Test Bank for Medical Terminology Express;A Short-Course Approach by Body System 3E by Gylys & Maste

TEST BANK

TEST BANK

Chapter 01 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following is a word root? a. hepat/o b. -itis c. gastr/o d. cardi e. peri2. In macroglossia (large tongue), macro- is a: a. consonant b. suffix c. word root d. prefix e. combining form 3. Which of the following is an example of a combining vowel linking one root to another root? a. gastr/itis b. gastr/o/dynia c. gastr/o/esophag/itis d. gastr/o/megaly e. gastr/oma 4. Identify the vowel that is commonly attached to a word root to create a combining form. a. a b. e c. i d. o e. u 5. What does the prefix in post/mortem mean? a. before b. after c. death d. life e. beyond 6. What is the meaning of gastr/o? a. mouth

b. c. d. e.

intestine stomach liver bladder

7. A therm/o/meter is an instrument for measuring temperature. In this word, -meter is a(n): a. adjective b. verb c. combining form d. compound word e. suffix 8. To build a medical word, use a combining form before a suffix that begins with a: a. prefix b. suffix c. vowel d. consonant e. letter o 9. Which of the following is a word root? a. hepat b. hepat/o c. hepatoma d. -megaly e. hepatomegaly 10. A combining form is a word root plus a(n): a. prefix b. vowel c. suffix d. another word root e. consonant 11. What does the suffix -ior mean? a. small b. specialist c. condition d. pertaining to e. treatment 12. Define medical words by first defining the: a. prefix b. suffix c. middle part of the word d. combining form e. word root 13. The word element always located at the beginning of a medical word is a: a. word stem

b. c. d. e.

combining vowel word root prefix combining form

14. Which of the following terms contains a prefix? a. gastritis b. hepatoma c. cardiology d. monocyte e. nephritis 15. Word endings are called: a. prefixes b. suffixes c. vowels d. consonants e. word roots 16. What does the suffix -itis mean? a. pain b. blood c. excision d. rupture e. inflammation 17. Which word means instrument for measuring the pelvis? a. pelv/i/metry b. pelv/i/scope c. pelv/i/scopy d. pelv/i/meter e. pelv/i/therm 18. What is the plural form of nucleus? a. nuclear b. nucleolus c. nuclei d. nucleic e. nucleii 19. Vowels marked with a macron (¯) indicate: a. short sound b. stress c. silent letter d. long sound e. diphthong 20. The letter combination ps at the beginning of a word (as in psychosis) is pronounced: a. “pee”

b. c. d. e.

“eff” “ss” “sh” “cee”

21. In medical terms, ch (as in cholera) is usually pronounced: a. “chal” b. “cha” c. “k” d. “aitch” e. “cee” 22. In the terms bronchi and fungi, the i is pronounced: a. “ah” b. “ee” c. “eye” d. “eah” e. “aye” 23. The oe in roentgen is pronounced: a. “eh” b. “oy” c. “u” d. “o” e. “a” 24. To make words ending in y plural: a. retain the y and add “es” b. drop the y and add “es” c. drop the y and add “i” d. retain the y and add “s” e. drop the y and add “ies” 25. What does the suffix -edema mean? a. vomiting b. softening c. condition d. swelling e. hemorrhage 26. Which of the following combining forms means joint? a. oste/o b. chondr/o c. -ist d. arthr/o e. -osis 27. Arthr/o/centesis is a surgical puncture of a joint. In this word, arthr/o is a: a. combining form

b. c. d. e.

prefix word root suffix vowel

28. Which of the following words means enlargement of the liver? a. hepat/oma b. hepat/o/megaly c. mega/hepat/ic d. macro/hepat/oma e. hepat/o/cele 29. Which of the following words means visual examination of a joint? a. arthr/o/scopy b. arthr/o/pexy c. arthr/o/centesis d. arthr/o/desis e. arthr/o/scope 30. The suffix in neur/algia means: a. enlargement b. disease c. hardening d. pain e. dilation 31. Which of the following words means dilation or expansion of the bronchus? a. bronch/o/cele b. bronch/o/rrhagia c. bronch/itis d. bronchi/o/spasm e. bronchi/ectasis 32. Which of the following words means pain in a nerve? a. neur/o/blast b. neur/algia c. neur/o/lysis d. neur/o/glia e. neur/oma 33. An instrument to cut the skin is a: a. derm/o/scope b. dermat/o/meter c. derm/o/graph d. dermat/o/graphy e. derm/a/tome 34. What does the suffix -oma mean? a. vomiting

b. c. d. e.

softening condition swelling tumor

35. Which of the following suffixes means binding, fixation (of a bone or joint)? a. -plasty b. -pexy c. -desis d. -centesis e. -tomy 36. Which of the following words means double vision? a. bivisual b. divisual c. monopia d. diplopia e. bilateral 37. Which of the following prefixes means around? a. transb. diac. suprad. circume. esto38. The prefix dia- means: a. away from b. within c. wide d. against e. through, across 39. The prefix uni- has the same meaning as: a. microb. mesoc. epid. monoe. ante40. Which of the following words means fear of blood? a. multiphobic b. quadriphobia c. macrophobia d. superphobic e. hemophobia 41. The term that means condition without a breast is: a. a/mast/ia

b. c. d. e.

dys/mast/ia eu/mast/ia hemi/mast/ia super/mast/ia

42. The prefix hypo- means: a. excessive b. below c. slow d. between e. above 43. What are the prefixes that mean before, in front of? a. pre-, prob. a-, anc. circum-, perid. endo-, intrae. homo-, homeo44. Which of the following terms means pertaining to under the skin? a. subungual b. hypodermic c. epidermis d. hyperdermic e. antecubital 45. The term arteri/o/stenosis means: a. opening of an artery b. nourishment of an artery c. narrowing or stricture of an artery d. plaque in an artery e. paralysis of an artery 46. Which suffix means specialist in the study of? a. -logy b. -logist c. -lysis d. -toxic e. -ad 47. Which of the following contains a noun ending? a. muscular b. thyroidism c. diplobacterial d. hypodermic e. postnatal 48. Which of the following contains an adjective ending that means pertaining to? a. macrocyte

b. c. d. e.

microscope homograft dysphonia gastric

49. Which of the following denotes a noun? a. -ia b. -ac c. -ic d. -ous e. -tic 50. What are the suffixes that mean pertaining to? a. -ia, -ism b. -iatry, -y c. -algia, -dynia d. -ar, -ous e. -rrhage, -rrhagia True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

51. Compound words may consist of two or more word roots.

52. A word root + o results in a combining form.

53. Gastr/o is a combining form.

54. A combining form consists of a prefix plus a word root.

55. A combining form consists of a word root and a vowel.

56. The combining vowel e is commonly used to form medical words.

57. A combining vowel always connects a word root to a suffix.

58. A combining vowel is usually an i.

59. All suffixes begin with a vowel.

60. In medical terminology, a suffix usually describes a position or direction.

61. When a word changes from singular to plural form, the suffix is the part that changes.

62. All medical words contain a prefix.

63. Gastroenterologist is an example of a compound word.

64. When defining a medical word, first define the suffix.

65. Most medical words have Greek or Spanish origins.

66. When adding a suffix that begins with a vowel, the combining form, rather than the word root,

precedes the suffix.

67. In the term hypodermic, hypo- is the combining form.

68. The four elements used to form medical words are word roots, prefixes, suffixes, and combining

forms.

69. In the word syncope, the final e is pronounced as a separate syllable.

70. The suffix -rrhaphy means suture.

Matching

Match the word elements with their meanings. a. -algia k. -osis b. -cele l. -pathy c. -centesis m. -scope d. -clasis n. circum-, perie. -edema o. dysf. -ectomy p. macrog. -emesis q. pre-, proh. -emia r. primii. -graph s. retroj. -itis t. super71. excision, removal 72. vomiting 73. inflammation 74. instrument for examining 75. surgical puncture 76. disease 77. swelling 78. abnormal condition; increase (used primarily with blood cells) 79. blood 80. hernia, swelling

81. instrument for recording 82. to break; surgical fracture 83. pain 84. around 85. before, in front 86. backward, behind 87. first 88. upper, above 89. large 90. bad, painful, difficult

Match the medical terms with their definitions. a. appendectomy k. hemophobia b. arteriostenosis l. hyperemesis c. arthrocentesis m. lithotripsy d. cardiomegaly n. lymphedema e. chondromalacia o. mastopexy f. electrocardiogram p. myopathy g. gastritis q. neuroma h. gastroscope r. osteotome i. hemiplegia s. rhinoplasty j. hemorrhage t. tracheostomy 91. fixation of the breast 92. crushing a stone or calculus 93. forming an opening (mouth) into the trachea 94. narrowing or stricture of an artery 95. enlargement of the heart 96. excision of the appendix 97. softening of cartilage 98. surgical puncture of a joint 99. disease of muscle 100. tumor composed of nerve cells 101. fear of blood 102. inflammation of the stomach

103. instrument to examine the stomach 104. instrument to cut bone 105. record of electrical activity of the heart 106. bursting forth of blood 107. excessive or above-normal vomiting 108. swelling of lymph tissue 109. paralysis of one side of the body 110. surgical repair of the nose

Chapter 01 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

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ANS: D ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: E ANS: D ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: B ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: C ANS: A ANS: E ANS: D ANS: D ANS: A ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: E ANS: B ANS: E ANS: E ANS: C ANS: D ANS: D ANS: E ANS: D ANS: E

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ANS: A ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: B ANS: E ANS: A ANS: D

TRUE/FALSE 51.

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ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: F ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T ANS: T ANS: T

MATCHING 71.

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ANS: F ANS: G ANS: J ANS: M ANS: C ANS: L ANS: E ANS: K ANS: H ANS: B

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ANS: I ANS: D ANS: A ANS: N ANS: Q ANS: S ANS: R ANS: T ANS: P ANS: O

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ANS: O ANS: M ANS: T ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: E ANS: C ANS: P ANS: Q ANS: K ANS: G ANS: H ANS: R ANS: F ANS: J ANS: L ANS: N ANS: I ANS: S

Chapter 02 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Describe the body when it is in anatomical position. a. body is lying down, face upward b. arms are folded across the chest c. body is erect, and eyes are looking forward d. palms are facing backward e. toes point outward 2. What is the term that refers to the neck? a. sacral b. coccygeal c. cervical d. thoracic e. lumbar 3. What is the upper right abdominopelvic region (beneath the ribs) called? a. right lumbar b. epigastric c. right inguinal d. right hypochondriac e. umbilical 4. Which of the following refers to a horizontal plane? a. abduction b. anterior c. superior d. inferior e. transverse 5. What is the process called for the body’s defense against injury, infection, or allergy? a. inflammation b. metabolism c. homeostasis d. adhesion e. adduction 6. The most complex level of the human body is the: a. cellular level b. tissue level c. organ level d. system level e. organism level

7. Which of the following refers to the region located above the stomach? a. quadrant b. epigastric c. umbilical d. iliac e. hypochondriac 8. Anterior is a term synonymous with: a. posterior b. supine c. lateral d. cephalic e. front 9. In terms of body position, the opposite of cranial is: a. superior b. caudal c. lateral d. medial e. visceral 10. What is the navel region of the abdomen called? a. iliac b. pelvis c. umbilicus d. hypochondriac e. groin 11. Name the position a patient is in when lying flat on the back with arms at the side during a medical

examination. knee-chest position Sims position prone position Fowler position supine position

a. b. c. d. e.

12. What region of the body is used to describe pain that occurs above the stomach? a. umbilical region b. thoracic region c. lumbar region d. cervical region e. epigastric region 13. A histologist is a specialist in the study of: a. cells b. tissues c. organs d. systems

e. organisms 14. What is the quadrant that contains most of the stomach? a. right upper quadrant (RUQ) b. left upper quadrant (LUQ) c. right lower quadrant (RLQ) d. left lower quadrant (LLQ) e. middle lateral quadrant (MLQ) 15. The abbreviation Sx means: a. scan b. sign c. symptom d. social e. serial 16. The abbreviation Tx means: a. treatment b. terminal c. touch d. tail e. toxic 17. The abbreviation bx means: a. before exit b. barium x-ray c. breast examination d. biopsy e. blood in excrement 18. What is the imaging procedure that displays continuous motion images of internal structures? a. fluoroscopy b. echography c. magnetic resonance imaging d. digital radiography e. subtraction radiography 19. Select the technique that uses radio waves and a strong magnetic field to produce images of internal

structures. computed tomography (CT) scan ultrasonography (US) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) positron emission tomography (PET) Doppler

a. b. c. d. e.

20. What is the abdominopelvic region located in the lower right near the groin called? a. right hypochondriac b. right lumbar c. right iliac

d. umbilical e. hypogastric 21. The plane that divides the body into equal right and left sides is the: a. median plane b. frontal plane c. transverse plane d. coronal plane e. horizontal plane 22. What is the formation of scar tissue (during the healing process) that binds anatomical surfaces

together called? ablation claudication infarction occlusion adhesion

a. b. c. d. e.

23. The suffix -plasia means: a. tumor, hernia b. poison c. expansion, dilation d. formation, growth e. disease 24. The suffix -ad means: a. from b. around c. near d. toward e. over 25. Distal is a directional term that means: a. closest to the point of attachment b. farthest from the point of attachment c. toward the back d. toward the front e. nearest the point of attachment 26. A tumor in the inguinal area is located in the: a. stomach b. neck c. pelvis d. groin e. spine 27. What is the lighted instrument used to view the interior of organs and cavities called? a. endoscope b. microscope

c. ultrasound d. fluoroscope e. tomography 28. Identify the body cavity in which the lungs are located. a. spinal b. cranial c. abdominal d. pelvic e. thoracic 29. Which directional term means below or lower; toward the tail? a. distal b. caudal c. parietal d. cephalic e. abduction 30. The horizontal plane is also known as the: a. midsagittal plane b. frontal plane c. transverse plane d. coronal plane e. median plane 31. What directional term describes the position of the mouth relative to the nose? a. proximal b. distal c. lateral d. superior e. inferior 32. Where is the right lung in reference to the heart? a. proximal b. distal c. lateral d. ventral e. dorsal 33. Groups of cells working together are known as the: a. cellular level b. tissue level c. organ level d. system level e. organism level 34. What directional term describes movement of the arm from the side of the body to shoulder height? a. parietal b. inferior

c. superficial d. abduction e. external 35. What is the best position to put the patient in when they are having difficulty breathing? a. Fowler b. prone c. supine d. Sims e. dorsal recumbent True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

36. Parietal refers to the outer wall of a cavity.

37. CT scans usually produce sharper images of soft tissue than images obtained using MRI. 38. MRI uses a magnetic field rather than an x-ray to produce an image.

39. A cytometer is an instrument for measuring cells.

40. Hist/o/lysis refers to the formation of bone.

41. Anterior and ventral refer to the front of the body.

42. Nucleus refers to a tumor.

43. The sacral region is the upper back.

44. An endoscope is the visual examination of an interior organ (of the body).

45. Contrast media facilitate imaging of structures that are otherwise difficult to visualize on x-ray films.

Matching

Match the combining forms with their meanings. a. anter/o i. infer/o b. caud/o j. inguin/o c. cervic/o k. later/o d. cyt/o l. lumb/o e. dist/o m. proxim/o f. dors/o n. thorac/o g. gastr/o o. umbilic/o h. hist/o 46. groin

47. loins (lower back) 48. near, nearest 49. stomach 50. tissue 51. lower, below 52. chest 53. neck; cervix uteri (neck of the uterus) 54. side, to one side 55. tail 56. back (back of body) 57. cell 58. umbilicus, navel 59. anterior, front 60. far, farthest

Match the medical words with their definitions. k. nuclear scan anterior l. posterior AP m. radiologist cytologist n. radiopharmaceutical endoscopy o. sepsis fluoroscopy p. superior histologist q. tomography inferior r. toxic inflammation s. US lateral t. ventral medial

a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.

