TEST BANK for General, Organic, and Biological Chemistry 4th Edition by Laura Frost & Todd Deal

TEST BANK

TEST BANK

General, Organic, and Biological Chemistry, 4e (Frost) Chapter 1 Chemistry Basics — Matter and Measurement 1.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is an example of a heterogeneous mixture?

A) Sugar water B) Trail mix C) Air D) Vodka Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 1-1 Global: G1 LO: 1.1 2) Which of the following is a pure substance?

A) Sugar B) Sand C) Gold D) Maple syrup Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 1-1 Global: G1 LO: 1.1 3) Which of the following represents a homogeneous mixture?

A) Vinegar B) Chocolate chip ice cream C) Methane (natural gas) D) Muddy water Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 1-1 Global: G1 LO: 1.1

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4) Which of the following represents a homogeneous mixture?

A) Gasoline B) Chocolate macadamia nut cookies C) Vegetable soup D) An apple Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 1-1 Global: G1 LO: 1.1 5) Which of the following is not a pure substance?

A) Gasoline B) Ammonia C) Iodine crystals D) Steam Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 1-1 Global: G1 LO: 1.1 6) All the different kinds of substances that make up all of the material of the universe are known collectively as: A) elements B) compounds C) matter D) electrolytes Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 1-1 Global: G1 LO: 1.1 7) Which of the following is an element?

A) Carbon dioxide B) Sodium C) Ammonia D) Sand Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 1-1 Global: G1 LO: 1.1

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8) Which of the following is an element?

A) Brass B) Mercury C) Air D) Water Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 1-1 Global: G1 LO: 1.1 9) Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture?

A) A cup of black coffee B) Salt — sodium chloride C) Iron filings and sulfur D) Oil and vinegar salad dressing Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 1-1 Global: G1 LO: 1.1 10) What is the correct symbol for the element copper?

A) Ca B) Cr C) Co D) Cu Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2 11) Which element is in period 4 and group 7B in the periodic table?

A) Mn B) Tc C) Br D) I Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2

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12) Which element is in period 5 and group 3A in the periodic table?

A) In B) Ga C) Tl D) Y Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2 13) What is the correct element symbol for palladium?

A) P B) Pa C) Pd D) Pm Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2 14) Which one of these combinations represent only alkali metals?

I. Li II. Ba III. Rb IV. Ca A) I + II B) III + IV C) I + III D) II + IV Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2

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15) Which one of these combinations represents only alkaline earth metals?

I. Sr II. Na III. Rb IV. Ba A) I + IV B) III + IV C) II + III D) I + II Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2 16) Which one of these combinations represent only halogens?

I. O II. He III. I IV. Br A) I + II B) III + IV C) II + III D) I + IV Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2 17) Which one of these combinations represent only noble gases?

I. F II. H III. Ne IV. Ar A) I + II B) III + IV C) II + III D) I + IV Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2

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18) Which one of these combinations represent only macronutrients?

I. O II. I III. K IV. P A) I + II B) III + IV C) II + III D) I + IV Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2 19) Which one of these combinations represent only micronutrients?

I. N II. Cl III. Fe IV. Se A) I + II B) III + IV C) II + III D) I + IV Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2 20) Which one of these micronutrients has an important role in thyroid hormones?

A) F B) Se C) I D) Cu Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2

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21) Which one of these micronutrients is found in hemoglobin?

A) Cu B) Zn C) Fe D) F Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2 22) Which one of these micronutrients has an important role in teeth and bones?

A) Mn B) I C) Se D) F Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2 23) Which of the following is a metal?

A) Chlorine B) Silicon C) Magnesium D) Hydrogen Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2 24) Which of the following is a metal?

A) Boron B) Aluminum C) Germanium D) Phosphorus Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2

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25) Which of the following is a nonmetal?

A) Chlorine B) Magnesium C) Sodium D) Aluminum Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2 26) Which of the following is a metalloid?

A) Bromine B) Silicon C) Iron D) Copper Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2 27) Which of the following is a nonmetal?

A) Tellurium B) Germanium C) Antimony D) Selenium Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2 28) Which of the following is a noble gas?

A) Radon B) Radium C) Iodine D) Astatine Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2

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29) Which of the following combinations represent compounds rather than elements?

I. O2 II. CCl4 III. S8 IV. H2O A) I + II B) III + IV C) I + III D) II + IV Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2 30) How many O atoms are in the formula unit GaO(NO3)2?

A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 7 Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 1-2 Global: G2 LO: 1.2 31) How many H atoms are in the molecule C6H3(C3H7)2(C2H5)?

A) 10 B) 15 C) 22 D) 27 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 1-2 Global: G2 LO: 1.2

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32) How many H atoms are in the molecule CH3(CH2)7(C3H7)?

A) 12 B) 17 C) 21 D) 24 Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 1-2 Global: G2 LO: 1.2 33) Which of the following is not a physical change?

A) Boiling water B) Dissolving kool-aid C) Frying an egg D) Liquefying oxygen Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 1-3 Global: G1 LO: 1.3 34) Which of the following is a chemical reaction?

A) Rusting of iron B) Slicing a ham C) Liquefying oxygen D) Melting ice Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 1-3 Global: G1 LO: 1.3 35) An example of a chemical reaction is: A) TNT is explosive B) water turns to steam at 100°C C) zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid to produce hydrogen gas D) Both TNT is explosive and zinc reacts with acid to produce hydrogen gas Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 1-3 Global: G1 LO: 1.3

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36) What is the coefficient of HClO4 when the following equation is balanced with smallest whole numbers?

Cl2O7 + H2O → HClO4 A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 1-3 Global: G2 LO: 1.3 37) What is the coefficient for O2 when this equation is balanced with the lowest whole number coefficients?

C2H6 + O2 → CO2 + H2O A) 3 B) 4 C) 6 D) 7 Answer: D Diff: 3 Section: 1-3 Global: G2 LO: 1.3 38) What is the coefficient for O2 when this equation is balanced with the lowest whole number coefficients?

C3H8 + O2 → CO2 + H2O A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 1-3 Global: G2 LO: 1.3

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39) What is the coefficient for O2 when this equation is balanced with the lowest whole number coefficients?

C3H7OH + O2 → CO2 + H2O A) 4 B) 5 C) 9 D) 10 Answer: C Diff: 3 Section: 1-3 Global: G2 LO: 1.3 40) Which answer choice represents the lowest whole number coefficients when the following equation is balanced?

N2H4 + H2O2 → N2 + H2O A) 1, 4, 2, 8 B) 1, 2, 1, 4 C) 2, 4, 2, 4 D) 2, 3, 2, 3 Answer: B Diff: 3 Section: 1-3 Global: G2 LO: 1.3 41) Balance the following equation with the correct coefficients for VCl3 and Mg respectively. ________ VCl3 + ________ Mg → 2 V + 3 MgCl2 A) 2, 3 B) 3, 2 C) 2, 2 D) 3, 3 Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 1-3 Global: G2 LO: 1.3

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42) Which answer choice represents the lowest whole number coefficients when the following equation is balanced? ________ C4H8 + ________ O2 → ________ CO + ________ H2O A) 1, 4, 4, 4 B) 1, 2, 2, 2 C) 1, 6, 4, 4 D) 1, 4, 2, 4 Answer: A Diff: 3 Section: 1-3 Global: G2 LO: 1.3 43) Which of the following is a mass unit?

A) cg B) mL C) dm D) yd Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 1-4 Global: G1 LO: 1.4 44) Which of the following is a correct unit for measuring length?

A) cg B) mL C) dm D) gal Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 1-4 Global: G1 LO: 1.4 45) Which of the following conversion factors is correct for converting from grams to kilograms?

A) 1 g = 1000 kg B) 1000 g = 1 kg C) 100 g = 1 kg D) 1 g = 100 kg Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 1-4 Global: G3 LO: 1.4 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

46) Which of the following is the correct conversion factor to convert mL to L? A) 1000 L = 1 mL B) 10 L = 1 mL C) 1 L = 1000 mL D) 1 L = 100 mL Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 1-4 Global: G3 LO: 1.4 47) How many mL of solution are there in 0.0500 L? A) 50.0 mL B) 0.50 mL C) 500. mL D) 0.0000500 mL Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 1-4 Global: G4 LO: 1.4 48) How long is 1 cm?

A) 0.01 mm B) 1 mm C) 10 mm D) 100 mm Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 1-4 Global: G3 LO: 1.4 49) Convert 152 miles into kilometers, using proper significant figures, given that 1 mile = 1.609 km.

A) 94.5 km B) 94 km C) 244.57 km D) 245 km Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 1-4 Global: G4 LO: 1.4

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50) How many significant figures are there in the following number: 53,000 pounds?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 1-4 Global: G3 LO: 1.4 51) How many significant figures are there in the following number: 0.00458 grams?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 1-4 Global: G3 LO: 1.4 52) Round the following number to 3 significant figures: 546.85 grams A) 546 B) 547 C) 546.9 D) 540 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 1-4 Global: G3 LO: 1.4 53) Round the following number to 2 significant figures: 105,006 A) 100,000 B) 1.1 x 105 C) 1.0 × 105 D) 1.1 × 106 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 1-4 Global: G3 LO: 1.4

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54) Write the numerical value for 56,000 ÷ 789 with the correct number of significant figures: A) 70.976 B) 71 C) 70.98 D) 71.0 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 1-4 Global: G4 LO: 1.4 55) Write the numerical value for 47.462 + 22.53 + 0.11443 with the correct number of significant figures: A) 70.10643 B) 70.106 C) 70.11 D) 70.1 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 1-4 Global: G4 LO: 1.4 56) Which of these samples has the smallest mass?

A) 160 μg (mcg) B) 0.016 g C) 0.00016 mg D) 0.000000016 kg Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 1-4 Global: G3 LO: 1.4 57) Which of these samples has the largest volume?

A) 2.0 L B) 25 dL C) 250 mL D) 2500 μL Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 1-4 Global: G3 LO: 1.4

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58) What is the percent by mass of salt in a mixture that contains 150 g of salt, 1.2 kg of flour and 650 g of sugar?

A) 0.075% B) 7.5% C) 8.1% D) 19% Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 1-4 Global: G4 LO: 1.4 59) Which of the following is the correct relationship between °C and °F? A) °C = (°F — 32 °F) × B) °F = (°C — 32 °.C × C) °C = (°F — 32 °F) × D) °F = °C ×

- 32 °F

Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 1-5 Global: G3 LO: 1.5 60) Which of the following statements bests describes a liquid?

A) Definite shape and volume B) Indefinite shape and volume C) Indefinite shape but definite volume D) Definite shape but indefinite volume Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 1-5 Global: G1 LO: 1.5

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61) Which of the following statements bests describes a solid?

A) Definite shape and volume B) Indefinite shape and volume C) Indefinite shape but definite volume D) Definite shape but indefinite volume Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 1-5 Global: G1 LO: 1.5 62) Which of the following statements bests describes a gas?

A) Definite shape and volume B) Indefinite shape and volume C) Indefinite shape but definite volume D) Definite shape but indefinite volume Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 1-5 Global: G1 LO: 1.5 63) Matter is nearly incompressible in which of these states?

A) Gas B) Liquid C) Solid D) Solid and liquid Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 1-5 Global: G1 LO: 1.5 64) Which quantity measures the amount of space occupied by an object?

A) Mass B) Weight C) Area D) Volume Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 1-5 Global: G1 LO: 1.5

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65) Identify the correct ordering of attractions (strongest to weakest) among particles in the three states of matter.

A) Solid < liquid < gas B) Solid > liquid > gas C) Gas < solid < liquid D) Solid < gas < liquid Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 1-5 Global: G2 LO: 1.5 66) Which of the following substances has the lowest density?

A) A mass of 1.5 kg and a volume of 1.2 L B) A mass of 25 g and a volume of 20 mL C) A mass of 750 g and a volume of 70 dL D) A mass of 5 mg and a volume of 25 uL (mcL) Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 1-5 Global: G3 LO: 1.5 67) Which of the following substances has the highest density?

A) A mass of 2.5 kg and a volume of 2.2 L B) A mass of 55 g and a volume of 45 mL C) A mass of 850 g and a volume of 65 dL D) A mass of 8.5 mg and a volume of 35 uL (mcL) Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 1-5 Global: G3 LO: 1.5 68) Using Table 1.6 in the text, determine which of these substances would show the largest temperature increase, if equal masses of each were heated with the same quantity of energy.

A) Air B) Gold C) Iron D) Paraffin wax Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 1-5 Global: G2 LO: 1.5

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69) Convert 125 Calories into joules.

A) 523 J B) 5.23 kJ C) 125 kJ D) 523 kJ Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 1-5 Global: G4 LO: 1.5 70) Convert 236 kilojoules into calories.

A) 56.4 cal B) 987 cal C) 56.4 kcal D) 987 kcal Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 1-5 Global: G4 LO: 1.5 71) What is the total dose required for a 140 lb patient if the amount required is 28 mg/kg bodyweight?

A) 1.8 mg B) 1.8 g C) 3.9 mg D) 3.9 g Answer: B Diff: 3 Section: 1-6 Global: G4 LO: 1.6 72) The adult dose for a new drug has been calculated to be 360 mg. If the dose for a 25 lb child is recommended to be 26 % of the adult dose, what should the dose be?

A) 9.4 mg B) 14 mg C) 94 mg D) 9.4 g Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 1-6 Global: G4 LO: 1.6

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73) An antacid tablet weighs 1.36 g. If the percent active ingredient of calcium carbonate is 38.2 %, what is the mass of calcium carbonate in the tablet?

A) 28.1 mg B) 52.0 mg C) 281 mg D) 520 mg Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 1-6 Global: G4 LO: 1.6 74) Calculate the mass percent of fat in a candy bar that contains 12 g fat, 26 g carbohydrate, 6 g protein, and 4 g of other material.

A) 25 % B) 0.25 % C) 2.5 % D) 27 % Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 1-6 Global: G4 LO: 1.6 75) Calculate the total amount of drug required for a patient that weighs 160 lb if the dose is 25 mg/kg body mass.

A) 1.8 mg B) 4.0 mg C) 1.8 g D) 4.0 g Answer: C Diff: 3 Section: 1-6 Global: G4 LO: 1.6 76) Calculate the time required to deliver 2.0 L of solution through an IV that as a drop factor of 50 gtt/mL if the drip rate is 120 gtt/min.

A) 0.78 minutes B) 2.0 hours C) 14 hours D) 833 hours Answer: C Diff: 3 Section: 1-6 Global: G4 LO: 1.6 21 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

1.2 True/False Questions 1) Air is a pure substance.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 1-1 Global: G1 LO: 1.1 2) Steam is a mixture.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 1-1 Global: G1 LO: 1.1 3) Selenium is a nonmetal.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2 4) A group is a vertical column on the periodic table.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2 5) Radon is a noble gas.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2 6) Antimony is a metal.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2

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7) Iron is an example of a micronutrient.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 1-2 Global: G1 LO: 1.2 8) 1 m = 10-6μm (mcm) Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 1-4 Global: G3 LO: 1.4 9) Kinetic energy is stored energy.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 1-5 Global: G1 LO: 1.5 10) A Calorie is equivalent to 1000 calories.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 1-5 Global: G3 LO: 1.5

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General, Organic, and Biological Chemistry, 4e (Frost) Chapter 2 Atoms and Radioactivity 2.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The smallest particle of an element that can be identified as that element is: A) a proton B) a neutron C) a molecule D) an atom Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 2-1 Global: G1 LO: 2.1 2) Which of the following consists of several atoms?

A) A proton B) A neutron C) A molecule D) An electron Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 2-1 Global: G1 LO: 2.1 3) Which one of the following is electrically neutral?

A) An electron B) A proton C) A neutron D) A nucleus Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 2-1 Global: G1 LO: 2.1

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4) Which combination contains only electrically neutral particles?

I) An atom II) An electron III) A proton IV) A neutron V) A molecule A) I + IV + V B) II + III + V C) I + III + IV D) II + IV + V Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 2-1 Global: G1 LO: 2.1 5) Which of the following statements is true?

A) A neutron has no charge and has negligible mass.

B) A proton is positively charged and has a mass of 1 amu.

C) An electron is negatively charged and has a mass of 1 amu.

D) An electron has no charge and has negligible mass Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 2-1 Global: G1 LO: 2.1 6) Which of the following statements is false?

A) A neutron has no charge and has a mass of 1 amu.

B) A proton is positively charged and has a mass of 1 amu.

C) An electron is negatively charged and has a mass of 1 amu.

D) An electron is negatively charged and has negligible mass Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 2-1 Global: G1 LO: 2.1

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7) The neutral atom always contains: A) the same number of protons and neutrons B) the same number of neutrons and electrons C) the same number of protons and electrons D) the same number of protons, neutrons and electrons Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 2-1 Global: G1 LO: 2.1 8) Which particle(s) are in the nucleus?

A) Protons only B) Neutrons only C) Protons and neutrons D) Protons and electrons Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 2-1 Global: G1 LO: 2.1 9) Almost all of the mass of an atom exists in its: A) first energy level B) outermost energy level C) nucleus D) electrons Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 2-1 Global: G1 LO: 2.1 10) Which subatomic particle contributes least to the mass of the atom?

A) Proton B) Neutron C) Electron D) Electrons, protons and neutrons all contribute equal mass.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 2-1 Global: G1 LO: 2.1

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11) Two atoms must represent the same element if they both have the same: A) number of electrons B) atomic number C) number of neutrons D) atomic mass Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 2-2 Global: G1 LO: 2.2 12) Mercury-202 has how many neutrons in its nucleus?

A) 22 B) 102 C) 122 D) 202 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 2-2 Global: G2 LO: 2.2 13) Uranium-235 has how many protons in the nucleus?

A) 92 B) 143 C) 235 D) 51 Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 2-2 Global: G2 LO: 2.2 14) Osmium-202 has how many neutrons in its nucleus?

A) 76 B) 101 C) 126 D) 202 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 2-2 Global: G2 LO: 2.2

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15) Plutonium-244 has how many protons in its nucleus?

A) 94 B) 144 C) 244 D) 154 Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 2-2 Global: G2 LO: 2.2 16) Cobalt has atomic number 27. Cobalt-60 is used in the medical treatment of cancer. How many neutrons and protons are contained in the nucleus of this isotope?

A) 27 neutrons, 33 protons B) 33 neutrons, 27 protons C) 27 neutrons, 27 protons D) 33 neutrons, 33 protons Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 2-2 Global: G2 LO: 2.2 17) Iodine has atomic number 53. Iodine-131 is used extensively in imaging the thyroid gland.

How many neutrons and protons are contained in the nucleus of this isotope?

A) 53 neutrons, 78 protons B) 78 neutrons, 53 protons C) 78 neutrons, 78 protons D) 131 neutrons, 53 protons Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 2-2 Global: G2 LO: 2.2 18) Adding one proton to the nucleus of an atom: A) increases the atomic number and the mass number by one unit B) increases the atomic mass by one unit, but does not change its atomic number C) increases the atomic number by one unit but does not change its atomic mass D) does not change either its atomic number or its atomic mass Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 2-2 Global: G2 LO: 2.2

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19) Adding one neutron to the nucleus of an atom: A) increases the atomic number and the mass number by one unit B) increases its atomic mass by one unit, but does not change its atomic number C) increases its atomic number by one unit but does not change its atomic mass D) does not change either its atomic number or its atomic mass Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 2-2 Global: G2 LO: 2.2 20) The quantity (mass number - atomic number) provides: A) the number of neutrons in a nucleus B) the number of electrons in the atom C) the number of protons in a nucleus D) the combined number of all the neutrons and all the protons in a nucleus Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 2-2 Global: G1 LO: 2.2 21) The mass number is: A) the sum of protons + neutrons B) the sum of protons + electrons C) the sum of electrons + neutrons D) the difference between neutrons and protons Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 2-2 Global: G1 LO: 2.2 22) How many neutrons are in a neutral atom of Ar-40?

A) 18 B) 22 C) 40 D) 58 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 2-2 Global: G2 LO: 2.2

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23) How many neutrons are in a neutral atom of Fe-56?

A) 26 B) 30 C) 56 D) 82 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 2-2 Global: G2 LO: 2.2 24) List the number of electrons, protons, and neutrons are in a neutral atom of W-184?

A) 74 electrons, 74 protons, 110 neutrons B) 110 electrons, 74 protons, 110 neutrons C) 74 electrons, 110 protons, 74 neutrons D) 74 electrons, 74 protons, 184 neutrons Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 2-2 Global: G2 LO: 2.2 25) List the number of electrons, protons, and neutrons are in a neutral atom of Ba-138?

A) 56 electrons, 56 protons, 82 neutrons B) 82 electrons, 56 protons, 82 neutrons C) 56 electrons, 82 protons, 56 neutrons D) 56 electrons, 56 protons, 138 neutrons Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 2-2 Global: G2 LO: 2.2 26) Isotopes always contain: A) the same number of protons and neutrons.

B) the same number of protons but different number of neutrons.

C) the same number of electrons and neutrons.

D) the same number of neutrons but different number of protons.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 2-3 Global: G2 LO: 2.3

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27) A hypothetical element contains three isotopes of mass 16.0 amu, 17.0 amu, and 18.0 amu with relative abundances of 20.0%, 50.0% and 30.0%, respectively. The average atomic mass is: A) 16.9 amu B) 17.1 amu C) 17.3 amu D) 17.5 amu Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 2-3 Global: G4 LO: 2.3 28) Which of the following represents a pair of isotopes?

A) C, N B)

H,

C)

S,

H

D) O2, O3 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 2-3 Global: G2 LO: 2.3 29) Which of the following represents a pair of isotopes?

A) Zn, Ge B)

O,

O

C)

Na,

Na+

D) P, P4 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 2-3 Global: G2 LO: 2.3

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30) What is the correct symbol for the isotope of copper with a mass number of 63?

A) Co B)

Cu

C)

Cu

D)

Cr

Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 2-3 Global: G2 LO: 2.3 31) The element rhenium (Re) exists as two stable isotopes and 18 unstable isotopes. Rhenium185 (185Re) has in its nucleus: A) 75 protons, 75 neutrons B) 75 protons, 130 neutrons C) 130 protons, 75 neutrons D) 75 protons, 110 neutrons Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 2-3 Global: G2 LO: 2.3 32) The masses on the periodic table are expressed in what units?

A) Grams B) Atomic mass units (amu) C) Kilograms D) Pounds Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 2-3 Global: G1 LO: 2.3

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33) Which one of the following elements is not matched with the correct atomic mass?

A) O, 16.00 amu B) Cl, 35.45 amu C) V, 50.94 amu D) Ba, 56 amu Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 2-3 Global: G1 LO: 2.3 34) Of the following, the radioisotope most useful in treating disorders of the thyroid gland is: A) C-14 B) Tc-99m C) U-238 D) I-131 Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 2-4 Global: G1 LO: 2.4 35) Of the following, the radioisotope most useful in lung function imaging is: A) Co-60 B) Tc-99m C) I-131 D) Xe-133 Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 2-4 Global: G1 LO: 2.4 36) Of the following, the radioisotope most useful in bone imaging is: A) Co-60 B) Tc-99m C) I-131 D) Xe-133 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 2-4 Global: G1 LO: 2.4

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37) Of the following, the radioisotope most useful in brain cancer therapy: A) Cs-131 B) Co-67 C) Ga-67 D) I-123 Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 2-4 Global: G1 LO: 2.4 38) Radiation consisting of helium nuclei traveling at 5-7% speed of light would be classified as: A) alpha particles B) gamma rays C) beta particles D) neutrons Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G1 LO: 2.4 39) A positron is: A) a positively charged electron B) a positively charged neutron C) an alpha particle with negligible mass D) a high-energy gamma ray Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G1 LO: 2.4 40) The form of radioactivity that penetrates matter most easily is: A) alpha particles B) gamma rays C) beta particles D) protons Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G1 LO: 2.4

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41) The form of radioactivity that penetrates matter the least is: A) alpha particles B) gamma rays C) beta particles D) protons Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G1 LO: 2.4 42) The form of radiation that has no mass and no charge consists of: A) alpha particles B) beta particles C) gamma rays D) neutrons Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G1 LO: 2.4 43) The radiation consisting of electrons from the nucleus traveling at 90-95% speed of light: A) alpha particles B) gamma rays C) beta particles D) neutrons Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G1 LO: 2.4 44) The radioactive particles, alpha, beta and gamma ray, are called ionizing radiation because, as they pass through an object, they: A) repel ions B) knock electrons off atoms or molecules in their path C) decay into ions D) attract ions Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 2-4 Global: G1 LO: 2.4

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45) What protective shielding is sufficient for gamma rays?

A) Paper B) Aluminum sheet C) Lead sheet D) Paper, aluminum sheet and lead sheet all provide protection.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G1 LO: 2.4 46) What protective shielding is sufficient for beta particles?

A) Paper B) Aluminum sheet C) Lead sheet D) Aluminum sheet and lead sheet both provide protection.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G1 LO: 2.4 47) What protective shielding is sufficient for alpha particles?

A) Paper B) Aluminum sheet C) Lead sheet D) Paper, aluminum sheet and lead sheet all provide protection.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G1 LO: 2.4 48) The correct symbol for the positron is: A) e B) p C) e D) e Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G2 LO: 2.4 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

49) The correct symbol for the beta particle is: A) e B) e C)

e

D) He Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G2 LO: 2.4 50) The correct symbol for the alpha particle is: A) e B) e C)

e

D) He Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G2 LO: 2.4 51) Which of the following statements is true?

A) All isotopes with atomic number greater than 83 are radioactive.

B) All isotopes with atomic number less than 82 are stable.

C) A positron is a positively charged helium nucleus.

D) In beta decay the atomic number and mass number decrease.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G2 LO: 2.4

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52) Which of the following statements is true?

