Test Bank for Human Biology, Anatomy & Physiology for the Health Sciences by Wendi Roscoe - Complete

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Human Biology, Anatomy & Physiology for the Health Sciences by Wendi Roscoe ISBN-10 0176739157 ISBN-13 978-0176739157 Test bank for Human Biology, Anatomy & Physiology for the Health Sciences by Wendi Roscoe

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TABLE OF CONTENTS Chapter 1.Introduction to biology, anatomy, and physiology Chapter 2.Biological molecules Chapter 3.Cell structure and function Chapter 4.Cellular metabolism Chapter 5.Cellular reproduction Chapter 6.Genetic inheritance Chapter 7.Evolution Chapter 8.DNA structure and function Chapter 9.Gene expression and regulation Chapter 10.Biotechnology Chapter 11.Tissues Chapter 12.The integumentary system Chapter 13. The skeletal system Chapter 14. The muscular system Chapter 15. The nervous system Chapter 16. The endocrine system Chapter 17. The cardiovascular system Chapter 18. The respiratory system Chapter 19. The digestive system Chapter 20. The urinary system Chapter 21. The reproductive system Chapter 22. The immune system Chapter 23. Infectious organisms

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Chap 01_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Skin is considered superficial. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. Biology is the study of the physical structures of an organism. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. Mushrooms are a prokaryotic, unicellular organism. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. The abdominopelvic cavity is subdivided into multiple quadrants. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. Disease results when homeostasis is not maintained over time. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. The regulation of multiple factors within the internal environment is known as homeostasis. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. Pleural membranes are protected by the cranium. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 01_2ce 8. Positive feedback loops are common in human physiology. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. The heart is part of an organ system made up of different types of cells. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. Bacteria are necessary for human survival. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. The ankle is proximal to the knee. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. Physiology is the study of how anatomical parts function. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. Viruses are considered living things because they are made of cells. a. True b. False a. True b. False 14. The integumentary system is made up of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle tissue. a. True b. False a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

15. The male reproductive system does NOT include which of the following? a. bladder b. testes c. vas deferens d. prostate gland Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_2ce 16. Which of the following is NOT a type of receptor in the human body? a. tactile receptor b. nocturnal receptor c. baroreceptor d. photoreceptor 17. Which of the following hormones is/are produced by the ovaries? a. progesterone and testosterone b. progesterone c. estrogen d. estrogen and progesterone Sarah Sarah and Melanie were playing in a tree when Sarah fell out the tree and tried to brace her fall with her outstretched right arm. X-rays showed that Sarah had fractured her right radius bone in her forearm.

18. What is the anatomical name for the area Sarah fractured? a. brachial b. antebrachial c. antecubital d. palmar 19. What is the general term for prokaryotes? a. bacteria b. protists c. fungi d. plants 20. Which of the following is NOT an organ system of the human body? a. exocrine system b. reproductive system c. cardiovascular system d. integumentary system 21. Which of the following organ systems is responsible for the breakdown of proteins to amino acids? a. urinary system b. muscular system c. digestive system d. cardiovascular system Sarah Sarah and Melanie were playing in a tree when Sarah fell out the tree and tried to brace her fall with her outstretched right arm. X-rays showed that Sarah had fractured her right radius bone in her forearm.

22. Sarah's fracture is ______ to her shoulder. a. distal b. superficial c. proximal d. superior 23. What is the mediastinum? a. the space between the pleural membranes that surround the lungs b. the anatomical central region of the thoracic cavity c. the space between the pericardial membranes that surround the heart d. located in the hypogastric region 24. Which region is 4 pointing to? a. antebrachial region b. brachial region c. cubital region d. antecubital region

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Chap 01_2ce Luke Luke is a hockey player. During his game last night, he was checked and fell on the ice, hitting the back of his head. At the hospital he was diagnosed with a concussion. He is feeling significant pain on the posterior aspect of his head where he contacted the ice.

25. The pain that Luke is feeling from his injury is from which type of receptors? a. thermoreceptors b. osmoreceptors c. baroreceptors d. nociceptors 26. Which of the following structures is NOT found in the mediastinum? a. esophagus b. heart c. trachea d. spinal cord 27. Which of the following is an exception to the fungi kingdom because it is unicellular? a. yeast b. mushrooms c. mildew d. molds 28. In which kingdom would you find a prokaryotic organism that can live in extreme environments? a. Fungi b. Plants c. Archaebacteria d. Eubacteria 29. Which of the following refers to the process of making and using energy? a. metabolism b. growth c. reproduction d. heredity Luke Luke is a hockey player. During his game last night, he was checked and fell on the ice, hitting the back of his head. At the hospital he was diagnosed with a concussion. He is feeling significant pain on the posterior aspect of his head where he contacted the ice.

30. Luke's injury is located in which body cavity? a. thoracic b. vertebral c. abdominopelvic d. cranial 31. In a homeostatic negative feedback response, let’s suppose the stimulus is a decrease in body temperature.

Which of the following would be the effector? a. blood vessels in the skin that constrict b. receptors that detect temperature change c. the hypothalamus, which determines that body temperature is too low d. sensory information that is sent to the brain

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Chap 01_2ce 32. Select the correct order of levels of organization that make up the body from the smallest/simplest to the largest/most complex level. a. molecule/chemical, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism b. molecule/chemical, cell, tissue, organ system, organ, organism c. molecule/chemical, cell, organ, tissue, organ system, organism d. cell, molecule/chemical, tissue, organ, organ system, organism 33. A transverse plane divides the body into what sections? a. left and right sections b. superior and inferior sections c. anterior and posterior sections d. angular sections 34. Ashley’s X-rays will be taken of which region of her body? a. pelvic b. thoracic c. abdominal d. cranial 35. In which kingdom would you find organisms that are photosynthetic, eukaryotic, and multicellular? a. Fungi b. Plants c. Archaebacteria d. Eubacteria 36. Which of the following describes how Archaebacteria are classified? a. eukaryotic, multicellular b. prokaryotic, unicellular c. prokaryotic, multicellular d. eukaryotic, multicellular 37. What are the four basic elements from which all living things are made? a. hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, calcium b. carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen c. oxygen, hydrogen, sulfur, carbon d. carbon, hydrogen, fluorine, oxygen 38. What is the primary cause of heart disease? a. atherosclerosis b. genetics c. obesity d. angina 39. What is the major function of the integumentary system? a. to take up excess fluids from the interstitial or intercellular space b. to take up oxygen c. to protect the internal organs d. to protect from infection, physical damage and dehydration 40. Which system is the esophagus part of? a. reproductive system b. digestive system c. cardiovascular system d. respiratory system 41. How many chromosomes to humans have in the nucleus of each cell, not including sperm or eggs? a. 23 b. 26 c. 42 d. 46

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Chap 01_2ce 42. Which sustem is the pituitary gland part of? system a. respiratory system b. lymphatic system c. reproductive system d. endocrine system 43. With respect to the nervous system, which of the following are the specialized senses? a. visual, auditory, equilibrium, gustatory, olfactory b. visual, auditory, emotion, olfactory c. visual, equilibrium, olfactory, emotion, gustatory d. auditory, equilibrium, olfactory, emotion 44. Which system functions to help regulate body temperature, protect the body, and detect sensations such as touch, pressure, and pain? a. endocrine system b. integumentary system c. digestive system d. urinary system Jack Jack was competing in a track and field event on a hot summer day. Following his 1500 m run, he was very sweaty and breathing heavily. He quickly drank a bottle of water and ate a banana.

45. What type of muscle tissue did Jack use to move his body while running? a. smooth muscle b. cardiac muscle c. skeletal muscle d. glandular muscle 46. What is the organelle responsible for photosynthesis in plants? a. mitochondria b. chloroplast c. nucleus d. lysosome 47. Homeostasis relies primarily on which type of feedback system? a. integrative feedback b. negative feedback c. continual feedback d. positive feedback 48. Which of the following plays a role in Ashley’s breathing? a. hypothalamus b. pancreas c. thyroid d. medulla oblongata 49. What do osmoreceptors detect? a. pain b. concentrations of ions c. pressure d. body position 50. Which region is 11 pointing to? a. coxal region b. manual region c. pubic region d. carpal region 51. George is having an appendix attack. In which quadrant would he have the pain? a. LLQ b. RUQ c. RLQ d. LUQ Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_2ce 52. Which of the following correctly lists the organizational hierarchy of life from the least inclusive to the most inclusive? a. molecules, chemicals, cells, organs, tissues, organ systems, organism b. chemicals, molecules, tissues, cells, organs, organ systems, organism c. molecules, chemicals, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organism d. chemicals, molecules, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organism 53. Which of the following is a secondary function of the muscular system? a. heat production b. protecting internal organs c. responding to stimuli d. maintaining posture 54. In the following diagram, which is showing a midsagittal plane?

a. 1 c. 3

b. 2 d. 4

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Chap 01_2ce 55. If you were facing a person in the correct anatomical position, which region could you observe? a. occipital region b. scapular region c. lumbar region d. palmar region 56. In which cavity are the lungs found? a. abdominal cavity b. thoracic cavity c. dorsal cavity d. cranial cavity 57. Which organ system is most likely affected? a. respiratory system b. reproductive system c. skeletal system d. nervous system Jack Jack was competing in a track and field event on a hot summer day. Following his 1500 m run, he was very sweaty and breathing heavily. He quickly drank a bottle of water and ate a banana.

58. Jack's sweating is accomplished by which organ system? a. integumentary system b. nervous system c. endocrine system d. cardiovascular system 59. Which of the following is a receptor that detects blood pressure? a. photoreceptor b. thermoreceptor c. baroreceptor d. nociceptor Jack Jack was competing in a track and field event on a hot summer day. Following his 1500 m run, he was very sweaty and breathing heavily. He quickly drank a bottle of water and ate a banana.

60. What is Jack's sweating an example of? a. an effector b. an organ system c. an integrating system d. a receptor 61. Which region is 12 pointing to? a. carpal region b. pollex region c. tarsal region d. hallux region

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Chap 01_2ce 62. Use the following diagram for the next 4 questions. Which region is 1 pointing to?

a. orbital region c. ocular region

b. nasal region d. otic region

63. Which of the following is the best description of a protist? a. single-celled, has flagella, has no membrane-bound organelles b. single-celled, eukaryotic, and some species produce spores c. multicellular, prokaryotic, has cilia and mitochondria d. multicellular, eukaryotic, has vacuoles and chloroplasts 64. Which of the following terms refers to the changes in organisms over multiple generations? a. integration b. reproduction c. homeostasis d. evolution 65. Which of the following is true regarding anatomical position? a. toes face forward b. palms face backward c. body is lying down d. arms are overhead

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Chap 01_2ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. True 10. True 11. False 12. True 13. False 14. False 15. a 16. b 17. d 18. b 19. a 20. a 21. c 22. a 23. b 24. a 25. d 26. d

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Chap 01_2ce 27. a 28. c 29. a 30. d 31. a 32. a 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. b 37. b 38. a 39. d 40. b 41. d 42. d 43. a 44. b 45. c 46. b 47. b 48. d 49. b 50. b 51. c 52. d 53. a 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_2ce 55. d 56. b 57. a 58. a 59. c 60. a 61. c 62. b 63. b 64. d 65. a

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Chap 02_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Cellulose is a structural plant carbohydrate and is used to produce energy in the human body. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. Triglycerides are found in adipocytes. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. Enzymes in our body are unable to oxidize trans fatty acids. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. DNA is a double helix where by two strands of DNA bind together by the phosphate group. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. Eating several oranges in one day will ensure the body has enough vitamin C for several weeks. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. Cytosine and thymine are single-ring bases called purines. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. Eating fats speeds up the digestion process, so the body has less time to absorb the nutrients. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 02_2ce 8. Enzymes in our body are unable to oxidize trans fatty acids. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. Adenine always binds with thymine. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. If there are only single bonds between the carbons of the fatty acid chain, the structure of the fat molecule will be straight, making the fatty acid a solid. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. Sucrose is formed by the dehydration synthesis reaction between two glucose molecules. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. The process of breaking of hydrogen bonds in a protein is known as denaturation. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. Lactase breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose. a. True b. False a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

14. What is lactose composed of? a. glucose and galactose b. glucose and glucose c. fructose and glucose d. maltose and glucose 15. What are cell membranes primarily composed of? a. essential fatty acids b. phospholipids c. polysaccharides d. nucleic acids Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_2ce 16. If a fat is solid at room temperature, it is most likely which of the following? a. Saturated b. Unsaturated c. polymerized d. hydrolyzed 17. Which of the following statements is true with respect to RNA and DNA? a. DNA contains the stored information for protein synthesis within the nucleotides adenine, thymine, guanine, and uracil. b. RNA is a single-stranded nucleic acid molecule transcribed from a DNA gene sequence that codes for the synthesis of a protein. c. DNA is a double helix whereby two strands of DNA bind together by the phosphate groups. d. In DNA, two hydrogen bonds form between adenine and thymine, and three hydrogen bonds hold guanine and uracil together.

18. What is the only way that amino acids differ? a. by their amino groups b. by their carboxyl groups c. by their functional groups d. by their bonding types 19. Which of the following is NOT a type of protein? a. antibody b. enzyme c. membrane channel d. glycogen 20. Which of the following is an example of a hydrophobic molecule? a. glucose b. salt c. hydocarbon chain of fatty acid d. amino acid 21. What is a phospholipid is composed of? a. two non-polar fatty acid chains and a polar head containing a glycerol and a phosphate group b. one non-polar fatty acid chain and three phosphate groups c. three polar fatty acid chains and a polar head containing a glycerol and a phosphate group d. one non-polar fatty acid chain and two non-polar heads 22. Which of the following lists contains the three essential fatty acids? a. linoleic acid, aspartic acid, and glutamic acid b. aspartic acid, linoleic acid, and glutamic acid c. alpha-linoleic acid, oleic acid, and glutamic acid d. alpha-linoleic acid, linoleic acid, and oleic acid 23. Which of the following describes the primary structure of protein? a. It is an alpha helix or beta pleated sheet. b. It is maintained by hydrogen bonds. c. It is composed of two or more polypeptide chains. d. It is the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide chain.

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Chap 02_2ce 24. The human body is composed of what percentage of water? a. 45–75% b. 45–95% c. 55–75% d. 70-95 25. What is this molecule?

a. monosaccharide c. ribose

b. amino acid d. cholesterol

26. What is the primary type of fat that you would find in olive oil? a. saturated fat b. unsaturated fat c. trans fat d. phospholipid

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Chap 02_2ce 27. What is this molecule?

a. cholesterol c. monounsaturated fat

b. phospholipid d. triglyceride

28. Which of the following is a monosaccharide? a. sucrose b. galactose c. maltose d. glycogen 29. A deficiency in which of the following minerals may cause muscular twitching? a. phosphorus b. calcium c. iron d. iodine 30. What is the complementary strand of DNA for CTGGATAC? a. CTGGATAC b. GACCUAUG c. CAUAGGUTC d. GACCTATG 31. What is the term for molecules that have both polar and non-polar regions? a. amphipathic b. hydrophobic c. hydrophilic d. covalent 32. Which of the following has thymine? a. DNA b. RNA c. both DNA and RNA d. neither DNA nor RNA 33. What is the name for the three-dimensional shape that constitutes the functional structure of a protein? a. primary structure b. secondary structure c. tertiary structure d. quaternary structure 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the effects of eating fibre? a. It adds bulk to large intestine. b. It acts as a prebiotic. c. It increases the risk of bowel disease. d. It helps regulate immune functions.

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Chap 02_2ce Sarah and Melanie Sarah and Melanie finish their soccer game on a hot summer day and decide to go for a snack at Dairy Queen.

Sarah orders a banana split, and Melanie orders a hamburger and fries. Both girls enjoy their treats as they continue to discuss the outcome of their soccer game. After a while Sarah starts to feel bloated and experiences stomach pains. She recalls that this has been frequently occurring when she eats certain foods.

35. What has Melanie just consumed a large amount of? a. protein b. essential fatty acids c. triglycerides d. amino acids 36. Which type of bond links amino acids together? a. ionic bonds b. glycosidic bonds c. phosphodiester bonds d. peptide bonds 37. If a molecule is composed of a carboxyl group, an amino group, a hydrogen, and a functional group, what kind of molecule it? a. amino acid b. nucleotide c. fatty acid d. disaccharide 38. The storage form of carbohydrates is ____ in animals and ____ in plants. a. glycogen, cellulose b. starch, glycogen c. cellulose, glycogen d. glycogen, starch 39. Which of the following is NOT a major complex carbohydrate relevant to the human body? a. starch b. glycogen c. glucose d. cellulose 40. Which of the following is the process for forming bonds between monomers? a. polymerization b. denaturation c. dehydration d. hydrolysis 41. Which of the following is NOT a method used in refining oils? a. bleaching b. deodorizing c. toasting d. oxidizing 42. Which of the following is an example of an enzyme? a. hemoglobin b. collagen c. polymerase d. ion channels

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Chap 02_2ce Sarah and Melanie Sarah and Melanie finish their soccer game on a hot summer day and decide to go for a snack at Dairy Queen.

Sarah orders a banana split, and Melanie orders a hamburger and fries. Both girls enjoy their treats as they continue to discuss the outcome of their soccer game. After a while Sarah starts to feel bloated and experiences stomach pains. She recalls that this has been frequently occurring when she eats certain foods.

43. What should Sarah do? a. Nothing, this is normal. b. Go to sleep and hope she feels better. c. Refrain from ingesting lactose in the future as she may have developed an inability to produce lactase. d. Go immediately to the hospital as she likely has an obstructed bowel.

44. What is this molecule?

a. cis fatty acid c. polyunsaturated fatty acid

b. trans fatty acid d. saturated fatty acid

45. Which of the following refers to fatty acids with double bonds between some of their carbons? a. saturated b. unsaturated c. hydrogenated d. trans fats 46. By which process can the result of hydrolysis be reversed? a. polymerization b. dehydration synthesis c. addition of an amino group d. addition of a hydroxyl group 47. Which of the following is a structural polysaccharide found in plant cells that we eat but do not digest? a. glycogen b. glucose c. starch d. cellulose 48. Which of the following is an essential amino acid? a. isoleucine b. serine c. glutamine d. histidine 49. Which of the following is NOT found in human cell membranes? a. phospholipids b. triglycerides c. ribosomes d. cholesterol 50. By what process do molecules combine to form macromolecules? a. hydrolysis b. hydrogen bonding c. dehydration synthesis d. protein synthesis Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_2ce 51. Which of the following is NOT important for protein function? a. The amino acid sequence. b. The secondary structure. c. The tertiary structure. d. The number of amino acids.

52. Margarine is formed by which of the following processes? a. hydrogenation b. polymerization c. hydration d. hydrolysis 53. Which of the following describes peptide bonds? a. They form between fatty acids. b. They form by a hydrolysis reaction. c. They link amino acids. d. They form between monosaccharides.

54. What bonds are broken in a denatured protein? a. peptide bonds b. hydrogen bonds c. glycosidic bonds d. phosphodiester bonds 55. Which of the following is most commonly used by our cells to make ATP? a. cellulose b. peptides c. glucose d. amino acids 56. The human body can synthesize _____ of the _____ amino acids from other molecules. a. 9, 30 b. 11, 20 c. 11, 40 d. 12, 30 57. Which of the following statements does NOT describe a role of cholesterol in human physiology? a. It is a major constituent of cell membranes. b. It is involved in the production of mood hormones. c. It is starting material for production of steroid hormones. d. It is used by the liver to make bile.

58. A mother gives birth to a baby at 38 weeks gestation. The baby is born with neural tube defects. Which of the following vitamins may the mother have been deficient in during pregnancy? a. vitamin A b. vitamin D c. folic acid d. biotin 59. Which of the following refers to hydrophilic molecules? a. They are insoluble in water. b. They are water soluble. c. They are neutral in water. d. They are highly reactive in water.

60. Which of the following is an example of a protein of the extracellular matrix? a. actin b. blood type molecules c. antibodies d. collagen 61. What is the ratio of carbon to hydrogen to oxygen in carbohydrates? a. 1:1:2 b. 2:1:2 c. 1:2:2 d. 1:2:1 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_2ce 62. If you eat French fries every day, which of the following will most likely result? a. It will decrease blood sugar levels. b. It will decrease insulin production. c. It will increase blood sugar levels. d. It will help control appetite.

63. Which of the following is an essential fatty acid? a. omega 3 b. cholesterol c. trans fats d. saturated fats 64. Which of the following is NOT a macromolecule? a. phospholipid b. RNA c. polypeptide d. fructose 65. Which of the following is the monomer for RNA? a. Amino acid b. Ribose c. Cholesterol d. Nucleotide 66. Water molecules are held together by what kind of bond? a. hydrogen bonds b. ionic bonds c. covalent bonds d. polar covalent bonds

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Chap 02_2ce Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. True 11. False 12. True 13. True 14. a 15. b 16. a 17. b 18. c 19. d 20. c 21. a 22. d 23. d 24. a 25. a 26. b

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Chap 02_2ce 27. a 28. b 29. b 30. d 31. a 32. a 33. c 34. c 35. c 36. d 37. a 38. d 39. c 40. a 41. d 42. c 43. c 44. a 45. b 46. b 47. d 48. a 49. d 50. c 51. d 52. a 53. c 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_2ce 55. c 56. b 57. b 58. c 59. b 60. d 61. d 62. c 63. a 64. d 65. d 66. a

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Chap 03_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Gram negative bacteria contain a nucleus. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. Ribosomes are identical in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. Cell membranes are non-permeable. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. The inner membrane of the mitochondria is called the cristae. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. The cell theory states that cells can only come from pre-existing cells. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. Michael is a runner who has been training for marathons for years. A cellular analysis of Michael’s muscle tissue would show a high number of mitochondria. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. Active transport requires energy and moves molecules against the concentration gradient. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 03_2ce 8. Animal cells rely on chloroplasts for photosynthesis. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. The plasma membrane consists of two hydrophobic tails and a hydrophilic head. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. Prokaryotic can have a cell wall and a capsule, unlike human cells. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. Membrane proteins facilitate diffusion by acting as channels or carriers. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. Facilitated diffusion requires ATP to produce energy. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. Occludens are proteins that permit intracellular movement. a. True b. False a. True b. False 14. Cells can sometimes be one metre in length. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 03_2ce 15. Immune function is supported by the Golgi body. a. True b. False a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

16. Which line is pointing to the Golgi? a. B b. C c. D d. E 17. Which line is pointing to the centrioles? a. A b. B c. C d. D 18. What does this figure represent? a. site of protein synthesis b. site of energy production c. site of cellular digestion d. site of glycosylation 19. What is the function of the proton pump? a. to increase extracellular sodium concentrations b. to create a hydrogen ion gradient outside of the cell c. to allow glucose and amino acids to enter cells of the small intestine d. to facilitate the production of ATP 20. Which of the following forms microtubules during cells division that are used for separating chromosomes? a. Golgi bodies b. cytoskeleton c. collagen d. centrioles 21. Which of the following membrane proteins can become saturated? a. aquaporins b. carriers c. channels d. sodium ion channels 22. Which of the following is found in BOTH prokaryotes and eukaryotes? a. endoplasmic reticulum b. nucleus c. ribosomes d. mitochondria 23. Which of the following is a type of coupled transport? a. symbiosis b. antiport c. apotosis d. chemiosmosis

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Chap 03_2ce Use the following diagram for the next 4 questions.

CELL 24. What organelle is identified by A? a. lysosome b. smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. nucleus d. cytoskeletal protein 25. Which of the following is responsible for the organization of spindle fibres? a. Golgi body b. nucleus c. mitochondria d. centrioles 26. What is the net movement of solute down a concentration gradient? a. active transport b. endocytosis c. osmosis d. diffusion 27. Insulin is transported from intercellular organelles to our bloodstream through which mechanism? a. phagocytosis b. endocytosis c. exocytosis d. pinocytosis 28. The movement of water within the digestive tract after eating a bag of chips occurs through which of the following processes? a. osmosis b. active transport c. diffusion d. facilitated diffusion 29. Which of the following does NOT require a membrane protein to cross the membrane? a. carbon dioxide b. glucose c. sodium ions d. amino acids

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Chap 03_2ce 30. Lipid synthesis is a primary function of which organelle? a. rough endoplasmic reticulum b. smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. cell membrane d. nucleus 31. Which of the following is accurate about the sodium-potassium pump? a. Two sodium ions enter the cell for every 3 potassium ions that leave the cell. b. Three sodium ions enter the cell for every 2 potassium ions that leave the cell. c. Two sodium ions leave the cell for every 3 potassium ions that enter the cell. d. Three sodium ions leave the cell for every 2 potassium ions that enter the cell.

32. Why do we need to have a sodium-potassium pump in every cell of our body? a. to keep a high concentration of sodium inside the cell b. to make ATP c. to keep potassium outside the cell d. to maintain a negative charge inside the cell 33. Which of the following contains a lipopolysaccharide layer? a. gram negative bacteria b. muscle cells c. gram positive bacteria d. eukaryotic cells 34. The contents of the nucleus include which of the following? a. endoplasmic reticulum b. cytoplasm c. Golgi body d. nucleolus 35. How does glucose enter a cell? a. by osmosis b. by simple diffusion c. by facilitated diffusion d. primary active transport 36. Which organelle is responsible for producing ATP? a. A b. B c. C d. D 37. Which of the following best describes the function of a ribosome? a. It helps produce enzymes to degrade engulfed particles. b. It detoxifies toxic molecules such as drugs. c. It produces energy for the cell. d. It helps to form peptide bonds between amino acids.

38. Which of the following are the main cytoskeletal proteins? a. nanotubules, intermediate filaments, and microfilaments b. microtubules, intermediate filaments, and microfilaments c. nanotubules, intermediate filaments, and microtubules d. microtubules, intermediate tubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments

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Chap 03_2ce 39. This figure is closely associated with which cellular process? a. photosynthesis b. cellular metabolism c. phosphorylation d. transcription 40. What are aquaporins used for? a. to bring sodium and glucose into a cell at the same time b. to move wastes out of a cell c. to allow a cell to transport proteins from the Golgi to the ER d. to move more water across membranes Use the following diagram for the next 4 questions.

CELL 41. Which organelle is responsible for translation? a. B b. C c. E d. F 42. A child’s hair colour is determined by components of which of the following? a. mitochondria b. nucleus c. smooth endoplasmic reticulum d. cell membrane CHARLIE Charlie was recently diagnosed with strep throat caused by a bacterial infection. His doctor prescribed antibiotics to help him recover. Shortly after taking the medication, Charlie’s symptoms resolve.

43. Which of the following cellular organelles is most responsible for this process? a. mitochondria b. endoplasmic reticulum c. Golgi body d. lysosome

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Chap 03_2ce 44. What is the function of gap junctions? a. to hold cells together strongly like Velcro b. to prevent molecules from moving between cells c. to allow the movement of molecules directly between neighbouring cells d. for cell shape and structure 45. In which tissue type would you find a lot of tight junctions? a. the brain b. the heart c. the skin d. the liver 46. Which of the following is NOT a membrane-bound organelle? a. mitochondria b. lysosomes c. peroxisomes d. ribosomes 47. Which of the following describes a feature of the cell’s powerhouse? a. semicircular membranes b. double membrane c. membrane network d. membrane-bound enzymes 48. Which of the following pairs of organelles turn long-chain fatty acids into energy? a. ribosomes and mitochondria b. lysosomes and mitochondria c. peroxisomes and mitochondria d. endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria 49. Which of the following are prokaryotes? a. protists b. archaeabacteria c. eubacteria d. archaeabacteria and eubacteria 50. The cell theory states which of the following? a. Animals are the only living organism composed of cells. b. Only prokaryotic cells contain genetic material. c. Cells are the basic unit of all living organisms. d. Viruses are living organisms consisting of many cells.

51. Why will cells placed into a solution of 2% NaCl die? a. because the solution is hypertonic and water will enter the cells causing them to burst b. because the solution is hypotonic and water will enter the cells causing them to burst c. because the solution is hypertonic and water will leave the cells causing them to shrivel d. because the solution is hypotonic and water will leave the cells causing them to shrivel 52. Cardiovascular function is supported by which type of cellular junction? a. gap junction b. tight junction c. occludens d. matrix junction 53. Which of the following is most similar to the cytoplasm? a. cell membrane b. neoplasm c. chromatin d. nucleoplasm Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_2ce 54. What is the purpose of intermediate filaments? a. cell shape and structure b. cell movement c. binding of one cell to other cells d. allowing cells to “crawl” 55. Which of the following is unable to cross a cell membrane without the aid of proteins? a. O2 b. Na+ c. CO2 d. H2O 56. What is cholesterol’s main function within the plasma membrane? a. ion transport b. acting as a catalyst for chemical reactions c. nutrient movement d. increasing membrane strength 57. Which of the following is NOT true about primary active transport? a. It requires ATP. b. It requires a membrane protein. c. It is moving substances against the concentration gradient. d. It only occurs in neurons 58. Microfilaments are composed of which of the following proteins? a. keratin b. actin c. tubulin d. melanin 59. Which of the following is NOT required for protein synthesis? a. smooth endoplasmic reticulum b. rough endoplasmic reticulum c. ribosomes d. Golgi body 60. Which of the following assist in cellular immune function? a. peroxisomes, lysosomes, and Golgi body b. peroxisomes, centrioles, and endoplasmic reticulum c. lysosomes, centrioles, and mitochondria d. lysosomes, centrioles, and Golgi body.

