Test Bank for Marketing Research; An Applied Orientation 7E by Naresh Malhotra

TEST BANK

TEST BANK

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TEST BANK

2023

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COMPLETE Elaborated Test Bank For Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation 7th Edition Naresh Malhotra 2023

Prof.Exams

Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation 7th Edition

by Naresh Malhotra.

ISBN-10 013473484X ISBN-13 978-0134734842

Test bank for Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation 7th Edition by Naresh Malhotra

ISBN-10 013473484X ISBN-13 978-0134734842

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TABLE OF CONTENTS PART I: INTRODUCTION AND EARLY PHASES OF MARKETING RESEARCH Chapter:1. Introduction to Marketing Research Chapter:2. Defining the Marketing Research Problem and Developing an Approach

PART II: RESEARCH DESIGN FORMULATION Chapter:3. Research Design Chapter:4. Exploratory Research Design: Secondary and Syndicated Data Chapter:5. Exploratory Research Design: Qualitative Research Chapter:6. Descriptive Research Design: Survey and Observation Chapter:7. Causal Research Design: Experimentation Chapter:8. Measurement and Scaling: Fundamentals and Comparative Scaling Chapter:9. Measurement and Scaling: Noncomparative Scaling Techniques Chapter:10. Questionnaire and Form Design Chapter:11. Sampling: Design and Procedures Chapter:12. Sampling: Final and Initial Sample Size Determination

PART III: DATA COLLECTION, PREPARATION, ANALYSIS, AND REPORTING Chapter:13. Fieldwork Chapter:14. Data Preparation Chapter:15. Frequency Distribution, Cross-Tabulation, and Hypothesis Testing Chapter:16. Analysis of Variance and Covariance Chapter:17. Correlation and Regression Chapter:18. Discriminant and Logit Analysis Chapter:19. Factor Analysis Chapter:20. Cluster Analysis Chapter:21. Multidimensional Scaling and Conjoint Analysis Chapter:22. Structural Equation Modeling and Path Analysis Chapter:23. Report Preparation and Presentation

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TB-Marketing Research-An Applied Orientation[7E,Malhotra]

Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 1 Introduction to Marketing Research 1) Boeing commissioned Harris Interactive, Inc. to conduct a study to determine the aircraft preferences of fliers. Boeing did this because they understood the importance of continuously monitoring the dynamic marketplace and understanding the needs and priorities of Boeing customers.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 1.1 Define marketing research and distinguish between problem-identification research and problem-solving research.

2) Satmetrix capitalizes on the need for "recent" marketing research by providing clients with data on a weekly basis.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 4 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 1.1 Define marketing research and distinguish between problem-identification research and problem-solving research.

3) Quick-Track® is a syndicated market research project conducted quarterly to track key consumer behavioral and attitudinal measures for all major fast food and pizza chains in individual markets.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 5 LO: 1.1 Define marketing research and distinguish between problem-identification research and problem-solving research.

4) Marketing research is the systematic and objective identification, collection, analysis, dissemination, and use of information for the purpose of assisting management in decision making related to the identification and solution of problems (and opportunities) in marketing.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6 LO: 1.2 Describe a framework for conducting marketing research as well as the six steps of 5) Marketing research is classified into two areas: problem identification and problem solving research.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7 LO: 1.2 Describe a framework for conducting marketing research as well as the six steps of the marketing research process.

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6) Sales analysis research is a type of problem solving research.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 7 LO: 1.2 Describe a framework for conducting marketing research as well as the six steps of the marketing research process.

7) Once a problem or opportunity has been identified, market potential research is undertaken to arrive at a solution.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7 LO: 1.2 Describe a framework for conducting marketing research as well as the six steps of the marketing research process.

8) Problem identification research provides information about the marketing environment and helps diagnose a problem.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7 LO: 1.2 Describe a framework for conducting marketing research as well as the six steps of the marketing research process.

9) The findings of problem solving research are used in making decisions that will solve specific marketing problems.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 1.2 Describe a framework for conducting marketing research as well as the six steps of the marketing research process.

10) In the Kellogg's example given in your text, as a result of problem-solving research, Kellogg's found out that it was not being creative in introducing new products to meet the needs of the adult market.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8 LO: 1.3 Understand the nature and scope of marketing research and its role in designing and implementing successful marketing programs.

11) The task of marketing research is to assess the information needs and provide management with relevant, accurate, reliable, cheap, and current information.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10 LO: 1.3 Understand the nature and scope of marketing research and its role in designing and implementing successful marketing programs.

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12) Marketing management decisions are complicated by interactions between the uncontrollable marketing variables and the uncontrollable environmental factors.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 10 LO: 1.3 Understand the nature and scope of marketing research and its role in designing and implementing successful marketing programs.

13) Marketing researchers are becoming more involved in decision making, whereas marketing managers are not becoming more involved with research.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12 LO: 1.3 Understand the nature and scope of marketing research and its role in designing and implementing successful marketing programs.

14) It is best to do marketing research even if the resources are not available to conduct a quality project.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12 LO: 1.4 Explain how the decision to conduct marketing research is made.

15) If a firm lacks the resources to implement the findings arising from marketing research, spending the resources to conduct the research may not be warranted.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12 LO: 1.4 Explain how the decision to conduct marketing research is made.

16) Marketing research suppliers can be classified as internal or external.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13 LO: 1.5 Discuss the marketing research industry and the types of research suppliers, 17) Field service organizations are limited service suppliers that specialize in interviewing or specialize in collecting data through the mail or through personal or telephone interviewing.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15 LO: 1.5 Discuss the marketing research industry and the types of research suppliers, 18) Analytical services include designing and pretesting questionnaires, determining the best means of collecting data, designing sampling plans, and conducting statistical analysis of quantitative data.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 15 LO: 1.5 Discuss the marketing research industry and the types of research suppliers,

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19) Branded marketing research products and services are specialized problem identification, data collection and analysis procedures developed to address specific types of marketing research problems.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 15 LO: 1.5 Discuss the marketing research industry and the types of research suppliers, 20) Operational supervisor, project manager, research director, analyst, and statistician/data processing specialist are all positions in the marketing research field.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17 LO: 1.6 Describe careers available in marketing research and the backgrounds and skills needed to succeed in them.

21) When conducting international research, the environment prevailing in the countries, cultural units, or international markets that are being researched, influences the way the six steps of the marketing research process should be performed.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 1.7 Acquire an appreciation of the international dimension and the complexity involved in international marketing research.

22) International marketing research is much simpler to conduct than domestic research.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 1.7 Acquire an appreciation of the international dimension and the complexity involved in international marketing research.

23) Companies that base their business on the Web do not have international marketing problems.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 19 AACSB: Information technology LO: 1.7 Acquire an appreciation of the international dimension and the complexity involved in international marketing research.

24) International marketing research is expected to grow at a faster rate than domestic research.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 1.7 Acquire an appreciation of the international dimension and the complexity involved in international marketing research.

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TB-Marketing Research-An Applied Orientation[7E,Malhotra]

25) Social media embody social computing tools commonly referred to as Web 1.0.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 20 AACSB: Information technology LO: 1.8 Describe the use of social media as a domain in which to conduct marketing research.

26) Expectations about objectivity among bloggers and other social media users are lower.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 20 AACSB: Information technology LO: 1.8 Describe the use of social media as a domain in which to conduct marketing research.

27) The book advocates the use of social media to replace the traditional ways in which research is conducted.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 20 AACSB: Information technology LO: 1.8 Describe the use of social media as a domain in which to conduct marketing research.

28) Mobile marketing research can execute the principles of traditional research with reach, scale, and affordability.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 21 AACSB: Information technology LO: 1.9 Discuss the developing field of mobile marketing research and its advantages and disadvantages.

29) An advantage of mobile marketing research is that surveys must be kept short and simple.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 21-22 AACSB: Information technology LO: 1.9 Discuss the developing field of mobile marketing research and its advantages and disadvantages.

30) Most marketing research is conducted for clients representing commercial firms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 22 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 1.10 Gain an understanding of the ethical aspects of marketing research and the responsibilities each of the marketing research stakeholders have to themselves, one another, and the research project.

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31) Ethical issues arise when the interests of the stakeholders are in conflict and when one or more of the stakeholders are lacking in their responsibilities.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 22 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 1.10 Gain an understanding of the ethical aspects of marketing research and the responsibilities each of the marketing research stakeholders have to themselves, one another, and the research project.

32) Marketing research has often been described as having three stakeholders.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 22 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 1.10 Gain an understanding of the ethical aspects of marketing research and the responsibilities each of the marketing research stakeholders have to themselves, one another, and the research project.

33) NBC utilized Satmetrix services to obtain feedback from viewers. Which of the following is true about their relationship?

A) It helps the network to learn what viewers are looking for.

B) NBC created the show "The Voice" as a result of the research results.

C) Viewer feedback has been instrumental in composing and modifying scripts and storylines.

D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 1.1 Define marketing research and distinguish between problem-identification research and problem-solving research.

34) According to the text, marketing research has become .

A) global B) real time C) more integrative with marketing and product development D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 5 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 1.1 Define marketing research and distinguish between problem-identification research and problem-solving research.

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35) Marketing Research, as defined by the author, is everything except .

A) systematic B) politically biased C) objective D) useful for the purpose of improving decision-making Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6 LO: 1.2 Describe a framework for conducting marketing research as well as the six steps of the marketing research process.

36) The procedures followed at each stage of marketing research are methodologically sound, well documented, and, as much as possible, planned in advance. The previous statement defines the aspect of the definition of marketing research.

A) systematic B) accuracy C) identification of information D) collection of information Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6 LO: 1.2 Describe a framework for conducting marketing research as well as the six steps of the marketing research process.

37) Each phase of the marketing research process is important. If in the first phase of the process the problem is identified, what is done after that but before data is collected?

A) Determine the solution to the problem, identify relevant information sources and evaluate data collection methods B) Determine what information is needed, identify relevant information sources, and evaluate data collection methods C) Determine the solution to the problem, determine what information is needed, and identify relevant information sources D) Determine what information is needed, evaluate data collection methods, and analyze the data Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8 LO: 1.2 Describe a framework for conducting marketing research as well as the six steps of the marketing research process.

38) is undertaken to help identify problems that are perhaps not apparent on the surface and yet exist or are likely to arise in the future.

A) Problem identification research B) Segmentation research C) Problem solving research D) Marketing information systems Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6 LO: 1.2 Describe a framework for conducting marketing research as well as the six steps of the marketing research process.

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TB-Marketing Research-An Applied Orientation[7E,Malhotra]

39) is a type of problem identification research.

A) Distribution research B) Pricing research C) Market characteristics research D) Promotion research Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 7 LO: 1.2 Describe a framework for conducting marketing research as well as the six steps of the marketing research process.

40) Which of the issues listed below would be addressed using problem-solving research?

A) the need to understand market potential B) the need to understand current cultural trends C) the need to understand changes in consumer behavior D) the need to determine where to locate retail outlets Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 7 LO: 1.2 Describe a framework for conducting marketing research as well as the six steps of the marketing research process.

41) In the Kellogg's example given in your text, Kellogg's performed several tasks to identify their problem. Which of the tasks below was not used by Kellogg's to identify their problem?

A) They spoke to decision makers within the company.

B) They developed and tested several new flavors of cereal using mall intercept interviews with adult customers C) They interviewed industry experts.

D) They surveyed customers about their perceptions and preferences for cereals.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8 LO: 1.2 Describe a framework for conducting marketing research as well as the six steps of the marketing research process.

42) is conceptualized as consisting of six steps which include problem definition, developing an approach to the problem, research design formulation, field work, data preparation and analysis, and report generation and presentation.

A) The marketing research process B) Marketing information systems C) Marketing research problem D) A decision support system Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8 LO: 1.2 Describe a framework for conducting marketing research as well as the six steps of the marketing research process.

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43) Which of the tasks below might be conducted by the researcher during the "problem definition" and the "development of an approach to the problem" steps of the marketing research process?

A) analysis of secondary data B) interviews with industry experts C) qualitative research D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8-9 LO: 1.2 Describe a framework for conducting marketing research as well as the six steps of the marketing research process.

44) Which of the tasks below might be conducted by the researcher during the "problem definition," the "development of an approach to the problem," or the "research design formulation" steps of the marketing research process?

A) analysis of secondary data B) interviews with industry experts C) qualitative research D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8-9 LO: 1.2 Describe a framework for conducting marketing research as well as the six steps of the marketing research process.

45) The emphasis in marketing is on the identification and satisfaction of .

A) business needs B) marketing goals C) market needs D) customer needs Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10 LO: 1.3 Understand the nature and scope of marketing research and its role in designing and implementing successful marketing programs.

46) In order to determine customer needs and to implement marketing strategies and programs aimed at satisfying those needs, marketing managers need information about .

A) customers B) competitors C) other forces in the marketplace D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10-11 LO: 1.3 Understand the nature and scope of marketing research and its role in designing and implementing successful marketing programs.

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47) Marketing managers need the information provided by marketing research for many reasons.

Which of the following is not a reason to need information provided by marketing research?

A) Firms have become national and international in scope.

B) Consumers have become more affluent and sophisticated.

C) Competition has become more intense.

D) All of the above are reasons to need information provided by marketing research.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10-11 LO: 1.3 Understand the nature and scope of marketing research and its role in designing and implementing successful marketing programs.

48) Marketing research helps the marketing manager link the with the and the customer groups.

A) marketing variables; environment B) marketing variables; marketing information system C) marketing information system; environment D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 11 LO: 1.3 Understand the nature and scope of marketing research and its role in designing and implementing successful marketing programs.

49) may be defined as the process of enhancing marketplace competitiveness through a greater understanding of a firm's competitors and the competitive environment.

A) Market intelligence B) Competitive intelligence C) A marketing information system D) A decision support system Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12 LO: 1.3 Understand the nature and scope of marketing research and its role in designing and implementing successful marketing programs.

50) Competitive intelligence .

A) enables senior managers in companies to make informed decisions about everything B) consists of integrated systems of hardware, communications networks, and software C) is a continuous process involving the legal and ethical collection of information D) A and C are both correct Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 12 LO: 1.3 Understand the nature and scope of marketing research and its role in designing and implementing successful marketing programs.

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51) The information obtained through marketing research becomes an integral part of the firm' and .

A) marketing information system (MIS); decision support system (DSS) B) management information system (MIS); marketing information system (MIS) C) decision support system (DSS); Competitive Support System (CIS) D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 12 AACSB: Information technology LO: 1.3 Understand the nature and scope of marketing research and its role in designing and implementing successful marketing programs.

52) Which of the following is not a consideration when making the decision to conduct marketing research?

A) the consumer's attitude toward research B) the costs versus the benefits of research C) the resources available to conduct the research D) the resources available to implement the research findings Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 12-13 LO: 1.4 Explain how the decision to conduct marketing research is made.

53) Which of the following statements is (are) true concerning big firms?

A) Many firms maintain in-house marketing research departments.

B) The marketing research department's place in the organizational structure may vary considerably.

C) Firms with in-house research departments never use external research suppliers.

D) Both A and B are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13 LO: 1.5 Discuss the marketing research industry and the types of research suppliers, 54) External research suppliers can be classified as and .

A) limited-service; partial-service B) full-service; partial-service C) full-service; limited-service D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 13-14 LO: 1.5 Discuss the marketing research industry and the types of research suppliers,

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55) Which of the following is not an example of a full-service supplier (Figure 1.3 in the text)?

A) syndicated services B) customized services C) Internet services D) analytical services Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13-14 LO: 1.5 Discuss the marketing research industry and the types of research suppliers, 56) The Nielsen Television Index is a set of information of known commercial value that is provided to multiple clients on a subscription basis. The Nielsen Index is an example of .

A) syndicated services B) customized services C) standardized services D) analytical services Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 15 LO: 1.5 Discuss the marketing research industry and the types of research suppliers, 57) Syndicated services .

A) specialize in one or a few phases of the marketing research project B) are research studies conducted for different client firms but in a different way C) are companies that collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve information needs shared by a number of clients D) offer a wide variety of marketing research services customized to suit a client's specific needs Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 15 LO: 1.5 Discuss the marketing research industry and the types of research suppliers, 58) Customized services .

A) specialize in one or a few phases of the marketing research project B) are research studies conducted for different client firms but in a different way C) collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve information needs shared by a number of clients D) offer a wide variety of marketing research services tailored to suit a client's specific needs Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15 LO: 1.5 Discuss the marketing research industry and the types of research suppliers,

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59) Limited-service suppliers .

A) specialize in one or a few phases of the marketing research project B) are research studies conducted for different client firms but in a different way C) collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve information needs shared by a number of clients.

D) offer a wide variety of marketing research services tailored to suit a client's specific needs Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15 LO: 1.5 Discuss the marketing research industry and the types of research suppliers, 60) ORC International (orcinternational.com) offers several products under the Caravan® family. The products include both online and telephone survey options among households selected at random from the U.S. population. Clients are charged based on the number of questions they ask. Caravan® is a .

A) field service B) branded market research product C) data analysis service D) analytical service Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 15 LO: 1.5 Discuss the marketing research industry and the types of research suppliers, 61) When a firm cannot conduct an entire marketing research project in house, it must select an external supplier for one or more phases of the project. One of the things that the firm does not need to consider or do when selecting an external research supplier is .

A) compile a list of prospective suppliers B) realize that the cheapest bid is not always the best bid C) develop criteria for selecting an outside supplier D) All of the above must be considered or done.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15-16 LO: 1.5 Discuss the marketing research industry and the types of research suppliers, 62) There are many entry level marketing research positions available for persons with BBAs or MBAs. Which one of the following is not an entry-level position?

A) operational supervisor B) senior analyst C) junior research analyst D) research analyst Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16-17 LO: 1.6 Describe careers available in marketing research and the backgrounds and skills needed to succeed in them.

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63) According to the author of the text, international research refers to which of the following types of research?

A) foreign research B) multinational research C) cross-cultural research D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 19 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 1.7 Acquire an appreciation of the international dimension and the complexity involved in international marketing research.

64) Which of the following is not mentioned as a limitation of social media for conducting marketing research?

A) lower objectivity standards for social media B) self-selection bias C) advocacy bias D) expressive bias E) All of these are mentioned as limitations.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 20 AACSB: Information technology LO: 1.8 Describe the use of social media as a domain in which to conduct marketing research.

65) Marketing research has often been described as having four stakeholders. These stakeholders have certain responsibilities to each other and to the research project. Which of the following is not one of the stakeholders?

A) the marketing researcher B) the respondent C) the public D) the environment Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 22 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 1.10 Gain an understanding of the ethical aspects of marketing research and the responsibilities each of the marketing research stakeholders have to themselves, one another, and the research project.

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TB-Marketing Research-An Applied Orientation[7E,Malhotra]

66) features statistical programs as integrated statistical packages for data analysis.

A) SAS B) MINITAB C) SPSS D) EXCEL E) SAS and SPSS Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 24 AACSB: Information technology LO: 1.10 Gain an understanding of the ethical aspects of marketing research and the responsibilities each of the marketing research stakeholders have to themselves, one another, and the research project.

67) Define and discuss problem identification and problem-solving research. Discuss how the two types of research are related. Develop an example showing the relationship between these two types of research.

Answer: Problem identification research is undertaken to help identify problems that are perhaps not apparent on the surface and yet exist or are likely to exist in the future. Problem-solving research is undertaken to arrive at a solution.

Problem identification research and problem-solving research go hand in hand because once a problem or opportunity has been identified, problem-solving research can be undertaken. A given marketing research project may combine both types of research. This was illustrated in the chapter opening Boeing example. The consumer surveys identified potential demand for smaller planes (problem identification). Subsequent research led to the introduction of the new version of the Boeing 737, which caters to the 100 to 215 seat market (problem solving). The student should supply his/her own similar examples.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6-7 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 1.1 Define marketing research and distinguish between problem-identification research and problem-solving research.

68) Define marketing research.

Answer: Marketing research is the systematic and objective identification, collection, analysis, dissemination, and use of information for the purpose of improving decision making related to the identification and solution of problems and opportunities in marketing.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6 AACSB: Application of knowledge LO: 1.1 Define marketing research and distinguish between problem-identification research and problem-solving research.

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TB-Marketing Research-An Applied Orientation[7E,Malhotra]

69) In a short essay, discuss the differences between problem-identification research and problem-solving research. Include a description of situations in which each type of research would be most appropriate.

Answer: Problem-identification research involves going below the surface to identify the true underlying problem that the marketing manager is facing. It may be designed to estimate market potential, market share, brand or company image, market characteristics, sales analysis, shortrange forecasting, long-range forecasting, or to uncover business trends. Problem identification is the more common of the two forms of research and is undertaken by virtually all marketing firms. This type of research is used to assess the environment and diagnose problems. Once a problem or opportunity has been identified, a firm undertakes problem-solving research to address the problem. Problem-solving research addresses many topics, including segmentation, product, pricing, promotion, and distribution. Problem-identification research and problemsolving research go hand in hand, and a given marketing research project may combine both types.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6-7 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 1.1 Define marketing research and distinguish between problem-identification research and problem-solving research.

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TB-Marketing Research-An Applied Orientation[7E,Malhotra]

70) Briefly define and discuss the six steps of the marketing research process.

Answer: Step 1: Problem Definition In defining the problem, the researcher should take into account the purpose of the study, the relevant background information, the information needed, and how it will be used in decision making. Problem definition involves discussion with the decision makers, interviews with industry experts, analysis of secondary data, and, perhaps, some qualitative research, such as focus groups.

Step 2: Development of an Approach to the Problem Development of an approach to the problem includes formulating an objective or theoretical framework, analytical models, research questions, and hypotheses and identifying the information needed. This process is guided by discussions with management and industry experts, analysis of secondary data, qualitative research, and pragmatic considerations.

Step 3: Research Design Formulation A research design is a framework or blueprint for conducting the marketing research project. It details the procedures necessary for obtaining the required information, and its purpose is to design a study that will test the hypotheses of interest, determine possible answers to the research questions, and provide the information needed for decision making. Conducting exploratory research, precisely defining the variables, and designing appropriate scales to measure them are also a part of the research design. The issue of how the data should be obtained from the respondents (for example, by conducting a survey or an experiment) must be addressed. It is also necessary to design a questionnaire and a sampling plan to select respondents for the study.

Step 4: Field Work or Data Collection Data collection involves a field force or staff that operates either in the field, as in the case of personal interviewing (in-home, mall intercept, or computer-assisted personal interviewing), from an office by telephone (telephone or computer-assisted telephone interviewing), through mail (traditional mail and mail panel surveys with pre-recruited households), or electronically (email or Internet). Proper selection, training, supervision, and evaluation of the field force helps minimize data-collection errors.

Step 5: Data Preparation and Analysis Data preparation includes the editing, coding, transcription, and verification of data. Each questionnaire or observation form is inspected or edited and, if necessary, corrected. Number or letter codes are assigned to represent each response to each question in the questionnaire. The data from the questionnaires are transcribed or keypunched onto magnetic tape or disks, or input directly into the computer. The data are analyzed to derive information related to the components of the marketing research problem and, thus, provide input to the management decision problem.

Step 6: Report Preparation and Presentation The entire project should be documented in a written report that addresses the specific research questions identified, describes the approach, the research design, data collection, and data analysis procedures adopted, and presents the results and the major findings. The findings should be presented in a comprehensible format so that management can readily use them in the decision-making process. In addition, an oral presentation should be made to management using tables, figures, and graphs to enhance clarity and impact.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8-9 LO: 1.2 Describe a framework for conducting marketing research as well as the six steps of the marketing research process.

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71) Traditionally, marketing researchers were responsible for assessing information needs and providing the relevant information, whereas marketing decisions were made by the managers.

Discuss why the roles of marketing managers and marketing researchers are changing.

Answer: These roles are changing and marketing researchers are becoming more involved in decision making, whereas marketing managers are becoming more involved with research. This trend can be attributed to better training marketing managers, the Internet and other advances in technology, and a shift in the marketing research paradigm where more and more marketing research is being undertaken on an ongoing basis rather than in response to specific marketing problems or opportunities.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 12 LO: 1.3 Understand the nature and scope of marketing research and its role in designing and implementing successful marketing programs.

72) What is competitive intelligence and how does it help companies in making their marketing decisions?

Answer: Competitive intelligence may be defined as the process of enhancing marketplace competitiveness through a greater understanding of a firm's competitors and the competitive environment. This process is unequivocally ethical. It involves the legal collection and analysis of information regarding the capabilities, vulnerabilities, and intentions of business competitors, conducted by using databases and other "open sources" and through ethical marketing research inquiry.

Competitive intelligence enables senior managers in companies of all sizes to make informed decisions about everything from marketing, R&D, investing tactics to long-term business strategies. It is a crucial part of the emerging knowledge economy. By analyzing rivals' moves, competitive intelligence allows companies to anticipate market developments rather than merely react to them.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 12 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 1.3 Understand the nature and scope of marketing research and its role in designing and implementing successful marketing programs.

18 2019.

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73) Write a short essay explaining the differences between a marketing information system and a decision support system.

Answer: Developed to overcome the limitations of MIS, decision support systems (DSS) enable decision makers to interact directly with databases and analysis models.

Marketing Information System ∙ Structured Problems ∙ Use of Reports ∙ Rigid Structure ∙ Information Displaying Restricted ∙ Can Improve Decision Making by Clarifying Raw Data

Decision Support Systems ∙ Unstructured Problems ∙ Use of Models ∙ User-Friendly Interaction ∙ Adaptability ∙ Can Improve Decision Making by Using "What If" Analysis

Diff: 3 AACSB: Information technology LO: 1.3 Understand the nature and scope of marketing research and its role in designing and implementing successful marketing programs.

74) Write a short essay detailing what a person or student should do to prepare for a career in marketing research.

Answer: ∙ Take all the marketing courses you can. ∙ Take courses in statistics and quantitative methods. ∙ Acquire Internet and computer skills. Knowledge of programming languages is an added asset. ∙ Take courses in psychology and consumer behavior. ∙ Acquire effective written and verbal communication skills. ∙ Think creatively. Creativity and common sense command a premium. ∙ Marketing researchers should be liberally educated so that they can understand the problems confronting managers and address them from a broad perspective.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 17 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 1.6 Describe careers available in marketing research and the backgrounds and skills needed to succeed in them.

19 2019.

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75) In a short essay, describe the stages of developing a career in the marketing research industry. List at least four steps a student should take in order to properly prepare for a career in the marketing research industry.

Answer: a. A career in research often begins with a supervisory position in fieldwork or data analysis.

With experience, the researcher moves up to project management positions, resulting in director and eventually in a vice president-level position. The most common entry-level position in the research industry for people with bachelor's degrees is operational supervisor. Those with MBA or equivalent degrees are likely to be employed as project managers. A researcher entering the profession on the client side would typically begin as a junior research analyst (BBAs) or research analyst (MBAs). b. To prepare for a career in marketing research, a student should do the following: - take as many marketing courses as possible - take courses in statistics and quantitative methods - acquire computer, social media and Internet skills - take courses in psychology and consumer behavior - acquire effective written and verbal communication skills - think creatively Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 1.6 Describe careers available in marketing research and the backgrounds and skills needed to succeed in them.

76) Why is international marketing research more complex than domestic marketing research?

Answer: Conducting international marketing research is much more complex than domestic marketing research. The environment prevailing in the countries or international markets that are being researched influences the way the six steps of the marketing research process should be performed. These environmental factors consist of the marketing, government, legal, economic, structural, informational and technological, and the sociocultural environments. The impact of these factors on the marketing research process is discussed in detail in subsequent chapters.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 18-19 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 1.7 Acquire an appreciation of the international dimension and the complexity involved in international marketing research.

20 2019.

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77) In a short essay describe the advantages of mobile marketing research (MMR).

Answer: There are many advantages to conducting marketing research by reaching consumers via their mobile device. Mobile marketing research can execute the principles of traditional research with reach, scale, and affordability. MMR has the potential to reach a broader audience, get results faster, lower costs, and elicit higher quality responses. Respondents can answer at their convenience. They are more engaged since surveys are shorter and the interface is easier to use. Global Positioning System (GPS) and other location technologies can deliver surveys to the target audience based on their current or past locations. Thus, feedback can be obtained from shoppers while they are inside the stores (or at other moments of discovery), minimizing the time between experience and feedback and improving the quality of responses. MMR is appealing in many developing economies, where the mobile phone is often the most frequently used information gathering, computing and communication device for consumers and businesses.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 21 AACSB: Information technology LO: 1.9 Discuss the developing field of mobile marketing research and its advantages and disadvantages.

78) Describe the stakeholders in marketing research. How do ethical issues arise?

Answer: Marketing research has often been described as having four stakeholders: (1) the marketing researcher, (2) the client, (3) the respondent, and (4) the public (Figure 1.8). These stakeholders have certain responsibilities to each other and to the research project. Ethical issues arise when the interests of these stakeholders are in conflict and when one or more of the stakeholders are lacking in their responsibilities.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 22-23 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 1.10 Gain an understanding of the ethical aspects of marketing research and the responsibilities each of the marketing research stakeholders have to themselves, one another, and the research project.

21 2019.

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Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 2 Defining the Marketing Research Problem and Developing an Approach 1) Problem definition is the most important step in the marketing research project.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 32 LO: 2.1 Understand the importance of and the process used for defining the marketing research problem.

2) Better communication and more involvement in problem definition are the most frequently mentioned ways of improving the usefulness of research.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 33-34 LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

3) The organizational status of the researcher or the research department may make it easy to reach the key DM in the early stages of the project.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 34 AACSB: Written and oral communication LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

4) The problem audit provides a useful framework for interacting with the researcher and identifying the underlying causes of the problem.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 35 AACSB: Written and oral communication LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

5) DMs tend to focus on symptoms rather than causes.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 36 AACSB: Written and oral communication LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

6) "The DM and the researcher must interact continually rather than sporadically" is an explanation of one of the 7 Cs known as continuity.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 37 AACSB: Written and oral communication LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

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7) The purpose of interviewing experts is to help define the marketing research problem rather than to develop a conclusive solution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 37 AACSB: Written and oral communication LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

8) Analysis of available secondary data is a non-essential step in the problem definition process.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 38-39 LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

9) Information obtained from the DM, industry experts, and secondary data may not be sufficient to define the research problem.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 39 LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

10) To understand the background of a marketing research problem, the researcher must understand the client's firm and industry.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 40 LO: 2.3 Discuss the environmental factors affecting the definition of the research problem: past information and forecasts, resources and constraints, objectives of the decision maker, buyer behavior, legal environment, economic environment, and marketing and technological skills of the firm.

11) Past information and forecasts of trends with respect to sales, market share, profitability, technology, population, demographics, and lifestyle can help the researcher understand the underlying marketing research problem.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 40 LO: 2.3 Discuss the environmental factors affecting the definition of the research problem: past information and forecasts, resources and constraints, objectives of the decision maker, buyer behavior, legal environment, economic environment, and marketing and technological skills of the firm.

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12) Where appropriate, analysis of past information and forecasts of trends should be carried out at the firm's department level.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 40 LO: 2.3 Discuss the environmental factors affecting the definition of the research problem: past information and forecasts, resources and constraints, objectives of the decision maker, buyer behavior, legal environment, economic environment, and marketing and technological skills of the firm.

13) In instances where the resources are too limited to allow a high-quality project, the firm should be advised not to undertake formal marketing research.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 41-42 LO: 2.3 Discuss the environmental factors affecting the definition of the research problem: past information and forecasts, resources and constraints, objectives of the decision maker, buyer behavior, legal environment, economic environment, and marketing and technological skills of the firm.

14) "The number and geographical location of the buyers and non-buyers" is a factor that should be considered in the "objectives" component of the environmental context of the problem.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 42 LO: 2.3 Discuss the environmental factors affecting the definition of the research problem: past information and forecasts, resources and constraints, objectives of the decision maker, buyer behavior, legal environment, economic environment, and marketing and technological skills of the firm.

15) The economic environment includes public policies, laws, government agencies, and pressure groups that influence and regulate various organizations and individuals in society.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 43 LO: 2.3 Discuss the environmental factors affecting the definition of the research problem: past information and forecasts, resources and constraints, objectives of the decision maker, buyer behavior, legal environment, economic environment, and marketing and technological skills of the firm.

16) The economic environment component of the environmental context is comprised of purchasing power, gross income, disposable income, discretionary income, prices, savings, credit availability, and general economic conditions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 43 LO: 2.3 Discuss the environmental factors affecting the definition of the research problem: past information and forecasts, resources and constraints, objectives of the decision maker, buyer behavior, legal environment, economic environment, and marketing and technological skills of the firm.

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17) The marketing research problem asks what the DM needs to do, whereas the management decision problem asks what information is needed and how it can best be obtained (Table 2.1 in the text).

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 44 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 2.4 Clarify the distinction between the management decision problem and the marketing research problem.

18) The management decision problem is action oriented.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 44 LO: 2.4 Clarify the distinction between the management decision problem and the marketing research problem.

19) The marketing research problem is information oriented.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 44 LO: 2.4 Clarify the distinction between the management decision problem and the marketing research problem.

20) To properly identify the marketing research problem, it is best to state the problem in narrow, specific terms and identify its broad concepts.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 45 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 2.5 Explain the structure of a well-defined marketing research problem, including the broad statement and the specific components.

21) The second part of the marketing research problem definition is specific components. The specific components focus on the key aspects of the problem and provide clear guidelines on how to proceed further.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 46 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 2.5 Explain the structure of a well-defined marketing research problem, including the broad statement and the specific components.

22) Verbal, graphical, and mathematical models depict the same phenomenon or theoretical framework in different ways.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 48 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 2.6 Discuss in detail the various components of the approach: objective/theoretical framework, analytical models, research questions, hypotheses, and specification of information needed.

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23) Graphical models are analytical models that provide a visual picture of the relationships between variables.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 48 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 2.6 Discuss in detail the various components of the approach: objective/theoretical framework, analytical models, research questions, hypotheses, and specification of information needed.

24) Research questions ask what general information is required with respect to the problem components.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 49 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 2.6 Discuss in detail the various components of the approach: objective/theoretical framework, analytical models, research questions, hypotheses, and specification of information needed.

25) Hypotheses go beyond research questions because they are statements of relationships or propositions rather than merely questions to which answers are sought.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 50 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 2.6 Discuss in detail the various components of the approach: objective/theoretical framework, analytical models, research questions, hypotheses, and specification of information needed.

26) Being too familiar with the environmental factors of the country where the research is being conducted can greatly increase the difficulty of understanding the problem's environmental context and uncovering its causes.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 53 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 2.7 Acquire an appreciation of the complexity involved and gain an understanding of the procedures for defining the problem and developing an approach in international marketing research.

27) With the use of social media such as blogs, Facebook, or Twitter, researchers can update consumers on the research that has been ongoing and the actions that have been taken.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 54-55 AACSB: Information technology LO: 2.8 Describe how social media can be used to identify and define the marketing research problem and aid in developing an approach.

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28) It is possible to identify industry experts, and an analysis of their social media sites can provide insights into their thinking as it relates to problem at hand.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 54-55 AACSB: Information technology LO: 2.8 Describe how social media can be used to identify and define the marketing research problem and aid in developing an approach.

29) A limitation of social media in understanding consumer behavior is that we cannot determine how consumers interact with each other over time.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 54-55 AACSB: Information technology LO: 2.8 Describe how social media can be used to identify and define the marketing research problem and aid in developing an approach.

30) In the example given in your text, the Harley Davidson management decision problem and the marketing research problem were defined with the help of all of the following except .

A) discussions with industry experts B) discussions with a committee of top management C) secondary data on motorcycle owners D) focus groups with motorcycle owners Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 33 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 2.1 Understand the importance of and the process used for defining the marketing research problem.

31) According to the Chain Restaurant Study in your text, the researcher had collected data but did not know .

A) the marketing research problem B) the management decision problem C) the data collection process D) the approach to the problem Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 34 LO: 2.1 Understand the importance of and the process used for defining the marketing research problem.

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32) The is a broad statement of the general problem and identification of the specific components of the marketing research problem.

A) problem audit B) management problem C) problem definition D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 33 LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

33) According to the problem definition and approach development process as shown in Figure 2.1 in the text, the tasks involved in problem definition consist of all of the following except .

A) discussions with the decision makers B) interviews with industry experts C) analysis of project costs D) analysis of secondary data Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 35 LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

34) The need for the researcher to understand the nature of what decision managers face and what they hope to learn from research is one of the reasons to conduct .

A) discussions with decision makers B) interview with experts C) secondary data analysis D) qualitative research Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 34 AACSB: Written and oral communication LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

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35) To identify the management problem, the researcher must possess considerable skill in interacting with the DM. Which of the following is a factor that might complicate this interaction?

A) Access to the DM may be difficult and some organizations have complicated protocols for access to top executives.

B) The organizational status of the researcher or the research department may make it difficult to reach the key DM in the early stages of the project.

C) There may be more than one key DM and meeting with them collectively or individually may be difficult.

D) All of the above are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 34-35 AACSB: Written and oral communication LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

36) The provides a useful framework for interacting with the DM and identifying the underlying causes of the problem.

A) problem audit B) management problem C) problem definition D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 35 LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

37) The is a comprehensive examination of a marketing problem with the purpose of understanding its origin and nature.

A) problem audit B) management problem C) problem definition D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 35 LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

38) It is important to perform a problem audit because .

A) the DM knows the cause of the problem B) DMs tend to focus on symptoms rather than on causes C) the DM, in most cases, has only a vague idea of what the problem is D) both B and C are correct Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 35 LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

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39) The interaction between the DM and the researcher should be characterized by the seven Cs. Which of the following is not one of the seven Cs? A) continuity B) communication C) causality D) candor Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 37 AACSB: Written and oral communication LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

40) As one of the seven Cs that characterize the interaction between the DM and the researcher, confidence is best defined as: .

A) there should not be any hidden agendas, and an attitude of openness should prevail B) the interaction between the DM and the researcher should be guided by mutual trust C) marketing research is a team project in which both parties (DM and researcher) must cooperate D) the interaction between the DM and the researcher should be creative rather than formulaic Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 37 AACSB: Written and oral communication LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

41) Interviews with industry experts, individuals knowledgeable about the firm and the industry, may help formulate the marketing research problem. Which of the following statements is true about interviews with industry experts?

A) These experts may be found both inside and outside the firm.

B) Typically, expert information is obtained by unstructured personal interviews without administering a formal questionnaire.

C) It is helpful to prepare a list of topics to be covered during the interview.

D) All of the above are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 37-38 AACSB: Written and oral communication LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

9 2019.

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42) Because of potential difficulties when seeking advice from experts, it is best to use interviews with experts when conducting marketing research .

A) for industrial firms B) for products of a technical nature C) in situations where little information is available from other sources D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 38 AACSB: Written and oral communication LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

43) Which of the following statements about secondary data is true?

A) Secondary data are originated by the researcher for the specific purpose of addressing the research problem at hand.

B) Secondary data are an economical and quick source of background information.

C) Primary data should not be collected until the available secondary data have been fully analyzed.

D) Both B and C are true.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 38-39 LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

44) is an unstructured, exploratory research methodology based on small samples intended to provide insight and understanding of the problem setting.

A) Primary research B) Qualitative research C) Secondary research D) Quantitative research Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 39 LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

45) is not a qualitative research technique.

A) Depth interview B) Word association C) Focus group D) Conclusive research Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 39 LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

10 2019.

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46) consists of the factors that have an impact on the definition of the marketing research problem, including past information and forecasts, resources and constraints of the firm, objectives of the decision maker, buyer behavior, legal environment, economic environment, and marketing and technological skills of the firm.

A) The approach to the problem B) Research design C) The environmental context of the problem D) Problem definition Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 40 LO: 2.3 Discuss the environmental factors affecting the definition of the research problem: past information and forecasts, resources and constraints, objectives of the decision maker, buyer behavior, legal environment, economic environment, and marketing and technological skills of the firm.

47) Many factors have an impact on the definition of the marketing research problem. These factors encompass the environmental context of the problem. Which of the following is not one of the factors?

A) marketing and technological skills of the firm B) objectives C) past information and forecasts pertaining to the industry and the firm D) political environment Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 40 LO: 2.3 Discuss the environmental factors affecting the definition of the research problem: past information and forecasts, resources and constraints, objectives of the decision maker, buyer behavior, legal environment, economic environment, and marketing and technological skills of the firm.

48) To formulate a marketing research problem of appropriate scope, it is necessary to take into account both the resources available, such as money and research skills, and the constraints on the organization, such as cost and time. These considerations refer to which of the factors related to the environmental context of the problem?

A) resources and constraints B) buyer behavior C) legal environment D) economic environment Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 41 LO: 2.3 Discuss the environmental factors affecting the definition of the research problem: past information and forecasts, resources and constraints, objectives of the decision maker, buyer behavior, legal environment, economic environment, and marketing and technological skills of the firm.

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49) Media consumption behavior and response to promotions, price sensitivity, and retail outlets patronized are factors that should be considered in the component of the environmental context of the problem.

A) objectives B) legal environment C) economic environment D) buyer behavior Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 42 LO: 2.3 Discuss the environmental factors affecting the definition of the research problem: past information and forecasts, resources and constraints, objectives of the decision maker, buyer behavior, legal environment, economic environment, and marketing and technological skills of the firm.

50) The " Milk Life" campaign sponsored by the California Milk Processor Board and mentioned in your text, used an understanding of to identify the real causes that led to the decline in milk consumption.

A) objectives B) the legal environment C) the economic environment D) buyer behavior Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 42-43 LO: 2.3 Discuss the environmental factors affecting the definition of the research problem: past information and forecasts, resources and constraints, objectives of the decision maker, buyer behavior, legal environment, economic environment, and marketing and technological skills of the firm.

51) Regulatory policies and norms within which organizations must operate, refer to the factor of the environmental context of the problem.

A) legal environment B) economic environment C) objectives D) buyer behavior Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 43 LO: 2.3 Discuss the environmental factors affecting the definition of the research problem: past information and forecasts, resources and constraints, objectives of the decision maker, buyer behavior, legal environment, economic environment, and marketing and technological skills of the firm.

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52) is the problem confronting the decision maker. It asks what the decision maker needs to do.

A) The environmental context of the problem B) The management decision problem C) The marketing research problem D) Problem definition Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 44 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 2.4 Clarify the distinction between the management decision problem and the marketing research problem.

53) is a problem that entails determining what information is needed and how it can be obtained in the most feasible way.

A) The environmental context of the problem B) The management decision problem C) The marketing research problem D) Problem definition Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 44 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 2.4 Clarify the distinction between the management decision problem and the marketing research problem.

54) The management decision problem focuses on , while the marketing research problem focuses on .

A) symptoms; solutions B) symptoms; underlying causes C) solutions; underlying causes D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 44 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 2.4 Clarify the distinction between the management decision problem and the marketing research problem.

55) Based on Table 2.1 in the text, which statement is true about the management decision problem?

A) It asks what information is needed and how it should be obtained.

B) It is information oriented.

C) It asks what the decision maker needs to do.

D) It focuses on the underlying causes.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 44 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 2.4 Clarify the distinction between the management decision problem and the marketing research problem.

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56) Based on Table 2.1 in the text, which statement is true about the marketing research problem?

A) It focuses on underlying causes.

B) It focuses on symptoms.

C) It is information oriented.

D) Both A and C are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 44 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 2.4 Clarify the distinction between the management decision problem and the marketing research problem.

57) If the management decision problem is: "Should a new product be introduced?" what is the most appropriate marketing research problem?

A) determining the price elasticity of demand and the impact on sales and profits of various levels of price changes B) determining consumer preferences and purchase intentions for the proposed new product C) determining the effectiveness of the current advertising campaign D) determining the impact of new distribution outlets Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 45 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 2.4 Clarify the distinction between the management decision problem and the marketing research problem.

58) Which statement is true concerning defining the marketing research problem?

A) The definition should allow the researcher to obtain all the information needed to address the management decision problem.

B) The definition should guide the researcher in proceeding with the project.

C) The marketing research problem should be stated in broad, general terms with specific components identified.

D) All of the above are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 45-46 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 2.5 Explain the structure of a well-defined marketing research problem, including the broad statement and the specific components.

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59) According to Figure 2.1 in the text, the components of the consist of: objective/theoretical foundations, analytical models, research questions, hypotheses, and specification of the information needed.

A) approach to the problem B) management decision problem C) marketing research problem D) environmental context of the problem Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 35 LO: 2.6 Discuss in detail the various components of the approach: objective/theoretical framework, analytical models, research questions, hypotheses, and specification of information needed.

60) The outputs of the approach development process should include all of the following components except .

A) objective/theoretical framework B) analytical models C) hypotheses D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 47 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 2.6 Discuss in detail the various components of the approach: objective/theoretical framework, analytical models, research questions, hypotheses, and specification of information needed.

61) A conceptual scheme based on foundational statements called axioms, which are assumed to be true, is .

A) objective evidence B) a theory C) an analytical model D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 47 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 2.6 Discuss in detail the various components of the approach: objective/theoretical framework, analytical models, research questions, hypotheses, and specification of information needed.

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62) Unbiased evidence that is supported by empirical findings is .

A) objective evidence B) a theory C) an analytical model D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 48 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 2.6 Discuss in detail the various components of the approach: objective/theoretical framework, analytical models, research questions, hypotheses, and specification of information needed.

63) In the process of developing an approach, research should be based on objective evidence and supported by theory. A theory .

A) serves as a foundation on which the researcher can organize and interpret the findings B) also plays a vital role in influencing the research procedures adopted in basic research C) is incomplete D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 47-48 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 2.6 Discuss in detail the various components of the approach: objective/theoretical framework, analytical models, research questions, hypotheses, and specification of information needed.

64) The researcher should rely on to determine which variables should be investigated.

A) objective evidence B) theory C) an analytical model D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 47-48 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 2.6 Discuss in detail the various components of the approach: objective/theoretical framework, analytical models, research questions, hypotheses, and specification of information needed.

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65) A(n) is a set of variables and their interrelationships designed to represent, in whole or in part, some real system or process.

A) mathematical model B) graphical model C) verbal model D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 48 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 2.6 Discuss in detail the various components of the approach: objective/theoretical framework, analytical models, research questions, hypotheses, and specification of information needed.

66) are refined statements of the specific components of the problem.

A) Hypotheses B) Research questions C) Marketing research problems D) Analytical models Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 49 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 2.6 Discuss in detail the various components of the approach: objective/theoretical framework, analytical models, research questions, hypotheses, and specification of information needed.

67) Which statement about hypotheses is not true?

A) A hypothesis is an unproven statement or proposition about a factor or phenomenon that is of interest to the researcher.

B) Hypotheses are declarative and can be tested empirically.

C) It is possible to formulate hypotheses in all situations.

D) An important role of a hypothesis is to suggest variables to be included in the research design.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 50 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 2.6 Discuss in detail the various components of the approach: objective/theoretical framework, analytical models, research questions, hypotheses, and specification of information needed.

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68) Before defining the problem, the researcher must isolate and examine the impact of the selfreference criterion (SRC), or the unconscious reference to one's own cultural values. Which of the following steps does not help researchers account for environmental and cultural differences when defining the problem in an international marketing context?

A) Define the marketing research problem in terms of domestic environmental and cultural factors. This involves an identification of relevant American (domestic country) traits, economics, values, needs, or habits.

B) Define the marketing research problem in terms of foreign environmental and cultural factors.

Make no judgments. This involves an identification of the related traits, economics, values, needs, or habits in the proposed market culture. This task requires input from researchers familiar with the foreign environment.

C) Isolate the self-reference criterion (SRC) influence on the problem and examine it carefully to see how it complicates the problem.

D) All of the above are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 53 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 2.7 Acquire an appreciation of the complexity involved and gain an understanding of the procedures for defining the problem and developing an approach in international marketing research.

69) Ethical issues arise if the process of defining the problem and developing an approach is compromised by the personal agendas of the client (DM) or the researcher. Which of these statements concerning ethics in marketing research is not true?

A) The DM has the obligation to be candid and disclose to the researcher all the relevant information that will enable a proper definition of the marketing research problem.

B) The researcher is ethically bound to offer the most expensive set of services to each client.

C) The problem definition process is adversely affected when the DM has hidden objectives such as gaining a promotion.

D) The researcher is ethically bound to define the problem so as to further the best interest of the client, rather than the interest of the research firm.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 56-57 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 2.10 Understand the ethical issues and conflicts that arise in defining the problem and developing the approach.

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70) Which of the following ethical issues is/are pertinent in developing an approach?

A) When a client solicits proposals, not with the intent of subcontracting the research, but with the intent of gaining the expertise of research firms without pay, an ethical breach has occurred.

B) The research firm has the ethical obligation to develop an appropriate approach.

C) Proprietary models and approaches developed by a research firm are the property of that firm and should not be reused by the client in subsequent studies without the permission of the research firm.

D) All of the issues are pertinent.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 56-57 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 2.10 Understand the ethical issues and conflicts that arise in defining the problem and developing the approach.

71) Briefly discuss problem definition and why it is the most important task in the marketing research project.

Answer: Problem definition involves stating the general problem and identifying the specific components of the marketing research problem. Only when the marketing research problem has been clearly defined can research be designed and conducted properly. Of all the tasks in a marketing research project, none is more vital to the ultimate fulfillment of a client's needs than a proper definition of the research problem. All the effort, time, and money spent from this point on will be wasted if the problem is misunderstood or ill defined.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 33 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 2.1 Understand the importance of and the process used for defining the marketing research problem.

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72) The problem audit involves discussions with the DM on numerous issues. List and elaborate on these issues.

Answer: 1. The events that led to the decision that action is needed, or the history of the problem 2. The alternative courses of action available to the DM, the set of alternatives may be incomplete at this stage, and qualitative research may be needed to identify the more innovative courses of action 3. The criteria that will be used to evaluate the alternative courses of action; for example, new product offerings might be evaluated on the basis of sales, market share, profitability, return on investment, and so forth 4. The potential actions that are likely to be suggested based on the research findings 5. The information that is needed to answer the DM's questions 6. The manner in which the DM will use each item of information in making the decision 7. The corporate culture as it relates to decision making; in some firms, the decision making process is dominant; in others, the personality of the DM is more important. Awareness of corporate culture may be one of the most important factors that distinguishes researchers who affect strategic marketing decisions from those who do not.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 35-36 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

73) A problem audit, which involves extensive interaction between the DM and the researcher, can greatly facilitate problem definition by determining the underlying causes. The interaction between the researcher and the DM is facilitated when one or more people in the client organization serve as a liaison and form a team with the marketing researcher. In order to be fruitful, the interaction between the DM and the researcher should be characterized by the seven Cs. List and describe the seven Cs. Answer: 1. Communication. Free exchange of ideas between the DM and researcher is essential.

2. Cooperation. Marketing research is a team project in which both parties (DM and researcher) must cooperate.

3. Confidence. The interaction between the DM and the researcher should be guided by mutual trust.

4. Candor. There should not be any hidden agendas, and an attitude of openness should prevail.

5. Closeness. Feelings of warmth and closeness should characterize the relationship between the DM and the researcher.

6. Continuity. The DM and the researcher must interact continually rather than sporadically.

7. Creativity. The interaction between the DM and the researcher should be creative rather than formulaic.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 37 AACSB: Written and oral communication LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

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74) Discuss the two potential difficulties that may arise when seeking advice from experts.

Answer: 1. Some individuals who claim to be knowledgeable and are eager to participate may not really possess expertise.

2. It may be difficult to locate and obtain the help from experts who are outside the client organization.

For these reasons, interviews with experts are more useful in conducting marketing research for industrial firms and for products of a technical nature, where it is relatively easy to identify and approach the experts. This method is also helpful in situations where little information is available from other sources, as in the case of radically new products.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 37 AACSB: Written and oral communication LO: 2.2 Describe the tasks involved in problem definition, including discussions with decision makers, interviews with industry experts, secondary data analysis, and qualitative research.

75) Explain the structure of a well-defined marketing research problem, including the broad statement and the specific components.

Answer: The general rule to be followed in defining the marketing research problem is that the definition should (1) allow the researcher to obtain all the information needed to address the management decision problem, and (2) guide the researcher in proceeding with the project.

Researchers make two common errors in problem definition. The first arises when the research problem is defined too broadly. A broad definition does not provide clear guidelines for the subsequent steps involved in the project. Some examples of overly broad marketing research problem definitions are: (1) developing a marketing strategy for the brand, (2) improving the competitive position of the firm, or (3) improving the company's image. These are not specific enough to suggest an approach to the problem or a research design.

The second type of error is just the opposite: the marketing research problem is defined too narrowly. A narrow focus may preclude consideration of some courses of action, particularly those that are innovative and may not be obvious. It may also prevent the researcher from addressing important components of the management decision problem.

The likelihood of committing either type of error in problem definition can be reduced by stating the marketing research problem in broad, general terms and identifying its specific components (see Figure 2.3 in the text). The broad statement provides perspective on the problem and acts as a safeguard against committing the second type of error. The specific components focus on the key aspects of the problem and provide clear guidelines on how to proceed further, thereby reducing the likelihood of the first type of error.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 45-47 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 2.5 Explain the structure of a well-defined marketing research problem, including the broad statement and the specific components.

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76) Explain the concept of an analytical model and discuss the different forms of analytical models. Using the marketing scenario of your choice, provide an example of each model. Each model should depict the same scenario.

Answer: An analytical model is a set of variables and their interrelationships designed to represent, in whole or in part, some real system or process. Models can have many different forms. The most common are verbal, graphical, and mathematical structures. In verbal models, the variables and their relationships are stated in prose form. Such models may be mere restatements of the main tenets of a theory. Graphical models are visual. They are used to isolate variables and to suggest directions of relationships but are not designed to provide numerical results. Mathematical models explicitly specify the relationships among variables, usually in equation form. These models can be used as guides for formulating the research design and have the advantage of being amenable to manipulation.

The student should provide their own examples of each model. An example of using the three types of models in the context of the department store project is shown in Chapter 2 of the text.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 48-49 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 2.6 Discuss in detail the various components of the approach: objective/theoretical framework, analytical models, research questions, hypotheses, and specification of information needed.

77) Discuss the role of mobile marketing research in defining the problem as well as in developing an approach to the problem.

Answer: Mobile marketing research (MMR) can be useful in defining the problem as well as in developing an approach to the problem. The mobile phone has become a significant means of communication, particularly in a business setting, in most countries of the world. Thus, the researcher can use mobile communication to interact with the decision maker(s) and with the industry experts. MMR can be used to analyze secondary data and to conduct qualitative research. Thus, MMR can be useful in performing all the four tasks needed to define the management decision problem and the marketing research problem as well as to develop an approach to the problem.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 56 AACSB: Information technology LO: 2.9 Discuss the use of mobile marketing research in problem definition and approach development.

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Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 3 Research Design 1) A research design is a framework or blueprint for conducting the marketing research project.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 66 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

2) Specifying the measurement and scaling procedures is one of the components involved in research design.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 66 LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

3) Specifying the format of the marketing research proposal is one of the components involved in research design.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 66 LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

4) There are three main types of research designs employed in marketing research: exploratory, descriptive, and conclusive.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 67 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

5) Exploratory research is used in cases when you must define the problem more precisely, identify relevant courses of action, or gain additional insights before an approach can be developed.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 68 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

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6) The insights gained from exploratory research might be verified or quantified by conclusive research.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 68-69 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

7) The objective of conclusive research is to better understand the problem.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 67 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

8) Conclusive research is typically more formal and structured than exploratory research.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 67 LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

9) The objective of exploratory research is to explore or search through a problem or situation to provide insights and understanding (Table 3.2 in the text).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 67 LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

10) Identifying alternative courses of action and establishing priorities for further research are purposes for which exploratory research is used.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 66 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

11) When conducting exploratory research, the focus of the investigation may shift constantly as new insights are discovered.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 69 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

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12) Shorter Labs is conducting experiments to see if shoppers will buy unknown products if they are sent coupons. Shorter Labs is conducting causal research.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 75 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

13) One reason to conduct causal research is to determine the degree to which marketing variables are associated. For example, to what extent is shopping at department stores related to eating out?

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 75 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

14) A major difference between exploratory and descriptive research is that exploratory research is characterized by the prior formulation of specific hypotheses.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 70 LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

15) A descriptive design requires a clear specification of the who, what, when, where, why, and way (the six Ws) of the research.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 70 LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

16) The cross-sectional study is the least used descriptive design in marketing research.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 71 LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

17) Cross-sectional designs involve the collection of information from any given sample of population elements only once.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 71 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

18) In single cross-sectional designs, there are two or more samples of respondents, and information from each sample is obtained only once.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 71-72 LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

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19) Cohort analysis is a type of multiple cross-sectional design that consists of a series of surveys conducted at appropriate time intervals, where the cohort serves as the basic unit of analysis.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 72 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

20) In cohort analysis, it is likely that many of the individuals studied at time one will also be in the sample at time two.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 72 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

21) A longitudinal design differs from a cross-sectional design in that the sample or samples remain the same over time.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 72 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

22) Sometimes, the term sample survey is used interchangeably with the term longitudinal design.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 72 LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

23) A major advantage of longitudinal design over the cross-sectional design is the ability to detect change as a result of repeated measurement of the same variables on the same sample.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 73-74 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

24) Longitudinal data enable researchers to examine changes in the behavior of individual units and to link behavioral changes to marketing variables, such as changes in advertising, packaging, pricing, and distribution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 73-74 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

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25) Marketing managers continually make decisions based on assumed causal relationships.

Because these assumptions may be justifiable, the validity of the causal relationships need not be examined via formal research.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 75 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

26) According to the text, the combination of research designs employed depends on the nature of the results desired.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 77 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

27) The total error is the variation between the true mean value in the population of the variable of interest and the observed mean value obtained in the marketing research project.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 78 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 3.3 Describe the major sources of errors in a research design, including random sampling error and the various sources of nonsampling error.

28) In formulating a research design, the researcher should attempt to minimize a particular source of error, not just the total error.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 78-81 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 3.3 Describe the major sources of errors in a research design, including random sampling error and the various sources of nonsampling error.

29) Random sampling error has been found to be the major contributor to total error, whereas non-sampling error is relatively small in magnitude.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 78-81 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 3.3 Describe the major sources of errors in a research design, including random sampling error and the various sources of nonsampling error.

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30) A useful approach for managing a project is the critical path method (CPM), which involves dividing the research project into component activities, determining the sequence of these activities, and estimating the time required for each activity.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 81 AACSB: Information technology LO: 3.4 Discuss managerial aspects of coordinating research projects, particularly budgeting and scheduling.

31) Budgeting and scheduling management tools help ensure that the marketing research project is completed within the available resources.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 81 LO: 3.4 Discuss managerial aspects of coordinating research projects, particularly budgeting and scheduling.

32) The marketing research proposal contains the essence of the project and serves as a contract between the researcher and the respondent.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 81-82 LO: 3.5 Describe the elements of a marketing research proposal and show how they address the steps of the marketing research process.

33) The marketing research proposal does not include a reporting section because a separate final report of the research project findings is provided at the end of the project.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 81-82 LO: 3.5 Describe the elements of a marketing research proposal and show how they address the steps of the marketing research process.

34) The research design suitable for one country may not be suitable in another country.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 82-83 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 3.6 Explain research design formulation in international marketing research.

35) The example given in the text stated that focus groups conducted in Saudi Arabia to determine attitude towards major appliances could be conducted the same as in the U.S. Men and women could participate jointly in the focus group.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 82-83 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 3.6 Explain research design formulation in international marketing research.

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36) Social media can be appropriate for conducting exploratory and descriptive research but not causal research.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 83-84 AACSB: Information technology LO: 3.7 Discuss how the analysis of social media content can facilitate the research design process.

37) Social media panels could be useful for developing new products targeted at core users of the brand.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 83-84 AACSB: Information technology LO: 3.7 Discuss how the analysis of social media content can facilitate the research design process.

38) The researcher defines the mission and governance of a social media community.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 83-84 AACSB: Information technology LO: 3.7 Discuss how the analysis of social media content can facilitate the research design process.

39) The client should not take undue advantage of the research firm to solicit unfair concessions for the current project by making false promises of future research contracts.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 85-86 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 3.9 Understand the ethical issues and conflicts that arise in formulating a research design.

40) Which statement is not true about research design?

A) Research design is a framework for conducting the marketing research project.

B) Research design specifies the measurement and scaling procedures.

C) Research design is undertaken before developing the approach to the problem.

D) Research design is undertaken after the marketing research problem is defined.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 66 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

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41) is a framework or blueprint for conducting the marketing research project. It specifies the details of the procedures necessary for obtaining the information needed to structure and/or solve marketing research problems.

A) Research classification B) Research design C) Design formulation D) None of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 66 LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

42) Typically, a involves the tasks of designing the information needed, specifying the measurement and scaling procedures, and developing a plan of data analysis.

A) research classification B) research design C) design formulation D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 66 LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

43) Which of the following tasks is not a component of research design?

A) Design the exploratory, descriptive, and/or causal phases of the research.

B) Construct and pretest a questionnaire (interviewing form) or an appropriate form for data collection.

C) Specify the sampling process and sample size.

D) Develop hypotheses.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 66 LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

44) Research designs may be broadly classified as or (Figure 3.1 in the text).

A) exploratory; causal B) conclusive; causal C) exploratory; conclusive D) conclusive; descriptive Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 66-67 LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

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45) Exploratory research is used in all of the following cases except .

A) selecting the course of action to take in a given situation B) when you must define the problem more precisely C) when you must identify relevant courses of action D) when you must gain additional insights before an approach can be developed Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 68 LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

46) The primary objective of is to provide insights into, and an understanding of, the problem confronting the researcher.

A) exploratory research B) conclusive research C) causal research D) descriptive research Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 68 LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

47) is research designed to assist the decision maker in determining, evaluating, and selecting the best course of action to take in a given situation.

A) Exploratory research B) Conclusive research C) Complex research D) Problem-identification research Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 67-68 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

48) Cross-sectional and longitudinal designs are types of (Figure 3.1 in the text).

A) causal research B) exploratory research C) descriptive research D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 71 LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

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49) Joan needs to determine which variables and relationships she should examine further as part of the research she is conducting for the Flager Truck Company. Joan is about to embark on what type of research?

A) simple research B) exploratory research C) descriptive research D) causal research Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 67-68 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

50) Which of the objectives below would best represent exploratory research?

A) Describe market characteristics or functions.

B) Determine cause and effect relationships.

C) Provide insights and understanding.

D) Test specific hypotheses and examine relationships.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 67-68 LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

51) Which of the objectives below would best represent conclusive research?

A) Describe market characteristics or functions.

B) Determine cause and effect relationships.

C) Provide insights and understanding.

D) A and B are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 66-67 LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

52) If there were a need to isolate key variables and relationships for further examination, it would be best to perform .

A) descriptive research B) causal research C) exploratory research D) conclusive research Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 67-68 LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

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53) Which of the following statements is not true about exploratory research?

A) It is flexible.

B) It is a pre-planned and structured design.

C) It is versatile.

D) It is often the front end of total research design.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 67-68 LO: 3.1 Define research design, classify various research designs, and explain the differences between exploratory and conclusive designs.

54) Which data collection method is used in causal research?

A) experiments B) surveys C) expert surveys D) panels Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 75 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

55) Jerry and the team working on the Roger Tire Company marketing research project are developing ways to test their hypothesis that drivers of larger trucks prefer dual belted radial tires. What type of research are they conducting?

A) simple research B) exploratory research C) descriptive research D) causal research Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 70 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

56) You work for Innovative Focus, an internationally recognized consulting firm. You are working on the Waterpik account to help them with finding their next successful product. You are meeting with the Waterpik marketing professionals tomorrow to conduct a trends meeting to list and prioritize key consumer wants and needs. You have also scheduled a meeting with the Waterpik engineers to uncover applicable technologies and the company's internal competencies.

What type of research are you conducting in your meetings with Waterpik?

A) simple research B) exploratory research C) descriptive research D) causal research Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 67-68 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

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57) is a type of conclusive research that has as its major objective the description of something, usually market characteristics or functions.

A) Exploratory research B) Conclusive research C) Causal research D) Descriptive research Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 70 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

58) Descriptive research is conducted for all of the following reasons except .

A) to describe the characteristics of relevant groups, such as consumers, salespeople, organizations, or market areas B) to determine the degree to which marketing variables are associated C) to understand which variables are the cause and which variables are the effect of a phenomenon D) to determine the perceptions of product characteristics Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 70 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

59) A formal research design specifies the methods for selecting the sources of information and for collecting data from those sources. A design requires a clear specification of the who, what, when, where, why, and way (the six Ws) of the research.

A) descriptive B) causal C) exploratory D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 70 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

60) Descriptive research, in contrast to exploratory research, is marked by all of the following except .

A) a clear statement of the problem B) specific hypotheses C) detailed information needs D) flexibility Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 70 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

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61) designs involve the collection of information from any given sample of population elements only once.

A) Exploratory B) Causal C) Cross-sectional D) None of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 71 LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

62) is a cross-sectional design in which one sample of respondents is drawn from the target population and information is obtained from this sample once.

A) Multiple cross-sectional design B) Single cross-sectional design C) Cohort analysis D) None of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 71 LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

63) is the most used descriptive design in marketing research.

A) Longitudinal design B) Exploratory design C) Cross-sectional design D) None of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 71 LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

64) Single cross-sectional designs are also called .

A) experiment designs B) sample survey research designs C) qualitative research designs D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 71-72 LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

65) is a cross-sectional design in which there are two or more samples of respondents and information is obtained from each sample only once.

A) Multiple cross-sectional design B) Single cross-sectional design C) Cohort analysis D) None of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 72 LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

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66) is a multiple cross-sectional design consisting of a series of surveys conducted at appropriate time intervals, where the cohort serves as the basic unit of analysis.

A) Multiple cross-sectional design B) Single cross-sectional design C) Cohort analysis D) None of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 72 LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

67) Which of the following statements is true about cohort analysis?

A) A cohort is a group of respondents who experience the same event within the same time interval.

B) It is unlikely that any of the individuals studied at time one will also be in the sample at time two.

C) The term cohort analysis refers to any study in which there are measures of some characteristics of one or more cohorts at two or more points in time.

D) All are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 72 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

68) is a type of research design involving a fixed sample of population elements that is measured repeatedly. The sample remains the same over time thus providing a series of pictures which, when viewed together, portray a vivid illustration of the situation and the changes that are taking place over time.

A) Exploratory research design B) Causal research design C) Cross-sectional research design D) Longitudinal research design Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 72-73 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

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69) The question, "How did the American people rate the performance of George W. Bush immediately after the war in Afghanistan?" would be addressed using a . However, a would be used to address the question, "How did the American people change their view of Bush's performance during the war in Afghanistan?"

A) longitudinal design; multiple cross-sectional B) cross-sectional design; longitudinal design C) longitudinal; cross-sectional design D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 72-73 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

70) Sometimes the term is used interchangeably with the term longitudinal design.

A) experiment B) panel C) survey D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 72-73 LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

71) refers to a sample of respondents who have agreed to provide information at specified intervals over an extended period.

A) Experiment B) Survey C) Panel D) None of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 72-73 LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

72) A major advantage of over the cross-sectional design is the ability to detect change as a result of repeated measurement of the same variables on the same sample.

A) longitudinal design B) descriptive research design C) causal research design D) conclusive research design Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 73-74 LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

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73) All of the following are advantages of longitudinal designs over cross-sectional designs (Table 3.4 in the text) except .

A) detecting change B) accuracy C) large amount of data collection D) representative sampling Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 73-74 LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

74) Which of these statements is true about panels?

A) Relatively large amounts of data can be collected.

B) Panel data can be more accurate than cross-sectional data.

C) Panels may not be representative.

D) All of the above statements are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 73-74 LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

75) According to your text, non-representativeness in panels may arise because of all of the following except .

A) respondent intelligence B) mortality C) refusal to cooperate D) payment Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 74-75 LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

76) When trying to determine which research design is best to choose, it is best to begin with exploratory research if the objective of the research is to .

A) test hypotheses B) conduct an annual customer satisfaction survey C) define the problem more precisely D) quantify the relative salience of social causes that businesses should be concerned about Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 77 LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

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77) is the variation between the true mean value in the population of the variable of interest and the observed mean value obtained in the marketing research project.

