Test Bank for Essentials of Organizational Behavior 11th Edition by Stephen Robbins & Timothy Judge

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COMPLETE Elaborated Test Bank for

Essentials of Organizational Behavior 11th Edition Stephen Robbins 2012

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Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 11th Edition by Stephen Robbins.

ISBN-10 0132545306 ISBN-13 978-0132545303 Test bank for Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 11th Edition by Stephen Robbins

ISBN-10 0132545306 ISBN-13 978-0132545303

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TABLE OF CONTENTS Chapter 1 – Introduction to Organizational Behavior Chapter 2 – Attitudes and Job Satisfaction Chapter 3 – Emotion and Moods Chapter 4 – Personality and Values Chapter 5 – Perception and Individual Decision Making Chapter 6 – Motivation Concepts Chapter 7 – Motivation: From Concept to Application Chapter 8 – Foundations of Group Behavior Chapter 9 – Understanding Work Teams Chapter 10 – Communication Chapter 11 – Leadership Chapter 12 – Power and Politics Chapter 13 – Conflict and Negotiation Chapter 14 – Foundations of Organization Structure Chapter 15 – Organizational Culture Chapter 16 – Organizational Change and Stress Management

Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 11e (Robbins) Chapter 1 Introduction to Organizational Behavior 1) Until the late 1980s, business school curricula emphasized the aspects of management.

A) ethical B) people C) technical D) human E) global Answer: C Explanation: C) Until the late 1980s, business school curricula emphasized the technical aspects of management, focusing on economics, accounting, finance, and quantitative techniques.

Course work in human behavior and people skills received relatively less attention. Over the past three decades, however, business faculty have come to realize the role that understanding human behavior plays in determining a manager's effectiveness, and required courses on people skills have been added to many curricula.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 1 2) Which of the following is not a reason why business schools have begun to include classes on organizational behavior?

A) to increase manager effectiveness in organizations B) to help organizations attract top quality employees C) to expand organizations' consulting needs D) to improve retention of quality workers E) to help increase organizations' profits Answer: C Explanation: C) Understanding human behavior plays an important role in determining a manager's effectiveness. Developing managers' interpersonal skills helps organizations attract and keep high-performing employees. Positive social relationships are associated with lower stress at work and lower turnover. Finally, companies with reputations as good places to work have been found to generate superior financial performance. Expanding a company's consulting needs is not a positive reason to teach organizational behavior.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 1-2 Objective: Interpersonal Skills Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 1

3) is the study of the impact that individuals, groups, and structure have on behavior within organizations.

A) Leadership B) Organizational strategy C) Performance management D) Employee relations E) Organizational behavior Answer: E Explanation: E) Organizational behavior is the field of study that investigates the impact that individuals, groups, and structure have on behavior within organizations, for the purpose of applying such knowledge toward improving an organization's effectiveness.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2 Objective: Organizational Behavior Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 1 4) Which of the following is not a topic or concern related to OB? A) turnover B) leader behavior C) productivity D) management E) family behavior Answer: E Explanation: E) OB is concerned specifically with employment-related situations such as jobs, work, absenteeism, employment turnover, productivity, human performance, and management.

OB includes the core topics of motivation, leader behavior and power, interpersonal communication, group structure and processes, personality, emotions, values, attitude development, perception, change processes, conflict and negotiation, and work design.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2 Objective: Organizational Behavior Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 1

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5) Which of the following problems would an OB study be least likely to focus on?

A) an increase in absenteeism at a certain company B) a fall in productivity in one shift of a manufacturing plant C) a decrease in sales due to growing foreign competition D) an increase in theft by employees at a retail store E) excessive turnover among volunteer workers at a non-profit organization Answer: C Explanation: C) OB is concerned specifically with employment-related situations such as jobs, work, absenteeism, employment turnover, productivity, human performance, and management.

A study of foreign competition would not be part of an OB research project.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2 AACSB: Analytic Skills Objective: Organizational Behavior Quest. Category: Application LO: 1 6) What are the three primary determinants of behavior in organizations?

A) profit structure, organizational complexity, and job satisfaction B) individuals, profit structure, and job satisfaction C) individuals, groups, and job satisfaction D) groups, structure, and profit structure E) individuals, groups, and structure Answer: E Explanation: E) OB investigates the impact that individuals, groups, and structure have on behavior within organizations.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2 Objective: Organizational Behavior Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 1 7) Which of the following is not a core topic of organizational behavior?

A) motivation B) attitude development C) conflict D) resource allocation E) work design Answer: D Explanation: D) OB includes the core topics of motivation, leader behavior and power, interpersonal communication, group structure and processes, personality, emotions, and values, attitude development and perception, change processes, conflict and negotiation, and work design. It does not include resource allocation.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2 Objective: Organizational Behavior Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 1

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8) In order to predict human behavior, it is best to supplement your intuitive opinions with information derived in what fashion?

A) common sense B) direct observation C) systematic study D) speculation E) organizational theory Answer: C Explanation: C) To make good OB decisions it is important to use evidence to supplement intuition and experience. Evidence should come through systematic study, which involves looking at relationships, attempting to attribute causes and effects, and basing conclusions on scientific evidence, that is, on data gathered under controlled conditions and measured and interpreted in a reasonably rigorous manner.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3 Objective: Systematic Study Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 9) Betty believes that it is best to take the casual or common sense approach to reading others.

She needs to remember that .

A) the casual approach is nonsensical, and should be avoided as much as possible B) the systematic approach and the casual approach are one and the same C) laboratory experiments on human behavior often result in unreliable findings D) the casual or common sense approach to reading others can often lead to erroneous predictions E) behavior is unpredictable, hence there is no accurate way to analyze it Answer: D Explanation: D) Unfortunately, the casual or common sense approach to reading others can often lead to erroneous predictions. However, you can improve your predictive ability by supplementing intuition with a more systematic approach.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3 Quest. Category: Application LO: 2

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10) Which of the following explains the usefulness of the systematic approach to the study of organizational behavior?

A) Human behavior does not vary a great deal between individuals and situations.

B) Human behavior is not random.

C) Human behavior is not consistent.

D) Human behavior is rarely predictable.

E) Human behavior is often not sensible.

Answer: B Explanation: B) Underlying the systematic approach to the study of organizational behavior is the belief that behavior is not random. Rather, we can identify fundamental consistencies underlying the behavior of all individuals and modify them to reflect individual differences.

Behavior is generally predictable, and the systematic study of behavior is a means to making reasonably accurate predictions.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 11) Basing managerial decisions on the best available scientific support is called .

A) intuition B) organizational process C) organizational behavior D) evidence-based management E) conceptual management Answer: D Explanation: D) Evidence-based management (EBM) complements systematic study (which includes looking at relationships, not merely studying scientific evidence), by basing managerial decisions on the best available scientific evidence.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3 Objective: Systematic Study Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 12) Analyzing relationships, determining causes and effects, and basing conclusions on scientific evidence all constitute aspects of study.

A) organizational B) intuitive C) theoretical D) systematic E) case-based Answer: D Explanation: D) Systematic study means looking at relationships, attempting to attribute causes and effects, and basing our conclusions on scientific evidence, that is, on data gathered under controlled conditions and measured and interpreted in a reasonably rigorous manner.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3 Objective: Systematic Study Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional Copyright © 2012 Pearson Education, Inc

13) Janet needs to assign a very important advertising account to one of her writers. First she reviewed each writer's work load, then she studied the sales data of the products for the last three campaigns of each writer, then she reviewed each writer's annual review to familiarize herself with their goals. Finally, she gave the account to Paula, a very creative, efficient, writer who has had high sales results with her last three clients' products. Janet's management style is based on .

A) intuition or "gut feeling" B) organizational behavioral studies C) subjective assessments D) preconceived notions E) systematic study Answer: E Explanation: E) Systematic study means looking at relationships, attempting to attribute causes and effects, and basing our conclusions on scientific evidence, that is, on data gathered under controlled conditions and measured and interpreted in a reasonably rigorous manner.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3 AACSB: Analytic Skills Objective: Evidence Based Management Quest. Category: Application LO: 2 14) Which behavioral science discipline is most focused on understanding individual behavior?

A) sociology B) social psychology C) psychology D) anthropology E) organizational behavior Answer: C Explanation: C) Organizational behavior is an applied behavioral science built on contributions from a number of behavioral disciplines, mainly psychology and social psychology, sociology, and anthropology. Psychology's contributions have been mainly at the individual or micro level of analysis, while the other disciplines have contributed to our understanding of macro concepts such as group processes and organization.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3

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15) Organizational behavior is constructed from all of the following disciplines except .

A) physics B) psychology C) anthropology D) sociology E) social psychology Answer: A Explanation: A) Organizational behavior is an applied behavioral science built on contributions from a number of behavioral disciplines, mainly psychology and social psychology, sociology, and anthropology. Physics does not form a part of OB studies.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3 Objective: Behavioral Sciences Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 16) Psychology's major contributions to the field of organizational behavior have been primarily at what level of analysis?

A) the level of the group B) the level of the individual C) the level of the organization D) the level of culture E) the level of interacting groups Answer: B Explanation: B) Psychology's contributions to the field of organizational behavior have been mainly at the individual or micro level of analysis, while the other disciplines have contributed to our understanding of macro concepts such as group processes and organization.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3 Objective: Psychology Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3

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17) is a science that seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change the behavior of humans and other animals.

A) Psychiatry B) Psychology C) Sociology D) Political science E) Organizational behavior Answer: B Explanation: B) Psychology is defined as the science that seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change the behavior of humans and other animals through study of the individual.

Contributions include learning, perception, personality, emotions, training, leadership effectiveness, and more.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3 Objective: Psychology Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 18) The OB topic of motivation has been most influenced by which behavioral discipline?

A) psychology B) social psychology C) sociology D) political science E) corporate strategy Answer: A Explanation: A) Psychology seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change the behavior of humans and other animals. It focuses on concepts such as learning, perception, personality, emotions, training, leadership effectiveness, needs and motivational forces, job satisfaction, decision-making processes, performance appraisals, attitude measurement, employee-selection techniques, work design, and job stress.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3

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19) Austin is a graduate student helping to organize a study on individual job satisfaction. The study focuses on the top five causes of satisfaction or dissatisfaction on a job. His department is surveying 200 individuals in 100 different types of organizations. Austin is most likely a graduate student in the department of .

A) psychology B) anthropology C) political science D) social psychology E) archaeology Answer: A Explanation: A) Because Austin's study focuses on the causes of job satisfaction, he is most likely conducting the study through the department of psychology. Psychology is defined as the science which seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change the behavior of humans.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3-4 AACSB: Analytic Skills Objective: Psychology Quest. Category: Application LO: 3 You are bringing together faculty from different behavioral disciplines to author a new textbook in organizational behavior. Represented are professors from psychology, sociology, social psychology, anthropology, political science, and industrial engineering.

20) Which faculty member should furnish information about personality, learning, and motivation?

A) sociology B) psychology C) anthropology D) political science E) industrial engineering Answer: B Explanation: B) Psychology seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change the behavior of humans and other animals. Psychology's focus on the individual has led to contributions in the areas of learning, personality, emotions, motivational forces, and more.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3-4 AACSB: Analytic Skills Objective: Psychology Quest. Category: Application LO: 3

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21) Which professor out of this group would you expect to address issues on communication?

A) the psychologist B) the anthropologist C) the political scientist D) the social psychologist E) the industrial engineer Answer: D Explanation: D) Social psychology focuses on peoples' influence on one another. Social psychologists contribute to identifying communication patterns and more.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4 AACSB: Analytic Skills Objective: Social Psychology Quest. Category: Application LO: 3 22) You should expect that the faculty member from will probably contribute information about large-scale group behavior.

A) sociology B) psychology C) social psychology D) anthropology E) industrial engineering Answer: A Explanation: A) Sociology studies people in relation to their social environment or culture.

Sociologists have contributed to OB through their study of group behavior in organizations.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4 AACSB: Analytic Skills Objective: Sociology Quest. Category: Application LO: 3 23) Group behavior, power, and conflict are central areas of study for .

A) archaeologists B) philantropists C) anthropologists D) social psychologists E) operations analysts Answer: D Explanation: D) Social psychology, generally considered a branch of psychology, blends concepts from both psychology and sociology to focus on peoples' influence on one another.

This field has made important contributions to our study of group behavior, power, and conflict.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4 Objective: Social Psychology Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3

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24) blends concepts from psychology and sociology and focuses on the influence people have on one another.

A) Corporate strategy B) Anthropology C) Political science D) Social psychology E) Archaeology Answer: D Explanation: D) Social psychology, generally considered a branch of psychology, blends concepts from both psychology and sociology to focus on peoples' influence on one another. One major study area is change, how to implement it and how to reduce barriers to its acceptance.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4 Objective: Social Psychology Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 25) Jude is a social psychologist. He is working on a concept in social psychology, which is a major study area, and learning how to implement it and how to reduce barriers to its acceptance.

Jude is studying the concept of .

A) culture B) ethics C) power D) change E) fatigue Answer: D Explanation: D) One major study area of social psychology is change—how to implement it and how to reduce barriers to its acceptance. Social psychologists also contribute to measuring, understanding, and changing attitudes; identifying communication patterns; and building trust.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4 AACSB: Analytic Skills Quest. Category: Application LO: 3 26) focuses on the study of people in relation to their social environment.

A) Psychology B) Sociology C) Corporate strategy D) Political science E) Operations management Answer: B Explanation: B) Sociology studies people in relation to their social environment or culture.

Sociologists have contributed to OB through their study of group behavior in organizations, particularly formal and complex organizations.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5 Objective: Sociology Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional Copyright © 2012 Pearson Education, Inc

27) Which field of study has contributed to OB through its research on organizational culture and formal organization theory and structure?

A) psychology B) operations management C) corporate strategy D) political science E) sociology Answer: E Explanation: E) Perhaps most important to the field of sociology is the study of organizational culture, formal organization theory and structure, organizational technology, communications, power, and conflict, which all contribute widely to OB. Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5 Objective: Sociology Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 28) This field of study has helped us understand differences in fundamental values, attitudes, and behavior between people in different countries and within different organizations.

A) anthropology B) corporate strategy C) political science D) operations research E) psycholinguistics Answer: A Explanation: A) Anthropology is the study of societies to learn about human beings and their activities. Anthropologists' work on cultures and environments has helped us understand differences in fundamental values, attitudes, and behavior between people in different countries and within different organizations.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5 Objective: Anthropology Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3

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29) Myriam is analyzing the gender roles of men and women in management in the United States and comparing them to the gender roles in management in Japan. She is surveying fifty male and fifty female managers in each country to compare their daily behavior. Myriam's study exemplifies how contributes to OB. A) anthropology B) psychology C) archaeology D) political science E) corporate strategy Answer: A Explanation: A) Myriam is an anthropologist. Much of our current understanding of organizational culture, organizational environments, and differences among national cultures is a result of the work of anthropologists or those using their methods.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5 AACSB: Analytic Skills Objective: Anthropology Quest. Category: Application LO: 3 30) The subject of organizational culture has been most influenced by which behavioral science discipline?

A) anthropology B) psychology C) social psychology D) political science E) corporate strategy Answer: A Explanation: A) Anthropology is the study of societies to learn about human beings and their activities. Much of our current understanding of organizational culture, organizational environments, and differences among national cultures is a result of the work of anthropologists or those using their methods.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3

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31) Which of the following statements best describes the current status of organizational behavior concepts?

A) They are based on universal truths.

B) Since people are complex, the theories explaining their actions must also be complex.

C) There is general consensus among OB researchers and scholars on the simple concepts that underlie most human behavior.

D) Cause-effect principles that tend to apply to all situations have been discovered.

E) Cause-and-effect relationships for most human behaviors have been isolated.

Answer: B Explanation: B) Human beings are complex, and few, if any, simple and universal principles explain organizational behavior. Because we are not alike, our ability to make simple, accurate, and sweeping generalizations is limited. There are few straightforward cause-and-effect relationships in OB. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 4 32) Human beings are complex, and few, if any, simple and universal principles explain organizational behavior. Nevertheless, it does not mean that OB cannot offer reasonably accurate explanations of human behavior or make valid predictions. It does mean that OB concepts must .

A) focus on the reliability and validity of research data B) attempt to establish cause-and-effect relationships C) be consistently applicable across a wide range of situations D) reflect situational, or contingency, conditions E) avoid assumptions Answer: D Explanation: D) Human beings are complex, and few, if any, simple and universal principles explain organizational behavior. That doesn't mean that we can't offer reasonably accurate explanations of human behavior or make valid predictions. It does mean that OB concepts must reflect situational, or contingency, conditions. We can say x leads to y, but only under conditions specified in z—the contingency variables.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 4

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33) Which of the following statements best describes contingency variables?

A) They are scientific factors based on universal truths.

B) They are factors that moderate the relationship between two or more events or situations.