61. Which organelle has many similarities to bacteria? a. mitochondria b. ribosomes c. Golgi body d. lysosome 62. Which of the following is a structure of prokaryotic cells that allows them to exchange genetic information? a. cell membrane b. cilia c. pili d. flagella 63. What is one way that glucose and amino acids can enter the cell? through a. through coupled transport (co-transport) b. through simple diffusion c. through exocytosis d. through endocytosis

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Chap 03_2ce 64. Which of the following is an extracellular matrix protein that allows tissues to be very strong? a. elastin b. fibronectin c. collagen d. microfilaments 65. How would calcium ions enter a cell? a. by simple diffusion b. by membrane channels c. by osmosis d. by active transport 66. What is the movement of a large amount of fluid into a cell called? a. pinocytosis b. phagocytosis c. exocytosis d. endocytosis 67. Which of the following is responsible for neutralizing toxins produced in cells? a. mitochondria b. lysosomes c. peroxisomes d. ribosomes 68. Tissue flexibility is accomplished by which of the following? a. fibronectin b. elastin c. collagen d. integrin Use the following diagram for the next 4 questions.

CELL 69. Where is the majority of the extracellular matrix of muscle tissue produced? a. A b. B c. D d. F

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Chap 03_2ce CHARLIE Charlie was recently diagnosed with strep throat caused by a bacterial infection. His doctor prescribed antibiotics to help him recover. Shortly after taking the medication, Charlie’s symptoms resolve.

70. Which of the following processes assists in removal of the infectious bacteria? a. pinocytosis b. phagocytosis c. exocytosis d. coupled transport 71. Suppose you place a cell into a beaker of water with glucose molecules that had an osmotic concentration of 200 mOsmol. Which of the following is true? a. The solution is hypertonic and water will enter the cell. b. The solution is hypotonic and water will enter the cell. c. The solution is hypertonic and water will leave the cell. d. The solution is hypotonic and water will leave the cell.

72. If you place cells, such as celery, into a bowl of plain water, which of the following is correct? a. The solution is hypertonic and water will enter the cells. b. The solution is hypotonic and water will enter the cells. c. The solution is hypertonic and water will leave the cells. d. The solution is hypotonic and water will leave the cells.

73. Which of the following is an extracellular matrix protein that makes tissues flexible and stretchy? a. antigen b. collagen c. elastin d. integrin

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Chap 03_2ce Use the following diagram for the next 4 questions.

CELL 74. Where does the addition of phosphate groups to proteins occur? a. B b. D c. E d. G 75. Why might undercooked chicken cause illness in humans? a. Some bacteria have a capsule protecting them from environmental changes. b. Cellulose requires heat to be destroyed. c. Eukaryotic bacteria are all toxic to humans. d. Chlorophyll is difficult to digest.

76. Which organelle is responsible for protein synthesis? a. A b. B c. C d. D

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Chap 03_2ce Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. True 11. True 12. False 13. False 14. True 15. True 16. d 17. b 18. a 19. d 20. d 21. b 22. c 23. b 24. a 25. d 26. d

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Chap 03_2ce 27. c 28. a 29. a 30. b 31. d 32. d 33. a 34. d 35. c 36. a 37. d 38. b 39. b 40. d 41. b 42. b 43. d 44. c 45. a 46. d 47. b 48. c 49. d 50. c 51. c 52. a 53. d 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_2ce 55. b 56. d 57. d 58. b 59. a 60. a 61. a 62. c 63. a 64. c 65. b 66. a 67. c 68. b 69. c 70. b 71. b 72. b 73. c 74. b 75. a 76. d

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Chap 04_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Anaerobic respiration occurs in the absence of oxygen. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. When fats are used for energy they go through glycolysis. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. Julie is a sprinter. She is more likely to burn fatty acids than glucose during her training. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. The process of cellular respiration involves the conversion of food energy to chemical energy. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. The net gain of ATP in glycolysis is four. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. Proton pump membrane proteins are located in the cristae. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. Following the first stage of cellular respiration there are three two-carbon molecules. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 04_2ce 8. Nucleic Acids undergo glycolysis to produce pyruvate. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. Chemiosmosis is a process by which a potential energy gradient is used to move things across a membrane, resulting in the production of many ADP molecules. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. During anaerobic respiration, pyruvate is oxidized to produce acetyl-CoA. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. Glycolysis is the oldest evolutionary process used by every organism, including prokaryotes, to make ATP. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. ATP contains a ribose sugar. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. Thyroid hormones are necessary for the metabolism of carbohydrates. a. True b. False a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

14. Approximately how many ATP molecules are produced by the end of the whole aerobic respiration process when glucose is the starting material? a. 2 b. 4 c. 16 d. 36 15. Which of the following molecules release nitrogen as a waste product that results in the formation of urea? a. nucleotides b. amino acids c. fatty acids d. nucleotides and amino acids Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_2ce 16. Which of the following is an example of anaerobic exercise? a. walking at a moderate pace for 40 minutes b. jogging slowly for an hour c. sleeping d. weight lifting 17. What is the product of anaerobic respiration in yeast? a. ethanol b. NADH c. pyruvate d. lactate 18. Which of the following hormones promotes fat storage? a. insulin b. glucagon c. epinephrine d. growth hormone 19. Reduction is the ____, and oxidation is the ____. a. loss of oxygen, gain of oxygen b. loss of electrons, gain of electrons c. gain of oxygen, loss of oxygen d. gain of electrons, loss of electrons 20. Which of the following processes produce the greatest amount of ATP per molecule of glucose? a. aerobic respiration b. alcoholic fermentation c. lactic acid fermentation d. anaerobic respiration 21. Which of the following is used by many organisms as the energy supply for thousands of chemical reactions? a. adenosine diphosphate b. adenosine triphosphate c. alanine triphosphate d. alanine diphosphate 22. Where does glycolysis occur? a. in the extracellular fluid c. in the inner membrane space

b. in the matrix of mitochondria d. in the cytoplasm

23. Which of the following is the end product of glycolysis? a. 1 glucose b. 2 pyruvate c. 2 acetyl CoA d. 2 FADH2 24. Which of the following cannot be used by cells to produce ATP? a. cellulose b. monosaccharides c. fatty acids d. amino acids 25. What is the significance of carbon-hydrogen bonds in the conversion of food energy to ATP molecules? a. ATP is used to break these bonds. b. They are very weak bonds, easily broken to provide ATP. c. A large number of these bonds help with electron transfer. d. A series of oxidation and reduction reactions leads to the production of ATP.

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Chap 04_2ce 26. Where do NADH molecules produced during cellular respiration go? a. nucleus b. mitochondria c. ribosome d. cytoplasm 27. Baby George was born with a rare disease in which the skeletal muscle cells are missing mitochondria. After several tests, doctors determined that George’s muscles still function. What can be concluded from this? a. To perform properly, the muscles will need extremely high levels of oxygen. b. After even minimal exercise, the muscles will have large amounts of lactate. c. After even minimal exercise, the muscles will have large amounts of CO2. d. The muscle cells will be unable to convert glucose to pyruvate.

28. Which of the following are the products of cellular respiration? a. oxygen and CO2 b. energy in the form of ATP and CO2 c. H2O and O2 d. glucose and energy in the form ATP 29. When a molecule is oxidized, what is happening? a. It is gaining electrons. b. It is losing electrons. c. It is transforming electrons d. It is stabilizing electrons 30. What molecules are required to initiate glycolysis? a. one ATP b. two ATP c. two NAD+ d. one NAD+ 31. What is the main difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration? a. Aerobic respiration requires oxygen, whereas anaerobic respiration does not. b. Anaerobic respiration requires oxygen, whereas aerobic respiration does not. c. Aerobic respiration requires hydrogen, whereas anaerobic respiration does not. d. Anaerobic respiration requires hydrogen, whereas aerobic respiration does not.

32. Scientists are testing a drug that makes the inner mitochondrial membrane leaky to H+ ions. What do they suspect this drug will inhibit? a. glycolysis b. Krebs cycle c. electron transport chain d. Krebs cycle and electron transport chain 33. Which of the following has 9 calories per gram? a. fat b. starch c. sugar d. protein 34. Which of the following has the stages of cellular respiration listed in the correct order? a. Krebs cycle, electron transport, glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation b. glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, electron transport, Krebs cycle c. pyruvate oxidation, glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport d. glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, Krebs cycle, electron transport

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Chap 04_2ce 35. In the Krebs cycle, what does acetyl-CoA enter and bind to? a. oxaloacetate b. citrate c. pyruvate d. acetaldehyde 36. Where does glycolysis occur? a. inner mitochondrial membrane c. cytoplasm

b. mitochondrial matrix d. nucleus

37. When does anaerobic respiration occur in human cells? a. when oxygen is present b. when carbon dioxide is present c. when lactate is present d. when oxygen is absent 38. Humans use the calories they obtain from ____ as their source of energy. a. minerals b. food c. sunlight d. water 39. What is the name of the process by which fats are converted to energy? a. beta-oxidation b. glycolysis c. deamination d. chemiosmosis 40. What is the complete equation for cellular respiration? a. C6H12O6 + 6H2O ? 6CO2 + 6O2 + energy b. C6H12O6 + 6O2 ? 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy c. C5H12O6 + 6O2 ? 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy d. 2C6H12O6 + 6O2 ? 6 CO2 + 6H2O + energy 41. Bacteria do not have mitochondria, so how do they produce ATP? a. They use oxidative phosphorylation in the nucleoid region b. They make ATP through glycolysis. c. They use their cell membrane instead of a mitochondrial membrane to build up a H+ gradient. d. They have ATP synthase in their ribosomes.

42. What is the net number of ATP molecules produced during glycolysis? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 6 43. What does substrate-level phosphorylation involve? a. an enzyme phosphorylating glucose b. an enzyme removing a phosphate from adenine diphosphate c. a phosphate being added to adenine diphosphate with an enzyme d. an enzyme adding a phosphate to adenine triphosphate 44. Which of the following nutrients undergo deamination? a. fatty acids b. nucleic acids c. amino acids d. glycerol Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_2ce 45. Which of the following processes requires oxygen? a. aerobic respiration b. anaerobic respiration c. both aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration d. neither aerobic respiration nor anaerobic respiration 46. What is the definition of a calorie? a. the amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1 mL of water 1oC b. the amount of glucose required to raise the temperature of 1 mL of water 1oC c. the amount of food necessary to maintain normal body functions d. the amount of food an individual must consume to raise the body temperature by 1oC 47. Which of the following is the most important end product of Krebs cycle? a. pyruvate b. acetyl CoA c. ATP d. NADH 48. We inhale oxygen several times per minute, what are we using that oxygen for? a. to make pyruvate during glycolysis b. to make lactic acid c. to make water in the electron transport chain d. We convert it directly into carbon dioxide during the Krebs cycle.

49. Muscle fatigue after a heavy workout is a result of which of the following? a. the build-up of lactate in muscle cells b. a diet too high in vitamin B c. an increase of insulin in the bloodstream d. a diet lacking in vitamin A 50. Which of the following is the equation for ATP production in the absence of oxygen in human cells? a. pyruvate + NADH ? lactate + NAD+ b. acetyl-CoA + pyruvate ? lactate + NAD+ c. pyruvate + NAD+ ? lactate + NADH d. acetyl-CoA + pyruvate ? lactate + NADH 51. What are the starting molecules required for glycolysis to occur? a. 1 water, 1 ATP and 1 glucose b. 1 glucose c. 1 pyruvate, and 2 NADH d. 2 ATP, 1 glucose, and 2NAD+ 52. Where does the Krebs cycle occur? a. in the cytoplasm b. in the matrix of the mitochondria c. in the inner membrane of the mitochondria d. in the nucleus

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Chap 04_2ce 53. What is the name of the process in yeast by which pyruvate is converted to carbon dioxide and acetaldehyde? a. decarboxylation b. hydrolysis c. oxidation d. reduction 54. For each acetyl-CoA molecule, how many NADH molecules are made during the Krebs cycle? a. 0 b. 2 c. 3 d. 6 55. When is carbon dioxide produced during cellular respiration? a. during pyruvate oxidation b. during glycolysis c. during the Krebs cycle d. during pyruvate oxidation and the Krebs cycle 56. Indicate phosphoglyceraldehyde in the diagram below.

a. A c. C

b. B d. D

57. Alcohol fermentation in yeast is used to produce all EXCEPT which of the following? a. beer b. wine c. bread d. wheat

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Chap 04_2ce 58. What is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport? a. hydrogen b. oxygen c. NAD+ d. FAD 59. What is the name of the enzyme that removes the carbon from pyruvate? a. pyruvate dehydrogenase b. pyruvate hydrogenase c. ATP synthase d. citrate dehydrogenase 60. What are the end products of the Krebs cycle? a. NADH, CO2, ADP, FADH2 b. CO2, ATP, H2O, NADH c. NADH, FADH2, ATP, H2O d. CO2, NADH, FADH2, ATP

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Chap 04_2ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. d 15. d 16. d 17. a 18. a 19. d 20. a 21. b 22. d 23. b 24. a 25. d 26. b

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Chap 04_2ce 27. b 28. b 29. b 30. b 31. a 32. c 33. a 34. d 35. a 36. c 37. d 38. b 39. a 40. b 41. b 42. c 43. c 44. c 45. a 46. a 47. d 48. c 49. a 50. a 51. d 52. b 53. a 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_2ce 55. a 56. c 57. d 58. b 59. a 60. d

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Chap 05_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Mitosis involves two cell divisions. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. Females do not complete the last meiotic division unless fertilization occurs. Eggs stay arrested in telophase II until ovulation. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. Meiosis is the process of generating germ cells from gametes. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. The growth of new blood vessels is known as angiogenesis. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. Separase breaks down the cohesion proteins that hold the sister chromatids together. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. A plasmid is a bacteria cell’s chromosomal DNA. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. Prokaryotic cell division involves two steps: DNA replication and binary fission. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 05_2ce 8. Germ cells are diploid. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. Meiosis occurs in eukaryotic somatic cells. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. During metaphase the chromosomes are lined up at the equatorial plane. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. Anything that causes cancer is called carcinogenic. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. During meiosis II, homologous chromosomes separate. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. Chronic stress inhibits the immune system and therefore can increase the risk of cancer. a. True b. False a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

14. What is the enzyme involved in adding nucleotides during DNA replication? a. DNA polymerase b. separase c. helicase d. kinetochore 15. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism that allows bacteria to acquire new DNA? a. transduction b. transformation c. conjunction d. exchange

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Chap 05_2ce 16. What is p53? a. a proto-oncogene c. a tumour-suppressor gene

b. an oncogene d. a DNA repair enzyme

17. When do homologous chromosomes separate? a. meiosis I b. meiosis II c. Mitosis I d. Mitosis II 18. What are cancer cells that spread to other areas of the body? a. benign b. encapsulated c. metastasis d. tumour 19. In which phase of mitosis does the nuclear membrane disappear? a. anaphase b. telophase c. prophase d. metaphase 20. What is the name of the phase of mitosis during which the spindle fibres begin to form? a. interphase b. metaphase c. prophase d. anaphase 21. DNA replication occurs during which of the following parts of interphase? a. G1 phase b. S phase c. G2 phase d. G2 checkpoint 22. Which of the following is usually formed from meiotic cell division in a human male? a. four diploid cells b. four haploid cells c. two diploid cells d. two haploid cells 23. Which checkpoint is important for detecting abnormal DNA after DNA replication occurs? a. G1 b. M c. G2 d. S 24. During which phase of the cell cycle does growth occur? a. S phase b. G1 phase c. G2 phase d. M phase 25. What do we call a normal gene that increases cell division? a. an oncogene b. a proto-oncogene c. a tumour-suppressor gene d. a DNA repair enzyme 26. If p53 is mutated, which of the following will occur? a. The cell will stop dividing. b. The cell will undergo apoptosis. c. The cell will continue to divide with mutations. d. Repair enzymes will fix the mutations.

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Chap 05_2ce 27. What happens during mitotic telephase? a. The chromatid DNA replicate. b. The centromeres of each chromosome come apart. c. The nuclear envelope begins to form around the chromosomes. d. The spindle fibres begin to break down at the centriole end.

28. Identical twins are the result of which of the following processes? a. crossing over b. independent assortment c. zygote splitting d. amniocentesis 29. Which of the following is an example of a cell type that does NOT go through mitosis? a. epithelial cells b. neurons c. cells of the digestive tract d. cells of the respiratory tract 30. During which phase does crossing-over occur? a. prophase I b. prophase II c. metaphase I d. metaphase II 31. Which term refers to programmed cell death? a. cytokinesis b. apoptosis c. angiogenesis d. cannibalism 32. The purpose of meiosis is to produce which of the following? a. a haploid zygote b. an identical somatic cell c. a diploid germ-line cell d. haploid gametes 33. What do we call chromosomes that are exactly identical (after DNA replication)? a. homologous chromosomes b. sister chromatids c. Duplication chromosomes d. Karyotype chromatids 34. Which of the following occurs only in metaphase? a. centrioles begin to form spindle fibers b. centrioles move to opposite ends of the cell c. condensed DNA becomes visible d. sister chromatids line up in the centre of the cell 35. While examining cells under the microscope, you see an unusual cell that doesn’t have the typical rounded shape.

The cell is narrower in the centre and has two budging ends. What do you conclude about this cell? a. It is a malignant cell. b. It is about to undergo mitosis. c. It is undergoing cytokinesis. d. It is a germ cell.

36. Which of the following is true with respect to a benign tumour? a. It does not spread to other areas. b. It is cancerous. c. It can metastasize. d. It is not encapsulated.

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Chap 05_2ce 37. What is the name of the process by which cytoplasm is split during mitosis? a. interphase b. cytoplasmic separation c. telophase d. cytokinesis 38. During which of the following stages do eukaryotic cells spend most of the time? a. prophase b. interphase c. anaphase d. cytokinesis 39. Which of the following is a special feature of meiosis that does not occur in mitosis? a. DNA replication b. metaphase c. production of spindle fibers d. independent assortment 40. Which of the following occurs during interphase? a. cytokinesis b. cell growth and duplication of chromosomes c. cleavage furrow d. spindle fibres connecting to the kinetochore 41. Which of the following is true about eukaryotic and prokaryotic DNA? a. Eukaryotes have only 1 chromosome and it is linear. b. Prokaryotes have only 1 chromosome and it is circular. c. Eukaryotes have thymine and prokaryotes have uracil. d. Prokaryotes have many linear chromosomes and plasmids.

42. What is the first cell formed during meiosis? a. gamete b. zygote c. embryo d. sperm or egg 43. Which of the following is/are diploid? a. only cells in G0 b. all somatic cells that have a nucleus c. zygotes d. all somatic cells that have a nucleus and zygotes 44. Which of the following is an example of a virus that can cause cancer? a. influenza b. common cold c. human papilloma virus (HPV) d. sickle-cell

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Chap 05_2ce 45. Which phase of mitosis is represented in the diagram?

a. interphase c. metaphase

b. prophase d. telophase

46. What is the name of the process by which one bacterium directly exchanges pieces of DNA with another bacterium? a. transduction b. transformation c. conjugation d. exchange 47. When does binary fission occur? a. when eukaryotic cells divide b. when prokaryotic cells divide c. when protists divide d. when yeast produces ethanol 48. When in the cell cycle does DNA replicate? a. G1 b. S c. G2 d. Mitosis 49. What most likely caused Sally’s cancer? a. an inherited gene b. a virus c. the normal function of the p53 gene d. a carcinogen 50. What is shown in the diagram?

a. anaphase 1 c. metaphase 1

b. anaphase 2 d. metaphase 2

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Chap 05_2ce 51. Katie and Josh have the same biological parents, and they are often told how much they look alike. Why do they look alike? a. They have identical genes but different chromosomes. b. They have identical chromosomes but different genes. c. They have the same combination of traits but different genes. d. They have a similar, but not identical, combination of genes.

52. Crossing over occurs in which stage of meiosis? a. prophase II b. metaphase I c. prophase I d. anaphase II 53. Which of the following can help decrease the risk of cancer cell development because it removes free radicals from cells? a. antioxidants b. vitamin D c. proteins d. B vitamins 54. Which of the following are the genes that normally regulate the rate of the cell cycle? a. proto-oncogenes and tumour-suppressor genes b. proto-oncogenes and oncogenes c. oncogenes and natural killer cells d. tumour-suppressor genes and natural killer cells 55. Which of the following is analogous with a pair of male sex chromosomes. a. two spoons b. a bride and groom c. a pair of skis d. a set of dice 56. Which of the following is a very important tumour-suppressor gene? a. p53 b. HPV c. natural killer cell d. G, checkpoint 57. At which checkpoint does p53 function? a. G1 checkpoint b. S checkpoint c. M checkpoint d. A checkpoint 58. Which of the following cells goes through meiosis? a. mature blood cells b. neurons c. skeletal muscle cells d. germ cells 59. Which term refers to the organization of all of a cell’s chromosomes? a. karyotype b. genotype c. phenotype d. prototype 60. Humans have _____ chromosomes and receive _____ chromosomes from each parent. a. 46, 23 b. 46, 46 c. 48, 24 d. 92, 46 Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_2ce 61. The cells of Sally’s tumour likely have all EXCEPT which one of the following characteristics? a. do not undergo cell death b. angiogenesis c. up-regulated genes, oncogenes d. proto-oncogenes 62. At what age do females begin their first meiotic cell division? a. puberty b. at birth c. age 5 d. during fetal development 63. What is the term given to each pair of 23 chromosomes? a. sister chromatids b. karyotypes c. homologous chromosomes d. daughter cells 64. Which of the following refers to the process of bacterial cell division that occurs after the replication of DNA and that involves splitting the cytoplasm to form two new identical cells? a. binary fission b. replication c. DNA transfer d. transformation 65. How many chromosomes are found in a somatic cell? a. 22 b. 23 c. 46 d. 92 66. What stage of mitosis is the cell below in?

a. prophase c. anaphase

b. metaphase d. telephase

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Chap 05_2ce Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. True 12. False 13. True 14. a 15. d 16. c 17. a 18. c 19. c 20. c 21. b 22. b 23. c 24. b 25. b 26. c

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Chap 05_2ce 27. c 28. c 29. b 30. a 31. b 32. d 33. b 34. d 35. c 36. a 37. d 38. b 39. d 40. b 41. b 42. b 43. d 44. c 45. d 46. c 47. b 48. b 49. d 50. c 51. d 52. c 53. a 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_2ce 55. b 56. a 57. a 58. d 59. a 60. a 61. d 62. d 63. c 64. a 65. c 66. c

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Chap 06_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. An organism’s genotype can be affected by environmental factors. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. With respect to the ABO blood types, the A allele is dominant to the i allele and codominant to the B allele. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. A dihybrid cross is used to look at possible genotypes and phenotypes when two different traits are found on the same chromosomes. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. Freckles are an example of an individual’s phenotype. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. An individual’s immune function can be affected by environmental factors. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. Nondisjunction results in aneuploidy. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. The sex chromosomes of a human male are X and Y. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 06_2ce 8. Red-green colour blindness is more common in females because it is an X-linked disorder. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. The transfer of traits from offspring to parent is known as heredity. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. Tall pea plants are dominant over short pea plants. Can 2 tall pea plants have short offspring? a. False b. True a. True b. False 12. The effects of one gene being modified by the effects of one or more other genes is known as epistasis. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. Trisomy is a type of aneuploidy. a. True b. False a. True b. False 14. A mother with blood type IAi can have a child with blood type ii. a. True b. False a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

15. Which of the following genotypes is homozygous recessive? a. AA b. AB c. bb d. Aa Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_2ce 16. An allele that codes for fur colour in cats has three possible phenotypes: black (BB), spotted (Bb), and white (bb). What is this is an example of? a. independent assortment b. polygenic inheritance c. codominance d. incomplete dominance 17. Bob and Sally have blood types A and AB, respectively. Which of the following statements is true? a. There is a 25% chance their child will have blood type O. b. There is a 25% chance their child will have blood type AB if Bob’s genotype is IAi. c. There is a 25% chance their child will have blood type A. d. There is a 25% chance their child will have blood type B if Bob’s genotype is IAIA. 18. If yellow seeds are dominant over green seeds, and long pods are dominant over short pods, how many of the offspring will have green seeds and short pods if both parents are heterozygous for both traits? a. 1/16 b. 3/16 c. 1/4 d. 9/16 19. Which of the following is Klinefelter syndrome? a. XX b. XO c. XXY d. XYY 20. What do blood types in humans exemplify? a. incomplete dominance b. pleiotropy c. codominance d. antigen mutations 21. A male gorilla with a genotype AAbb is crossed with a female gorilla with the genotype aaBb. What is the phenotypic ratio of their offspring? a. 3:1 b. 1:1 c. 1:2:1 d. 9:3:3:1 22. Which of the following describes cystic fibrosis? a. It is an autosomal dominant disease. b. It occurs due to mutations of ATP synthase. c. It’s symptoms include poor growth and respiratory infections. d. It causes death by the age of two.

23. In humans, having a widow’s peak is dominant over no widow’s peak, and an oval face is dominant over a square-shaped face. Mom is heterozygous for a widow’s peak and has a square-shaped face, and dad does not have a widow’s peak and is homozygous for an oval face. What is the probability that these parents will have a child with a widow’s peak and an oval face? a. 1/16 b. 3/16 c. 25% d. 50%

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Chap 06_2ce 24. A baby has blood type A. The mom is type O. Who is the dad? a. Harry—type A b. Fred—type O c. Gus—type B d. It could be Harry (type A) or Fred (type O).

25. If a coin is flipped two times, what is the possibility of two heads? a. 12½% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% 26. Which of the following is a feature of linked genes? a. They are located on an X chromosome. b. They are located on a Y chromosome. c. They are always separated during crossing over. d. They are located close together on a chromosome.

27. Which of the following is characteristic of familial hypercholesterolemia? a. It is a sex-linked recessive disorder. b. It occurs due to mutations of the LDLR gene. c. It involves very low levels of LDL in the blood. d. It is only passed to future generations through the father.

28. A cross is conducted between homozygous yellow and green pea plants and a 3:1 phenotypic ratio is observed.

What is the genotypic ratio? a. 3:1 b. 1:2:1 c. 1:1 d. 1:2 29. Which of the following is caused by CAG inserted repeat sequences and causes brain deterioration after the age of 30? a. familial hypercholesterolemia b. Huntington’s disease c. Tay Sachs disease d. cystic fibrosis 30. What is the term for using a Punnett square for the analysis of a single trait? a. monohybrid cross b. dihybrid cross c. pleiotrophy d. epistasis 31. Which of the following disorders results from a mutated hemoglobin gene? a. Duchene muscular dystrophy b. hemophilia c. sickle cell anemia d. Tay Sachs 32. In a Punnett square, what do the letters inside the box represent? a. offspring genotypes b. offspring phenotypes c. gamete genotypes d. parental phenotypes

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Chap 06_2ce 33. A scientist cross-fertilizes a homozygous yellow pea with a homozygous green pea. What will the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation be? a. all yellow b. 3:1 c. 9:3:3:1 d. 1:2:1 34. Which of the following statements applies to heterozygotes? a. They have two identical alleles. b. They have two different alleles. c. They have two identical genes. d. They have two different genes.

