF: p. 11

15. The binominal system of nomenclature was originally developed by a. Pasteur. b. Linnaeus. c. Martini. d. Jenner.

ANS: B

REF: p. 11

16. Which of the following scientists performed the first vaccination against smallpox? a. Pasteur b. Jenner NURSINGTB.COM c. Semmelweis d. Koch

ANS: B

REF: p. 9

17. Which of the following diseases is generally caused by contaminated food? a. Mumps b. Shigellosis c. Legionellosis d. Tuberculosis ANS: B

REF: p. 13

18. Which of the following diseases is transmitted via aerosols? a. Psittacosis b. Shigellosis c. Leptospirosis d. Giardiasis ANS: A

REF: p. 14

19. Which of the following organisms is used in the production of cheese? a. Propionibacterium shermanii b. Acetobacter aceti c. Giardia

d. Fusobacterium ANS: A

REF: p. 14

20. Which of the following scientists discovered the antibiotic properties of Penicillium? a. Alexander Fleming b. Louis Pasteur c. Joseph Lister d. Edward Jenner ANS: A

REF: p. 15

COMPLETION 1. In a compound light microscope the lens closest to the eye is the

lens.

ANS: ocular REF: p. 3 2. The total magnification of an object viewed with a compound microscope with an ocular lens

of 10 and an objective lens of 40 is 

.

ANS: 400 REF: p. 4 3. Another term for spontaneouN sU geR neSraItiN onGiT s B.COM

.

ANS: abiogenesis REF: p. 7 4. Microorganisms of various species are often organized into complex communities on a

surface and are called

.

ANS: biofilms REF: p. 12 5. All bacteria are

cells.

ANS: prokaryotic REF: p. 10 6. Cells that contain a nucleus are ANS: eukaryotic REF: p. 10

cells.

7. The taxonomic resource for information on bacteria is

.

ANS: Bergey’s Manual of Systematic Bacteriology REF: p. 11 8. A relationship in which two organisms benefit is referred to as

.

ANS: mutualism REF: p. 12 9. The proteins implicated in spongiform encephalopathy are

.

ANS: prions REF: p. 11 10. The cleanup of various industrial wastes by living organisms is referred to as ANS: bioremediation REF: p. 15 MATCHING

Match the description below with the co rrec t item f rom this list.

N RU I G B .C M a. Observing insects S N T O b. Three-dimensional images c. Cytoplasmic streaming d. Fluorescent dye e. Ultrathin sectioned specimens 1.

2.

3.

4.

Scanning electron microscope Phase-contrast microscope Transmission electron microscope Stereomicroscope

1.

2.

3.

4.

ANS: B ANS: C ANS: E ANS: A

REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 7 p. 6 p. 7 p. 5

Match the description below to the correct name from this list. a. Robert Koch b. Edward Jenner c. Louis Pasteur d. John Needham e. Joseph Lister f. Antony van Leeuwenhoek

.

5.

6.

7.

8.

Animalcules Vaccination Aseptic technique Germ theory of disease

5.

6.

7.

8.

ANS: F ANS: B ANS: E ANS: C

REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 7 | p. 8 p. 9 p. 9 p. 8

NURSINGTB.COM

Chapter 02: Chemistry of Life VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The atomic number equals the number of a. protons. b. neutrons. c. electrons. d. protons and neutrons.

ANS: A

REF: p. 20

2. The atomic weight is equal to the sum of a. neutrons. b. protons and neutrons. c. neutrons and electrons. d. electrons.

ANS: B

REF: p. 20

3. The smallest units of matter are a. molecules. b. atoms. c. protons. d. compounds.

ANS: B

N RSINGTB.COM

REF: p. 20U

4. Protons are a. b. c. d.

located in the shells. part of the atomic nucleus. negatively charged. uncharged particles.

ANS: B

REF: p. 20

5. Particles of an atom located in the outermost shell and available for chemical bonding are

called a. valence electrons. b. isotopes. c. excess electrons. d. neutrons.

ANS: A

REF: p. 21

6. Isotopes are atoms with a. the same number of electrons and protons. b. different numbers of protons and electrons. c. the same numbers of protons but a different number of neutrons. d. different numbers of electrons.

ANS: C

REF: p. 21

7. A chemical bond in which electrons are equally shared is a(n) a. ionic bond. b. polar covalent bond. c. nonpolar covalent bond. d. hydrogen bond.

ANS: C

REF: p. 23

8. The transfer of electrons in a chemical bond represents a(n) a. ionic bond. b. polar covalent bond. c. nonpolar covalent bond. d. hydrogen bond.

ANS: A

REF: p. 24

9. The bond of oxygen and hydrogen between water molecules is a(n) a. ionic bond. b. polar covalent bond. c. nonpolar covalent bond. d. hydrogen bond.

ANS: D

REF: p. 24

10. The isotope deuterium has a. one proton.

NURSINGTB.COM

b. one proton and one neutron. c. one proton and two neutrons. d. one proton and three neutrons.

ANS: B

REF: p. 21

11. After filling the first shell, the outermost shell of an atom can hold up to

electrons. a. 2 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10 ANS: C

REF: p. 23

12. The bond between sodium and chlorine atoms in sodium chloride is a(n) a. hydrogen bond. b. ionic bond. c. polar covalent bond. d. nonpolar covalent bond.

ANS: B

REF: p. 24

13. Sucrose is composed of

a. b. c. d.

glucose and galactose. glucose and fructose. fructose and maltose. glucose and maltose.

ANS: B

REF: p. 31

14. The unit molecules (monomers) of carbohydrates are a. monosaccharides. b. amino acids. c. nucleic acids. d. fatty acids.

ANS: A

REF: p. 31

15. The bond between amino acids is a(n) a. ionic bond. b. peptide bond. c. hydrogen bond. d. covalent bond.

ANS: B

REF: p. 32

16. Glucose and fructose are examples of a. monosaccharides. b. disaccharides. c. polysaccharides. d. lipids.

NURSINGTB.COM

ANS: A

REF: p. 31

17. Two glucose molecules form a. galactose. b. lactose. c. maltose. d. fructose.

ANS: C

REF: p. 31

18. Starch is an example of a a. monosaccharide. b. polysaccharide. c. peptide. d. protein.

ANS: B

REF: p. 31

19. Cytosine always undergoes complementary base pairing with a. adenine. b. guanine. c. thymine. d. uracil.

ANS: B

REF: p. 36

20. The RNA nucleotide base that pairs with adenine of DNA is a. cytosine. b. guanine. c. thymine. d. uracil.

ANS: D

REF: p. 36

COMPLETION 1. Neutrons are

charged particles.

ANS: not REF: p. 20 2. An atom with the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons is called a(n)

.

ANS: isotope REF: p. 21 3. A positively charged ion is a(n) ANS: cation

.

NURSINGTB.COM

REF: p. 22

4. The breakdown of large molecules into smaller ones in the presence of water is called

.

ANS: hydrolysis REF: p. 25 5. Molecules that can absorb hydrogen ions and not change the pH of the substance are

.

ANS: buffers REF: p. 28 6. The formation of polymers from simpler substances is referred to as ANS: synthesis REF: p. 25

.

7. When the solute concentration outside a cell is the same as the concentration inside the cell,

the solution is called

.

ANS: isotonic REF: p. 29 8. The monomers of triglycerides are

and fatty acids.

ANS: glycerol REF: p. 31 9. Lactose is composed of glucose and

.

ANS: galactose REF: p. 31 10. Chemically, ATP is a(n)

.

ANS: nucleic acid REF: p. 38 MATCHING

N R I G B.C M

Match the description below wU ith tS he cNorrT ect itemOfrom this list. a. Redox b. Electron c. Neutron d. Acid e. Base f. Salt g. Glucose h. Protein i. Polysaccharide j. Nucleic acid k. Lipid l. Tritium 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

Radioactive isotope Negatively charged particle Reduction–oxidation reactions Hydrogen ion donor Ammonium chloride Monomer Cellulose Particle with no charge Prostaglandin

10. Amino acid chain 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

ANS: L ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: F ANS: G ANS: I ANS: C ANS: K ANS: H

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 22 p. 20 p. 25 p. 27 p. 28 p. 31 p. 31 p. 20 p. 33 p. 32

NURSINGTB.COM

Chapter 03: Cell Structure and Function VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Matrix formed outside the plasma membrane is referred to as a. cytoplasm. b. glycocalyx. c. exoplasm. d. cell wall.

ANS: B

REF: p. 44

2. The cell organelles found only in algae and plant cells are a. chloroplasts. b. mitochondria. c. vacuoles. d. vesicles.

ANS: A

REF: p. 54

3. Peptidoglycan is typically found in the a. cell wall. b. plasma membrane. c. nucleus. d. endoplasmic reticulum.

ANS: A

N RSINGTB.COM

REF: p. 45U

4. Chitin is a component of the cell wall of a. algae. b. bacteria. c. fungi. d. viruses.

ANS: C

REF: p. 46

5. Bacteria that have a single polar flagellum at one end are referred to as a. amphitrichous. b. monotrichous. c. peritrichous. d. lophotrichous.

ANS: B

REF: p. 47

6. Bacteria that have flagella that are distributed over the general cell surface are referred to as a. amphitrichous. b. monotrichous. c. peritrichous. d. lophotrichous.

ANS: C

REF: p. 48

7. Pili are also called a. microvilli. b. fimbriae. c. cilia. d. flagella.

ANS: B

REF: p. 48

8. The structures that can move fluid, mucus, or cells over the surface of a cell are a. microvilli. b. fimbriae. c. cilia. d. flagella.

ANS: C

REF: p. 48

9. The fluidlike portion of a cell is referred to as a. inclusion. b. cytoplasm. c. cytosol. d. nucleoplasm.

ANS: C

REF: p. 51

10. Which of the following structures is shaped like a hollow cylinder made out of tubulin

proteins? a. Intermediate filaments b. Microtubules c. Microfilaments d. Flagella ANS: B

NURSINGTB.COM

REF: p. 51

11. The cell organelle responsible for the packaging of proteins is the a. ribosome. b. Golgi complex. c. rER. d. lysosome.

ANS: B

REF: p. 54

12. Which of the following cell organelles contain digestive enzymes? a. Mitochondria b. Chloroplasts c. Lysosomes d. Peroxisomes ANS: C

REF: p. 54

13. Which of the following organelles contain oxidative enzymes capable of oxidizing toxic

substances? a. Mitochondria

b. Chloroplasts c. Lysosomes d. Peroxisomes ANS: D

REF: p. 54

14. Stroma is a component of a. mitochondria. b. chloroplasts. c. lysosomes. d. peroxisomes.

ANS: B

REF: p. 55

15. Which of the following organisms produces toxins that target cholesterol? a. Aeromonas hydrophila b. Escherichia coli c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae ANS: C

REF: p. 57

16. The intracellular fluid has a high concentration of a. sodium. b. potassium. c. bicarbonate. d. sulfate.

ANS: B

REF: p.N 58URSINGTB.COM

17. Which of the following is an active transport mechanism? a. Osmosis b. Facilitated diffusion c. Filtration d. Pinocytosis ANS: D

REF: p. 60

18. Which of the following transport mechanisms transports water across the plasma membrane? a. Osmosis b. Facilitated diffusion c. Phagocytosis d. Exocytosis ANS: A

REF: p. 58

19. The movement of molecules through a membrane from an area of high hydrostatic pressure to

an area of lower hydrostatic pressure is a. osmosis. b. exocytosis. c. simple diffusion. d. filtration.

ANS: D

REF: p. 59

20. Enzymatic reactions can be expressed in which of the following chemical notations? a. S + P = E b. P + P = E c. E + S = P d. S + S = P ANS: C

REF: p. 61

21. Enzymes that remove functional groups from a substrate without adding water, or that add

functional groups to a double bond, are called a. oxidoreductases. b. transferases. c. hydrolases. d. lyases.

ANS: D

REF: p. 62

22. Chemically, most enzymes are a. proteins. b. lipids. c. nucleic acids. d. carbohydrates.

ANS: A

REF: p. 61

23. The net gain of ATP molecules a f t e r t h e b r e a k d o w n o f one glucose molecule in glycolysis is N R I G B .C M a. 1 U S N T O b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

ANS: B

REF: p. 67

24. The compound that enters the Krebs cycle and combines with oxaloacetic acid is a. citric acid. b. pyruvic acid. c. acetyl-CoA. d. phosphoglyceraldehyde.

ANS: C

REF: p. 68

25. Formic acid is a fermentation product of a. Streptococcus. b. Klebsiella. c. Clostridium. d. Actinomyces.

ANS: D

REF: p. 68

26. The central dogma concerning the flow of information from genetic material was first

introduced by

a. b. c. d.

Ernst Ruska.

Francis Crick.

Camillo Golgi.

Carl Bender.

ANS: B

REF: p. 70

27. The anticodons are located in a. tRNA. b. rRNA. c. mRNA. d. ribosomes.

ANS: A

REF: p. 71

28. Binary fission is a form of reproduction used by a. viruses. b. bacteria. c. fungi. d. helminths.

ANS: B

REF: p. 74

29. In which phase of mitosis do the chromatids separate? a. Prophase b. Metaphase c. Anaphase d. Telophase

NURSINGTB.COM

ANS: C

REF: p. 75

30. DNA replication occurs in which phase of the cell cycle? a. G phase b. Prophase c. Metaphase d. S phase ANS: D

REF: p. 74

31. Nonchromosomal DNA molecules found in a bacterial cell are a. endospores. b. transposons. c. plasmids. d. prions.

ANS: C

REF: p. 77

32. The actual genetic makeup of an organism is referred to as its a. phenotype. b. genotype. c. conjugation. d. construct.

ANS: B

REF: p. 78

COMPLETION 1. Cells without a nucleus are

cells.

ANS: prokaryotic REF: p. 43 2. Proteins that are partially embedded on one side of the plasma membrane are referred to as

proteins.

ANS: peripheral REF: p. 43 3. The sterol-like molecule in bacterial plasma membranes is a(n)

.

ANS: hopanoid REF: p. 43 4. Movement of bacteria toward or away from a particular stimulus is called

.

ANS: taxis

NURSINGTB.COM

REF: p. 48

5. The nucleus is surrounded by a(n)

.

ANS: nuclear envelope REF: p. 52 6. An enzyme that requires a coenzyme/cofactor to function, but does not have one bound, is

called a(n)

.

ANS: apoenzyme REF: p. 63 7. The allosteric site is a component of

.

ANS: enzymes REF: p. 62 | p. 63 8. The organelle necessary for photosynthesis is a(n) ANS: chloroplast

.

REF: p. 68 9. A special structure formed by some bacterial cells to allow them to survive in harsh conditions

is called a(n)

.

ANS: endospore REF: p. 57 10. The transfer of genetic material during direct cell-to-cell contact is

called

.