A) In alpha decay both the mass number and atomic number decrease.

B) In positron decay the atomic number increases by 1.

C) In beta decay the mass number decreases by 1.

D) In beta decay the atomic number and mass number decrease.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G2 LO: 2.4 53) Which of the following statements is untrue?

A) In alpha decay both the mass number and atomic number decrease.

B) In positron decay the mass number increases by 1.

C) In beta decay the atomic number increases by 1.

D) In beta decay the mass number stays the same.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G2 LO: 2.4 54) One sievert (Sv) equals: A) 100 rem B) 1000 rem C) 100 mrem D) 1000 mrem Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G2 LO: 2.4 55) The largest exposure to radiation from human sources comes from: A) medical procedures B) nuclear medicine C) occupational exposure D) consumer products Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G2 LO: 2.4

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56) The largest exposure to radiation from natural sources comes from: A) radon and thorium B) outer space C) soil D) internal sources Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G2 LO: 2.4 57) The exposure in mrem that is a lethal dose for 50 % of the population after 30 days is: A) 50,000 — 100,000 B) 100,000 — 200,000 C) 200,000 — 300,000 D) 300,000 — 400,000 Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G2 LO: 2.4 58) The exposure in mrem that causes a temporary decrease in white blood cells is: A) 5,000 — 20,000 B) 20,000 — 50,000 C) 50,000 — 100,000 D) 100,000 — 200,000 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G2 LO: 2.4 59) The exposure in mrem that causes mild radiation sickness is: A) 5,000 — 20,000 B) 20,000 — 50,000 C) 50,000 — 100,000 D) 100,000 — 200,000 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G2 LO: 2.4

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60) The exposure in mrem that causes light radiation poisoning with appetite loss, nausea, diarrhea, and hair loss is: A) 5,000 — 20,000 B) 20,000 — 50,000 C) 50,000 — 100,000 D) 100,000 — 200,000 Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G2 LO: 2.4 61) Which of the following statements is correct?

A) In beta decay the atomic number and mass number both increase by 1.

B) In positron emission the atomic number increases by 1 and the mass number stays the same.

C) In alpha decay the atomic number and mass number both decrease.

D) In beta decay the atomic number decreases by 1 and the mass number stays the same.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 2-5 Global: G2 LO: 2.5 62) Which of the following statements is correct?

A) In beta decay the atomic number increases by 1 and the mass number both stays the same.

B) In positron emission the atomic number and mass number both decrease by 1.

C) In alpha decay the atomic number decreases by 4 and the mass number decreases by 2.

D) In beta decay the atomic number decreases by 1 and the mass number stays the same.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 2-5 Global: G2 LO: 2.5 63) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) In beta decay the atomic number increases by 1 and the mass number both stays the same.

B) In positron emission the atomic number and mass number both decrease by 1.

C) In alpha decay the atomic number decreases by 2 and the mass number decreases by 4.

D) In positron emission the atomic number decreases by 1 and the mass number stays the same.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 2-5 Global: G2 LO: 2.5

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64) What radioactive particle is missing in the following nuclear reaction?

Mo + ________ → Mo A) n B)

e

C) He D) p Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 2-5 Global: G2 LO: 2.5 65) What radioactive particle is missing in the following nuclear reaction?

Mo → Tc + ________ A) n B)

e

C) He D) p Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 2-5 Global: G2 LO: 2.5

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66) What radioactive particle is missing in the following nuclear reaction?

Po → ________ + Pb A) n B)

e

C) He D) p Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 2-5 Global: G2 LO: 2.5 67) What radioactive particle is missing in the following nuclear reaction?

Mg → ________ + Na A) e B)

e

C) He D) p Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 2-5 Global: G2 LO: 2.5

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68) What radioactive particle is missing in the following nuclear reaction?

Pa → ________ + e A)

U

B)

Th

C)

U

D)

Pa

Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 2-5 Global: G2 LO: 2.5 69) What radioactive particle is missing in the following nuclear reaction?

Tc → ________ + Tc A) e B)

e

C) n D) γ Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 2-5 Global: G2 LO: 2.5

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70) When Phosphorous-30 loses a positron (undergoes positron emission) what is the product of this radioactive decay?

A) Si B)

S

C)

S

D)

P

Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 2-5 Global: G2 LO: 2.5 71) When Americium-242 loses a beta particle (undergoes beta decay) the product of this process is: A) Cm B)

Cm

C)

Pu

D)

Pu

Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 2-5 Global: G2 LO: 2.5 72) The amount of a radioisotope that remains after two half-lives have passed is: A) 98% B) 75% C) 50% D) 25% Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 2-6 Global: G4 LO: 2.6

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73) The amount of a radioisotope that remains after three half-lives have passed is: A) 50% B) 25% C) 12.5% D) 6.25% Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 2-6 Global: G4 LO: 2.6 74) The amount of a radioisotope that remains after four half-lives have passed is: A) 25% B) 12.5% C) 6.25% D) 3.125% Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 2-6 Global: G4 LO: 2.6 75) The amount of a radioisotope that has decayed after two half-lives have passed is: A) 75% B) 50% C) 25% D) 12.5% Answer: A Diff: 3 Section: 2-6 Global: G4 LO: 2.6 76) In order to have 1/16 of a radioactive sample left how many half lives must the sample go through to reach this amount?

A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 2-6 Global: G4 LO: 2.6

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77) The half life of a specific radionuclide is 8 days. How much of an 80 mg sample will be left after 24 days?

A) 40 mg B) 20 mg C) 10 mg D) 2.7 mg Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 2-6 Global: G4 LO: 2.6 78) The half life of a specific Tc-99m is 6 hours. How much of a sample weighing 192 mg will have decayed after 30 hours?

A) 186 mg B) 160 mg C) 32 mg D) 6 mg Answer: A Diff: 3 Section: 2-6 Global: G4 LO: 2.6 79) A fossil found in a cave was found to have 1/ 32 the amount of carbon-14 as a live object. If the half-life of Carbon-14 is 5730 years, how old is the object?

A) 5730 yrs B) 28,650 yrs C) 34,480 yrs D) 17,190 yrs Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 2-6 Global: G4 LO: 2.6 80) Using Table 2.8 in the text, identify which of the following radioactive nuclides would disappear first given the same initial quantities.

A) U-238 B) C-14 C) I-123 D) F-18 Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 2-6 Global: G3 LO: 2.6 23 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

81) Use Table 2.8 in the text to determine which of the following isotopes will have the highest concentration after a long duration beginning with the same initial quantities.

A) H-3 B) P-32 C) Cr-51 D) F-18 Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 2-6 Global: G3 LO: 2.6 82) The relationship between the units of curie (Ci) and becquerel (Bq) is: A) 1 Ci = 3.7 Bq B) 1 Ci = 3.7 x 103 Bq C) 1 Ci = 3.7 x 106 Bq D) 1 Ci = 3.7 x 1010 Bq Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 2-6 Global: G1 LO: 2.6 83) A 1.0 mL sample of radioactive diagnostic solution contains 6.5 mCi. Calculate the volume required to provide a dose of 15 mCi and the number of becquerels in that dose.

A) 2.3 mL, 5.6 x 108 Bq B) 2.3 mL, 5.6 x 1011 Bq C) 0.43 mL = 5.6 x 108 Bq D) 0.43 mL = 5.6 x 1011 Bq Answer: A Diff: 3 Section: 2-6 Global: G4 LO: 2.6 2.2 True/False Questions 1) Different elements can contain the same atoms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 2-1 Global: G1 LO: 2.1

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2) Atoms are made up of smaller particles called molecules.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 2-1 Global: G1 LO: 2.1 3) A neutral atom contains equal numbers of protons and electrons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 2-1 Global: G1 LO: 2.1 4) A neutral atom always contains equal numbers of protons and neutrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 2-1 Global: G1 LO: 2.1 5) The mass of the atom is almost all in the nucleus.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 2-1 Global: G1 LO: 2.1 6) A neutron has no charge and negligible mass.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 2-1 Global: G1 LO: 2.1 7) Atoms are electrically neutral.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 2-1 Global: G1 LO: 2.1

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8) An electron has no charge and negligible mass.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 2-1 Global: G1 LO: 2.1 9) An atom of K-40 contains 40 neutrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 2-2 Global: G2 LO: 2.2 10) An atom of Pb-208 contains 126 neutrons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 2-2 Global: G2 LO: 2.2 11) Isotopes always have the same atomic number.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 2-3 Global: G1 LO: 2.3 12) Isotopes always have the same mass number.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 2-3 Global: G1 LO: 2.3 13) All elements with atomic number 83 or greater are radioactive.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G1 LO: 2.4

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14) All isotopes of elements with atomic 82 or lower are not radioactive.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G1 LO: 2.4 15) A positron is a positively charged electron.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 2-4 Global: G1 LO: 2.4 16) In beta decay the atomic number and mass number increase by 1.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 2-5 Global: G2 LO: 2.5 17) In alpha decay both the mass number and atomic number decrease.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 2-5 Global: G1 LO: 2.5 18) In positron decay the atomic number decreases by 1.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 2-5 Global: G2 LO: 2.5 19) After four half-lives the activity of a radioactive sample has decreased to one quarter of the initial value.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Section: 2-6 Global: G4 LO: 2.6

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20) After three half-lives 25 radioactive nuclei remain from an initial 200.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Section: 2-6 Global: G4 LO: 2.6 21) After three half-lives 12.5% of the radioactive sample has decayed.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Section: 2-6 Global: G4 LO: 2.6 22) A nucleotide with a long half-life will decay more rapidly than one with a short half-life.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 2-6 Global: G2 LO: 2.6 23) 1 Ci = 3.7 × 1010 Bq Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 2-6 Global: G1 LO: 2.6

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General, Organic, and Biological Chemistry, 4e (Frost) Chapter 3 Compounds — How Elements Combine 3.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) How many electrons are in the highest energy level of sulfur?

A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-1 Global: G1 LO: 3.1 2) An atom of phosphorous has how many valence electrons?

A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 8 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 3-1 Global: G2 LO: 3.1 3) The element Silicon has how many electrons in each of its energy levels?

A) 2, 8, 4 B) 2, 6, 4 C) 3, 5, 7 D) 2, 8, 6 Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 3-1 Global: G2 LO: 3.1

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4) An atom of chlorine has how many valence electrons?

A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 7 Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 3-1 Global: G2 LO: 3.1 5) Which of the following elements contains 6 valence electrons?

A) Si B) P C) S D) Cl Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-1 Global: G2 LO: 3.1 6) Which of the following elements contains 7 valence electrons?

A) Se B) As C) Br D) Xe Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-1 Global: G2 LO: 3.1 7) Which of the following elements contains 3 valence electrons?

A) Ga B) N C) P D) Ge Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 3-1 Global: G2 LO: 3.1

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8) Which of the following elements contains 5 valence electrons?

A) B B) As C) Br D) Xe Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 3-1 Global: G2 LO: 3.1 9) Which of the following elements has a filled valence shell?

A) Ne B) P C) Se D) O Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 3-1 Global: G1 LO: 3.1 10) How many electrons are in the second energy level for an atom of N? A) 5 B) 6 C) 4 D) 8 Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 3-1 Global: G2 LO: 3.1 11) How many electrons are in the fourth energy level for an atom of Se? A) 5 B) 6 C) 4 D) 8 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 3-1 Global: G2 LO: 3.1

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12) How many electrons can be contained in the first energy level?

A) 2 B) 8 C) 10 D) 18 Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 3-1 Global: G1 LO: 3.1 13) How many electrons can be contained in the second energy level?

A) 2 B) 8 C) 10 D) 18 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 3-1 Global: G1 LO: 3.1 14) How many electrons can be contained in the third energy level?

A) 2 B) 8 C) 10 D) 18 Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 3-1 Global: G1 LO: 3.1 15) How many electrons are in the highest energy level of strontium?

A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 3-1 Global: G2 LO: 3.1

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16) How many electrons are in the second energy level of phosphorous?

A) 2 B) 5 C) 6 D) 8 Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 3-1 Global: G2 LO: 3.1 17) How many valence electrons does arsenic have?

A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-1 Global: G2 LO: 3.1 18) An ion is: A) an atom or a group of atoms that carries an electrical charge B) another term for an atom C) a molecule such as sucrose D) a substance formed by the combination of two elements Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G1 LO: 3.2 19) An ion with an atomic number of 34 and 36 electrons has a ________ charge.

A) -2 B) +34 C) -36 D) +2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G2 LO: 3.2

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20) The correct symbol of an ion with an atomic number of 26 and 24 electrons: A) Fe2+ B) Cr2+ C) Ni2+ D) Fe2Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G2 LO: 3.2 21) The correct symbol of an ion with an atomic number of 16 and 18 electrons: A) O2B) S2C) Ar2D) S2+ Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G2 LO: 3.2 22) The correct symbol and names of the ion with an atomic number of 24 and 22 electrons is: A) Fe2+, iron(II) B) Cr2+, chromium(II) C) Cr2-, chromium(II) D) Ti2+, titanium(II) Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G2 LO: 3.2 23) Which of the following is the sulfate ion?

A) CO32B) SO42C) PO43D) S2Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G1 LO: 3.2 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

24) The formula of the sulfide ion is: A) SO32B) SO42C) HSO42D) S2Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G1 LO: 3.2 25) Which of the following is the carbonate ion?

A) CO32B) CO2 C) CO3 D) CO3Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G1 LO: 3.2 26) Which of the following ions has a charge of -1?

A) Nitrate B) Ammonium C) Sulfate D) Phosphate Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G1 LO: 3.2 27) Which of the following ions has a charge of +1?

A) Nitrate B) Ammonium C) Hydrogen sulfate D) Chlorite Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G1 LO: 3.2

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28) Which of the following ions has a charge of -2?

A) Nitrate B) Ammonium C) Sulfate D) Phosphate Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G1 LO: 3.2 29) Which of the following is one of the main cations in the body that maintains solution concentrations in cells?

A) Fe2+ B) Ba2+ C) K+ D) NH4+ Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G1 LO: 3.2 30) Which of the following cations is involved in transmitting nerve impulses?

A) Fe2+ B) Mg2+ C) K+ D) Na+ Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G1 LO: 3.2 31) Which of the following cations is found in hemoglobin?

A) Fe2+ B) Ca2+ C) K+ D) Mg2+ Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G1 LO: 3.2 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) Which of the following is the main anion involved in fluid balance of cells?

A) CO32B) SO42C) ClD) S2Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G1 LO: 3.2 33) Which of the following ions is commonly found in antacids?

A) PO43B) SO42C) OHD) H3O+ Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G1 LO: 3.2 34) Which of the following ions is a measure of acidity?

A) PO43B) SO42C) OHD) H3O+ Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G1 LO: 3.2 35) To form an octet, an atom of selenium will: A) lose 6 electrons B) gain 6 electrons C) lose 2 electrons D) gain 2 electrons Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G2 LO: 3.2 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

36) To form an octet, an atom of strontium will: A) lose 6 electrons B) gain 6 electrons C) lose 2 electrons D) gain 2 electrons Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G2 LO: 3.2 37) To form an octet, an atom of aluminum will: A) lose 5 electrons B) gain 5 electrons C) lose 3 electrons D) gain 3 electrons Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G2 LO: 3.2 38) To form an octet, an atom of phosphorous will: A) lose 5 electrons B) gain 5 electrons C) lose 3 electrons D) gain 3 electrons Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G2 LO: 3.2 39) Which of the following ions is not isoelectronic with the noble gas neon?

A) O2B) FC) Al3+ D) S2Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G2 LO: 3.2

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40) Which of the following ions does not contain 10 electrons?

A) O2B) FC) Na+ D) ClAnswer: D Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G2 LO: 3.2 41) Which of the following ions does not contain 36 electrons?

A) Se2B) BrC) K+ D) Sr2+ Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G2 LO: 3.2 42) Which of the following ions does not have 18 electrons?

A) ClB) Ca2+ C) P3D) O2Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G2 LO: 3.2 43) Which answer choice contains only atoms or ions which have complete valence shells?

A) He, I-, Mg2+, HB) He, I-, Pb2+, Mg2+ C) Pb2+, Mg2+, H-, Tl+ D) He, Pb2+, H-, Tl+ Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G2 LO: 3.2

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44) Which combination contains atoms or ions with complete valence shells?

A) Ne, O2-, Ca2+, Fe2+ B) F-, Na+, Sn2+, Ar C) P3-, Mg2+, He, Sc3+ D) Kr, K+, Cu+, Al3+ Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G2 LO: 3.2 45) Which of the following is the symbol for the chlorite ion?

A) ClO3B) ClO4C) ClOD) ClO2Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G1 LO: 3.2 46) Which of the following anions has the same charge as the hydroxide ion?

A) NO3B) SO42C) CO32D) PO43Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G1 LO: 3.2 47) Which of the following anions has the same charge as the carbonate ion?

A) SO42B) NO3C) OHD) PO43Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G1 LO: 3.2 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

48) Which of these polyatomic ions has a positive charge?

A) Ammonium B) Hydroxide C) Phosphate D) Acetate Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G1 LO: 3.2 49) How many protons and electrons are there in the iodide ion?

A) 53 protons, 52 electrons B) 53 protons, 54 electrons C) 53 protons, 55 electrons D) 53 protons, 51 electrons Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G2 LO: 3.2 50) How many protons and electrons are there in the sulfide ion?

A) 16 protons, 17 electrons B) 16 protons, 16 electrons C) 16 protons, 18 electrons D) 16 protons, 15 electrons Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G2 LO: 3.2 51) How many protons and electrons are there in the calcium ion?

A) 20 protons, 20 electrons B) 20 protons, 22 electrons C) 20 protons, 18 electrons D) 20 protons, 19 electrons Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G2 LO: 3.2

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52) What is the name and symbol of an ion that has 26 protons and 23 electrons?

A) Fe3+ B) Fe2+ C) Mn2+ D) Mn3+ Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G2 LO: 3.2 53) Iron pyrite (fool's gold) is iron (II) sulfide. What is its formula?

A) FeS B) FeSO3 C) FeSO4 D) Fe2S3 Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 3-3 Global: G2 LO: 3.3 54) What is the correct name for BaF2?

A) Barium fluoride B) Barium difluoride C) Barium (II) fluoride D) Barium fluorine Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 3-3 Global: G2 LO: 3.3 55) Which of the following formulas is incorrect for a cobalt (III) compound?

A) CoCl3 B) CoCO3 C) Co2O3 D) CoPO4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 3-3 Global: G2 LO: 3.3

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56) Which of the following formulas is incorrect for an iron(II) compound?

A) FeCl2 B) FeCO3 C) Fe2O3 D) FeSO4 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 3-3 Global: G2 LO: 3.3 57) Which of the following formulas is incorrect for a lead(IV) compound?

A) PbO2 B) Pb(CO3)2 C) PbCl4 D) PbI2 Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 3-3 Global: G2 LO: 3.3 58) The correct name for Cr2O3 is: A) chromium (III) oxide B) chromium (II) oxide C) chromium oxide D) dichromium trioxide Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 3-3 Global: G2 LO: 3.3 59) The correct name for PbO2 is: A) lead(IV) oxide B) lead(II) oxide C) lead dioxide D) lead oxide Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 3-3 Global: G2 LO: 3.3

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60) The correct name for BaI2 is: A) barium iodide B) barium(II) iodide C) barium diiodide D) barium iodite Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 3-3 Global: G2 LO: 3.3 61) The reaction of calcium and sulfur produces: A) Ca2S B) CaS2 C) CaS D) Ca2S3 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 3-3 Global: G2 LO: 3.3 62) The reaction of magnesium and nitrogen produces: A) Mg2N3 B) Mg3N2 C) MgN D) Mg3N Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 3-3 Global: G2 LO: 3.3 63) The reaction of aluminum and phosphorous produces: A) AlP B) Al3P C) AlP3 D) Al2P3 Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 3-3 Global: G2 LO: 3.3

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64) Which one of the compounds below is covalent?

A) LiF B) NaF C) HF D) RbF Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-4 Global: G2 LO: 3.4 65) Which one of these compounds is ionic?

A) NH4Cl B) HI C) H2O D) NH3 Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 3-4 Global: G2 LO: 3.4 66) Which compound contains only covalent bonds?

A) NH4OH B) Ca3(PO4)2 C) C6H12O6 D) NaCl Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-4 Global: G2 LO: 3.4 67) The total number of valence electrons in a molecule of SOF2 is: A) 26 B) 24 C) 18 D) 20 Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 3-4 Global: G2 LO: 3.4

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68) The total number of valence electrons in a molecule of C2H2F4 is: A) 28 B) 32 C) 38 D) 48 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 3-4 Global: G2 LO: 3.4 69) A double bond involves the sharing of ________ electron(s) between the atoms.

A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 3-4 Global: G1 LO: 3.4 70) A triple bond involves the sharing of ________ electron(s) between the atoms.

A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-4 Global: G1 LO: 3.4 71) What is the correct name for a molecule of SO3?

A) Sulfur trioxide B) Sulfur oxide C) Sulfite D) Monosulfur trioxide Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 3-4 Global: G2 LO: 3.4

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72) The correct prefix for seven is: A) tetra B) penta C) hexa D) hepta Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 3-4 Global: G1 LO: 3.4 73) The correct prefix for five is: A) tetra B) penta C) hexa D) hepta Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 3-4 Global: G1 LO: 3.4 74) What is the correct name for Cl2O7?

A) Chlorine(VII) oxide B) Chlorine oxide C) Dichlorine oxide D) Dichlorine heptoxide Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 3-4 Global: G2 LO: 3.4 75) Which one of the compounds below is most likely to be ionic?

A) GaAs B) SrBr2 C) NO2 D) CBr4 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 3-4 Global: G2 LO: 3.4

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76) Which one of the compounds below is most likely to be covalent?

A) K3As B) SrBr2 C) SiO2 D) PbBr4 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 3-4 Global: G2 LO: 3.4 77) What is the correct formula for dichlorine monoxide?

A) ClO B) ClO2 C) Cl2O D) Cl2O4 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 3-4 Global: G2 LO: 3.4 78) How many single bonds does an atom of carbon normally make in a covalent molecule if there are no double or triple bonds?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 3-4 Global: G2 LO: 3.4 79) How many single bonds does an atom of nitrogen normally make in a covalent molecule if there are no double or triple bonds?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-4 Global: G2 LO: 3.4 20 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

80) How many single bonds does an atom of oxygen normally make in a covalent molecule if there are no double or triple bonds?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 3-4 Global: G2 LO: 3.4 81) How many single bonds does an atom of fluorine normally make in a covalent molecule if there are no double or triple bonds?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 3-4 Global: G2 LO: 3.4 82) How many valence electrons would be found in the correct Lewis dot structure of C2H6?

A) 10 B) 14 C) 20 D) 28 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 3-4 Global: G2 LO: 3.4 83) How many valence electrons would be found in the correct Lewis dot structure of BF3?

A) 10 B) 14 C) 24 D) 26 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 3-4 Global: G2 LO: 3.4

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84) A thimble of water contains 4.0 × 1021 molecules. The number of moles of H2O is: A) 2.4 × 1045 B) 6.6 × 10-3 C) 6.6 × 10-23 D) 2.4 × 1023 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 3-5 Global: G4 LO: 3.5 85) How many atoms are in 3.00 moles of Na? A) 6.02 × 1023 B) 1.81 × 1023 C) 1.81 × 10-23 D) 1.81 × 1024 Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 3-5 Global: G4 LO: 3.5 86) How many O atoms are in 2.00 moles of Na2O2?

A) 6.02 × 1024 B) 1.20 × 1024 C) 2.41 × 1024 D) 2.41 × 1023 Answer: C Diff: 3 Section: 3-5 Global: G4 LO: 3.5 87) How many H atoms are in 4.00 moles of CH4?

A) 6.02 × 1023 B) 2.41 × 1024 C) 9.63 × 1024 D) 9.63 × 1025 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 3-5 Global: G4 LO: 3.5 22 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

88) Which of the following contains the most atoms?

A) 6.02 × 1023 molecules of C3H8 B) 2.5 mol H2O2 C) 1.5 mol CuSO4 D) 0.5 mol C6H12O6 Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 3-5 Global: G4 LO: 3.5 89) Which of the following contains the fewest atoms?

A) 6.02 × 1024 molecules of H2 B) 8.0 mol H2O C) 16 mol Ne D) 5.0 mol CH4 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 3-5 Global: G4 LO: 3.5 90) What is the mass of 3.61 moles of Ca? A) 0.090 g B) 145 g C) 40.0 g D) 150 g Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 3-5 Global: G4 LO: 3.5 91) What is the mass of 125 moles of N2?

A) 3.5 g B) 35.0 g C) 350 g D) 3.50 kg Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 3-5 Global: G4 LO: 3.5

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92) What is the mass of 75.0 millimoles of S8?

A) 2.41 g B) 19.2 g C) 2.41 kg D) 19.2 kg Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 3-5 Global: G4 LO: 3.5 93) Which quantity contains the fewest moles?

A) 10 g N2 B) 10 g CO C) 10 g Si D) 10 g AlH3 Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 3-5 Global: G4 LO: 3.5 94) Which quantity contains the most moles?

A) 10 g CH4 B) 10 g CO2 C) 10 g SiO2 D) 10 g SO2 Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 3-5 Global: G4 LO: 3.5 95) The approximate bond angles between the atoms in a molecule with a trigonal planar molecular shape geometry are: A) 90° B) 120° C) 180° D) 109.5° Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 3-6 Global: G2 LO: 3.6

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96) The approximate bond angles between the atoms in a molecule with a linear molecular shape geometry are: A) 90° B) 120° C) 180° D) 109.5° Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-6 Global: G2 LO: 3.6 97) The approximate bond angles between the atoms in a molecule with a tetrahedral molecular shape geometry are: A) 90° B) 120° C) 180° D) 109.5° Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 3-6 Global: G2 LO: 3.6 98) The approximate bond angles between the atoms in a molecule with a pyramidal molecular shape geometry are: A) 90° B) 120° C) 180° D) 109.5° Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 3-6 Global: G2 LO: 3.6 99) What is the molecular shape of a CO2 molecule?