35. If a kangaroo gamete contains 10 chromosomes, what is the diploid number? a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 24 36. What is Down syndrome an example of? a. aneuploidy b. pleiotropy c. CFRT mutation d. HEXA mutation 37. Height in humans is an example of which type of inheritance pattern? a. pleiotropic b. polygenic c. X-linked d. incomplete dominance 38. If the mother and father are both heterozygous for blood type A, what is the probability that a baby will have blood type O? a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% 39. If brown hair is completely dominant over blond hair, what is the phenotype of a heterozygote? a. brown b. blond c. dirty blond d. brown with blond highlights 40. Red-green colour blindness is a sex-linked recessive disorder. A colour-blind man and a carrier woman have a baby boy. What is the possibility the baby will be colour blind? a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 100% 41. Which of the following is an example of an autosomal recessive disease? a. Huntington’s disease b. Sickle cell anemia c. Tuner syndrome d. Down syndrome 42. How many copies of the dominant allele does an individual with an autosomal recessive disorder have? a. one b. two c. zero d. one on the X chromosome

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Chap 06_2ce 43. What is the expected phenotype ratio when a long-haired heterozygous cat is crossed with a homozygous, recessive short-haired cat? a. 50% long, 50% short b. 75% long, 25% short c. 25% long, 75% short d. all long-haired 44. Which of the following is X linked? a. Down syndrome b. Tay Sachs disease c. cystic fibrosis d. Duchene muscular dystrophy 45. Which of the following is NOT a possible offspring genotype from fertilization between AaBb and aabb? a. AaBb b. Aabb c. aaBb d. AAbb 46. What type of in heritance pattern involves one or more genes that modify another gene, such as the fur and nose colour in Labrador retrievers? a. epistasis b. polygenic c. X-linked d. incomplete dominance 47. Which of the following is a genetic disease that is caused by a mutation in the chloride membrane channel gene that affects mucus production in the lungs and digestive system? a. Hemophilia b. Huntington’s disease c. Tay Sachs disease d. cystic fibrosis 48. What is the human haploid number? a. 23 b. 46 c. 92 d. 94 49. If the genotype of a pea plant is unknown (for example, a tall plant can be homozygous dominant or heterozygous), how would a testcross be done to determine the genotype of the tall plant? a. Cross the tall plant with another tall plant. b. Cross the tall plant with a known heterozygous plant. c. The tall plant can only be homozygous. d. Cross the tall plant with a short plant.

50. Which of the following is expressed by individual with blood type AB? a. incomplete dominance b. codominance c. pleiotropy d. independent assortment 51. If two alleles for fur colour, black and white, are incompletely dominant, what will a heterozygote’s fur look like? a. gray b. black c. white d. black and white spots 52. Which of the following is an example of gene expression that is influenced by environmental factors? a. purple pea plants b. blood type c. arctic fox fur colour d. Down syndrome

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Chap 06_2ce 53. Which of the following genetic disorders is more common in males? a. Duchene muscular dystrophy b. cystic fibrosis c. Tay Sachs d. Down syndrome 54. If a dad has hemophilia and the mom does not carry any hemophilia alleles, what is the probability that these parents will have children with hemophilia? a. 100% b. 50% c. 25% d. 0% 55. In fruit flies, the white eye allele is recessive to the red eye allele and is also found on the X chromosome. If the mother fruit fly is a heterozygous red-eyed fruit fly, and the father is a red-eyed fruit fly, what is the probability that they will have a white-eyed baby? a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% 56. Black fur is incompletely dominant over white fur. If both parent mice are heterozygotes, how many of their offspring will have black fur? a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% 57. A family has four children, all of which are girls. They are expecting their fifth child. What is the possibility this child will be a boy? a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100% 58. Which of the following genotypes will a female with Turner syndrome have? a. XX b. XXX c. XO d. XYY 59. A testcross is conducted, and the phenotypic ratio of the offspring is 50% expressing the dominant trait and 50% showing the recessive trait. Which of the following traits did the testcross involve? a. heterozygous, homozygous recessive b. homozygous dominant, homozygous recessive c. heterozygous, homozygous dominant d. heterozygous, heterozygous 60. You conduct a cross between red roses and white roses and get all pink roses. What is the relationship between the red and white rose colour? a. Red is dominant to white. b. White is dominant to red. c. There is incomplete dominance. d. There is codominance.

61. Which term refers to a phenotype that is determined by multiple genes? a. pleiotropic b. polygenic c. heterozygous d. codominant

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Chap 06_2ce 62. Which of the following blood types is referred to as the universal donor? a. type AB b. type A positive c. type B negative d. type O negative 63. If a dad has hemophilia and the mom does not carry any hemophilia alleles, what is the probability that these parents would have daughters that are carriers of hemophilia? a. 100% b. 75% c. 50% d. 25% 64. Which of the following characterizes homologous chromosomes? a. They have the same genes but unique sets of alleles. b. They have the same alleles but unique sets of genes. c. They separate completely in nondisjunction. d. They separate initially during telophase.

65. Which of the following is an autosomal dominant disease? a. Tay Sachs b. Duchene muscular dystrophy c. Sickle cell anemia d. Huntington’s disease 66. What does height in humans exemplify? a. polygenic inheritance b. codominance c. incomplete dominance d. pleiotropy

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Chap 06_2ce Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. True 15. c 16. d 17. b 18. a 19. c 20. c 21. b 22. c 23. c 24. a 25. b 26. d

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Chap 06_2ce 27. b 28. b 29. b 30. a 31. c 32. a 33. b 34. b 35. c 36. a 37. a 38. a 39. a 40. c 41. b 42. c 43. a 44. d 45. d 46. a 47. d 48. a 49. d 50. b 51. a 52. c 53. a 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_2ce 55. b 56. b 57. b 58. c 59. a 60. c 61. b 62. d 63. c 64. a 65. d 66. a

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Chap 07_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Lamarck studied the ideas of evolution before Darwin. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. Fossils are the most direct evidence of macroevolution. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. Punctuated equilibrium is a slow and gradual process whereby very small changes occur over millions of years. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. DNA mutations that occur in somatic cells during an individual’s life will always be passed to their offspring. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. Evolution is the change in the non-inherited traits in a population of organisms over time. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. Microevolution is defined as the change in inherited traits in a population of organisms within multiple species over time. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. All vertebrate embryos have pharyngeal pouches. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 07_2ce 8. Antibiotic resistance is an example of microevolution. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. Populations evolve by means of natural selection. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. Natural selection refers to the process where the organisms that are the least fit for an environment survive and reproduce and pass their DNA to their offspring. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. Population genetics is the study of the frequency of alleles in a population. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. The breeding of farm animals is often an example of artificial selection. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. Most DNA mutations are considered beneficial because they are the ultimate source of genetic variation in every population. a. True b. False a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

14. What percent of bacteria are known to be beneficial to humans? a. 100% b. 95% c. 85% d. 80%

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Chap 07_2ce 15. Humans share several features with mice. Certain genes and proteins are nearly identical between species; both have a gene that codes for a cytochrome C protein. In evolutionary terms, what is this an example of? a. homology b. adaption by natural selection c. selection pressure d. biological similarity 16. What is antibiotic resistance an example of? a. selection pressure b. artificial selection c. stabilizing selection d. punctuated equilibrium 17. Which statement best describes the mode of selection depicted in the figure?

a. This depicts stabilizing selection, which favours the average individual. b. This depicts disruptive selection, which favours the average individual. c. This depicts disruptive selection, which changes the population average over time. d. This depicts directional selection, which changes the population average over time.

18. How many mice in the population will have the black fur phenotype? a. 4% b. 20% c. 64% d. 84% 19. What is the frequency of the recessive allele? a. 0.04 b. 0.20 c. 0.64 d. 0.80 20. Which term is defined as the relationship between organisms and their environment? a. ecology b. evolution c. habitat d. lifestyle

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Chap 07_2ce 21. Which of the following will alter Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? a. if there are no gene mutations b. if there is no input of any new alleles c. random mating d. the bottleneck effect 22. Which of the following statements is NOT true of Darwin’s theory of evolution? a. All species arise from pre-existing ancestral organisms. b. Organisms accumulate differences over time that allow some to be better suited to their environment. c. Each individual organism can evolve during its life depending on the changes in its environment. d. Genetic variation exists in every population.

23. How many of the rabbits will be brown in a sample size of 200? a. 192 b. 160 c. 128 d. 96 24. Which of the following statements refers to organisms of the same species? a. They can interbreed and produce viable, fertile offspring. b. They can interbreed but do not produce viable, fertile offspring. c. They remain unchanged for thousands of years. d. They do not undergo natural selection.

25. What did Darwin discover about many of the species on the Galapagos Islands? a. They resembled species on the nearest mainland. b. They were identical to the South American species. c. They resembled species from North America. d. They resembled species in Europe.

26. In Africa, ____ individuals are more likely to die from malaria, and ____ individuals are more likely to die from sickle cell anemia. a. homozygous dominant, homozygous recessive b. homozygous recessive, homozygous dominant c. heterozygous, homozygous recessive d. homozygous dominant, heterozygous 27. Which term refers to the process by which environmental changes cause many of the organisms in the population to die and alters the frequency of alleles in that population? a. genetic drift b. bottleneck effect c. gene flow d. mutation 28. Which of the following is a form of selection that favours the survival of the intermediate phenotypes? a. stabilizing selection b. interconnecting selection c. disruptive selection d. directional selection 29. How long have Homo sapiens lived on earth? a. 2000 years b. 20 000 years c. 200 000 years d. 2 million years Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_2ce 30. How many heterozygous mice are in the population? a. 4% b. 32% c. 48% d. 64% 31. There are many varieties of tomatoes that exist—from large hothouse tomatoes to small sweet cherry tomatoes.

These exist largely as a result of which of the following? a. natural selection b. artificial selection c. global warming d. the bottleneck effect 32. Which of the following is the most accurate way to compare how closely related different species are? For example, how do we know that humans are more similar to primates than to birds? a. DNA sequences b. homologous structures c. the fossil record d. organ structures 33. With respect to the Hardy-Weinburg equilibrium, all EXCEPT which of the following statements must be true? a. The population is stable. b. The population is not evolving. c. There are constant DNA mutations. d. The allele frequencies stay the same over successive generations.

34. In a sample size of 150 rabbits, how many are heterozygous? a. 24 b. 32 c. 48 d. 96 35. Which term refers to the modifying of species by selecting and breeding individuals with desired traits over many generations? a. natural selection b. artificial selection c. cloning d. selective selection 36. What two major components form the basis of Darwin’s theory of evolution? a. natural selection and population genetics b. over-reproduction and artificial selection c. phenotype and genotype d. microevolution and macroevolution 37. Which of the following represents the frequency of recessive alleles? a. p b. q c. 2pq d. q2

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Chap 07_2ce 38. Which organisms share the most recent common ancestors?

a. lemurs and orangutans c. chimpanzees and gibbons

b. gorillas and tarsiers d. orangutans and gorillas

39. Which of the following is the ultimate source of new alleles in a population? a. non-random mating b. founder effect c. migration d. mutations 40. If a disease were to cause a pandemic among humans, but a small population was immune, what would this be an example of? a. stabilizing selection b. interconnecting selection c. disruptive selection d. directional selection 41. Which of the following describes Lamarck’s theory of evolution? a. It is survival of the fittest. b. Only strong predators or fast prey will survive to reproduce. c. Each organism adapts during life and acquires new characteristics that can be passed on to offspring. d. All organisms that exist have always existed and they do not change over time.

42. Which of the following terms is most often used to describe the process of evolution? a. survival of the fittest b. population genetics c. acquired traits d. gradualism 43. Which term refers to the transfer of alleles from one population to another? a. gene flow b. genetic drift c. mutation d. bottleneck effect

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Chap 07_2ce 44. What percentage of the squirrels are heterozygous? a. 36% b. 40% c. 48% d. 60% 45. When someone produces more red blood cells because they have moved to live at a higher elevation, this is an example of which of the following? a. microevolution b. macroevolution c. adaptation d. DNA mutations 46. Which of the following is indicated by a change in a guppy population over time from a bright and coloured phenotype to a spotted and camouflaged phenotype? a. directional selection b. non-random mating c. stabilizing selection d. disruptive selection 47. Evolution of a new species that occurs over millions of years with constant small changes is known as which of the following? a. punctuated equilibrium b. stasis c. fossilization d. gradualism 48. Which term do evolutionists use to compare the anatomy of different organisms and to show that similarities indicate a common ancestor? a. homologues structures b. chromosomes c. comparative anatomy d. alleles 49. Which of the following is an example of a microevolutionary change that happened in the guppy example when there was a predator in one of the populations? a. The fish with the predator grew to be much larger. b. The fish with the predator became more colourful. c. This fish without the predator reproduced at a younger age. d. The fish with the predator became much faster swimmers.

50. What two key theories explain the rate of evolution? a. microevolution and macroevolution b. microevolution and gradualism c. gradualism and punctuated equilibrium d. macroevolution and punctuated equilibrium 51. What percent of the squirrel population is black? a. 36% b. 48% c. 64% d. 84% 52. Which term refers to the theory that relates to the appearance of new species over thousands of years? a. microevolution b. macroevolution c. natural selection d. evolution

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Chap 07_2ce 53. What is the frequency of the homozygous dominant rabbits? a. 20% b. 32% c. 64% d. 80% 54. What is the frequency of homozygous dominant individuals? a. 16% b. 60% c. 36% d. 30% 55. A population of cattle is observed over years. Most of the bulls are observed to have the same size horns, although a few have significantly large or significantly small horns. The average horn size remains consistent over the years. What process is observed here? a. directional selection b. average selection c. stabilizing selection d. disruptive selection 56. What proportion of the population would you expect to have white fur? a. 16% b. 24% c. 48% d. 84% 57. Humans are genetically the most similar to which of the following? a. gorillas b. orangutans c. chimpanzees d. spider monkeys 58. A population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium has a frequency of homozygous recessive individuals that is equal to which of the following? a. 2q b. p2 c. q2 d. 2pq 59. The main lines of evidence that suggest existing species come from a common ancestor include all EXCEPT which of the following? a. fossils b. homologous anatomy c. homologous molecules d. homologous species

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Chap 07_2ce Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. False 14. b 15. a 16. a 17. d 18. d 19. b 20. a 21. d 22. c 23. a 24. a 25. a 26. a

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Chap 07_2ce 27. b 28. a 29. c 30. c 31. b 32. a 33. c 34. c 35. b 36. d 37. b 38. d 39. d 40. d 41. c 42. a 43. a 44. c 45. c 46. a 47. d 48. a 49. d 50. c 51. d 52. b 53. c 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_2ce 55. c 56. a 57. c 58. c 59. d

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Chap 08_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. At the DNA replication fork, one daughter strand is replicated continuously, and the other daughter strand is replicated discontinuously in Okazaki fragments. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. Somatic cell mutations can be passed to future generations. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. DNA strands are always aligned in parallel. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. Transposons are sequences of DNA that are able to move themselves to another chromosome within a cell. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. Rosalind Franklin provided Watson and Crick with important information that helped them to solve the 3-D structure of DNA. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. DNA replication begins at the origin of replication. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. Most bacteria cells have telomeres and can divide indefinitely. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 08_2ce 8. The role of primase is to add a small RNA primer to the open end of DNA, which allows replication to begin when there is no 3’ hydroxyl group available. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. If a DNA mutation cannot be fixed, the cell will kill itself by a process called apoptosis. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. During DNA replication, the leading strand must replicate in fragments called Okazaki fragments. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. Telomeres are found in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. Okazaki fragments are involved in prokaryotic replication. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. DNA mutations are the primary source of genetic variation within a population. a. True b. False a. True b. False 14. The enzyme ligase forms phosphodiester bonds. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 08_2ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

15. What do we call the process by which the enzyme polymerase recognizes some mistakes during replication? a. proofreading b. activation c. recognition d. telomerization 16. Which of the following is accurate about DNA polymerase? a. Polymerase adds new nucleotides to the 3? end of the previous nucleotide. b. Polymerase adds new nucleotides to the 5? end of the previous nucleotide. c. Polymerase can add nucleotides in either direction. d. Polymerase can separate nucleotides in either direction.

17. Consider the following sentence: “The cat ate the rat.” Which of the following is most like a frameshift mutation? a. The cca tat eth era t. b. The cat cat cat cat ate the rat. c. Rat the ate cat the. d. The cot ate the rat.

18. Which of the following is a disease caused by a CAG inserted repeat? a. sickle cell anemia b. Huntington’s disease c. cancer d. cystic fibrosis 19. Which of the following can cause cervical cancer? a. HIV b. HPV c. hepatitis B d. Epstein Barr 20. A scientist is conducting a study in mice and discovers that the offspring are no longer able to produce a specific protein. What might the scientist conclude from this observation? a. An insertional inactivation mutation may have occurred. b. A silent mutation may have occurred. c. This same condition will be seen in future generations because it is a somatic cell mutation. d. This is normal; mice do not produce proteins.

21. How does DNA differ from RNA? a. DNA has thymine and RNA doesn’t. b. DNA is a single-stranded and RNA is double stranded. c. DNA contains ribose and RNA contains glucose. d. DNA contains phosphate groups and RNA doesn’t.

22. During eukaryotic DNA replication, which of the following is added to the 3’ OH group? a. deoxyribose b. nucleoside triphosphate c. nitrogenous base d. nucleoside diphosphate 23. During DNA replication, which of the following breaks the hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs? a. ligase b. primase c. polymerase d. helicase

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Chap 08_2ce 24. Which of the following is NOT a type of replication error? a. substitution b. insertion c. transition d. deletion 25. Which of the following makes up a nucleotide? a. sugar and base b. sugar + base + phosphate c. sugar + base + 3 phosphates d. base + phosphate 26. Which of the following is the most likely to cause a silent mutation? a. insertion of large DNA sequence into the middle of a gene b. frameshift mutation c. addition mutation d. substitution mutation 27. Which of the following represents our biological age? a. number of DNA mutations b. length of telomeres c. amount of telomerase d. number of TATA repeats 28. On which carbon of deoxyribose is the base attached? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 29. What kind of bond holds the complementary bases together in DNA? a. phosphodiester b. hydrogen c. peptide d. sugar 30. Which of the following is a virus that can cause liver cancer? a. HIV b. hepatitis B c. Epstein Barr d. human papillomavirus 31. DNA replicates by which of the following processes? a. conservative replication b. semi-conservative replication c. dispersive replication d. disruptive replication 32. Which of the following is an example of a point mutation? a. viral infection b. nucleotide deletion c. recombination d. transposition 33. While studying a strand of DNA, you observe a thymine molecule attached to a deoxyribose sugar. You recognize this as which of the following? a. a macromolecule b. a nucleotide c. a nitrogenous base d. a nucleoside

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Chap 08_2ce 34. Which of the following is the correct order of DNA replication? a. DNA unwinds ? complementary nucleotides are added ? RNA primers are added ? RNA primers are replaced with DNA b. DNA unwinds ? RNA primers are added ? complementary nucleotides are added ? RNA primers are replaced with DNA c. RNA primers are added ? DNA unwinds ? complementary nucleotides are added ? RNA primers are replaced with DNA d. DNA unwinds ? RNA primers are added ? RNA primers are replaced with DNA ? complementary nucleotides are added 35. Which of the following foods would be a good source of nucleosides? a. white bread b. vegetables c. butter d. sugar 36. Which of the following is an example of a disease caused by a mutation in a DNA repair enzyme? a. cystic fibrosis b. PKU c. lung cancer d. colorectal cancer 37. Which of the following is a disease that prevents the breakdown of the amino acid phenylalanine? a. cystic fibrosis b. Huntington’s disease c. PKU d. cancer 38. Which of the following is the sugar molecule found in DNA? a. ribose b. oxyribose c. deoxyribose d. deribose 39. Which of the following is the body’s main source of nucleotides? a. synthesis by the liver b. digestion of processed foods c. a plant or animal-based diet d. synthesis by the spleen 40. What does the DNA backbone consists of? a. Alternating sugar-phosphate molecules held together by phosphodiester bonds. b. Alternating sugar-phosphate molecules held together by hydrogen bonds. c. Alternating sugar-nitrogen bases held together by phosphodiester bonds. d. Alternating sugar-nitrogen bases held together by hydrogen bonds.

41. During DNA replication a mutation occurred in which two purines have paired. Which of the following statements describes this? a. Guanine and thymine have paired, and the result is a decreased diameter in this area of the double helix. b. Adenine and guanine have paired, and the result is an increased diameter in this area of the double helix. c. Adenine and cytosine have paired, and the result is an increased diameter in this area of the double helix. d. Thymine and cytosine have paired, and the result is a decreased diameter in this area of the double helix.

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Chap 08_2ce 42. Which strand forms Okazaki fragments during replication? a. leading strand b. lagging strand c. leading strand in bacterial cells but lagging strand in eukaryotes d. lagging strand in bacteria but leading strand in eukaryotes 43. Which of the following statements is true with respect to deoxyribose? a. A hydroxyl group is attached to the second carbon in deoxyribose. b. Deoxyribose is a six-carbon sugar. c. Phosphate groups are bond to carbons 2 and 5. d. Two hydrogens are attached to the second carbon in deoxyribose.

44. What is this?

a. ribose c. cytosine

b. deoxyribose d. glucose

45. Because the first nucleotides cannot be linked in a newly synthesized strand during DNA replication, which of the following is required? a. DNA polymerase b. ligase c. helicase d. primase 46. How many mRNA nucleotides would have coded for a protein containing 300 amino acids? a. 100 b. 300 c. 600 d. 900 47. Sarah has an eight-month-old daughter who suffers from phenylketonuria. Which of the following statements is FALSE with respect to this disease? a. Sarah’s daughter was most likely diagnosed at birth. b. Sarah’s greatest concern is damage to her daughter’s liver. c. The cause of her daughter’s condition is a mutation in her liver enzyme gene. d. Sarah’s daughter acquired this disease from her parents.

48. Which of the following enzymes adds the small RNA-starting fragments during DNA replication? a. polymerase b. primase c. ligase d. helicase

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Chap 08_2ce 49. Which of the following is true about eukaryotic genes? a. They are 90% introns, which are the coding regions. b. They are 90% exons, which are the coding regions. c. They are 90% introns but the exons are the coding regions. d. They are 90% exons but the introns are the coding regions.

50. Which of the following best describes the central dogma of gene expression? a. RNA – DNA – protein b. DNA – amino acid – RNA – protein c. DNA – tRNA – mRNA – protein d. DNA – RNA – protein 51. In the DNA double helix, what holds together the two DNA molecules? a. hydrogen bonds between base pairs b. ionic bonds between the sugar and phosphate c. covalent bonds between base pairs d. polar covalent bonds between the sugar and phosphate 52. Which of the following describes how DNA replication occurs? a. It occurs in the 5? to 3? direction. b. It occurs in both the 5? to 3? and 3? to 5? direction. c. It occurs in the 3? to 5? direction. d. It occurs on one strand at a time in the 3? to 5? direction 53. Which of the following is a genetic disease caused by a mutation in chloride channel membrane proteins? a. sickle cell anemia b. Huntington’s disease c. cancer d. cystic fibrosis 54. Which of the following statements about DNA is correct? a. The amount of adenine always equals that of thymine. b. The amount of adenine always equals that of cytosine. c. The amount of thymine always equals that of guanine. d. The amount of thymine always equals that of cytosine.

55. Regarding DNA replication in prokaryotes, which of the following statements is true? a. Polymerase replicates the DNA, and Okazaki fragments are formed on one strand. b. The enzyme topoisomerase is not necessary for DNA replication in prokaryotes. c. Similar to eukaryotes, helicase unwinds the DNA. d. Two primers are required on each strand to start the replication.

56. All EXCEPT which one of the following statements are true with respect to transposition mutations? a. They can alter the regulation of protein expression. b. They may result in the production of a non-functional protein. c. They can cause no noticeable effect. d. They are also known as a frameshift mutation.

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Chap 08_2ce 57. What is the structure of DNA? a. double helix b. alpha helix c. beta pleated sheet d. single strand of nucleosides 58. Amino acids are the subunits that make up which of the following? a. carbohydrates b. proteins c. nucleic acids d. lipids 59. Which of the following enzymes has “proofreading” activity? a. primase b. ligase c. helicase d. polymerase 60. Julie has recently been diagnosed with non-polyposis colorectal cancer. Which of the following statements is true? a. One of Julie’s parents suffered from this condition. b. Julie’s parents may have been carriers for this type of cancer, but have not been affected. c. This is caused by somatic cell mutations, and Julie’s parents are both healthy. d. If Julie has children they may not be affected.

61. When DNA polymerase is in contact with adenine in the parental strand, what does it add to the growing DNA daughter strand? a. uracil b. guanine c. thymine d. cytosine 62. Which of the following enzymes relieves supercoiling in DNA? a. topoisomerase b. ligase c. helicase d. primase 63. Which of the following statements is true about DNA damage? a. All DNA damage results in disease such as cancer. b. All DNA damage results from physical or chemical damage. c. Most DNA damage is advantageous to the cell. d. Most DNA damage is repaired by the cell.

64. Which of the following protects genes on the ends of chromosomes from deteriorating during DNA replication? a. centromeres b. telomeres c. DNA polymerase d. ligase 65. What are the monomers of DNA and RNA? a. nucleotides b. nucleosides c. amino acids d. nucleic acids 66. Which of the following is important to have in our diet to help prevent DNA damage from free radicals? a. protein b. sugar c. antioxidants d. calcium Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_2ce 67. Which of the following forms phosphodiester bonds after the RNA primers are removed? a. helicase b. polymerase c. phosphodiesterase d. ligase 68. What is the human telomere mostly composed of? a. adenine b. guanine c. thymine d. cytosine 69. Which of the following is accurate about telomerase? a. It causes telomeres to shorten with each DNA replication. b. It prevents telomere shortening. c. It is only expressed in cancer cells. d. It is only expressed in liver cells.

70. Your doctor has prescribed you a broad-spectrum antibiotic from the fluoroquinolone family. You remember your biology lecture and start to discuss with your doctor how this antibiotic will work. Which of the following would you state? a. This antibiotic will inhibit the topoisomerase enzyme, and as a result DNA replication will cease. b. This antibiotic will inhibit the enzyme ligase, which will slow DNA replication. c. This antibiotic will take 14 to 20 days to work because bacteria cells are resilient. d. This antibiotic will inhibit the DNA double helix from unwinding to allow replication.

71. What nucleotide is unique to RNA? a. adenine b. uracil c. thymine d. guanine 72. If a DNA sequence is 3' TCAAGTCTA 5', what is the complementary DNA sequence? a. 5' TCAAGTCTA 3' b. 3' UCAAGUCUA 5' c. 3' ATCTGAACT 5' d. 5' AGTTCAGAT 3' 73. Which of the following nucleotides are purines? a. adenine and guanine b. adenine and thymine c. cytosine and thymine d. cytosine and guanine 74. Which of the following is a purine? a. cytosine b. uracil c. adenine d. thymine

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Chap 08_2ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. False 12. False 13. True 14. True 15. a 16. a 17. a 18. b 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. b 23. d 24. c 25. b 26. d

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Chap 08_2ce 27. b 28. a 29. b 30. b 31. b 32. b 33. d 34. b 35. b 36. d 37. c 38. c 39. c 40. a 41. b 42. b 43. d 44. a 45. d 46. d 47. b 48. b 49. c 50. d 51. a 52. a 53. d 54. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_2ce 55. c 56. d 57. a 58. b 59. d 60. a 61. c 62. a 63. d 64. b 65. a 66. c 67. d 68. b 69. b 70. a 71. b 72. d 73. a 74. c

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Chap 09_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Prokaryotes can undergo transcription and translation at the same time. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. The template strand of DNA is also known as the antisense strand. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. The central dogma is the flow of information from RNA to proteins to genes. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. The terminator sequence located on a DNA molecule causes the mRNA molecule to form a hairpin loop that makes the RNA polymerase dissociate from the DNA. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. Amino acids may be coded for by more than one codon. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. During translation, the first tRNA carrying the methionine amino acid binds to the A site on the large subunit of the ribosome. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. Slicing involves adding a 5? cap and a 3? tail. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 09_2ce 8. A codon is a sequence of three amino acids. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. The 3? end of the mRNA enters the ribosome first. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. In regard to ribosomes, the mRNA binds to the large subunits, and the tRNA binds to the small subunit. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. Transcription of mRNA occurs on ribosomes and results in a protein. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. The sense strand and coding strand are synonyms. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. If glucose and lactose are both present in E. coli, transcription will occur. a. True b. False a. True b. False 14. The lac operon is responsible for lactose metabolism in humans. a. True b. False a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

15. At which stage is the tertiary structure of protein complete? a. initiation of transcription b. completion of transcription c. initiation of translation d. completion of translation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_2ce 16. In the following diagram of the lac operon, which of the following is true?

a. Glucose is not present, and lactose is present. b. Glucose is present, and lactose is not present. c. Glucose and lactose are both present. d. Glucose and lactose are both not present.