ANS: conjugation REF: p. 79 MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Cytoskeleton b. Cytosol c. Mitochondria d. Golgi apparatus e. rER f. Bacterial ribosome subunit g. Enzyme NURSINGTB.COM h. Dental plaque i. Phospholipids j. Endocytosis k. Cell wall l. Passive transport 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Plasma membrane Peptidoglycan Biofilm Microtubules Protein synthesis ATP production 70S Brownian movement Phagocytosis Hydrolase

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

ANS: I ANS: K ANS: H ANS: A ANS: E

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 42 p. 45 p. 50 p. 51 p. 56

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

ANS: C ANS: F ANS: L ANS: J ANS: G

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 54 p. 54 p. 58 p. 60 p. 62

Match the description below to the correct name from this list. a. Robert Hooke b. Rudolph Kölliker c. Naegeli and Cramer d. Schleiden and Schwann e. Antony van Leeuwenhoek f. Richard Altmann g. Ernst Ruska 11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

Observed cells of a cork Proposed the cell theory Developed mitochondrial stain Described the cell membrane as a barrier Built the first TEM

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

ANS: A ANS: D ANS: F ANS: C ANS: G

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 42 p. 42 p. 43 p. 43 p. 43

NURSINGTB.COM

Chapter 04: Bacteria and Archaea VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Rod-shaped bacteria, some of which are endospore forming, are referred to as a. cocci. b. bacilli. c. spirals. d. vibrios.

ANS: B

REF: p. 83

2. Beadlike chains of cocci formed after cell division along a single axis are called a. diplococci. b. streptococci. c. tetrads. d. sarcinae.

ANS: B

REF: p. 83

3. The causative agent for Lyme disease is a a. Spirillum. b. Spirochete. c. Vibrio. d. Diplococcus.

ANS: B

N RSINGTB.COM

REF: p. 84U

4. Bacterial replication is accomplished primarily by a. mitosis. b. meiosis. c. cytokinesis. d. binary fission.

ANS: D

REF: p. 86

5. Bacteria that use oxygen, but only at low concentration, are classified as a. obligate aerobes. b. microaerophiles. c. obligate anaerobes. d. aerotolerant anaerobes.

ANS: B

REF: p. 90

6. Bacteria that use organic compounds as the source of both carbon and energy are referred to

as a. b. c. d.

photoautotrophs. chemoautotrophs. photoheterotrophs. chemoheterotrophs.

ANS: D

REF: p. 88

7. Microorganisms that show optimal growth in moderate temperatures (between 25° C and 40°

C) are called a. thermophiles. b. psychrophiles. c. mesophiles. d. psychrotrophs.

ANS: C

REF: p. 89

8. Psychrophiles are also referred to as a. cryophiles. b. thermophiles. c. mesophiles. d. psychrotrophs.

ANS: A

REF: p. 89

9. Which of the following organisms is a common cause of peptic ulcers? a. Treponema pallidum b. Vibrio cholerae c. Helicobacter pylori d. Escherichia coli ANS: C

REF: p. 90

10. Treponema pallidum and BorNreliR gdGoT rfB er. i bCeO loM ng to the group of U aSbuIrN a. gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci. b. anaerobic gram-negative rods. c. anaerobic gram-negative cocci. d. spirochetes.

ANS: D

REF: p. 91

11. Legionella and Neisseria are examples of a. facultative anaerobic gram-negative rods. b. gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci. c. spirochetes. d. anaerobic gram-negative cocci.

ANS: B

REF: p. 92

12. Staphylococci and streptococci are best classified in the group of a. gram-positive cocci. b. gram-negative cocci. c. gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci. d. anaerobic gram-negative cocci.

ANS: A

REF: p. 97

13. Which of the following is a host-dependent bacterium?

a. b. c. d.

Mycoplasma Ureaplasma Rickettsia Micrococcus

ANS: C

REF: p. 95

14. Bacteria that prefer high levels of salt in their growing environment are referred to as a. calciphiles. b. halophiles. c. osmophiles. d. mesophiles.

ANS: B

REF: p. 101

COMPLETION 1. Bacteria whose overall shape is spherical or nearly spherical are referred to as

.

ANS: cocci REF: p. 83 2. The time bacteria need to adapt to a medium before cell division starts is called the

phase of a bacterial growth curve.

ANS: lag REF: p. 87

NURSINGTB.COM

3. Microorganisms that acquire energy from light are called

.

ANS: phototrophs REF: p. 88 4. Microorganisms that grow only in the presence of oxygen are called ANS: obligate aerobes REF: p. 90 5. A “bull’s-eye” rash is typical of

disease.

ANS: Lyme REF: p. 92 6. Rhizobium is an organism typically used in the field of ANS: agriculture

.

.

REF: p. 92 7. Staphylococci are

facultative anaerobes.

ANS: gram-positive REF: p. 96 8. Methanogens are

that grow in anaerobic environments such as swamps.

ANS: archaea REF: p. 100 9. The time required for doubling of the population is called the

.

ANS: generation time REF: p. 87 10. Bacterial species whose shape is variable or morphologically indistinct depending on

environmental conditions is called ANS: pleomorphic REF: p. 83

NURSINGTB.COM

MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Rickettsia rickettsii b. Chlamydia psittaci c. Bordetella pertussis d. Helicobacter pylori e. Salmonella f. Neisseria gonorrhoeae g. Clostridium perfringens 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Typhoid fever Gonorrhoea Whooping cough Rocky Mountain spotted fever Gas gangrene

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

ANS: E ANS: F ANS: C ANS: A ANS: G

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 94 p. 93 p. 93 p. 96 p. 98

.

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Psychrotrophs b. Thermophiles c. Chemoautotrophs d. Chemoheterotrophs e. Sarcinae f. Tetrads g. Vibrios h. Spirillium i. Cocci 6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Bacteria with a spherical shape Comma-shaped rods Cocci arranged in cubes of eight after cell division Microbes that use chemical compounds as the source of energy and carbon Heat-loving organisms

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

ANS: I ANS: G ANS: E ANS: D ANS: B

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 83 p. 84 p. 85 p. 88 p. 89

NURSINGTB.COM

Chapter 05: Viruses VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Viruses can infect a. plants. b. bacteria. c. animals. d. all organisms.

ANS: D

REF: p. 105

2. The suffix -virales is given to the following terms within the taxon a. Species b. Order c. Family d. Genus ANS: B

REF: p. 105

3. The correct hierarchical order for virus classification is a. order, genus, family, subfamily, species. b. species, genus, family, subfamily, order. c. order, family, subfamily, genus, species. d. genus, order, family, subfamily, species.

ANS: C

N RSINGTB.COM

U REF: p. 105

4. The Baltimore classification system places viruses into a. four b. five c. seven d. nine ANS: C

groups.

REF: p. 105

5. Viral capsomeres are composed of subunits called a. envelopes. b. protomeres. c. capsids. d. nucleoids.

ANS: B

REF: p. 105

6. RNA viruses belong to which of the following types according to the Baltimore classification

system? a. I, II, III b. II, III, IV c. I, IV, V d. III, IV, V

ANS: D

REF: p. 106

7. Which of the following consists of DNA viruses? a. Parvoviridae b. Picornaviridae c. Astroviridae d. Togaviridae ANS: A

REF: p. 106

8. A bacteriophage is a(n) a. helical b. icosahedral c. enveloped d. complex ANS: D

virus.

REF: p. 109

9. A phage in a repressed stage is referred to as a(n) a. antiphage. b. prophage. c. virulent phage. d. latent phage.

ANS: B

REF: p. 113

10. The correct sequence of stages in the multiplication of animal viruses is a. adsorption, penetration, uN nU coR atS inI g,NrG epT liB ca. tioCnO , aMssembly, release. b. penetration, adsorption, assembly, uncoating, replication, release. c. adsorption, uncoating, penetration, replication, assembly, release. d. penetration, uncoating, adsorption, replication, assembly, release.

ANS: A

REF: p. 113

11. A persistent infection that is not lytic but productive is called a a. chronic b. latent c. slow d. transforming ANS: A

REF: p. 117

12. Which of the following viruses belong to the family Herpesviridae? a. Epstein-Barr virus b. Poxvirus c. SARS d. HIV ANS: A

REF: p. 118

13. Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies are caused by a. flavoviruses.

infection.

b. virusoids. c. prions. d. orthomyxoviruses.

ANS: C

REF: p. 124

14. The most common viruses causing respiratory illness belong to a. Herpesviridae. b. Papovaviridae. c. Adenoviridae. d. Poxviridae.

ANS: C

REF: p. 118

15. Which of the following bunyaviruses is not arthropod-borne? a. Phlebovirus b. Hantavirus c. Nairovirus d. Uukuvirus ANS: B

REF: p. 120

COMPLETION 1. A virus that infects bacteria is referred to as a ANS: bacteriophage REF: p. 105

.

NURSINGTB.COM

2. Kaposi’s sarcoma is caused by human herpesvirus number

.

ANS: 8 REF: p. 107 3. Picornaviridae are

viruses.

ANS: RNA REF: p. 107 4. A fully assembled virus is called a

.

ANS: virion REF: p. 114 5. Capsids forming multifaced structures having 20 triangular faces are called ANS: icosahedrons

.

REF: p. 108 6. Group VI viruses according to the Baltimore classification system include the families

Metaviridae, Pseudoviridae, and

.

ANS: Retroviridae REF: p. 112 7. The phase during which no infectious phage particles can be found in a host cell is the

period.

ANS: eclipse REF: p. 113 8. The stage of viral multiplication during which the virus attaches to the host cell is called

.

ANS: adsorption REF: p. 113 9. According to the Baltimore classification, Retroviridae belong to group ANS: VI

NURSINGTB.COM

REF: p. 106

MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Polyarthritis b. Plantar warts c. Chickenpox d. Common cold e. Infectious mononucleosis f. Gastroenteritis g. Hemorrhagic fever 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Human papillomavirus Epstein-Barr virus Norovirus Hantavirus Human rhinovirus A

1.

2.

3.

4.

ANS: B ANS: E ANS: F ANS: G

REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 107 p. 107 p. 107 p. 108

viruses.

5. ANS: D

REF: p. 107

NURSINGTB.COM

Chapter 06: Eukaryotic Microorganisms VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The antibiotics penicillin and cephalosporin are produced by a. algae. b. slime molds. c. fungi. d. protozoans.

ANS: C

REF: p. 129

2. Fungi are free-living a. autotrophic b. chemotrophic c. heterotrophic d. phototrophic ANS: C

organisms.

REF: p. 130

3. Fungi that help the roots of plants to absorb minerals and water from the soil are a. decomposers. b. mycorrhizae. c. yeasts. d. molds.

ANS: B

N RSINGTB.COM

U REF: p. 129

4. A dimorphic fungus growing as a mold prefers what temperature? a. 15° C b. 20° C c. 25° C d. 37° C ANS: C

REF: p. 132

5. Conidiospores that bud off from a vase-shaped spore-bearing cell are referred to as a. arthrospores. b. porospores. c. phialospores. d. blastospores.

ANS: C

REF: p. 133

6. The mold responsible for the production of penicillin belongs to the subgroup of a. Basidiomycota. b. Ascomycota. c. Zygomycota. d. Deuteromycota.

ANS: B

REF: p. 133

7. The so-called “red tide” is generally caused by which of the following organisms? a. Lichens b. Bacteria c. Pfiesteria d. Dinoflagellates ANS: D

REF: p. 135

8. Algae that contain agar in their cell walls belong to a. Chrysophyta. b. Rhodophyta. c. Chlorophyta. d. Phaeophyta.

ANS: B

REF: p. 135

9. Diatoms, major components of marine phytoplankton, belong to a. Chrysophyta. b. Rhodophyta. c. Chlorophyta. d. Phaeophyta.

ANS: A

REF: p. 137

10. Brown algae are commonly referred to as a. Phaeophyta. b. Rhodophyta.

NURSINGTB.COM c. Chlorophyta. d. Chrysophyta.

ANS: A

REF: p. 137

11. Which of the following microorganisms require a moist environment to survive and most

often live in ponds, streams, lakes, and oceans? a. Mycorrhizae b. Armillaria gallica c. Blastospores d. Protozoans ANS: D

REF: p. 137

12. The process by which the nucleus of protozoans undergoes multiple divisions before the cell

divides is called a. budding. b. mitosis. c. schizogony. d. fragmentation.

ANS: C

REF: p. 137

13. The eukaryotes known for the presence of a macronucleus and a micronucleus are a. algae.

b. fungi. c. protozoans. d. slime molds.

ANS: C

REF: p. 139

14. Plasmodium is a type of a. algae. b. protozoan. c. slime mold. d. helminth.

ANS: B

REF: p. 139

15. Toxoplasma gondii belongs to which group of eukaryotic organisms? a. Algae b. Fungi c. Protozoans d. Helminths ANS: C

REF: p. 138

16. A scolex is a structure found in a. algae. b. fungi. c. protozoans. d. helminths.

ANS: D

REF: p.N 14U5RSINGTB.COM

17. Which of the following is commonly referred to as a pinworm? a. Enterobius vermicularis b. Necator americanus c. Ascaris lumbricoides d. Ancylostoma duodenale ANS: A

REF: p. 145

18. Organisms that can grow on substances with very low moisture content are a. protozoans. b. fungi. c. helminths. d. algae.

ANS: B

REF: p. 130

19. The protozoan that lacks a cyst stage and therefore must be transferred quickly from host to

host is a. Giardia lamblia. b. Trichomonas vaginalis. c. Balantidium coli. d. Entamoeba histolytica.

ANS: B

REF: p. 140

20. Which of the following are technically not microorganisms? a. Molds b. Protozoans c. Helminths d. Viruses ANS: C

REF: p. 144

COMPLETION 1. The study of fungi is called

.

ANS: mycology REF: p. 129 2. The vegetative structure of algae is referred to as a

.

ANS: thallus REF: p. 135 3. Fungi growing on the surface of the skin or hair may cause infections called

mycoses.

ANS: superficial

NURSINGTB.COM

REF: p. 131

4. The fungal saclike structure that contains sporangiospores is called a(n)

.

ANS: sporangium REF: p. 132 5. The unique cell organelle found in the Archaezoa and that appears to be a remnant of

mitochondria is called a(n)

.

ANS: mitosome REF: p. 140 6. Slime molds have both fungal and

characteristics.

ANS: amoebal REF: p. 143 7. Masses of protoplasm containing thousands of nuclei are characteristic of a(n)

.

ANS:

plasmodial slime mold plasmodium REF: p. 143 8. The common name for nematodes is

.

ANS: roundworms REF: p. 144 9. The life cycle of a parasitic helminth ends with an adult parasite that is found in the

host.

ANS: definitive REF: p. 144 10. Trematodes are commonly called

.

ANS: flukes REF: p. 145 MATCHING

NURSINGTB.COM

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Mycelium b. Algae c. Sporangia d. Fungi e. Dimorphic fungi f. Coenocytic g. Blastospore 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

A collective mass of threadlike hyphae Hyphae that do not contain septa and appear as long, continuous cells with many nuclei Have a cell wall containing ergosterol Result of asexual reproduction of fungi Conidiospores that bud from a parent cell

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

ANS: A ANS: F ANS: D ANS: C ANS: G

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 129 pp. 131-132 p. 132 p. 132 p. 132

Chapter 07: Physical and Chemical Methods of Control VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Decontamination is defined as the a. killing of all microorganisms in a given area. b. reduction or removal of unwanted chemical or biological agents. c. stopping of the growth of microorganisms in a given area. d. removal of all vegetative organisms.