A) Measurement error B) Recording error C) Total error D) Cheating error Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 78 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 3.3 Describe the major sources of errors in a research design, including random sampling error and the various sources of nonsampling error.

78) is the error due to the particular sample selected being an imperfect representation of the population of interest. It may be defined as the variation between the true mean value for the sample and the true mean value of the population.

A) Random sampling error B) Non-response error C) Non-sampling error D) Response error Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 78 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 3.3 Describe the major sources of errors in a research design, including random sampling error and the various sources of nonsampling error.

79) are errors that can be attributed to sources other than sampling, and they can be random or nonrandom.

A) Random sampling error B) Non-response error C) Non-sampling error D) Response error Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 78 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 3.3 Describe the major sources of errors in a research design, including random sampling error and the various sources of nonsampling error.

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80) is a type of non-sampling error arising from respondents who do respond but give inaccurate answers, or their answers are mis-recorded or mis-analyzed. It may be defined as the variation between the true mean value of the variable in the net sample and the observed mean value obtained in the marketing research project.

A) Random sampling error B) Non-response error C) Non-sampling error D) Response error Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 79 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 3.3 Describe the major sources of errors in a research design, including random sampling error and the various sources of nonsampling error.

81) is a type of non-sampling error that occurs when some of the respondents included in the sample do not respond. This error may be defined as the variation between the true mean value of the variable in the original sample and the true mean value in the net sample.

A) Random sampling error B) Non-response error C) Non-sampling error D) Response error Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 79 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 3.3 Describe the major sources of errors in a research design, including random sampling error and the various sources of nonsampling error.

82) The variation between the population defined by the researcher and the population as implied by the sampling frame (list) used is .

A) questioning error B) unwillingness error C) sampling frame error D) recording error Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 80 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 3.3 Describe the major sources of errors in a research design, including random sampling error and the various sources of nonsampling error.

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83) The error that arises from the respondent's unwillingness to provide accurate information is . Respondents may intentionally misreport their answers because of a desire to provide socially acceptable answers, avoid embarrassment, or please the interviewer.

A) questioning error B) unwillingness error C) sampling frame error D) recording error Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 80 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 3.3 Describe the major sources of errors in a research design, including random sampling error and the various sources of nonsampling error.

84) In a recent study, the population of the affluent households was defined in four different ways: (1) households with income of $50,000 or more; (2) the top 20 percent of households, as measured by income; (3) households with net worth over $250,000; and (4) households with spendable discretionary income 30 percent higher than that of comparable households. The number and characteristics of the affluent households varied depending upon the definition, underscoring the need to avoid .

A) sampling frame error B) respondent selection error C) measurement error D) population definition error Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 79 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 3.3 Describe the major sources of errors in a research design, including random sampling error and the various sources of nonsampling error.

85) Which of the following is not a budgeting and scheduling approach for managing a project?

A) program evaluation and review technique (PERT) B) critical evaluation and review technique (CERT) C) critical path method (CPM) D) graphical evaluation and review technique (GERT) Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 81 LO: 3.4 Discuss managerial aspects of coordinating research projects, particularly budgeting and scheduling.

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86) is defined as the official layout of the planned marketing research activity for management. It describes the research problem, the approach, the research design, data collection methods, data analysis methods, and reporting methods.

A) Research design B) The critical path method C) The marketing research proposal D) The marketing research problem Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 81 LO: 3.5 Describe the elements of a marketing research proposal and show how they address the steps of the marketing research process.

87) The marketing research proposal consists of many sections. The section is normally a statement of the problem, including the specific components.

A) problem definition/objectives of the research B) approach to the problem C) executive summary D) research design Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 81-82 LO: 3.5 Describe the elements of a marketing research proposal and show how they address the steps of the marketing research process.

88) The section of the marketing research proposal should discuss how the data will be collected and who will collect it. The section of the proposal discusses the kind of data analysis that will be conducted and how the results will be interpreted.

A) appendices; data analysis B) fieldwork/data collection; reporting C) research design; data analysis D) fieldwork/data collection; data analysis Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 81-82 LO: 3.5 Describe the elements of a marketing research proposal and show how they address the steps of the marketing research process.

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89) Compare and contrast the exploratory, descriptive, and causal research designs (Table 3.2 in the text).

Answer: A comparison of the basic research designs appears in Table 3.2 in the text.

The objective of exploratory design is to discover ideas and insights; of descriptive design is to describe market characteristics; of causal design to determine cause and effect or functions.

The characteristics of exploratory design include flexibility, versatility, and that it is often used as the front end of total research design. The characteristics of descriptive design include its preplanned and structured design and that it is marked by the prior formulation of specific hypotheses. The characteristics of causal design include the fact that mediating variables must be controlled for and that one or more independent variables are manipulated.

Methods using exploratory design include expert surveys, pilot surveys, secondary data (which is analyzed qualitatively), and qualitative research. Methods using descriptive design include secondary data (which is analyzed quantitatively), surveys, panels, and observational and other data. Methods using causal design include experiments.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 68-76 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

90) Patronage at the local Macy's has been declining. What is the cause and how can it be stopped? Use the six Ws used in descriptive design to clearly define the information needed to address this management decision problem.

Answer: The six Ws are as follows: Who-Who should be considered a patron of a particular department store?

What-What information should be obtained from the respondents?

When-When should the information be obtained from respondents?

Where-Where should the respondents be contacted to obtain the required information?

Why-Why are we obtaining information from the respondents?

Way-In what way are we going to obtain information from the respondents?

The students should have their own responses geared specifically toward the department store patronage project.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 70-71 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

91) Define cross-sectional design and longitudinal design. Develop an example of each using the same basic situation.

Answer: A cross-sectional design is a design in which one sample of respondents is drawn from the target population and information is obtained from this sample once. A longitudinal design is a type of research design involving a fixed sample of population elements that is measured repeatedly on the same variables. The sample remains the same over time, thus providing a series of pictures which, when viewed together, portray a vivid illustration of the situation and the changes that are taking place over time.

The students should provide their own examples of each using a situation of their choice.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 71-72 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

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92) What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of longitudinal versus cross-sectional designs?

Answer: The relative advantages and disadvantages of longitudinal and cross-sectional design are shown in Table 3.4 in the text. A major advantage of longitudinal design over cross-sectional design is the ability to detect change as a result of repeated measurement of the same variables on the same sample.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 73-75 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

93) Discuss how the Internet can facilitate the implementation of different types of research designs.

Answer: During the exploratory phase of the research, forums, chat rooms, or newsgroups can be used to generally discuss a topic with anyone who visits the chat room. Newsgroups focus on a particular topic and function like bulletin boards. During the exploratory phase of the research, forums, chat rooms, or newsgroups can be used to generally discuss a topic with anyone who visits the chat room. Newsgroups focus on a particular topic and function like bulletin boards.

Internet users stop by a newsgroup to read messages left by others and to post their own responses or comments. Newsgroups or chat rooms could be used to set up more formal focus groups with experts or individuals representing the target audience in order to obtain initial information on a subject. For descriptive research, surveys can be conducted on the Internet and Internet browsing behavior can be observed by using cookies. For causal research, experiments can be conducted on the Internet.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 78 AACSB: Information technology LO: 3.2 Compare and contrast the basic research designs: exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

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94) Briefly define and discuss random sampling error, non-sampling error, and the two major types of non-sampling error.

Answer: Random sampling error occurs because the particular sample selected is an imperfect representation of the population of interest. Random sampling error is the variation between the true mean value for the population and the true mean value for the original sample.

Non-sampling errors can be attributed to sources other than sampling, and they may be random or nonrandom. They result from a variety of reasons, including errors in problem definition, approach, scales, questionnaire design, interviewing methods, and data preparation and analysis.

Non-response error arises when some of the respondents included in the sample do not respond.

The primary causes of non-response are refusals and not-at-homes. Non-response will cause the net or resulting sample to be different in size or composition from the original sample. Nonresponse error is defined as the variation between the true mean value of the variable in the original sample and the true mean value in the net sample.

Response error arises when respondents give inaccurate answers or their answers are misrecorded or mis-analyzed. Response error is defined as the variation between the true mean value of the variable in the net sample and the observed mean value obtained in the marketing research project.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 78-80 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 3.3 Describe the major sources of errors in a research design, including random sampling error and the various sources of nonsampling error.

95) Discuss the role of Mobile marketing research (MMR) in implementing any of the basic research designs discussed in this chapter.

Answer: Mobile marketing research (MMR) can be conducted to implement any of the basic research designs discussed in this chapter or any combination of these basic designs. The major methodologies of exploratory research are analysis of secondary data and qualitative research and the use of MMR for implementing these methods is discussed in Chapters 4 and 5, respectively. The use of MMR to implement surveys and observation research, the major methodologies of descriptive research, is covered in Chapter 6. Finally, the use of MMR to conduct experiments, the major method for conducting causal research, is presented in Chapter 7.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 85 AACSB: Information technology LO: 3.8 Deliberate the implementation of various research designs in mobile marketing research.

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96) What would you say is a unifying theme for the Ethics in Marketing Research examples related to research design in Chapter 3? Justify your answer.

Answer: One important theme in the ethics examples featured in Chapter 3 was simply "communicating honesty from the start." Other ways of saying this is "truthfulness", or "integrity." The research agency must honestly fulfill its role from the beginning to the end.

Honesty between the researcher and the client will lead the researcher to match the right design with the needs of the business at that time. If a longitudinal design is needed, as in the case of brand switching, then it must be done. If the research firm has no experience in doing a longitudinal design, then this must be disclosed at the outset along with the ways the research agency will ensure quality (such as contracting for a consultant to guide them, or for another firm to actually execute this part of the project. A research firm that justifies the use of a crosssectional design simply because it has no experience in conducting longitudinal studies is behaving unethically. Also, if customer contact has to be restricted or if time is an issue, the client should make these constraints known at the start of the project.

Honesty is also needed from client firms at the start of projects. Theft of ideas must always be avoided. It would be unethical for a client to extract details from a proposal submitted by one research firm and pass them on to another who actually would do the project for the client. A proposal is the property of the research firm that prepared it, unless the client has paid for it.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 85-86 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 3.9 Understand the ethical issues and conflicts that arise in formulating a research design.

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Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 4 Exploratory Research Design: Secondary Data 1) Secondary data are originated by a researcher for the specific purpose of addressing the problem at hand.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 94 LO: 4.1 Define the nature and scope of secondary data and distinguish secondary data from primary data.

2) Primary data are data that have already been collected for purposes other than the problem at hand.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 94 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 4.1 Define the nature and scope of secondary data and distinguish secondary data from primary data.

3) As compared to primary data, secondary data are collected rapidly and easily, at a relatively low cost, and in a short time.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 94 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 4.1 Define the nature and scope of secondary data and distinguish secondary data from primary data.

4) Examination of available primary data is a prerequisite to the collection of secondary data.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 95 LO: 4.1 Define the nature and scope of secondary data and distinguish secondary data from primary data.

5) Secondary data can help you develop an approach to the problem, answer certain research questions and test some hypotheses, and interpret primary data more insightfully.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 95 LO: 4.2 Analyze the advantages and disadvantages of secondary data and their uses in the various steps of the marketing research process.

6) It is easy to evaluate the accuracy of secondary data because the researcher did participate in the research.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 95-97 LO: 4.3 Evaluate secondary data using specifications, error, currency, objectives, nature, and dependability criteria.

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7) One of the problems when evaluating secondary data is that the data may be updated too frequently for the purpose of the problem at hand.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 97 LO: 4.3 Evaluate secondary data using specifications, error, currency, objectives, nature, and dependability criteria.

8) Data collected with a specific objective in mind is always appropriate in another situation.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 97 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 4.3 Evaluate secondary data using specifications, error, currency, objectives, nature, and dependability criteria.

9) Secondary data may be measured in units that may not be appropriate for the current problem.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 97-98 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 4.3 Evaluate secondary data using specifications, error, currency, objectives, nature, and dependability criteria.

10) It is not possible to reconfigure the available data, for example, convert the units of measurements, so that the resulting data are more useful to the problem at hand.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 97-98 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 4.3 Evaluate secondary data using specifications, error, currency, objectives, nature, and dependability criteria.

11) Data published anonymously or in a form that attempts to hide the details of the data collection methodology and process should be viewed with suspicion.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 98 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 4.3 Evaluate secondary data using specifications, error, currency, objectives, nature, and dependability criteria.

12) Secondary data may be classified as either internal or extant.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 99 LO: 4.4 Describe in detail the different sources of secondary data, including internal sources and external sources in the form of business/non-government, government, and syndicated services.

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13) Primary data should be the starting point in the search for external data.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 100 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 4.4 Describe in detail the different sources of secondary data, including internal sources and external sources in the form of business/non-government, government, and syndicated services.

14) External data are those generated within the organization for which the research is being conducted.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 100 LO: 4.4 Describe in detail the different sources of secondary data, including internal sources and external sources in the form of business/non-government, government, and syndicated services.

15) Before collecting external secondary data, it is useful to analyze internal secondary data.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 100 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 4.4 Describe in detail the different sources of secondary data, including internal sources and external sources in the form of business/non-government, government, and syndicated services.

16) Chrysler's Personal Information Centers collect data from car owners on all aspects of buying a car. These PICs give the company the ability to engage in customized marketing.

Chrysler is using internal secondary data in its database marketing efforts.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 101 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 4.4 Describe in detail the different sources of secondary data, including internal sources and external sources in the form of business/non-government, government, and syndicated services.

17) Secondary internal data have two significant advantages. They are easily available and inexpensive.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 94 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 4.4 Describe in detail the different sources of secondary data, including internal sources and external sources in the form of business/non-government, government, and syndicated services.

18) Secondary internal sources of data are often not fully exploited by organizations.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 100 LO: 4.4 Describe in detail the different sources of secondary data, including internal sources and external sources in the form of business/non-government, government, and syndicated services.

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19) Private sources update census data at a detailed geographic level for between-census years.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 97 LO: 4.4 Describe in detail the different sources of secondary data, including internal sources and external sources in the form of business/non-government, government, and syndicated services.

20) Directory databases provide information on individuals, organizations, and services.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 102 LO: 4.4 Describe in detail the different sources of secondary data, including internal sources and external sources in the form of business/non-government, government, and syndicated services.

21) Syndicated sources, also referred to as syndicated services, are companies that collect and sell common pools of data of known commercial value, designed to serve information needs shared by a number of clients.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 104 LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

22) Syndicated sources collect data for marketing research problems specific to individual clients.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 104 LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

23) Syndicated services data are not collected for the purpose of marketing research problems specific to individual clients.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 104 LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

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24) Syndicated sources can be classified based on the unit of measurement (households/consumers or institutions).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 105 LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

25) When institutions are the unit of measurement, the data may be obtained from retailers, wholesalers, or households.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 105 LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

26) A lifestyle may be defined as a distinctive pattern of living that is described by the activities people engage in, the interests they have, and the opinions they hold of themselves and the world around them (AIOs).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 106 LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

27) Surveys are the primary means of obtaining information about consumers' motives, attitudes, and preferences.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 105 LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

28) The distinguishing feature of purchase and media panels is that the respondents record specific behaviors as they occur.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 108 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

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29) Scanner data is obtained by passing merchandise over a laser scanner that reads the UPC code from the packages.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 109 AACSB: Information technology LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

30) Scanner data have an obvious disadvantage over surveys and purchase panels, because they reflect purchasing behavior that is not subject to interviewing, recording, memory, or expert biases.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 110 AACSB: Information technology LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

31) An advantage of scanner data is that in-store variables like pricing, promotions, and displays are part of the data set.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 110 AACSB: Information technology LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

32) Audits can help consumer product firms determine the size of the total market and distribution of sales by type of outlet and by different regions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 111-112 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

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33) Financial, operating, and employment data are also collected by industry services' syndicated research firms for one in 10 North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) industrial categories.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 112 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

34) The range and sources of syndicated data available for industrial goods firms are more limited than those available to consumer goods firms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 112 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

35) The posts from social media such as blogs or Facebook "fan" pages give an informative account of consumer perception and preference with regard to the problem at hand.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 116 AACSB: Information technology LO: 4.9 Discuss social media as a valuable source of secondary data.

36) Social media represent the true voice of the consumer.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 116-117 AACSB: Information technology LO: 4.9 Discuss social media as a valuable source of secondary data.

37) Social media sites may be popular with businesses but are not being used by nonprofit and government organizations.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 116-117 AACSB: Information technology LO: 4.9 Discuss social media as a valuable source of secondary data.

38) Ethical issues also arise if the users of secondary data are unduly critical of the data that do not support their interests and viewpoints.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 118 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 4.11 Understand the ethical issues involved in the use of secondary data.

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39) As compared to primary data, secondary data are collected .

A) rapidly and easily B) at a relatively low cost C) in a short time D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 94 LO: 4.1 Define the nature and scope of secondary data and distinguish secondary data from primary data.

40) The for primary data is very involved and the is high.

A) collection purpose; collection time B) collection process; collection cost C) collection process; collection purpose D) collection cost; collection time Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 94 LO: 4.1 Define the nature and scope of secondary data and distinguish secondary data from primary data.

41) Which of the following is not a disadvantage of secondary data?

A) The objectives, nature, and methods used to collect the secondary data may not be appropriate to the present situation.

B) Secondary data may be lacking in accuracy.

C) Secondary data may be expensive and time consuming.

D) Secondary data may not be completely current or dependable.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 95 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 4.2 Analyze the advantages and disadvantages of secondary data and their uses in the various steps of the marketing research process.

42) Which of the following statements refer to the currency criteria when evaluating secondary data?

A) Data should be reliable and generalizable to the problem at hand.

B) Syndicated firms periodically update census data.

C) The objective will determine the relevance of the data. Reconfigure the data to increase their usefulness, if possible.

D) Assess accuracy by comparing data from different sources.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 97 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 4.3 Evaluate secondary data using specifications, error, currency, objectives, nature, and dependability criteria.

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43) Which of the following statements refer to the objective criteria when evaluating secondary data?

A) Data should be reliable and generalizable to the problem at hand.

B) Syndicated firms periodically update census data.

C) The objective will determine the relevance of the data. Reconfigure the data to increase their usefulness, if possible.

D) Assess accuracy by comparing data from different sources.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 97 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 4.3 Evaluate secondary data using specifications, error, currency, objectives, nature, and dependability criteria.

44) Based on the criteria for evaluating secondary data shown in Table 4.2 in the text, the data collected by Nielsen Media Research may be suspect because of all of the following criteria except .

A) specification/methodology B) error/accuracy C) objective D) dependability Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 96-97 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 4.3 Evaluate secondary data using specifications, error, currency, objectives, nature, and dependability criteria.

45) Errors in the approach, research design, sampling, data collection, analysis, and reporting stages of the project refer to the criteria for evaluating secondary data.

A) nature B) objective C) error/accuracy D) currency Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 97 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 4.3 Evaluate secondary data using specifications, error, currency, objectives, nature, and dependability criteria.

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46) Which of the following statements is not true about the currency of secondary data?

A) The time lag between data collection and publication may be long.

B) The value of secondary data is diminished as it becomes dated.

C) The data may not be updated frequently enough for the problem at hand.

D) All of the above are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 95 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 4.3 Evaluate secondary data using specifications, error, currency, objectives, nature, and dependability criteria.

47) When evaluating secondary data, the criteria asks the question of "why the data were collected in the first place."

A) nature B) objective C) error/accuracy D) currency Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 97 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 4.3 Evaluate secondary data using specifications, error, currency, objectives, nature, and dependability criteria.

48) If the key variables have not been defined or are defined in a manner inconsistent with the researcher's definition, then the usefulness of the data is limited. This statement refers to the criteria for evaluating secondary data.

A) nature B) objective C) error/accuracy D) currency Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 97-98 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 4.3 Evaluate secondary data using specifications, error, currency, objectives, nature, and dependability criteria.

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49) You are reviewing secondary data to help with a project concerning consumer preferences for television programs based on viewer income. Which of the following statements would not be of concern when considering the nature criteria for evaluating secondary data?

A) The relationships examined should be taken into account.

B) Secondary data may be measured in units that may not be appropriate for the current problem.

C) The researcher must determine if the data are accurate enough for the purpose of the present study.

D) It is possible to reconfigure the available data so that the resulting data are more useful to the problem at hand.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 97 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 4.3 Evaluate secondary data using specifications, error, currency, objectives, nature, and dependability criteria.

50) An overall indication of the dependability of data may be obtained by examining the , credibility, reputation, and of the source.

A) accuracy; trustworthiness B) expertise; trustworthiness C) expertise; accuracy D) None of the above is correct.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 98 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 4.3 Evaluate secondary data using specifications, error, currency, objectives, nature, and dependability criteria.

51) Which of the following classifications of secondary data is not a classification for external secondary data (Figure 4.1 in the text)?

A) published materials B) computerized databases C) ready-to-use D) syndicated services Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 99 LO: 4.4 Describe in detail the different sources of secondary data, including internal sources and external sources in the form of business/non-government, government, and syndicated services.

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52) Creating a marketing database involves all of the following steps except .

A) transferring raw sales information to a microcomputer B) enhancing consumer purchase information by overlaying it with demographic and psychographic information C) analyzing information in terms of a customer's activity over the life of the business relationship D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 100 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 4.4 Describe in detail the different sources of secondary data, including internal sources and external sources in the form of business/non-government, government, and syndicated services.

53) The CRM system used by Chrysler is an example of .

A) directory databases B) database marketing C) audits D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 101 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 4.4 Describe in detail the different sources of secondary data, including internal sources and external sources in the form of business/non-government, government, and syndicated services.

54) Caterpillar needed to know what truck fleets should test their two new engines; how they could get a marketing strategy that could be measured; and how to adjust for the coming downturn in sales. To answer these questions, they gave their salesforce laptops and paid them to enter customer information related to each sale they made. Caterpillar analyzed the newly acquired customer data and developed strategies to address their marketing questions.

Caterpillar utilized .

A) secondary marketing B) external marketing C) database marketing D) internal marketing Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 101 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 4.4 Describe in detail the different sources of secondary data, including internal sources and external sources in the form of business/non-government, government, and syndicated services.

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55) Published external secondary data sources may be broadly classified as or sources (Figure 4.2 in the text).

A) public business; government B) general business; government C) general business; federal D) public business; federal Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 102 LO: 4.4 Describe in detail the different sources of secondary data, including internal sources and external sources in the form of business/non-government, government, and syndicated services.

56) are helpful for identifying individuals or organizations that collect specific data.

A) Directories B) Indexes C) Guides D) Statistical published data Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 102 LO: 4.4 Describe in detail the different sources of secondary data, including internal sources and external sources in the form of business/non-government, government, and syndicated services.

57) It is possible to locate information on a particular topic in several different publications by using .

A) directories B) indexes C) guides D) statistical published data Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 102 LO: 4.4 Describe in detail the different sources of secondary data, including internal sources and external sources in the form of business/non-government, government, and syndicated services.

58) Examples of other government publications available from the federal government include all of the following except .

A) Periodical Abstract B) World Factbook C) Bureau of Labor Statistics D) Bureau of Economic Analysis Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 102-104 LO: 4.4 Describe in detail the different sources of secondary data, including internal sources and external sources in the form of business/non-government, government, and syndicated services.

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59) databases provide information on individuals, organizations and services.

A) Special purpose B) Bibliographic C) Directory D) Numeric Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 102 LO: 4.4 Describe in detail the different sources of secondary data, including internal sources and external sources in the form of business/non-government, government, and syndicated services.

60) Which of the following is a disadvantage of audit services (Table 4.3 in the text)?

A) interviewer errors; respondent errors B) data is lacking in terms of content, quantity, and quality C) data may not be representative; quality of data limited D) coverage may be incomplete; matching of data on the competitive activity may be difficult Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 106 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

61) Which of the following is a disadvantage of surveys (Table 4.3 in the text)?

A) interviewer errors; respondent errors B) data is lacking in terms of content, quantity, and quality C) data may not be representative; quality of data limited D) coverage may be incomplete; matching of data on the competitive activity may be difficult Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 106 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

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62) Which of the following is a characteristic of purchase panels (Table 4.3 in the text)?

A) household purchases recorded through electronic scanners in supermarkets B) households provide specific information regularly over an extended period of time; respondents asked to record specific behaviors as they occur C) verification of product movement by examining physical records or performing inventory analysis D) data banks on industrial establishment created through direct inquiries of companies, clipping services, and corporate reports Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 106 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

63) Which of the following is a characteristic of audit services (Table 4.3 in the text)?

A) household purchases recorded through electronic scanners in supermarkets B) households provide specific information regularly over an extended period of time; respondents asked to record specific behaviors as they occur C) verification of product movement by examining physical records or performing inventory analysis D) data banks on industrial establishment created through direct inquiries of companies, clipping services, and corporate reports Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 106 LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

64) Surveys can be used for which of the following purposes?

A) to evaluate advertising B) to examine purchase and consumption behavior C) for market segmentation D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 106 LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

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65) G&R Research and Consulting) test ads using an at-home in-magazine context among widely dispersed samples. Test ads may naturally appear in the magazine or are inserted as tipins. It provides strong, validated measures of recall, persuasion, and ad reaction with responsive scheduling. The G&R is an example of surveys being used .

A) to evaluate advertising B) to examine purchase and consumption behavior C) for market segmentation D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 116 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

66) A data gathering technique that is comprised of samples of respondents whose television viewing behavior is automatically recorded by electronic devices, supplementing the purchase information recorded online or in a diary is referred to as .

A) scanner diary panels/cable TV B) scanner panels C) purchase panels D) media panels Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 109 LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

67) According to your text, volume tracking data and scanner panels with cable TV are sources of scanner data. Which of the following is also a type of scanner data?

A) grocery panels B) scanner panels C) Both A and B are correct.

D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 110 AACSB: Information technology LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

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68) Scanner data where panel members are identified by an ID card allowing each panel member's purchases to be stored with respect to the individual shopper are referred to as .

A) scanner panels with cable TV B) volume tracking data C) scanner panels D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 110 AACSB: Information technology LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

69) The different types of scanner data are useful for a variety of purposes. Which of the following purposes applies to scanner data?

A) data used for consumer beliefs B) data used for establishing consumer attitudes C) data used to determine customer motives D) making advertising decisions, including budget, copy and media, pricing Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 110-111 AACSB: Information technology LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

70) The uses of retail and wholesale audit data include all of the following except A) identifying shelf space allocation and inventory problems B) establishing profiles of specific user groups C) developing sales potentials and forecasts D) analyzing distribution problems Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 123 LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

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71) Information provided by industry services is useful for which of the following?

A) sales management decisions such as defining territories and setting quotas B) advertising decisions such as allocating advertising budgets C) segmenting the market and designing custom products and services for important segments D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 112 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

72) Sales & Marketing Management's annual Survey of Buying Power provides data to help you analyze each of your U.S. markets, whether they are cities, counties, metro areas, or states. What of the following information is also true of the Survey of Buying Power?

A) It features statistics, rankings, and projections for every county and media market in the United States with demographic broken out by age, race, city, county, and state.

B) It features information on retail spending; and projections for future growth in these areas.

C) It features a unique measure of spending power that takes population, EBI, and retail sales into account to determine a market's ability to buy.

D) All of the above are true.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: Not covered in the text AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 4.6 Explain the need to use multiple sources of secondary data and describe single-source data.

73) is an effort to combine data from different sources by gathering integrated information on household and marketing variables applicable to the same set of respondents.

A) Single-source data B) Demographic mapping C) Computer mapping D) Thematic mapping Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 113 LO: 4.6 Explain the need to use multiple sources of secondary data and describe single-source data.

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74) Which of the following concerns are important when evaluating secondary data for international projects?

A) Measurement units may not be equivalent across countries.

B) The accuracy of secondary data may vary from country to country.

C) Both A and B are correct.

D) None of the above are correct.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 114-115 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 4.8 Identify and evaluate the sources of secondary data useful in international marketing research.

75) Information gathered from social media is used to .

A) understand the market B) answer clients' concerns C) connect to consumers and potential participants D) conduct online research E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 116-117 AACSB: Information technology LO: 4.9 Discuss social media as a valuable source of secondary data.

76) Which of the following practices might be unethical?

A) the use of secondary data alone when the research requires primary data collection B) the client is billed a fixed fee for the project C) the unnecessary collection of expensive primary data when the research problem can be addressed based on secondary sources alone D) Both A and C are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 118 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 4.11 Understand the ethical issues involved in the use of secondary data.

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77) Regarding supermarket loyalty cards, a shopper provides demographic and shopping-related information when applying for the cards. At check-out, the UPC-coded loyalty cards are swiped prior to scanning the items for purchase. Typically, databases gather the list of items that are scanned at check-out and match them to the shopper's records.

A) Maintaining these databases reduce grocery-store profits by 11 percent each year.

B) In 2004, Congress proposed legislation limiting loyalty card programs.

C) The supermarkets' data from these loyalty programs cannot be sold to syndicated research firms.

D) Forty percent of supermarkets have reported increased sales as a result of implementing their loyalty card programs.

E) Most consumers are unaware that the supermarkets have all this information on them.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 118 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 4.11 Understand the ethical issues involved in the use of secondary data.

78) Protecting the privacy of respondents is an ethical principle .

A) applying to the contracts between clients and research agencies B) applying primarily to syndicate firms C) dealing with requests for social security numbers from respondents D) where retailers don't take title to goods until they are purchased by customers E) requiring researchers to avoid both uninformed and misinformed participation in marketing research projects Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 118 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 4.11 Understand the ethical issues involved in the use of secondary data.

79) Discuss the advantages and uses of secondary data.

Answer: Secondary data are easily accessible, relatively inexpensive, and quickly obtained.

Secondary data can help you: ∙ Identify the problem ∙ Better define the problem ∙ Develop an approach to the problem ∙ Formulate an appropriate research design (for example, by identifying the key variables) ∙ Answer certain research questions and test some hypotheses ∙ Interpret primary data more insightfully Diff: 2 Page Ref: 95 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 4.2 Analyze the advantages and disadvantages of secondary data and their uses in the various steps of the marketing research process.

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80) List the issues to be considered when evaluating secondary data using the specification/methodology criteria (Table 4.2 in the text).

Answer: ∙ Data collection ∙ Response rate ∙ Quality of data ∙ Sampling technique ∙ Sample size ∙ Questionnaire design ∙ Fieldwork ∙ Data analysis Diff: 3 Page Ref: 96 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 4.3 Evaluate secondary data using specifications, error, currency, objectives, nature, and dependability criteria.

81) List the criteria for evaluating secondary data (Table 4.2 in the text).

Answer: Secondary data should be evaluated on the following criteria which are fully described in Table 4.2 in the text. ∙ Specification/methodology ∙ Error/Accuracy ∙ Currency ∙ Objective ∙ Nature ∙ Dependability Diff: 3 Page Ref: 96 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 4.3 Evaluate secondary data using specifications, error, currency, objectives, nature, and dependability criteria.

82) What are the major advantages of secondary internal data?

Answer: Secondary internal data have two significant advantages. They are easily available and inexpensive. In fact, secondary sources are generally the least costly of any source of marketing research information; yet these data often are not fully exploited.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 99-100 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 4.4 Describe in detail the different sources of secondary data, including internal sources and external sources in the form of business/non-government, government, and syndicated services.

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83) What are purchase panels and media panels? Develop examples of marketing situations where you would use each. Be sure to explain the type of information you would collect and the makeup of the panel respondents.

Answer: In purchase panels respondents record their purchases online or in a diary. Media panels comprise samples of respondents whose television viewing behavior is automatically recorded by electronic devices supplementing the purchase information recorded online or in a diary.

Students should give their own examples. Completer information on the NPD Group and Nielsen Media Research examples given here are in the text.

NPD uses purchase panels to gather information on consumer behaviors on a wide range of product categories including food, fashion, fun, house and home, tech, and auto. Detailed information is gathered on the brand, amount purchased, price paid, intended use, and more. The composition of the panel is representative of the U.S. population as a whole. A 2005 study identified the top 5 women's accessory purchases.

Nielsen Media Research uses People Meters to measure audiences for local television 4 times a year in the 210 TV markets in the country. Viewers write in diaries who watched, what channel they watched, and what program they watched. Five thousand households are randomly selected

by Nielsen so as to be representative of the U.S. population. Using these data, Nielsen estimates the number and percentage of all TV household viewing a given show. The information is disaggregated by 10 demographic and socioeconomic characteristics. The Nielsen Index is useful to firms in selecting specific TV programs on which to air their commercials.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 108-109 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

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84) Discuss the disadvantages of different types of scanner data.

Answer: A major weakness of scanner data is lack of representativeness. National volume tracking data may not be projectable onto the total population, because only large supermarkets have scanners. Also, certain types of outlets, such as food warehouses and mass merchandisers, are excluded. Likewise, scanners have limited geographical dispersion and coverage.

The quality of scanner data may be limited by several factors. All products may not be scanned.

For example, a clerk may use the register to ring up a heavy item to avoid lifting it. If an item does not scan on the first try, the clerk may key in the price and ignore the bar code. Sometimes a consumer purchases many flavors of the same item, but the clerk scans only one package and then rings in the number of purchases. Thus, the transaction is inaccurately recorded. With respect to scanner panels, the system provides information on TV sets in use rather than actual viewing behavior. Although scanner data provide behavioral and sales information, they do not provide information on underlying attitudes, preferences, and reasons for specific choices.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 110-111 AACSB: Information technology LO: 4.5 Discuss in detail the syndicated sources of secondary data, including household/consumer data obtained via surveys, purchase and media panels, and electronic scanner services, as well as institutional data related to retailers, wholesalers, and industrial/service firms.

85) Discuss single-source data. What is it and how is it related to computer mapping?

Answer: It is desirable to combine secondary information obtained from different sources. One outcome of the effort to combine data from different sources is single-source data. Combining data allows the researcher to compensate for the weakness of one method with the strengths of another. Single-source research follows a person's TV, reading, and shopping habits. After recruiting a test panel of households, the research firm meters each home's TV sets and surveys family members periodically on what they read. Their grocery purchases are tracked by UPC scanners. For background, most systems also track retail data, such as sales, advertising, and promotion. Thus, single-source data provide integrated information on household variables, including media consumption and purchases, and marketing variables such as product sales, price, advertising, promotion, and in-store marketing effort.

Computer mapping is related to single-source data because they both combine secondary data from different sources. Computer mapping combines geography with demographic information and a company's sales data or other proprietary information to develop thematic maps.

Marketers now routinely make decisions based on these color-coded maps.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 113 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 4.6 Explain the need to use multiple sources of secondary data and describe single-source data.

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86) Briefly describe the role of mobile marketing research (MMR) in syndicated services.

Answer: Mobile marketing research (MMR) has been successfully employed for providing survey based syndicated services. This topic will be covered in more detail in Chapter 6.

Likewise, research firms maintaining mobile panels are equipped to provide panel based syndicated services. Mobile diaries can richly supplement paper-based diaries. Instead of asking respondents to write down what took place based on their memory, mobile diaries travel with the respondents, capturing in the moment experiences in the form of notes, images, and recordings.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 117 AACSB: Information technology LO: 4.10 Define the role of mobile marketing research in analyzing secondary data and in providing syndicated services.

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Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 5 Exploratory Research Design: Qualitative Research 1) Qualitative research is an unstructured, exploratory research methodology based on small samples that provides insights and understanding of the problem setting.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 127 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.1 Explain the difference between qualitative and quantitative research in terms of the objectives, sampling, data collection and analysis, and outcomes.

2) Quantitative research seeks to quantify the data and, typically, applies some form of statistical analysis.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 127 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.1 Explain the difference between qualitative and quantitative research in terms of the objectives, sampling, data collection and analysis, and outcomes.

3) The findings of qualitative research should be regarded as conclusive and used to make generalizations to the population of interest.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 127 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.1 Explain the difference between qualitative and quantitative research in terms of the objectives, sampling, data collection and analysis, and outcomes.

4) Qualitative research procedures are classified as either descriptive or causal.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 129 LO: 5.2 Understand the various forms of qualitative research, including direct procedures such as focus groups and depth interviews, and indirect methods such as projective techniques.

5) Projective techniques are different from focus groups and depth interview techniques in that projective techniques attempt to disguise the purpose of the research.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 129 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.2 Understand the various forms of qualitative research, including direct procedures such as focus groups and depth interviews, and indirect methods such as projective techniques.

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6) The main purpose of focus groups is to gain insights by listening to a group of people from the appropriate target market talk about issues of interest to the researcher.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 129 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.2 Understand the various forms of qualitative research, including direct procedures such as focus groups and depth interviews, and indirect methods such as projective techniques.

7) An indirect qualitative projective technique is best to use when conducting research to determine what milk drinkers prefer to eat with their milk.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 129 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.2 Understand the various forms of qualitative research, including direct procedures such as focus groups and depth interviews, and indirect methods such as projective techniques.

8) A focus group generally includes 10 to 16 members.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 130 LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

9) A focus group should be homogeneous in terms of demographic and socioeconomic characteristics.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 130 LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

10) Typical information obtained from the screening questionnaire includes product familiarity and knowledge, usage behavior, attitudes toward and participation in focus groups, and standard demographic characteristics.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 130-131 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

11) Use of a moderator's outline reduces some of the validity problems inherent in focus groups, such as those caused by different moderators not covering the same content areas in comparable ways.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 132 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

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12) The number of focus groups that should be conducted on a single subject depends upon (1) the nature of the issue, (2) the number of distinct market segments, (3) the number of new ideas generated by each successive group, and (4) time and cost.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 135 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

13) Resources permitting, one should conduct additional focus groups until the participants can anticipate what will be said.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 135 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

14) Telesession groups are focus group sessions by Internet using chat rooms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 136 LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

15) Synergism, snowballing, simulation, and security are some of the advantages of focus groups.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 136 LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

16) One advantage of focus groups is synergism which results because the participants' feelings are similar to those of other group members; they feel comfortable and therefore willing to express their ideas and feelings.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 136 LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

17) One advantage of focus groups is serendipity because ideas are more likely to arise out of the blue in a group than in an individual interview.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 136 LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

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18) Focus groups can be misused and abused by considering the results as conclusive.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 137 LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

19) The quality of focus group results depends heavily on the skills of the moderator.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 137 LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

20) A disadvantage of focus groups is that the unstructured nature of the responses makes coding, analysis, and interpretation difficult.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 137 LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

21) Focus groups can be used to address substantive issues such as deciding on alternative courses of action.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 137 LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

22) Unlike traditional focus groups, online focus group participation is by invitation only.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 138 LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

23) Participants in online focus groups receive a time, a URL, a room name, and a password via e-mail.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 138 LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

24) The cost of online focus groups is much less than for traditional focus groups. Firms are able to keep costs between one-fifth and one-half the cost of traditional focus groups.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 139 LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

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25) Only audio and visual stimuli can be tested via online focus groups.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 139 LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

26) Online focus group participants don't have the potential to be distracted by external stimuli.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 139 LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

27) Online focus groups are appropriate for every research situation.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 139 LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

28) There are fewer people in an online focus group than in a traditional focus group (Table 5.3 in the text).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 139 LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

29) During depth interviews, probing is of critical importance in obtaining meaningful responses and uncovering hidden issues.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 140 LO: 5.4 Describe depth interview techniques in detail, citing their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

30) Laddering requires interviewers to be trained in specific probing techniques in order to develop a meaningful "mental map" of the consumer's view toward a target product.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 141 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.4 Describe depth interview techniques in detail, citing their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

31) Symbolic analysis attempts to analyze the symbolic meaning of objects by comparing them with their opposites.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 141 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.4 Describe depth interview techniques in detail, citing their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

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32) Depth interviews uncover less depth of insights than focus groups.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 140 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.4 Describe depth interview techniques in detail, citing their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

33) In role playing, the researcher assumes that the respondents will project their own feelings into the role.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 144 LO: 5.5 Explain projective techniques in detail and compare association, completion, construction, and expressive techniques.

34) Projective techniques generally require personal interviews with highly trained interviewers.

This is an advantage of projective techniques.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 144 LO: 5.5 Explain projective techniques in detail and compare association, completion, construction, and expressive techniques.

35) Data determination is one of the three general steps that should be followed when analyzing qualitative data.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 151 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.6 Discuss the considerations involved in conducting qualitative research in an international setting.

36) Qualitative research may reveal the differences between the foreign and domestic markets.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 153 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 5.6 Discuss the considerations involved in conducting qualitative research in an international setting.

37) Just being a part of different types of social media and analyzing what people are talking about cannot yield a basic understanding of customers.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 153-154 AACSB: Information technology LO: 5.7 Describe the use of social media in obtaining and analyzing qualitative data.

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38) Private online communities can play the role of extended focus groups.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 154 AACSB: Information technology LO: 5.7 Describe the use of social media in obtaining and analyzing qualitative data.

39) A way to conduct a focus group type of research on social media involves participant blogs.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 154 AACSB: Information technology LO: 5.7 Describe the use of social media in obtaining and analyzing qualitative data.

40) It is not possible to conduct depth interview using social media.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 155 AACSB: Information technology LO: 5.7 Describe the use of social media in obtaining and analyzing qualitative data.

41) The structured and direct form of questioning on social media has consumers willing to project their underlying thoughts, motivations, and feelings regarding the issues of concern.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 154-155 AACSB: Information technology LO: 5.7 Describe the use of social media in obtaining and analyzing qualitative data.

42) GlaxoSmithKline Consumer Healthcare used the picture response technique in social media to closely define the customer base for its new line of Alli weight-loss products.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 155 AACSB: Information technology LO: 5.7 Describe the use of social media in obtaining and analyzing qualitative data.

43) Often the amount of information generated while conducting qualitative research in social media can be rather limited.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 155 AACSB: Information technology LO: 5.7 Describe the use of social media in obtaining and analyzing qualitative data.

44) Focus groups, depth interviews, and projective techniques can be implemented over the Internet.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 154-155 AACSB: Information technology LO: 5.8 Explain how qualitative research is conducted in mobile marketing research.

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45) To minimize negative effects that may arise from disguising the purpose of the qualitative research, the respondents should be informed up front that the true purpose of the research is being disguised so as not to bias the responses.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 157 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 5.9 Understand the ethical issues involved in conducting qualitative research.

46) Baby boomers are a large consumer target for many products and "show and tell" focus groups are being used by consumer researchers. Which of the following statements is not true about "show and tell" focus groups?

A) Respondents' attitudes are uncovered by analyzing their responses to scenarios that are deliberately unstructured, vague, and ambiguous.

B) They provide the needed insight into the core values boomers hold close to their hearts.

C) Participants bring in three or four items that represent their ideal environment.

D) Group discussion is centered on the items brought in for "show and tell."

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 125-126 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.1 Explain the difference between qualitative and quantitative research in terms of the objectives, sampling, data collection and analysis, and outcomes.

47) Whenever a new marketing research problem is being addressed, research must be preceded by appropriate research.

A) qualitative; quantitative B) observational; experimental C) quantitative; qualitative D) experimental; observational Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 127 LO: 5.1 Explain the difference between qualitative and quantitative research in terms of the objectives, sampling, data collection and analysis, and outcomes.

48) According to Table 5.1 in the text, which of the following does not apply to qualitative research?

A) a small number of nonrepresentative cases B) non-statistical data analysis C) unstructured form of data collection D) outcome is used to recommend a final course of action Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 127 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.1 Explain the difference between qualitative and quantitative research in terms of the objectives, sampling, data collection and analysis, and outcomes.

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49) There are several reasons to use qualitative research. Which of the following is not a reason to use qualitative research?

A) It is not always possible, or desirable, to use fully structured or formal methods to obtain information from respondents.

B) People may be unwilling or unable to answer certain questions.

C) People are unwilling to give truthful answers to questions that invade their privacy, embarrass them, or have a negative impact on their ego or status.

D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 127-128 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.1 Explain the difference between qualitative and quantitative research in terms of the objectives, sampling, data collection and analysis, and outcomes.

50) The is one type of qualitative research in which the purposes of the project are disclosed to the respondent or are obvious, given the nature of the interview.

A) indirect approach B) direct approach C) focus group approach D) descriptive approach Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 127-128 LO: 5.2 Understand the various forms of qualitative research, including direct procedures such as focus groups and depth interviews, and indirect methods such as projective techniques.

51) An interview conducted by a trained moderator among a small group of respondents in an unstructured and natural manner is a(n) .

A) depth interview B) projective technique C) association technique D) focus group Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 120 LO: 5.2 Understand the various forms of qualitative research, including direct procedures such as focus groups and depth interviews, and indirect methods such as projective techniques.

52) Focus groups are a(n) research procedure and projective techniques are a(n) research procedure.

A) experimental; direct B) indirect; direct C) direct; experimental D) direct; indirect Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 129 LO: 5.2 Understand the various forms of qualitative research, including direct procedures such as focus groups and depth interviews, and indirect methods such as projective techniques.

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53) are the most important qualitative research procedure.

A) Focus groups B) Depth interviews C) Projective techniques D) Association techniques Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 129 LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

54) Which of the following is not one of the key qualifications of focus group moderators?

A) joviality B) kindness with firmness C) flexibility D) sensitivity Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 130 LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

55) The procedure for planning and conducting focus groups is described in Figure 5.3 in the text. Planning begins with .

A) specifying the objectives of qualitative research B) writing a screening questionnaire C) developing a moderator's guide D) determining objectives of the marketing research project and defining the problem Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 131 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

56) Constructing a detailed moderator's outline for use during the focus group interviews involves extensive discussions among the , , and .

A) researcher; moderator; and respondents.

B) researcher; client; moderator.

C) researcher; client; respondent.

D) client; respondent; moderator.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 132 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

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57) The Real Research Mall of Atlanta focus group example in the text used focus groups to uncover .

A) information on the mall visit experience B) information on mall brand identity versus other malls C) information on the brand value of the mall D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 134 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

58) It is recommended that at least focus groups be conducted.

A) two B) three C) four D) five Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 135 LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

59) A focus group interview conducted by two moderators where one moderator is responsible for the smooth flow of the session, and the other ensures that specific issues are discussed is called a .

A) two-way focus group B) dueling-moderator group C) dual-moderator group D) respondent-moderator group Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 136 LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

60) Focus groups can use several variations of the standard procedure. Which of the following is not one of the variations mentioned in your text?

A) respondent-moderator group B) client-participant group C) tag-team moderator group D) mini-group Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 135-136 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

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61) A focus group interview conducted by two moderators where the moderators deliberately take opposite positions on the issues to be discussed is called a .

A) dueling-moderator group B) two-way focus group C) dual-moderator group D) respondent-moderator group Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 136 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

62) One of the findings of the Mall of Atlanta focus group research mentioned in the text was that respondents who go to the mall for entertainment try to hold costs to under $30, except for special occasions. The client reviewed this information and decided to design a mall experience package that would cost $29.95 The client has fallen victim to which disadvantage of focus groups?

A) misuse B) misrepresentation C) messy D) Both A and B are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 134-135 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

63) Which of the following is a methodological application of focus groups?

A) obtaining impressions of new product concepts B) generating alternative courses of action C) Both B and D are correct.

D) generating hypotheses that can be tested quantitatively Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 137 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

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64) Focus groups can be used to address substantive issues such as .

A) defining a problem more precisely B) generating new ideas about older products C) developing an approach to a problem D) interpreting previously obtained quantitative results Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 137 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

65) Which statement is not true about online focus groups?

A) The group interaction lasts for about an hour.

B) The general practice is for moderators to pose their questions in all capital letters and the respondents to respond using upper and lower case.

C) The whole process is much faster than the traditional method.

D) To enter the online focus group, participants must supply the room name, user name, and password to the moderator via email.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 138-139 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

66) Which of the following statements is not an advantage of online focus groups?

A) The researcher can reach segments that are usually hard to survey.

B) Researchers can re-contact group participants at a later date.

C) The cost of the online focus group is much less.

D) Only people that have and know how to use a computer can participate.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 138-139 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

67) Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of online focus groups?

A) Moderators may also be able to carry on side conversations with individual respondents, probing deeper into interesting areas.

B) It can be difficult to verify that a respondent is a member of a target group.

C) Only audio and visual stimuli can be tested.

D) Only people that have and know how to use a computer can participate.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 138-139 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

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68) Which of the situations mentioned below is not suitable for online focus groups?

A) highly emotional issues B) companies that use the Internet to sell products or services and want to either gain market share or gather intelligence C) corporations that want to gather feedback on workplace issues like downsizing, job changes, and diversity D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 138-139 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

69) A is an unstructured, direct, personal interview in which a single respondent is probed by a highly skilled interviewer to uncover underlying motivations, beliefs, attitudes, and feelings on a topic.

A) focus group B) qualitative interview C) projective interview D) depth interview Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 140-141 LO: 5.4 Describe depth interview techniques in detail, citing their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

70) Depth interviews are like focus group in all of the following ways except .

A) both are unstructured interviews B) both are direct ways of obtaining information C) both are qualitative research methods D) both are one-on-one interviews Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 140-141 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.4 Describe depth interview techniques in detail, citing their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

71) "Why do you say that?", "That's interesting, can you tell me more?" or, "Would you like to add anything else?" are examples of .

A) focusing B) projecting C) probing D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 140-141 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.4 Describe depth interview techniques in detail, citing their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

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72) is a technique for conducting depth interviews in which a line of questioning proceeds from product characteristics to user characteristics.

A) Hidden issue questioning B) Symbolic analysis C) Laddering D) None of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 141 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.4 Describe depth interview techniques in detail, citing their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

73) In a study the researcher was investigating attitudes toward airlines among male middle managers. Each airline attribute, such as wide-body aircrafts, was probed (why do you like to travel in wide-body aircrafts?) to determine why it was important (I can get more work done) and then that reason was probed (I accomplish more), and so on (I feel good about myself). The depth interview techniques used in the study is called .

A) hidden issue questioning B) symbolic analysis C) laddering D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 141 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.4 Describe depth interview techniques in detail, citing their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

74) In a study the researcher was investigating attitudes toward airlines among male middle managers. Questions asked included, "What would it be like if you could no longer use airplanes?" Responses like, "Without planes, I would have to rely on e-mail, letters, and telephone calls" were received. This suggests that what airlines sell to the managers is face-toface communication. The depth interview techniques used in the study is called .

A) hidden issue questioning B) symbolic analysis C) laddering D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 141 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.4 Describe depth interview techniques in detail, citing their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

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75) is a type of depth interview that attempts to locate personal sore spots related to deeply felt personal concerns.

A) Hidden issue questioning B) Symbolic analysis C) Laddering D) None of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 141 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.4 Describe depth interview techniques in detail, citing their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

76) is a technique for conducting depth interviews in which the symbolic meaning of objects is analyzed by comparing them with their opposites.

A) Hidden issue questioning B) Symbolic analysis C) Laddering D) None of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 141 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.4 Describe depth interview techniques in detail, citing their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

77) In a depth interview, the interviewer should .

A) avoid appearing superior and put the respondent at ease B) be detached and objective, yet personable C) probe the respondent D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 140-141 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.4 Describe depth interview techniques in detail, citing their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

78) In a depth interview, the interviewer should .

A) not accept brief "yes" or "no" answers B) not probe the respondent C) ask questions in an informative manner D) A and C are both correct Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 153-156140-141 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.4 Describe depth interview techniques in detail, citing their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

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79) Depth interviews suffer from many of the disadvantages of focus groups and often to a greater extent. Which of the following disadvantages is not shared with focus groups?

A) Skilled interviewers capable of conducting depth interviews are expensive and difficult to find.

B) The lack of structure makes the results susceptible to the interviewer's influence.

C) The data obtained are difficult to analyze and interpret.

D) All of the above are shared with focus groups.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 141-142 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.4 Describe depth interview techniques in detail, citing their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

80) A(n) is an unstructured, indirect form of questioning that encourages respondents to project their underlying motivations, beliefs, attitudes, or feelings regarding the issues of concern.

A) projective technique B) focus group C) association technique D) depth interview Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 144 LO: 5.5 Explain projective techniques in detail and compare association, completion, construction, and expressive techniques.

81) In , an individual is presented with a stimulus and asked to respond with the first thing that comes to mind.

A) completion techniques B) focus groups C) association techniques D) depth interviews Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 144 LO: 5.5 Explain projective techniques in detail and compare association, completion, construction, and expressive techniques.

82) Word association is the best known of the techniques.

A) expressive B) association C) completion D) construction Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 144 LO: 5.5 Explain projective techniques in detail and compare association, completion, construction, and expressive techniques.

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83) With respondents are presented with a list of words, one at a time. After each word, they are asked to give the first word that comes to mind.

A) word association B) sentence completion C) story completion D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 144 LO: 5.5 Explain projective techniques in detail and compare association, completion, construction, and expressive techniques.

84) In word association, responses are analyzed by calculating .

A) the frequency with which any word is given as a response B) the amount of time that elapses before a response is given C) the number of respondents who do not respond at all to a test word within a reasonable period of time D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 144-145 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.5 Explain projective techniques in detail and compare association, completion, construction, and expressive techniques.

85) is a projective technique that requires the respondent to complete an incomplete stimulus situation.

A) Association technique B) Expressive technique C) Construction technique D) Completion technique Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 145-146 LO: 5.5 Explain projective techniques in detail and compare association, completion, construction, and expressive techniques.

86) is a projective technique in which respondents are presented with a number of incomplete sentences and asked to complete them.

A) Word association B) Sentence completion C) Story completion D) Expression completion Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 146 LO: 5.5 Explain projective techniques in detail and compare association, completion, construction, and expressive techniques.

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87) is a projective technique in which the respondents are provided with part of a story and required to give the conclusion in their own words.

A) Word association B) Sentence completion C) Story completion D) Expression completion Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 146 LO: 5.5 Explain projective techniques in detail and compare association, completion, construction, and expressive techniques.

88) require the respondent to construct a response in the form of a story, dialogue, or description.

A) Association techniques B) Expressive techniques C) Construction techniques D) Impression techniques Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 147 LO: 5.5 Explain projective techniques in detail and compare association, completion, construction, and expressive techniques.

89) In , cartoon characters are shown in a specific situation related to the problem. The respondents are asked to indicate what one cartoon character might say in response to the comments of another character.

A) picture response techniques B) cartoon tests C) third-person techniques D) role playing Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 148 LO: 5.5 Explain projective techniques in detail and compare association, completion, construction, and expressive techniques.

90) The two main expressive techniques are and .

A) role playing; word association B) role playing; third-person technique C) word association; sentence completion D) third-person technique; word association Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 148 LO: 5.5 Explain projective techniques in detail and compare association, completion, construction, and expressive techniques.

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91) is a projective technique in which the respondent is presented with a verbal or visual situation and asked to relate the beliefs and attitudes of a third person to the situation.

A) Role playing B) Sentence completion C) Cartoon test D) Third-person technique Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 149 LO: 5.5 Explain projective techniques in detail and compare association, completion, construction, and expressive techniques.

92) In , respondents are asked to play the role or assume the behavior of someone else.

A) role playing B) sentence completion C) cartoon test D) third-party technique Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 149 LO: 5.5 Explain projective techniques in detail and compare association, completion, construction, and expressive techniques.

93) Projective techniques are used less frequently than unstructured direct methods (focus groups and depth interviews). A possible exception may be , which is used commonly to test brand names and occasionally to measure attitudes about particular products, brands, packages, or advertisements.

A) story completion B) word association C) sentence completion D) cartoon tests Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 149-150 LO: 5.5 Explain projective techniques in detail and compare association, completion, construction, and expressive techniques.

94) Which of the following guidelines does not enhance the usefulness of projective techniques?

A) Projective techniques should be used because the required information cannot be accurately obtained by direct methods.

B) Projective techniques should be used for exploratory research to gain initial insights and understanding.

C) Given their complexity, projective techniques should not be used naively.

D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 150 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.5 Explain projective techniques in detail and compare association, completion, construction, and expressive techniques.

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95) When conducting international marketing research, focus group moderators should not only be trained in focus group methodology but should also be familiar with the of the country.

A) language B) culture C) patterns of social interaction D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 153 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 5.6 Discuss the considerations involved in conducting qualitative research in an international setting.

96) Which of the following is not an ethical issue of concern to the researcher?

A) disguising the purpose of the research and the use of deceptive procedures B) videotaping and recording the proceedings C) comfort level of the respondents D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 157 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 5.9 Understand the ethical issues involved in conducting qualitative research.

97) The presidential elections were cited in your text for negative attacks by both the Republican and Democratic parties. The negative attacks were based on qualitative marketing research used to help design the messages. Which ethical concern is this use of marketing research related to?

A) disguising the purpose of the research and the use of deceptive procedures B) using qualitative research for questionable purposes C) comfort level of the respondents D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 157-158 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 5.9 Understand the ethical issues involved in conducting qualitative research.

98) is one of the three general steps that should be followed when analyzing qualitative data. In this step, the researcher chooses which aspects of the data are emphasized, minimized, or set aside for the project at hand.

A) Data display B) Data reduction C) Data determination D) Conclusion drawing and verification Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 151 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.10 Discuss the use of the Internet and computers in obtaining and analyzing qualitative data.

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99) is one of the three general steps that should be followed when analyzing qualitative data. In this step, the researcher develops a visual interpretation of the data with the use of such tools as a diagram, chart or matrix.

A) Data display B) Data reduction C) Data determination D) Conclusion drawing and verification Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 151 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.10 Discuss the use of the Internet and computers in obtaining and analyzing qualitative data.

100) is one of the three general steps that should be followed when analyzing qualitative data. In this step, the researcher considers the meaning of analyzed data and assesses its implications for the research question at hand.

A) Data display B) Data reduction C) Data determination D) Conclusion drawing and verification Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 151 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.10 Discuss the use of the Internet and computers in obtaining and analyzing qualitative data.

101) Discuss the five themes qualitative research has uncovered about baby boomers. Why is this type of research important?

Answer: 1. Quality family life is a major concern.

2. Keeping in touch with friends is an integral element of the boomer lifestyle.

3. Taking time to get away from the hassles of everyday life in the form of "getaway vacations" with family and friends helps to maintain firm understanding of what is important in life and recharge dying batteries.

4. Spiritual and physical fitness are important in leading a full, well-balanced life.

5. No such thing as a mid-life. Life is too short to dwell on successes or failures.

This type of research is invaluable in designing advertising and promotional campaigns. It provides the necessary foundation for appealing to those values that are most important to the boomer and to those values that are most likely to stimulate their buying behavior.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 125-126 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.1 Explain the difference between qualitative and quantitative research in terms of the objectives, sampling, data collection and analysis, and outcomes.

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102) Compare and contrast qualitative and quantitative research (Table 5.1 in the text) Answer: The differences in the two methodologies are summarized in Table 5.1 in the text.

The objective of qualitative research is to gain qualitative understanding of the underlying reasons and motivations while the objective of quantitative research is to quantify the data and generalize the results from the sample to the population of interest.

Samples used in qualitative research consist of small and nonrepresentative cases while those used in quantitative research consist of large and representative cases.

The data collection for qualitative research is unstructured while quantitative research is structured.

Qualitative research utilizes nonstatistical data analysis and quantitative research utilizes statistical data analysis. The outcome for qualitative research is to develop an initial understanding. The outcome for quantitative research is to recommend a final course of action.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 127 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.1 Explain the difference between qualitative and quantitative research in terms of the objectives, sampling, data collection and analysis, and outcomes.

103) You are deciding which approach would be best to use to determine what milk drinkers consider the best food to accompany a glass of milk. Which qualitative technique would you choose and why?

Answer: The student should choose a direct approach such as focus groups or depth interviews.

There is no need to disguise the purpose of the project. There is also no reason that most people would be unwilling or unable to respond to questions on what they eat with milk.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 150 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.2 Understand the various forms of qualitative research, including direct procedures such as focus groups and depth interviews, and indirect methods such as projective techniques.

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104) Discuss the characteristics of focus groups (Table 5.2 in the text). List at least four (4) characteristics and explain why it is important to consider each characteristic.

Answer: Characteristics of focus groups are summarized in Table 5.2 in the text.

1) Group size 8 to 12 - groups of fewer than eight are unlikely to generate the momentum and group dynamics necessary for a successful session. Groups of more than 12 may be too crowded and may not be conducive to a cohesive and natural discussion.

2) Group composition - Homogeneous; respondents prescreened - commonality among group members avoids interactions and conflicts among group members on side issues.

3) Physical setting - Relaxed, informal atmosphere - encourages spontaneous comments.

4) Time duration - 1 to 3 hours - needed to establish rapport with the participants and explore, in depth, their beliefs, feelings, ideas, attitudes, and insights regarding the topic of concern.

5) Recording - Use of audiocassettes and videotapes - videotaping has the advantage of recording facial expressions and body movements, but it can increase the costs significantly. Video transmission technology enables the clients to observe focus group sessions live from a remote location.

6) Moderator - Observational, interpersonal, and communication skills of the moderator moderator must establish rapport with the participants, keep the discussion moving forward, and probe the respondents to elicit insights. In addition the moderator may have a central role in the analysis and interpretation of the data.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 130-131 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

105) Why is the online focus group process faster to analyze than the traditional method?

Answer: The online focus group process is faster to analyze than the traditional focus group method because respondents are asked to always start their response with the question number, so the moderator can quickly tie the response to the proper question. This makes it fast and easy to transcribe a focus group session. The group interaction lasts for about an hour. A raw transcript is available as soon as the group is completed, and a formatted transcript is available within 48 hours.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 138-139 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

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106) Discuss the advantages of online focus groups.

Answer: People all over the country and the world can participate and the client can observe the group from the convenience of the home or office. Geographical constraints are removed and time constraints are lessened. You have the unique opportunity to contact group participants again at a later date, to revisit issues, or introduce them to modifications in material presented in the original focus group. The Internet enables the researcher to reach segments that are usually hard to survey: doctors, lawyers, professionals, working mothers, and others who lead busy lives and are not interested in taking part in traditional focus groups. Moderators may also be able to carry on side conversations with individual respondents, probing deeper into interesting areas.

Because there is no travel videotaping, or facilities to arrange, the cost is much lower than for traditional focus groups.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 138-139 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

107) Discuss the disadvantages of online focus groups.

Answer: Only people that have and know how to use a computer can be surveyed online.

Because the name of an individual on the Internet is often private, actually verifying that a respondent is a member of a target group is difficult. To overcome this limitation, other traditional methods such as telephone calls are used for recruitment and verification of respondents.

Another factor that must be considered is the lack of general control over the respondent's environment and their potential exposure to distracting external stimuli. Because online focus groups could potentially have respondents scattered all over the world, the researchers and moderator(s) have no idea what else the respondents may be doing while participating in the group. Only audio and visual stimuli can be tested. Products cannot be touched (e.g., clothing) or smelled (e.g., perfumes).

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 138-139 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.3 Describe focus groups in detail, with emphasis on planning and conducting focus groups and their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

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108) List at least five (5) applications of depth interviews. Give a specific example of each.

Answer: Depth interview applications include all of the following: 1. Detailed probing of the respondent (automobile purchase) 2. Discussion of confidential, sensitive, or embarrassing topics (personal finances, loose dentures) 3. Situations where strong social norms exist and the respondent may be easily swayed by group response (attitude of college students toward sports) 4. Detailed understanding of complicated behavior (department store shopping) 5. Interviews with professional people (industrial marketing research) 6. Interviews with competitors, who are unlikely to reveal the information in a group setting (travel agents' perceptions of airline package travel programs) 7. Situations where the product consumption experience is sensory in nature, affecting mood states and emotions (perfumes, bath soap) Students should provide their own examples.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 143 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.4 Describe depth interview techniques in detail, citing their advantages, disadvantages, and applications.

109) Discuss the major advantage of projective techniques over the unstructured direct techniques (focus groups and depth interviews).

Answer: Projective techniques have a major advantage over the unstructured direct techniques (focus groups and depth interviews): they may elicit responses that subjects would be unwilling or unable to give if they knew the purpose of the study. At times, in direct questioning, the respondent may intentionally or unintentionally misunderstand, misinterpret, or mislead the researcher. In these cases, projective techniques can increase the validity of responses by disguising the purpose. This is particularly true when the issues to be addressed are personal, sensitive, or subject to strong social norms.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 149 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 5.5 Explain projective techniques in detail and compare association, completion, construction, and expressive techniques.

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110) Because the researcher is often not familiar with the foreign product market to be examined, qualitative research is crucial in international marketing research. Discuss the issues a company should consider before using projective techniques in international marketing research.

Answer: Because the researcher is often not familiar with the foreign product market to be examined, qualitative research is crucial in international marketing research. The use of projective techniques in international marketing research should be carefully considered.

Association techniques, completion techniques, and expressive techniques involve the use of verbal cues. Construction techniques employ nonverbal stimuli (pictures). Whether verbal or nonverbal stimuli are used, the equivalence of meaning across the cultures should be established.

This can be a difficult task if the socio-cultural environments in which the research is conducted vary greatly. Establishing the equivalence of pictures can be particularly problematic. Line drawings are subject to fewer problems of interpretation than photographs. The specific techniques that are used and how the results are communicated should take into account the cultural aspects and the nature of the problem being addressed.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 153 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 5.6 Discuss the considerations involved in conducting qualitative research in an international setting.

111) Briefly discuss the role of qualitative techniques in mobile market research.

Answer: Mobile market research (MMR) can be appropriate for certain types of qualitative research including focus groups, depth interviews, and many of the projective techniques. The online versions of these techniques can, in a similar manner, be implemented on the mobile web.

The majority of online focus groups are text-based making less demand on bandwidth, which make them suitable for MMR. In such cases, respondents can participate from a wider range of places, and in the case of asynchronous discussions, contribute at a time of their choosing. In addition, mobile devices can be used to augment and enhance the way in which qualitative research techniques are traditionally conducted.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 156-157 AACSB: Information technology LO: 5.8 Explain how qualitative research is conducted in mobile marketing research.

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112) Identify and discuss the ethical issues related to the respondents and the general public that may be of concern in qualitative research.

Answer: Ethical issues related to the respondents and the general public are of primary concern.

These issues include: 1. Disguising the purpose of the research and the use of deceptive procedures - All indirect procedures require disguising the purpose of the research, at least to some extent. Often, a cover story is used to camouflage the true purpose. This can not only violate the respondent's right to know but also result in psychological harm. To minimize such negative effects, the respondents should be informed up front that the true purpose of the research is being disguised so as not to bias the responses. After completing the research tasks, debriefing sessions should be held in which the respondents are informed about the true purpose and given opportunities to make comments or ask questions. Deceptive procedures that violate respondents' right to privacy and informed consent should be avoided.

2. Videotaping or audio-taping the respondents without their prior knowledge or consent Ethical guidelines suggest that respondents should be informed and their consent obtained prior to the start of the proceedings, preferably at the time of recruitment. Furthermore, at the end of the meeting, participants should be asked to sign a written statement conveying their permission to use the recording. This statement should disclose the true purpose of the research and all people who will have access to the recording. Participants should be given an opportunity to refuse signing. The tapes should be edited to completely omit the identity and comments of the respondents who have refused.

3. Comfort level of the respondents - During qualitative research, particularly during in-depth interviews, respondents should not be pushed beyond a point so as to make them uncomfortable.

Respect for the respondent's welfare should warrant restraint on the part of the moderator or interviewer. If a respondent feels uncomfortable and does not wish to answer more questions on a particular topic, the interviewer should not aggressively probe further.

4. A final issue relates to the general public and deals with the ethics of using qualitative research results for questionable purposes or misusing the findings of qualitative research.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 157 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 5.9 Understand the ethical issues involved in conducting qualitative research.

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Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 6 Descriptive Research Design: Survey and Observation 1) With the survey method of obtaining information respondents are asked a variety of questions regarding their behavior, intentions, attitudes, awareness, motivations, and demographic and lifestyle characteristics.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 167 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

2) In structured data collection, a formal questionnaire is prepared and the questions are asked in a prearranged order; thus the process is also direct. Direct means that the purpose of the project is not disclosed to the respondents.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 167 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

3) The most popular data-collection method is the structured direct survey.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 167 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

4) Survey questionnaires may be administered in four major modes: (1) telephone interview, (2) personal interviews, (3) mall interviews, and (4) electronic interviews (Figure 6.1 in the text).