61. medical specialist concerned with electromagnetic radiation, ultrasound, and other imaging

techniques 62. radiograph that produces a film representing a detailed cross-section, or slice, of tissue or an organ at

a predetermined depth 63. image produced using high-frequency sound waves of an internal organ or tissue 64. visual examination of a cavity or canal using a special lighted instrument 65. drug that contains a radioactive substance that travels to a specific organ that will be scanned 66. body’s protective response to irritation, infection, or allergy

67. inflammatory response of the body to infection 68. radiograph that employs a fluorescent screen instead of a photographic plate to produce images 69. imaging technique that uses a radionuclide introduced into the body by ingestion, inhalation, or

injection 70. specialist in the study of cells 71. specialist in the study of tissue 72. refers to the lower part of a structure or below a structure 73. refers to the upper part of a structure or above a structure 74. refers to the side of a structure 75. refers to the front (of the body) 76. refers to the back (of the body) 77. refers to the middle of a structure 78. refers to the anteroposterior position 79. pertains to a poison 80. belly or belly side (of the body)

Chapter 02 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

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ANS: C ANS: C ANS: D ANS: E ANS: A ANS: E ANS: B ANS: E ANS: B ANS: C ANS: E ANS: E ANS: B ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C ANS: C ANS: A ANS: E ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: E ANS: B ANS: C ANS: E ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A

TRUE/FALSE 36. ANS: T 37. ANS: F

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ANS: T ANS: T ANS: F ANS: T ANS: F ANS: F ANS: F ANS: T

MATCHING 46.

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ANS: J ANS: L ANS: M ANS: G ANS: H ANS: I ANS: N ANS: C ANS: K ANS: B ANS: F ANS: D ANS: O ANS: A ANS: E

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ANS: M ANS: Q ANS: S ANS: D ANS: N ANS: H ANS: O ANS: E ANS: K ANS: C ANS: F ANS: G ANS: P ANS: I ANS: A ANS: L ANS: J ANS: B ANS: R

80. ANS: T

Chapter 3 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What is the meaning of the term dermatitis? a. darkening of the skin b. inflammation of the skin c. dryness of the skin d. hardening of the skin e. itching of the skin 2. What is a tumor of the nail (or nail bed) called? a. lipoma b. adenoma c. onychoma d. melanoma e. adipoma 3. A sunburn results in a condition called: a. xanthoderma b. melanoderma c. erythroderma d. cyanosis e. scleroderma 4. Which of the following means black tumor? a. onychoma b. xanthoma c. adenoma d. hidradenoma e. melanoma 5. What is the medical term for red blood cells? a. erythrocytes b. melanocytes c. xanthocytes d. lipocytes e. histiocytes 6. A patient with a diagnosis of trichopathy has a disease of the: a. sweat glands b. fingernails c. skin d. hair e. stomach 7. Which of the following terms means dry skin?

a. b. c. d. e.

xanthoderma scleroderma xeroderma melanoderma erythroderma

8. A chronic skin disease marked by itchy, scaly, red patches covered with silvery-gray scales is known

as: a. b. c. d. e.

vulgaris melanoma xeroderma psoriasis erythema

9. An inflammatory skin disease characterized by isolated pustules that become crusted and rupture is

known as: hirsutism pemphigus impetigo eczema psoriasis

a. b. c. d. e.

10. A common type of nonmelanoma skin cancer is: a. basal cell b. hematoma c. impetigo d. dermatoma e. pyoderma 11. What is the most common cause of squamous cell carcinoma? a. bacterial infections b. electrical contact with skin c. chemical contact with skin d. fair skin e. prolonged ultraviolet (UV) radiation 12. A diagnosis of scleroderma indicates that the skin is: a. hardened b. blue c. swollen d. itchy e. black 13. A physician who specializes in treating skin diseases is a(n): a. gastrologist b. dermatologist c. hematologist d. gynecologist

e. oncologist 14. A person who has psoriasis experiences: a. syncope b. cyanosis c. colitis d. hidrosis e. pruritus 15. What is the therapeutic procedure to remove acne scars, fine wrinkles, or tattoos called? a. electrodessication b. dermabrasion c. incision and drainage (I&D) d. cryosurgery e. débridement 16. What is the medical term for a blackhead? a. melanoma b. chloasma c. pemphigus d. petechia e. comedo 17. Urticaria is a skin rash caused by a(n): a. allergic reaction b. fungus c. virus d. contagious disease e. ulceration 18. A carbuncle is a(n): a. fungal infection b. abscess c. skin ulceration d. abrasion e. horny growth 19. In ichthyosis, the root ichthy means: a. horny b. hard c. dry and scaly d. ulcerated e. fungus 20. The word element that means sweat is: a. adip/o b. hyperc. sudor/o d. steat/o

e. -phoresis 21. A skin graft taken from a patient’s own body is a(n): a. allograft b. homograft c. xenograft d. heterograft e. autograft 22. What is the term that means abnormal condition (infection) of skin caused by fungi? a. dermatophytosis b. dermatomycosis c. dermatosclerosis d. dermatozoon e. dermatorrhexis 23. The term for excessive sweating is: a. hidropoiesis b. hidrotic c. hyperhidrosis d. hidromegaly e. anhidrosis 24. Plantar warts, or verrucae, are caused by: a. several fungal species b. handling certain reptiles c. viruses d. poor hygiene e. pressure from ill-fitting shoes 25. Burns that damage the epidermis only are classified as: a. first-degree b. crustations c. third-degree d. vesicular e. second-degree 26. A medical procedure to remove cellular debris from a wound or to prevent infection and promote

healing is known as: I&D fulguration Mohs dermabrasion débridement

a. b. c. d. e.

27. The abbreviation bx means: a. breast radiograph b. second-degree burn c. biopsy

d. cross-graft e. autograft 28. To what does the term alopecia refer? a. dry skin b. blisters c. oily skin d. itching e. baldness 29. A localized collection of pus at the site of infection is called: a. cellulitis b. an abscess c. acne d. eschar e. purpura 30. A condition of profuse sweating is called: a. diaphoresis b. petechia c. rhinorrhea d. hypohidrosis e. hydrorrhea 31. Which of the following classes of drugs are used to treat skin inflammations? a. antibiotics b. antifungals c. antipruritics d. radiopharmaceuticals e. corticosteroids 32. Skin infections are treated with drugs that kill bacteria and are known as: a. antibiotics b. antifungals c. antipruritics d. corticosteroids e. anti-inflammatories 33. Which of the following is a localized loss of skin pigmentation characterized by milk-white patches? a. urticaria b. impetigo c. vitiligo d. psoriasis e. petechia 34. Which term means yellow skin? a. xanthoderma b. xeroderma c. scleroderma

d. melanoderma e. erythroderma 35. A closed sac with a distinct membrane that contains fluid is called a(n): a. comedo b. abrasion c. furuncle d. cyst e. carbuncle Matching

Match the word elements with their meanings. a. cutane/o k. pil/o b. cyan/o l. scler/o c. hidr/o m. therm/o d. hydr/o n. xanth/o e. ichthy/o o. xer/o f. kerat/o p. -cyte g. lip/o q. -oma h. melan/o r. -pathy i. myc/o s. -phoresis j. onych/o t. -plasty 36. dry, scaly 37. hair 38. nail 39. skin 40. sweat 41. hardening, sclera (white of eye) 42. horny tissue, hard, cornea 43. black 44. dry 45. fungus 46. blue 47. heat 48. fat 49. surgical repair 50. water

51. cell 52. disease 53. tumor 54. yellow 55. carrying, transmission

Match the medical words with their definitions. k. dermabrasion abscess l. eczema acne m. fulguration alopecia n. hirsutism antibiotics o. ichthyosis autograft p. I&D carcinoma q. scabies comedo r. vitiligo corticosteroids s. wheal cryosurgery t. xenograft débridement

a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.

56. inflammatory disease of the sebaceous glands and hair follicles of the skin 57. absence or loss of hair; also called baldness 58. tissue destruction by means of high-frequency electric current 59. dry sebum plugging a pore of the skin; also called a blackhead 60. incision of a lesion, such as an abscess, followed by the drainage of its contents 61. excessive growth of hair or presence of hair in unusual places, especially in women 62. kill bacteria that cause skin infections 63. anti-inflammatory agents that treat skin inflammation 64. contagious skin disease transmitted by the itch mite 65. removal of dead or damaged tissue from a wound or burn site to prevent infection and to facilitate

healing 66. localized collection of pus at the site of an infection 67. use of subfreezing temperature to destroy abnormal tissue cells 68. acute or chronic skin inflammation characterized by erythema, papules, scales, crusts, scabs, and

possibly itching 69. transplantation from a foreign donor to a human; also called a heterograft 70. transplantation of healthy tissue from one site to another in the same individual

71. removal of scars, tattoos, and fine wrinkles on the skin using sandpaper or other abrasive materials 72. genetic disorder in which skin is dry and scaly, resembling fish scales 73. malignant tumor 74. localized loss of skin pigmentation characterized by milk-white patches 75. elevated skin that is white in the center with a red periphery; also called hives Completion Complete each statement.

76. Use dermat/o to build a word that means abnormal condition of the skin: 77. Use trich/o to build a word that means disease of the hair:

.

.

78. Use adip/o to build a word that means resembling fat:

.

79. Use onych/o to build a word that means softening of the nails: 80. Use xer/o to build a word that means skin that is dry:

. .

81. Use -logist to build a word that means specialist in the study of skin (diseases):

.

82. Use an- to build a word that means abnormal condition without sweat:

.

83. Use dermat/o to build a word that means inflammation of the skin: 84. Use -cyte to build a word that means red cell:

.

.

85. Use seb/o to build a word that means discharge of sebum:

.

86. Build a word that means softening of the nail(s):

.

87. Build a word that means tumor composed of fat:

.

88. Build a word that means abnormal condition of sweat(ing): 89. Build a word that means tumor that is black: 90. Build a word that means pertaining to under the skin:

.

. .

Chapter 3 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C ANS: E ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: E ANS: A ANS: B ANS: E ANS: B ANS: E ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C ANS: E ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C ANS: A ANS: E ANS: C ANS: E ANS: B ANS: A ANS: E ANS: A ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D

MATCHING 36. ANS: E 37. ANS: K

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

ANS: J ANS: A ANS: C ANS: L ANS: F ANS: H ANS: O ANS: I ANS: B ANS: M ANS: G ANS: T ANS: D ANS: P ANS: R ANS: Q ANS: N ANS: S

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

ANS: B ANS: C ANS: M ANS: G ANS: P ANS: N ANS: D ANS: H ANS: Q ANS: J ANS: A ANS: I ANS: L ANS: T ANS: E ANS: K ANS: O ANS: F ANS: R ANS: S

COMPLETION 76. ANS: dermatosis 77. ANS: trichopathy

78. ANS: adipoid 79. ANS: onychomalacia 80. ANS: xeroderma 81. ANS: dermatologist 82. ANS: anhidrosis 83. ANS: dermatitis 84. ANS: erythrocyte 85. ANS: seborrhea 86. ANS: onychomalacia 87. ANS: adipoma 88. ANS: hidrosis 89. ANS: melanoma 90. ANS: hypodermic

Chapter 04 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which of the following terms denotes normal breathing? a. eupnea b. dyspnea c. apnea d. orthopnea e. hypoventilation 2. What is the procedure performed to gain access to the airway below a tracheal obstruction? a. chondroplasty b. tracheostomy c. pneumonectomy d. pharyngoscopy e. rhinoplasty 3. Narrowing or stricture of the bronchi is called: a. bronchiectasis b. bronchospasm c. bronchostenosis d. bronchorrhagia e. bronchitis 4. Inflammation of the mucous membranes of the bronchial tubes is known as: a. pneumonia b. pneumonomycosis c. bronchitis d. bronchostenosis e. bronchiectasis 5. What device is worn by a person with sleep apnea? a. nebulized mist treatment (NMT) b. intermittent positive pressure breathing (IPPB) c. continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) d. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) e. pulmonary function test (PFT) 6. A surgical puncture to remove fluid from the lung is called: a. pneumocentesis b. pneumectomy c. pneumonorrhaphy d. pneumonotomy e. pneumopexy

7. Name the condition characterized by attacks of difficult breathing and wheezing caused by spasms

of the bronchial tubes. pleurisy asthma pneumonia bronchorrhagia aerophagia

a. b. c. d. e.

8. Asthma, emphysema, and chronic bronchitis belong to a group of chronic respiratory conditions

known as: acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) cystic fibrosis (CF) respiratory distress (RD) sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)

a. b. c. d. e.

9. Continuous high-pitched whistling sounds, usually during expiration, are called: a. stridor b. rhonchi c. wheezes d. rales e. croup 10. What is the medical term for head cold? a. epistaxis b. coryza c. cephalodynia d. ascites e. empyema 11. A narrowing or stricture of the voice box is known as: a. pharyngostenosis b. laryngostenosis c. pneumostenosis d. laryngospasm e. pharyngospasm 12. Which of the following is a genetic disorder? a. atelectasis b. cystic fibrosis c. pertussis d. epiglottitis e. emphysema 13. Identify the procedure used to assess the volume and air flow rate of the lungs. a. sputum culture b. bronchoscopy c. pulmonary function test

d. arterial blood gases e. sweat test 14. What is the term that means presence of pus in the chest? a. pyothorax b. pyosis c. pyemia d. pleuritis e. empyosis 15. What is the term that means difficult or labored breathing? a. eupnea b. tachypnea c. apnea d. dyspnea e. bradypnea 16. A lobectomy is a procedure to remove a portion of the: a. larynx b. diaphragm c. lung d. nose e. trachea 17. Which agent is a hormone used to reduce inflammation associated with chronic lung disease? a. antipruritic b. corticosteroid c. antibiotic d. antifungal e. aspirin 18. What disease associated with smoking is characterized by overexpansion and destruction of alveoli? a. emphysema b. empyema c. atelectasis d. bronchiectasis e. asthma 19. Difficulty breathing in any position except when sitting or standing is known as: a. dyspnea b. orthopnea c. apnea d. eupnea e. aerophagia 20. Inflammation of a pleural membrane characterized by stabbing pain and intensified by coughing is

called: a. tracheitis b. pneumonitis

c. pleurisy d. emphysema e. laryngitis 21. An acute respiratory syndrome that occurs in children and infants and is characterized by laryngeal

obstruction and barking cough is known as: a. rhonchi b. pertussis c. crackle d. croup e. atelectasis 22. Which group of tests measures oxygen and carbon dioxide concentration in an arterial blood sample? a. arterial blood gases (ABGs) b. CT scans c. chest x-rays d. MRIs e. Mantoux tests 23. What is the medical term for nosebleed? a. empyema b. coryza c. epistaxis d. hypoxia e. pertussis 24. Which of the following is a plural form? a. bronchus b. alveolus c. fungus d. nares e. polyp 25. What is the surgical procedure used to remove excess pleural fluid? a. pneumonectomy b. tracheostomy c. bronchoscopy d. postural drainage e. thoracentesis 26. Total absence of oxygen in body tissues is known as: a. anosmia b. anoxia c. acidosis d. asthma e. atelectasis 27. Involuntary contraction of the bronchi is called: a. bronchiectasis

b. c. d. e.

bronchospasm bronchostenosis bronchorrhagia bronchitis

28. The medical term for swallowing air is: a. aerophagia b. aerotherapy c. aerophobia d. aerohydrotherapy e. aeroscope 29. What term describes a fine crackling or bubbling sound heard when there is fluid in the alveoli? a. crackles b. Cheyne-Stokes c. coryza d. empyema e. ascites 30. A high-pitched, musical sound made on inspiration, caused by obstruction, is known as: a. stridor b. Cheyne-Stokes c. coryza d. empyema e. ascites 31. What is the occupational disease caused by inhalation of black dust? a. melanosis b. pneumonosis c. silicosis d. siderosis e. pneumonomelanosis 32. Which class of drugs improves the ability to cough up mucus from the respiratory tract? a. bronchodilators b. anticoagulants c. penicillins d. expectorants e. corticosteroids 33. The unexpected and unexplained death of an apparently well infant is known as: a. acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) b. shortness of breath (SOB) c. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) d. obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) e. paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) 34. Which medical condition involves collection of air in the pleural cavity, causing the lung to

collapse?

a. b. c. d. e.

acidosis pneumoconiosis pneumothorax pleurisy pleuritis

35. Which drugs are used in the treatment of asthma to dilate the walls of the bronchi? a. corticosteroids b. anti-inflammatories c. decongestants d. bronchodilators e. expectorants Matching

Match the word elements with their meanings. a. aer/o k. py/o b. pulmon/o l. rhin/o c. bronchi/o m. thorac/o d. bronchiol/o n. trache/o e. cyan/o o. -plasty f. laryng/o p. -plegia g. orth/o q. bradyh. pharyng/o r. dysi. pleur/o s. euj. pneum/o t. tachy36. blue 37. air; lung 38. larynx (voice box) 39. trachea (windpipe) 40. pharynx (throat) 41. bronchiole 42. pleura 43. bad, painful, difficult 44. lung 45. air 46. pus 47. bronchus 48. surgical repair

49. rapid 50. good, normal 51. slow 52. nose 53. paralysis 54. chest 55. straight

Match the medical words with their definitions. k. emphysema anosmia l. epistaxis apnea m. hypoxia atelectasis n. MRI bronchodilators o. pertussis bronchoscopy p. pleurisy corticosteroids q. pneumonectomy coryza r. pulmonology crackle s. respiration croup t. rhonchi cystic fibrosis

a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.