C) There is general consensus among OB researchers that they can be controlled.

D) They are the cause-effect principles that tend to apply to all situations that have been discovered.

E) They are simple and universal principles that explain organizational behavior.

Answer: B Explanation: B) Contingency variables are variables that moderate the relationship between two or more variables. For example, an OB study can say x leads to y, but only under conditions specified in z. Because humans are somewhat unpredictable, all OB studies must have contingency variables.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5 Objective: Contingency Variables Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 4 34) OB concepts must reflect contingency conditions for all of the following reasons except .

A) human beings are complex B) our predictions and assumptions are almost accurate all the time C) one person's behavior changes in different situations D) we are limited in our ability to make sweeping generalizations E) two people often act very differently in the same situation Answer: B Explanation: B) Human beings are complex, and few, if any, simple and universal principles explain organizational behavior. Two people often act very differently in the same situation, and the same person's behavior changes in different situations. Because we are not alike, our ability to make simple, accurate, and sweeping generalizations is limited.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 4

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35) Raymond is completing a study on discrimination in which he has noted that saleswomen who wear skirt suits make more sales than saleswomen who only wear pant suits. However, Raymond determined that his findings only pertained to those industries in which the purchasing decision maker is traditionally masculine. For example, the sales results were the same for all women selling to medical office managers, a female dominated field. Raymond used variables to more accurately explain his results.

A) global B) general C) dependent D) non-reactive E) contingency Answer: E Explanation: E) Contingency variables are variables that moderate the relationship between two or more variables. For example, an OB study can say x leads to y, but only under conditions specified in z. Because humans are somewhat unpredictable, all OB studies must have contingency variables.

By limiting his results to only male-oriented industries, Raymond is able to make a generalization.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5 AACSB: Analytic Skills Objective: Contingency Variables Quest. Category: Application LO: 4 36) is an effect of increasing globalization.

A) More expensive consumer goods B) An increase in manufacturing jobs in developed nations C) An ever increasingly homogeneous workforce D) Shared economic values among all cultures E) Jobs moving to nations with low-cost labor Answer: E Explanation: E) In a global economy, jobs tend to flow where lower costs give businesses a comparative advantage. Because of this consumer goods remain affordable, but manufacturing jobs flow to less developed nations and the workforce is increasingly diverse physically and psychologically.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7 AACSB: Dynamics of the Global Economy Objective: Responding to Globalization Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5

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37) is a measure of how organizations are becoming more heterogeneous in terms of gender, race, and ethnicity.

A) Globalization B) Workforce diversity C) Affirmative action D) Organizational culture E) Operational homogeneity Answer: B Explanation: B) Workforce diversity acknowledges a workforce of women and men; many racial and ethnic groups; individuals with a variety of physical or psychological abilities; and people who differ in age and sexual orientation.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding Objective: Workforce Diversity Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 38) As managers oversee the movement of jobs to countries with low-cost labor .

A) they tend to ignore the home country needs B) they must deal with strong criticism from labor groups C) they manage less diverse workforces D) they avoid markets like China and other developing nations E) they work themselves out of a job Answer: B Explanation: B) In a global economy, jobs tend to flow where lower costs give businesses a comparative advantage, though labor groups, politicians, and local community leaders see the exporting of jobs as undermining the job market at home. Managers face the difficult task of balancing the interests of their organization with their responsibilities to the communities in which they operate.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7 AACSB: Dynamics of the Global Economy Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5

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39) Whereas focuses on differences among people from different countries, addresses differences among people within given countries.

A) workforce diversity; globalization B) globalization; workforce diversity C) culture; diversity D) culturalization; workforce diversity E) psychology; social psychology Answer: B Explanation: B) One of the most important challenges for organizations is adapting to people who are different. We describe this challenge as workforce diversity. Whereas globalization focuses on differences among people from different countries, workforce diversity addresses differences among people within given countries.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7 AACSB: Dynamics of the Global Economy; Multicultural and Diversity Understanding Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 40) Which of the following statements is not true about work force diversity?

A) Disability is a category of workforce diversity.

B) Managing workforce diversity presents many challenges.

C) Workforce diversity focuses on differences within a country.

D) Sexual orientation is a part of workforce diversity.

E) Workforce diversity is a concern only in the U.S. Answer: E Explanation: E) Managing workforce diversity is a global concern. Most European countries have experienced dramatic growth in immigration from the Middle East; Argentina and Venezuela host a significant number of migrants from other South American countries; and nations from India to Iraq to Indonesia find great cultural diversity within their borders.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding Objective: Workforce Diversity Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5

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41) Workforce diversity means that organizations are becoming more heterogeneous in terms of all of the following except .

A) age B) gender C) domestic partners D) socio-economic status E) religion Answer: D Explanation: D) Gender, race, national origin, age, disability, domestic partners, and religion are the major workforce diversity categories.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 42) Which of the following was the most significant change in the U.S. labor force during the last half of the twentieth century?

A) substantial decreases in the number of workers who are under 55 B) increases in the percentage of U.S. citizens of Hispanic origin C) the increasing number of African-Americans at all levels within the workforce D) the steady increase in the percentage of employed males E) the rapid increase in the number of female workers Answer: E Explanation: E) The most significant change in the U.S. labor force during the last half of the twentieth century was the rapid increase in the number of female workers. In 1950, for instance, only 29.6 percent of the workforce was female. By 2008, it was 46.5 percent.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding Objective: Workforce Diversity Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 43) Eighty percent of the U.S. workforce today is made up of _ jobs.

A) textile B) technology C) automobile D) restaurant E) service Answer: E Explanation: E) Today, the majority of employees in developed countries work in service jobs, including 80 percent in the United States.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7 Objective: Customer Service Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5

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44) The common characteristic of service jobs is that they require _.

A) substantial interaction with an organization's customers B) low pay C) a focus on productivity D) little job knowledge E) little technical competence Answer: A Explanation: A) The common characteristic of service jobs is substantial interaction with an organization's customers. Many an organization has failed because its employees failed to please customers. Management needs to create a customer-responsive culture.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 45) Which of the following is not considered a key quality of an employee in a customerresponsive culture?

A) friendly and courteous B) accessible C) knowledgeable D) good computer skills E) willing to do what's necessary to please the customer Answer: D Explanation: D) Management needs to create a customer-responsive culture. OB can provide considerable guidance in helping managers create such cultures—in which employees are friendly and courteous, accessible, knowledgeable, prompt in responding to customer needs, and willing to do what's necessary to please the customer.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 46) Which of the following is not a service job?

A) fast-food counter worker B) sales clerk C) waiter D) nurse E) production line worker Answer: E Explanation: E) Service jobs include technical support representatives, fast-food counter workers, sales clerks, waiters and waitresses, nurses, automobile repair technicians, and flight attendants. The common characteristic of these jobs is substantial interaction with an organization's customers.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8 Objective: Customer Service Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5

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47) What is the primary reason many large companies such as Sears and Boeing have implemented cost-cutting programs and eliminated thousands of jobs?

A) to expand globally B) to win the war for talent C) to become lean and mean D) to avoid going broke E) to merge with another company Answer: D Explanation: D) Sears, Boeing, and Lucent Technologies implemented huge cost-cutting programs and eliminated thousands of jobs to avoid going broke. Today's successful organizations must foster innovation and master the art of change, or they'll become candidates for extinction.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 48) Which of the following factors makes it imperative that organizations be fast and flexible?

A) workforce diversity B) corporate excess C) truncated capacity D) advances in corporate strategy E) globalization Answer: E Explanation: E) Globalization, expanded capacity, and advances in technology have required organizations to be fast and flexible if they are to survive. The result is that most managers and employees today work in a climate best characterized as "temporary."

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 AACSB: Dynamics of the Global Economy Objective: Temporariness Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 49) One of the key challenges for managers in today's organizations is to .

A) emulate successful models B) strive hard to conform to norms C) emphasize individual performance D) provide employees with ethical choices E) stimulate tolerance for change Answer: E Explanation: E) An organization's employees can be the impetus for innovation and change, or they can be a major stumbling block. The challenge for managers is to stimulate their employees' creativity and tolerance for change. The field of OB provides a wealth of ideas and techniques to aid in realizing these goals.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 Copyright © 2012 Pearson Education, Inc

50) Given the climate of "temporariness" in modern organizations, employees must .

A) continually update their knowledge and skills B) be prepared to stay in the same position for longer periods of time C) have closer connections with their peers D) foster friendship within the work environment E) limit their mobility if they hope to compete Answer: A Explanation: A) Workers must continually update their knowledge and skills to perform new job requirements. Workplace predictability has been replaced by temporary work groups, with members from different departments, and the increased use of employee rotation to fill constantly changing work assignments. Therefore, employees must be able to cope with increasing knowledge demands.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 Objective: Temporariness Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 51) The use of temporary work groups and employee rotation has reduced the of working in a specific group, as well as the security attached to it.

A) predictability B) spontaneity C) autonomy D) morale E) satisfaction Answer: A Explanation: A) In the past, employees were assigned to a specific work group, gaining a considerable amount of security working with the same people day in and day out. That predictability has been replaced by temporary work groups, with members from different departments, and the increased use of employee rotation to fill constantly changing work assignments.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5

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52) Which of the following is the major challenge to managers in a fully networked organization?

A) eliminating the need for paper communication by relying entirely on e-mail, file transfers, and the like B) retaining team members who can easily move to another employer when demand for their services changes C) managing contract and temporary workers D) maintaining a "virtual office" through the use of computers, interoffice networks, and the Internet E) managing people who work together but are geographically separated Answer: E Explanation: E) Networked organizations allow people to communicate and work together even though they may be thousands of miles apart. Motivating and managing people online requires different techniques than when individuals are physically present in a single location.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10 Objective: Networked Organizations Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 53) allow(s) people to communicate and work together even though they may be thousands of miles apart.

A) Flexible cubicles B) Stratified work environments C) Decentralized communication D) Evidence-based management E) Networked organizations Answer: E Explanation: E) Networked organizations allow people to communicate and work together even though they may be thousands of miles apart. Motivating and managing people online requires different techniques than when individuals are physically present in a single location.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10 Objective: Networked Organizations Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5

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54) Which of the following has not contributed to blurring the lines between employees' work life and personal life?

A) the creation of global organizations B) communication technology allowing employees to work any time and from any place C) organizations asking employees to put in longer hours D) creation of flexible teams E) the increase in dual career households Answer: D Explanation: D) Work-life conflicts are created for the following reasons: first, the creation of global organizations means the world never sleeps; second, communication technology allows many technical and professional employees to do their work at home; third, organizations are asking employees to put in longer hours; finally, the rise of the dual-career couple makes it difficult for married employees to find time to fulfill commitments to home, spouse, children, parents, and friends.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10 Objective: Balance Work-Life Conflicts Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 55) Which of the following is one of the main reasons why married employees find it difficult to make time to fulfill commitments to home, spouse, children, parents, and friends?

A) workaholism B) temporary work culture C) service focus D) dual-career couples E) flexible teams Answer: D Explanation: D) The rise of the dual-career couple makes it difficult for married employees to find time to fulfill commitments to home, spouse, children, parents, and friends. Millions of single-parent households and employees with dependent parents have even more significant challenges in balancing work and family responsibilities.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5

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56) The blurring of the line between work and non-work time has created .

A) personal conflicts B) a more stable workforce C) higher pay scales for more hours worked D) dual career households E) greater job satisfaction Answer: A Explanation: A) Employees are increasingly complaining that the line between work and nonwork time has become blurred, creating personal conflicts and stress. At the same time, today's workplace presents opportunities for workers to create and structure their roles.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 57) Situations where an individual is required to define right and wrong conduct are termed .

A) diversity issues B) human resource problems C) ethical dilemmas D) organizational complexities E) social puzzles Answer: C Explanation: C) Ethical dilemmas and ethical choices are situations in which individuals are required to define right and wrong conduct. For example, if an employee has to decide to uncover illegal activities in the company, even if it means losing his job, he has an ethical dilemma.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities Objective: Ethical Dilemma Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 58) Employees today are .

A) expressing increased confidence in management B) expressing increased trust in management C) increasingly certain about what constitutes appropriate ethical behavior D) increasingly uncertain about what constitutes appropriate ethical behavior E) less likely to engage in unethical practices Answer: D Explanation: D) Increasingly the employees face ethical dilemmas and ethical choices, in which they are required to identify right and wrong conduct. What constitutes good ethical behavior has never been clearly defined, and, in recent years, the line differentiating right from wrong has blurred.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional Copyright © 2012 Pearson Education, Inc

59) Which of the following is an example of an ethical dilemma?

A) Do I inflate an employee's evaluation to save his job?

B) Do I offer a bribe to land a contract?

C) Do I write a check on a closed account?

D) Do I fire an employee to avoid paying her a big bonus?

E) Do I fire a whistle blower for exposing the company's wrongdoing?

Answer: A Explanation: A) Increasingly the employees face ethical dilemmas and ethical choices, in which they are required to identify right and wrong conduct. What constitutes good ethical behavior has never been clearly defined, and, in recent years, the line differentiating right from wrong has blurred.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities Quest. Category: Application LO: 5 60) Managers and their organizations are responding to the problem of unethical behavior in all of the following ways except .

A) by offering seminars, workshops, and other training programs to try to improve ethical behaviors B) by writing and distributing codes of ethics to guide employees through ethical dilemmas C) by providing monetary incentives to employees who reveal illegal business practices D) by providing in-house advisors who can be contacted for assistance in dealing with ethical issues E) by creating protection mechanisms for employees who reveal internal unethical practices Answer: C Explanation: C) Managers and their organizations are responding to the problem of unethical behavior in a number of ways. They're writing and distributing codes of ethics to guide employees through ethical dilemmas. They're offering seminars, workshops, and other training programs to try to improve ethical behaviors. They're providing in-house advisors who can be contacted, in many cases anonymously, for assistance in dealing with ethical issues, and they're creating protection mechanisms for employees who reveal internal unethical practices.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5

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61) An ethically healthy climate .

A) exists where employees confront a minimal degree of ambiguity regarding what constitutes right and wrong behaviors B) is non-existent in businesses C) seldom allows employees to do their work productively D) cannot be created by managers, but must be dictated by the organization's mission E) interferes with the actual performance of the organization Answer: A Explanation: A) Companies that promote a strong ethical mission, encourage employees to behave with integrity, and provide strong ethical leadership can influence employee decisions to behave ethically. Today's manager must create an ethically healthy climate for his or her employees, where they can do their work productively with minimal ambiguity about what right and wrong behaviors are.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 11 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 62) Although managers must be technically competent, technical knowledge is often not enough for success.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Managers may get by on their technical and quantitative skills the first couple of years out of school. But soon, leadership and communication skills become important to success.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1 Objective: Interpersonal Skills Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 1 63) Over the last three decades, business school curricula has focused more on the technical aspects of management such as economics, accounting, finance, and quantitative techniques, and less on subjects related to human behavior and people skills.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Until the late 1980s, business school curricula emphasized the technical aspects of management, focusing on economics, accounting, finance, and quantitative techniques. Over the past three decades, however, business faculty have come to realize the role that understanding human behavior plays in determining a manager's effectiveness, and required courses on people skills have been added to many curricula.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 1

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64) Organizational behavior is a field of study that investigates the impact that individuals, groups, and structure have on productivity within organizations, for the purpose of applying such knowledge toward defining an organization's objectives.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Organizational behavior is a field of study that investigates the impact that individuals, groups, and structure have on behavior within organizations, for the purpose of applying such knowledge toward improving an organization's effectiveness.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 1 65) Behavior is generally unpredictable, and the systematic study of behavior is a means making reasonably accurate predictions.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Behavior is generally predictable, and the systematic study of behavior is a means to making reasonably accurate predictions.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 66) The vast majority of management decisions are still made in a hurry, with little or systematic study of available evidence.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Evidence-based management (EBM) complements systematic study by basing managerial decisions on the best available scientific evidence. A manager might pose a managerial question, search for the best available evidence, and apply the relevant information to the question or case at hand. But the vast majority of management decisions are still made "on the fly," with little or systematic study of available evidence.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 67) Intuition comes from "gut feelings" about the state of some phenomenon of interest.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Intuition is a gut feeling not necessarily supported by research.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 68) Social psychology is an area within psychology, blending concepts from both psychology and socialism.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Social psychology, generally considered a branch of psychology, blends concepts from both psychology and sociology to focus on peoples' influence on one another.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional Copyright © 2012 Pearson Education, Inc