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 168 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

5) With computer automated telephone surveying, human intervention is needed to record the questions to be asked during the phone survey.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 170 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

6) In the traditional mail interview, questionnaires are mailed to random potential respondents.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 172-173 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

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7) A mail panel consists of a large, nationally representative sample of businesses that have agreed to participate in periodic mail questionnaires and product tests.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 174 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

8) Because of the mail panel members' commitment, the response rates can approach 80 percent.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 174 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

9) Mail panels can be used to obtain information from the same respondents repeatedly.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 174 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

10) Electronic surveys can be conducted by e-mail or administered on the Internet or the Web. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 174 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

11) To conduct an e-mail survey, the survey is written within the body of the e-mail message.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 174 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

12) Not all survey methods are appropriate in a given situation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 176 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

13) If the use of physical stimuli is necessary, such as the product, a product prototype, commercials, or promotional displays during the interview, in-home interviews are preferable to personal interviews conducted at central locations (mall intercept and CAPI).

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 177 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

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14) Telephones offer access to geographically dispersed respondents and hard to reach areas.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 177 LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

15) A sampling frame is a representation of the elements of the target population. It consists of a list or set of directions for identifying the target population.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 179 LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

16) The random digit dialing (rdd) technique is used to overcome the bias of business and recent numbers.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 179 LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

17) Personal interviews conducted at central locations (mall intercept and CAPI) offer the least degree of environmental control.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 177 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

18) Mail surveys, mail panels, e-mail, and Internet surveys require a large field force.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 177 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

19) Less effort is required of the respondent in a personal interview than in a telephone or mail interview.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 177 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

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20) The potential for non-response bias increases as the response rate decreases.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 180-181 LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

21) Computer assisted personal interviews tend to be the most expensive mode of data collection per completed response.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 177 LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

22) The various data-collection modes are mutually exclusive.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 184 LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

23) Unstructured observation is most appropriate for conclusive research.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 185-186 LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

24) In unstructured observation, potential for observer bias is high. For this reason, the observation findings should be treated as hypotheses to be tested rather than as conclusive findings.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 185-186 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

25) An example of structured observation would be an auditor performing inventory analysis in a store.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 185-186 LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

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26) Observing children playing with new toys is an example of unstructured observation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 185-186 LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

27) A primary method of observation using the Internet is to count the number of times a Web page is visited.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 187-188 LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

28) Voice pitch analysis measures emotional reactions through changes in the respondent's voice and is a type of mechanical observation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 187-188 LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

29) Response latency is used as a measure of the relative preference for various alternatives.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 187-188 LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

30) Generally, the pantry audit is conducted in conjunction with one of the survey methods.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 189 LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

31) The pantry audit is a type of audit where the researcher inventories the brands, quantities, and package sizes of products in a consumer's home.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 189 LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

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32) Content analysis could be profitably employed in the analysis of structured questions.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 189-190 LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

33) It is best to view observation as a complement to survey methods, rather than as being in competition with them.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 192-193 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

34) The collection of survey data through social media sites can be automated, but does not allow the researcher to customize reach to various segments of consumers.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 197-198 AACSB: Information technology LO: 6.7 Explain how social media can be used to implement survey and observation methods.

35) A limitation is that online surveys conducted through social media platforms do not encourage committed and credible feedback.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 197-198 AACSB: Information technology LO: 6.7 Explain how social media can be used to implement survey and observation methods.

36) Analysis of the comments, photos, videos, audio, and other stimuli posted voluntarily by consumers on their social media sites are traces of their behaviors. An analysis of these constitutes a form of observation known as trace analysis.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 199 AACSB: Information technology LO: 6.7 Explain how social media can be used to implement survey and observation methods.

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37) Questions that require respondents to choose from a set of predetermined answers are questions.

A) dual response B) fixed alternative C) open-ended D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 167 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

38) Which of the following is a disadvantage of the survey method of data collection?

A) The questionnaire is simple to administer.

B) The data obtained are reliable because the responses are limited to the alternatives stated.

C) Wording questions properly is not easy.

D) Coding, analysis, and interpretation of data are relatively simple.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 167 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

39) Telephone interviews may be further classified as traditional telephone interviews or (Figure 6.1 in the text).

A) in-home B) computer-assisted telephone interviews (CATI) C) both A and B are correct D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 168 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

40) Which telephone interview method involves phoning a sample of respondents and asking them a series of questions with the interviewer using a paper questionnaire to record the responses with a pencil?

A) traditional telephone B) in-home C) computer-assisted telephone interviewing (CATI) D) Internet Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 168 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

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41) interviewing uses a computerized questionnaire administered to respondents over the telephone.

A) Traditional telephone B) In-home C) Computer-assisted telephone interviews (CATI) D) Internet Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 168-169 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

42) Which of the following statements is not correct about computer-assisted telephone interviewing (CATI)?

A) The computer checks the responses for appropriateness and consistency.

B) Interviewing time is reduced, data quality is enhanced, and the laborious steps in the datacollection process, coding questionnaires and entering the data into the computer, are eliminated.

C) Multiple questions appear on the screen at one time.

D) Interim and update reports on data collection or results can be provided almost instantaneously.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 168-169 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

43) Which of the following is not a personal interview method?

A) in-home B) mall intercept C) computer-assisted personal interview (CAPI) D) e-mail Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 170 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

44) Which personal interviewing method utilizes help screens and courteous error messages?

A) in-home B) mall intercept C) computer-assisted personal interview (CAPI) D) e-mail Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 171-172 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

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45) Decisions related to the portion of the mail interview package involve sponsorship, personalization, and type of appeal (Table 6.1 in the text).

A) outgoing envelope B) cover letter C) questionnaire D) incentive Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 173 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

46) Decisions related to "monetary versus non-monetary" and "prepaid versus promised amount" relate to which portion of the mail interview package?

A) outgoing envelope B) cover letter C) questionnaire D) incentive Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 173-174 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

47) Limitations of e-mail surveys include all of the following except .

A) Questionnaires cannot utilize programmed skip patterns, logic checks, or randomization B) Skipping instructions (e.g., "If the answer to question 5 is yes, go to question 9") must appear explicitly, just as on paper C) There is inherent self-selection bias D) Some e-mail software products limit the length of the body of an e-mail message Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 174 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

48) Advantages of Web surveys over e-mail surveys include which of the following?

A) Graphs, images, animations, and links to other Web pages may be integrated into or around the survey.

B) It is possible to validate responses as they are entered.

C) Skip patterns can be programmed and performed automatically.

D) All of the above are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 174-175 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

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49) The extent to which the respondent can interact with the interviewer and survey questionnaire refers to the .

A) flexibility of data collection B) sample control C) response rate D) control of data collection environment Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 178 LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

50) The degree of interaction the respondent has with the interviewer and the questionnaire, as well as the ability to actually see the questions, refers to the .

A) respondent control B) sample control C) diversity of questions that can be asked in a survey D) control of data collection environment Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 178 LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

51) Table 6.2 in the text provides a comparative evaluation of survey methods. Which two methods were shown as high on the flexibility of data collection criteria?

A) in-home interviews; computer assisted telephone interviews (CATI) B) in-home interviews; mall intercept interviews C) Internet; mall intercept interviews D) computer assisted telephone interviews (CATI); mall intercept interviews Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 177 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

52) Table 6.2 in the text provides a comparative evaluation of survey methods. Mall intercept surveys allow for diversity of questions. Which two additional methods are also shown as high on the diversity of question criteria?

A) in-home interviews; computer assisted personal interviews (CAPI) B) in-home interviews; computer assisted telephone interviews (CATI) C) Internet; computer assisted telephone interviews (CATI) D) computer assisted telephone interviews (CATI); mall-intercept interviews Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 177 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

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53) The use of physical stimuli is not limited in .

A) traditional telephone interviews B) CATI C) e-mail surveys D) mall-intercept interviews Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 177 LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

54) The ability of the survey mode to reach the units specified in the sample effectively and efficiently refers to the .

A) flexibility of data collection B) sample control C) diversity of questions that can be asked in a survey D) control of data collection environment Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 178 LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

55) Which of the following statements about sample control is true?

A) Mailing lists for mail surveys are sometimes unavailable, outdated, or incomplete.

B) It is possible to identify specific user groups within a mail panel and to direct the survey to households with specific characteristics.

C) It can be difficult to prevent respondents from completing an Internet survey multiple times.

D) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 178 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

56) According to Table 6.2 in the text, the comparative evaluation of survey methods, interviewers and supervisors involved in data collection refers to the criteria.

A) response rate B) control of field force C) social desirability/sensitive information D) perceived anonymity Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 177 LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

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57) Table 6.2 in the text provides a comparative evaluation of survey methods. Which two methods are shown as low on the quantity of data criteria?

A) traditional telephone interviews; computer assisted telephone interviews (CATI) B) in-home interviews; mall intercept interviews C) Internet; mall intercept interviews D) computer assisted telephone interviews (CATI); mall intercept interviews Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 177 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

58) According to Table 6.2 in the text, the comparative evaluation of survey methods, the percentage of the total attempted interviews that are completed refers to the criteria.

A) response rate B) control of field force C) social desirability/sensitive information D) perceived anonymity Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 180 LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

59) According to Table 6.2 in the text, the comparative evaluation of survey methods, the tendency of the respondents to give answers that are socially acceptable whether or not they are true refers to the criteria.

A) response rate B) control of field force C) social desirability/sensitive information D) perceived anonymity Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 183 LO: 6.2 Identify the criteria for evaluating survey methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which is best suited for a particular research project.

60) involves observation techniques where the researcher clearly defines the behaviors to be observed and the methods by which they will be measured.

A) Natural observation B) Contrived observation C) Structured observation D) Unstructured observation Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 185-186 LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

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61) is observation that involves a researcher monitoring all relevant phenomenon, without specifying the details in advance.

A) Natural observation B) Contrived observation C) Structured observation D) Unstructured observation Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 185-186 LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

62) The Internet is the fastest method of obtaining data from a large number of respondents.

There are many reasons for this speed. Which of the following is not one of those reasons?

A) the speed with which the questionnaire can be created B) the speed with which the incentive is sent C) the speed with which the questionnaire is distributed to respondents D) the speed with which the data are returned Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 185-186 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

63) Observational methods may be or .

A) structured; unstructured B) direct; indirect C) conducted in a natural environment; conducted in a contrived environment D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 185-186 LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

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64) When Canon Cameras was losing market share in the United States to Minolta, Canon decided that its distributor, Bell & Howell, was not giving adequate support. Canon sent Tatehiro Tsuruta to the United States to look into the problem. On entering a camera store, he would act just like a customer. He would note how the cameras were displayed and how the clerks served customers. Canon utilized , observation in a setting.

A) unstructured; disguised; contrived B) unstructured; disguised; natural C) structured; undisguised; natural D) structured; undisguised; contrived Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 185-186 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

65) Which statement is not true about natural observation?

A) The observed phenomenon will more accurately reflect the true phenomenon.

B) A disadvantage of natural observation is the cost of waiting for the phenomenon to occur.

C) A test kitchen set up in a shopping mall would be used in a natural observation.

D) A disadvantage is the difficulty of measuring the phenomenon in a natural setting.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 185-186 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

66) In the department store project, license plate observations could be used to establish the primary trading area of a shopping mall. Observers record the license plate numbers of the automobiles in a parking lot. This is an example of .

A) mechanical observation B) personal observation C) content analysis D) trace analysis Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 187 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

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67) Nielsen uses audimeters attached to television sets to continually record what channel the set is tuned to. This is an example of .

A) mechanical observation B) personal observation C) content analysis D) trace analysis Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 187-188 LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

68) is an approach in which data collection is based on physical traces, or evidence, of past behavior.

A) Mechanical observation B) Personal observation C) Content analysis D) Trace analysis Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 187-188 LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

69) In the context of the department store patronage project, analyzing store charge card slips to examine customer store credit usage behaviors is an example of .

A) mechanical observation B) personal observation C) content analysis D) trace analysis Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 191 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

70) includes observation as well as analysis.

A) Trace analysis B) Mechanical observation C) Personal observation D) Content analysis Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 189-190 LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

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71) In the department store patronage project, may be used to analyze magazine advertisements of the sponsoring and competing stores to compare their projected images.

A) mechanical observation B) personal observation C) content analysis D) trace analysis Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 189-190 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

72) Which of the following marketing applications is not an example of trace analysis?

A) A sample of 100 magazines were examined to determine how the portrayal of women in U.S. magazine advertisements has changed over the past 10 years.

B) The selective erosion of tiles in a museum indexed by the replacement rate was used to determine the relative popularity of exhibits.

C) The age and condition of cars in a parking lot were used to assess the affluence of customers.

D) The magazines people donated to charity were used to determine people's favorite magazines.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 191 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

73) Which statement is false concerning the different observation methods?

A) Mechanical observation can vary widely from low to high structure depending upon on the methods used.

B) The degree of disguise is low in the case of audits, as it is difficult to conceal the identity of auditors.

C) Observation bias is high in the case of mechanical observation because a human observer is involved.

D) The ability to observe in a natural setting is low in trace analysis because the observation takes place after the behavior has occurred.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 192-193 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 6.4 Identify the criteria for evaluating observation methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which, if any, is suited for a particular research project.

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74) Which of the following advantages is not a reason why data analysis bias is low for audits and content analysis?

A) because the variables are precisely defined B) because the phenomenon to be observed can be recorded continuously C) because the data are quantitative D) because statistical analysis is conducted Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 192-193 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 6.4 Identify the criteria for evaluating observation methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which, if any, is suited for a particular research project.

75) is a method of last resort.

A) The mail interview B) Content analysis C) Trace analysis D) The mall intercept interview Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 192-193 LO: 6.4 Identify the criteria for evaluating observation methods, compare the different methods, and evaluate which, if any, is suited for a particular research project.

76) Which of the following advantages is the greatest advantage of observation methods?

A) If the observed phenomenon occurs frequently or is of short duration, observational methods may be cheaper and faster than survey methods.

B) The data obtained are reliable because the responses are limited to the alternatives stated.

C) Observational methods permit measurement of actual behavior rather than reports of intended or preferred behavior.

D) Coding, analysis, and interpretation of data are relatively simple.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 193 LO: 6.5 Describe the relative advantages and disadvantages of observational methods and compare them to survey methods.

77) The most serious disadvantage of observation is .

A) if the observed phenomenon occurs frequently or is of short duration, observational methods may be cheaper and faster than survey methods B) the reasons for the observed behavior may not be determined because little is known about the underlying motives, beliefs, attitudes, and preferences C) observational methods permit measurement of actual behavior rather than reports of intended or preferred behavior D) observational data is often time consuming and expensive and it is difficult to observe certain forms of behavior, such as personal activities Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 193 LO: 6.5 Describe the relative advantages and disadvantages of observational methods and compare them to survey methods.

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78) Which of the following statements is true about ethnographic research?

A) It is the study of human behavior in its natural context and involves observation of behavior and setting along with depth interviews.

B) Sometimes audio and visual recordings are obtained.

C) Both A and B are correct.

D) None are correct.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 194 LO: 6.5 Describe the relative advantages and disadvantages of observational methods and compare them to survey methods.

79) involves trained observers posing as consumers and shopping at company — or competitor-owned stores to collect data about customer-employee interaction and other marketing variables. (Choose the best answer.)

A) Personal observation B) Structured observation C) Mystery shopping D) Contrived observation Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 195 LO: 6.6 Discuss the considerations involved in implementing surveys and observation methods in an international setting.

80) Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an advantage of social media for conducting surveys?

A) wider coverage B) survey administration is easy to control C) simplicity in implementing surveys D) ability to field more complex questions E) responses are more candid Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 197-198 AACSB: Information technology LO: 6.7 Explain how social media can be used to implement survey and observation methods.

81) Which of the following is not mentioned as a disadvantage of social media for conducting surveys?

A) surveys do not address the responses from nonusers of social media B) survey administration is difficult to control.

C) inability to field more complex questions D) response rates may be low E) confidentiality is an issue Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 197-198 AACSB: Information technology LO: 6.7 Explain how social media can be used to implement survey and observation methods.

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82) Discuss the personal interviewing methods.

Answer: Personal interviewing methods may be categorized as in-home, mall intercept, or computer-assisted. In personal in-home interviews, respondents are interviewed face-to-face in their homes. The interviewer's task is to contact the respondents, ask the questions, and record the responses. In mall intercept personal interviews, respondents are intercepted while they are shopping in malls and brought to test facilities in the malls. The interviewer then administers a questionnaire as in the in-home personal survey. The advantage of mall intercept interviews is that it is more efficient for the respondent to come to the interviewer than for the interviewer to go to the respondent. In computer-assisted personal interviewing (CAPI), the respondent sits in front of a computer terminal and answers a questionnaire on the computer screen by using the keyboard or a mouse. Help screens and courteous error messages are also provided. The colorful screens and on- and off-screen stimuli add to the respondent's interest and involvement in the task.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 170-172 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

83) Discuss the traditional mail interview method and the typical mail interview package.

Answer: In the traditional mail interview, questionnaires are mailed to pre-selected potential respondents. A typical mail interview package consists of the outgoing envelope, cover letter, questionnaire, return envelope, and possibly an incentive. The respondents complete and return the questionnaires. There is no verbal interaction between the researcher and the respondent.

However, before data collection can begin, the respondents need to be at least broadly identified.

Therefore, an initial task is to obtain a valid mailing list. Mailing lists can be compiled from telephone directories, customer rosters, or association membership rolls or purchased from publication subscription lists or commercial mailing list companies. Regardless of its source, a mailing list should be current and closely related to the population of interest. The researcher must also make decisions about the various elements of the mail interview package (see Table 6.1 in the text).

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 172-173 LO: 6.1 Discuss and classify survey methods and describe the various telephone, personal, mail, and electronic interviewing methods.

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84) Briefly discuss mechanical observation. What is it and why is it used? Describe two devices used for mechanical observation that do not require the respondent's direct participation.

Answer: In mechanical observation, mechanical devices, rather than human observers, record the phenomenon being observed. These devices may or may not require the respondents' direct participation. They are used for continuously recording ongoing behavior for later analysis. Of the mechanical devices that do not require respondents' direct participation, the ACNielsen audimeter is best known. The audimeter is attached to a television set to continually record what channel the set is tuned to. Recently, people meters have been introduced. People meters attempt to measure not only the channels to which a set is tuned but also who is watching. Other common examples include turnstiles that record the number of people entering or leaving a building, and traffic counters placed across streets to determine the number of vehicles passing certain locations. On-site cameras (still, motion picture, or video) are increasingly used by retailers to assess package designs, counter space, floor displays, and traffic flow patterns.

Technological advances such as the Universal Product Code (UPC) have made a major impact on mechanical observation. The UPC system, together with optical scanners, allows for mechanized information collection regarding consumer purchases by product category, brand, store type, price, and quantity.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 187-188 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

85) Discuss how the researcher would code and analyze data obtained from a content analysis.

Answer: Content analysis can involve tedious coding and analysis. However, microcomputers and mainframes can be used to facilitate coding and analysis. The manifest content of the object can be computer coded. Analytical categories for classifying the units of analysis are developed and the communication is broken down according to prescribed rules. The observed frequencies of category codes can be aggregated and compared on the criteria of interest using computers.

While content analysis has not been widely used in marketing research, the technique offers great potential.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 189-190 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 6.3 Explain and classify the different observation methods used by marketing researchers and describe personal observation, mechanical observation, audit, content analysis, and trace analysis.

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86) What are the issues surrounding selecting the appropriate survey method for an international marketing research project (Table 6.6 in the text)?

Answer: No questionnaire administration method is superior in all situations. The use of CATI, CAPI, and mail panels depends heavily on the state of technological development in the country.

Likewise, the use of mall intercept interviewing is contingent upon the dominance of shopping malls in the retailing environment. The same is true for e-mail and Internet surveys, which rely on access to computers and the Internet. The major methods of interviewing should be carefully evaluated on the criteria given in Table 6.6 in the text. In collecting data from different countries, it is desirable to use survey methods with equivalent levels of reliability, rather than the same method. As in the case of surveys, the selection of an appropriate observation method in international marketing research should also take into account the differences in the economic, structural, informational and technological, and socio-cultural environment. Table 6.6 in the text presents a comparative evaluation of the major modes of collecting quantitative data in the context of international marketing research.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 196-197 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 6.6 Discuss the considerations involved in implementing surveys and observation methods in an international setting.

87) What are the main disadvantages of mobile surveys in terms of the task factors of Table 6.2?

Answer: The main disadvantages of mobile surveys lie in the task factors of Table 6.2. The diversity of questions and flexibility is low given the limited size of the mobile device, especially smart phones. The use of physical stimuli is low to moderate. The use of video in mobile research is limited. Video-based surveys may not work on every device due to bad streaming and rendering. Sample control is low to moderate. Sample representativeness may be another serious issue. In surveys aimed at the general population, those people who don't own a mobile phone or device, cannot become a part of the sample. On the positive side, Global Positioning System (GPS) and other location technologies can deliver surveys to the target audience based on their current or past locations. Thus, feedback can be obtained from shoppers while they are inside the stores (or at other moments of discovery), minimizing the time between experience and feedback and improving the quality of responses. For certain populations, they may provide greater reach as compared to other modes of administering the survey. For example, these surveys are good for reaching consumers who are hard-to-access, such as millennials, and in many developing nations where internet is accessed primarily on mobile. The quantity of data is low. Surveys must be kept short and simple. The norm is to ask no more than 15 questions and the entire process to take less than 15 minutes.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 200 AACSB: Information technology LO: 6.8 Illustrate the implementation of survey and observation methods in mobile marketing research.

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88) What are the researcher's responsibilities with regards to anonymity in survey and observation research?

Answer: An ethical issue that is salient in survey and observation research is respondents' anonymity. Researchers have an obligation to not disclose respondents' names to outside parties, including the client. This is all the more critical if the respondents were promised anonymity in order to obtain their participation. The client is not entitled to the names of respondents. Only when respondents are notified in advance and their consent is obtained prior to administering the survey can their names be disclosed to the client. Even in such situations, the researcher should have the assurance that the client will not use respondents' names in sales efforts or misuse them in other ways.

Often the behavior of people is observed without their knowledge because informing the respondents may alter their behavior. However, this can violate the respondents' privacy. One guideline is that people should not be observed for research in situations where they would not expect to be observed by the public. However, observing people in public places like a mall or a grocery store is appropriate if certain procedures are followed. Notices should be posted in these areas stating that they are under observation for marketing research purposes. After the data have been collected, the researcher should obtain the necessary permission from the respondents. If any of the respondents refuse to grant permission, the observation records pertaining to them should be destroyed. These guidelines should also be applied when using cookies on the Internet.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 202 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 6.9 Understand the ethical issues involved in conducting survey and observation research.

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Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 7 Causal Research Design: Experimentation 1) Causality refers to when the occurrence of X definitely causes the occurrence of Y. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 210 LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

2) The everyday meaning of causality is more appropriate to marketing research than is the scientific meaning.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 210 LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

3) The conditions of concomitant variation, time order of occurrence of variables and elimination of other possible causal factors, are necessary but not sufficient to demonstrate causality.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 210 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

4) Concomitant variation is the extent to which a cause, X, and an effect, Y, occur together or vary together in the way predicted by the hypothesis under consideration.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 211 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

5) Evidence pertaining to concomitant variation can only be obtained in a qualitative manner.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 211 LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

6) In an after-the-fact examination of a situation, we can confidently rule out all other causal factors.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 212 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

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7) With experimental designs, it is possible to control for some of the other causal factors.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 213 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

8) Evidence of concomitant variation, time order of occurrence of variables, and elimination of other possible causal factors, when combined, demonstrate conclusively that a causal relationship exists.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 213 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

9) Price levels, package designs, and advertising themes are examples of independent variables manipulated by the researcher.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 213 LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

10) Independent variables are variables or alternatives that are manipulated and whose effects are measured and compared.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 213 LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

11) Test units are individuals, organizations, or other entities whose response to independent variables or treatments is being studied.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 213 LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

12) Independent variables are the variables that measure the effect of the dependent variables on the test units.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 213 LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

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13) Extraneous variables are all variables other than the independent variables that affect the response of the test units.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 213 LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

14) An experiment is formed when the researcher manipulates one or more dependent variables and measures their effect on one or more independent variables, while controlling for the effect of extraneous variables.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 213 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

15) If the goal of the researcher is to make valid generalizations to a larger population of interest, then, the researcher is concerned with internal validity.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 214-215 LO: 7.2 Define and differentiate the two types of validity: internal validity and external validity.

16) There is no problem developing experimental designs that have high levels of both internal and external validity.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 214-215 LO: 7.2 Define and differentiate the two types of validity: internal validity and external validity.

17) To control for extraneous variables, a researcher may conduct an experiment in an artificial environment. This enhances external validity, but it may limit the generalizability of the results, thereby reducing internal validity.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 214-215 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.3 Discuss the various extraneous variables that can affect the validity of results obtained through experimentation and explain how the researcher can control extraneous variables.

18) History (H) refers to the occurrence of events before the experiment.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 215 LO: 7.3 Discuss the various extraneous variables that can affect the validity of results obtained through experimentation and explain how the researcher can control extraneous variables.

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19) The longer the time interval between observations, the greater the possibility that history will confound an experiment.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 215 LO: 7.3 Discuss the various extraneous variables that can affect the validity of results obtained through experimentation and explain how the researcher can control extraneous variables.

20) Extraneous variables are also called confounding variables because unless they are controlled for, they affect the independent variable and thus confound the results.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 217 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.3 Discuss the various extraneous variables that can affect the validity of results obtained through experimentation and explain how the researcher can control extraneous variables.

21) Matching is a method of controlling extraneous variables that involve matching test units on a set of key background variables before assigning them to the treatment conditions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 217-218 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.3 Discuss the various extraneous variables that can affect the validity of results obtained through experimentation and explain how the researcher can control extraneous variables.

22) Experimental designs may be classified as preexperimental, true experimental, quasiexperimental, or statistical.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 218-219 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

23) Also known as the after-only design, the one-shot case study may be symbolically represented as: X O1.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 219 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

24) In practice, a control group is sometimes defined as the group that receives the current level of marketing activity, rather than a group that receives no treatment at all because it is difficult to reduce current marketing activities, such as advertising and personal selling, to zero.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 220 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

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25) The distinguishing feature of the true experimental designs, as compared to preexperimental designs, is lack of randomization.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 221 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

26) Quasi-experimental designs are useful because they can be used in cases when true experimentation cannot, and because they are quicker and less expensive.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 223 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

27) Full experimental control is available in quasi-experimental designs; therefore, the researcher does not need to take into account the specific variables that are not controlled.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 223 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

28) Time series design is a quasi-experimental design that involves periodic measurements on the dependent variable for a group of test units.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 223 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

29) EG: O1 O2 O3 O4 O5 X CG: O11 O12 O13 O14 O15

O6 O7 O8 O9 O16 O17 O18 O19

The above design is an example of a multiple time series design.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 223 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

30) When more than one variable must be controlled, the researcher must use true experimental designs.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 224 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

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31) A Latin square is conceptualized as a table, with the rows and the columns representing the blocks in the two external variables.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 226 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

32) Unlike the randomized block design and the Latin square, factorial designs allow for interactions between variables.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 226 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

33) Factorial design is a true experimental design that is used to measure the effects of two or more independent variables at various levels and to allow for interactions between variables.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 227 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

34) The main disadvantage of a factorial design is that the number of treatment combinations increases multiplicatively with an increase in the number of variables or levels.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 227-228 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

35) A field environment is synonymous with actual market conditions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 228-229 LO: 7.5 Compare and contrast the use of laboratory versus field experimentation and experimental versus nonexperimental designs in marketing research.

36) Field experiments have some advantages over laboratory experiments. The field experiment offers a high degree of control because it isolates the experiment in a carefully monitored environment.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 228-229 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.5 Compare and contrast the use of laboratory versus field experimentation and experimental versus nonexperimental designs in marketing research.

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37) The Internet can provide a mechanism for controlled experimentation, although in a laboratory type of environment.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 228-229 LO: 7.5 Compare and contrast the use of laboratory versus field experimentation and experimental versus nonexperimental designs in marketing research.

38) All of the types of experimental designs mentioned in the chapter on Causal Research Design (Latin Square, factorial, true experimental, and preexperimental designs for example) can be implemented on the Internet.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 228-229 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.5 Compare and contrast the use of laboratory versus field experimentation and experimental versus nonexperimental designs in marketing research.

39) Only causal designs are truly appropriate for inferring cause-and-effect relationships.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 229 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

40) Descriptive survey studies do not meet all conditions required for causality.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 229 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

41) Experimentation is becoming increasingly important in marketing research, but there are limitations of time, cost, and administration of an experiment.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 230 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

42) Standard text markets can cost as much as $1 million; simulated test markets cost less than 10 percent as much.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 230 LO: 7.6 Describe test marketing and explain why it is an application of experimentation.

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43) In many countries, the marketing, economic, structural, information, and technological environments are not developed to the extent that they are in the United States.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 230-231 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 7.7 Understand why the internal and external validity of field experiments conducted overseas is generally lower than in the United States.

44) The internal and external validity of field experiments conducted overseas is generally lower than in the United States.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 230-231 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 7.7 Understand why the internal and external validity of field experiments conducted overseas is generally lower than in the United States.

45) As compared to the field, experimentation in social media offers the advantages of ease of implementation and lower cost.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 232 AACSB: Information technology LO: 7.8 Describe how social media facilitate causal research.

46) Debriefing occurs after the experiment and entails informing test subjects what the experiment was about and how the experimental manipulations were performed Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 233-234 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 7.10 Describe the ethical issues involved in conducting causal research and the role of debriefing in addressing some of these issues.

47) The scientific concept of causality is complex. "Causality" means something very different to the average person on the street than to a scientist. If the ordinary meaning of a statement is "X is the only cause of Y," its related scientific meaning is: .

A) the occurrence of X makes the occurrence of Y B) we can never prove that X is a cause of Y. At best, we can infer that X is a cause of Y C) X is only one of a number of possible causes of Y D) None of the above is correct.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 210 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

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48) The conditions that must be satisfied before making causal inferences include all of the following except .

A) time order of occurrence of variables B) role of evidence C) concomitant variation D) elimination of other possible factors Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 210 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

49) is the extent to which a cause, X, and an effect, Y, occur together or vary together in the way predicted by the hypothesis under consideration.

A) The time order of occurrence of variables B) The role of evidence C) Concomitant variation D) The elimination of other possible factors Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 211 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

50) The statement 'An effect cannot be produced by an event that occurs after the effect has taken place,' refers to .

A) the time order of occurrence of variables B) the role of evidence C) concomitant variation D) the elimination of other possible factors Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 212 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

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51) Which of the following statements is not true concerning the time order of occurrence of variables?

A) In an after-the-fact examination of the situation, we can never confidently rule out all other causal factors.

B) The causing event must occur either before or simultaneously with the effect; it cannot occur afterwards.

C) An effect cannot be produced by an event that occurs after the effect has taken place.

D) It is possible for each event in a relationship to be both a cause and an effect of the other event.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 212 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

52) means that the factor or variable being investigated should be the only possible causal explanation.

A) The time order of occurrence of variables B) The role of evidence C) Concomitant variation D) The absence of other possible causal factors Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 212 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

53) In the New York coupon experiment mentioned in your text, the experiment was conducted to test the effects of the face value of coupons on the likelihood of coupon redemption. Subjects were randomly assigned to 2 treatment groups. One group was offered 15-cent coupons and the other 50-cent coupons for four products. During the interviews, the respondents answered questions about which brands they used and how likely they were to cash coupons of the given face value the next time they shopped. In the preceding experiment, the dependent variable that was .

A) brand usage B) the value of the coupon (15-cent versus 50-cent coupon) C) the likelihood of cashing the coupon D) individual shoppers Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 214 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

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54) When considering , accumulated evidence from several investigations increases our confidence that a causal relationship exists.

A) the time order of occurrence of variables B) the role of evidence C) concomitant variation D) the elimination of other possible factors Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 212-213 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

55) Experimental design is the set of experimental procedures specifying the test units and sampling procedures and all of the following except .

A) specifying the independent variables B) specifying the dependent variables C) specifying the plan for data analysis D) specifying how to control the extraneous variables Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 213 LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

56) In the New York coupon experiment mentioned in your text, the experiment was conducted to test the effects of the face value of coupons on the likelihood of coupon redemption. Subjects were randomly assigned to 2 treatment groups. One group was offered 15-cent coupons and the other 50-cent coupons for four products. During the interviews, the respondents answered questions about which brands they used and how likely they were to cash coupons of the given face value the next time they shopped. In the preceding experiment, the test units were .

A) brand usage B) the value of the coupon (15-cent versus 50-cent coupon) C) the likelihood of cashing the coupon D) individual shoppers Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 214 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

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57) Using the set of symbols commonly used in marketing research to denote experimental designs, which symbol below represents the exposure of a group to an independent variable, treatment, or event, the effects of which are to be determined?

A) T B) O C) R D) X Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 214 LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

58) In the New York coupon experiment mentioned in your text, the experiment was conducted to test the effects of the face value of coupons on the likelihood of coupon redemption. Subjects were randomly assigned to 2 treatment groups. One group was offered 15-cent coupons and the other 50-cent coupons for four products. During the interviews, the respondents answered questions about which brands they used and how likely they were to cash coupons of the given face value the next time they shopped. In the preceding experiment, the independent variable that was manipulated was .

A) brand usage B) the value of the coupon (15-cent versus 50-cent coupon) C) the likelihood of cashing the coupon D) individual shoppers Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 214 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

59) Using the set of symbols commonly used in marketing research to denote experimental designs, which symbol below represents the random assignment of test units or groups to separate treatments?

A) T B) O C) R D) X Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 214 LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

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60) Using the set of symbols commonly used in marketing research to denote experimental designs, which symbol below represents the process of observation or measurement of the dependent variable on the test units or group of units?

A) T B) O C) R D) X Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 214 LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

61) Which experimental design means that two groups of test units were randomly assigned to two different treatment groups at the same time, and the dependent variable was measured in the two groups simultaneously?

A) R X1 O1 R X2 O2 B) R X1 O1 O2 X2 O2 C) X O1 O2 X O1 O2 D) R X1 O1 R X1 O1 Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 214 LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

62) is a measure of accuracy of an experiment. It measures whether the manipulation of the independent variables, or treatments, actually caused the effects on the dependent variable(s).

A) External validity B) Extraneous validity C) Internal validity D) None of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 215 LO: 7.2 Define and differentiate the two types of validity: internal validity and external validity.

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63) is a determination of whether the cause-and-effect relationships found in the experiment can be generalized. Can the results be generalized beyond the experimental situation and if so, to what populations, settings, times, independent variables and dependent variables can the results be projected?

A) External validity B) Extraneous validity C) Internal validity D) None of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 215 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.2 Define and differentiate the two types of validity: internal validity and external validity.

64) All of the following statements are true about external validity except .

A) threats to external validity arise when the specific experimental conditions do not realistically take into account the interactions of other relevant variables in the real world.

B) external validity is the basic minimum that must be present in an experiment before any conclusion about treatment effects can be made C) factors that threaten internal validity may also threaten external validity, the most serious of these being extraneous variables.

D) A and C are true Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 215 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.2 Define and differentiate the two types of validity: internal validity and external validity.

65) refers to an extraneous variable attributable to changes in the test units themselves that occur with the passage of time.

A) Mortality B) Interactive testing effect C) Maturation D) Main testing effect Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 215-217 LO: 7.3 Discuss the various extraneous variables that can affect the validity of results obtained through experimentation and explain how the researcher can control extraneous variables.

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66) refers to an effect of testing occurring when a prior observation affects a latter observation.

A) Mortality B) Interactive testing effect C) Maturation D) Main testing effect Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 215-217 LO: 7.3 Discuss the various extraneous variables that can affect the validity of results obtained through experimentation and explain how the researcher can control extraneous variables.

67) refers to an effect in which a prior measurement affects the test unit's response to the independent variable.

A) Mortality B) Interactive testing effect C) Maturation D) Main testing effect Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 215-217 LO: 7.3 Discuss the various extraneous variables that can affect the validity of results obtained through experimentation and explain how the researcher can control extraneous variables.

68) refers to an extraneous variable involving changes in the measuring instrument or in the observers or scores themselves.

A) Instrumentation B) Statistical regression C) Selection bias D) None of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 215-217 LO: 7.3 Discuss the various extraneous variables that can affect the validity of results obtained through experimentation and explain how the researcher can control extraneous variables.

69) refers to an extraneous variable that occurs when test units with extreme scores move closer to the average score during the course of the experiment.

A) Instrumentation B) Statistical regression C) Selection bias D) None of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 215-217 LO: 7.3 Discuss the various extraneous variables that can affect the validity of results obtained through experimentation and explain how the researcher can control extraneous variables.

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70) refers to an extraneous variable attributable to the improper assignment of test units to treatment conditions.

A) Instrumentation B) Statistical regression C) Selection bias D) None of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 215-217 LO: 7.3 Discuss the various extraneous variables that can affect the validity of results obtained through experimentation and explain how the researcher can control extraneous variables.

71) refers to an extraneous variable attributable to the loss of test units while the experiment is in progress.

A) Mortality B) Interactive testing effect C) Maturation D) Main testing effect Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 215-217 LO: 7.3 Discuss the various extraneous variables that can affect the validity of results obtained through experimentation and explain how the researcher can control extraneous variables.

72) If the experimental design called for the respondents to be randomly assigned to one of three experimental groups and for one of three versions of a test commercial to be randomly administered to each group, this design would be using .

A) design control B) statistical control C) randomization D) matching Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 217 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.3 Discuss the various extraneous variables that can affect the validity of results obtained through experimentation and explain how the researcher can control extraneous variables.

73) If in test marketing a new product, the researcher ensures that the product is positioned in the correct aisle in each store and obtains the right level of store acceptance and all commodity volume distribution, more than likely, the researcher used to help control for extraneous variables.

A) design control B) statistical control C) randomization D) matching Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 217-218 LO: 7.3 Discuss the various extraneous variables that can affect the validity of results obtained through experimentation and explain how the researcher can control extraneous variables.

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74) involves measuring the extraneous variables and adjusting for their effects through statistical analysis.

A) Design control B) Statistical control C) Randomization D) Matching Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 218 LO: 7.3 Discuss the various extraneous variables that can affect the validity of results obtained through experimentation and explain how the researcher can control extraneous variables.

75) Pretest-posttest control group and Solomon four-group designs are distinguished by the fact that the researcher can randomly assign test units to experimental groups and also randomly assign treatments to experimental groups.

A) quasi-experimental designs B) true experimental designs C) statistical designs D) preexperimental designs Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 218-219 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

76) result when the researcher is unable to achieve full manipulation of scheduling or allocation of treatments to test units but can still apply part of the apparatus of true experimentation.

A) Quasi-experimental designs B) True experimental designs C) Statistical designs D) Preexperimental designs Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 218-219 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

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77) The one-group pretest-posttest is a type of . These designs do not control for extraneous factors by randomization.

A) quasi-experimental design B) true experimental design C) statistical design D) preexperimental design Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 219-220 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

78) allow for the statistical control and analysis of external variables.

A) Quasi-experimental designs B) True experimental designs C) Statistical designs D) Preexperimental designs Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 218-219 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

79) Which of the following is true of the one-shot case study preexperimental design (X O1)?

A) It does not provide a basis of comparing the level of O1 to what would happen when X was absent.

B) There is no random assignment of test units.

C) Both A and B are correct.

D) In this design, a group of test units is measured twice.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 219 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

80) The one-group pretest-posttest design may be symbolized as O1 X2 O2. In this design, a group of test units is measured .

A) once B) twice C) not at all D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 220 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

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81) A design to measure the effectiveness of a test commercial for Wal-Mart would be implemented as follows. Respondents are recruited to central theater locations in different test cities. At the central location, respondents are first administered a personal interview to measure, among other things, attitudes toward the store (O1). Then they watch a TV program, the respondents are again administered a personal interview to measure attitudes towards the store (O2). The effectiveness of the test commercial is measured as O2 - O1.

A) one-shot case study B) pretest-posttest control group C) static group D) one-group pretest-posttest Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 220 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

82) The static group is a two-group experimental design. One group, called the , is exposed to the treatment, and the other, called the , is not. Measurements on both groups are made only after the treatment, and test units are not assigned at random.

A) experimental group (EG); control group (CG) B) experimental group (EG); random group (RG) C) pretest group (PG); control group (CG) D) control group (CG); experimental group (EG) Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 220 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

83) EG: R CG: R

O1 X O3

O2 O4

In the pretest-posttest control group design shown above, selection bias is eliminated by .

A) design control B) randomization C) matching D) statistical control Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 220 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

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84) A design to measure the effectiveness of a test commercial for Sears would be implemented as follows. Two groups of respondents would be recruited on the basis of convenience. Only the experimental group would be exposed to the TV program containing the test (Sears) commercial. Then attitudes toward the department store of both the experimental and control group respondents would be measured. The effectiveness of the test commercial is measured as O1 - O2.

A) one-shot case study B) pretest-posttest control group C) static group D) one-group pretest-posttest Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 220 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

85) EG: R X O1 CG: R O2 The true experimental design shown above is a design.

A) pretest-posttest control group B) one-shot case study C) post-test-only control group D) one-group pretest-posttest Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 221-222 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

86) In the posttest-only control group design, the treatment effect (TE) is obtained by .

A) TE= O1 - O2 B) TE= (O1 - O2) - (O3 - O4) C) TE= (O2 - O1) - (O4 - O3) D) TE= O1 Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 221-222 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

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87) Which of the following statements is true about the Solomon four-group design?

A) The Solomon four-group design should be used to examine the changes in the attitudes of individual respondents.

B) The Solomon four-group design explicitly controls for interactive testing effect.

C) The Solomon four-group design is expensive and time consuming to implement.

D) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 222 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

88) O1 O2 O3 O4 O5 X O6 O7 O8 O9 O10 The above design is an example of a .

A) one group pretest-posttest design B) multiple time series design C) pretest-posttest control group design D) time series design Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 223 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

89) is a statistical design in which the test units are blocked on the basis of an external variable to ensure that the various experimental and control groups are matched closely on that variable.

A) Randomized block design B) Latin square design C) Factorial design D) Solomon four-group design Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 224 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

90) The major weakness of the time series design is the failure to control .

A) mortality B) history C) selection bias D) instrumentation Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 223 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

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91) The effectiveness of a test commercial (X) may be examined by broadcasting the commercial a predetermined number of times and examining the data from a preexisting test panel. Although the marketer can control the scheduling of the test commercial, it is uncertain when or whether the panel members are exposed to it. The panel members' purchases before, during, and after the campaign are examined to determine whether the test commercial has a short-term effect, a longterm effect, or no effect. A design was used in this research project.

A) pretest-posttest control group B) time series C) one-group pretest-posttest design D) multiple time series design Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 223 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

92) Which of the following statements is an advantage of statistical designs?

A) The effects of more than one independent variable can be measured.

B) Specific extraneous variables can be statistically controlled.

C) Economical designs can be formulated when each test unit is measured more than once.

D) All of the statements are advantages.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 224-225 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

93) What is the main limitation of randomized block designs?

A) They require an equal number of rows, columns, and treatment levels, which is sometimes problematic.

B) They do not allow the researcher to examine interactions of the external variables with each other or with the independent variable.

C) The researcher can control for only one external variable.

D) The number of treatment combinations increases multiplicatively with an increase in the number of variables or levels.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 224-225 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

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94) is a statistical design that allows for the statistical control of two non-interacting external variables in addition to the manipulation of the independent variable.

A) Randomized block design B) Latin square design C) Factorial design D) Solomon four-group design Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 226 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

95) Which of the following statements is a limitation of Latin square designs?

A) They require an equal number of rows, columns, and treatment levels, which is sometimes problematic.

B) They do not allow the researcher to examine interactions of the external variables with each other or with the independent variable.

C) The researcher can control for only one external variable.

D) Both A and B are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 226 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

96) is a statistical experimental design that is used to measure the effects of two or more independent variables at various levels and to allow for interactions between variables.

A) Randomized block design B) Latin square design C) Factorial design D) Solomon four-group design Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 227-228 LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

97) Which statement is not true about laboratory experiments?

A) The laboratory environment offers a high degree of control because it isolates the experiment in a carefully monitored environment.

B) The artificiality of the environment may cause reactive error, in that the respondents react to the situation itself, rather than to the independent variable.

C) Laboratory experiments are likely to have higher external validity than field experiments.

D) Laboratory experiments allow for more complex designs than field experiments.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 228-229 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.5 Compare and contrast the use of laboratory versus field experimentation and experimental versus nonexperimental designs in marketing research.

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98) Which of the following statements is true when considering experimental versus nonexperimental designs?

A) It is difficult in descriptive studies to establish the prior equivalence of the respondent groups with respect to both the independent and dependent variables. However, experiments can establish this equivalence.

B) Descriptive research offers little control over other possible causal factors.

C) In descriptive research, it is also difficult to establish time order of occurrence of variables.

However, in an experiment, the researcher controls the timing of the measurements and the introduction of the treatment.

D) All of the above statements are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 229 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.5 Compare and contrast the use of laboratory versus field experimentation and experimental versus nonexperimental designs in marketing research.

99) Which of the following is a reason why experiments may be hard to administer?

A) It may be impossible to control for the effects of the extraneous variables.

B) Competitors may deliberately contaminate the results of a field experiment.

C) Both A and B are reasons why experiments may be hard to administer.

D) Neither A nor B is a reason why experiments may be hard to administer.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 230 LO: 7.5 Compare and contrast the use of laboratory versus field experimentation and experimental versus nonexperimental designs in marketing research.

100) A is a test market in which the product is sold through regular distribution channels.

A) Simulated test market B) Partial test market C) Controlled test market D) Standard test market Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 230 LO: 7.6 Describe test marketing and explain why it is an application of experimentation.

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101) What is the main disadvantage of factorial designs?

A) They require an equal number of rows, columns, and treatment levels, which is sometimes problematic.

B) They do not allow the researcher to examine interactions of the external variables with each other or with the independent variable.

C) The researcher can control for only one external variable.

D) The number of treatment combinations increases multiplicatively with an increase in the number of variables or levels.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 228 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

102) Which statement is not true concerning a standard test market?

A) It is a one-shot case study.

B) Test markets are selected and the product is sold through regular distribution channels.

C) Where external validity is important, at least four test markets should be used.

D) All statements are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 230 LO: 7.6 Describe test marketing and explain why it is an application of experimentation.

103) Which statement is not true concerning a standard test market?

A) One or more combinations of marketing mix variables (product, price, distribution, and promotional levels) are employed.

B) While a firm's test marketing is in progress, competitors have an opportunity to beat it to the national market.

C) Competitors often take actions such as increasing their promotional efforts to contaminate the test marketing program.

D) All statements are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 230 LO: 7.6 Describe test marketing and explain why it is an application of experimentation.

104) Which statement is not true about simulated test markets?

A) While a firm's test marketing is in progress, competitors have an opportunity to beat it to the national market.

B) Competitors often take actions such as increasing their promotional efforts to contaminate the test marketing program.

C) Both A and B are not true about simulated test markets.

D) They yield mathematical estimates of market share based on initial reaction of consumers to a new product.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 230 LO: 7.6 Describe test marketing and explain why it is an application of experimentation.

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105) A is a test marketing program conducted by an outside research company in field experimentation. The research company guarantees distribution of the product in retail outlets that represent a pre-determined percentage of the market.

A) Simulated test market B) Partial test market C) Controlled test market D) Standard test market Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 230 LO: 7.6 Describe test marketing and explain why it is an application of experimentation.

106) A is a quasi-test market in which respondents are pre-selected, then interviewed and observed on their purchases and attitudes toward the product.

A) Simulated test market B) Partial test market C) Controlled test market D) Standard test market Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 230 LO: 7.6 Describe test marketing and explain why it is an application of experimentation.

107) Which statement is not true about why it is difficult to conduct field experiments in the international arena?

A) In many countries, the TV stations are owned and operated by the government with severe restrictions on television advertising. This makes field experiments manipulating advertising levels extremely difficult.

B) The lack of major supermarkets in the Baltic states makes it difficult to conduct field experiments to determine the effect of in-store promotions on the sales of products.

C) Even when basic infrastructures such as roads, transportation, and warehouse facilities are adequate, they do not help in achieving desired levels of distribution.

D) Even when experiments are designed, it is difficult to control for the time order of occurrence of variables and the absence of other possible causal factors, two of the necessary conditions for causality.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 230-231 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 7.7 Understand why the internal and external validity of field experiments conducted overseas is generally lower than in the United States.

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108) Which of the following is not true about the debriefing procedure?

A) After the data have been collected, the true purpose of the study and the nature of the disguise should be fully explained to the respondents and they should be given an opportunity to withdraw their information.

B) Debriefing can alleviate stress and make the experiment a learning experience for the respondents.

C) Inform the respondents at the beginning that the experiment has been disguised.

D) Both A and C are not true.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 233-234 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 7.10 Describe the ethical issues involved in conducting causal research and the role of debriefing in addressing some of these issues.

109) Which of the following is an ethical concern associated with doing experiments?

A) how to disguise the purpose of the research in a manner that does not violate the rights of the respondents B) how to find respondents for the experiment C) ensuring that the appropriate experimental design for the problem was used D) Both A and C are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 233-234 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 7.10 Describe the ethical issues involved in conducting causal research and the role of debriefing in addressing some of these issues.

110) Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

Answer: Experimentation is commonly used to infer causal relationships. The concept of causality requires some explanation. The scientific concept of causality is complex. "Causality" means something very different to the average person on the street than to a scientist. A statement such as "X causes Y" will have different meanings to an ordinary person and to a scientist. The scientific meaning of causality is more appropriate to marketing research than is the everyday meaning. Marketing effects are caused by multiple variables, and the relationship between cause and effect tends to be probabilistic. Moreover, we can never prove causality (i.e., demonstrate it conclusively); we can only infer a cause-and-effect relationship. In other words, it is possible that the true causal relation, if one exists, may not have been identified.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 210 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.1 Explain the concept of causality as defined in marketing research and distinguish between the ordinary meaning and the scientific meaning of causality.

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111) Briefly define internal and external validity.

Answer: Internal validity refers to whether the manipulation of the independent variables or treatments actually caused the observed effects on the dependent variables. Thus, internal validity examines whether the observed effects on the test units could have been caused by variables other than the treatment. If the observed effects are influenced or confounded by extraneous variables, it is difficult to draw valid inferences about the causal relationship between the independent and dependent variables. Internal validity is the basic minimum that must be present in an experiment before any conclusion about treatment effects can be made. Without internal validity, the experimental results are confounded. Control of extraneous variables is a necessary condition for establishing internal validity.

External validity refers to whether the cause-and-effect relationships found in the experiment can be generalized. In other words, can the results be generalized beyond the experimental situation and, if so, to what populations, settings, times, independent variables, and dependent variables can the results be projected? Threats to external validity arise when the specific experimental conditions do not realistically take into account the interactions of other relevant variables in the real world.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 215 LO: 7.2 Define and differentiate the two types of validity: internal validity and external validity.

112) Discuss the trade-offs that must be made in experimental design formulation when trying to obtain realistic amounts of internal and external validity.

Answer: It is desirable to have an experimental design that has both internal and external validity, but in applied marketing research often we have to trade one type of validity for another. To control for extraneous variables, a researcher may conduct an experiment in an artificial environment. This enhances internal validity, but it may limit the generalizability of the results, thereby reducing external validity. For example, fast-food chains test customers' preferences for new formulations of menu items in test kitchens. Can the effects measured in this environment be generalized to fast-food outlets? In spite of these deterrents to external validity, if an experiment lacks internal validity, it may not be meaningful to generalize the results.

Factors that threaten internal validity may also threaten external validity, the most serious of these being extraneous variables.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 215 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.2 Define and differentiate the two types of validity: internal validity and external validity.

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113) Explain the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

Answer: Preexperimental designs are characterized by an absence of randomization. These designs do not employ randomization procedures to control for extraneous factors. The distinguishing feature of the true experimental designs, as compared to preexperimental designs, is randomization. In true experimental designs, the researcher can randomly assign test units and treatments to experimental groups. Quasi-experimental designs result when the researcher is unable to achieve full manipulation of scheduling or allocation of treatments to test units but can still apply part of the apparatus of true experimentation. However, because full experimental control is lacking, the researcher must take into account the specific variables that are not controlled. Statistical designs consist of a series of basic experiments that allow for statistical control and analysis of external variables. In other words, several basic experiments are conducted simultaneously. The basic designs used in statistical designs include preexperimental, true experimental, and quasi-experimental. Statistical designs are classified on the basis of their characteristics and use. The important statistical designs include randomized block, Latin square, and factorial.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 218-219 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

114) What is the difference between a times series design and a multiple times series design?

Answer: The multiple time series design is similar to the time series design except that another group of test units is added to serve as a control group. Symbolically, multiple time series design may be described as: EG: O1 X O10 O2 O3 O4 O5 O6 O7 O8 O9 CG: O1 O10 O2 O3 O4 O5 O6 O7 O8 O9 Diff: 1 Page Ref: 223 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.4 Describe and evaluate experimental designs and the differences among preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-experimental, and statistical designs.

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115) Explain laboratory and field environments. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of laboratory experiments compared to field experiments.

Answer: A laboratory environment is an artificial setting for experimentation in which the researcher constructs the desired conditions. A field environment is an experimental location set in actual market conditions.

Laboratory experiments have some advantages over field experiments. The laboratory environment offers a high degree of control because it isolates the experiment in a carefully monitored environment. Therefore, the effects of history can be minimized. A laboratory experiment also tends to produce the same results if repeated with similar subjects, leading to high internal validity. Laboratory experiments tend to use a small number of test units, last for a shorter time, are more restricted geographically, and are easier to conduct than field experiments.

Hence, they are generally less expensive as well. As compared to field experiments, laboratory experiments suffer from some disadvantages. The artificiality of the environment may cause reactive error, in that the respondents react to the situation itself, rather than to the independent variable. Finally, laboratory experiments are likely to have lower external validity than field experiments. Because a laboratory experiment is conducted in an artificial environment, the ability to generalize the results to the real world may be diminished.

Laboratory experiments allow for more complex designs than field experiments. Hence, the researcher can control for more factors or variables in the laboratory setting, increasing external validity. The researcher must consider all of these factors when deciding whether to conduct laboratory or field experiments. Field experiments are less common in marketing research than laboratory experiments, although laboratory and field experiments play complementary roles.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 228-229 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 7.5 Compare and contrast the use of laboratory versus field experimentation and experimental versus nonexperimental designs in marketing research.

116) Discuss the implementation of experimental designs in the context of mobile marketing research.

Answer: Most of the experimental designs that we have discussed in this chapter can be easily implemented using mobile marketing research (MMR). The considerations involved in conducting experiments using mobile are similar to those discussed earlier for the Internet.

Different experimental treatments can be displayed at different Web sites. Respondents can then be recruited to visit these sites and respond to a questionnaire that obtains information on the dependent and extraneous variables. Thus, mobile Internet can provide a mechanism for controlled experimentation, although in a laboratory type of environment. The limitations of MMR for conducting survey research discussed in Chapter 6 will also apply for conducting experiments.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 233 AACSB: Information technology LO: 7.9 Elucidate the implementation of experimental designs in mobile marketing research.

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Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 8 Measurement and Scaling: Fundamentals and Comparative Scaling 1) When we measure the perceptions, attitudes, and preferences of consumers, we are not measuring the object but some characteristic of it.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 242 LO: 8.1 Introduce the concepts of measurement and scaling and show how scaling may be considered an extension of measurement.

2) In measurement, when assigning numbers to the characteristics there must be a one-to-one correspondence between the numbers and the characteristics being measured.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 242 LO: 8.1 Introduce the concepts of measurement and scaling and show how scaling may be considered an extension of measurement.

3) Measurement involves creating a continuum upon which measured objects are located.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 242 LO: 8.1 Introduce the concepts of measurement and scaling and show how scaling may be considered an extension of measurement.

4) The four basic scale characteristics are nominal, order, distance and origin.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 242 LO: 8.2 Explain the characteristics of description, order, distance, and origin and how they define the level of measurement of a scale.

5) The origin characteristic means that the scale has no unique or true zero point.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 243 LO: 8.2 Explain the characteristics of description, order, distance, and origin and how they define the level of measurement of a scale.

6) If a scale has the description characteristic, it also has order.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 242 LO: 8.2 Explain the characteristics of description, order, distance, and origin and how they define the level of measurement of a scale.

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7) The origin is the highest level characteristic, i.e., a scale that has origin also possesses all the other basic characteristics.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 243 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 8.2 Explain the characteristics of description, order, distance, and origin and how they define the level of measurement of a scale.

8) There are three primary scales of measurement: nominal, ordinal, and ratio.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 252 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

9) A nominal scale can only involve the assignment of numbers; alphabets or symbols cannot be assigned.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 243 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

10) Preference rankings, market position, and social class are examples of interval scales.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 244 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

11) Only a limited number of statistics, all of which are based on frequency counts, are permissible on the numbers in a nominal scale.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 244 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

12) An ordinal scale indicates relative position and the magnitude of the differences between the objects.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 244 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

13) In addition to the counting operation allowable for nominal scale data, ordinal scales permit the use of statistics based on percentiles.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 244 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

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14) Because the zero point is fixed in interval scales, it is not meaningful to take ratios of scale values. Ratios of differences between scale values are permissible.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 246 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

15) Statistical techniques that may be used on interval scale data include all of those that can be applied to nominal, ordinal, and ratio data.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 246 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

16) Ratio scales allow proportionate transformations of the form y = bx, where b is a positive constant. One can add an arbitrary constant, as in the case of an interval scale.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 247-248 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

17) All statistical techniques can be applied to ratio data.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 247-248 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

18) It is possible to construct a nominal scale that provides partial information on order (the partially ordered scale).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 248 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

19) Comparative scales involve the direct comparison of stimulus objects.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 248-249 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

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20) In non-comparative scales, the scaling of each object is dependent on the others in the stimulus set.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 248-249 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

21) Non-comparative scaling data are generally assumed to be interval or ratio scaled.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 248-249 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

22) In paired comparison scaling, the data obtained are interval in nature.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 249-250 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

23) Transitivity of preference is an assumption made in order to convert constant sum data to rank order data. It implies that if brand A is preferred to brand B and brand B is preferred to brand C, then brand A is preferred to brand C. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 249-250 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

24) Paired comparisons resemble the marketplace situation that involves selection from multiple alternatives.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 249-250 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

25) Paired comparison scaling is useful when the number of brands is large, because it requires direct comparison and overt choice.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 249-250 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

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26) Rank order scaling is commonly used to measure preferences for brands as well as attributes.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 251-252 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

27) In constant sum scaling, if an attribute is twice as important as some other attribute, it receives twice as many points.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 252-253 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

28) In constant sum scaling, respondents allocate a constant sum of units, such as points, dollars or chips among a set of stimulus objects with respect to some criterion.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 252-253 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

29) Constant sum scale data are sometimes treated as metric.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 252-253 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

30) The constant sum should be considered an ordinal scale.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 252-253 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

31) Q-sort scaling was developed to discriminate quickly among a relatively small number of objects.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 253 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

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32) When using constant sum scales, if respondents allocate more points than those allotted, the researcher must modify such data in some way or eliminate the respondent from analysis.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 252-253 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

33) From the viewpoint of the respondents, ratio scales are the simplest to use, whereas the nominal scales are the most complex.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 254 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

34) In the four primary scales, the level of measurement increases from ordinal to nominal to ratio to interval scale. This increase in measurement level is obtained at the cost of complexity.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 254 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

35) When ordinal scaled data are collected, statistical procedures developed for use with interval or ratio data should be used.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 256 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

36) All the primary scales and all the comparative scales that have been discussed in the book can be easily implemented in social media with the exception of ratio scales.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 255 AACSB: Information technology LO: 8.6 Explain how social media can be used to implement measurement and scaling.

37) An analysis of social media content can shed light on the level of measurement that is appropriate in a given project.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 255 AACSB: Information technology LO: 8.6 Explain how social media can be used to implement measurement and scaling.

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38) An analysis of social media content can provide guidance on the type of scaling techniques, comparative or noncomparative, to use.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 255 AACSB: Information technology LO: 8.6 Explain how social media can be used to implement measurement and scaling.

39) It is the obligation of the researcher to obtain data that are most appropriate, given the research questions to be answered.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 256 LO: 8.8 Understand the ethical issues involved in selecting scales of measurement.

40) is the assignment of numbers or other symbols to characteristics of objects according to certain pre-specified rules.

A) Ranking B) Measurement C) Scaling D) Rating Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 242 LO: 8.1 Introduce the concepts of measurement and scaling and show how scaling may be considered an extension of measurement.

41) is the generation of a continuum upon which measured objects are located.

A) Ranking B) Measurement C) Scaling D) Rating Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 242 LO: 8.1 Introduce the concepts of measurement and scaling and show how scaling may be considered an extension of measurement.

42) Which statement is not correct about measurement?

A) The assignment of numbers to characteristics must be isomorphic.

B) The rules for assigning numbers should be standardized and applied uniformly.

C) The placement of individual companies on the annual revenue continuum represents measurement.

D) All of the above statements are not true.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 250 LO: 8.1 Introduce the concepts of measurement and scaling and show how scaling may be considered an extension of measurement.

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43) Consider a scale from 1 to 100 for locating consumers according to the characteristic "attitude toward department stores." Each respondent is assigned a number from 1 to 100 indicating the degree of (un)favorableness, with 1 = extremely unfavorable, and 100 = extremely favorable. is the actual assignment of a number from 1 to 100 to each respondent. is the process of placing the respondents on a continuum with respect to their attitude toward department stores.

A) Measurement; Scaling B) Scaling; Ranking C) Scaling; Measurement D) Ranking; Measurement Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 242 LO: 8.1 Introduce the concepts of measurement and scaling and show how scaling may be considered an extension of measurement.

44) A(n) is a scale whose numbers serve only as labels or tags for identifying and classifying objects with a strict one-to-one correspondence between the numbers and the objects.

A) ordinal scale B) interval scale C) ratio scale D) nominal scale Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 243-244 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

45) When a scale is used for the purpose of identification, there is a strict one-to-one correspondence between the numbers and the objects.

A) nominal B) ordinal C) interval D) ratio Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 243-244 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

46) When used for classification purposes, the scaled numbers serve as labels for classes or categories.

A) ordinally B) intervally C) nominally D) ratio Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 243-244 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

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47) Which of the following statistics is not permissible with nominally scaled data (Table 8.1 in the text)?

A) chi-square B) median C) range D) Both B and C are not permissible.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 243-244 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

48) Which of the following statistics is not permissible with ordinally scaled data (Table 8.1 in the text)?

A) range B) mode C) rank order correlation D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 245-246 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

49) Which of the following statistics is not permissible for interval data (Table 8.1 in the text)?

A) factor analysis B) harmonic mean C) binomial test D) t-tests Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 246-247 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

50) In the department store project, numbers 1 through 10 were assigned to the 10 stores considered in the study (Table 8.2 in the text). Thus, store number 9 referred to Dillard's and store number 6 referred to Neiman Marcus. Using this information, which of the following statements is true?

A) Dillard's is in some way superior or inferior to Neiman Marcus.

B) It is meaningful to state that the number of the average store is 5.5.

C) Both A and B are true.

D) None of the above statements are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 243-244 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

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51) is a ranking scale in which numbers are assigned to objects to indicate the relative extent to which some characteristic is possessed. Thus it is possible to determine whether an object has more or less of a characteristic than some other object.

A) Ordinal scale B) Interval scale C) Ratio scale D) Nominal scale Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 245-246 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

52) The rankings of teams in a tournament constitute a(n) scale.

A) nominal B) ordinal C) interval D) ratio Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 245-246 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

53) In marketing research, scales are used to measure relative attitudes, opinions, perceptions, and preferences. In the opening example for Chapter 8, this was shown by the rank order of the most admired companies.

A) nominal B) ordinal C) interval D) ratio Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 245-246 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

54) is a scale in which the numbers are used to rate objects such that numerically equal distances on the scale represent equal distances in the characteristic being measured.

A) Ordinal scale B) Interval scale C) Ratio scale D) Nominal scale Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 246-247 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

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55) In marketing research, attitudinal data obtained from rating scales are often treated as data.

A) nominal B) ordinal C) interval D) ratio Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 246-247 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

56) Which statement is not true about the interval scale?

A) Numerically equal distances on the scale represent equal values in the characteristics being measured.

B) Both the zero point and the units of measurement are arbitrary.

C) Only proportionate transformations of the form y = bx, where b is a positive constant are allowed.

D) All of the above are correct.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 246-247 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

57) The is the highest scale. It allows the researcher to identify or classify objects, rank order the objects, and compare intervals or differences. It is also meaningful to compute ratios of scale values.

A) ordinal scale B) interval scale C) ratio scale D) nominal scale Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 247-248 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

58) In marketing, sales, cost, market share, and number of customers are variables measured on a scale.

A) nominal B) ordinal C) interval D) ratio Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 247-248 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

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59) are one of two types of scaling techniques in which there is direct comparison of stimulus objects with one another.

A) Preference scales B) Comparative scales C) Non-comparative scales D) None of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 247-248 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

60) Which of the following statements is not true about the comparative scales technique?

A) An example of using comparative scales is asking respondents to evaluate Coke on a 1 to 6 preference scale.

B) Comparative scale data must be interpreted in relative terms and have only ordinal or rank order properties.

C) Comparative scaling is also referred to as non-metric scaling.

D) Comparative scales include paired comparisons, rank order, and constant sum scales.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 248-249 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

61) The benefits of comparative scaling includes all of the following except .

A) comparative scales involve fewer theoretical assumptions B) comparative scales are easily understood and can be applied easily C) comparative scales tend to reduce halo or carryover effects from one judgment to another D) small differences between stimulus objects can be detected Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 248-249 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

62) The disadvantages of comparative scaling includes all of the following except .

A) the resulting data are generally assumed to be interval or ratio scaled B) the inability to generalize beyond the stimulus objects scaled C) the ordinal nature of the data D) None of the above are disadvantages.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 248-249 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

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63) Which of the following scales is not a type of comparative scale (Figure 8.2 in the text)?

A) semantic differential B) constant sum C) Likert D) both A and C Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 248-249 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

64) are one of two types of scaling techniques in which each stimulus object is scaled independently of the other objects in the stimulus set.

A) Preference scales B) Comparative scales C) Non-comparative scales D) None of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 248-249 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

65) Which of the following is not a type of non-comparative scale?

A) semantic differential B) constant sum C) Likert D) both A and C Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 248-249 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

66) Which of the following is a type of comparative scale?

A) continuous rating B) constant sum C) itemized rating D) both A and C Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 248-249 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

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67) is a comparative scaling technique in which a respondent is presented with two objects at a time and asked to select one object in the pair according to some criterion. The data obtained is ordinal in nature.

A) Constant sum B) Q-sort C) Paired comparison D) Rank order Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 248-249 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

68) Paired comparison data can be analyzed in several ways. One way is for the researcher to calculate the percentage of respondents who prefer one stimulus to another. The researcher can also perform all of the following analyses on paired comparison data except A) simultaneous evaluation of all the stimulus objects B) convert paired comparison data to a rank order C) derive an interval scale from paired comparison data D) order a set of objects into an internally consistent, uni-dimensional scale Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 249-250 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

69) Which of the following is not one of the suggested modifications of the paired comparison technique?

A) inclusion of a neutral/no difference opinion response B) graded paired comparisons C) obtaining similarity judgments in multidimensional scaling D) ranked paired comparisons Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 249-250 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

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70) The most common method of taste testing is paired comparison. A minimum of responses is considered an adequate sample.

A) 500 B) 1000 C) 2000 D) 4000 Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 249-250 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

71) is a comparative scaling technique in which respondents are presented with several objects simultaneously and asked to order or rank them according to some criterion.

A) Constant sum B) Q-sort C) Paired comparison D) Rank order Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 251-252 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

72) After paired comparisons, the most popular comparative rating scale is .

A) constant sum B) q-sort C) metric D) rank order Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 251-252 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

73) scaling and scaling both are comparative in nature. Both result in ordinal data and might result in the respondent disliking the brand ranked 1 in an absolute sense.

A) Paired comparison; constant sum B) Rank order; paired comparison C) Rank order; constant sum D) Q-sort; constant sum Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 251-252 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

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74) is a comparative scaling technique in which respondents are required to allocate a constant sum of units such as point, dollars, chits, stickers, or chips among a set of stimulus objects with respect to some criterion.