17. Where do peptide bonds form in the ribosome during translation? a. A site b. P site c. E site d. in the cytoplasm 18. What is the process by which genotypes become expressed as phenotypes? a. transcription b. gene expression c. translation d. biotechnology 19. In eukaryotes, what is the name for the regions that eventually form the code for proteins? a. introns b. exons c. snRNPs d. caps 20. Which of the following can alter the regulation of transcription faster? a. eukaryotes b. prokaryotes c. fungi d. plants 21. Which of the following is NOT used during translation? a. ribosome b. tRNA c. mRNA d. RNA polymerase 22. What is the name given to the nucleotide sequence that is complementary to the template sequence of the gene? a. transfer RNA b. messenger RNA c. ribosomal RNA d. antisense strand 23. How does RNA polymerase “know” when to stop transcription? a. It encounters a stop codon. b. It encounters a termination sequence in the gene. c. RNA polymerase automatically falls off after 1000 base pairs. d. Transcription factors cause polymerase to stop.

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Chap 09_2ce 24. To which regulatory region of DNA does the RNA polymerase bind? a. operator region b. transcription initiation site c. promoter region d. CAP binding site 25. What amino acid sequence will be formed from the following DNA molecule?

Template - 5’ CTGCGATCG 3’ Coding - 3’ GACGCTAGC 5’ a. Arg – Ser – Gln b. Gln – Ser – Arg c. Asp – Ala – Ser d. Ser – Ala – Asp 26. What has occurred between the parental generation and the offspring in the following example?

Parental Sense strand: 5’AGCTTAGCCTTGTTA 3’ Antisense strand: 3’ TCGAATCGGAACAAT 5’ mRNA: 5’ AGC UUA GCC UUG UUA 3’ Protein: Ser-Leu-Ala-Leu-Leu Offspring Sense strand: 5’AGCTTAGCGTAGTTA 3’ Antisense strand: 3’ TCGAATCGGATCAAT 5’ mRNA: 5’ AGC UUA GCG UAG UUA 3’ Protein: Ser-Leu-Ala-Leu-Leu a. normal gene expression resulting in a functional protein b. a silent mutation resulting in a functional protein c. a silent mutation resulting in a non-functional mutation d. a detrimental mutation resulting in a non-functional protein 27. Which of the following is responsible for removing introns? a. ligase b. polymerase c. spliceosome d. terminator sequence 28. Use the following diagram for the next 3 questions. What is shown in the diagram?

a. mRNA c. cDNA

b. tRNA d. rRNA

29. Which of the following acts as the on/off switch in an operon? a. promoter b. operator c. CAP binding protein d. activator Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_2ce 30. The stages of transcription include all EXCEPT which one of the following? a. initiation b. elongation c. translocation d. termination 31. Which of the following will decrease or prevent transcription? a. methylation b. enhancer elements c. histones d. activators 32. Where does post-translational modification occur? a. nucleus b. cytoplasm c. Golgi bodies d. ribosomes 33. Which of the following statements is true with respect to alternate splicing? a. Various introns become part of the mature mRNA at different times, allowing a large number of proteins to be produced. b. Methyl groups are added, most commonly to cytosine, and gene transcription is prevented. c. Regulation is determined by the altering between an activator and a repressor. d. Certain exons become part of the mature mRNA at different times, which allows many more proteins to be produced than genes available.

34. What codon will the tRNA bind to if it has CCU as its anticodon? a. UCC b. AGG c. TGG d. GGA 35. Which of the following will lactose bind to in E. coli cells? a. operator b. promoter c. enhancer d. repressor 36. In prokaryotes, what is the name of the cluster of genes that have related functions and DNA control sequences? a. activator b. promoter c. operon d. intron 37. Which of the following is responsible for carrying amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis? a. mRNA b. tRNA c. sRNA d. rRNA 38. What are ribosomes made of? a. Proteins and rRNA b. rRNA and tRNA c. Proteins and mRNA d. mRNA and rRNA 39. Which term refers to changes in the nucleotide sequence that have no effect on the amino acid sequence? a. null mutations b. silent mutations c. frameshift mutations d. missense mutations

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Chap 09_2ce 40. Put the following statements in the correct order.

1. The peptide bond forms.

2. The tRNA binds to the A site.

3. The empty tRNA molecule leaves the ribosome. a. 1 – 2 – 3 b. 3 – 2 – 1 c. 2 – 1 – 3 d. 2 – 3 – 1 41. Which of the following is the most common mechanism for regulating gene expression in eukaryotes? a. transcription factors b. methylation c. mRNA degradation d. exon shuffling 42. The lac operon transcribes 3 genes when the bacterium ingests which of the following? a. transcription factors b. lactose c. repressors d. operators 43. The peptide bond between amino acids is formed at which ribosomal site? a. P site b. A site c. E site d. small subunit 44. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for the regulation of gene expression in eukaryotes? a. methylation b. mRNA degradation c. DNA processing d. transcription factors 45. During translation, in which direction does a transfer RNA molecule move on a ribosome? a. from A site to P site to E site b. from A site to E site to P site c. from P site to A site to E site d. from P site to E site to A site 46. What is the name of the process that protects mRNA from rapid enzymatic degradation? a. splicing b. post-translational modification c. capping d. polyadenylation 47. How many genes are found in the human genome? a. 10 000 b. 15 000 c. 20 000 d. 25 000 48. What is the function of snRNPs? a. to form the ribosomal small subunit b. to add the poly A tail to mRNA c. to remove introns from the primary RNA transcript d. to form peptide bonds in the P site 49. We have 25 000 genes but can make over 120 000 different proteins. What makes this possible? a. alternative splicing b. the genetic code changing regularly c. transposons d. duplication mutations

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Chap 09_2ce 50. Which term refers to the transfer of information from DNA to mRNA? a. transformation b. RNA processing c. transcription d. translation 51. Which of the following is required for the RNA polymerase to find the beginning of a gene? a. repressor b. DNA polymerase c. promoter d. terminator 52. What amino acid will the above tRNA be carrying? a. Pro b. Arg c. Gly d. Lys 53. Which of the following is the process of making a protein from a mRNA sequence on a ribosome? a. transcription b. translation c. duplication d. splicing 54. What part of the lac operon does the repressor bind to? a. repressor b. promoter c. operator d. enhancer 55. Where does post-translational modification of proteins occur? a. nucleus b. cytoplasm c. Golgi d. ribosome 56. What is the start codon on the mRNA molecule? a. It is always methionine. b. It varies depending on the protein being coded. c. It is always GUA. d. There are three possibilities: UAA, UAG or UGA. 57. What amino acids are coded for by AUGCCUCGUGGCUGA?

Source: From Russell/Hertz/McMillan. Biology, 4E. © 2017 Brooks/Cole, a part of Cengage, Inc. Reproduced by permission. www.cengage.com/permissions a. Gly-Arg-Pro-Met b. Pro-Arg-Gly-Trp c. Met-Pro-Arg-Gly d. Pro-Arg-Gly-Cys 58. In a human cell, where does transcription take place? a. on the ribosomes b. in the Golgi bodies c. in the nucleus d. in the cytoplasm 59. Where does RNA processing occur? a. cytoplasm b. ribosome c. Golgi d. nucleus

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Chap 09_2ce 60. Given the following DNA sequence, what is the corresponding mRNA sequence?

Sense strand: 5’ GCATGGCTTA 3’ Antisense strand: 3’ CGTACCGAAT 5’ a. 5’ GCAUGGCUUA 3’ b. 3’ CGUAGGCAAU 5’ c. 5’ GCATGGCTTA 3’ d. 3’ CGTACCGAAT 5’ 61. What are the “TATA box” and the “CAT box”? a. transfer RNA molecules b. terminator sequences of DNA c. activating enzymes d. promoter regions of DNA 62. Where does protein synthesis occur? a. on ribosomes in the cytoplasm b. within the Golgi apparatus c. within the nuclear pores d. in the inner mitochondrial membrane 63. Gene silencing is also known as which of the following? a. methylation b. RNA degradation c. mRNA degradation d. exon shuffling

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Chap 09_2ce Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. False 12. True 13. False 14. False 15. d 16. d 17. b 18. b 19. b 20. b 21. d 22. b 23. d 24. c 25. c 26. b

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Chap 09_2ce 27. a 28. b 29. b 30. c 31. a 32. c 33. d 34. d 35. d 36. c 37. b 38. a 39. b 40. c 41. a 42. b 43. a 44. c 45. a 46. d 47. d 48. c 49. a 50. c 51. c 52. c 53. b 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_2ce 55. c 56. a 57. c 58. c 59. d 60. a 61. d 62. a 63. a

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Chap 10_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. A vector is synonymous with vehicle in biotechnology. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. Flavr Savr tomatoes are genetically engineered to have the ethylene ripening gene mutated, so tomatoes stay green and unripe unless sprayed with ethylene by humans. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. At this time, research is inconclusive as to the safety of GMOs. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. The process by which bacteria take up plasmids is known as transduction. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. Bacteria are more reliable than animals in the production of functional proteins. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. Fraternal twins have identical VNTR sequence variations. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. The rBST hormone is not used in dairy cows in Canada or Europe, although it is still used in the United States. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 10_2ce 8. Mixing bacterial DNA and human DNA that have been cut with the same enzyme, will always produce recombinant DNA. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. Gel electrophoresis uses electrical current to separate strands of DNA based on the length of the DNA sequence. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. Bacteria are used to produce erythropoietin, which is a protein used in the treatment of autoimmune diseases. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. Mixing bacterial DNA and human DNA that have been cut with the same enzyme, will always produce recombinant DNA. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. Genetically engineered plants can be permanently protected from a specific pest. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) allows a researcher to accurately cut the appropriate gene out of a chromosome. a. True b. False a. True b. False 14. A physician is trying to help a patient suffering from a viral infection. A potential treatment is called antisense therapy. a. True b. False a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_2ce 15. It is possible to have bacteria produce cow somatotropin (growth hormone). a. True b. False a. True b. False 16. Gene cloning can be done by making many copies of a specific gene using bacteria. a. True b. False a. True b. False 17. Human DNA can be isolated from any red blood cell. a. True b. False a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

18. Which term refers to the mechanism by which a cell takes up fragments of DNA from the surrounding medium? a. transcription b. translation c. transformation d. transduction 19. Why is antibiotic resistance useful to genetic engineers? a. It causes all bacteria to die. b. It kills bacteria that did not take up a plasmid. c. It causes bacterial colonies to turn blue. d. It allows bacteria to be infected by viruses.

20. Which of the following is a vector that is a virus that can insert DNA into bacteria? a. bacteriophage b. plasmid c. YAC d. cosmid 21. Which of the following is a human drug, created through genetic engineering, used to treat some autoimmune diseases? a. growth hormone b. insulin c. interferon d. erythropoietin 22. Once the DNA has been cut, what is the next step required to make the medication? a. transformation b. transduction c. combine with ligase d. hybridization 23. Which of the following is a vector that can be used to carry large sequences of DNA? a. plasmid b. YAC (yeast artificial chromosome) c. cosmid d. lacZ Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_2ce 24. Which of the following is used to detect bacterial colonies that have a recombinant plasmid? a. restriction enzymes b. promoter c. multiple cloning site d. lacZ 25. What type of bonds within a DNA molecule is cut by restriction enzymes? a. hydrogen bonds b. phosphodiester bonds c. covalent bonds d. peptide bonds 26. Which of the following refers to the process of inserting a gene into an individual’s cells to replace a mutated gene? a. gel electrophoresis b. PCR c. DNA fingerprinting d. gene therapy 27. Which of the following terms refers to nucleotide sequences from two different organisms? a. recombinant DNA b. proteome c. vector d. template DNA 28. Which of the following is an example of artificial selection? a. chickens that don’t have feathers b. blue strawberries c. enviro pigs d. broccoli 29. Which of the following is a potential risk to the environment with genetically modified organisms? a. GMOs are killed by herbicides. b. GMOs are healthier foods that will eventually replace all natural foods. c. Eating genetically modified papayas can cause ringspot virus infection in humans. d. GMOs may reproduce with closely related plant species and spread the engineered gene into weed species.

30. A detective is presented with a challenging murder to solve. His two main suspects are brothers. To determine which brother was at the scene of the crime, he asks the crime lab to test the DNA of blood found at the scene.

The lab decides to examine variable number tandem repeats (VNTRs). What is the process called? a. transgenensis b. DNA fingerprinting c. electrophoresis d. polymerase chain reaction (PCR) 31. A scientist is working to generate multiple copies of a specific DNA sequence. Which of the following is NOT a key ingredient? a. Taq polymerase b. reverse transcriptase c. dNTP (nucleotide triphosphates) d. primers 32. What is a genome? a. all the genes of an organism b. all the alleles obtained from an organisms mother c. all the proteins of an organism d. all the chromosomes of an organism

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Chap 10_2ce 33. What will the lab technician be looking for in the colonies of interest to the pharmaceutical company? a. colonies that appear white b. colonies that have been affected by the antibiotic c. colonies that did not take up the plasmid d. colonies that appear clear 34. Why is the multiple cloning site important? a. It is a selectable marker. b. It contains the origin of replication. c. It contains restriction enzyme sites. d. It is where transcription begins.

35. Which of the following terms refers to all of the proteins produced from DNA in an organism? a. genome b. biotechnology c. proteome d. recombinant DNA 36. Gel electrophoresis separates DNA sequences based on which criteria? a. size b. charge c. VNTR sequence d. anneals 37. When using bacteria for genetic engineering, which of the following can cause a problem? a. Bacteria don’t easily take up new DNA. b. Bacteria don’t have RNA polymerase and can’t undergo transcription. c. Bacteria can’t process RNA or modify proteins after translation. d. Bacteria have different nucleotides than eukaryotes.

38. Which of the following is used to make many copies of a specific DNA fragment? a. DNA library b. PCR c. gel electrophoresis d. hybridization 39. Which process is used most commonly in genetic engineering to get a plasmid into a bacterium? a. conjugation b. endocytosis c. transduction d. transformation 40. Which of the following is a vector that can hold very large DNA fragments and can be inserted into eukaryotic cells? a. bacteriophage b. plasmid c. YAC d. cosmid 41. Which of the following is a major limitation when plasmids are used for vectors? a. Plasmids are unable to contain an antibiotic resistant gene. b. Plasmids are unable to contain multiple selectable markers. c. Plasmids contain a single restriction enzyme cut site. d. Plasmids contain only small pieces of DNA.

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Chap 10_2ce 42. Which of the following vectors can be grown in eukaryotic cells? a. plasmids b. bacteriophages c. cosmids d. yeast artificial chromosomes (YACs) 43. Which of the following is a human drug, created through genetic engineering, used to treat anemia? a. growth hormone b. insulin c. interferon d. erythropoietin 44. Why is antibiotic resistance useful to genetic engineers? a. because bacteria never die b. because it can eliminate any bacteria that did not take up a plasmid c. because it causes bacterial colonies to turn blue d. because it allows bacteria to be infected by viruses 45. Which of the following is a DNA palindrome? a. 5’ GAATTC 3’ and 3’ CTTAAG 5’ b. 5’ ATTCAT 3’ and 3’ ATTCAT 5’ c. 5’ CTTAAG 3’ and 3’ GAACTT 5’ d. 5’ ACCTTG 3’ and 3’GCCTTA 5’ 46. What is the name of the process by which bacteria take up plasmids? a. hybridization b. transduction c. transformation d. replication 47. The steps during PCR are most dependent on which of the following? a. temperature b. size c. charge d. enzyme activity 48. Which process is used most commonly in genetic engineering to get a plasmid into a bacterium? a. conjugation b. microinjection c. transduction d. transformation 49. Which of the following vectors provides a eukaryotic system in biotechnology? a. bacteriophage b. lambda phage c. yeast artificial chromosomes (YACs) d. E. coli 50. Agricultural scientists are working on the creation of a transgenic chicken without feathers. Which of the following correctly identifies the steps needed? a. Isolate gene, ligate gene, inject gene into blastocyst, implant blastocyst into female chicken. b. Isolate gene, ligate gene, inject plasmid into stem cell and let grow into blastocyst, implant blastocyst into female chicken. c. Isolate gene, ligate gene, inject gene into blastocyst, implant blastocyst into female chicken. d. Isolate plasmid, ligate plasmid, inject plasmid into stem cell, implant stem cell into female chicken.

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Chap 10_2ce 51. Where are restriction enzymes commonly obtained? a. viruses b. bacteria c. eukaryotes d. proteins 52. A scientist is working to make many copies of a specific gene that codes for calcitonin. Which term refers to this process? a. gene amplification b. genetic engineering c. gene cloning d. gene replication 53. Why is the multiple cloning site important? a. It is a selectable marker. b. It contains the origin of replication. c. It contains restriction enzyme sites. d. It is where transcription begins.

54. Which of the following is NOT a protein medication made by bacteria? a. Clotting factors b. Erythropoietin c. Levadopamine d. Growth hormone 55. Which of the following is a method used for sorting DNA fragments based on how many nucleotides long they are? a. gel electrophoresis b. hybridization c. PCR d. DNA fingerprinting 56. Medical researchers are attempting to discover if a new disease is caused by mutation of a specific gene. Which of the following biotechnology techniques would be the most useful? a. DNA fingerprinting b. polymerase chain reaction (PCR) c. variable number tandem repeats (VNTR) d. genetically engineered mice (e.g., knockout mice) 57. If you have a plate of bacteria containing blue and white colonies, which colonies contain recombinant DNA? a. white b. blue c. They all have recombinant DNA, but the blue ones are lacking a plasmid. d. They all have recombinant DNA, but the white ones are not in colonies.

58. A DNA fragment with a sticky end that reads ACCGGT will bind with another DNA fragment with a sticky end that reads as which of the following? a. GAATTC b. TGGCCA c. CTTAAG d. ATTCCG 59. In gel electrophoresis, what do we call the series of known fragments that are run in the gel? a. a probe b. a ladder c. a primer d. a template

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Chap 10_2ce 60. What is the function of somatotropin? a. to protect cows from viruses c. to increase milk production in cows

b. to kill bacteria in chickens d. to increase egg production in chickens

61. Which of the following is used to detect bacterial colonies that have a recombinant plasmid? a. restriction enzymes b. promoter c. multiple cloning site d. lac Z 62. Which of the following is NOT true with regard to vectors? a. They are able to replicate within the host cell. b. They are able to undergo transcription and translation to produce a functional protein. c. The most common types are proteins. d. They may be a bacterial plasmid.

63. Which of the following is a potential risk to the environment with genetically modified organisms? a. GMOs are killed by herbicides. b. GMOs are healthier and will eventually replace all natural foods. c. GMOs can transmit infections in humans. d. GMOs may reproduce with closely related plant species and spread the engineered gene into weed species, making weeds also resistant to herbicides.

64. What is the function of somatotropin? a. to protect cows from viruses c. to increase milk production in cows

b. to kill bacteria in chickens d. to increase egg production in chickens

65. Which of the following is commonly used as a selectable marker? a. lacZ gene b. dNTPs c. bacteriophage d. plasmid 66. Which of the following can human DNA NOT be isolated from? a. muscle cell b. epithelial cells lining the stomach c. red blood cell d. brain tissue 67. Which of the following DNA sequences is a palindrome? a. GGAAGG b. ATATATA c. AGGCCT d. CCCAAA 68. What is the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis primarily used for? a. production of medication b. production of insect resistant crops c. gene therapy d. creation of a genetic library 69. What approximate temperature is required to denature DNA? a. 55 degrees C b. 65 degrees C c. 75 degrees C d. 95 degrees C

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Chap 10_2ce 70. Which enzyme is used to bind DNA fragments together? a. DNA ligase b. DNA polymerase c. methylase enzyme d. restriction enzyme

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Chap 10_2ce Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. False 12. False 13. False 14. True 15. True 16. True 17. False 18. c 19. b 20. a 21. c 22. c 23. c 24. d 25. b 26. d

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Chap 10_2ce 27. a 28. d 29. d 30. b 31. b 32. a 33. a 34. c 35. c 36. a 37. c 38. b 39. d 40. b 41. d 42. d 43. d 44. b 45. a 46. c 47. a 48. d 49. c 50. b 51. b 52. c 53. c 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_2ce 55. a 56. d 57. a 58. b 59. b 60. c 61. d 62. c 63. d 64. c 65. a 66. c 67. c 68. b 69. d 70. a

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Chap 11_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Epithelial tissue is highly vascular. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. Epithelial tissue forms glands. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. The frontal lobe is primarily responsible for skeletal muscle contractions. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. White blood cells transport oxygen and nutrients throughout the body. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. The cells responsible for the production of cerebral spinal fluid are satellite cells. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. The aging process results in decreased collagen production and increased elastin production. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. Food is moved through the digestive tract by specialized muscle tissues known as sphincters. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 11_2ce 8. Neuroglia are cells that support the neurons and ensure proper functioning of both the CNS and PNS. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. Histology is the study of tissues. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. The femoral artery is lined by multiple layers of cuboidal and squamous epithelial cells. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. Fibroblasts are very important in the healing process of a burn victim. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. Simple epithelial cells are always found in multiple layers. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. Collagen is the most abundant protein in the body. a. True b. False a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

14. Which of the following statements refers to the basement membrane? a. It is a protein region composed mainly of integrins and laminin. b. It is important for increasing the surface area for absorption of nutrients. c. It is found on the apical side of the cell. d. It is the main producer of collagen and reticular fibres.

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Chap 11_2ce 15. Which type of epithelial tissue is used for diffusion, osmosis, and filtration? a. simple squamous b. simple columnar c. stratified cuboidal d. ciliated columnar 16. Which of the following statements is true regarding skeletal muscle tissue? a. The cells are multinucleated and striated, and contractions can be voluntary or involuntary. b. The cells are striated and mononucleated, and controlled by the autonomic nervous system. c. The cells are multinucleated, striated, and autorhythmic. d. The cells are non-striated, and contractions can be voluntary or reflexive.

17. Which type of epithelial cell is primarily found in the digestive tract? a. ciliated pseudostratified columnar b. stratified columnar c. ciliated simple columnar d. non-ciliated simple columnar 18. What is the name of a gel-like substance composed of water and non-fibrous proteins? a. reticular fibre b. cartilage c. adipocyte d. ground substance 19. What type of cells are the epithelial cells lining the heart, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels? a. simple squamous b. stratified squamous c. simple cuboidal d. stratified cuboidal 20. In terms of the arrangement of layers, which of the following is NOT used to classify epithelial tissues? a. simple b. pseudosimple c. stratified d. pseudostratified 21. Which of the following describes the direction a signal travels in a typical neuron? a. Axon terminal, axon, cell body, dendrites b. Dendrites, cell body, axon, axon terminal c. Cell body, dendrites, axon, axon terminal d. Axon, axon terminal, dendrites, cell body 22. Which of the following consists of cells in a fluid matrix? a. blood b. loose areolar connective tissue c. bone d. dense elastic connective tissue 23. Which of the following is a protein that gives tissues the ability to stretch and recoil back to their original shape? a. elastin b. collagen c. glycoproteins d. proteogylcans 24. The fascia that surrounds the heart is composed of which type of connective tissue? a. dense elastic b. dense regular c. dense irregular d. loose reticular 25. The patellar tendon is composed of which type of connective tissue? a. loose reticular b. dense regular c. dense irregular d. fibrocartilage

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Chap 11_2ce 26. Which of the following is responsible for the transmission of information from receptor to brain? a. unipolar neuron b. multipolar neuron c. bipolar neuron d. motor neuron 27. The three general types of neurons include all EXCEPT which of the following? a. unipolar b. bipolar c. tripolar d. multipolar 28. Which of the following cells produce histamine in response to a tissue injury? a. fibroblasts b. chondrocytes c. mast cells d. microglia 29. Which of the following forms strong attachments between structures such as ligaments? a. loose connective tissue b. dense connective tissue c. cartilage d. bone 30. Cilia are most likely found in which type of epithelium? a. transitional b. stratified squamous c. simple columnar d. stratified columnar 31. Joe cut his finger a week ago while preparing dinner, and he now has a noticeable scar in the area of the cut. In regard to this scenario, which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Joe’s scar was formed by increased collagen production by fibroblasts. b. Joe’s scar formed because the damaged epithelial cells could not be completely replaced. c. The tissue of Joe’s scar is weaker and less elastic than the surrounding skin cells. d. The skin Joe cut was made of keratinized, stratified epithelial cells.

32. The main components of connective tissue include all EXCEPT which one of the following? a. protein fibres b. basement membrane c. ground substance d. various cells 33. The bicep muscle is composed of which type of tissue? a. smooth muscle tissue b. skeletal muscle tissue c. cardiac muscle tissue d. dense elastic connective tissue 34. Which type of epithelial cells are keratinized and found in the skin? a. pseudostratified columnar b. stratified columnar c. stratified squamous d. stratified cuboidal 35. Which of the following contains cells and ground matrix? a. epithelial tissue b. connective tissue c. nervous tissue d. muscle tissue

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Chap 11_2ce 36. Which of the following contains gap junctions?

a. A c. C

b. B d. D

37. Which of the following tissues are used for conducting action potentials? a. connective tissue b. nervous tissue c. muscle tissue d. nervous and muscle tissues 38. What type of epithelial tissue is found in the urinary bladder? a. stratified columnar epithelial b. transitional epithelial c. simple squamous epithelial d. stratified squamous epithelial 39. Sam is a rugby player who injured his medial meniscus (knee joint) during a game last night. What type of connective tissue has Sam injured? a. dense cartilage b. hyaline cartilage c. elastic cartilage d. fibrocartilage 40. Which of the following is the most widely distributed connective tissue? a. loose reticular b. loose areolar c. dense elastic d. blood 41. Which of the following cell types forms the blood-brain barrier? a. satellite cells b. microglia c. astrocytes d. ependymal cells 42. A women is 35 weeks pregnant. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the developing fetus? a. The skin is composed of all stratified columnar epithelial cells. b. The skeleton is mostly composed of hyaline cartilage. c. The skeleton is mostly composed of bone and fibrocartilage. d. The heart is composed of mostly smooth muscle.

43. The basic shape of epithelial cells include all of the following EXCEPT which one? a. simple b. cuboidal c. columnar d. squamous 44. In the lab you view a prepared slide of epithelial tissue, and you note a very thin, single layer of cells that appear flattened. What type of cells are you viewing? a. simple cuboidal b. simple squamous c. stratified squamous d. pseudostratified columnar Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_2ce 45. Which of the following plays a role in fat storage? a. adipocytes b. fibroblasts c. ground substance d. reticular cells 46. Ground substance mainly consists of which of the following? a. water, carbohydrates, and proteins b. carbohydrates, fats, and hyaluronic acid c. water, fats, and proteoglycans d. fats and proteins 47. How would the following epithelial tissue be classified?

a. stratified cuboidal c. stratified columnar

b. simple cuboidal d. simple columnar

48. What is the name of the autorhythmic cells of the heart? a. sarcomeres b. pacemaker cells c. intercalated discs d. sphincters 49. Which of the following is controlled by the autonomic nervous system and involved in the digestive process? a. skeletal muscle b. cardiac muscle c. smooth muscle d. dense irregular connective tissue 50. Which type of tissue is used for storing energy as fat? a. loose connective tissue b. dense connective tissue c. adipose tissue d. loose reticular tissue

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Chap 11_2ce Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. False 13. True 14. a 15. a 16. a 17. d 18. d 19. a 20. b 21. b 22. a 23. a 24. c 25. b 26. a

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Chap 11_2ce 27. c 28. c 29. b 30. c 31. c 32. b 33. b 34. c 35. b 36. d 37. d 38. b 39. d 40. b 41. c 42. b 43. a 44. b 45. a 46. a 47. d 48. b 49. c 50. c

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Chap 12_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Stretch marks are a result of tears in the epidermal layers of the skin. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. A blackhead is more superficial than a pimple. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. Eccrine glands begin to function during puberty. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. The largest organ in the body is responsible for temperature regulation. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. Pacinian corpuscles detect pressure. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. When considering the rule of nines, the legs make up 9% of the body’s total area of skin. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. Vibration is detected by Meissner corpuscles. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 12_2ce 8. Hair is found on most of the human body except the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. Eccrine glands may be found in the hypodermis. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. Melanoma affects the dermis. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. Vitamin C is essential for skin health. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. Sun exposure is the main risk of melanoma. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. Squamous cell carcinoma is benign. a. True b. False a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

14. Which of the following is NOT found in the hypodermis? a. hair follicles b. adipose tissue c. nerves d. blood vessels 15. Which of the following is the most dangerous type of skin cancer? a. squamous cell b. basal cell c. melanoma d. They are all equally dangerous.