69) Conflict and power have been major topics of concern for social psychologists.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Social psychologists have made important contributions to our study of group behavior, power, and conflict.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4 Objective: Social Psychology Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 70) What psychology is to the group, sociology is to the individual.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: While psychology focuses on the individual, sociologists have contributed to OB through their study of group behavior in organizations, particularly formal and complex organizations.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 71) Anthropology has helped us understand differences in values and attitudes between people in different countries.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Anthropology is the study of societies to learn about human beings and their activities. Anthropologists' work on cultures and environments has helped us understand differences in fundamental values, attitudes, and behavior between people in different countries and within different organizations.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5 Objective: Anthropology Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 72) OB researchers cannot offer reasonably accurate explanations of human behavior since people act very differently in similar situations.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Two people often act very differently in the same situation, and the same person's behavior changes in different situations. That doesn't mean that we can't offer reasonably accurate explanations of human behavior or make valid predictions. It does mean that OB concepts must reflect situational, or contingency, conditions. We can say x leads to y, but only under conditions specified in z—the contingency variables.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5 Objective: Observational Behavior Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 4

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73) OB draws from several research-based theories about how people behave in organizations and contains several straightforward cause-and-effect relationships.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Human beings are complex, and few, if any, simple and universal principles explain organizational behavior. As such, few straightforward cause-and-effect relationships exist in this discipline. Organizational behavior theories mirror the subject matter with which they deal, and people are complex and complicated.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 4 74) In good economic conditions, understanding how to reward, satisfy, and retain employees is at a premium, however, in bad times, issues like stress, decision making, and coping come to the fore.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Managing employees well when times are tough is just as hard as when times are good—if not more so. But the OB approaches sometimes differ. In good times, understanding how to reward, satisfy, and retain employees is at a premium. In bad times, issues like stress, decision making, and coping come to the fore.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 75) As the world has become more global, managers have to become capable of working with people from different cultures.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: To work effectively with people from different cultures, you need to understand how their culture, geography, and religion have shaped them and how to adapt your management style to their differences.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6 AACSB: Dynamics of the Global Economy; Multicultural and Diversity Understanding Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 76) Workforce diversity is a topic dealing with how organizations are becoming more homogeneous in terms of gender, race, and ethnicity.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Workforce diversity acknowledges a workforce of women and men; many racial and ethnic groups; individuals with a variety of physical or psychological abilities; and people who differ in age and sexual orientation.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding Objective: Workforce Diversity Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5

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77) Less than 10 percent of the U.S. labor force is female.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: The most significant change in the U.S. labor force during the last half of the twentieth century was the rapid increase in the number of female workers. By 2008, it was 46.5 percent.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding Objective: Workforce Diversity Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 78) In terms of the U.S. labor force, the number of workers belonging to the 55-and-older age group is expected to dramatically decline in the near future.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: In the near term the labor force will be aging. The 55-and-older age group, currently 13 percent of the labor force, will increase to 20 percent by 2014.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 79) The common characteristic of manufacturing jobs is that they require substantial interaction with an organization's customers.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: The common characteristic of service jobs is that they require substantial interaction with an organization's customers. Many an organization has failed because its employees failed to please customers.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 80) Today's managers and employees must learn to cope with temporariness, flexibility, spontaneity, and unpredictability.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Globalization, expanded capacity, and advances in technology have required organizations to be fast and flexible if they are to survive. The result is that most managers and employees today work in a climate best characterized as "temporary."

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 Objective: Temporariness Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5

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81) There's an increasing blurring between the work and nonwork time.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Employees are increasingly complaining that the line between work and nonwork time has become blurred, creating personal conflicts and stress.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10 Objective: Balance Work-Life Conflicts Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 82) Balancing work and life demands now surpasses job security as an employee priority.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Employees increasingly recognize that work infringes on their personal lives, and they're not happy about it. Recent studies suggest employees want jobs that give them flexibility in their work schedules so they can better manage work–life conflicts. In fact, balancing work and life demands now surpasses job security as an employee priority.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 83) Ethical dilemmas are situations in which employees are required to identify right and wrong conduct.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Increasingly, employees are facing ethical dilemmas and ethical choices, in which they are required to identify right and wrong conduct. Managers must create an ethically healthy climate for employees, where they can do their work productively with minimal ambiguity about what right and wrong behaviors are.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 84) Determining the ethically correct way to behave is especially difficult in a global economy because different cultures have different perspectives on certain ethical issues.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: What constitutes good ethical behavior has never been clearly defined, and, in recent years, the line differentiating right from wrong has blurred. Determining the ethically correct way to behave is especially difficult in a global economy because different cultures have different perspectives on certain ethical issues.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5

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85) Why is it important to complement intuition with systematic study in our attempts to understand behavior within organizations?

Answer: It is important to complement intuition with systematic study in our attempts to understand behavior within organizations in order to help uncover important facts and relationships. This will provide a base from which more accurate predictions of behavior can be made. That is, we can improve our predictive ability by complementing intuitive opinions with a more systematic approach. Systematic study involves looking at relationships, attempting to attribute causes and effects, and basing conclusions on scientific evidence. This process helps us to explain and predict behavior.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3 Objective: Systematic Study Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 86) Describe how one of the sciences that contributes to organizational behavior could be used in EBM. Define the science, some of the science's contributions to OB, and describe a workplace example of how it could be used in EBM. Answer: Evidence-based management (EBM) complements systematic study by basing managerial decisions on the best available scientific evidence. Doctors need to make decisions about patient care based on the latest available evidence, and EBM argues that managers should do the same, becoming more scientific in how they think about management problems. For example, a manager that is struggling with high turnover in his company could look toward social psychology to help solve the problem. Social psychology, generally considered a branch of psychology, blends concepts from both psychology and sociology to focus on people's influence on one another. One major study area is change, how to implement it and how to reduce barriers to its acceptance. A manager could look at a social psychology study on job satisfaction to determine what changes he might make to be able to better retain employees.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 3, 4 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Skills Objective: Manager's Job Quest. Category: Synthesis LO: 2, 3

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87) How have the fields of psychology and sociology contributed to our understanding of organizational behavior?

Answer: Psychology seeks to measure, explain, and change the behavior of humans.

Contributions have been made by learning theorists, personality theorists, counseling psychologists, and industrial and organizational psychologists. Contributions have been made in learning, perception, personality, emotions, training, leadership effectiveness, needs and motivational forces, job satisfaction, decision-making processes, performance appraisals, attitude measurement, employee-selection techniques, work design, and job stress. Sociology studies people in relation to their social environment or culture. The greatest contributions by sociologists have been in the study of group behavior in organizations, organizational culture, formal organization theory and structure, organizational technology, communications, power, and conflict.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3-4 Objective: Behavioral Sciences Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 88) Compare and contrast the fields of psychology, social psychology, and sociology.

Answer: These fields all deal with the human condition. While psychology focuses on the individual, sociology studies people in relation to their social environment or culture. Social psychology blends concepts from both psychology and sociology, though it is generally considered a branch of psychology. It focuses on people's influence on one another. Thus, it could be said that social psychology falls between the extremes of the individual focus of psychology and the large group focus of sociology.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 3-5 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Skills Objective: Behavioral Sciences Quest. Category: Synthesis LO: 3 89) Explain "workforce diversity." What key managerial skill do you think is most important when dealing with workforce diversity?

Answer: Workforce diversity is a term used to describe how organizations are becoming more heterogeneous with regard to gender, race, and ethnicity. It also includes disabilities, sexual orientation, and age. Human skills are defined by the ability to work with, understand, and motivate other people and would be important to manage a diverse workforce because of the different individual variables that the manager would be working with.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7 Objective: Workforce Diversity Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5

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90) Most managers and employees today work in a climate best characterized as "temporary."

Explain.

Answer: Globalization, expanded capacity, and advances in technology have required organizations to be fast and flexible if they are to survive. The result is that most managers and employees today work in a climate best characterized as "temporary."

Workers must continually update their knowledge and skills to perform new job requirements. In the past, employees were assigned to a specific work group, gaining a considerable amount of security working with the same people day in and day out. That predictability has been replaced by temporary work groups, with members from different departments, and the increased use of employee rotation to fill constantly changing work assignments. Finally, organizations themselves are in a state of flux. They continually reorganize their various divisions, sell off poorly performing businesses, downsize operations, subcontract noncritical services and operations to other organizations, and replace permanent employees with temporary workers.

Today's managers and employees must learn to cope with temporariness, flexibility, spontaneity, and unpredictability.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 91) What conclusions can you draw about turnover if an employer strives to find balance in work-life conflicts? How can the employer find this balance and still have productive employees?

Answer: Because work is constantly infringing on people's lives, some employers make efforts to find balance in the work-life conflict. For example, if a job requires a lot of travel time away from the family, when the travel assignment is done, the employer could allow the employee to work from home several days to be able to spend more time with the family. Allowing flexible schedules and complimentary time off for overtime worked gives an employee time to recuperate what was lost to work, thus increasing job satisfaction and most likely decreasing turnover.

Turnover is the voluntary and involuntary permanent withdrawal from an organization. A high turnover rate results in increased recruiting, selection, and training costs which are quite significant. Although it might appear that the employer is losing productivity by allowing flexible time and balance in work-life conflicts, he is actually increasing productivity because he isn't training new employees due to reduced turnover, and employees with high job satisfaction are more productive.

Diff: 3 Page Ref: 10 Objective: Turnover Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5

Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 11E (Robbins) Chapter 2 Attitudes and Job Satisfaction 1) Which of the following is the best definition of attitude?

A) Attitudes indicate how one will react to a given event.

B) Attitudes are the yardstick by which one measures one's actions.

C) Attitudes are the emotional part of an evaluation of a person, object, or event.

D) Attitudes are evaluative statements of what one believes about something or someone.

E) Attitudes are a measure of how the worth of an object, person, or event is evaluated.

Answer: D Explanation: Attitudes are defined as evaluative statements, either favorable or unfavorable, about objects, people, or events. Although attitudes can indicate how people will react and behave, this is not the definition encompassing all attitudes. Emotion and evaluation are facets of types of attitudes.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.1 Contrast the three components of an attitude.

2) The opinion or belief component of a person's attitude is called .

A) complex understanding B) the cognitive component C) the affective component D) a complex attitude E) the behavior component Answer: B Explanation: Attitudes have three components: cognition, affect, and behavior. The cognitive component of an attitude deals with an opinion or belief about the attitude target.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.1 Contrast the three components of an attitude.

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3) Janice is spending the summer working as an intern writing copy for a local firm. Today Janice's senior editor sent back some of Janice's work covered in red ink corrections. Up until now, all of Janice's work had been corrected in green or blue ink. Janice is upset and worried that her senior editor doesn't like her. Which component of an attitude is not represented in the previous scenario?

A) The positive component B) The cognitive component C) The affective component D) The negative component E) The behavioral component Answer: E Explanation: In the example, Janice does not take action. Therefore, she does not demonstrate the behavioral component of an attitude. Janice believes that her senior editor doesn't like her.

This judgment, or evaluation, demonstrates the cognitive component of an attitude. Janice is upset. She has had an emotional reaction to the red ink on her work, which represents the affective component of an attitude. Although an attitude can be positive or negative, these are not considered components of an attitude as defined in OB. Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.1 Contrast the three components of an attitude.

4) DeSean's belief that "his pay is low" is an evaluative statement. Such an opinion constitutes the component of DeSean's attitude.

A) cognitive B) affective C) reflective D) behavioral E) reactive Answer: A Explanation: The cognitive component of an attitude is a description of, or belief in, the way things are, which is exemplified in DeSean's statement, "My pay is low." The affective component of an attitude reveals the emotional reaction, and the behavioral component is how someone behaves toward someone or something. There are no components of attitude called reflective or reactive in OB. Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.1 Contrast the three components of an attitude.

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5) While conversing at lunch, the employees of Dinkin Douglas Corporation made several statements. Which of the following is an example of an affective attitude?

A) Sam: "I believe you did a good job on that project."

B) Carla: "My observation is that most dogs have four legs."

C) Deidre: "My opinion is that it is never acceptable to steal."

D) Lakeesha: "I am angry at being unfairly accused of a wrongdoing."

E) Rahim: "I avoid a restaurant where I once received bad service."

Answer: D Explanation: Affective attitudes reveal emotion, such as anger. Belief and opinions are examples of cognitive or evaluative attitudes. Observation and avoidance are behaviors and are facets of behavioral attitudes.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.1 Contrast the three components of an attitude.

6) Attitudes are objective statements.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Attitudes in OB are defined as evaluative statements or judgments concerning objects, people, or events. They are subjective and not objective statements.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.1 Contrast the three components of an attitude.

7) The statement, "I'm going to look for another job that pays better," is an example of the behavioral component of an attitude.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: The behavioral component of an attitude describes an intention to behave a certain way toward someone or something.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.1 Contrast the three components of an attitude.

8) The affective component of an attitude is an opinion or belief about the attitude target.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: The affective component is the emotional or feeling segment of an attitude. An opinion or belief about the attitude target is its cognitive component.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.1 Contrast the three components of an attitude.

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9) Contradictions individuals might perceive between their attitudes and their behavior is called .

A) organizational identification B) cognitive dissonance C) psychological empowerment D) power distance E) objective ambiguity Answer: B Explanation: Cognitive dissonance refers to any incompatibility between two or more attitudes or between behavior and attitudes.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.2 Summarize the relationship between attitudes and behavior.

10) When there is , people will alter either their attitudes or their behaviors, or they will develop a rationalization for the discrepancy.

A) reactance B) constancy C) resistance D) consistency E) dissonance Answer: E Explanation: Cognitive dissonance is defined as any incompatibility, or inconsistency, an individual might perceive between two or more attitudes or between behavior and attitudes.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.2 Summarize the relationship between attitudes and behavior.

11) Several powerful characteristics change the nature of the attitudes-behavior relationship.

Which of the following is not one of them?

A) The importance of the attitude B) Its correspondence to behavior C) The person's indirect experience with the attitude D) Its accessibility E) The presence of social pressures Answer: C Explanation: Whether a person has direct experience with the attitude is one of the several powerful characteristics that change the nature of the attitudes-behavior relationship.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.2 Summarize the relationship between attitudes and behavior.

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12) Any incompatibility between two or more attitudes or between behavior and attitudes results in .

A) organizational dissonance B) cognitive dissonance C) attitudinal clarification D) values clarification E) affective reactance Answer: B Explanation: Cognitive dissonance is defined as any incompatibility an individual might perceive between two or more attitudes or between behavior and attitudes. Organizational dissonance, attitudinal clarification, values clarification, and affective reactance are not types of attitude or behavior in OB. Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.2 Summarize the relationship between attitudes and behavior.

13) Research supports the idea that attitudes predict .

A) stereotyping B) future behavior C) diversity handling D) job raises E) motivational bases Answer: B Explanation: Attitudes and behavior are related. Research, in general, supports the idea that attitudes predict future behavior.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 3.2 Summarize the relationship between attitudes and behavior.

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14) Aisha is a courier delivering parcels throughout the metropolitan area. Although she considers herself law abiding, she often breaks the speed limit while making her deliveries.

Which of the following statements does not reflect a likely response to the conflict between her attitude and her behavior?

A) "It's not a problem that I speed a little bit; it's not much over the limit, and everyone else speeds some."

B) "The speed limits are just too low around here; anyone driving at a reasonable speed will break them."

C) "This speeding is irresponsible. From now on I am observing the speed limits."

D) "I've got to drive fast sometimes, otherwise I will not make all my deliveries and I'll lose clients."

E) "It's wrong to break even minor laws, but I'll probably keep speeding anyway."

Answer: E Explanation: Aisha seeing speeding as wrong and not providing a reason to continue does not logically fit into a method of reducing cognitive dissonance. Aisha is able to justify her speeding just a little bit and still feel comfortable. Aisha justifies her speeding because the limits are too low. Aisha's cognitive dissonance is too strong, so she quits speeding. Aisha reduces the dissonance by rationalizing her need to speed.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.2 Summarize the relationship between attitudes and behavior.

15) Sheila works for a manufacturer of Styrofoam trays for school lunches. Last year her son came home from school and told her that the trays she makes go straight to the landfill where they sit for hundreds of years without ever biodegrading. Although this information bothers Sheila, she does not look for another job because she enjoys her very high salary. Which dissonance moderating factor is illustrated by this example?

A) Dissonance is reduced because of the sense of control by the individual.

B) Dissonance is reduced because of the importance to the individual.

C) There is no dissonance moderating factor in the example.

D) Dissonance is increased because of the sense of control by the individual.

E) High dissonance is tolerated because of a high reward.

Answer: E Explanation: Sheila tolerates her dislike for this aspect of her job because she is given a high reward in the form of a high salary. Sheila does not feel like she can control what the company does with the trays. Control doesn't increase or reduce the dissonance. Although the information bothers Sheila and she considers it important, she is not able to reduce the dissonance.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.2 Summarize the relationship between attitudes and behavior.

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16) Lakeesha believes strongly that it is important that worker's rights be respected, and that one of the more important ways of doing this is to ensure that all workers be properly documented.

She is supervising a contracting company that is building a new warehouse for her company.