A) Constant sum B) Q-sort C) Paired comparison D) Rank order Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 252-253 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

75) If respondents are asked to allocate 100 points to attributes of a toilet soap in a way that reflects the importance they attach to each attribute, scaling is being used.

A) constant sum B) q-sort C) paired comparison D) rank order Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 252-253 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

76) Which statement is true concerning constant sum scaling?

A) It does not have an absolute zero.

B) It allows for fine discrimination among stimulus objects without requiring much time.

C) Respondents may allocate more or fewer units than those specified.

D) Both B and C are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 252-253 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

77) scaling is a comparative scaling technique that uses a rank order procedure to sort objects based on similarity with respect to some criterion.

A) Constant sum B) Q-sort C) Paired comparison D) Rank order Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 253 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

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78) is being used if respondents are given 100 attitude statements on individual cards and asked to place them into 11 piles, ranging from "most highly agreed with" to "least highly agreed with."

A) Constant sum B) Q-sort C) Paired comparison D) Rank order Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 253 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

79) When using Q-sort, scaling to objects is a reasonable range.

A) 60; 90 B) 90; 140 C) 60; 140 D) 40; 60 Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 253 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

80) is a comparative scaling technique where numbers are assigned to objects such that ratios between the assigned numbers reflect ratios on the specified criterion.

A) Q-sort scaling B) Magnitude estimation C) Guttman scaling D) Constant sum scaling Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 254 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

81) is a procedure for determining whether a set of objects can be ordered into an internally consistent, uni-dimensional scale.

A) Magnitude estimation B) Q-sort scaling C) Guttman scaling D) None of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 254 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

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82) Which statement is not correct concerning international marketing and the use of comparative scaling techniques?

A) Opinion formation may not be well crystallized.

B) In some developing countries, preferences can be best measured by using ordinal scales.

C) Respondents in many developed countries, due to higher education and consumer sophistication levels, are quite used to providing responses on interval and ratio scales.

D) None of the above statements are incorrect.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 254 LO: 8.5 Discuss the considerations involved in implementing the primary scales of measurement in an international setting.

83) The Wall Street Journal wanted information on the personality profiles of its readers and nonreaders? Which of the steps below does not belong in the process used by the Wall Street Journal to obtain the needed information?

A) Each respondent was given a several cards, each listing one personality characteristic.

B) Respondents are asked to sort cards and to rank order the personality characteristics.

C) Use interval scale data to examine differences in the personality characteristics of readers and nonreaders and relate them to marketing strategy variables.

D) All of the above statements belong in the process.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 256 LO: 8.6 Explain how social media can be used to implement measurement and scaling.

84) Which of the following is not a measure developed to evaluate social media sites based on information that is publicly available?

A) longevity B) output (frequency, quantity) C) inbound links D) technorati, bloglines or blogpulse followers E) media citations Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 255 AACSB: Information technology LO: 8.6 Explain how social media can be used to implement measurement and scaling.

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85) Discuss measurement and scaling. What are they and how are they related?

Answer: Measurement means assigning numbers or other symbols to characteristics of objects according to certain prespecified rules. What is measured is not the object, but some characteristic of it. Thus, we do not measure consumers - only their perceptions, attitudes, preferences, or other relevant characteristics. In marketing research, numbers are usually assigned for one of two reasons. First, numbers permit statistical analysis of the resulting data.

Second, numbers facilitate the communication of measurement rules and results.

The most important aspect of measurement is the specification of rules for assigning numbers to the characteristics. There must be one-to-one correspondence between the numbers and the characteristics being measured. The rules for assigning numbers should be standardized and applied uniformly. They must not change over objects or time.

Scaling may be considered an extension of measurement. Scaling involves creating a continuum upon which measured objects are located. Consider a scale from 1 to 100 for locating consumers according to the characteristic "attitude toward department stores." Each respondent is assigned a number from 1 to 100 indicating the degree of (un)favorableness, with 1 = extremely unfavorable, and 100 = extremely favorable. Measurement is the actual assignment of a number from 1 to 100 to each respondent. Scaling is the process of placing the respondents on a continuum with respect to their attitude toward department stores.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 242 LO: 8.1 Introduce the concepts of measurement and scaling and show how scaling may be considered an extension of measurement.

86) Discuss the primary scales of measurement (Table 8.1 in the text). Develop an example of each.

Answer: A nominal scale is one whose numbers serve only as labels or tags for identifying and classifying objects with a strict one-to-one correspondence between the numbers and the objects.

For example, the numbers assigned to the respondents in a study constitute a nominal scale.

An ordinal scale is a ranking scale in which numbers are assigned to objects to indicate the relative extent to which the objects possess some characteristic. An ordinal scale allows you to determine whether an object has more or less of a characteristic than some other object, but not how much more or less. Thus an ordinal scale indicates relative position, not the magnitude of the differences between the objects. Common examples of ordinal scales include quality rankings, rankings of teams in a tournament, socioeconomic class, and occupational status.

In an interval scale, numerically equal distances on the scale represent equal values in the characteristic being measured. An interval scale contains all the information of an ordinal scale, but it also allows you to compare the differences between objects. A common example in everyday life is a temperature scale. In marketing research, attitudinal data obtained from rating scales are often treated as interval data.

A ratio scale possesses all the properties of the nominal, ordinal, and interval scales and, in addition, an absolute zero point. Thus, in ratio scales we can identify or classify objects, rank the objects, and compare intervals or differences. Common examples of ratio scales include height, weight, age, and money. In marketing, sales, costs, market share, and number of customers are variables measured on a ratio scale.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 243-244 LO: 8.3 Discuss the primary scales of measurement and differentiate nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio scales.

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87) Compare the rank order scaling technique to the paired comparison scaling technique.

Answer: After paired comparisons, the most popular comparative scaling technique is rank order scaling. In rank order scaling, respondents are presented with several objects simultaneously and asked to order or rank them according to some criterion. In paired comparison scaling, a respondent is presented with two objects and asked to select one according to some criterion.

Like paired comparison, rank order scaling is also comparative in nature and it is possible that the respondent may dislike the brand ranked 1 in an absolute sense. As compared to paired comparisons, the rank order scaling process more closely resembles the shopping environment. It also takes less time and eliminates intransitive responses. If there are n stimulus objects, only (n 1) scaling decisions need be made in rank order scaling. However, in paired comparison scaling [n(n - 1)/2] decisions would be required. Another advantage is that most respondents easily understand the instructions for ranking. The major disadvantage is that this technique produces only ordinal data. Finally, under the assumption of transitivity, rank order data can be converted to equivalent paired comparison data, and vice versa.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 249-252 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

88) Why is there confusion over whether constant sum data are ordinal or metric?

Answer: The constant sum has an absolute zero. Thus, 10 points are twice as many as 5 points, and the difference between 5 and 2 points is the same as the difference between 57 and 54 points.

For this reason, constant sum scale data are sometimes treated as metric. Although this may be appropriate in the limited context of the stimuli scaled, these results are not generalizable to other stimuli not included in the study. Hence, strictly speaking, the constant sum should be considered an ordinal scale because of its comparative nature and the resulting lack of generalizability.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 252-253 LO: 8.4 Classify and discuss scaling techniques as comparative and noncomparative, and describe the comparative techniques of paired comparison, rank order, constant sum, and Q-sort scaling.

89) Are there any limitations on implementing comparative scaling techniques in mobile marketing research?

Answer: The smaller screen sizes of mobile devices do impose limitations on comparative scaling. For example, rank order scaling of many brands may be confusing as respondents would have to scroll vertically and may not be able to see all the brands on the screen simultaneously.

This limitation would also apply to constant sum scaling. Likewise, with a large number of brands, the number of paired comparisons increases multiplicatively and would be confusing to respondents with mobile devices of small screen sizes, such as smart phones.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 255-256 AACSB: Information technology LO: 8.7 Elucidate the implementation of primary and comparative scales in mobile marketing research.

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Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 9 Measurement and Scaling: Noncomparative Scaling Techniques 1) A noncomparative scale is one of two scaling techniques in which each stimulus object is scaled independent of the other objects in the stimulus set.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 264 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

2) Noncomparative scaling techniques are comprised of continuous and itemized rating scales.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 264 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

3) Non-comparative scales are often referred to as monadic scale.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 264 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

4) Respondents using a non-comparative scale employ whatever rating standard seems appropriate to them.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 264 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

5) The New York City Transit used Likert scales to determine people's perceptions of the subway system and address their concerns, leading to increased ridership.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 263 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

6) In an itemized rating scale, the respondents are provided with a scale that has a number or brief description associated with each category.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 266 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

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7) Itemized rating scales are widely used in marketing research and form the basic components of more complex scales.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 266 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

8) Typically, each Likert scale item has seven response categories, ranging from "strongly disagree" to "strongly agree."

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 266-267 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

9) Likert scale analysis can be conducted on an item-by-item basis (profile analysis).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 266-267 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

10) Profile analysis involves determining the average respondent ratings for each item.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 266-267 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

11) The Likert scale is also referred to as a summated scale.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 266-267 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

12) The negative adjective or phrase sometimes appears at the left side of the scale and sometimes at the right. This controls the tendency of some respondents, particularly those with very positive or negative attitudes, to mark the right-or-left-hand sides without reading the labels.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 266-267 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

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13) The semantic differential is a five-point rating scale with endpoints associated with bipolar labels that have semantic meaning.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 268-269 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

14) Individual items on a semantic differential scale may be scored on either a -3 to +3 or a 1 to 7 scale.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 268-269 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

15) Although the mean is most often used as a summary statistic with semantic differential scale data, there is some controversy as to whether the data obtained should be treated as an interval scale.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 268-269 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

16) The Stapel scale is usually presented horizontally.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 269 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

17) An advantage of the Stapel scale is it can be administered over the telephone.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 269 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

18) Of the three itemized rating scales considered, the semantic differential scale is used the least.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 269 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

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19) The size of the correlation coefficient, a common measure of relationship between variables in itemized rating scales, is influenced by the number of scale categories. The correlation coefficient increases with a reduction in the number of categories.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 270 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

20) The smaller the number of scale categories, the finer the discrimination among stimulus objects that is possible.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 270 LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

21) When determining the number of scale categories to use in a non-comparative itemized rating scale, the nature of the object is relevant.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 270 LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

22) When determining the number of scale categories to use in a non-comparative itemized rating scale, if individual responses are of interest, or the data will be analyzed by sophisticated statistical techniques, five or more scale categories may be required.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 270 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

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23) The Likert scale is a balanced rating scale with an odd number of categories and a neutral point.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 270 LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

24) A forced rating scale forces the respondents to express an opinion because "no opinion" or "no knowledge" options are not provided.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 271 LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

25) In situations where the respondents are expected to have no opinions, as opposed to simply being reluctant to disclose it, the accuracy of data may be improved by a non-forced scale that includes a "no opinion" category.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 271 LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

26) It has been found that providing a verbal description for each scale category consistently improves the accuracy or reliability of the data.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 271 LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

27) Non-comparative itemized rating scales with strong adjectives as anchors (1= strongly disagree, 7= strongly agree) result in less variable and more peaked response contributions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 271 LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

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28) The number of scale categories used in noncomparative itemized scales is fixed at five.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 270 LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

29) A construct is the theory being measured.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 274 LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

30) The scale development process is an iterative one.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 274 LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

31) XO = XT + XS + XR represents the pure score model.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 276 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

32) Reliability refers to the extent to which a scale produces valid results if repeated measurements are made.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 276 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

33) Systematic sources of error do have an adverse impact on reliability because they affect the measurement in a constant way and do not lead to inconsistency.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 276 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

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34) Reliability can be defined as the extent to which measures are free from random error, XR. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 276 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

35) Reliability is assessed by determining the proportion of random variation in a scale.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 276 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

36) In alternative-forms reliability, the same respondents are measured at two different times with an equivalent scale form being administered each time.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 277 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

37) With alternative forms reliability, a low correlation may reflect either an unreliable scale or nonequivalent forms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 277 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

38) An important property of coefficient alpha is that its value tends to decrease with an increase in the number of scale items.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 277 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

39) Coefficient alpha assists in determining whether the averaging process used in calculating coefficient beta is masking any inconsistent items.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 277 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

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40) Perfect validity requires that there be no measurement error, therefore: (XO = XT, XR = 0, XS = 0).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 278 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

41) Given its subjective nature, content validity alone is a sufficient measure of the validity of a scale.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 278 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

42) Construct validity is the simplest and easiest type of validity to establish.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 278 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

43) Using several scale items to measure the characteristic of interest provides more accurate measurement than a single-item scale.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 280 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

44) The semantic differential scale may be said to be pan-cultural or free of cultural bias.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 280-281 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

45) All the noncomparative scales that we have discussed in this chapter can be easily implemented in social media except the Stapel scale that has to be presented vertically.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 281 AACSB: Information technology LO: 9.5 Describe the implementation of noncomparative scaling in social media.

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46) Continuous scales can be used efficiently in social media.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 281 AACSB: Information technology LO: 9.5 Describe the implementation of noncomparative scaling in social media.

47) An analysis of social media content can provide guidance on whether continuous or itemized rating scales should be used.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 281 AACSB: Information technology LO: 9.5 Describe the implementation of noncomparative scaling in social media.

48) Social media should not be used to make rating-scale decisions; such decisions should be based only on theoretical considerations.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 281 AACSB: Information technology LO: 9.5 Describe the implementation of noncomparative scaling in social media.

49) Given space limitations, it is not feasible to employ more than one scaling method to measure a given construct in social media.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 281 AACSB: Information technology LO: 9.5 Describe the implementation of noncomparative scaling in social media.

50) The researcher can bias the scales by either biasing the wording of the statements (Likert type scales), the scale descriptors, or other aspects of the scale.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 283 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 9.7 Understand the ethical issues involved in developing noncomparative scales.

51) In a , respondents rate the objects by placing a mark at the appropriate position on a line that runs from one extreme of the criterion variable to the other.

A) semantic differential scale B) Likert scale C) continuous rating scale D) Stapel scale Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 264 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

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52) How would you rate Wal-Mart as a department store?

Version 1 Probably the worst - - - - - - I ---------------------------------- Probably the best Version 2 Probably the worst - - - - - - I ---------------------------------- Probably the best 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 The above scales are all examples of a .

A) continuous rating scale B) Stapel scale C) Semantic differential scale D) Likert scale Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 264 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

53) Scores assigned to continuous rating scales by the researcher are typically treated as data.

A) nominal B) ordinal C) ratio D) interval Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 264 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

54) Which non-comparative scale has the advantage of being easy to construct and the disadvantage of cumbersome scoring unless the scoring is computerized (Table 9.1 in the text)?

A) semantic differential scale B) Likert scale C) continuous rating scale D) Stapel scale Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 264 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

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55) Which scale is not an itemized rating scale (Table 9.1 in the text)?

A) Stapel scale B) semantic differential scale C) Likert scale D) continuous rating scale Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 264 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

56) Which of the following statements does not pertain to non-comparative scales?

A) Noncomparative scales are often referred to as monadic scales.

B) Respondents using a non-comparative scale employ whatever rating standard seems appropriate.

C) Data must be interpreted in relative terms and have only ordinal or rank order properties.

D) Non-comparative techniques consist of continuous and itemized rating scales.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 264 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

57) A is a measurement scale with five response categories ranging from "strongly disagree" to "strongly agree," which requires the respondents to indicate a degree of agreement or disagreement with each of a series of statements related to the stimulus objects.

A) semantic differential scale B) Likert scale C) continuous rating scale D) Stapel scale Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 266 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

58) The author of your text and his colleagues have developed a scale for measuring Internet users' information privacy concerns. The Awareness (of Privacy Practices) scale uses sevenpoint scales anchored with "strongly disagree" and "strongly agree." This is an example of a .

A) continuous rating scale B) Stapel scale C) semantic differential scale D) Likert scale Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 267 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

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59)

Neither agree Strongly Strongly nor disagree Disagree disagree Agree agree 1. Wal-Mart has poor in-store service 1 2X 3 4 5 2. I like to shop at Wal-Mart.

1 2X 3 4 5 The above scale is an example of a .

A) continuous rating scale B) Stapel scale C) semantic differential scale D) Likert scale Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 266 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

60) Which non-comparative scale is analyzed using profile analysis?

A) Likert scale B) semantic differential scale C) Stapel scale D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 266-269 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

61) Which itemized rating scale takes longer to complete than other itemized rating scales because respondents have to read each statement?

A) semantic differential scale B) Likert scale C) continuous rating scale D) Stapel scale Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 264 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

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62) The Likert scale has several advantages. Which of the following is not an advantage?

A) It does not require a pretest of the adjectives or phrases to ensure bipolarity.

B) Respondents readily understand how to use the scale.

C) It is suitable for mail, telephone, or personal interviews.

D) It is easy to construct and administer.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 264 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

63) A is a seven point rating scale with endpoints associated with bi-polar labels that have semantic meaning.

A) semantic differential scale B) Likert scale C) continuous rating scale D) Stapel scale Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 268-269 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

64) Wal-Mart is: Powerful -:-:-:-:-X-:-:-: Weak Unreliable -:-:-:-:-:-X-:-: Reliable The above scale is an example of a scale.

A) continuous rating B) Stapel C) semantic differential D) Likert Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 268-269 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

65) The is known for its versatility and is very popular with marketing researchers.

A) continuous rating scale B) Stapel scale C) semantic differential scale D) Likert scale Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 268-269 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

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66) A is a scale for measuring attitudes that consists of a single adjective in the middle of an even-numbered range of values, from -5 to +5, without a neutral point (zero).

A) semantic differential scale B) Likert scale C) continuous rating scale D) Stapel scale Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 269 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

67) Which scale asks the respondent to indicate how accurately or inaccurately each term describes the object by selecting an appropriate numerical response category?

A) continuous rating scale B) Stapel scale C) semantic differential scale D) Likert scale Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 269 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

68) The data obtained by using a Stapel scale can be analyzed in the same way as a .

A) continuous rating scale B) Constant sum scale C) semantic differential scale D) Ranking scale Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 269 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

69) The is confusing and difficult to apply. It is the least used of the itemized scales.

A) continuous rating scale B) Stapel scale C) semantic differential scale D) Likert scale Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 269 LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

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70) Which of the following statements is not a consideration when making non-comparative itemized rating scale decisions?

A) the number of scale categories to use B) forced versus non-forced choice C) the order of the scale questions D) balanced versus unbalanced scales Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 270-271 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

71) Which statement is not true if deciding on the number of scale categories to use in a noncomparative itemized rating scale?

A) Traditional guidelines suggest that the appropriate number of categories should be seven plus or minus two: between five and nine.

B) The smaller the number of scale categories, the finer the discrimination among stimulus objects that is possible.

C) If the respondents are not very knowledgeable or not involved with the task, fewer categories should be used.

D) How the data are to be analyzed and used should also influence the number of categories.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 270 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

72) Which statement is true if deciding on the number of scale categories to use in a noncomparative itemized rating scale?

A) If the respondents are interested in the scaling task and are knowledgeable about the objects, a larger number of categories may be employed.

B) Space limitations may restrict the number of categories in mail questionnaires.

C) If telephone interviews are involved, many categories may confuse the respondents.

D) All of the statement above are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 270 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

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73) Which statement is not true when deciding on whether to use balanced or unbalanced scales when developing a non-comparative itemized rating scale?

A) The scale should be balanced to obtain objective data.

B) In a balanced scale, the number of favorable and unfavorable categories are equal.

C) If the distribution of responses is likely to be skewed, either positively or negatively, a balanced scale with more categories in the direction of skewness may be appropriate.

D) If an unbalanced scale is used, the nature and degree of unbalance in the scale should be taken into account in data analysis.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 271 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

74) Which statement is not true when deciding on whether to use an odd or even number of categories when developing a non-comparative itemized rating scale?

A) With an odd number of categories, the middle scale position is generally designated neutral or impartial.

B) The decision to use an odd or even number of categories depends on whether some of the respondents may be neutral on the response being measured.

C) A rating scale with an even number of categories should be used if the researcher wants to force a response.

D) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 271 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

75) Deciding whether to present scales as vertical or horizontal is related to which of the noncomparative itemized rating scale decisions?

A) number of scale categories B) physical form or configuration C) odd or even number of categories D) nature and degree of verbal description Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 271 LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

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76) The scale descriptors "very bad," "bad," "neither bad nor good," "good," and "very good" are commonly used when studying the construct (Table 9.3 in the text).

A) attitude B) satisfaction C) purchase frequency D) purchase intent Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 273 LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

77) The scale descriptors "never," "rarely," "sometimes," "often," and "very often" are commonly used when studying the construct (Table 9.3 in the text).

A) attitude B) satisfaction C) purchase frequency D) purchase intent Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 273 LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

78) is the first step in developing a multi-item scale. is the last step.

A) Generate an initial pool of items; Prepare the final scale B) Develop a theory; Prepare a final scale C) Develop a theory; Develop a purified scale D) Generate an initial pool of items; Develop a purified scale Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 274 LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

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79) A multi-item scale should be evaluated for accuracy and applicability. This involves an assessment of all of the following except .

A) reliability B) generalizability C) stability D) validity Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 276 LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

80) Validity can be assessed by examining all of the following except .

A) item validity B) content validity C) criterion validity D) construct validity Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 276 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

81) is the variation in the information sought by the researcher and the information generated by the measurement process employed.

A) Systematic error B) Measurement error C) Random error D) Variable error Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 276 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

82) Which of the following is not an approach to assess multi-item scale reliability?

A) test-retest reliability B) construct reliability C) alternative forms reliability D) internal consistency reliability Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 276 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

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83) XO = XT + XS + XR In the true score model shown above, XT represents .

A) random error B) the observed score or measurement C) the true score of the characteristic D) systematic error Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 276 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

84) Situational factors, such as the lack of clarity of the scale, including the instructions or the items themselves, and analysis factors, such as differences in scoring and statistical analysis are both in measurement.

A) random error B) potential sources of reliability C) potential sources of error D) systematic error Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 276 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

85) represents stable factors that affect the observed score in the same way each time the measurement is made, such as mechanical factors (see Fig. 9.6 in the text).

A) Systematic error B) Measurement error C) Random error D) Variable error Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 276 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

86) is not constant. It represents transient factors that affect the observed score in different ways each time the measurement is made, such as transient personal or situational factors.

A) Systematic error B) Measurement error C) Random error D) Variable error Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 276 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

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87) is the extent to which a scale produces consistent results if repeated measurements are made on the characteristic.

A) Validity B) Generalizability C) Reliability D) None of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 276 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

88) A measure is perfectly reliable if .

A) XO = 0 B) XT = 0 C) XS = 0 D) XR = 0 Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 276 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

89) is an approach for assessing reliability in which respondents are administered identical sets of scale items at two different times under as nearly equivalent conditions as possible.

A) Internal consistency reliability B) Split-half reliability C) Test-retest reliability D) Alternative-forms reliability Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 277 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

90) In the degree of similarity between two measurements is determined by computing a correlation coefficient. The higher the correlation coefficient, the greater the reliability.

A) test-retest reliability B) internal consistency reliability C) coefficient alpha D) coefficient beta Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 277 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

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91) There are several problems associated with the test-retest approach to determining reliability.

If measuring respondents' attitude toward low-fat milk may cause them to become more health conscious and develop a more positive attitude toward low-fat milk, then there is a problem with .

A) the time interval between testing B) the initial measurement altering the characteristic being measured C) it being impossible to make repeated measurements D) the first measurement having a carryover effect to the second or subsequent measurements Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 277 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

92) Which of the following is not a problem with alternative-forms reliability?

A) The results will depend on how the scale items are split.

B) It is time consuming and expensive to construct an equivalent form of the scale.

C) It is difficult to construct two equivalent forms of a scale.

D) Both B and C are correct.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 277 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

93) is an approach for assessing the internal consistency of the set of items when several items are summated in order to form a total score for the scale.

A) Internal consistency reliability B) Split-half reliability C) Test-retest reliability D) Alternative-forms reliability Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 277 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

94) is a form of internal consistency reliability in which the items constituting the scale are divided into two halves and the resulting half scores are correlated.

A) Internal consistency reliability B) Split-half reliability C) Test-retest reliability D) Alternative-forms reliability Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 277 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

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95) is a measure of internal consistency reliability that is the average of all possible split-half coefficients resulting from different splittings of the scale items.

A) Coefficient delta B) Coefficient alpha C) Coefficient beta D) Coefficient eta Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 277 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

96) is the extent to which differences in observed scale scores reflect true differences among objects on the characteristics being measured, rather than systematic or random errors.

A) Validity B) Generalizability C) Reliability D) None of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 278 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

97) is a type of validity, sometimes called face validity, that consists of a subjective but systematic evaluation of the representativeness of the content of a scale for the measuring task at hand.

A) Construct validity B) Content validity C) Criterion validity D) Internal consistency validity Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 278 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

98) A scale designed to measure store image would be considered inadequate if it omitted any of the major dimensions (quality, variety, assortment of merchandise, etc.). This inadequacy would be reflected in the of the scale.

A) construct validity B) content validity C) criterion validity D) internal consistency validity Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 278 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

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99) is a type of validity that examines whether the measurement scale performs as expected in relation to other variables selected as meaningful criteria.

A) Construct validity B) Content validity C) Criterion validity D) Internal consistency validity Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 278 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

100) is assessed when the data on the scale being evaluated on the criterion variables are collected at the same time.

A) Convergent validity B) Predictive validity C) Concurrent validity D) Discriminant validity Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 278 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

101) To assess , a type of criterion validity, the researcher collects data on the scale at one point in time and data on the criterion variables at a future time.

A) convergent validity B) predictive validity C) concurrent validity D) discriminant validity Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 278 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

102) is a type of validity that addresses the question of what construct or characteristic the scale is measuring. An attempt is made to answer theoretical questions of why a scale works and what deductions can be made concerning the theory underlying the scale.

A) Construct validity B) Content validity C) Criterion validity D) Internal consistency validity Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 278 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

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103) is a measure of construct validity that measures the extent to which the scale correlates positively with other measures of the same construct.

A) Convergent validity B) Discriminant validity C) Nomological validity D) Concurrent validity Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 279 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

104) is a type of construct validity that assesses the extent to which a measure does not correlate with other constructs from which it is supposed to differ.

A) Convergent validity B) Discriminant validity C) Nomological validity D) Concurrent validity Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 279 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

105) is a type of validity that assesses the relationship between theoretical constructs.

It seeks to confirm significant correlations between the constructs as predicted by theory.

A) Convergent validity B) Discriminant validity C) Nomological validity D) Concurrent validity Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 279 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

106) Which statement is not true regarding the relationship between reliability and validity?

A) If a measure is perfectly valid, it is also perfectly reliable.

B) Unreliability implies invalidity.

C) If a measure is perfectly reliable, it is perfectly valid.

D) Reliability is a necessary, but not sufficient, condition for validity.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 279 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

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107) is the degree to which a study based on a sample applies to a universe of generalizations.

A) Validity B) Generalizability C) Reliability D) None of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 279-280 LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

108) Which statement about generalizability is not true?

A) The set of all conditions of measurement over which the investigator wishes to generalize is the universe of generalizations.

B) In generalizability studies, measurement procedures are designed to investigate the universes of interest by sampling conditions of measurement from each of them.

C) To generalize to other universes, facet theory procedures must be employed.

D) Traditional reliability methods can be viewed as single-facet generalizability studies.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 279-280 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

109) When choosing a scaling technique, which of the following factors should be considered?

A) the capabilities of the respondents B) the levels of information needed (nominal, ordinal, interval, or ratio) C) the method of administration D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 280 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

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110) When developing scales for international research, the researcher must pay special attention to details that can make the measurement instrument specific to the country in which the instrument will be used. Which of the following should be of concern to the marketing researcher when developing scales for international research?

A) Special attention should be devoted to determining equivalent verbal descriptors in different languages and cultures.

B) Scale endpoints and the verbal descriptors should be employed in a manner that is consistent with the culture.

C) It is critical to establish the equivalence of scales and measures used to obtain data from different countries.

D) All of the above are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 280-281 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 9.4 Discuss the considerations involved in implementing noncomparative scales in an international setting.

111) A researcher developed scales using a 7-point scale with anchor descriptors of "horrible" and "good." This researcher has created an ethical violation in the area of .

A) generalizability B) bias C) reliability D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 283 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 9.7 Understand the ethical issues involved in developing noncomparative scales.

112) Explain how continuous rating scales can be easily implemented on the Internet.

Answer: Continuous rating scales can be easily implemented on the Internet. The cursor can be moved on the screen in a continuous fashion to select the exact position on the scale that best describes the respondent's evaluation. Moreover, the scale values can be automatically scored by the computer, thus increasing the speed and accuracy of processing the data.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 264-265 AACSB: Information technology LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

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113) What are the advantages and disadvantages of the Likert scale?

Answer: The advantages of the Likert scale are as follows: 1. Respondents readily understand how to use the scale.

2. It is suitable for mail, telephone, or personal interviews.

3. It is easy to construct and administer.

The major disadvantage of the Likert scale is that it takes longer to complete than other itemized rating scales because respondents have to read each statement.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 267 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.1 Describe the noncomparative scaling techniques, distinguish between continuous and itemized rating scales, and explain Likert, semantic differential, and Stapel scales.

114) What six major decisions must the researcher make when constructing non-comparative itemized rating scales?

Answer: 1. the number of scale categories to use 2. balanced versus unbalanced scales 3. odd or even number of categories 4. forced versus non-forced choice 5. the nature and degree of the verbal description 6. the physical form of the scale Diff: 2 Page Ref: 270 LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

115) Figure 9.4 in the text showed the development of a multi-item scale. Discuss the development process.

Answer: Data are collected on the reduced set of potential scale items from a large pretest sample of respondents. The data are analyzed using techniques such as correlations, factor analysis, cluster analysis, discriminant analysis, and statistical tests. As a result of these statistical analyses, several more items are eliminated, resulting in a purified scale. The purified scale is evaluated for reliability and validity by collecting more data from a different sample. On the basis of these assessments, a final set of scale items is selected. As can be seen from Figure 9.4 in the text, the scale development process is an iterative one with several feedback loops.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 274 LO: 9.2 Discuss the decisions involved in constructing itemized rating scales with respect to the number of scale categories, balanced versus unbalanced scales, odd or even number of categories, forced versus nonforced choice, degree of verbal description, and the physical form of the scale.

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116) Discuss coefficient alpha and how its value might be inflated.

Answer: The coefficient alpha, or Cronbach's alpha, is the average of all possible split-half coefficients resulting from different ways of splitting the scale items. This coefficient varies from 0 to 1, and a value of 0.6 or less generally indicates unsatisfactory internal consistency reliability.

An important property of coefficient alpha is that its value tends to increase with an increase in the number of scale items. Therefore, coefficient alpha may be artificially, and inappropriately, inflated by including several redundant scale items.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 277-278 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

117) What is the appropriate way to assess the internal consistency of a multi-item scale with sets of items designed to measure different aspects of a multi-dimensional construct?

Answer: Some multi-item scales include several sets of items designed to measure different aspects of a multidimensional construct. For example, store image is a multidimensional construct that includes quality of merchandise, variety and assortment of merchandise, layout of the store, and credit and billing policies. Hence, a scale designed to measure store image would contain items measuring each of these dimensions. Because these dimensions are somewhat independent, a measure of internal consistency computed across dimensions would be inappropriate. However, if several items are used to measure each dimension, internal consistency reliability can be computed for each dimension.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 277-278 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

118) Discuss construct validity and the types of construct validity.

Answer: Construct validity addresses the question of what construct or characteristic the scale is, in fact, measuring. When assessing construct validity, the researcher attempts to answer theoretical questions about why the scale works and what deductions can be made concerning the underlying theory. Thus, construct validity requires a sound theory of the nature of the construct being measured and how it relates to other constructs. Construct validity is the most sophisticated and difficult type of validity to establish. As Figure 9.5 in the text shows, construct validity includes convergent, discriminant, and nomological validity.

Convergent validity is the extent to which the scale correlates positively with other measures of the same construct. It is not necessary that all these measures be obtained by using conventional scaling techniques. Discriminant validity is the extent to which a measure does not correlate with other constructs from which it is supposed to differ. It involves demonstrating a lack of correlation among differing constructs. Nomological validity is the extent to which the scale correlates in theoretically predicted ways with measures of different but related constructs. A theoretical model is formulated that leads to further deductions, tests, and inferences. Gradually, a nomological net is built in which several constructs are systematically interrelated.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 278-279 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.3 Discuss the criteria used for scale evaluation and explain how to assess reliability, validity, and generalizability.

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119) What differentiates mathematically derived scales from the other non-comparative scaling techniques?

Answer: All the scaling techniques discussed in the chapter required the respondents to evaluate directly various characteristics of the stimulus objects. In contrast, mathematical scaling techniques allow researchers to infer respondents' evaluations of characteristics of stimulus objects. These evaluations are inferred from the respondents' overall judgments of the objects.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 280 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.4 Discuss the considerations involved in implementing noncomparative scales in an international setting.

120) Discuss the implementation of Continuous and itemized rating scales in mobile marketing research.

Answer: Continuous as well as itemized rating scales can be implemented in mobile marketing research (MMR). Continuous scales may be implemented using sliders. Of the itemized rating scales, Likert type of scales are the easiest to implement on mobile devices, whereas Stapel scales are the most difficult. Stapel scales are presented vertically, thus requiring more space.

Given the smaller screen sizes, the number of scale categories are fewer in MMR as compared to online surveys administered on computers. For the same reason, fewer verbal descriptions are used in MMR. Often, modifications to the original scales are made when implementing them on MMR. Systematic research is needed as to how these modifications affect the reliability and validity of these scales.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 282 AACSB: Information technology LO: 9.6 Elucidate the use of noncomparative scaling in mobile marketing research.

121) What are some of the ethical responsibilities of researchers when they are developing scales?

Answer: The researcher has the ethical responsibility to use scales that have reasonable reliability, validity, and generalizability. The findings generated by scales that are unreliable, invalid, or not generalizable to the target population are questionable at best and raise serious ethical issues. Moreover, the researcher should not bias the scales so as to slant the findings in any particular direction.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 283 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 9.7 Understand the ethical issues involved in developing noncomparative scales.

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Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 10 Questionnaire and Form Design 1) A standardized questionnaire or form will ensure comparability of the data, increase speed and accuracy of recording, and facilitate data processing.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 293 LO: 10.1 Explain the purpose of a questionnaire and its objectives of asking questions that the respondents can and will answer, encouraging respondents, and minimizing response error.

2) Another name for questionnaire is schedule instrument.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 293 LO: 10.1 Explain the purpose of a questionnaire and its objectives of asking questions that the respondents can and will answer, encouraging respondents, and minimizing response error.

3) A questionnaire is an informal set of questions for obtaining information from respondents.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 293 LO: 10.1 Explain the purpose of a questionnaire and its objectives of asking questions that the respondents can and will answer, encouraging respondents, and minimizing response error.

4) Two apparently similar ways of posing a question always yields the same information.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 293 LO: 10.1 Explain the purpose of a questionnaire and its objectives of asking questions that the respondents can and will answer, encouraging respondents, and minimizing response error.

5) A well-designed questionnaire can motivate the respondents and increase the response rate.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 293 LO: 10.1 Explain the purpose of a questionnaire and its objectives of asking questions that the respondents can and will answer, encouraging respondents, and minimizing response error.

6) A questionnaire can be a major source of response error.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 293-294 LO: 10.1 Explain the purpose of a questionnaire and its objectives of asking questions that the respondents can and will answer, encouraging respondents, and minimizing response error.

7) The steps in the questionnaire design process are interrelated and the development of a questionnaire will involve some iteration and looping.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 294 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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8) The more diversified the respondent group, the more difficult it is to design a single questionnaire that is appropriate for the entire group.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 293-294 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

9) All questions on a questionnaire should contribute to the information needed or serve some specific purpose.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 296 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

10) Respondents may not be able to respond because they are unable to articulate a response, they may not be informed, or they may not remember.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 297-299 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

11) Respondents do not answer questions on which they are not informed.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 297-298 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

12) Filter questions enable the researcher to filter out respondents who are not adequately informed.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 298 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

13) A "don't know" option does not appear to reduce uninformed responses without reducing the overall response rate or the response rate for questions about which the respondents have information.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 298 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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14) Questions such as "What did you have for lunch a week ago?" are correct questions because consumers are very good at remembering quantities of products consumed.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 298 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

15) Creation error is the inability to recall an event that actually took place.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 298 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

16) Research indicates that questions that rely on unaided recall can underestimate the actual occurrence of an event.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 298 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

17) Omission error takes place when a respondent "remembers" and event that did not actually occur.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 298 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

18) Omission, telescoping, and creation are errors that may occur if the respondent has a problem remembering the information asked in the questionnaire.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 298 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

19) Respondents that are unwilling to give responses should be given aids such as pictures, maps, and descriptions to help them articulate their responses.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 299-300 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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20) Respondents with responses that are difficult to articulate should be given aids such as pictures, maps, and descriptions to help them articulate their responses.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 299-300 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

21) Respondents may be unwilling to answer a particular question because too much effort is required or they may not remember the information that is being asked.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 299-300 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

22) The researcher can manipulate the context in which the questions are asked so that the questions seem appropriate.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 299-300 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

23) Sensitive topics should be placed at the beginning of the questionnaire to get the difficult questions over with.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 299-300 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

24) "What is your occupation?" is a free-answer question.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 301-303 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

25) Free-response questions are good as first questions on a topic.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 301-303 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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26) A principal disadvantage of structured questions is that potential for interviewer bias is high.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 301-303 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

27) A principal disadvantage of unstructured questions is that potential for interviewer bias is high.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 301-303 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

28) Respondents exhibiting order or position bias tend to check the first or last statement in a list.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 301-303 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

29) To control for order bias, several forms of the questionnaire should be prepared with the order in which alternatives are listed varied from form to form.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 301-303 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

30) Dichotomous questions cannot have neutral alternatives such as "don't know" or "no opinion."

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 301-303 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

31) Choosing question structure is probably the most difficult task in developing a questionnaire.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 301-303 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

32) When developing questions, the researcher should avoid leading questions like "What is your favorite brand of toothpaste?"

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 304-307 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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33) Mentioning the sponsor of a project in the question might bias the respondent towards the sponsor.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 304-307 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

34) An alternative that is not explicitly expressed in the options is an explicit alternative.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 304-307 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

35) There is evidence that the response to a question is influenced by the directionality of the question.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 304-307 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

36) Opening questions should be used to get at the purpose of the questionnaire quickly.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 307-309 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

37) Qualifying questions should not serve as opening questions.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 307-309 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

38) Information should be obtained in the following order: basic, identification, classification.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 307-309 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

39) The inverted funnel is a strategy for ordering questions in a questionnaire in which the sequence starts with the general questions that are followed by progressively specific questions in order to prevent specific questions from biasing general questions.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 307-309 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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40) The inverted funnel approach is useful when respondents have no strong feelings or have not formulated a point of view.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 307-309 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

41) In questionnaire design, assigning a code to every conceivable response before data collection is called pre-coding.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 310 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

42) All aspects of the questionnaire should be pretested, including question content, wording, sequence, form and layout, question difficulty, and instructions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 312 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

43) Respondents for the pretest and for the actual survey should not be drawn from the same population.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 312 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

44) Pretests are best done by personal interviews, even if the actual survey is to be conducted by mail, telephone, or electronic means.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 312 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

45) Protocol analysis and debriefing are two commonly used procedures in pretesting.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 312 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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46) The responses obtained from the pretest should be coded and analyzed.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 312-313 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

47) Forms for recording observational data are more difficult to construct than questionnaires.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 315-316 LO: 10.3 Discuss the observational form of data collection and specify the who, what, when, where, why, and way of behavior to be observed.

48) Observational forms and questionnaires require adequate pretesting.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 315-316 LO: 10.3 Discuss the observational form of data collection and specify the who, what, when, where, why, and way of behavior to be observed.

49) The questionnaire or research instrument should be biased in terms of the country in which it will be used.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 316-317 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 10.4 Discuss the considerations involved in designing questionnaires for international marketing research.

50) Information on demographic characteristics such as marital status, education, household size, occupation, income, and dwelling unit may have to be specified differently for different countries, as these variables may not be directly comparable across countries.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 316-317 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 10.4 Discuss the considerations involved in designing questionnaires for international marketing research.

51) Unstructured questions reduce cultural bias because they do not impose any response alternatives.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 316-317 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 10.4 Discuss the considerations involved in designing questionnaires for international marketing research.

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52) Analysis of social media can give an understanding that can be valuable in designing an appropriate questionnaire for use in social media surveys but not in traditional surveys.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 318 LO: 10.5 Explain how social media interface with questionnaire design.

53) An analysis of social media content can aid in determining the content, structure, and wording of individual questions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 318 AACSB: Information technology LO: 10.5 Explain how social media interface with questionnaire design.

54) For questionnaires to be used in surveys to be conducted in social media, the general principles and guidelines for questionnaire design remain the same as those for traditional media.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 318 AACSB: Information technology LO: 10.5 Explain how social media interface with questionnaire design.

55) To minimize discomfort, it should be made clear at the beginning of the interview that respondents are not obligated to answer a question that makes them uncomfortable.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 319-320 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 10.7 Understand the ethical issues involved in questionnaire design.

56) The researcher has the ethical responsibility of designing the questionnaire so as to obtain the required information in a biased manner.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 319-320 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 10.7 Understand the ethical issues involved in questionnaire design.

57) According to your test, comScore recruited 87 American and Canadian Web sites to participate in a study to determine what design features and experiences make visitors return to a site. The results of the survey found that was the most important factor in determining whether or not a site would receive repeat visit visitors.

A) whether or not the respondent found the site visit enjoyable B) content C) quality of the organization of the site and its degree of uniqueness D) frivolous content Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 292 AACSB: Information technology LO: 10.1 Explain the purpose of a questionnaire and its objectives of asking questions that the respondents can and will answer, encouraging respondents, and minimizing response error.

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58) Typically, a questionnaire is only one element of a data-collection package that might also include all of the following except .

A) some reward B) communication aids C) a data code book D) fieldwork procedures Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 293 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.1 Explain the purpose of a questionnaire and its objectives of asking questions that the respondents can and will answer, encouraging respondents, and minimizing response error.

59) Which of the following is not an objective of a questionnaire?

A) A questionnaire must translate the information needed into a set of specific questions that the respondents can and will answer.

B) A questionnaire must be easy to use.

C) A questionnaire must uplift, motivate, and encourage the respondent to become involved in the interview, to cooperate, and to complete the interview.

D) A questionnaire should minimize response error.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 293 LO: 10.1 Explain the purpose of a questionnaire and its objectives of asking questions that the respondents can and will answer, encouraging respondents, and minimizing response error.

60) Which of the following is not a part of the questionnaire design process?

A) Specify the type of interviewing method.

B) Arrange questions in proper order.

C) Reproduce the questionnaire.

D) Develop sampling plan.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 293-294 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

61) The great weakness of questionnaire design is lack of .

A) precision B) accuracy C) theory D) consensus Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 293-294 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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62) The first step in the questionnaire design process is .

A) specify the type of interview method B) identify the form and layout C) specify the information needed D) determine the content of individual questions Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 293-294 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

63) When developing a questionnaire, to ensure that the information obtained fully addresses all components of the problem, the researcher should .

A) review components of the problem and the approach B) prepare a set of dummy tables C) have a clear idea of the target population D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 294 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

64) A describes how the analysis will be structured once the data have been collected.

A) dummy table B) analysis table C) dummy plan D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 294 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

65) The type of method influences questionnaire design. Considering how the questionnaire is administered under each method, which method is most appropriate if lengthy, complex, and varied questions need to be asked?

A) mail questionnaire B) telephone interview C) personal interview D) Internet questionnaire Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 295-296 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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66) If you are deciding between personal interviews or computer-assisted interviewing, you are at which step of the questionnaire design process?

A) Specify the type of interviewing method.

B) Determine the content of individual questions.

C) Arrange the questions in proper order.

D) Eliminate bugs by pretesting.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 295-296 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

67) Deciding if a question is necessary or if several questions are needed rather than one are decisions involved with .

A) determining the order of scales B) choosing question wording C) choosing question structure D) individual question content Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 296-297 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

68) "Do you think Coca-Cola is a tasty and refreshing soft drink?" is an example of a .

A) structured question B) dichotomous question C) double-barreled question D) branching question Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 296-297 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

69) A is a single question that attempts to cover two issues.

A) structured question B) dichotomous question C) double-barreled question D) branching question Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 296-297 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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70) When determining if a question is necessary, in some situations it may be necessary to ask questions that are not directly related to the information that is needed. Which of the reasons stated below were given in your text as reasons why questions not related to the information needed might be included in the questionnaire?

A) to establish involvement and rapport B) to disguise the purpose or sponsorship of the project C) to generate client support for the project D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 296-297 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

71) Most "why" questions about the use of a product or choice alternative involve two aspects: and .

A) attributes of the product; influences leading to knowledge of the product B) attributes of the product; how the product is used C) how the product is used; influences leading to knowledge of the product D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 296-297 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

72) that measure familiarity, product use, and past experience should be asked before questions about the topics themselves.

A) Branching questions B) Filler questions C) Dichotomous questions D) Filter questions Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 298 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

73) "Is the respondent informed?", "Can the respondent remember?", and "Can the respondent articulate?" are all questions asked in the stage of the questionnaire design process.

A) overcoming unwillingness to answer B) specify the type of interviewing method C) overcoming inability to answer D) choosing question wording Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 297-299 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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74) Respondents' inability to remember leads to three types of error. Which of the errors listed below is not mentioned in the text as one of the types of errors created by respondents?

A) telescoping B) creation error C) recall error D) omission error Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 297-299 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

75) The respondents' ability to remember an event is influenced by all of the following except .

A) the event itself B) the time elapsed since the event C) the presence or absence of events that would aid memory D) where you were when the event occurred Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 297-299 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

76) Which of the following is not a reason why a respondent might be unwilling to answer a particular question?

A) The respondent may not be informed.

B) Too much effort is required.

C) The situation or context may not seem appropriate for disclosure.

D) No legitimate purpose or need for the information requested is apparent.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 299-300 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

77) When trying to overcome respondents' unwillingness to answer, the researcher might list the possible responses a respondent might make. More specifically, the list is an effort by the researcher to .

A) increasing the unwillingness of respondents B) obtain sensitive information C) put the information request in context D) reduce the effort required of the respondents Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 299-300 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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78) Sally was reluctant to answer questions about her personal hygiene until she saw that the survey was sponsored by the American Medical Association. Sally's understanding of who sponsored the survey helped with which aspect of "overcoming the respondent's unwillingness to answer"?

A) legitimate purpose B) context C) sensitive information D) increasing the willingness of the respondent Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 299-300 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

79) All of the statements below are ways in which the researcher can encourage respondents to provide information they are unwilling to give except .

A) preface the question with a statement that the behavior of interest is common B) provide response categories rather than asking for specific figures C) use randomized techniques D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 299-300 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

80) refer to open-ended questions that respondents answer in their own words.

A) Dichotomous questions B) Structured questions C) Unstructured questions D) Branching questions Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 301-303 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

81) "Describe your college experience" and "What is your occupation?" are questions.

A) dichotomous B) filter C) structured D) unstructured Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 301-303 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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82) Which of the following statements is not an advantage of unstructured questions?

A) Unstructured questions are good as first questions on a topic.

B) Implicitly, unstructured questions give extra weight to respondents who are more articulate.

C) Unstructured questions have a much less biasing influence on response than structured questions.

D) Unstructured questions are useful in exploratory research.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 301-303 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

83) Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of unstructured questions?

A) Unstructured questions are not suitable for self-administered questionnaires.

B) Coding of responses is costly and time consuming.

C) Unstructured questions have a much less biasing influence on response than structured questions.

D) Implicitly, unstructured questions give extra weight to respondents who are more articulate.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 301-303 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

84) Which of the following statements is not true about unstructured questions?

A) Open-ended questions are useful in exploratory research.

B) Precoding can overcome some of the disadvantages of unstructured questions.

C) Open-ended questions are useful as opening questions.

D) Unstructured questions can suffer from order or position bias.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 301-303 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

85) specify the set of response alternatives and the response format.

A) Filter questions B) Structured questions C) Unstructured questions D) Branching questions Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 301-303 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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86) Which of the following is not a type of structured question?

A) multiple choice B) dichotomous C) scale D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 301-303 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

87) When developing questionnaire questions, if you are considering order position bias and the set of all possible response alternatives, you are developing questions.

A) multiple choice B) dichotomous C) scale D) branching Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 301-303 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

88) Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of structured questions?

A) Coding and processing of data are much less costly and time consuming.

B) Considerable effort is required to design effective multiple choice questions.

C) Showing respondents the list of possible answers produces biased responses.

D) It is difficult to obtain information on alternatives not listed.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 301-303 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

89) What is the one acute problem of dichotomous questions?

A) There is potential for position bias.

B) It is difficult to obtain information on alternatives not listed.

C) The response can be influenced by the wording of the question.

D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 301-303 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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90) is the translation of the desired question content and structure into words that respondents can clearly and easily understand.

A) The questionnaire design process B) Question wording C) Overcoming inability to answer D) Determining the content of individual questions Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 304-307 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

91) When developing a questionnaire, the following guidelines: (1) use positive and negative statements, (2) avoid implicit alternatives, and (3) avoid leading questions, are used when .

A) arranging questions in proper order B) choosing question wording C) designing questions to overcome the respondent's inability to answer D) determining the content of individual questions Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 304-307 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

92) When developing a questionnaire, the six Ws (who, what, when, where, why, and way) are used when .

A) defining the issue B) choosing question wording C) avoiding generalizations and estimates D) determining the content of individual questions Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 304-307 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

93) Choosing between the questions "Do you think the distribution of soft drinks is adequate?"

(Incorrect) and "Do you think soft drinks are readily available when you want to buy them?"

(Correct) are examples of situations that pertain to .

A) avoiding leading questions B) avoiding ambiguous words C) using positive and negative statements D) using ordinary words Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 304-307 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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94) Which of the words below is an ambiguous word?

A) once B) never C) often D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 304-307 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

95) When developing a questionnaire, if the researcher is asking him/herself if the word means what he/she intended; if it has any other meanings; if the word has more than one pronunciation; or if a simpler phrase is suggested, then he/she is probably concerned with .

A) avoiding leading questions B) avoiding ambiguous words C) using defining the issue D) using ordinary words Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 304-307 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

96) A is a question that gives the respondent a clue as to what answer is desired or leads the respondent to answer in a certain way.

A) leading question B) implicit alternative C) filter question D) structured question Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 304-307 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

97) Which of the following statements is correct about implicit alternatives?

A) Making an implied alternative explicit may increase the percentage of people selecting that alternative.

B) When alternatives are close in preference or large in number, the alternatives at the end of the list have a greater chance of being selected.

C) The split ballot technique should be used to rotate the order in which a list of alternatives appear.

D) All of the above are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 304-307 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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98) "Do you like to fly when traveling short distances?" is an example of a(n) .

A) implicit assumption B) implicit alternative C) generalization D) All of the above are correct.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 304-307 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

99) "Are you in favor of a balanced budget?" is an example of a(n) .

A) implicit assumption B) implicit alternative C) generalization D) All of the above are correct.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 304-307 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

100) The statement "Questions should be specific, not general." pertains to the aspect of questionnaire development.

A) avoid implicit assumptions B) avoid implicit alternatives C) avoid generalizations and estimates D) use unambiguous words Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 304-307 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

101) The information that is of the most importance to the research project and should be obtained first is .

A) qualifying information B) identification information C) basic information D) classification information Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 308 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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102) is information that relates directly to the research problem.

A) Qualifying information B) Identification information C) Basic information D) Classification information Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 307-309 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

103) is socioeconomic and demographic characteristics used to classify respondents.

A) Qualifying information B) Identification information C) Basic information D) Classification information Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 307-309 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

104) is a type of information obtained in a questionnaire that includes name, address, and phone number.

A) Qualifying information B) Identification information C) Basic information D) Classification information Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 307-309 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

105) Which of the following statements is true about difficult questions?

A) Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the section on basic information.

B) Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the identification section.

C) Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the classification section.

D) All of the statements are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 307-309 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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106) Which statement is correct concerning the effect on subsequent questions?

A) As a rule of thumb, general questions should precede specific questions to prevent specific questions from biasing responses to general questions.

B) The inverted funnel approach is useful when respondents have no strong feelings or have not formulated a point of view.

C) The inverted funnel approach is particularly useful when information has to be obtained about respondents' general choice behavior and their evaluations of specific products.

D) All are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 307-309 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

107) are questions used to guide an interviewer through a survey by directing the interviewer to different spots on the questionnaire depending on the answers given.

A) Leading questions B) Branching questions C) Opening questions D) Multiple choice questions Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 309 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

108) Experiments on mail questionnaires for census of population revealed what about questionnaire form and layout?

A) Questions at the top of the page received more attention than those placed at the bottom.

B) Sensitive information placed at the end of the questionnaire was answered more frequently than sensitive information placed elsewhere.

C) Instructions printed in red made little difference except that they made the questionnaire appear more complicated to the respondents.

D) Both A and C are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 310 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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109) Which of the following practices should be avoided when reproducing the questionnaire?

A) If the printed questionnaire runs to several pages, it should take the form of a booklet.

B) Sideways formatting and splitting should be done to conserve space.

C) Directions or instructions should be placed as close to the questions as possible.

D) Surveys directed at different respondent groups can be reproduced on different colored paper.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 311-312 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

110) is the testing of the questionnaire on a small sample of respondents for the purpose of improving the questionnaire by identifying and eliminating potential problems.

A) Funneling B) Telescoping C) Posttesting D) Pretesting Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 312-313 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

111) Which statement is not true about pretests?

A) To the extent possible, a pretest should involve administering the questionnaire in an environment and context similar to that of the actual survey.

B) A variety of interviewers should be used for pretests.

C) The project director, the researcher who developed the questionnaire, and other key members of the research team should conduct some pretest interviews.

D) It is a good practice to employ only experienced interviewers to conduct pretests.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 312-313 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

112) Observational forms should specify the who, what, and when of the behavior to be observed. The forms should also specify all of the items below except A) where B) whether C) why D) way Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 315-316 LO: 10.3 Discuss the observational form of data collection and specify the who, what, when, where, why, and way of behavior to be observed.

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113) Which of the following statements are true concerning questionnaire design for international marketing research?

A) The questionnaire may have to be suitable for administration by more than one method.

B) It is desirable to have two or more simple questions rather than a single complex question.

C) Unstructured or open-ended questions should be used with caution in countries with high illiteracy rates.

D) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 316-317 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 10.4 Discuss the considerations involved in designing questionnaires for international marketing research.

114) According to the guidelines of Marketing Research and Intelligence Association of Canada, with the exception of , questionnaires that take more than minutes to complete are generally considered "overly" long.

A) in-home personal interviews; 60 B) computer-assisted personal interviews; 60 C) in-home personal interviews; 30 D) computer-assisted personal interviews; 30 Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 319 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 10.7 Understand the ethical issues involved in questionnaire design.

115) If a researcher were trying to overcome the unwillingness of respondents to answer by considering the effort required of the respondents, what might he/she do to make the respondent more willing to respond? Develop an example question (showing the incorrect and correct way to best overcome the respondents unwillingness to answer) to clarify your response.

Answer: The researcher should minimize the effort required by providing lists of options for respondents to check off instead of asking respondents to provide their own list. (The student should provide his/her own supporting example like the department store example given in Chapter 10.)

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 299-300 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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116) Discuss at least three things that the researcher who is developing a questionnaire can do to increase the willingness of the respondent to answer.

Answer: Using the following techniques may encourage respondents to provide information that they are unwilling to give: ∙ Place sensitive topics at the end of the questionnaire. By then, initial mistrust has been overcome, rapport has been created, legitimacy of the project has been established, and respondents are more willing to give information. ∙ Preface the question with a statement that the behavior of interest is common. For example, before requesting information on credit card debt, say, "Recent studies show that most Americans are in debt." This technique is called the use of counter-biasing statements. ∙ Ask the question using the third-person technique; phrase the question as if it referred to other people. ∙ Hide the question in a group of other questions that respondents are willing to answer. The entire list of questions can then be asked quickly. ∙ Provide response categories rather than asking for specific figures. Do not ask, "What is your household's annual income?" Instead, ask the respondent to check the appropriate income category: under $25,000, $25,001-$50,000, $50,001-$75,000, or over $75,000. In personal interviews, give the respondents cards that list the numbered choices. The respondents then indicate their responses by number. ∙ Use randomized techniques. In these techniques, respondents are presented with two questions, one sensitive and the other a neutral question with a known probability of a "yes" response (e.g., "Is your birthday in March?") They are asked to select one question randomly, for example by flipping a coin. The respondent then answers the selected question "yes" or "no," without telling the researcher which question is being answered. Given the overall probability of a "yes" response, the probability of selecting the sensitive question, and the probability of a "yes" response to the neutral question, the researcher can determine the probability of a "yes" response to the sensitive question using the law of probability. However, the researcher cannot determine which respondents have answered "yes" to the sensitive question.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 299-300 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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117) What techniques can the researcher use when trying to overcome a respondent's inability to answer?

Answer: ∙ To determine if respondents are informed, filter questions should be used to measure familiarity, product use, and past experience. The filter questions should be asked before questions about the topics themselves. A "don't know" option reduces uninformed responses without reducing overall response rate for questions. Hence, this option should be provided when the researcher expects that respondents may not be adequately informed about the subject of the question. ∙ To help the respondent remember, researchers should provide respondents with aids such as pictures, maps, and descriptions to help them articulate their responses. ∙ To help the respondent articulate responses, the researcher should provide the respondent various alternative descriptions of the area of interest so that the respondent could pick out the one they like best.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 297-299 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

118) What criteria should the researcher use when deciding whether to use a neutral alternative with dichotomous questions?

Answer: If a neutral alternative is not included, respondents are forced to choose between "yes" and "no" even if they feel indifferent. On the other hand, if a neutral alternative is included, respondents can avoid taking a position on the issue, thereby biasing the results. The following guidelines are offered: If a substantial proportion of the respondents can be expected to be neutral, include a neutral alternative. If the proportion of neutral respondents is expected to be small, avoid the neutral alternative.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 301-303 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

119) What are the guidelines for the placement of branching questions?

Answer: Placement of branching questions is important and the following guidelines should be followed: (1) the question being branched (the one to which the respondent is being directed) should be placed as close as possible to the question causing the branching, and (2) the branching questions should be ordered so that the respondents cannot anticipate what additional information will be required. Otherwise, the respondents may discover that they can avoid detailed questions by giving certain answers to branching questions.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 309 LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

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120) Pretesting refers to the testing of the questionnaire on a small sample of respondents to identify and eliminate potential problems. Discuss what the researcher expects to gain from pretesting the questionnaire.

Answer: All aspects of the questionnaire should be tested. Subsequent pretests done after changes are made from an initial pretest should reveal problems peculiar to the interviewing method. The project director, the researcher who developed the questionnaire, and other key members of the research team should conduct some pretest interviews to gain a feel for potential problems and the nature of expected data. Experienced interviewers can easily perceive uneasiness, confusion, and resistance in the respondents. New interviewers can help the researcher identify interviewer-related problems. Analysis of pretest responses can serve as a check on the adequacy of the problem definition and the data and the analysis required to obtain the necessary information. Analysis of pretest data helps to ensure that all data collected will be utilized and that the questionnaire will obtain all the necessary data.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 312-313 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 10.2 Describe the process of designing a questionnaire, the steps involved, and guidelines that must be followed at each step.

121) What guidelines are available for deciding on the length of a questionnaire in mobile marketing research?

Answer: In terms of individual question content, only the bare, necessary questions should be included. This is even more critical in MMR. The optimal length of any survey is a function of time, the number and type of questions, and the order in which they appear. However, the general recommendation seems to be to limit the survey to no more than 15 questions. Beyond that number, respondent fatigue sets in and the completion rate starts to fall. To overcome the unwillingness to answer, it is even more critical in MMR to minimize the effort required of the respondents. The recommended duration for the total survey is less than 15 minutes, with some recommending less than three minutes. Few people have the time to sit down and type out elaborate, thoughtful responses to 15 survey questions on a desktop – less so, on a smartphone.

So keep it short. This can be feasible only if their task requires minimal effort.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 318-319 AACSB: Information technology LO: 10.6 Elucidate questionnaire design in mobile marketing research.

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Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 11 Sampling: Design and Procedures 1) The inferences that link sample characteristics and population parameters are estimation procedures and tests of hypotheses.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 329 LO: 11.1 Differentiate a sample from a census and identify the conditions that favor the use of a sample versus a census.

2) A census can greatly decrease nonsampling error.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 329-330 LO: 11.1 Differentiate a sample from a census and identify the conditions that favor the use of a sample versus a census.

3) It is not always possible to reduce nonsampling error sufficiently to compensate for sampling error.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 329-330 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 11.1 Differentiate a sample from a census and identify the conditions that favor the use of a sample versus a census.

4) Examples of a sampling frame include the telephone book, an association directory, a city directory, or a map.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 332 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

5) The Bayesian approach to sampling is theoretically appealing, however, it is not widely used in marketing research because much of the required information on costs and probabilities is not available.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 332 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

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6) The statistical distinction between sampling with replacement and sampling without replacement is important only when the sampling frame is not large compared to the sample size.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 332 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

7) If the sampling unit is different from the element, it is necessary to specify precisely how the elements within the sampling unit should be selected. Selecting the person within the sampling unit with the next birthday is an appropriate way to precisely specify which element to sample.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 331-332 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

8) The larger the sample, the greater the gain in precision by increasing the sample size by one unit.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 331-332 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

9) Sample size is influenced by the average size of samples in similar studies.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 333 LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

10) Nonprobability samples do not allow for objective evaluation of the precision of the sample results.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 335 LO: 11.3 Classify sampling techniques as nonprobability and probability sampling techniques.

11) Every potential nonprobability sample needs to have the same probability of selection.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 335 LO: 11.3 Classify sampling techniques as nonprobability and probability sampling techniques.

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12) Confidence intervals, which contain the true population value with a given level of certainty, can be calculated from nonprobability samples.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 335 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.3 Classify sampling techniques as nonprobability and probability sampling techniques.

13) Convenience sampling is the least expensive and least time consuming of all sampling techniques.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 335-337 LO: 11.4 Describe the nonprobability sampling techniques of convenience, judgmental, quota, and snowball sampling.

14) The second stage in quota sampling is to develop the control categories, or quotas, of population elements.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 338 LO: 11.4 Describe the nonprobability sampling techniques of convenience, judgmental, quota, and snowball sampling.

15) Quota sampling ensures that the composition of the sample is the same as the composition of the population with respect to the characteristics of interest.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 338 LO: 11.4 Describe the nonprobability sampling techniques of convenience, judgmental, quota, and snowball sampling.

16) Quota sampling permits assessment of sampling error.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 338 LO: 11.4 Describe the nonprobability sampling techniques of convenience, judgmental, quota, and snowball sampling.

17) Probability sampling is used to select the initial respondents for snowball sampling.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 339-340 LO: 11.4 Describe the nonprobability sampling techniques of convenience, judgmental, quota, and snowball sampling.

18) Sampling efficiency is a concept that reflects a tradeoff between sampling cost and precision.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 340 LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

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19) In simple random sampling, each element in the population has a known and equal probability of selection.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 340-341 LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

20) Systematic sampling is different from simple random sampling in that only the permissible samples of size n that can be drawn have a known and equal probability of selection. The remaining samples of size n have zero probability of being selected.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 340-341 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

21) For simple random sampling, the researcher assumes that the population elements are ordered in some respect Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 342 LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

22) When conducting stratified sampling only simple random sampling should be employed in selecting the elements from each stratum.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 343-344 LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

23) Stratified sampling differs from quota sampling in that the sample elements are selected probabilistically rather than based on convenience or judgment.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 343-344 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

24) The elements within a stratum should be as heterogeneous as possible, but the elements in different strata should be as homogeneous as possible.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 343-344 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

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25) The number of strata to use is a matter of judgment, but experience suggests the use of no more than eight.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 343-344 LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

26) The logic behind proportionate sampling is simple. Strata with larger relative sizes are more influential in determining the population mean, and these strata should also exert a greater influence in deriving the sample estimates.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 343-344 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

27) A common form of cluster sampling is area sampling, in which the clusters consist of geographic areas such as counties, housing tracts, or blocks.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 345-346 LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

28) Sampling techniques and procedures vary in accuracy, reliability, and cost from country to country.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 352-353 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 11.7 Understand the sampling design process and the use of sampling techniques in international marketing research.

29) If the same sampling procedures are used in each country, the results should be comparable.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 352-353 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 11.7 Understand the sampling design process and the use of sampling techniques in international marketing research.

30) The social media sampling frame is unbiased and appropriate for use in marketing research.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 353-354 AACSB: Information technology LO: 11.8 Describe how the representativeness of social media samples can be improved.

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31) Social media content available in the public domain is representative and appropriate for use in marketing research.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 353-354 AACSB: Information technology LO: 11.8 Describe how the representativeness of social media samples can be improved.

32) The representativeness of information from general social media can be improved by screening result in a more targeted and representative sample.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 353-354 AACSB: Information technology LO: 11.8 Describe how the representativeness of social media samples can be improved.

33) The researcher has an ethical responsibility to the client to develop a sampling design that is appropriate for controlling the sampling and nonsampling errors.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 355 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 11.10 Identify the ethical issues related to the sampling design process and the use of appropriate sampling techniques.

34) It is ok to treat nonprobability samples as probability samples and to project the results to a target population.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 355 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.10 Identify the ethical issues related to the sampling design process and the use of appropriate sampling techniques.

35) The researcher has the ethical obligation to protect the identities of the respondents, even if it means limiting the level of sampling detail that is reported to the client and other parties.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 355 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 11.10 Identify the ethical issues related to the sampling design process and the use of appropriate sampling techniques.

36) A major issue related to Internet sampling is representativeness because of lack of computer ownership and Internet access in many households in the United States.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 350-352 AACSB: Information technology LO: 11.11 Explain the issues and techniques in online sampling.

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37) To avoid sampling errors, the Internet researcher must be able to control the pool from which respondents are selected.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 350-352 AACSB: Information technology LO: 11.11 Explain the issues and techniques in online sampling.

38) The online recruited Internet sampling technique can be further classified as convenience or judgment.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 350-352 AACSB: Information technology LO: 11.11 Explain the issues and techniques in online sampling.

39) Only the nonprobability sampling techniques can be implemented using both types of Internet panels.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 350-352 AACSB: Information technology LO: 11.11 Explain the issues and techniques in online sampling.

40) There are several basic questions involved in sampling design. "Should a sample be taken?

If so, what process should be followed?" are two such questions. Which of the following questions is also involved in sampling design?

A) What kind of sample should be taken?

B) How large should the sample be?

C) What can be done to control and adjust for nonresponse errors?

D) All of the above are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 329-330 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

41) The aggregate of all the elements, sharing some common set of characteristics, that comprises the universe for the purpose of the marketing problem is the .

A) population B) sampling frame C) element D) census Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 329-330 LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

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42) A complete enumeration of the elements of a population or study objects is a .

A) population B) target population C) element D) census Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 329 LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

43) A subgroup of the elements of the population selected for participation in the study is a .

A) judgmental sample B) sample C) sampling unit D) sampling frame Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 329 LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

44) Which of the following conditions does not favor the use of a census (Table 11.1 in the text)?

A) There is high variance in the characteristic to be measured.

B) The cost of nonsampling errors is low.

C) The population is large.

D) The cost of sampling errors is high.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 329-330 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

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45) Which of the following conditions does not favor the use of a sample (Table 11.1 in the text)?

A) There are budget and time limit constraints.

B) The population is large.

C) The cost of nonsampling errors is high.

D) The cost of sampling errors is high.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 329-330 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

46) The collection of elements or objects that possess the information sought by the researcher and about which inferences are to be made is a .

A) population B) target population C) element D) census Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 329-330 LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

47) The object that possesses the information sought by the researcher and about which inferences are to be made is a .

A) population B) target population C) element D) census Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 329-330 LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

48) The basic unit containing the elements of the population to be sampled is the .