ANS: B

REF: p. 151

2. Which of the following has a higher resistance to environmental stresses than the others? a. Bacterial endospores b. Fungal spores c. Enveloped viruses d. Vegetative bacterial cells ANS: A

REF: p. 151

3. The cleaning of glassware and tableware in restaurants falls into the category of a. degermation. b. sterilization. c. disinfection. d. sanitization.

ANS: D

N RSINGTB.COM

U REF: p. 153

4. Which of the following methods is the simplest heat-related method to sterilize metal? a. Incineration b. Autoclaving c. Direct flaming d. Indirect heating ANS: C

REF: p. 155

5. Boiling items in water for a. 3-5 b. 5-6 c. 6-8 d. 10-15 ANS: D

minutes will kill most vegetative bacteria and viruses.

REF: p. 157

6. The technique that combines freezing and drying to preserve microbes and other cells is a. desiccation. b. lyophilization. c. pasteurization. d. radiation.

ANS: B

REF: p. 157

7. Ionizing radiation involves all of the following except a. UV light b. Gamma rays c. Electron beams d. X-rays ANS: A

REF: pp. 157-158

8. The term “zone of inhibition” is used in which of the following procedures? a. Use-dilution test b. Growth inhibition test c. Disk-diffusion test d. Multiple inhibition test ANS: C

REF: p. 160

9. Chlorine belongs to which of the following chemical groups? a. Halogens b. Heavy metals c. Phenols d. Alcohols ANS: A

REF: p. 160

10. All of the following are methods for food preservation except a. Pasteurization b. Disinfection NURSINGTB.COM c. Irradiation d. Ultrahigh-temperature pasteurization ANS: B

REF: pp. 163-165

11. The time in minutes in which 90% of the bacterial population will be killed at a given

temperature is called the a. generation time. b. thermal death time. c. sterilization time. d. decimal reduction time.

ANS: D

REF: p. 155

12. The food preparation process in which not all microorganisms are killed, but the number of

microbes capable of spoiling the food or causing disease is reduced, is called a. sanitation. b. pasteurization. c. disinfection. d. purification.

ANS: B

REF: p. 163

13. A toxic, odorless gas often used as a sterilizing agent in hospitals and dental officials is a. ethylene oxide.

b. carbon dioxide. c. carbon monoxide. d. propane.

ANS: A

REF: p. 162

14. Autoclaving will usually destroy/inactivate all fungi, bacteria, viruses, and most bacterial

spores but will not necessarily eliminate a. neurotoxins. b. prions. c. protozoan cysts. d. mycoplasmas.

ANS: B

REF: p. 156

15. The effects of different kinds of radiation depend on the following factors: a. Time of exposure, wavelength b. Intensity, frequency, thickness of sample c. Distance, frequency, nature of sample d. Chemical composition, intensity, shielding ANS: A

REF: pp. 157-158

COMPLETION 1. The destruction of vegetative organisms by chemical or physical methods is called

.

ANS: disinfection

NURSINGTB.COM

REF: p. 152 2. The term to describe an agent that causes microbial growth to be inhibited, thus preventing

further growth is

.

ANS: microbiostatic REF: p. 153 3. The lowest temperature by which all microorganisms in a particular liquid will be killed

within 10 minutes is the

.

ANS: thermal death point REF: p. 155 4. Antimicrobial agents that are specifically designed to be used on living tissues are referred to

as

.

ANS: antiseptics REF: p. 159

5. Agents that kill microbes are classified as

.

ANS: microbicidal REF: p. 153 6. Food irradiation destroys the

of the cell.

ANS: DNA REF: p. 164 7. The autoclave uses pressurized steam at approximately

° C and

psi.

ANS:

121° C, 15 psi 121, 15 REF: p. 156 8. The two types of pasteurization typically used today are

and

.

ANS:

high temperature short time, ultrahigh temperature (extremely short time) high temperature short time, ultrahigh temperature extremely short time ultrahigh temperature extremely short time, high temperature short time high temperature, ultrahigh teNmUpR erS atI urN eGTB.COM REF: p. 163 9. High salt or sugar content/concentrations make use of

to destroy or inhibit the

growth of microorganisms.

ANS: osmotic pressure REF: p. 157 10. Sterilization using dry heat requires a temperature of

° C for a period of

.

ANS:

160-170° C, 2-4 hours 160-170, 2-4 hours 160-170, 2-4 hours REF: p. 156 11. The bioassay method for testing the effectiveness of disinfectants and antiseptics on

microorganisms is the

.

ANS: use-dilution test.

REF: p. 160 12. Bacteria that thrive in extremely dry conditions are classified as ANS: xerophiles REF: p. 157 MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Iodine b. Triclosan c. Aldehydes d. Quaternary compounds e. Damage to DNA f. Mercury g. Osmotic pressure h. Penicillin 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Phenolic compound Irradiation Cationic detergent Alkylating agent Halogen

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

ANS: B ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A

NURSINGTB.COM REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 160 p. 164 p. 162 p. 162 p. 160

.

Chapter 08: Microbiological Laboratory Techniques VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An inanimate object or substance capable of transporting pathogens from one medium or

individual to another is referred to as a a. vector. b. fomite. c. transporter. d. transposon.

ANS: B

REF: p. 169

2. Which of the following is a biological test organism for validating dry or moist heat

sterilization? a. Bacillus subtilis var. niger b. Escherichia coli c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Staphylococcus epidermidis ANS: A

REF: p. 170

3. The destruction of all microorganisms and their endospores is referred to as a. disinfection. b. degermination.

NURSINGTB.COM c. sanitization. d. sterilization.

ANS: D

REF: p. 169

4. The process by which the numbers of microbes on the human skin are reduced by scrubbing is

called a. degermination. b. sanitization. c. disinfection. d. sterilization.

ANS: A

REF: p. 170

5. In correct sequence, the five “I’s” in microbiology stand for a. Inoculation, Inspection, Identification, Incubation, and Isolation. b. Isolation, Inoculation, Inspection, Identification, and Incubation. c. Inoculation, Incubation, Isolation, Inspection, and Identification. d. Inspection, Inoculation, Incubation, Isolation, and Identification.

ANS: C

REF: p. 173

6. Which of the following is considered to be a macronutrient for microorganisms? a. Folic acid b. Nitrogen

c. Copper d. Riboflavin ANS: B

REF: p. 171

7. Chemically, agar is a a. protein. b. lipid. c. carbohydrate. d. nucleic acid.

ANS: C

REF: p. 171

8. Which of the following genera of bacteria need very specialized media for culturing? a. Spiroplasma b. Enterococcus c. Staphylococcus d. Pseudomonas ANS: A

REF: p. 171

9. Which of the following media are defined and have an exact chemical composition? a. Complex media b. Synthetic media c. Enriched media d. Special media ANS: B

REF: p. 171

NURSINGTB.COM

10. Which of the following media is often used to grow Mycobacterium tuberculosis? a. Blood agar b. MacConkey agar c. Heart infusion broth d. Middlebrook’s medium ANS: D

REF: p. 172

11. Media that contain complex organic substances such as blood for the growth of specific

bacteria are referred to as a. enriched media. b. general-purpose media. c. differential media. d. reducing media.

ANS: A

REF: p. 178

12. Which of the following microorganisms can be cultured only in the footpads of mice or a

species of armadillo? a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Mycobacterium leprae c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. Mycoplasma

ANS: B

REF: p. 173

13. Nigrosin is a stain used in a. simple staining. b. gram staining. c. negative staining. d. acid-fast staining.

ANS: C

REF: p. 175

14. The stain used to identify bacteria with a large amount of peptidoglycan in their cell walls is

the a. b. c. d.

acid-fast stain. methylene blue stain.

Gram stain. negative stain.

ANS: C

REF: p. 175

15. Which of the following stains is generally used for the diagnosis of tuberculosis? a. Acid-fast stain b. Gram stain c. Negative stain d. Simple stain ANS: A

REF: p. 176

16. Which of the following stain s is t h e most widely used differential stain in hematology

laboratories? a. Carbolfuchsin stain b. Ziehl-Neelson stain c. Kinyoun stain d. Wright’s stain ANS: D

N R I G B.C M U S N T O

REF: p. 176

17. Which of the following media is used to isolate Neisseria gonorrhoeae? a. Phenylethyl alcohol agar b. Thayer-Martin agar c. MacConkey agar d. Mannitol salt agar ANS: B

REF: p. 178

18. Which of the following is a general-purpose medium? a. Tryptic soy agar b. Blood agar c. Mannitol salt agar d. MacConkey agar ANS: A

REF: p. 178

19. In an agar slant, bacterial colonies that appear separate or semiconfluent are referred to as

a. b. c. d.

filiform. echinulate. beaded. effuse.

ANS: C

REF: p. 179

20. A saucer-shaped liquefaction in a gelatin stab is referred to as a. napiform. b. saccate. c. crateriform. d. stratiform.

ANS: C

REF: p. 179

COMPLETION 1. A procedure performed under sterile conditions uses the

technique.

ANS: aseptic REF: p. 169 2. Substances that kill bacteria are referred to as

.

ANS: bactericidal REF: p. 170

NURSINGTB.COM

3. A common laboratory medium is nutrient broth, which contains beef extract and ANS: peptone REF: p. 171 4. A saucer-shaped liquefaction of gelatin stabs is said to have a

appearance.

ANS: crateriform REF: p. 179 5. A culture that contains a single species of an organism is a

culture.

ANS: pure REF: p. 173 6. A disinfectant is designed to be used only on ANS: nonliving REF: p. 170

surfaces.

.

7. Bacteria that show variation in cellular size and shape as a result of environmental conditions

or age of the organisms are referred to as

bacteria.

ANS: pleomorphic REF: p. 178 8. Bacteria that appear red after gram staining are said to be gram-

.

ANS: negative REF: p. 175 9. A medium that grows several different organisms that show visible differences in colony

morphology is a

medium.

ANS: differential REF: p. 172 MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. MacConkey agar b. Phenylethyl alcohol agar c. Nutrient agar NURSINGTB.COM d. Tryptic soy agar e. Chocolate agar f. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate agar g. Thayer-Martin agar

General-purpose medium frequently used as the base medium of other agar plate types Most commonly used general medium in the laboratory Selective medium for gram-positive bacteria while inhibiting gram-negative bacteria Blood agar plate in which blood cells have been lysed; used for growing fastidious respiratory bacteria 5. Used for culture of stool samples to detect Salmonella

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: E ANS: F

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 172 p. 178 p. 178 p. 178 p. 178

Chapter 09: Microbiological Laboratory Safety Issues VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. OSHA is a division of the a. National Institutes of Health. b. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. c. U.S. Department of Labor. d. World Health Organization.

ANS: C

REF: p. 186

2. OSHA was established in a. 1921. b. 1971. c. 1980. d. 1985.

ANS: B

REF: p. 185

3. The most commonly acquired laboratory infections are caused by a. bacteria. b. viruses. c. protozoans. d. prions.

ANS: A

N RSINGTB.COM

U REF: p. 186

4. Hand-washing guidelines have been established by a. OSHA. b. CDC. c. NIAD. d. WHO. ANS: B

REF: p. 187

5. A bloodborne training program for certain professions was established by and is required by a. OSHA. b. CDC. c. NIA. d. WHO. ANS: A 6. There is/are a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANS: D

REF: p. 187

level(s) of biosafety depending on the organisms handled.

REF: p. 187

7. The biosafety level necessary in water testing facilities is level a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4.

ANS: A

REF: p. 188

8. Which of the following bacteria should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility? a. Micrococcus luteus b. Bacillus subtilis c. Salmonella d. Staphylococcus epidermidis ANS: C

REF: p. 188

9. Agents associated with human disease but generally not a serious health risk are classified in

which of the following risk groups? a. RG1 b. RG2 c. RG3 d. RG4 ANS: B

REF: p. 187

10. Ebola viruses need to be handled in which of the following biosafety levels? a. BSL1 NURSINGTB.COM b. BSL2 c. BSL3 d. BSL4

ANS: D

REF: p. 189

11. A unique number that aids in finding additional toxicological information about a specific

substance is the a. CAS number. b. atomic number. c. DOT ID number. d. RTECS number.

ANS: D

REF: p. 191

12. Fires from flammable metals require type a. A b. B c. C d. D ANS: D

fire extinguishers.

REF: p. 193

13. Fires from combustibles such as wood require type a. A

fire extinguishers.

b. B c. C d. D ANS: A

REF: p. 193

14. Bypass fume hoods belong to the group of a. general-purpose hoods. b. radioisotope hoods. c. perchloric acid hoods. d. biosafety cabinets.

ANS: A

REF: p. 193

15. Which of the following eyewash/safety showers should be used for immediate flushing only,

until the victim reaches another safety unit? a. Emergency shower b. Personal eyewash c. Handheld drench hose d. Combination unit ANS: B

REF: p. 194

16. Ultralow freezers can freeze down to a. –35 b. –65 c. –85 d. –110

° C.

NURSINGTB.COM

ANS: C

REF: p. 194

17. All of the following are bloodborne pathogens in the healthcare setting except a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. HIV ANS: A

REF: p. 197

18. Exposure to nonionizing radiation such as UV light can sometimes lead to the development of a. reproductive organ failure. b. eye damage and skin cancer. c. brain and spinal cord damage. d. musculoskeletal deformities.

ANS: B

REF: p. 191

COMPLETION 1. Ergonomic guidelines for nursing homes are issued by ANS: OSHA

.

REF: p. 197 2. The four risk groups for agents have been established by the

.

ANS: NIH REF: p. 187 3. PASS stands for pull, aim, squeeze, and

.

ANS: sweep REF: p. 193 4. CDC stands for the Centers for Disease Control and

.

ANS: Prevention REF: p. 185 5. Dangerous and exotic agents need to be handled in a BSL-

environment.

ANS: 4 REF: p. 189 6. Control of access to BSL-3 laNborR atorI ies G is thBe .reCsp oMnsibility of the

U S N T

O

.

ANS: laboratory director REF: p. 189 7. Chemical trade names are also called

names.

ANS: proprietary REF: p. 191 8. A form that contains data regarding the properties of a particular substance is the

form.

ANS:

Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) Material Safety Data Sheet MSDS REF: p. 191 9. The type of fire extinguisher used on fires from flammable liquids such as gasoline would be

a type

extinguisher.

ANS: B REF: p. 193 MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Chemical name b. Structural formula c. Synonyms d. Trade name e. CAS number f. RTECS number g. DOT ID number 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Proprietary name of drugs Names with similar meaning Name of a drug and a precise description of its chemical composition A unique number assigned to each chemical to aid in searching computerized databases A precise description of the atomic groups or arrangements of atoms

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: E ANS: B

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 191 p. 191 p. 191 p. 191 p. 191

NURSINGTB.COM

Chapter 10: Pharmacology VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The branch of pharmacology that addresses drug amounts at various sites in the body after

drug administration is called a. pharmacodynamics. b. pharmacokinetics. c. pharmacotherapeutics. d. pharmacy.