A) Trigonal planar B) Tetrahedral C) Linear D) Bent Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 3-6 Global: G2 LO: 3.6 25 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

100) What is the molecular shape of a NH3 molecule?

A) Tetrahedral B) Trigonal planar C) Bent D) Pyramidal Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 3-6 Global: G2 LO: 3.6 101) What is the molecular shape of CH2O? A) Trigonal pyramidal B) Linear C) Tetrahedral D) Trigonal planar Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 3-6 Global: G2 LO: 3.6 102) Which of these molecules has pyramidal molecular shape?

A) NF3 B) BF3 C) SO3 D) AlF3 Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 3-6 Global: G2 LO: 3.6 103) Which of these molecules has a trigonal planar molecular shape?

A) NF3 B) BF3 C) SO3 D) BF3 and SO3 Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 3-6 Global: G2 LO: 3.6

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104) Which of these molecules is linear?

A) CO2 B) H2S C) SO2 D) H2O Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 3-6 Global: G2 LO: 3.6 105) Which of these molecules is bent?

A) CO2 B) BeH2 C) SO2 D) SiO2 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 3-6 Global: G2 LO: 3.6 106) What is the shape of this molecule?

A) Bent B) Pyramidal C) Trigonal planar D) Tetrahedral Answer: B Diff: 3 Section: 3-6 Global: G2 LO: 3.6

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107) What is the shape of this molecule?

A) Bent B) Pyramidal C) Trigonal planar D) Tetrahedral Answer: D Diff: 3 Section: 3-6 Global: G2 LO: 3.6 108) What is the shape of this molecule?

A) Bent B) Pyramidal C) Trigonal planar D) Tetrahedral Answer: C Diff: 3 Section: 3-6 Global: G2 LO: 3.6

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109) What is the shape of this molecule?

A) Bent B) Linear C) Trigonal planar D) Pyramidal Answer: A Diff: 3 Section: 3-6 Global: G2 LO: 3.6 110) Which is the correct description of the charge clouds on the O atom in H2O? A) 2 bonding charge clouds and 2 nonbonding charge clouds B) 3 bonding charge clouds and 1 nonbonding charge clouds C) 2 bonding charge clouds and 1 nonbonding charge clouds D) 2 bonding charge clouds and 0 nonbonding charge clouds Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 3-6 Global: G2 LO: 3.6 111) Which is the correct description of the charge clouds on the B atom in BH3?

A) 3 bonding charge clouds and 0 nonbonding charge clouds B) 3 bonding charge clouds and 1 nonbonding charge clouds C) 2 bonding charge clouds and 2 nonbonding charge clouds D) 2 bonding charge clouds and 0 nonbonding charge clouds Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 3-6 Global: G2 LO: 3.6

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112) Given the electronegativities below, which of the following covalent single bonds is the most polar?

Element: H C N O Electronegativity 2.1 2.5 3.0 3.5 A) C-H B) N-C C) O-N D) O-C Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 3-7 Global: G3 LO: 3.7 113) Which atom is the most electronegative?

A) Li B) Cs C) P D) Cl Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 3-7 Global: G1 LO: 3.7 114) Which atom is the most electronegative?

A) N B) Cl C) O D) Br Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-7 Global: G1 LO: 3.7 115) Which atom is the least electronegative?

A) C B) P C) Se D) I Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 3-7 Global: G1 LO: 3.7 30 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

116) Which atom is the least electronegative?

A) B B) Si C) Ga D) In Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-7 Global: G1 LO: 3.7 117) Electronegativity ________ across the period and ________ down a group.

A) increases, increases B) increases, decreases C) decreases, decreases D) decreases, increases Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 3-7 Global: G2 LO: 3.7 118) A bond where the electrons are shared unequally is called a(n): A) polar covalent B) coordinate covalent C) purely (nonpolar) covalent D) ionic Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 3-7 Global: G1 LO: 3.7 119) A bond where the electrons are shared equally is called a(n): A) polar covalent B) coordinate covalent C) nonpolar covalent D) ionic Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 3-7 Global: G1 LO: 3.7

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120) Which of these bonds is polar covalent?

A) Li-F B) C-H C) H-H D) O-H Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 3-7 Global: G2 LO: 3.7 121) Which of these bonds is nonpolar?

A) N-O B) C-H C) H-N D) Cl-Br Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 3-7 Global: G2 LO: 3.7 122) Which of the following molecules is polar?

A) CH4 B) CO2 C) SO2 D) SO3 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 3-7 Global: G2 LO: 3.7 123) Which of the following molecules is polar?

A) NH3 B) CO2 C) SeO2 D) NH3 and SO2 Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 3-7 Global: G2 LO: 3.7

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124) Which of the following molecules is nonpolar?

A) NH3 B) CH3Cl C) CCl4 D) H2O Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 3-7 Global: G2 LO: 3.7 125) Which of the following molecules is nonpolar?

A) NH3 B) BH3 C) PH3 D) BH3 and PH3 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 3-7 Global: G2 LO: 3.7 3.2 True/False Questions 1) An ion containing 19 protons and 18 electrons is a cation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G2 LO: 3.2 2) An ion containing 32 protons and 35 electrons has a +3 charge.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G2 LO: 3.2 3) The charge on the nitrate ion is +1.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G1 LO: 3.2

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4) The charge on the ammonium ion is +1.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 3-2 Global: G1 LO: 3.2 5) Metallic elements normally form covalent bonds with nonmetallic elements.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 3-3, 3-4 Global: G1 LO: 3.4 6) Nonmetallic elements normally form covalent bonds with other nonmetallic elements.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 3-3, 3-4 Global: G1 LO: 3.4 7) A triple covalent bond involves the sharing of six electrons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 3-4 Global: G1 LO: 3.4 8) A double covalent bond involves the sharing of two pairs of electrons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 3-4 Global: G1 LO: 3.4 9) Hydrogen sulfide (H2S) is a covalent compound.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 3-4 Global: G2 LO: 3.4

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10) Phosphorous trioxide is the correct name for P2O3.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Section: 3-4 Global: G2 LO: 3.4 11) Ammonium nitrate is an ionic compound.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Section: 3-4 Global: G2 LO: 3.3, 3.4 12) The molar mass of an element in grams is numerically equal to that element's atomic mass in amu.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 3-5 Global: G1 LO: 3.5 13) One mole of molecular oxygen weighs 16.0 grams.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 3-5 Global: G2 LO: 3.5 14) The molar mass of carbon is 6 g/mol.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 3-5 Global: G2 LO: 3.5 15) 2 moles of CH3CH2CH2CH3 contains 5 moles of H2 molecules.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Section: 3-5 Global: G2 LO: 3.5

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16) The angle between the bonds in a trigonal planar molecule is 120°.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 3-6 Global: G1 LO: 3.6 17) The angle between the bonds in a tetrahedral molecule is 90°.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 3-6 Global: G1 LO: 3.6 18) A nonpolar molecule results from an equal sharing of electrons between atoms in a bond.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 3-7 Global: G1 LO: 3.7 19) Nonmetallic elements have larger electronegativity values than metallic elements.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 3-7 Global: G1 LO: 3.7 20) Ozone, O3, is polar because it only contains atoms of one element.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Section: 3-6, 3-7 Global: G2 LO: 3.7

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General, Organic, and Biological Chemistry, 4e (Frost) Chapter 4 Introduction to Organic Compounds 4.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of these represents a condensed structural formula?

A) B) CH3(CH2)6CH3 C)

D) C3H8 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 4-1 Global: G2 LO: 4.1 2) Which of these represents a skeletal structure?

A) B) CH3(CH2)6CH3 C)

D) C3H8 Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 4-1 Global: G2 LO: 4.1

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3) Which of these represents a molecular formula?

A) B) CH3(CH2)6CH3 C)

D) C8H18 Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 4-1 Global: G2 LO: 4.1 4) Which of these represents a Lewis structure?

A) B) CH3(CH2)6CH3 C)

D) C3H8 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-1 Global: G2 LO: 4.1

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5) What is the correct condensed structural formula for this Lewis structure?

A) C5H10 B) CH3CHC(CH3)2 C) CH3(CH2)CH(CH3)2 D) CH3(CH2)2CH3 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 4-1 Global: G2 LO: 4.1 6) What is the correct condensed structural formula for this skeletal structure?

A) CH3(CH2)5CH3 B) CH3(CH2)6CH3 C) CH3(CH2)7CH3 D) CH3(CH2)8CH3 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-1 Global: G2 LO: 4.1

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7) What is the correct skeletal structure for this Lewis structure?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 4-1 Global: G2 LO: 4.1 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Which one of these skeletal structures is not a cycloalkane?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 4-1 Global: G2 LO: 4.1, 4.2

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9) Which of the following structures is cyclopentane?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 4-1, 4-2 Global: G2 LO: 4.1, 4.2 10) What is the correct skeletal structure for hexane?

A) B) C) D) Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-1, 4-2 Global: G2 LO: 4.1, 4.2

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11) How many carbon atoms are in a butane molecule?

A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 7 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G1 LO: 4.2 12) How many carbon atoms are in a propane molecule?

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G1 LO: 4.2 13) How many carbon atoms are in a heptane molecule?

A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G1 LO: 4.2 14) How many carbon atoms are in a nonane molecule?

A) 7 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G1 LO: 4.2

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15) Which of these hydrocarbons could not be a cycloalkane?

A) C3H6 B) C4H8 C) C5H10 D) C6H14 Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 4-2 Global: G2 LO: 4.2 16) Which of these molecular formulas corresponds to that of a straight-chain alkane?

A) C5H10 B) C6H12 C) C5H12 D) C7H14 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G2 LO: 4.2 17) Which of these molecular formulas could represent a cyclo-alkane?

A) C5H10 B) C6H14 C) C5H12 D) C7H16 Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G2 LO: 4.2 18) Which of the following is the correct condensed structural formula for octane?

A) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 B) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 C) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 D) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G2 LO: 4.2

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19) Which of the following is the correct condensed structural formula for hexane?

A) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 B) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 C) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 D) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G2 LO: 4.2 20) Which of the following is the correct condensed structural formula for decane?

A) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 B) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 C) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 D) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G2 LO: 4.2 21) A compound that is composed of only carbon and hydrogen is known as a(n): A) homolog B) isomer C) carbohydrate D) hydrocarbon Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G1 LO: 4.2 22) The compound CH3(CH2)4CH3 is called: A) hexane B) pentane C) heptane D) butane Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G1 LO: 4.2

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23) The compound CH3(CH2)5CH3 is called: A) hexane B) pentane C) heptane D) octane Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G1 LO: 4.2 24) The compound CH3(CH2)7CH3 is called: A) heptane B) octane C) nonane D) decane Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G1 LO: 4.2 25) Which of these molecular formulas is associated with gasoline?

A) C3H8 B) C8H18 C) C16H34 D) C31H64 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G1 LO: 4.2 26) Cyclopentane has the molecular formula A) C5H8 B) C5H10 C) C5H12 D) C5H14 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G1 LO: 4.2

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27) Pentane has the molecular formula A) C5H8 B) C5H10 C) C5H12 D) C5H14 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G1 LO: 4.2 28) Which of these molecular formulas is associated with diesel fuel?

A) C3H8 B) C8H18 C) C16H34 D) C31H64 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G1 LO: 4.2 29) Which of these molecular formulas is associated with candle wax?

A) C3H8 B) C8H18 C) C16H34 D) C31H64 Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G1 LO: 4.2

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30) Which of these molecules is aromatic?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G1 LO: 4.3 31) Which of these functional groups is a thiol?

A) R-S-H B) R-O-H C) R-S-S-H D) R-S-S-R' Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G1 LO: 4.3

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32) Which of these functional groups is a phenol?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G1 LO: 4.3 33) Which of these molecules is a tertiary amine?

A) RNH2 B) R2NH C) R3N D) R2NH+ Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G1 LO: 4.3

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34) Which of these molecules is a ketone?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G1 LO: 4.3

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35) Which of these molecules is an aldehyde?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G1 LO: 4.3

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36) Which of these molecules is a carboxylic acid?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G1 LO: 4.3

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37) Which of these molecules is an ester?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G1 LO: 4.3

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38) Which of the following is a secondary alcohol?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G2 LO: 4.3

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39) Which of the following is a primary alcohol?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G2 LO: 4.3

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40) Which of the following is a tertiary alcohol?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G2 LO: 4.3 41) Which of these molecules is saturated?

A)

B) C)

D) Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G2 LO: 4.3 20 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

42) Which of these molecules is an alkyne?

A)

B) C)

D)

Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G1 LO: 4.3 43) Which of these molecules is an alkene?

A)

B) C)

D) Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G2 LO: 4.3 21 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

44) Which of the following is the structure for stearic acid?

A) CH3(CH2)14COOH B) CH3(CH2)16COOH C) CH3(CH2)12COOH D) CH3(CH2)10COOH Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G1 LO: 4.3 45) How many carbon atoms are in a molecule of palmitic acid?

A) 12 B) 14 C) 16 D) 18 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G2 LO: 4.3 46) How many carbon atoms are in a molecule of arachidic acid?

A) 16 B) 18 C) 20 D) 22 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G2 LO: 4.3 47) How many carbon atoms are in a molecule of behenic acid?

A) 16 B) 18 C) 20 D) 22 Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G2 LO: 4.3

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48) A molecule that has both polar and nonpolar parts is said to be: A) an isomer B) amphipathic C) an enantiomer D) hydrophobic Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G1 LO: 4.3 49) What functional groups are present in the following structure?

CH3–C C–CH2OH A) Alcohol and an alkene B) A ketone and an alkyne C) An aldehyde and a ketone D) An alcohol and an alkyne Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 4-3 Global: G2 LO: 4.3 50) What functional groups are present in the following structure?

CH3–C=C–CHO A) Alcohol and an alkene B) An aldehyde and an alkene C) A ketone and an alkene D) An alcohol and an alkyne Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 4-3 Global: G2 LO: 4.3 51) All members of the alkene series of hydrocarbons have the general formula: A) CnH2n B) CnHn C) CnH2n+2 D) CnH2n-2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G1 LO: 4.3 23 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

52) All members of the alkane series of hydrocarbons have the general formula: A) CnH2n B) CnHn C) CnH2n+2 D) CnH2n-2 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G1 LO: 4.3 53) All members of the alkyne series of hydrocarbons have the general formula: A) CnH2n B) CnHn C) CnH2n+2 D) CnH2n-2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G1 LO: 4.3 54) A functional group that contains a S atom is: A) a thiol B) an amine C) an aldehyde D) a ketone Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G1 LO: 4.3 55) A functional group that contains a N atom is: A) a thiol B) an amine C) an aldehyde D) a ketone Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G1 LO: 4.3

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56) Which one of these functional groups does not contain a carbonyl group?

A) Ketone B) Alcohol C) Aldehyde D) Ester Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G1 LO: 4.3 57) Phenanthrene and benzo[a]pyrene are examples of: A) alkynes B) alkenes C) polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons D) fatty acids Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G1 LO: 4.3 58) The name of the following alkyl group is:

A) isobutyl B) isopropyl C) propyl D) butyl Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 4-4 Global: G2 LO: 4.4

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59) The name of the following alkyl group is:

A) isobutyl B) isopropyl C) propyl D) butyl Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-4 Global: G2 LO: 4.4 60) What is the IUPAC name for the following structure?

A) Ethyl cyclohexane B) 1-chloro-2-ethyl cyclohexane C) Chloro-ethyl cyclohexane D) 2-chloro-2-ethyl cyclohexane Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 4-4 Global: G2 LO: 4.4

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61) What is the IUPAC name for the following structure?

A) 1-methyl-1-propyl cyclobutane B) 1-ethyl-1-methyl cyclobutane C) 2-methyl-2-ethyl cyclobutane D) 1-methyl -2-propyl cyclopentane Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 4-4 Global: G2 LO: 4.4 62) What is the IUPAC name for the following structure?

A) 1-chloro-2-ethyl-1-methyl cyclopentane B) 1-chloro-1-ethyl-2-ethyl cyclopentane C) 1-methyl-1-chloro-2-ethyl cyclopentane D) 1-chloro-1-methyl -2-ethyl cyclopentane Answer: A Diff: 3 Section: 4-4 Global: G2 LO: 4.4

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63) Which of the following structures is correct for 1,2-dibromo-2-methyl butane?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 4-4 Global: G2 LO: 4.4 64) What is the correct name for the following compound?

A) 4-chloropentane B) 4-chlorohexane C) 2-chloropentane D) 2-chloropropane Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 4-4 Global: G2 LO: 4.4

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65) Which of the following is the correct structure for 2,3-dimethyl pentane?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 4-4 Global: G2 LO: 4.4

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66) Which of the following is the correct structure for ethylcyclopentane?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 4-4 Global: G2 LO: 4.4 67) What is the correct name for the following compound?

A) 4-ethyl-2-methylhexane B) 3,5-dimethylheptane C) 2-ethyl-4-methylhexane D) 2,4-dimethylhexane Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 4-4 Global: G2 LO: 4.4

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68) The name of the following alkyl group is: CH3CH2A) methyl B) isopropyl C) propyl D) ethyl Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 4-4 Global: G2 LO: 4.4 69) What is the relationship between the following molecules?

A) They are identical.

B) They are isomers of each other.

C) They are different molecules which are not isomers.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5 70) When two compounds are made up of the same number and kind of atoms, but differ in their molecular structure they are known as: A) isotopes B) homologs C) isomers D) hydrocarbons Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5 31 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

71) How many isomers are there of pentane?

A) None B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Diff: 3 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5 72) How many isomers are there of hexane, C6H14?

A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: C Diff: 3 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5 73) Which of the following is a structural isomer of 2-methylbutane?

A) n-propane B) 2-methylpropane C) n-butane D) n-pentane Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5

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74) Among the following compounds which are isomers?

A) I and II B) I and III C) I and IV D) II and III Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5 75) Which of the following pairs of molecules are structural isomers of each other?

A)

B) C)

D)

Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5

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76) How many stereoisomers are possible for:

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 Answer: D Diff: 3 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5 77) Which of these molecules is not an isomer of the others?

A) B) C) D)

Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5 78) Which of the following alkenes shows cis-trans isomerism?

A) 1,1-difluorobutene B) 1-pentene C) 2-methyl-2-octene D) 3-octene Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5 34 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

79) What is the IUPAC name for the following structure?

A) 1,2-dimethyl cyclohexane B) trans-1,2-dimethyl cyclohexane C) cis-1,2-dimethyl cyclohexane D) 5,6-dimethyl cyclohexane Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5

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80) Which of the following is cis-2,3-dichloro-2-butene?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5 81) Which of the following is the structure of oleic acid?

A) CH3(CH2)12COOH B) CH3(CH2)7CH=CH(CH2)7COOH C) CH3(CH2)4CH=CHCH2CH=CH(CH2)7COOH D) CH3(CH2)14COOH Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 4-5 Global: G1 LO: 4.5

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82) The fatty acid that contains 2 double bonds is: A) oleic acid B) palmitic acid C) linoleic acid D) stearic acid Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-5 Global: G1 LO: 4.5 83) Which fatty acid is a saturated fatty acid?

A) Oleic acid B) Linoleic acid C) Arachidonic acid D) Myristic acid Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 4-5 Global: G1 LO: 4.5 84) The fatty acid that is called an omega-6 fatty acid is: A) oleic acid B) linoleic acid C) linolenic acid D) arachidonic acid Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 4-5 Global: G1 LO: 4.5 85) Which of the following fatty acids is an essential fatty acid?

A) Oleic acid B) Arachidonic acid C) Linoleic acid D) Stearic acid Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 4-5 Global: G1 LO: 4.5

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86) Which of the following molecules contains a chiral carbon?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5 87) The fatty acid that is called an omega-3 fatty acid is: A) oleic acid B) linolenic acid C) linoleic acid D) palmitic acid Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 4-5 Global: G1 LO: 4.5

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88) What is the correct name for the following structure?

A) Dichlorocyclopentane B) Cis-1,2-dichlorocyclopentane C) 1,2-dichlorocyclopentane D) Trans-1,2-dichlorocyclopentane Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5

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89) Which of the following compounds is the enantiomer of:

A)

B)

C)

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D)

Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5 90) How many chiral carbon atoms are in this structure?

A) 4 B) 3 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5

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91) How many chiral carbon atoms are in this molecule?

A) 0 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Diff: 3 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5 92) How many chiral carbon atoms are in this molecule?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5 42 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4.2 True/False Questions 1) The condensed structural formula represented by this skeletal structure is: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 4-1 Global: G2 LO: 4.1 2) The molecule heptane contains sixteen H atoms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G1 LO: 4.2 3) Saturated hydrocarbons contain only single C-C bonds.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G1 LO: 4.2 4) The molecule octane contains eight carbon atoms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G1 LO: 4.2 5) The molecule cycloheptane contains sixteen H atoms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G1 LO: 4.2 6) The general formula for a cycloalkane is CnH2n+2.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 4-2 Global: G1 LO: 4.2 43 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) This skeletal structure represents an aromatic molecule:

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G2 LO: 4.1, 4.3 8) This skeletal structure represents an alkene:

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G2 LO: 4.1, 4.3 9) This drawing represents an aldehyde:

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G2 LO: 4.1, 4.3 10) An amide link contains a C=O bond.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G1 LO: 4.3 44 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) Acetylene is another name for ethene.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G1 LO: 4.3 12) Fatty acids are a class of lipids.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 4-3 Global: G1 LO: 4.3 13) Unsaturated fatty acids contain cis alkenes.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 4-5 Global: G1 LO: 4.5

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14) α-Linoleic acid contains 20 carbon atoms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5 15) This molecule contains 2 chiral centers.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5

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16) This molecule contains 1 chiral center.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5 17) This molecule does not exhibit cis-trans isomerism:

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Section: 4-5 Global: G2 LO: 4.5

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General, Organic, and Biological Chemistry, 4e (Frost) Chapter 5 Chemical Reactions 5.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The minimum energy that reactants need for the molecules to be in the correct orientation is called: A) collision energy B) dissociation energy C) activation energy D) orientation energy Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1 2) For a reaction to be exothermic or endothermic it is determined by: A) the activation energy B) the states of the reactants C) the overall loss or gain of energy when the bonds break and reform D) collision orientation of molecules Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1 3) Which of the following is a measure of randomness?

A) Activation energy B) Entropy C) Free energy D) Enthalpy Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1

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4) Which of the following is a measure of the heat of a reaction?

A) Activation energy B) Entropy C) Free energy D) Enthalpy Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1 5) Which of the following is a measure of the energy available to do work?

A) Activation energy B) Entropy C) Free energy D) Enthalpy Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1 6) Which of the following is a measure of the energy required for a reaction to occur?

A) Activation energy B) Entropy C) Free energy D) Enthalpy Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1 7) Which of the following symbols represents the free energy change?

A) ΔG B) ΔS C) ΔH D) ΔE Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1

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8) Which of the following symbols represents the enthalpy change?

A) ΔG B) ΔS C) ΔH D) ΔE Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1 9) Which of the following symbols represents the entropy change?

A) ΔG B) ΔS C) ΔH D) ΔE Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1 10) Which of the following is not a spontaneous process?

A) Sugar dissolving in water B) A hot pan cooling on a cold counter C) Ice melting at room temperature D) Steam condensing at 110°C Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 5-1 Global: G2 LO: 5.1 11) In an endergonic reaction: A) energy flows from the reaction into the surroundings.

B) energy flows from the surroundings into the reaction.

C) the products have lower free energy than the reactants.

D) the free energy of the surroundings increases.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 5-1 Global: G2 LO: 5.1

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12) In an exergonic reaction: A) energy flows from the reaction into the surroundings.

B) energy flows from the surroundings into the reaction.

C) the products have higher free energy than the reactants.

D) the free energy of the surroundings decreases.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 5-1 Global: G2 LO: 5.1 13) The activation energy is the energy that: A) activates the catalyst.

B) is required to make the reaction occur.

C) must be removed from the products.

D) is the difference in energy between the reactants and products.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1 14) What type of nutrient has the highest energy content per gram?

A) Carbohydrate B) Fat C) Protein D) Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins all have the same energy content.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1 15) A food sample contains 10 g fat, 12 g carbohydrate, and 8 g protein. The energy content is: A) 120 Cal B) 160 Cal C) 170 Cal D) 180 Cal Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 5-1 Global: G4 LO: 5.1

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16) A food sample contains 6 g fat, 18 g carbohydrate, and 12 g protein. The energy content is: A) 144 Cal B) 174 Cal C) 204 Cal D) 234 Cal Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 5-1 Global: G4 LO: 5.1 17) Which of the following processes is nonspontaneous?

A) An antacid tablet reacting with stomach acid to produce carbon dioxide B) A hot pan cooling on the counter C) Water turning to ice below 0°C D) A battery being recharged Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 5-1 Global: G2 LO: 5.1 18) Determine which of the statements is incorrect regarding this figure:

A) Reaction I is exergonic.

B) Reaction II occurs faster than reaction I. C) Reaction II is endergonic.

D) The activation energy for reaction I is smaller than that of reaction II. Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 5-1 Global: G2 LO: 5.1 5 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

19) Which of the following factors influence the rate of a reaction?