A) judgmental sample B) sample C) sampling unit D) sampling frame Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 332 LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

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49) Which statement is correct about defining the target population?

A) Imprecise definition of the target population will result in research that is ineffective at best and misleading at worst.

B) Defining the target population involves translating the problem definition into a precise statement of who should and should not be included in the sample.

C) The target population should be defined in terms of elements, sampling units, extent, and time.

D) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 331 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

50) The target population should be defined in terms of all of the following except A) sampling units B) extent C) time D) size Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 331 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

.

51) The target population for the department store project was defined as "male or female head of household responsible for most of the shopping at department stores in metro Atlanta in Fall 2016." "Metro Atlanta" is what part of the target population definition?

A) elements B) sampling unit C) extent D) time Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 331 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

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52) The target population for the department store project was defined as "male or female head of household responsible for most of the shopping at department stores in metro Atlanta in Fall 2016." "Male or female head of household responsible for most of the shopping at department stores" is what part of the target population definition?

A) elements B) sampling unit C) extent D) time Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 331 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

53) A representation of the elements of the target population consisting of a list or set of directions for identifying the target population is a .

A) judgmental sample B) sample C) sampling unit D) sampling frame Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 331-332 LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

54) Decisions concerning whether to use a Bayesian or traditional sampling approach, to sample with or without replacement, and to use nonprobability or probability sampling pertain to which step in the sampling design process (Figure 11.1 in the text)?

A) Determine the sampling frame B) Select a sampling technique(s) C) Determine the sample size D) Execute the sampling process Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 332 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

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55) is a selection method where the elements are selected sequentially. It explicitly incorporates prior information about population parameters as well as the costs and probabilities associated with making wrong decisions.

A) Bayesian approach B) Sampling with replacement C) Sampling without replacement D) Simple random sampling Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 332 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

56) is a sampling technique in which an element cannot be included in the sample more than once.

A) Bayesian approach B) Sampling with replacement C) Sampling without replacement D) Simple random sampling Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 332 LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

57) If the researcher is concerned about the number of variables, the nature of the analysis, and completion rates, then, he/she is at which stage of the sampling design process (Figure 11.1 in the text)?

A) Determine the sampling frame.

B) Select a sampling technique(s).

C) Determine the sample size.

D) Execute the sampling process.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 333-334 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

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58) The sample size decision should be guided by certain qualitative considerations. Which of the following is not one of those considerations?

A) the resource constraints B) the average size of samples in similar studies C) the sampling technique to be used D) the nature of the results Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 333 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

59) requires a detailed specification of how the sampling design decisions with respect to the population, sampling frame, sampling unit, sampling techniques, and sample size are to be implemented.

A) Determination of the sampling frame B) Selection of a sampling technique(s) C) Determination of the sample size D) Execution of the sampling process Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 333-334 LO: 11.2 Discuss the sampling design process: definition of the target population, determination of the sampling frame, selection of sampling technique(s), determination of sample size, and execution of the sampling process.

60) is a sampling procedure in which each element of the population has a fixed probabilistic chance of being selected for the sample.

A) Nonprobability sampling B) Probability sampling C) Convenience sampling D) Judgmental sampling Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 335 LO: 11.3 Classify sampling techniques as nonprobability and probability sampling techniques.

61) attempts to obtain a sample of convenient elements. The selection of sampling units is left primarily to the interviewer.

A) Nonprobability sampling B) Probability sampling C) Convenience sampling D) Judgmental sampling Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 336-337 LO: 11.4 Describe the nonprobability sampling techniques of convenience, judgmental, quota, and snowball sampling.

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62) is a form of convenience sampling in which the population elements are selected based on the judgment of the researcher.

A) Nonprobability sampling B) Probability sampling C) Convenience sampling D) Judgmental sampling Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 337-338 LO: 11.4 Describe the nonprobability sampling techniques of convenience, judgmental, quota, and snowball sampling.

63) does not allow direct generalizations to a specific population, usually because the population is not defined explicitly.

A) Snowball sampling B) Judgmental sampling C) Convenience sampling D) Simple random sampling Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 337-338 LO: 11.4 Describe the nonprobability sampling techniques of convenience, judgmental, quota, and snowball sampling.

64) Which statement is not true about judgmental sampling?

A) It does not allow direct generalizations to a specific population.

B) It may be useful if broad population inferences are not required.

C) Each population element has a known and equal probability of selection.

D) An extension of the technique involves the use of quotas.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 337-338 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.4 Describe the nonprobability sampling techniques of convenience, judgmental, quota, and snowball sampling.

65) Which of the following statements is not true about quota sampling?

A) There is no assurance that the sample is representative.

B) Many sources of selection bias are potentially present.

C) Under certain conditions, quota sampling obtains results close to those for conventional probability sampling.

D) An important decision involves the use of proportionate or disproportionate sampling.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 338-339 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.4 Describe the nonprobability sampling techniques of convenience, judgmental, quota, and snowball sampling.

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66) Which of the following statements is true about snowball sampling?

A) In snowball sampling a decision rule is used to indicate whether sampling should be continued or whether enough information has been obtained.

B) Snowball sampling is used in industrial buyer-seller research to identify buyer-seller pairs.

C) In snowball sampling an initial group of respondents is selected, usually at random.

D) Both B and C are true.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 339-340 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.4 Describe the nonprobability sampling techniques of convenience, judgmental, quota, and snowball sampling.

67) All of the following statements are true about snowball sampling except .

A) snowball sampling can result in samples that are very large or spread over large geographic areas, thus increasing the time and cost of data collection B) a major objective of snowball sampling is to estimate characteristics that are rare in the population C) the major advantage of snowball sampling is that it substantially increases the likelihood of locating the desired characteristics in the population D) snowball sampling results in relatively low sampling variance and costs Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 339-340 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.4 Describe the nonprobability sampling techniques of convenience, judgmental, quota, and snowball sampling.

68) The major advantage of is that it substantially increases the likelihood of locating the desired characteristic in the population.

A) snowball sampling B) quota sampling C) judgmental sampling D) convenience sampling Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 339-340 LO: 11.4 Describe the nonprobability sampling techniques of convenience, judgmental, quota, and snowball sampling.

69) The efficiency of a probability sampling technique may be assessed by comparing it to that of .

A) nonprobability sampling B) systematic sampling C) simple random sampling D) stratified sampling Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 339-342 LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

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70) is a probability sampling technique in which each element in the population has a known and equal probability of selection. Every element is selected independently of every other element and the sample is drawn by a random procedure from a sampling frame.

A) Stratified sampling B) Simple random sampling C) Systematic sampling D) Cluster sampling Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 339-342 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

71) The method is equivalent to a lottery system in which names are placed in a container, the container is shaken, and the names of the winners are then drawn out in an unbiased manner.

A) nonprobability sampling B) systematic sampling C) simple random sampling D) stratified sampling Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 339-342 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

72) All of the following statements are limitations of simple random sampling except .

A) it is often difficult to construct a sampling frame that will permit a simple random sample to be drawn B) simple random sampling often results in lower precision with larger standard errors than other probability sampling techniques C) simple random sampling may or may not result in a representative sample D) the sample results may be projected to the target population Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 339-342 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

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73) is a probability sampling technique in which the sample is chosen by selecting a random starting point and then picking every ith element in succession from the sampling frame.

A) Stratified sampling B) Simple random sampling C) Systematic sampling D) Cluster sampling Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 342 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

74) Systematic sampling is similar to simple random sampling. Which of the statements below about systematic sampling does not relate to the systematic sampling and simple random sampling similarity?

A) Each population element has a known and equal probability of selection.

B) If the population elements are arranged in a manner unrelated to the characteristic to interest, systematic sampling will yield results quite similar to simple random sampling.

C) The random numbers do not have to be matched with individual elements.

D) Systematic sampling is a type of probability sampling.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 342 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

75) is a probability sampling technique that uses a two-step process to partition the population into subpopulations, or strata. Elements are selected from each stratum by a random procedure.

A) Stratified sampling B) Simple random sampling C) Systematic sampling D) Cluster sampling Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 343-344 LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

76) A major objective of is to increase precision without increasing cost.

A) quota sampling B) cluster sampling C) sequential sampling D) stratified sampling Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 343-344 LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

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77) The criteria for the selection of stratification variables consist of all of the following except .

A) homogeneity B) relatedness C) cost D) order Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 343-344 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

78) Which of the statements below is not true about stratified sampling?

A) Stratified sampling can ensure that all the important subpopulations are represented in the sample.

B) The researcher assumes that the population elements are ordered in some respect.

C) Most approaches to statistical inference assume that the data have been collected by stratified sampling.

D) Both B and C are not true.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 343-344 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

79) In , the target population is first divided into mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive subpopulations, or clusters.

A) stratified sampling B) simple random sampling C) systematic sampling D) cluster sampling Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 345-347 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

80) Which of the following is not a form of nonprobability sampling?

A) convenience sampling B) cluster sampling C) quota sampling D) snowball sampling Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 345-347 LO: 11.4 Describe the nonprobability sampling techniques of convenience, judgmental, quota, and snowball sampling.

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81) Which of the following is not a stage of cluster sampling?

A) one-stage sampling B) two-stage sampling C) zero-stage sampling D) multi-stage sampling Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 345-347 LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

82) Cluster sampling and stratified sampling differ in all of the following ways except .

A) the number of subpopulations chosen B) their objectives C) classification of sampling techniques D) with respect to homogeneity and heterogeneity Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 345-347 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

83) Which statement is not true about cluster sampling?

A) The researcher may have to rely on intuition and logic to determine sample sizes for each cluster.

B) Cluster sampling is the most cost-effective probability sampling technique.

C) It can be difficult to compute and interpret statistics based on clusters.

D) The two major advantages of cluster sampling are feasibility and low cost.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 345-347 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

84) Which sampling technique can help the researcher estimate rare characteristics (Table 11.4 in the text)?

A) convenience sampling B) quota sampling C) judgmental sampling D) snowball sampling Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 347 LO: 11.4 Describe the nonprobability sampling techniques of convenience, judgmental, quota, and snowball sampling.

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85) Which sampling technique can increase representativeness, is easier to implement than simple random sampling and does not require a sampling frame (Table 11.4 in the text)?

A) stratified sampling B) systematic sampling C) cluster sampling D) area sampling Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 347 LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

86) In the sample size is not known in advance, but a decision rule is stated before the sampling begins. At each stage, this rule indicates whether sampling should be continued or whether enough information has been obtained.

A) stratified sampling B) double sampling C) sequential sampling D) systematic sampling Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 347 LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

87) can be useful when no sampling frame is readily available for selecting final sampling units but when the elements of the frame are known to be contained within a broader sampling frame.

A) Stratified sampling B) Double sampling C) Sequential sampling D) Systematic sampling Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 347 LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

88) has been used to determine preferences for two competing alternatives.

A) Area sampling B) Double sampling C) Probability proportionate to size sampling D) Sequential sampling Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 347 LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

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89) The choice between nonprobability and probability samples should be based on all of the following considerations except (Table 11.5 in the text) .

A) the nature of the research B) size of the population C) variability in the population D) statistical and operational considerations Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 349 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.6 Identify the conditions that favor the use of nonprobability sampling versus probability sampling.

90) All of the factors listed below favor the use of probability sampling except (Table 11.5 in the text) .

A) nonsampling errors are likely to be an important factor B) the nature of the research is conclusive C) the population is heterogeneous with respect to variables of interest D) highly accurate estimates of population characteristics are required Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 349 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.6 Identify the conditions that favor the use of nonprobability sampling versus probability sampling.

91) Probability sampling techniques are uncommon in international marketing research because of all of the following reasons except .

A) lack of suitable sampling frames B) the inaccessibility of certain respondents, such as women in some cultures C) the dominance of personal interviewing D) lack of trained researchers Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 352-353 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 11.7 Understand the sampling design process and the use of sampling techniques in international marketing research.

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92) Consumer research conducted in Mexico and Saudi Arabia used different sampling techniques for the same study. In Mexico, was used by having experts identify neighborhoods where the target respondents lived; homes were then randomly selected for interviews. In Saudi Arabia, employing the snowball procedure was used because there were no lists from which sampling frames could be drawn and social customs prohibited spontaneous personal interviews.

A) systematic sampling; convenience sampling B) systematic sampling; quota sampling C) judgmental sampling; convenience sampling D) quota sampling; judgmental sampling Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 352-353 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 11.7 Understand the sampling design process and the use of sampling techniques in international marketing research.

93) Which situation poses ethical concerns for the researcher in terms of preserving the anonymity of the respondents?

A) when the population size is large B) sampling details that are too revealing C) verbatim quotations in reports to the client D) both B and C Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 355 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 11.10 Identify the ethical issues related to the sampling design process and the use of appropriate sampling techniques.

94) All of the following are examples of nonpanel recruited sampling methods used in Internet research except .

A) use of e-mail lists that have been rented from suppliers B) offline techniques such as short telephone screening interviews to recruit Internet samples C) a store may hand its customers a flier directing them to a specific-password protected site D) All of the above are nonpanel recruited sampling methods.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 350-352 AACSB: Information technology LO: 11.11 Explain the issues and techniques in online sampling.

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95) Discuss the advantages of convenience samples and when it is appropriate to use them.

Answer: Convenience sampling is the least expensive and least time consuming of all sampling techniques. The sampling units are accessible, easy to measure, and cooperative. In spite of these advantages, this form of sampling has serious limitations. Many potential sources of selection bias are present, including respondent self-selection. Convenience samples are not representative of any definable population. Hence, it is not theoretically meaningful to generalize to any population from a convenience sample, and convenience samples are not appropriate for marketing research projects involving population inferences. Convenience samples are not recommended for descriptive or causal research, but they can be used in exploratory research for generating ideas, insights, or hypotheses. Convenience samples can be used for focus groups, pretesting questionnaires, or pilot studies. Even in these cases, caution should be exercised in interpreting the results. Nevertheless, this technique is sometimes used even in large surveys.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 337 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.4 Describe the nonprobability sampling techniques of convenience, judgmental, quota, and snowball sampling.

96) Discuss the advantages of systematic sampling.

Answer: Systematic sampling is less costly and easier than simple random sampling, because random selection is done only once. Moreover, the random numbers do not have to be matched with individual elements as in simple random sampling. Because some lists contain millions of elements, considerable time can be saved. This reduces the costs of sampling. If information related to the characteristic of interest is available for the population, systematic sampling can be used to obtain a more representative and reliable (lower sampling error) sample than simple random sampling. Another relative advantage is that systematic sampling can even be used without knowledge of the composition (elements) of the sampling frame. For example, every ith person leaving a department store or mall can be intercepted. For these reasons, systematic sampling is often employed in consumer mail, telephone, and mall intercept interviews.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 337-338 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.5 Describe the probability sampling techniques of simple random, systematic, stratified, and cluster sampling.

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97) Discuss the uses of nonprobability and probability sampling.

Answer: Nonprobability sampling is used in concept tests, package tests, name tests, and copy tests, where projections to the populations are usually not needed. In such studies, interest centers on the proportion of the sample that gives various responses or expresses various attitudes. Samples for these studies can be drawn using methods such as mall intercept quota sampling. On the other hand, probability sampling is used when there is a need for highly accurate estimates of market share or sales volume for the entire market. National market tracking studies, which provide information on product category and brand usage rates, as well as psychographic and demographic profiles of users, use probability sampling. Studies that use probability sampling generally employ telephone interviews. Stratified and systematic sampling are combined with some form of random-digit dialing to select the respondents.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 347-349 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 11.6 Identify the conditions that favor the use of nonprobability sampling versus probability sampling.

98) Discuss some of the problems in implementing the sampling design process when conducting international marketing research.

Answer: There are concerns with defining and accessing the target population and with developing and appropriate sampling frame. The relevant element or respondent may differ from country to country. In the United States, children may play important roles in purchases.

However, in countries with authoritarian child-rearing practices, the mother may be the relevant element. Women play a key role in the purchase of automobile and other durables in the United States; in male dominated societies, such as in the Middle East, such decisions are made by men.

Accessibility also varies across countries. In Mexico, houses cannot be entered by strangers because of boundary walls and servants. Additionally, dwelling units may be unnumbered and streets unidentified, making it difficult to locate designated households.

Developing the appropriate sampling frame is a difficult task. In many countries, particularly developing countries, reliable information about the target population may not be available from secondary sources. Government data may be unavailable or highly biased. Population lists may not be available commercially. The time and money required to compile these lists maybe be prohibitive. For example, in Saudi Arabia, there is no officially recognized census of population, no elections, and hence no voter registration records, and no accurate maps of population centers.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 352-353 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 11.7 Understand the sampling design process and the use of sampling techniques in international marketing research.

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99) When is it meaningful to sample potential respondents who are surfing the Internet?

Answer: Sampling potential respondents who are surfing the Internet is meaningful if the sample that is generated is representative of the target population. More and more industries are meeting this criterion. In software, computers, networking, technical publishing, semiconductors, and graduate education, it is rapidly becoming feasible to use the Internet for sampling respondents for quantitative research, such as surveys. For internal customer surveys, where the client's employees share a corporate e-mail system, an intranet survey is practical even if workers have no access to the external Internet. However, sampling on the Internet may not be yet be practical for any noncomputer-oriented consumer products.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 350-352 AACSB: Information technology LO: 11.9 Elucidate what aspects of the sampling process are distinct in mobile marketing research.

100) How can mobile samples be made more representative?

Answer: There are ways to make mobile samples more representative. An example of mobile devices providing a more representative sample is provided by the French ELIPSS (http://quanti.dime-shs.sciences-po.fr/en/). ELIPSS is an online panel that is representative of the population living in metropolitan France. Panel members are randomly selected by The French National Institute of Statistics and Economic Studies (INSEE) and provided with a touchscreen tablet and a mobile Internet subscription so that they can participate in monthly surveys.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 354-355 AACSB: Information technology LO: 11.9 Elucidate what aspects of the sampling process are distinct in mobile marketing research.

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TB-Marketing Research-An Applied Orientation[7E,Malhotra]

Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 12 Sampling: Final and Initial Sample Size Determination 1) The confidence level is the range into which the true population parameter will fall, assuming a given level of confidence.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 363-364 LO: 12.1 Define key concepts and symbols pertinent to sampling.

2) The confidence level is the probability that a confidence interval will include the population parameter.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 363-364 LO: 12.1 Define key concepts and symbols pertinent to sampling.

3) The sampling distribution is the probability of the values of a sampling statistic computed for each possible sample that could be drawn from the target population under a specified sampling plan.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 364 LO: 12.2 Understand the concepts of the sampling distribution, statistical inference, and standard error.

4) The process of generalizing the sample results to the population results is called statistical inference.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 364 LO: 12.2 Understand the concepts of the sampling distribution, statistical inference, and standard error.

5) The concept of a sampling distribution enables us to use probability theory to make inferences about the population values.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 364 LO: 12.2 Understand the concepts of the sampling distribution, statistical inference, and standard error.

6) The sampling distribution of the mean is a binomial distribution.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 364 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 12.2 Understand the concepts of the sampling distribution, statistical inference, and standard error.

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7) The z value for a point is the number of standard deviations a point is away from the mean.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 365 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 12.2 Understand the concepts of the sampling distribution, statistical inference, and standard error.

8) Assuming no measurement error, the reliability of an estimate of a population parameter can be assessed in terms of its standard error.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 364 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 12.3 Discuss the statistical approach to determining sample size based on simple random sampling and the construction of confidence intervals.

9) The statistical approach to determining sample size is based on the construction of confidence intervals around sample means or proportions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 367-368 LO: 12.3 Discuss the statistical approach to determining sample size based on simple random sampling and the construction of confidence intervals.

10) The confidence interval approach to sample size determination is based on the construction of confidence intervals around the means or proportions using the standardized variate formula.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 367-368 LO: 12.3 Discuss the statistical approach to determining sample size based on simple random sampling and the construction of confidence intervals.

11) Specify the level of confidence is the first step in the confidence interval approach to determining sample size.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 367-368 LO: 12.3 Discuss the statistical approach to determining sample size based on simple random sampling and the construction of confidence intervals.

12) The statistically determined sample size is the net or final sample size, the sample remaining after eliminating potential respondents who do not qualify or who do not complete the interview.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 365 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 12.4 Derive the formulas to statistically determine the sample size for estimating means and proportions.

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13) When the sample size is 10 percent or more of the population size, the standard error formulas will overestimate the standard deviation of the population mean or proportion. Hence, these should be adjusted by a finite population correction factor.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 367-368 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 12.4 Derive the formulas to statistically determine the sample size for estimating means and proportions.

14) In the statistical approach to determining sample size, the precision level is specified in the end.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 367-368 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 12.4 Derive the formulas to statistically determine the sample size for estimating means and proportions.

15) When determining the sample size, if the population standard deviation, σ is unknown and an estimate is used, the standard deviation should be re-estimated once the sample has been drawn.

Next a revised confidence interval should be calculated to determine the precision level actually obtained.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 367-368 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 12.4 Derive the formulas to statistically determine the sample size for estimating means and proportions.

16) When using the confidence interval approach to sample size determination, in some cases, precision is specified in relative rather than absolute terms. In other words, it may be specified that the estimate be within plus or minus R percentage points of the mean.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 367-368 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 12.4 Derive the formulas to statistically determine the sample size for estimating means and proportions.

17) When using the confidence interval approach to sample size determination, if the statistic of interest is a proportion, rather than a mean, the approach to sample size determination is very different.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 369-370 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 12.4 Derive the formulas to statistically determine the sample size for estimating means and proportions.

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18) Creative Research Systems (www.surveysystem.com) is a Web sites on the Internet that offer free use of sample size and/or confidence interval calculator.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 372 AACSB: Information technology LO: 12.4 Derive the formulas to statistically determine the sample size for estimating means and proportions.

19) If the researcher is required to estimate several parameters, not just one, the calculation of sample size in these cases should be based on a consideration of all the parameters that must be estimated.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 372-373 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 12.4 Derive the formulas to statistically determine the sample size for estimating means and proportions.

20) Two major nonresponse issues in sampling are improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 375-380 LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

21) Because low response rates increase the probability of response bias, an attempt should always be made to improve the response rate.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 375-380 LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

22) Prior notification increases response rates for samples of the general public because it reduces surprise and uncertainty and creates a more cooperative atmosphere.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 375-380 LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

23) The door-in-the-face attempt at motivating potential respondents is more effective than footin-the-door.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 375-380 LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

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24) Prepaid incentives have been shown to increase response rates to a greater extent than promised incentives.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 375-380 LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

25) High response rates decrease the probability that nonresponse bias is substantial.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 375-380 LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

26) Nonresponse rates should always be reported and, whenever possible, the effects of nonresponse should be estimated.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 375-380 LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

27) Information on differences between respondents and nonrespondents may be obtained from the sample itself, or it may be possible to estimate the differences from other sources.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 375-380 LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

28) Trend analysis is an attempt to discern a trend between early and late respondents.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 375-380 LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

29) When conducting marketing research in foreign countries, statistical estimation of sample size may be difficult as estimates of the population mean may be unavailable.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 380 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 12.6 Understand the difficulty of statistically determining the sample size in international marketing research.

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30) If statistical estimation of sample size is at all attempted, it should be realized that the estimates of the population variance don't vary from country to country.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 380 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 12.6 Understand the difficulty of statistically determining the sample size in international marketing research.

31) It is not feasible to have large sample sizes when conducting marketing research in social media.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 381 AACSB: Information technology LO: 12.7 Discuss sample size determination in social media research.

32) The cost of increasing the sample size in social media research goes up markedly.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 381 AACSB: Information technology LO: 12.7 Discuss sample size determination in social media research.

33) Generally, large samples are desirable in social media research.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 381 AACSB: Information technology LO: 12.7 Discuss sample size determination in social media research.

34) By inflating the standard deviation, it is possible to increase the sample size and thus the project revenue for the research firm.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 382 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 12.9 Identify the ethical issues related to sample size determination, particularly the estimation of population variance.

35) A is a summary description of a fixed characteristic or measure of the target population. It denotes the true value that would be obtained if a census rather than a sample was undertaken.

A) statistic B) precision level C) finite population correction D) parameter Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 363 LO: 12.1 Define key concepts and symbols pertinent to sampling.

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36) A is a summary description of a characteristic or measure of the sample. It is used as an estimate of the population parameter.

A) statistic B) precision level C) finite population correction D) parameter Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 363 LO: 12.1 Define key concepts and symbols pertinent to sampling.

37) The is a correction for overestimation of the variance of a population parameter, e.g., a mean or proportion, when the sample size is 10 percent or more of the population size.

A) statistic B) precision level C) finite population correction D) parameter Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 363 LO: 12.3 Discuss the statistical approach to determining sample size based on simple random sampling and the construction of confidence intervals.

38) When estimating a population parameter by using a sample statistic, the is the desired size of the estimating interval. This is the maximum permissible difference between the sample statistic and the population parameter.

A) statistic B) precision level C) finite population correction D) parameter Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 363 LO: 12.3 Discuss the statistical approach to determining sample size based on simple random sampling and the construction of confidence intervals.

39) The mathematical symbols "π" and "p" represent a for the population and the sampling distribution respectively.

A) proportion B) standard deviation C) standard error of the mean D) variance Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 364 LO: 12.1 Define key concepts and symbols pertinent to sampling.

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40) The mathematical symbols "σX" and "SX" represent a sampling distribution respectively.

A) proportion B) standard deviation C) standard error of the mean D) variance Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 364 LO: 12.1 Define key concepts and symbols pertinent to sampling.

for the population and the

41) Suppose a simple random sample of five hospitals is to be drawn from a population of 20 hospitals. There are 15,504 different samples of size 5 that can be drawn. The relative frequency distribution of the values of the mean of these 15,504 different samples would specify the of the mean.

A) sampling distribution B) normal distribution C) confidence interval D) confidence level Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 364 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 12.2 Understand the concepts of the sampling distribution, statistical inference, and standard error.

42) The is called the standard error of the mean or the proportion to indicate that it refers to a sampling distribution of the mean or the proportion, and not to a sample or a population.

A) coefficient of variation B) standardized variate C) variance D) standard deviation Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 364 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 12.2 Understand the concepts of the sampling distribution, statistical inference, and standard error.

43) The is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the mean or proportion.

A) standard error B) standardized variate C) variance D) standard deviation Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 364 LO: 12.2 Understand the concepts of the sampling distribution, statistical inference, and standard error.

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44) The for a point is the number of standard errors a point is away from the mean.

A) coefficient of variation B) z-value C) variance D) standard deviation Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 365 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 12.3 Discuss the statistical approach to determining sample size based on simple random sampling and the construction of confidence intervals.

45) The statistically determined sample size is the net or .

A) incidence rate B) initial sample size C) completion rate D) final sample size Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 365 LO: 12.4 Derive the formulas to statistically determine the sample size for estimating means and proportions.

46) The equation for a 95% confidence interval is:

.

A) ± 1.65 σ B) ± 1.65 σ C) ± 1.96 σ D) A, B, C are incorrect Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 367 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 12.3 Discuss the statistical approach to determining sample size based on simple random sampling and the construction of confidence intervals.

47) When determining the sample size, the standard deviation may not be known. Which of the following was not mentioned in your text as a way to estimate the standard deviation?

A) consult secondary sources B) estimate based on researcher judgment C) estimate from the mean D) conduct a pilot study Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 367 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 12.4 Derive the formulas to statistically determine the sample size for estimating means and proportions.

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48) Which of the formulas below would be used to determine the sample size using the formula for the standard error of the mean?

A) σX = D/z B) n = C) n = D) A and C are correct.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 367 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 12.4 Derive the formulas to statistically determine the sample size for estimating means and proportions.

49) n = Based on the above formula for sample size, sample size increases with increases in all of the items below except .

A) sample size increases with an increase in the population variability B) sample size increases with an increase in the degree of confidence C) sample size increases with an increase in the precision level required of the estimate D) All of the above are true. Sample size increases with increases in all of the items above.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 368 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 12.4 Derive the formulas to statistically determine the sample size for estimating means and proportions.

50) Which formula would be used to determine the sample size using the formula for the standard error of the proportion?

A) σX = D/z B) n = C) n = D) A and C are correct Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 370 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 12.4 Derive the formulas to statistically determine the sample size for estimating means and proportions.

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51) In , cost does not enter directly into the calculation of sample size.

A) stratified sampling B) simple random sampling C) cluster sampling D) A and C are correct Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 373 LO: 12.4 Derive the formulas to statistically determine the sample size for estimating means and proportions.

52) The number of interviews that must be completed is the .

A) incidence rate B) initial sample size C) completion rate D) final sample size Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 373 LO: 12.4 Derive the formulas to statistically determine the sample size for estimating means and proportions.

53) The rate of occurrence of persons eligible to participate in the study expressed as a percentage is the .

A) incidence rate B) initial sample size C) completion rate D) final sample size Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 373 LO: 12.4 Derive the formulas to statistically determine the sample size for estimating means and proportions.

54) The percentage of qualified respondents who complete the interview is the .

A) incidence rate B) initial sample size C) completion rate D) final sample size Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 374 LO: 12.4 Derive the formulas to statistically determine the sample size for estimating means and proportions.

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55) Which equation is the correct equation for determining the initial sample size?

A) B) C) D) Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 374 LO: 12.4 Derive the formulas to statistically determine the sample size for estimating means and proportions.

56) The number of units that will have to be sampled will be determined by the .

A) incidence rate B) initial sample size C) completion rate D) final sample size Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 374 LO: 12.4 Derive the formulas to statistically determine the sample size for estimating means and proportions.

57) Which statement is not true about nonresponse issues in sampling?

A) Nonresponse error is one of the most significant problems in survey research.

B) Response rates themselves do not indicate whether the respondents are representative of the original sample.

C) For a given study, if the nonrespondents differ from the respondents on the characteristics of interests, the sample estimates will only be mildly biased.

D) Increasing the response rate may not reduce nonresponse bias.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 375-380 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

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58) Most refusals occur .

A) immediately after the interviewer's opening remarks B) when the potential respondent first opens the mail package C) Both A and B are correct.

D) when the potential respondent is well into the interview Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 375-380 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

59) Which survey method has the highest refusal rate?

A) telephone B) mall intercept C) mail surveys D) Internet Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 375-380 LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

60) A recent study indicated that consumers prefer surveys versus the method of surveys.

A) telephone; Internet B) mail; telephone C) Internet; mail D) Internet; telephone Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 376 LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

61) Which method of improving response rate involves sending potential respondents a letter notifying them of the imminent mail, telephone, personal, or Internet survey?

A) motivating the respondents B) follow-up C) incentives D) prior notification Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 375-380 LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

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62) Which method of improving response rate involves offering potential respondents monetary and non-monetary gifts?

A) motivating the respondents B) follow-up C) incentives D) prior notification Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 375-380 LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

63) Which method of improving response rate involves use of the foot-in-the-door or door-inthe-face technique?

A) motivating the respondents B) follow-up C) incentives D) prior notification Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 375-380 LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

64) Which method of improving response rate involves sending potential respondents a postcard or letter to remind nonrespondents to complete and return the questionnaire?

A) motivating the respondents B) follow-up C) incentives D) prior notification Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 375-380 LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

65) Which statement is not true about not-at-homes?

A) People with small children are more likely to be at home than single or divorced people.

B) Consumers are more likely to be at home on weekdays than on weekends.

C) Consumers are more likely to be at home in the evening as opposed to during the afternoon.

D) Pre-notification and appointments increase the likelihood that the respondent will be at home when contact is attempted.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 375-380 LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

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66) Which method of adjusting for nonresponse has the researcher contacting a sub-sample of the nonrespondents; projecting the values obtained from the sub-sample to all respondents; then adjusting the survey results to account for nonresponse?

A) substitution B) sub-sampling of nonrespondents C) subjective estimates D) replacement Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 375-380 LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

67) Which method of adjusting for nonresponse involves evaluating the likely effects of nonresponse based on experience and available information?

A) substitution B) sub-sampling of nonrespondents C) subjective estimates D) replacement Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 375-380 LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

68) is a method of adjusting for nonresponse in which the researcher tries to discern a trend between early and late respondents. This trend is projected to nonrespondents to estimate their characteristic of interest.

A) Subjective estimates B) Subsampling of nonrespondents C) Imputation D) None of the above are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 375-380 LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

69) is a statistical procedure that attempts to account for nonresponse by assigning differential weights to the data depending on the response rates.

A) Weighting B) Trend analysis C) Subjective estimates D) Imputation Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 375-380 LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

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70) is a method to adjust for nonresponse by assigning the characteristic of interest to the nonrespondents based on the similarity of the variables available for both nonrespondents and respondents.

A) Weighting B) Trend analysis C) Subjective estimates D) Imputation Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 375-380 LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

71) Ethical dilemmas associated with sample size determination include all of the following except .

A) inflating the standard deviation to increase sample size and project revenue B) what should be done when a difference in the actual standard deviation and the estimated standard deviation results in a larger confidence interval than desired C) investigating the possibility of non-response bias and making a reasonable effort to adjust for it D) All of the above pose ethical dilemmas.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 382 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 12.9 Identify the ethical issues related to sample size determination, particularly the estimation of population variance.

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72) Discuss four of the methods of reducing refusals to participate in a survey.

Answer: ∙ Prior notification - In prior notification, potential respondents are sent a letter notifying them of the imminent mail, telephone, or personal survey. Prior notification increases response rates for samples of the general public because it reduces surprise and uncertainty and creates a more cooperative atmosphere. ∙ Motivating the respondents - Potential respondents can be motivated to participate in the survey by increasing their interest and involvement. Two of the ways this can be done are the foot-in-the-door and door-in-the-face strategies. Both strategies attempt to obtain participation through the use of sequential requests. As explained briefly in Chapter 6, in the foot-in-the-door strategy, the interviewer starts with a relatively small request, such as "Will you please take five minutes to answer five questions?," to which a large majority of people will comply. The small request is followed by a larger request, the critical request, that solicits participation in the survey or experiment. The rationale is that compliance with an initial request should increase the chances of compliance with the subsequent request. The door in the face is the reverse strategy.

The initial request is relatively large and a majority of people refuse to comply. The large request is followed by a smaller request, the critical request, soliciting participation in the survey. The underlying reasoning is that the concession offered by the subsequent critical request should increase the chances of compliance. Foot in the door is more effective than door in the face. ∙ Incentives - Response rates can be increased by offering monetary as well as nonmonetary incentives to potential respondents. Monetary incentives can be prepaid or promised. The prepaid incentive is included with the survey or questionnaire. The promised incentive is sent to only those respondents who complete the survey. The most commonly used nonmonetary incentives are premiums and rewards, such as pens, pencils, books, and offers of survey results. Prepaid incentives have been shown to increase response rates to a greater extent than promised incentives. The amount of incentive can vary from 10 cents to $50 or more. The amount of incentive has a positive relationship with response rate, but the cost of large monetary incentives may outweigh the value of additional information obtained. ∙ Questionnaire design and administration. - A well-designed questionnaire can decrease the overall refusal rate as well as refusals to specific questions. Likewise, the skill used to administer the questionnaire in telephone and personal interviews can increase the response rate. Trained interviewers are skilled in refusal conversion or persuasion. They do not accept a "no" response without an additional plea. The additional plea might emphasize the brevity of the questionnaire or importance of the respondent's opinion. Skilled interviewers can decrease refusals by about 7 percent on average. ∙ Follow-up - Follow-up, or contacting the nonrespondents periodically after the initial contact, is particularly effective in decreasing refusals in mail surveys. The researcher might send a postcard or letter to remind nonrespondents to complete and return the questionnaire. Two or three mailings are needed, in addition to the original one. With proper follow-up, the response rate in mail surveys can be increased to 80 percent or more. Follow-ups can also be done by telephone, e-mail, or personal contacts. ∙ Other facilitators - Personalization, or sending letters addressed to specific individuals, is effective in increasing response rates.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 375-377 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

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73) Discuss what can be done to reduce not-at-homes.

Answer: The percentage of not-at-homes can be substantially reduced by employing a series of callbacks, or periodic follow-up attempts to contact nonrespondents. The decision about the number of callbacks should weigh the benefits of reducing nonresponse bias against the additional costs. As callbacks are completed, the callback respondents should be compared to those who have already responded to determine the usefulness of making further callbacks. In most consumer surveys, three to four callbacks may be desirable. Whereas the first call yields the most responses, the second and third calls have a higher response per call. It is important that callbacks be made and controlled according to a prescribed plan.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 377-378 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 12.5 Discuss the nonresponse issues in sampling and the procedures for improving response rates and adjusting for nonresponse.

74) Discuss sample size determination in the context of mobile marketing research.

Answer: As mentioned in Chapter 11, in mobile marketing research (MMR), it is feasible to have large sample sizes that exceed the statistical requirements, as the incremental cost of surveying additional respondents is only marginal. Moreover, the additional time required for sample sizes larger than those determined statistically, is also marginal and often not materially significant.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 381-382 AACSB: Information technology LO: 12.8 Elucidate the initial and final sample size requirements and the unique incentives that can be offered in mobile marketing research.

75) Discuss why there may be ethical concerns when using the standard deviation of a variable in determining sample size.

Answer: The sample size is dependent on the standard deviation of the variable, and there is no way of precisely knowing the standard deviation until the data have been collected. An estimate of the standard deviation is used to calculate the sample size. This estimate is based on secondary data, judgment, or a small pilot study. By inflating the standard deviation, it is possible to increase the sample size and thus the project revenue for the research firm. It is clearly unethical to inflate the standard deviation, and thereby increase the sample size to simply enhance the revenue of the marketing research firm.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 382 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 12.9 Identify the ethical issues related to sample size determination, particularly the estimation of population variance.

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Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 13 Fieldwork 1) Fieldwork is the sixth step in the marketing research process.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 391 LO: 13.1 Describe the fieldwork process and explain the selection, training, and supervision of fieldworkers, the validation of fieldwork, and the evaluation of fieldworkers.

2) The persons who design the research frequently collect marketing research data.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 392 LO: 13.1 Describe the fieldwork process and explain the selection, training, and supervision of fieldworkers, the validation of fieldwork, and the evaluation of fieldworkers.

3) All fieldwork involves the selection, training, and supervision of persons who collect data.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 392 LO: 13.1 Describe the fieldwork process and explain the selection, training, and supervision of fieldworkers, the validation of fieldwork, and the evaluation of fieldworkers.

4) Researchers generally agree that the more characteristics the interviewer and the respondent have in common, the smaller the probability of a successful interview.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 393 LO: 13.1 Describe the fieldwork process and explain the selection, training, and supervision of fieldworkers, the validation of fieldwork, and the evaluation of fieldworkers.

5) The typical interviewer is a married woman age 25 to 34, with an above-average education and an above-average household income.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 393 LO: 13.1 Describe the fieldwork process and explain the selection, training, and supervision of fieldworkers, the validation of fieldwork, and the evaluation of fieldworkers.

6) Training of field workers can be conducted by video conferencing or using the Internet.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 394 LO: 13.2 Discuss the training of fieldworkers in making the initial contact, asking the questions, probing, recording the answers, and terminating the interview.

7) Training ensures that all interviewers administer the questionnaire in the same manner so that the data can be collected uniformly.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 394 LO: 13.2 Discuss the training of fieldworkers in making the initial contact, asking the questions, probing, recording the answers, and terminating the interview.

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8) A slight change in the wording, sequence, or manner in which a question is asked does not distort its meaning or bias the response.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 394 LO: 13.2 Discuss the training of fieldworkers in making the initial contact, asking the questions, probing, recording the answers, and terminating the interview.

9) (AO?) stands for the probing comment "any other reason."

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 395 LO: 13.2 Discuss the training of fieldworkers in making the initial contact, asking the questions, probing, recording the answers, and terminating the interview.

10) Interviewers should record responses after the interview.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 395 LO: 13.2 Discuss the training of fieldworkers in making the initial contact, asking the questions, probing, recording the answers, and terminating the interview.

11) The general rule for recording answers to unstructured questions is to check the box that reflects the respondent's answer.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 395 LO: 13.2 Discuss the training of fieldworkers in making the initial contact, asking the questions, probing, recording the answers, and terminating the interview.

12) When recording respondents' answers, interviewers should include all probes and comments.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 395 LO: 13.2 Discuss the training of fieldworkers in making the initial contact, asking the questions, probing, recording the answers, and terminating the interview.

13) As a part of central office control, supervisors should keep a record of hours worked and expenses.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 397 LO: 13.3 Discuss the supervision of fieldworkers in terms of quality control and editing, sampling control, control of cheating, and central office control.

14) Cheating involves falsifying part of a question or the entire questionnaire.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 397 LO: 13.3 Discuss the supervision of fieldworkers in terms of quality control and editing, sampling control, control of cheating, and central office control.

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15) To validate the study, the supervisors call 25 to 30 percent of the respondents to inquire whether the field workers actually conducted the interviews.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 397 LO: 13.3 Discuss the supervision of fieldworkers in terms of quality control and editing, sampling control, control of cheating, and central office control.

16) The evaluation of field workers should be based on the criteria of cost and time, response rates, quality of interviewing, and quality of data.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 397-398 LO: 13.4 Describe the evaluation of fieldworkers in areas of cost and time, response rates, quality of interviewing, and the quality of data.

17) If interviewer costs differ by city size, comparisons should be made only among field workers working in comparable cities.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 397-398 LO: 13.4 Describe the evaluation of fieldworkers in areas of cost and time, response rates, quality of interviewing, and the quality of data.

18) Supervisors can help interviewers with an inordinate number of refusals by listening to the introductions they use and providing immediate feedback.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 397-398 LO: 13.4 Describe the evaluation of fieldworkers in areas of cost and time, response rates, quality of interviewing, and the quality of data.

19) The quality of interviewing should be evaluated in terms of the appropriateness of the introduction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 397-398 LO: 13.4 Describe the evaluation of fieldworkers in areas of cost and time, response rates, quality of interviewing, and the quality of data.

20) In their guidelines on interviewing, the Insights Association suggests that interviewers do not reveal the identity of the ultimate client unless instructed to do so.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 398 LO: 13.4 Describe the evaluation of fieldworkers in areas of cost and time, response rates, quality of interviewing, and the quality of data.

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21) In their guidelines on interviewing, the Insights Association suggests that interviewers have unnecessary side conversations with the respondent in an effort to make the respondent more comfortable.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 398 LO: 13.4 Describe the evaluation of fieldworkers in areas of cost and time, response rates, quality of interviewing, and the quality of data.

22) In their guidelines on interviewing, the Insights Association suggests that interviewers keep a tally on each terminated interview and the reason for each termination.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 398 LO: 13.4 Describe the evaluation of fieldworkers in areas of cost and time, response rates, quality of interviewing, and the quality of data.

23) Research staff collecting and analyzing data from social media are normally part-time employees of the research firm.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 400 AACSB: Information technology LO: 13.6 Illustrate fieldwork in relation to social media.

24) A limited number of operational staff or field-workers, as few as two or three, may be assigned to a social media project.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 400 AACSB: Information technology LO: 13.6 Illustrate fieldwork in relation to social media.

25) The selection, training, supervision, validation, and evaluation of field workers is much more streamlined in social media fieldwork than in traditional fieldwork.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 400 AACSB: Information technology LO: 13.6 Illustrate fieldwork in relation to social media.

26) Marketing research is being given a negative image because of the misperception that marketing researchers misuse information they collect.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 402 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 13.8 Discuss the ethical aspect of fieldwork.

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27) To make the respondents more comfortable and informed, some marketing research firms and fieldwork agencies provide potential respondents with toll free numbers to verify the information given by the field workers and to take the survey over the phone.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 402 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 13.8 Discuss the ethical aspect of fieldwork.

28) Which of the following activities is not fieldwork?

A) a worker mailing questionnaires from an office B) an observer counting customers in a particular section of a store C) a statistician analyzing the results of a survey D) a telephone interviewer calling from a central location Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 392 LO: 13.1 Describe the fieldwork process and explain the selection, training, and supervision of fieldworkers, the validation of fieldwork, and the evaluation of fieldworkers.

29) The Council for Marketing and Opinion Research, now part of the Insights Association (www.insightsassociation.org), offered several guidelines for reducing refusal rates related to fieldwork. Which of the following is not one of those guidelines?

A) The subject matter should always be disclosed to the respondents.

B) Courtesy should be exercised when deciding what hours of the day to call respondents.

Calling between 9 a.m. and 9 p.m. is recommended.

C) If mall respondents indicate the time is not convenient, an appointment should be made to conduct the interview later.

D) Interviewer training programs should be routinely administered so that field workers will be effective at their jobs.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 391 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 13.1 Describe the fieldwork process and explain the selection, training, and supervision of fieldworkers, the validation of fieldwork, and the evaluation of fieldworkers.

30) Which of the following is not one of the general qualifications of fieldworkers?

A) healthy B) outgoing C) experienced and middle-aged D) pleasant appearance Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 393 LO: 13.1 Describe the fieldwork process and explain the selection, training, and supervision of fieldworkers, the validation of fieldwork, and the evaluation of fieldworkers.

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31) The training of field workers is critical. Which of the following statements is not true regarding making the initial contact?

A) Interviewers should be trained to make opening remarks that will convince potential respondents that their participation is important.

B) The interviewer should specifically ask the respondent's permission.

C) The interviewer should be instructed on handling objections and refusals.

D) The initial contact can result in cooperation or the loss of potential respondents.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 394-395 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 13.2 Discuss the training of fieldworkers in making the initial contact, asking the questions, probing, recording the answers, and terminating the interview.

32) Which of the following initial contact statements should be avoided?

A) May I have some of your valuable time?

B) We highly value your opinion and would like to ask you a few questions.

C) Would you like to answer a few questions?

D) Both A and C should be avoided.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 394-395 LO: 13.2 Discuss the training of fieldworkers in making the initial contact, asking the questions, probing, recording the answers, and terminating the interview.

33) If you are receiving field worker training and you are being told to "Ask questions in the order in which they appear in the questionnaire;" and to "Repeat questions that are not understood," then you are learning about which aspect of field worker training?

A) probing B) making initial contact C) asking questions D) recording the answer Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 394-395 LO: 13.2 Discuss the training of fieldworkers in making the initial contact, asking the questions, probing, recording the answers, and terminating the interview.

34) If you are receiving field worker training and are told to use an expectant pause or to reassure the respondent with comments like, "There are no right or wrong answers. We are just trying to get your opinions." then you are learning about which aspect of field worker training?

A) probing B) making initial contact C) asking questions D) recording the answer Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 394-395 LO: 13.2 Discuss the training of fieldworkers in making the initial contact, asking the questions, probing, recording the answers, and terminating the interview.

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35) Which statement is not true about probing?

A) Probing is intended to motivate respondents to enlarge on, clarify, or explain their answers.

B) Probing helps respondents focus on the specific content of the interview and provide only relevant information.

C) Changing the phrasing or order of questions during the interview can make significant differences in the response obtained.

D) Probing should not introduce any bias.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 394-395 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 13.2 Discuss the training of fieldworkers in making the initial contact, asking the questions, probing, recording the answers, and terminating the interview.

36) All of the following are commonly used probing techniques except .

A) using objective/neutral questions or comments B) ask each applicable question C) boosting or reassuring the respondent D) eliciting clarification Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 394-395 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 13.2 Discuss the training of fieldworkers in making the initial contact, asking the questions, probing, recording the answers, and terminating the interview.

37) "Do not summarize or paraphrase the respondent's answers." would be instructions included in the aspect of field worker training?

A) terminating the interview B) probing C) recording the answer D) asking questions Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 394-395 LO: 13.2 Discuss the training of fieldworkers in making the initial contact, asking the questions, probing, recording the answers, and terminating the interview.

38) Which statement is correct about terminating the interview?

A) Any spontaneous comments the respondent offers after the formal questions have been asked should be recorded.

B) The interviewer should answer the respondent's questions about the project.

C) The respondent should be left with a positive feeling about the interview.

D) All of the above statements are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 394-395 LO: 13.2 Discuss the training of fieldworkers in making the initial contact, asking the questions, probing, recording the answers, and terminating the interview.

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39) Supervision of field workers includes all of the following except .

A) quality control and editing B) sampling C) control of cheating D) central office control Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 397 LO: 13.3 Discuss the supervision of fieldworkers in terms of quality control and editing, sampling control, control of cheating, and central office control.

40) Which aspect of supervising field workers requires checking to see if the field procedures are being properly implemented?

A) quality control and editing B) control of cheating C) central office control D) sampling control Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 397 LO: 13.3 Discuss the supervision of fieldworkers in terms of quality control and editing, sampling control, control of cheating, and central office control.

41) Supervisors involved in quality control and editing should do all of the following except .

A) supervisors should do some interviewing B) supervisors should provide tabulation of important demographic characteristics C) supervisors should collect questionnaires and other forms and edit them daily D) supervisors should keep a record of hours worked and expenses Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 397 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 13.3 Discuss the supervision of fieldworkers in terms of quality control and editing, sampling control, control of cheating, and central office control.

42) Which aspect of supervision ensures that the interviewers strictly follow the sampling plan rather than select sampling units based on convenience or accessibility?

A) quality control and editing B) control of cheating C) central office control D) sampling control Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 397 LO: 13.3 Discuss the supervision of fieldworkers in terms of quality control and editing, sampling control, control of cheating, and central office control.

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43) Supervisors should keep daily records of the number of calls made, number of not-at-homes, number of refusals, number of completed interviews for each interviewer, and the total for all interviewers under their control. These daily records are a part of .

A) quality control and editing B) control of cheating C) central office control D) sampling control Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 397 LO: 13.3 Discuss the supervision of fieldworkers in terms of quality control and editing, sampling control, control of cheating, and central office control.

44) Which aspect of supervision includes tabulation of quota variables, important demographic characteristics, and answers to key variables?

A) quality control and editing B) control of cheating C) central office control D) sampling control Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 397 LO: 13.3 Discuss the supervision of fieldworkers in terms of quality control and editing, sampling control, control of cheating, and central office control.

45) means verifying that the field workers are submitting authentic interviews.

A) Validation of fieldwork B) Sampling control C) Control of cheating D) Evaluation of field workers Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 397 LO: 13.3 Discuss the supervision of fieldworkers in terms of quality control and editing, sampling control, control of cheating, and central office control.

46) The evaluation of field workers should be based on which of the following criteria?

A) cost and time B) response rates C) quality of the data D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 397-398 LO: 13.4 Describe the evaluation of fieldworkers in areas of cost and time, response rates, quality of interviewing, and the quality of data.

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47) Field workers should be evaluated on which of the following?

A) time spent interviewing B) time spent on administration activities C) time spent traveling D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 397-398 LO: 13.4 Describe the evaluation of fieldworkers in areas of cost and time, response rates, quality of interviewing, and the quality of data.

48) The quality of interviewing should be evaluated in terms of .

A) interpersonal skills displayed during the interview B) the ability to record all replies verbatim C) the manner in which the interview is terminated D) A and C are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 397-398 LO: 13.4 Describe the evaluation of fieldworkers in areas of cost and time, response rates, quality of interviewing, and the quality of data.

49) The quality of interviewing should be evaluated in terms of .

A) the precision with which the field worker asks questions B) the ability to ask sensitive questions C) the ability to probe in an unbiased manner D) All of the above are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 397-398 LO: 13.4 Describe the evaluation of fieldworkers in areas of cost and time, response rates, quality of interviewing, and the quality of data.

50) Indicators of quality data include all of the following except .

A) providing a tally on each terminated interview and the reason for termination B) item nonresponse occurs infrequently C) all instructions, including skip patterns, are followed D) the answers to unstructured questions are meaningful and complete enough to be coded Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 397-398 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 13.4 Describe the evaluation of fieldworkers in areas of cost and time, response rates, quality of interviewing, and the quality of data.

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51) Which statement does not apply only to international research?

A) Local fieldwork agencies are unavailable in many countries.

B) Local field workers can create an appropriate climate for the interview and be sensitive to the concerns of the respondents.

C) A global approach to marketing research is desired, which may require using the same methodologies for studies conducted in the United States so that U.S. data can be compared to other countries.

D) Interviewer cheating may be more of a problem in many foreign countries than in the United States.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 399 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 13.5 Explain the issues related to fieldwork when conducting international marketing research.

52) When collecting qualitative data from social media, which of the following is(are) decision(s) that have to be made?

A) determining the type and specification of the social media channels to be monitored B) developing a standardization of terms, conversation types, and content types C) establishing a standardized coding scheme D) setting benchmarks E) All of these are decisions that have to be made Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 400 AACSB: Information technology LO: 13.6 Illustrate fieldwork in relation to social media.

53) Respecting the respondent's privacy, feelings, and dignity and ensuring the integrity of the data collection process are aspects of .

A) ethics in marketing research B) evaluation of field workers C) training of field workers D) supervision of field workers Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 402 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 13.8 Discuss the ethical aspect of fieldwork.

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54) List the guidelines for asking questions.

Answer: ∙ Be thoroughly familiar with the questionnaire. ∙ Ask the questions in the order in which they appear in the questionnaire. ∙ Use the exact wording given in the questionnaire. ∙ Read each question slowly. ∙ Repeat questions that are not understood. ∙ Ask every applicable question. ∙ Follow instructions and skip patterns, probing carefully.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 394 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 13.2 Discuss the training of fieldworkers in making the initial contact, asking the questions, probing, recording the answers, and terminating the interview.

55) Discuss four of the probing techniques.

Answer: ∙ Repeating the question. Repeating the question in the same words can be effective in eliciting a response. ∙ Repeating the respondent's reply. Respondents can be stimulated to provide further comments by repeating verbatim their replies. This can be done as the interviewer records the replies. ∙ Using a pause or silent probe. A silent probe, or an expectant pause or look, can cue the respondent to provide a more complete response. However, the silence should not become embarrassing. ∙ Boosting or reassuring the respondent. If the respondent hesitates, the interviewer should reassure the respondent with comments like, "There are no right or wrong answers. We are just trying to get your opinions." If the respondent needs an explanation of a word or phrase, the interviewer should not offer an interpretation. Rather, the responsibility for the interpretation should be returned to the respondent. This can be done with a comment such as, "Whatever it means to you." ∙ Eliciting clarification. The respondent's motivation to cooperate with the interviewer and provide complete answers can be aroused with a question like, "I don't quite understand what you mean by that, could you please tell me a little more?" ∙ Using objective/neutral questions or comments. Some common questions or comments used as probes and the corresponding abbreviations are: Any other reason? (AO?), Anything else? (AE or Else?), What do you mean? (What mean?), and Why do you feel that way? (Why?). The interviewer should record the abbreviations on the questionnaire in parentheses next to the question asked.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 394-395 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 13.2 Discuss the training of fieldworkers in making the initial contact, asking the questions, probing, recording the answers, and terminating the interview.

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56) List and discuss the major areas of the fieldwork/data collection process.

Answer: All fieldwork involves the selection, training, and supervision of persons who collect data. The validation of fieldwork and the evaluation of field workers are also parts of the process.

The first step in the fieldwork process is the selection of field workers. The researcher should: (1) develop job specifications for the project, taking into account the mode of data collection; (2) decide what characteristics the field workers should have; and (3) recruit appropriate individuals.

Interviewers' background characteristics, opinions, perceptions, expectations, and attitudes can affect the responses they elicit.

The training of field workers is critical to the quality of data collected. Training may be conducted in person at a central location or, if the interviewers are geographically dispersed, by mail, video-conferencing, or by using the Internet. Training ensures that all interviewers administer the questionnaire in the same manner so that the data can be collected uniformly.

Supervision of field workers means making sure that they are following the procedures and techniques in which they were trained. Supervision involves quality control and editing, sampling control, control of cheating, and central office control.

Validation of fieldwork means verifying that the field workers are submitting authentic interviews. To validate the study, the supervisors call 10 to 25 percent of the respondents to inquire whether the field workers actually conducted the interviews. The supervisors ask about the length and quality of the interview, reaction to the interviewer, and basic demographic data.

The demographic information is cross-checked against the information reported by the interviewers on the questionnaires.

It is important to evaluate field workers to provide them with feedback on their performance as well as to identify the better field workers and build a better, high-quality field force. The evaluation criteria should be clearly communicated to the field workers during their training.

The evaluation of field workers should be based on the criteria of cost and time, response rates, quality of interviewing, and quality of data.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 392-398 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 13.1 Describe the fieldwork process and explain the selection, training, and supervision of fieldworkers, the validation of fieldwork, and the evaluation of fieldworkers.

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57) In a short essay, discuss the importance of properly supervising field workers and list and discuss the four elements of field worker supervision.

Answer: Supervision of field workers means making sure that they are following the procedures and techniques in which they were trained. Supervision involves quality control and editing, sample control, control of cheating, and central office control. a. Quality control of field workers requires checking to see if the field procedures are being properly implemented. If any problems are detected, the supervisor should discuss them with the field workers and provide additional training if necessary. To understand the interviewers' problems, the supervisors should also do some interviewing. b. An important aspect of supervision is sampling control, which attempts to ensure that the interviewers are strictly following the sampling plan rather than selecting sampling units based on convenience or accessibility. To control these problems, supervisors should keep daily records of the number of calls made, the number of not-at-homes, the number of refusals, the number of completed interviews for each interviewer, and the total of all interviewers under their control. c. Cheating involves falsifying part of a question or the entire questionnaire. An interviewer may falsify part of an answer to make it acceptable or may fake answers. The most blatant form of cheating occurs when the interviewer falsifies the entire questionnaire, filling in answers without contacting a respondent. Cheating can be minimized though proper training, supervision, and validation of fieldwork. d. Central office control involves tabulating the responses to important demographic characteristics and key questions. It also includes checking on the quotas to make sure they are being met. Supervisors provide quality and cost-control information to the central office so that a progress report can be maintained.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 397 LO: 13.3 Discuss the supervision of fieldworkers in terms of quality control and editing, sampling control, control of cheating, and central office control.

58) In a short essay, discuss the process of validating fieldwork.

Answer: Validation of fieldwork means verifying that field workers are submitting authentic interviews. To validate a study, the supervisors call 10 percent to 25 percent of the respondents to inquire whether the field workers actually conducted the interviews. The supervisors ask about the length and quality of the interview, reaction to the interviewer, and basic demographic data.

The demographic information is cross-checked against the information reported by the interviewers on the questionnaires.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 397 LO: 13.3 Discuss the supervision of fieldworkers in terms of quality control and editing, sampling control, control of cheating, and central office control.

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59) In a short essay, discuss the importance of properly evaluating field workers and discuss five elements that are important when conducting these evaluations.

Answer: It is important to evaluate field workers to provide feedback on their performance.

Evaluation helps identify the more effective field workers in order to build a better, higherquality field force. The evaluation criteria should be clearly communicated to the field workers during their training. The evaluation of field workers should be based on the criteria of quantity and quality. Interviewers can be compared in terms of total cost per completed interview. Field workers should also be evaluated on how they spend their time. Time should be broken down into categories such as actual interviewing, travel, and administration. It is important to monitor response rates on a timely basis so that corrective action can be taken if these rates are too low.

Supervisors can help interviewers with an inordinate number of refusals by listening to the introductions they use and providing immediate feedback. When all the interviews are over, different field workers' percentage of refusals can be compared to identify the better workers.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 397-398 LO: 13.4 Describe the evaluation of fieldworkers in areas of cost and time, response rates, quality of interviewing, and the quality of data.

60) In a short essay, discuss the fieldwork issues facing researchers conducting international marketing research.

Answer: The selection, training, supervision, and evaluation of field workers are critical in international marketing research. Because local fieldwork agencies are unavailable in many countries, it may be necessary to recruit and train local field workers or import trained foreign workers. Using local field workers is preferable, however, since they are familiar with the local language and culture and can create an appropriate climate for the interview and be sensitive to the concerns of the respondents. Extensive training of field workers may be required, and close supervision may be necessary. In many countries, interviewers tend to help respondents with the answers and select households or sampling units based on personal considerations rather than the sampling plan. Also, interviewer cheating may be more of a problem in many foreign countries than in the United States. For these reasons, validation of fieldwork is critical. Proper application of fieldwork procedures can greatly reduce these difficulties and result in consistent and useful findings, as the following example demonstrates.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 399-400 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 13.5 Explain the issues related to fieldwork when conducting international marketing research.

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61) Discuss fieldwork in the context of mobile marketing research.

Answer: The field work process described in this chapter is general and its nature and emphasis on each step will depend upon the specific mode of data collection. Interviewers conducting telephone or personal interviews are generally employed on a part-time or contract basis.

However, research staff collecting and analyzing data in mobile marketing research (MMR) are normally full-time employees of the firm. Furthermore, a limited number of operational staff or field workers, as few as one, may be assigned to a MMR project. Both these factors make the selection, training, supervision, validation, and evaluation of field workers much more streamlined in MMR, similar to social media research, although many of the issues involved are the same as encountered in traditional field work. As with other modes of data collection, a crucial part of the organization of field work is forming a core nucleus team of people drawn from both the client and research organizations.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 401 AACSB: Information technology LO: 13.7 Elucidate fieldwork in mobile marketing research.

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Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 14 Data Preparation 1) The data preparation process begins after the fieldwork is done.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 409 LO: 14.1 Discuss the nature and scope of data preparation and the data-preparation process.

2) The data-preparation process is guided by the preliminary plan of data that was formulated in the research design phase.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 409 LO: 14.1 Discuss the nature and scope of data preparation and the data-preparation process.

3) The initial step in questionnaire checking involves a check of all questionnaires for completeness and interviewing quality.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 410 LO: 14.2 Explain questionnaire checking and editing, treatment of unsatisfactory responses by returning to the field, assigning missing values, and discarding unsatisfactory responses.

4) If quotas or cell group sizes have not been met, additional interviews should be conducted in the underrepresented cells before the data are edited.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 410 LO: 14.2 Explain questionnaire checking and editing, treatment of unsatisfactory responses by returning to the field, assigning missing values, and discarding unsatisfactory responses.

5) At the editing stage, the researcher makes a preliminary check for consistency.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 410 LO: 14.2 Explain questionnaire checking and editing, treatment of unsatisfactory responses by returning to the field, assigning missing values, and discarding unsatisfactory responses.

6) Unsatisfactory respondents may differ from satisfactory respondents in systematic ways and the decision to designate a respondent as unsatisfactory may be subjective. Both of these factors bias the results.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 410-411 LO: 14.2 Explain questionnaire checking and editing, treatment of unsatisfactory responses by returning to the field, assigning missing values, and discarding unsatisfactory responses.

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7) When entering respondent data into a spreadsheet, each column contains the data for one respondent.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 413 LO: 14.3 Describe the guidelines for coding questionnaires, including the coding of structured and unstructured questions.

8) The following codes should be included for each respondent: project code, interviewer code, date and time codes, category codes, and validation code.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 411-414 LO: 14.3 Describe the guidelines for coding questionnaires, including the coding of structured and unstructured questions.

9) If possible, standard codes should be used for missing data.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 411-414 LO: 14.3 Describe the guidelines for coding questionnaires, including the coding of structured and unstructured questions.

10) Missing value codes should be distinct from the codes assigned to the legitimate responses.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 411-414 LO: 14.3 Describe the guidelines for coding questionnaires, including the coding of structured and unstructured questions.

11) When setting up the code book for a questionnaire, you would allow 2 columns to code the response to the question "Do you have a valid passport?

1. yes 2. no" Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 411-414 LO: 14.3 Describe the guidelines for coding questionnaires, including the coding of structured and unstructured questions.

12) A codebook contains coding instructions and the necessary information about variables in the data set. It guides the coders in their work and helps the researcher to properly identify and locate the variables.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 411-414 LO: 14.3 Describe the guidelines for coding questionnaires, including the coding of structured and unstructured questions.

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13) Given the time and cost constraints, as well as the fact that experienced keypunch operators are quite accurate, it is sufficient to verify only 15-25 percent of the data entered by keypunching.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 416-417 LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

14) Scanning of questionnaires has allowed Princess Cruises to increase the accuracy of their survey results.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 417-418 LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

15) The selection of data transcription method is guided by the type of interviewing method used and the availability of equipment.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 416-417 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

16) Data cleaning includes consistency checks and treatment of missing responses. The checks at this stage are less extensive than the checks made during editing.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 418-419 LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

17) Computer packages like SPSS, SAS, EXCEL, and MINITAB can be programmed to identify out-of-range values for each variable and print related code information to make it easy to check each variable systematically for out-of-range values.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 418-419 AACSB: Information technology LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

18) Responses can be logically inconsistent.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 418-419 LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

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19) All extreme values result from errors and point to problems with the data.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 418-419 LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

20) Missing responses represent values of a variable that are unknown, either because respondents provided ambiguous answers or their answers were not properly recorded.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 418-419 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

21) Treatment of missing responses poses problems, particularly if the proportion of missing responses is more than 10 percent.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 418-419 LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

22) The value 1.0 represents the weighted case.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 419-420 LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

23) The effect of weighting is to increase or to decrease the number of cases in the sample that possess certain characteristics.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 419-420 LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

24) When utilizing weighting, categories underrepresented in the sample receive lower weights, whereas overrepresented categories receive higher weights.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 419-420 LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

25) The purpose of respecification is to create variables that are consistent with the objectives of the study.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 420-421 LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

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26) Square root and log transformations are seldom used in the respecification of variables.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4420-421 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

27) An important variable respecification procedure involves the use of dummy variables.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 420-421 LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

28) The use of dummy variables refers to a respecification procedure using variables that take on only two values, usually 0 or 1.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 420-421 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

29) Dummy variables are used to respecify categorical variables.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 420-421 LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

30) The general rule for respecifying categorical variables with K categories is that K dummy variables are needed.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 420-421 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

31) When respecifying a categorical variable with K categories, only K - 1 dummy variables are needed because only K - 1 categories are independent.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 420-421 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

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32) To standardize a scale Xi, we first subtract the mean, , from each score and divide by the standard error, S Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 421-422 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

33) Standardized zi scores can be obtained as: Zi = (X - )/s.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 421-422 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

34) Statistical techniques can be classified as univariate or multivariate.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 422-424 LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

35) Univariate techniques can be classified based on whether the data are metric or nonmetric.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 422-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

36) Metric data are measured on a nominal or ordinal scale.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 422-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

37) Nonmetric data are measured on an interval or ratio scale.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 422-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

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38) When using univariate techniques, the number of samples is determined based on how the data are treated for the purpose of analysis, not based on how the data were collected.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 422-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

39) Univariate techniques can be classified as dependence techniques or interdependence techniques.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 422-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

40) Analysis of interobject similarity can be conducted by cluster analysis and multiple discriminant analysis.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 422-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

41) In interdependence techniques, the variables are classified as dependent or independent.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 422-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

42) The major technique for examining variable interdependence is factor analysis.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 422-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

43) When conducting international marketing research, enough data must be obtained from each individual to allow analysis at the individual level.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 424-426 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 14.8 Understand the intracultural, pancultural, and cross-cultural approaches to data analysis in international marketing research.

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44) Within-country analysis is also referred to as intercultural analysis.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 424-426 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 14.8 Understand the intracultural, pancultural, and cross-cultural approaches to data analysis in international marketing research.

45) Consider the example of a respondent who indicates an extremely favorable attitude toward spectator sports on all of the positively worded statements in a survey and an extremely negative attitude on statements that were reversed. Decisions whether such respondents should be discarded, that is, not included in the analysis, can raise ethical concerns. A good rule of thumb is to make such decisions during the data-preparation phase before conducting the analysis.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 427-428 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 14.8 Understand the intracultural, pancultural, and cross-cultural approaches to data analysis in international marketing research.

46) The objective of Pancultural analysis is to assess the comparability of findings from one country to another.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 424-426 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 14.8 Understand the intracultural, pancultural, and cross-cultural approaches to data analysis in international marketing research.

47) When doing international research, differences in means, differences in distribution, and differences in variance should be assessed.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 424-426 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 14.8 Understand the intracultural, pancultural, and cross-cultural approaches to data analysis in international marketing research.

48) Unlike traditional data collection, in social media respondents do not merely respond to questions or stimuli. Rather, they generate the data and edit it by their communal participation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 426-427 AACSB: Information technology LO: 14.9 Describe text coding, categorization, and other aspects of data preparation in social media research.

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49) The data preparation process for social media is exactly similar to that for data collected by traditional means.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 426-427 AACSB: Information technology LO: 14.9 Describe text coding, categorization, and other aspects of data preparation in social media research.