ANS: B

REF: p. 202

2. The generic name of a drug refers to its a. trade b. proprietary c. chemical d. nonproprietary ANS: D

name.

REF: p. 203

3. The most rapid rate of drug absorption is achieved by a. on the skin b. intravenous c. intramuscular NURSINGTB.COM d. sublingual ANS: B

administration.

REF: p. 204

4. The decrease in blood clotting by heparin occurs at which general site of action? a. Cellular b. Extracellular c. Neuromuscular d. Intracellular ANS: B

REF: p. 205

5. Which of the following is a phase I reaction in biotransformation? a. Oxidation b. Conjugation c. Acetylation d. Glucuronidation ANS: A

REF: p. 206

6. All of the following are ways the kidney are used for urine formation and drug clearance

except a. Filtration b. Tubular secretion c. Tubular filtration

d. Tubular reabsorption ANS: C

REF: p. 207

7. The time response measures all of the following except a. ED50 b. Peak effect time c. Onset of response d. Threshold level ANS: A

REF: p. 208

8. When drug receptors are maximally activated it is referred to as the a. threshold level. b. peak effect. c. cessation effect. d. latency time.

ANS: B

REF: p. 208

9. A subacute toxic effect occurs when the adverse drug effect occurs a. after 5 minutes of exposure. b. after 24 hours of exposure. c. after repeated exposure for days. d. over months to years of exposure.

ANS: C

REF: p. 209

10. The specific antidote to botulN inUuR mStoIxN inGisTB.COM a. sodium bicarbonate. b. antitoxin. c. pralidoxime. d. naloxone.

ANS: B

REF: p. 209

11. The term used to indicate the extent to which a drug reaches its site of action is a. bioactivity. b. bioavailability. c. bioremediation. d. biostasis.

ANS: B

REF: p. 205

12. Drugs needed for diseases with fewer than 200,000 patients, and that fail to receive attention

for development because of cost and need, are called a. secondary drugs. b. minor drugs. c. orphan drugs. d. specialty drugs.

ANS: C

REF: p. 211

13. The discipline addressing issues associated with the choice and application of drugs to be used

for disease prevention, treatment, and/or diagnosis is a. pharmacotherapeutics. b. toxicology. c. pharmacokinetics. d. pharmacy.

ANS: A

REF: p. 202

14. Drugs are excreted from the body primarily via the a. lungs. b. kidneys. c. small intestines. d. spleen.

ANS: B

REF: p. 206

15. A mercury-containing compound used as a preservative in vaccines is a. analgesic. b. EDTA. c. codeine. d. thimerosal.

ANS: D

REF: p. 210

COMPLETION 1. The body’s metabolism of drN ugUsR isScI alN leG d TB.COM .

ANS: biotransformation REF: p. 205 2. The study of the body’s response to poisons and their harmful effect is referred to as

.

ANS: toxicology REF: p. 209 3. Drug administration, absorption, distribution, and clearance are collectively called

.

ANS: pharmacokinetics REF: p. 204 4. ED50 is a measure of the ANS: dose REF: p. 207

response.

5. The federal agency that approves the use of a specific drug is the

.

ANS: FDA REF: p. 211 6. The three general sites of drug action are

,

, and

.

ANS:

extracellular, cellular, intracellular extracellular, intracellular, cellular cellular, extracellular, intracellular cellular, intracellular, extracellular intracellular, cellular, extracellular intracellular, extracellular, cellular REF: p. 205 7. The

effect is the combined action of intestinal and hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes that affects a drug’s bioavailability.

ANS: first-pass REF: p. 208

name is a nonproprietary single name usually related to the drug’s relationship NURSINGTB.COM to a therapeutic class.

8. A

ANS: generic

REF: p. 203 9. Drugs and substances with a high probability for abuse with no therapeutic use and a lack of

safety controls are classified as Schedule

.

ANS: I REF: p. 211 10. The

is the ratio between a drug dose causing undesirable effects and the dose that causes the desired effects.

ANS: therapeutic index REF: p. 207

MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Morphine

b. c. d. e. f. g. h.

Administered into the subarachnoid space Diazepam Administered into muscles Aspirin Administered sublingually L-Dopa LSD

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Prodrug Schedule II controlled substance Intrathecally Schedule I controlled substance Schedule IV controlled substance

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

ANS: G ANS: A ANS: B ANS: H ANS: C

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 207 p. 211 p. 204 p. 211 p. 211

NURSINGTB.COM

Chapter 11: Antimicrobial Drugs VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The findings of the antibacterial properties of Penicillium notatum were first published by a. Mosse. b. Joubert. c. Pasteur. d. Fleming.

ANS: D

REF: p. 215

2. Prontosil, a dye, was first used as an antibiotic by a. Pasteur. b. Domagk. c. Bovet. d. Fleming.

ANS: B

REF: p. 215

3. All of the following are general metabolic or structural targets for antimicrobial drugs except a. Lipid synthesis inhibition b. Protein synthesis inhibition c. Interference with nucleic acid synthesis d. Interference with cell wall synthesis ANS: A

N RSINGTB.COM

U REF: p. 216

4. Which of the following is not a common characteristic used in the selection of an

antimicrobial drug? a. Selective toxicity b. Ease of delivery to the site of infection c. Ability to administer intravenously d. Potential for allergic reaction ANS: C

REF: p. 217

5. The term bacteriostatic means that bacteria a. are killed by the antimicrobial drug. b. show continuous growth. c. no longer can multiply. d. no longer cause disease.

ANS: C

REF: p. 218

6. Drugs that are effective against gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, but not all of them,

are

activity drugs.

a. small-spectrum b. narrow-spectrum c. medium-spectrum

d. broad-spectrum ANS: C

REF: p. 218

7. Which of the following is not a test to determine the efficacy of an antimicrobial agent against

a specific organism? a. Polymerase chain reaction b. Kirby-Bauer method c. Minimal inhibitory concentration method d. Serum killing power method ANS: A

REF: p. 219

8. When two antibiotics are given together to increase the therapeutic effect, the phenomenon is

referred to as a. antagonism. b. mutualism. c. synergism. d. parasitism.

ANS: C

REF: p. 219

9. Antimicrobial drugs that adversely affect the red bone marrow are referred to as a. hepatotoxic. b. hemotoxic. c. neurotoxic. d. nephrotoxic.

ANS: B

REF: p.N 22U0RSINGTB.COM

10. All of the following are mechanisms of resistance used by microbes except a. Change in ribosome composition b. Development of defensive enzymes c. Increased drug elimination d. Change in membrane permeability ANS: A

REF: p. 222

11. Which of the following is a synthetic antimicrobial drug? a. Penicillin G b. Penicillin V c. Cephalosporin d. Quinolone ANS: D

REF: p. 224

12. Cephalosporins have a. two b. three c. four d. five ANS: D

REF: p. 225

generations of developed agents.

13. Which of the following antimicrobials is effective against mycobacteria? a. Penicillin b. Rifampin c. Erythromycin d. Cephalosporin ANS: B

REF: p. 226

14. Which of the following is an antiviral agent? a. Amantadine b. Vancomycin c. Chloramphenicol d. Macrolides ANS: A

REF: p. 227

15. Which of the following drugs is effective against Candida albicans? a. Ketoconazole b. Amphotericin B c. Griseofulvin d. Vancomycin ANS: B

REF: p. 227

COMPLETION 1. A drug that kills pathogenic b erS iaIisNrG efT erB re. dC toOaM s NaUctR

.

ANS: microbicidal REF: p. 215 2. Most agents that inhibit protein synthesis involve disrupting the process of

.

ANS: translation REF: p. 216 3. An ideal antimicrobial drug will kill harmful microbes without significant damage to the host.

This principle is referred to as

.

ANS: selective toxicity REF: p. 218 4. Another term for the effectiveness of a drug is ANS: efficacy REF: p. 218

.

5. In order for an antimicrobial drug to be able to cross the blood-brain barrier it must be

soluble.

ANS: lipid REF: p. 218 6. Resistance to only one type of drug may allow resistance to a similar drug; this process is

called

.

ANS: cross-resistance REF: p. 222 7. The range of pathogen type that a given drug is effective against is referred to as the drug’s

.

ANS: spectrum of activity REF: p. 218 8. In the MIC method of determining antibiotic effectiveness, the lowest concentration

containing no living organisms is called the

.

ANS: minimum bacterial concentration REF: p. 220

NURSINGTB.COM

9. The zone of inhibition is the result of the

method.

ANS:

disk diffusion Kirby-Bauer REF: p. 219 10. The assessment of a drug to determine its benefits versus the risks is called the ANS: therapeutic index REF: p. 220 MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Vancor b. Vancocin c. Sansac d. Cipro e. Dalacin f. Rofact

.

g. Nydrazid h. Etibi 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Erythromycin Clindamycin Rifampin Isoniazid Ethambutol

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

ANS: C ANS: E ANS: F ANS: G ANS: H

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 226 p. 226 p. 226 p. 226 p. 226

NURSINGTB.COM

Chapter 12: Infection and Disease VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which type of symbiosis benefits both members? a. Mutualism b. Parasitism c. Commensalism d. Pathogenesis ANS: A

REF: p. 235

2. The mold that produces penicillin is an example of a. parasitism. b. mutualism. c. commensalism. d. amensalism.

ANS: D

REF: p. 235

3. The presence of microbes in or on the body is a(n) a. infection. b. disease. c. contamination. d. adhesion.

ANS: C

N RSINGTB.COM

U REF: p. 237

4. All of the following areas of the human body contain normal flora except a. Peritoneum b. Urethra c. Vagina d. Mouth ANS: A

REF: p. 237

5. Bacterial endotoxins are a. proteins in the cell wall. b. secreted into the environment. c. components of the gram-positive cell wall. d. components of the gram-negative cell wall.

ANS: D

REF: p. 241

6. When a pathogen spreads from the original site to other tissues or organs it is called a(n)

infection. a. b. c. d.

local focal natural acute

ANS: B

REF: p. 243

7. A disease that is generally present in a given population is a. pandemic. b. epidemic. c. sporadic. d. endemic.

ANS: D

REF: p. 246

8. Which of the following is not considered to be a vehicle transmission? a. Airborne b. Insect c. Foodborne d. Bodily fluid ANS: B

REF: pp. 247-248

9. Which of the following is likely to be the most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens? a. Skin b. Gastrointestinal tract c. Respiratory tract d. Conjunctiva ANS: C

REF: p. 238

10. Infections that may result from the use of catheters are classified as a. iatrogenic infections.

NURSINGTB.COM b. local infections. c. exogenous infections. d. endogenous infections.

ANS: A

REF: p. 249

11. A relationship in which one organism benefits and the other is harmed is called a. commensalism. b. parasitism. c. synergism. d. antagonism.

ANS: B

REF: p. 235

12. The degree or extent of disease-evoking power that a microorganism has is referred to as a. virulence. b. strength. c. resistance. d. competence.

ANS: A

REF: p. 239

13. The virulence factors of bacteria include a. size, adhesion, resistance, and mutation.

b. colonization, invasion, toxins, and adhesion. c. toxins, evasion of body defenses, motility, and size. d. colonization, chemotaxis, fermentation, and toxins.

ANS: B

REF: pp. 239-240

14. The type of infection in which several infectious agents establish themselves at the same site

is referred to as a a. chronic infection. b. necrotizing infection. c. fatal infection. d. mixed infection.

ANS: D

REF: p. 243

15. Healthcare–associated infections are also known as a. incidental infections. b. accidental infections. c. nosocomial infections. d. secondary infections.

ANS: C

REF: p. 248

16. The number of new cases of a disease over a certain period of time compared with the general

healthy population is a referred to as a. incidence. b. prevalence. c. virulence.

NURSINGTB.COM d. mortality.

ANS: A

REF: p. 246

COMPLETION 1. The symbiotic relationship in which one of the organisms benefits and the other is not harmed

or helped is referred to as

.

ANS: commensalism REF: p. 235 2. A flora found in the same location as resident flora but that remains only for a given amount

of time is called a

flora.

ANS: transient REF: p. 236 3. A microorganism capable of causing disease is called a(n) ANS: pathogen

.

REF: p. 235 4. Vectors that transmit pathogens and also serve as host for part of the pathogen’s life cycle are

vectors.

ANS: biological REF: p. 248 5. A worldwide epidemic is considered a(n)

disease.

ANS: pandemic REF: p. 246 6. An organism that does not normally cause disease in a healthy individual but that can cause

disease when there is an imbalance in the normal flora or when the host becomes immunocompromised is called a(n) pathogen.

ANS: opportunistic REF: p. 237 7. Animals, usually arthropods, that carry pathogens from one host to another are called

.

ANS: vectors REF: p. 248

NURSINGTB.COM

8. A nonliving object such as a tissue, towel, or even money that can be used to transmit a

pathogen to a host is called a(n)

.

ANS: fomite REF: p. 247 9. A disease that breaks out only occasionally, such as typhoid fever in the United States, is

referred to as a(n)

disease.

ANS: sporadic REF: p. 246 10. The study of the cause of disease is called ANS: etiology REF: p. 250 MATCHING

.

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Pandemic b. Nosocomial c. Septicemia d. Adhesion e. Pathogen f. Bacteremia g. Evasion h. Microbiota i. Surgery 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

The first step in infection The parenteral route Normal flora Multiplication of pathogens in blood AIDS

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

ANS: D ANS: I ANS: H ANS: C ANS: A

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 239 p. 239 p. 235 p. 243 p. 246

NURSINGTB.COM

Chapter 13: The Immune Response and Lymphatic System VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is NOT true for antigens? a. An antigen is any agent that can bind specifically to components of the immune

system. b. Epitopes are the smallest part of an antigen molecule capable to bind with an

antibody. c. Proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids can all be antigens under certain circumstances. d. Proteins are the least immunogenic molecules due to very few epitopes for antibody recognition.

ANS: D

REF: p. 255

2. Self-antigens are coded by a group of genes located on chromosome

(major histocompatibility complex). a. 21 b. 8 c. 6 d. 5 ANS: C

REF: p. 256

3. The antibody found in body sNeU crR etS ioI nsNisGTB.COM a. IgA. b. IgD. c. IgE. d. IgG. ANS: A

REF: p. 257

4. An antibody is a. a substance initiating an allergic response. b. a marker on the cell surface of macrophages. c. a protein produced by plasma cells. d. a marker on the cell surface of macrophages.

ANS: C

REF: p. 257

5. Which of the following cell types secretes antibodies? a. Macrophages b. T cells c. Plasma cells d. Monocytes ANS: C

REF: p. 271

6. Which of the following provide defense against viral infections?

and form the MHC

a. b. c. d.

Histamines Antibiotics Prostaglandins Interferons

ANS: D

REF: p. 270

7. Which of the following cells is a granulocyte? a. Basophil b. Monocyte c. Lymphocyte d. Macrophage ANS: A

REF: p. 263

8. Immunity that is a result of an actual infection is called a. artificially acquired passive immunity. b. artificially acquired active immunity. c. naturally acquired passive immunity. d. naturally acquired active immunity.