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Chap 12_2ce 16. Identify the structure that produces squalene.

a. A c. C

b. B d. D

17. The structure labelled B is useful in detecting which type of sensation? a. pressure b. temperature c. pain d. vibration 18. Which term refers to keratinocytes that become cancerous? a. keratin carcinoma b. basal cell carcinoma c. squamous cell carcinoma d. melanoma 19. Which of the following forms fingerprints on the palms? a. epidermal ridges b. lamellar granules c. Meissner corpuscles d. hypodermis 20. Which layer is responsible for the flexibility of skin? a. epidermis b. hypodermis c. dermis d. hyperdermis

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Chap 12_2ce 21. Which term refers to the avascular area of skin? a. dermis b. hypodermis c. epidermis d. hyperdermis 22. The dermis is made up of which of the following? a. deep reticular fibres and superficial papillary layer b. deep papillary layers and superficial reticular fibres c. deep keratinocytes and superficial papillary layers d. deep reticular fibres and superficial keratinocytes 23. Nourishment to cells in the epidermis is provided by which of the following? a. blood vessels running through the stratum basal b. stratum lucidum c. blood vessels in dermal papillae d. Langerhans cells 24. Which epidermal cells are involved in protecting the skin against UV? a. Reticulocytes b. Merkel cells c. Melanocytes d. Langerhans cells 25. What does “cutane” (“cutano”) mean? a. hard b. pimple c. nails d. skin 26. Which layer of the epidermis is only found on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet? a. stratum basale b. stratum granulosum c. stratum lucidum d. stratuem corneum 27. In a mechanic’s hands, skin changes due to protein synthesis will appear in which of the following layers? a. stratum basale b. stratum corneum c. stratum lucidum d. stratum spinosum 28. Skin pigmentation is determined by which of the following? a. superficial epidermis b. deep epidermis c. superficial dermis d. deep dermis 29. What are the two components of the cutaneous membrane (skin)? a. epidermis and dermis b. epidermis and hyperdermis c. dermis and hypodermis d. epidermis and hypodermis 30. Which of the following describes the correct order that a syringe travels to the subcutaneous layer? a. stratum corneum, stratum basale, stratum granulosum, epidermis b. stratum corneum, stratum basale, hypodermis, stratum granulosum c. stratum corneum, stratum basale, papillary layer, reticular layer d. stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, reticular layer, papillary layer Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_2ce 31. Age-related changes, such as sagging of skin, result from a decreased production of connective tissue in which layer? a. epidermis b. dermis c. hypodermis d. subcutaneous 32. Which of the following glands are responsible for producing ear wax? a. sudoriferous glands b. sebaceous glands c. ceruminous glands d. mammary glands 33. Which of the following is true regarding dermal papillae? a. It has increased surface area for oxygen diffusion. b. It connects the dermis to the hypodermis. c. It provides vascular supply to the dermis. d. It is primarily made of keratin.

34. Which of the following is present ONLY in thick skin? a. stratum basale b. stratum lucidum c. stratum spinosum d. stratum granulosum 35. Which of the following provides protection against infectious pathogens? a. Pacinian corpuscle b. Meissner corpuscle c. Langerhans cells d. melanocytes 36. What is the name of skin cancer that is located in the area of rapid cell division? a. basal cell carcinoma b. squamous cell carcinoma c. melanoma d. myeloma 37. A sunburn causing blisters involves which layers of the skin? a. epidermis b. epidermis and dermis c. epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis d. epidermis, dermis, hypodermis, and muscle 38. Where is the structure labelled C located? a. in the epidermis b. in the dermis c. in the hypodermis d. in the adipose 39. Which of the following is true regarding lamellar granules? a. They are organelles. b. They are found in skin and bone. c. They are found in the dermis. d. They release lipids into the intercellular space.

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Chap 12_2ce 40. Sweat glands are subdivided into which two categories? a. sebaceous and apocrine b. sebaceous and ceruminous c. apocrine and sudoriferous d. apocrine and eccrine 41. What is the function of keratinocytes? a. to produce hormones b. to move mucus and particles c. to aid in absorption d. to produce a tough and waterproof layer 42. Which part of the skin contains dermal papillae? a. hypodermis b. dermis c. epidermis d. subcutaneous layer 43. What happens to melanocytes as we age? a. They increase in size. b. They increase in number. c. They do not change. d. They decrease in size.

44. Which of the following is NOT a function of skin? a. detecting sensation b. regulating body temperature c. excreting and absorbing substances d. synthesizing vitamin C 45. The severity of burns is accessed using which of the following methods? a. extent of infection b. loss of body fluids c. thickness of burn d. rule of nines 46. Which of the following are all components of the integumentary system? a. skin, hair, nails, and blood vessels b. skin, hair, nails, and glands c. skin, hair, blood vessels, and glands d. skin, glands, blood vessels, and nails 47. Which of the following is true about individuals with light-coloured skin? a. They have fewer keratinocytes than individuals with darker skin b. They have less keratin than individuals with darker skin c. They have less melanin than individuals with darker skin d. They have fewer melanocytes than individuals with darker skin 48. Of the following skin cancers, which has the best prognosis? a. basal cell carcinoma b. squamous cell carcinoma c. melanoma d. hematoma

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Chap 12_2ce 49. Use the following diagram for the next 3 questions. Where is the structure labelled A located?

a. in the epidermis c. in the hypodermis

b. in the dermis d. in the stratum basale

50. Scar tissue from a burn involves damage to which layer? a. stratum corneum b. papillary dermis c. hypodermis d. reticular dermis 51. In which layer of the skin does mitosis primarily occur? a. dermis b. hypodermis c. epidermis d. papillary layer 52. Which of the following is responsible for black-brown pigment? a. carotene b. melanin c. vitamin A d. hemoglobin 53. Skin exfoliation removes the outer layer of the epidermis. What does this layer include? a. living keratinocytes b. living melanocytes c. dead keratinocytes d. dead melanocytes

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Chap 12_2ce Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. True 12. False 13. False 14. a 15. c 16. d 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. c 21. c 22. a 23. c 24. c 25. d 26. c

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Chap 12_2ce 27. d 28. b 29. a 30. c 31. b 32. c 33. a 34. b 35. c 36. a 37. b 38. b 39. a 40. d 41. d 42. b 43. a 44. d 45. d 46. b 47. c 48. a 49. b 50. d 51. c 52. b 53. c

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Chap 13_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. A greenstick fracture is more common in adults. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. The metatarsals are proximal to the tarsals. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. The greater trochanter is a palpable bone on the medial aspect of the proximal femur. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. The adult skeleton contains 206 bones. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. Adults have 33 vertebrae. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. The capitulum is located on the lateral aspect of the humerus. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. Articular cartilage connects ribs 1–7 to the manubrium. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 13_2ce 8. The hyoid does not form an articulation with any other bone. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. Vitamin A can affect both osteoclasts or osteoblasts. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. Epiphyseal plate mineralization is caused by sex hormones. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. The infant skull has several fontanels. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. Synovial joints are highly moveable and have a joint cavity. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. The skeletal system plays an important role in preventing type 2 diabetes mellitus. a. True b. False a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

14. Chewing food involves an articulation between which bones? a. mandible and zygomatic b. mandible and temporal c. facial and temporal d. zygomatic and facial 15. An osteon is made up of which of the following? a. trabeculae b. red bone marrow c. concentric lamellae d. yellow bone marrow

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Chap 13_2ce 16. Which of the following is NOT a cranial bone? a. parietal b. temporal c. occipital d. Facial 17. What kind of bone is the patella? a. irregular bone b. sesamoid bone c. short bone d. flat bone 18. What is the name of the suture between the frontal bone and the anterior portion of the parietal bones? a. coronal suture b. sagittal suture c. lambdoid suture d. squamous suture 19. What are the two classifications of bone? a. spongy and compact b. perpendicular and spongy c. spongy and porous d. elongated and compact 20. What do we call a shallow depression on a bone? a. a sulcus b. a facet c. a fissure d. a fossa 21. Use the following diagram for the next 2 questions. Identify the olecranon process.

a. A c. C

b. B d. D

22. Which of the following is NOT classification of bone? a. long b. irregular c. sesamoid d. intramembranous

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Chap 13_2ce 23. The lateral styloid process is a palpable part of which bone? a. first metacarpal b. fifth metacarpal c. ulna d. radius 24. The big toe consists of how many phalanges? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 25. Running on a treadmill increases activity of which of the following? a. osteocyte b. osteoclasts c. osteoblasts d. Periosteum 26. Which of the following indicates the articular facet?

a. A c. C

b. B d. D

27. Which of the following are key minerals in bone? a. calcium, magnesium, and sodium b. calcium, magnesium, and phosphorous c. calcium, magnesium, and potassium d. calcium, phosphorous, and sodium 28. A fracture of a bifid spinous process is located in which spinal region? a. cervical b. thoracic c. lumbar d. Sacral 29. Where is the carpal tunnel located? a. shoulder b. elbow c. wrist d. fingers 30. Which of the following bones is NOT part of the pelvis? a. sacrum b. ischium c. ilium d. pubis 31. Identify the radius. a. A b. B c. D d. C Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_2ce 32. Which of the following does NOT articulate with the ribs? a. thoracic vertebrae b. manubrium c. costal cartilage d. xyphoid process 33. In the human femur, where is the epiphyseal plate located? a. within the epiphysis b. within the metaphysis c. within the diaphysis d. within the trabeculae 34. Which of the following most commonly causes osteoporosis? a. lifestyle b. vitamin D deficiency c. hyperthyroidism d. calcitonin deficiency 35. Which of the following hormones is active in the breakdown of bone? a. growth hormone b. calcitonin c. parathyroid hormone (PTH) d. insulin-like growth factor (IGF) 36. What is the intervertebral disc composed of? a. hyaline cartilage b. fibrocartilage c. osteocytes d. extracellular matrix 37. Which anatomical characteristic is found on the distal femur? a. trochlea b. head c. anatomical neck d. condyles 38. Where are blood vessels found in compact bone? a. in medullary cavity, central canal, and perforating canals b. in medullary cavity c. in central canal d. in perforating canals 39. What are the two types of bone tissue? a. compact and flat b. compact and spongy c. spongy and Haversian d. trabeculae and marrow 40. How many bones do we have in our body? a. 15 b. 150 c. 206 d. 279 41. Subacromial impingement syndrome is a condition in which area of the body? a. cervical spine b. shoulder c. elbow d. hip 42. Where is the unique structure called the dens located? a. on the occiput b. on the atlas c. on the axis d. on the vertebral prominens Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_2ce 43. Which area in the diagram below is the diaphysis?

a. 1 c. 3

b. 2 d. 4

44. A fracture of the distal tibia is most likely to involve which of the following? a. medial condyle b. lateral condyle c. medial malleolus d. lateral malleolus 45. What is the name of the joint located at the distal humerus? a. elbow b. wrist c. shoulder d. hip 46. Which of the following bones is part of the appendicular skeleton? a. scapula b. sternum c. skull d. Ribs

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Chap 13_2ce 47. Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system? a. providing a structural framework b. mineral storage c. fat storage d. movement of internal organs

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Chap 13_2ce Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. True 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. b 15. c 16. d 17. b 18. a 19. a 20. d 21. c 22. d 23. d 24. b 25. c 26. d

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Chap 13_2ce 27. b 28. a 29. c 30. a 31. b 32. d 33. b 34. a 35. c 36. b 37. d 38. a 39. b 40. c 41. b 42. c 43. c 44. c 45. a 46. a 47. d

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Chap 14_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Hamstrings and quadriceps act synergistically during most functional movements. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. Glycogenolysis breaks down glucose to produce glycogen. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. The role of ATP during a muscle contraction is to release the myosin head from actin. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. The I band only contains actin. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. When trying to start a lawn mower with a pull cord, the triceps would be best described as an agonist. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. Anaerobic respiration creates approximately 36 ATP from one glucose via the electron transport chain. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. The sarcoplasmic reticulum contains calcium required for muscular contraction. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 14_2ce 8. A reduction in lipoprotein lipase results in the breakdown of fewer triglycerides, which leads to weight gain. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. Fast oxidative glycolytic fibres are also known as intermediate fibres. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. Calcium’s role in skeletal muscle contraction is to bind with troponin. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. In the sliding filament theory, the A band remains unchanged because the myosin filaments are not contracting. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. During inspiration, the diaphragm is contracted in an upward position. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. Of all the fibre types, fast glycolytic muscle fibres contain the most blood vessels. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 14_2ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

14. Use the following diagram for the next 5 questions. What is muscle 4 pointing to?

a. rectus femoris c. external oblique

b. vastus lateralis d. rectus abdominus

15. What is the term for the more movable end of a muscle? a. origin b. insertion c. proximal end d. distal end 16. Which of the following muscles insert on the olecranon process? a. biceps brachii b. triceps brachii c. deltoid d. pectoralis minor

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Chap 14_2ce 17. What muscle is number 8 pointing to? a. temporalis b. zygomaticus major c. masseter d. zygomaticus minor 18. What do we call the bundle of collagen fibres at the end of a skeletal muscle that attaches the muscle to bone? a. a fascicle b. a tendon c. a ligament d. a synapse 19. An athlete performs a stretch following a run. Her knee is fully extended, and her ankle is in dorsiflexion. Which muscle is being stretched? a. tibialis anterior b. soleus c. gastrocnemius d. hamstring 20. Which of the following is important for normal inspiration (inhalation)? a. external intercostals b. rectus abdominus c. deltoid d. internal intercostals 21. Identify the flexor carpi radialis. a. E b. F c. G d. H 22. The muscle that inserts on the iliotibial tract and femur is a (an) ____ to psoas? a. synergist b. antagonist c. agonist d. protest 23. Which of the following is the prime mover during chewing? a. masseter b. temporalis c. pterygoid d. splenius capitis 24. A sample of muscle tissue taken from the anterior thigh region would show which of the following characteristics? a. cells with a single nucleus b. branched cells c. muscle fibres under involuntary control d. long, parallel cells 25. A marathon runner relies primarily on which of the following for energy? a. creatine kinase b. anaerobic metabolism c. pyruvate d. creatine phosphate 26. What muscle is E pointing to? a. gastrocnemius b. vastus medialis c. vastus lateralis d. soleus 27. Identify a synergist to the deltoid. a. A b. B c. C d. D

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Chap 14_2ce 28. A baseball player with a torn rotator cuff may have damaged all of the following muscles EXCEPT which one? a. teres minor b. teres major c. subscapularis d. infraspinatus 29. Which of the following is NOT a rotator cuff muscle? a. supraspinatus b. infraspinatus c. teres major d. teres minor 30. The teres major muscle would be involved in which movement? a. circumducting the arm laterally at the elbow joint b. abducting the arm at the shoulder joint c. adduction and extension of the arm at the shoulder joint/arm d. rotating the arm medially at the elbow joint 31. Which of the following proteins blocks the active site on actin during rest? a. calcium b. myosin c. tropomyosin d. troponin 32. What is the only neurotransmitter in motor neurons that leads to muscle contraction? a. acetylcholine b. epinephrine c. norepinephrine d. calcium 33. What muscle originates on the zygomatic process? a. masseter b. temporalis c. frontalis d. zygomatic 34. Use the following diagram for the next 2 questions. Identify the serratus anterior.

BODY

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Chap 14_2ce

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Chap 14_2ce a. A c. C

b. B d. D

35. The muscle located on the anterolateral aspect of the femur is responsible for which of the following movements? a. ankle dorsiflexion b. hip extension c. knee flexion d. knee extension 36. Transverse tubules are a unique feature of which organelle in a muscle fibre? a. sarcoplasm b. sarcolemma c. sarcoplasmic reticulum d. ribosomes 37. Sprinting is primarily fuelled by which of the following? a. creatine phosphate b. electron transport chain c. glycogenolysis d. Krebs cycle 38. An adductor muscle moves its insertion in which direction? a. away from midline b. toward the midline c. superior d. inferior 39. What surrounds each individual muscle fibre? a. endomysium b. fascicle c. perimysium d. epimysium 40. If you dorsiflexed your foot, what muscle are you primarily using? a. rectus femoris b. biceps femoris c. tibialis anterior d. gastrocnemius 41. What is the primary function of the orbicularis oris? a. yawning b. closing the eyes c. raising the eyebrows d. puckering the lips 42. Which of the following is NOT a function of the muscular system? a. posture b. producing body movements c. regulating ion composition d. movement of internal organs 43. In which of the following exercises would the pectoralis major be the primer mover? a. dumbbell curl (bending elbow and pulling weight up to shoulders) b. standing on toes c. bench press (pushing bar up while lying on your back) d. pulling a bar down from overhead to chest level 44. What type of muscle fibre is most likely used in weight lifting? a. slow oxidative b. fast oxidative-glycolytic c. fast glycolytic d. slow glycolytic

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Chap 14_2ce 45. Hamstrings perform hip ____ and knee ____. a. flexion, flexion b. flexion, extension c. extension, extension d. extension, flexion 46. What action would the muscle labelled by the number 6 cause when contracted? a. extend hip b. extend knee c. laterally rotate thigh d. flex knee 47. During a pushing movement, the pectoralis major and the triceps are best described as which of the following? a. antagonists b. agonists c. fixators d. synergists 48. A sample of muscle tissue taken from the carotid artery is most likely to show which of the following speeds of contraction? a. very slow b. slow c. intermediate d. fast 49. Which of the following is NOT part of the thin filament? a. myosin b. actin c. troponin d. tropomyosin 50. What muscle is 2 pointing to? a. sternocleidomastoid b. soleus c. occipitofrontalis d. deltoid 51. Use the following diagram for the next 3 questions. Which number is the trapezius muscle?

a. 1 c. 7

b. 6 d. not listed

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Chap 14_2ce 52. What is the term for the space between the neuron and the target muscle? a. synaptic knob b. tendon c. dendrite d. synaptic cleft 53. While exercising at the local gym, Brad performs a bench press. Lowering the weight is an example of which type of muscle contraction? a. eccentric b. concentric c. isometric d. isotonic 54. What is the smallest contractile unit of a muscle called? a. sarcolemma b. sarcomere c. myosin d. actin 55. Where does the biceps brachii insert? a. humerus b. glenoid cavity c. radius d. carpal bones 56. The command to contract is distributed throughout a muscle fibre (to the cell interior) by which of the following: a. the sarcomere b. the transverse tubules c. the myotubules d. the myofibrils 57. In response to action potentials arriving from the transverse tubules, what does the sarcoplasmic release? a. acetylcholine b. sodium ions c. potassium ions d. calcium ions 58. What is the term for the number of calories that must be consumed to maintain cellular functions without gaining or losing weight? a. set point b. homeostasis c. glycemic index d. basal metabolic rate (BMR) 59. Which muscle would you use when you abduct your arm at your shoulder joint? a. biceps brachii b. trapezius c. sternocleidomastoid d. deltoid 60. Which of the following is NOT considered an erector spinae muscle? a. spinalis b. quadratus c. iliocostalis d. longissimus 61. Muscles responsible for wrist extension can be found on which aspect of the forearm? a. posterior b. anterior c. medial d. lateral

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Chap 14_2ce 62. Which of the following describes the correct order of connective tissue from superficial to deep? a. fascia, epimysium, perimysium, endomysium b. fascia, epimysium, endomysium, perimysium c. fascia, endomysium, spimysium, perimysium d. fascia, endomysium, perimysium, epimysium 63. What is the term given to the end of the muscle that attaches to the stationary bone? a. insertion b. belly c. origin d. proximal 64. Which of the following would you primarily use to extend your leg at the knee joint? a. semitendinosus b. soleus c. adductor longus d. rectus femoris 65. Use the following diagram for the next 2 questions. Identify an external rotator of the shoulder.

a. A c. C

b. B d. D

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Chap 14_2ce 66. What muscle is C pointing to? a. deltoid b. triceps brachii c. latissimus dorsi d. trapezius 67. Which of the following is NOT a muscle tissue type? a. skeletal b. sphincter c. cardiac d. smooth 68. What is the primary role of the contents of the sarcoplasmic reticulum? a. exposing actin binding sites on myosin b. binding to tropomyosin c. exposing myosin binding sites on the actin d. exposing binding sites on troponin 69. What muscle extends the elbow joint while doing push-ups? a. deltoid b. pectoralis major c. triceps brachii d. biceps brachii 70. What number is the synergist for chewing? a. 2 b. 5 c. 8 d. 9

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Chap 14_2ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. True 11. False 12. False 13. False 14. d 15. b 16. b 17. c 18. b 19. c 20. a 21. a 22. b 23. a 24. d 25. c 26. a

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Chap 14_2ce 27. d 28. b 29. c 30. c 31. c 32. a 33. a 34. c 35. d 36. b 37. a 38. b 39. a 40. c 41. d 42. c 43. c 44. c 45. d 46. b 47. d 48. a 49. a 50. a 51. b 52. d 53. a 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_2ce 55. c 56. b 57. d 58. d 59. d 60. b 61. a 62. a 63. c 64. d 65. a 66. b 67. b 68. c 69. c 70. a

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Chap 15_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The blood-brain barrier is made of ependymal cells. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. There are eight cervical nerves. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. Schwann cells have a similar function as astrocytes. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. Baroreceptors may be an example of an efferent neuron. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. The superior aspect of the spinal cord is referred to as the conus medullaris. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. Tracts are bundles of neurons in the central nervous system. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. The spinal cord terminates at the end of the lumbar spine. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 15_2ce 8. Comprehension of speech takes place in Broca’s area of the frontal lobe. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. The corpus callosum is important in motor but not sensory communication between left and right hemispheres. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. Grey matter is located in the subcortical region of the brain. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. An action potential requires the cell membrane potential to reach –55mV. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. Unipolar neurons are sensory neurons. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. The Na+/K+ pump plays an important role in causing depolarization. a. True b. False a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

14. Which of the following causes depolarization of the axon of a neuron? a. calcium b. sodium c. chloride d. ATP 15. Consider what happens when you step on a sharp tack with your right foot. Where is the pain interpreted? a. in the right pre-central gyrus b. in the left pre-central gyrus c. in the right post-central gyrus d. in the left post-central gyrus

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Chap 15_2ce 16. With respect to a neuron, what are extensions of the cell body that detect stimuli are called? a. axon b. axon terminals c. dendrites d. myelin 17. If the dorsal root of a spinal nerve is severed, which of the following would happen? a. Motor control of skeletal muscles would be impaired. b. Motor control of visceral organs would be impaired. c. Sensory receptors would be impaired. d. Incoming sensory information would be disrupted.

18. Use the diagram to answer the next 3 questions. Which lobe would be involved in voluntary movement?

a. 1 c. 3

b. 2 d. 4

19. Which of the following is true of the somatic nervous system? a. It is involuntary. b. It is always excitatory. c. It innervates smooth muscle. d. Neurotransmitter can be norepinephrine.

20. Neurotransmitter release into the synaptic cleft depends on all EXCEPT which one of the following? a. voltage-gated potassium channels opening b. calcium moving out of the cell c. calcium moving into the cell d. exocytosis 21. What are the meninges of the spinal cord from the superficial to the deep layers? a. dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater b. pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater c. pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater d. dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater 22. Sensory information is conveyed to the spinal cord via which of the following? a. dorsal root b. ventral root c. superficial ganglia d. deep ganglia Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_2ce 23. Your professor has a tendency to talk “using her hands.” What type of neurons would be used to move her hands? a. somatic and afferent b. somatic and efferent c. visceral and efferent d. visceral and afferent 24. Which of the following is characteristic of a somatic sensory neuron? a. The cell body is located in the anterior root ganglia. b. The cell body is located in the ventral horn of the spinal cord. c. The cell body is located in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. d. The cell body is located in the dorsal root of the spinal cord 25. Which of the following cranial nerves plays a role in chewing? a. trigeminal (V) b. oculomotor (III) c. abducens (VI) d. hypoglossal (XII) 26. If you had a spinal cord injury in the lumbar region that only affected the ventral horn, which of the following is possible? a. loss of sensation in leg b. loss of ability to contract muscles in leg c. loss of sensation in arm d. loss of ability to contract muscles in arm 27. A gambler is likely to have dysfunction in which area of the cerebrum? a. caudate nucleus b. amygdala c. nucleus accumbens d. substantia nigra 28. Which of the following cranial nerves is NOT responsible for movement for the eyeball? a. optic (II) b. oculomotor (III) c. abducens (VI) d. trochlear (IV) DAVID While reaching for salt and pepper, David accidently spills his hot soup onto his lap. He quickly jumps from his seat.

29. What is the location of the cell body of the neuron responsible for David’s reach? a. dorsal root ganglion b. dorsal horn c. ventral root d. ventral horn 30. David was able to determine the soup was hot due to depolarization of axon terminals in which location? a. central canal b. dorsal root ganglion c. ventricle horn d. dorsal horn 31. Within the cerebrum, the left and right hemispheres are connected via which of the following? a. ventricles b. corpus callosum c. frontal lobe d. longitudinal fissure

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Chap 15_2ce 32. What portion of the brain stem directly links the brain to the spinal cord? a. pons b. midbrain c. medulla oblongata d. ventricles 33. The cell bodies of unipolar neurons are found in which area? a. spinal cord b. dorsal root ganglia c. skeletal muscle tissue d. sensory cortex 34. Ester had a stroke. Part of her precentral gyrus has been damaged. Which of the following is most likely to occur? a. inability to move some skeletal muscles b. inability to localize pain and other sensations c. inability to speak d. inability to smell 35. Where is cerebrospinal fluid produced? a. It is unknown. b. in the anterior median sulci c. in the ventricles d. in the subarachnoid space 36. What is the structure in the diagram below?

a. diencephalon c. cerebellum

b. cerebrum d. medulla

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Chap 15_2ce 37. Use the following diagram for the next 2 questions. Identify the nerve responsible for sensation of the lateral aspect of the palm.

NERVES

a. A c. C

b. B d. D

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Chap 15_2ce 38. Identify the region of the brain responsible for motor coordination in the diagram below.

a. A c. C

b. B d. D

39. Which lobe contains Wernicke’s area and is involved with comprehension of language? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 40. What separates the two cerebral hemispheres? a. the longitudinal fissure b. the central sulcus c. the lateral sulcus d. the postcentral sulcus 41. What is the most superior portion of the brain stem? a. the diencephalon b. the mid brain c. the medulla oblongata d. the pons

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Chap 15_2ce 42. Use the following diagram for the next 2 questions. Which part of the motor neuron contains membrane receptors that are linked to ion channels?

MOTOR NEURON

a. A c. C

b. B d. D

43. Schwann cells in the PNS are functionally similar to which of the following glial cells in the CNS? a. microglia b. oligodendrocytes c. astrocytes d. satellite cells DAVID While reaching for salt and pepper, David accidently spills his hot soup onto his lap. He quickly jumps from his seat.

44. Which of the following neurotransmitters is most likely involved in David’s reach? a. GABA b. epinephrine c. serotonin d. acetylcholine 45. The brachial plexus contains all EXCEPT which of the following nerves? a. ulnar nerve b. musculocutaneous nerve c. radial nerve d. phrenic nerve 46. Identify the sciatic nerve. a. E b. F c. G d. H

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Chap 15_2ce 47. What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system? a. parasympathetic and sympathetic b. ANS and CNS c. PNS and CNS d. preganglionic and postganglionic 48. How is repolarization achieved? a. by Na+ moving into a cell b. by Na+ moving out of a cell c. by K+ moving into a cell d. by K+ moving out of a cell 49. Which of the following terms refers to a large group of nerve cell bodies outside of the central nervous system? a. white matter b. grey matter c. tracts d. ganglia 50. Somatic motor neurons innervate which of the following? a. smooth muscle b. skeletal muscle c. cardiac muscle d. skeletal muscles and cardiac muscles 51. Spinal nerves are considered mixed. What does this mean? a. It means that they contain both nerves and tracts. b. It means that they contain both grey and white matter. c. It means that they contain both afferent and efferent neurons. d. It means that the use multiple types of neurotransmitters.

52. Which of the following refers to groups of cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system? a. nuclei b. ganglia c. plexi d. glia 53. Which of the following is most superficial? a. pia mater b. arachnoid mater c. dura mater d. epidural space 54. A trainer for a hockey team witnesses a player suffer a laceration on the ice. Without hesitation, he runs onto the ice to provide first aid. The blood vessels within his quadriceps quickly dilate due to the action of which of the following? a. short preganglionic fibres secreting acetylcholine b. long preganglionic fibres secreting acetylcholine c. short preganglionic fibres secreting epinephrine d. long preganglionic fibres secreting epinephrine 55. Neurotransmitters are released from which part of the neuron? a. A b. B c. C d. D 56. Which of the following does the grey matter of the spinal cord contain? a. nerve tracts b. schwann cell c. oligodendrocytes d. nerve cell bodies Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_2ce 57. A sharp blow to the back of the head is most likely to impair which of the following? a. hearing b. speech c. taste d. vision 58. The brain’s relay station is located in which region? a. Brain stem b. Diencephalon c. telencephalon d. Cerebrum 59. Multiple sclerosis is a disease that affects which type of glial cell? a. astrocytes b. oligodendrocytes c. micro glia d. ependymal cells 60. GABA has which of the following types of action? a. excitatory, decreased neuron excitability b. excitatory, increased neuron excitability c. inhibitory, increased neuron excitability d. inhibitory, decreased neuron excitability 61. Which component of a neuron is specialized for conduction of an impulse away from the neuron cell body? a. dendrite b. oligodendrocyte c. Schwann cell d. axon 62. Which of the following does NOT play a role in motor skills? a. cerebellum b. hypothalamus c. cerebrum d. midbrain 63. Which of the following does the surface of the post central gyrus contain? a. the primary sensory cortex b. the primary motor cortex c. the learned movement cortex d. the coordination of body movement cortex 64. Which of the following is accurate about neuron membrane repolarization? a. Sodium moves into the cell. b. Calcium moves out of the cell. c. Potassium moves out of the cell. d. The sodium/potassium pump depolarizes the membrane.