While doing this she discovers that many of the workers employed by the contractor are undocumented aliens working for well below minimum wage. Lakeesha is likely experiencing .

A) cognitive dissonance B) unresolved anger C) ethical evasion D) uncertainty avoidance E) social pressure Answer: A Explanation: Because there is a contradiction in what Lakeesha is feeling and the situation in which she finds herself, she is experiencing cognitive dissonance, any incompatibility an individual might perceive between two or more attitudes or between behavior and attitudes. The example doesn't say that Lakeesha is experiencing anger or social pressure. Not knowing what Lakeesha will do, we cannot say whether she will avoid the ethical decisions.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.2 Summarize the relationship between attitudes and behavior.

17) Lakeesha believes strongly that it is important that worker's rights be respected, and that one of the more important ways of doing this is to ensure that all workers be properly documented.

She is supervising a contracting company that is building a new warehouse for her company.

While doing this, she discovers that many of the workers employed by the contractor are undocumented aliens working for well below minimum wage. Lakeesha can be expected to relieve the discomfort she is experiencing by doing all of the following except .

A) deciding this issue is unimportant B) rationalizing that it is not her problem since she is not the contractor C) attempting to stop the contractor using undocumented workers D) coming to accept that using undocumented workers does not harm workers' rights E) terminating the contract as it is against her attitude Answer: E Explanation: Research has generally concluded that people do seek consistency among their attitudes and between their attitudes and their behavior. They either alter the attitudes or the behavior, or they develop a rationalization for the discrepancy. Each of these answers is an example of how Lakeesha either alters her attitude or behavior.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.2 Summarize the relationship between attitudes and behavior.

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18) Lakeesha believes strongly that it is important that worker's rights be respected, and that one of the more important ways of doing this is to ensure that all workers be properly documented.

She is supervising a contracting company that is building a new warehouse for her company.

While doing this she discovers that many of the workers employed by the contractor are undocumented aliens working for well below minimum wage. In this situation Lakeesha has a(n) that is in conflict with a(n) .

A) behavior; behavior B) attitude; attitude C) social need; social interest D) social need; social need E) attitude; behavior Answer: E Explanation: The belief in workers' rights represents Lakeesha's attitude, which comes into direct conflict with her behavior of contracting illegal workers. Her behavior is not conflicting with another behavior, nor are two attitudes conflicting represented in this example. Social need and interest are not a part of the attitude equation.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.2 Summarize the relationship between attitudes and behavior.

19) The desire to reduce dissonance is determined by three moderating factors including the .

A) values of the elements creating the dissonance B) degree of influence the individual believes he or she has over the elements C) degree of positive affect the person has toward the behavior D) fact that values and attitudes will vary over the short term E) awareness that dissonance exists Answer: B Explanation: The desire to reduce dissonance depends on moderating factors, including the importance of the elements creating it, the degree of influence we believe we have over it, and the rewards of dissonance. Not mentioned are the values of the elements or the degree of positive affect toward the behavior. Values and attitudes will vary, but don't reduce dissonance.

Awareness of dissonance doesn't mean that dissonance will be reduced.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.2 Summarize the relationship between attitudes and behavior.

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20) Cameron loves her job as a data programmer, but her co-worker Chang, is very challenging.

Chang often loses his temper over aspects of shared projects that neither of them can control.

When discussing projects in Cameron's workstation, Chang plays with her office supplies, rearranges her desk, and leaves snack and food crumbs. Worst of all, Chang always takes the portion of a project that is the easiest, leaving Cameron to work harder and longer hours. Which of the following is not an effective method for handling Cameron's problems with Chang?

A) Cameron should invite Chang to lunch and directly confront him with her feelings.

B) Cameron should invite Chang to coffee to clarify if there are any misunderstandings.

C) Cameron should simply ignore Chang and his behavior.

D) Cameron should make a point of going to Chang's workstation and leaving a mess.

E) Cameron should ask a manager to help divide the workload for the next project.

Answer: D Explanation: Although tempting, retaliation will only escalate the situation. Cameron should not engage in Chang's petty behavior by messing up his workstation. A direct and conciliatory approach is the first step to try, as well as seeing the problem from the other person's point of view. If unable to solve the problem, the next best thing to do is to ignore it. Involving management is a last resort but can be done if there is a positive solution in mind, such as evenly dividing the work.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.2 Summarize the relationship between attitudes and behavior.

21) Your friend Leslyn has been driving a Mustang for the past few years and is very vocal about how much she likes her car. Unfortunately, she was recently in an accident and has now purchased a brand-new Challenger. Now she talks about how much she likes the Challenger and has started to criticize Mustangs! Which statement would best describe what you should say to Leslyn the next time she talks about cars?

A) Leslyn, I liked your Mustang, but your Challenger is great too!

B) Leslyn, I am sorry about your car. Why did you not get another Mustang?

C) Leslyn, I am sorry about your Mustang. It was a great car, but your Challenger is great too!

D) Leslyn, I am sorry about your Mustang, but do you need to be so negative toward it now?

E) Leslyn, your negativity is driving us all nuts!

Answer: C Explanation: Leslyn is experiencing cognitive dissonance and needs help resolving her feelings about the old car in relation to the new car. By complimenting both cars, you are aiding her in resolving her feelings which allows her to embrace both vehicles.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 3.2 Summarize the relationship between attitudes and behavior.

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22) Which of the following is not a moderating variable of the attitude-behavior relationship?

A) Direct experience B) Correspondence to behavior C) Power D) Accessibility E) Importance Answer: C Explanation: The most powerful moderators of the attitudes relationship are the importance of the attitude, its correspondence to behavior, its accessibility, the presence of social pressures, and whether a person has direct experience with the attitude.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.2 Summarize the relationship between attitudes and behavior.

23) Thad, Jamarcus, and Willy have been working for Davidson International each for three years. While the trio started together as analysts and are all still on the same team, Jamarcus has recently been made a team lead while Willy and Thad are still in their respective positions although Willy did receive a small raise after his last performance evaluation. Willy was happy to receive the raise but felt guilty that Thad did not also get a raise. Which best describes Willy's feelings?

A) Cognitive dissonance B) Affective behavior C) Job satisfaction D) Workplace deviance E) Organizational citizenship Answer: A Explanation: While he is happy for what he has received, Willy feels badly for his teammate.

He has two different feelings toward the same situation, which is causing his dissonance.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 3.2 Summarize the relationship between attitudes and behavior.

24) Research, in general, supports the idea that attitudes predict future behaviors.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Attitudes can cause people to behave in certain ways. This suggests that attitudes predict future behavior.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.2 Summarize the relationship between attitudes and behavior.

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25) The presence of social pressures is a characteristic that changes the nature of the attitudes-behavior relationship.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Several powerful characteristics change the nature of the attitudes-behavior relationship. The presence of social pressures is one of them.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.2 Summarize the relationship between attitudes and behavior.

26) Contradictions individuals might perceive between their attitudes and their behavior is called cognitive dissonance.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Cognitive dissonance refers to any incompatibility between two or more attitudes or between behavior and attitudes.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.2 Summarize the relationship between attitudes and behavior.

27) Describe the characteristics that change the nature of the attitudes-behavior relationship.

Answer: Five characteristics change the nature of the attitudes-behavior relationship. They are: the importance of the attitude, its correspondence to behavior, its accessibility, the presence of social pressures, and whether a person has direct experience with the attitude.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.2 Summarize the relationship between attitudes and behavior.

28) Discuss cognitive dissonance theory. How do individuals seek consistency among their attitudes, and between their attitudes and their behavior?

Answer: Cognitive dissonance refers to any incompatibility an individual might perceive between two or more attitudes, or between behavior and attitudes. Festinger argued that any form of inconsistency is uncomfortable, and that individuals will attempt to reduce the dissonance and, hence, the discomfort. They will seek a stable state, in which there is a minimum of dissonance.

Research has generally concluded that people seek consistency among their attitudes, and between their attitudes and their behavior. They do this by altering either the attitudes or the behavior, or by developing a rationalization for the discrepancy. They can deny that any clear causation between the attitude and the behavior has been established. They can brainwash themselves by continually articulating the benefits of the attitude or the behavior. They can acknowledge the negative consequences of the attitude or behavior but rationalize it. They can accept the research evidence and begin actively working to better the conditions. Or they can quit the attitude or the behavior because the dissonance is too great.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.2 Summarize the relationship between attitudes and behavior.

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29) James is a scientist for a local manufacturer that employs a large percentage of the small town where he lives. Until recently James has loved his job. However, it has been discovered that the company is releasing small amounts of toxins into the local river. James is extremely bothered by this information. Based on what you know about James, describe the cognitive dissonance that he is experiencing, and two ways that James might alter his behavior or attitude to reduce the dissonance.

Answer: As a scientist James is horrified by his company's pollution. The dissonance he feels is the contradiction between a sense of loyalty and love for his job, versus an anger at the company's infractions. To reduce the dissonance James could rationalize that all companies pollute a little bit, and that it is worth the sacrifice because his company provides jobs for the whole community. James could accept certain excuses and evidence that the company provides, such as that the pollution is tiny and moves down-river, not really affecting his community.

James can ignore the dissonance because he values his job as a scientist in a community with few jobs.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.2 Summarize the relationship between attitudes and behavior.

30) Ming works as a customer service representative at a community bank. Ming identifies strongly with her job that involves solving customer problems. In addition, she often works long hours happily in her job and considers her job performance as important to her self-worth. The above describes Ming's .

A) job satisfaction B) job involvement C) job stability D) organizational commitment E) social investment Answer: B Explanation: Ming exhibits a high job involvement. Related to job satisfaction is job involvement, the degree to which people psychologically identify with their jobs and consider their perceived performance levels important to their self-worth.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.3 Compare the major job attitudes.

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31) Employees' beliefs in the degree to which they influence their work environment, their competence, the meaningfulness of their job, and their perceived autonomy is termed as .

A) psychological empowerment B) organizational commitment C) perceived organizational support D) employee engagement E) job satisfaction Answer: A Explanation: Employees' beliefs in the degree to which they influence their work environment, their competence, the meaningfulness of their job, and their perceived autonomy is termed as psychological empowerment.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.3 Compare the major job attitudes.

32) Related to job satisfaction, is the degree to which a person identifies with his or her job, actively participates in it, and considers his or her performance as being important to self-worth.

A) job satisfaction B) job involvement C) job stability D) organizational commitment E) social embeddedness Answer: B Explanation: Job involvement measures the degree to which people identify psychologically with their job and consider their perceived performance level important to self-worth. Employees with a high level of job involvement strongly identify with and really care about the kind of work they do.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.3 Compare the major job attitudes.

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33) In regard to job engagement, having a good manager they enjoy working for and were found to be the top causations.

A) feeling appreciated by one's supervisor B) being paid what they feel they are worth C) getting timely promotions D) socializing with one's coworkers E) having flexible work schedules Answer: A Explanation: Feeling appreciated by one's supervisor is also a top indicator; however, there are no clear indicators of job engagement that can be consistently found.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.3 Compare the major job attitudes.

34) In her work in the publishing industry, Vera seeks out new authors whom she considers promising. In the past two years she has found a number of new writers whose work she thought was exceptional and immersed herself in the task of helping them shape their manuscripts for submission to her managers for publishing. Although she was extremely proud of the results, none of the authors she worked with were chosen for publication. Vera believes that the decision not to publish these authors was based on personal rivalries within management, rather than the quality of her writers' work. She is extremely frustrated, dreads coming into work each morning, and is seriously thinking of resigning. How can Vera's job attitudes best be described?

A) Low job satisfaction and low job involvement B) Low job satisfaction and high job involvement C) High job satisfaction and low job involvement D) High job satisfaction and high job involvement E) Low organizational commitment Answer: B Explanation: Vera is feeling negative toward her job resulting in low job satisfaction, even though she believes that she has invested tremendously in the organization and is important to it, showing a high job involvement. Vera's negative feelings reveal a low job satisfaction rating.

Vera showed dedication to her organization as she prepared her writers.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.3 Compare the major job attitudes.

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35) Which of the following is not considered a major job attitude by OB researchers?

A) Job satisfaction B) Positive personality C) Organizational commitment D) Employee engagement E) Job involvement Answer: B Explanation: A positive personality isn't considered a major job attitude in OB. A positive feeling about one's job as indicated in job satisfaction is considered a major job attitude.

Organizational commitment, the degree to which a person identifies with the organization, and job involvement, the degree to which a person identifies with the job and participates in it, are both considered major job attitudes, as is employee engagement, a person's involvement with the job.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.3 Compare the major job attitudes.

36) Lance recently earned his doctorate from a historic university, famous for its top academics and sports programs. While in graduate school, he was very active in student life and intramurals and maintained an active social life while earning high marks for his teaching and research.

Upon graduation, he was elected "senator at large" for the alumni association and still maintains strong relationships with his faculty and mentors. After graduation, Lance was hired as an assistant professor at a metropolitan university. This university is only 30 years old, has no sports program and very little collegiality among the faculty and staff. Although his teaching evaluations are high, he gets very little positive input from his supervisors and feels that he is constantly being abused and overworked by the administration, regardless of his personal life.

With which two job attitudes is Lance most likely having issues?

A) Cognitive dissonance and job satisfaction B) Job satisfaction and employee engagement C) Employee engagement and perceived organizational support D) Perceived organizational support and cognitive dissonance E) Job satisfaction and perceived organizational support Answer: D Explanation: First, Lance is experiencing perceived organizational support issues because he feels that regardless of what his personal needs are that his current university does not support him or respect what he does. Second, Lance is experiencing cognitive dissonance because he is comparing his current experience to the more positive experience he had while in graduate school, even though the situations are not particularly similar.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 3.3 Compare the major job attitudes.

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37) Organizational commitment is defined as .

A) the degree to which an employee identifies with the organization they work for and its goals B) an employee's belief that the organization they work for will go to considerable lengths to ensure that its employees are treated fairly C) the degree to which an employee's sense of fulfillment and self-worth is related to their job D) the amount of effort an employee will make in order to keep or advance their position in an organization E) the degree to which an employee believes their work impacts their organization Answer: A Explanation: The degree to which an employee identifies with a particular organization and its goals and wishes to maintain membership in the organization is organizational commitment.

Perceived organizational support (POS) is an employee's belief that the organization they work for will go to considerable lengths to ensure that its employees are treated fairly. Job involvement is the degree to which an employee's sense of fulfillment and self-worth is related to their job. Psychological empowerment is the degree to which an employee believes their work impacts their organization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.3 Compare the major job attitudes.

38) Of the following attitudes, the best predictor of turnover is .

A) pay B) supervision C) organizational commitment D) cognitive dissonance E) affective dissonance Answer: C Explanation: Research evidence demonstrates negative relationships between organizational commitment and both absenteeism and turnover. Pay, supervision, cognitive dissonance, and affective dissonance are not attitudes.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.3 Compare the major job attitudes.

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39) is the degree to which employees believe the organization values their contribution and cares about their well-being.

A) Psychological empowerment B) Employee engagement C) Perceived organizational support D) Organizational commitment E) Job involvement Answer: C Explanation: Perceived organizational support (POS) is the degree to which employees believe the organization values their contribution and cares about their well-being. Research shows that people perceive their organization as supportive when rewards are deemed fair, when employees have a voice in decisions, and when they see their supervisors as supportive.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.3 Compare the major job attitudes.

40) Guillermo's wife was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. Guillermo had to take a considerable amount of time off work to care for their children, and he was late in completing his portion of a large project. Guillermo never feared that his job was in jeopardy because of his absences or his delay in completion of work. Name the major job attitude relative to the above stated example.

A) Psychological empowerment B) Perceived organizational support C) Organizational commitment D) Employee engagement E) Job involvement Answer: B Explanation: Guillermo believed that his organization would be supportive through his times of stress. This major job attitude is called perceived organizational support. The belief and sense that a person has an effect in the work environment is psychological empowerment.

Organizational commitment, the degree to which a person identifies with the organization, and job involvement, the degree to which a person identifies with the job and participates in it, are both considered major job attitudes, as is employee engagement, a person's involvement with the job, but these were not what calmed Guillermo's fears.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.3 Compare the major job attitudes.

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41) Siddarth has a positive attitude toward his organization. He feels the management treats all employees fairly in matters concerning rewards, takes into account employees' opinions, and overall, is highly supportive. Siddarth's attitude toward his employing organization is indicative of .

A) psychological empowerment B) employee engagement C) perceived organizational support D) core self-evaluations E) organizational citizenship Answer: C Explanation: Perceived organizational support (POS) is the degree to which employees believe the organization values their contribution and cares about their well-being. Research shows that people perceive their organization as supportive when rewards are deemed fair, when employees have a voice in decisions, and when they see their supervisors as supportive.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.3 Compare the major job attitudes.