ANS: D

REF: p. 273

9. A substance capable of raising the body temperature is a. heparin. b. pyrogen. c. serum. d. prostaglandin.

NURSINGTB.COM

ANS: B

REF: p. 270

10. When an organ or tissue is transplanted between genetically different individuals it is called

a(n) a. xenograft. b. isograft. c. autograft. d. allograft.

ANS: D

REF: p. 256

11. Which of the following blood types cannot receive a blood transfusion from type O blood

type? a. Type A b. Type B c. All blood types can d. None of the blood types other than O can ANS: C

REF: p. 257

12. Which of the following is a systemic autoimmune disease? a. Graves’ disease b. Multiple sclerosis c. Myasthenia gravis

d. Rheumatoid arthritis ANS: D

REF: p. 277

13. Which of the following is not part of the second line of defense? a. pH of the skin b. Cytokines c. Phagocytosis d. Fever ANS: A

REF: p. 278

14. Cells infected with a virus produce glycoproteins that interfere with viral replication and

impede its spread; these glycoproteins are called a. interferons. b. suppressors. c. pyrogens. d. prostaglandins.

ANS: A

REF: p. 270

15. The first line of defense that prevents microbes from entering the body includes a. phagocytes. b. T lymphocytes. c. skin. d. interferons.

ANS: C

REF: p. 267

NURSINGTB.COM

16. T cells (T lymphocytes) are divided into four categories a. Killer T cells, activating T cells, helper T cells b. Killer T cells, helper T cells, suppressor T cells, memory T cells c. Helper T cells, basophilic T cells, suppressor T cells d. Suppressor T cells, cytotoxic T cells, secondary T cells, primary T cells ANS: B

REF: p. 271

is a pentamer and the largest of the immunoglobulins.

17. a. b. c. d.

IgG IgA IgD IgM

ANS: D

REF: p. 257

18. The category of immunoglobulins that can also be found in colostrum and mother’s milk is a. IgG. b. IgA. c. IgD. d. IgE. ANS: B

REF: p. 257

19. GALT is an example of a collection of lymphatic nodules in the a. respiratory tract. b. small intestine. c. stomach. d. female reproductive system.

ANS: B

REF: p. 260

20. Which of the following organs breaks down worn-out red blood cells? a. Spleen b. Pancreas c. Thymus d. Red bone marrow ANS: A

REF: p. 261

COMPLETION 1. Enzymes that attack the peptidoglycan layer of bacteria and are present in perspiration, nasal

secretions, saliva, and tears are

.

ANS: lysozymes REF: p. 267 2. Delayed hypersensitivity is a result of

.

ANS: cell-mediated immuneNreUaR ctS ioI nsNGTB.COM REF: p. 276 3. B cells are responsible for

-mediated immunity.

ANS: antibody REF: p. 278 4. Substances that stimulate the production of antibodies are called

.

ANS: immunogens REF: p. 255 5. The body’s decreased ability to fight infections is called

.

ANS: immunosuppression REF: p. 254 6. The category of immunoglobulins that is implicated in allergic reactions is ANS: IgE

.

REF: p. 258 7. Granulocytes are subdivided into three groups:

,

, and

.

ANS:

basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils basophils, neutrophils, eosinophils eosinophils, basophils, neutrophils eosinophils, neutrophils, basophils neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils REF: p. 263 8. Large, circulating phagocytic agranulocytes that develop into macrophages as they leave the

blood vessels are called

.

ANS: monocytes REF: p. 263 9. A(n)

is a strong immune response to a substance that is usually not harmful to the body but causes hypersensitivity reactions.

ANS: allergy REF: p. 274

10.

NURSINGTB.COM

occurs when the immune system is unable to distinguish between self- and nonself-antigens and attacks the cells of the body.

ANS: Autoimmunity REF: p. 276

MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Basophil b. IgM c. IgE d. Monocyte e. IgD f. T cell g. IgA h. IgG 1. Monomer bound to surface of B cells 2. Pentamer 3. Found in tears, saliva

4. Can cross the placenta 5. Allergic reactions 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

ANS: E ANS: B ANS: G ANS: H ANS: C

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 258 p. 257 p. 257 p. 257 p. 258

NURSINGTB.COM

Chapter 14: Infections of the Integumentary System, Soft Tissue, and Musculoskeletal System VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Langerhans cells, which play a role in defense against microbes, are located in the a. epidermis. b. dermis. c. hypodermis. d. subcutaneous layer.

ANS: A

REF: p. 283

2. The papillary layer of the skin is part of the a. epidermis. b. dermis. c. hypodermis. d. subcutaneous layer.

ANS: B

REF: p. 283

3. Which of the following organisms is the causative agent of skin infections and toxic shock

syndrome? a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Staphylococcus aureus NURSINGTB.COM c. Micrococcus luteus d. Propionibacterium acnes ANS: B

REF: p. 284

4. Which of the following is a type of acute infection generally caused by group A

Streptococcus? a. Carbuncle b. Impetigo c. Erysipelas d. Acne ANS: C

REF: p. 285

5. The organism often called “flesh-eating bacteria” is a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Staphylococcus epidermidis c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Propionibacterium acnes ANS: C

REF: p. 286

6. Acne is caused by a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Staphylococcus epidermidis

c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Propionibacterium acnes ANS: D

REF: p. 286

7. Warts are commonly caused by the a. human papillomavirus. b. herpesvirus. c. HIV. d. varicella-zoster virus.

ANS: A

REF: p. 290

8. Herpes simplex infections on lips and in the mouth are most commonly caused by a. HSV-1. b. HSV-2. c. HSV-6. d. HSV-7.

ANS: A

REF: p. 290

9. “Athlete’s foot” is referred to as a. tinea capitis. b. tinea corporis. c. tinea versicolor. d. tinea pedis.

ANS: D

REF: p. 295

NURSINGTB.COM

10. Diaper rash in infants is commonly caused by a. Sporothrix schenckii. b. Actinomyces. c. Candida albicans. d. Malassezia furfur.

ANS: C

REF: p. 295

11. Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the a. feet. b. scalp. c. mouth. d. hands.

ANS: B

REF: p. 294

12. Subcutaneous mycoses occur predominantly in the a. tropics. b. deserts. c. forests of the Northern Hemisphere. d. Rocky Mountains.

ANS: A

REF: p. 296

13. A chronic localized subcutaneous infection characterized by verrucoid lesions on the skin is a. candidiasis. b. leprosy. c. shingles. d. chromoblastomycosis.

ANS: D

REF: p. 296

14. The most important fungi that cause diseases of the skin, hair, and nails are called a. Plasmodium. b. sporozoites. c. dermatophytes. d. nematodes.

ANS: C

REF: p. 294

15. Variola virus of the orthopoxvirus family causes the acute, highly contagious disease a. shingles. b. smallpox. c. jock itch. d. ringworm.

ANS: B

REF: p. 292

16. It is often difficult for antibiotics to effectively reach the infection site of osteomyelitis

primarily because of a. destruction of the local blood supply. b. denaturing of the drug by nor mal flo ra.

N R I G B.C M O c. inflammation and edema. U S N T d. excessive production of pus at the infection site.

ANS: A

REF: p. 288

COMPLETION 1. Leprosy is caused by

.

ANS: Mycobacterium leprae REF: p. 286 2. Infections that result in the death of infected tissue are called ANS: necrotizing REF: p. 286 3. Chickenpox and shingles are caused by the ANS: varicella-zoster REF: p. 290

virus.

infections.

4. Fungal infections of the skin are referred to as

.

ANS: mycoses REF: p. 293 5. A tinea infection in the groin area is commonly called “

.”

ANS: jock itch REF: p. 295 6. Leprosy is also known as

.

ANS: Hansen’s disease REF: p. 286 MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. HSV-1 b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. HSV-2 d. Actinomyces e. Escherichia coli NURSINGTB.COM f. Varicella-zoster g. HHV-6 and -7 h. Malassezia furfur 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Necrotizing fasciitis Shingles Sixth disease Tinea versicolor Genital herpes

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

ANS: B ANS: F ANS: G ANS: H ANS: C

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 286 p. 291 p. 292 p. 294 pp. 290-291

Chapter 15: Infections of the Respiratory System VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All of the following are structures of the lower respiratory system except a. Lungs b. Pharynx c. Bronchi d. Trachea ANS: B

REF: p. 300

2. Scarlet fever is caused by a. Staphylococcus aureus. b. Staphylococcus epidermidis. c. Streptococcus pyogenes. d. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

ANS: C

REF: p. 301

3. Which of the following organisms is commonly found in the normal flora of the upper

respiratory system? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae c. Bordetella pertussis d. Klebsiella pneumoniae NURSINGTB.COM ANS: A

REF: p. 301

4. Whooping cough is caused by the organism a. Streptococcus pneumoniae. b. Bordetella pertussis. c. Haemophilus influenzae. d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

ANS: B

REF: p. 301

5. Which of the following cannot be and should not be treated with antibiotics? a. Strep throat b. Tuberculosis c. Common cold d. Diphtheria ANS: C

REF: p. 311

6. Tuberculosis is transmitted primarily through a. aerosols. b. fomites. c. blood transfusions. d. oral-fecal route.

ANS: A

REF: p. 306

7. The most virulent pathogen of the human flu virus is type a. A. b. B. c. C. d. D. ANS: A

REF: p. 311

8. SARS is a respiratory illness caused by a. Streptococcus. b. Coronavirus. c. Histoplasma. d. Type A viruses.

ANS: B

REF: p. 313

9. Which of the following geographic areas contains reservoirs for Coccidioides immitis? a. France b. South Africa c. Arizona d. Iowa ANS: C

REF: p. 314

10. The formation of a “fungus ball” within preexisting cavities is a common development in a. blastomycosis.

NURSINGTB.COM b. pulmonary aspergillosis. c. coccidioidomycosis. d. histoplasmosis.

ANS: B

REF: p. 316

11. The “strawberry tongue” symptom is often associated with a. rheumatic fever. b. scarlet fever. c. pneumonia. d. pharyngitis.

ANS: B

REF: p. 302

12. Strep throat is caused by which of the following organisms? a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Streptococcus agalactiae d. Streptococcus faecalis ANS: A

REF: p. 302

13. Tuberculosis is caused by an organism of the genus a. Klebsiella.

b. Bordetella. c. Chlamydia. d. Mycobacterium.

ANS: D

REF: p. 302

14. Klebsiella pneumoniae is a a. gram-negative, motile bacillus. b. gram-positive, spore-forming bacillus. c. gram-negative, encapsulated bacillus. d. gram-positive, encapsulated coccus.

ANS: C

REF: p. 308

15. Anthrax is caused by a. Haemophilus anthracis. b. Bacillus anthracis. c. Streptococcus anthracis. d. Klebsiella anthracis.

ANS: B

REF: p. 308

COMPLETION 1. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a gramANS: positive REF: p. 303

bacterium.

NURSINGTB.COM

2. Rheumatic fever is a rare complication of

.

ANS: strep throat REF: p. 303 3. Parrot fever is caused by

.

ANS: Chlamydia psittaci REF: p. 308 4. Legionellosis affects mainly the

.

ANS: lungs REF: p. 308 5. Hantaviruses, which can cause disease in humans, are carried by ANS: rodents

.

REF: p. 313 6.

is a gram-negative coccobacillus and a common cause of bronchiolitis in children, bronchitis in adults, and occasionally meningitis.

ANS: Haemophilus influenza REF: p. 307

7. Legionella pneumophila is a gram-negative bacillus that causes disease occurring in two

distinct forms:

and

.

ANS:

Pontiac fever, Legionnaire’s disease Legionnaire’s disease, Pontiac fever REF: p. 308 8. The three forms of anthrax caused by Bacillus anthracis are

.

ANS:

inhalational, cutaneous, gastrointestinal inhalational, gastrointestinal, cutaneous cutaneous, inhalational, gastrointestinal cutaneous, gastrointestinal, inhalational gastrointestinal, cutaneous, inhalational

gastrointestinal, inhalational,NcU u tR anSeoIuNs GTB.COM REF: p. 308 9. Influenza is caused by two species of

.

ANS: orthomyxoviruses REF: p. 311 10. SARS stands for

.

ANS: severe acute respiratory syndrome REF: p. 313 11. The TB skin test is also known as the

test.

ANS: tuberculin PPD REF: p. 306 12. The bacterium Mycoplasma pneumonia is unique in that it lacks a(an)

.

,

, and

ANS: cell wall REF: p. 304 MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Coxiella burnetii c. Klebsiella oxytoca d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae e. Streptococcus faecalis f. Legionella pneumophila g. Bordetella pertussis 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Diphtheria Whooping cough Strep throat Pontiac fever Q fever

1.

2.

3.

4.

ANS: D ANS: G ANS: A ANS: F

5. ANS: B

REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 308 p. 305 p. 301 p. 308

REF: p.N 30U9RSINGTB.COM

Chapter 16: Infections of the Gastrointestinal System VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All of the following are components of the gastrointestinal tract except the a. spleen. b. pharynx. c. esophagus. d. stomach.

ANS: A

REF: p. 323

2. Microbial life on teeth was first observed by a. Jenner. b. Semmelweis. c. Van Leeuwenhoek. d. Pasteur.

ANS: C

REF: p. 324

3. Many peptic ulcers are due to a. Salmonella typhi. b. Helicobacter pylori. c. Shigella boydii. d. Salmonella enterica.

ANS: B

N RSINGTB.COM

U REF: p. 324

4. Bacillary dysentery is also called a. salmonellosis. b. shigellosis. c. typhoid fever. d. campylobacteriosis.

ANS: B 5. There are a. two b. three c. four d. five ANS: D

REF: p. 328

known forms of gastroenteritis caused by Escherichia coli.

REF: p. 329

6. Bacillus intoxication is caused by a. Bacillus subtilis. b. Bacillus thuringiensis. c. Bacillus anthracis. d. Bacillus cereus.

ANS: D

REF: p. 331

7. The most common cause of infectious diarrhea in infants and children is a. noroviruses. b. adenoviruses. c. rotaviruses. d. caliciviruses.

ANS: C

REF: p. 332

8. (+) ssRNA viruses that have been isolated from birds, cats, dogs, pigs, sheep, cows, and

humans and are a major cause of gastroenteritis are the a. rotaviruses. b. caliciviruses. c. adenoviruses. d. noroviruses.

ANS: B

REF: p. 332

9. Which of the following organisms produces aflatoxin, a carcinogenic substance? a. Candida albicans b. Claviceps purpurea c. Aspergillus flavus d. Staphylococcus aureus ANS: C

REF: p. 334

10. The human pinworm Enterobius vermicularis lives in the a. duodenum NURSINGTB.COM b. ileum c. transverse colon d. rectum

ANS: D

of humans.

REF: p. 335

11. Typhoid fever is caused by the bacterium a. Escherichia coli. b. Salmonella enterica. c. Shigella flexneri. d. Staphylococcus aureus.

ANS: B

REF: p. 327

12. Giardiasis is a waterborne gastrointestinal disease caused by Giardia intestinalis, which is a a. protozoan. b. bacterium. c. fungus. d. virus.