65. A spinal tap is performed to get a sample of cerebrospinal fluid. To do this, the needle must enter which space? a. subdural b. epidural c. arachnoid d. subarachnoid 66. Which of the following describes the patellar reflex? a. It is polysynaptic. b. It is voluntary. c. It is performed by the sensory and motor cortex. d. It is monosynaptic.

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Chap 15_2ce 67. In which lobe would Broca’s area be found? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 68. When does depolarization occur? a. when Na+ moves outside of a cell c. when K+ moves into a cell

b. when Na+ moves into a cell d. when K+ moves outside of a cell

69. Muscles of the neck are innervated by which of the following? plexus a. cervical plexus b. brachial plexus c. thoracic plexus d. sacral plexus 70. A parasympathetic postganglionic neuron releases which of the following? a. acetylcholine b. epinephrine c. norepinephrine d. GABA 71. What is the arrow pointing to in this image below?

a. dorsal horn c. ventral horn

b. dorsal ganglia d. ventral ganglia

72. Major control and integration of the autonomic nervous system is exerted by which of the following? a. the mid brain b. the cerebral cortex c. the pituitary gland d. the hypothalamus

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Chap 15_2ce Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. False 14. b 15. d 16. c 17. d 18. a 19. b 20. b 21. d 22. a 23. b 24. d 25. a 26. b

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Chap 15_2ce 27. c 28. a 29. d 30. d 31. b 32. c 33. b 34. a 35. c 36. a 37. b 38. b 39. d 40. a 41. b 42. a 43. b 44. d 45. d 46. a 47. a 48. d 49. d 50. b 51. c 52. b 53. d 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_2ce 55. d 56. d 57. d 58. b 59. b 60. d 61. d 62. d 63. a 64. c 65. d 66. d 67. a 68. a 69. a 70. a 71. c 72. d

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Chap 16_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The dorsal-medial tract travels through the medulla oblongata. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. A sour taste is produced by the presence of Na+ ions. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. The limbic system is involved with emotions and consciousness. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. Hunger is triggered by the hypothalamic nuclei. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. Difficulty hearing high-pitched sounds occurs when elasticity is lost from the tympanic membrane. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. Farsightedness is also called myopia. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. Perception is how sensory information is interpreted. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 16_2ce 8. There are no cones or rods in the area of the optic disc. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. The middle layer of the eye is the sclera. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. Homunculus is a topographical representation of the cerebellum. a. True b. False a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11. Identify the structure involved in amplifying sound vibrations. a. A b. B c. C d. D 12. Taste receptors can be classified as which of the following? a. chemoreceptors b. tactile receptors c. thermoreceptors d. nociceptors

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Chap 16_2ce 13. Use the following diagram for the next 3 questions. Identify the structure that plays a role in transforming vibration energy into actions potentials.

a. A c. C

b. B d. D

14. What is the range of sound waves the human ear can hear? a. 10?1000 Hz b. 20?2000 Hz c. 200?2000 Hz d. 200?4500 Hz 15. Which of the following receptors detects touch? a. Meissner’s corpuscle b. proprioceptors c. free nerve endings d. Ruffini corpuscles 16. What is the term for the bumps on the surface of the tongue? a. papillae b. basal cells c. cilia d. pores 17. Which of the following is true with respect to referred pain? a. It results because of the convergence of motor neurons from multiple areas. b. It explains why pain is sometimes perceived in an area that the pain does not originate from. c. It explains why we feel pain in our internal organs. d. It is pain that always originates in the spinal nerves.

18. What is the coloured portion of the eye? a. iris b. pupil c. retina d. sclera Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_2ce 19. Which of the following does the brain produce to decrease pain? a. lidocaine b. enkephalins c. naproxen d. acetaminophen 20. What type of information does the anterolateral tract carry? a. pain and temperature b. temperature and touch c. pressure and body movement d. touch and pressure 21. Identify the structure that plays a role in your ears feeling “full” when changing altitudes. a. A b. B c. C d. D SAM Sam recently lost his right leg after an accident. Although the leg was amputated, he still often feels it is there.

[For 15?17] 22. Which of the following is true with respect to the pain Sam experiences from his injury? a. The neurons carrying this information enter the spinal cord at the ventral root. b. The first sensory neuron synapses in the medulla oblongata. c. The neurons carrying this information travel through the anterolateral grey matter tract. d. This information is received in the left somatosensory cortex.

23. What type of receptors will depolarize? a. thermoreceptors b. Pacinian corpuscles c. nociceptors d. proprioceptors 24. Which of the following is NOT an inflammatory molecule in the human body? a. prostaglandins b. potassium c. epinephrine d. histamine 25. What is the photopigment found in rod cells? a. photopsin b. rhodopsin c. vitreous d. aqueous 26. By what route does the information about Emma’s finger get to the brain? a. dorsal-medial tract b. anterolateral tract c. lemniscal tract d. ventral horn

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Chap 16_2ce SAM Sam recently lost his right leg after an accident. Although the leg was amputated, he still often feels it is there.

[For 15?17] 27. Why does Sam still feel the leg is there sometimes? a. because of the large receptive field of the leg b. due to proprioceptive memory c. because of the free nerve ending that we severed d. due to the close integration of the motor and sensory cortex 28. In which of the following areas would a sensory neuron have a large receptive field? a. lips b. fingertips c. thigh d. tongue 29. Where is the somatosensory cortex located? a. posterior to the central sulcus b. posterior portion of the parietal lobes c. anterior to the central sulcus d. posterior region of the frontal lobe 30. Which of the following is true with respect to red-green colour blindness? a. It is more common in females. b. A person with red-green colour blindness lacks rods to detect red and green wavelengths of light. c. It is the result of an inherited mutation on the X chromosome. d. Hyperopia increases the risk of red-green colour blindness.

31. With respect to the ear, which of the following determines pitch? a. amplitude b. frequency c. volume d. decibels 32. As Emma smelled the bread baking, what region of the brain did NOT receive this sensory information? a. limbic system b. thalamus c. reticular formation d. amygdala SAM Sam recently lost his right leg after an accident. Although the leg was amputated, he still often feels it is there.

[For 15?17] 33. Which of the following is true with respect to the proprioceptive neurons affected by Sam’s injury? a. They are located in the left somatosensory cortex. b. They cross from the right to left side of the body at the spinal cord. c. They are located in the right motor cortex. d. They cross from the left to the right side of the body at the level of the medulla oblongata.

34. Where are cone and rod photoreceptors located? a. choroid b. pupil c. retina d. cornea

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Chap 16_2ce 35. Which of the following is true with respect to the olfactory bulbs? a. The neurons of the olfactory bulb travel through cranial nerve II. b. The neurons of the olfactory bulb travel to the motor cortex. c. The olfactory bulbs are found on the inferior surface of the frontal lobe. d. Information from the olfactory bulbs travels to the thalamus.

36. Which of the following is NOT an ossicle? a. stapes b. incus c. malleus d. pinna 37. What is the name given to the clear covering over the eye? a. sclera b. cornea c. pupil d. lens 38. Which of the following is a sensory receptor in the skin that detects touch and pressure? a. free nerve endings b. Pacinian corpuscles c. hair follicles d. Merkle’s corpuscle 39. Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT carry taste information? a. facial nerve b. trigeminal nerve c. vagus nerve d. hypoglossal nerve 40. What neurotransmitters are released? a. norepinephrine and epinephrine b. epinephrine and acetylcholine c. norepinephrine and substance P d. substance P and glutamate

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Chap 16_2ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. d 12. a 13. b 14. b 15. a 16. a 17. b 18. a 19. b 20. a 21. c 22. d 23. c 24. c 25. b 26. b

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Chap 16_2ce 27. b 28. c 29. a 30. c 31. b 32. b 33. a 34. c 35. c 36. d 37. b 38. d 39. d 40. d

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Chap 17_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The hypothalamus is part of the nervous system and the endocrine system. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. Antidiuretic hormone causes blood vessels to dilate. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. Males produce estrogen. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. Birth control pills are effective because they elevate blood levels of progesterone and estrogen. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. A hormone must bind to a specific receptor on the cell membrane or inside a target cell. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. Type-2 diabetes (NIDDM) is a disease that involves destruction of pancreatic beta cells by immune cells. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. Human growth hormone (GH) release is dependent on the apophyseal portal blood system. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 17_2ce 8. Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is produced in the testes. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. Thyroid hormones are water soluble. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. Aldosterone relies on a second messenger system to accomplish its desired response. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. Most thyronine is converted to triiodothyronine. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. High blood calcium levels stimulate the kidneys to produce vitamin D. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. High stress will reduce blood sugar levels, allowing for the fight-or-flight response. a. True b. False a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

14. Which of the following is NOT an endocrine gland? a. pineal gland b. pancreas c. thyroid gland d. sweat gland 15. Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates the production of cortisol? a. TSH b. FSH c. ACTH d. LH

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Chap 17_2ce 16. Which of the following causes uterine contractions and is also the hormone that causes people to bond? a. calcitonin b. parathyroid hormone c. oxytocin d. glucagon 17. Which of the following is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland? a. growth hormone b. follicle-stimulating hormone c. prolactin d. antidiuretic hormone 18. Following a large meal, which of the following occurs in the pancreatic beta cells? a. They are stimulated to produce glucagon. b. They are stimulated to produce insulin. c. They are inhibited to stop producing glucagon. d. They are inhibited to stop producing insulin.

19. Which of the following can be inhibited by chronic stress? a. GnRH b. norepinephrine c. insulin d. leptin 20. Which cell types do hormones act on? a. only skeletal muscle b. only smooth muscle and cardiac muscle c. neurons d. any cell throughout the body that has a receptor 21. Which of the following stimulates the production of milk? a. prolactin b. follicle-stimulating hormone c. oxytocin d. luteinizing hormone 22. Milk production after the delivery of a baby relies on which of the following? a. neurons connected to the posterior pituitary gland b. neurons connected to the anterior pituitary gland c. releasing hormones that travel to the anterior pituitary gland d. inhibiting hormones that travel to the anterior pituitary gland 23. A patient presents the following symptoms to his family doctor: difficulty sleeping, hot flashes, and irritability. The doctor also notes that the patient’s eyes appear to be protruding. Which of the following is most correct regarding the patient’s condition? a. The elevated hormones are water soluble. b. The elevated hormones are produced by the parafollicular cells. c. The patient lacks selenium in his/her diet. d. The elevated hormone requires plasma proteins for transport.

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Chap 17_2ce 24. Which of the following would occur in someone with hypothyroidism? a. weight loss b. increased body temperature c. reduced ability to break down fat for energy d. increased protein synthesis 25. Ovulation is triggered by a hormonal burst. Which of the following releasing hormones is most responsible for the burst? a. PRH b. GnRH c. GHIH d. GHRH 26. If pregnancy does not occur, menses is stimulated by which hormonal change? a. progesterone decrease b. progesterone increase c. prolactin increase d. estrogen increase 27. In the diagram below, which of the following is the posterior pituitary gland?

a. A

b. B

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Chap 17_2ce 28. Hormonal levels alter the risk for certain medical conditions. When estrogen levels are high, which of the following conditions is most likely? a. cervical cancer b. osteoporosis c. menopause d. stroke 29. Which of the following pituitary hormones is most likely stimulated by a releasing hormone? a. oxytocin b. anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) c. vasopressin d. follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) 30. Which of the following hormones functions as a transcription factor? a. insulin b. epinephrine c. dopamine d. cortisol 31. Which of the following is caused by long-term high blood sugar and leads to insulin resistance? a. Cushing’s syndrome b. goiter c. type-1 diabetes d. type-2 diabetes 32. Which of the following is secreted within the adrenal medulla? a. epinephrine b. aldosterone c. testosterone d. cortisol 33. Which of the following pituitary hormones stimulate testosterone production by the testes? a. TSH b. FSH c. ACTH d. LH 34. What is the main function of the thyroid hormones? a. to regulate blood calcium levels b. to regulate the stress response c. to inhibit bone and muscle growth d. to regulate metabolism 35. Which of the following is (are) the function(s) of parathyroid hormone? a. causing kidney to produce active vitamin D b. causing kidney to decrease calcium excretion c. inhibiting osteoclasts d. causing kidney to produce active vitamin D and decrease calcium excretion 36. Which of the following endocrine glands is directly controlled by neurons of the autonomic nervous system? a. adrenal cortex b. adrenal medulla c. anterior pituitary gland d. thyroid gland 37. Which of the following hormones does NOT play an important role in the breakdown of stored nutrients to elevate blood sugar? a. insulin b. glucagon c. epinephrine d. growth hormone (GH)

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Chap 17_2ce 38. Which of the following is a function of cortisol? a. inhibiting immune system b. increasing protein synthesis c. increasing production of glycogen d. promoting excretion of salt 39. Which of the following stimulates parathyroid hormone? a. low blood calcium levels b. high vitamin D levels c. low blood insulin levels d. high blood phosphate levels 40. Which of the following would be responsible for the production of cortisol by the adrenal cortex on the evening before an important final exam? a. anterior pituitary release of ACTH b. posterior pituitary release of ACTH c. hypothalamic release of ACTH d. adrenal cortex stimulation by CRH 41. Which of the following is secreted by thyroid follicular cells? a. calcitonin b. calcitriol c. triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) d. calcium 42. Which of the following are hormones that regulate blood calcium levels? a. insulin and glucagon b. glycogen and PTH c. ACTH and CRH d. PTH and calcitonin 43. Which of the following is NOT a result of luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulating the Leydig cells? a. Increase in protein synthesis b. spermatogenesis c. axillary hair growth d. bone maturation 44. Cushing’s syndrome results from which of the following? a. excessive cortisol secretion b. inadequate cortisol secretion c. excessive aldosterone secretion d. excessive epinephrine secretion 45. The action of which of the following hormones is an example of a positive feedback mechanism? a. oxytocin b. thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) c. anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) d. prolactin 46. The hypothalamus is directly connected to the anterior pituitary by which of the following? a. hypophyseal portal blood system b. neurons c. common duct d. pineal gland 47. Which of the following causes the kidney to reabsorb more water by increasing sodium reabsorption? a. testosterone b. aldosterone c. ADH d. FSH 48. Which of the following is a hormone and a neurotransmitter? a. epinephrine b. cortisol c. growth hormone d. estrogen

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Chap 17_2ce 49. What is the function of melatonin? a. to promote water reabsorption by kidney c. to cause skin pigmentation

b. to promote sleep d. to inhibit the immune response

50. Which of the following is a hormone produced during periods of fasting when blood sugar decreases? a. glucagon b. glycogen c. glucose d. insulin 51. All of the following are endocrine glands EXCEPT which one? a. adrenal gland b. sweat gland c. parathyroid gland d. pineal gland 52. Which of the following has an effect on the mammary glands? a. growth hormone b. prolactin c. aldosterone d. calcitonin 53. Which of the following is required for calcium to be absorbed in the small intestine? a. magnesium b. iron c. vitamin C d. vitamin D 54. John has been under emotional stress following the loss of his job last year. During the past few months, he has been sick with recurrent bouts of influenza (flu). This is most likely due to the overstimulation of which of the following? a. the preganglionic neuron of the sympathetic nervous system b. the adrenal medulla, due to high CRH production by the hypothalamus c. the adrenal cortex, due to high CRH production by the hypothalamus d. the adrenal cortex, due to high CRH production by the pituitary.

55. A blood sample indicates that blood calcium levels are too low. Which cell performs the most appropriate physiological response? a. parafollicular cells in the thyroid gland b. follicular cells in the thyroid gland c. chief cells in the thyroid gland d. chief cells in the parathyroid gland 56. Which of the following hormones is NOT made from cholesterol? a. thyroxine b. aldosterone c. estrogen d. testosterone

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Chap 17_2ce 57. After day 14 of the female hormonal cycle, which structure below is responsible for the increased level of progesterone?

a. A c. C

b. B d. D

58. Which hypothalamic hormone causes the anterior pituitary to produce adrenocorticotropic hormone? a. GHRH b. CRH c. GnRH d. GHIH 59. Which of the following is produced in the adrenal cortex in the zona fasciculata region? a. aldosterone b. epinephrine c. androgens d. cortisol 60. Which of the following is (are) secreted during a stress response? a. epinephrine b. cortisol c. insulin d. epinephrine and cortisol

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Chap 17_2ce ORGANS

61. Which gland is the MAJOR regulator of blood calcium levels? a. B b. D c. E d. H 62. Which of the following hormones is LEAST important during pregnancy? a. gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) b. luteinizing hormone (LH) c. thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) d. oxytocin

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Chap 17_2ce 63. Which of the following is produced by fat cells and decreases your appetite? a. growth hormone b. erythropoeitin c. ghrelin d. leptin 64. A 50-year-old male consults his medical doctor regarding excessive thirst and fatigue. He appears overweight.

Which of the following has most likely occurred? a. Pancreatic beta cells are destroyed. b. Pancreatic alpha cells are destroyed c. Receptors are resistant to the hormone produced by pancreatic beta cells. d. Receptors are resistant to the hormone produced by pancreatic alpha cells.

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Chap 17_2ce ORGANS

65. Use the above diagram for the next 3 questions. What gland is indicated by C? a. pineal b. hypothalamus c. pituitary d. thymus 66. Which of the following stimulates the production of insulin-like growth factors (IGFs) mostly in the liver, bones, and muscles? a. TSH b. FSH c. ACTH d. GH

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Chap 17_2ce 67. Hormones that bind to receptors inside the target cells are which of the following? a. lipid-soluble b. water-soluble c. protein-soluble d. Glycogen-soluble ORGANS

68. The gland indicated by D has what type of effect on human physiology? a. slow initiation and long duration b. slow initiation and short duration c. rapid initiation and long duration d. rapid initiation and short duration

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Chap 17_2ce 69. Reabsorption of water in the collecting ducts of the kidneys depends on a hormone produced in which of the following? a. hypothalamus b. anterior pituitary c. posterior pituitary d. thymus 70. Where are glucagon receptors located? a. on the intracellular side of the cell membrane b. on the extracellular side of the cell membrane c. in the intracellular organelles d. in the interstitial fluid 71. Andrea visits her doctor complaining of fatigue, weight gain, brittle nails, and always being cold. Which of the following most likely explains Andrea’s symptoms? a. Cushing’s syndrome b. hypothyroidism c. Grave’s disease d. type I diabetes

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Chap 17_2ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. False 13. False 14. d 15. c 16. c 17. d 18. b 19. a 20. d 21. a 22. c 23. d 24. c 25. b 26. a

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Chap 17_2ce 27. a 28. d 29. d 30. d 31. d 32. a 33. d 34. d 35. d 36. b 37. a 38. a 39. a 40. a 41. c 42. d 43. b 44. a 45. a 46. a 47. b 48. a 49. b 50. a 51. b 52. b 53. d 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_2ce 55. d 56. a 57. d 58. b 59. d 60. d 61. c 62. c 63. d 64. c 65. c 66. d 67. a 68. a 69. a 70. b 71. b

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Chap 18_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The heart contains specialized nervous tissue. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. Hemoglobin is a complex made of four proteins and iron, and it is responsible for carrying oxygen to the tissues of the body. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. The autorhythmic contraction of the heart is controlled by specialized cells in the sinoatrial node of the right atrium known as pacemaker cells. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. Veins always transport blood away from the heart. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. The systemic circulation takes blood to the lungs to be oxygenated. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. The endocardium is composed of simple, squamous epithelium. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. Fragments of cells, called thrombocytes, are produced in the bone marrow. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 18_2ce 8. In the heart, an electrical signal travels along the bundle of His, also known as the atrioventricular bundle, and reaches the Purkinje fibres. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. A laceration of the lateral aspect of the right forearm could potentially sever the right ulnar artery. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. Blood flows from the left side of the heart to the lungs and then from the right side of the heart out to the body. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. Arteries withstand greater pressure than veins. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. Blood flows through the inferior vena cava to the liver, where nutrients are processed and stored before the blood leaves through the hepatic portal vein. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. Leukocytes are involved in the immune response, and they are produced in the bone marrow. a. True b. False a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

14. Which of the following is the most major cause of cardiovascular disease? a. genetics b. diet c. age d. diabetes 15. What are the main components of plaque in the blood vessels when someone has atherosclerosis? a. triglycerides and cholesterol b. cholesterol and sugar c. protein and calcium d. cholesterol and immune cells Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_2ce 16. Which of the following regulates blood pressure in the brain and provides excess circulatory routes? a. circle of Willis b. internal carotid arteries c. subclavian arteries d. choroid plexus 17. Which of the following is controlled by hormones? a. arterioles b. veins c. capillaries d. venules 18. In the diagram, what structure is E?

a. aorta c. superior vena cava

b. pulmonary artery d. pulmonary vein

19. Indicate when the first heart sound occurs. a. A b. B c. C d. D 20. Which of the following is NOT a main function of the circulatory system? a. temperature regulation b. regulation of blood sugar c. protection from infections d. transportation of nutrients 21. Which heart chamber pumps blood with the greatest amount of force? a. right atrium b. left atrium c. right ventricle d. left ventricle 22. All EXCEPT which one of the following directly affects blood flow? a. ambient temperature b. atherosclerosis c. blood viscosity d. diuretics Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_2ce 23. Blood from the right leg is returned to the heart through which of the following vessels? a. aorta b. pulmonary vein c. superior vena cava d. inferior vena cava 24. What causes depolarization of the SA node? a. sodium and calcium moving into the cells b. potassium and calcium moving out of the cells c. calcium moving out of the cells d. chloride moving into the cells 25. Which part of the heart is known as the base? a. superior b. inferior c. anterior d. apex 26. Which of the following ions is NOT involved in the pacemaker potential? a. sodium b. potassium c. lithium d. calcium 27. When a surgeon performs a dissection of the heart, in which order would she cut through the layers of the heart? a. epicardium, pericardium, endocardium, myocardium b. endocardium, pericardium, myocardium, epicardium c. pericardium, epicardium, myocardium, endocardium d. pericardium, myocardium, endocardium, epicardium 28. Indicate the structure that is part of the first heart sound and has three cusps. a. A b. B c. C d. D 29. Which of the following is true about depolarization? a. Depolarization begins in the SA node and is seen on an ECG as the P wave. b. Depolarization begins in the SA node and is seen on an ECG as the T wave. c. Depolarization begins in the AV node and is seen on an ECG as the P wave. d. Depolarization begins in the AV node and is seen on an ECG as the QRS wave.

30. Heart rate is regulated by which of the following? a. medulla oblongata b. cortex of the brain c. atrioventricular node d. autonomic nervous system (ANS) 31. Which of the following vessels’ blood flow is regulated by sphincters? a. arteries b. arterioles c. veins d. capillaries 32. Which vessels have the lowest blood pressure? a. arteries b. arterioles c. capillaries d. veins Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_2ce 33. While hiking in the woods, Jack encounters a bear that frightens him. Which of the following statements is correct? a. Norepinephrine is released, causing an increase in the opening of sodium channels. b. Acetylcholine is released, causing an increase in heart rate. c. An increased action potential results from the opening of calcium channels and closing of sodium channels. d. Epinephrine is released, causing a decreased heart rate.

34. What is the fluid in the bloodstream? a. plasma b. interstitial fluid c. intracellular fluid d. serum 35. Which of the following vessels contain valves? a. lymphatic vessels b. veins c. venules d. Lymphatic vessels and veins 36. Which of the following occurs when blood pressure increases? a. Heart rate and the force of ventricular contraction both decrease. b. Vasoconstriction results due to sympathetic stimulation. c. Venous return is increased. d. The kidneys reabsorb more water.

37. During which period is the most blood entering the ventricle? a. during the T wave b. between the QRS and T wave c. between T wave and P wave d. during the ST interval 38. Mildred had shortness of breath walking upstairs, and a pain in her chest that wouldn’t go away. She felt pressure in her chest and had to call 911. What is the most likely cause? a. TIA b. stroke c. myocardial infarction d. aneurysm 39. What is the fluid between cells? a. plasma b. interstitial fluid c. intracellular fluid d. serum 40. Ventricular systole causes which of the following? a. It causes blood to flow into ventricles. b. It causes blood to flow into atria. c. It causes semilunar valves to open. d. It causes atrioventricular valves to open.

41. The descending aorta supplies blood to all parts of the body EXCEPT which one of the following? a. femur b. liver c. lungs d. stomach 42. Which of the following is NOT part of the cardiovascular system? a. heart b. blood vessels c. blood d. lymph Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_2ce 43. In the diagram, which is the bicuspid valve? a. A b. B c. C d. D 44. Which of the following is NOT a function of the cardiovascular system? a. transporting oxygen from tissues to lungs b. distributing nutrients from the digestive system c. regulating blood pressure through hormonal and local vascular control mechanisms d. regulating body temperature 45. What is the name of the extracellular proteins that physically connect cardiac myocytes? a. adherens b. desmosomes c. tight junctions d. gap junctions 46. Why do athletes usually have a lower resting heart rate? a. because they have lower cardiac output b. because they have decreased stress response c. because they have slower action potentials d. because they have increased stroke volume 47. Which of the following is NOT a hormone that regulates blood pressure? a. aldosterone b. angiotensin II c. cortisol d. antidiuretic hormone 48. Janice has an EDV of 130 mL, ESV of 40 mL and a resting heart rate of 75 beats/min. What is her cardiac output? a. 90 mL b. 5250 mL/min c. 9750 mL/min d. 6.75 L/min 49. Which of the following is NOT a receptor involved in blood pressure regulation? a. baroreceptors b. nociceptors c. chemoreceptors d. proprioceptors 50. All of the following are complications of atherosclerosis EXCEPT which one? a. kidney failure b. myocardial infarction c. stroke d. cancer

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Chap 18_2ce 51. Use the following diagram for the next 2 questions. Indicate the structure that is connected to the chordae tendineae and has two cusps.

a. A c. C

b. B d. D

52. You have decided to donate blood. From which structure will the nurse most likely draw your blood? a. brachial vein b. basilica vein c. median cubital vein d. axillary vein 53. Which of the following is the main cause of fluid leaking out of the capillaries? a. hydrostatic pressure b. osmotic pressure c. gravity d. muscle tone 54. What is the function of desmosomes? a. to send electrical signals through the heart very quickly b. to tightly hold cardiac cells together c. to increase the heart rate d. to form channels between cardiac muscle cells

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Chap 18_2ce 55. Which of the following is correct with respect to low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)? a. LDLs are often referred to as “good” cholesterol. b. LDLs are normal cholesterol-protein molecules produced by the liver. c. LDLs carry fat from adipose tissue to the liver. d. LDLs are hydrophobic.

56. After blood leaves the lungs it travels back to the heart through which of the following? a. inferior vena cava b. superior vena cava c. pulmonary arteries d. pulmonary veins 57. If Fred has a cardiac output of 4.7 L/min and his heart rate is 77 beats per minute, what is his stroke volume? a. 6 mL b. 30.8 mL c. 61 mL d. 6 L 58. If the resistance in the blood vessels of your hands is decreased, how does that affect the blood flow to your hands? a. Flow is increased because the vessels are constricted. b. Flow is decreased because the vessels are constricted. c. Flow is increased because the vessels are dilated. d. Flow is decreased because the vessels are dilated.

59. Which of the following is considered a normal blood pressure? a. 100/65 b. 120/80 c. 123/92 d. 180/20 60. What is causing the first heart sound? a. closing of atrioventricular valves c. opening of the atrioventricular valves

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b. closing of semilunar valves d. Opening of the semilunar valves

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Chap 18_2ce 61. Use the following diagram for the next 3 questions. Indicate the T wave.