56. disease characterized by decrease in elasticity of lung tissue 57. inherited disease with production of thick mucus that causes severe congestion within the lungs and

digestive system 58. direct visualization of the bronchi using an endoscope 59. radiographic technique that uses electromagnetic energy to produce a scan of the chest and lungs 60. excision of the entire lung 61. absence of or decrease in the sense of smell 62. collapse of lung tissue, preventing exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide 63. acute inflammation of the nasal passages accompanied by profuse nasal discharge; also called a cold 64. study of the lower respiratory tract 65. hemorrhage from the nose; also called nosebleed 66. deficiency of oxygen in the tissues; usually a sign of respiratory impairment 67. act of breathing 68. acute infectious disease characterized by a cough that sounds like a “whoop” 69. crackling sound heard during inspiration when fluid is present in the alveoli; also called rales

70. agents that dilate the walls of the bronchi to increase air flow 71. hormonal agents that reduce tissue edema and inflammation associated with chronic lung disease 72. temporary cessation of breathing 73. abnormal chest sounds resembling snoring, produced in airways with accumulated fluids 74. acute respiratory syndrome that occurs primarily in children and infants and is characterized by a

barking cough 75. inflammation of the pleural membrane characterized by stabbing pain and intensified by coughing Completion Complete each statement.

76. Use laryng/o (larynx, voice box) to build a word that means instrument for examining the larynx:

.

77. Use tachy- (rapid) to build a word that means rapid breathing:

.

78. Use brady- (slow) to build a word that means slow breathing:

.

79. Use cyan/o (blue) to build a word that means abnormal condition of blue (skin):

.

80. Use rhin/o to build a word that means watery discharge from the nose:

.

81. Use -thorax (chest) to build a word that means pus in the thorax:

.

82. Use -phagia (swallowing) to build a word that means swallowing air: 83. Build a word that means excision of the tonsils:

.

84. Build a word that means surgical puncture of the pleura:

.

85. Build a word that means paralysis of the larynx:

.

86. Build a word that means surgical repair of the nose:

.

87. Build a word that means disease of the chest: 88. Build a word that means resembling mucus:

.

. .

89. Build a surgical term that means incision of the adenoids: 90. Build a term that means incision of the trachea (windpipe):

. .

Chapter 04 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: E ANS: B ANS: B ANS: A ANS: A ANS: A ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: D

MATCHING 36. ANS: E 37. ANS: J

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

ANS: F ANS: N ANS: H ANS: D ANS: I ANS: R ANS: B ANS: A ANS: K ANS: C ANS: O ANS: T ANS: S ANS: Q ANS: L ANS: P ANS: M ANS: G

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

ANS: K ANS: J ANS: E ANS: N ANS: Q ANS: A ANS: C ANS: G ANS: R ANS: L ANS: M ANS: S ANS: O ANS: H ANS: D ANS: F ANS: B ANS: T ANS: I ANS: P

COMPLETION 76. ANS: laryngoscope 77. ANS: tachypnea

78. ANS: bradypnea 79. ANS: cyanosis 80. ANS: rhinorrhea 81. ANS: pyothorax 82. ANS: aerophagia 83. ANS: tonsillectomy 84. ANS: pleurocentesis 85. ANS: laryngoplegia 86. ANS: rhinoplasty 87. ANS: thoracopathy 88. ANS: mucoid 89. ANS: adenoidectomy 90. ANS: tracheotomy

Chapter 05 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What does the term aortostenosis mean? a. rupture of the aorta b. softening of the aorta c. narrowing of the aorta d. expansion of the aorta e. disease of the aorta 2. What term describes a decreased supply of oxygenated blood to an organ or tissue? a. infarction b. malnutrition c. dystrophy d. anemia e. ischemia 3. Which of the following is a singular term? a. bronchi b. atria c. pleurae d. bacteria e. diagnosis 4. Severe chest pain associated with coronary artery disease is diagnosed as: a. ischemia b. hyperalgia c. angina d. angiodynia e. pectorodynia 5. What is the abbreviation for heart attack? a. CAD b. HA c. HA d. MI e. HDL 6. Name the type of atrioventricular (AV) block in which no electrical impulses reach the ventricles. a. first-degree b. second-degree c. third-degree d. fourth-degree e. heart murmur 7. What is the surgical term that refers to suturing a vein?

a. b. c. d. e.

phleborrhaphy venosclerosis phlebostenosis venotomy phleborrhexis

8. Numbness in fingers or toes caused by intermittent constriction of arterioles in the skin is

symptomatic of: heart murmur arteriosclerosis heart failure Raynaud disease hypertension

a. b. c. d. e.

9. Localized dilation of a blood vessel wall that introduces the risk of a rupture is known as: a. thrombolysis b. angioma c. arteriolith d. aneurysm e. arteriopathy 10. Which term means suture of an artery? a. arteriorrhexis b. arteriorrhaphy c. arteriostenosis d. arteriosclerosis e. arteriolitis 11. Microphlebectomy is performed to remove a(n): a. clot b. incompetent valve c. small artery d. small vein e. tumor 12. Quivering or spontaneous muscle contraction, especially of the heart, is called: a. ischemia b. thrombosis c. embolism d. fibrillation e. patency 13. An incompetent valve in a vein may cause: a. infarction b. varicose veins c. hypotension d. arteriosclerosis e. phleboliths

14. Enlargement of the heart is a disorder known as: a. carditis b. cardiomegaly c. cardiolysis d. cardiomalacia e. cardiopathy 15. A fatal condition in which the heart cannot pump adequate amounts of blood to tissues and organs is

known as: arteriosclerosis rheumatic heart disease heart failure hypertension aortic coarctation

a. b. c. d. e.

16. A soft blowing sound heard on auscultation that is caused by turbulent blood flow is known as a: a. rale b. gallop c. bruit d. wheeze e. crackle 17. An electrocardiography (ECG) taken with a small portable recorder capable of storing information

up to 24 hours is known as a(n): stress test nuclear stress test electrocardiogram cardiac monitor test Holter monitor test

a. b. c. d. e.

18. What disorder caused by streptococcal infection damages the heart valves and heart muscle? a. rheumatic heart disease b. phlebitis c. adenitis d. patent ductus arteriosus e. thrombolysis 19. A surgical procedure to widen a stenotic heart valve to increase blood flow is called: a. valvuloplasty b. endovenous laser therapy c. ligation and stripping d. sclerotherapy e. endarterectomy 20. What is the condition characterized by a slow heart rate? a. tachycardia b. macrcardia c. bradycardia

d. microcardia e. mesocardia 21. The combining form vas/o means: a. vein b. volume c. vessel; vas deferens; duct d. dilation e. constriction 22. Drugs that relieve chest pain associated with angina are: a. statins b. nitrates c. thrombolytics d. beta blockers e. anticoagulants 23. What is the abbreviation that means consistently elevated blood pressure? a. US b. DVT c. BP d. HTN e. HF 24. What is the term that describes a blood clot that becomes lodged in a blood vessel? a. aneurysm b. ischemia c. infarction d. patent ductus e. embolus 25. Disease of the heart muscle is called: a. endocarditis b. coronary artery disease c. valvular heart disease d. coronary fibrillation e. cardiomyopathy 26. Abnormal widening or ballooning of a blood vessel resulting from wall weakness is called: a. stenosis b. commissure c. aneurysm d. sclerosis e. angiopathy 27. An obstruction caused by any foreign substance, including a blood clot within the vessel, is called: a. aneurysm b. angina c. infarction

d. fibroid e. embolism 28. Inflammation of the aorta is called: a. aortic stenosis b. arteritis c. aortitis d. aortectasis e. coarctation 29. A battery of blood tests used to determine the presence of cardiac damage are known as: a. nuclear stress tests b. catheterizations c. echocardiographies (ECHOs) d. cardiac enzyme studies e. high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) 30. Inflammation of the inner lining of the heart, usually caused by bacteria, is called: a. myocarditis b. valvulitis c. pericarditis d. endocarditis e. angiitis 31. Which procedure involves passage of a balloon catheter through an occluded coronary vessel to

compress plaque against the artery walls? bypass surgery angioplasty cardiac catheterization cardioplasty cardioversion

a. b. c. d. e.

32. Which procedure heats the lining within a vein, causing it to collapse and eventually disappear? a. endarterectomy b. endovenous laser therapy c. sclerotherapy d. ligation e. phlebotomy 33. Which procedure involves insertion of a device to hold open a vessel and is usually performed after

vascular surgery? a. catheterization b. embolization c. stent placement d. implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) e. electrode placement 34. Drugs that slow the heart rate and lower blood pressure are known as: a. statins

b. c. d. e.

thrombolytics anticoagulants nitrates beta blockers

35. Which endovascular procedure reopens narrowed blood vessels? a. angiorrhaphy b. venipuncture c. fibrillation d. angioplasty e. perfusion 36. What term describes an irregularity in the rate or rhythm of the heart? a. heart failure b. ischemia c. angina pectoris d. bruit e. arrhythmia 37. The contraction phase of the heart is called: a. syncope b. diastole c. systole d. tachycardia e. cardioversion 38. Removal of plaque from the carotid artery is known as a carotid: a. arteriorrhaphy b. endarterectomy c. vasectomy d. arteriotomy e. phlebectomy 39. What term means incision of a vein to withdraw blood? a. venolysis b. phlebectomy c. phlebolith d. phleboplasty e. phlebotomy 40. What pharmacological agents are prescribed to reduce cholesterol levels in the blood? a. anticoagulants b. beta blockers c. nitrates d. statins e. thrombolytics Matching

Match the word elements with their meanings. a. aneurysm/o k. thromb/o b. angi/o l. varic/o c. arteri/o m. vascul/o d. arteriol/o n. -cardia e. ather/o o. -graph f. atri/o p. -stenosis g. cardi/o q. bradyh. ischi/o r. endoi. phleb/o s. perij. scler/o t. tachy41. hardening; sclera (white of eye) 42. fatty plaque 43. vein 44. heart 45. dilated vein 46. vessel (usually blood or lymph) 47. widening; widened blood vessel 48. blood clot 49. artery 50. to hold back; block 51. narrowing, stricture 52. slow 53. heart condition 54. around 55. vessel 56. in, within 57. rapid 58. instrument for recording 59. atrium 60. arteriole (small artery)

Match the medical words with their definitions. a. AICD k. endovenous laser therapy

b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.

angioplasty arrhythmia atherosclerosis bruit cardiac enzyme studies cardioversion competent echocardiography endarterectomy

l. Holter monitor m. hypertension n. ischemia o. myocardial infarction p. statins q. stress test r. troponin I s. valvuloplasty t. varicosities

61. soft blowing sound heard on auscultation; murmur 62. inability of the heart to maintain a steady beat 63. high blood pressure 64. restoration of normal heart rhythm by applying electrical shock to the chest 65. surgical removal of the lining of an artery 66. common form of arteriosclerosis 67. drugs that reduce low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol in the blood 68. partial or complete occlusion of one or more of the coronary arteries; also called heart attack 69. insufficient oxygenated blood to a body part caused by an interruption of blood flow 70. endovascular procedure that reopens narrowed blood vessels and restores forward blood flow 71. heats the lining within a vein to collapse it and eventually make it disappear 72. battery of blood tests performed to determine the presence of cardiac damage 73. method of evaluating cardiovascular fitness while exercising on a treadmill 74. device worn by a patient to evaluate prolonged electrocardiographic recordings (usually 24 hours) on

a portable tape recorder during normal daily activities 75. implanted defibrillator that automatically detects and corrects arrhythmias AICD A. 76. normal or healthy (veins) 77. widening of a heart valve to increase blood flow 78. blood test that measures protein released into circulation after myocardial injury 79. ultrasound technique used to image the heart and evaluate its chambers and valves; used to detect

pathological conditions 80. dilation of veins as a result of incomplete closure of the valves Completion Complete each statement.

81. Use cardi/o to build a word that means enlargement of the heart:

.

82. Use ather/o (fatty plaque) to build a word that means tumor of fatty plaque: 83. Use arteri/o to build a word that means rupture of artery:

.

.

84. Use angi/o (vessel) to build a word that means tumor of a (blood) vessel: 85. Build a word that means destruction of a clot:

.

.

86. Use -stenosis to build a word that means narrowing or stricture of an artery:

.

87. Use cardi/o to build a word that means specialist in the study of the heart: 88. Use tachy- to build a word that means rapid heart rate:

.

.

89. Use aneurysm/o to build a word that means suture (of the sac) of an aneurysm: 90. Use -ose (pertaining to) to build a word that means dilated vein:

.

.

91. Build a word that means abnormal condition of fatty plaque hardening:

.

92. Use -us (condition; structure) to build a word that means condition of a blood clot: 93. Build a word that means instrument for recording electrical activity of the heart: 94. Build a word that means slow heart (rate): 95. Build a surgical word that means puncture of the heart:

. .

. .