ANS: A

REF: p. 334

13. Taeniasis is an infection caused by organisms known as a. ringworms. b. hookworms.

c. tapeworms. d. pinworms.

ANS: C

REF: p. 335

14. Cholera is a serious gastrointestinal illness caused by bacteria of the genus a. Escherichia. b. Salmonella. c. Vibrio. d. Acinetobacter.

ANS: C

REF: p. 332

15. Botulism is a disease caused by the production of a potent neurotoxin by bacteria of the genus a. Staphylococcus. b. Klebsiella. c. Salmonella. d. Clostridium.

ANS: D

REF: p. 330

16. Trichinosis is an infection caused by ingestion of a a. nematode. b. virus. c. bacteria. d. fungus.

ANS: A

REF: p. 335

NURSINGTB.COM

COMPLETION 1. A periodontal disease that is restricted to the gums is an inflammation called ANS: gingivitis REF: p. 324 2. The term “stomach flu” really refers to

.

ANS: gastroenteritis REF: p. 326 3. Botulism is caused by

.

ANS: Clostridium botulinum REF: p. 330 4. Staphylococcal intoxication is caused by Staphylococcus ANS: aureus

.

.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

REF: p. 330 5. “Thrush” is caused by the organism

.

ANS: Candida albicans REF: p. 333

is the largest protozoan parasite of humans.

6.

ANS: Balantidium coli REF: p. 334 7. Cryptosporidiosis is a parasitic diarrheal disease caused by Cryptosporidium, which is a(n)

.

ANS: protozoan REF: p. 334 8. A microbial biofilm that can form on the enamel surface of teeth and often causes tooth decay

and/or periodontal problems is referred to as

.

ANS: dental plaque

NURSINGTB.COM

REF: p. 324

9. “Rice water stool” is a characteristic symptom of the disease

.

ANS: cholera REF: p. 332

are the most common causes of infectious diarrhea in infants and children

10.

worldwide.

ANS: Rotaviruses REF: p. 332 11. The most common nematode infection of humans worldwide is

.

ANS: ascariasis REF: p. 336 12. The painful burning sensation in the limbs known as St. Anthony’s fire is associated with the

fungal infection

.

ANS: ergotism

Downloaded by SN t uU r dR y D onN eG (sT tuB rd. ydC roO ne SrI M2707@gmail.com)

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

REF: p. 334 MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Ancylostoma duodenale b. Streptococcus mutans c. Escherichia coli d. Entamoeba histolytica e. Bacillus cereus f. Taenia solium g. Amoeba proteus h. Enterobius vermicularis 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Amebiasis Pinworm Necatoriasis Dental caries Bacterial food intoxication

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

ANS: D ANS: H ANS: A ANS: B ANS: E

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 334 p. 335 p. 336 p. 320 p. 330

NURSINGTB.COM

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

Chapter 17: Infections of the Nervous System and Sensory Structures VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The first oral polio vaccine was introduced by Albert Sabin in a. 1934. b. 1952. c. 1959. d. 1961.

ANS: D

REF: p. 339

2. An inflammation of the brain is called a. meningitis. b. meningoencephalitis. c. encephalitis. d. bacteremia.

ANS: C

REF: p. 341

3. To prevent meningitis, routine vaccination in the United States is provided against a. Neisseria meningitidis. b. Haemophilus influenzae. c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. d. Listeria monocytogenes.

ANS: B

N RSINGTB.COM

U REF: p. 342

4. Meningococcal meningitis is caused by a. Neisseria meningitidis. b. Haemophilus influenzae. c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. d. Listeria monocytogenes.

ANS: A

REF: p. 342

5. Otitis media is most commonly caused by which microorganism? a. Escherichia coli b. Listeria monocytogenes c. Bordetella pertussis d. Streptococcus pneumoniae ANS: D

REF: p. 344

6. The most virulent of all botulinum toxins is considered to be type a. A. b. B. c. E. d. F. ANS: A

REF: p. 347

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

7. In bacterial meningitis, some antibiotics are prevented from reaching the infection due to a. chemical degradation of the antibiotic. b. blood-brain barrier. c. scar tissue formation. d. degradation of local blood vessels.

ANS: B

REF: p. 341

8. Poliomyelitis is caused by a virus belonging to the family a. Rhabdoviridae. b. Reoviridae. c. Picornaviridae. d. Bunyaviridae.

ANS: C

REF: p. 350

9. Which of the following is the causative agent for fungal meningitis, mostly in

immunocompromised patients? a. Trypanosoma brucei b. Listeria meningitis c. Cryptococcus neoformans d. Trypanosoma cruzi ANS: C

REF: p. 353

10. The agent causing West Nile encephalitis belongs to which of the following? a. Arboviruses NURSINGTB.COM b. Parvoviruses c. Flaviviruses d. Paramyxoviruses

ANS: A

REF: p. 353

11. Sleeping sickness is caused by which type of microorganism? a. Bacterium b. Virus c. Protozoan d. Prion ANS: C

REF: p. 353

12. Rabies is caused by which of the following organisms? a. Virus b. Bacterium c. Protozoan d. Fungus ANS: A

REF: p. 351

13. The arbovirus that causes West Nile encephalitis is transmitted by a. rodents. b. birds.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank c. ticks. d. mosquitoes.

ANS: D

REF: pp. 351-352

14. Toxoplasmosis is caused by the organism Toxoplasma gondii, which is a a. bacterium. b. protozoan. c. virus. d. fungus.

ANS: B

REF: p. 353

15. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a fatal brain disorder caused by a a. protozoan. b. virus. c. prion. d. bacterium.

ANS: C

REF: p. 354

COMPLETION 1. When both the brain and the meninges are inflamed, the condition is referred to as

.

ANS: meningoencephalitis REF: p. 341

NURSINGTB.COM

2. Pneumococcal meningitis is caused by

.

ANS: Streptococcus pneumonia REF: p. 342 3. African trypanosomiasis is caused by

.

ANS: Trypanosoma brucei REF: p. 353 4. American trypanosomiasis is also referred to as ANS: Chagas’ disease REF: p. 353 5. Chemically, prions are ANS: proteins

.

.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank REF: p. 354 6. Leprosy is caused by the bacterium

.

ANS: Mycobacterium leprae REF: p. 348 7. The toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum is classified as a

.

ANS: neurotoxin REF: p. 348 8. One of the first signs of the onset of tetanus is trismus, also referred to as

.

ANS: lockjaw REF: p. 346 9. At present, the leading causes of bacterial meningitis are

and

.

ANS:

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae REF: p. 342 10.

NURSINGTB.COM

The nervous system is divided into two components: the

and the

.

ANS:

central nervous system, peripheral nervous system peripheral nervous system, central nervous system REF: p. 340 11. The most common bacterial infection/inflammation of the eye is

.

ANS: conjunctivitis REF: p. 349 12. Pneumococcal infection of the middle ear is referred to as ANS: otitis media REF: p. 344 MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list.

.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h.

Prion Rhabdovirus Clostridium tetani Dimorphic fungus Streptococcus pneumoniae Clostridium difficile Trypanosoma Bacillus tetani

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Tetanus Bacterial meningitis Sleeping sickness TSEs Rabies

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

ANS: C ANS: E ANS: G ANS: A ANS: B

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 346 p. 342 p. 353 p. 354 p. 351

NURSINGTB.COM

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

Chapter 18: Infections of the Cardiovascular and Circulatory System VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All of the following are symptoms of endocarditis except a. fever and chills. b. weight loss. c. leg swelling. d. muscle aches.

ANS: C

REF: p. 359

2. The toxic condition caused by the multiplication of bacteria in the blood is referred to as a. bacteremia. b. septicemia. c. shock. d. bloodborne infection.

ANS: B

REF: p. 361

3. When microorganisms enter the circulatory system through the lymphatic drainage and cause

an infection, the condition is called a. bacteremia. b. septicemia. c. microbemia.

NURSINGTB.COM d. viremia.

ANS: C

REF: p. 361

4. Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease and rare complication of a. strep throat. b. gangrene. c. brucellosis. d. tularemia.

ANS: A

REF: p. 361

5. All of the following are considered to be zoonotic diseases except a. brucellosis. b. undulant fever. c. plague. d. salmonellosis.

ANS: D

REF: p. 363

6. “Rabbit fever,” a zoonotic disease, is caused by a. Bartonella henselae. b. Spirillum minus. c. Francisella tularensis. d. Yersinia pestis.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

ANS: C

REF: p. 364

7. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by a. Borrelia burgdorferi. b. Rickettsia rickettsii. c. Rickettsia prowazekii. d. Ehrlichia chaffeensis.

ANS: B

REF: p. 366

8. Cytomegalovirus infections are caused by the human herpesvirus a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 ANS: D

REF: p. 369

9. Malaria is caused by a a. virus. b. bacterium. c. helminth. d. protozoan.

ANS: D

REF: p. 371

10. Which of the following is a disease caused by a protozoan? a. Cat scratch disease NURSINGTB.COM b. Toxoplasmosis c. Relapsing fever d. Plague

ANS: B

REF: p. 373

11. Tularemia is also referred to as a. scarlet fever. b. strep throat. c. cat scratch fever. d. rabbit fever.

ANS: D

REF: p. 364

12. Animals that are capable of transmitting infectious disease are called a. vectors. b. pathogens. c. carriers. d. parasites.

ANS: A

REF: p. 365

13. The bacterium Yersinia pestis is responsible for causing what disease? a. Tonsillitis

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank b. Leprosy c. Plague d. Rat fever ANS: C

REF: p. 365

14. The term used to describe an inflammation of the saclike membrane surrounding the heart is a. peritonitis. b. pericarditis. c. myocardial infarction. d. anemia.

ANS: B

REF: p. 361

15. An inflammatory disease that can develop as a complication following a group A

streptococcal infection is a. endocarditis. b. rheumatic fever. c. nephritis. d. cytomegalovirus.

ANS: B

REF: p. 361

16. Babesiosis is a vector-borne, malaria-like illness caused by a a. bacterium. b. virus. c. helminth. d. protozoan.

NURSINGTB.COM

ANS: D

REF: p. 372

COMPLETION 1. Any infectious disease or infection that can be transmitted from vertebrate animals to humans

is classified as

.

ANS: zoonotic REF: p. 363 2. When bacteria are found in the blood, the condition is referred to as

.

ANS: bacteremia REF: p. 361 3. The toxic condition caused by the spread of bacteria or bacterial toxins from the site of

infection is called ANS: sepsis REF: p. 361

.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

4. Chagas’ disease is caused by

.

ANS: Trypanosoma cruzi REF: p. 374 5. The bacterium most frequently found to be involved in gas gangrene is

.

ANS: Clostridium perfringens REF: p. 362 6. Trypanosoma cruzi causes American trypanosomiasis, which is also known as ANS: Chagas’ disease REF: p. 374 7. Leishmaniasis is transmitted by the bite of the

.

ANS: female sandfly REF: p. 374 8. Malaria is caused by a protozoan of the genus ANS: Plasmodium

NURSINGTB.COM

.

REF: p. 371 9. Malaria is transmitted by the bite of a(n)

mosquito.

ANS: Anopheles REF: p. 371 10. Fungal infections capable of infecting all organs/body systems are referred to as

mycoses.

ANS: systemic REF: p. 370 MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Plague b. Rat-bite fever c. Severe malaria

.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank d. e. f. g.

Lyme disease VHF Leprosy Common cold

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Plasmodium falciparum Filoviridae Borrelia burgdorferi Yersinia pestis Streptobacillus moniliformis

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

ANS: C ANS: E ANS: D ANS: A ANS: B

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 372 p. 370 p. 367 p. 365 p. 364

NURSINGTB.COM

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

Chapter 19: Infections of the Urinary System VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The main organs/structures of the urinary system are the a. large intestine, stomach, esophagus, and urinary bladder. b. small intestine, liver, urinary bladder, and urethra. c. urethra, pancreas, liver, and kidneys. d. kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra.

ANS: D

REF: p. 377

2. The primary bacterium responsible for most UTIs is a. Staphylococcus aureus. b. Bacillus subtilis. c. Lactobacillus acidophilus. d. Escherichia coli.

ANS: D

REF: p. 377

3. Diagnosis of a UTI is a two-stage process that involves a. collecting a blood sample and conducting a physical examination of the bladder. b. exploratory surgery and radiation therapy. c. collecting a urine sample and testing for antibiotic susceptibility of the organism. d. modifying the diet of the patient and conducting a physical examination of the

urethra.

ANS: C

NURSINGTB.COM

REF: p. 379

4. The group most susceptible to recurring UTIs is a. teen-aged boys. b. women. c. teen-aged girls. d. normally healthy elderly men.

ANS: B

REF: p. 379

5. Which of the following has not been shown to be preventive against UTIs in women? a. Taking a daily dose of 81 mg of aspirin b. Urinating soon after sexual intercourse c. Taking showers instead of baths d. Urinating when the urge occurs ANS: A

REF: p. 381

6. The urinary tract infection involving infection of the urinary bladder is called a. colitis. b. cystitis. c. phenylketonuria. d. toxoplasmosis.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

ANS: B

REF: p. 378

7. A urinary tract infection of the kidneys is called a. urethritis. b. cystitis. c. cellulitis. d. pyelonephritis.

ANS: D

REF: p. 378

8. An effective method for treating a UTI is a. flushing the urinary bladder with saline. b. low doses of laxatives. c. application of a cold pack over the abdomen. d. regimen of antibiotic amoxicillin.

ANS: D

REF: p. 381

9. The following are typical symptoms of a UTI a. Vomiting, blood in the urine b. Painful urination, cloudy urine c. Swollen abdomen, rapid heart rate d. Painful bowel movements, tightness in chest ANS: B

REF: p. 378

10. What anatomical features in women can increase the possibility of a UTI? a. A shorter urethra, close pN roU xR imSitI yN ofGthTeBa. nuCsO toMthe urethral opening b. A longer urethra, smaller urinary bladder c. Longer ureters, larger urinary bladder d. A longer urethra, close proximity of the anus to the vagina ANS: A

REF: p. 379

11. The presence of bacteria in the urine is called a. toxemia. b. bacteriuria. c. mycoses. d. urethritis.

ANS: B

REF: p. 379

12. Glomerulonephritis is also called a. Bright’s disease. b. Chagas’ disease. c. Urethritis. d. Gastroenteritis.

ANS: A

REF: p. 379

13. The most common fungus causing urinary tract infections is a. Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank b. Rhizopus. c. Candida albicans. d. Microsporum.

ANS: C

REF: p. 378

14. Ureteric stenosis in kidney transplant patients has been associated with a. E. coli. b. polyomaviruses. c. fungi. d. helminths.

ANS: B

REF: p. 383

15. Two parasites that cause urinary tract infections are a. Plasmodium and Borrelia burgdorferi. b. Schistosoma haematobium and Trichomonas vaginalis. c. Giardia lamblia and Treponema pallidum. d. Plasmodium falciparum and Giardia lamblia.