50) Data collection, text coding and categorization, and text-mining and visualization are unique aspects of data preparation in social media.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 426-427 AACSB: Information technology LO: 14.9 Describe text coding, categorization, and other aspects of data preparation in social media research.

51) For data collected in social media, the human coder then develops a coding and categorization scheme and assists in the computer categorization of text until coding results are satisfactory.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 426-427 AACSB: Information technology LO: 14.9 Describe text coding, categorization, and other aspects of data preparation in social media research.

52) Information useful for formulating a data analysis strategy is not readily available on the internet.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 429 AACSB: Information technology LO: 14.10 Elucidate data preparation in mobile marketing research.

53) Ethical issues that arise during the data preparation and analysis step of marketing research process pertain mainly to the researcher.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 427-428 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 14.11 Identify the ethical issues related to data processing, particularly the discarding of unsatisfactory responses, violation of the assumptions underlying the data analysis techniques, and evaluation and interpretation of results.

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54) SPSS Data Entry allows you to verify that respondents have answered completely by setting rules. These rules can be used on existing datasets to validate and check the data only of questionnaires that were constructed in Data Entry.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 428-429 AACSB: Information technology LO: 14.12 Explain the role of software in data preparation and analysis using SPSS and SAS. 55) SPSS Missing Values Analysis can assist in diagnosing missing values and replacing missing values with estimates. The missing values can also be treated within the context of the SPSS Base module.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 428-429 AACSB: Information technology LO: 14.12 Explain the role of software in data preparation and analysis using SPSS and SAS. 56) Which of the following is not a step in the data-preparation process?

A) editing B) select a sampling technique C) transcribing D) data cleaning Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 409-410 LO: 14.1 Discuss the nature and scope of data preparation and the data-preparation process.

57) If you are counting and classifying questionnaires to determine if quotas and cell group sizes have been met, you are at the step of the data-preparation process.

A) questionnaire checking B) coding C) data cleaning D) editing Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 410 LO: 14.2 Explain questionnaire checking and editing, treatment of unsatisfactory responses by returning to the field, assigning missing values, and discarding unsatisfactory responses.

58) A questionnaire returned from the field may be unacceptable for several reasons. Which of the reasons below is not one of those reasons?

A) Parts of the questionnaire may be incomplete.

B) The returned questionnaire is physically incomplete.

C) The questionnaire is answered by someone who does not qualify for participation.

D) The questionnaire does not uplift, motivate, or encourage the respondent to become involved.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 410 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 14.2 Explain questionnaire checking and editing, treatment of unsatisfactory responses by returning to the field, assigning missing values, and discarding unsatisfactory responses.

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59) If you discover that a respondent has consistently checked the same response on a series of scales or that skip patterns were not followed on a questionnaire, more than likely you are participating in the step of the data-preparation process.

A) coding B) data cleaning C) questionnaire checking D) editing Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 410 LO: 14.2 Explain questionnaire checking and editing, treatment of unsatisfactory responses by returning to the field, assigning missing values, and discarding unsatisfactory responses.

60) The step of the data-preparation process consists of screening questionnaires to identify illegible, incomplete, inconsistent, or ambiguous responses.

A) coding B) data cleaning C) questionnaire checking D) editing Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 410-411 LO: 14.2 Explain questionnaire checking and editing, treatment of unsatisfactory responses by returning to the field, assigning missing values, and discarding unsatisfactory responses.

61) During a preliminary check for consistency, you found a respondent had reported an annual income of less than $20,000, yet indicated frequent shopping at prestigious department stores such as Saks Fifth Avenue and Neiman Marcus. You are at the step of the datapreparation process.

A) coding B) data cleaning C) questionnaire checking D) editing Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 410-411 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 14.2 Explain questionnaire checking and editing, treatment of unsatisfactory responses by returning to the field, assigning missing values, and discarding unsatisfactory responses.

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62) Unsatisfactory responses uncovered in the editing stage of the data-preparation process are commonly handled by doing any of the following except .

A) recoding unsatisfactory responses B) assigning missing values C) discarding unsatisfactory responses D) returning to the field to get better data Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 410-411 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 14.2 Explain questionnaire checking and editing, treatment of unsatisfactory responses by returning to the field, assigning missing values, and discarding unsatisfactory responses.

63) Which treatment of unsatisfactory responses is particularly attractive for business and industrial marketing surveys where the sample sizes are small and the respondents are easily identifiable?

A) returning to the field to get better data B) recoding unsatisfactory responses C) discarding unsatisfactory responses D) assigning missing values Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 410-411 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 14.2 Explain questionnaire checking and editing, treatment of unsatisfactory responses by returning to the field, assigning missing values, and discarding unsatisfactory responses.

64) Which treatment of unsatisfactory responses is desirable if (1) the number of respondents with unsatisfactory responses is small; (2) the proportion of unsatisfactory responses for each of these respondents is small; or (3) the variables with unsatisfactory responses are not the key variables?

A) returning to the field to get better data B) classifying and counting questionnaires accordingly C) discarding unsatisfactory responses D) assigning missing values Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 410-411 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 14.2 Explain questionnaire checking and editing, treatment of unsatisfactory responses by returning to the field, assigning missing values, and discarding unsatisfactory responses.

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65) Which treatment of unsatisfactory responses is desirable if (1) the unsatisfactory respondents do not differ from satisfactory respondents in obvious ways (e.g., demographics, product usage characteristics), (2) the proportion of unsatisfactory responses for each of these respondents is large, or (3) responses on key variables are missing?

A) returning to the field to get better data B) classifying and counting questionnaires accordingly C) discarding unsatisfactory responses D) assigning missing values Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 410-411 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 14.2 Explain questionnaire checking and editing, treatment of unsatisfactory responses by returning to the field, assigning missing values, and discarding unsatisfactory responses.

66) is the assignment of a code to represent a specific response to a specific question along with the data record and column position that code will occupy.

A) Coding B) Data cleaning C) Assignment of missing values D) Editing Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 411-414 LO: 14.3 Describe the guidelines for coding questionnaires, including the coding of structured and unstructured questions.

67) A code in which the number of records for each respondent are the same, and the same data appear in the same columns for all respondents, is a .

A) respondent code B) fixed-field code C) category code D) record code Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 411-414 LO: 14.3 Describe the guidelines for coding questionnaires, including the coding of structured and unstructured questions.

68) The general guidelines for coding unstructured questions and questionnaires include all of the following except .

A) category codes should be mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive B) category codes should be assigned for critical issues even if no one has mentioned them C) answers should be abbreviated as much as possible D) data should be coded to retain as much detail as possible Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 411-414 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 14.3 Describe the guidelines for coding questionnaires, including the coding of structured and unstructured questions.

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69) A codebook generally contains all of the following information except .

A) record number B) category number C) instructions for coding D) variable name Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 411-414 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 14.3 Describe the guidelines for coding questionnaires, including the coding of structured and unstructured questions.

70) involves transferring the coded data from the questionnaires or coding sheets onto disks or magnetic tapes, or directly into computers by keypunching.

A) Coding data B) Editing data C) Transcribing data D) Data Cleaning Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 416-417 LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

71) If the data have been collected via , transcribing data is unnecessary because the data are entered directly into the computer.

A) CATI B) mark sense forms C) CAPI D) Both A and C are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 416-417 AACSB: Information technology LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

72) require(s) responses to be recorded with a special pencil in a pre-designated area coded for that response.

A) CATI or CAPI B) Computerized sensory systems C) Marked sensed forms D) Optical scanning Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 416-417 AACSB: Information technology LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

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73) involves direct machine reading of the codes and simultaneous transcription.

A) CATI or CAPI B) Computerized sensory systems C) Mark sense forms D) Optical scanning Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 416-417 AACSB: Information technology LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

74) utilizes questions that appear on a computerized gridpad. The responses are recorded directly into the computer using a sensing device.

A) CATI or CAPI B) Computerized sensory analysis systems C) Mark sense forms D) Optical scanning Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 416-417 AACSB: Information technology LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

75) Respondents have been asked to express their degree of agreement with a series of lifestyle statements on a 1-to-5 scale, assuming that 9 has been designated for missing values, data values of 0, 6, 7, and 8 are out of range. Where in the data-preparation process might any out-of-range data be caught?

A) coding B) transcribing C) data cleaning D) statistically adjusting the data Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 418-419 LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

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76) Respondents have been asked to express their degree of agreement with a series of lifestyle statements on a 1-to-5 scale, assuming that 9 has been designated for missing values, data values of 0, 6, 7, and 8 are out of range. Where in the data cleaning process might any out-of-range data be caught?

A) consistency checks B) returning to the field C) treatment of missing responses D) Both A and C are correct.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 418-419 LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

77) Which of the following is an option available for the treatment of missing values?

A) substitute a neutral value B) substitute an imputed response C) Both A and B are correct.

D) returning to the field Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 418-419 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

78) If the researcher uses the mean response for the missing value, he/she is using which option for the treatment of missing values?

A) returning to the field B) casewise deletion C) substitute an imputed response D) substitute a neutral value Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 418-419 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

79) Which option for the treatment of missing values involves the researcher using the respondents' pattern of responses to calculate a suitable response to the missing questions?

A) returning to the field B) casewise deletion C) substitute an imputed response D) substitute a neutral value Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 418-419 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

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80) Which option for the treatment of missing values involves cases, or respondents, with any missing responses being discarded from the analysis?

A) returning to the field B) casewise deletion C) pairwise deletion D) substitute a neutral value Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 418-419 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

81) Which option for the treatment of missing values involves the researcher using only cases or respondents with complete responses for each calculation?

A) returning to the field B) casewise deletion C) pairwise deletion D) substitute a neutral value Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 418-419 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

82) The effect of is to increase or decrease the number of cases in the sample that possess certain characteristics.

A) weighting B) variable respecification C) scale transformation D) standardization Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 419-420 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

83) In , each case or respondent in the database is assigned a weight to reflect its importance relative to other cases or respondents.

A) standardization B) variable respecification C) scale transformation D) weighting Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 419-420 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

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84) You would use weighting under which circumstance?

A) to create new variables that are composites of several other variables B) to adjust the sample so that greater importance is attached to respondents with certain characteristics C) to compare attitudinal scores measured on a seven-point semantic differential scale with lifestyle or image scores measured on a five-point Likert scale D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 419-420 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

85) If in conducting a study to determine what modifications should be made on an existing product the researcher assigns weights of 4.0 to heavy users, 3.0 to medium users, 2.0 to light users, and 1.0 to nonusers. Which group's opinion has greater importance?

A) nonusers B) light users C) medium users D) heavy users Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 419-420 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

86) involves the transformation of data to create variables or modify existing variables.

A) Standardization B) Variable respecification C) Scale transformation D) Weighting Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 420-422 LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

87) Dummy variables are also called all of the names below except .

A) binary B) instrumental C) quantitative D) dichotomous Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 420-422 LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

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88) You would use variable respecification under which circumstance?

A) to create new variables that are composites of several other variables B) to adjust the sample so that greater importance is attached to respondents with certain characteristics C) to compare attitudinal scores measured on a seven-point semantic differential scale with lifestyle or image scores measured on a five-point Likert scale D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 420-422 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

89) involves a manipulation of scale values to ensure comparability with other scales or otherwise make the data suitable for analysis.

A) Standardization B) Variable respecification C) Scale transformation D) Weighting Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 420-422 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

90) You would use scale transformation under which circumstance?

A) to create new variables that are composites of several other variables B) to adjust the sample so that greater importance is attached to respondents with certain characteristics C) to compare image variables measured on a seven-point semantic differential scale with attitude variables measured on a continuous rating scale and lifestyle variables measured on a five-point Likert scale D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 420-422 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

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91) Which statement is not true about standardization?

A) The standardized scale will have a mean of zero and a standard deviation of 1.

B) Standardization allows the researcher to compare variables that have been measured using different types of scales.

C) Standardization is the process of correcting data to reduce them to the same scale by subtracting the sample mean and dividing by the standard error.

D) Standardization is the process of correcting data to reduce them to the same scale by subtracting the sample mean and dividing by the standard deviation.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 420-422 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

92) Which is not a part of the process of selecting a data analysis strategy?

A) known characteristics of the data B) classification of statistical techniques C) background and philosophy of the researcher D) properties of statistical techniques Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 422-423 LO: 14.6 Describe the procedure for selecting a data analysis strategy and the factors influencing the process.

93) are appropriate when there is a single measurement of each element in the sample, or there are several measurements of each element but each variable is analyzed in isolation.

A) Interdependence techniques B) Dependence techniques C) Multivariate techniques D) Univariate techniques Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 423-424 LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

94) are suitable for analyzing data when there are two or more measurements of each element and the variables are analyzed simultaneously.

A) Interdependence techniques B) Dependence techniques C) Multivariate techniques D) Univariate techniques Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 423-424 LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

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95) Data that are interval or ratio in nature are .

A) metric data B) independent data C) nonmetric data D) paired data Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 423-424 LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

96) Data derived from a nominal or ordinal scale are .

A) metric data B) independent data C) nonmetric data D) paired data Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 423-424 LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

97) Univariate techniques can be classified based on .

A) whether the data are metric or nonmetric B) whether one, two, or more than two samples are involved C) whether interdependence techniques or dependence techniques are to be used D) A and B are correct Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 423-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

98) When utilizing univariate techniques, for the purpose of analysis, data pertaining to different groups of respondents, e.g., males and females, are generally treated as samples while the samples are when the data for the two samples relate to the same group of respondents.

A) metric; paired B) independent; metric C) independent; paired D) paired; independent Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 423-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

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99) When utilizing univariate techniques, the samples are if they are drawn randomly from different populations.

A) metric data B) independent C) nonmetric data D) paired Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 423-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

100) When utilizing univariate techniques, the samples are when the data for the two samples relate to the same group of respondents.

A) metric data B) independent C) nonmetric data D) paired Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 423-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

101) When utilizing univariate techniques, for metric data, when there is (are) test and the t test can be used.

A) only one sample B) two independent samples C) more than two independent samples D) A and B are correct Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 423-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

the z

102) When utilizing univariate techniques, for metric data, when there is (are) way analysis of variance (one-way ANOVA) can be used.

A) only one sample B) two independent samples C) more than two independent samples D) two or more related samples Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 423-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

, one-

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103) When utilizing univariate techniques, for metric data, when there is (are) paired t test can be used.

A) only one sample B) two independent samples C) more than two independent samples D) two or more related samples Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 423-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

, the

104) When utilizing univariate techniques, for nonmetric data, when there is (are) square, Mann-Whitney, Median, K-S, and K-W one-way ANOVA tests can be used.

A) only one sample B) two independent samples C) more than two dependent samples D) two or more related samples Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 423-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

, chi-

105) When utilizing univariate techniques, for nonmetric data, when there is (are) sign, McNemar, and Wilcoxon tests can be used.

A) only one sample B) two independent samples C) more than two dependent samples D) two or more related samples Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 423-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

,

106) Univariate techniques can be classified based on .

A) whether the data are metric or nonmetric B) whether one, or two or more samples are involved C) whether interdependence techniques or dependence techniques are to be used D) A and B are correct Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 423-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

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107) are appropriate when one or more variables can be identified as dependent variables and the remaining are independent variables.

A) Interdependence techniques B) Dependence techniques C) Multivariate techniques D) Univariate techniques Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 423-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

108) are statistical techniques that attempt to group data based on underlying similarity, and thus allow for interpretation of the data structures. No distinction is made as to which variables are dependent and which are independent.

A) Interdependence techniques B) Dependence techniques C) Multivariate techniques D) Univariate techniques Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 423-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

109) For multivariate statistical techniques, when there is , cross-tabulation, analysis of variance and covariance, regression, two-group discriminant analysis, and conjoint analysis can be used.

A) variable interdependence B) one dependent variable C) more than one dependent variable D) interobject similarity Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 434-435 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

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110) For multivariate statistical techniques, when there is , multivariate analysis of variance and covariance and canonical correlation, and multiple discriminant analysis can be used.

A) variable interdependence B) one dependent variable C) more than one dependent variable D) interobject similarity Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 423-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

111) is a multivariate dependence technique with more than one dependent variable.

A) Two-group discriminant analysis B) Multiple regression C) Multidimensional scaling D) Multiple discriminant analysis Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 423-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

112) The major multivariate technique for examining , is factor analysis.

A) variable interdependence B) one dependent variable C) more than one dependent variable D) interobject similarity Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 423-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

113) For multivariate statistical techniques, when there is , cluster analysis and multidimensional scaling can be used.

A) variable interdependence B) one dependent variable C) more than one dependent variable D) interobject similarity Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 423-424 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

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114) requires that the data from each respondent be analyzed separately.

A) Cross-cultural analysis B) Individual-level analysis C) Pancultural analysis D) Intracultural analysis Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 424-426 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 14.8 Understand the intracultural, pancultural, and cross-cultural approaches to data analysis in international marketing research.

115) is within-country analysis of international data.

A) Cross-cultural analysis B) Individual-level analysis C) Pancultural analysis D) Intracultural analysis Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 424-426 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 14.8 Understand the intracultural, pancultural, and cross-cultural approaches to data analysis in international marketing research.

116) In , also known as across-countries analysis, the data of all the respondents can be pooled and analyzed.

A) Cross-cultural analysis B) Individual-level analysis C) Pancultural analysis D) Intracultural analysis Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 424-426 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 14.8 Understand the intracultural, pancultural, and cross-cultural approaches to data analysis in international marketing research.

117) In , also known as across-countries analysis, the data can be aggregated for each country and these aggregate statistics analyzed.

A) Cross-cultural analysis B) Individual-level analysis C) Pancultural analysis D) Intracultural analysis Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 424-426 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 14.8 Understand the intracultural, pancultural, and cross-cultural approaches to data analysis in international marketing research.

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118) is similar to that conducted in domestic marketing research. The objective is to gain an understanding of the relationships and patterns existing in each country or cultural unit.

A) Cross-cultural analysis B) Individual-level analysis C) Pancultural analysis D) Intracultural analysis Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 424-426 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 14.8 Understand the intracultural, pancultural, and cross-cultural approaches to data analysis in international marketing research.

119) The objective of this level of analysis is to assess the comparability of findings from one country to another.

A) Cross-cultural analysis B) Individual-level analysis C) Pancultural analysis D) Intracultural analysis Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 424-426 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 14.8 Understand the intracultural, pancultural, and cross-cultural approaches to data analysis in international marketing research.

120) Which statement is true concerning ethical issues concerned with data preparation?

A) Researchers should try to get some idea about the quality of the data.

B) Discarding respondents after analyzing the data raises ethical concerns.

C) Any departure from the assumptions underlying the statistical techniques used to analyze the data raises ethical concerns.

D) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 427-428 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 14.11 Identify the ethical issues related to data processing, particularly the discarding of unsatisfactory responses, violation of the assumptions underlying the data analysis techniques, and evaluation and interpretation of results.

121) In Minitab the and statements can be used to select cases with missing or out-of-range values.

A) Select If; ElseIf B) Select If; Process If C) If; ElseIf D) If; If-Then Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 428-429 AACSB: Information technology LO: 14.10 Elucidate data preparation in mobile marketing research.

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122) In Excel the statement can be used to make a logical check.

A) If B) ElseIf C) Else D) EndIf Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 428-429 AACSB: Information technology LO: 14.12 Explain the role of software in data preparation and analysis using SPSS and SAS. 123) Give a brief overview of the data-preparation process.

Answer: The data-preparation process is shown in Figure 14.1 in the text. The entire process is guided by the preliminary plan of data analysis that was formulated in the research design phase.

The first step is to check for acceptable questionnaires. This is followed by editing, coding, and transcribing the data. The data are cleaned and a treatment for missing responses prescribed.

Often, statistical adjustment of the data may be necessary to make them representative of the population of interest. The researcher should then select an appropriate data analysis strategy.

The final data analysis strategy differs from the preliminary plan of data analysis due to the information and insights gained since the preliminary plan was formulated. Data preparation should begin as soon as the first batch of questionnaires is received from the field, while the fieldwork is still going on. Thus if any problems are detected, the fieldwork can be modified to incorporate corrective action.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 409-410 LO: 14.1 Discuss the nature and scope of data preparation and the data-preparation process.

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124) Write an example question and the associated coding for (1) a structured question that allows only a single response with less than nine possible choices and (2) a structured question that permits multiple responses.

Answer: A single column is sufficient to code a structured question that allows a single response if there are less than nine possible choices. In questions that permit a large number of responses, each possible response option should be assigned a separate column. The student should provide his/her own examples. Example responses follow.

Do you have a currently valid passport?

1.Yes 2. No (1/54) For this question, a "Yes" response is coded 1 and a "No" response 2. The numbers in parentheses indicate that the code assigned will appear on the first record for this respondent in column 54. Because only one response is allowed and there are only two possible responses (1 or 2), a single column is sufficient.

Which accounts do you now have at this bank? ("X" as many as apply) Regular savings account (162) Regular checking account (163) Mortgage (164) Now account (165) In this example, suppose a respondent checked regular savings, regular checking, and now accounts. On record #9, a 1 will be entered in the column numbers 162, 163, and 165. Column 164 will receive a 0. Since there is only one record per respondent, the record number has been omitted.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 411-414 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.3 Describe the guidelines for coding questionnaires, including the coding of structured and unstructured questions.

125) Discuss the procedures for coding unstructured or open-ended questions.

Answer: Respondents' verbatim responses are recorded on the questionnaire. Codes are then developed and assigned to these responses. Sometimes, based on previous projects or theoretical considerations, the researcher can develop the codes before beginning fieldwork. Usually, this must wait until the completed questionnaires are received. Then the researcher lists 50 to 100 responses to an unstructured question to identify the categories suitable for coding. Once codes are developed, the coders should be trained to assign the correct codes to the verbatim responses.

Category codes should be mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive. Category codes should be assigned for critical issues even if no one has mentioned them. Data should be coded to retain as much detail as possible.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 411-414 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.3 Describe the guidelines for coding questionnaires, including the coding of structured and unstructured questions.

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126) Discuss the pros and cons of the various options for the treatment of missing responses.

Answer: 1. Substitute a Neutral Value. If the mean is substituted for the missing value, the mean of the variable remains unchanged and other statistics, such as correlations, are not affected much.

Although this approach has some merit, the logic of substituting a mean value (say 4) for respondents who, if they had answered, might have used either high ratings (6 or 7) or low ratings (1 or 2) is questionable.

2. Substitute an Imputed Response. This approach requires considerable effort and can introduce serious bias. Sophisticated statistical procedures have been developed to calculate imputed values for missing responses.

3. Casewise Deletion. Because many respondents may have some missing responses, this approach could result in a small sample. Throwing away large amounts of data is undesirable, because it is costly and time consuming to collect data. Furthermore, respondents with missing responses could differ from respondents with complete responses in systematic ways. If so, casewise deletion could seriously bias the results.

4. Pairwise Deletion. Different calculations in an analysis may be based on different sample sizes. This procedure may be appropriate when (1) the sample size is large, (2) there are few missing responses, and (3) the variables are not highly related. Yet, this procedure can produce results that are unappealing or even infeasible.

The different procedures for the treatment of missing responses may yield different results, particularly when the responses are not missing at random and the variables are related. Hence, missing responses should be kept to a minimum. The researcher should carefully consider the implications of the various procedures before selecting a particular method for the treatment of nonresponse.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 418-419 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.4 Discuss the data-cleaning process and the methods used to treat missing responses: substitution of a neutral value, imputed response, casewise deletion, and pairwise deletion.

127) List the procedures for statistically adjusting data and briefly discuss the uses for each.

Answer: In weighting, each case or respondent in the database is assigned a weight to reflect its importance relative to other cases or respondents. Weighting is most widely used to make the sample data more representative of a target population on specific characteristics.

Variable respecification involves the transformation of data to create new variables or modify existing variables. The purpose of respecification is to create new variables that are consistent with the objectives of the study.

Scale transformation involves a manipulation of scale values to ensure comparability with other scales or otherwise make the data suitable for analysis.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 419-421 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

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128) How would you represent consumer preferences for frozen foods as dummy variables if the respondents were classified as heavy, medium, light, nonusers?

Answer: Product Usage Category Dummy Variable Code X1 X2 X3 Nonusers 1 0 0 Light users 0 1 0 Medium users 0 0 1 Heavy users 0 0 0 Note that X1 = 1 for nonusers and 0 for all others. Likewise, X2 = 1 for light users and 0 for all others, and X3 = 1 for medium users and 0 for all others. In analyzing data, X1, X21, and X3 are used to represent all user/nonuser groups. The student may choose to alternate which product category is X1, X2, or X3. This is acceptable as long as one of the four categories is coded as all zeros.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 421 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.5 State the reasons for and methods of statistically adjusting data: weighting, variable respecification, and scale transformation.

129) Discuss how the researcher should go about selecting a data analysis strategy (Figure 14.5 in the text).

Answer: The selection of a data analysis strategy should be based on the earlier steps of the marketing research process, known characteristics of the data, properties of statistical techniques, and the background and philosophy of the researcher.

The selection of a data analysis strategy must begin with a consideration of the earlier steps in the process: problem definition (Step I), development of an approach (Step II), and research design (Step III). The preliminary plan of data analysis prepared as part of the research design should be used as a springboard.

Changes may be necessary in light of additional information generated in subsequent stages of the research process. The next step is to consider the known characteristics of the data. The measurement scales used exert a strong influence on the choice of statistical techniques and, the research design may favor certain techniques.

It is also important to take into account the properties of the statistical techniques, particularly their purpose and underlying assumptions. Some statistical techniques are appropriate for examining differences in variables, others for assessing the magnitudes of the relationships between variables, and others for making predictions. The techniques also involve different assumptions, and some techniques can withstand violations of the underlying assumptions better than others.

Finally, the researcher's background and philosophy affect the choice of a data analysis strategy.

The experienced, statistically trained researcher will employ a range of techniques, including advanced statistical methods. Researchers differ in their willingness to make assumptions about the variables and their underlying populations. Researchers who are conservative about making assumptions will limit their choice of techniques to distribution-free methods.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 422-423 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.6 Describe the procedure for selecting a data analysis strategy and the factors influencing the process.

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130) Explain the difference between univariate and multivariate techniques.

Answer: Multivariate techniques differ from univariate techniques in that they shift the focus away from the levels (averages) and distributions (variances) of the phenomena, concentrating instead upon the degree of relationships (correlations or covariances) among these phenomena.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 423 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.7 Classify statistical techniques and give a detailed classification of univariate techniques as well as a classification of multivariate techniques.

131) Discuss data preparation and analysis in the context of mobile marketing research.

Answer: Data preparation and analysis in mobile marketing research (MMR) is similar to that in online (Internet) based surveys. Data obtained from mobile devices can be seamlessly transferred to computers. Checking for quality and completeness of responses can be programmed and is done on the computers. Missing vales can be handled by using the standard procedures discussed in this chapter. The same applies to data transformation. Firms like Pollfish (www.pollfish.com) and MFour (www.mfour.com) have developed their own software to conduct basic data analysis.

The results are made available to the client on a customized dashboard. The raw data are also made available to client such as in an Excel file format. The client can then conduct additional analyses to draw further insights into the specific components of the problem.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 427 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 14.10 Elucidate data preparation in mobile marketing research.

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Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 15 Frequency Distribution, Cross-Tabulation, and Hypothesis Testing 1) In a frequency distribution, two variables are considered at a time.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 439-442 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

2) The valid percentage column in a frequency distribution represents percentages calculated by excluding the cases with missing values.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 439-442 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

3) Frequency data may be used to construct a histogram, or a vertical bar chart.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 439-442 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

4) The most commonly used statistics associated with frequencies are measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of occasion.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

5) Mean, median, and mode are measures of variability.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

6) If the entire sample is changed by adding a fixed constant to each observation, then the mean, variance, and median change by the same fixed amount.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 442-445 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

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7) Measures of location or central tendency include the mean, median, and mode.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

8) The mode represents the highest peak of the distribution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

9) If a variable is measured on a nominal scale, the median should be used.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

10) The measures of location are also known as measures of central tendency because they tend to describe the center of the distribution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 442-445 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

11) The mean is sensitive to extremely small or extremely large values (outliers).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 442-445 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

12) The Range = XLargest - XSmallest.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

13) If all the data points are multiplied by a constant, the interquartile range is multiplied by the same constant.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 442-445 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

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14) The difference between the mean and an observed value is called the deviation from the mean.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

15) The variance can never be negative.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

16) When the data points are scattered, variance is small.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

17) When calculating the standard deviation, we divide by n-1 because the sample is drawn from a population and we are trying to determine how much the responses vary from the mean of the entire population.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 442-445 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

18) In a symmetric distribution, the values on either side of the center of the distribution are the same, and the mean, mode, and median are equal.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

19) The tendency of the deviations from the mean to be larger in one direction than in the other is called skewness.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

20) If the kurtosis is positive, the distribution is more peaked than a normal distribution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

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21) The first step in hypothesis testing is to select an appropriate statistical technique and the corresponding test statistic.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 446-450 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

22) The alternative hypothesis is a statement that some difference or effect is expected.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 446-450 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

23) The null hypothesis is always the hypothesis that is tested.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 446-450 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

24) The null hypothesis refers to a specified value of the population parameter, not a sample statistic.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 446-450 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

25) In commercial marketing research, the one-tailed test is used more often than a two-tailed test.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 446-450 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

26) The two-tailed test is more powerful than the one-tailed test.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 446-450 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

27) The test statistic measures how close the sample has come to the null hypothesis and often follows a well-known distribution, such as the normal, t, or chi-square distribution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 446-450 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

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28) Type I error occurs when the sample results lead to the rejection of the null hypothesis when it is in fact true.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 446-450 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

29) The probability of Type II error (α) is also called the level of significance.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 446-450 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

30) For a given level of α, increasing the sample size will decrease β, thereby increasing the power of the test.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 446-450 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

31) In determining the critical value of the test statistic, the area to the right of the critical value is either α or α/2. It is α for a one-tail test and α/2 for a two-tail test.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 446-450 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

32) If the probability associated with the calculated or observed value of the test statistic (TS CAL) is greater than the level of significance (α), the null hypothesis is rejected.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 446-450 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

33) If the calculated value of the test statistic is less than the critical value of the test statistic (TS CR), the null hypothesis is rejected.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 446-450 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

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34) In tests of associations, the null hypothesis is that there is no association between the variables (H0:......is NOT related to. .. ).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 450 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

35) In tests of differences, the null hypothesis is that there is a difference (H0 ..... is different than. .. ).

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 450 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

36) A cross-tabulation is the merging of the frequency distribution of two or more variables in a single table to help us to understand how one variable relates to another variable.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 450-455 LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

37) In cross-tabulation, the introduction of a third variable clarifies the initial association (or lack of it) observed between two variables and can result in six possibilities.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 450-455 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

38) Cross-tabulation examines associations between variables, not causation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 450-455 LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

39) The null hypothesis, H0, when using the chi-square statistic, is that there is no association between the variables.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 456-459 LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

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40) When using the chi-square statistic in cross-tabulation, the null hypothesis (H0) will be rejected only when the calculated value of the test statistic is greater than the critical value of the chi-square distribution with the appropriate degrees of freedom.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 456-459 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

41) The chi-square statistic can be estimated on counts of data or on percentages.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 456-459 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

42) When variables are perfectly associated, the phi coefficient assumes the value of 1.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 456-459 LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

43) When measuring the strength of association with the contingency coefficient, the maximum value of 1 is achieved when the variables are perfectly associated.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 456-459 LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

44) Lambda assumes that the variables are measured on an ordinal scale.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 456-459 LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

45) An asymmetrical lambda value of 1 happens when each independent variable category is associated with a single category of the dependent variable.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 456-459 LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

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46) When conducting cross-tabulation analysis in practice, if H0 is rejected, the pattern of the relationship should be interpreted by computing an appropriate statistic (phi coefficient, contingency, Cramer's V, lambda coefficient, or other statistics).

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 456-459 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

47) Hypothesis-testing procedures can be broadly classified as parameter or nonparameter based on the measurement scale of the variables involved.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 460 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

48) Paired samples are two samples that are not experimentally related.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 465 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

49) The critical value of the F distribution depends upon two sets of degrees of freedom: those in the numerator and those in the denominator.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 463 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

50) The F static is computed as the ratio of two sample variances.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 463 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

51) In hypothesis testing, the observations are paired so that the two sets of observations relate to the same respondents.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 465 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

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52) Nonparametric tests are used when the independent variables are nonmetric.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 467 LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

53) The Kolmogorov-Smirnov one-sample test is a goodness of fit test that compares the cumulative distribution function for a variable with a specified distribution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 467 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

54) The binomial test is a test of randomness for a dichotomous variable.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 467 LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

55) The runs test tests the goodness of fit of the observed number of observations in each category to the number expected under specified binomial distribution.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 467 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

56) In the Mann-Whitney U test, two samples are combined and the cases are ranked in order of increasing size. The test statistic, U, is computed as the number of times a score from sample 1 or group 1 follows a score from group 2.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 468 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

57) The Mann-Whitney U test is a statistical test for a variable measured on an ordinal scale, comparing the difference in the location of two populations based on observations from two independent samples.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 468 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

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58) The two-sample median test examines whether the two distributions are the same.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 468 LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

59) The two-sample median test is not as powerful as the Mann-Whitney U test.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 468 LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

60) The McNemar test is another paired sample nonparametric test that is used in the special case of a binary variable where the researcher wishes to test differences in proportions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 470 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

61) The sign test is more powerful than the Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed-ranks test.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 469 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

62) Nonparametric tests are conducted in SPSS via the NONPARAMETRIC TESTS program.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 474 AACSB: Information technology LO: 15.6 Explain the role of software in conducting frequency, cross-tabulation, and hypothesis testing using SPSS and SAS. 63) In SPSS, if the data are interval scaled and only the summary statistics are desired, the DESCRIPTIVES procedure can be used.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 472 AACSB: Information technology LO: 15.6 Explain the role of software in conducting frequency, cross-tabulation, and hypothesis testing using SPSS and SAS.

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64) A mathematical distribution whose objective is to obtain a count of the number of responses associated with different values of one variable and to express these counts in percentage terms is a(n) .

A) t distribution B) frequency distribution C) chi-square distribution D) distribution Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 440-442 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

65) Which of the research questions/hypotheses below is best answered using frequency distribution?

A) What percentage of the market consists of heavy users, medium users, light users, and nonusers?

B) The heavy and light users of a brand differ in terms of psychographic characteristics.

C) What is the income distribution of brand users? Is this distribution skewed toward low income brackets?

D) Both A and C are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 440-442 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

66) A frequency distribution helps determine .

A) the extent of nonresponse B) the extent of illegitimate responses C) the presence of outliers or cases with extreme values D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 440-442 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

67) A frequency distribution helps .

A) determine how close a sample comes to the null hypothesis B) us to understand how one variable, X, relates to another variable, Y C) determine if a systematic association exists between two variables D) determine the shape of the empirical distribution of the variable Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 440-442 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

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68) A statistic that describes a location within a data set is a .

A) measure of variability B) measure of shapes C) measure of occasion D) measure of location Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

69) The value obtained by summing all elements in a set and dividing by the number of elements is the .

A) mean B) median C) mode D) range Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

70) The is the value that occurs most frequently.

A) mean B) median C) mode D) range Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

71) A measure of central tendency given as the value above which half of the values fall and below which half of the values fall is the .

A) mean B) median C) mode D) range Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

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72) The median is an appropriate measure of central tendency for data.

A) interval B) ratio C) ordinal D) nominal Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

73) As a general rule to follow to determine which of the different measures of location to use, if the variable is measured on a nominal scale, is the appropriate measure of central tendency that should be used.

A) mean B) median C) mode D) range Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 442-445 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

74) A statistic that indicates the distribution's dispersion is a .

A) measure of variability B) measure of shape C) measure of occasion D) measure of location Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

75) The is the most appropriate measure of central tendency for interval or ratio data.

A) mean B) median C) mode D) range Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

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76) include the range, interquartile range, variance or standard deviation, and coefficient of variation.

A) Measures of variability B) Measures of shape C) Measures of occasion D) Measures of location Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

77) The difference between the smallest and the largest values in a distribution is the A) mean B) median C) mode D) range Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

78) The is the difference between the 75th and 25th percentile.

A) standard deviation B) coefficient of variation C) variance D) interquartile range Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

79) The mean squared deviation of all the values from the mean is the .

A) standard deviation B) coefficient of variation C) variance D) interquartile range Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

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80) The square root of the variance is the .

A) standard deviation B) coefficient of variation C) variance D) interquartile range Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

81) The is the ratio of the standard deviation to the mean, expressed as a percentage, and it is a unitless measure of relative variability.

A) standard deviation B) coefficient of variation C) variance D) interquartile range Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

82) The tendency of the deviations from the mean to be larger in one direction than in the other is called .

A) kurtosis B) type I error C) skewness D) type II error Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

83) is a measure of the relative peakedness or flatness of the curve defined by the frequency distribution.

A) Kurtosis B) Type I error C) Skewness D) Type II error Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 442-445 LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

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84) Which of the research questions/hypotheses below is best answered using hypothesis testing?

A) Is familiarity with a new product related to age and education levels after controlling for income?

B) The department store is being patronized by more than 10 percent of households.

C) One hotel has a more upscale image than its close competitor.

D) Both B and C are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 446 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

85) Which statement is not correct about the null hypothesis?

A) It is always the hypothesis tested.

B) Accepting the null hypothesis will lead to some changes in opinions or action.

C) It can never be accepted based on a single statistical test.

D) In marketing research, the null hypothesis is formulated in such a way that rejection leads to the acceptance of the desired conclusion.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 446-450 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

86) Which of the following statements is not correct about the alternative hypothesis?

A) There is no way to determine whether the alternative hypothesis is true.

B) The alternative hypothesis represents the conclusion for which evidence is sought.

C) The alternative hypothesis is the opposite of the null hypothesis.

D) None of the statements are correct.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 446-450 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

87) The alternative hypothesis: the percentage of Internet users who use the Internet for shopping is greater than .40, is a .

A) Type I error B) two-tailed test C) Type II error D) one-tailed test Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 446-450 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

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88) What is the correct expression of the null hypothesis for the alternative hypothesis: the percentage of Internet users who use the Internet for shopping is greater than .40?

A) H0: π < .40 B) H1: π > .40 C) H0: π = .40 D) H1: π ≠ .40 Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 446-450 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

89) occurs when the sample results lead to the rejection of a null hypothesis that is in fact true.

A) Type I error B) Two-tailed error C) Type II error D) One-tailed error Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 446-450 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

90) Also known as beta error, occurs when the sample results lead to the nonrejection of a null hypothesis that is in fact false.

A) Type I error B) Two-tailed error C) Type II error D) one-tailed error Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 446-450 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

91) The is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is in fact false, and should be rejected.

A) Type I error B) level of significance C) Type II error D) power of a test Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 446-450 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

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92) To balance the two types of errors, alpha (α), also known as , is often set at .01 or .05.

A) type I error B) level of significance C) type II error D) A and B are correct Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 446-450 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

93) The last step involved in hypothesis testing is .

A) reject or do not reject the null hypothesis B) draw a marketing research conclusion C) compare the probability with level of significance alpha (α) D) determine the probability associated with the test statistic under the null hypothesis Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 446-450 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

94) Hypothesis tests can be related to .

A) tests of strength B) tests of association C) tests of differences D) B and C are correct Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 446-450 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

95) Which of the research questions/hypotheses below is best answered using cross-tabulations?

A) Is familiarity with a new product related to age and education levels?

B) The department store is being patronized by more than 10 percent of households.

C) One hotel has a more upscale image than its close competitor.

D) Both B and C are correct.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 450-455 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

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96) A statistical technique that describes two or more variables simultaneously and results in tables that reflect the joint distribution of two or more variables that have a limited number of categories or distinct values is a .

A) t test B) non-parametric test C) parametric test D) cross-tabulation Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 450-455 LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

97) Which statement is not correct about cross-tabulations?

A) The margins of a cross-tabulation show the same information as the frequency tables for each of the variables.

B) Cross-tabulation tables are also called contingency tables.

C) The data are considered to be qualitative or categorical data.

D) Cross-tabulations provide inferences for making statements about the means of parent populations.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4450-455 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

98) Which of the following statements is true concerning cross-tabulations with two variables?

A) Cross-tabulation with two variables is also known as bivariate cross-tabulation.

B) Because two variables have been cross-classified, percentages could be computed either column-wise, based on column totals, or row-wise, based on row totals.

C) The general rule is to compute the percentages in the direction of the independent variable, across the dependent variable.

D) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 450-455 LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

99) The introduction of a third variable in cross-tabulation can result in which of the following possibilities?

A) refined association between the two original variables B) no association between the two original variables C) no change in the initial pattern D) All of the above are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 450-455 LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

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100) In cross-tabs, the introduction of a third variable can .

A) refine the association observed between the two original variables B) indicate no association between the two variables, although an association was initially observed C) indicate no change in the initial association D) All of the above are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 450-455 LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

101) Which of the following statements is not true concerning cross-tabulation?

A) No more than three variables can be cross-tabulated.

B) As a general rule, there should be at least five expected observations in each cell for the statistics computed to be reliable.

C) Cross-tabulation examines association between variables, not causation.

D) None of the above statements are untrue.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 450-455 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

102) Which statement is not related to statistics associated with cross-tabulation?

A) The statistical significance of the observed association is commonly measured by the chisquare statistic.

B) The t test could be conducted on the mean of one sample or two samples of observations.

C) Generally, the strength of association is of interest only if the association is statistically significant.

D) The strength of association can be measured by the phi correlation coefficient, the contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and the lambda coefficient.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 455-459 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

103) The is used to test the statistical significance of the observed association in crosstabulation.

A) contingency coefficient B) Cramer's V C) phi coefficient D) chi-square statistic Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 455-459 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

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104) The is a skewed distribution whose shape depends solely on the number of degrees of freedom. As the number of degrees of freedom increases, the distribution becomes more symmetrical.

A) t distribution B) frequency distribution C) chi-square distribution D) distribution Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 455-459 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

105) The is used as a measure of the strength of association in the special case of a table with two rows and two columns (a 2 × 2 table).

A) contingency coefficient B) Cramer's V C) phi coefficient D) chi-square coefficient Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 455-459 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

106) The can be used to assess the strength of association in a table of any size.

A) contingency coefficient B) coefficient of variation C) phi coefficient D) chi-square coefficient Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 455-459 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

107) is a measure of the strength of association used in tables larger than 2 × 2.

A) coefficient of variation B) Cramer's V C) Phi coefficient D) Chi-square coefficient Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 455-459 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

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TB-Marketing Research-An Applied Orientation[7E,Malhotra]

108) is a modified version of the phi correlation coefficient, Φ.

A) Cramer's V B) coefficient of variation C) Asymmetric lambda D) Chi-square statistic Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 455-459 LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

109) is a measure of the percentage improvement in predicting the value of the dependent variable, given the value of the independent variable in contingency table analysis.

A) Tau b B) Symmetric lambda C) Asymmetric lambda D) Tau c Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 455-459 LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

110) is an average of the two asymmetric lambda values. It does not make an assumption about which variable is dependent.

A) Tau b B) Symmetric lambda C) Tau c D) Gamma Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 455-459 LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

111) is a test statistic that measures the association between two ordinal-level variables. It makes an adjustment for ties and is most appropriate when the table of variable is square.

A) Tau b B) Symmetric lambda C) Tau c D) Gamma Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 455-459 LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

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112) Tau b, tau c, and gamma are available to measure association between two -level variables.

A) nominal B) ordinal C) interval D) ratio Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 455-459 LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

113) is a test statistic that measures the association between two ordinal-level variables. It makes an adjustment for ties and is most appropriate when the table of variables is not square but a rectangle.

A) Tau b B) Symmetric lambda C) Tau c D) Gamma Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 455-459 LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

114) is a test statistic that measures the association between two ordinal-level variables. It does not make an adjustment for ties.

A) Tau b B) Symmetric lambda C) Tau c D) Gamma Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 455-459 LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

115) are hypothesis testing procedures that assume that the variables of interest are measured on at least an interval scale.

A) Parameter tests B) Parametric tests C) Nonparametric tests D) None of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 460 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

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116) are hypothesis testing procedures that assume that the variables are measured on a nominal or ordinal scale.

A) Parameter tests B) Parametric tests C) Nonparametric tests D) None of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 460 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

117) The is a statistic that assumes that the variable has a symmetric bell-shaped distribution and the mean is known (or assumed to be known) and the population variance is estimated from the sample.

A) statistic B) t statistic C) z statistic D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 461-466 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

118) The is a univariate hypothesis test using the t distribution, which is used when the standard deviation is unknown and the sample size is small.

A) z test B) t test C) paired samples test D) F test Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 461-466 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

119) Which of the following statements is not true about parametric tests?

A) Parametric tests are used when the independent variables are non-metric.

B) The t test is a commonly used parametric test.

C) The t statistic assumes that the variable is normally distributed and the mean is known (or assumed to be known) and the population variance is estimated from the sample.

D) B and C are not correct.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 461-466 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

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120) The is a symmetric bell-shaped distribution that is useful for small sample (n < 30) testing.

A) t distribution B) frequency distribution C) chi-square distribution D) distribution Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 461-466 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

121) Which statement is not true concerning the t distribution?

A) Compared to the normal distribution, the t distribution has more area in the tails and less in the center.

B) As the number of degrees of freedom increases, the t distribution approaches the normal distribution.

C) The t distributions are skewed to the left.

D) The population variance is unknown and is estimated by the sample variance s2.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 461-466 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

122) Suppose we wanted to test the hypothesis that the mean familiarity rating exceeds 4.0, the neutral value on a seven-point scale. The hypotheses may be formulated as .

A) H0:μ1 = μ2 H1:μ1 ≠ μ2 B) H0:σ12 = σ22 H1:σ12 ≠ σ22 C) H0:μ ≤ 4.0 H1:μ > 4.0 D) H0: π1 = π2 H1: π1 ≠ π2 Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 461-466 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

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123) The degrees of freedom for the t statistic to test hypotheses about one mean are .

A) n B) n - 1 C) n1 + n2 D) n1 +n2 - 2 Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 461-466 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

124) If the population standard deviation was assumed to be known, rather than estimated from the sample, a would be appropriate rather than a .

A) z test; t test B) t test; F test C) t test; z test D) z test; F test Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 461-466 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

125) In the parametric case of means for two independent samples, the hypotheses take which form?

A) H0:μ1 = μ2 H1:μ1 ≠ μ2 B) H0:σ12 = σ22 H1:σ12 ≠ σ22 C) H0:μ ≤ 4.0 H1:μ > 4.0 D) H0: π1 = π2 H1: π1 ≠ π2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 461-466 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

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126) The degrees of freedom for the t statistic to test the hypothesis about two independent samples is .

A) n B) n - 1 C) n1 + n2 D) n1 +n2 - 2 Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 461-466 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

127) The F test of sample variance may be performed if it is not known whether the two populations have equal variance. In this case the hypotheses are .

A) H0:μ1 = μ2 H1:μ1 ≠ μ2 B) H0:σ12 = σ22 H1:σ12 ≠ σ22 C) H0:μ ≤ 4.0 H1:μ > 4.0 D) H0: π1 = π2 H1: π1 ≠ π2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 461-466 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

128) The is a statistical test of the equality of the variances of two populations.

A) z test B) t test C) paired samples test D) F test Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 461-466 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

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129) The is a frequency distribution that depends upon two sets of degrees of freedom, the degrees of freedom in the numerator and the degrees of freedom in the denominator.

A) t distribution B) Z statistic C) chi-square distribution D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 461-466 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

130) If the probability of F is greater than the significance level α, and should be used.

A) H0 is rejected; t based on "equal variances not assumed" B) H0 is not rejected; t based on "equal variances assumed" C) H0 is rejected; t based on "equal variances assumed" D) H0 is not rejected; t based on "equal variances not assumed" Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 461-466 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

131) For the parametric case, involving proportions for two independent samples, the null and alternative hypotheses are .

A) H0:μ1 = μ2 H1:μ1 ≠ μ2 B) H0:σ12 = σ22 H1:σ12 ≠ σ22 C) H0:μ ≤ 4.0 H1:μ > 4.0 D) H0: π1 = π2 H1: π1 ≠ π2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 461-466 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

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132) The degrees of freedom for the t statistic to test hypotheses about paired samples are .

A) n B) n - 1 C) n1 + n2 D) n1 + n2 - 2 Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 461-466 LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

133) For the parametric case involving the means of paired samples, the null and alternative hypotheses are .

A) H0:μ1 = μ2 H1:μ1 ≠ μ2 B) H0:σ12 = σ22 H1:σ12 ≠ σ22 C) H0:μD = 0 H1:μD ≠ 0 D) H0: π1 = π2 H1: π1 ≠ π2 Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 461-466 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

134) In the context of the Internet usage example, suppose we wanted to test whether the probability of observing a K value of .222, as determined by the normalized z statistic, is 0.103.

Because this is more than the significance level of 0.05, the null hypothesis cannot be rejected.

What do the results mean?

A) The distribution of the Internet usage does deviate significantly from the normal distribution.

B) The distribution of the Internet usage does not deviate significantly from the normal distribution.

C) The proportion of users for males and for females is not significantly different for the two samples.

D) The proportion of users for males and for females is significantly different for the two samples.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 467 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

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135) A one-sample nonparametric goodness-of-fit test to determine whether the observations for a particular variable could reasonably have come from a particular distribution is the .

A) Kolmogorov-Smirnov one-sample test B) runs test C) binomial test D) Mann-Whitney U test Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 467 LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

136) A Kolmogorov-Smirnov one-sample test was conducted. The largest absolute difference between the observed and normal distribution was K = 0.222. The sample size was only 30 therefore, the approximate formula was used and the critical value for K was 0.248. Because the calculated value of K is than the critical value, the null hypothesis be rejected.

A) smaller; cannot B) larger; cannot C) smaller; can D) larger; can Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 467 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

137) The test statistic used in the Kolmogorov-Smirnov one-sample test is .

A) K = Max |Oi, Ai | B) K = Min | Ai - Oi | C) K = Max | Ai - Oi | D) K = Min | Oi , Ai | Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 467 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

138) Which of the following tests is not a non-parametric one-sample test?

A) Kolmogorov-Smirnov one-sample test B) runs test C) binomial test D) Mann-Whitney U test Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 467 LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

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139) When the difference in the location of two populations is to be compared based on observations from two independent samples, and the variable is measured on an ordinal scale, the can be used.

A) Kolmogorov-Smirnov one-sample test B) runs test C) binomial test D) Mann-Whitney U test Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 468 LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

140) A is a test conducted by determining whether the order or sequence in which observations are obtained is random.

A) Mann-Whitney U test B) sign test C) binomial test D) runs test Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 467 LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

141) The tests the goodness of fit of the observed number of observations in each category to the number expected under a specified binomial distribution.

A) Mann-Whitney U test B) sign test C) binomial test D) runs test Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 467 LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

142) If the samples used in the Mann-Whitney U test are from the same population, the distribution of scores from the two groups in the rank list should be .

A) random B) u-shaped C) normal D) uniform Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 468 LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

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143) Which test is not an independent samples test?

A) Kolmogorov-Smirnov two-sample test B) Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed-ranks test C) Mann-Whitney U test D) two-sample median test Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 468 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

144) The test statistic used in the Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed-ranks test is .

A) t B) chi-square C) alpha D) z Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 469 LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

145) A nonparametric test that analyzes the differences between the paired observations, taking into account the magnitude of the differences is the .

A) Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed-ranks test B) sign test C) McNemar test D) runs test Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 469 LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

146) The test is a nonparametric test for examining differences in the location of two populations, based on paired observations, that compares only the signs of the differences between pairs of variables without taking into account the magnitude of the differences.

A) Mann-Whitney U test B) sign test C) binomial test D) runs test Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 470 LO: 15.5 Understand data analysis associated with nonparametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

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147) Nonparametric tests are not available in .

A) SAS B) Excel C) SPSS D) MINITAB Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 471-472 AACSB: Information technology LO: 15.6 Explain the role of software in conducting frequency, cross-tabulation, and hypothesis testing using SPSS and SAS. 148) Which program or function listed below is not useful for conducting nonparametric tests?

A) NPAR TESTS B) NPAR1WAY C) Stat>Time Series D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 471-476 AACSB: Information technology LO: 15.6 Explain the role of software in conducting frequency, cross-tabulation, and hypothesis testing using SPSS and SAS. 149) Mean, median, variance, standard deviation, minimum, maximum, and range are some of the statistics that can be calculated via , , and in SPSS. A) FREQUENCIES; EXPLORE; and DESCRIPTIVES B) DESCRIPTIVES; COUNTS; and EXPLORE C) EXPLORE; DESCRIPTIVES; and COUNTS D) COUNTS; FREQUENCIES; and DESCRIPTIVES Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 472 AACSB: Information technology LO: 15.6 Explain the role of software in conducting frequency, cross-tabulation, and hypothesis testing using SPSS and SAS. 150) When conducting marketing research, what general rules should be followed to determine when the different measures of location should be used?

Answer: If the variable is measured on a nominal scale, the mode is the appropriate measure of central tendency that should be used. If the variable is measured on an ordinal scale, the median is appropriate. If the variable is measured on an interval or ratio scale, the mean is the most appropriate measure of central tendency.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 443 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.2 Discuss data analysis associated with frequencies, including measures of location, measures of variability, and measures of shape.

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151) Define the null and alternative hypotheses. Discuss the relationship between the two hypotheses.

Answer: A null hypothesis is a statement of the status quo, one of no difference or no effect. If the null hypothesis is not rejected, no changes will be made. An alternative hypothesis is one in which some difference or effect is expected. Accepting the alternative hypothesis will lead to changes in opinions or actions. Thus, the alternative hypothesis is the opposite of the null hypothesis. The null hypothesis is always the hypothesis that is tested. The alternative hypothesis represents the conclusion for which evidence is sought. The null hypothesis refers to a specified value of the population parameter, not a sample statistic. In marketing research, the null hypothesis is formulated in such a way that its rejection leads to the acceptance of the desired conclusion.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 446-447 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

152) Discuss the relationship between Type I error and Type II error and the power of a test.

Answer: Type I error occurs when the sample results lead to the rejection of the null hypothesis when it is in fact true. The probability of Type I error is denoted as α. Type II error occurs when, based on the sample results, the null hypothesis is not rejected when it is in fact false. The probability of Type II error is denoted by β. Unlike α, which is specified by the researcher, the magnitude of β depends on the actual value of the population parameter (proportion). The complement (1 - β) of the probability of a Type II error is called the power of a statistical test.

The power of a test is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false and should be rejected. Although β is unknown, it is related to α. An extremely low value of α (e.g., = 0.001) will result in intolerably high β errors. So it is necessary to balance the two types of errors. As a compromise, α is often set at 0.05; sometimes it is 0.01; other values of α are rare. The level of α, along with the sample size, will determine the level of β for a particular research design. The risk of both α and β can be controlled by increasing the sample size. For a given level of α, increasing the sample size will decrease β, thereby increasing the power of the test.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 448 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.4 Describe data analysis associated with parametric hypothesis testing for one sample, two independent samples, and paired samples.

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153) Discuss the relationship between cross-tabulation and frequency distribution.

Answer: Whereas a frequency distribution describes one variable at a time, a cross-tabulation describes two or more variables simultaneously. A cross-tabulation is the merging of the frequency distribution of two or more variables in a single table. It helps us to understand how one variable such as brand loyalty relates to another variable such as sex. Cross-tabulation results in tables that reflect the joint distribution of two or more variables with a limited number of categories or distinct values. The categories of one variable are cross-classified with the categories of one or more other variables. Thus, the frequency distribution of one variable is subdivided according to the values or categories of the other variables.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 450-451 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

154) Give three reasons why cross-tabulation is widely used in marketing research.

Answer: Cross-tabulation is widely used in commercial marketing research because (1) crosstabulation analysis and results can be easily interpreted and understood by managers who are not statistically oriented; (2) the clarity of interpretation provides a stronger link between research results and managerial action; (3) a series of cross-tabulations may provide greater insights into a complex phenomenon than a single multivariate analysis; (4) cross-tabulation may alleviate the problem of sparse cells, which could be serious in discrete multivariate analysis; and (5) crosstabulation analysis is simple to conduct and appealing to less sophisticated researchers.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 451 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 15.3 Explain data analysis associated with cross-tabulations and the associated statistics: chi-square, phi coefficient, contingency coefficient, Cramer's V, and lambda coefficient.

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Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 16 Analysis of Variance and Covariance 1) Analysis of variance and analysis of covariance are tests of differences between two means or median.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 485 LO: 16.1 Discuss the scope of the analysis of variance (ANOVA) technique and its relationship to the t test and regression.

2) A marketing survey conducted by EgeBank in Istanbul, Turkey used analysis of variance techniques to help identify affective and perceptual factors that differentiate alternative tourist destinations.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 483-484 LO: 16.1 Discuss the scope of the analysis of variance (ANOVA) technique and its relationship to the t test and regression.

3) The null hypothesis for ANOVA is that all means are not equal.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 485 LO: 16.1 Discuss the scope of the analysis of variance (ANOVA) technique and its relationship to the t test and regression.

4) A particular combination of factor levels, or categories, is called a treatment.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 485 LO: 16.1 Discuss the scope of the analysis of variance (ANOVA) technique and its relationship to the t test and regression.

5) ANOVA and ANCOVA can include more than one independent variable and at least one of the independent variables must be categorical.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 485-486 LO: 16.1 Discuss the scope of the analysis of variance (ANOVA) technique and its relationship to the t test and regression.

6) ANOVA and ANCOVA include one independent variable and t tests include more than one independent variable.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 485-486 LO: 16.1 Discuss the scope of the analysis of variance (ANOVA) technique and its relationship to the t test and regression.

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7) The last step in the procedure for conducting one-way analysis of variance is to test the significance.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 487 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

8) In examining the differences among means, one-way analysis of variance involves the decomposition of the total variation observed in the independent variable.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 487-489 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

9) Analysis of variance is so named because it examines the variability or variation in the sample (dependent variable) and, based on the variability, determines whether there is reason to believe that the population means differ.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 487-489 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

10) SSbetween is the portion of the sum of squares in Y related to the independent variable or factor X. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 487-489 LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

11) SSbetween is also denoted as SSy. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 487-489 LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

12) SSwithin is the variation in Y related to the variation within each category of X. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 487-489 LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

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13) SSwithin is referred to as SSerror.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 487-489 LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

14) In analysis of variance, it is assumed that all the groups have the same variation in the population.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 487-489 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

15) The value of η2 varies between 0 and 1.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 487-489 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

16) η2 assumes a value of 0 when all the category means are equal, indicating that X has no effect of X on Y. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 487-489 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

17) In one-way analysis of variance, under the null hypothesis, SSx and SSerror come from different sources of variation.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 487-489 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

18) Modest departures from the assumptions in analysis of variance do not seriously affect the validity of the analysis.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 493 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

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19) Interactions occur when the effects of one factor on the dependent variable depend on the level (category) of the other factors.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 494 LO: 16.3 Describe n-way analysis of variance and the testing of the significance of the overall effect, the interaction effect, and the main effect of each factor.

20) When using n-way ANOVA the significance of the overall effect may be tested by a t test.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 494-495 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.3 Describe n-way analysis of variance and the testing of the significance of the overall effect, the interaction effect, and the main effect of each factor.

21) The n-way ANOVA considered assumes that the design was orthogonal, or balanced (the number of cases in each cell was the same).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 494-495 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.3 Describe n-way analysis of variance and the testing of the significance of the overall effect, the interaction effect, and the main effect of each factor.

22) The most common use of the covariate is to remove extraneous variation from the dependent variable.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 498-499 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.4 Describe analysis of covariance and show how it accounts for the influence of uncontrolled independent variables.

23) Analysis of covariance is most useful when the covariate is not linearly related to the dependent variable and is not related to the factors.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 498-499 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.4 Describe analysis of covariance and show how it accounts for the influence of uncontrolled independent variables.

24) An interaction effect occurs when the effect of an independent variable on a dependent variable is different for different categories or levels of another independent variable.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 499-501 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.5 Explain key factors pertaining to the interpretation of results with emphasis on interactions, relative importance of factors, and multiple comparisons.

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25) Ordinal interaction involves a change in the rank order of the effects of one factor across the levels of another.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 499-501 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.5 Explain key factors pertaining to the interpretation of results with emphasis on interactions, relative importance of factors, and multiple comparisons.

26) The most commonly used measure in ANOVA indicating the relative importance of factors is omega squared, (ω2).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 501 LO: 16.5 Explain key factors pertaining to the interpretation of results with emphasis on interactions, relative importance of factors, and multiple comparisons.

27) Omega squared, ω2, indicates what proportion of the variation in the dependent variable is related to a particular independent variable or factor.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 501 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.5 Explain key factors pertaining to the interpretation of results with emphasis on interactions, relative importance of factors, and multiple comparisons.

28) The estimated value of ω2 can be negative, in which case the estimated value of ω2 is set equal to one.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 501 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.5 Explain key factors pertaining to the interpretation of results with emphasis on interactions, relative importance of factors, and multiple comparisons.

29) Contrasts are used in ANOVA to determine which of the means are statistically different.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 501-502 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.5 Explain key factors pertaining to the interpretation of results with emphasis on interactions, relative importance of factors, and multiple comparisons.

30) The Kruskal-Wallis one-way analysis of variance and the k-sample median test have the same null hypothesis: "medians of the k populations are equal."

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 503 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.6 Discuss specialized ANOVA techniques applicable to marketing such as repeated measures ANOVA, nonmetric analysis of variance, and multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA).

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31) Nonmetric analysis of variance examines the difference in the central tendencies of more than two groups when the dependent variable is measured on a nominal scale.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 503 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.6 Discuss specialized ANOVA techniques applicable to marketing such as repeated measures ANOVA, nonmetric analysis of variance, and multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA).

32) The Kruskal-Wallis one-way analysis of variance also examines the difference in medians.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 503 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.6 Discuss specialized ANOVA techniques applicable to marketing such as repeated measures ANOVA, nonmetric analysis of variance, and multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA).

33) Multivariate analysis of variance is appropriate when there are two or more dependent variables that are correlated.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 503 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.6 Discuss specialized ANOVA techniques applicable to marketing such as repeated measures ANOVA, nonmetric analysis of variance, and multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA).

34) A statistical technique for examining the differences among means for two or more populations is called .

A) chi-square B) analysis of variance (ANOVA) C) cross-tabulation D) independent samples t test Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 485-486 LO: 16.1 Discuss the scope of the analysis of variance (ANOVA) technique and its relationship to the t test and regression.

35) Categorical independent variables are . The independent variables must all be categorical (nonmetric) to use .

A) factors; ANOVA B) covariates; ANOVA C) parameters; regression D) items; ANOVA Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 485-486 LO: 16.1 Discuss the scope of the analysis of variance (ANOVA) technique and its relationship to the t test and regression.

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36) Which statement is correct concerning one-way ANOVA? A) Only one categorical variable is involved.

B) A treatment is the same as a particular combination of factor levels.

C) The set of independent variables consists of both categorical and metric variables.

D) Both A and B are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 485-486 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.1 Discuss the scope of the analysis of variance (ANOVA) technique and its relationship to the t test and regression.

37) An advanced analysis of variance procedure in which the effects of one or more metricscaled extraneous variables are removed from the dependent variable before conducting the ANOVA is called .

A) analysis of covariance (ANCOVA) B) one-way analysis of variance C) n-way analysis of variance D) decomposition of the total variation Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 485-486 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.1 Discuss the scope of the analysis of variance (ANOVA) technique and its relationship to the t test and regression.

38) The null hypothesis for one-way ANOVA typically is that all .

A) proportions are equal B) means are unequal C) proportions are unequal D) means are equal Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 485-486 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.1 Discuss the scope of the analysis of variance (ANOVA) technique and its relationship to the t test and regression.

39) A covariate is a independent variable used in .

A) metric; ANOVA B) categorical; ANCOVA C) metric; ANCOVA D) categorical; ANOVA Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 485-486 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.1 Discuss the scope of the analysis of variance (ANOVA) technique and its relationship to the t test and regression.

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40) Which of the statistical techniques below does not involve a metric independent variable (Figure 16.1 in the text)?

A) t test B) ANOVA C) regression D) Both A and B are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 485-486 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.1 Discuss the scope of the analysis of variance (ANOVA) technique and its relationship to the t test and regression.

41) How consumers' "intentions to buy the brand" varies with different price levels is best analyzed via .

A) t tests B) one-way ANOVA C) ANCOVA D) regression Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 485-486 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

42) The strength of the effects of X (independent variable or factor) on Y (dependent variable) is measured by .

2 2 A) eta (η ) B) SSx C) SSy D) SSwithin Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 486-489 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

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43) Also referred to as SSerror, is the variation in Y due to the variation within each of the categories of X. This variation is not accounted for by X. A) SSx B) SSwithin C) SSbetween D) SSy Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 486-489 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

44) The total variation in y is .

A) SSx B) SSwithin C) SSbetween D) SSy Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 486-489 LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

45) In one-way ANOVA, separation of the variation observed in the dependent variable into the variation due to the independent variables plus the variation due to error is called .

A) decomposition of the total variation B) one-way analysis of variance C) n-way analysis of variance D) analysis of covariance (ANCOVA) Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 486-489 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

46) The total variation in Y, denoted by SSy, can be decomposed into which two components?

A) SSy = SSx - SSerror B) SSy = SSbetween + SSwithin C) SSy = SSx + SSerror D) B and C are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 486-489 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

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47) Which step are you on in the procedure for conducting one-way analysis of variance if you are decomposing SSy into two components using the equation SSy = SSbetween + SSwithin?

A) decompose the total variation B) measure the effects C) test the significance D) interpret the results Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 486-489 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

48) Which statement is correct concerning the decomposition of the total variation?

A) Because it is not known that all the groups have the same mean, we cannot calculate the variance of all the observations together.

B) If the population mean is the same in all the groups, then the variation in the sample means and the sizes of the sample groups can be used to estimate the variance of Y. C) By comparing the Y variance estimates based on between-group and within group variation, we can test the null hypothesis.

D) All statements are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 486-489 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

49) If you are estimating η2, you are at which step in the procedure for conducting one-way analysis of variance?

A) decompose the total variation B) measure the effects C) test the significance D) interpret the results Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 486-489 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

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50) The effects of X on Y is measured by .

A) SSerror B) SSx C) SSy D) SSwithin Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 486-489 LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

51) is a measure of variation in Y that is explained by the independent variable X. 2 2 A) eta (η ) B) SSx C) SSy D) SSwithin Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 486-489 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

52) In one-way ANOVA, the null hypothesis may be tested by .

A) the t statistic B) statistic C) chi-square D) eta2 Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 486-489 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

53) Which statement is correct if the null hypothesis for a one-way ANOVA is rejected?

A) The effect of the independent variable is significant.

B) The mean value of the dependent variable will be the same for different categories of the independent variable.

C) The independent variable does not have a significant effect on the dependent variable.

D) Both B and C are correct.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 486-489 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

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54) The refers to the fact that ordinarily the assumption in analysis of variance that the categories of the independent variable are fixed.

A) fixed-effects model B) random-effects model C) mixed-effects model D) standard-effects model Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 493 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

55) In the , the categories or treatments are considered to be random samples from a universe of treatments. Inferences are made to other categories not examined in the analysis.

A) fixed-effects model B) random-effects model C) mixed-effects model D) standard-effects model Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 493 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

56) How consumers' intentions to buy a brand vary with different levels of price and different levels of distribution is best analyzed via .

A) n-way ANOVA B) one-way ANOVA C) ANCOVA D) regression Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 494-495 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.3 Describe n-way analysis of variance and the testing of the significance of the overall effect, the interaction effect, and the main effect of each factor.

57) A major advantage of is that it enables the researcher to examine interactions between the factors.

A) one-way ANOVA B) n-way ANOVA C) t tests D) tests Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 494-495 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.3 Describe n-way analysis of variance and the testing of the significance of the overall effect, the interaction effect, and the main effect of each factor.

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58) The strength of the joint effect of two (or more) factors or the overall effect is known as .

A) significance of the overall effect B) significance of the main effect C) multiple η2 D) significance of the interaction effect Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 494-495 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.3 Describe n-way analysis of variance and the testing of the significance of the overall effect, the interaction effect, and the main effect of each factor.

59) A test finding that some differences exist between some of the treatment groups is a test of the .