42) Perceived organizational support (POS) is important in countries where the is lower.

A) power distance B) uncertainty avoidance C) cognitive dissonance D) individualism E) employer engagement Answer: A Explanation: POS is important in low power distance (the degree to which people accept that power in institutions and organizations is distributed unequally) cultures.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.3 Compare the major job attitudes.

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43) In the United States, people are more likely to view work as a(n) than as a moral obligation.

A) exchange B) pastime C) recreation D) avocation E) end Answer: A Explanation: The United States is a low power distance country where people are more likely to view work as an exchange than as a moral obligation.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.3 Compare the major job attitudes.

44) In Malaysia, people accept that power in institutions and organizations is distributed unequally. This refers to .

A) power distance B) cognitive dissonance C) uncertainty avoidance D) organizational hierarchy E) organizational ambiguity Answer: A Explanation: Malaysia is an example of a country that exhibits power distance. In power distance cultures, people accept the unequal distribution of power.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.3 Compare the major job attitudes.

45) Which of the following statements is not true about organizational commitment?

A) An employee with strong organizational commitment identifies with their organization.

B) An employee with strong organizational commitment will wish to remain a member.

C) Even if employees are not currently happy with their work, they may decide to continue with the organization if they are committed enough.

D) Employees who are committed are more likely to engage in work withdrawal.

E) Employees who are committed have a sense of organizational loyalty.

Answer: D Explanation: Employees who are committed will be less likely to engage in work withdrawal, even if they are dissatisfied.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.3 Compare the major job attitudes.

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46) In high power-distance countries such as China, employee perceived organizational support perceptions are not as deeply based on employer demonstrations of fairness, support, and encouragement. The difference is the .

A) rate of financial rewards B) amount vacation days awarded C) level of expectations by employees D) willingness to work overtime by employees E) willingness of employers to take part in employees' personal lives Answer: C Explanation: In high-power distance countries such as China, employees accept that their power is distributed unequally and therefore they have little to no expectations of things such as fairness, support, and encouragement.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 3.3 Compare the major job attitudes.

47) Thad, Jamarcus, and Willy have been working for Davidson International each for three years. While the trio started together as analysts and are all still on the same team, Jamarcus has recently been made a team lead while Willy and Thad are still in their respective positions although Willy did receive a small raise after his last performance evaluation. Of the five major job attitudes, Jamarcus probably has the highest level of , while Willy probably has the highest level of .

A) job satisfaction; perceived organizational support B) job satisfaction; organizational commitment C) organizational commitment; job involvement D) organizational commitment; job satisfaction E) job involvement; job satisfaction Answer: B Explanation: While both are probably experiencing levels of all job attitudes, it is likely that Jamarcus has the highest level job satisfaction because he apparently is doing so well in his job that he has been promoted. Willy probably has the highest levels of organizational commitment because, even though he has not been promoted, his efforts have been rewarded.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 3.3 Compare the major job attitudes.

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48) Job involvement refers to the positive feeling about one's job resulting from an evaluation of its characteristics.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Job involvement is the degree to which a person identifies with a job, actively participates in it, and considers performance important to self-worth. Related to this but different is job satisfaction that refers to the positive feeling about the job.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.3 Compare the major job attitudes.

49) Most of the research in OB has been concerned with three attitudes: job satisfaction, job involvement, and organizational commitment. Explain the difference between these attitudes.

Answer: Job satisfaction refers to an individual's general attitude toward his or her job. A person with a high level of job satisfaction holds positive attitudes toward the job, while a person who is dissatisfied with his or her job holds negative attitudes about the job. Job involvement measures the degree to which a person identifies psychologically with his or her job and considers his or her perceived performance level important to self-worth. Employees with a high level of job involvement strongly identify with and really care about the kind of work they do.

Organizational commitment is defined as a state in which an employee identifies with a particular organization and its goals and wishes to maintain membership in the organization. So high organizational commitment means identifying with one's employing organization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Synthesis LO: 3.3 Compare the major job attitudes.

50) Explain the relationship between perceived organizational support (POS) and power distance.

Answer: POS is the degree to which employees believe the organization values their contributions and cares about their well-being. POS is influenced by culture. One such cultural dimension is power distance, the degree to which people in a country accept that power in institutions and organizations is distributed unequally. POS is important in low power distance countries such as the United States. In contrast, in a country with high power distance such as China, POS perceptions are not as deeply based on employer demonstrations of fairness, support, and encouragement.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.3 Compare the major job attitudes.

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51) How can the gaps between what managers think employees feel and what employees really feel be reduced?

A) Conducting regular surveys B) Enforcing administrative policies C) Improving work place conditions D) Providing incentives E) Training employees Answer: A Explanation: Regular surveys can reduce gaps between what managers think employees feel and what they really feel. This can impact the bottom line in small franchise sites as well as in large companies.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.4 Identify the two approaches for measuring job satisfaction.

52) As the manager of a high-volume bank, you are faced daily with customers who are in a hurry and need decidedly speedy service from the window tellers. Which of the following would most likely cause your employees to offer the customers the service they want while also keeping your employees satisfied with their roles?

A) Pay them more B) Seek input from the tellers on how to improve their job C) Offer them flex time D) Bring donuts for the break room E) Let the tellers manage themselves Answer: B Explanation: Research shows that simply asking the employees their opinions can effectively increase their job satisfaction.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.4 Identify the two approaches for measuring job satisfaction.

53) In the 2017 World Happiness Report, what percentage of employees were satisfied with their jobs?

A) 27.5 B) 92.5 C) 84 D) 52.8 E) 71.2 Answer: B Explanation: 92.5 percent of the respondents in 160 countries worldwide in the 2017 World Happiness Report indicated satisfaction with their jobs.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 3.4 Identify the two approaches for measuring job satisfaction.

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54) In general, U.S. workers are satisfied with their jobs.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Approximately 51 percent of U.S. workers reported satisfaction with their jobs.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 3.4 Identify the two approaches for measuring job satisfaction.

55) Generally, interesting jobs that provide training, variety, independence, and control satisfy most employees.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Job conditions influence job satisfaction. Factors such as training and variety are conditions of the job that are related to job satisfaction.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.4 Identify the two approaches for measuring job satisfaction.

56) After working for twenty years at the Harper Company, Darci gets a pay of $80,000, a figure that enables her to make a comfortable living. To Darci, the relationship between pay and job satisfaction .

A) becomes stronger B) turns positive C) becomes negligible D) becomes negative E) weakens, but only slightly Answer: C Explanation: For people who are poor or who live in poor countries, pay does correlate with job satisfaction and overall happiness. But once an individual reaches a level of comfortable living (in the United States, that occurs at about $40,000 a year, depending on the region and family size), the relationship between pay and job satisfaction virtually disappears. People who earn $80,000, like Darci, are, on average, no happier with their jobs than those who earn closer to $40,000.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.5 Summarize the main causes of job satisfaction.

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57) Five high school classmates meet at their 10th high school reunion and compare their salaries. Charles makes $24,000 a year. Ana makes $40,000 a year. Ellis makes $75,000 a year.

Adam makes $75,000 a year. Shonali makes $30,000 a year. If the former classmates converse about pay and job satisfaction, which of the following would not be a true statement about the usual correlation between pay and job satisfaction?

A) Charles is less likely to be satisfied with his job than Adam.

B) Ana is as likely to be as satisfied with her job as Ellis.

C) Ellis and Adam are more likely to be satisfied with their jobs than Shonali.

D) Charles is less likely to be satisfied with his job than Shonali.

E) Shonali is as likely to be satisfied with her job as Charles.

Answer: D Explanation: Research shows that once a person earns a comfortable living at $40,000 in the United States the correlation between pay and job satisfaction disappears, making Ana, Ellis, and Adam all likely to be equally satisfied with their jobs. For those earning under $40,000 a year, pay is related to job satisfaction, making Charles likely to be less satisfied than Adam. Since Charles and Shonali both earn under $40,000 they are likely to be equally dissatisfied.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.5 Summarize the main causes of job satisfaction.

58) Mario has been a forklift driver for the local grocery store for six years. He earns $32,000 a year. He likes and gets along well with his work group. He plays soccer with his co-workers on the weekends and watches his and his work group's favorite team on TV. The work group also volunteers together at the local food bank during the holidays, and socializes with their families at summer picnics. Mario is highly satisfied with his job. Which of the following is the most probable cause of Mario's high job satisfaction?

A) Pay B) Promotion C) High stress D) Social context E) Work itself Answer: D Explanation: There is a strong correspondence between how well people enjoy the social context of their workplace and how satisfied they are overall. Mario is very active with his co-workers, which leads to his job satisfaction. In contrast, Mario's pay is under $40,000, which would, in general, indicate a less comfortable lifestyle and lower level of satisfaction. In addition, Mario has been doing the same thing for six years, indicating little promotion or stress.

The work itself is repetitive and would not usually indicate a high level of satisfaction.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.5 Summarize the main causes of job satisfaction.

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59) Which of the following is generally considered the best predictor of job satisfaction?

A) Pay B) Social interactions C) Co-workers D) The work itself E) Task interdependence Answer: D Explanation: While supervision ranks slightly above the work itself in a 2017 survey, the work itself ranks higher than all the items listed in the question.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.5 Summarize the main causes of job satisfaction.

60) Individuals with high levels of are most likely to have high levels of job satisfaction.

A) core self-evaluations B) mentoring relationships C) social interactions D) cognitive resonance E) career commitment Answer: A Explanation: People who have positive core self-evaluations are more satisfied with their job than people with negative CSEs. Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 3.5 Summarize the main causes of job satisfaction.

61) The Danone Corporation embarks on a number of self-regulated actions to benefit society or the environment beyond what is required by law. This refers to The Danone Corporation's commitment to .

A) organizational citizenship B) shareholder primacy C) corporate social responsibility D) fiduciary responsibility E) shareholder compact Answer: C Explanation: Corporate social responsibility or CSR refers to actions that an organization takes to benefit society beyond what the laws mandate.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 3.5 Summarize the main causes of job satisfaction.

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62) Which of the following does not apply to corporate social responsibility?

A) Not all projects are equally meaningful for every person's job satisfaction.

B) Participation for all employees is sometimes expected.

C) Some organizations require employees to contribute in a prescribed manner.

D) Pressuring people to go along with CSR will help them think outside the box.

E) CSR measures can seem disconnected from the employee's actual work.

Answer: D Explanation: Pressuring people to go along with CSR can actually cause them to retreat from the organization and have lower levels of job satisfaction.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 3.5 Summarize the main causes of job satisfaction.

63) Adam and Devin are both in their fifties. They have had long careers and had switched multiple jobs in their careers. Adam has a new job opportunity, and he asks Devin for his opinion. Devin suggests that Adam think about the best job he has ever had and whether the new opportunity features any of these attributes. If you were Adam, how would you respond to this?

Answer: Answers to this question will vary greatly but Adam should include reference to some elements of training, variety, independence, and control that varied among the jobs that he had had. In addition, how did the jobs vary in terms of interdependence, feedback, social support, interaction with coworkers outside the workplace, and/or the work itself. Most students playing the role of Adam will probably also reference interactions with the manager.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.5 Summarize the main causes of job satisfaction.

64) What is corporate social responsibility (CSR) and how is it related to job satisfaction?

Answer: CSR refers to an organization's self-regulated actions to benefit society or the environment beyond what is required by law. Organizations practice CSR through environmental sustainability initiatives, nonprofit work, and charitable giving. CSR is related to job satisfaction in that employees whose personal values fit with the organization's CSR mission are often more satisfied. This is supported by results of surveys. When managed well, CSR can increase employee job satisfaction.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.5 Summarize the main causes of job satisfaction.

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65) Which of the following is not an example of organizational citizenship behavior?

A) Telling your friends about the company's great work environment B) Contributing to a fund for a co-worker to help with medical bills C) Discouraging a friend from applying for a job at the company D) Working over the weekend to make sure a project gets done E) Volunteering to help a colleague meet a deadline Answer: C Explanation: OCB, or organizational citizenship behavior, refers to positive behaviors toward the company. Discouraging a friend to apply implies a dissatisfaction and negative attitude.

Talking positively about the organization, helping others, and going beyond the normal expectations of the job are all examples of OCB. Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.6 Identify three outcomes of job satisfaction.

66) What is the correlation between job satisfaction and organizational citizenship behavior (OCB)?

A) Inverse B) Moderate C) Curvilinear D) None E) Negative Answer: B Explanation: Evidence suggests job satisfaction is moderately correlated with OCB; people who are more satisfied with their jobs are more likely to engage in citizenship behavior.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 3.6 Identify three outcomes of job satisfaction.

67) Who are most likely to demonstrate organizational citizenship behaviors?

A) The highest paid employees B) The lowest paid employees C) Those who are satisfied with their jobs D) Those whose citizenship behaviors go unnoticed E) The supervisor Answer: C Explanation: Job satisfaction has a moderate correlation with OCB. This means that people who are satisfied with their jobs are more likely to exhibit OCB. Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 3.6 Identify three outcomes of job satisfaction.

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68) Happy workers are more likely to be productive workers.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: A review of 300 studies suggested that the correlation between happy workers and productivity is quite robust.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.6 Identify three outcomes of job satisfaction.

69) Job satisfaction is not related to organizational citizenship behavior (OCB).

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Evidence suggests that job satisfaction is moderately correlated with OCB; people who are more satisfied with their jobs are more likely to engage in citizenship behavior.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 3.6 Identify three outcomes of job satisfaction.

70) Which of the following employees does not exhibit deviant behavior in the workplace?

A) Samuel quits his job because his manager never appreciates his efforts.

B) Joanna, an HR executive, uses work time to surf articles on the latest fashion trends.

C) Ramos takes work supplies like pens and paper clips home for personal use.

D) Lakeesha does not show up for work for more than 3 days a week.

E) Ming wraps up her work early to attend her daughter's ballet recital.

Answer: E Explanation: Job dissatisfaction and antagonistic relationships with co-workers predict a variety of behaviors organizations find undesirable, including unionization attempts, substance abuse, stealing at work, undue socializing, and tardiness. These behaviors are indicators of deviant behavior in the workplace (or counterproductive behavior or employee withdrawal).

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

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71) The exit-voice-loyalty-neglect framework to understand job dissatisfaction uses two dimensions: and .

A) demonstrative/destructive; transparent/opaque B) low; high C) constructive/destructive; active/passive D) loyalty; disloyalty E) engaged; disengaged Answer: C Explanation: The dimensions vary in terms of whether they are constructive or destructive and whether they are active or passive.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

72) The performance variables absenteeism and reduced effort are generally considered a part of the behavior in the exit-voice-loyalty-neglect framework.

A) voice B) loyalty C) exit D) citizenship E) neglect Answer: E Explanation: In the exit-voice-loyalty-neglect framework, the neglect response passively allows conditions to worsen and includes chronic absenteeism or lateness and reduced effort.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

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73) Employees at Acme Express are dissatisfied with the working conditions, salary, and the general attitude of the management. Carlos, Susan, and Toni are good friends who work at Acme, yet each seems to be reacting differently to the problems at work. Toni has decided that she'll just get a new job and get away from the problem. Toni is dealing with her dissatisfaction through .

A) exit B) voice C) loyalty D) neglect E) acceptance Answer: A Explanation: The exit response directs behavior toward leaving the organization, including looking for a new position as well as resigning. The voice response includes actively and constructively attempting to improve conditions, including suggesting improvements, discussing problems with superiors, and undertaking some forms of union activity. The loyalty response means passively but optimistically waiting for conditions to improve. The neglect response passively allows conditions to worsen and includes chronic absenteeism or lateness, reduced effort, and increased error rate. Acceptance is not a reaction to dissatisfaction on the job.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

74) Employees at Pizza Palace are dissatisfied with various aspects of their job: the working conditions, salary, and the general attitude of the management. Priyanka, Amaro, and Bijoy all work the same shift at the company, yet each seems to be reacting differently to the problems at work. Priyanka has written down her list of concerns along with her suggestions for improving conditions. Priyanka is dealing with her dissatisfaction through .

A) exit B) voice C) loyalty D) neglect E) acceptance Answer: B Explanation: The voice response includes actively and constructively attempting to improve conditions, including suggesting improvements, discussing problems with superiors, and undertaking some forms of union activity. The exit response directs behavior toward leaving the organization, including looking for a new position as well as resigning. The loyalty response means passively but optimistically waiting for conditions to improve. The neglect response passively allows conditions to worsen and includes chronic absenteeism or lateness, reduced effort, and increased error rate. Acceptance is not a reaction to dissatisfaction on the job.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

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75) Employees at Pizza Palace are dissatisfied with various aspects of their job: the working conditions, salary, and the general attitude of the management. Priyanka, Amaro, and Bijoy all work the same shift at the company, yet each seems to be reacting differently to the problems at work. Amaro believes that his manager, Tony is a good person and will work things out if Amaro just gives him time to do so. Amaro is dealing with his dissatisfaction through .