ANS: B

REF: p. 384

16. In the urinary system, cytomegalovirus infections are typically associated with a. kidney transplant failure. b. cystitis. c. nephritis. d. urethritis.

ANS: A

REF: p.N 38U3RSINGTB.COM

COMPLETION 1. The

are the central organs of the urinary system and are responsible for filtering wastes from the blood.

ANS: kidneys REF: p. 377

2. The organism that is primarily responsible for causing cystitis is

.

ANS: Escherichia coli REF: p. 378 3. The method of collecting urine in which the patient washes the genital area and collects a

midstream sample in a sterile container is called the ANS: clean catch REF: p. 379

procedure.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

4.

and related to sexual activity.

are genera of organisms that are usually associated with UTIs

ANS:

Chlamydia, Mycoplasma Mycoplasma, Chlamydia REF: p. 381 5. Glomerulonephritis is also referred to as

.

ANS: Bright’s disease REF: p. 379 6. The reverse flow of urine from the bladder up the ureters and back into the kidneys is called

.

ANS:

vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) vesicoureteral reflux VUR REF: p. 379 7. The current drug of choice toNtU reR atS viI raNl G urT inB ar. yC inO feM ctions is

.

ANS: cidofovir REF: p. 383 8. Statistics indicate that the rate of UTIs in women increases with

and

.

ANS:

age, sexual activity sexual activity, age REF: p. 379 9. The tissues of the urethra become thinner and more fragile in older women because of a

decrease in

, thus increasing the chance of an opportunistic infection.

ANS: estrogen REF: pp. 379-380 10. For patients with a catheter, the best measures to prevent a UTI are frequent cleaning and

.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

ANS:

removal (as soon as possible) removal as soon as possible removal REF: p. 381 MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Staphylococcus epidermidis b. Polyomaviruses JC and BK c. Mycoplasma d. Adenovirus e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa f. Leptospira g. Trichomonas 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Urethritis Cystitis Acute necrotizing tubulointestinal nephritis Hemorrhagic cystitis Zoonotic spirochete

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: F

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 378 p.N 37U8RSINGTB.COM p. 383 p. 383 p. 379

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

Chapter 20: Infections of the Reproductive System VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The female reproductive system includes the following organs/structures a. Ovaries, kidneys, uterus, vagina b. Uterus, vagina, bladder, duodenum c. Bladder, ureter, vagina, uterus d. Uterus, ovaries, vagina, fallopian tubes ANS: D

REF: p. 388

2. Bacterial infections of the female reproductive system include a. vaginitis, toxic shock syndrome, endometritis, and salpingitis. b. nephritis, endometritis, vaginitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease. c. toxic shock syndrome, nephritis, endometritis, and cystitis. d. endometritis, vaginitis, cystitis, and toxic shock syndrome.

ANS: A

REF: pp. 388-390

3. Bacteria that have been identified as frequently responsible for nonsexually transmitted

infections of the reproductive system include a. Escherichia coli, Gardnerella vaginalis, and Staphylococcus aureus. b. Streptococcus faecalis, Klebsiella oxytoca, and Serratia marcescens. c. Clostridium tetani, Bacillus cereus, and Staphylococcus aureus.

NeUlicRoSbaIcN d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, H teG r pTyB lo. riC , aOnM d Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

ANS: A

REF: pp. 391-392

4. The most common bacterial nonsexually transmitted infection of the male reproductive

system is a. cystitis. b. prostatitis. c. mastitis. d. nephritis.

ANS: B

REF: p. 393

5. The normal flora present in the healthy male reproductive system is best characterized as a. primarily gram-positive rods. b. acid-fast rods. c. sterile, no normal flora. d. gram-positive spore formers only.

ANS: C

REF: p. 387

6. Methods typically used to diagnose bacterial infections of the reproductive system include a. microscopic examination of discharge from infected organ and microscopic

examination of urine for organisms. b. biopsy of infected tissue and use of selective media.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank c. microscopic examination of fecal sample and protein test of urine. d. antibody agglutination test and coagulation test.

ANS: A

REF: p. 389

7. Factors that can increase the chances of vaginitis are a. urinary blockage, drug use, and stress. b. use of antibiotics, pregnancy, and menopause. c. puberty, exposure to HPV, and smoking/tobacco use. d. menopause, stress, and steroid use.

ANS: B

REF: p. 389

8. The organism that is responsible for the vast majority of cases of fungal vaginitis is a. Escherichia coli. b. Streptococcus agalactiae. c. Klebsiella oxytoca. d. Candida albicans.

ANS: D

REF: p. 390

9. Symptoms of prostatitis include a. muscle aches, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes. b. painful joints, nausea, and painful urination. c. painful urination, fever and chills, and weak urine flow. d. weak urine flow, severe abdominal pains, and bloody stool.

ANS: C

REF: p. 393

NURSINGTB.COM

10. Measures that can be taken to prevent bacterial vaginitis include a. douching, use of contraceptive pills, and exercise. b. use of absorbent tampons, frequent douching, and avoidance of tight pants. c. avoidance of douching, use of panties with cotton crotch, and exercise. d. avoidance of tight pants, use of panties with cotton crotch, and infrequent

douching.

ANS: D

REF: p. 389

11. A vaginal yeast infection is typically caused by a. Histoplasma capsulatum. b. Candida albicans. c. Aspergillus niger. d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

ANS: B

REF: p. 390

12. The drug most often used in fighting protozoan infections of the reproductive system is a. ampicillin. b. tetracycline. c. ciprofloxacin. d. metronidazole.

ANS: D

REF: p. 394

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

13. Vaginal infections that are resulting from an overgrowth of normal flora are called a. endogenous infections. b. chronic infections. c. iatrogenic infections. d. fatal infections.

ANS: A

REF: p. 388

14. Infections of the reproductive tract resulting from the introduction of microorganisms through

a medical procedure are called a. chronic infections. b. endogenous infections. c. systemic infections. d. iatrogenic infections.

ANS: D

REF: p. 388

15. One of the defense mechanisms in place in the organs/tissues of the reproductive tract that

prevent microbial infection includes a. alkaline pH. b. acidic pH. c. high sugar concentration. d. high body temperature.

ANS: B

REF: p. 387

COMPLETION

NURSINGTB.COM

1. Vaginal epithelial cells that can be examined to determine the presence of Gardnerella

vaginalis are referred to as

.

ANS: clue cells REF: p. 389 2. Enzymes such as

, found in cervical mucus and semen, are instrumental in providing a chemical defense against bacterial infections of the reproductive organs.

ANS: lysozyme REF: p. 387

3. The bacterium most frequently responsible for toxic shock syndrome that originates in the

reproductive system is ANS: Staphylococcus aureus REF: p. 389

.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank 4. Although normally caused by sexually transmitted organisms, pelvic inflammatory disease is

sometimes caused by

, which is a common part of the vaginal microflora.

ANS: Mycoplasma hominis REF: p. 390

is a collective term for any extensive bacterial infection of the pelvic organs.

5.

ANS:

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) Pelvic inflammatory disease PID REF: p. 390 6. In cases of toxic shock syndrome, the most effective treatment is the immediate use of the

antibiotic

.

ANS: nafcillin REF: p. 389 7. GBS stands for

.

ANS: group B Streptococcus

NURSINGTB.COM

REF: p. 389

8. In cases of endometritis, the two bacteria most often responsible for the infection are

and

.

ANS: Escherichia coli, group B Streptococcus REF: p. 390 9. PID infections may be asymptomatic but often exhibit the symptoms of

, and

,

.

ANS:

fever, vaginal bleeding, severe abdominal pain fever, severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding severe abdominal pain, fever, vaginal bleeding severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, fever fever, vaginal bleeding, severe abdominal pain fever, severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding REF: p. 390 10. The organism most frequently associated with mastitis in women is

.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank ANS: Staphylococcus aureus REF: p. 390 MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Candida albicans b. Borrelia vincentii c. Streptococcus agalactiae d. Flagellated protozoan e. Bacillus subtilis f. Streptococcus pyogenes g. Gardnerella vaginalis 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

30% of vaginitis cases Balanitis Trichomoniasis Vaginal yeast infection Group B streptococcal infection

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

ANS: G ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 389 p. 394 p. 391 p. 390 p. 389

NURSINGTB.COM

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

Chapter 21: Sexually Transmitted Infections/Diseases VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is NOT true for STDs? a. STDs are an unending epidemic in the U.S. b. All viral STIs can be prevented by vaccination. c. There are currently about 20 million new cases reported to the CDC annually. d. Many STDs are undiagnosed.

ANS: B

REF: p. 399

2. Which of the following organisms is the causative agent for gonorrhea? a. Treponema b. Neisseria c. Mycoplasma d. Ureaplasma ANS: B

REF: p. 399

3. Which of the following STIs is also referred to as the “great imitator”? a. Gonorrhea b. Chlamydia c. Syphilis d. Chancroid ANS: C

N RSINGTB.COM

U REF: p. 400

4. Gummas are characteristic lesions of a. gonorrhea. b. chlamydia. c. syphilis. d. chancroid.

ANS: C

REF: p. 400

5. The secondary stage of syphilis includes which of the following time periods after the primary

stage? a. 2-10 weeks b. 2-4 days c. 5-10 days d. 1 year ANS: A

REF: p. 400

6. Which of the following stages of syphilis is/are the most infectious? a. Primary b. Primary and secondary c. Tertiary d. Last stage

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

ANS: B

REF: p. 400

7. Lymphogranuloma venereum is an infection caused by a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. b. Treponema pallidum. c. Chlamydia trachomatis. d. Ureaplasma urealyticum.

ANS: C

REF: p. 401

8. The causative agent for chancroid is a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. b. Treponema pallidum. c. Ureaplasma urealyticum. d. Haemophilus ducreyi.

ANS: D

REF: p. 403

9. The STI caused by Klebsiella granulomatis is a. syphilis. b. donovanosis. c. chancroid. d. chlamydia.

ANS: B

REF: p. 403

10. A red-brown rash on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet is typical of a. syphilis.

NURSINGTB.COM b. donovanosis. c. chancroid. d. chlamydia.

ANS: A

REF: p. 400

11. Which of the following agents can be used in the treatment of balanitis? a. Tetracycline b. Tolnaftate c. Cefixime d. Ampicillin ANS: B

REF: p. 408

12. Which of the following organisms typically causes sexually transmitted toxic shock

syndrome? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae c. Treponema pallidum d. Haemophilus ducreyi ANS: A

REF: p. 403

13. The three types of hepatitis virus that can be transmitted through sexual activity are

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank a. b. c. d.

A, B, and C. B, C, and D. A, B, and D. A, C, and D.

ANS: B

REF: p. 406

14. Genital herpes is caused by the following herpes simplex viruses a. HSV-1 and HSV-2 b. HSV-2 and HSV-4 c. HSV-1 and HSV-3 d. HSV-3 and HSV-4 ANS: A

REF: p. 407

15. The fungi most commonly associated with reproductive system infections are a. Aspergillus, Tinea-related species, and Candida albicans. b. Candida species, Rhizopus, and Saccharomyces cerevisiae. c. Stachybotrys, Aspergillus niger, and Microsporum species. d. Candida albicans, Tinea-related species, and Epidermophyton floccosum.

ANS: D

REF: p. 407

16. Balanitis is a fungal infection of the a. glans penis. b. ovaries. c. uterus. d. testicles.

NURSINGTB.COM

ANS: A

REF: p. 408

17. The only currently known STI that is transmitted by a protozoan is a. giardiasis. b. malaria. c. trichomoniasis. d. syphilis.

ANS: C

REF: p. 408

COMPLETION 1. NGU is the abbreviation for

.

ANS: nongonococcal urethritis REF: p. 401 2. Granuloma inguinale is also called ANS: donovanosis REF: p. 403

.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

3. HIV is the abbreviation for

.

ANS: human immunodeficiency virus REF: p. 404 4. Vaccination is available for the sexually transmitted hepatitis

virus.

ANS: B REF: p. 406 5. The only STI transmitted by a protozoan is

.

ANS: trichomoniasis REF: p. 408 6. Hepatitis is an infection of the

, even though transmission of the virus can occur

through sexual activity.

ANS: liver REF: p. 406 7. Typically the first step in testing for the presence of HIV antibodies in a blood sample is the

.

NURSINGTB.COM

ANS:

ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) ELISA enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay REF: p. 406 8. The bacteria typically responsible for causing nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) are

,

, and

.

ANS:

Ureaplasma urealyticum, Chlamydia trachomatis, Mycoplasma hominis Ureaplasma urealyticum, Mycoplasma hominis, Chlamydia trachomatis Chlamydia trachomatis, Mycoplasma hominis, Ureaplasma urealyticum Chlamydia trachomatis, Ureaplasma urealyticum, Mycoplasma hominis Mycoplasma hominis, Ureaplasma urealyticum, Chlamydia trachomatis Mycoplasma hominis, Chlamydia trachomatis, Ureaplasma urealyticum REF: p. 402 9. Syphilis is caused by the microorganism

stages.

and the disease occurs in

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

ANS: Treponema pallidum, three REF: p. 400

is the most reported STI in the United States.

10.

ANS: Gonorrhea REF: p. 399 MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Protozoan b. Tinea-related species c. Treponema pallidum d. Klebsiella species e. Candida albicans f. AIDS g. Haemophilus ducreyi 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

HIV Chancroid infection Trichomonas vaginalis Donovanosis Jock itch

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

ANS: F ANS: G ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

NURSINGTB.COM p. 404 p. 403 p. 408 p. 403 p. 408

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

Chapter 22: Human Age and Microorganisms VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The highly specialized structure that protects the fetus from microorganisms is the a. uterus. b. placenta. c. vagina. d. mammary gland.

ANS: B

REF: p. 411

2. In humans, the embryonic phase of development extends from fertilization to the end of week

, after which the developing infant is called a fetus. a. b. c. d.

2 6 8 12

ANS: C

REF: p. 411

3. Congenital CMV infections are caused by a. coronavirus. b. herpes simplex virus. c. cytomegalovirus.

NURSINGTB.COM d. Epstein-Barr virus.

ANS: C

REF: p. 413

4. The virus most commonly transmitted during pregnancy is a. cytomegalovirus. b. HIV. c. herpes simplex virus. d. Epstein-Barr virus.

ANS: A

REF: p. 413

5. A fetus infected with rubella virus produces which of the following antibodies that can then be

detected in the umbilical cord? a. IgA b. IgM c. IgG d. IgD ANS: B

REF: p. 413

6. Saddle nose is characteristic of which of the following congenital infections? a. Syphilis b. CMV c. Rubella

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank d. Toxoplasmosis ANS: A

REF: p. 413

7. The type of antibody that can cross the placenta is a. IgA. b. IgM. c. IgG. d. IgD. ANS: C

REF: p. 415

8. Which of the following antibodies is synthesized by the infant soon after birth? a. IgA b. IgM c. IgG d. IgD ANS: B

REF: p. 416

9. The neonatal infection referred to as “sticky eye” is caused by a. Streptococcus. b. herpes simplex. c. Staphylococcus. d. Escherichia.