A) significance of the overall effect B) significance of the main effect C) multiple η2 D) significance of the interaction effect Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 494-495 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.3 Describe n-way analysis of variance and the testing of the significance of the overall effect, the interaction effect, and the main effect of each factor.

60) Which F test is used in n-way ANOVA to test the significance of the overall effect?

A) F = B) F = C) F = D) F = Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 494-495 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.3 Describe n-way analysis of variance and the testing of the significance of the overall effect, the interaction effect, and the main effect of each factor.

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61) A test of the significance of the interaction between two or more independent variables is a test of the .

A) significance of the overall effect B) significance of the main effect C) multiple η2 D) significance of the interaction effect Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 494-495 LO: 16.3 Describe n-way analysis of variance and the testing of the significance of the overall effect, the interaction effect, and the main effect of each factor.

62) A test of the significance of the main effect for each individual factor is a test of the .

A) significance of the overall effect B) significance of the main effect C) multiple η2 D) significance of the interaction effect Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 494-495 LO: 16.3 Describe n-way analysis of variance and the testing of the significance of the overall effect, the interaction effect, and the main effect of each factor.

63) In determining how different price levels will affect a household's cereal consumption, it may be essential to take household size into account. This is best analyzed by .

A) n-way ANOVA B) one-way ANOVA C) ANCOVA D) regression Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 498-499 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.4 Describe analysis of covariance and show how it accounts for the influence of uncontrolled independent variables.

64) Analysis of covariance includes at least one independent variable and at least one independent variable.

A) categorical; interval B) ordinal; categorical C) metric; interval D) parametric; interval Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 498-499 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.4 Describe analysis of covariance and show how it accounts for the influence of uncontrolled independent variables.

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65) Important issues involved in the interpretation of ANOVA results include all of the following except .

A) interactions B) determining the appropriateness of the test C) relative importance of factors D) multiple comparisons Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 499-502 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.5 Explain key factors pertaining to the interpretation of results with emphasis on interactions, relative importance of factors, and multiple comparisons.

66) Which statement is not true concerning interactions resulting from ANOVA? A) In disordinal interactions of a crossover type, the relative effect of the levels of one factor changes with the levels of the other.

B) Because it involves a change in rank order, disordinal interaction is stronger than ordinal interaction.

C) Disordinal interactions of a crossover type represent the weakest interactions.

D) In ordinal interaction, the rank order of the effects related to one factor does not change across the levels of the second factor.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 499-502 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 16.5 Explain key factors pertaining to the interpretation of results with emphasis on interactions, relative importance of factors, and multiple comparisons.

67) At what point does ω2 begin to represent a larger experimental effect?

A) .25 B) .15 C) .10 D) .06 Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 499-502 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.5 Explain key factors pertaining to the interpretation of results with emphasis on interactions, relative importance of factors, and multiple comparisons.

68) are used to examine differences among two or more means of the treatment groups.

A) Nonmetric ANOVA B) Contrasts C) Repeated measures ANOVA D) Multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA) Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 499-502 LO: 16.5 Explain key factors pertaining to the interpretation of results with emphasis on interactions, relative importance of factors, and multiple comparisons.

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69) In ANOVA the relative contribution of a factor X is calculated as

.

A) ω2 x = B) ω2 x = C) ω2 x = D) ω2 x = Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 499-502 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.5 Explain key factors pertaining to the interpretation of results with emphasis on interactions, relative importance of factors, and multiple comparisons.

70) are determined before conducting the analysis, based on the researcher's theoretical framework.

A) Single comparison contrasts B) Multiple comparison contrasts C) A priori contrasts D) A posteriori contrasts Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 499-502 LO: 16.5 Explain key factors pertaining to the interpretation of results with emphasis on interactions, relative importance of factors, and multiple comparisons.

71) are contrasts made after the analysis.

A) Single comparison contrasts B) Multiple comparison contrasts C) A priori contrasts D) A posteriori contrasts Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 499-502 LO: 16.5 Explain key factors pertaining to the interpretation of results with emphasis on interactions, relative importance of factors, and multiple comparisons.

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72) are contrasts that enable the researcher to construct generalized confidence intervals that can be used to make pairwise comparisons of all treatment means.

A) Single comparison contrasts B) Multiple comparison contrasts C) A priori contrasts D) A posteriori contrasts Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 499-502 LO: 16.5 Explain key factors pertaining to the interpretation of results with emphasis on interactions, relative importance of factors, and multiple comparisons.

73) is an ANOVA technique used when respondents are exposed to more than one treatment condition and repeated measurements are obtained.

A) Nonmetric ANOVA B) Contrasts C) Repeated measures ANOVA D) Multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA) Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 502-503 LO: 16.6 Discuss specialized ANOVA techniques applicable to marketing such as repeated measures ANOVA, nonmetric analysis of variance, and multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA).

74) Repeated measures analysis of variance may be thought of as an extension of the to the case of more than two related samples.

A) z test B) F test C) t test D) paired samples t test Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 502-503 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.6 Discuss specialized ANOVA techniques applicable to marketing such as repeated measures ANOVA, nonmetric analysis of variance, and multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA).

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75) is an ANOVA technique for examining the difference in the central tendencies of more than two groups when the dependent variable is measured on an ordinal scale.

A) Nonmetric ANOVA B) Contrasts C) Repeated measures ANOVA D) Multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA) Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 503 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.6 Discuss specialized ANOVA techniques applicable to marketing such as repeated measures ANOVA, nonmetric analysis of variance, and multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA).

76) is an ANOVA technique using two or more metric dependent variables.

A) Nonmetric ANOVA B) Contrasts C) Repeated measures ANOVA D) Multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA) Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 503 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.6 Discuss specialized ANOVA techniques applicable to marketing such as repeated measures ANOVA, nonmetric analysis of variance, and multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA).

77) Suppose that four groups, each consisting of 100 randomly selected individuals, were exposed to four different commercials about Tide detergent. After seeing the commercial, each individual provided ratings on preference for Tide, preference for Proctor and Gamble (the company making Tide), and preference for the commercial itself. Because these three preference variables are correlated, should be conducted to determine which commercial is the most effective (produced the highest preferences across the three variables).

A) MANOVA B) one-way ANOVA C) n-way ANOVA D) regression Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 503 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.6 Discuss specialized ANOVA techniques applicable to marketing such as repeated measures ANOVA, nonmetric analysis of variance, and multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA).

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78) Which statement about MANOVA is not true?

A) MANOVA examines group differences across multiple dependent variables simultaneously.

B) In MANOVA, the null hypothesis is that the vectors of means on multiple dependent variables are equal across groups.

C) MANOVA is most appropriate if there are multiple dependent variables that are uncorrelated or orthogonal.

D) Multivariate analysis of variance is appropriate when there are two or more dependent variables that are correlated.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 503 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.6 Discuss specialized ANOVA techniques applicable to marketing such as repeated measures ANOVA, nonmetric analysis of variance, and multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA).

79) When using SPSS Windows one-way ANOVA can be efficiently performed using the program.

A) GENERAL LINEAR MODEL B) NONPARAMETRIC TESTS C) COMPARE MEANS D) UNIVARIATE Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 505 AACSB: Information technology LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

80) When using SPSS Windows, for nonmetric analysis of variance, including the k-sample median test and Kruskal-Wallis one way analysis of variance, the program should be used.

A) general linear model B) nonparametric tests C) compare means D) univariate Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 506 AACSB: Information technology LO: 16.6 Discuss specialized ANOVA techniques applicable to marketing such as repeated measures ANOVA, nonmetric analysis of variance, and multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA).

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81) Explain SSbetween, SSwithin, and SSy and their relationship.

Answer: ∙ SSbetween. Also denoted as SSx, this is the variation in Y related to the variation in the means of the categories of X. This represents variation between the categories of X, or the portion of the sum of squares in Y related to X. ∙ SSwithin. Also referred to as SSerror, this is the variation in Y due to the variation within each of the categories of X. This variation is not accounted for by X. ∙ SSy. The total variation in Y is SSy. SSy = SSbetween + SSwithin.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 487-488 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 16.2 Describe one-way analysis of variance, including decomposition of the total variation, measurement of effects, significance testing, and interpretation of results.

82) List the procedure for conducting one-way analysis of variance.

Answer: The procedure for conducting one-way analysis of variance is described in Figure 16.2 in the text. It involves identifying the dependent and independent variable, decomposing the total variation, measuring effects, testing significance, and interpreting results.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 487 LO: 16.1 Discuss the scope of the analysis of variance (ANOVA) technique and its relationship to the t test and regression.

83) What are the general steps involved in performing an ANCOVA? Answer: 1. Remove variation in the dependent variable due to covariates by adjusting the dependent variable's mean value within each treatment condition.

2. Perform analysis of variance on adjusted scores from step one.

3. Use appropriate F tests to test the significance of each covariate and the combined effects of the covariates.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 498-499 LO: 16.4 Describe analysis of covariance and show how it accounts for the influence of uncontrolled independent variables.

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84) Draw the ANOVA interactive cases listed below (Figure 16.4 in the text). Name your dependent variable Y and assume that there are two factors, X1 with three levels (X11, X12, and X13), and X2 with two levels (X21 and X22). Briefly discuss/describe the interaction shown in each of your drawings.

1. no interaction 2. ordinal interaction 3. disordinal interaction (noncrossover) 4. disordinal interaction (crossover) Answer: Refer to Figure 16.4 in the text for a picture of what the students should draw in response to this question and to follow the illustrative discussion given.

Case 1 depicts no interaction. The effects of X1 on Y are parallel over the two levels of X2.

Although there is some departure from parallelism, this is not beyond what might be expected from chance. Parallelism implies that the net effect of X22 over X21 is the same across the three levels of X1. In the absence of interaction, the joint effect of X1 and X2 is simply the sum of their individual main effects.

Case 2 depicts an ordinal interaction. The line segments depicting the effects of X1 and X2 are not parallel. The difference between X22 and X21 increases as we move from X11 to X12 and from X12 to X13, but the rank order of the effects of X1 is the same over the two levels of X2.

Case 3 depicts disordinal interaction of a noncrossover type. The lowest effect of X1 at level X21 occurs at X11, and the rank order of effects is X11, X12, and X13. However, at level X22, the lowest effect of X1 occurs at X12, and the rank order is changed to X12, X11, X13. Because it involves a change in rank order, disordinal interaction is stronger than ordinal interaction.

Case 4 depicts disordinal interactions of a crossover type - the line segments cross each other. In this case, the relative effect of the levels of one factor changes with the levels of the other. Note that X22 has a greater effect than X21 when the levels of X1 are X11 and X12. When the level of X1 is X13, the situation is reversed, and X21 has a greater effect than X22. (Note that in cases 1, 2, and 3, X22 had a greater impact than X21 across all three levels of X1.) Hence, disordinal interactions of a crossover type represent the strongest interactions.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 499-501 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 16.3 Describe n-way analysis of variance and the testing of the significance of the overall effect, the interaction effect, and the main effect of each factor.

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Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 17 Correlation and Regression 1) Regression analysis models helped Avon realize that employee benefits and the appointment fee that representatives pay for materials were significant variables affecting the decline in their sales staff.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 512 LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

2) The product moment correlation, r, is the most widely used statistic summarizing the strength of association between two metric (interval or ordinal scaled) variable, say X and Y. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 513 LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

3) The product moment correlation, r2, is an index used to determine whether a linear, or straight-line, relationship exists between X and Y. It indicates the degree to which the variation in one variable, X, is related to the variation in another variable, Y. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 513-516 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

4) The covariance may be either positive or negative.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 513-516 LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

5) The correlation coefficient between two variables varies depending on their underlying units of measurement.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 513-516 LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

6) Because r indicates the degrees to which variation in one variable is related to variation in another, it can also be expressed in terms of the decomposition of the total variation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 513-516 LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

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7) Both r and r2 are symmetric measures of association. In other words, the correlation of X and Y is the same as the correlation of Y and X. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 513-516 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

8) When determining the correlation coefficient, r, it does matter which variable is considered to be the dependent variable and which is the independent.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 513-516 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

9) When determining the statistical significance of the relationship between two variables measured by using r, the hypotheses to be tested are H0: ρ = 0 and H1:ρ ≠ 0 Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 513-516 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

10) A correlation matrix indicates the coefficient of correlation between each pair of variables.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 513-516 LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

11) A partial correlation coefficient measures the association between two variables after controlling for or adjusting for the effects of one or more additional variables.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 516-518 LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

12) The order associated with a partial correlation indicates how many variables are being adjusted or controlled.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 516-518 LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

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13) The partial correlation coefficient is a measure of the correlation between Y and X when the linear effects of the other independent variables have been removed from X but not from Y. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 516-518 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

14) The partial correlation coefficient is generally viewed as more important than the part correlation coefficient.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 516-518 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

15) In the absence of ties, Kendall's τ yields a closer approximation to the Pearson product moment correlation coefficient, ρ, than Spearman's ρs.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 518-519 LO: 17.5 Discuss nonmetric correlation and measures such as Spearman's rho and Kendall's tau.

16) If the nonmetric variables are nominal and numeric, Spearman's rho and Kendall's tau are two measures of nonmetric correlation that can be used to examine the correlation between them.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 518-519 LO: 17.5 Discuss nonmetric correlation and measures such as Spearman's rho and Kendall's tau.

17) Regression analysis is concerned with the nature and degree of association between variables and does not imply or assume any causality.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 519 LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

18) The product moment correlation helps us determine the strength of the association between two metric variables. Regression analysis helps us determine which variables cause a change in other variables.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 519 LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

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19) The estimated parameter b is usually referred to as the non-standardized regression coefficient.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 520 LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

20) In bivariate regression, the null hypothesis is that no linear relationship exists between X and Y, or H0: β1 = 0.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 520 LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

21) When fitting a straight line to a scattergram, the best-fitting line is called the regression line.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 521-522 LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

22) The vertical distance from a point to the regression line is the squared error, e2.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 522 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

23) Standardized variables have a mean of 1 and a variance of zero.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 523 LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

24) The term beta coefficient or beta weight is used to denote the standardized regression coefficient.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 523 LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

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25) The statistical significance of the linear relationship between X and Y may be tested by examining the hypotheses: H0: β1 ≠ 0; H1: β1 = 0.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 524 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

26) The formula for the coefficient of determination is r2 = SSreg/ SSy. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 542 LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

27) The hypotheses for the test for significance of the coefficient of determination are: H0: R2pop = 0 ; H1: R2pop > 0.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 525 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

28) The standard error of estimate, SEE, is the standard deviation of the actual Y values from the predicted Ŷ values.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 527 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

29) The standard error of estimate, SEE, may be interpreted as a kind of average residual or average error in predicting Y from the regression equation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 527 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

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30) The general form of the multiple regression model is: Y = β0 + β1 X1 + β2 X2 + β3X3 + .... + βkXk + e Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 529 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.3 Explain the nature and methods of multiple regression analysis and the meaning of partial regression coefficients.

31) The coefficient of multiple determination is adjusted for the number of dependent variables and the sample size to account for diminishing returns.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 529 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.3 Explain the nature and methods of multiple regression analysis and the meaning of partial regression coefficients.

32) The multiple correlation coefficient, R, can also be viewed as the simple correlation coefficient, r, between Y and Ŷ.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 531 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.3 Explain the nature and methods of multiple regression analysis and the meaning of partial regression coefficients.

33) R2 cannot decrease as more independent variables are added to the regression equation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 531 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.3 Explain the nature and methods of multiple regression analysis and the meaning of partial regression coefficients.

34) In multiple regression, if the overall null hypothesis is rejected, we know which specific coefficients (βis) are nonzero.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 532 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.3 Explain the nature and methods of multiple regression analysis and the meaning of partial regression coefficients.

35) A residual is the difference between the observed value of Yi and the value predicted by the regression equation, Ŷi.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 533 LO: 17.3 Explain the nature and methods of multiple regression analysis and the meaning of partial regression coefficients.

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36) If a variable explains a significant proportion of the residual variation, it should be considered for inclusion in the regression equation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 533-534 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.3 Explain the nature and methods of multiple regression analysis and the meaning of partial regression coefficients.

37) If an examination of the residuals indicates that the assumptions underlying linear regression are not met, the researcher can transform the variables in an attempt to satisfy the assumptions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 550-552 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.3 Explain the nature and methods of multiple regression analysis and the meaning of partial regression coefficients.

38) When there are a large number of independent variables and the researcher suspects that not all of them are significant, stepwise regression should be used.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 533-534 LO: 17.4 Describe specialized techniques used in multiple regression analysis, particularly stepwise regression, regression with dummy variables, and analysis of variance and covariance with regression.

39) The purpose of stepwise regression is to select, from a large number of predictor variables, a small subset of variables that account for most of the variation in the dependent or criterion variable.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 535 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.4 Describe specialized techniques used in multiple regression analysis, particularly stepwise regression, regression with dummy variables, and analysis of variance and covariance with regression.

40) Stepwise procedures result in regression equations that are optimal, in the sense of producing the largest R2, for a given number of predictors.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 535 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.4 Describe specialized techniques used in multiple regression analysis, particularly stepwise regression, regression with dummy variables, and analysis of variance and covariance with regression.

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41) Multicollinearity arises when intercorrelations among the predictors are very low.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 537 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.4 Describe specialized techniques used in multiple regression analysis, particularly stepwise regression, regression with dummy variables, and analysis of variance and covariance with regression.

42) In regression with dummy variables, the predicted Ŷ for each category is the mean of Y for each category.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 538-539 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.4 Describe specialized techniques used in multiple regression analysis, particularly stepwise regression, regression with dummy variables, and analysis of variance and covariance with regression.

43) Regression in which a single independent variable has been recoded into dummy variables is equivalent to one-way analysis of variance.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 538-539 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.4 Describe specialized techniques used in multiple regression analysis, particularly stepwise regression, regression with dummy variables, and analysis of variance and covariance with regression.

44) The product moment correlation is also known as the Pearson correlation coefficient and as .

A) simple correlation B) bivariate correlation C) correlation coefficient D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 513-516 LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

45) is best to use to determine how strongly sales are related to advertising expenditures.

A) Multiple regression analysis B) Partial correlation coefficient C) ANOVA D) Product moment correlation (r) Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 513-516 LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

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46) The is a statistic summarizing the strength of association between two metric variables.

A) multiple regression analysis B) partial correlation coefficient C) ANOVA D) product moment correlation Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 513-516 LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

47) The equation for r involves dividing the

by A) COVxy; the product of the variance of X and Y (Sx2Sy2)

.

B) product of the standard deviation of X and Y (SxSy); COVxy C) COVxy; the product of the standard deviation of X and Y (SxSy) D) product of the variances of X and Y (Sx2Sy2); COVxy Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 513-516 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

48) The equation for r is represented as A) COVxy/ Sx2Sy2 B) SxSy/COV C) COVxy/ SxSy D) Sx2Sy2/COV

.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 513-516 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

49) In the equation COVxy/ SxSy, Sx and Sy represent .

A) the standard deviation of X and Y B) the variances of X and Y C) the means of X and Y D) the strength of the effects of X and Y Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 513-516 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

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50) r2 measures .

A) the proportion of variation in one variable that is explained by the other B) the proportion of error variation C) the proportion of variation in Y related to the variation of the categories of X D) the proportion of variation in Y due to the variation within each of the categories of X Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 513-516 LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

51) r = 0 indicates .

A) X and Y have a relationship B) X and Y don't have a linear relationship C) X and Y are unrelated D) X and Y have a linear relationship Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 513-516 LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

52) Which statement about the correlation coefficient, r, is true?

A) The calculation of r assumes that X and Y are metric variables whose distributions have the same shape.

B) The correlation coefficient computed for a population is denoted by ρ(rho).

C) Data obtained by using rating scales with a small number of categories tends to deflate r.

D) All of the statements are true.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 513-516 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

53) Which statement is not true about correlation matrices?

A) Usually only the lower portion of the matrix is considered.

B) The diagonal elements all equal 0.

C) A correlation matrix indicates the coefficient of correlation between each pair of variables.

D) The upper triangular portion of the matrix is a mirror image of the lower triangular portion.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 513-516 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

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54) The is a measure of the association between two variables after controlling or adjusting for the effects of one or more additional variables.

A) regression analysis B) partial correlation coefficient C) ANOVA D) product moment correlation Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 516-518 LO: 17.3 Explain the nature and methods of multiple regression analysis and the meaning of partial regression coefficients.

55) The question of "How strongly are sales related to advertising expenditures when the effect of price is controlled?" is best answered via .

A) bivariate regression analysis B) partial correlation coefficient C) ANOVA D) product moment correlation Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 516-518 LO: 17.3 Explain the nature and methods of multiple regression analysis and the meaning of partial regression coefficients.

56) Which statement is not correct about the partial correlation coefficient?

A) Partial correlations can be helpful for detecting spurious relationships.

B) The partial correlation coefficient is generally viewed as more important than the part correlation coefficient.

C) The partial correlation coefficient represents the correlation between Y and X when the linear effects of the other independent variables have been removed from X but not from Y. D) The partial correlation coefficient can be calculated by a knowledge of the simple correlations alone.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 516-518 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

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57) Partial correlations have an order associated with them. The order indicates how many variables are being adjusted or controlled. The simple correlation coefficient, r, has a , as it does not control for any additional variables when measuring the association between two variables. The coefficient rsy.z is a partial correlation coefficient, as it controls for the effect of one additional variable, Z. A) zero-order; first-order B) zero-order; second-order C) first-order; second-order D) first-order; third-order Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 516-518 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

58) The relationship between X and Y is spurious if .

A) Y increases exponentially with increases in X B) the correlation between X and Y disappears when the effect of Z is controlled C) Y decreases exponentially with decreases in X D) both A and C are correct Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 516-518 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

59) ry(x.z) represents the .

A) partial correlation B) Pearson correlation C) part correlation D) partition correlation Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 516-518 LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

60) Which of the following is a measure of nonmetric correlation?

A) Pearson product moment correlation B) Spearman's rho C) Kendall's tau D) both B and C Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 518-519 LO: 17.5 Discuss nonmetric correlation and measures such as Spearman's rho and Kendall's tau.

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61) When considering nonmetric correlation, as a rule of thumb, is to be preferred when a large number of cases fall into a relatively small number of categories (thereby leading to a large number of ties).

A) Spearman's rho B) Kendall's tau C) chi-square D) Pearson product moment correlation Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 518-519 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.5 Discuss nonmetric correlation and measures such as Spearman's rho and Kendall's tau.

62) is a statistical procedure for analyzing associative relationships between a metric dependent variable and one or more independent variables.

A) Regression analysis B) Partial correlation coefficient C) ANOVA D) Product moment correlation Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 519 LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

63) is a procedure for deriving a mathematical relationship, in the form of an equation, between a single metric dependent variable and a single metric independent variable.

A) Chi-square B) Part correlation C) Multiple regression D) Bivariate regression Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 519 LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

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64) Which of the following situations is best addressed by regression?

A) Is there an association between market share and the size of the sales force?

B) Is there an association between market share and size of the sales force after adjusting for the effect of sales promotion?

C) Determine how much of the variation in the dependent variable (store sales) can be explained by the independent variables (price and level of advertisement).

D) Are consumers' perceptions of quality related to their perceptions of prices when the effect of brand image is controlled?

Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 519 LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

65) Which statement is not true about regression analysis?

A) The terms dependent or criterion variables, and independent or predictor variables in regression analysis do not imply that the criterion variable is dependent on the independent variables in a causal sense.

B) Regression analysis can be used to determine if color preference is related to product size and price.

C) Regression can be used to predict the values of the dependent variable.

D) Regression analysis is a powerful and flexible procedure for analyzing associative relationships between a metric dependent variable and one or more independent variables.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 519 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

66) A technique for fitting a straight line to a scattergram by minimizing the square of the vertical distances of all the points from the line is known as the .

A) least-square procedure B) scatter diagram plot C) sum of square errors procedure D) maximum residual procedure Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 521 LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

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67) The bivariate regression model that accounts for the probabilistic or stochastic nature of the relationship between X and Y is .

A) Ŷ = a + b1X1 + b2X2 B) Y = β0 + β1 Xi C) Yi =β0 + β1 Xi + ei D) Ŷ i = a + bXi Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 519 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

68) What is the bivariate regression equation if sample observations are used to predict Y? A) Ŷ = a + b1X1 + b2X2 B) Ŷ = β0 + β1 Xi C) Ŷ i =β0 + β1 Xi + ei D) Ŷ i = a + bxi Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 522 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

69) Which statement is not true about the constant b in the bivariate regression equation Ŷ i = a + bXi? A) It is usually referred to as the non-standardized regression coefficient.

B) It is the slope of the regression line and it indicates the expected change in Y when X is changed by one unit.

C) It is the intercept of the regression line and it indicates the value of Y when X is zero.

D) It may be computed as b=COVxy/Sx2.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 522 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

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70) Which equation depicts the relationship between the standardized and non-standardized regression coefficients?

A) Byx = byx(S2x/S2y) B) B2yx = byx(Sx/Sy) C) Byx = byx(Sx/Sy) D) B2yx = byx(S2x/S2y) Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 523 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

71) The standard deviation of b, or the standard error, is denoted as .

A) SEb B) SDb C) SSYb D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 524 LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

72) In bivariate regression, which statement is true concerning the coefficient of determination, r2?

A) r2 is the square of the simple correlation coefficient obtained by correlating the two variables.

B) r2 varies between 0 and 1.

C) r2 signifies the proportion of the total variation in Y accounted for by the variation in X. D) All are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 525-526 LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

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73) is the appropriate test statistic to use to determine the significance of the coefficient of determination in bivariate regression.

A) statistic B) T statistic C) Z statistic D) ω2 Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 525-526 LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

74) To estimate the accuracy of predicted values, Ŷ, found in bivariate regression, it is useful to calculate the , the standard deviation of the actual Y values from the predicted Ŷ values.

A) coefficient of determination B) standard error of the estimate C) covariance D) standard error Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 525-526 LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

75) is a statistical technique that simultaneously develops a mathematical relationship between two or more independent variables and an interval-scaled dependent variable.

A) Chi-square B) The least-squares procedure C) Multiple regression D) Bivariate regression Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 529-532 LO: 17.3 Explain the nature and methods of multiple regression analysis and the meaning of partial regression coefficients.

76) The general form of the multiple regression model is estimated by which equation?

A) Ŷ i = a + bXi B) Ŷ i =β0 + β1 Xi + ei C) Ŷ =a + b1 X1 + b2 X2 + b3X3 + ... + bkXk D) Ŷ = a + b1X1 + b2X2 Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 529-532 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.3 Explain the nature and methods of multiple regression analysis and the meaning of partial regression coefficients.

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77) Which statistic is associated only with multiple regression and not with bivariate regression?

A) adjusted R2 B) partial F test C) estimated or predicted value (Ŷ) D) both A and B Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 529-532 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.3 Explain the nature and methods of multiple regression analysis and the meaning of partial regression coefficients.

78) The denotes the change in the predicted value, Ŷ, per unit change in X1 when the other independent variables, X2 to Xk, are held constant.

A) partial regression coefficient B) partial correlation coefficient C) part correlation coefficient D) part regression coefficient Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 529-532 LO: 17.3 Explain the nature and methods of multiple regression analysis and the meaning of partial regression coefficients.

79) Which statement is not true about partial regression coefficients?

A) The combined effects of X1 and X2 on Y are additive. In other words, if X1 and X2 are each changed by one unit, the expected change in Y would be (b1 + b2).

B) The beta coefficients are the partial regression coefficients obtained when all the variables (Y, X1, X2...Xk) have been standardized to a mean of 0 and a variance of 1 before estimating the regression equation.

C) Partial regression coefficients have an order associated with them.

D) Both A and B are not true.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 529-532 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 17.3 Explain the nature and methods of multiple regression analysis and the meaning of partial regression coefficients.

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80) In multiple regression, if the overall null hypothesis is rejected, .

A) the mean value of the dependent variable will be different for different categories of the independent variable B) the means of the independent variables are not equal C) there is an association between the independent variables D) one or more population partial regression coefficients have a value different from 0 Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 529-532 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 17.3 Explain the nature and methods of multiple regression analysis and the meaning of partial regression coefficients.

81) In multiple regression, if the overall null hypothesis is rejected, which statement is true?

A) We know which specific βs are nonzero.

B) We can use t = b/SEb to determine which βs are nonzero.

C) We do not know which βs are nonzero.

D) Both B and C are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 529-532 LO: 17.3 Explain the nature and methods of multiple regression analysis and the meaning of partial regression coefficients.

82) is a regression procedure in which the predictor variables enter or leave the regression equation one at a time.

A) Multiple regression B) Bivariate regression C) Dummy variable regression D) Stepwise regression Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 535 LO: 17.4 Describe specialized techniques used in multiple regression analysis, particularly stepwise regression, regression with dummy variables, and analysis of variance and covariance with regression.

83) is a state of very high intercorrelations among independent variables.

A) Hypercollinearity B) Partial collinearity C) Multicollinearity D) Variable collinearity Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 537 LO: 17.4 Describe specialized techniques used in multiple regression analysis, particularly stepwise regression, regression with dummy variables, and analysis of variance and covariance with regression.

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84) Which of the following is not a problem associated with multicollinearity?

A) The partial regression coefficients may not be estimated precisely. The standard errors are likely to be high.

B) It becomes difficult to assess the relative importance of the independent variables in explaining the variation in the dependent variables.

C) Predictor variables may be incorrectly included or removed in stepwise regression.

D) It becomes difficult to compute the correct test statistic.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 537 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 17.4 Describe specialized techniques used in multiple regression analysis, particularly stepwise regression, regression with dummy variables, and analysis of variance and covariance with regression.

85) Which statement is true about cross-validation.

A) It can be used for evaluating the model for chance variations in the data and other problems associated with regression.

B) It examines whether the regression model continues to hold on comparable data not used in the estimation.

C) A special form of validation is called double cross-validation where the sample is split into halves.

D) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 538 LO: 17.4 Describe specialized techniques used in multiple regression analysis, particularly stepwise regression, regression with dummy variables, and analysis of variance and covariance with regression.

86) variables may be used as predictors or independent variables by coding them as dummy variables.

A) Interval B) Categorical C) Ratio D) All of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 538-539 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.4 Describe specialized techniques used in multiple regression analysis, particularly stepwise regression, regression with dummy variables, and analysis of variance and covariance with regression.

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87) The regression equation for a categorical variable with four categories would be modeled as .

A) Ŷ i = a + b1 D1 + b2 D2 + b3D3 B) Ŷ i = a + b1 D1 + b2 D2 + b3D3 + b4D4 C) Ŷ = b1 D1 + b2 D2 + b3D3 D) Ŷ = b1 D1 + b2 D2 + b3D3 + b4D4 Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 538-539 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.4 Describe specialized techniques used in multiple regression analysis, particularly stepwise regression, regression with dummy variables, and analysis of variance and covariance with regression.

88) Suppose a researcher wants to explain attitudes towards a respondent's city of residence in terms of duration of residence in the city. The attitude is measured on an 11-point scale and the duration of residence is measured in terms of the number of years the respondent has lived in the city. In a pretest of 12 respondents, the calculated t value for the correlation coefficient based on the data given is 8.414. The critical value of t for a two-tailed test and α = 0.05 is 2.228. r = .9361. What is the null hypothesis for this scenario? What do the results mean in terms of the null hypothesis and the correlation coefficient, r?

Answer: The null hypothesis of no relationship between X and Y is rejected. This along with the positive sign of r, indicates that attitude toward the city is positively related to the duration of residence in the city. Moreover, the high value of r indicates that this relationship is strong. If this were a large and representative sample, the implication would be that managers, city officials, and politicians wishing to reach people with a favorable attitude toward the city should target long-time residents of that city.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 513-516 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.1 Discuss the concepts of product moment correlation, partial correlation, and part correlation and show how they provide a foundation for regression analysis.

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89) In what ways can regression analysis be used?

Answer: 1. Determine whether the independent variables explain a significant variation in the dependent variable: whether a relationship exists.

2. Determine how much of the variation in the dependent variable can be explained by the independent variables: strength of the relationship.

3. Determine the structure or form of the relationship: the mathematical equation relating the independent and dependent variables.

4. Predict the values of the dependent variable.

5. Control for other independent variables when evaluating the contributions of a specific variable or set of variables.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 519 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

90) Briefly explain how a scatter diagram benefits the researcher?

Answer: A scatter diagram is useful for determining the form of the relationship between the variables. A plot can alert the researcher to patterns in the data, or to possible problems. Any unusual combinations of the two variables can be easily identified.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 521 LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

91) What are the assumptions made by the regression model in estimating the parameters and in significance testing?

Answer: 1. The error term is normally distributed. For each fixed value of X, the distribution of Y is normal.

2. The means of all these normal distributions of Y, given X, lie on a straight line with slope b.

3. The mean of the error term is 0.

4. The variance of the error term is constant. This variance does not depend on the values assumed by X. 5. The error terms are uncorrelated. In other words, the observations have been drawn independently.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 527 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.2 Explain the nature and methods of bivariate regression analysis and describe the general model, estimation of parameters, standardized regression coefficient, significance testing, prediction accuracy, residual analysis, and model cross-validation.

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92) Given the multiple regression equation, Ŷ = a + b1X1 + b2X2, and the bivariate equation Ŷ = a + bX, why is the partial regression coefficient, b1, different from the regression coefficient, b, obtained by regressing Y on only X1?

Answer: This happens because X1 and X2 are usually correlated. In bivariate regression, X2 was not considered and any variation in Y that was shared by X1 and X2 was attributed to X1.

However, in the case of multiple independent variables, this is no longer true.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 529-530 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 17.3 Explain the nature and methods of multiple regression analysis and the meaning of partial regression coefficients.

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Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 18 Discriminant and Logit Analysis 1) When the dependent variable is binary, the logit model can also be used instead of two-group discriminant analysis.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 549 LO: 18.1 Describe the concept of discriminant analysis, its objectives, and its applications in marketing research.

2) Discriminant functions are linear combinations of the predictor or independent variables, which will best discriminate between the categories of the criterion or dependent variable (groups).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 550 LO: 18.1 Describe the concept of discriminant analysis, its objectives, and its applications in marketing research.

3) When the criterion variable has two categories, the technique is referred to as multiple discriminant analysis.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 550-551 LO: 18.1 Describe the concept of discriminant analysis, its objectives, and its applications in marketing research.

4) In two-group discriminant analysis it is possible to derive only one discriminant function.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 550 LO: 18.1 Describe the concept of discriminant analysis, its objectives, and its applications in marketing research.

5) In the discriminant analysis model, the coefficients, or weights (b), are estimated so that the groups differ as much as possible on the values of the discriminant function. This occurs when the ratio of between-group sum of squares to within-group sum of squares for the discriminant scores is at a maximum.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 550-552 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

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6) Also referred to as discriminant loadings, the structure correlations represent the simple correlations between the predictors and the discriminant function in discriminant analysis.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 552 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

7) The last step in conducting discriminant analysis is to interpret the results (Figure 18.2 in the text).

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 553 LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

8) The first step in discriminant analysis is to formulate the problem by identifying the objectives, the criterion variable, and the independent variables.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 553 LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

9) If attitude towards the brand is measured on a seven-point scale from unfavorable to favorable, it could be categorized as unfavorable (1, 2, 3), neutral (4), or favorable (5, 6, 7).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 553 LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

10) When conducting discriminant analysis, the analysis sample is that part of the total sample used to check the results of the estimation sample.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 553 LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

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11) The direct method is an approach to discriminant analysis that involves estimating the discriminant function so that all the predictors are included simultaneously.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 555 LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

12) The stepwise discriminant analysis method is appropriate when, based on previous research or a theoretical model, the researcher wants the discrimination to be based on all the predictors.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 555 LO: 18.4 Demonstrate stepwise discriminant analysis and the Mahalanobis procedure.

13) The null hypothesis in discriminant analysis, that in the population, the means of all discriminant functions in all groups are not equal, can be statistically tested.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 555, 558 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

14) In discriminant analysis, rejecting the null hypothesis means there is significant discrimination between groups.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 555, 558 LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

15) In discriminant analysis, the value of the coefficient for a particular predictor depends on the other predictors included in the discriminant function.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 558 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

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16) In discriminant analysis, there is no multicollinearity in the predictor variables. Therefore, there is no ambiguous measure of the relative importance of the predictors in discriminating between groups.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 558 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

17) A characteristic profile is an aid to interpreting discriminant analysis results by describing each group in terms of the group means for the predictor variables..

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 559 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

18) With the leave-one-out cross-validation option in SPSS, the discriminant model is reestimated as many times as there are respondents in the sample.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 560 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

19) The hit ratio is the number of variables found to be significant by the discriminant analysis.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 560 LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

20) The hit ratio is the percentage of cases correctly classified by the discriminant analysis.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 560 LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

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21) The results obtained from a classification matrix based on the analysis sample are invariably better than leave-one-out classification or the classification obtained on the holdout sample.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 560 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

22) The Mahalanobis procedure is based on minimalizing a generalized measure of the distance between the two closest groups.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 568 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.4 Demonstrate stepwise discriminant analysis and the Mahalanobis procedure.

23) When the dependent variable is binary and there is one independent variable that is nonmetric, in addition to two-group discriminant analysis one can also use OLS regression, logit, and probit models for estimation.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 568-569 LO: 18.5 Describe the binary logit model and its advantages over discriminant and regression analysis.

24) The binary logit model commonly deals with the issue of how likely an observation is to belong to each group. It estimates the probability of an observation belonging to a particular group Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 568-571 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.5 Describe the binary logit model and its advantages over discriminant and regression analysis.

25) The logit model falls somewhere between regression and discriminant analysis in application.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 568-571 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.5 Describe the binary logit model and its advantages over discriminant and regression analysis.

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26) When the probability of success, p, is modeled using OLS regression, p is constrained to lie between 0 and 1.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 568-571 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.5 Describe the binary logit model and its advantages over discriminant and regression analysis.

27) The procedure that is used to estimate the parameters of the binary logit model is called the maximum likelihood method.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 568-571 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.5 Describe the binary logit model and its advantages over discriminant and regression analysis.

28) Discriminant analysis is available in EXCEL. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 674 LO: 18.6 Explain the role of software in conducting discriminant and logit analysis using SPSS and SAS. 29) An examination of differences across groups lies at the heart of the basic concept of .

A) regression analysis B) discriminant analysis C) conjoint analysis D) factor analysis Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 550-551 LO: 18.1 Describe the concept of discriminant analysis, its objectives, and its applications in marketing research.

30) In discriminant analysis, the criterion or dependent variable is and the predictor or independent variables are in nature.

A) interval; categorical B) ordinal; interval C) categorical; interval D) ordinal; categorical Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 550-551 LO: 18.1 Describe the concept of discriminant analysis, its objectives, and its applications in marketing research.

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31) The linear combinations of independent variables developed by discriminant analysis that will best discriminate between the categories of the dependent variable are .

A) discriminant functions B) discriminant scores C) characteristic profiles D) classification matrix Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 550-551 LO: 18.1 Describe the concept of discriminant analysis, its objectives, and its applications in marketing research.

32) Which of the following statements is not an objective of discriminant analysis?

A) examination of whether significant differences exist among the groups, in terms of the criterion variables B) determination of which predictor variables contribute to most of the intergroup differences C) classification of cases to one of the groups based on the values of the predictor variables D) evaluation of the accuracy of classification Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 550-551 LO: 18.1 Describe the concept of discriminant analysis, its objectives, and its applications in marketing research.

33) Discriminant analysis can be used to answer questions such as .

A) How much of the variation in sales can be explained by advertising expenditures, prices, and level of distribution?

B) In terms of demographic characteristics, how do customers who exhibit store loyalty differ from those who do not?

C) What are the distinguishing characteristics of consumers who respond to direct mail solicitations?

D) Both B and C are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 550-551 LO: 18.1 Describe the concept of discriminant analysis, its objectives, and its applications in marketing research.

34) Discriminant/logit analysis is similar to regression and ANOVA in which of the areas stated below (Table 18.1 in the text)?

A) nature of the dependent variables B) nature of the independent variables C) both A and B D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 550-551 LO: 18.1 Describe the concept of discriminant analysis, its objectives, and its applications in marketing research.

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35) The nature of dependent and independent variables in the binary logit model is similar to that in .

A) multivariate analysis of variance B) analysis of variance C) regression analysis D) discriminant analysis Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 551 LO: 18.1 Describe the concept of discriminant analysis, its objectives, and its applications in marketing research.

36) Discriminant/logit analysis is similar to regression and ANOVA in which of the areas stated below (Table 18.1 in the text)?

A) number of dependent variables B) number of independent variables C) both A and B D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 550-551 LO: 18.1 Describe the concept of discriminant analysis, its objectives, and its applications in marketing research.

37) D is the in the model D = b0 + b1 X1 + b2 X2 + b3X3 + ... + bkXk. A) discriminant score B) disordinal interaction C) difference variable D) discriminant coefficients or weights Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 551 LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

38) Sometimes also called confusion or prediction matrix, the contains the number of correctly classified and misclassified cases.

A) classification matrix B) total correlation matrix C) pooled within-group correlation matrix D) identity matrix Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 552 LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

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39) As one of the statistics associated with discriminant analysis, are obtained when the unstandardized coefficients are multiplied by the values of the variables and the products are summed and added to the constant term.

A) Wilks' λ B) discriminant scores C) discriminant function coefficients D) eigenvalue Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 552 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

40) As one of the statistics associated with discriminant analysis, the (unstandardized) are the multipliers of variables when the variables are in the original units of measurement.

A) Wilks' λ B) discriminant scores C) discriminant function coefficients D) eigenvalue Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 552 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

41) As one of the statistics associated with discriminant analysis, the for each predictor is the ratio of the within-group sum of squares to the total sum of squares. Its value varies between 0 and 1.

A) Wilks' λ B) discriminant scores C) discriminant function coefficients D) eigenvalue Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 552 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

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42) The assumptions in discriminant analysis are that each of the groups is a sample from a population and all of the populations have the same .

A) multivariate normal; standard deviation B) multivariate normal; covariance matrix C) multivariate normal; standard error D) multivariate normal; variance Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 553-554 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

43) Which of the following is not one of the steps involved in the "formulating the problem" step in discriminant analysis?

A) convert the dependent variable into categories B) divide the sample into analysis and validation samples C) estimate the discriminant function coefficients D) repeatedly conduct the validation of the discriminant function Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 553-554 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

44) If you are using the direct method or stepwise discriminant analysis, you are at the step of conducting discriminant analysis.

A) formulate the problem B) estimate the discriminant function coefficients C) assess the validity of the discriminant analysis D) determine the size of the discriminant function Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 555 LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

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45) What does it mean if the discriminant function is estimated and the square of the canonical correlation is .64?

A) 64% of the variance in the dependent variable is explained by the model.

B) The null hypothesis is not rejected. Therefore, there is no significant discrimination between groups.

C) 64% of the explained variance is accounted for.

D) B and C are correct.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 555 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

46) In discriminant analysis, we can obtain some idea of the relative importance of the variables by .

A) examining the absolute magnitude of the standardized discriminant function coefficients B) examining the structure correlations, or canonical loadings or discriminant loadings C) examining the unstandardized discriminant function coefficients D) A and B are correct Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 558 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

47) If you are using the leave-out option of SPSS, you are at the step of discriminant analysis.

A) estimate the discriminant coefficients B) determine the significance of the discriminant function C) interpret the results D) assess validity of discriminant analysis Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 560 AACSB: Information technology LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

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48) The

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is used for estimating the

; the

is used for developing the

.

A) analysis sample; discriminant function; validation sample; classification matrix B) validation sample; discriminant function; analysis sample; classification matrix C) classification matrix; discriminant function; validation sample; analysis sample D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 560 LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

49) If there are 10 groups and 8 predictors, how many discriminant functions can be estimated?

A) ten B) nine C) eight D) seven Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 562 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.3 Discuss multiple discriminant analysis and the distinction between two-group and multiple discriminant analysis.

50) In multiple discriminant analysis, the interpretation of results is aided by an examination of all of the following except .

A) the standardized discriminant function coefficients B) the correlation coefficients C) the structure correlations D) certain plots Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 562, 565 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.3 Discuss multiple discriminant analysis and the distinction between two-group and multiple discriminant analysis.

51) A is a tool for assessing discriminant analysis results that plots the group membership of each case on a graph.

A) characteristic profile B) scattergram C) territorial map D) pie chart Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 565 LO: 18.3 Discuss multiple discriminant analysis and the distinction between two-group and multiple discriminant analysis.

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52) Which of the following statements is true about stepwise discriminant analysis?

A) The predictors are entered sequentially based on their ability to discriminate between groups.

B) The predictor with the highest F ratio is the first to be selected for inclusion in the discriminant function, if it meets certain significance and tolerance criteria.

C) Each predictor selected is tested for retention based on its association with the other predictors selected.

D) All of the above statements are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 568 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.4 Demonstrate stepwise discriminant analysis and the Mahalanobis procedure.

53) When the dependent variable is binary and there are several independent variables that are metric, in addition to two-group discriminant analysis all of the following models can be used except .

A) OLS regression B) the logit model C) multiple discriminant analysis D) the probit model Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 568 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.5 Describe the binary logit model and its advantages over discriminant and regression analysis.

54) The binary logit model is also called .

A) stepwise regression B) logistic regression C) OLS regression D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 568-569 LO: 18.5 Describe the binary logit model and its advantages over discriminant and regression analysis.

55) When the probability of success, p is modeled using a binary logit model, it is constrained to lie between .

A) 0 to -1 B) -1 to 1 C) 1 to 100 D) 0 and 1 Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 569-570 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.5 Describe the binary logit model and its advantages over discriminant and regression analysis.

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56) Cox and Snell R square and Nagelkerke R2 are measures of model fit used in .

A) logistic regression B) OLS regression C) the binary logit model D) Both A and C are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 569-570 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.5 Describe the binary logit model and its advantages over discriminant and regression analysis.

57) The is a test of significance of the logistic regression coefficient based on the asymptotic normality property of maximum likelihood estimates.

A) Nagelkerke R2 B) Wald statistic C) Wilks' λ D) Cox and Snell R square Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 569-570 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 18.5 Describe the binary logit model and its advantages over discriminant and regression analysis.

58) Discriminant analysis can be conducted via all of the following except .

A) SPSS B) EXCEL C) MINITAB D) SAS Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 574 AACSB: Information technology LO: 18.6 Explain the role of software in conducting discriminant and logit analysis using SPSS and SAS.

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59) Discuss the similarities and differences among ANOVA, regression, and discriminant analysis (Table 18.1 in the text).

Answer: All three procedures involve a single criterion or dependent variable and multiple predictor or independent variables. However, the nature of these variables differ. In analysis of variance and regression analysis, the dependent variable is metric or interval scaled (amount of life insurance purchased in dollars), whereas in discriminant analysis it is categorical (amount of life insurance purchased classified as high, medium, or low). The independent variables are categorical in the case of analysis of variance (age and income are each classified as high, medium, or low) but metric in the case of regression and discriminant analysis (age in years and income in dollars, i.e., both measured on a ratio scale).

Two-group discriminant analysis, in which the dependent variable has only two categories, is closely related to multiple regression analysis. In this case, multiple regression, in which the dependent variable is coded as a 0 or 1 dummy variable, results in partial regression coefficients that are proportional to discriminant function coefficients.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 550-551 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 18.1 Describe the concept of discriminant analysis, its objectives, and its applications in marketing research.

60) What are the steps involved in conducting discriminant analysis (Figure 18.2 in the text)?

Answer: The steps involved in conducting discriminant analysis are shown in Figure 18.2 in the text as: 1. Formulate the problem.

2. Estimate the discriminant function coefficients.

3. Determine the significance of the discriminant function.

4. Interpret the results.

5. Assess the validity of the discriminant analysis.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 553 LO: 18.2 Outline the procedures for conducting discriminant analysis, including the formulation of the problem, estimation of the discriminant function coefficients, determination of significance, interpretation, and validation.

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Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 20 Cluster Analysis 1) Cluster analysis does not classify variables as dependent or independent.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 607 LO: 20.1 Describe the basic concept and scope of cluster analysis and its importance in marketing research.

2) The primary objective of cluster analysis is to classify objects into relatively homogeneous groups.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 607 LO: 20.1 Describe the basic concept and scope of cluster analysis and its importance in marketing research.

3) Cluster analysis is the obverse of factor analysis in that it reduces the number of objects, not the number of variables, by grouping them into a much smaller number of clusters.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 607 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 20.1 Describe the basic concept and scope of cluster analysis and its importance in marketing research.

4) Cluster analysis requires prior knowledge of the cluster or group membership for each object or case included to develop the classification rule.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 607 LO: 20.1 Describe the basic concept and scope of cluster analysis and its importance in marketing research.

5) If cluster analysis is used as a general data reduction tool, subsequent multivariate analysis can be conducted on the clusters rather than on the individual observations.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 608-609 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 20.1 Describe the basic concept and scope of cluster analysis and its importance in marketing research.

6) Most clustering methods are relatively complex procedures that are supported by an extensive body of statistical reasoning.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 609 LO: 20.1 Describe the basic concept and scope of cluster analysis and its importance in marketing research.

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7) The dendrogram is read from right to left.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 609-610 LO: 20.2 Discuss the statistics associated with cluster analysis.

8) In cluster analysis, the set of variables selected should describe the similarity between objects in terms that are relevant to the marketing research problem.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 610 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

9) Clustering should be done on samples of at least 300 or more.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 611 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

10) Measuring similarity in terms of distance between pairs of objects is the most common approach used in cluster analysis for grouping similar objects together.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 611 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

11) In cluster analysis, objects with larger distances between them are more similar to each other than are those at smaller distances.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 611 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

12) Use of different distance measures may lead to different clustering results. Hence, it is advisable to use different measures and compare the results.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 611-612 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

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13) The complete linkage method of hierarchical clustering is based on the minimum distance or the nearest neighbor approach.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 612-614 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

14) The average linkage method of hierarchical clustering is preferred to the single and complete linkage methods.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 612-614 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

15) The centroid method is a variance method of hierarchical clustering in which the distance between two clusters is the distance between their centroids (means for all the variables).

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 612-614 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

16) The parallel threshold method differs from the other two non-hierarchical clustering procedures in that the objects can later be reassigned to clusters to optimize an overall criterion.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 612-614 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

17) Nonhierarchical clustering is faster than hierarchical methods.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 612-614 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

18) The TwoStep cluster analysis procedure can automatically determine the optimal number of clusters by comparing the values of a model-choice criteria across different clustering solutions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 612-614 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

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19) In the TwoStep procedure, the euclidean measure can be used only when all of the variables are ordinal.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 612-614 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

20) Choice of a clustering method and choice of a distance measure are interrelated.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 612-614 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

21) It is possible to obtain information on cluster membership of cases via the icicle plot if the number of clusters is specified.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 612-614 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

22) The centroids represent the mean values of the objects contained in the cluster on each of the variables.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 618 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

23) It is helpful to profile the clusters in terms of variables that were not used for clustering.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 618 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

24) Formal procedures for assessing the reliability and validity of clustering are simple and should be undertaken.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 619 LO: 20.4 Describe the purpose and methods for evaluating the quality of clustering results and assessing reliability and validity.

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25) One method of assessing reliability and validity of clustering is to use different methods of clustering and compare the results.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 619 LO: 20.4 Describe the purpose and methods for evaluating the quality of clustering results and assessing reliability and validity.

26) In hierarchical clustering, the solution may depend on the order of cases in the data set.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 619 LO: 20.5 Discuss the applications of nonhierarchical clustering and clustering of variables.

27) In non-hierarchical clustering, the F test is only descriptive. Because the cases or objects are systematically assigned to clusters to maximize differences on the clustering variables, the resulting probabilities should not be interpreted as testing the null hypothesis of no differences among clusters.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 622 LO: 20.5 Discuss the applications of nonhierarchical clustering and clustering of variables.

28) To reduce the number of variables, a large set of variables can often be replaced by the set of cluster components.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 647 LO: 20.5 Discuss the applications of nonhierarchical clustering and clustering of variables.

29) Principal components are usually easier to interpret than the cluster components.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 624 LO: 20.5 Discuss the applications of nonhierarchical clustering and clustering of variables.

30) When cluster analysis is also used for clustering variables to identify homogeneous groups, the units used for analysis are the variables and the distance measures are computed for all pairs of variables.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 624 LO: 20.5 Discuss the applications of nonhierarchical clustering and clustering of variables.

31) Which method of analysis does not classify variables as dependent or independent?

A) regression analysis B) discriminant analysis C) analysis of variance D) cluster analysis Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 607 LO: 20.1 Describe the basic concept and scope of cluster analysis and its importance in marketing research.

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32) is a class of techniques used to classify objects or cases into relatively homogeneous groups.

A) Principal components analysis B) Cluster analysis C) Common factor analysis D) Conjoint analysis Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 607 LO: 20.1 Describe the basic concept and scope of cluster analysis and its importance in marketing research.

33) Which method allows the researcher to obtain information on cluster membership of cases if the number of clusters is specified?

A) dendrogram B) scree plot C) icicle plot D) both A and C Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 614-616 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.2 Discuss the statistics associated with cluster analysis.

34) Which method allows the researcher to obtain information on cluster membership of cases if the number of clusters is specified?

A) factor loading plot B) scattergram C) icicle plot D) scree plot Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 614-616 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.2 Discuss the statistics associated with cluster analysis.

35) Which statement is not true about cluster analysis?

A) Cluster analysis is a technique for analyzing data when the criterion or dependent variable is categorical and the independent variables are interval in nature.

B) Cluster analysis is also called classification analysis or numerical taxonomy.

C) Groups or clusters are suggested by the data, not defined a priori.

D) Objects in each cluster tend to be similar to each other and dissimilar to objects in the other clusters.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 608-609 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

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36) Cluster analysis has been used in marketing for all of the purposes below except .

A) segmenting the market based on benefits sought from the purchase of a product B) identifying new product opportunities by clustering brands and products so that competitive sets within the market can be determined C) selecting test markets D) determining how strongly sales are related to advertising expenditures Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 608-609 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

37) Most methods are heuristics based on algorithms.

A) factor analysis B) discriminant analysis C) clustering D) analysis of variance Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 608-609 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

38) The are the initial starting points in nonhierarchical clustering.

A) factor scores B) cluster centers C) cluster centroids D) factor loadings Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 609-610 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

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39) A(n) or tree graph is a graphical device for displaying clustering results. Vertical lines represent clusters that are joined together. The position of the line on the scale indicates the distances at which clusters were joined.

A) dendrogram B) scattergram C) scree plot D) icicle diagram Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 609-610 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

40) A is a lower-triangle matrix containing pairwise distances between objects or cases.

A) classification matrix B) correlation matrix C) similarity/distance coefficient matrix D) factor matrix Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 609-610 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

41) The most important part of is selecting the variables on which clustering is based.

A) interpreting and profiling clusters B) selecting a clustering procedure C) assessing the validity of clustering D) formulating the clustering problem Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 610-611 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

42) Clustering should be done on samples of or more.

A) 50 B) 100 C) 200 D) 300 Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 610-611 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

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43) The most commonly used measure of similarity is the or its square.

A) euclidean distance B) city-block distance C) Chebychev's distance D) Manhattan distance Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 610-611 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

44) Which statement is not true concerning the clustering solution if the variables are measured in vastly different units?

A) The clustering solution will not be influenced by the units of measurement.

B) Standardization can reduce the differences between groups on variables that may best discriminate groups or clusters.

C) It is desirable to eliminate outliers.

D) We must standardize the data by rescaling each variable to have a mean of zero and standard deviation of unity.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 611-612 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

45) is a clustering procedure characterized by the development of a tree-like structure.

A) Non-hierarchical clustering B) Hierarchical clustering C) TwoStep clustering D) Optimizing partitioning clustering Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 612-614 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

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46) is a clustering procedure where each object starts out in a separate cluster.

A) Non-hierarchical clustering B) Hierarchical clustering C) Divisive clustering D) Agglomerative clustering Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 612-614 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

47) is a clustering procedure where all objects start out in one giant cluster. Clusters are formed by dividing this cluster into smaller and smaller clusters.

A) Non-hierarchical clustering B) Hierarchical clustering C) Divisive clustering D) Agglomerative clustering Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 612-614 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

48) methods are commonly used in marketing research.

A) TwoStep clustering B) Optimizing partitioning C) Divisive clustering D) Agglomerative clustering Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 612-614 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

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49) The method is based on minimum distance or the nearest neighbor rule.

A) single linkage B) medium linkage C) complete linkage D) average linkage Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 612-614 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

50) The method is based on the maximum distance or the furthest neighbor approach.

A) single linkage B) medium linkage C) complete linkage D) average linkage Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 612-614 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

51) Which of the methods below is not a hierarchical method?

A) optimizing partitioning B) parallel threshold C) both A and B D) variance Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 612-614 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

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52) The method uses information on all pairs of distances, not merely the minimum or maximum distances.

A) single linkage B) medium linkage C) complete linkage D) average linkage Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 612-614 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

53) are agglomerative methods of hierarchical clustering in which clusters are generated to minimize the within-cluster variance.

A) Variance methods B) Linkage methods C) Centroid methods D) Parallel methods Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 612-614 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

54) Which of the following is a variance method of clustering?

A) sequential threshold B) Ward's method C) complete linkage D) optimizing partitioning Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 612-614 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

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55) is frequently referred to as k-means clustering.

A) Non-hierarchical clustering B) Ward's method C) Divisive clustering D) Agglomerative clustering Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 612-614 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

56) is a procedure that first assigns or determines a cluster center and then groups all objects within a pre-specified threshold value from the center.

A) Non-hierarchical clustering B) Ward's method C) Divisive clustering D) Agglomerative clustering Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 612-614 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

57) is a variance method in which the squared euclidean distance to the cluster means is minimized.

A) Optimizing partitioning method B) Sequential threshold method C) Parallel threshold method D) Ward's procedure Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 612-614 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

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58) The is a nonhierarchical method in which a cluster center is selected and all objects within a pre-specified threshold value from the center are grouped together.

A) optimizing partitioning method B) sequential threshold method C) parallel threshold method D) Ward's procedure Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 612-614 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

59) The is a nonhierarchical method that specifies several cluster centers at once. All objects within a pre-specified threshold value from the center are grouped together.

A) optimizing partitioning method B) sequential threshold method C) parallel threshold method D) Ward's procedure Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 612-614 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

60) The is a nonhierarchical method that allows for later reassignment of objects to clusters to optimize an overall criterion.

A) optimizing partitioning method B) sequential threshold method C) parallel threshold method D) Ward's procedure Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 612-614 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

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61) Which of the following is not a disadvantage of nonhierarchical clustering procedures?

A) The number of clusters must be pre-specified.

B) The selection of cluster centers is arbitrary.

C) The procedures do not work well when the clusters are poorly defined.

D) All of the above are disadvantages.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 612-614 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

62) Which cluster analysis procedure can automatically determine the optimal number of clusters by comparing the values of a model-choice across different clustering solutions?

A) divisive B) sequential threshold C) Ward's method D) TwoStep Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 612-614 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

63) In non-hierarchical clustering, plotting the ratio of total within-group variance to betweengroup variance against the number of clusters is useful if you are .

A) interpreting and profiling the clusters B) assessing the validity of clustering C) deciding on the number of clusters D) both B and C Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 616 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.5 Discuss the applications of nonhierarchical clustering and clustering of variables.

64) involves examining the cluster centroids.

A) Interpreting and profiling the clusters B) Assessing reliability and validity C) Deciding on the number of clusters D) Selecting a clustering procedure Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 618 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

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65) If you are performing cluster analysis on the same data using different distance measures and then comparing the results across measures to determine stability of the solutions, you are at which stage of the cluster analysis process?

A) interpreting and profiling the clusters B) assessing reliability and validity C) deciding on the number of clusters D) selecting a clustering procedure Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 619 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.4 Describe the purpose and methods for evaluating the quality of clustering results and assessing reliability and validity.

66) Which of the following is not a procedure to check the quality of clustering results?

A) Perform cluster analysis on the same data using different distance measures. Compare the results across measures to determine the stability of the solutions.

B) Delete variables randomly. Perform clustering based on the reduced set of variables. Compare the results with those obtained by clustering based on the entire set of variables.

C) Use the same method of clustering and compare the results.

D) Split the data randomly into halves. Perform clustering separately on each half. Compare cluster centroids across the two subsamples.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 619 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 20.4 Describe the purpose and methods for evaluating the quality of clustering results and assessing reliability and validity.

67) To use cluster analysis for clustering variables to identify homogeneous groups, the researcher could do all of the following except .

A) using the variables as the units of analysis B) using the correlation coefficient as a measure of similarity between variables C) inserting communalities in the diagonal of the correlation matrix D) both A and B Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 624 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 20.5 Discuss the applications of nonhierarchical clustering and clustering of variables.

68) In SPSS, the main program for hierarchical clustering of objects or cases is .

A) VARCLUS B) CLUSTER ANALYSIS C) FASTCLUS D) HIERARCHICAL CLUSTER Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 626-628 AACSB: Information technology LO: 20.6 Explain the role of software in conducting cluster analysis using SPSS and SAS. 16 2019.

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69) In SAS, the program can be used for the hierarchical clustering of objects or cases.

A) VARCLUS B) CLUSTER ANALYSIS C) FASTCLUS D) HIERARCHICAL CLUSTER Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 626-628 AACSB: Information technology LO: 20.6 Explain the role of software in conducting cluster analysis using SPSS and SAS. 70) What are the steps in conducting cluster analysis (Figure 20.3 in the text)?

Answer: The steps involved in conducting cluster analysis are listed in Figure 20.3 in the text.

The first step is to formulate the clustering problem by defining the variables on which the clustering will be based. An appropriate distance measure must then be selected. The distance measure determines how similar or dissimilar the objects being clustered are. Several clustering procedures have been developed and the researcher should select one that is appropriate for the problem at hand. Deciding on the number of clusters requires judgment on the part of the researcher. The derived clusters should be interpreted in terms of the variables used to cluster them and profiled in terms of additional salient variables. Finally, the researcher must assess the validity of the clustering process.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 610 LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

71) Which is best to use when selecting a clustering procedure: hierarchical or nonhierarchical clustering?

Answer: Although nonhierarchical clustering is faster than hierarchical methods and has merit when the number of objects or observations is large, it has been suggested that the hierarchical and nonhierarchical methods be used in tandem. First, an initial clustering solution is obtained using a hierarchical procedure, such as average linkage or Ward's. The number of clusters and cluster centroids so obtained are used as inputs to the optimizing partitioning method.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 612-614 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

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72) What suggested guidelines researchers can use when deciding on the number of clusters?

Answer: Although there are no hard and fast rules, some guidelines are available: ∙ Theoretical, conceptual, or practical considerations may suggest a certain number of clusters.

For example, if the purpose of clustering is to identify market segments, management may want a particular number of clusters. ∙ In hierarchical clustering, the distances at which clusters are combined can be used as criteria. ∙ In nonhierarchical clustering, the ratio of total within-group variance to between group variance can be plotted against the number of clusters. ∙ The relative sizes of the clusters should be meaningful.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 616 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.3 Explain the procedure for conducting cluster analysis, including formulating the problem, selecting a distance measure, selecting a clustering procedure, deciding on the number of clusters, and interpreting and profiling clusters.

73) Why should the clustering of variables be used?

Answer: Cluster analysis is also used for clustering variables to identify homogeneous groups.

Hierarchical clustering of variables can aid in the identification of unique variables, or variables that make a unique contribution to the data. Clustering can also be used to reduce the number of variables. Associated with each cluster is a linear combination of the variables in the cluster, called the cluster components. A large set of variables can often be replaced by the set of cluster components with little loss of information. However, a given number of cluster components does not generally explain as much variance as the same number of principal components. Why, then, should the clustering of variables be used? Cluster components are usually easier to interpret than the principal components even if the latter are rotated.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 624 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 20.5 Discuss the applications of nonhierarchical clustering and clustering of variables.

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Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 21 Multidimensional Scaling and Conjoint Analysis 1) The conjoint analysis procedure is based on trade-offs respondents make when evaluating alternatives.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 635 LO: 21.6 Discuss the basic concepts of conjoint analysis, contrast it with MDS, and discuss its various applications.

2) The number of brands or stimuli selected for use in MDS analysis and the specific brands included determines the nature of the resulting dimensions and configurations.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 636 LO: 21.1 Discuss the basic concept and scope of multidimensional scaling (MDS) in marketing research and describe its various applications.

3) Suppose a researcher is interested in obtaining consumer perceptions of automobiles, the choice of the number and specific brands or stimuli to be included in the MDS analysis should be based on the statement of the marketing research problem and theory only. The researcher should not bias the research by also using his judgment to determine what should be included in the analysis.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 636 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.1 Discuss the basic concept and scope of multidimensional scaling (MDS) in marketing research and describe its various applications.

4) Perception data may be direct or derived.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 636-638 LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

5) In direct approaches to gathering perception data, respondents are asked to make similarity judgments on pairs of various brands or stimuli.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 636-638 LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

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6) Direct approaches to collecting perception data are attribute-based approaches.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 636-638 LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

7) Derived approaches to collecting perception data require respondents to rate the brands or stimuli on the identified attributes using semantic differential scales or Likert scales.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 636-638 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

8) The direct approaches to collecting perception data are used more frequently than the attribute-based approaches.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 636-638 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

9) The fit of an MDS solution is commonly assessed by the stress measure. Stress is a goodnessof-fit measure; higher values of stress indicate better fits.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 635 LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

10) Preference data order the brands or stimuli in terms of respondents' preference for some property.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 636-638 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.3 Explain the multidimensional scaling of preference data and distinguish between internal and external analysis of preferences.

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11) The configuration derived from preference data is very similar to that obtained from similarity data.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 636-638 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.3 Explain the multidimensional scaling of preference data and distinguish between internal and external analysis of preferences.

12) Non-metric MDS procedures assume that the input data are ordinal, and they result in ordinal output.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 638-639 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

13) The metric MDS procedures assume that input data are metric and the output is also metric.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 638-639 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

14) The metric and non-metric MDS methods often produce vastly different results.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 638-639 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

15) Spatial maps are computed in such a way that the fit increases as the number of dimensions decreases.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 639 LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

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16) The objective in MDS is to obtain a spatial map that best fits the input data in the smallest number of dimensions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 639 LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

17) Gaps in the spatial map may indicate potential opportunities for introducing new products.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 640-641 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

18) Each dimension determined in MDS represents only one attribute.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 640-641 LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

19) MDS solutions are subject to substantial random variability.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 640-641 LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

20) Stress values indicate the proportion of variance of the optimally scaled data that is not accounted for by the MDS model.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 641 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

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21) For Kruskal's stress formula 1, a stress value of zero would indicate a poor fit of the MDS model to the data.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 641 LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

22) An assumption of MDS is that the similarity of stimulus A to B is the same as the similarity of stimulus B to A. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 642 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

23) Internal analysis of preferences allows both brands and respondents to be represented in the same spatial map.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 642-643 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.3 Explain the multidimensional scaling of preference data and distinguish between internal and external analysis of preferences.

24) In order to perform internal analysis of preferences, both preference and perception data must be obtained.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 642-643 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.3 Explain the multidimensional scaling of preference data and distinguish between internal and external analysis of preferences.

25) External analysis of preferences is preferred in most situations.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 642-643 LO: 21.3 Explain the multidimensional scaling of preference data and distinguish between internal and external analysis of preferences.

26) The interpretation of results in correspondence analysis is similar to that in principal components analysis.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 644 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.4 Explain correspondence analysis and discuss its advantages and disadvantages.

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27) Quantitative data can be mapped using correspondence analysis.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 644 LO: 21.4 Explain correspondence analysis and discuss its advantages and disadvantages.

28) Results in correspondence analysis are interpreted in terms of proximities among rows and columns.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 644 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.4 Explain correspondence analysis and discuss its advantages and disadvantages.

29) Correspondence analysis is an explanatory data analysis technique that is not suitable for hypothesis testing.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 644 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.4 Explain correspondence analysis and discuss its advantages and disadvantages.

30) Correspondence analysis requires more effort on the part of the respondent than other MDS techniques.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 644 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.4 Explain correspondence analysis and discuss its advantages and disadvantages.

31) Correspondence analysis data is binary or categorical.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 644 LO: 21.4 Explain correspondence analysis and discuss its advantages and disadvantages.