A) exit B) voice C) loyalty D) neglect E) acceptance Answer: C Explanation: The loyalty response means passively but optimistically waiting for conditions to improve. The exit response directs behavior toward leaving the organization, including looking for a new position as well as resigning. The voice response includes actively and constructively attempting to improve conditions, including suggesting improvements, discussing problems with superiors, and undertaking some forms of union activity. The neglect response passively allows conditions to worsen and includes chronic absenteeism or lateness, reduced effort, and increased error rate. Acceptance is not a reaction to dissatisfaction on the job.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

76) Employees at Pizza Palace are dissatisfied with various aspects of their job: the working conditions, salary, and the general attitude of the management. Priyanka, Amaro, and Bijoy all work the same shift at the company, yet each seems to be reacting differently to the problems at work. Bijoy is dissatisfied with the way that her manager, Tony treats her. She has quit her job and found a new position with Pizza Palace's rival, Pizza Delight She has expressed her dissatisfaction through .

A) exit B) voice C) loyalty D) neglect E) citizenship Answer: A Explanation: The exit response directs behavior toward leaving the organization, including looking for a new position as well as resigning. The voice response includes actively and constructively attempting to improve conditions, including suggesting improvements, discussing problems with superiors, and undertaking some forms of union activity. The loyalty response means passively but optimistically waiting for conditions to improve. The neglect response passively allows conditions to worsen and includes chronic absenteeism or lateness, reduced effort, and increased error rate. Citizenship is not a reaction to dissatisfaction on the job.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

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77) A satisfied workforce does not guarantee successful organizational performance. In order to improve organizational effectiveness, managers .

A) must formulate strategies to attack and eliminate deviant behaviors B) must keep track of absenteeism and turnover among the employees C) must make jobs easier and targets achievable D) must offer periodic salary increments E) must try to improve employee attitudes Answer: E Explanation: Creating a satisfied work force is hardly a guarantee of successful organizational performance, but evidence strongly suggests that whatever managers can do to improve employee attitudes will likely result in heightened organizational effectiveness.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

78) Malcolm is unhappy with his job at City Lubes. He resorts to putting in reduced effort and deliberately increases his error rate at his oil change jobs. Malcolm is expressing his dissatisfaction through .

A) exit B) voice C) loyalty D) social voice E) neglect Answer: E Explanation: The neglect response passively allows conditions to worsen and includes chronic absenteeism or lateness, reduced effort, and increased error rate—things that Malcolm is doing at City Lubes. The exit response directs behavior toward leaving the organization, including looking for a new position as well as resigning. The voice response includes actively and constructively attempting to improve conditions, including suggesting improvements, discussing problems with superiors, and undertaking some forms of union activity. The loyalty response means passively but optimistically waiting for conditions to improve. Social voice is not a reaction to dissatisfaction on the job.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

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79) Amy works as a reporter at City Gazette. Because of a sharp decline in advertising revenues, the paper laid off 10 percent of its workforce. This led to significant criticism in the community.

Amy voiced her support of the newspaper at a community hearing. Which response is demonstrated by Amy's actions?

A) Exit B) Disgruntlement C) Loyalty D) Neglect E) Performance Answer: C Explanation: The loyalty response means passively but optimistically waiting for conditions to improve. The exit response directs behavior toward leaving the organization, including looking for a new position as well as resigning. The neglect response passively allows conditions to worsen and includes chronic absenteeism or lateness, reduced effort, and increased error rate.

Performance and disgruntlement are not a reaction to dissatisfaction on the job.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

80) Aditi is dissatisfied with her job at Omega Optics and does not like her boss. She quits the organization and relocates to a different city for a new job. Which type of response is Aditi using in the situation at Omega Optics?

A) Exit B) Voice C) Loyalty D) Neglect E) Performance Answer: A Explanation: The exit response directs behavior toward leaving the organization, including looking for a new position as well as resigning. The voice response includes actively and constructively attempting to improve conditions, including suggesting improvements, discussing problems with superiors, and undertaking some forms of union activity. The loyalty response means passively but optimistically waiting for conditions to improve. The neglect response passively allows conditions to worsen and includes chronic absenteeism or lateness, reduced effort, and increased error rate. Performance is not a reaction to dissatisfaction on the job.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

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81) Things are not good at work for Ryan. He is not getting the promotion that he deserves, and he is unable to get out of the graveyard shift that he has been doing for the last two years. To address his concerns, Ryan began attending his company's union meetings on a regular basis.

What type of job dissatisfaction response is Ryan exhibiting?

A) Exit B) Voice C) Loyalty D) Neglect E) Reification Answer: B Explanation: The voice response includes actively and constructively attempting to improve conditions, including suggesting improvements, discussing problems with superiors, and undertaking some forms of union activity. The exit response directs behavior toward leaving the organization, including looking for a new position as well as resigning. The loyalty response means passively but optimistically waiting for conditions to improve. The neglect response passively allows conditions to worsen and includes chronic absenteeism or lateness, reduced effort, and increased error rate. Reification is not a reaction to dissatisfaction on the job.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

82) Roberto works as a reporter for his local newspaper. Because the newspaper was hard hit by a downturn in the economy, it reduced Roberto's pay by 20 percent. Roberto is upset about the reduction pay, but he shows up at work every morning and is willing to patiently wait until economic times improve, and he can get back to his full pay. Which of the following best describes Roberto's response to his dissatisfaction?

A) Active, constructive, voice B) Passive, destructive, neglect C) Passive, constructive, loyal D) Active, destructive, exit E) Active, constructive, loyal Answer: C Explanation: Roberto demonstrates loyalty to the company and is passively waiting for things to improve, which is a constructive response. He is not voicing his negative feelings about less work. He continues to show up for work and does not neglect his duties. He is waiting for things to get better rather than looking for a different job. He is passive, rather than active in his behavior.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

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83) Job dissatisfaction is more likely to translate into when employees feel or perceive they have many available alternatives. This can happen when employees have high human capital.

A) neglect B) engagement C) tardiness D) turnover E) absenteeism Answer: D Explanation: Job dissatisfaction is more likely to translate into turnover when employment opportunities are plentiful because employees perceive it is easy to move. When employees have high "human capital" (high education, high ability), job dissatisfaction is more likely to translate into turnover because they have, or perceive, many available alternatives.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

84) Under which of the following conditions is job dissatisfaction less predictive of turnover?

A) When employees consider their current jobs to be unattractive B) When employees are presented with unsolicited job offers C) When employment opportunities are plentiful D) When employees are highly skilled E) When employees are highly educated Answer: B Explanation: If an employee is presented with an unsolicited job offer, job dissatisfaction is less predictive of turnover because the employee is more likely leaving because of "pull" (the lure of the other job) than "push" (the unattractiveness of the current job). Similarly, job dissatisfaction is more likely to translate into turnover when employment opportunities are plentiful because employees perceive it is easy to move. Finally, when employees have high "human capital" (high education, high ability), job dissatisfaction is more likely to translate into turnover because they have, or perceive, many available alternatives.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

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85) Under which of the following conditions is job dissatisfaction not likely to translate into turnover?

A) Lack of job prospects B) Alternative job prospects C) High human capital D) Ease of job mobility E) High employee education Answer: A Explanation: The satisfaction–turnover relationship is affected by alternative job prospects. Job dissatisfaction is more likely to translate into turnover when employment opportunities are plentiful because employees perceive it is easy to move. When employees have high "human capital" (high education, high ability), job dissatisfaction is more likely to translate into turnover because they have, or perceive, many available alternatives.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

86) Dispatch Heroes Inc. is a medium-sized logistics company. The management is facing tough times as the workers are dissatisfied and are engaging in a number of deviant workplace behaviors such as stealing, undue socializing, and tardiness. The management is considering enforcing several restrictions to curb these counterproductive behaviors. What would be a better way to deal with such forms of workplace deviance?

A) Employers must take corrective action to stop the unwanted activities.

B) Employers should attack the source of the problem, i.e., the dissatisfaction.

C) Employers must introduce surveillance to ensure smooth flow of work.

D) The management must suspend employees who engage in deviant workplace behaviors.

E) The management must restrict the activities that adversely affect productivity.

Answer: B Explanation: Workers who don't like their jobs "get even" in various ways–and because those ways can be quite creative, controlling only one behavior, such as with an absence control policy, leaves the root cause untouched. To effectively control the undesirable consequences of job dissatisfaction, employers should attack the source of the problem–the dissatisfaction–rather than try to control the different responses.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

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87) Companies listed within the "100 Best Companies to Work for in America" .

A) experienced 25% lower turnover in their employees than other firms B) generated 2.3% to 3.8% higher stock returns than other firms C) paid 10% more for equivalent jobs than other firms D) experienced a 10% increase in their market share E) reported 14% higher profits than other firms Answer: B Explanation: While job satisfaction affects the bottom line, the only evidence that we have from studying the "100 Best Companies to Work for in America" is that such firms generate higher stock returns than their counterparts who are not on the list.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

88) Common causes of counterproductive work behaviors include .

A) lack of job satisfaction B) being in the wrong line of work C) being in the wrong organization D) lack of promotional opportunities E) abusive supervision Answer: D Explanation: While a lack of promotional opportunities may lead to job satisfaction, there is no indication that a lack of promotional opportunities leads directly to CWB. Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

89) may help to lower counterproductive work behaviors within groups.

A) Citizenship behaviors B) Strict punishments C) Team-based incentives D) Individual-based incentives E) Personality testing Answer: C Explanation: Along with creating strong teams and providing formalized policies, team-based incentives may help lower CWB contagion.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

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90) The relationship between job satisfaction and is stronger than between satisfaction and absenteeism.

A) turnover B) motivation C) attitude D) behavior E) cognition Answer: A Explanation: A pattern of lowered job satisfaction is the best predictor of intent to leave— turnover.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

91) Voice is a type of response to dissatisfaction.

A) constructive/passive B) destructive/active C) constructive/active D) demonstrative/passive E) destructive/passive Answer: C Explanation: The voice response includes actively and constructively attempting to improve conditions to mitigate dissatisfaction.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

92) Loyalty is an active and constructive response to dissatisfaction.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: The loyalty response means passively but optimistically waiting for conditions to improve. It is not an active response.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

93) Neglect is an active and constructive response to dissatisfaction.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: The neglect response passively allows conditions to worsen. It is both passive and destructive.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

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94) The exit response is dissatisfaction expressed through behavior directed toward leaving the organization.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: The exit response falls in the active/constructive dimensions of responses to dissatisfaction.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

95) Sabrina works in the call center of a major Internet retailer. She earns $38,000 a year. Her schedule is strict, and she is generally not able to attend her son's high school cross-country events because they always seem to clash with her work schedule.

Elmo works for the same Internet retailer as Sabrina, but his job is in the product development department. He earns $80,000 a year. He is expected to work 40 hours a week, but he is allowed to set his own work hours every day. As a single parent, Elmo's flexible work schedule allows him to attend his daughter's school events How would you compare Sabrina and Elmo's levels of job satisfaction?

Answer: Sabrina is likely to be less satisfied than Elmo in the pure measurement of pay because she makes less than the $40,000 level required for a comfortable living, while Elmo (who works for the same organization) is able to make a good living. Elmo's level of perceived organizational support is higher because the company allows him a flexible schedule that enables him to be a big part of his daughter's life. Sabrina's situation is the very opposite of Elmo's because her strict schedule makes her miss her son's activities. Elmo probably has a higher level of job involvement due to the challenging nature of his work, in contrast to Sabrina's more routine job.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

96) Ramona has just been passed up for a promotion and is still earning less than $40,000 a year.

She is experiencing a very low level of job satisfaction. Describe two passive responses that Ramona might take due to her dissatisfaction.

Answer: Responses to job dissatisfaction differ along two dimensions: constructive/destructive and active/passive. Ramona's passive responses could include loyalty or neglect. The loyalty response means passively but optimistically waiting for conditions to improve. In contrast, Ramona's neglect response would passively allow conditions to worsen, including chronic absenteeism, reduced effort, and an increased error rate.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

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97) Elisa is upset with her supervisor because she was denied her requested vacation days, which were given to another worker. She is experiencing a very low level of job satisfaction but cannot afford to quit her job. Describe three negative, passive responses that Elisa might take due to her dissatisfaction. Imagine that her manager actively catches her in a manifestation of workplace deviance. Predict the outcome of Elisa's behavior.

Answer: Because Elisa cannot quit her job, her responses will be to passively neglect her work.

She could manifest this in a number of ways, from increased absenteeism, to poor customer service, to workplace deviance, such as surfing the Internet during work hours, or stealing work supplies. If Elisa's manager were to catch her surfing the Internet he or she would most likely reprimand Elisa, increasing her level of dissatisfaction and level of job neglect. A better solution would be to question Elisa as to what she is doing, and perhaps opening up lines of communication which would allow her a chance to actively and positively voice her grievance.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

98) Discuss how job dissatisfaction can impact employee absenteeism.

Answer: While unsatisfied employees tend to be absent more often, the relationship between dissatisfaction and absenteeism is not very strong. Generally, when numerous alternative jobs are available, dissatisfied employees have high absence rates, but when there are few alternatives, dissatisfied employees have the same (low) rate of absence as satisfied employees.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

99) One of your co-workers has begun to exhibit a prevalent CWP: surfing the Internet during work hours. What does this tell you about your co-worker and what can you do to reverse the issue?

Answer: While responses to this will vary, student responses should touch upon Internet surfing as a withdrawal behavior which is indicative of boredom or lack of motivation. As the student is not in a managerial position, an appropriate response would be to help motivate their co-worker or to help them seek more challenging responsibilities.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

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100) Sandra works as a waitress at Chez Rivera, an upscale restaurant that is located in the city's business district. She is dissatisfied with her job because she is given a shift that clashes with her classes at a nearby university. Her boss wouldn't listen to her pleas and has threatened to dock her pay if she keeps requesting changes to her schedule. Sandra is a soft spoken and generally timid person who hates confrontation. She needs this job to pay her college tuition. How can she express her dissatisfaction?

Answer: There are four responses to dissatisfaction that differ along two dimensions: constructive/destructive and active/passive. Given Sandra's character, it is likely that her response would be loyalty—a response that is in the passive domain but is not destructive. It is likely that Sandra expresses her dissatisfaction by passively waiting for conditions to improve (such as her boss being replaced by someone more sympathetic).

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Synthesis LO: 3.7 Identify four employee responses to job dissatisfaction.

41 Copyright © 2012 Pearson Education, Inc.

Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 11E (Robbins) Chapter 3 Emotions and Moods 1) Which of the following is a generic term that covers a broad range of feelings that people experience?

A) Affect B) Emotions C) Moods D) Emotional labor E) Cognition Answer: A Explanation: Affect is defined as a broad range of feelings that people experience, and it encompasses both moods and emotions. Emotions are intense feelings directed at someone or something. Moods are less intense feelings than emotions and often (though not always) lack a contextual stimulus.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

2) Which of the following statements is true regarding emotions?

A) Emotions are caused by specific events.

B) Emotions last longer than moods.

C) Moods are more action oriented in nature than emotions.

D) Emotions are generally not indicated by distinct facial expressions.

E) Emotions are less intense feelings than moods.

Answer: A Explanation: Emotions are caused by specific events. Moods last longer than emotions.

Emotions are usually accompanied by distinct facial expressions. Moods are less intense feelings than emotions. Emotions are more action oriented in nature than moods.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

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3) Joanna and Rahul are working as a team on a project for the Almeida Company. Rahul's tardiness causes the team to miss an important deadline. Joanna yells at Rahul in anger for his mistake. Which of the following terms best describes the intense feelings that Joanna directs at Rahul?

A) Affect B) Cognition C) Moods D) Emotional labor E) Emotions Answer: E Explanation: Emotions are intense feelings that are directed at someone or something.

Emotions are reactions to a person (seeing a friend at work may make you feel glad) or an event (dealing with a rude client may make you feel angry).

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

4) Which of the following terms best describes feelings that tend to be less intense than emotions?

A) Affect B) Cognition C) Moods D) Thoughts E) Reactions Answer: C Explanation: Moods are feelings that tend to be less intense than emotions and that lack a contextual stimulus. Moods aren't usually directed at a person or an event. Moods may be more cognitive, meaning they may cause us to think or brood for a while.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

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5) Jim and DeSean are salesmen at Ironwood Company. Jim is a prankster, and he makes it his mission to annoy DeSean on a daily basis. When DeSean came in one morning, he found all his business cards stapled together, just when he was about to leave for a sales call. In response, DeSean throws his chair at Jim. Which of the following best describes DeSean's anger?