CYCLE

a. A c. C

b. B d. D

62. What do we call the stage when the atria are relaxed and filling? a. atrial diasole b. atrial systole c. ventricular systole d. ventricular diasole 63. Which of the following will decrease cardiac output? a. increased vascular resistance b. increased preload c. epinephrine d. increased ventricle filling Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_2ce 64. How is fluid moved through the lymphatic system? a. gravity b. pressure created by the heart pumping c. contractions in the lymph nodes d. squeezing of the lymphatic vessels by the body’s skeletal muscles 65. Gas and nutrient exchange occurs in which of the following structures? a. arteries b. veins c. capillaries d. arterioles 66. Blood supply to the heart muscle is supplied by which of the following? a. ascending aorta b. coronary arteries c. cardiac arteries d. circle of Willis 67. Which of the following does NOT supply a digestive organ? a. common hepatic artery b. inferior mesenteric artery c. left gastric artery d. external iliac artery 68. Blood that is returned to the heart from the systemic system first enters which area of the heart? a. left atrium b. right atrium c. left ventricle d. right ventricle 69. After blood leaves the left ventricle, what valve does it go through? a. left atrioventricular b. right atrioventricular c. aortic semilunar d. pulmonary semilunar 70. If you took a diuretic, which of the following factors would be the most affected? a. total blood volume b. vascular resistance c. preload d. cardiac force of contraction 71. In the diagram, what structure is D? a. aorta b. inferior vena cava c. superior vena cava d. pulmonary vein 72. What is happening during the T wave of an ECG in a healthy person? a. The atria are contracting. b. The ventricles are contracting. c. The atria are repolarizing. d. The ventricles are repolarizing.

73. Imagine that you have been standing outside in the winter waiting for your ride to school and your feet get very cold. Which of the following is true? a. Flow is increased because the vessels in your feet are constricted. b. Flow is decreased because the vessels in your feet are constricted. c. Flow is increased because the vessels in your feet are dilated. d. Flow is decreased because the vessels in your feet are dilated.

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Chap 18_2ce 74. What is the end diastolic volume? a. the volume in the aorta before the P wave b. the volume of blood in the ventricles before QRS c. the volume in ventricles after QRS d. the isovolumetric phase before the AV valves open 75. What kind of vessel is this?

a. artery c. capillary

b. vein d. arteriole

76. Indicate where ventricular contraction occurs. a. A b. B c. C d. D 77. Which of the following helps to move blood through veins back to the heart? a. skeletal pump b. respiratory pump c. lymphatic pump d. skeletal pump and respiratory pump 78. Suzy has a heart rate of 68 beat per minute and her EDV was measured to be 110 mL, and her ESV was 58 mL. What is her cardiac output? a. 3.5 L/min b. 3.9 L/min c. 7.5 L/min d. 11.4 L/min 79. Joe had tingling and numbness on the right side of his face and body. It went away after about 30 minutes of rest.

What most likely happened to Joe? a. myocardial infarction b. TIA c. hemorrhagic stroke d. ischemic stroke

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Chap 18_2ce Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. True 12. False 13. True 14. b 15. d 16. a 17. a 18. b 19. c 20. b 21. d 22. a 23. d 24. a 25. a 26. c

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Chap 18_2ce 27. c 28. b 29. a 30. a 31. d 32. d 33. a 34. a 35. d 36. a 37. c 38. c 39. b 40. c 41. c 42. d 43. b 44. a 45. b 46. d 47. c 48. d 49. b 50. d 51. c 52. c 53. a 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_2ce 55. b 56. d 57. c 58. c 59. b 60. a 61. d 62. a 63. a 64. d 65. c 66. b 67. d 68. b 69. c 70. a 71. c 72. d 73. b 74. b 75. d 76. b 77. d 78. a 79. b

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Chap 19_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Asthma is a chronic disease that causes bronchoconstriction due to inflammation. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. The majority of carbon dioxide is transported in the form of bicarbonate ions. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. When CO2 in the blood increases, blood pH decreases? a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. The horizontal fissure separates the middle and inferior lobes of the right lung. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. Emphysema is an acute lung condition characterized by difficulty exhaling. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. The Eustachian tube is important for equalizing air pressure within the middle ear. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. The left lung contains three lobes. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 19_2ce 8. An increase in breathing causes blood oxygen levels to increase and blood carbon dioxide levels to increase. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. Gas exchange occurs in the respiratory zone. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. Blood pH decreases as carbon dioxide levels increase. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. The dorsal respiratory group (DRG) stimulates inspiration. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. The pons is located above the medulla oblongata and is responsible for smoothing the transitions between inhalation and exhalation. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. Ventilation increase by an increase in metabolic activity? a. True b. False a. True b. False 14. Peripheral chemoreceptors detect blood levels of O2, CO2 and H+. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 19_2ce 15. Gas exchange takes place at the type I alveolar cells. a. True b. False a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Use the following diagram for the next 3 questions.

RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

16. Indicate the smallest conducting zone. a. A b. B c. C d. D

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Chap 19_2ce STRUCTURES

17. Use the above diagram for the next 2 questions. Which of the following prevents friction when breathing? a. A b. B c. C d. D 18. Which of the following contains goblet cells? a. A b. B c. C d. D 19. Which of the following is directly detected by peripheral chemoreceptors? a. blood pressure b. high H+ ions c. low O2 d. blood pressure and high H+ ions

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Chap 19_2ce 20. What is gas exchange within the alveoli called? a. inspiration b. expiration c. ventilation d. respiration 21. What is the volume of air that can be inhaled AFTER a normal inhalation (#2 on diagram)? a. tidal volume b. inspiratory reserve c. inspiratory capacity d. vital capacity 22. Considering an individual who is hypoventilating; which of the following statements is FALSE? a. This condition can lead to respiratory acidosis. b. This may be caused by drugs or alcohol. c. This can cause hypocapnia. d. This occurs because of a decreased ventilation rate.

23. Which of the following is part of the conducting zone? a. terminal bronchioles b. respiratory bronchioles c. alveolar ducts d. alveoli 24. Which of the following is used during forced inhalation? a. internal obliques b. rectus abdominis c. internal intercostals d. sternocleidomastoid 25. Fred weighs 200 lb and has an anatomical dead space of 140 mL, his tidal volume is 550 mL, his inspiratory reserve is 1000 mL, and is breathing rate is 14 breaths per minute. What is his alveolar ventilation? (Note: You may not need to use all information; you have to pick the relevant information to do the calculation.) a. 574 mL/min b. 5.7 L/min c. 6.3 L/min d. 120 L/min 26. What is the pressure of carbon dioxide at an atmospheric pressure of 760 mmHg?

a. 0.23 mmHg c. 22.8 mmHg

b. 9.73 mmHg d. 25.3 mmHg

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Chap 19_2ce 27. Which cells make surfactant? a. alveolar type I cells b. alveolar type II cells c. alveolar interstitium d. alveolar basement membrane 28. What mineral is required for the production of hemoglobin? a. zinc b. calcium c. copper d. iron 29. Referring to inhalation, which of the following statements is true? a. Thoracic volume decreases. b. Thoracic volume increases. c. Diaphragm moves upward. d. Alveolar pressure increases relative to atmospheric pressure.

Use the following diagram for the next 3 questions.

RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

30. Indicate the structure where gas exchange occurs. a. A b. B c. C d. D

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Chap 19_2ce 31. Which of the following is a normal blood pH? a. 6.8 b. 7.0 c. 7.4 d. 8.1 32. Which of the following correctly demonstrates Boyle’s law? a. P á 1/V b. V á P c. T á V d. T á 1/P 33. In the venous blood, when CO2 is moving from the issues into the blood and is converted into H2CO3 by carbonic anhydrase, there is a chloride shift. Which way is the chloride moving in the tissues? a. into the red blood cells b. out of the red blood cells c. into the alveolar cells d. out of the alveolar cells 34. What percent of the air (at sea level) is nitrogen? a. 0.01% b. 7% c. 21% d. 78% 35. Which of the following covers the lungs? a. parietal pleura b. visceral pleura c. pulmonary peritoneum d. pericardium 36. Which of the following contains pacemaker cells and is involved in expiration? a. alveoli b. stretch receptors c. type I alveolar cells d. medulla oblongata 37. Which of the following is an inflammatory disease that causes constriction of the conducting airways but does not affect the alveoli? a. lung cancer b. emphysema c. cystic fibrosis d. asthma 38. Which of the following would cause more oxygen to leave the hemoglobin in the tissues? a. lower CO2 b. higher acidity c. high blood pressure d. low body temperature 39. What is the role of the pons? a. The pons is the main respiratory centre. b. It stimulates inspiratory muscles. c. It stimulates muscles involved in forced expiration. d. It assists the medulla oblongata in making breathing smooth.

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Chap 19_2ce Use the following diagram for the next 3 questions.

RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

40. Indicate the structure located anterior to the esophagus and protected by hyaline cartilage. a. A b. B c. C d. D 41. Which of the following is the greatest stimulus for immediately increasing respiratory rate? a. decreased oxygen b. increased carbon dioxide c. increased atmospheric pressure d. decreased temperature 42. What prevents overinflation of the lungs? a. partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli b. baroreceptors in aortic arch c. stretch receptors in the lungs d. the hypothalamus 43. What is the partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere at sea level? a. 7.6 mmHg b. 21 mmHg c. 160 mmHg d. 590 mmHg 44. What are the smallest conducting-zone bronchioles called? a. alveolar ducts b. alveoli c. respiratory bronchioles d. terminal bronchioles Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 19_2ce 45. Where are the central chemoreceptors? a. carotid arteries and aortic arch b. medulla oblongata c. pons d. hypothalamus 46. How saturated is hemoglobin when blood first leaves the lungs? a. 2% b. 5% c. 98% d. 100% 47. Which of the following refers to the movement of air into and out of the lungs? a. breathing b. respiration c. ventilation d. inhalation 48. Hyperventilating causes which of the following? a. respiratory acidosis b. respiratory alkalosis c. respiratory ketosis d. respiratory lordosis

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Chap 19_2ce MUSCLES Use the following diagram for the next 2 questions.

49. Indicate a muscle involved in forced inspiration. a. A b. B c. C d. D

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Chap 19_2ce LUNGS

50. Given the patient’s lung volumes as shown in the figure, what is the patient’s vital capacity? a. 500 mL b. 3600 mL c. 3.1 L d. 4.7 L 51. Which of the following produces and releases surfactant? a. alveolar macrophage b. red blood cell c. type I alveolar cell d. type II alveolar cell 52. What causes air to enter our lungs? a. decreasing alveolar pressure by increasing volume b. increasing alveolar pressure by increasing volume c. decreasing alveolar pressure by decreasing volume d. increasing alveolar pressure by decreasing volume

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Chap 19_2ce 53. In the diagram below, which number indicates the vital capacity?

a. 1 c. 5

b. 3 d. 7

54. Which of the following is Boyle’s Law? a. The sum of all the partial pressures in a gas mixture is equal to the total pressure. b. Pressure and volume are inversely proportional at a steady temperature. c. gases move towards lower pressure d. the more gas that is dissolved, the more that will move into the bloodstream 55. How is the MOST carbon dioxide carried from the tissues to the lungs? a. bound to hemoglobin b. dissolved in the plasma c. dissolved inside red blood cells d. as bicarbonate ions 56. Which of the following is true about hypercapnia? a. It is high blood sugar due to kidney failure. b. It is high blood potassium levels due to hypertension. c. It is low blood pH due to lactic acid. d. It is high blood CO2 levels due to decreased ventilation.

57. Which of the following is a disease that causes decreased recoil in the lungs so breathing out is difficult? a. emphysema b. chronic bronchitis c. asthma d. lung cancer 58. How is most oxygen transported in the bloodstream? a. bound to hemoglobin b. dissolved in plasma c. bound to red blood cells d. as CO2

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Chap 19_2ce MUSCLES Use the following diagram for the next 2 questions.

59. Indicate a muscle involved in relaxed inspiration. a. A b. B c. C d. D 60. Which of the following structures connects the pharynx to the trachea? a. epiglottis b. larynx c. bronchi d. esophagus

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Chap 19_2ce 61. Which of the following is the primary respiratory control centre? a. medulla oblongata b. pons c. lungs d. diaphragm 62. Which of the following structures contains receptors for detecting scents? a. superior nasal conchae b. inferior nasal conchae c. nares d. turbinates 63. Given the following information, calculate alveolar ventilation.

Tidal volume = 550 mL Dead space = 200 mL Respiration rate = 11 breaths per minute a. 13.6 mL per minute b. 350 mL per minute c. 3.85 L per minute d. 6.1 L per minute 64. Which of the following are the two functional divisions of the respiratory system? a. conducting zone and respiratory zone b. upper and lower respiratory system c. mouth and lungs d. olfactory epithelium and bronchi 65. Where are the central chemoreceptors located? a. aorta b. pons c. medulla oblongata d. alveoli 66. If the intrapleural pressure were to equal the atmospheric and alveolar pressure, what would happen? a. Air would move out of the lungs. b. The lungs would collapse. c. Air would move into the lungs d. The lungs would expand and burst 67. Which of the following terms refers to low blood CO2? a. hypocalcaemia b. hypocapnia c. hypercalcemia d. hypercapnia 68. Which of the following does NOT contract during sneezing? a. internal intercostals b. rectus abdominus c. internal obliques d. external intercostals 69. Which of the following indicates impaired blood flow? a. hypoxia b. anemia c. anorexia d. ischemia

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Chap 19_2ce LUNGS

70. Given the patient’s lung volumes as shown in the figure above, indicate tidal volume. a. A b. B c. C d. D 71. How do oxygen and carbon dioxide cross all membranes? a. by osmosis b. by diffusion c. by passive transport d. by active transport 72. Which muscles are used for relaxed inhalation? a. diaphragm b. internal intercostals c. external intercostals d. diaphragm and external intercostals 73. Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system? a. filtering particles from inhaled air b. regulating blood pH c. homeostatic regulation d. providing a sense of smell 74. In our venous circulation in the tissues, the partial pressure of oxygen is approximately 40 mmHg. Approximately how saturated is the hemoglobin with oxygen (as a percentage) in the venous circulation at rest (i.e., when the person is not exercising)? a. 40% b. 50% c. 80% d. 98% 75. Which of the following is NOT a region of the pharynx? a. nasopharynx b. laryngopharynx c. alveolopharynx d. oropharynx Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 19_2ce Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. False 8. False 9. True 10. True 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. True 15. True 16. c 17. c 18. d 19. d 20. d 21. b 22. c 23. a 24. d 25. b 26. a

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Chap 19_2ce 27. b 28. d 29. b 30. d 31. c 32. a 33. a 34. d 35. b 36. d 37. d 38. b 39. d 40. a 41. b 42. c 43. c 44. d 45. b 46. c 47. c 48. b 49. c 50. d 51. d 52. a 53. c 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 19_2ce 55. d 56. d 57. a 58. a 59. a 60. b 61. a 62. a 63. c 64. a 65. c 66. b 67. b 68. d 69. d 70. a 71. b 72. d 73. c 74. c 75. c

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Chap 20_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The sympathetic nervous system is involved in stimulating the digestive system. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. Peristalsis requires circular skeletal muscle. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. The stomach is responsible for the majority of digestion and absorption. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. The chemical digestion of bread begins in the mouth, not the stomach. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. Vitamin D absorption is dependent on calcium. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. The peptide bonds of proteins are broken down by chemical digestion. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. The butter on a chicken sandwich will take longer to digest than the chicken. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 20_2ce 8. The liver contains immune cells known as Kupffer cells. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. The function of pepsin is to break down protein in the small intestine. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. All vitamins are absorbed by the same process. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. Sodium is important in the absorption of monosaccharides and amino acids. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. The maxilla contains the lower eight incisors. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. Angiotensinogen is produced in the liver and helps to regulate blood pressure. a. True b. False a. True b. False 14. Bile is produced from cholesterol by pancreatic cells. a. True b. False a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

15. Which of the following is NOT secreted by the pancreas? a. insulin b. bicarbonate c. enzymes d. glucose Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 20_2ce 16. Where is vitamin B12 absorbed? a. stomach b. duodenum c. ileum d. large intestine 17. In the diagram, which of the following is the pharynx? a. A b. C c. E d. F 18. Which of the following produces maltase? a. stomach b. pancreas c. small intestine d. large intestine 19. The lymphatic system is most important in the absorption of which macromolecule? a. fat b. protein c. carbohydrates d. alcohol 20. Which of the following terms refers to the outermost layer of the gastrointestinal tract? a. parietal peritoneum b. visceral mucosa c. parietal mucosa d. visceral peritoneal membrane 21. What is the process of converting glucose and amino acids into triglycerides? a. glycogenesis b. gluconeogenesis c. lipogenesis d. glycogenolysis 22. Which of the following describes the correct order that food passes through the digestive system? a. pyloric sphincter, ileum, duodenum, jejunum b. pyloric sphincter, duodenum, ileum, ileocecal sphincter c. pyloric sphincter, duodenum, jejunum, ileum d. pyloric sphincter, ileum, duodenum, jejunum 23. Which hormone stimulates the stomach to produce HCl? a. CCK b. GIP c. Gastrin d. Secretin 24. Which of the following stimulates secretions in the digestive tract? a. submucosal plexus b. myenteric plexus c. brachial plexus d. celiac plexus 25. The anticipation of eating an ice cream cone causes an individual to salivate. This process is stimulated by which nervous system? a. enteric b. sympathetic c. parasympathetic d. peripheral 26. How does cholecystokinin (CCK) cause bile to be released? a. by contracting the sphincter of Oddi b. by relaxing the sphincter of Oddi c. by contracting the pyloric sphincter d. by relaxing the pyloric sphincter Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 20_2ce 27. Which of the following conditions is an inflammatory disease? a. Crohn’s disease b. irritable bowel syndrome c. hiatal hernia d. hemorrhoids 28. Where does chemical digestion of protein occur? a. stomach b. small intestine c. large intestine d. stomach and small intestine 29. Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ in digestion? a. pancreas b. liver c. gallbladder d. stomach 30. Use the following diagram for the next 2 questions. In the diagram, which of the following is the epiglottis?

a. A c. C

b. B d. D

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Chap 20_2ce 31. The monomers from the digestion of a meal travel to the liver via which of the following? a. large intestine b. hepatic portal vein c. hepatic portal artery d. enteric artery 32. Which nutrient is absorbed into the lymphatic vessels rather than into the bloodstream? a. starch b. sugar c. amino acids d. fat 33. Which of the following is required to convert pepsinogen into pepsin? a. proteins b. triglycerides c. polysaccharides d. HCl 34. Which of the following is the process of forming glucose from fat? a. gluconeogenesis b. glycolysis c. glycogenolysis d. lipolysis 35. How is glucose transported into the small intestine epithelial cells? a. by co-transport with sodium b. by active transport c. by ion channels d. by aquaporins 36. When does the conversion of a sandwich into chyme occur? a. after the bolus passes the pyloric sphincter b. after the bolus passes into an organ consisting of three layers of skeletal muscle c. before the bolus passes the lower esophageal sphincter d. before the bolus passes the pyloric sphincter 37. Which of the following is required for immune health, protection for harmful pathogens, production of vitamin K, and breakdown of toxic substances? a. pepsin b. fibrinogen c. mucus d. gut bacteria 38. Which of the following makes bile? a. pancreas b. gallbladder c. spleen d. liver 39. Which part of the intestine has the most bacterial flora? a. ileum b. cecum c. duodenum d. jejunum 40. Goblet cells produce which of the following? a. pepsinogen b. mucus c. hydrochloric acid d. intrinsic factor 41. Which enzyme is found in the saliva and chemically breaks down starch? a. lipase b. sucrase c. chymotrypsin d. amylase Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 20_2ce 42. Where are most nutrients absorbed? a. stomach b. duodenum c. ileum d. large intestine 43. Which of the following is a disaccharide made up of glucose and galactose? a. maltose b. fructose c. lactose d. sucrose 44. What is the thermogenic effect? a. the body’s requirement of food to maintain homeostasis b. the process of digesting food requires calories to be consumed c. the physical presence of food in the stomach d. the distension of the digestive tract due to temperature increases 45. When triglycerides are reformed in the intestinal epithelial cell, they are combined with cholesterol and fat-soluble vitamins to form which of the following? a. a chylomicron b. a globule c. a emulsion droplet d. a micelle 46. Which hormone makes you feel hungry? a. erythropoietin b. insulin c. leptin d. ghrelin 47. Which of the following statements is true regarding GLUT? a. It is a membrane carrier protein that aids in absorption of glucose across the apical membrane. b. It allows diffusion of monosaccharides into the bloodstream. c. It is a membrane carrier protein that aids in absorption of galactose across the basolateral membrane. d. It aids in absorption of fructose across the basolateral membrane only.

48. What is the name of the enzyme that breaks down bread? a. peptidase b. amylase c. lipase d. ribonuclease 49. Which of the following prevents food from entering the lungs? a. tongue b. epiglottis c. uvula d. sphincter 50. What is the function of cholecystokinin (CCK)? a. to cause intestinal muscle contractions b. to release bile from the gallbladder c. to release insulin from pancreatic beta islet cells d. to increase hydrochloric acid secretion

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Chap 20_2ce 51. White bread is broken down into which monomer for absorption? a. amino acid b. glucose c. fructose d. fatty acids 52. Which of the following statements is true? a. Goblet cells produce hydrochloric acid. c. Parietal cells produce pepsin.

b. Parietal cells produce pepsinogen. d. Chief cells produce pepsinogen.

53. Which of the following is the process of forming glucose from glycogen? a. gluconeogenesis b. glycogenolysis c. glycolysis d. lipogenolysis 54. The digestion of a steak requires a specific enzyme to be activated. Which cell produces the necessary secretion to activate the enzyme? a. goblet cell b. chief cell c. parietal cell d. Kupffer cell 55. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver? a. bile storage b. vitamin D activation c. digestion d. plasma protein synthesis 56. Joe suffers from pernicious anemia because his body is unable to produce intrinsic factor. Which part of his digestive system is not absorbing correctly? a. stomach b. duodenum c. ileum d. large intestine 57. Suppose you are thinking of a summer barbecue, and at that moment the submucosal plexus stimulates gastric juice secretion. What is this process called? a. initial phase of digestion b. cephalic phase of digestion c. gastric phase of digestion d. intestinal phase of digestion 58. Which hormone causes the pancreas to release enzymes and bicarbonate? a. CCK b. GIP c. gastrin d. secretin 59. What do we call the opening of the stomach that is connected to the lower esophageal sphincter? a. fundus b. body c. pylorus d. cardia 60. Defecation requires which muscle type? a. skeletal b. circular smooth c. longitudinal smooth d. mesenteric 61. The enteric nervous system can be found in which layer of the gastrointestinal tract? a. mucosa b. submucosa c. muscularis d. serosa Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 20_2ce 62. Which of the following is an enzyme that digests protein? a. amylase b. lipase c. trypsin d. maltase 63. Which of the following regions of the digestive tract does NOT contain skeletal muscles? a. tongue b. pharynx c. transverse colon d. upper esophagus 64. Which of the following moves through aquaporins? a. fat b. peptides c. water d. ions 65. Cell membrane composition is important in fat absorption because it allows which of the following processes to occur? a. osmosis b. diffusion c. facilitated transport d. coupled transport 66. Which of the following is produced by the small intestine? a. maltase b. lipase c. amylase d. pepsin 67. What does the absorption of iron depend on? a. ion channels b. diffusion c. osmosis d. facilitated transport 68. Which cells produce pepsinogen? a. chief cells b. parietal cells c. goblet cells d. mucosal cells 69. During prolonged time between meals, which pancreatic cells are most productive? a. alpha islet cells b. beta islet cells c. acini cells d. goblet cells 70. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver? a. production of albumin b. production of clotting factors c. conversion of glucose into fat d. production of pepsinogen

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Chap 20_2ce Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. True 12. False 13. True 14. False 15. d 16. c 17. b 18. c 19. a 20. d 21. c 22. c 23. c 24. a 25. c 26. b

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Chap 20_2ce 27. a 28. d 29. d 30. d 31. b 32. d 33. d 34. a 35. a 36. d 37. d 38. d 39. b 40. b 41. d 42. b 43. c 44. b 45. a 46. d 47. c 48. b 49. b 50. b 51. b 52. d 53. b 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 20_2ce 55. a 56. c 57. b 58. d 59. d 60. a 61. b 62. c 63. c 64. c 65. b 66. a 67. a 68. a 69. a 70. d

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Chap 21_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Glucose is partially reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. Blood flows into each kidney through the renal artery and leaves through the renal veins. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. The enzyme renin is responsible for cleaving angiotensin into angiotensin I. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. The internal urethral sphincter is voluntarily controlled. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. Filtration is a selective process that ensures certain molecules such as glucose and amino acids are not excreted. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. Micturition is influenced by the parasympathetic nervous system. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. ADH is released in response to high blood pressure. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 21_2ce 8. Secretion occurs mainly in Bowman’s capsule. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. The descending loop of Henle is permeable to water but impermeable to ions and urea. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. The kidneys are located in the posterior pelvic cavity. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. Parathyroid hormone increases the reabsorption of calcium in the distal tubule and collecting duct. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. Kidney stones are most commonly caused by excess uric acid or calcium-oxalate precipitation. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. One of the ways that water can be reabsorbed into the blood stream is by paracellular transport. a. True b. False a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

14. Which part of the nephron does NOT reabsorb water? a. proximal tubule b. distal tubule c. descending loop d. ascending loop 15. What is the name given to the side of the epithelial membrane that is next to the lumen of the tubule? a. basement membrane b. apical membrane c. paracellular membrane d. peritubular membrane

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Chap 21_2ce 16. Which of the following tests can be used to determine kidney function? a. urine albumin b. calcium oxalate concentration c. blood glucose concentration d. urine output PATIENT The following data for a patient are collected: substance filtered = 180 L/day substance reabsorbed = 179 L/day substance secreted = 500 mL/day 17. What can be concluded about the patient’s condition? a. probable kidney failure b. cancer c. possible kidney stones d. normal 18. Which of the following represents the correct order in which filtrate moves through the nephron? a. distal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, proximal convoluted tubule, glomerulus, collecting duct b. glomerulus, distal convoluted tubule, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, collecting duct c. glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, collecting duct d. proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, glomerulus, collecting duct 19. What is the primary force driving glomerular filtration? a. capillary hydrostatic pressure b. capillary osmotic pressure c. glomerular glycosidic pressure d. glomerular hydrostatic pressure 20. Where are the adrenal glands located? a. in the neck c. in the superior aspect of each kidney

b. in the posterior aspect of the bladder d. in close proximity to the thyroid gland

21. A patient presents with a GFR of 50 L/day and no urine output. What can be concluded with respect to this patient? a. The patient is experiencing kidney stones. b. The patient is suffering from chronic kidney disease. c. The patient has the seasonal flu. d. The patient is healthy.

22. What is the main source of urea? a. breakdown of carbohydrates b. breakdown of fat c. breakdown of DNA d. breakdown of protein 23. Which of the following cells is responsible for the secretion of renin? a. juxtaglomerular cells b. mascula densa cells c. transitional epithelial cells d. podocytes

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Chap 21_2ce 24. In which of the following structures does filtration occur? a. proximal convoluted tubule b. loop of Henle c. renal corpuscles d. collecting ducts 25. With respect to the urinary system, which of the following is NOT involved in detecting or responding to the changes Sarah is experiencing? a. juxtaglomerular cells b. afferent arteriole c. macula densa cells of the distal convoluted tubule d. inferior vena cava 26. Which of the following are primary causes of chronic kidney disease? a. hypertension and diabetes b. hypotension and cancer c. hypertension and kidney stones d. cancer and diabetes 27. Reabsorption first occurs in which part of the nephron? a. proximal convoluted tubule b. loop of Henle c. distal convoluted tubule d. collecting duct 28. Which of the following is produced by the adrenal cortex? a. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) b. aldosterone c. parathyroid hormone (PTH) d. insulin 29. Which of the following statements is correct? a. Sarah’s blood pressure will decrease. b. Sarah’s blood pressure will increase. c. Sarah’s blood volume will increase to compensate for the dehydration. d. Sarah’s blood calcium will be increased.

30. Which of the following will cause a release of renin? a. increased blood pressure b. decreased blood pressure c. increased Mg2+ d. increased Na+ 31. Which of the following causes the kidney to reabsorb sodium ions? a. angiotensin I b. angiotensin II c. angiotensinogen d. aldosterone 32. Which of the following is NOT a way by which water can be reabsorbed in the nephron? a. through the epithelial cells by transcellular transport b. by osmosis through epithelial cell membranes c. by aquaporin membrane proteins d. between the epithelial cells by paracellular transport

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Chap 21_2ce 33. What do we call the section of the kidney from the capsule to the renal hilum that encompasses one renal pyramid? a. renal lobe b. renal column c. renal pelvis d. renal calyx 34. What is the smallest functional unit of the kidney? a. renal hilum b. nephron c. renal cortex d. glomerulus 35. How does the body respond to low levels of sodium or water? a. Blood pressure is increased. b. The efferent arteriole receives a signal and decreases blood pressure. c. The GFR is increased as a result of a signal received in the collecting duct. d. A signal is sent to the smooth muscle of the afferent arteriole, and GFR is decreased.