32) If the attribute-based approaches are used to obtain input data, spatial maps can also be obtained by using factor or discriminant analysis.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 645 LO: 21.5 Understand the relationship among MDS, discriminant analysis, and factor analysis.

33) To develop spatial maps by means of discriminant analysis, the independent variable is the brand rated and the dependent variables are the attribute ratings.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 645 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.5 Understand the relationship among MDS, discriminant analysis, and factor analysis.

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34) When conducting conjoint analysis, the attributes selected should be salient in influencing consumer preference and choice.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 645-646 LO: 21.6 Discuss the basic concepts of conjoint analysis, contrast it with MDS, and discuss its various applications.

35) When constructing conjoint analysis stimuli, it is necessary to evaluate all possible combinations of levels of the attributes.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 645-646 LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

36) The pair-wise approach to conducting conjoint analysis stimuli is more commonly used than the full-profile approach.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 647-648 LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

37) For nonmetric conjoint analysis input data, the respondents are typically required to provide rank order evaluations.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 647-648 LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

38) With the full-profile approach to constructing conjoint analysis stimuli, respondents rank all the stimulus profiles.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 647-648 LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

39) For metric conjoint analysis input data, the respondents provide ratings.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 647-648 LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

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40) In conjoint analysis, the dependent variable is usually preference or intention to buy.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 649 LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

41) In conjoint analysis, the importance of an attribute, Ii, is defined in terms of the range of the part-worths, αij, across the levels of that attribute Ii = {max(αij) - min(αij)}, for each i.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 649 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

42) In conjoint analysis, the attribute's importance is normalized to ascertain its importance relative to other attributes, Wi. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 649-650 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

43) For interpreting conjoint analysis, it is helpful to plot the part-worth functions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 652 LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

44) If individual-respondent level analysis has been conducted, the estimation sample can be split in several ways to assess the stability of conjoint analysis solutions.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 652-653 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

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45) Conjoint analysis assumes that the important attributes of a product can be identified.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 654-655 LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

46) Conjoint analysis assumes that consumers evaluate the choice alternatives in terms of the important attributes and make trade-offs.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 654-655 LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

47) The text reports on a research project which used MDS to plot the perceived ethics of marketing research firms using a broad-based moral equity dimension (factor 1) and a relativistic dimension (factor 2). Based on the research, internal marketing research departments are perceived to be the most ethical on both dimensions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 657 LO: 21.1 Discuss the basic concept and scope of multidimensional scaling (MDS) in marketing research and describe its various applications.

48) is a class of procedures for representing perceptions and preferences of respondents spatially by means of a visual display.

A) Conjoint analysis B) Regression analysis C) Hybrid conjoint analysis D) Multidimensional scaling (MDS) Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 635 LO: 21.1 Discuss the basic concept and scope of multidimensional scaling (MDS) in marketing research and describe its various applications.

49) The derivation and use of lie at the heart of multidimensional scaling.

A) perceptual maps B) pair-wise tables C) part-worth functions D) contrasts Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 635 LO: 21.1 Discuss the basic concept and scope of multidimensional scaling (MDS) in marketing research and describe its various applications.

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50) MDS could be used for all of the marketing applications below except A) Market segmentation: position brands and consumers in the same space and thus identify groups of consumers with relatively homogeneous perceptions.

B) Assessing advertising effectiveness-spatial maps can be used to determine whether advertising has been successful in achieving the desired brand positioning.

C) Consumer intention: how do consumer's intentions to buy the brand vary with different price levels?

D) Channel decisions: judgments on compatibility of brands with different retail outlets could lead to spatial maps useful for making channel decisions.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 635 LO: 21.1 Discuss the basic concept and scope of multidimensional scaling (MDS) in marketing research and describe its various applications.

51) is a lack of fit measure; higher values indicate poorer fits.

A) Attribute levels B) Stress C) R-square D) Relative importance weights Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 635 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

52) is a squared correlation index that indicates the proportion of variance of the optimally scaled data that can be accounted for by the MDS procedure. This is a goodness-of-fit measure.

A) Attribute levels B) Stress C) R-square D) Relative importance weights Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 635 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

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53) requires that the researcher specify the purpose for which the MDS results would be used and select the brands or other stimuli to be included in the analysis.

A) Formulating the problem B) Obtaining input data C) Selecting an MDS procedure D) Deciding on the number of dimensions Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 636 LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

54) In MDS, at minimum, brands or stimuli should be included so as to obtain a welldefined spatial map. Including more than brands is likely to be cumbersome and may result in respondent fatigue.

A) 6; 20 B) 6; 25 C) 8; 20 D) 8; 25 Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 636 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

55) In approaches to collecting perception data, the respondents are asked to use their own criteria to judge how similar or dissimilar the various brands or stimuli are.

A) direct B) preference C) derived D) Likert Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 636-638 LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

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56) In which approach to collecting perception data are respondents often required to rate all possible pairs of brands or stimuli in terms of similarity on a Likert scale?

A) direct B) preference C) derived D) indirect Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 636-638 LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

57) Which is a disadvantage of the direct approach to collecting perception data?

A) The criteria are influenced by the brands or stimuli being evaluated.

B) The researcher must identify all the salient attributes.

C) The spatial map obtained depends upon the attributes identified.

D) Both B and C are disadvantages.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 636-638 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

58) Which is a disadvantage of the derived approach to collecting perception data?

A) The criteria are influenced by the brands or stimuli being evaluated.

B) The researcher must identify all the salient attributes.

C) It may be difficult to determine before analysis if and how the individual respondents' judgments should be combined.

D) It may be difficult to label the dimensions of the spatial map.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 636-638 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

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59) Which is an advantage of the direct approach to collecting perception data?

A) It is easier to label the dimensions.

B) It is easy to identify respondents with homogeneous perceptions.

C) The researcher does not have to identify a set of salient attributes.

D) The respondents can be clustered based on the attribute ratings.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 636-638 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

60) Which is an advantage of the derived approach to collecting perception data?

A) Respondents make similarity judgments using their own criteria, as they would under normal circumstances.

B) It is easy to identify respondents with homogeneous perceptions.

C) The researcher does not have to identify a set of salient attributes.

D) Both A and C are advantages.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 636-638 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

61) data order the brands or stimuli in terms of respondents' preferences for some property.

A) Direct B) Preference C) Derived D) Likert Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 636-638 LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

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62) Which of the ways below is not a way in which preference data might be obtained?

A) asking respondents to rank brands from the most preferred to the least preferred B) asking respondents to rate all possible pairs of brands in terms of similarity on a Likert scale C) asking respondents to make paired comparisons and indicate which brand in a pair they prefer D) asking respondents for preference ratings for the various brands Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 638 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

63) Which of the following is not a factor influencing the MDS selection procedure?

A) whether some of the original values will be used in subsequent analysis B) whether perception or preference data are being scaled, or whether the analysis requires both kinds of data C) the nature of the input data D) whether the MDS analysis will be conducted at the individual respondent level or at an aggregate level Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 638-639 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

64) Which guideline for deciding on the number of MDS dimensions relies on theory or past research to suggest the number of dimensions?

A) a priori knowledge B) interpretability of the spatial map C) ease of use D) elbow criterion Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 639-640 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

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65) Which guideline for deciding on the number of MDS dimensions warns that it is difficult to interpret configurations or maps derived in more than three dimensions?

A) a priori knowledge B) interpretability of the spatial map C) ease of use D) elbow criterion Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 639-640 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

66) Which guideline for deciding on the number of MDS dimensions suggests plotting stress versus dimensionality?

A) a priori knowledge B) interpretability of the spatial map C) ease of use D) elbow criterion Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 639-640 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

67) Which guideline for deciding on the number of MDS dimensions suggests it is easier to work with two-dimensional maps or configurations than with those involving more dimensions?

A) a priori knowledge B) interpretability of the spatial map C) ease of use D) elbow criterion Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 639-640 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

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68) Various ways to label dimensions obtained in MDS were mentioned in the text. Which of the ways below was not mentioned in your text?

A) Axes may be labeled for the attributes with which they are most closely aligned.

B) label based on the criteria respondents used in making their evaluations C) Respondents can be shown their maps and asked to label the dimensions by inspecting the configurations.

D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 640-641 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

69) Which of the following is a way to interpret the configuration or spatial map?

A) examine dimension centroids B) profile dimensions in terms of variables that were not used in the MDS procedure C) examine variables that load high on a factor D) examine the coordinates and relative positions of the brands Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 640-641 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

70) Values of .60 or better are considered acceptable values of , the index of fit.

A) attribute levels B) stress C) R-square D) relative importance weights Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 641 LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

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71) Which of the Kruskal's stress formula 1 values below represent a perfect fit of the MDS model?

A) 1.00 B) 0.90 C) 0.10 D) 0 Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 641 LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

72) Which of the following is not a way to assess reliability and validity of the MDS solution?

A) Collect input data at two different points in time and then determine test-retest reliability.

B) Selectively eliminate stimuli from the input data and then determine the solution from the remaining stimuli.

C) Add a random error term to the input data, subject the resulting data to MDS analysis, and compare the solutions.

D) All of the above are ways to assess reliability and validity.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 641 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

73) In MDS, when a spatial map is obtained, it is assumed that interpoint distances are scaled and that the axes of the map are multidimensional scaled.

A) interval; interval B) ratio; interval C) ordinal; interval D) interval; ratio Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 641 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

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74) is a method of configuring a spatial map such that the spatial map represents both brands or stimuli and respondent points or vectors and is derived solely from the preference data.

A) Metric analysis of preferences B) Correspondence analysis C) Internal analysis of preferences D) External analysis of preferences Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 642-643 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.3 Explain the multidimensional scaling of preference data and distinguish between internal and external analysis of preferences.

75) is a method of configuring a spatial map, such that the ideal points or vectors based on preference data are fitted in a spatial map derived from perception data.

A) Metric analysis of preferences B) Correspondence analysis C) Internal analysis of preferences D) External analysis of preferences Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 642-643 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.3 Explain the multidimensional scaling of preference data and distinguish between internal and external analysis of preferences.

76) is an MDS technique for scaling qualitative data that scales the rows and columns of the input contingency table in corresponding units so that each can be displayed in the same low-dimensional space.

A) Metric analysis of preferences B) Correspondence analysis C) Internal analysis of preferences D) External analysis of preferences Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 644 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.4 Explain correspondence analysis and discuss its advantages and disadvantages.

77) Which statement is true about correspondence analysis?

A) The interpretation of results is similar to that in chi-square analysis.

B) An advantage over other MDS techniques is that it reduces the data collection demands put on the respondents because only interval or ratio data are obtained.

C) A disadvantage is that between-set distances cannot be meaningfully interpreted.

D) All of the statements are true.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 644 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.4 Explain correspondence analysis and discuss its advantages and disadvantages.

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78) Which statement is true about using factor analysis to create spatial maps?

A) By factor analyzing the data obtained using attribute-based approaches, one could derive, for each respondent, n factor scores for each factor, one for each brand.

B) The dimensions would be labeled by examining the eigenvalues.

C) Discriminant weights can be used to label the dimensions.

D) Both A and B are correct.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 645 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.5 Understand the relationship among MDS, discriminant analysis, and factor analysis.

79) Which statement is true about using discriminant analysis to create spatial maps?

A) Spatial maps are obtained by plotting brand scores on the factors.

B) Input data should be obtained via attribute-based approaches to obtaining perception data.

C) Factor weights can be used to label the dimensions.

D) Both A and C are true.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 645 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.5 Understand the relationship among MDS, discriminant analysis, and factor analysis.

80) is a technique that attempts to determine the relative importance consumers attach to salient attributes and the utilities they attach to the levels of attributes.

A) Internal analysis of preferences B) External analysis of preferences C) Conjoint analysis D) Correspondence analysis Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 645 LO: 21.6 Discuss the basic concepts of conjoint analysis, contrast it with MDS, and discuss its various applications.

81) Which of the following statements is not true concerning conjoint analysis?

A) The underlying assumption is that any set of stimuli, such as products, brands, or stores, is evaluated as a bundle of attributes.

B) Unlike multidimensional scaling, conjoint analysis relies on respondent's objective evaluations.

C) Conjoint analysis seeks to develop the part-worth or utility functions describing the utility consumers attach to the levels of each attribute.

D) Conjoint analysis attempts to determine the relative importance consumers attach to salient attributes and the utilities they attach to the levels of attributes.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 645-646 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.6 Discuss the basic concepts of conjoint analysis, contrast it with MDS, and discuss its various applications.

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82) Conjoint analysis could be used for all of the marketing applications below except .

A) determining the relative importance of attributes in the consumer choice process B) estimating market share of brands that differ in attribute levels C) used as a general data reduction tool D) determining the composition of the most preferred brand Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 645-646 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.6 Discuss the basic concepts of conjoint analysis, contrast it with MDS, and discuss its various applications.

83) In conjoint analysis, are utility functions that describe the utility consumers attach to the levels of each attribute.

A) relative importance weights B) orthogonal arrays C) part-worth functions D) attribute levels Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 645-646 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

84) In conjoint analysis, indicate which attributes are important in influencing consumer choice.

A) relative importance weights B) orthogonal arrays C) part-worth functions D) attribute levels Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 645-646 LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

85) In conjoint analysis, are the values assumed by the attributes.

A) relative importance weights B) orthogonal arrays C) part-worth functions D) attribute levels Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 645-646 LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

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86) In conjoint analysis, are a special class of fractional designs that enable the efficient estimation of all main effects.

A) relative importance weights B) orthogonal arrays C) part-worth functions D) attribute levels Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 645-646 LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

87) When conducting conjoint analysis in , the researcher must identify the attributes and attribute levels to be used in constructing stimuli.

A) formulating the problem B) constructing the stimuli C) deciding on the form of input data D) selecting a conjoint analysis procedure Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 645-646 LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

88) Which statement is not true about formulating the conjoint analysis problem?

A) Attributes selected should be salient in influencing consumer preference and choice.

B) Once the salient attributes have been identified, their appropriate level should be selected.

C) The set of variables selected should describe the similarity between objects in terms that are relevant to the marketing research problem.

D) The researcher should take into account the attribute levels prevalent in the marketplace and the objectives of the study.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 646-647 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

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89) In (the) for constructing conjoint analysis stimuli, respondents evaluate two attributes at a time until all the possible pairs of attributes have been evaluated.

A) full-profile approach B) pair-wise approach C) two-factor evaluations D) both B and C Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 647-648 LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

90) When constructing conjoint analysis, full or complete profiles of brands are constructed for all the attributes in (the) .

A) full-profile approach B) pair-wise approach C) two-factor evaluations D) both B and C Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 647-648 LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

91) Which statement is true about the full-profile approach to constructing conjoint analysis stimuli?

A) It is possible to reduce the number of paired comparisons by using cyclical designs.

B) The number of stimulus profiles can be greatly reduced by means of fractional factorial designs.

C) The advantage of pair-wise is that it is easier for the respondents to provide judgments on the paired comparisons.

D) The disadvantage of pair-wise is that it requires more evaluations than the full-profile approach.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 647-648 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

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92) If you are determining if you should have respondents rank or rate nonmetric or metric data, you are at which step of conducting conjoint analysis?

A) Construct the stimuli.

B) Decide on the form of input data.

C) Select a conjoint analysis procedure.

D) Assess reliability and validity.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 649 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

93) The basic conjoint analysis model expressing the fundamental relationship between attributes and utility in conjoint analysis is shown below: U(X) = What does αij represent?

A) 1 if the jth level of the ith attribute is present, or 0 otherwise.

B) the part-worth contribution or utility associated with jth level (j, j=1, 2, ...ki) of the ith attribute (i, i=1, 2,...m) C) number of attributes D) number of levels of attribute i Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 649 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

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94) The basic conjoint analysis model expressing the fundamental relationship between attributes and utility in conjoint analysis is shown below: U(X) = What does Xij represent?

A) 1 if the jth level of the ith attribute is present, or 0 otherwise B) the part-worth contribution or utility associated with jth level (j, j=1, 2, ...ki) of the ith attribute (i, i=1, 2, ...m) C) number of attributes D) number of levels of attribute i Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 649 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

95) The basic conjoint analysis model expressing the fundamental relationship between attributes and utility in conjoint analysis is shown below: U(X) = What does ki represent?

A) 1 if the jth level of the ith attribute is present, or 0 otherwise B) the part-worth contribution or utility associated with jth level (j, j=1, 2, ...ki) of the ith attribute (i, i=1, 2, ...m) C) number of attributes D) number of levels of attribute i Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 649 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

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96) The basic conjoint analysis model expressing the fundamental relationship between attributes and utility in conjoint analysis is shown below: U(X) = What does m represent?

A) 1 if the jth level of the ith attribute is present, or 0 otherwise B) the part-worth contribution or utility associated with jth level (j, j=1, 2, ...ki) of the ith attribute (i, i=1, 2, ...m) C) number of attributes D) number of levels of attribute i Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 649 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

97) Decisions related to selecting the conjoint analysis procedure include all of the following except .

A) whether perception or preference data are being scaled B) whether to average the data at the individual-respondent level or the aggregate level C) which grouping procedure to use D) which model for estimating parameters should be specified Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 650 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

98) Which of the following is not one of the procedures for assessing the reliability and validity of conjoint analysis results?

A) The goodness of fit of the estimated model (R2) should be evaluated.

B) Stress values or badness of fit measures should be evaluated. Stress values vary with the type of conjoint analysis procedure and the data being analyzed.

C) Test-retest reliability can be assessed by obtaining a few replicated judgments and correlating them.

D) Internal validity can be determined by correlating predicted evaluations with those obtained from the respondents.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 652-653 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

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99) is a form of conjoint analysis that can simplify the data collection task and estimate selected interactions as well as all main effects.

A) Conjoint analysis B) Correspondence analysis C) Hybrid conjoint analysis D) Multidimensional scaling (MDS) Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 655 LO: 21.8 Define the concept of hybrid conjoint analysis and explain how it simplifies the data collection task.

100) is a computer program developed for conducting MDS. A) MONANOVA B) PREFMAP C) LINMAP D) SIMGRAF Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 658 AACSB: Information technology LO: 21.9 Explain the role of software in conducting multidimensional scaling and conjoint analysis using SPSS and SAS. 101) is a computer program developed for conducting conjoint analysis.

A) MONANOVA B) PREFMAP C) APM D) Both B and C Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 658 AACSB: Information technology LO: 21.9 Explain the role of software in conducting multidimensional scaling and conjoint analysis using SPSS and SAS. 102) What are the steps involved in conducting multidimensional scaling?

Answer: ∙ formulate the problem ∙ obtain input data ∙ select an MDS procedure ∙ decide on the number of dimensions ∙ label the dimensions and interpret the configuration ∙ assess reliability and validity Diff: 2 Page Ref: 636 LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

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103) What are the advantages and disadvantages of the direct and derived approaches to obtaining perception data for multidimensional scaling?

Answer: Direct approaches have the advantage that the researcher does not have to identify a set of salient attributes. Respondents make similarity judgments using their own criteria, as they would under normal circumstances. The disadvantages are that the criteria are influenced by the brands or stimuli being evaluated. If the various brands of automobiles being evaluated are in the same price range, then price will not emerge as an important factor. It may be difficult to determine before analysis if and how the individual respondents' judgments should be combined.

Furthermore, it may be difficult to label the dimensions of the spatial map. The advantage of the attribute-based approach is that it is easy to identify respondents with homogeneous perceptions.

The respondents can be clustered based on the attribute ratings. It is also easier to label the dimensions. A disadvantage is that the researcher must identify all the salient attributes, a difficult task. The spatial map obtained depends upon the attributes identified.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 636-638 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

104) Which approach is best to use to obtain perception data, the direct approach or the derived approach?

Answer: The direct approaches are more frequently used than the attribute-based approaches.

However, it may be best to use both these approaches in a complementary way. Direct similarity judgments may be used for obtaining the spatial map, and attribute ratings may be used as an aid to interpreting the dimensions of the perceptual map.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 636-638 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.2 Describe the steps involved in multidimensional scaling of perception data, including formulating the problem, obtaining input data, selecting an MDS procedure, deciding on the number of dimensions, labeling the dimensions and interpreting the configuration, and assessing reliability and validity.

105) What are the disadvantages of internal analysis of preferences?

Answer: In internal analysis, the differences in perceptions are confounded with differences in preferences. It is possible that the nature and relative importance of dimensions may vary between the perceptual space and the preference space. Two brands may be perceived to be similar (located close to each other in the perceptual space) yet, one brand may be distinctly preferred over the other (i.e., the brands may be located apart in the preference space). These situations cannot be accounted for in internal analysis. In addition, internal analysis procedures are beset with computational difficulties.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 642-643 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.3 Explain the multidimensional scaling of preference data and distinguish between internal and external analysis of preferences.

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106) Contrast conjoint analysis with MDS. Answer: Like multidimensional scaling, conjoint analysis relies on respondents' subjective evaluations. However, in MDS, the stimuli are products or brands. In conjoint analysis, the stimuli are combinations of attribute levels determined by the researcher. The goal in MDS is to develop a spatial map depicting the stimuli in a multidimensional perceptual or preference space.

Conjoint analysis, on the other hand, seeks to develop the part-worth or utility functions describing the utility consumers attach to the levels of each attribute. The two techniques are complementary.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 645 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.6 Discuss the basic concepts of conjoint analysis, contrast it with MDS, and discuss its various applications.

107) List the steps in conjoint analysis.

Answer: Formulate the problem.

Construct the stimuli.

Decide on the form of input data.

Select a conjoint analysis procedure.

Interpret the results.

Assess reliability and validity.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 646 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

108) What are the limitations of conjoint analysis?

Answer: In situations where image or brand name is important, consumers may not evaluate the brands or alternatives in terms of attributes. Even if consumers consider product attributes, the trade-off model may not be a good representation of the choice process. Another limitation is that data collection may be complex, particularly if a large number of attributes are involved and the model must be estimated at the individual level.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 654-655 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.7 Describe the procedure for conducting conjoint analysis, including formulating the problem, constructing the stimuli, deciding the form of input data, selecting a conjoint analysis procedure, interpreting the results, and assessing reliability and validity.

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109) Define and describe hybrid conjoint analysis.

Answer: Hybrid conjoint analysis is an attempt to simplify the burdensome data-collection task required in traditional conjoint analysis. Each respondent evaluates a large number of profiles, yet usually only simple part-worths, without any interaction effects, are estimated. In the simple part-worths or main effects model, the value of a combination is simply the sum of the separate main effects (simple part-worths). In actual practice, two attributes may interact, in the sense that the respondent may value the combination more than the average contribution of the separate parts.

In the hybrid approach, the respondents evaluate a limited number generally no more than nine, of conjoint stimuli, such as full profiles. These profiles are drawn from a large master design, and different respondents evaluate different sets of profiles, so that over a group of respondents, all the profiles of interest are evaluated. In addition, respondents directly evaluate the relative importance of each attribute and desirability of the levels of each attribute. By combining the direct evaluations with those derived from the evaluations of the conjoint stimuli, it is possible to estimate a model at the aggregate level and still retain some individual differences.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 655 LO: 21.8 Define the concept of hybrid conjoint analysis and explain how it simplifies the data collection task.

110) What are the two main purposes for which hybrid conjoint analysis models were developed?

Answer: Hybrid models have been developed to serve two main purposes: (1) simplify the datacollection task by imposing less of a burden on each respondent, and (2) permit the estimation of selected interactions (at the subgroup level) as well as all main (or simple) effects at the individual level.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 655 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.8 Define the concept of hybrid conjoint analysis and explain how it simplifies the data collection task.

111) How does hybrid conjoint analysis simplify the data collection task?

Answer: In the hybrid approach, the respondents evaluate a limited number, generally no more than nine, conjoint stimuli, such as full profiles. These profiles are drawn from a large master design, and different respondents evaluate different sets of profiles, so that over a group of respondents, all the profiles of interest are evaluated. In addition, respondents directly evaluate the relative importance of each attribute and desirability of the levels of each attribute.

Combining the direct evaluations with those derived from the evaluations of the conjoint stimuli, it is possible to estimate a model at the aggregate level and still retain some individual differences.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 655 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 21.8 Define the concept of hybrid conjoint analysis and explain how it simplifies the data collection task.

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Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 22 Structural Equation Modeling and Path Analysis 1) SEM is a procedure for estimating a series of dependence relationships among a set of concepts or constructs represented by multiple measured variables and incorporated in to an integrated model.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 665 LO: 22.1 Define the nature and unique characteristics of structural equation modeling (SEM).

2) A construct is an unobservable or latent variable that can be defined in conceptual terms that can be measured directly.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 666-668 LO: 22.1 Define the nature and unique characteristics of structural equation modeling (SEM).

3) SEM is distinguished by the explaining of the covariance among the measured items or observed variables.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 666-668 LO: 22.1 Define the nature and unique characteristics of structural equation modeling (SEM).

4) Generally, we use SEM to find a suitable model.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 666-668 LO: 22.1 Define the nature and unique characteristics of structural equation modeling (SEM).

5) Measured variables or indicators are the actual items that are measured using a survey questionnaire.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 666-668 LO: 22.2 Explain the basic concepts in SEM such as theory, model, path diagram, exogenous versus endogenous constructs, dependence and correlational relationships, model fit, and model identification.

6) Constructs are the actual items that are measured using a survey questionnaire.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 666-668 LO: 22.2 Explain the basic concepts in SEM such as theory, model, path diagram, exogenous versus endogenous constructs, dependence and correlational relationships, model fit, and model identification.

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7) SEM analysis is based on raw data, rather than a correlation or covariance.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 666-668 LO: 22.2 Explain the basic concepts in SEM such as theory, model, path diagram, exogenous versus endogenous constructs, dependence and correlational relationships, model fit, and model identification.

8) Dependence relationships are represented with one-headed straight arrows in a path model.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 668-670 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.2 Explain the basic concepts in SEM such as theory, model, path diagram, exogenous versus endogenous constructs, dependence and correlational relationships, model fit, and model identification.

9) Dependence relationships are represented with two-headed curved arrows in a path model.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 668-670 LO: 22.2 Explain the basic concepts in SEM such as theory, model, path diagram, exogenous versus endogenous constructs, dependence and correlational relationships, model fit, and model identification.

10) An exogenous construct is represented in an structural path model as a box with one-headed arrows going into it.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 668-670 LO: 22.2 Explain the basic concepts in SEM such as theory, model, path diagram, exogenous versus endogenous constructs, dependence and correlational relationships, model fit, and model identification.

11) An exogenous construct is represented in an structural path model as a an oval with no oneheaded arrows going into it.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 668-670 LO: 22.2 Explain the basic concepts in SEM such as theory, model, path diagram, exogenous versus endogenous constructs, dependence and correlational relationships, model fit, and model identification.

12) It is recommended that each construct be measured by using at least three observed variables.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 671 LO: 22.2 Explain the basic concepts in SEM such as theory, model, path diagram, exogenous versus endogenous constructs, dependence and correlational relationships, model fit, and model identification.

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13) The confirmatory factor analysis is used to verify the factor structure of a set of observed variables.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 671-672 LO: 22.3 Discuss the basic statistics associated with SEM. 14) Having at least three observed variables for each latent construct is a way to help make sure that the model is identified.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 671-672 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.3 Discuss the basic statistics associated with SEM. 15) When two constructs are theoretically unrelated to each other, the path between those two constructs should be "free."

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 671-672 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.5 Know how to specify a measurement model and assess its validity.

16) When two constructs are theoretically unrelated to each other, the path between those two constructs should be "fixed."

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 671-672 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.5 Know how to specify a measurement model and assess its validity.

17) When two constructs are theoretically unrelated to each other, the path between those two constructs should be assigned a value of 1.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 671-672 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.5 Know how to specify a measurement model and assess its validity.

18) SEM models are estimated so as to maximize the likelihood function.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 672-673 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.5 Know how to specify a measurement model and assess its validity.

19) SEM models are estimated so as to minimize the difference between the observed and estimated covariance matrices.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 672-673 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.5 Know how to specify a measurement model and assess its validity.

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20) SEM models are estimated so as to minimize the sum of squares between constructs.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 673-675 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.5 Know how to specify a measurement model and assess its validity.

21) The impact of the average error variance of indicators can be understood in terms of communality.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 673-675 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.5 Know how to specify a measurement model and assess its validity.

22) GFI of .95 or higher is a way to help make sure that the model is identified.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 673-675 LO: 22.6 Explain the concept of model fit and the differences among absolute, incremental, and parsimony fit indices.

23) CFI is an absolute fit index.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 673-675 LO: 22.6 Explain the concept of model fit and the differences among absolute, incremental, and parsimony fit indices.

24) RMSR is an absolute fit index.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 673-675 LO: 22.6 Explain the concept of model fit and the differences among absolute, incremental, and parsimony fit indices.

25) TLI is an absolute fit index.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 673-675 LO: 22.6 Explain the concept of model fit and the differences among absolute, incremental, and parsimony fit indices.

26) NFI is an incremental fit index.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 673-675 LO: 22.6 Explain the concept of model fit and the differences among absolute, incremental, and parsimony fit indices.

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27) CFI is an incremental fit index.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 673-675 LO: 22.6 Explain the concept of model fit and the differences among absolute, incremental, and parsimony fit indices.

28) RMSEA is an incremental fit index.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 673-675 LO: 22.6 Explain the concept of model fit and the differences among absolute, incremental, and parsimony fit indices.

29) RNI is a parsimony fit index.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 673-675 LO: 22.6 Explain the concept of model fit and the differences among absolute, incremental, and parsimony fit indices.

30) TFI is a fit measure used in SEM Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 673-675 LO: 22.6 Explain the concept of model fit and the differences among absolute, incremental, and parsimony fit indices.

31) A 0.04 value for RMSEA is considered conservative.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 673-675 LO: 22.6 Explain the concept of model fit and the differences among absolute, incremental, and parsimony fit indices.

32) A 0.07 value for RMSEA is considered conservative.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 673-675 LO: 22.6 Explain the concept of model fit and the differences among absolute, incremental, and parsimony fit indices.

33) A 0.90 value for RMSEA is considered conservative.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 673-675 LO: 22.6 Explain the concept of model fit and the differences among absolute, incremental, and parsimony fit indices.

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34) The baseline model that is commonly used is the null model that is based on the assumption that the observed variables are uncorrelated.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 675-676 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.6 Explain the concept of model fit and the differences among absolute, incremental, and parsimony fit indices.

35) Construct validity is established when the measured items are conceptually consistent with a construct definition.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 675-676 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.5 Know how to specify a measurement model and assess its validity.

36) Convergent validity is established when the measured items are conceptually consistent with a construct definition.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 675-676 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.5 Know how to specify a measurement model and assess its validity.

37) In moving from the measurement model to the structural model the error terms are correlated with each other.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 677-678 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.4 Describe the process of conducting SEM and explain the various steps involved.

38) In moving from the measurement model to the structural model the emphasis shifts from the relationships between latent constructs and measured variables to the nature and magnitude of the relationships between constructs.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 677-678 LO: 22.4 Describe the process of conducting SEM and explain the various steps involved.

39) In moving from the measurement model to the structural model the exogenous constructs each become endogenous.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 677-678 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.4 Describe the process of conducting SEM and explain the various steps involved.

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40) In moving from the measurement model to the structural model the endogenous constructs become exogenous.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 677-678 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.4 Describe the process of conducting SEM and explain the various steps involved.

41) Once the validity of the measurement model has been established, you can proceed with the specification of structural model.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 677-678 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.7 Describe how to specify a structural model and assess its validity.

42) A proposed structural model involves four constructs, two of which are exogenous. X1 and X2 together cause Y1, which in turn causes Y2. This model is recursive.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 677-678 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.3 Discuss the basic statistics associated with SEM. 43) A proposed structural model involves three constructs, one of which are exogenous. X1 causes Y1, which in turn causes Y2. This model is nonrecursive.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 677-678 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.7 Describe how to specify a structural model and assess its validity.

44) A sample size of 1000 is used to test a structural model of advertising effectiveness for the Coca-Cola company. The results show that a significant relationship exists between advertising effectiveness and sales. The estimated value of the standardized path estimate is .035. The Coca-Cola management dismisses the finding because the relationship is trivial.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 679-680 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.7 Describe how to specify a structural model and assess its validity.

45) Δχ2 statistic is most useful for comparing nested models.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 679 LO: 22.7 Describe how to specify a structural model and assess its validity.

46) RMSR statistic is most useful for comparing nested models.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 679 LO: 22.7 Describe how to specify a structural model and assess its validity.

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47) PNFI statistic is most useful for comparing nested models.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 679 LO: 22.7 Describe how to specify a structural model and assess its validity.

48) The specification of which variables load on which factors is a difference contrasting EFA with CFA. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 681-682 LO: 22.8 Discuss the relationship of SEM to other multivariate techniques.

49) The size of the loading estimates considered significant is a difference contrasting EFA with CFA. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 681-682 LO: 22.8 Discuss the relationship of SEM to other multivariate techniques.

50) SEM can be thought of as a combination of MANOVA and ANOVA. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 681-682 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 22.8 Discuss the relationship of SEM to other multivariate techniques.

51) SEM can be thought of as a combination of MANOVA and Exploratory factor analysis.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 681-682 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 22.8 Discuss the relationship of SEM to other multivariate techniques.

52) SEM can be thought of as a combination of Factor analysis and multiple regression analysis.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 681-682 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 22.8 Discuss the relationship of SEM to other multivariate techniques.

53) SEM can be thought of as a combination of MANOVA and multiple regression analysis.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 681-682 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 22.8 Discuss the relationship of SEM to other multivariate techniques.

54) SEM can be thought of as a combination of Discriminant analysis and cluster analysis.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 681-682 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 22.8 Discuss the relationship of SEM to other multivariate techniques.

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55) In SEM, the posited relationships between constructs are tested similarly to the way they are tested using cluster analysis.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 681-682 LO: 22.8 Discuss the relationship of SEM to other multivariate techniques.

56) Path analysis can be viewed as a special case of SEM. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 690 LO: 22.9 Explain path analysis and discuss its relationship to SEM. 57) Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of SEM? A) The estimation of multiple and interrelated dependence relationships simultaneously in a single analysis.

B) The explaining of the covariance among the measured items or observed variables.

C) The ability to discriminate multiple groups in a single analysis.

D) A and B E) A, B, and C Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 666 LO: 22.1 Define the nature and unique characteristics of structural equation modeling (SEM).

58) Which of the following is true about Structural Equation Modeling?

A) In SEM, the constructs are unobservable or latent factors that are representative by multiple variables.

B) SEM explicitly takes into account the measurement error.

C) SEM is mainly used as an exploratory technique.

D) A and B are true.

E) A, B, and C are true.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 666-668 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 22.1 Define the nature and unique characteristics of structural equation modeling (SEM).

59) SEM has the following characteristics: A) representation of constructs as unobservable or latent factors in dependence relationships.

B) estimation of multiple and interrelated dependence relationships incorporated in an integrated model.

C) incorporation of measurement error in an explicit manner.

D) explanation of covariance among the observed variables.

E) All of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 666-668 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 22.1 Define the nature and unique characteristics of structural equation modeling (SEM).

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60) are the actual items that are measured using a survey questionnaire.

A) Constructs B) Measured variables or indicators C) Latent factors D) Observed factors E) Estimated Parameter Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 666 LO: 22.2 Explain the basic concepts in SEM such as theory, model, path diagram, exogenous versus endogenous constructs, dependence and correlational relationships, model fit, and model identification.

61) Which of the following are true regarding exogenous constructs?

A) An exogenous construct is the latent, multi-item equivalent of an independent variable in traditional multivariate analysis.

B) An exogenous construct is determined by factors outside of the model.

C) Graphically, an exogenous construct does not have any paths coming to it.

D) A and C are correct.

E) A, B, and C are correct.

Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 667-668 LO: 22.2 Explain the basic concepts in SEM such as theory, model, path diagram, exogenous versus endogenous constructs, dependence and correlational relationships, model fit, and model identification.

62) Which of the following are true regarding SEM models?

A) A SEM model consists of two models: the measurement model and the structural model.

B) The measurement model depicts how the observed variable represent constructs.

C) The observed variables are measured by researcher.

D) A structural model shows how the constructs are interrelated to each other, often with multiple dependence relationships.

E) All of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 666-668 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 22.2 Explain the basic concepts in SEM such as theory, model, path diagram, exogenous versus endogenous constructs, dependence and correlational relationships, model fit, and model identification.

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63) Dependence relationships are represented with in a path model.

A) two-headed straight arrows B) two-headed curved arrows C) ovals D) boxes E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 668-670 LO: 22.2 Explain the basic concepts in SEM such as theory, model, path diagram, exogenous versus endogenous constructs, dependence and correlational relationships, model fit, and model identification.

64) How is an exogenous construct represented in an structural path model?

A) It is represented by a box with one-headed arrows going into it.

B) It is represented by a box with one-headed arrows going into it and two headed arrows.

C) It is represented by an oval with no arrows.

D) The construct is represented by an oval with no one-headed arrows going into it.

E) None of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 668-670 LO: 22.2 Explain the basic concepts in SEM such as theory, model, path diagram, exogenous versus endogenous constructs, dependence and correlational relationships, model fit, and model identification.

65) Which is a way to help make sure that the model is identified?

A) have at least three observed variables for each latent construct B) have all formative indicators C) a GFI of .95 or higher D) a large sample size E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 670-671 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.2 Explain the basic concepts in SEM such as theory, model, path diagram, exogenous versus endogenous constructs, dependence and correlational relationships, model fit, and model identification.

66) Which of the following steps are involved in conducting SEM? A) Define the individual constructs.

B) Specify the measurement model.

C) Assess measurement model reliability and validity.

D) Specify the structural model if the measurement model is valid.

E) All of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 671 LO: 22.4 Describe the process of conducting SEM and explain the various steps involved.

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67) When two constructs are theoretically unrelated to each other, the path between those two constructs should be .

A) free B) fixed C) assigned a value of 1 D) estimated E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 671-672 LO: 22.5 Know how to specify a measurement model and assess its validity.

68) SEM models are estimated so as to .

A) maximize the likelihood function.

B) minimize the difference between the observed and estimated covariance matrices.

C) minimize the sum of squares between constructs.

D) minimize the least squared difference.

E) both A and C Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 672-673 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.5 Know how to specify a measurement model and assess its validity.

69) is established when the measured items are conceptually consistent with a construct definition.

A) Nomological validity B) Composite reliability C) Convergent validity D) Discriminant validity E) None of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 675-676 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.5 Know how to specify a measurement model and assess its validity.

70) The validity of the measurement model depends on .

A) goodness-of-fit results B) composite reliability C) convergent validity D) discriminant validity E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 675-676 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.5 Know how to specify a measurement model and assess its validity.

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71) The diagnostic cues that can be used to make appropriate modifications include A) the path estimates or loadings B) standardized residual C) modification indices D) specification search E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 677 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.5 Know how to specify a measurement model and assess its validity.

.

72) In moving from the measurement model to the structural model .

A) the error terms are correlated with each other B) the emphasis shifts from the relationships between latent constructs and measured variables to the nature and magnitude of the relationships between constructs C) the exogenous constructs each become endogenous D) the endogenous constructs become exogenous E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 677 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.5 Know how to specify a measurement model and assess its validity.

73) Which is not an absolute fit index?

A) CFI B) SRMR C) NFI D) Chi-square E) A and C Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 673-675 LO: 22.6 Explain the concept of model fit and the differences among absolute, incremental, and parsimony fit indices.

74) Which is not an incremental fit index?

A) GFI B) NFI C) CFI D) RMSR E) A and D Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 673-675 LO: 22.6 Explain the concept of model fit and the differences among absolute, incremental, and parsimony fit indices.

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75) Which of the following is not a fit measure?

A) RMSR B) SRMR C) GFI D) TFI E) CFI Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 673-775 LO: 22.6 Explain the concept of model fit and the differences among absolute, incremental, and parsimony fit indices.

76) Which statistic is most useful for comparing nested models?

A) Δχ2 B) AGFI C) RMSR D) NNFI E) PNFI Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 673-675 LO: 22.6 Explain the concept of model fit and the differences among absolute, incremental, and parsimony fit indices.

77) Which of the following value(s) for RMSEA are considered conservative?

A) 0.04 B) 0.06 C) 0.90 D) 0.99 E) A and B Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 673-675 LO: 22.6 Explain the concept of model fit and the differences among absolute, incremental, and parsimony fit indices.

78) Model fit includes the following steps: .

A) Produce correlations or covariances among the items B) Estimate the covariance matrix between the observed variables based on the proposed measurement and structural models C) Model fit is determined by comparing how closely the estimated covariance matrix matches the observed covariance matrix D) Examine the residuals E) All of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 675-676 LO: 22.6 Explain the concept of model fit and the differences among absolute, incremental, and parsimony fit indices.

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79) In a tests of a structural model, the path between store preference and store patronage has a coefficient of 0.85. What does this provide evidence of?

A) time order of occurrence B) nonspurious association C) absence of other casual factors D) the hypothesis that preference causes store patronage is supported E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 677-679 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.7 Describe how to specify a structural model and assess its validity.

80) A proposed structural model involves four constructs, two of which are exogenous. X1 and X2 together cause Y1, which in turn causes Y2. What term describes this model?

A) descriptive B) empirical C) nonrecursive D) recursive E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 677-679 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.7 Describe how to specify a structural model and assess its validity.

81) A sample size of 1000 is used to test a structural model of advertising effectiveness for the Coca-Cola company. The results show that a significant relationship exists between advertising effectiveness and sales. The estimated value of the standardized path estimate is .035. The CocaCola management dismisses the finding. Why? A) The sample size is probably too small.

B) The sample size is probably too large.

C) The relationship is trivial.

D) The model fit is poor.

E) None of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 677-679 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.7 Describe how to specify a structural model and assess its validity.

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82) SEM can be thought of as a combination of which two techniques?

A) MANOVA and ANOVA B) MANOVA and Exploratory factor analysis C) Factor analysis and multiple regression analysis D) MANOVA and multiple regression analysis E) Discriminant analysis and cluster analysis Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 681-682 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 22.8 Discuss the relationship of SEM to other multivariate techniques.

83) In SEM, the posited relationships between constructs are tested similarly to the way they are tested using .

A) multiple regression B) analysis of Covariance C) discriminant analysis D) cluster analysis E) MDS Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 681-682 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 22.8 Discuss the relationship of SEM to other multivariate techniques.

84) Which of the following is a difference contrasting EFA with CFA? A) the specification of which variables load on which factors B) one technique is exploratory and the other is confirmatory C) the size of the loading estimates considered significant D) A and B E) A, B, and C Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 681-682 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 22.8 Discuss the relationship of SEM to other multivariate techniques.

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85) Which of the following is true about the relationship of SEM to multiple regression techniques?

A) SEM is similar to multiple regression when exogenous constructs are used to predict endogenous constructs.

B) It is different from multiple regression because the dependent construct in one relationship may become the independent construct.

C) It is different from multiple regression because the all of the equation are estimated simultaneously.

D) A and C are correct.

E) A, B and C are correct.

Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 681-682 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 22.8 Discuss the relationship of SEM to other multivariate techniques.

86) Which of the following is true about the relationship of SEM to factor analysis?

A) The measurement model in SEM is similar to factor analysis in that both techniques have variables with loadings on factors.

B) Concepts such as correlations and covariances are common to both the techniques.

C) SEM, we have to specify which variables are associated with each construct based on theory.

D) A and C are correct.

E) A, B and C are correct.

Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 681-682 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 22.8 Discuss the relationship of SEM to other multivariate techniques.

87) Explain exogenous and endogenous constructs.

Answer: An exogenous construct is the latent, multi-item equivalent of an independent variable in traditional multivariate analysis. Multiple observed variables or items are used to represent an exogenous construct that acts as an independent variable in the model. An exogenous construct is determined by factors outside of the model, and it cannot be explained by any other construct or variable in the model. Graphically, an exogenous construct does not have any paths (singleheaded arrows) coming into it from any other construct or variable in the model; it will only have paths (single-headed arrows) going out of it.

In contrast, an endogenous construct is the latent, multi-item equivalent of a dependent variable.

It is determined by constructs or variables within the model and thus it is dependent on other constructs. Graphically, an endogenous construct has one or more paths (single-headed arrows) coming into it from one or more exogenous construct or from other endogenous constructs.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 669-670 LO: 22.2 Explain the basic concepts in SEM such as theory, model, path diagram, exogenous versus endogenous constructs, dependence and correlational relationships, model fit, and model identification.

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88) Describe the process of conducting SEM and explain the various steps involved.

Answer: The process of conducting SEM is described in Figure 22.2 in the text. The steps involved in conducting SEM are (1) define the individual constructs, (2) specify the measurement model, (3) assess measurement model reliability and validity, (4) specify the structural model if the measurement model is valid, (5) assess structural model validity, and (6) draw conclusions and make recommendations if the structural model is valid.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 671 LO: 22.4 Describe the process of conducting SEM and explain the various steps involved.

89) Describe the assessment of reliability in a measurement model.

Answer: Recall from Chapter 9 that an unreliable construct cannot be valid. So first we should assess the reliability of the constructs in the measurement model. As in Chapter 9, the coefficient alpha can be used to assess reliability. In addition, we compute composite reliability (CR), which is defined as the total amount of true score variance in relation to the total score variance. Composite reliability corresponds to the conventional notion of reliability in classical test theory (see Chapter 9). As general guidelines, composite reliabilities of 0.7 or higher are considered good. Estimates between 0.6 and 0.7 may be considered acceptable if the estimates of the model validity are good.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 675-676 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.5 Know how to specify a measurement model and assess its validity.

90) Describe the assessment of discriminant validity in a measurement model.

Answer: In order to establish discriminant validity, we must show that the construct is distinct from other constructs and thus makes a unique contribution. First, individual observed variables should load on only one latent construct. Cross-loadings indicate lack of distinctiveness and present potential problems in establishing discriminant validity.

One formal way to show distinctiveness is to set the correlation between any two constructs as equal to one, i.e., we are specifying that observed variables measuring the two constructs might as well be represented by only one construct. Evidence of discriminant validity is obtained if the fit of the two-construct model is significantly better than the fit of the one-construct model.

However, this actually turns out to be a weak test as significant fit differences may be obtained even when the correlations between the two constructs are very high.

An alternative test of discriminant validity is based on the logic that a construct should explain its observed variables better than it explains any other construct. This test is conducted by showing that the average variance extracted is greater than the square of the correlations.

Equivalently, discriminant validity is achieved if the square root of the average variance extracted is larger than correlation coefficients.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 675-676 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.5 Know how to specify a measurement model and assess its validity.

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91) Describe the specification of a structural model.

Answer: In moving from the measurement model to the structural model, the emphasis shifts from the relationships between latent constructs and the observed variables to the nature and magnitude of the relationships between constructs. Thus, the measurement model is altered based on the relationships among the latent constructs. Because the measurement model is changed, the estimated covariance matrix based on the set of relationships examined will also change. However, the observed covariance matrix, based on the sample data, does not change as the same data are used to estimate the structural model. Thus, in general, the fits statistics will also change, indicating that the fit of the structural model is different than the fit of the measurement model.

If the measurement model is identified, then the structural model is too, provided that it is recursive in that there are no feedback loops or dual dependencies and, in addition, there are no interaction terms. In such cases, generally the structural model is nested within the measurement model and contains fewer estimated parameters. A model is nested within another model if has the same number of constructs and variables and can be derived from the other model by altering relationships, as by adding or deleting relationships. Dual dependencies exist when C 1 and C2 are mutually dependent on each other, and models containing such relationships are referred to as nonrecursive.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 677-678 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.7 Describe how to specify a structural model and assess its validity.

92) Describe path analysis and its relationship to SEM. Answer: Path analysis (PA) can be viewed as a special case of structural equation modeling (SEM). We could think of PA as SEM with only single indicators for each of the variables in the causal model. In other words, path analysis is SEM with a structural model, but no measurement model. Path analysis may also be viewed as an extension of the regression model. The PA model is depicted in a rectangle-and-arrow figure in which single-headed arrows indicate causation. A regression is done for each variable in the model as a dependent on others, which the model indicates are causes. The regression weights estimated by the model are compared with the observed correlation matrix for the variables, and a goodness-of-fit statistic is calculated. Path analysis calculates the strength of each relationship using only a correlation or covariance matrix as input.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 690-691 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 22.9 Explain path analysis and discuss its relationship to SEM.

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Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 7e (Malhotra) Chapter 23 Report Preparation and Presentation 1) Report preparation and presentation is the final step in the marketing research project.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 700 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

2) The marketing research report serves as a historical record of the project.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 701 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

3) When writing the final report, the researcher should draw conclusions but should not make recommendations.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 701-702 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

4) Moderators who write their own focus group project reports try to complete them within three to four weeks.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 702 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

5) Each report will have a unique character based on the personalities, responsibilities, etc. of the researcher and the decision maker to whom the report is addressed.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 702 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

6) While each report is unique, report formats do not vary with the researcher or the marketing research firm conducting the project, the client for whom the project is being conducted or the nature of the project itself.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 702 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

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7) A letter of transmittal authorizes the researcher to proceed with the project.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 703 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

8) It is o.k. to include only the major headings and subheadings in the table of contents.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 704-705 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

9) The executive summary should be the first part of the report written.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 704-705 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

10) The research design section contains a description of the theoretical foundations that guided the research, any analytical models formulated, research questions, hypotheses, and the factors that influenced the research design.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 704-705 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

11) The techniques used for analysis should be described in detailed non-technical terms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 704-705 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

12) The results section is normally the longest part of the report and may comprise several chapters.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 704-705 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

13) The researcher must make sure that management does not overly rely on the research results or use them for unintended purposes, such as projecting them to unintended populations.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 704-705 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

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14) The conclusions and recommendations section should only include a summary of the statistical results.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 704-705 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

15) Often the researcher must cater to the needs of several audiences with different levels of technical sophistication and interest in the project. Such conflicting needs may be met by including different sections in the report for different readers. Under no circumstances should separate reports be written.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 705-706 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

16) A logical organization leads to a coherent marketing research report.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 705-706 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

17) Variation in type size and skillful use of white space can take away from the appearance and readability of the marketing research report.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 705-706 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

18) When it is said that a report should be terse, it is meant that it should be as brief as possible but not at the expense of completeness.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 705-706 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

19) The researcher should remember that the rule is, "Tell it like it is," when writing the objective section of the marketing research report.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 705-706 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

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20) Every table should have a number.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 706-707 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

21) The arrangement of data items in a table should emphasize the most significant aspect of the data.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 706-707 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

22) When developing a table, the footnotes should come after the source notes.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 706-707 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

23) A pie chart is useful for displaying relationships over time or relationships among several variables.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 708-709 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

24) The histogram is a horizontal bar chart in which the width of the bars represents the relative or cumulative frequency of occurrence of a specific variable.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 708-709 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

25) A useful form of schematic figures and flow charts is classification diagrams.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 708-709 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

26) The marketing research report could be distributed in a variety of formats including hard copy and electronic. However, it is not advisable that research reports be published or posted directly to the Web. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 711 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

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27) The oral presentation is not important because the executives are also given a written report with all the important information in it.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 711-712 LO: 23.2 Discuss the nature and scope of the oral presentation and describe the "Tell 'Em" and "KISS 'Em" principles.

28) The key to an effective presentation is preparation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 711-712 LO: 23.2 Discuss the nature and scope of the oral presentation and describe the "Tell 'Em" and "KISS 'Em" principles.

29) After the presentation, key executives in the client firm should be given time to read the report in detail.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 711-712 LO: 23.2 Discuss the nature and scope of the oral presentation and describe the "Tell 'Em" and "KISS 'Em" principles.

30) As a follow-up to the marketing research report, the researcher might assist the client with implementing the findings.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 714 LO: 23.4 Explain the reason for follow-up with the client and describe the assistance that should be given to the client and the evaluation of the research project.

31) If the client was pleased with the research project and report, there is no need for the researcher to evaluate the research project.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 714 LO: 23.4 Explain the reason for follow-up with the client and describe the assistance that should be given to the client and the evaluation of the research project.

32) Social media can play a crucial role in disseminating the results and the report of a marketing research project but not the decisions made by the company based on the findings.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 716 AACSB: Information technology LO: 23.6 Describe how social media facilitate and enhance report preparation and presentation.

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33) Blogs can also provide an avenue for a company to obtain consumer reaction to the research findings as well as their feedback on the decisions made and actions taken by the company based on the research findings.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 714 AACSB: Information technology LO: 23.6 Describe how social media facilitate and enhance report preparation and presentation.

34) The use of social media community members' stories as illustrations of statistical findings in reports or executive presentations can be misleading and should not be undertaken.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 714 AACSB: Information technology LO: 23.6 Describe how social media facilitate and enhance report preparation and presentation.

35) It is unethical to draw conclusions if data analysis did not reveal anything new or significant.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 717-718 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 23.8 Identify the ethical issues related to the interpretation and reporting of the research process and findings to the client and the use of these results by the client.

36) In the United Airlines example given in your text, it was stated that all departments of the company used the results of its in-flight customer satisfaction survey. Which department used the customer satisfaction report to evaluate the performance of United, both internally in achieving its goals, and externally compared to the competition?

A) the marketing department B) the airport department C) the executive management D) the finance department Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 700 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

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37) If managers evaluate the quality of the entire project based on the quality of the report and presentation, which reason for the importance of the report and presentation most applies?

A) Management's decision to undertake marketing research in the future or to use the particular research supplier again will be influenced by the perceived usefulness of the report and the presentation.

B) The involvement of many marketing managers in the project is limited to the written report and the oral presentation.

C) Management decisions are guided by the report and the presentation. The researcher should assist the client in evaluating the research process in retrospect.

D) The report and presentation are the tangible products of the research effort.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 701 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

38) Which statement is not true about the report preparation and presentation process?

A) The findings should be presented in such a way that they can be used directly as input into decision making.

B) Conclusions should be drawn but recommendations should not be made.

C) The researcher should assist the client in understanding the report.

D) The researcher should assist the client in evaluating the research process in retrospect.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 701-702 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

39) Report formats are likely to vary based on all of the following except .

A) the marketing research firm conducting the research B) the client for whom the project is being conducted C) the nature of the project itself D) the client's method of payment Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 702 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

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40) Information such as the title of the report, information about the researcher or organization conducting the research, the name of the client and the date of release should appear on/in the .

A) title page B) letter of transmittal C) letter of authorization D) executive summary Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 703-705 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

41) If you are deliberating over whether to call the marketing research report "Practices Followed in Selecting Long-Distance Carriers" or "Long Distance Service Study," you are concerned with which elements of the marketing research report?

A) table of contents B) approach to the problem C) title page D) problem definition Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 703-705 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

42) The letter of transmittal does all of the following except .

A) summarizes the researcher's overall experiences with the project B) discusses the major results C) identifies the need for further action on the part of the client D) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 703-705 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

43) The authorizes the researcher to proceed with the project and specifies the scope and the terms of the contract.

A) title page B) letter of transmittal C) letter of authorization D) executive summary Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 703-705 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

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44) The is often the only portion of the marketing research report that executives read.

A) title page B) letter of transmittal C) letter of authorization D) executive summary Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 730-732 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

45) A list of tables, list of graphs, list of appendices, and list of exhibits are found in which part of the marketing research report?

A) table of contents B) letter of transmittal C) letter of authorization D) executive summary Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 703-705 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

46) The section of the marketing research report highlights the discussions with the decision makers and industry experts, and discusses the secondary data analysis, the qualitative research that was conducted, and the factors that were considered.

A) table of contents B) approach to the problem C) title page D) problem definition Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 703-705 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

47) The section contains a clear statement of the management decision problem and the marketing research problem.

A) approach B) problem definition C) limits and caveats D) research design Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 703-705 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

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48) The section of the marketing research report contains a description of the theoretical foundations that guided the research, any analytical models formulated, research questions, hypotheses, and the factors that influenced the research design.

A) approach to the problem B) problem definition C) research design D) both A and B Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 703-705 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

49) If you are trying to write about the budget, timeframe, and other organizational constraints pertaining to the marketing research project without eroding the client's confidence in the research or unduly minimizing the importance of those topics, you are working on the section of the marketing research report.

A) approach B) problem definition C) limits and caveats D) research design Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 703-705 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

50) Which statement is not true about the research design section of the marketing research report?

A) The topics should be presented in a non-technical, easy to understand manner.

B) The technical detail should be included in an appendix.

C) A description of the theoretical foundations that guided the research should be included.

D) This section of the report should justify the specific methods selected.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 703-705 AACSB: Analytical thinking LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

51) A marketing research report should do all of the following except .

A) be written for a specific reader or readers B) take into account the reader's technical sophistication and interest in the project C) use technical jargon D) take into account the circumstances under which the report will be read Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 705-706 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

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52) All of the following should be considered when writing the marketing research report except .

A) how easy the report is to follow B) the arrangement of data items C) who the reader will be D) how to present the information objectively Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 705-706 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

53) In order for the report to accurately present the methodology, results, and conclusions of the project, without slanting the findings to conform to the expectations of management, the research must be .

A) terse B) comprehensive C) objective D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 705-706 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

54) If you are trying to determine the best way to present data in a table, you should refer to the for suggestions.

A) guidelines for tables B) guidelines for graphs C) guidelines for report writing D) guidelines for oral presentations Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 705-706 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

55) If you are trying to decide if something should be included or left out of the marketing research report, you are being mindful of the element of report writing.

A) terse B) comprehensive C) objective D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 705-706 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

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56) are used to set off data items in the written report.

A) Leaders B) White spaces C) Dots D) Hyphens Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 706-707 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

57) can communicate relative location and other comparative information.

A) Pie charts B) Pictographs C) Schematic figures and flow charts D) Geographic maps Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 708-709 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

58) As a general guideline, a pie chart should not require more than sections.

A) six B) seven C) eight D) ten Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 708-709 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

59) are an attractive way of illustrating trends and changes over time.

A) Line charts B) Pictographs C) Bar charts D) Histograms Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 708-709 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

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60) do not depict results precisely, hence, caution should be exercised when using them.

A) Line charts B) Pictographs C) Bar charts D) Histograms Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 708-709 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

61) A can be used to present absolute and relative magnitudes, differences, and change.

A) line chart B) pictograph C) bar chart D) histogram Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 708-709 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

62) can be used to display the steps or components of a process.

A) Pie charts B) Pictographs C) Schematic figures and flow charts D) Geographic maps Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 708-709 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

63) Effective oral presentation techniques include all of the following except .

A) the use of visual aids displayed with a variety of media B) allowing sufficient opportunity for questions, both during and after the presentation C) not spending much time on the reason for the research and getting to the results quickly D) constant eye contact and interaction with the audience Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 711-712 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 23.2 Discuss the nature and scope of the oral presentation and describe the "Tell 'Em" and "KISS 'Em" principles.

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64) Effective oral presentation techniques include all of the following except .

A) the speaker should vary the volume, pitch, voice quality, articulation, and rate while speaking B) terminate the presentation with a strong closing C) the presentation should be sponsored by a top-level manager in the client's organization D) All of the above are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 711-712 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 23.2 Discuss the nature and scope of the oral presentation and describe the "Tell 'Em" and "KISS 'Em" principles.

65) Which statement is not true concerning the guidelines for reading the report and evaluating the marketing research project developed by the Advertising Research Foundation?

A) The report should assume that the reader has prior knowledge of the problem situation and all the relevant information.

B) The report should include a discussion of the information needs, data-collection methods, scaling techniques, questionnaire design and pre-testing, sampling techniques, and fieldwork.

C) The interpretation of the basic results should be differentiated from the results per se.

D) Factors that limit the generalizability of the findings, such as the nature and representativeness of the sample, mode and time of data collection, and various sources of error should be clearly identified.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 712-714 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 23.3 Describe the approach to the marketing research report from the client's perspective and the guidelines for reading the research report.

66) Which of the following is a way in which the researcher might assist the client after the marketing research report has been presented?

A) selection of a new product or advertising agency, development of a pricing policy, marketing segmentation, or other marketing actions B) further research projects C) help the client firm make the information generated in the marketing research project a part of the firm's marketing (management) information system (MIS) and decision support system (DSS) D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 712-714 LO: 23.4 Explain the reason for follow-up with the client and describe the assistance that should be given to the client and the evaluation of the research project.

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67) If you are asking questions such as "Could this project have been conducted more effectively or efficiently?" or "Was the best research design used?" or, "Were the conclusions and recommendations appropriate and useful to the client?" you are at the stage of .

A) assisting the client; research follow-up B) evaluation of the project; research follow-up C) research design; reading the research report D) execution of the research procedures; reading the research report Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 712-714 LO: 23.4 Explain the reason for follow-up with the client and describe the assistance that should be given to the client and the evaluation of the research project.

68) Which of the following is not a special concern for international research during report preparation and presentation?

A) the need to prepare reports for management in different countries and in different languages B) the presenter should be sensitive to cultural norms C) the subjective experience and gut feelings of managers could vary widely across countries, necessitating that different recommendations be made for implementing the research findings in different countries D) whether clients should use the research results in an ethical manner Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 715 AACSB: Diverse and multicultural work environments LO: 23.5 Understand the report preparation and presentation process in international marketing research.

69) Ethical issues arise when .

A) client firms such as tobacco companies, use marketing research findings to formulate questionable marketing programs B) a client distorts the research findings to develop a biased advertising campaign that makes brand claims that have not been substantiated by marketing research C) the marketing research problem is defined to suit hidden agendas D) All of the above are correct.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 717-718 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 23.8 Identify the ethical issues related to the interpretation and reporting of the research process and findings to the client and the use of these results by the client.

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70) Discuss why the report and its presentation are important parts of the marketing research project.

Answer: The report and its presentation are important parts of the marketing research project for the following reasons: 1. They are the tangible products of the research effort. After the project is complete and management has made the decision, there is little documentary evidence of the project other than the written report. The report serves as a historical record of the project.

2. Management decisions are guided by the report and the presentation. If the first five steps in the project are carefully conducted but inadequate attention is paid to the sixth step, the value of the project to management will be greatly diminished.

3. The involvement of many marketing managers in the project is limited to the written report and the oral presentation. These managers evaluate the quality of the entire project on the quality of the report and presentation.

4. Management's decision to undertake marketing research in the future or to use the particular research supplier again will be influenced by the perceived usefulness of the report and the presentation.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 701 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

71) What are the steps in the report preparation process (Figure 22.1 in the text)?

Answer: 1. problem definition, approach, research design, and fieldwork 2. data analysis 3. interpretation, conclusions, and recommendations 4. report preparation 5. oral presentation 6. reading of the report by the client 7. research follow-up Diff: 2 Page Ref: 701 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

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72) According to the example given in your text, Thomas Greenbaum, president of a market research company focusing on qualitative research, notes a disturbing trend in recent years in the focus group service sector. Some moderators of focus groups misrepresent their work to clients because their reports are actually written by ghostwriters who did not participate in the focus group sessions. Why does Greenbaum think using ghost writers is such a large problem?

Answer: Greenbaum criticizes such ghostwriting because the nonverbal reactions of focus group participants or group synergy cannot be accurately reported by those who merely listen to audio tapes or view videotapes of focus group sessions. If the clients know in advance that their reports will be written by someone else, it is clearly less of a problem, but they still do not get the best effort from their research consultants. In addition to the likelihood of degrading a report, the ghostwriting system delays the submission of the final report. Moderators who write their own reports try to complete them within a week to 10 days of the last group. Most moderators (using ghostwriters) are not able to provide clients with final reports for three to four weeks.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 702 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

73) Discuss the results section of the marketing research report.

Answer: The results section is normally the longest part of the report and may comprise several chapters. Often, the results are presented not only at the aggregate level but also at the subgroup (market segment, geographical area, etc.) level. The results should be organized in a coherent and logical way. The presentation of the results should be geared directly to the components of the marketing research problem and the information needs that were identified. The details should be presented in tables and graphs, with the main findings discussed in the text.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 704 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

74) To what length should the researcher go when writing the conclusions and recommendations section of the marketing research report?

Answer: The researcher should interpret the results in light of the problem being addressed to arrive at major conclusions. Based on results and conclusions, the researcher may make recommendations to the decision makers. If recommendations are made, they should be feasible, practical, actionable, and directly usable as inputs into managerial decision making.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 705 LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

75) How can the marketing researcher make the report appropriate for audiences with different levels of technical sophistication and interest in the project?

Answer: Such conflicting needs may be met by including different sections in the report for different readers or by separate reports entirely.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 705-706 AACSB: Reflective thinking LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

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76) Explain what is data visualization.

Answer: Data visualization is the presentation of data in a graphical or pictorial form (see Figures 23.2 to 23.6). It enables readers to see the results of data analysis visually, so they can understand difficult concepts or even identify new patterns. Interactive visualization takes this concept a step further by using technology to analyze charts and graphs for more information, interactively changing what data you see and how they are processed. You can experiment with different scenarios and conduct more micro-level analyses. The analyses can be performed quickly, and results presented visually in ways that crystallize and highlight patterns and allow querying and exploration. This enables managers to make faster and better decisions.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 710-711 AACSB: Information technology LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

77) What is AS Visual Analytics?

Answer: The SAS Visual Analytics has autocharting capability that looks at the data you wish to examine and then, based on the volume, variety and velocity of data, it presents the most appropriate visualization. Moreover, the user can interactively explore data and display the data in different ways to answer specific questions or solve new problems. A nice feature, “what does it mean” displays information about the analysis that has been done, and identifies and explains the relationships between the variables that are displayed (see Figure 23. 7). This greatly facilitates the creation and interpretation of data visualizations.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 711 AACSB: Information technology LO: 23.1 Discuss the basic requirements of report preparation, including report format, report writing, graphs, and tables.

78) What are the advantages to publishing marketing research reports on the Web? Answer: There are a number of advantages to publishing marketing research reports on the Web. These reports can incorporate all kinds of multimedia presentations, including graphs, pictures, animation, audio, and full-motion video. The dissemination is immediate and the reports can be accessed by authorized persons online on a worldwide basis. These reports can be electronically searched to identify materials of specific interest.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 711 AACSB: Information technology LO: 23.7 Elucidate report preparation in mobile marketing research.

79) Define the "Tell 'Em" principle and the "KISS 'Em" principle.

Answer: The "Tell 'Em" principle is effective for structuring a presentation. This principle states: (1) tell 'em what you're going to tell 'em, (2) tell 'em, and (3) tell 'em what you've told 'em.

Another useful guideline is the "KISS 'Em" principle, which states: Keep It Simple and Straightforward (hence the acronym KISS).

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 712 LO: 23.2 Discuss the nature and scope of the oral presentation and describe the "Tell 'Em" and "KISS 'Em" principles.

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80) Discuss report dissemination in the context of mobile marketing research.

Answer: In the current on-the-go environment, firms need to make the results of marketing research projects available quickly via mobile devices, and provide their managers with the ability to easily explore data on their own and do so in real time. SAS Visual Analytics comes with SAS Mobile BI to allow firms to give managers and front-line employees access to business intelligence. With SAS Mobile BI, users can look at a vast array of different types of company business intelligence reports and dashboards on their mobile devices and quickly and easily gain a deeper analytical understanding of the results.

Other companies like MFour (www.mfour.com) and Pollfish (www.pollfish.com) make the survey results available on their dashboard and the raw data in Excel files to clients. The dashboard allows the users to manipulate and look at the data in different ways to draw additional insights. The raw data can be subjected to additional analyses by clients leading to a deeper examination of the components of the problem.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 717 AACSB: Information technology LO: 23.7 Elucidate report preparation in mobile marketing research.

81) List some of the ethical issues faced by the researcher and the client in the report preparation and presentation stage of the marketing research project.

Answer: Report preparation and presentation involves many issues pertaining to research integrity. These issues include defining the marketing research problem to suit hidden agendas, compromising the research design, deliberately misusing statistics, falsifying figures, altering research results, misinterpreting the results with the objective of supporting a personal or corporate point of view, and withholding information. The dissemination of the marketing research results to the client, and other stakeholders as may be appropriate, should be honest, accurate, and complete. Likewise, clients also have the responsibility for complete and accurate disclosure of the research findings and are obligated to use the research results in an ethical manner.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 717-718 AACSB: Ethical understanding and reasoning LO: 23.8 Identify the ethical issues related to the interpretation and reporting of the research process and findings to the client and the use of these results by the client.

19 2019.

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