Chapter 05 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: C ANS: E ANS: E ANS: C ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C ANS: E ANS: A ANS: A ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: E ANS: E ANS: C ANS: E ANS: C ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B ANS: B ANS: C ANS: E ANS: D ANS: E ANS: C ANS: B ANS: E ANS: D

MATCHING 41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

ANS: J ANS: E ANS: I ANS: G ANS: L ANS: B ANS: A ANS: K ANS: C ANS: H ANS: P ANS: Q ANS: N ANS: S ANS: M ANS: R ANS: T ANS: O ANS: F ANS: D

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

ANS: E ANS: C ANS: M ANS: G ANS: J ANS: D ANS: P ANS: O ANS: N ANS: B ANS: K ANS: F ANS: Q ANS: L ANS: A ANS: H ANS: S ANS: R ANS: I ANS: T

COMPLETION

81. ANS: cardiomegaly 82. ANS: atheroma 83. ANS: arteriorrhexis 84. ANS: angioma 85. ANS: thrombolysis 86. ANS: arteriostenosis 87. ANS: cardiologist 88. ANS: tachycardia 89. ANS: aneurysmorrhaphy 90. ANS: varicose 91. ANS: atherosclerosis 92. ANS: thrombus 93. ANS: electrocardiograph 94. ANS: bradycardia 95. ANS: cardiocentesis

Chapter 06 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What is the study of immunity called? a. morphology b. histology c. pathology d. immunology e. oncology 2. An immunologist treats patients with immunodeficiency diseases, such as: a. ear infections b. malformed extremities c. AIDS d. heart disorders e. bladder disorders 3. What is the term that means formation of blood? a. autoimmunity b. hematocrit c. hemostasis d. agglutination e. hematopoiesis 4. A blood clot that obstructs a vessel is called a(n): a. coarctation b. thrombus c. patency d. angina e. lipidemia 5. What inherited disorder is marked by unhealthy, crescent-shaped erythrocytes? a. thalassemia b. hemophilia c. sickle cell anemia d. leukemia e. lymphedema 6. The clear yellow fluid of blood is called: a. leukocytes b. erythrocytes c. antigens d. plasma e. thrombocytes 7. What acute infection is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus?

a. b. c. d. e.

phagocytosis sclerosis endocarditis lymphadenitis mononucleosis

8. What virus causes suppression of the immune system and leads to AIDS? a. Kaposi sarcoma b. systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) c. human immunodeficiency virus d. multiple myeloma e. thalassemia 9. What is the medical term that means tumor composed of lymph vessels? a. lymphedema b. angioma c. myoma d. hematoma e. lymphangioma 10. What pharmacological agents are used to dissolve a blood clot? a. anticoagulants b. antibiotics c. immunosuppressants d. thrombolytics e. immunizations 11. What is the malignancy associated with AIDS? a. leukemia b. Kaposi sarcoma c. thymoma d. adenocarcinoma e. multiple myeloma 12. Where are the cervical lymph nodes located? a. armpit b. neck c. groin d. abdomen e. chest 13. What is the process of cells clumping together called? a. hematopathy b. anticoagulation c. cytotoxicosis d. agglutination e. anemia 14. What are the three main organs of the lymphatic system?

a. b. c. d. e.

tonsils, thymus, and spleen tonsils, spleen, and liver tonsils, spleen, and lungs tonsils, thymus, and liver tonsils, thymus, and lungs

15. What does the abbreviation HIV refer to? a. type of hepatoma b. test used to detect presence of a virus c. drug used to treat an infection d. virus that causes AIDS e. herpes intestinal virus 16. What is the blood type of a universal donor? a. A b. B c. AB d. O e. Rh17. A cell that ingests bacteria is a(n): a. bacteremia b. phagocyte c. immunogen d. erythrocyte e. leukocyte 18. What is the chronic autoimmune inflammatory disease that affects many body systems, especially

the skin, kidneys, heart, and lungs?

Kaposi sarcoma lymphedema mononucleosis systemic lupus erythematosus anaphylaxis

a. b. c. d. e.

19. What is the ELISA test used for? a. determines histocompatibility of tissues b. screens blood for presence of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies c. radiographic examination of lymph glands d. treatment of disease by means of chemical agents e. test to confirm mononucleosis 20. Which of the following classes of drugs suppress the immune response to prevent organ rejection

after transplantation? thrombolytics immunosuppressants antibiotics antivirals

a. b. c. d.

e. anticoagulants 21. The Western blot test is used to confirm: a. diagnosis of AIDS b. Epstein-Barr virus c. Hodgkin lymphoma d. mononucleosis e. Kaposi sarcoma 22. What is the hereditary disorder that prevents blood from clotting? a. hemophilia b. leukemia c. thalassemia d. hemolysis e. sickle cell anemia 23. Which of the following means formation or production of lymphocytes? a. lymphoid b. lymphocele c. lymphoblastoma d. lymphorrhagia e. lymphopoiesis 24. Deficiency of red blood cells (RBCs) due to inadequate absorption of B12 is known as: a. sickle cell anemia b. iron-deficiency anemia c. thalassemia d. pernicious anemia e. hemolytic anemia 25. What is the primary function of platelets? a. phagocytosis b. plasma formation c. cellular immunity d. blood clotting e. antigen formation 26. Erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets are produced in the: a. kidneys b. bone marrow c. muscles d. liver e. thymus 27. The branch of medicine concerned with the study of malignant growths is: a. immunology b. oncology c. hematology d. pathology

e. radiology 28. Disease of a gland is called: a. immunodeficiency b. thymopathy c. adenopathy d. lymphomegaly e. splenomegaly 29. What type of anemia is associated with bone marrow failure? a. hemolytic b. aplastic c. sickle cell d. hemorrhagic e. pernicious 30. What is the blood type of a universal recipient? a. A b. B c. O d. AB e. AO 31. Which disorder is associated with a “butterfly rash” on the nose and cheeks? a. leukemia b. multiple myeloma c. SLE d. infectious mononucleosis e. HIV 32. A malignant tumor of plasma cells in bone marrow is called: a. leukemia b. lymphadenopathy c. osteoma d. hematoma e. multiple myeloma 33. What term refers to a decrease in the number of circulating blood cells? a. erythrophilia b. erythrocytosis c. erythema d. erythropenia e. erythroblastosis 34. Infusion of blood for therapeutic purposes is known as a(n): a. culture b. transplant c. transfusion d. vaccination

e. immunization 35. Enlargement of the spleen is called: a. splenitis b. splenorrhea c. splenocele d. splenomegaly e. splenorrhagia Matching

Match the word elements with their meanings. a. aden/o k. phag/o b. cyt/o l. splen/o c. erythr/o m. thromb/o d. hemat/o n. thym/o e. hepat/o o. ven/o f. leuk/o p. -emia g. lymph/o q. -oid h. lymphaden/o r. -phylaxis i. lymphangi/o s. -poiesis j. myel/o t. -stasis 36. gland 37. blood clot 38. red 39. blood 40. bone marrow; spinal cord 41. lymph vessel 42. swallowing, eating 43. thymus gland 44. spleen 45. cell 46. white 47. lymph gland (node) 48. vein 49. resembling 50. protection

51. formation, growth 52. lymph 53. blood 54. standing still 55. liver

Match the medical words with their meanings. k. lymphopoiesis agglutination l. mononucleosis anticoagulant m. multiple myeloma autoimmune n. opportunistic infection bone marrow aspiration o. pernicious ELISA p. SLE hemophilia q. splenomegaly Hodgkin disease r. thalassemia Kaposi sarcoma s. thrombolysis leukemia t. tissue typing lymphedema

a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.

56. removal of bone marrow tissue for microscopic examination 57. dissolution of a blood clot 58. group of hereditary anemias characterized by inability to produce hemoglobin; seen in people of

Mediterranean origin 59. malignant disease characterized by presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in the lymph nodes 60. hereditary bleeding disorder characterized by deficiency in blood coagulation 61. malignant disease of the bone marrow plasma cells 62. test to determine histocompatibility of tissues; used before a transplant 63. agent that prevents or delays blood coagulation 64. formation or production of lymphoid tissue 65. test that screens for presence of HIV antibodies 66. chronic autoimmune inflammatory disease that affects many body systems 67. tissue swelling caused by a blockage in the lymphatic system 68. acute infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus 69. clumping together of cells 70. type of immune response by the body against its own cells or tissues 71. malignant blood disease characterized by excessive production of leukocytes

72. malignancy of connective tissue that is commonly fatal and closely related to the AIDS virus 73. infection that results from a defective immune system that cannot defend against pathogens normally

found in the environment 74. pathological condition in which the spleen is enlarged 75. type of anemia characterized by deficiency of RBCs due to inadequate absorption of vitamin B12 Completion Complete each statement.

76. Use micro- to build a word that means small cell:

.

77. Use mono- to build a word that means pertaining to one nucleus:

.

78. Use -stasis to build a word that means standing still of blood:

.

79. Use thromb/o to build a word that means separation; destruction; loosening of a blood clot:

.

80. Use. -cyte to build a word that means cell that eats or swallows:

.

81. Use thym/o to build a word that means tumor of the thymus gland:

.

82. Use ven/o to build a word that means pertaining to a vein:

.

83. Use embol/o to build a word that means excision or removal of an embolus: 84. Use immun/o to build a word that means study of immunity:

.

85. Use thromb/o to build a word that means resembling a thrombus: 86. Build a word that means large cell:

.

.

.

87. Build a word that means resembling a gland: 88. Build a word that means specialist in the study of blood:

. .

89. Use agglutin/o to build a word that means process of clumping or gluing:

.

90. Build a word that means pertaining to forming, producing; origin in the bone marrow:

.

Chapter 06 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

ANS: D ANS: C ANS: E ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: E ANS: C ANS: E ANS: D ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B ANS: D ANS: B ANS: B ANS: A ANS: A ANS: E ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D

MATCHING 36. ANS: A 37. ANS: M

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

ANS: C ANS: D ANS: J ANS: I ANS: K ANS: N ANS: L ANS: B ANS: F ANS: H ANS: O ANS: Q ANS: R ANS: S ANS: G ANS: P ANS: T ANS: E ANS: D ANS: S ANS: R ANS: G ANS: F ANS: M ANS: T ANS: B ANS: K ANS: E ANS: P ANS: J ANS: L ANS: A ANS: C ANS: I ANS: H ANS: N ANS: Q ANS: O

COMPLETION 76. ANS: microcyte 77. ANS: mononuclear 78. ANS: hemostasis

79. ANS: thrombolysis 80. ANS: phagocyte 81. ANS: thymoma 82. ANS: venous 83. ANS: embolectomy 84. ANS: immunology 85. ANS: thromboid 86. ANS: macrocyte 87. ANS: adenoid 88. ANS: hemolysis 89. ANS: agglutination 90. ANS: myelogenic

Chapter 07 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. In the term postprandial, what does the suffix -prandial mean? a. enlargement b. meal c. vomit d. gall e. expansion 2. The surgical procedure to excise a benign growth with a stalk is a: a. colectomy b. cholecystectomy c. diverticulectomy d. polypectomy e. jejunectomy 3. What does the term eupepsia refer to? a. difficult digestion b. rapid digestion c. abnormally slow digestion d. normal digestion e. digestive disorders 4. What is an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity called? a. bulimia b. ascites c. dysentery d. obstipation e. aerophagia 5. Backflow (reflux) of gastric contents into the esophagus as a result of malfunction of the lower

esophageal sphincter (LES) is called: hematemesis dyspepsia LES GERD. dysentery

a. b. c. d. e.

6. What diagnosis refers to an open sore caused by perforation of the skin? a. volvulus b. jaundice c. hernia d. ulcer e. abscess

7. When the second portion of the small intestine is sutured, the surgical procedure is known as: a. enterorrhaphy b. ileorrhaphy c. duodenorrhaphy d. jejunorrhaphy e. colorrhaphy 8. What test is performed on feces to detect the presence of “hidden” blood not apparent on visual

inspection? barium swallow stool guaiac test aspiration barium enema test urinalysis

a. b. c. d. e.

9. Which surgical procedure treats morbid obesity by decreasing the stomach to a small pouch and

shortening the jejunum? gastrectomy vertical banded gastroplasty Roux-en-Y gastric bypass gastrectomy colectomy

a. b. c. d. e.

10. The term linguogingival refers to what structures? a. tongue and salivary glands b. salivary glands and gums c. teeth and tongue d. tongue and gums e. teeth and gums 11. What is a small, tumor-like, benign growth that projects from a mucous membrane surface called? a. lesion b. polyp c. wart d. ulcer e. ileus 12. Which of the following specialists is correctly matched with the procedures they perform? a. periodontist—straightens teeth b. gastrologist—treats gingivitis c. cardiologist—treats muscular disorders d. orthodontist—treats tooth pain e. enterologist—treats diseases of the intestinal tract 13. Name the condition in which there is an excessive flow of saliva. a. gastrorrhea b. sialorrhea c. diarrhea

d. cholemesis e. hyperemesis 14. What is the imaging technique that uses a contrast medium to reveal gallstones or other obstruction

in the bile ducts? cholangiography esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) barium swallow barium enema (BE) nuclear scan

a. b. c. d. e.

15. Which term means stricture or narrowing of the rectum? a. rectodynia b. rectoplasty c. rectospasm d. rectopexy e. rectostenosis 16. What diagnostic procedure is used to examine the anus and rectum? a. sigmoidoscopy b. colonoscopy c. enteroscopy d. coloscopy e. proctoscopy 17. What is the disorder in which the bowel twists on itself, causing an obstruction? a. fistula b. constipation c. volvulus d. inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) e. Crohn disease 18. Which of the following describes the passage of stools containing bright red blood? a. hematoma b. toxemia c. hematoblast d. hematochezia e. hemolysis 19. A gastroscopy is performed with a(n): a. sigmoidoscope b. flexible fiberoptic scope c. colonoscope d. fluoroscopic scope e. esophagoscope 20. Protrusion of an organ through its natural wall is known as: a. reflux b. perforation

c. volvulus d. diverticulosis e. hernia 21. Which of the following describes an incision of the bile duct? a. cholecystectomy b. cholecystopexy c. choledocholithotomy d. choledochectomy e. choledochoplasty 22. What is the term that refers to a loss of appetite? a. bulimia b. anorexia c. ascites d. obstipation e. aerophagia 23. Dysphagia results from a disorder associated with the: a. esophagus b. stomach c. small intestine d. colon e. rectum 24. A cholelith is a: a. pancreatic stone b. liver stone c. salivary stone d. gallstone e. stomach stone 25. What term refers to a stone in a salivary gland? a. lithiasis b. cholecystolithiasis c. adenolithiasis d. sialolithiasis e. renal calculus 26. An abnormal tube-like passage from one organ to another or from one organ to the surface is a(n): a. anastomosis b. fistula c. volvulus d. hemorrhoid e. stenosis 27. Bleeding of the gums is a primary symptom of: a. gingivitis b. sialitis

c. esophagitis d. stomatitis e. periodontitis 28. What does the term dyspepsia refer to? a. frequent digestion b. rapid digestion c. abnormally slow digestion d. normal digestion e. indigestion 29. What is the pathological condition in which there are bulging pouches in the gastrointestinal (GI)

tract?

Crohn disease diverticular disease colonic polyposis inflammatory bowel disease volvulus

a. b. c. d. e.

30. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is also known as: a. borborygmus b. spastic colon c. colonalgia d. colonic irrigation e. coloptosis 31. Which medication is administered to control heartburn and acid reflux? a. antispasmodic b. antiemetic c. antiseptic d. antacid e. antihistamine 32. Which medication is administered to control nausea and vomiting? a. antiemetic b. antacid c. antidiarrheal d. antispasmodic e. laxative 33. Which medications control loose stools and relieve diarrhea? a. antacids b. antiemetics c. laxatives d. antidiarrheals e. suppositories 34. Which of the following class of drugs relieve constipation and facilitate passage of feces? a. laxatives

b. c. d. e.

antidiarrheals antibiotics antiemetics NSAIDs

35. Which of the following is a chronic liver disease characterized by jaundice? a. fistula b. hematochezia c. polyp d. cirrhosis e. Crohn disease Matching

Match the word elements with their meanings. a. chol/e k. odont/o b. cholangi/o l. or/o c. cholecyst/o m. pharyng/o d. choledoch/o n. proct/o e. col/o o. rect/o f. enter/o p. -emesis g. gastr/o q. -orexia h. gingiv/o r. -phagia i. gloss/o s. -prandial j. hepat/o t. -rrhea 36. tongue 37. mouth 38. gums 39. teeth 40. throat 41. bile vessel 42. stomach 43. gallbladder 44. liver 45. meal 46. vomiting 47. discharge, flow 48. swallowing, eating

49. bile duct 50. appetite 51. colon 52. rectum 53. intestine (usually small) 54. bile, gall 55. anus, rectum

Match the medical words with their definitions. k. dyspepsia antiemetics l. dysphagia anorexia m. endoscopy ascites n. enteropathy barium enema o. fistula barium swallow p. hemorrhoid borborygmus q. hernia cholecystectomy r. IBS cholelithiasis s. jaundice diverticular disease t. lithotripsy dysentery

a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.