A) An affect B) A thought C) A mood D) An emotion E) A mental process Answer: D Explanation: DeSean is experiencing the intense feeling of anger, which is an emotion directed toward Jim, his fellow worker. Emotions are intense feelings that are directed at someone or something and are more likely to be caused by a specific event.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

6) Erin works at a software company, in charge of the help desk. After being yelled at by a customer about the state of her company's software, she becomes angry, and has to take a short break to calm down. What makes her anger an emotion, rather than a mood?

A) It is a simple, unambiguous feeling.

B) Her response is prolonged.

C) It has a contextual stimulus.

D) Her response is not accompanied by facial expressions.

E) It is cognitive in nature.

Answer: C Explanation: Erin's feelings are brought on by being yelled at, which is a contextual stimulus.

Her response is short, rather than prolonged. These are both characteristics of emotion.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

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7) When his son won the regional Spelling Bee, Mario immediately felt a surge of joy, which turned into a feeling of satisfaction that lasted for several weeks. What is one of the reasons that Mario's feeling of satisfaction might be categorized as a mood and not an emotion?

A) It is a very strong feeling.

B) It is brought about by a specific event.

C) It has a lengthy duration.

D) It is a positive feeling.

E) It is expressed on his face.

Answer: C Explanation: Mario's general unambiguous feeling of happiness is ongoing or prolonged (for weeks), which is a characteristic of mood. Contextual stimulus, strong feelings, and facial expression are characteristics of emotion. Both mood and emotion can be positive.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

8) When Ariana is told that her dog has been killed by a car, her eyes widen in disbelief and tears begin to stream down her face. Later that day she is able to laugh and talk about the fun times she had with her dog. What is one of the reasons that Ariana's reaction can be categorized as an emotion?

A) It is a general, unambiguous feeling.

B) It is accompanied by facial expressions.

C) It has a lengthy duration.

D) It is a positive feeling.

E) Her reaction is cognitive in nature.

Answer: B Explanation: Ariana's shock and crying are visible on her face, a characteristic of emotion.

Most experts believe emotions are more fleeting than moods, which is why Ariana is able to laugh and talk about the fun times she had with her dog later that day.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

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9) Which of the following statements is true regarding moods?

A) Moods are more intense feelings than emotions.

B) Moods don't last longer than emotions.

C) Moods are more action oriented in nature, as compared to emotions.

D) Moods are less cognitive in nature than emotions.

E) Moods are generally not indicated by distinct facial expressions.

Answer: E Explanation: Moods are generally not indicated by distinct facial expressions. Moods are less intense feelings than emotions and last longer than emotions. Emotions are more action oriented in nature and moods are more cognitive in nature.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

10) is an emotion that falls into the category of high negative affect.

A) Serenity B) Anxiety C) Fatigue D) Boredom E) Relaxation Answer: B Explanation: Negative affect is a mood dimension consisting of nervousness, stress, and anxiety at the high end.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

11) Research finds that when nothing in particular is happening, called positivity offset, most individuals experience a(n) .

A) intensely positive mood B) mildly positive mood C) neutral mood D) mildly negative mood E) intensely negative mood Answer: B Explanation: Research finds a positivity offset, meaning that at zero input (when nothing in particular is going on), most individuals experience a mildly positive mood. This appears to be true for employees in a wide range of job settings.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

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12) is a pure marker of low negative affect.

A) Stress B) Relaxation C) Boredom D) Tenseness E) Anxiety Answer: B Explanation: Negative affect is a mood dimension consisting of nervousness, stress, and anxiety at the high end and relaxation, tranquility, and poise at the low end.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

13) Negative affect is a mood dimension consisting of at the low end.

A) nervousness B) relaxation C) anxiety D) stress E) depression Answer: B Explanation: Negative affect is a mood dimension consisting of nervousness, stress, and anxiety at the high end and relaxation, tranquility, and poise at the low end.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

14) A means that when nothing is going on, people are generally in a mildly good mood.

A) low positive affect B) positivity offset C) high positive affect D) residual positivity E) high negative affect Answer: B Explanation: A positivity offset means that at zero input most individuals experience a mildly positive mood. For most people, positive moods are somewhat more common than negative moods.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

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15) is a pure marker of high positive affect.

A) Excited B) Serene C) Nervous D) Relaxed E) Bored Answer: A Explanation: When we group emotions into positive and negative categories, they become mood states because we are now looking at them more generally instead of isolating one particular emotion. Excited is a pure marker of high positive affect.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

16) Positive affect is a mood dimension consisting of at the low end.

A) excitement B) stress C) nervousness D) tranquility E) boredom Answer: E Explanation: We can think of positive affect as a mood dimension consisting of positive emotions such as excitement, self-assurance, and cheerfulness at the high end and boredom, sluggishness, and tiredness at the low end.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

17) Which of the following mood dimensions is not a pure marker of high negative affect?

A) Stress B) Tension C) Upset D) Boredom E) Nervousness Answer: D Explanation: When we group emotions into positive and negative categories, they become mood states because we are now looking at them more generally instead of isolating one particular emotion. Boredom is a pure marker of low positive affect.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

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18) Which of the following is not an example of a moral emotion?

A) Sympathy for the suffering of others B) Anger over coworker's tardiness C) Anger about injustice done to others D) Guilt about own immoral behavior E) Contempt for those who behave unethically Answer: B Explanation: Moral emotions refer to emotions that have moral implications because of our instant judgment of the situation that evokes them. Anger over a coworker's tardiness has no moral implication.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

19) Agnes works in a fish processing plant, doing work that most people find extremely unpleasant. However, she still has a positive mood about 60 percent of the time. Which of the following concepts can explain such a finding?

A) Moral effect B) Framing effect C) The fundamental attribution error D) Self-serving bias E) Positivity offset Answer: E Explanation: The people in the plant are generally happy and positive, which is the definition of positivity offset (something that Agnes feels), or the tendency of most individuals to experience a mildly positive mood at zero input (when nothing in particular is going on).

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

20) Emotions are .

A) independent of the personality of individuals B) strongly affected by weather C) less intense as compared to moods D) less likely to be caused by a specific event than moods E) critical to rational thinking Answer: E Explanation: Emotions are critical to rational thinking. We must have the ability to experience emotions to be rational. Why? Because our emotions provide important information about how we understand the world around us.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

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21) When DeSean watched the news one day, he felt disgusted when he saw a clip of a politician making a sexist remark. What kind of an emotion is DeSean expressing?

A) Genetic B) Acquired C) Moral D) Gender E) Sublimal Answer: C Explanation: Moral emotions are emotions that have moral implications because of our instant judgment of the situation that evokes them.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

22) The way we an emotion is not always the same as the way we .

A) experience; show it B) experience; interpret it C) show; interpret it D) show; trust it E) trust; experience it Answer: A Explanation: Psychologists have tried to identify basic emotions by studying how we express them. In so doing, they have encountered challenges because expressions of emotions vary.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

23) Which of the following statements about emotions and moods is not true?

A) Emotions are caused by specific events.

B) The cause of moods is often general and unclear.

C) Emotions are usually accompanied by distinct facial expressions.

D) Moods are very brief in their duration.

E) Emotions are specific and numerous in nature.

Answer: D Explanation: Emotions, not moods, are very brief in their duration.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

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24) Which of the following emotions is an example of a positive affect?

A) Nervousness B) Excitement C) Stress D) Anxiety E) Serenity Answer: B Explanation: Excitement is an emotion associated with a positive affect; the rest are emotions associated with a negative affect.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

25) Moral emotions are those emotions that have moral implications because of our .

A) religious beliefs B) interpersonal relationships C) individualistic culture D) instant judgment of the situation that evokes them E) guilt caused by our society Answer: D Explanation: Moral emotions include sympathy for the suffering of others, guilt about our own immoral behavior, anger about injustice done to others, and contempt for those who behave unethically.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

26) When Juan saw a homeless man begging for food on the street, he felt a strong wave of sympathy. In feeling this, Juan expresses his emotion.

A) moral B) valence C) agentic D) cognitive E) societal Answer: A Explanation: Sympathy for the suffering of others is a moral emotion.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

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27) Emotions are caused by specific events.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Emotions are intense, discrete, and short-lived feeling experiences that are often caused by a specific event.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

28) Moods are short-lived, while emotions are longer-lived feelings.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Emotions are intense, discrete, and short-lived. In contrast, moods are longer lived and less intense feelings.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

29) Explain what a "positivity effect" is in terms of moods and emotions.

Answer: A positivity effect means that at zero input (when nothing in particular is going on), most individuals experience a mildly positive mood. In other words, positivity seems to be the default mood for most people. In general, positive moods enable employees to perform better, be more creative, be more social, as well as improve their health and longevity—for these reasons, humans may have evolved to possess a positivity effect.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

30) Explain the term "affect" and indicate how affect is related to moods and emotions.

Answer: The term "affect" refers to a broad range of feelings that people experience. Affect varies by its valence, or the degree to which the feelings are positive or negative. The broad term "affect" is divided into emotions and moods. Emotions are intense feelings that are directed at someone or something. Finally, moods are feelings that tend to be less intense than emotions and which lack a contextual stimulus.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

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31) What are the basic emotions? What do scholars feel about them?

Answer: Anger, fear, sadness, and disgust are examples of emotions that researchers regard as "basic" or belonging to a fundamental set. However, some scholars argue that by thinking in terms of "basic" emotions, we lose sight of the bigger picture because emotions can mean different things in different contexts and may vary across cultures. It is unlikely psychologists or philosophers will ever completely agree on a set of basic emotions, or even on whether there is such a thing.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Synthesis LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

32) You and your friends are attending a basketball game at your college. A player on your school's team has a foul called on her for slapping to which you and your friends booed the referee. Seconds later, a player on the opposing team is called for the same foul for which you cheered. Why did you act in this seemingly hypocritical manner?

Answer: We tend to judge outgroup members (anyone who is not in our group) more harshly for moral transgressions than ingroup members, even when we are trying to be objective. In addition, perhaps to restore an emotional sense of fair play, we are likely to spitefully want outgroup members to be punished.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 4.1 Differentiate between emotions and moods.

33) People feeling different emotions after being subjected to identical emotion-provoking stimuli is a result of .

A) cognitive dissonance B) positivity offset C) emotional dissonance D) emotional labor E) personality Answer: E Explanation: Because of personality, most people have built-in tendencies to experience certain moods and emotions more frequently than others do, therefore giving different responses. The intensity with which a person experiences the emotion is based on personality.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

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34) Which of the following is the term used for the strength with which individuals experience emotion?

A) Emotional dissonance B) Affect intensity C) Emotional labor D) Positivity offset E) Emotional intelligence Answer: B Explanation: Affect intensity is defined as the individual differences in the strength with which individuals experience their emotions. Affectively intense people experience both positive and negative emotions more deeply: when they're sad, they're really sad, and when they're happy, they're really happy.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

35) Jason and Lupe work in the loan processing department of a large bank. To his co-workers, Jason appears the same every day. He goes about his work with the same calm expression on his face. This was true even after he did not get the pay raise that he thought he would get. Lupe, however, lets everyone know how she feels on a particular day, and even at various times during the day. She was visibly elated when she got the raise that she was hoping for. The degree to which Lupe and Jason experience their emotions is called .

A) cognitive dissonance B) moral ambiguity C) mood sensitivity D) affect intensity E) positivity offset Answer: D Explanation: Affect intensity refers to the individual differences in the strength with which individuals experience their emotions.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

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36) Lowest negative effect is in the morning and tends to over the course of the day and evening.

A) highest; decrease B) highest; remain consistent C) stable; increase D) lowest; increase E) lowest; remain consistent Answer: D Explanation: Research shows that negative affect is lowest in the morning and tends to increase over the course of the day and evening.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

37) When situations are overly emotionally charged and stressful, we have a natural response to .

A) seek vengeance B) find positive outlets for our emotions C) find negative outlets for our emotions D) disengage and just look away E) disengage and exhibit counterproductive work behaviors Answer: D Explanation: Stress takes a natural toll on our moods and when situations become too emotionally charged, our natural response is to remove ourselves from the situation.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

38) Ben is prone to experiencing emotions in a much stronger manner than most other people.

Events that don't provoke any significant emotional response in the average person often send him into fits of happiness, anger, or depression. Ben has a high level of .

A) emotional dissonance B) negative affect C) emotional intelligence D) positive affect E) affect intensity Answer: E Explanation: Affect intensity is defined as the individual differences in the strength with which individuals experience their emotions. Affectively intense people experience both positive and negative emotions more deeply: when they're sad, they're really sad, and when they're happy, they're really happy.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

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39) On which day of the week does negative affect tend to be the highest?

A) Sunday B) Monday C) Tuesday D) Wednesday E) Thursday Answer: B Explanation: Evidence shows that people tend to be in their worst moods (highest negative affect and lowest positive affect) early in the week, and in their best moods (highest positive affect and lowest negative affect) late in the week. The negative affect tends to be highest on Mondays.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

40) Research suggests which of the following relationships exists between the weather and mood?

A) Moderately positive effect B) Moderately negative effect C) Strong positive effect D) Strong negative effect E) Limited or little effect Answer: E Explanation: Contrary to the prevailing cultural view, data indicates that people do not report a better mood on bright and sunny days (or, conversely, a worse mood on dark and rainy days).

The weather has little effect on mood.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

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41) Gerardo believes that every time he picks up a penny he is blessed with good fortune, due to the fact that the last time he picked up a penny he had a lottery win, and the time before that he got a big bonus at work. Gerardo's perception is likely a product of a(n) .

A) affect intensity B) high-positive affect C) emotional dimension D) self-serving bias E) illusory correlation Answer: E Explanation: Illusory correlation is the tendency of people to associate two events when in reality there is no connection. It occurs when people associate two events that in reality have no connection.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

42) Jo has a job interview. Which of the following will have the least effect on her feelings on the day of the interview?

A) Sleep quality that Jo had the night before B) The amount Jo exercised on that day C) Jo's age D) Jo's gender E) The weather on the day of the interview Answer: E Explanation: Contrary to the prevailing cultural view, data indicate that people do not report a better mood on bright and sunny days (or, conversely, a worse mood on dark and rainy days).

Weather has little effect on mood.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

43) What effect do stressful events typically have on mood?

A) Short-term positive B) Long-term positive C) Short-term positive but long-term negative D) Negative E) Positive Answer: D Explanation: Stressful daily events at work negatively affect moods. Stress never has a positive effect on mood.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

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44) Which of the following statements is true regarding the sources of moods and emotions?

A) Moods and emotions are independent of the personality of the individuals.

B) Sleep quality affects mood.

C) The weather strongly affects moods.

D) As we grow older, we experience more negative emotions.

E) People tend to be in their best moods on Sundays.

Answer: B Explanation: Many people believe their mood is tied to the weather. However, a fairly large and detailed body of evidence conducted by multiple researchers suggests weather has little effect on mood, whereas sleep quality does affect mood.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

45) U.S. adults tend to experience their lowest positive affect on .

A) Tuesday B) Wednesday C) Thursday D) Monday E) Friday Answer: D Explanation: U.S. adults tend to experience their lowest positive affect on Monday.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

46) is the highest negative-affect day across most cultures.

A) Monday B) Tuesday C) Wednesday D) Thursday E) Friday Answer: A Explanation: While "problematic" days of the week vary across cultures, Monday is the highest negative-affect day across most cultures.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

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47) Affectively intense people experience both positive and negative emotions deeply.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Affective intensity refers to the individual differences in the strength with which individuals experience their emotions. When affectively intense people are sad, they are really sad, and when they are happy, they are really happy.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

48) A large and detailed body of evidence suggests weather has considerable effect on mood, at least for most people.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: While many people believe their mood is tied to the weather, evidence suggests that it has little effect on mood, at least for most people.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

49) Illusory correlation is when we associate two events that, in reality, have no connection.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: People tend to think weather influences them. They believe that their mood is tied to the weather. However, evidence does not support this. This indicates that we are assuming correlation between weather and mood when it is not there.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

50) There is evidence to suggest that in the workplace, women are emotional and men are angry.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: The stereotypical perceptions of women as "emotional" and men as "angry" persist despite little evidence that they are true.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

51) People experience the same emotion with different intensities.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: The term "affect intensity" refers to the individual differences in the strength with which individuals experience their emotions.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

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52) What do we know about mood and time of day?

Answer: Research shows that moods vary by time of day. Levels of positive effect tend to peak in the late morning (ten o'clock to noon) and then remain at that level until early evening (around seven o'clock). Starting about twelve hours after waking, positive affect begins to drop until dusk, and then, continues to accelerate until midnight. For those who remain awake, the drop continues until positive mood picks up again after sunrise. Research suggests that negative affect fluctuates less than positive affect. The general trend is for it to increase over the course of a day, so that it is lowest early in the morning and highest late in the evening.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

53) Explain how weather affects emotions and moods.