ANS: C

REF: p. 416

IeNiG 10. Staphylococcal scalded skin N syU ndRrS om sm t cCoO mM mon in ToBs. a. infants. b. adolescents. c. young adults. d. the elderly.

ANS: A

REF: p. 416

11. Rheumatic fever is usually a complication of a(n) a. Escherichia coli b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Staphylococcus epidermidis d. Staphylococcus aureus ANS: B

infection.

REF: p. 416

12. Infectious mononucleosis most often occurs in a. infants. b. adolescents. c. young adults. d. the elderly.

ANS: C

REF: p. 417

13. Almost half of all the STIs diagnosed in the United States are among

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank a. b. c. d.

infants. adolescents. young adults. the elderly.

ANS: C

REF: p. 417

14. Infectious diseases in the adult population are responsible for about one third of all deaths in

individuals over the age of a. 50 years. b. 55 years. c. 60 years. d. 65 years.

ANS: D

REF: p. 418

15. All of the following infections may recur during pregnancy except a. Epstein-Barr virus infections. b. herpes simplex virus infections. c. streptococcal infections. d. polyomavirus infections.

ANS: C

REF: p. 412

COMPLETION 1. A bacterial or viral infection that can be passed from a mother to her unborn child or during

birth is called a(n)

NUiR nfS ecItiN onG. TB.COM

ANS: congenital REF: p. 413 2. The gestation period of humans is approximately

weeks.

ANS: 39 REF: p. 411 3. The most critical time of infection with the rubella virus during pregnancy is during the

trimester of pregnancy.

ANS: first REF: p. 413 4. Impetigo neonatorum is caused by ANS: Staphylococcus aureus REF: p. 416

.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank 5. Chickenpox is caused by the

virus.

ANS: varicella-zoster REF: p. 416 6. The common name for rubella is

.

ANS: German measles REF: p. 416 7. Infectious mononucleosis is caused by

.

ANS: Epstein-Barr virus REF: p. 417 8. Chlamydia commonly occurring in young adults is a

disease.

ANS: sexually transmitted REF: p. 417 9. The decline in functioning of the immune system during aging is referred to as ANS: immune senescence REF: p. 418

NURSINGTB.COM

MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Congenital toxoplasmosis b. Micrococcus c. Cytomegalovirus d. Staphylococcus aureus e. Neisseria f. Congenital rubella g. Streptococcus 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Human herpesvirus 5 Leading cause of bacterial meningitis Malformations of the heart Microcephaly Most common form of impetigo in infants

1.

2.

3.

4.

ANS: C ANS: E ANS: F ANS: A

REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 413 p. 417 p. 413 p. 414

.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank 5. ANS: D

REF: p. 416

NURSINGTB.COM

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

Chapter 23: Microorganisms in the Environment and Effects on Human Health VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A set of guilds is referred to as a a. microhabitat. b. biosphere. c. community. d. population.

ANS: C

REF: p. 423

2. Specific small niches in which populations and guilds within a community reside are referred

to as a. habitats. b. biospheres. c. ecosystems. d. microhabitats.

ANS: D

REF: p. 423

3. All of the following are free-living nitrogen-fixing bacteria except a. Clostridium. b. Bacillus. c. Rhizobium.

NURSINGTB.COM d. Azotobacter.

ANS: C

REF: p. 424

4. Which of the following processes is most commonly used in wastewater treatment? a. Sulfur b. Anammox c. Phosphorus d. Carbon dioxide ANS: B

REF: p. 426

5. Which of the following is not found in the atmosphere? a. Carbon dioxide b. Nitrogen c. Sulfur d. Phosphorus ANS: D

REF: p. 426

6. Which of the following zones is present only in oceans? a. Abyssal zone b. Benthic zone c. Littoral zone d. Profundal zone

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

ANS: A

REF: p. 429

7. The majority of marine microorganisms are present in the a. benthic zone. b. littoral zone. c. profundal zone. d. limnetic zone.

ANS: B

REF: p. 429

8. Which of the following is a Category A agent? a. Bacillus anthracis b. Escherichia coli c. Vibrio cholerae d. Chlamydia psittaci ANS: A

REF: p. 441

9. Category B agents would include a. Vibrio cholerae. b. Yersinia pestis. c. Francisella tularensis. d. Clostridium botulinum.

ANS: A

REF: p. 442

10. Which of the following is the sixth most abundant element in the universe? a. Nitrogen NURSINGTB.COM b. Oxygen c. Carbon d. Hydrogen

ANS: C

REF: p. 424

11. The process by which nitrate is reduced to nitrogen is called a. nitrification. b. denitrification. c. anammox. d. deamination.

ANS: B

REF: p. 426

12. Eutrophication is a term used in the a. carbon cycle. b. phosphorus cycle. c. sulfur cycle. d. oxygen cycle.

ANS: B

REF: p. 428

13. The most abundant microbe population in soil consists of a. protozoans.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank b. helminths. c. bacteria. d. fungi.

ANS: C

REF: p. 428

14. The most lethal form of anthrax is a. inhalation anthrax. b. cutaneous anthrax. c. gastrointestinal. d. nasopharyngeal.

ANS: A

REF: p. 435

15. Which of the following diseases was declared by the WHO in 1980 to be eradicated? a. Mumps b. Pertussis c. Smallpox d. Botulism ANS: C

REF: p. 439

COMPLETION 1. A region or regions of the earth populated by living organisms is/are referred to as the

.

ANS: biosphere

NURSINGTB.COM

REF: p. 423

2. The physical location where organisms are found is called a(n)

.

ANS: habitat REF: p. 423 3. The process by which amino groups are converted to ammonia is referred to as ANS: ammonification REF: p. 424 4. The conversion of CO2 to organic molecules is called ANS: carbon fixation REF: p. 424 5. Cholera is considered a Category ANS: B

disease.

.

.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

REF: p. 441 6. The bacterial genus Rhizobium is involved primarily in the

cycle.

ANS: nitrogen REF: p. 424 7. Viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHFs) are caused by four families of ANS: RNA REF: p. 439 8. The incubation time for Ebola is 2 to

days.

ANS: 21 REF: p. 440 9. Brucellosis is a Category

disease.

ANS: A REF: p. 441 10. EPA stands for

N.URSINGTB.COM

ANS: environmental protection agency REF: p. 424 MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Biomass b. Eutrophication c. Denitrification d. Thiobacillus e. Yersinia f. Biodiversity g. Rhizobium 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Number of species living in a given ecosystem Quantity of all organisms in an ecosystem Symbiotic nitrogen-fixing Overgrowth of microbes in nutrient-rich waters Sulfur dissimilation

1. ANS: F

REF: p. 423

viruses.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank 2.

3.

4.

5.

ANS: A ANS: G ANS: B ANS: D

REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 423 p. 424 p. 428 p. 426

NURSINGTB.COM

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

Chapter 24: Emerging Infectious Diseases VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The establishment and further spreading of an infectious disease within a new population is a

process called a. emergence. b. adoption. c. inclusion. d. appearance.

ANS: B

REF: p. 448

2. The United Nations estimates that by the year 2050 more than

of the world’s

population will live in urban areas. a. 35% b. 56% c. 60% d. 69% ANS: D

REF: p. 448

3. The Marburg virus was originally spread by a. laboratory rats. b. birds.

NURSINGTB.COM c. green monkeys. d. wild turkeys.

ANS: C

REF: p. 449

4. Which of the following infectious disease is considered a newly emerging disease? a. Hantavirus b. Malaria c. Tuberculosis d. Chlamydia ANS: A

REF: p. 451

5. Which of the following infectious diseases is considered to be a reemerging disease? a. AIDS b. Ebola c. West Nile virus d. Tuberculosis ANS: D

REF: p. 451

6. Which of the following organisms belongs in the group I category? a. Francisella tularensis b. Clostridium difficile c. Helicobacter pylori

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank d. Bacillus anthracis ANS: C

REF: p. 453

7. Which of the following diseases is considered to fall in the group II category? a. Anthrax b. Lyme disease c. Mumps d. Smallpox ANS: C

REF: p. 453

8. Protozoan emerging and reemerging diseases generally belong to group a. I. b. II. c. III. d. IV. ANS: A

REF: p. 452

9. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the fecal–oral route? a. Ehrlichiosis b. Peptic ulcer c. Lyme disease d. Tularemia ANS: B

REF: p. 453

10. Which of the following d i se aN seUs R caS nIbN eG traTnB sm.iC tteO dM by a tick? a. Botulism b. Anthrax c. Tularemia d. MRSA ANS: C

REF: p. 453

11. CDC stands for a. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. b. Children’s Disease Center. c. Central Disaster Control Center. d. Central Drug Evaluation and Control Center.

ANS: A

REF: p. 452

12. Group II category diseases as established by the NIAID include a. new foodborne pathogens. b. diseases considered eradicated. c. diseases used specifically as bioterrorism agents. d. reemerging diseases.

ANS: D COMPLETION

REF: p. 452

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

1. Small changes in the viral coat that happen over time are referred to as antigenic ANS: drift REF: p. 450 2. The lead federal agency whose primary responsibility is to protect the people of the United

States from infectious diseases is the

.

ANS: CDC REF: p. 454 3. The Hendra virus is transmitted by

.

ANS: flying foxes REF: p. 453 4. “Fifth disease” is caused by

.

ANS: human parvovirus B19 REF: p. 453 5. Acanthamebiasis is a group ANS: I

emerging/reemerging infectious disease.

NURSINGTB.COM

REF: p. 454 6. Anthrax would be considered a group

emerging/reemerging disease.

ANS: III REF: p. 453 MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Program to reinforce the identification and response to emerging diseases around the world b. Primary responsibility is to protect people in the United States from infectious diseases c. Regulations to address a global approach to prevent, detect, and respond to any public health threat of international concern d. Classifies infectious diseases into three categories e. Provides instructions for destroying bioterrorism weapons f. Assigns hospitals as primary response sites in cases of pandemic

.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank 1.

2.

3.

4.

CDC NIAID IEIP IHR

1.

2.

3.

4.

ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C

REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 454 p. 452 p. 455 p. 455

NURSINGTB.COM

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

Chapter 25: Biotechnology VanMeter: Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional, 3rd Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The term “biotechnology” was created in 1919 by a. Robert Koch. b. Karl Ereky. c. Robert Bud. d. Louis Pasteur.

ANS: B

REF: p. 459

2. Which of the following scientists was instrumental in the discovery of plasmids? a. Robert Koch b. Louis Pasteur c. Stanley Cohen d. Willard Johannsen ANS: C

REF: p. 459

3. Which of the following is a true statement about recombinant DNA technology? a. It is a single technique for genetic manipulation. b. It involves the modification of an organism’s genome. c. It will replace biotechnology in the future. d. It manipulates only the genotype.

ANS: B

N RSINGTB.COM

U REF: p. 460

4. The genetic recombination process that occurs when bacteria acquire fragments of DNA from

the local environment and then express the encoded proteins is called a. transcription. b. transformation. c. transduction. d. ligation.

ANS: B

REF: p. 460

5. A genetic recombination process that uses a cytoplasmic bridge between the donor and the

recipient is called a. transduction. b. ligation. c. conjugation. d. extension.

ANS: C

REF: p. 460

6. The term endonuclease refers to a. gene libraries. b. restriction enzymes. c. plasmids.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank d. cDNA. ANS: B

REF: p. 461

7. Small loops of DNA found in the cytoplasm of bacteria are a. cDNA. b. mRNA. c. plasmids. d. clones.

ANS: C

REF: p. 460

8. All of the following are steps in the polymerase chain reaction except a. extension. b. translation. c. priming. d. denaturation.

ANS: B

REF: p. 465

9. Which of the following is a vector created by the combination of viral DNA fragments and

fragments from a plasmid? a. Cosmid vector b. Plasmid vector c. Combined vector d. Lambda phage vector ANS: A

REF: p. 466

NURSINGTB.COM

10. A portion of DNA, such as a gene, that is synthesized from an RNA template is a. recombinant DNA. b. probe DNA. c. complementary DNA. d. reverse transcriptase.

ANS: C

REF: p. 464

11. All of the following codons can code for arginine except a. CGU. b. AGA. c. GGC. d. AGG. ANS: C

REF: p. 464

12. Which of the following tools of genetic engineering is used to make multiple copies of DNA? a. PCR b. Gel electrophoresis c. Reverse transcription d. Recombinant DNA ANS: A

REF: p. 465

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank 13. In PCR, which of the following temperature ranges is used in the priming process? a. 90-95 °C b. 50-70 °C c. 60-80 °C d. 35-65 °C ANS: B

REF: p. 465

14. The recombinant protein that is used to help dissolve blood clots such as those that occur in

heart attacks and stroke is a. interferon. b. factor VIII. c. antisense molecule. d. tissue plasminogen activator.

ANS: D

REF: p. 468

15. The synthetic interferon that is used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis is a. interferon alfa-2b. b. interferon beta-1a. c. interferon alfa-2a. d. interferon gamma-1b.

ANS: B

REF: p. 470

16. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of phage therapy? a. Specificity of phages to target bacteria b. Specificity of phages to t a r g e t viruses B.C M

N R I G c. Replication of phages at t h U e sitS e ofNinfT ection O d. No or little side effects ANS: B

REF: p. 471

17. Reverse transcriptase is a(n) a. RNA polymerase from the nucleus. b. reactive RNA probe. c. synthetic RNA polymerase. d. DNA polymerase that uses RNA as a template.

ANS: D

REF: p. 464

COMPLETION 1. Recombinant DNA technology is also referred to as

.

ANS: genetic engineering REF: p. 460 2. Enzymes that can cleave DNA at a particular site are ANS: restriction enzymes

.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

REF: p. 461 3. Enzymes that cut DNA straight across both of the double helix strands produce

ends.

ANS: blunt REF: p. 461 4. When a single bacterium can produce millions of identical cells, the population is called a(n)

.

ANS: clone REF: p. 465 5. The process of copying a plate to identify a specific colony is called

.

ANS: replica plating REF: p. 462 6. The enzyme used to synthesize complementary DNA from an mRNA template is

.

ANS: reverse transcriptase REF: p. 464

NURSINGTB.COM

7. Synthetic proteins that can be used in the treatment of hepatitis C are

.

ANS: interferons REF: p. 468 8. A sense strand is a

to

mRNA or DNA molecule.

ANS: 5, 3 REF: p. 470 9. The hormone produced by the kidney to stimulate stem cells of the bone marrow to mature

into red blood cells is

.

ANS: erythropoietin REF: p. 470 10. Genetically modified crops are also referred to as ANS: transgenic

plants.

Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 3rd Edition VanMeter Test Bank

REF: p. 471 MATCHING

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. cDNA b. Eukaryotic genes c. Prokaryotic genes d. Escherichia coli e. Transformation f. DNA ligase g. Staphylococcus aureus h. Hemophilia 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Factor VIII Permanent combining of sticky ends Introns The “workhorse” in genetic engineering A genetic recombination process

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

ANS: H ANS: F ANS: B ANS: D ANS: E

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 468 p. 463 p. 464 p. 460 p. 460

NURSINGTB.COM