56. enlarged, twisted varicose vein in the rectal region 57. disease of the small intestine 58. protrusion of any organ or structure through the wall of the cavity in which it is naturally contained 59. yellowing of the skin caused by hepatitis 60. bulging pouches in the GI tract 61. accumulation of serous fluid in the abdomen caused by disease 62. gurgling noises caused by passage of gas through the intestine that are audible with a stethoscope 63. abnormal passage from one organ to another or from a hollow organ to the surface 64. inflammation of the intestine caused by ingesting water or food containing chemical irritants,

bacteria, or parasites; results in bloody diarrhea 65. epigastric discomfort felt after eating; also called indigestion 66. abdominal pain and altered bowel function for which no organic cause can be determined; also

called spastic colon 67. excision of the gallbladder 68. presence or formation of gallstones in the gallbladder or common bile duct 69. visual examination of a cavity or canal using a specialized lighted instrument

70. radiographic examination of the rectum and colon after enema administration of a contrast medium

into the rectum 71. radiographic examination of the esophagus, stomach, and small intestine after oral administration of

a contrast medium 72. noninvasive procedure to eliminate calculi in the gallbladder or bladder 73. lack or loss of appetite, resulting in the inability to eat 74. block nerve impulses to control nausea and vomiting 75. painful or difficult swallowing or eating Completion Complete each statement.

76. Use rect/o to build a word that means herniation of the rectum:

.

77. Use appendic/o to build a word that means inflammation of the appendix: 78. Use hepat/o to build a word that means enlargement of the liver:

. .

79. Use cholangi/o (bile vessel) to build a word that means process of recording (radiographic

examination) the bile vessels (ducts):

.

80. Use endo- to build a word that means visual examination within (an organ or cavity):

.

81. Use dia- to build a word that means discharge or flow through (the bowel): 82. Use -algia (pain) to build a word that means pain in the stomach:

. .

83. Use -pepsia to build a word that means bad, painful, or difficult digestion: 84. Build a word that means excision of a gallstone:

.

85. Build a word that means incision of the duodenum:

.

86. Build a word that means visual examination of the colon:

.

87. Build a word that means disease of the gallbladder:

.

88. Build a word that means stricture or narrowing of the esophagus: 89. Build a word that means tumor of the pancreas:

.

.

.

90. Build a word that means surgical fixation of a movable liver (to the abdominal wall):

.

Chapter 07 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

ANS: B ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B ANS: D ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: E ANS: B ANS: A ANS: E ANS: E ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: E ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: E ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D

MATCHING 36. ANS: I 37. ANS: L

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

ANS: H ANS: K ANS: M ANS: B ANS: G ANS: C ANS: J ANS: S ANS: P ANS: T ANS: R ANS: D ANS: Q ANS: E ANS: O ANS: F ANS: A ANS: N ANS: P ANS: N ANS: Q ANS: S ANS: I ANS: C ANS: F ANS: O ANS: J ANS: K ANS: R ANS: G ANS: H ANS: M ANS: D ANS: E ANS: T ANS: B ANS: A ANS: L

COMPLETION 76. ANS: rectocele 77. ANS: appendicitis 78. ANS: hepatomegaly

79. ANS: cholangiography 80. ANS: endoscopy 81. ANS: diarrhea 82. ANS: gastralgia 83. ANS: dyspepsia 84. ANS: cholelithectomy 85. ANS: duodenotomy 86. ANS: colonoscopy 87. ANS: cholecystopathy 88. ANS: esophagostenosis 89. ANS: pancreatoma 90. ANS: hepatopexy

Chapter 08 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Any type of obstruction in the ureter or bladder may cause: a. glomerulopathy b. hydronephrosis c. uremia d. vesicocele e. nephroptosis 2. Which of the following sets of terms have the same meaning? a. cystitis—pyelitis b. urethrodynia—urethralgia c. oliguria—anuria d. nephritis—nephroptosis e. leukocyte—leukorrhea 3. What diagnosis refers to a poisonous substance in the urine? a. uropathy b. urolithiasis c. urotoxicity d. uropathogen e. urolith 4. What is the abbreviation for intravenous pyelography? a. IP b. INP c. IPG d. IVPG e. IVP 5. The surgical procedure cystectomy refers to: a. incision of the bladder b. excision of the bladder c. incision of the kidney d. excision of the kidney e. creation of a new opening in the kidney 6. A patient with a ureteral calculus would most likely experience: a. ureterodynia b. nocturia c. polyuria d. cystitis e. homeostasis 7. Inability to control urination is called:

a. b. c. d. e.

anuria incontinence frequency polyuria dysuria

8. The medical term for scanty urinary output is: a. icturia b. oliguria c. uremia d. hematuria e. polyuria 9. An obstruction causing the cessation of urine flow may result in: a. hydronephrosis b. pyorrhea c. hematuria d. diuresis e. hypospadias 10. The abbreviation UTI means: a. urethral toxic infection b. ureter total inflammation c. urinary tract incontinence d. urinary tract infection e. ureter tubal infection 11. A suprarenal tumor is located: a. within the kidney b. under the kidney c. above the kidney d. within the bladder e. upon the bladder 12. Painful urination is known as: a. anuria b. polyuria c. dysuria d. nocturia e. hematuria 13. The combining form py/o means: a. pus b. fever c. hidden d. heat e. renal pelvis 14. Which of the following terms means complete absence of urine flow?

a. b. c. d. e.

oliguria diuresis polyuria anuria hematuria

15. The abbreviation ESWL is associated with: a. circulatory collapse b. severe hypotension c. hemorrhage d. dehydration e. nephrolithiasis 16. Which term means blood in urine? a. hyperuricemia b. hematuria c. azotemia d. diuresis e. hemoptysis 17. Identify the term that means increase in nitrogenous compounds in the blood. a. azotemia b. polyuria c. enuresis d. dysuria e. polyuria 18. What surgical procedure involves crushing a stone or calculus? a. lithotomy b. lithotripsy c. lithectomy d. lithiasis e. lithogenesis 19. What is the surgical procedure to correct a prolapsed kidney? a. nephroptosis b. nephrodesis c. nephrotomy d. nephropexy e. nephrostomy 20. Herniation of the urethra is known as: a. rectocele b. ureterocele c. pyelopathy d. urethrocele e. nephritis 21. The instrument used to inspect the urinary bladder is a:

a. b. c. d. e.

cystotome cystitis cystoscope cystectomy cystostomy

22. What term characterizes an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the body? a. diuresis b. uremia c. azoturia d. edema e. dysuria 23. Wilms tumor is a: a. malignant tumor of the kidney, usually occurring in children b. malignant tumor of the prostate gland associated with the aging process c. nonmalignant tumor resulting from kidney stones d. nonmalignant tumor present at birth e. malignant tumor of the bladder 24. What is the radiographic study in which a contrast medium is introduced through a cystoscope

directly into the bladder and ureter to locate a urinary tract obstruction? intravenous pyelogram renal scan renogram retrograde pyelography electromyogram

a. b. c. d. e.

25. Which of the following describes nephrorrhaphy? a. hemorrhage in the kidney b. stone present in the kidney c. inflammation of the kidney d. prolapse of the kidney e. suturing of the kidney 26. Which of the following tests determines the physical, chemical, and microscopic analysis of urine? a. urinary catheterization b. blood urea nitrogen c. needle biopsy d. pyelography e. urinalysis (UA) 27. What is the laboratory test that measures the amount of urea (nitrogenous waste product) in the

blood?

IVP RP BUN VCUG

a. b. c. d.

e. KUB 28. Identify the meaning of nephrolithotomy. a. hardening of a stone b. removal of the urinary bladder and a calculus c. removal of the kidney and stones d. incision to remove a renal calculus e. incision to remove a renal tumor 29. What is the abbreviation for a radiograph of the bladder and urethra after filling the bladder with a

contrast medium during the process of voiding? a. VCUG b. RP c. UA d. KUB e. CT 30. What drugs promote secretion of urine? a. uremics b. antidiuretics c. diaphoretics d. uricosurics e. diuretics 31. Which term refers to an abnormal congenital opening of the male urethra on the underside of the

penis? fissure epispadias hypospadias edema fistula

a. b. c. d. e.

32. What drugs promote a reduction of fluid in body tissues? a. anti-inflammatories b. diuretics c. thrombolytics d. statins e. antibiotics 33. An artificial kidney machine is involved in: a. hemodialysis b. renal transfusion c. lithotripsy d. nephropexy e. catheterization 34. End-stage renal disease may require: a. nephrotomy b. cystectomy

c. prostatectomy d. dialysis or renal transplantation e. lithectomy 35. The increased formation and excretion of urine is called: a. diuresis b. dysuria c. oliguria d. azoturia e. anuria Matching

Match the word elements with their meanings. a. azot/o k. ur/o b. bacteri/o l. ureter/o c. cyst/o m. urethr/o d. glomerul/o n. urin/o e. lith/o o. ven/o f. meat/o p. -emia g. nephr/o q. -pathy h. noct/o r. -pexy i. py/o s. -ptosis j. pyel/o t. -tripsy 36. bladder 37. glomerulus 38. opening, meatus 39. kidney 40. renal pelvis 41. urine, urinary tract 42. ureter 43. urethra 44. stone, calculus 45. urine, urinary tract 46. nitrogenous compound 47. crushing 48. blood 49. pus

50. disease 51. vein 52. night 53. prolapse, downward displacement 54. fixation of an organ 55. bacteria

Match the medical words with their definitions. a. azoturia k. lithiasis b. catheterization l. lithotripsy c. dialysis m. nephrolithiasis d. diuresis n. nephromegaly e. diuretics o. nephropathy f. dysuria p. nephropexy g. enuresis q. nephroptosis h. hydronephrosis r. UA i. hypertension s. uremia j. hypospadias t. Wilms tumor 56. increase of nitrogenous substances, especially urea, in urine 57. increased formation and secretion of urine 58. painful or difficult urination 59. involuntary discharge of urine after the age by which bladder control should have been established 60. abnormal congenital opening of the male urethra on the undersurface of the penis 61. elevated level of urea and other nitrogenous waste products in the blood 62. malignant neoplasm of the kidney that occurs in young children 63. abnormal condition or presence of calculi 64. process of removing toxic substances from the blood when the kidneys malfunction 65. any disorder of the kidneys, including inflammatory, degenerative, and sclerotic conditions 66. downward displacement of a kidney 67. crushing a stone 68. enlargement of a kidney 69. abnormal condition of kidney stones 70. excessive accumulation of urine in the renal pelvis caused by obstruction of a ureter 71. high blood pressure

72. physical, chemical, and microscopic analysis of urine 73. insertion of a hollow, flexible tube into a body cavity or organ to instill a substance or remove fluid 74. fixation of a suspended kidney 75. drugs that increase the amount of water and salt excreted in the urine Completion Complete each statement.

76. Use cyst/o (bladder) to build a word that means excision of the bladder:

.

77. Use glomerul/o to build a word that means disease of the glomerulus:

.

78. Use vesic/o (bladder) to build a word that means hernia of the bladder:

.

79. Use pyel/o (renal pelvis) to build a word that means disease of the renal pelvis: 80. Use -tripsy to build a word that means crushing of a stone:

.

81. Use -uria to build a word that means bacteria in the urine:

.

82. Use dys- to build a word that means painful urination:

.

83. Build a word that means narrowing or stricture of the urethra:

.

84. Build a word that means dilation or expansion of the ureters: 85. Build a word that means fixation of the kidney:

.

.

86. Build a word that means inflammation of the urethra:

.

87. Build a word that means instrument to examine the bladder: 88. Build a word that means inflammation of the kidneys: 89. Build a word that means bad, painful, or difficult urination:

.

. . .

90. Build a word that means abnormal condition (produced by something specified) of kidney stones:

.

Chapter 08 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

ANS: B ANS: B ANS: C ANS: E ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: C ANS: A ANS: D ANS: E ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: E ANS: E ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A ANS: E ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: A

MATCHING 36. ANS: C 37. ANS: D

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

ANS: F ANS: G ANS: J ANS: K ANS: L ANS: M ANS: E ANS: N ANS: A ANS: T ANS: P ANS: I ANS: Q ANS: O ANS: H ANS: S ANS: R ANS: B

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

ANS: A ANS: D ANS: F ANS: G ANS: J ANS: S ANS: T ANS: K ANS: C ANS: O ANS: Q ANS: L ANS: N ANS: M ANS: H ANS: I ANS: R ANS: B ANS: P ANS: E

COMPLETION 76. ANS: cystectomy 77. ANS: glomerulopathy

78. ANS: vesicocele 79. ANS: pyelopathy 80. ANS: lithotripsy 81. ANS: bacteriuria 82. ANS: dysuria 83. ANS: urethrostenosis 84. ANS: ureterectasis 85. ANS: nephropexy 86. ANS: urethritis 87. ANS: cystoscope 88. ANS: nephritis 89. ANS: dysuria 90. ANS: nephrolithiasis

Chapter 09 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Primigravida refers to a: a. woman during her third pregnancy b. woman who has never been pregnant c. woman who has difficulty conceiving d. woman during her first pregnancy e. woman during her fifth pregnancy 2. What does the term pseudocyesis mean? a. false pregnancy b. disorder of the female tract c. infectious uterine disease d. infectious vaginal disorder e. artificial insemination 3. Spermicides are agents that: a. promote production of sperm b. destroy sperm c. control production of sperm d. transport sperm e. decrease sperm production 4. What term means pus in the fallopian tube? a. pyogenesis b. salpingoma c. salpingocele d. pyosalpinx e. salpingocyesis 5. What term refers to menstrual pain and tension? a. oligomenorrhea b. dystocia c. metrorrhagia d. dysmenorrhea e. dyspareunia 6. The term that refers to the presence of endometrial tissue in areas outside the uterus is: a. toxic shock syndrome b. eclampsia c. kernicterus d. salpingitis e. endometriosis 7. What medical term means difficult labor?

a. b. c. d. e.

dysmenorrhagia dystocia dysuria dysmenorrhea dysplastic

8. The term colpocervical refers to the: a. uterus and cervix b. vagina and uterus c. ovary and uterus d. vagina and cervix e. fallopian tubes and cervix 9. PID is the abbreviation for: a. progesterone-induced dysmenorrhea b. prenatal infectious disease c. pelvic inflammatory dysplasia d. postmenopausal-induced disorder e. pelvic inflammatory disease 10. The term postnatal means: a. before birth b. after birth c. before conception d. after conception e. after menopause 11. Colpodynia means you have pain in the: a. ovary b. fallopian tube c. cervix d. uterus e. vagina 12. What best describes the discharge associated with candidiasis? a. clear b. purplish c. curdy or cheese-like d. bloody e. transparent 13. What is the medical term for enlargement of the prostate gland? a. prostatomegaly b. prostatitis c. prostatectomy d. prostatalgia e. prostatorrhea 14. The instrument used to examine the vagina and cervix uteri is a:

a. b. c. d. e.

colposcopy colposcope salpingoscopy salpingoscope cystoscope

15. What is the meaning of the term orchidorrhaphy? a. rupture of an ovary b. hemorrhage of the vagina c. suture of a testicle d. fixation of an ovary e. discharge from a testicle 16. Which obstetric procedure prevents abortion by holding an incompetent cervix closed? a. tubal ligation b. cerclage c. dilation and curettage (D&C) d. cervicotomy e. laparoscopy 17. Fibroids are also known as: a. fibromas b. fistulas c. leiomyomas d. myomas e. fibrosarcomas 18. Herniation of a fallopian tube is called: a. hysterocele b. colpocystocele c. salpingocele d. hydrocele e. metrocele 19. What is the gravest form of pregnancy-induced hypertension? a. pseudocyesis b. portal hypertension c. cuff inflation hypertension d. eclampsia e. preeclampsia 20. What is the neck of the uterus called? a. labia minora b. vulva c. clitoris d. cervix e. Bartholin gland 21. Which of the following structures can be affected by salpingitis?

a. b. c. d. e.

ovaries vagina uterus cervix fallopian tubes

22. What is the congenital defect in which the male urethra opens on the upper side of the penis? a. phimosis b. epispadias c. hyperspadias d. multispadias e. hypercryptism 23. What is the surgical procedure for male sterilization and permanent birth control? a. prostatectomy b. vasectomy c. orchiorrhaphy d. hysterectomy e. testopathy 24. What is the procedure for surgical fixation of a prolapsed uterus? a. metroptosis b. hysteroptosis c. hysteropexy d. hysteroplasty e. hysterorrhaphy 25. A Papanicolaou (Pap) smear is used to diagnose: a. syphilis b. cervical cancer c. gonorrhea d. colpitis e. eclampsia 26. Which of the following terms means excessive menstrual bleeding? a. menorrhea b. dysmenorrhea c. menorrhagia d. oligomenorrhea e. hemomenorrhea 27. Which term refers to an inability of a man to achieve an erection? a. hypospadias b. oligospermia c. aspermia d. epispadias e. impotence 28. Surgery to correct cryptorchidism is called:

a. b. c. d. e.

herniorrhaphy lithotripsy orchiopexy nephrolithotomy nephropexy

29. Which term describes a deficiency or scanty amount of spermatozoa in semen? a. hypospermia b. hypospermatogenesis c. oligospermia d. aspermatic e. orchiospermia 30. What type of screening uses the PSA blood test? a. infertility b. impotency c. prostatic cancer d. gonadotropins e. eclampsia 31. Which term refers to a reproductive cell that contains one-half of the chromosomes required to

produce an offspring? diploid android genetic gynecoid gamete

a. b. c. d. e.