A) Temperature B) Reactant concentration C) A catalyst D) Temperature, reactant concentration, and a catalyst Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 5-2 Global: G1 LO: 5.2 20) A fast reaction rate for a chemical reaction is dependent on: A) having a large activation energy B) having a small activation energy C) being exothermic D) being endothermic Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 5-2 Global: G1 LO: 5.2 21) A catalyst is: A) a substance that decreases the energy of the products.

B) a product in a chemical reaction.

C) a substance that speeds up a reaction without being consumed in it.

D) a substance that increases the energy of the products.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 5-2 Global: G1 LO: 5.2 22) Which of the following actions would not increase the rate of a reaction?

A) Diluting the reactants by a factor of 2 B) Increasing the temperature by 10°C C) Adding a catalyst D) Increasing the concentration of the reactants by a factor of 2 Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 5-2 Global: G2 LO: 5.2

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23) An enzyme increases the rate of a biological process in what way?

A) Increases the concentration of reactants B) Increases the temperature of the reactants C) Lowers the activation energy of the process D) Makes the reaction more exergonic Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 5-2 Global: G1 LO: 5.2 24) Which enzyme-based disease is tyrosinase associated with?

A) Gout B) Lactose intolerance C) Phenylketonuria D) Albinism Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 5-2 Global: G1 LO: 5.2 25) Which enzyme catalyzes the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide?

A) Catalase B) Lactase C) Tyrosinase D) Glycogen synthase Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 5-2 Global: G1 LO: 5.2 26) In what type of reaction are there more reactant substances than product substances?

A) Synthesis B) Decomposition C) Single displacement D) Double displacement Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 5-3 Global: G1 LO: 5.3

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27) In what type of reaction are there more product substances than reactant substances?

A) Synthesis B) Decomposition C) Single displacement D) Double displacement Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 5-3 Global: G1 LO: 5.3 28) What type of reaction is illustrated in this diagram?

A) Synthesis B) Decomposition C) Single displacement D) Double displacement Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 5-3 Global: G2 LO: 5.3

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29) What type of reaction is illustrated in this diagram?

A) Synthesis B) Decomposition C) Single displacement D) Double displacement Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 5-3 Global: G2 LO: 5.3 30) The following reaction is an example of which of the following?

Na2CO3(aq) + Pb(NO3)2(aq) → 2NaNO3(aq) + PbCO3(s) A) Synthesis B) Decomposition C) Single displacement D) Double displacement Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 5-3 Global: G2 LO: 5.3 31) A piece of zinc placed in hydrochloric acid results in a fierce effervescence and the zinc eventually dissolves, yielding a solution of zinc chloride. A glowing splint gives a "popping" sound, indicating the presence of hydrogen gas. What type of reaction is it?

A) Synthesis B) Decomposition C) Single displacement D) Double displacement Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 5-3 Global: G2 LO: 5.3 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) A solution of potassium chromate when added to a solution of lead(II) acetate produces a yellow precipitate of lead(II) chromate. What type of reaction is it?

A) Synthesis B) Decomposition C) Single displacement D) Double displacement Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 5-3 Global: G2 LO: 5.3 33) Copper(II) carbonate is a green solid. On heating the solid turns black. A lighted splint is extinguished indicating that carbon dioxide is produced. What type of reaction is this?

A) Synthesis B) Decomposition C) Single displacement D) Double displacement Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 5-3 Global: G2 LO: 5.3 34) When heated in air, copper metal develops a black appearance over time. Analysis shows that copper(II) oxide forms on the surface. What type of reaction is it?

A) Synthesis B) Decomposition C) Single displacement D) Double displacement Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 5-3 Global: G2 LO: 5.3 35) An iron nail placed in a blue solution of copper(II) sulfate develops a brown coating of copper metal and the blue color of the solution slowly fades away. What type of reaction is it?

A) Synthesis B) Decomposition C) Single displacement D) Double displacement Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 5-3 Global: G2 LO: 5.3 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

36) A solution of sodium chloride when added to a solution of silver nitrate produces a white precipitate of silver chloride. What type of reaction is it?

A) Synthesis B) Decomposition C) Single displacement D) Double displacement Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 5-3 Global: G2 LO: 5.3 37) What is the coefficient for O2 when the equation for the combustion of C5H12 to CO2 and H2O is balanced?

A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 5-3 Global: G2 LO: 5.3 38) What is the coefficient for O2 when the equation for the combustion of C4H10 to CO2 and H2O is balanced?

A) 6 B) 7 C) 12 D) 13 Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 5-3 Global: G2 LO: 5.3

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39) Which of these reactions is a double displacement reaction?

A) 2 K(s) + 2 H2O(l) → H2(g) + 2 KOH(aq) B) Mg(s) + 2 HClO4(aq) → Mg(ClO4)2(aq) + H2(g) C) BaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ba(OH)2(aq) D) 2 CH3COOH(aq) + K2CO3(aq) → H2O(l) + CO2(g) + 2 KCH3COO(aq) Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 5-3 Global: G1 LO: 5.3 40) Which of these reactions is a synthesis reaction?

A) 2 K(s) + H2O(l) → H2(g) + 2 KOH(aq) B) Mg(s) + 2 HClO4(aq) → Mg(ClO4)2(aq) + H2(g) C) BaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ba(OH)2(aq) D) 2 CH3COOH(aq) + K2CO3(aq) → H2O(l) + CO2(g) + 2 KCH3COO(aq) Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 5-3 Global: G1 LO: 5.3 41) Which of these reactions is a decomposition reaction?

A) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g) B) Fe(s) + 2 HNO3(aq) → Fe(NO3)2(aq) + H2(g) C) 2 Cu(s) + O2(g) → 2 CuO(s) D) Pb(NO3)2(aq) + K2CO3(aq) → 2 KNO3(aq) + PbCO3(s) Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 5-3 Global: G1 LO: 5.3 42) What statement is incorrect about this oxidation-reduction reaction?

2 SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2 SO3(g) A) O2 is the oxidizing agent.

B) SO2 is the reducing agent.

C) O2 is reduced.

D) SO2 gains electrons.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 5-4 Global: G2 LO: 5.4 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

43) What statement is correct about this oxidation-reduction reaction?

Mg(s) + I2(s) → MgI2(s) A) I2 is the reducing agent.

B) Mg is the oxidizing agent.

C) I2 is reduced.

D) Mg gains electrons.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 5-4 Global: G2 LO: 5.4 44) Which one of these reactions is not an oxidation-reduction reaction?

A) 2 K(s) + I2(s) → 2 KI(s) B) K2O(s) + CO2(g) → K2CO3(s) C) 2 NaNO3(s) → 2 NaNO2(s) + O2(g) D) 2 SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2 SO3(g) Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 5-4 Global: G2 LO: 5.4 45) Oxidation always involves ________ of electrons and may involve ________ of oxygen atoms or ________ of hydrogen atoms.

A) loss, gain, loss B) gain, loss, gain C) loss, loss, gain D) gain, gain, loss Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 5-4 Global: G2 LO: 5.4 46) When an organic molecule loses hydrogen atoms it is said to be: A) reduced B) oxidized C) both oxidized and reduced D) neither oxidized nor reduced Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 5-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

47) When an organic molecule loses oxygen atoms it is said to be: A) reduced B) oxidized C) both oxidized and reduced D) neither oxidized nor reduced Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 5-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4 48) When an organic molecule gains oxygen atoms it is said to be: A) reduced B) oxidized C) both oxidized and reduced D) neither oxidized nor reduced Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 5-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4 49) When an organic molecule gains hydrogen atoms it is said to be: A) reduced B) oxidized C) both oxidized and reduced D) neither oxidized nor reduced Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 5-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4 50) When a substance is oxidized, it is called a(n): A) oxidizing agent B) reducing agent C) both an oxidizing and a reducing agent D) neither an oxidizing nor a reducing agent Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 5-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4

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51) When a substance is reduced, it is called a(n): A) oxidizing agent B) reducing agent C) both D) neither Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 5-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4 52) The reduced form of a biomolecule is written NADH; which of the following is the oxidized form of this important biomolecule?

A) NADH2 B) NAD+ C) NAD D) NAD+2 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 5-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4 53) Identify the correct sequence of substances in order of least oxidized to most oxidized.

A) Alcohol → aldehyde → carboxylic acid B) Carboxylic acid → aldehyde → alcohol C) Alcohol → carboxylic acid → aldehyde D) Carboxylic acid → alcohol → aldehyde Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 5-4 Global: G2 LO: 5.4 54) Hydrogenation of an alkene is an example of what kind of reaction?

A) Addition B) Oxidation C) Hydrolysis D) Hydration Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 5-5, 5-6 Global: G1 LO: 5.6

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55) This equation represents a ________ reaction.

A) carboxylation B) oxidation C) reduction D) hydrolysis Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 5-5 Global: G2 LO: 5.5 56) This equation represents a ________ reaction.

A) hydration B) oxidation C) reduction D) hydrolysis Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 5-5 Global: G2 LO: 5.5 57) What is the most likely (Markovnikov) product of hydration of CH3CH=CH2?

A) CH3CH2CH2OH B) CH3CH2CH3 C) CH3CHOHCH3 D) CH3CHOHCH2OH Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 5-6 Global: G2 LO: 5.6

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58) Hydration reactions are examples of what kind of reaction?

A) Addition B) Reduction C) Oxidation D) Condensation Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 5-6 Global: G1 LO: 5.6

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59) Which of the following molecules could not yield this product when hydrated?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: D Diff: 3 Section: 5-6 Global: G2 LO: 5.6

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5.2 True/False Questions 1) A hot pack is an example of an endothermic reaction.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1 2) Energy is defined as the ability to do work.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1 3) An exothermic reaction requires an input of heat energy.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1 4) The free energy of the products in an endergonic reaction is higher than that of the reactants.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1 5) The free energy of the products in an exergonic reaction is higher than that of the reactants.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1 6) In a solid, the particles are arranged in the most random way.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1

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7) A spontaneous reaction proceeds without requiring additional energy from the surroundings.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Section: 5-1 Global: G2 LO: 5.1 8) The Gibbs free energy change includes contributions from both heat and randomness.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1 9) Diamond will convert spontaneously into graphite.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Section: 5-1 Global: G2 LO: 5.1 10) An exergonic reaction is always spontaneous.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1 11) The following energy diagram represents an exergonic reaction:

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 5-1 Global: G3 LO: 5.1 20 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) Carbohydrates have the highest energy content per gram among carbohydrates, fats and proteins.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1 13) A spontaneous reaction always occurs rapidly.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1 14) In an exergonic reaction, the sign of the free energy change ΔG is negative.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Section: 5-1 Global: G1 LO: 5.1 15) A catalyst increases the reaction rate by reducing the free energy change for the process.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 5-2 Global: G1 LO: 5.2 16) A catalyst increases the reaction rate by reducing the activation energy.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 5-2 Global: G1 LO: 5.2 17) An enzyme is a biological catalyst.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 5-2 Global: G1 LO: 5.2

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18) An enzyme is a carbohydrate.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 5-2 Global: G1 LO: 5.2 19) An enzyme is a protein.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 5-2 Global: G1 LO: 5.2 20) The conversion of ATP to ADP provides energy used to drive other biological reactions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 5-1, 5-3 Global: G1 LO: 5.1, 5.3 21) Benzoic acid is reduced in this reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Section: 5-4 Global: G2 LO: 5.4 22) The oxidized form of FADH is FAD. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 5-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4

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23) The reduced form of NADH is NAD+.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 5-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4 24) A reducing agent gains electrons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 5-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4 25) Reduction is associated with gain of hydrogen atoms.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 5-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4 26) Oxidation is associated with loss of oxygen atoms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 5-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4 27) A substance is reduced if it gains electrons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 5-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4 28) NAD+ is an oxidizing agent.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 5-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4

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29) Conversion of an aldehyde to a carboxylic acid involves reduction.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 5-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4 30) Conversion of an alcohol to a ketone involves oxidation.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 5-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4 31) In a condensation reaction, one molecule is split into two molecules.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 5-5 Global: G2 LO: 5.5 32) In condensation reactions, water molecules are produced.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 5-5 Global: G1 LO: 5.5 33) Hydrogenation of an alkene is a reduction reaction.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 5-4, 5-6 Global: G1 LO: 5.6

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General, Organic, and Biological Chemistry, 4e (Frost) Chapter 6 Carbohydrates — Life's Sweet Molecules 6.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is a polysaccharide?

A) Glucose B) Sucrose C) Starch D) Maltose Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 6-1 Global: G1 LO: 6.1 2) Which of the following is a disaccharide?

A) Glucose B) Sucrose C) Starch D) Mannose Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 6-1 Global: G1 LO: 6.1 3) Which of the following is a monosaccharide A) Mannose B) Sucrose C) Starch D) Maltose Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 6-1, 6-5 Global: G1 LO: 6.1

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4) Identify all the disaccharides from the following list: i) Lactose ii) Glucose iii) Ribose iv) Maltose A) i + iv B) ii + iii C) i + ii D) iii + iv Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 6-1, 6-5 Global: G1 LO: 6.1 5) How many monosaccharides are connected to each other in a disaccharide?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 6-1 Global: G1 LO: 6.1 6) How many monosaccharides are connected to each other in an oligosaccharide?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3-9 D) more than 9 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 6-1 Global: G1 LO: 6.1

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7) The following molecule represents a:

A) monosaccharide B) disaccharide C) oligosaccharide D) polysaccharide Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 6-1 Global: G2 LO: 6.1 8) The general formula for a carbohydrate is: A) CnH2n+2 B) Cn(H2O)n C) CnH2n D) Cn(H2O) Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 6-1 Global: G1 LO: 6.1 9) Which of the following functional groups is just a carbon double bonded to an oxygen atom?

A) Alcohol B) Thiol C) Carbonyl D) Ester Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 6-1, 6-2 Global: G1 LO: 6.2 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) Which of the following functional groups comprises a carbon atom bonded to a hydroxyl group?

A) Alcohol B) Thiol C) Carbonyl D) Ester Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 6-1, 6-2 Global: G1 LO: 6.2 11) A carbohydrate with an aldehyde functional group is called: A) ketose B) aldose C) disaccharide D) hexose Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G1 LO: 6.2 12) A carbohydrate with a ketone functional group is called: A) ketose B) aldose C) disaccharide D) hexose Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G1 LO: 6.2 13) A carbohydrate with 5 carbons is called a: A) hexose B) triose C) pentose D) tetrose Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G1 LO: 6.2

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14) A carbohydrate with 4 carbons is called a: A) hexose B) triose C) pentose D) tetrose Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G1 LO: 6.2 15) A carbohydrate with 6 carbons and an aldehyde functional group is called a(n): A) ketohexose B) aldohexose C) ketopentose D) aldopentose Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G1 LO: 6.2 16) A carbohydrate with 6 carbons and a ketone functional group is called a(n): A) ketohexose B) aldohexose C) ketopentose D) aldopentose Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G1 LO: 6.2 17) The most abundant monosaccharide in nature is: A) mannose B) galactose C) glucose D) fructose Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G1 LO: 6.2

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18) Galactose is called a(n): A) aldopentose B) ketohexose C) aldohexose D) ketopentose Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G1 LO: 6.2 19) Fructose is called a(n): A) aldopentose B) ketohexose C) aldohexose D) ketopentose Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G1 LO: 6.2 20) An aldopentose contains ________ carbon atoms and a/an ________ group.

A) five, aldehyde B) six, aldehyde C) five, ketone D) six, ketone Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G1 LO: 6.2 21) An aldohexose contains ________ carbon atoms and a/an ________ group.

A) five, aldehyde B) six, aldehyde C) five, ketone D) six, ketone Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G1 LO: 6.2

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22) A ketotetrose contains ________ carbon atoms and a/an ________ group.

A) three, ketone B) four, aldehyde C) four, ketone D) five, ketone Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G1 LO: 6.2 23) Ribose is a(n): A) aldohexose B) ketohexose C) aldopentose D) ketopentose Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 6-3 Global: G1 LO: 6.3 24) Glyceraldehyde is a carbohydrate that contains ________ carbon atoms.

A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G1 LO: 6.2

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25) Which of the following is a tertiary alcohol?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G2 LO: 6.2

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26) Which of the following is a primary alcohol?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G2 LO: 6.2

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27) Which of the following is a secondary alcohol?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G2 LO: 6.2

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28) Which of the following is a tertiary alcohol?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 6-2 Global: G2 LO: 6.2

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29) Which of the following is an aldehyde functional group?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G1 LO: 6.2

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30) Which of the following is a ketone functional group?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G1 LO: 6.2

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31) Which of the following is a ketone?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G2 LO: 6.2 32) What types of alcohols are found in carbohydrates?

A) Primary only B) Secondary only C) Tertiary only D) Both primary and secondary Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G1 LO: 6.2 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

33) In the Fischer projection of a carbohydrate, the wedges are represented by ________ lines and the dashes are represented by ________ lines.

A) horizontal, vertical B) vertical, horizontal C) horizontal, horizontal D) vertical, vertical Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 6-3 Global: G1 LO: 6.3

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34) Which of these carbohydrates shown in the Fischer projection is D-galactose?

A)

B)

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C)

D)

Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 6-2, 6-3 Global: G2 LO: 6.3

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35) Which of these molecules is an aldopentose?

A)

B)

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C)

D)

Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 6-2, 6-3 Global: G2 LO: 6.3

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36) How many stereoisomers are possible for:

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 Answer: D Diff: 3 Section: 6-3 Global: G2 LO: 6.3 37) How many chiral carbon atoms are there in this molecule?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 6-3 Global: G2 LO: 6.3

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38) How many chiral carbon atoms are in this molecule:

A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 6-3 Global: G2 LO: 6.3 39) The configuration at which carbon atom determines if a monosaccharide is D or L? A) The lowest numbered chiral carbon B) The highest numbered chiral carbon C) The chiral carbon closest to the aldehyde or keto group D) The carbon of the primary alcohol group Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 6-3 Global: G1 LO: 6.3

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40) Which of the following compounds is the enantiomer of the following?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 6-3 Global: G2 LO: 6.3

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41) Glucose and galactose are ________ of each other.

A) anomers B) enantiomers C) epimers D) cis-trans isomers Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 6-3 Global: G1 LO: 6.3 42) D-erythrose and D-threose are ________ of each other.

A) anomers B) enantiomers C) epimers D) cis-trans isomers Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 6-3 Global: G1 LO: 6.3 43) D-galactose and D-talose are ________ of D-glucose.

A) diastereomers B) epimers C) enantiomers D) cis-trans isomers Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 6-3 Global: G1 LO: 6.3 44) D-glucose and L-glucose are ________.

A) anomers B) enantiomers C) epimers D) cis-trans isomers Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 6-3 Global: G1 LO: 6.3

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45) Which of these molecules is the enantiomer of D-altrose?

A)

B)

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C)

D)

Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 6-3 Global: G2 LO: 6.3

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46) Which one of these molecules is an epimer of D-allose?

A)

B)

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C)

D)

Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 6-3 Global: G2 LO: 6.3

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47) Which one of these molecules is not an epimer of L-altose?

A)

B)

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C)

D)

Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 6-3 Global: G2 LO: 6.3

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48) Which of the following is a pyranose ring?

A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II are pyranose rings.

D) Neither I nor II are pyranose rings.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 6-4 Global: G1 LO: 6.4 49) Which of the following is a furanose ring?

A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II are furanose rings.

D) Neither I nor II are furanose rings.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 6-4 Global: G1 LO: 6.4

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50) α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are: A) enantiomers B) anomers C) disaccharides D) diastereoisomers Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 6-4 Global: G1 LO: 6.4 51) In the pyranose form of D-glucose, the —OH on the anomeric carbon atom in the α-form is ________ to carbon 6, while in the β-form it is ________ to carbon 6.

A) trans, cis B) cis, trans C) trans, trans D) cis, cis Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 6-4 Global: G1 LO: 6.4 52) Which of the following represents a β-anomer?

A) I and II only B) II and III only C) I and III only.

D) I, II and III are all β-anomers.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 6-4 Global: G2 LO: 6.4

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53) When an organic molecule loses one or more hydrogen atoms it is said to be: A) reduced B) oxidized C) both oxidized and reduced D) neither oxidized or reduced Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 6-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4, 6.4 54) When an organic molecule gains one or more hydrogen atoms it is said to be: A) reduced B) oxidized C) both oxidized and reduced D) neither oxidized or reduced Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 6-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4, 6.4 55) When a substance is oxidized, it is called a(n): A) oxidizing agent B) reducing agent C) both D) neither Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 6-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4, 6.4 56) When a substance is reduced, it is called a(n): A) oxidizing agent B) reducing agent C) both D) neither Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 6-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4, 6.4

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57) In the Benedict's test: A) an aldehyde is oxidized B) a silver mirror is produced C) the copper (II) ion is oxidized D) all of the above occur in the Benedict's test Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 6-4 Global: G1 LO: 6.4 58) In the Benedict's test: A) an aldehyde is oxidized B) a brick red precipitate is formed C) the copper (II) ion is reduced D) all of the above occur in the Benedict's test Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 6-4 Global: G1 LO: 6.4 59) The substance that precipitates in a positive Benedict test is: A) Ag B) CuO C) Cu2O D) both CuO and Cu2O Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 6-4 Global: G1 LO: 6.4 60) Lactose is made from D-glucose and: A) mannose B) glucose C) galactose D) ribose Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 6-5 Global: G1 LO: 6.5

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61) Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?

A) Lactose B) Glucose C) Mannose D) Sucrose Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 6-5 Global: G1 LO: 6.5 62) This disaccharide is also known as malt sugar since it is formed from the breakdown of starch and is a key ingredient in beer: A) sucrose B) lactose C) maltose D) cellobiose Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 6-5 Global: G1 LO: 6.5

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63) What type of glycosidic bond is shown here?

A) α(1→4) B) α(1→6) C) β(1→4) D) β(1→6) Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 6-5 Global: G2 LO: 6.5

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64) What type of glycosidic bond is shown here?

A) α(1→4) B) α(1→6) C) β(1→4) D) β(1→6) Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 6-5 Global: G2 LO: 6.5 65) The glycosidic bond that connects the two monosaccharides in lactose is: A) α(1→4) B) β(1→4) C) α(1→6) D) α,β(1→2) Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 6-5 Global: G2 LO: 6.5

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66) The glycosidic bond that connects the two monosaccharides in sucrose is: A) α(1→4) B) β(1→4) C) α(1→6) D) α,β(1→2) Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 6-5 Global: G2 LO: 6.5 67) Which of these polysaccharides is not made exclusively from α-glucose units?

A) Amylose B) Amylopectin C) Glycogen D) Cellulose Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 6-6 Global: G1 LO: 6.6 68) Which of the following is the storage form of glucose in the liver and muscle tissue?

A) Amylose B) Amylopectin C) Glycogen D) Cellulose Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 6-6 Global: G1 LO: 6.6 69) Which one of these polysaccharides is not used in energy storage?

A) Cellulose B) Glycogen C) Amylose D) Amylopectin Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 6-6 Global: G1 LO: 6.6

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70) Which one of these polysaccharides contains β-N-acetylglucosamine units forming β(1→4) bonds?

A) Cellulose B) Chitin C) Amylose D) Amylopectin Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 6-6 Global: G1 LO: 6.6 71) Which of the following is the structural polysaccharide in plants?

A) Amylose B) Amylopectin C) Glycogen D) Cellulose Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 6-6 Global: G1 LO: 6.6 72) The polysaccharide the makes up the exoskeleton of insects is: A) cellulose B) glycogen C) chitin D) amylose Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 6-6 Global: G1 LO: 6.6 73) Which blood type contains the carbohydrate N-acetylgalactosamine?

A) A B) B C) O D) Both A and B contain this carbohydrate.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 6-7 Global: G1 LO: 6.7

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74) Which of the following blood types is considered to be the universal blood donor?

A) Type B B) Type A C) Type AB D) Type O Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 6-7 Global: G1 LO: 6.7 6.2 True/False Questions 1) A carbohydrate that contains eight monosaccharide groups is a polysaccharide.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 6-1 Global: G1 LO: 6.1 2) A carbohydrate that contains seven monosaccharide groups is an oligosaccharide.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 6-1 Global: G1 LO: 6.1 3) Soluble fiber can help lower blood pressure.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 6-1 Global: G1 LO: 6.1 4) Insoluble fiber has a laxative effect.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 6-1 Global: G1 LO: 6.1

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5) This molecule represents a secondary alcohol:

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G2 LO: 6.2 6) This molecule represents a primary alcohol:

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G2 LO: 6.2 7) This molecule represents a primary alcohol:

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G2 LO: 6.2 40 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) This molecule represents a tertiary alcohol:

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G2 LO: 6.2 9) This molecule represents a tertiary alcohol:

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G2 LO: 6.2 10) This molecule represents a secondary alcohol:

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G2 LO: 6.2

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11) This molecule represents an aldehyde:

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G2 LO: 6.2 12) This molecule represents a ketone:

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 6-2 Global: G2 LO: 6.2

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13) This molecule represents a ketopentose:

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Section: 6-2, 6-3 Global: G2 LO: 6.2, 6.3 14) This molecule represents an aldohexose:

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Section: 6-2, 6-3 Global: G2 LO: 6.2, 6.3

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15) This molecule represents the L enantiomer of galactose:

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Section: 6-3 Global: G2 LO: 6.3 16) A carboxylic acid is formed by oxidation of an aldehyde.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 6-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4, 6.4 17) An alcohol is formed by oxidation of a ketone.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 6-4 Global: G1 LO: 5.4, 6.4 18) In the beta anomer, the —OH on the anomeric carbon is cis to carbon 6.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 6-4 Global: G1 LO: 6.4

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19) Two structures are possible when the ring is formed in a carbohydrate. These two forms are called enantiomers.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 6-4 Global: G1 LO: 6.4 20) Two structures are possible when the ring is formed in a carbohydrate. These two forms are called anomers.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 6-4 Global: G1 LO: 6.4 21) Polysaccharides are non-reducing sugars.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 6-6 Global: G1 LO: 6.6 22) Starch is made from glucose units in α(1→4) glycosidic bonds.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 6-6 Global: G1 LO: 6.6 23) Glycogen is the storage polysaccharide in animals.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 6-6 Global: G1 LO: 6.6

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General, Organic, and Biological Chemistry, 4e (Frost) Chapter 7 States of Matter and Their Attractive Forces: Gas Laws, Solubility, and Applications to the Cell Membrane 7.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The variables kept constant in Boyle's law are: A) amount of gas and temperature B) amount of gas and volume C) pressure and temperature D) pressure and volume Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 7-1 Global: G1 LO: 7.1 2) The variables kept constant in Charles' law are: A) volume and temperature B) amount of gas and pressure C) amount of gas and temperature D) pressure and volume Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 7-1 Global: G1 LO: 7.1 3) Gay-Lussac's law relates the variables of: A) amount of gas and temperature B) amount of gas and volume C) pressure and temperature D) pressure and volume Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 7-1 Global: G1 LO: 7.1

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4) Which of these statements is not compatible with the kinetic molecular theory?