36. A urine test is conducted on a patient, and it is concluded that the patient is healthy. Which of the following is correct? a. Glucose is present. b. Proteins are present. c. Urea is present. d. Amino acids are present.

37. Which of the following is 100% reabsorbed in healthy people? a. water b. sodium c. urea d. amino acids 38. ADH is responsible for the reabsorption of which of the following in the distal tubule and collecting duct? a. calcium b. water c. potassium d. sodium

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Chap 21_2ce Use the following diagram for the next 2 questions.

NEPHRON

39. Indicate the proximal convoluted tubule. a. A b. B c. C d. D 40. Where does filtration occur? a. A b. B c. C d. D Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 21_2ce 41. Which of the following, when present in the urine, is an indicator of kidney damage? a. water b. protein c. urea d. sodium 42. What are the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule collectively known as? a. convoluted tubule b. renal corpuscle c. loop of Henle d. collecting ducts 43. Which of the following describes secretion in the nephron? a. moving fluid from peritubular capillaries into the tubule b. moving fluid from collecting duct into the interstitial space c. moving fluid from the tubule into the capillaries d. moving fluid from the glomerular capillaries into the Bowman’s capsule 44. Which of the following is responsible for detecting low levels of sodium? a. juxtaglomerular cells b. macula densa cells c. transitional epithelial cells d. podocytes PATIENT The following data for a patient are collected: substance filtered = 180 L/day substance reabsorbed = 179 L/day substance secreted = 500 mL/day 45. What is the amount of substance excreted? a. 0.5 L/day b. 1.0 L/day c. 1.5 L/day d. 2.0 L/day 46. In which parts of the nephron does secretion occur? a. proximal and distal tubules and glomerulus b. glomerulus and collecting duct c. loop of Henle, glomerulus, and collecting duct d. proximal and distal tubules and collecting duct 47. Which of the following is responsible for regulating water and ion concentrations? a. albumin b. renin-angiotension system (RAS) c. osmosis d. collecting duct 48. Which of the following will decrease glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? a. constricting the afferent arteriole b. constricting the efferent arteriole c. dilating the afferent arteriole d. dilating the glomerular capillaries

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Chap 21_2ce 49. Which of the following is NOT a function of the urinary system? a. regulating blood pressure b. regulating the blood’s water and ion composition c. regulating blood pH by removing carbon dioxide d. excreting waste products 50. Which of the following is NOT an important function of the nephron? a. filtration b. reabsorption c. secretion d. excretion 51. When would the kidney produce renin? a. when blood pressure is low b. when blood pressure is high c. when blood sugar is low d. when blood sugar is high 52. Which of the following causes blood pressure to decrease? a. aldosterone b. ADH c. ANP d. increased blood osmolarity 53. What is the most common cause of kidney failure? a. chronic infections b. toxins from environment c. chronic hypertension d. alcohol

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Chap 21_2ce Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. d 15. b 16. a 17. d 18. c 19. a 20. c 21. b 22. d 23. a 24. c 25. d 26. a

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Chap 21_2ce 27. a 28. b 29. a 30. b 31. d 32. a 33. a 34. b 35. d 36. c 37. d 38. b 39. c 40. a 41. b 42. b 43. a 44. b 45. c 46. d 47. b 48. a 49. c 50. d 51. a 52. c 53. c

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Chap 22_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Both males and females produce steroid hormones. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. A blood test to measure the levels of prostate-specific antigen is used to detect prostate cancer. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. A primordial follicle contains a total of 92 chromosomes. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. The blood-testis barrier is formed by astrocytes. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. Girls are born with all the oocytes they will have for their lifetime. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. Sperm are composed of a head, mid-piece, and tail. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. Spermatids are diploid cells. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 22_2ce 8. When fertilization occurs, implantation must occur within 24 hours. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. One primary oocyte divides to produce four ova. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. The seminal vesicles are responsible for secreting an acidic viscous fluid that makes up the majority of the volume of semen ejaculated. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. Gametogenesis occurs in the same location in both males and females. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. The corpus luteum functions as a gland and can produce progesterone. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. The perimetrium is the smooth muscle layer of the uterus that contracts during childbirth. a. True b. False a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

14. Which of the following structures is responsible for secreting alkaline mucus into the urethra during arousal? a. corpora cavernosa b. seminal vesicles c. bulbourethral glands d. prostate gland

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Chap 22_2ce Use the following diagram for the next 2 questions.

FIGURE

15. Which of the following is responsible for the production of ATP? a. A b. B c. C d. D 16. What is the most significant risk factor for cervical cancer? a. weakened immune system b. oral contraceptives c. smoking d. human papilloma virus (HPV) 17. At what point in the female reproductive cycle are the levels of both estrogen and progesterone high? a. ovulation b. menstrual phase c. follicular phase d. luteal phase 18. In which of the following circumstances does menstruation occur? a. when there are high levels of estrogen and low levels of progesterone b. when the corpus luteum begins to produce progesterone c. when there are high progesterone levels and low estrogen levels d. when there are low levels of both estrogen and progesterone 19. What are the two phases of the female reproductive cycle? a. menstruation and pregnancy b. follicular phase and luteal phase c. ovulation and menstruation d. estrogen and progesterone 20. Which of the following is NOT a steroid hormone directly involved in the regulation of the reproductive process? a. testosterone b. estrogen c. cortisol d. progesterone 21. Which of the following hormones causes ovulation? a. estrogen b. follicle stimulating hormone c. luteinizing hormone d. androgen-binding protein

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Chap 22_2ce 22. Where is the maturation of sperm completed? a. seminal vesicles b. bulbourethral glands c. epididymis d. rete testis Use the following diagram for the next 2 questions.

FIGURE

23. Which of the following contains important enzymes to break down the egg? a. A b. B c. C d. D 24. In which of the following structures does fertilization occur? a. uterus b. fallopian tubes c. ovaries d. vagina 25. Which of the following statements is FALSE with respect to the male gonads? a. The male gonads are located in the scrotum where the temperature is regulated to 39–40oC. b. The male gonads are the testes. c. Mature sperm are transported through a duct system from the male gonads. d. The male gonads are composed of the seminiferous tubules where spermatogenesis begins at puberty.

26. What is the structure that attaches each ovary to the outside of the uterus? a. ovarian ligament b. round ligament c. infundibulum d. fallopian tube 27. Where does spermatogenesis occur? a. seminiferous tubules b. scrotum c. vas deferens d. efferent ductules 28. Referring to what happens after fertilization has occurred, which of the following statements is true? a. A zygote is always formed in the fallopian tube and then implants in the myometrium of the uterus. b. A zygote is a diploid cell that implants in the uterus wall within the first two to three days. c. After approximately 10 days a blastocyst forms and implants in the endometrium of the uterus. d. A blastocyst is a hollow ball of cells that implants in the myometrium of the uterus.

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Chap 22_2ce 29. Which of the following does the prostate gland secrete? a. prostaglandins b. citric acid c. follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) d. testosterone 30. Which of the following structures is analogous to the male scrotum? a. vulva b. labia c. cervix d. clitoris 31. Which of the following is the major cause of infertility in females? a. pelvic inflammatory disease b. endometriosis c. gonorrhea d. chlamydia 32. Ovulation is caused by which of the following? a. increases in both FSH and LH b. increases in progesterone and LH c. decreases in estrogen and FSH d. decreases in progesterone and LH 33. Which of the following is the correct order in which sperm travel from the seminiferous tubules to the urethra? a. seminiferous tubules, epididymis, vas deferens, urethra b. seminiferous tubules, vas deferens, efferent ductules, ejaculatory duct, urethra c. seminiferous tubules, rete testis, efferent ductules, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra d. seminiferous tubules, rete testis, epididymis, efferent ductules, vas deferens, urethra 34. Which of the following correctly lists the layers of the uterus from the innermost to outermost? a. endometrium, myometrium, perimetrium b. perimetrium, myometrium, endometrium c. myometrium, endometrium, perimetrium d. perimetrium, endometrium, myometrium 35. Which of the following are known as the female gonads? a. uterus b. cervix c. fallopian tubes d. ovaries 36. How many spermatids are produced from one primary spermatocyte? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 37. Which of the following cells is stimulated by luteinizing hormone? a. Thea cells b. Granulosa cells c. Leydig cells d. Sertoli cells 38. In the female reproductive system, when does a primary oocyte enlarge and undergo the first meiotic division? a. prior to birth b. when a female is approximately five years old c. between puberty and menopause d. never—they do not undergo meiosis

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Chap 22_2ce 39. Which of the following is NOT a function of the male reproductive system? a. producing steroid hormones b. producing fats c. producing semen d. storing and transporting sperm 40. What is the production of gametes called? a. mitosis b. gametogenesis c. spermatogenesis d. oogenesis 41. Which of the following is responsible for the production of testosterone? a. Sertoli cells b. granulosa cells c. sperm d. Leydig cells 42. A patient is in active labour with her first child. Which of the following is responsible for the physical contractions? a. contractions of the endometrium b. dilation of the cervix c. smooth muscle of the myometrium d. movements of the fetus 43. Which of the following hormones is tested in a pregnancy test? a. estrogen b. progesterone c. testosterone d. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

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Chap 22_2ce Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. False 11. False 12. True 13. False 14. c 15. c 16. d 17. d 18. d 19. b 20. c 21. c 22. c 23. a 24. b 25. a 26. a

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Chap 22_2ce 27. a 28. c 29. b 30. b 31. b 32. a 33. c 34. a 35. d 36. d 37. a 38. c 39. b 40. b 41. d 42. c 43. d

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Chap 23_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The adaptive immune response provides long-term protection to an individual. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. The thymus is located posterior and inferior to the heart. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. The majority of bone marrow is composed of red bone marrow located in the medullary cavity. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. Hematopoietic stem cells differentiate into red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. An antigen is any molecule in the surface of an infectious organism that can be recognized by any immune cell. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. A fever is a change in the set point of the normal body temperature of 39oC. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. Helper T cells are able to directly kill microorganisms. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 23_2ce 8. The first vaccine was produced by Edward Jenner to fight polio. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. Interleukin-I (IL-I) acts as an autocrine signal. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. Complement proteins produced by the liver are activated only by viruses. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. The innate immune response is divided into two pathways: the cell-mediated immune response and the humoral immune response. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. Cells infected by a virus will produce interferon. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. The components of blood plasma, interstitial fluid, and lymph are the same. a. True b. False a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

14. Which of the following immunoglobulins is specific to allergic reactions? a. IgA b. IgG c. IgE d. IgM 15. Vaccines exist for all EXCEPT which one of the following? a. polio b. pneumonia c. asthma d. measles Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 23_2ce 16. Amy has some congestion from a recent viral infection. Amy now has which of the following? a. naturally acquired passive immunity b. naturally acquired active immunity c. artificially acquired active immunity d. artificially acquired passive immunity Use the following diagram for the next 3 questions.

STRUCTURE

17. Identify the largest lymphatic organ. a. A b. B c. C d. D 18. Where do B cells mature? a. bone marrow b. thymus c. lymph nodes d. spleen Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 23_2ce 19. Which of the following is derived from a lymphoid stem cell? a. basophil b. natural killer cell c. erythrocyte d. mast cell 20. Which of the following is NOT a classic sign of inflammation? a. pain b. chills c. redness d. heat 21. Where does B cell maturation occur? a. thymus b. bone marrow c. liver d. spleen 22. Which of the following does NOT differentiate from mesenchymal cells? a. cartilage b. osteoblasts c. adipose cells d. red blood cells 23. What is the least common type of white blood cell? a. eosinophil b. basophil c. monocyte d. stomach 24. Which MHC molecule is found on every cell in our body? a. MHC I b. MHC II c. MHC III d. MHC IV 25. Lymph is returned to the bloodstream through which of the following? a. aorta b. subclavian veins c. aortic artery d. jugular veins 26. Which of the following kills our cells that are infected with a virus? a. helper T cells b. cytotoxic T cells c. B cells d. plasma cells 27. Which of the following proteins can directly kill bacteria or fungus? a. antibodies b. interferon c. interleukin 1 d. complement 28. What characteristic do lymphatic vessels and veins have in common? a. stoma b. nodes c. valves d. reticular fibres 29. Which cell types are mainly involved in allergic reactions? a. B cells and neutrophils b. neutrophils and cytotoxic T cells c. B cells, mast cells and basophils d. natural killer cells and eosinophils

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Chap 23_2ce 30. Which of the following cell types is infected in an individual with HIV? a. helper T cells that are part of the cell-mediated immune response b. B cells with immunoglobulin receptors c. cytotoxic T cells with the CD8 co-receptor d. CD4+ cells that are part of the hormonal immune response 31. Which of the following are phagocytic and antigen presenting cells? a. B cells and T cells b. macrophages and neutrophils c. mast cells and basophils d. macrophages, dendritic cells and B cells 32. Which of the following is NOT true of antigen-presenting cells (APCs)? a. APCs present antibodies on MHC II molecules. b. APCs are phagocytic. c. APCs engulf microbes. d. APCs circulate to lymphatic tissues.

33. Which cells kill cancer cells? a. macrophages b. natural killer cells c. neutrophils d. mast cells

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Chap 23_2ce Use the following diagram for the next 3 questions.

STRUCTURE

34. Identify the organ involved in hematopoiesis during embryonic development. a. A b. B c. C d. D 35. Sarah suffers from an autoimmune disease that affects joints. What disease does she have? a. rheumatoid arthritis b. osteoarthritis c. multiple sclerosis d. Addison’s disease 36. Helper T cells can only recognize antigen presented on which of the following? a. MHC I b. MHC II c. infected epithelial cells d. B cells Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 23_2ce 37. Which of the following is released during an inflammatory response and causes vasodilation and increased blood vessel permeability? a. interleukin I b. perforin c. histamine d. interferon 38. Sally is suffering from a chronic inflammatory condition. Which of the following would help Sally? a. using an antipyretic regularly b. consuming less protein in her diet c. consuming more foods containing omega 3 fatty acids d. consuming more foods containing omega 6 fatty acids 39. George is experiencing an allergic reaction to a bee sting. Which of the following is involved? a. natural killer cell b. mast cell c. cytotoxic T cell d. regulatory T cell 40. Which of the following is the most numerous white blood cell that is the first to arrive at the site of infection? a. neutrophils b. monocytes c. macrophages d. mast cells 41. Which of the following secretes antibodies? a. helper T cells b. cytotoxic T cells c. B cells d. plasma cells 42. Which of the following gut-associated lymphoid tissues is found in the small intestine? a. tonsils b. adenoids c. appendix d. Peyer’s paths 43. Considering a patient who has just undergone a kidney transplant, which of the following needs to be similar between the donor and the patient to improve the success of the transplant? a. white blood cells b. red blood cells c. MHC II molecules d. MHC I molecules 44. Which of the following is NOT a structure of the immune system? a. spleen b. thymus c. Peyer’s patch of the large intestine d. bone marrow 45. Which of the following occurs when a microbe is opsonized with an antibody? a. Phagocytosis by macrophages and dendritic cells increases. b. Targeting by complement proteins decreases. c. Microbes increase toxin production. d. Microbes mobilize and spread throughout the body.

46. What do we call a chemical that acts on the same cell that produces it? a. cytokine b. autocrine c. chemotaxis d. paracrine Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 23_2ce 47. Which of the following cells do NOT express MHC? a. epithelial cells b. dendritic cells c. red blood cells d. smooth muscle cells 48. Where are complement proteins produced? a. thymus b. spleen c. bone marrow d. liver 49. Which of the following is an example of natural active immunity? a. getting sick and then making memory cells b. having injection of antibodies to prevent infection c. having a vaccine that only works temporarily because no memory cells are produced d. when an infant receives antibodies from breast milk 50. Which type of cells use perforin to puncture the cell membrane of virus-infected cells and cancer cells? a. macrophages b. natural killer cells c. monocytes d. neutrophils 51. Which autoimmune disease attacks skeletal muscles? a. Grave’s disease b. aplastic anemia c. myasthenia gravis d. Addison’s disease

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Chap 23_2ce Use the following diagram for the next 3 questions.

STRUCTURE

52. Identify the structure to which immature T cells travel. a. A b. B c. C d. D 53. Which of the following vaccines contain live attenuated virus? a. influenza b. measles c. pertussis d. hepatitis

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Chap 23_2ce 54. Bill has numbness and tingling in his fingers, loss of sensations in his hands and left arm, and has lost his ability to control motor movements in that same hand because his immune system is attacking his myelin. What disease does he have? a. Grave’s disease b. arthritis c. lupus d. multiple sclerosis 55. What is the function of interleukin 2? a. to stimulate proliferation of other immune cells b. to increase MHC1 production c. to kill cancer cells d. to opsonize bacteria 56. Which of the following is NOT a first line of defence? a. white blood cell b. skin c. sebaceous glands d. stomach 57. Which of the following acts like an alarm to warn nearby cells of a viral infection? a. interleukin 1 b. histamine c. complement d. interferon 58. Which of the following has the CD4 receptor and is the main target of HIV? a. helper T cells b. cytotoxic T cells c. B cells d. plasma cells 59. Which vaccine does NOT require adjuvant to hyper stimulate the immune system to respond to the vaccine but no memory cells are produced? a. killed b. toxoid c. live attenuated d. peptide 60. What type of vaccine is the MMR vaccine? a. live attenuated vaccine b. killed virus vaccine c. toxoid d. vaccine produced by DNA technology 61. Lymph from the right leg returns to the heart through which of the following veins? a. right external jugular vein b. right internal jugular vein c. right subclavian vein d. left subclavian vein 62. What are the most numerous white blood cell types? a. Neutrophil b. Basophil c. Eosinophil d. Monocyte

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Chap 23_2ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. False 11. False 12. True 13. True 14. c 15. c 16. b 17. b 18. a 19. b 20. b 21. b 22. d 23. a 24. a 25. b 26. b

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Chap 23_2ce 27. d 28. c 29. c 30. a 31. d 32. a 33. b 34. b 35. a 36. b 37. c 38. c 39. b 40. a 41. d 42. d 43. d 44. c 45. a 46. b 47. c 48. d 49. a 50. b 51. c 52. c 53. b 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 23_2ce 55. a 56. a 57. d 58. a 59. b 60. a 61. d 62. a

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Chap 24_2ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Bacteria reproduce sexually by binary fission. a. True b. False a. True b. False 2. Malaria is caused by Plasmodium species. a. True b. False a. True b. False 3. Protozoa digest food in vacuoles. a. True b. False a. True b. False 4. Clostridium tetani attacks the central nervous system and causes continual muscle contractions. a. True b. False a. True b. False 5. Bacteria make up two kingdoms: Archaebacteria and Eubacteria. a. True b. False a. True b. False 6. Viruses are living cells that most commonly contain RNA. a. True b. False a. True b. False 7. Ringworm is known as dermatophytosis and is caused by a flatworm. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 24_2ce 8. Antibiotics are the best treatment for viral infections. a. True b. False a. True b. False 9. Hookworms are platyhelminths and mostly infect children in developing countries. a. True b. False a. True b. False 10. Viruses are smaller in size than a bacterial cell but slightly larger than a red blood cell. a. True b. False a. True b. False 11. Protozoa that live in the bloodstream or other tissues are most often transmitted by the fecal-oral route. a. True b. False a. True b. False 12. Bacteria that have an LPS layer are called gram positive bacteria because they can absorb crystal violet dye. a. True b. False a. True b. False 13. People who carry the sickle cell gene are much less likely to die from malaria. a. True b. False a. True b. False 14. Fungal infections in humans most commonly occur on the skin and in the respiratory tract. a. True b. False a. True b. False

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Chap 24_2ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

15. Hazel is an elderly woman in a nursing home that recently had a round of strong antibiotics and now she has a severe diarrhea infection. What could she have? a. VRE b. MRSA c. HIV d. Streptococcus pyogenes 16. What name is given to organisms that cause infection only when the immune system is suppressed or when normal flora is damaged? a. opportunistic b. antibiotic resistant c. pathogenic d. prokaryotic 17. What percent of bacterial species are beneficial and necessary for survival? a. 1% b. 50% c. 90% d. 99% 18. Which of the following is the malarial form that infects red blood cells? a. Sporozoites b. Merozoites c. dermozoites d. Periozoites 19. Which of the following is known to be multi-resistant to antibiotics? a. Staphylococcus auricularis b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Streptococcus pyogenes 20. Which of the following occurs only in the lysogenic cycle? a. The virus will pierce a hole in the host cell membrane. b. The virus will inject its DNA or RNA into the host cell. c. The virus will use the host cell organelles to replicate itself. d. The virus will integrate its DNA into the host cell genome.

21. In regard to fungi, which of the following statements is FALSE? a. They are eukaryotic. b. Except for yeast, they are multicellular. c. They may be parasitic. d. They reproduce asexually only.

22. Morgan has HIV. He had no symptoms for many years but he is now showing signs of a severe respiratory infection. What could this be? a. toxoplasmosis b. Epstein Barr c. Candida albicans d. Pneumocystis pneumonia 23. Suppose you fell in the Thames River in London and accidentally swallowed a large mouthful of the water.

Within a few weeks you develop symptoms of vomiting and diarrhea that last several weeks. What infection would you have? a. candida b. aspergillis c. rhinovirus d. giardia

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Chap 24_2ce 24. Which of the following is NOT a major category of helminthes? a. platyhelminths b. nemotodes c. ring worm d. roundworms 25. A child presents to the emergency room with vomiting and diarrhea. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. rhinovirus b. adenovirus c. rotavirus d. Clostridium tetani 26. Sara has been suffering from a very sore throat and fever. Which bacterial species will a throat swab most likely reveal? a. Escherichia coli b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Staphylococcus aureus 27. Betsy has a vitamin B12 deficiency, anemia, and she is losing a lot of weight. What infection could she have? a. hookworms b. tapeworms c. ringworm d. giardia 28. You are viewing a slide under the microscope and see several round structures clustered together. What are you viewing? a. diplococci b. staphylococci c. streptococci d. bacilli 29. Susie has an untreated chlamydia infection that has led to severe complications. What is the complication? a. warts b. gonorrhea c. pelvic inflammatory disease d. E. coli 30. A patient presents with fever and sore throat. Which of the following is NOT a possible diagnosis? a. Epstein Barr virus b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. hepatitis d. influenza 31. Which of the following is the most common viral STI infection in North America? a. HIV b. chlamydia c. gonorrhea d. HPV 32. Which of the following allow bacteria to endure extreme environmental conditions? a. pseudopods b. dormant cysts c. endospores d. capsule 33. Which of the following is NOT considered part of the normal flora? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Escherichia coli c. Candida albicans d. Clostridium tetani 34. Which of the following is NOT a sexually transmitted disease? a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. Human papilloma virus (HPV) c. Campylobacter jejuni d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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Chap 24_2ce 35. Bob has recently had a hip replacement surgery and has now developed a high fever and the skin in the surgical area is very red, swollen, and painful. What infection could Bob have? a. chlamydia b. MRSA c. VRE d. HIV 36. Following a recent physical examination, Linda was told that her Papanicolaou test showed some cancerous cells. What is the most likely cause of these cells? a. herpes b. Chlamydia trachomatis c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. human papilloma viruses (HPV) 37. Which of the following correctly identifies the ways that bacteria can acquire new DNA? a. translation, conjugation, and translocation b. transduction, conjugation, and transformation c. transcription, transduction, and translocation d. transformation, translation, and transcription 38. Lisa has a very high fever, chills, severe headache and is beginning to show signs of jaundice. What infection does she most likely have? a. malaria b. cholera c. E. coli d. herpes 39. Which of the following is NOT an important function of the normal flora? a. preventing growth of harmful bacteria b. metabolizing carcinogens c. metabolizing lactic acid d. releasing important minerals from food 40. Which of the following is true about gram-negative bacteria? a. It contains only peptidoglycan. b. It contains peptidoglycan and lipopolysaccharide. c. It contains only lipopolysaccharide d. It does not contain either peptidoglycan or lipopolysaccharide 41. What type of infection is shown in this picture?

a. HPV c. ringworm

b. herpes d. streptococcus

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Chap 24_2ce 42. Which of the following is an infectious, endospore-forming bacterium? a. streptococci b. tetanus c. E. coli d. MRSA 43. Bacterial plasma membranes are composed of all of the following EXCEPT which one? a. phospholipids b. integral membrane proteins c. cholesterol d. capsule 44. Which of the following is a type of mould that can grow on raw nuts and has been shown to be carcinogenic? a. candida b. ringworm c. aflatoxin d. giardia 45. Which of the following is NOT considered a basic bacterial cell shape? a. spherical shaped b. rod shaped c. spiral shaped d. cone shaped 46. A patient has developed an opportunistic infection. All EXCEPT which one of the following statements may be true? a. The patient has a suppressed immune system due to the human immunodeficiency virus. b. The patient recently had an operation to repair an umbilical hernia. c. The patient has recently had a physical exam. d. The patient was recently prescribed antibiotics for strep throat.

47. Which of the following can be infected by HIV? a. red blood cells b. T cells c. B cells d. neurons 48. Which of the following can be found in gram negative bacteria but NOT in gram positive bacteria? a. lipopolysaccharide b. peptidoglycans c. phospholipids d. membrane proteins 49. A new influenza virus has been discovered. It has been determined that as the virus reproduces it kills the host cell. Which of the following statements is true? a. The virus has a lytic cycle. b. The virus has a lysogenic cycle. c. The virus demonstrates both a lytic and lysogenic cycle. d. The virus does not have either a lytic or lysogenic cycle.

50. Which of the following causes a hospital-acquired superbug infection? a. Staphylococcus epidermidis b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Escherichia coli

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Chap 24_2ce 51. Which of the following is a method bacteria use to evade the effects of an antibiotic? a. It transforms the antibiotic into new DNA molecules. b. It incorporates the antibiotic into its own cellular structure. c. It transfers the antibiotic to a virus through transduction. d. It produces membrane proteins to remove the antibiotic.

52. Which of the following converts RNA to DNA? a. reverse transcriptase b. DNA polymerase c. RNA polymerase d. transcriptase 53. What is the first cell type malaria will infect after it first enters the body? a. red blood cells b. liver cells c. spleen cells d. immune cells 54. Which of the following is true about conjugation? a. It is the same as binary fission b. It is when a virus infects a cell c. It is when a virus transfers DNA from one bacterium to another d. It is when one bacterium transfers DNA via pili directly to another bacterium 55. Teresa, who is pregnant, told her husband she should not clean out the cat’s litter box while she is pregnant.

Which infection is she avoiding? a. plasmodium b. giardia c. helminths d. toxoplasmosis 56. Harvey went on a vacation to South America and spent a lot of time walking barefoot on the beach. What type of infection would he be at high risk of getting? a. hookworms b. tapeworms c. ringworm d. hepatitis 57. Which of the following is a type of herpes virus? a. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) b. human papilloma virus (HPV) c. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) d. rotavirus 58. Which molecule does influenza have that binds to the cell it is going to infect? a. transcriptase b. neuraminidase c. hemagglutinin d. glycoprotein 59. Which of the following terms describes a constant, steady prevalence of an infection in a population? a. endemic b. epidemic c. pandemic d. epigenetics

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Chap 24_2ce 60. What is the main cause of antibiotic resistance? a. insecticide use on food plants b. prophylactic treatment of food animals c. overuse of biotechnology d. treatment of viral infections with antibiotics Use the following diagram for the next 2 questions.

Source: From Russell/Hertz/McMillan/Fenton/Addy/Maxwell/Haffie/Milsom. Biology, 2E. © 2013 Nelson Education Ltd. Reproduced by permission. www.cengage.com/ permissions 61. Indicate the structure that absorbs crystal violet dye. a. A b. B c. C d. D 62. Indicate the structure unique to gram negative bacteria. a. A b. B c. C d. D 63. Which term refers to a virus that infects bacteria? a. bacteriophage b. RNA virus c. enveloped virus d. hemagglutinin 64. Trevor ate some leftover pizza that was sitting on the counter a few hours ago and now he has diarrhea and has thrown up a few times. What infection does he most likely have? a. campylobacter b. adenovirus c. hepatitis d. HPV

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Chap 24_2ce Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. False 11. False 12. False 13. True 14. True 15. a 16. a 17. d 18. b 19. c 20. d 21. d 22. d 23. d 24. c 25. c 26. b

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Chap 24_2ce 27. b 28. b 29. c 30. c 31. d 32. c 33. d 34. c 35. b 36. d 37. b 38. a 39. c 40. b 41. c 42. b 43. d 44. b 45. d 46. c 47. b 48. a 49. a 50. c 51. d 52. a 53. b 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 24_2ce 55. d 56. d 57. c 58. c 59. a 60. b 61. a 62. d 63. a 64. a

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