32. The presence of sperm in the urine is called: a. spermatoid b. spermaturia c. urospermia d. spermiogenesis e. spermoplasm 33. The instrument used to perform a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) is a: a. rectoscope b. resectoscope c. cystoscope d. proctoscope e. prostatoscope 34. Which procedure examines the vagina and cervix with an optical magnifying instrument? a. culdoscopy b. laparoscopy c. colposcopy d. fluoroscopy e. salpingoscopy

35. What radiographic procedure is used to screen for breast cancer? a. ultrasonography b. salpingography c. sonography d. mammography e. hysterosalpingography 36. Chlamydia and trichomoniasis are: a. yeast infections b. sexually transmitted infections (STIs) c. carcinomas of the reproductive system d. infections of the ovaries e. kidney diseases 37. What is the medical term that refers to an unplanned termination of pregnancy? a. D&C b. cerclage c. spontaneous abortion d. therapeutic abortion e. hysterectomy 38. What pharmacological agent is used to treat candidiasis? a. antifungal b. estrogen c. hormone replacement therapy d. oral contraceptive e. gonadotropin 39. What type of mastectomy involves excision of the breast, underarm lymph nodes, and chest wall

muscles under the breast? modified radical radical total full partial

a. b. c. d. e.

40. The congenital absence of one or both testes is called: a. sterility b. aspermia c. cryptorchidism d. infertility e. anorchism Matching

Match the word elements with their meanings. a. andr/o k. nat/o b. balan/o l. oophor/o

c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.

cervic/o colp/o episi/o gonad/o gynec/o hyster/o lact/o mast/o

m. orchid/o n. salping/o o. vesicul/o p. -arche q. -cyesis r. -gravida s. -itis t. -tocia

41. childbirth, labor 42. neck, cervix uteri (neck of uterus) 43. vagina 44. milk 45. woman, female 46. testis 47. breast 48. male 49. uterus (womb) 50. birth 51. ovary 52. tube (usually fallopian or eustachian [auditory] tubes) 53. pregnant woman 54. vulva 55. seminal vesicle 56. beginning 57. glans penis 58. inflammation 59. gonads, sex glands 60. pregnancy

Match the medical words with their definitions. k. fibroids anorchism l. genital warts aspermia m. gonadotropins balanitis n. gonorrhea candidiasis o. hypospadias chancre

a. b. c. d. e.

f. g. h. i. j.

p. hysterosalpingography q. orchiectomy r. phimosis s. primigravida t. vasectomy

circumcision cryptorchidism D&C dystocia epispadias

61. difficult labor or childbirth 62. vaginal fungal infection characterized by discharge and itching 63. benign uterine neoplasms 64. failure of one or both testicles to descend into the scrotum 65. STI caused by human papillomavirus 66. woman during her first pregnancy 67. radiography of the uterus and oviducts after a contrast medium is injected into those organs 68. procedure that widens the cervical canal with a dilator and scrapes the uterine endometrium with a

curette 69. complete absence of one or both testes 70. stenosis of the preputial orifice 71. lack of or failure to ejaculate semen 72. inflammation of skin covering the penis 73. most effective form of male contraception 74. surgical removal of the testes 75. STI in which there is a contagious bacterial infection that often affects the genitourinary tract and

occasionally the pharynx or rectum 76. surgical removal of the foreskin or prepuce of the penis, usually performed on an infant 77. hormones used to raise sperm count in infertility cases 78. congenital defect in which the male urethra opens on the upper side of the penis instead of the tip 79. initial lesion of syphilis 80. congenital defect in which the male urethra opens on the undersurface of the penis instead of the tip Completion Complete each statement.

81. Use hyster/o (uterus, womb) to build a term that means radiography of the uterus and fallopian

tubes:

.

82. Use metr/o (uterus) to build a word that means hemorrhage from the uterus:

.

83. Use oophor/o to build a word that means incision of an ovary:

.

84. Use colp/o to build a word that means visual examination of the vagina: 85. Build a word that means inflammation of the glans penis:

.

.

86. Build a word that means condition without sperm (no sperm cells are produced):

.

87. Build a word that means forming, producing, or origin of sperm (cells):

.

88. Build a word that means tumor composed of smooth muscle (fibroid):

.

89. Build a word that means surgical puncture of the amniotic sac:

.

90. Use balan/o to build a word that means surgical repair of the glans penis: 91. Build a word that means surgical fixation of a breast:

.

92. Build a word that means physician who specializes in female disorders and diseases: 93. Build a word that means enlargement of the prostate gland:

.

94. Build a word that means inflammation of the fallopian tube:

.

95. Build a word that means surgical repair of the glans penis:

.

.

.

Chapter 09 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

ANS: D ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: D ANS: E ANS: B ANS: D ANS: E ANS: B ANS: E ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C ANS: D ANS: D ANS: E ANS: B ANS: B ANS: C ANS: B ANS: C ANS: E ANS: C ANS: C ANS: C ANS: E ANS: B ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: E

MATCHING 41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

ANS: T ANS: C ANS: D ANS: I ANS: G ANS: M ANS: J ANS: A ANS: H ANS: K ANS: L ANS: N ANS: R ANS: E ANS: O ANS: P ANS: B ANS: S ANS: F ANS: Q

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

ANS: I ANS: D ANS: K ANS: G ANS: L ANS: S ANS: P ANS: H ANS: A ANS: R ANS: B ANS: C ANS: T ANS: Q ANS: N ANS: F ANS: M ANS: J ANS: E ANS: O

COMPLETION

81. ANS: hysterosalpingography 82. ANS: metrorrhagia 83. ANS: oophorotomy 84. ANS: colposcopy 85. ANS: balanitis 86. ANS: aspermia 87. ANS: spermatogenesis 88. ANS: leiomyoma 89. ANS: amniocentesis 90. ANS: balanoplasty 91. ANS: mastopexy 92. ANS: gynecologist 93. ANS: prostatomegaly 94. ANS: salpingitis 95. ANS: balanoplasty

Chapter 10 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. In the term hyperglycemia, the root glyc refers to: a. calcium b. sugar, sweetness c. gland d. toxicity e. protein 2. Which hormone is produced by the testes? a. testosterone b. progesterone c. oxytocin d. thyroxine e. estrogen 3. What organ is associated with an insulinoma? a. spinal cord b. brain c. thymus d. pancreas e. thyroid 4. The blood test that measures levels of thyroid hormones is: a. TFT b. GTT c. RAIU d. THT e. HRT 5. In the term androgen, andr/o means: a. steroid b. male c. hormone d. corticosteroid e. female 6. Which term means disease of the adrenal glands? a. adrenomegaly b. adrenogenous c. adrenopathy d. adrenotoxic e. adrenolytic 7. Thyroid hormone deficiency is known as:

a. b. c. d. e.

hypothyroidism hyperthyroidism thyromegaly Graves disease goiter

8. Exophthalmos can occur as a result of: a. diabetes b. pituitary disease c. thyroid disease d. Addison disease e. Cushing syndrome 9. Hormone deficiencies are corrected with: a. RAIU b. DM c. HTT d. HRT e. HT 10. Which term is associated with an enlargement of the thyroid gland? a. hypergonadism b. euthyroid c. goiter d. tetany e. hypophyseal enlargement 11. The form of hypothyroidism that develops in infants is called: a. adenoma b. neoplasm c. goiter d. cretinism e. Addison disease 12. Excessive production of cortisol by the adrenal cortex may result in: a. Cushing syndrome b. Graves disease c. myxedema d. cretinism e. thyrotropin 13. Insulin injections are prescribed for treatment of: a. hyperinsulinism b. pancreatitis c. hypoglycemia d. type 1 diabetes e. pheochromocytoma 14. The state of equilibrium in the internal environment of the body is called:

a. b. c. d. e.

cretinism glycogenesis metabolism thyrostasis homeostasis

15. Which term means abnormal condition of a pancreatic stone? a. pancreatitis b. pancreatopathy c. pancreatomegaly d. pancreatoma e. pancreatolithiasis 16. What gland is affected with panhypopituitarism? a. thymus b. pituitary c. parathyroid d. adrenal e. pancreas 17. What laboratory test measures blood sugar levels after the administration of glucose? a. TFT b. HRT c. GTT d. GH e. FBS 18. The total calcium blood test is used to detect disorders of the: a. bones b. thyroid c. pancreas d. liver e. bladder 19. Hyperglycemia can be corrected with: a. thyroxine b. adrenaline c. calcium d. glucose e. insulin 20. Hyposecretion of the thyroid gland in adults causes: a. Cushing disease b. Parkinson disease c. myxedema d. giantism e. hirsutism 21. Gigantism and dwarfism result from improper functioning of hormones from the:

a. b. c. d. e.

pituitary gland adrenal glands thyroid gland pancreatic gland thymus gland

22. What is an incision of the thyroid gland called? a. thyrostomy b. thyrotomy c. thyropathy d. thyromegaly e. thyroidectomy 23. What is excision of the thyroid gland called? a. thyromegaly b. thyroidectomy c. thyroidotomy d. thymectomy e. thymoma 24. In the term endocrine, -crine means: a. stimulate b. thirst c. hidden d. secrete e. hormone 25. Insulin is produced by the: a. thyroid gland b. pineal gland c. pancreas d. kidneys e. pituitary gland 26. The adrenal gland tumor that causes excessive release of epinephrine and adrenaline, resulting in

severe hypertension, is called: adenoma pancreatoma thymoma pheochromocytoma myeloma

a. b. c. d. e.

27. What condition is most commonly caused by alcoholism and biliary tract disease? a. Addison disease b. myxedema c. pheochromocytoma d. cretinism e. pancreatitis

28. Excessive thirst is called: a. polydipsia b. polyphagia c. polyuria d. polyhydruria e. polyphasia 29. Exophthalmos is a disorder caused by hypersecretion from the: a. parathyroid gland b. thyroid gland c. pancreas d. gonads e. pancreas 30. Which of the following disorders is treated by an endocrinologist? a. pregnancies b. mental disorders c. skin rashes d. overproduction and underproduction of hormones e. spinal fractures 31. Which of the following describes an excessive growth of body hair, especially in women? a. virilism b. hirsutism c. diuresis d. cretinism e. tetany 32. Which of the following diseases is treated by an endocrinologist? a. cerebral palsy b. stroke c. diabetes d. meningitis e. myeloma 33. A disorder caused by hyperthyroidism is: a. adenoma b. neoplasm c. goiter d. cretinism e. Addison disease 34. Which procedure involves excision of the pituitary gland through the nasal cavity via the sphenoid

sinus without disturbing brain tissue? rhinotomy transsphenoidal hypophysectomy encephalectomy cephalotomy

a. b. c. d.

e. exophthalmometry 35. Which abbreviation is associated with administration of iodine? a. NPH b. TFT c. PTH d. RAI e. FSH Matching

Match the word elements with their meanings. a. aden/o k. parathyroid/o b. adrenal/o l. pituitar/o c. calc/o m. thym/o d. cephal/o n. thyroid/o e. chrom/o o. toxic/o f. gluc/o p. -crine g. home/o q. -ism h. my/o r. -oma i. insulin/o s. hyperj. pancreat/o t. poly36. gland 37. calcium 38. pituitary gland 39. same, like 40. insulin 41. sugar, sweetness 42. pancreas 43. parathyroid glands 44. thymus gland 45. thyroid gland 46. poison 47. adrenal glands 48. many, much 49. to secrete 50. color

51. condition 52. head 53. excessive, above normal 54. tumor 55. muscle

Match the medical words with their definitions. k. insulinoma Addison disease l. myxedema cretinism m. panhypopituitarism Cushing syndrome n. pheochromocytoma diabetes mellitus o. polydipsia exophthalmos p. RAIU goiter q. TFT Graves disease r. thyroiditis GTT s. total calcium HRT t. toxemia insulin

a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.

56. abnormal protrusion of eyeballs that may be due to thyrotoxicosis, tumor, or aneurysm 57. hyperthyroidism that involves growth of the thyroid gland associated with hypersecretion of

thyroxine 58. advanced hypothyroidism in adults, causing edema and increased blood pressure 59. excessive thirst, which is characteristic of diabetic patients 60. cluster of symptoms caused by excessive amounts of cortisol or adrenocorticotropic hormone

(ACTH) 61. blood test that measures thyroid hormone levels to evaluate thyroid gland function 62. enlargement of the thyroid gland 63. tumor of the pancreas 64. inflammation of the thyroid gland 65. group of metabolic diseases characterized by hyperglycemia 66. rare adrenal tumor that causes excessive release of epinephrine or norepinephrine and induces high

blood pressure 67. hormone replacement used for diabetes mellitus 68. blood test to detect parathyroid and bone disorders 69. uncommon chronic disorder caused by deficiency of cortical hormones that results when the adrenal

cortex is damaged or atrophied

70. imaging procedure that measures levels of radioactivity in the thyroid gland after administration of

radioactive iodine 71. congenital condition characterized by severe hypothyroidism; commonly associated with other

endocrine disorders 72. oral administration or injection of synthetic hormones to correct a hormone deficiency 73. total pituitary impairment that brings about progressive and general loss of hormone activity 74. administration of glucose after a 12-hour fast to measure glucose levels at regular intervals 75. poisonous substances in the blood Completion Complete each statement.

76. Use thyroid to build a word that means incision of the thyroid gland: 77. Use pancreat to build a word that means disease of the pancreas:

.

78. Use adren/o to build a word that means disease of the adrenal glands:

.

79. Use hyper- to build a word that means excessive calcium in the blood:

.

80. Use -crine to build a word that means to secrete within:

.

81. Build a surgical term that means excision of the thymus:

.

82. Use poly- to build a word that means much (excessive) thirst:

.

83. Use -iasis to build a word that means abnormal condition of a pancreatic stone:

.

84. Use thyr/o to build a word that means enlargement of the thyroid gland:

.

85. Use -ism to build a word that means condition of hairy (hairiness): 86. Build a word that means excision or removal of a lobe:

. .

87. Build a medical word that means excision of the parathyroid gland: 88. Build a word that means tumor of the thymus gland: 89. Build a word that means incision of the pancreas: 90. Build a word that means specialist in the study of poison(s):

.

. . .