A) Gas particles are far apart from each other.

B) Gas particles are in constant random motion C) Gas particles have strong attractive forces between them.

D) Gas particles move more quickly at higher temperature.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 7-1 Global: G1 LO: 7.1 5) What is the pressure (in atmospheres) of a sample of nitrogen that is at 745 mmHg? A) 1.02 atm B) 0.980 atm C) 0.750 atm D) 1.50 atm Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 7-1 Global: G4 LO: 7.1 6) What is the pressure (in Pascals) of a sample of nitrogen that is at 625 mmHg? A) 4.69 Pa B) 83,300 Pa C) 63,300,300 Pa D) 123,000 Pa Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 7-1 Global: G4 LO: 7.1 7) What is the pressure of the air in a car tire (in psi) if it is 1.73 atm?

A) 0.118 psi B) 25.4 psi C) 8.50 psi D) 14.7 psi Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 7-1 Global: G4 LO: 7.1

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8) What is the pressure of the air in a car tire in atm if it is 215,000 Pa? A) 2.12 atm B) 0.471 atm C) 283 atm D) 1.01 atm Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 7-1 Global: G4 LO: 7.1 9) If a scuba diver's lungs have a normal capacity of 4.90 L at sea level (1.00 atm), what would be the volume of her lungs if the pressure at a depth of 50 ft is 975 mmHg assuming constant temperature?

A) 0.262 L B) 199 L C) 6.29 L D) 3.82 L Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 7-1 Global: G4 LO: 7.1 10) A sample of oxygen at room temperature occupies a volume of 500. L at 1.75 atm. What would be the volume of this gas at 2.50 atm at the same temperature?

A) 350. L B) 0.00286 L C) 714 L D) 114 L Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 7-1 Global: G4 LO: 7.1 11) A balloon filled with helium gas at 1.00 atm occupies 16.5 L. As it rises into the atmosphere, what will the pressure be when the volume becomes 94.3 L assuming constant temperature?

A) 0.175 atm B) 5.72 atm C) 1,560 atm D) 0.0606 atm Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 7-1 Global: G4 LO: 7.1 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) What is the new volume of a 3.0 L sample of nitrogen gas that is heated from 75°C to 150°C at constant pressure?

A) 1.5 L B) 2.5 L C) 3.6 L D) 6.0 L Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 7-1 Global: G4 LO: 7.1 13) What will the new temperature be if the volume of a gas sample initially at 350 K contracts from 650 L to 350 L at constant pressure?

A) 650 K B) 190 K C) 190 °C D) 650 °C Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 7-1 Global: G4 LO: 7.1 14) A balloon originally had a volume of 4.39 L at 44°C and a pressure of 729 mmHg. To what temperature must the balloon be changed to reduce its volume to 3.78 L if the pressure is constant?

A) 38.0 °C B) 0.00 °C C) 95.2 °C D) 273 °C Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 7-1 Global: G4 LO: 7.1

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15) A sample of air at a pressure of 1.50 atm occupies 2.75 L at 35°C. Calculate the new pressure when the temperature is raised to 115°C and the volume is changed to 5.50 L. A) 0.321 atm B) 0.945 atm C) 1.06 atm D) 3.78 atm Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 7-1 Global: G4 LO: 7.1 16) What is standard atmospheric pressure (760. mmHg) in units of inches mercury (in Hg)?

(2.54 cm = 1 in) A) 1930 in Hg B) 193 in Hg C) 299 in Hg D) 29.9 in Hg Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 7-1 Global: G4 LO: 7.1 17) The predominant intermolecular force between molecules of (CH3)2NH is: A) London-dispersion forces B) ion-dipole attractions C) hydrogen bonding D) dipole-dipole attractions Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 18) The predominant intermolecular force between molecules of (CH3)3N is: A) London-dispersion forces B) ion-dipole attractions C) hydrogen bonding D) dipole-dipole attractions Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2

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19) The predominant intermolecular force between molecules of C(CH3)4 is: A) London-dispersion forces B) ion-dipole attractions C) hydrogen bonding D) dipole-dipole attractions Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 20) The weakest attractive force among these is: A) London-dispersion force B) dipole-dipole force C) hydrogen bonding D) ion-dipole force Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2 21) London dispersion force attractions between molecules depends on what two factors?

A) Molar mass and shape B) Vapor pressure and size C) Molar mass and volatility D) Volatility and shape Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2 22) Which of the following statements about intermolecular forces is true?

A) London dispersions forces are the strongest of the three types.

B) They occur within molecules rather than between the molecules.

C) Hydrogen bonding occurs between any two molecules that contain hydrogen atoms.

D) Dipole-dipole interactions occurs between two polar molecules.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2

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23) When NaCl dissolves in water, the force of attraction that exists between Na+ and H2O is called: A) dipole-dipole B) ion-ion C) hydrogen bonding D) ion-dipole Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2 24) ________ attractions are the only ones that all molecules have regardless of composition or polarity.

A) Dipole-dipole attractions B) Hydrogen bonding C) London dispersion forces D) Ion-ion interactions Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2 25) Which intermolecular force does not require the existence of a permanent dipole?

A) Dipole-dipole attractions B) Hydrogen bonding C) London dispersion forces D) Ion-dipole forces Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2 26) Hydrogen bonding is a special form of: A) dipole-dipole attractions B) ion-dipole forces C) London dispersion forces D) ion-ion interactions Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2

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27) Which of the following compounds cannot exhibit hydrogen bonding?

A) H2O B) NH3 C) HF D) CH4 Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 28) Which of the following pairs of compounds have the same intermolecular forces between molecules of each compound?

A) H2O + H2S B) PH3 + NH3 C) HF + HCl D) CH4 + SiH4 Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 29) Which of the following pairs of molecules have different intermolecular forces between molecules of each compound?

A) CO2 + SiO2 B) PF3 + NF3 C) HF + HCl D) CH4 + SiH4 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 30) Which one of these molecules can act as a hydrogen bond acceptor but not a donor?

A) CH3-O-CH3 B) C2H5OH C) CH3NH2 D) CH3CO2H Answer: A Diff: 3 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

31) What is the predominant intermolecular force that exists between two molecules of CH3CH2OH? A) London dispersion forces B) Dipole-dipole C) Hydrogen bonding D) Ion-dipole Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 32) What is the predominant intermolecular force that exists between two molecules of CH3OCH3?

A) London dispersion forces B) Dipole-dipole C) Hydrogen bonding D) Ion-dipole Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 33) What is the predominant intermolecular force that exists between two molecules of CH3CH2CH3?

A) London dispersion forces B) Dipole-dipole C) Hydrogen bonding D) Ion-dipole forces Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 34) What intermolecular forces hold the DNA double helix together?

A) London dispersion forces B) Dipole-dipole C) Hydrogen bonding D) Ion-dipole forces Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

35) Which of the following compounds exhibits primarily dipole-dipole intermolecular forces between molecules?

A) CH3-O-CH3 B) CH3CH3 C) CO2 D) F2 Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 36) How many hydrogen bonds can CH3-O-CH2OH form with water?

A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: C Diff: 3 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 37) For a series of small molecules of comparable molecular weight, which one of the following choices lists the intermolecular forces in the correct increasing order?

A) London dispersion forces < dipole-dipole forces < hydrogen bonds B) Hydrogen bonds < dipole-dipole forces < London dispersion forces C) Dipole-dipole forces < hydrogen bonds < London dispersion forces D) London dispersion forces < hydrogen bonds < dipole-dipole forces Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2

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38) Which of the following has only London dispersion forces as the primary attraction between molecules?

A) H2S B) CH3CH3 C) CH3CH2OH D) CH3OH Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 39) Which of the following pairs of compounds contain the same intermolecular forces?

A) CH3CH3 and H2O B) CH3CH2OH and H2O C) H2S and CH4 D) NH3 and CH4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 40) The transition from the gas phase directly to the solid phase is called: A) condensation B) freezing C) sublimation D) deposition Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2 41) In sublimation, the ________ state is turned directly into the ________ state.

A) solid, gas B) gas, solid C) liquid, solid D) gas, liquid Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2

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42) In condensation, the ________ state is turned directly into the ________ state.

A) solid, gas B) gas, solid C) liquid, solid D) gas, liquid Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2 43) The slow disappearance of a frozen puddle on the sidewalk during winter is due to: A) sublimation B) vaporization C) melting D) condensation Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2 44) Which member of each of these pairs has the higher boiling point?

Group 1: HCl and HI; Group 2: H2S and H2O A) HCl and H2S B) HI and H2O C) HCl and H2O D) HI and H2S Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 45) Which member of each of these pairs has the higher boiling point?

Group 1: CH3CH2OH and CH3OCH3; Group 2: (CH3)3N and (CH3)2NH A) CH3OCH3and (CH3)2NH B) CH3OCH3and (CH3)3N C) CH3CH2OH and (CH3)2NH D) CH3CH2OH and (CH3)3N Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

46) Which of these alkanes has the lowest boiling point?

A) C2H6 B) C4H10 C) C6H14 D) C8H18 Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 47) Which of the following compounds will have the lowest boiling point?

A) CH3CH2OH B) NH3 C) CHCl3 D) CH4 Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 48) Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?

A) CH4 B) CH3CH3 C) CH3CH2CH2CH3 D) CH3CH2CH3 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 49) Rank the following molecules in the correct order of increasing boiling point: O2, C2H6, H2O, H2S. A) O2 < H2S < H2O < C2H6 B) O2 < C2H6 < H2S < H2O C) H2S < O2 < C2H6 < H2O D) H2O < H2S < O2 < C2H6 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

50) Which of the following alkanes has the highest boiling point?

A) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 B)

C)

D)

Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2

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51) Which of the following alkanes has the lowest boiling point?

A) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 B)

C)

D)

Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 52) Let's compare two compounds of similar molar mass in which substance A is comprised of nonpolar molecules and substance B composed of polar molecules. Which of the following statements is true?

A) Both compounds have the same boiling point.

B) Substance B will not boil.

C) Substance B will boil at a lower temperature than substance A. D) Substance B will boil at a higher temperature than substance A. Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2

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53) Stronger intermolecular forces predict ________ boiling point and ________ vapor pressure.

A) higher, lower B) lower, higher C) higher, higher D) lower, lower Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2 54) The boiling points of alkanes increase with molar mass because of the increase in: A) density B) London dispersion forces C) viscosity D) dipole-dipole forces Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2 55) Which compound would have the highest boiling point?

A) CH3-O–CH2CH2CH3 B) CH3CH2–O–CH2CH3 C)

D) CH3CH2CH2CH2–OH Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 56) Which one of the following is most soluble in hexane, C6H14?

A) CH3OH B) CH3-O-CH3 C) CH3CH2OH D) CH3CH2CH3 Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 7-3 Global: G2 LO: 7.3 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

57) Which of the following would be most soluble in water?

A) CH3CH2CH3 B) CH3CH2OH C) CO2 D) CH4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 7-3 Global: G2 LO: 7.3 58) Soaps can be described as: A) esters of fatty acids B) salts of fatty acids C) long chain acids D) all of these statements describe soap Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 7-3 Global: G1 LO: 7.3 59) The long hydrocarbon tails of soap molecules are: A) hydrophilic and attracted to water B) hydrophobic and attracted to water C) hydrophobic and attracted to oils D) hydrophilic and attracted to oils Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 7-3 Global: G1 LO: 7.3 60) The polar heads of soap molecules are: A) hydrophilic and attracted to water B) hydrophobic and attracted to water C) hydrophobic and attracted to oils D) hydrophilic and attracted to oils Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 7-3 Global: G1 LO: 7.3

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61) A molecule that contains both polar and nonpolar regions is described as: A) amphipathic B) amphoteric C) ambidextrous D) hydrophobic Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 7-3 Global: G1 LO: 7.3 62) Which of the following molecules is amphipathic?

A) CH3CH2OH B) CH3(CH2)10CO2H C) CH3(CH2)10CH3 D) CH3CO2H Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 7-3 Global: G2 LO: 7.3 63) Fats are generally ________ at room temperature and are obtained from ________.

A) solids; animals B) liquids; plants C) solids; plants D) liquids; animal Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 7-4 Global: G1 LO: 7.4 64) Oils are generally ________ at room temperature and are obtained from ________.

A) solids; animals B) liquids; plants C) solids; plants D) liquids; animals Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 7-4 Global: G1 LO: 7.4

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65) What chemical process is used to convert oils into fats and semi-solids?

A) Hydration B) Hydrogenation C) Saponification D) Esterification Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 7-4 Global: G1 LO: 7.4 66) In naturally occurring unsaturated fatty acids the double bonds are: A) all cis B) all trans C) both cis and trans D) neither cis nor trans Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 7-4 Global: G1 LO: 7.4 67) The double bonds in this unsaturated triglyceride are:

A) both cis B) both trans C) cis and trans D) neither cis nor trans Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 7-4 Global: G1 LO: 7.4

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68) How many carbon atoms are in each chain of this triglyceride?

A) 8 B) 9 C) 10 D) 11 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 7-4 Global: G2 LO: 7.4 69) Which of the following is most likely to be found in the central region of a lipid membrane?

A) Cholesterol B) Glycine C) Glucose D) Methyl phosphate Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 7-5 Global: G1 LO: 7.5 70) The phosphate group in a phospholipid is: A) ionic B) covalent C) nonpolar D) polar Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 7-5 Global: G1 LO: 7.5

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71) In a lipid bilayer: A) the hydrophilic heads of the molecules point towards each other B) all the molecules are triglycerides C) the hydrophobic heads point to the hydrophilic tails D) the hydrophobic tails of the molecules point toward each other Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 7-5 Global: G1 LO: 7.5 72) Which of the following types of lipids is predominantly found in cell membranes?

A) Waxes B) Steroids C) Phospholipids D) Triglycerides Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 7-5 Global: G1 LO: 7.5 73) Which of the following statements is not correct about cholesterol?

A) It is an essential component of cell membranes.

B) It is the precursor of steroid hormones.

C) It is soluble in non-polar solvents.

D) It is soluble in polar solvents.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 7-5 Global: G1 LO: 7.5 7.2 True/False Questions 1) Boyle's law states that, for a fixed quantity of gas at constant temperature, pressure is directly proportional to the volume.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 7-1 Global: G1 LO: 7.1

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2) Charles' law states that the volume of a fixed amount of gas at constant pressure is directly proportional to the absolute temperature.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 7-1 Global: G1 LO: 7.1 3) Opposite charges attract.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2 4) London dispersion forces are the strongest type of intermolecular attractive force.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2 5) Induced-dipole and dispersion forces describe the same force as London forces.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2 6) CH3OCH3 can make two donor hydrogen bonds with water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Section: 7-2 Global: G2 LO: 7.2 7) Formation of an aqueous salt solution involves predominantly ionic attractions.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2

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8) A salt bridge involves predominantly ion-dipole attractions.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2 9) Hydrogen bonding between bases is responsible for the double helix structure of DNA. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2 10) In sublimation, a solid is converted directly into a gas.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2 11) In deposition, a gas is converted into a liquid.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2 12) Stronger attractive forces between molecules in a solid predict lower melting points.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2 13) Straight chain alkanes have lower boiling points than branched alkanes of the same size.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Section: 7-2 Global: G1 LO: 7.2

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14) Triglycerides don't dissolve in water because they are polar.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 7-3 Global: G1 LO: 7.3 15) Sugar dissolves in water because of the large London forces present in this large molecule.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 7-3 Global: G1 LO: 7.3 16) Amphipathic molecules contain both polar and nonpolar regions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 7-3 Global: G1 LO: 7.3 17) A fatty acid is an example of an amphipathic molecule.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 7-3 Global: G1 LO: 7.3 18) Hydrophobic substances are repelled by water.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 7-3 Global: G1 LO: 7.3 19) Hydrophilic substances are repelled by water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 7-3 Global: G1 LO: 7.3

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20) Hydrophilic substances tend to be polar molecules.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 7-3 Global: G1 LO: 7.3

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General, Organic, and Biological Chemistry, 4e (Frost) Chapter 8 Solution Chemistry — Sugar and Water Do Mix 8.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A saturated solution: A) contains as much solvent as it can hold B) contains no double bonds C) contains dissolved solute in equilibrium with undissolved solid D) will rapidly precipitate if a seed crystal is added.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G1 LO: 8.1 2) Of the following, which can serve as the solvent in a solution?

A) A liquid B) A solid C) A gas D) Gases, liquids and solids can all serve as solvents.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G1 LO: 8.1 3) Of the following, which can serve as the solute in a solution?

A) A liquid B) A solid C) A gas D) Gases, liquids and solids can all serve as solutes.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G1 LO: 8.1

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4) A homogeneous mixture consists of 12% ethanol, 28% methanol and 60% water. Which of these is the solvent for the mixture?

A) Ethanol B) Methanol C) Water D) Ethanol and methanol Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G2 LO: 8.1 5) A homogeneous mixture consists of 34% ethanol and 66% isopropanol. Which of these is the solute of the mixture?

A) Isopropanol B) Ethanol C) Both ethanol and isopropanol D) Neither ethanol nor isopropanol Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G2 LO: 8.1 6) In a solution, the solute is: A) the substance in the greatest amount B) the substance that is dissolved C) always water D) always a gas Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G1 LO: 8.1 7) In a solution, the solvent is: A) always water B) the substance in the greatest amount C) the substance that is dissolved D) always a gas Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G1 LO: 8.1

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8) Which of the following statements best describes the phrase "like dissolves like"?

A) The only true solutions are formed when water dissolves a polar solute.

B) A solvent and a solute with similar intermolecular forces will easily make a solution.

C) The only true solutions are formed when water dissolves a nonpolar solute.

D) A solvent will dissolve a solute that has a similar mass.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G1 LO: 8.1 9) Which of the following can be classified as a colloid?

A) Grape juice B) Homogenized milk C) Blood D) Kool-Aid Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G1 LO: 8.1 10) Which of the following is an example of a true solution?

A) Blood B) Homogenized milk C) Apple juice D) Mayonnaise Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G1 LO: 8.1 11) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a true solution?

A) Particles are evenly distributed B) Components do not separate on standing C) Concentration can be changed D) Components interact chemically with each other Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G1 LO: 8.1

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12) Examine the following graphics and determine which combination includes only solutions.

A) I and III B) II and III C) I and II D) I, II and III Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G2 LO: 8.1 13) Which of the following mixtures is not a solution?

A) Stainless steel B) Fresh air C) Chalk and cheese D) Sea water Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G2 LO: 8.1

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14) Which of the following mixtures is a colloid?

A) Yogurt B) Fresh air C) Chalk and cheese D) Mineral water Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G2 LO: 8.1 15) To be classified as a suspension, the particles must be greater than what diameter?

A) 10 nm B) 100 nm C) 1000 nm D) 1000 μm Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G1 LO: 8.1 16) You have been given an unknown liquid that is soluble in water but not in benzene (a nonpolar solvent). From this information, you can infer that the unknown liquid is: A) Polar B) Nonpolar C) Neither polar nor nonpolar D) Both polar and nonpolar Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G2 LO: 8.1 17) Which of the following has the least effect on the solubility of a solid in a liquid solvent?

A) Temperature B) Pressure C) Polarity of the solvent D) Polarity of the solute Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 8-2 Global: G1 LO: 8.2

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18) In which of the following solutions would pressure be expected to have the largest effect on solubility?

A) Solution of a gas in a liquid B) Solution of a solid in a liquid C) Solution of a liquid in a liquid D) Solution of a solid in a solid Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 8-2 Global: G1 LO: 8.2 19) Which one of the following compounds will be most soluble in water?

A) CH3OH B) CH3CH2OH C) CH3CH2CH2OH D) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 8-2 Global: G2 LO: 8.2 20) Which one of the following compounds will be least soluble in water?

A) CH3NH2 B) CH3CH2OH C) CH3COOH D) CH3OCH3 Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 8-2 Global: G2 LO: 8.2 21) The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs is an example of which law involving gases?

A) Boyle's law B) Charles' law C) Avogadro's law D) Henry's law Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 8-2 Global: G1 LO: 8.2 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

22) Henry's law states the following: A) the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly related to the pressure of the gas above the liquid B) the solubility of a gas in a liquid is inversely related to the pressure of the gas above the liquid C) the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly related to the temperature of the liquid D) the solubility of a gas in a liquid is inversely related to the temperature of the liquid Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 8-2 Global: G1 LO: 8.2 23) In general, the solubility of ________ in water decreases as temperature increases.

A) liquids B) solids C) gases D) Solubility always increases with increasing temperature for all solutions.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 8-2 Global: G1 LO: 8.2 24) Pressure has a large effect only on the solubility of ________ in liquids.

A) liquid B) solid C) gas D) Pressure has no effect on solubility.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 8-2 Global: G1 LO: 8.2 25) Which one of the following compounds will be most soluble in hexane, a nonpolar solvent?

A) CH3CH2 OH B) CH3CH2CH2OH C) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 D) CH3OH Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 8-2 Global: G2 LO: 8.2

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26) A solution of sodium chloride and water is a good conductor of electricity. Due to this property, table salt is classified as a(n): A) weak electrolyte B) strong electrolyte C) non-electrolyte D) semi-electrolyte Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 8-3 Global: G1 LO: 8.3 27) A solution of sucrose (table sugar) and water does not conduct electricity. Due to this property, sucrose is classified as a(n): A) weak electrolyte B) strong electrolyte C) non-electrolyte D) semi-electrolyte Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 8-3 Global: G1 LO: 8.3 28) A solution of acetic acid (vinegar) and water barely lights a light bulb. This property means that vinegar is a(n): A) weak electrolyte B) strong electrolyte C) non-electrolyte D) semi-electrolyte Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 8-3 Global: G1 LO: 8.3 29) Which of the following is a typical chemical equation that represents a hydration reaction?

A) K2CO3 (s) 2K+(aq) + CO32-(aq) B) C6H12O6 (s) + 6 O2 (g) → 6 CO2 (g) + 6 H2O (l) C) 2 KClO3 (s) → 2 KCl (s) + 3 O2 (g) D) HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq) → NaCl (aq) + H2O (l) Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 8-3 Global: G2 LO: 8.3 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

30) Which of the following is a typical chemical equation that represents a hydration reaction?

A) BaCl2 (s) Ba2+(aq) + 2 Cl-(aq) B) CH4 (g) + 2 O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2 H2O (l) C) 2 Na (s) + Cl2 → 2 NaCl (s) D) HI (aq) + LiOH (aq) → NaI (aq) + H2O (l) Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 8-3 Global: G2 LO: 8.3 31) Which of the following is the correct hydration equation for the formation of an aqueous solution of calcium iodide?

A) CaI2 (s) Ca2+(aq) + 2 I-(aq) B) CaI2 (s)

Ca+(aq) + I2-(aq)

C) CaI2 (s)

Ca2+(aq) + I22-(aq)

D) CaI2 (s) + 2 H2O (l) → Ca(OH)2 (aq) + 2HI(aq) Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 8-3 Global: G2 LO: 8.3 32) What is the correct balanced hydration equation for (NH4)2CO3?

A) (NH4)2CO3(s) 2 NH4+(aq) + CO32-(aq) B) (NH4)2CO3(s)

(NH4)22+(aq) + CO32-(aq)

C) (NH4)2CO3(s)

NH4+(aq) + CO32-(aq)

D) (NH4)2CO3(s)

2 NH3(aq) + 2 H+(aq) + CO32-(aq)

Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 8-3 Global: G2 LO: 8.3

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33) Which one of these substances will exist in aqueous solution only as molecules?

A) CH3OH B) LiOH C) NH4OH D) CH3NH3 Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 8-3 Global: G2 LO: 8.3 34) Which one of these substances will exist in solution as mostly ions?

A) CH3OH B) LiOH C) CH3COOH D) CH3NH2 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 8-3 Global: G2 LO: 8.3 35) Which one of these substances will exist in solution as mostly molecules with some ions?

A) C2H5OH B) Ba(OH)2 C) CH3COOH D) KNO3 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 8-3 Global: G2 LO: 8.3 36) Which of the following is an example of a weak electrolyte?

A) MgCl2 B) HC2H3O2 C) HNO3 D) Na2CO3 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 8-3 Global: G2 LO: 8.3

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37) Which of the following is an example of a nonelectrolyte?

A) CaI2 B) HC2H3O2 C) C12H22O11 D) Na2SO4 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 8-3 Global: G2 LO: 8.3 38) Which one of the following shows an incorrect relationship between equivalents and moles?

A) B) C)

D) Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 8-3 Global: G2 LO: 8.3 39) How many equivalents of Li+ are present in a solution that contains 5.75 mol of Li+?