Chapter 10 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: E ANS: E ANS: B ANS: C ANS: A ANS: E ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: E ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D

MATCHING 36. ANS: A 37. ANS: C

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

ANS: L ANS: G ANS: I ANS: F ANS: J ANS: K ANS: M ANS: N ANS: O ANS: B ANS: T ANS: P ANS: E ANS: Q ANS: D ANS: S ANS: R ANS: H ANS: E ANS: G ANS: L ANS: O ANS: C ANS: Q ANS: F ANS: K ANS: R ANS: D ANS: N ANS: J ANS: S ANS: A ANS: P ANS: B ANS: I ANS: M ANS: H ANS: T

COMPLETION 76. ANS: thyroidotomy 77. ANS: pancreatopathy 78. ANS: adrenopathy

79. ANS: hypercalcemia 80. ANS: endocrine 81. ANS: thymectomy 82. ANS: polydipsia 83. ANS: pancreatolithiasis 84. ANS: thyromegaly 85. ANS: hirsutism 86. ANS: lobectomy 87. ANS: parathyroidectomy 88. ANS: thymoma 89. ANS: pancreatotomy 90. ANS: toxicologist

Chapter 11 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What is severe pain in the leg along the course of the sciatic nerve called? a. poliomyelitis b. myelodynia c. sciatica d. shingles e. myalgia 2. Symptoms of chronic, recurring seizures are characteristic of: a. Parkinson disease b. epilepsy c. multiple sclerosis d. shingles e. palsy 3. A patient who experiences seizures is treated with a(n): a. anesthetic b. anticonvulsant c. antiparkinsonian agent d. antibiotic e. gonadotropin 4. Chemicals that facilitate movement of impulses at synapses are called: a. opiates b. sedatives c. hypnotics d. neurotransmitters e. analgesics 5. The central nervous system is composed of the: a. spinal cord and nerve roots b. brainstem and spinal cord c. spinal nerves and medulla d. brain and spinal cord e. cranium and spine 6. Delusions or hallucinations are a common symptom of: a. Parkinson disease b. cerebral palsy c. psychosis d. spina bifida occulta e. meningitis 7. The cerebrum is superior to the spinal cord. This means the cerebrum is located:

a. b. c. d. e.

above the spinal cord below the spinal cord in front of the spinal cord behind the spinal cord beside the spinal cord

8. What is the progressive degenerative disease of the central nervous system that causes weakness and

other muscular symptoms? sciatica shingles transient ischemia neuroma multiple sclerosis

a. b. c. d. e.

9. What is the medical abbreviation for a ministroke? a. TIA b. MS c. CVA d. CVD e. S1 10. What is the general term that refers to cognitive deficit, including memory impairment? a. transient ischemic attack b. stroke c. dementia d. encephalopathy e. neurosis 11. What pharmacological agents are used to dissolve blood clots? a. antibiotics b. antipsychotics c. anesthetics d. thrombolytics e. antiparkinsonians 12. The malignant tumor composed of cells resembling neuroblasts that occurs most commonly in

infants and children is: neuroblastoma melanoma myeloma encephaloma neuroma

a. b. c. d. e.

13. Another term for stroke is: a. paraplegia b. cerebral palsy c. parkinsonian syndrome d. cerebrovascular accident

e. myelomalacia 14. What medical term best describes pain from nerve compression? a. neurolysis b. neurodynia c. neuroglia d. neuroma e. neurosis 15. What diagnostic test involves insertion of a needle into the subarachnoid space to withdraw

cerebrospinal fluid for laboratory analysis? a. RAIU b. EEG c. SW d. EKG e. LP 16. What is the term that describes an eruption of vesicles following the course of a nerve caused by

herpes zoster virus? bifida occulta palsy multiple sclerosis shingles Huntington chorea

a. b. c. d. e.

17. What is the condition in which membranes that cover the brain herniate through the opening of the

skull? a. cerebrosclerosis b. encephaloma c. meningocele d. stroke e. neuroglia 18. Identify the term that describes a congenital defect characterized by incomplete closure of the spinal

canal. a. _shingles b. sciatica c. spondylosis d. hydrocephalus e. spina bifida

19. Tumors of the nervous system are called: a. adenomas b. gliomas c. seizures d. oligodendrites e. shingles 20. Brain lesions associated with Alzheimer disease are called:

a. b. c. d. e.

tumors perforations scales ulcerations plaques

21. What is the medical term that refers to facial paralysis resulting from inflammation of a facial nerve? a. Bell palsy b. hemiparesis c. paraplegia d. Graves disease e. Huntington chorea 22. What condition results in memory loss, mental deterioration, and decline in social skills and physical

functioning? stroke Alzheimer disease CVA Bell palsy MS

a. b. c. d. e.

23. Temporary interruption of blood supply to the brain for a short duration without permanent damage

is known as: TIA CVA CVD. MS BS

a. b. c. d. e.

24. In the term narcolepsy, -lepsy means: a. bone marrow b. meninges c. neuroglial d. seizure e. speech 25. What inherited central nervous system disease results in uncontrollable bizarre movements,

emotional disturbances, and mental deterioration?

MS Bell palsy Huntington chorea Parkinson disease Alzheimer disease

a. b. c. d. e.

26. An incision of the cranium to gain access to the brain during neurosurgical procedures is called a: a. craniotomy b. craniectomy c. craniocentesis

d. cranioplasty e. cranioclast 27. The term that describes partial paralysis or weakness in one-half of the body is: a. trauma b. hemiparesis c. quadriplegia d. palsy e. paraplegia 28. Cranial enlargement caused by accumulation of fluid within the ventricles of the brain is: a. neuroblastoma b. hydrocephalus c. Parkinson disease d. poliomyelitis e. sciatica 29. Paralysis of all extremities is known as: a. uniplegia b. quadriplegia c. hemiplegia d. biplegia e. paraplegia 30. Which procedure involves destruction of nervous tissue? a. neurodynia b. neuralgia c. neurotomy d. neurolysis e. neurectomy 31. A therapeutic procedure to treat chronic pain is known as: a. craniotomy b. lumbar puncture c. cerebrospinal fluid analysis d. trephination e. thalamotomy 32. Which of the following is an instrument to measure the cranium? a. encephaloplasty b. encephalotomy c. encephalometer d. encephalometry e. encephalogram 33. Which procedure is a surgical repair of the skull? a. craniocele b. cranioplasty c. craniotomy

d. craniometry e. craniomalacia 34. What is the medical term that means inability to speak? a. apnea b. aphasia c. anorexia d. dysphasia e. diplopia 35. Which sign is characteristic of Huntington chorea? a. exophthalmia b. acromegaly c. paralysis d. bizarre, dance-like movements e. diplopia 36. The loss of reflexes and body tone that may occur as a result of paralysis is known as: a. quadriplegia b. aphasia c. diplopia d. vertigo e. flaccidity 37. What medical term is used to describe reasoning, perception, and judgment? a. neurology b. psychosis c. dementia d. cognition e. vascularity 38. Which viral disease in adults is caused by the same organism responsible for chickenpox in

children? cerebral palsy polio shingles multiple sclerosis Parkinson disease

a. b. c. d. e.

39. A circular opening cut into the skull to reveal brain tissue and decrease intracranial pressure is

called: tractotomy thalamotomy cryosurgery trephination craniotomy

a. b. c. d. e.

40. A facial neuropathic pain syndrome caused by stimulation of cranial nerve V is: a. trigeminal neuralgia

b. c. d. e.

neurodynia cephalalgia paraplegia neurosis

Matching

Match the word elements with their meanings. a. blast/o k. myel/o b. cephal/o l. neur/o c. cerebr/o m. poli/o d. crani/o n. scler/o e. encephal/o o. spin/o f. gli/o p. thalam/o g. gluc/o q. -lepsy h. isch/o r. -phasia i. mening/o s. paraj. my/o t. quadri41. brain 42. glue; neuroglial tissue 43. meninges (membranes covering brain and spinal cord) 44. bone marrow; spinal cord 45. nerve 46. cerebrum 47. thalamus 48. head 49. embryonic cell 50. cranium (skull) 51. to hold back, block 52. gray; gray matter (of brain or spinal cord) 53. near; beside; beyond 54. seizure 55. four 56. muscle 57. hardening; sclera (white of eye) 58. speech

59. spine 60. sugar, sweetness

Match the medical words with their definitions. k. MS Alzheimer disease l. myelocele anesthetics m. neuroblastoma anticonvulsants n. palsy craniotomy o. Parkinson disease dysphasia p. poliomyelitis encephaloma q. sciatica epilepsy r. shingles Huntington chorea s. spina bifida hydrocephalus t. thalamotomy LP

a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j.

61. progressive degenerative disease of the central nervous system characterized by inflammation,

hardening, and loss of myelin throughout the spinal cord and brain 62. partial destruction of the thalamus to treat psychosis or intractable pain 63. tumor of the brain 64. inflammation of the gray matter caused by a virus 65. chronic organic mental disorder characterized by deterioration of intellectual functioning, apathy,

disorientation, and speech and gait disturbances 66. disorder affecting the central nervous system characterized by recurrent seizures 67. hereditary nervous disorder characterized by bizarre, involuntary, dance-like movements 68. cranial enlargement caused by accumulation of fluid within the ventricles of the brain 69. prevent or control seizures 70. partial or complete loss of motor function; paralysis 71. congenital defect characterized by incomplete closure of the spinal canal through which the spinal

cord and meninges may protrude 72. severe pain in the leg along the course of a nerve that travels from the hip to the foot 73. eruption of acute, inflammatory, herpetic vesicles on the trunk of the body along a peripheral nerve 74. herniation of the spinal cord 75. insertion of a needle into the subarachnoid space to withdraw cerebrospinal fluid for laboratory

analysis 76. creation of an opening in the skull to gain access to the brain during neurosurgical procedures 77. difficulty with speech

78. neurological disorder affecting the portion of the brain responsible for controlling movement 79. malignant tumor that occurs primarily in infants and children 80. produce partial or complete loss of sensation with or without loss of consciousness Completion Complete each statement.

81. Use mening/o to build a word that means hernia(tion) of the meninges:

.

82. Use myel/o (bone marrow, spinal cord) to build a word that means hernia(tion) of the spinal cord:

.

83. Use cerebr/o to build a word that means inflammation of the cerebrum and its membranes

(meninges):

.

84. Use neur/o to build a word that means separation or destruction of a nerve:

.

85. Build a medical word that means tumor composed of brain (tissue): 86. Use gli/o to build a word that means tumor composed of neuroglial tissue:

.

87. Use poli/o/myel/o to build a word that means inflammation of the gray matter of the spinal cord:

.

88. Build a word that means abnormal condition of the mind (mental disorder): 89. Build a medical word that means bad or difficult speech: 90. Build a medical word that means paralysis of four (limbs):

.

. .

91. Build a word that means tumor composed of nerves (nervous tissue):

.

92. Build a word that means process of recording the electrical activity of the brain: 93. Build a medical word that means inflammation of the brain:

.

.

94. Build a medical word that means instrument to measure the cranium (skull): 95. Build a word that means specialist in the study of the nervous system:

. .

Chapter 11 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

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40.

ANS: C ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: E ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: E ANS: B ANS: E ANS: A ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: E ANS: C ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A

MATCHING 41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

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55.

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80.

ANS: E ANS: F ANS: I ANS: K ANS: L ANS: C ANS: P ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: H ANS: M ANS: S ANS: Q ANS: T ANS: J ANS: N ANS: R ANS: O ANS: G ANS: K ANS: T ANS: F ANS: P ANS: A ANS: G ANS: H ANS: I ANS: C ANS: N ANS: S ANS: Q ANS: R ANS: L ANS: J ANS: D ANS: E ANS: O ANS: M ANS: B

COMPLETION

81. ANS: meningocele 82. ANS: myelocele 83. ANS: cerebromeningitis 84. ANS: neurolysis 85. ANS: encephaloma 86. ANS: glioma 87. ANS: poliomyelitis 88. ANS: psychosis 89. ANS: dysphasia 90. ANS: quadriplegia 91. ANS: neuroma 92. ANS: electroencephalography 93. ANS: encephalitis 94. ANS: craniometer 95. ANS: neurologist

Chapter 12 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Which abbreviation is related to inflammation of multiple joints that results in crippling deformities? a. RA b. THR c. Fx d. HNP e. CTS 2. The plural form of the word pelvis is: a. pelvic b. pelvicular c. pelvex d. pelvices e. pelves 3. An autoimmune neuromuscular disorder characterized by severe muscular weakness and progressive

fatigue is known as: osteoporosis talipes equinovarus crepitation gout myasthenia gravis

a. b. c. d. e.

4. Which of the following refers to spinal cord compression? a. subluxation b. kyphosis c. lordosis d. rickets e. spondylolisthesis 5. A surgical procedure to remove necrosed bone is called: a. osteolysis b. sequestrectomy c. osteotomy d. arthroplasty e. chondrotomy 6. Name the group of hereditary diseases characterized by progressive degeneration of the muscles,

leading to increasing weakness and debilitation. muscular dystrophy talipes equinovarus sequestrum Paget disease torticollis

a. b. c. d. e.

7. Which type of fracture results when the broken ends of a bone are forced into one another? a. compound b. greenstick c. impacted d. simple e. open 8. Select the term that has an opposite meaning of osteosclerosis. a. osteogenesis b. osteorrhaphy c. osteomalacia d. osteoarthritis e. osteofibrosis 9. Which of the following words is in its plural form? a. bursae b. vertebra c. phalange d. pleura e. sarcoma 10. The term myotomy means incision of: a. the bone marrow b. the cartilage c. a tendon d. the spinal cord e. a muscle 11. What is an abnormal sideward (lateral) curvature of the spine called? a. lordosis b. sciatica c. necrosis d. scoliosis e. kyphosis 12. A patient with lumbodynia has pain in the: a. knee b. ankle c. head d. lower back e. upper chest 13. Trauma to a joint that causes injury to the surrounding ligament is called: a. strain b. sprain c. torticollis d. tendinitis e. talipes

14. A person with inflammation of a joint experiences: a. costalgia b. cephalalgia c. arthrodynia d. chondritis e. osteodynia 15. A tumor of the tendon sheath or joint capsule, commonly found in the wrist, is called: a. osteoma b. chondroma c. osteocarcinoma d. ganglion cyst e. osteochondroma 16. Cervicofacial refers to the face and: a. head b. neck c. chest d. hand e. brain 17. The medical term for suture of a bone is: a. osteomalacia b. osteorrhaphy c. osteogenesis d. osteoarthritis e. osteosclerosis 18. Congenital deformity of the foot, also called clubfoot, is: a. torticollis b. sprain c. talipes d. strain e. dystrophy 19. An individual with quadriplegia has paralysis of: a. one upper extremity b. both upper extremities c. one lower extremity d. both lower extremities e. four extremities 20. Arthritis caused by excessive uric acid in the body is known as: a. rheumatoid arthritis b. crepitation c. contracture d. gout e. acidosis

21. The term spondylitis refers to inflammation of the: a. synovial fluid b. ribs c. fingers d. cartilage e. vertebrae 22. A directional word meaning near the point of attachment to the trunk is: a. lateral b. distal c. proximal d. superior e. inferior 23. The medical doctor who specializes in the treatment of arthritis is a(n): a. orthopedist b. chiropractor c. radiologist d. rheumatologist e. pulmonologist 24. An excessive amount of calcium in the blood is termed: a. calcification b. hypercalcemia c. calcitonin d. hypocalcemia e. calciuria 25. Which medical term means a decrease in bone density and an increase in porosity? a. osteoporosis b. Paget disease c. polio d. Pott disease e. osteomyelitis 26. A type of fracture in which the bone has injured another organ, such as a broken rib piercing a lung,

is called: closed impacted complicated incomplete compound

a. b. c. d. e.