A) 0.575 eq B) 5.75 eq C) 2.88 eq D) 11.5 eq Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 8-3 Global: G4 LO: 8.3

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40) How many equivalents of Mg2+ are present in a solution that contains 2.75 mol of Mg+2?

A) 1.38 eq B) 2.75 eq C) 5.50 eq D) 27.5 eq Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 8-3 Global: G4 LO: 8.3 41) How many equivalents of Cl- are present in a solution that contains 5.82 mmol of Cl-?

A) 2.91 meq B) 5.82 meq C) 5.82 eq D) 11.6 meq Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 8-3 Global: G4 LO: 8.3 42) How many equivalents of PO43- are present in a solution that contains 4.50 mol of PO43-?

A) 1.50 eq B) 4.50 eq C) 9.00 eq D) 13.5 eq Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 8-3 Global: G4 LO: 8.3

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43) Which of the following equation is a correct balanced hydration equation for the hydration of Na2SO4?

A) Na2SO4 (s) 2 Na+ (aq) + SO42- (aq) B) Na2SO4 (s)

Na22+ (aq) + SO42- (aq)

C) Na2SO4 (s)

2 Na2+ (aq) + S2- (aq) + O42- (aq)

D) Na2SO4 (s)

Na+ (aq) + 2 SO42- (aq)

Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 8-3 Global: G2 LO: 8.3 44) What is 75% of 375?

A) 281 B) 28,125 C) 2.81 D) 0.281 Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 8-4 Global: G4 LO: 8.4 45) 45 is what percent of 150?

A) 0.30% B) 30% C) 0.0030% D) 3000% Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 8-4 Global: G4 LO: 8.4

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46) Calculate the mass percent of a solution prepared by dissolving 17.2 g of NaCl in 149 g of water.

A) 10.3% B) 11.5% C) 0.103% D) 0.115% Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 8-4 Global: G4 LO: 8.4 47) What is the percent mass/volume (%m/v) of a solution that is made from putting 25.0 g of NaCl in water to make 275 mL of solution?

A) 0.0909%m/v B) 9.09%m/v C) 8.33%m/v D) 10.9%m/v Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 8-4 Global: G4 LO: 8.4 48) What is the %v/v concentration of a sample of wine that contains 15 mL of ethyl alcohol in 200 mL of wine?

A) 0.075%v/v B) 7.0%v/v C) 7.5%v/v D) 0.070%v/v Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 8-4 Global: G4 LO: 8.4 49) What is the %v/v concentration of a solution made by adding 25 mL of acetone to 75 mL of water?

A) 0.25%v/v B) 25%v/v C) .33%v/v D) 33%v/v Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 8-4 Global: G4 LO: 8.4 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

50) What is the glucose concentration in ppm of a solution made by mixing 23.2 mg glucose with 2.000 L? A) 8.62 ppm B) 11.6 ppm C) 1.16 ppm D) 0.862 ppm Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 8-4 Global: G4 LO: 8.4 51) What is the lead concentration in ppb of a water sample that contains 28 μg of lead in 44 L? A) 0.064 ppb B) 0.64 ppb C) 64 ppb D) 1.57 ppb Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 8-4 Global: G4 LO: 8.4 52) Calculate the volume (in L) of a solution that contains 3.12 moles of NaCl if the concentration of this solution is 6.67 M NaCl? A) 2.14 L B) 20.8 L C) 46.8 L D) 0.468 L Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 8-4 Global: G4 LO: 8.4 53) What is the molarity of a solution formed by dissolving 45 g NaOH in water to give a final volume of 250 mL? A) 0.0045 M B) 0.18 M C) 4.5 M D) 9.0 M Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 8-4 Global: G4 LO: 8.4 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

54) What is the molarity of a solution that contains 36 mEq Ca2+ per liter?

A) 0.018 M B) 0.036 M C) 18 M D) 36 M Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 8-4 Global: G4 LO: 8.4 55) Calculate the volume (in mL) of a 2.75 M solution that must be diluted to make 1.25 L of a 0.150 M solution.

A) 0.0682 mL B) 68.2 mL C) 0.0330 mL D) 33.0 mL Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 8-5 Global: G4 LO: 8.5 56) What volume of 8.25 M NaOH solution must be diluted to prepare 2.40 L of 0.500 M NaOH solution?

A) 1.72 L B) 6.88 L C) 438 mL D) 145 mL Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 8-5 Global: G4 LO: 8.5 57) What is the molarity of a solution obtained by diluting 125 mL of 2.50 M NaOH to 575 mL? A) 0.272 M B) 0.543 M C) 1.84 M D) 11.5 M Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 8-5 Global: G4 LO: 8.5 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

58) How much water must be added when 125 mL of a 2.00 M solution of HCl is diluted to a final concentration of 0.400 M? A) 125 mL B) 500 mL C) 625 mL D) 750 mL Answer: B Diff: 3 Section: 8-5 Global: G4 LO: 8.5 59) To prevent the process of either crenation or hemolysis with red blood cells an intravenous solution concentration should be ________ to the concentration of blood.

A) hypotonic B) hypertonic C) isotonic D) either hypotonic or hypertonic Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 8-6 Global: G1 LO: 8.6 60) The process of crenation occurs when the concentration outside a cell is ________ and is said to be ________.

A) lower in concentration; hypotonic B) lower in concentration; hypertonic C) higher in concentration; hypotonic D) higher in concentration; hypertonic Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 8-6 Global: G1 LO: 8.6 61) A physiological saline solution has a concentration of 0.90 % m/v NaCl. Which of these solutions is hypotonic to the saline solution?

A) 0.25 % m/v NaCl B) 0.90 % m/v NaCl C) 1.00 % m/v NaCl D) 1. 90 % m/v NaCl Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 8-6 Global: G2 LO: 8.6 17 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

62) Which of the following statements is not true when describing what happens to a cell with a concentration of 0.9% m/v NaCl is placed into a solution with a 2.5 % m/v NaCl. A) The cell solution has the higher osmotic pressure.

B) Water flows out of the cell into the surrounding solution.

C) The cell undergoes crenation.

D) The surrounding solution has a higher osmotic pressure.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 8-6 Global: G2 LO: 8.6 63) The transport of nitrogen molecules across a cell membrane occurs via: A) passive diffusion B) facilitated transport C) active transport D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 8-7 Global: G1 LO: 8.7 64) The transport of glucose molecules across a cell membrane occurs via: A) passive diffusion B) facilitated transport C) active transport D) Glucose is transported across a cell membrane by any of passive diffusion, facilitated transport and active transport.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 8-7 Global: G1 LO: 8.7 65) Which of these entities is transported across a cell membrane via active transport?

A) CO2 B) cholesterol C) Na+, requiring no energy D) Cl-, requiring energy Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 8-7 Global: G1 LO: 8.7 18 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

66) Which of these entities is transported across a cell membrane via passive diffusion?

A) CO2 B) cholesterol C) Na+ D) ClAnswer: A Diff: 1 Section: 8-7 Global: G1 LO: 8.7 8.2 True/False Questions 1) A solution is a heterogeneous mixture.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G1 LO: 8.1 2) In a solution, the particles are distributed uniformly.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G1 LO: 8.1 3) Solutions can be a solid, a liquid, or a gas.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G1 LO: 8.1 4) A colloid is not a suspension.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G1 LO: 8.1

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5) Because blood is opaque it is a colloid.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G1 LO: 8.1 6) Blood is not a colloid but a suspension.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G1 LO: 8.1 7) In a colloid, the particles do not settle out over time.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G1 LO: 8.1 8) In a suspension, the particles do not settle out over time.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 8-1 Global: G1 LO: 8.1 9) The solubility of a gas increases with increasing temperature.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 8-2 Global: G1 LO: 8.2 10) The solubility of oxygen in water increases with increasing pressure.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 8-2 Global: G1 LO: 8.2

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11) NH4OH is a weak electrolyte.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 8-3 Global: G2 LO: 8.3 12) HF is a strong electrolyte.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 8-3 Global: G2 LO: 8.3 13) C2H5OH is a weak electrolyte.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 8-3 Global: G2 LO: 8.3 14) A hypotonic solution has a higher concentration than the cell contents.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 8-6 Global: G1 LO: 8.6 15) A hypertonic solution has a higher concentration than the cell contents.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 8-6 Global: G1 LO: 8.6 16) Crenation involves the shriveling of a cell as water is lost from it via osmosis.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 8-6 Global: G1 LO: 8.6

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17) Crenation occurs when a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 8-6 Global: G1 LO: 8.6 18) Diffusion involves the passage of solute particles from lower to higher solute concentration.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 8-6 Global: G1 LO: 8.6 19) Osmosis involves the passage of solvent particles from lower to higher solute concentration.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 8-6 Global: G1 LO: 8.6

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General, Organic, and Biological Chemistry, 4e (Frost) Chapter 9 Acids, Bases, and Buffers in the Body 9.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A Brønsted-Lowry acid is defined as a substance which: A) increases [H+] when placed in water B) decreases [H+] when placed in water C) acts as a proton acceptor in any system D) acts as a proton donor in any system Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 9-1 Global: G1 LO: 9.1 2) A Brønsted-Lowry base is defined as a substance which: A) acts as proton acceptor in any system B) acts as proton donor in any system C) decreases [H+] when placed in water D) increases [H+] when placed in water Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 9-1 Global: G1 LO: 9.1 3) An Arrhenius acid is defined as a substance which: A) acts as proton acceptor in any system B) acts as proton donor in any system C) decreases [H+] when placed in water D) increases [H+] when placed in water Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 9-1 Global: G1 LO: 9.1

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4) An Arrhenius base is defined as a substance which: A) acts as proton acceptor in any system B) acts as proton donor in any system C) increases [OH-] when placed in water D) increases [H+] when placed in water Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 9-1 Global: G1 LO: 9.1 5) Which of the following properties is not characteristic of an acid?

A) Has a sour taste B) Produces H+ in water C) Has a slippery feel D) Is neutralized by a base Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 9-1 Global: G1 LO: 9.1 6) Which of the following properties is not characteristic of a base?

A) Has a bitter taste B) Produces H+ in water C) Has a slippery feel D) Is neutralized by an acid Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 9-1 Global: G1 LO: 9.1 7) In the following equation, which is the proton donor and which is the proton acceptor?

CO32- (aq) + H2O (l) → HCO3- (aq) + OH- (aq) A) Donor: CO32-; acceptor: H2O B) Donor: H2O; acceptor: CO32C) Donor: HCO3-; acceptor: OHD) Donor: OH-; acceptor: HCO3Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 9-1 Global: G2 LO: 9.1 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Which of the following cannot act as a Brønsted-Lowry acid?

A) HSO4B) H2O C) CO32D) HSAnswer: C Diff: 2 Section: 9-1 Global: G2 LO: 9.1 9) In the following equation identify the Brønsted-Lowry acid and base, respectively: NH3 + HCN → NH4+ + CNA) NH3 and HCN B) HCN and NH3 C) NH4+ and CND) NH3 and NH4+ Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 9-1 Global: G2 LO: 9.1 10) Which of the following is not a strong acid?

A) HCl (aq) B) HNO3(aq) C) HC2H3O2 (aq) D) HClO4 (aq) Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 9-2 Global: G1 LO: 9.2 11) Which of the following is not a strong base?

A) NaOH B) NH3 C) KOH D) Ca(OH)2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 9-2 Global: G1 LO: 9.2 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) Which of the following is a strong base?

A) NH3 B) CH3OH C) Ba(OH)2 D) CH3COOH Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 9-2 Global: G1 LO: 9.2 13) Which of the following is a strong acid?

A) H3PO4 (aq) B) HNO3 (aq) C) NH3 (aq) D) OH- (aq) Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 9-2 Global: G1 LO: 9.2 14) Which of the following is a correct balanced equation for the neutralization reaction that occurs between Al(OH)3 and HCl (aq)?

A) Al(OH)3 + 3 HCl (aq) → AlCl3 + 3 H2O B) Al(OH)3 + HCl (aq) → AlCl3 + H2O C) Al(OH)3 + 3 HCl (aq) → AlCl3 + H+ + OHD) Al3+ + OH- + H+ + Cl- → AlCl3 + H2O Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 9-2 Global: G2 LO: 9.2

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15) Which of the following is a correct balanced equation for the neutralization reaction that occurs between LiOH and H2SO4 (aq)?

A) LiOH (aq) + 2 H2SO4 (aq) → Li2SO4+ 2 H2O B) 2 LiOH (aq) + H2SO4 (aq) → Li2SO4 + 2 H2O C) 2 LiOH (aq) + H2SO4 (aq) → Li2SO4 + H2O D) Li+ + OH- + H+ + SO4- → LiSO4 + H2O Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 9-2 Global: G2 LO: 9.2 16) The name of the acid HClO is: A) hypochlorous acid B) chlorous acid C) chloric acid D) perchloric acid Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 9-2 Global: G1 LO: 9.2 17) The formula of perchloric acid is: A) HClO B) HClO2 C) HClO3 D) HClO4 Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 9-2 Global: G1 LO: 9.2 18) Which of the following compounds will form CO2 and H2O when it reacts with an acid?

A) Mg(OH)2 B) CaCO3 C) NH3 D) NaC2H3O2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 9-2 Global: G2 LO: 9.2 5 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

19) Which of the following compounds will not form CO2 and H2O when it reacts with an acid?

A) Mg(OH)2 B) CaCO3 C) NaHCO3 D) Mg(HCO3)2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 9-2 Global: G1 LO: 9.2 20) Given the following reaction, the equilibrium expression will be: 4 CuO (s) + CH4 (g) ⇌ CO2 (g) + 4 Cu (s) + 2 H2O (g) A) [CuO]/[Cu] B) [CuO]4/[Cu]4 C) [Cu]4/[CuO]4 D) [CO2][H2O]2/[CH4] Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 9-3 Global: G2 LO: 9.3 21) Given the following reaction at equilibrium, the correct equilibrium expression will be: CH4 (g) + 2 O2 (g) ⇌ CO2 (g) + 2 H2O (g) A) [CO2][H2O]/[CH4][O2] B) [CO2][H2O]2/[CH4][O2]2 C) [CH4][O2]2/[CO2][H2O]2 D) [CO2]/[CH4][O2]2 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 9-3 Global: G2 LO: 9.3

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22) Which K value below corresponds to the system with the highest proportion of products?

A) K = 25 B) K = 125 C) K = 1.5 x 10-3 D) K = 1.2 x 103 Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 9-3 Global: G2 LO: 9.3 23) Which K value below corresponds to the system with the highest proportion of reactants?

A) K = 25 B) K = 0.067 C) K = 1.5 x 10-3 D) K = 1.2 x 103 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 9-3 Global: G2 LO: 9.3 24) The following reaction is exothermic. Which of the following will drive the reaction to the right (towards products)?

CH4 (g) + 2 O2 (g) ⇌ CO2 (g) + 2 H2O (g) A) A decrease in temperature B) An increase in temperature C) The removal of CH4 D) The addition of CO2 Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 9-3 Global: G2 LO: 9.3

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25) Consider the following system at equilibrium: SO2Cl2(g) ⇌ SO2(g) + Cl2(g) Identify which combination of the following changes will shift the equilibrium to the product side.

I. Addition of SO2Cl2 II. Addition of SO2 III. Removal of SO2Cl2 IV. Removal of Cl2 A) I + II B) III + IV C) I + IV D) II + III Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 9-3 Global: G2 LO: 9.3 26) Consider the following system at equilibrium: N2 (g) + 3 H2 (g) ⇌ 2 NH3 (g) + 92.94 kJ Which of the following changes will shift the equilibrium to the right?

1. Increasing the temperature 2. Decreasing the temperature 3. Removing some NH3 4. Adding some NH3 5. Removing some N2 6. Adding some N2 A) 2, 3, 6 B) 1, 4, 5 C) 1, 3, 6 D) 2, 4, 6 Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 9-3 Global: G2 LO: 9.3

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27) When a system is at equilibrium: A) the reaction rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse B) the reaction rate of the reverse reaction is small compared to forward C) the reaction rate of the forward reaction is small compared to the reverse D) the amount of product and reactant is exactly equal Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 9-3 Global: G1 LO: 9.3 28) Given the following reaction, write the equilibrium expression: C (s) + 2 H2 (g) ⇌ CH4 (g) A) [CH4]/[C][H2]2 B) [C][H2] C) [CH4]/[H2]2 D) [H2]2[C]/[CH4] Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 9-3 Global: G2 LO: 9.3 29) Which one of the following weak acids is the strongest?

A) HCN (Ka = 6.3 × 10-10) B) HClO (Ka = 3.0 × 10-8) C) HNO2 (Ka = 4.5 × 10-4) D) HF (Ka = 6.5 × 10-4) Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 9-4 Global: G3 LO: 9.4 30) Which one of the following is the weakest acid?

A) HCN (Ka = 6.3 × 10-10) B) HClO (Ka = 3.0 × 10-8) C) HNO2 (Ka = 4.5 × 10-4) D) HF (Ka = 6.5 × 10-4) Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 9-4 Global: G3 LO: 9.4 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

31) What is the conjugate base of OH-?

A) H2O B) OC) O2 D) O2Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 9-4 Global: G2 LO: 9.4 32) What is the conjugate acid of HS-?

A) S2B) H2S C) HSD) SAnswer: B Diff: 1 Section: 9-4 Global: G2 LO: 9.4 33) In the following equation identify the Brønsted-Lowry acids: H2O + CH3CO2H ⇌ H3O+ + CH3CO2A) H2O and CH3CO2B) CH3CO2H and H3O+ C) H2O and H3O+ D) CH3CO2H and CH3CO2Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 9-4 Global: G2 LO: 9.4

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34) In the following equation identify the Brønsted-Lowry acids: H2O + H2PO4- ⇌ OH- + H3PO4 A) H2O and H3PO4 B) H2PO4- and OHC) H2O and OHD) H2PO4- and H3PO4 Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 9-4 Global: G2 LO: 9.4 35) In the following equation identify the Brønsted-Lowry acids: H2O + H2SO4 ⇌ H3O+ + HSO4A) H2O and HSO4B) H2SO4 and H3O+ C) H2O and H3O+ D) H2SO4 and HSO4Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 9-4 Global: G2 LO: 9.4 36) In the following equation identify the Brønsted-Lowry bases: H2O + HPO42- ⇌ H3O+ + PO43A) H2O and PO43B) HPO42- and H3O+ C) H2O and H3O+ D) HPO42- and PO43Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 9-4 Global: G2 LO: 9.4

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37) Which of the following pairs is not a conjugate acid-base pair?

A) H2O and H3O+ B) H3PO4 and H2PO4C) H2O and O2D) NH3 and NH4+ Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 9-4 Global: G1 LO: 9.4 38) Which of the following pairs is not ordered correctly as a Brønsted-Lowry base and conjugate acid?

A) H2O and H3O+ B) H3PO4 and H2PO4C) H2PO4- and H3PO4 D) NH3 and NH4+ Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 9-4 Global: G1 LO: 9.4 39) Which of the following does not represent a conjugate acid-base pair?

A) H3O+/H2O B) HCN/CNC) HCl/ClD) HC2H3O2/OHAnswer: D Diff: 1 Section: 9-4 Global: G2 LO: 9.4

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40) What is the conjugate acid of NH3?

A) NH4+ B) NH2C) NH2+ D) NH4 Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 9-4 Global: G2 LO: 9.4 41) Which of the following does not represent a conjugate acid-base pair?

A) HCO3-/CO32B) H3PO4/HPO42C) OH-/O2D) NH4+/NH3 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 9-4 Global: G2 LO: 9.4 42) Which is the correct combination of Brønsted-Lowry bases in the following equilibrium?

H2PO4- + H2O ⇌ H3PO4 + OHA) H2PO4- and OHB) H2PO4- and H3PO4 C) H2O and H3PO4 D) H2O and OHAnswer: A Diff: 2 Section: 9-4 Global: G2 LO: 9.4

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43) Calculate the pH of 0.00756 M HNO3.

A) 11.879 B) 7.560 C) 2.121 D) 0.983 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 9-5 Global: G4 LO: 9.5 44) As Ka increases, the strength of the acid ________ and pH ________.

A) increases, decreases B) decreases, decreases C) increases, increases D) decreases, increases Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 9-4, 9-5 Global: G1 LO: 9.4, 9.5 45) In an acidic solution, pH is ________ and [H3O+] is ________.

A) = 7, 1 × 10-7 M B) > 7, < 1 × 10-7 M C) < 7, > 1 × 10-7 M D) < 7, < 1 × 10-7 M Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 9-5 Global: G1 LO: 9.5 46) In a basic solution, pH is ________ and [H3O+] is ________.

A) = 7, 1 × 10-7 M B) > 7, < 1 × 10-7 M C) < 7, > 1 × 10-7 M D) < 7, < 1 × 10-7 M Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 9-5 Global: G1 LO: 9.5

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47) What is the pH of a solution that has a [H3O+] = 1.2 × 10-3?

A) 1.20 B) 2.92 C) 11.08 D) 12.80 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 9-5 Global: G4 LO: 9.5 48) Which of these solutions is the most acidic?

A) [OH-] = 2 x 10-12 M B) [OH-] = 3 x 10-3 M C) [H3O+] = 4 x 10-4 M D) [H3O+] = 6 x 10-6 M Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 9-5 Global: G4 LO: 9.5 49) Which of these solutions is the most basic?

A) [OH-] = 2 x 10-6 M B) [OH-] = 3 x 10-4 M C) [H3O+] = 4 x 10-10 M D) [H3O+] = 6 x 10-9 M Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 9-5 Global: G4 LO: 9.5 50) Calculate the [H3O+] and the pH of a 0.021 M HNO3 solution.

A) 4.8 × 10-13 M and 12.32 B) 4.8 × 10-13 M and -12.32 C) 0.021 M and 1.68 D) 0.021 M and -1.68 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 9-5 Global: G4 LO: 9.5 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

51) What is the [H3O+] concentration of a solution that has a pH = 2.34?

A) 2.3 × 10-3 M B) 4.6 × 10-3 M C) 2.2 × 10-12 M D) 1.2 × 101 M Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 9-5 Global: G4 LO: 9.5 52) What is the [H3O+] concentration of a solution that has a pH = 11.61?

A) 1.2 × 101 M B) 1.0 × 10-14 M C) 2.5 × 10-12 M D) 4.1 × 1011 M Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 9-5 Global: G4 LO: 9.5 53) Which of the following pH levels represents a neutral solution?

A) 5.40 B) 7.00 C) 8.65 D) 1.25 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 9-5 Global: G1 LO: 9.5 54) Which of the following weak acids is the strongest?

A) H2PO4- pKa = 7.18 B) NH4+ pKa = 9.20 C) HC2H3O2 pKa = 4.76 D) HCO3- pKa = 10.32 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 9-6 Global: G2 LO: 9.6 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

55) Which of the following is the weakest acid?

A) H2PO4- pKa = 7.18 B) NH4+ pKa = 9.20 C) HC2H3O2 pKa = 4.76 D) HCO3- pKa = 10.32 Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 9-6 Global: G2 LO: 9.6 56) Consider the weak acid HCO3- whose pKa = 10.32, which form will predominate when the pH of the solution is 8.5?

A) HCO3B) CO32C) H2CO3 D) The concentrations of HCO3-, CO32-, and H2CO3 will be equal.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 9-6 Global: G2 LO: 9.6 57) Consider the weak acid HCO3- whose pKa = 10.32, which form will predominate when the pH of the solution is 12.00?

A) HCO3B) CO32C) H2CO3 D) The concentrations of HCO3-, CO32-, and H2CO3 will be equal.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 9-6 Global: G2 LO: 9.6

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58) If a weak acid has a pKa of 8.45, which of these statements would be correct if the ratio of the [conjugate base]/[acid] = 3?

A) pH > pKa B) pH < pKa C) pH = pKa D) There is insufficient information to determine what pH is.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 9-7 Global: G2 LO: 9.7 59) In this equilibrium, which is the correct statement describing what happens when [H3O+] increases?

A) Equilibrium shifts left and pH increases B) Equilibrium shifts left and pH decreases C) Equilibrium shifts right and pH increases D) Equilibrium shifts right and pH decreases Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 9-7 Global: G2 LO: 9.7 60) Which of the following substances, when added to a solution of nitrous acid (HNO2), could be used to prepare a buffer solution?

A) HCl B) NaCl C) HC2H3O2 D) NaNO2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 9-8 Global: G2 LO: 9.8

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61) Which of the following buffers is the one that is mainly contained in our blood?

A) HC2H3O2/C2H3O2B) NH4+/NH3 C) H2CO3/HCO3D) HPO42-/PO43Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 9-8 Global: G1 LO: 9.8 62) When a person hyperventilates, the condition is known as: A) respiratory acidosis B) respiratory alkalosis C) metabolic acidosis D) metabolic alkalosis Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 9-8 Global: G1 LO: 9.8 63) When a person does excess vomiting the condition the blood develops is called: A) respiratory acidosis B) respiratory alkalosis C) metabolic acidosis D) metabolic alkalosis Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 9-8 Global: G1 LO: 9.8 64) When a diabetic does not have enough glucose in their blood it develops a condition called: A) respiratory acidosis B) respiratory alkalosis C) metabolic acidosis D) metabolic alkalosis Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 9-8 Global: G1 LO: 9.8

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9.2 True/False Questions 1) A Brønsted-Lowry acid accepts protons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 9-1 Global: G1 LO: 9.1 2) A Brønsted-Lowry base accepts protons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 9-1 Global: G1 LO: 9.1 3) An Arrhenius acid accepts protons.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 9-1 Global: G1 LO: 9.1 4) An Arrhenius acid increases [H+] when placed in water.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 9-1 Global: G1 LO: 9.1 5) An Arrhenius base increases [H+] when placed in water.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 9-1 Global: G1 LO: 9.1 6) In the equilibrium HPO42-(aq) + H2O(l) ⇌ H2PO4-(aq) + OH-(aq), H2O is a Brønsted and Lowry acid.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 9-4 Global: G2 LO: 9.4

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7) The equilibrium constant expression for the reaction, 2 HgO(s) ⇌ 2 Hg(l) + O2(g) is K = .

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 9-3 Global: G2 LO: 9.3 8) An equilibrium with a large value of K favors the reactants.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 9-3 Global: G1 LO: 9.3 9) The strength of an acid increases as Ka increases.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 9-4 Global: G1 LO: 9.4 10) When CO2 is bubbled into water at pH 7, the pH decreases.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Section: 9-5 Global: G1 LO: 9.5 11) The strength of an acid increases as pKa increases.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 9-6 Global: G1 LO: 9.6 12) pKa = log10[H3O+].

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 9-6 Global: G1 LO: 9.6

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13) A 1.0 M solution of an acid with a pKa of 5.65 has higher [H3O+] than a 1.0 M solution of an acid with pKa of 6.75.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 9-6 Global: G2 LO: 9.6 14) In a solution where pH = pKa, the concentration of the acid form is equal to that of the conjugate base.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 9-7 Global: G1 LO: 9.7 15) In a solution where pH > pKa, the concentration of the acid form is greater than that of the conjugate base.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 9-7 Global: G1 LO: 9.7 16) When the pH of a solution of a weak acid is less than the pKa, the concentration of the acid form is greater than that of the conjugate base.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 9-7 Global: G2 LO: 9.7

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General, Organic, and Biological Chemistry, 4e (Frost) Chapter 10 Proteins — Workers of the Cell 10.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following amino acids is an essential amino acid in the diets of children but not adults?

A) Arginine B) Lysine C) Aspartate D) Glycine Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1 2) How many amino acids are essential in humans?

A) 5 B) 10 C) 18 D) 20 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1 3) What type of amino acid is phenylalanine?

A) Polar neutral B) Nonpolar neutral C) Acidic D) Basic Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1

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4) What type of amino acid is tyrosine?

A) Polar neutral B) Nonpolar neutral C) Acidic D) Basic Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1 5) What type of amino acid is glutamic acid?

A) Polar neutral B) Nonpolar neutral C) Acidic D) Basic Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1 6) What type of amino acid is histidine?

A) Polar neutral B) Nonpolar neutral C) Acidic D) Basic Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1 7) What are the three letter and one letter designation for tyrosine?

A) Tyr, Y B) Trp, W C) Thr, T D) Tyr, H Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1

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8) What type of amino acid is represented by this molecule?

A) Polar neutral B) Polar acidic C) Polar basic D) Nonpolar Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 10-1 Global: G2 LO: 10.1 9) What type of amino acid is represented by this molecule?

A) Polar neutral B) Polar acidic C) Polar basic D) Nonpolar Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 10-1 Global: G2 LO: 10.1 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) What are the three letter and one letter designation for asparagine?

A) Asp, D B) Asp, N C) Asn, N D) Asn, P Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1 11) What are the three letter and one letter designation for aspartate?

A) Asp, D B) Asp, N C) Asn, N D) Asn, P Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1 12) Which of the following amino acids contains sulfur in the side chain?

A) Phenylalanine B) Cysteine C) Tyrosine D) Glycine Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1 13) Which of the following amino acids contains an aromatic ring in the side chain?

A) Tryptophan B) Serine C) Proline D) Glutamine Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1

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14) All amino acids contain a chiral carbon except for one. Which one?

A) Phenylalanine B) Cysteine C) Glycine D) Histidine Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1 15) Which of the following amino acids is classified as being hydrophobic?

A) Histidine B) Cysteine C) Arginine D) Phenylalanine Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1 16) Which of the following amino acids is classified as being hydrophilic?

A) Leucine B) Aspartate C) Valine D) Proline Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1 17) Which list contains only nonpolar amino acids?

A) Gly, Leu, Ile, Phe B) Ser, Thr, Gln, Asn C) Asp, Glu, His, Arg D) Gly, Ile, Gln, Glu Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1

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18) Which list contains only neutral polar amino acids?

A) Ser, Cys, Phe, Glu B) Asn, Gln, Cys, Tyr C) Cys, Asn, His, Arg D) Lys, Glu, Thr, Tyr Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1 19) Which list contains only essential amino acids?

A) Pro, Met, Val, Leu B) Thr, Glu, His, Lys C) His, Lys, Trp, Ile D) Ala, Val, Phe, Met Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1 20) An essential amino acid is defined as one that: A) occurs in human protein B) occurs in all animal protein C) must be part of the proteins of the food supply of humans D) is capable of being synthesized within the human body Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1 21) Corn is an incomplete protein because it lacks one or more: A) amino acids B) amino acids containing sulfur C) free amino acids D) essential amino acids Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1

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22) Which is not a characteristic element of proteins?

A) Cl B) C C) H D) N Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1 23) How many different amino acids can combine to form human proteins?

A) 10 B) 20 C) 35 D) 45 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1 24) This dipeptide is designated as:

A) Ser-Lys B) Ser-Cys C) Cys-Ser D) Lys-Ser Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 10-2 Global: G2 LO: 10.2

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25) This dipeptide is designated as:

A) Asn-Gln B) Asp-Glu C) Gln-Asn D) Glu-Asp Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 10-2 Global: G2 LO: 10.2

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26) This dipeptide is designated as:

A) Asn-Gln B) Asp-Glu C) Gln-Asn D) Glu-Asp Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 10-2 Global: G2 LO: 10.2 27) This dipeptide is designated as:

A) Val-Leu B) Leu-Val C) Ile-Val D) Val-Ile Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 10-2 Global: G2 LO: 10.2 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) This dipeptide is designated as:

A) Ile-Leu B) Leu-Val C) Ile-Val D) Leu-Ile Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 10-2 Global: G2 LO: 10.2 29) Which amino acid is the N-terminal group in the following peptide?

Gly-Ala-Val-Phe-Tyr A) Gly B) Ala C) Val D) Tyr Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 10-2 Global: G2 LO: 10.2

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30) Which amino acid is the N-terminal group in the following peptide?

Asn-Ser-Glu-Phe-Asp A) Asn B) Asp C) Phe D) Glu Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 10-2 Global: G2 LO: 10.2 31) The structure among the following that represents an amide (protein) bond is: A)

B)

C)

D) Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 10-2 Global: G1 LO: 10.2 32) Which amino acid is the C-terminal group in the following peptide?

Gly-Ala-Val-Phe-Tyr A) Gly B) Ala C) Val D) Tyr Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 10-2 Global: G2 LO: 10.2 11 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

33) Which amino acid is the C-terminal group in the following peptide?

Asn-Ser-Glu-Phe-Asp A) Asn B) Asp C) Phe D) Glu Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 10-2 Global: G2 LO: 10.2 34) What amino acids are involved in the following tripeptide?

A) Lys-His-Phe B) Lys-His-Tyr C) His-Lys-Phe D) Tyr-His-Lys Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 10-2 Global: G2 LO: 10.2

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35) What amino acids are involved in the following tripeptide?

A) Met-Cys-Leu B) Leu-Cys-Met C) Met-Cys-Ile D) Cys-Met-Leu Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 10-2 Global: G2 LO: 10.2 36) The sequence of amino acids represents the ________ structure of a protein.

A) secondary B) tertiary C) quaternary D) primary Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 10-3 Global: G1 LO: 10.3

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37) The pattern the backbone folds, for example alpha-helix or beta pleated sheet, is the ________ structure of a protein.

A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 10-3 Global: G1 LO: 10.3 38) The interaction of the side chains on the amino acids, for example hydrophobic attractions, is the ________ structure of a protein.

A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 10-3 Global: G1 LO: 10.3 39) Which type of forces stabilizes the primary structure of a protein?

A) Peptide bonds B) Hydrogen bonding between the carbonyl group and amino group C) Salt bridges D) Dipole-dipole Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 10-3 Global: G1 LO: 10.3 40) Which type of forces stabilizes the secondary structure of a protein?

A) Peptide bonds B) Hydrogen bonding between the carbonyl group and amino group C) Salt bridges D) Dipole-dipole Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 10-3 Global: G1 LO: 10.3

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41) Which pair of amino acids can have nonpolar (hydrophobic) interactions?

A) Arginine and glutamate B) Phenylalanine and valine C) Cysteine and cysteine D) Tyrosine and serine Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 10-3 Global: G2 LO: 10.3 42) Which pair of amino acids can have nonpolar (hydrophobic) interactions?

A) Isoleucine and valine B) Serine and valine C) Tyrosine and cysteine D) Aspartate and glutamate Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 10-3 Global: G2 LO: 10.3 43) Which pair of amino acids can have hydrogen-bonded interactions?

A) Isoleucine and valine B) Tyrosine and serine C) Tyrosine and glycine D) Aspartate and glutamate Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 10-3 Global: G2 LO: 10.3 44) What type of stabilizing interaction could there be between the side chains of glutamic acid and lysine?

A) Disulfide bonds B) Hydrogen bonds C) Hydrophobic interactions D) Salt bridges Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 10-3 Global: G2 LO: 10.3

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45) What type of stabilizing interaction could there be between the side chains of two cysteine amino acids?

A) Disulfide bonds B) Hydrogen bonds C) Hydrophobic interactions D) Salt bridges Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 10-3 Global: G2 LO: 10.3 46) What type of stabilizing interaction could there be between the side chains of serine and threonine?

A) Disulfide bonds B) Hydrogen bonds C) Hydrophobic interactions D) Salt bridges Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 10-3 Global: G2 LO: 10.3 47) What type of stabilizing interaction would be expected between phenylalanine and valine?

A) Salt bridges B) Hydrogen bonds C) Disulfide bonds D) Hydrophobic interaction Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 10-3 Global: G2 LO: 10.3

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48) Identify the amino acid that would only involve hydrophobic interactions in the tertiary structure of a protein.

A)

B)

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C)

D)

Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 10-3 Global: G2 LO: 10.3

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49) Identify the amino acid that could form salt bridge interactions in the tertiary structure of a protein.

A)

B)

C)

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D)

Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 10-3 Global: G2 LO: 10.3 50) The alpha-helix is an example of: A) primary structure B) secondary structure C) tertiary structure D) quaternary structure Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 10-3 Global: G1 LO: 10.3 51) What type of interaction is involved in the tertiary structure of a protein?

A) Hydrogen bonding B) Salt bridges C) Disulfide bonds D) All of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 10-3 Global: G2 LO: 10.3

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52) Which of the following is an example of globular protein?

A) Keratins B) Collagen C) Myoglobin D) Skin Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 10-3 Global: G1 LO: 10.3 53) Which of the following is an example of a fibrous protein?

A) Collagen B) Myoglobin C) Hemoglobin D) Albumin Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 10-3 Global: G1 LO: 10.3 54) A protein that is comprised of two or more protein chains that interact to make the overall structure is called the: A) primary structure B) secondary structure C) tertiary structure D) quaternary structure Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 10-3 Global: G1 LO: 10.3 55) Heavy metals such as Pb2+ or Hg2+ denature proteins by reacting with: A) the proline residues B) the OH group of tyrosine residues C) the SH group of cysteine residues D) the NH2 group of glutamine Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 10-4 Global: G2 LO: 10.4

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56) Detergents would most likely disrupt what type of stabilizing interaction?

A) Salt bridges B) Hydrogen bonds C) Disulfide bonds D) Hydrophobic interaction Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 10-4 Global: G1 LO: 10.4 57) Heavy metal ions like Pb2+ and Ag+ would most likely disrupt what type of stabilizing interaction?

A) Salt bridges B) Salt bridges and disulfide bonds C) Disulfide bonds D) Hydrophobic interaction Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 10-4 Global: G1 LO: 10.4 58) Reducing agents would most likely disrupt what type of stabilizing interaction?

A) Salt bridges B) Hydrogen bonds C) Disulfide bonds D) Hydrophobic interaction Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 10-4 Global: G1 LO: 10.4 59) Mechanical agitation would most likely disrupt what type of stabilizing interaction?

A) Salt bridges B) Hydrogen bonds C) Disulfide bonds D) Hydrophobic interaction Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 10-4 Global: G1 LO: 10.4

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60) Each of the following can cause a protein to denature except: A) heat B) detergents C) enzyme treatment D) change in pH Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 10-4 Global: G1 LO: 10.4 61) The difference between normal and sickle cell hemoglobin is that valine replaces glutamic acid in one of the polypeptide chains; this indicates a change in what part of the protein structure?

A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 10-5 Global: G1 LO: 10.5 62) Which of the following is an example of a transport protein?

A) Hemoglobin B) Collagen C) Pepsin D) Oxytocin Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 10-5 Global: G1 LO: 10.5 63) Which of the following is an example of a structure protein?

A) Hemoglobin B) Collagen C) Pepsin D) Oxytocin Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 10-5 Global: G1 LO: 10.5

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64) Which of the following is an example of a storage protein?

A) Casein B) Collagen C) Actin D) Insulin Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 10-5 Global: G1 LO: 10.5 65) Which of the following is an example of a messenger protein?

A) Casein B) Collagen C) Actin D) Insulin Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 10-5 Global: G1 LO: 10.5 66) Which of the following proteins has a distinctive Y-shape?

A) Hemoglobin B) Collagen C) Antibodies D) Integral protein Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 10-5 Global: G1 LO: 10.5 67) Which of the following proteins has a roughly spherical structure?

A) Hemoglobin B) Collagen C) Antibodies D) Integral protein Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 10-5 Global: G1 LO: 10.5

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68) The area on the enzyme that interacts with the substrate is called the: A) regulatory site B) modulator site C) active site D) allosteric site Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 10-6 Global: G1 LO: 10.6 69) Some enzyme requires a nonprotein organic component to have full activity. This nonprotein component is called a: A) cofactor B) coenzyme C) regulator D) substrate Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 10-6 Global: G1 LO: 10.6 70) An inorganic substance that assists in an enzyme catalytic process is called a: A) cofactor B) coenzyme C) regulator D) substrate Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 10-6 Global: G1 LO: 10.6 71) What is the primary function of enzymes?

A) Neurotransmitters B) Biochemical catalysts C) Structure D) Transport Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 10-6 Global: G1 LO: 10.6

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72) Enzymes function as a catalyst by: A) lowering the overall energy change in a reaction B) changing the equilibrium constant C) increasing the amount of time it takes for a reaction to take place D) lowering the activation energy of a reaction Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 10-6 Global: G1 LO: 10.6 73) Some enzymes require certain metal ions, such as Mg2+ or Zn2+, to have full activity. This component is called a: A) cofactor B) coenzyme C) regulator D) substrate Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 10-6 Global: G1 LO: 10.6 74) An enzyme will only increase the rate of certain reactions with certain substances. This characteristic is called: A) selectivity B) specificity C) regulation D) inhibition Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 10-6 Global: G1 LO: 10.6 75) The model that explains that the substrate fits exactly into the active site of an enzyme is called: A) induced fit B) lock and key C) substrate selectivity D) coenzyme Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 10-6 Global: G1 LO: 10.6 26 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

76) The model that explains that the active site of an enzyme is flexible and will mold to the shape of the substrate is called: A) induced fit B) lock and key C) substrate selectivity D) coenzyme Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 10-6 Global: G1 LO: 10.6 77) What factors can influence the speed of a reaction by an enzyme?

A) The orientation of the reactants B) The weakening of bond energies in the reactants C) The closeness of the reactants to each other in the active site D) All of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 10-6 Global: G1 LO: 10.6 78) A molecule that is similar in terms of the correct structure to the substrate for an enzyme will probably be a: A) cofactor B) regulator C) competitive inhibitor D) noncompetitive inhibitor Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 10-7 Global: G2 LO: 10.7 79) The process of competitive inhibition can be overcome by: A) increasing the pH B) increasing the substrate concentration C) decreasing the temperature D) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 10-7 Global: G2 LO: 10.7

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80) The pH of the environment in which an enzyme is located can influence the reactivity because a change in pH: A) can hydrolyze the protein B) can produce protonation or deprotonation of residues in the active site C) changes the primary structure D) affects the optical activity Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 10-7 Global: G2 LO: 10.7 81) Heavy metals such as Pb2+ or Hg2+ act as a(n) ________ inhibitor.

A) irreversible B) reversible C) noncompetitive D) competitive Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 10-7 Global: G1 LO: 10.7 82) When a molecule binds to an enzyme at a site other than the active site and affects enzyme shape it is called a(n): A) noncompetitive inhibitor B) competitive inhibitor C) irreversible inhibitor D) covalent modification Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 10-7 Global: G2 LO: 10.7 83) The point at which an enzyme reacts at its maximum activity is called a: A) pH dependence B) steady state C) saturation point D) reaction maximum Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 10-7 Global: G1 LO: 10.7

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84) The optimum pH for an enzyme such as pepsin that works to break down peptide bonds would be: A) acidic B) basic C) neutral D) either acidic or basic Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 10-7 Global: G2 LO: 10.7 85) The optimum pH for an enzyme such as hexokinase that phosphorylates glucose in the blood would be: A) 2.0 B) 7.5 C) 9.0 D) 12.0 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 10-7 Global: G2 LO: 10.7 86) The optimum pH for an enzyme such as arginase that acts on arginine in the liver would be: A) 2.0 B) 7.5 C) 9.7 D) 12.0 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 10-7 Global: G2 LO: 10.7 87) Temperatures above the optimum temperature of an enzyme will: A) denature it B) make the reaction rate increase C) slow down the reaction D) have no effect on the enzyme's activity Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 10-7 Global: G2 LO: 10.7

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88) A reversible inhibitor is one that: A) binds permanently to the enzyme B) binds temporarily to the enzyme C) denatures the enzyme D) activates the enzyme Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 10-7 Global: G2 LO: 10.7 89) Penicillin is an example of a(n): A) irreversible inhibitor B) reversible inhibitor C) activator D) noncompetitive inhibitor Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 10-7 Global: G1 LO: 10.7 90) The use of ethanol to combat methanol poisoning in humans is an example of a(n): A) irreversible inhibitor B) competitive inhibitor C) activator D) noncompetitive inhibitor Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 10-7 Global: G2 LO: 10.7 10.2 True/False Questions 1) Essential amino acids cannot be synthesized in the body.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1

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2) His, Lys and Arg are all essential amino acids.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1 3) There are 20 essential amino acids.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 10-1 Global: G1 LO: 10.1 4) In a dipeptide, the amino terminus is called the N-terminus.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 10-2 Global: G1 LO: 10.2 5) Esters, amides and glycosides are all formed from condensation reactions.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 10-2 Global: G1 LO: 10.2 6) In a salt bridge the interaction is ionic.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 10-3 Global: G1 LO: 10.3 7) In a disulfide bond, the interaction is covalent.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 10-3 Global: G1 LO: 10.3

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8) The order of the amino acids in a protein is the secondary structure.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 10-3 Global: G1 LO: 10.3 9) In the amino acid sequence, Asp-Arg-Val-Tyr-Ile, the N-terminus is at Asp and the Cterminus is at Ile. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Section: 10-3 Global: G2 LO: 10.3 10) The alpha helix and beta-pleated sheet are both examples of primary protein structure.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 10-3 Global: G1 LO: 10.3 11) The alpha helix is stabilized by hydrogen bonding.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 10-3 Global: G1 LO: 10.3 12) Nonpolar amino acids are found on the inside surface of a globular protein.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Section: 10-3 Global: G1 LO: 10.3 13) The alpha helix is the predominant structural feature in a fibrous protein.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Section: 10-3 Global: G2 LO: 10.3

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General, Organic, and Biological Chemistry, 4e (Frost) Chapter 11 Nucleic Acids — Big Molecules with a Big Role 11.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A feature that distinguishes ribose from deoxyribose is the absence of an OH at the: A) 2'-carbon B) 3'-carbon C) 1'-carbon D) 5'-carbon Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1 2) The sugar that is part of the backbone of DNA contains how many carbon atoms?

A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1 3) A nucleotide consists of a: A) a pentose + a nitrogenous base B) a pentose + a phosphate C) a pentose + a phosphate + a nitrogenous base D) a phosphate + a nitrogenous base Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1

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4) A nucleoside consists of a: A) a pentose + a nitrogenous base B) a pentose + a phosphate C) a pentose + a phosphate + a nitrogenous base D) a phosphate + a nitrogenous base Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1 5) Adenine is the name of a(n): A) nucleoside B) purine base C) nucleotide D) amino acid Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1 6) Cytosine is the name of a(n): A) pyrimidine base B) purine base C) amino acid D) nucleoside Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1 7) Uracil is the name of a(n): A) pyrimidine base B) purine base C) amino acid D) nucleoside Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1

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8) Identify the base not found in DNA. A) Adenine B) Guanine C) Cytosine D) Uracil Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1 9) Which of these bases are found in both DNA and RNA? A) Adenine B) Guanine C) Thymine D) Both adenine and guanine Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1 10) When adenine is connected to the deoxyribose sugar and a phosphate, its name becomes: A) adenine B) adenosine C) adenosine monophosphate D) adenine monophosphate Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1 11) When guanine is connected to the deoxyribose sugar, its name becomes: A) guanosine monophosphate B) guanosine C) guanine D) guanine monophosphate Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1

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12) When cytosine is connected to the deoxyribose sugar and a phosphate, its name becomes: A) cytosine B) cytidine C) cytosine monophosphate D) cytidine monophosphate Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1 13) The reaction of a nucleoside with phosphate to create a nucleotide is an example of a ________ reaction.

A) oxidation B) hydrogenation C) condensation D) replacement Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1 14) The reaction of a 5-carbon sugar with a nitrogenous base to form a nucleoside is an example of a ________ reaction.

A) oxidation B) hydrogenation C) condensation D) replacement Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1

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15) The structure of cytosine is: A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1

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16) The structure of adenine is: A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1

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17) The structure of thymine is: A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1

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18) The structure of guanine is: A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1

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19) The glycosidic bond that connects the sugar and the purine base is at what position on the base?

A) N-1 atom B) N-9 atom C) N-3 atom D) C-8 atom Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 11-1 Global: G2 LO: 11.1 20) The glycosidic bond that connects the sugar and the pyrimidine base is at what position on the base?

A) N-1 atom B) N-9 atom C) N-3 atom D) C-8 atom Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 11-1 Global: G2 LO: 11.1 21) At which carbon atom in ribose or deoxyribose is the glycosidic bond formed?

A) 1' B) 3' C) 4' D) 5' Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1 22) Which of the following nitrogenous bases is found only in RNA? A) Adenine B) Thymine C) Uracil D) Cytosine Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1

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23) Guanine is what type of nitrogenous base?

A) Purine B) Pyrimidine C) Pyrrole D) Porphyrin Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1 24) Thymine is what type of nitrogenous base?

A) Purine B) Pyrimidine C) Pyrrole D) Porphyrin Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1

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25) Identify the components in this nucleoside:

A) deoxyribose + cytosine B) ribose + cytosine C) deoxyribose + thymine D) ribose + uracil Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 11-1 Global: G2 LO: 11.1 26) Which nucleotide is not found in RNA? A) CMP B) UMP C) AMP D) dAMP Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1

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27) The backbone in a nucleic acids strand is called: A) glycosidic bond B) phosphodiester backbone C) sugar backbone D) peptide backbone Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 11-2 Global: G1 LO: 11.2 28) A phosphodiester consists of ________ phosphate groups and ________ sugar molecule(s).

A) 2, 1 B) 1, 2 C) 2, 2 D) 1, 1 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 11-2 Global: G1 LO: 11.2 29) The sequence GCCCTGA has the A at the: A) 5'-end B) 3'-end C) can be either the 5' or 3'-end D) depends on size of DNA Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 11-2 Global: G2 LO: 11.2

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30) Identify the correct sequence for this nucleic acid sequence.

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A) AGCT B) TCGA C) ACGT D) TGCA Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 11-2 Global: G2 LO: 11.2

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31) Identify the correct sequence for this nucleic acid sequence.

A) GCUG B) TCAT C) GUCG D) GCAT Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 11-2 Global: G2 LO: 11.2

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32) The phosphodiester bond that forms between two adjacent sugars is connected via which two carbons of the sugar molecules?

A) 1' and 5' B) 3' and 5' C) 2' and 6' D) 1' and 6' Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 11-2 Global: G2 LO: 11.2 33) The backbone of a nucleic acid strand consists of: A) alternating nitrogen bases and phosphate groups linked by amide bonds B) alternating sugar and nitrogen bases liked by peptide bonds C) alternating sugar and phosphate groups linked by phosphate ester bonds D) complimentary bases held together by hydrogen bonds Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 11-2 Global: G1 LO: 11.2 34) A correct set of complimentary base pairs in DNA are: A) AU B) GC C) AG D) TC Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 11-3 Global: G1 LO: 11.3 35) Complementary base pairs are held together by: A) ionic bonds B) covalent bonds C) hydrogen bonds D) ion-dipole forces Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 11-3 Global: G1 LO: 11.3

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36) A correct set of complimentary base pairs in DNA are: A) AU B) TC C) AT D) GA Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 11-3 Global: G1 LO: 11.3 37) The complementary base of adenine is: A) thymine B) uracil C) guanidine D) both uracil and thymine are complementary bases of adenine.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 11-3 Global: G1 LO: 11.3 38) The complementary base of thymine is: A) adenine B) uracil C) guanidine D) cytosine Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 11-3 Global: G1 LO: 11.3 39) The complementary base of cytosine is: A) adenine B) uracil C) guanidine D) thymine Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 11-3 Global: G1 LO: 11.3

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40) The complementary base of guanidine is: A) adenine B) uracil C) thymine D) cytosine Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 11-3 Global: G1 LO: 11.3 41) The base pair adenine and thymine form how many hydrogen bonds with each other?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 11-3 Global: G1 LO: 11.3 42) The base pairs guanine and cytosine form how many hydrogen bonds with each other?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 11-3 Global: G1 LO: 11.3 43) What is the complimentary DNA sequence to the strand below?