27. What disease in children involves softening of the bone caused by a deficiency of vitamin D? a. osteochondroma b. myelomalacia c. rickets d. talipes equinovarus

e. osteomyelitis 28. What is the surgical procedure to repair a joint? a. tenorrhaphy b. arthroplasty c. fasciectomy d. carpectomy e. myoplasty 29. The type of fracture in which a bone breaks and splinters into pieces is called: a. greenstick b. comminuted c. impacted d. hairline e. compression 30. What anatomical structure is affected by a rotator cuff injury? a. head b. neck c. arm d. shoulder e. leg 31. The lubricating fluid of the joint is secreted by the: a. fascia b. metacarpals c. synovial membrane d. lamina e. bone marrow 32. Trauma to a muscle from overuse may result in a: a. sprain b. strain c. break d. contracture e. fracture 33. A skeletal disease that affects elderly patients, causing inflammation and softening of bones, and is

also called osteitis deformans is: a. osteomalacia b. rheumatoid arthritis c. Ewing sarcoma d. Paget disease e. gout 34. Drugs that relieve mild to moderate pain and reduce inflammation in treatment of musculoskeletal

conditions, including osteoarthritis, are called: a. NSAIDs. b. bone inhibitors

c. gold salts d. muscle relaxants e. beta blockers 35. Stiffening and immobility of a joint are known as: a. arthrolysis b. arthroclasia c. ankylosis d. arthrodysplasia e. necrosis Matching

Match the word elements with their meanings. a. ankyl/o k. orth/o b. arthr/o l. oste/o c. cervic/o m. pelv/o d. chondr/o n. spondyl/o e. cost/o o. ten/o f. crani/o p. -clast g. lamin/o q. -desis h. lumb/o r. -physis i. my/o s. -plegia j. myel/o t. -sarcoma 36. ribs 37. vertebrae (backbone) 38. pelvis 39. stiffness; bent, crooked 40. joint 41. neck; cervix uteri (neck of uterus) 42. bone marrow; spinal cord 43. straight 44. bone 45. cartilage 46. muscle 47. tendon 48. growth 49. malignant tumor of connective tissue

50. cranium (skull) 51. to break 52. loins (lower back) 53. paralysis 54. lamina (part of vertebral arch) 55. binding, fixation (of a bone or joint)

Match the medical words with their definitions. a. ankylosis k. lordosis b. arthrocentesis l. myasthenia gravis c. arthroscopy m. Paget disease d. carpal tunnel syndrome n. rheumatoid arthritis e. contracture o. rotator cuff injuries f. crepitation p. scoliosis g. Ewing sarcoma q. sequestrectomy h. gout r. sequestrum i. herniated disk s. strain j. kyphosis t. torticollis 56. immobility of a joint 57. pain or numbness resulting from compression of wrist canal through which the tendons and nerve

pass 58. fibrosis of connective tissue in skin, fascia, muscle, or joint capsule that prevents normal mobility 59. grating sound made by movement of bone ends rubbing together, indicating joint destruction 60. malignant tumor that develops from bone marrow; occurs most frequently in adolescent boys 61. hereditary metabolic disease that is a form of acute arthritis characterized by excessive uric acid in

the blood and around the joints 62. rupture of the nucleus pulposus between two vertebrae 63. skeletal disease that affects elderly people; also called osteitis deformans 64. chronic systemic disease characterized by inflammatory changes in joints and related structures,

resulting in crippling deformities 65. fragment of a necrosed bone that has become separated from surrounding tissue 66. increased curvature of the thoracic region of the vertebral column, leading to a humpback posture 67. abnormal sideward curvature of the spine, either to the left or to the right 68. autoimmune neuromuscular disorder characterized by severe muscular weakness and progressive

fatigue

69. damage incurred to the capsule of the shoulder joint, which is reinforced by muscles and tendons 70. trauma to a muscle from overuse or excessive forcible stretch 71. puncture of a joint space with a needle to remove fluid 72. visual examination of the interior of a joint performed by inserting an endoscope through a small

incision 73. spasmodic contraction of the neck muscles, causing stiffness and twisting of the neck 74. forward curvature of the lumbar region, leading to a swayback posture 75. excision of necrosed bone Completion Complete each statement.

76. Use arthr/o to build a word that means inflammation of bones and joints: 77. Use oste/o to build a word that means porous bone:

.

.

78. Use myel/o to build a word that means tumor of bone marrow:

.

79. Use arthr/o to build a word that means surgical puncture of a joint:

.

80. Use oste/o to build a word that means disease of bones:

.

81. Use scoli/o to build a word that means abnormal condition of a crooked, bent (spine): 82. Build a word that means surgical repair of muscle: 83. Build a word that means incision of the chest:

. .

84. Build a word that means binding or fixation of a joint:

.

85. Build a word that means beginning or formation of bones:

.

86. Build a word that means resembling bone marrow:

.

87. Build a word that means pertaining to the loins (lower back) and ribs: 88. Build a word that means involuntary contraction or twitching of a muscle: 89. Build a word that means softening of cartilage: 90. Build a word that means act of measuring the pelvis:

.

. .

. .

Chapter 12 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

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8.

9.

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11.

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13.

14.

15.

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22.

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24.

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27.

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29.

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31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

ANS: A ANS: E ANS: E ANS: E ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: C ANS: A ANS: E ANS: D ANS: D ANS: B ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: B ANS: C ANS: E ANS: D ANS: E ANS: C ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: C ANS: C ANS: B ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: C

MATCHING 36. ANS: E 37. ANS: N

38.

39.

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ANS: M ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: J ANS: K ANS: L ANS: D ANS: I ANS: O ANS: R ANS: T ANS: F ANS: P ANS: H ANS: S ANS: G ANS: Q ANS: A ANS: D ANS: E ANS: F ANS: G ANS: H ANS: I ANS: M ANS: N ANS: R ANS: J ANS: P ANS: L ANS: O ANS: S ANS: B ANS: C ANS: T ANS: K ANS: Q

COMPLETION 76. ANS: osteoarthritis 77. ANS: osteoporosis 78. ANS: myeloma

79. ANS: arthrocentesis 80. ANS: osteopathy 81. ANS: scoliosis 82. ANS: myoplasty 83. ANS: thoracotomy 84. ANS: arthrodesis 85. ANS: osteogenesis 86. ANS: myeloid 87. ANS: lumbocostal 88. ANS: myospasm 89. ANS: chondromalacia 90. ANS: pelvimetry

Chapter 13 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Retinal damage with bleeding blood vessels that causes visual impairment is known as: a. diabetic retinopathy b. conjunctivitis c. retinal detachment d. hordeolum e. macular degeneration 2. The surgical procedure for incision of the eardrum to relieve pressure and drain fluid is called: a. myringotomy b. tympanostomy c. myringorrhexis d. labyrinthotomy e. tympanoplasty 3. Perception of ringing, hissing, or other sounds in the ears or head when no external sound is present

is called: tinnitus anacusis presbycusis ankylosis otosclerosis

a. b. c. d. e.

4. Identify the synonym for sty. a. hordeolum b. variola c. vertigo d. cerumen e. choroiditis 5. What is an unusual intolerance of and sensitivity to light called? a. chromatophilia b. achromatopsia c. chromatopsia d. photophobia e. photoretinopathy 6. What disease is marked by retinal damage with aneurysmal dilation of blood vessels? a. strabismus b. diabetic retinopathy c. glaucoma d. choroidopathy e. hordeolum

7. Which of the following is a type of cataract surgery? a. corneal transplant b. extracapsular extraction c. photocoagulation d. phacoemulsification e. laser iridotomy 8. What is the medical term meaning impairment of hearing as a result of the aging process? a. tinnitus b. presbycusis c. Ménière disease d. otosclerosis e. myringopathy 9. Which of the following medical terms is synonymous with ophthalmodynia? a. ophthalmalgia b. ophthalmectomy c. ophthalmoplegia d. ophthalmoscopy e. ophthalmomalacia 10. Ossification of the bony labyrinth that leads to progressive deafness is: a. tinnitus b. otosclerosis c. tympanosclerosis d. tympanorrhexis e. mastoiditis 11. Rupture of the cornea is called: a. choroidorrhexis b. choroiditis c. keratitis d. keratorrhexis e. tympanorrhexis 12. Which disease related to the aging process occurs when the lens becomes progressively cloudy and

causes decreased vision? heteropia amblyopia hyperopia glaucoma cataracts

a. b. c. d. e.

13. Identify the term that means double vision. a. myopia b. hyperopia c. diplopia d. nearsightedness

e. farsightedness 14. Excessive intraocular pressure that often leads to blindness is: a. astigmatism b. glaucoma c. esotropia d. cataract e. amblyopia 15. An involuntary contraction or twitching of the eyelid is: a. blepharotomy b. blepharoptosis c. blepharoplasty d. blepharitis e. blepharospasm 16. An excision of part or all of the eyelid is called a(n): a. blepharectomy b. ophthalmectomy c. blepharotomy d. keratorrhexis e. keratotomy 17. What test does an optometrist use to diagnose glaucoma? a. tonometry b. ophthalmoscopy c. fluorescein angiography d. visual acuity examination e. Snellen chart examination 18. Visual examination of the ear is called: a. audiometry b. ophthalmoscopy c. otoscopy d. endoscopy e. tympanometry 19. Plastic surgery of the ear is called: a. blepharoplasty b. keratotomy c. otoscopy d. salpingoscopy e. otoplasty 20. ENT is the abbreviation for: a. eyes, nose, and throat b. eyes, nose, and tympanic membrane c. ears, nose, and tympanic membrane d. ears, nose, and throat

e. eyelids, nose, and throat 21. Astigmatism can be described as: a. esotropia b. exotropia c. defective curvature of the cornea and lens d. localized infection of the eye e. tumor pressing on the nerves 22. A physician who specializes in treatment of eye disorders is a(n): a. optometrist b. ophthalmologist c. physiologist d. psychologist e. neurologist 23. What surgical procedure is performed to relieve intraocular pressure in patients with glaucoma? a. retinocentesis b. keratoplasty c. salpingectomy d. myringectomy e. laser iridotomy 24. Which tuning fork test evaluates bone conduction of sound in both ears at the same time? a. audiometry b. Weber c. diopter d. tonometry e. tonography 25. The term otalgia means: a. softening of the ear b. rupture of the eardrum c. suture of the ear d. difficult hearing e. pain in the ear 26. Which of the following medical terms describes a disorder associated with vision? a. tympanitis b. anacusis c. otodynia d. achromatopsia e. dacryorrhea 27. A person with dacryadenalgia has pain in: a. the middle ear b. a tear gland c. the eardrum d. the retina

e. the eyelid 28. What is inflammation of the middle ear called? a. labyrinthitis b. tympanitis c. mastoiditis d. otitis media e. conjunctivitis 29. What is a feeling of spinning or dizziness called? a. tinnitus b. exophthalmos c. vertigo d. vitiligo e. nystagmus 30. Which of the following drugs cause the pupils to constrict? a. mydriatics b. emulsifiers c. antiglaucomas d. antibiotics e. miotics 31. To reduce intraocular pressure by lowering the amount of aqueous humor in the eyeball, a physician

prescribes a(n): a. miotic b. antiglaucoma agent c. emulsifier d. mydriatic e. antibiotic 32. Which of the following conditions causes a sudden increase in intraocular pressure (IOP) and is

considered a medical emergency? glaucoma open-angle glaucoma closed-angle glaucoma astigmatism conjunctivitis

a. b. c. d. e.

33. Surgical repair of the nose is known as: a. otoplasty b. tympanoplasty c. myringoplasty d. uvulopalatopharyngoplasty e. rhinoplasty 34. The surgical procedure for excision of the iris is called: a. phacoemulsification b. trabeculectomy

c. iridectomy d. radial keratotomy e. vitrectomy 35. To loosen and remove cerumen, a physician prescribes a(n): a. emulsifier b. anti-inflammatory c. mydriatic d. antibiotic e. miotic Matching

Match the word elements with their meanings. a. acous/o k. kerat/o b. blephar/o l. myring/o c. conjunctiv/o m. ophthalm/o d. choroid/o n. ot/o e. core/o o. salping/o f. corne/o p. -opsia g. cyst/o q. -ptosis h. dacryo r. -tropia i. dipl/o s. exoj. irid/o t. hyper36. tube (usually fallopian or eustachian [auditory] tubes) 37. eyelid 38. hearing 39. cornea 40. pupil 41. tear; lacrimal apparatus (duct, sac, or gland) 42. double 43. iris 44. horny tissue; hard; cornea 45. eye 46. ear 47. tympanic membrane (eardrum) 48. bladder 49. vision

50. excessive, above normal 51. outside, outward 52. turning 53. prolapse, downward displacement 54. choroid 55. conjunctiva

Match the medical words with their definitions. a. achromatopsia k. Ménière disease b. anacusis l. myringoplasty c. astigmatism m. myringotomy d. audiometry n. otoscopy e. cataract o. photophobia f. diabetic retinopathy p. retinitis g. glaucoma q. Rinne test h. hordeolum r. strabismus i. iridotomy s. tonometry j. macular degeneration t. vertigo 56. congenital deficiency in color perception; also called color blindness 57. excessive curvature of the cornea or lens that results in a distorted image 58. opacity (cloudiness) of the lens as a result of protein deposits on its surface that slowly build up until

vision is lost 59. retinal damage marked by aneurysmal dilation of blood vessels; occurs as a result of diabetes 60. muscular eye disorder in which the eyes turn from the normal position so that they deviate in

different directions 61. small purulent inflammatory infection of a sebaceous gland of the eyelid; also called sty 62. increased intraocular pressure caused by the failure of aqueous humor to drain, resulting in atrophy

of the optic nerve and eventual blindness 63. unusual intolerance of and sensitivity to light; occurs in diseases such as meningitis, inflammation of

the eyes, measles, and rubella 64. total deafness; complete hearing loss 65. rare disorder characterized by progressive deafness, vertigo, and tinnitus resulting from swelling of

membranous structures within the labyrinth 66. inflammation of the retina 67. screening test used to detect glaucoma 68. sensation of moving around in space; a feeling of spinning or dizziness

69. tuning fork test to evaluate bone conduction of sound in one ear at a time 70. visual examination of the ear, especially the eardrum 71. incision of the eardrum to relieve pressure and drain fluid from the middle ear or to insert

tympanostomy tubes in the eardrum 72. surgical repair of a perforated eardrum with a tissue graft 73. measures hearing acuity of various sound frequencies 74. incision of the iris 75. loss of central vision from breakdown of the tissues in the macula Completion Complete each statement.

76. Use ophthalm/o to build a word that means specialist in the study of the eyes: 77. Use -cusis to build a word that means old age (poor) hearing:

.

.

78. Use myring/o to build a word that means surgical repair of the eardrum:

.

79. Build a word that means downward displacement or prolapse of the eyelid: 80. Build a word that means discharge or flow from the ears:

.

81. Build a word that means inflammation of the conjunctiva:

.

.

82. Build a word that means abnormal condition of the ear due to a fungus:

.

83. Use kerat/o to build a word that means surgical repair of the cornea: 84. Build a word that means surgical repair of the eyelids: 85. Build a word that means double vision:

.

.

86. Build a word that means disease of the retina: 87. Build a word that means dull or dim vision:

. .

88. Build a word that means instrument for measuring hearing: 89. Build a word that means examination of the pupil: 90. Use eso- to build a word that means turning inward:

.

. . .

Chapter 13 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

ANS: A ANS: A ANS: A ANS: A ANS: D ANS: B ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: B ANS: D ANS: E ANS: C ANS: B ANS: E ANS: A ANS: A ANS: C ANS: E ANS: D ANS: C ANS: B ANS: E ANS: B ANS: E ANS: D ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: E ANS: B ANS: C ANS: E ANS: C ANS: A

MATCHING 36. ANS: O 37. ANS: B

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.

ANS: A ANS: F ANS: E ANS: H ANS: I ANS: J ANS: K ANS: M ANS: N ANS: L ANS: G ANS: P ANS: T ANS: S ANS: R ANS: Q ANS: D ANS: C

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

ANS: A ANS: C ANS: E ANS: F ANS: R ANS: H ANS: G ANS: O ANS: B ANS: K ANS: P ANS: S ANS: T ANS: Q ANS: N ANS: M ANS: L ANS: D ANS: I ANS: J

COMPLETION 76. ANS: ophthalmologist 77. ANS: presbycusis

78. ANS: myringoplasty 79. ANS: blepharoptosis 80. ANS: otorrhea 81. ANS: conjunctivitis 82. ANS: otomycosis 83. ANS: keratoplasty 84. ANS: blepharoplasty 85. ANS: diplopia 86. ANS: retinopathy 87. ANS: amblyopia 88. ANS: audiometer 89. ANS: pupilloscopy 90. ANS: esotropia