C-G-G-T-T-A-G A) G-C-C-A-A-T-C B) C-G-G-T-T-A-G C) A-T-T-G-G-C-T D) G-C-C-U-U-U-C Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 11-3 Global: G2 LO: 11.3

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44) What is complimentary DNA sequence for the strand TCGA? A) TGCA B) AGCT C) CTAC D) GATC Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 11-3 Global: G2 LO: 11.3 45) The hydrogen bonding in the AT base pair involves the nitrogen atoms in the purine ring associated with the: A) 6-membered ring B) 5-membered ring C) both the 5- and 6-membered rings D) neither 5- and 6-membered rings Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 11-3 Global: G1 LO: 11.3 46) What type of bonding holds the double strand of DNA together?

A) Covalent bonding B) Ionic bonding C) Hydrogen bonding D) Disulfide bridges Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 11-3 Global: G1 LO: 11.3 47) The tertiary structure of a DNA double strand is further twisted into what is called: A) supercoiling B) wrapping C) twisting D) chromosomes Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 11-3 Global: G1 LO: 11.3

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48) The proteins that the tertiary structure of a DNA double strand is coiled around are called: A) histones B) enzymes C) steroids D) amino acids Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 11-3 Global: G1 LO: 11.3 49) The 3'-end of a tRNA molecule: A) contains the anticodon loop B) binds to a specific amino acid C) has no known function D) binds to rRNA Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 11-4 Global: G1 LO: 11.4 50) Which type of RNA is involved in the process of transcription?

A) Transfer RNA B) Ribosomal RNA C) Messenger RNA D) Viral RNA Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 11-4 Global: G1 LO: 11.4 51) To make a protein, a copy of the DNA must be done by which type of RNA? A) Messenger RNA B) Ribosomal RNA C) Viral RNA D) Transfer RNA Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 11-4 Global: G1 LO: 11.4

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52) Which of these forms of RNA is not involved in transforming a DNA sequence into a protein in normal cells?

A) Messenger RNA B) Ribosomal RNA C) Viral RNA D) Transfer RNA Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 11-4 Global: G1 LO: 11.4 53) The protein factory in a cell is contained in a ribosome. The ribosome is made of what type of nucleic acid strands?

A) mRNA B) rRNA C) tRNA D) vRNA Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 11-4 Global: G1 LO: 11.4 54) The beginning process of protein synthesis by DNA is called: A) translation B) transcription C) transfer D) copying Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 11-4 Global: G1 LO: 11.4 55) The second step of protein synthesis occurs in the ribosomes and is called: A) translation B) transcription C) transfer D) copying Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 11-4 Global: G1 LO: 11.4

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56) The enzyme responsible for catalyzing gene copying is called: A) messenger RNA B) ribosomal RNA C) transfer RNA D) RNA polymerase Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 11-4 Global: G1 LO: 11.4 57) How many bases are in the sequence in an anticodon?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 11-4 Global: G1 LO: 11.4 58) The type of RNA that contains the anticodon for an amino acid is called: A) mRNA B) rRNA C) tRNA D) vRNA Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 11-4 Global: G1 LO: 11.4 59) The type of RNA that contains the amino acid covalently bound to it is called: A) tRNA B) rRNA C) mRNA D) vRNA Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 11-4 Global: G1 LO: 11.4

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60) The sequence of bases in a DNA template is 5'ACATGCAT3". What is the correct sequence in the corresponding mRNA strand?

A) 3'UGUACGUA5' B) 5'UGUACGUA3' C) 3'TGTACGTA5' D) 5'TGTACGTA3' Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 11-4 Global: G2 LO: 11.4 61) In protein synthesis, the initial amino acid is always: A) glycine B) cysteine C) methionine D) alanine Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 11-5 Global: G1 LO: 11.5 62) The initiating codon in protein synthesis is: A) GGG B) AUG C) GUA D) ATG Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 11-5 Global: G2 LO: 11.5 63) Which of these sequences does not represent a STOP codon?

A) UAA B) UAG C) UGA D) UGG Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 11-5 Global: G2 LO: 11.5

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64) What is the amino acid sequence coded from the following mRNA sequence?

CUC-ACU-CAU-AGC A) Leu-Thr-His-Ser B) Ser-His-Thr-Leu C) Pro-Gln-Trp-Gly D) Ala-Ser-His-Thr Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 11-5 Global: G2 LO: 11.5 65) What is the amino acid sequence coded from the following mRNA sequence?

GUU-AGC-ACA-CAU A) Ala-Ser-Thr-Gln B) Val-Ser-Thr-Gln C) Val-Ser-Thr-His D) Ala-Ser-Thr-His Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 11-5 Global: G2 LO: 11.5 66) The codons ACU, ACC, ACA, and ACG all code for which amino acid?

A) Thr B) Arg C) Ser D) Lys Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 11-5 Global: G2 LO: 11.5 67) The codons CGG, CGA, CGC, and CGU all code for which amino acid?

A) Pro B) Arg C) Gln D) His Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 11-5 Global: G2 LO: 11.5

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68) The codons UCU, UCC, UCA, and UCG all code for which amino acid?

A) Ser B) Leu C) Tyr D) Cys Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 11-5 Global: G2 LO: 11.5 69) The codons GUU, GUC, GUA, and GUG all code for which amino acid?

A) Asp B) Ala C) Val D) Glu Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 11-5 Global: G2 LO: 11.5 70) Which of the following genetic diseases involves the substitution of one amino acid in the protein structure?

A) Tay-Sachs B) Sickle Cell anemia C) Down Syndrome D) Cystic fibrous Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 11-6 Global: G1 LO: 11.6 71) Which of the following genetic diseases involves mutation on a gene in chromosome 4?

A) Tay-Sachs B) Huntington's disease C) Hemophilia D) Sickle-cell anemia Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 11-6 Global: G1 LO: 11.6

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72) Which of the following genetic diseases involves the formation of three chromosomes instead of a pair, normally on chromosome 21?

A) Hemophilia B) Galactosemia C) Down Syndrome D) Muscular dystrophy Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 11-6 Global: G1 LO: 11.6 11.2 True/False Questions 1) Thymine and cytosine are both pyrimidine bases.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1 2) Ribose has no oxygen atom bonded at the 2' carbon atom.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1 3) The following represents the structure of a purine base:

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1

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4) The following shows the correct numbering of the atoms in a pyrimidine base.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1 5) In a nucleoside, the sugar and the base are connected through a glycosidic bond.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1 6) A nucleoside consists of a phosphate, a sugar and a base connected through condensation reactions.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1 7) The nucleotide CMP contains cytidine and two phosphate groups.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Section: 11-1 Global: G2 LO: 11.1 8) The nucleotide ATP contains adenosine and three phosphate groups.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Section: 11-1 Global: G2 LO: 11.1 27 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) The "d" in dCMP stands for "deoxy" Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 11-1 Global: G1 LO: 11.1 10) The abbreviation for this nucleic acid sequence is GCAG.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 11-2 Global: G2 LO: 11.2 28 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) In the conventional depiction of a nucleic acid sequence, the 5' end is on the left and the 3' end on the right.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 11-2 Global: G1 LO: 11.2 12) The complementary bases of T and C, are A and G respectively.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 11-3 Global: G1 LO: 11.3 13) In the DNA double helix, the bases C and G are connected via two hydrogen bonds.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 11-3 Global: G1 LO: 11.3 14) In the DNA double helix, the bases A and T are connected via two hydrogen bonds.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 11-3 Global: G1 LO: 11.3 15) Messenger RNA is a single-stranded piece of RNA containing the bases complementary to those on the original DNA strand.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 11-4 Global: G2 LO: 11.4 16) The base sequence in mRNA complementary to that in the DNA template with the sequence 5'CGATCA3' is 3'GCTAGT5'.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Section: 11-4 Global: G2 LO: 11.4

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17) The base sequence in DNA that is complementary to the mRNA base sequence 3'AUGCAU5' is 5'TACGTA3'.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Section: 11-4 Global: G2 LO: 11.4 18) The ribosome consists of ribosomal RNA and protein.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 11-4 Global: G1 LO: 11.4 19) Translation is the first step in the process of making a protein from DNA. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 11-4 Global: G1 LO: 11.4 20) Transcription is the second step in the process of making a protein from DNA. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 11-4 Global: G1 LO: 11.4 21) Translation occurs in the ribosome.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 11-4 Global: G1 LO: 11.4 22) UAA, UAG and UGA are all "stop" codons.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 11-5 Global: G2 LO: 11.5

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23) The enzyme complex that binds to DNA in the creation of mRNA is called RNA polymerase.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 11-5 Global: G1 LO: 11.5 24) Vaccines can help protect against both viral and bacterial infections.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 11-7 Global: G1 LO: 11.7

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General, Organic, and Biological Chemistry, 4e (Frost) Chapter 12 Food as Fuel — A Metabolic Overview 12.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The metabolic process that breaks down glucose into two molecules of pyruvate is called: A) gluconeogenesis B) glycolysis C) anabolism D) citric acid cycle Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 12-1 Global: G1 LO: 12.1 2) The metabolic process that involves the synthesis of larger molecules from smaller ones is called: A) anabolism B) catabolism C) glycolysis D) gluconeogenesis Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 12-1 Global: G1 LO: 12.1 3) Catabolism involves the conversion of ________ molecules into ________ molecules and energy is ________.

A) large, small, produced B) small, large, produced C) large, small, consumed D) small, large, consumed Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 12-1 Global: G1 LO: 12.1

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4) Anabolism involves the conversion of ________ molecules into ________ molecules and energy is ________.

A) large, small, produced B) small, large, produced C) large, small, consumed D) small, large, consumed Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 12-1 Global: G1 LO: 12.1 5) The metabolic process that involves the synthesis of smaller molecules from larger ones is called: A) anabolism B) catabolism C) glycolysis D) gluconeogenesis Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 12-1 Global: G1 LO: 12.1 6) The organelle that is considered the energy producing factory of the cell is called the: A) endoplasmic reticulum B) mitochondria C) nucleus D) lysosomes Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 12-1 Global: G1 LO: 12.1 7) The breakdown and digestion of carbohydrates is considered a (n) ________ process.

A) anabolic B) catabolic C) oxidation D) reduction Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 12-1 Global: G1 LO: 12.1

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8) The conversions of proteins into amino acids, polysaccharides into monosaccharides, and lipids into glycerol and fatty acids are all examples of: A) oxidation B) reduction C) hydrolysis D) condensation Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 12-1 Global: G1 LO: 12.1 9) Which of these is not generally associated with anabolism?

A) Oxidation B) Reduction C) Endergonic reaction D) Condensation Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 12-1 Global: G1 LO: 12.1 10) Which of these is not generally associated with catabolism?

A) Hydrolysis B) Oxidation C) Exergonic reaction D) Condensation Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 12-1 Global: G1 LO: 12.1 11) Pyruvate contains how many carbon atoms?

A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 12-1 Global: G1 LO: 12.1

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12) Which part of the cell is the site of protein synthesis?

A) Mitochondria B) Cell membrane C) Ribosomes D) Lysosomes Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 12-1 Global: G1 LO: 12.1 13) Which part of the cell contains hydrolytic enzymes that digest old cell structures?

A) Lysosomes B) Nucleus C) Cytosol D) Cytoplasm Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 12-1 Global: G1 LO: 12.1 14) What is the abbreviation for the reduced form of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide?

A) NAD B) NAD+ C) NADH D) NADH2 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 12-2 Global: G1 LO: 12.2 15) What is the abbreviation for the oxidized form of flavin adenine dinucleotide FADH2?

A) FAD B) FAD+ C) FADH D) FADH+ Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 12-2 Global: G1 LO: 12.2

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16) Which of the following contains the vitamin pantothenic acid, Vitamin B5?

A) ATP B) NADH C) FADH2 D) Coenzyme A Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 12-2 Global: G1 LO: 12.2 17) Which of the following contains the vitamin riboflavin, Vitamin B2?

A) ATP B) NADH C) FAD D) Coenzyme A Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 12-2 Global: G1 LO: 12.2 18) Which of the following contains the vitamin niacin, Vitamin B3?

A) ATP B) NAD+ C) FAD D) Coenzyme A Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 12-2 Global: G1 LO: 12.2 19) Which of the following molecules contains high energy bonds?

A) ATP B) AMP C) CO2 D) Isocitrate Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 12-2 Global: G1 LO: 12.2

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20) Which of the following molecules is a low-energy form?

A) ATP B) ADP C) NADH D) Acetyl coenzyme A Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 12-2 Global: G1 LO: 12.2 21) Which of the following molecules is a high-energy form?

A) FAD B) ADP C) NAD+ D) FADH2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 12-2 Global: G1 LO: 12.2 22) The acetyl group in acetyl CoA is linked through what kind of bond?

A) C-C bond B) C-S bond C) C-O bond D) C-N bond Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 12-2 Global: G1 LO: 12.2 23) Which of the following contains the vitamin niacin, B3, as part of its structure?

A) ATP B) NADH C) FADH2 D) Coenzyme Q Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 12-2 Global: G1 LO: 12.2

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24) Which of the following contains the vitamin riboflavin, Vitamin B2, as part of its structure?

A) ATP B) NADH C) FADH2 D) Coenzyme Q Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 12-2 Global: G1 LO: 12.2 25) What is the correct abbreviation for the oxidized form of the nucleotide flavin adenine dinucleotide?

A) FAD B) FADH C) FAD+ D) FADH2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 12-2 Global: G1 LO: 12.2 26) What is the correct abbreviation for the oxidized form of the nucleotide nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide?

A) NAD B) NADH C) NAD+ D) NADH2 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 12-2 Global: G1 LO: 12.2 27) In which of these metabolically relevant molecules is the thioester group an important component?

A) Acetyl coenzyme A B) NADH C) NAD+ D) FADH2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 12-2 Global: G1 LO: 12.2 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) What is the correct abbreviated name for this molecule?

A) Acetyl coenzyme A B) ATP C) NAD D) FAD Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 12-2 Global: G1 LO: 12.2 29) Which of the following lipoproteins is solely used to transport triglycerides in the body?

A) Chylomicrons B) High density lipoproteins C) Low density lipoproteins D) Very low density lipoproteins Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 12-3 Global: G1 LO: 12.3

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30) Which of the following macromolecules are first broken down in the mouth by an enzyme called amylase?

A) Proteins B) Fats C) Carbohydrates D) Both proteins and carbohydrates Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 12-3 Global: G1 LO: 12.3 31) Protein digestion begins in the: A) stomach B) mouth C) small intestine D) bloodstream Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 12-3 Global: G1 LO: 12.3 32) The enzyme involved in the digestion of a triglyceride is: A) lactase B) maltase C) pancreatic lipase D) coenzyme A Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 12-3 Global: G1 LO: 12.3 33) Which two monosaccharides are produced by the action of lactase on lactose?

A) Glucose + glucose B) Glucose + galactose C) Fructose + glucose D) Fructose + galactose Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 12-3 Global: G1 LO: 12.3

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34) Which two monosaccharides are produced by the action of maltase on maltose?

A) Glucose + glucose B) Glucose + galactose C) Fructose + glucose D) Fructose + galactose Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 12-3 Global: G1 LO: 12.3 35) Which two monosaccharides are produced by the action of sucrase on sucrose?

A) Glucose + glucose B) Glucose + galactose C) Fructose + glucose D) Fructose + galactose Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 12-3 Global: G1 LO: 12.3 36) Which disaccharide is produced by the action of alpha-amylase on starch in the mouth?

A) Sucrose B) Lactose C) Maltose D) Cellobiose Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 12-3 Global: G1 LO: 12.3 37) The process of breaking up large nonpolar molecules like fats into micelles is called: A) condensation B) hydrolysis C) emulsification D) reduction Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 12-3 Global: G1 LO: 12.3

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38) Which of the following is a carrier of intermediates in metabolism?

A) ADP B) Nicotinic acid C) Coenzyme A D) Succinate Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 12-4 Global: G1 LO: 12.4 39) The final product of aerobic glycolysis is: A) pyruvate B) acetyl CoA C) lactate D) ethanol Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 12-4 Global: G1 LO: 12.4 40) Anaerobic metabolism occurs in the: A) mitochondria B) cytoplasm C) cytoplasm and mitochondria D) extracellular fluid Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 12-4 Global: G1 LO: 12.4 41) How many ATP are formed when one molecule of glucose goes through glycolysis?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 12-4 Global: G2 LO: 12.4

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42) How many NADH molecules are formed when one molecule of glucose goes through glycolysis?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 12-4 Global: G2 LO: 12.4 43) Which of the following products of glycolysis is an inhibitor of the enzyme phosphofructokinase to slow down the process?

A) NADH B) Pyruvate C) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate D) ATP Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 12-4 Global: G1 LO: 12.4 44) Pyruvate can be converted into two different products depending on whether oxygen is readily available or not. Under conditions of strenuous activity, the product is: A) acetyl CoA B) lactate C) pyruvate D) CO2 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 12-4 Global: G1 LO: 12.4 45) The process of ________ is when pyruvate is converted to ethanol.

A) fermentation B) glycolysis C) oxidation D) reduction Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 12-4 Global: G1 LO: 12.4 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

46) There are ________ reactions in the glycolysis pathway.

A) 6 B) 8 C) 10 D) 12 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 12-4 Global: G1 LO: 12.4 47) In the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA what molecule along with CO2 is formed?

A) NAD+ B) NADH C) ATP D) ADP Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 12-4 Global: G1 LO: 12.4 48) Pyruvate undergoes an oxidative decarboxylation with CoA to produce acetyl CoA and: A) lactate B) glutamate C) CO2 D) NAD+ Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 12-4 Global: G1 LO: 12.4 49) How many NADH molecules are formed during a turn of the citric acid cycle?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 12-5 Global: G2 LO: 12.5

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50) How many FADH2 molecules are formed during a turn of the citric acid cycle?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 12-5 Global: G2 LO: 12.5 51) In the reaction in which succinate is converted to fumarate in the citric acid cycle, succinate undergoes a(n): A) isomerization B) hydration C) oxidation D) oxidative decarboxylation Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 12-5 Global: G1 LO: 12.5 52) Which of the following is the first molecule formed in the citric acid cycle?

A) Succinate B) Fumarate C) Citrate D) Oxaloacetate Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 12-5 Global: G1 LO: 12.5 53) The reactions of the citric acid cycle take place in the ________ of the mitochondria.

A) inner membrane B) outer membrane C) matrix D) stoma Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 12-5 Global: G1 LO: 12.5

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54) Which of these reactions in the citric acid cycle produces CO2?

A) Conversion of isocitrate to α-ketoglutarate B) Conversion of succinate to fumarate C) Conversion of fumarate to malate D) Conversion of malate to oxaloacetate Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 12-5 Global: G1 LO: 12.5 55) The process that removes CO2 from the molecules is called: A) isomerization B) dehydration C) hydrolysis D) oxidative decarboxylation Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 12-5 Global: G1 LO: 12.5 56) What high energy molecule is produced during the hydrolysis reaction of succinyl CoA to succinate?

A) ATP B) NADH C) GTP D) FAD Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 12-5 Global: G2 LO: 12.5 57) In the dehydrogenation of succinate to fumarate a molecule of ________ is formed.

A) NADH B) ATP C) FAD D) FADH2 Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 12-5 Global: G2 LO: 12.5

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58) How many CO2 molecules are formed in one turn of the citric acid cycle?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 12-5 Global: G2 LO: 12.5 59) There are ________ reactions in the citric acid cycle.

A) 6 B) 8 C) 10 D) 12 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 12-5 Global: G1 LO: 12.5 60) There are ________ complexes in the electron transport chain.

A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 10 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 12-5 Global: G1 LO: 12.6 61) Which of the following molecules are produced in the citric acid cycle?

A) NAD+ B) CO2 C) GDP D) FAD Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 12-5 Global: G2 LO: 12.5

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62) One turn of the citric acid cycle produces ________ NADH, ________ FADH2 and ________ GTP. A) 3, 1, 1 B) 1, 1, 1 C) 1, 1, 3 D) 1, 3, 1 Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 12-5 Global: G1 LO: 12.5 63) FADH2 transfers its electrons into the electron transport chain in the mitochondrion directly to: A) cytochrome c B) flavoprotein C) coenzyme Q D) ATP-ase Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 12-6 Global: G2 LO: 12.6 64) NADH enters the electron transport in: A) complex I B) complex II C) complex III D) complex IV Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 12-6 Global: G2 LO: 12.6 65) FADH2 enters the electron transport in: A) complex I B) complex II C) complex III D) complex IV Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 12-6 Global: G2 LO: 12.6 17 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

66) In the first complex of the electron transport chain, how many protons are pumped across the inner membrane of the mitochondria?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 12-6 Global: G2 LO: 12.6 67) Which of the following components move electrons from complex III to complex IV? A) Coenzyme Q B) FADH2 C) Cytochrome c D) QH2 Answer: C Diff: 1 Section: 12-6 Global: G1 LO: 12.6 68) What is the final product of the electron transport chain?

A) O2 B) H2O C) QH2 D) H2O and O2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 12-6 Global: G2 LO: 12.6 69) Cytochrome C oxidase is also known as: A) complex I B) complex II C) complex III D) complex IV Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 12-6 Global: G2 LO: 12.6

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70) What is the reduced form of coenzyme Q? A) Q+ B) QH C) QH+ D) QH2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Section: 12-6 Global: G2 LO: 12.6 71) In the chemiosmotic model, the movement of protons through ________ provide the energy for ATP synthesis.

A) complex I B) complex II C) complex IV D) complex V Answer: D Diff: 2 Section: 12-7 Global: G2 LO: 12.6 72) How many protons are pumped across the inner membrane for each NADH molecule that enters the electron transport chain?

A) 10 B) 6 C) 8 D) 12 Answer: A Diff: 2 Section: 12-7 Global: G2 LO: 12.7 73) How many protons are pumped across the inner membrane for each FADH2 molecule that enters the electron transport chain?

A) 10 B) 6 C) 8 D) 12 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 12-7 Global: G2 LO: 12.7 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

74) How many ATP molecules are synthesized for each molecule of NADH that enters the electron transport chain?

A) 3 B) 2.5 C) 1.5 D) 4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 12-7 Global: G2 LO: 12.7 75) How many ATP molecules are synthesized for each molecule of FADH2 that enters the electron transport chain?

A) 3 B) 2.5 C) 1.5 D) 4 Answer: C Diff: 2 Section: 12-7 Global: G2 LO: 12.7 76) The total number of ATP produced on the complete metabolism of glucose in skeletal muscle is: A) 20 B) 32 C) 12 D) 36 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 12-7 Global: G2 LO: 12.7 77) The initial reaction in the β-oxidation spiral of fatty acids produces: A) acetyl CoA B) fatty acyl CoA C) carbamoyl phosphate D) dihydroxyacetone phosphate Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 12-8 Global: G1 LO: 12.8 20 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

78) How many carbon atoms are removed during each four-step cycle of β-oxidation of a fatty acid?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Diff: 1 Section: 12-8 Global: G1 LO: 12.8 79) The proton translocating ATP synthase is located where in the mitochondria?

A) The inner membrane B) The inner membrane space C) The outer membrane D) Matrix Answer: A Diff: 1 Section: 12-8 Global: G1 LO: 12.8 80) What high energy molecules are produced in one cycle of the β-oxidation of a fatty acid?

A) 2 NADH B) 1 FADH2 and 1 NADH C) 2 FADH2 D) ATP Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 12-8 Global: G2 LO: 12.8 81) How many turns of the β-oxidation cycle are required to consume one molecule of a 16carbon fatty acid?

A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9 Answer: B Diff: 2 Section: 12-8 Global: G2 LO: 12.8 21 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

82) How many ATPs are produced from the β-oxidation of one arachidic acid (saturated C20) entering the process as an acyl CoA? A) 94 B) 108 C) 122 D) 136 Answer: D Diff: 3 Section: 12-8 Global: G2 LO: 12.8 12.2 True/False Questions 1) Catabolism involves breaking down larger molecules with the consumption of energy.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 12-1 Global: G1 LO: 12.1 2) Condensation and reduction reactions are characteristic of reactions in anabolism.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 12-1 Global: G1 LO: 12.1 3) Anabolism involves combining smaller molecules into larger ones.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 12-1 Global: G1 LO: 12.1 4) Anabolic reactions are exergonic.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 12-1 Global: G1 LO: 12.1

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5) Catabolic reactions are endergonic.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 12-1 Global: G1 LO: 12.1 6) FAD is the oxidized form of FADH2.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 12-2 Global: G1 LO: 12.2 7) NADH is the oxidized form of NAD+.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Section: 12-2 Global: G1 LO: 12.2 8) Acetyl coenzyme A is the high-energy form of coenzyme A. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 12-2 Global: G1 LO: 12.2 9) Alpha amylase hydrolyzes the glycosidic bonds in cellulose.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Section: 12-3 Global: G2 LO: 12.3 10) Two pyruvate molecules are obtained for every glucose molecule consumed in glycolysis.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 12-4 Global: G2 LO: 12.4

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11) Lactate is produced from pyruvate under aerobic conditions.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Section: 12-4 Global: G2 LO: 12.4 12) Two molecules of CO2 are produced per molecule of acetyl CoA for every turn of the citric acid cycle.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Section: 12-5 Global: G1 LO: 12.5

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