Answer: The effect of weather on emotions and moods illustrates what is commonly referred to as "illusory correlation." Many people believe their mood is tied to the weather. That is why we have people who are self-proclaimed "rain haters" and "summer lovers." Evidence, however, suggests that weather has little effect on mood, at least for most people. We are associating two events (weather and, say, mood) that, in reality, have no connection.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

54) Nicole and Chang are discussing their co-worker, Angie. They both agree that Angie is easier to work with at certain times of the day. Since you are an expert on moods and emotions, they ask you to explain Angie's behavior in relation to the time of day. What would your answer be?

Answer: We often think that people differ, depending on whether they are "morning" or "evening" people. However, the vast majority of us follow the same pattern. Regardless of what time people go to bed at night or get up in the morning, levels of positive affect tend to peak around the halfway point between waking and sleeping. Negative affect, however, shows little fluctuation throughout the day. This basic pattern seems to hold whether people describe themselves as morning people or evening people. In short, you should tell Nicole and Chang that it may not be the time of day that affects Angie's behavior, but various other factors may impact it.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

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55) Discuss the concept of illusory correlation.

Answer: Illusory correlation refers to the tendency of people to associate two events when in reality there is no connection. As an example, many people believe their mood is tied to the weather. However, a large and detailed body of evidence suggests weather has little effect on mood, at least for most people.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.2 Identify the sources of emotions and moods.

56) Daisy works in customer relations for a large airline company. Her job involves interacting with customers, many of whom are typically irate at canceled bookings or delayed flights.

However, Daisy has trained herself to organizationally desired emotions during these interpersonal transactions (irrespective of her true emotions). Daisy's behavior is known as .

A) emotional labor B) negative affect C) positive affect D) emotional intelligence E) deviant behavior Answer: A Explanation: Emotional labor is defined as a situation in which an employee expresses organizationally desired emotions during interpersonal transactions at work, meaning that her job demands a certain set of emotional responses, regardless of true feelings.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.3 Show the impact emotional labor has on employees.

57) are the emotions that the organization requires workers to show and considers appropriate in each job.

A) Felt emotions B) Displayed emotions C) Conditional emotions D) Surface emotions E) Disseminative emotions Answer: B Explanation: Unlike felt emotions, displayed emotions are those that the organization requires its workers to show. They are considered appropriate in each job—such as a cheerful flight attendant.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.3 Show the impact emotional labor has on employees.

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58) Which of the following is not an example of surface acting?

A) Sonora smiles at her cubicle neighbor when she walks by, even though his behavior annoys her.

B) Andy is disappointed when a customer turns down his sales call, but smiles pleasantly on his way out.

C) Liz is worried about her sick dog, but makes her morning sales calls with a smile.

D) David invites a co-worker that he doesn't like to lunch, in the hope of getting to know him better.

E) Javier is angry at his boss who makes him work on a Saturday, but keeps a poker face at work all day.

Answer: D Explanation: Deep acting is trying to modify our true inner feelings based on display rules.

David is trying to change his feelings toward his co-worker by inviting him to lunch with the ambition of finding common ground when he gets to know him better. The other choices are all examples of surface acting.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.3 Show the impact emotional labor has on employees.

59) Ismael spent the morning in the field making sales calls. He called on four prospective clients and they all declined to purchase his company's product. Ismael returned to the office stressed and exhausted. He has an hour and a half for lunch before he has to make a large sales presentation to a current client, which Ismael hopes will expand his account. Which of the following is most likely to be the best way for Ismael to spend his lunch hour?

A) He should prepare his sales pitch data and graphics on the computer.

B) He should practice his sales pitch orally with a co-worker.

C) He should go through the past sales orders placed by this client in order to better understand her requirements.

D) He should rest and relax before the presentation.

E) He should ask his boss to help him prepare the presentation.

Answer: D Explanation: Ismael spent the morning surface acting and has to do it again in the afternoon.

Research shows surface acting is more stressful to employees because it entails feigning their true emotions. A study that looked at how cheerleading instructors spent their breaks from teaching found those who used their breaks to rest and relax were more effective instructors after their breaks. Instructors who did chores during their breaks were only about as effective after their break as they were before.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.3 Show the impact emotional labor has on employees.

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60) Roger works at a retail store where he deals with customer complaints. After one encounter, he concluded that the customer was clearly wrong. She was insisting on a full refund even when she was clearly at fault. Roger felt angry at how untruthful the customer was, but he projected a calm demeanor while responding to the customer. What Roger is feeling is called .

A) cognitive dissonance B) emotional distancing C) cognitive distancing D) emotional dissonance E) cognitive ambiguity Answer: D Explanation: Roger is going through emotional dissonance—the need to project one emotion while feeling another.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.3 Show the impact emotional labor has on employees.

61) Deep level acting is less psychologically costly than surface level acting because in deep level acting, we are actually trying to experience the emotion, so we .

A) are not really acting B) find ways to channel the emotion C) experience less emotional exhaustion D) transfer the emotion to the other party E) translate the emotion to something we already know Answer: C Explanation: Because we are actually feeling the emotions, we do not have the additional emotional energy of acting and therefore have less emotional exhaustion.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 4.3 Show the impact emotional labor has on employees.

62) Bingo Airlines mandates that all its flight attendants are always cheerful during a flight. This is an example of .

A) cognitive dissonance B) emotional dissonance C) emotional labor D) organizational citizenship E) moral ambiguity Answer: C Explanation: Emotional labor relates to organizationally desired emotions during interpersonal transactions at work. When Bingo Airlines' flight attendants are working, they are expected to be cheerful.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.3 Show the impact emotional labor has on employees.

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63) What term is used for those emotions that an organization requires workers to show and considers appropriate in a given job?

A) Felt emotions B) Displayed emotions C) Conditional emotions D) Required emotions E) Mandated emotions Answer: B Explanation: Displayed emotions are emotions that are organizationally required and considered appropriate in a given job. Felt emotions are an individual's actual emotions.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.3 Show the impact emotional labor has on employees.

64) What do you call the practice of modifying one's true inner feelings based on display rules?

A) Surface acting B) Deep acting C) Emotional intelligence D) Affective camouflage E) Confirmation bias Answer: B Explanation: Deep acting is trying to modify one's true inner feelings based on display rules. A worker who smiles at a customer even when he doesn't feel like it is surface acting.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.3 Show the impact emotional labor has on employees.

65) Which of the following statements is true regarding surface acting?

A) Surface acting is hiding inner feelings and forgoing emotional expressions in response to display rules.

B) A healthcare provider trying to genuinely feel more empathy for her patients is surface acting.

C) Research shows surface acting is less stressful to employees than deep acting.

D) Surface acting deals with felt emotions as opposed to deep acting which deals with displayed emotions.

E) Surface acting is trying to modify our true inner feelings based on display rules.

Answer: A Explanation: Surface acting is hiding inner feelings and forgoing emotional expressions in response to display rules. Surface acting deals with displayed emotions, and deep acting deals with felt emotions. Research shows surface acting is more stressful to employees because it entails feigning their true emotions.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.3 Show the impact emotional labor has on employees.

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66) Which of the following statements is true regarding deep acting?

A) Deep acting is hiding inner feelings and forgoing emotional expressions in response to display rules.

B) A worker who smiles at a customer even when he doesn't feel like it is deep acting.

C) Deep acting deals with displayed emotions as opposed to surface acting.

D) A healthcare provider trying to genuinely feel more empathy for her patients is deep acting.

E) Research shows surface acting is less stressful to employees than deep acting.

Answer: D Explanation: Deep acting is trying to modify our true inner feelings based on display rules. A healthcare provider trying to genuinely feel more empathy for her patients is deep acting.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.3 Show the impact emotional labor has on employees.

67) When John, a funeral director, maintains a sad demeanor at work because his organization requires it, he is performing emotional labor.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: All jobs require a certain degree of emotional labor, or an employee's expression of organizationally desired emotions during interpersonal transactions at work. Emotional labor means behaving in a way that may or may not be contrary to how a person is feeling, but is necessary for work.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.3 Show the impact emotional labor has on employees.

68) Felt emotions are our actual emotions.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: The way we experience an emotion is obviously not always the same as the we show it. Felt emotions are our actual emotions, which may be different from our displayed emotions.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.3 Show the impact emotional labor has on employees.

69) Deep acting deals with displayed emotions.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Surface acting deals with displayed emotions, while deep acting deals with felt emotions.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.3 Show the impact emotional labor has on employees.

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70) A worker who smiles at a customer even when they do not feel like it is surface acting.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Surface acting deals with displayed emotions—emotions that the organization requires workers to show and considers appropriate in each job.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.3 Show the impact emotional labor has on employees.

71) Displaying emotions we do not really feel is easy.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Displaying emotions we do not feel can be exhausting. Surface acting is associated with increased stress and can lead to emotional exhaustion.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.3 Show the impact emotional labor has on employees.

72) What is the difference between surface acting and deep acting? Give an example.

Answer: Surface acting deals with displayed emotions, and deep acting deals with felt emotions. Surface acting is hiding feelings and emotional expressions in response to display rules. In contrast, deep acting is trying to modify our true feelings based on display rules.

Imagine a customer service representative confronting an irate customer. In surface acting, the rep would hide their true feelings and keep a smiling face in the interaction. In deep acting, the rep would attempt to mitigate their irritation and try to understand why the customer is irate.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.3 Show the impact emotional labor has on employees.

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73) Alston is a pharmaceutical sales representative whose job requires him to call on busy doctors, for many of whom his visit is seen as an interruption to their meeting with patients.

Regardless, as per his company's norms, he must put on a smile every day at work with his clients. Discuss the emotional labor experienced by Alston. What role does emotional intelligence play in Alston's job?

Answer: As a pharmaceutical sales representative calling on busy doctors, Alston has to engage in surface acting on a daily basis. He has to smile and act positive regardless of his felt emotions in order to be successful. Certainly there will be times when Alston has emotional dissonance (such as when he gets a brush off from a doctor's staff for intruding into their work), or feels a disparity between his true emotions and how he must appear to his clients. Alston's job would require a fair amount of rest and relaxation for him to continue to be successful. Alston should use his emotions and moods positively to guide his clients into making quick decisions in the purchase of his products. People in good moods tend to make quicker decisions. Alston should also apply his moods to stay motivated, to walk out the door into the field every day. Each sale is a tiny negotiation and Alston must have a bit of a poker face, not letting the client know the true impact of the sale on his life. Finally, Alston should apply his moods and positive emotions to provide excellent customer service to his clients. He spreads his good mood through emotional contagion and is able to get his customers to make larger orders and remain loyal to him in the competitive pharmaceutical industry.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Synthesis LO: 4.3 Show the impact emotional labor has on employees.

74) Ramona's team was recently responsible for missing a major sales goal. According to the affective events theory, which of the following is most likely to occur?

A) Ramona will become discouraged but will keep working harder for next time.

B) Ramona will become discouraged and will start to dislike her job.

C) Ramona will become more motivated but will start to dislike her job.

D) Ramona will become more motivated and will keep working harder for next time.

E) Ramona will be discouraged but will become more motivated and will keep working harder for next time.

Answer: E Explanation: According to the theory, employees react emotionally to events at work and this reaction influences their job performances. Dependent on whether Ramona reacts negatively or positively, she could be discouraged but be motivated to work harder for next time.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 4.4 Describe affective events theory.

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75) People who score on emotional stability are more likely to react strongly to events.

A) low; positive B) low; negative C) average; positive D) average; negative E) high; negative Answer: B Explanation: Low emotional stability is strongly linked to sensitivity to negative events.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.4 Describe affective events theory.

76) Diane Marshall is an office manager. Her awareness of her own and others' emotions is almost nil. She's moody and unable to generate much enthusiasm or interest in her employees.

She doesn't understand why employees get upset with her. She often overreacts to problems and chooses the most ineffectual responses to emotional situations. Diane has .

A) high self-serving bias B) low emotional dissonance C) low confirmation bias D) high cognitive dissonance E) low emotional intelligence Answer: E Explanation: Emotional intelligence or (EI) is a commonly accepted term based on three factors: a person's ability to (1) be self-aware (to recognize her own emotions when she experiences them), (2) detect emotions in others, and (3) manage emotional cues and information.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.5 Describe emotional intelligence.

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77) indicates a person's ability to perceive emotions in oneself and others, to understand the meaning of these emotions, and regulate his/her own emotions accordingly.

A) Emotional intelligence B) Emotional dissonance C) Confirmation bias D) Cognitive distortion E) Cognitive dissonance Answer: A Explanation: Emotional intelligence, or EI, is a commonly accepted term based on three factors: a person's ability to (1) be self-aware (to recognize her own emotions when she experiences them), (2) detect emotions in others, and (3) manage emotional cues and information. In general, people who know their emotions, or EI, are more effective.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.5 Describe emotional intelligence.

78) Which of the following statements is true regarding emotional intelligence (EI)?

A) Evidence suggests that a person's performance on the job is independent of her EI. B) Evidence suggests that EI is not genetically influenced.

C) EI is related to a person's ability to detect emotions in others.

D) EI can be measured easily.

E) EI is a simple, straightforward concept.

Answer: C Explanation: EI is related to a person's ability to detect emotions in others. People who know their own emotions and are good at reading emotion cues–for instance, knowing why they're angry and how to express themselves without violating norms–are most likely to be effective.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.5 Describe emotional intelligence.

79) Which of the following is the first step in the Cascading Model of Emotional Intelligence?

A) Cognition B) Dissonance C) Conscientiousness D) Emotional stability E) Attitude Answer: C Explanation: Conscientiousness or perceiving emotions in self and others is the first step in the Cascading Model of Emotional Intelligence.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.5 Describe emotional intelligence.

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80) Which of the following statements is true about emotional intelligence (EI)?

A) It can be measured easily.

B) It is moderately correlated with job performance.

C) It is not related to personality and intelligence.

D) It indicates mathematical aptitude of an individual.

E) It is not genetically influenced.

Answer: B Explanation: Evidence suggests a high level of EI means a person will perform well on the job.

A review of studies indicated that, overall, EI correlated moderately with job performance.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.5 Describe emotional intelligence.

81) Priya is highly aware of her own and other's emotions. She is good at reading emotional cues and knows how to express her emotions without violating organizational norms. This information indicates that Julia has .

A) low cognitive dissonance B) low self-esteem C) low emotional dissonance D) high emotional intelligence E) high job satisfaction Answer: D Explanation: Emotional intelligence, or EI, is a commonly accepted term based on three factors: a person's ability to (1) be self-aware (to recognize her own emotions when she experiences them), (2) detect emotions in others, and (3) manage emotional cues and information.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.5 Describe emotional intelligence.

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82) Whether a candidate has high emotional intelligence would not be a significant factor when considering candidates for the job of a(n) .

A) interviewer who assesses candidates in an employment agency B) engineer heading a team designing a complex software/hardware interface C) meeting planner who must set up meetings for candidates around the world D) copy editor who seeks out spelling errors and grammatical mistakes in manuscripts E) realtor arranging sales between homeowners and potential buyers Answer: D Explanation: Because the basis of EI is the ability to detect emotions in others and to recognize emotional cues, jobs that require being around a lot of people and successfully interacting with them generally require a high EI. A copy editor does not necessarily need to interact with a great deal of people and would not need a high EI. Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.5 Describe emotional intelligence.

83) In a CareerBuilder survey of over 2,500 hiring managers and HR professionals, 59 percent said they would not hire someone with high , but low emotional intelligence (EI).

A) cognitive ability B) analytical skills C) numerical skills D) scientific skills E) mathematical skills Answer: A Explanation: When asked why they valued EI over cognitive or other skills, the managers in the CareerBuilder survey noted that persons with high EI are more in tune with their emotions, so they can stay calm under pressure, resolve conflicts more effectively, be empathetic with coworkers and team members, and effectively regulate their emotions.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.5 Describe emotional intelligence.

84) Emotional intelligence (EI) can be trained and developed as a skill.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Evidence indicates that EI is a learned skill.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.5 Describe emotional intelligence.

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85) Barry is angry at losing his job. In order to regulate his emotions, he can do all of the following except .

A) focus on the problem at hand B) think about pleasant things C) distract himself D) engage in relaxation techniques E) suppress negative thoughts Answer: A Explanation: One can engage in emotion regulation by identifying and modifying the emotions one feels. Strategies to change one's emotions include thinking about more pleasant things, suppressing negative thoughts, distracting oneself, or engaging in relaxation techniques.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.6 Identify strategies for emotion regulation.

86) Which of the following is an emotion regulation technique?

A) Cognitive dissonance B) Cognitive reappraisal C) Cognitive affirmation D) Cognitive declaration E) Cognitive regulation Answer: B Explanation: Cognitive reappraisal, or reframing our outlook on an emotional situation, is one way to regulate emotions effectively.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.6 Identify strategies for emotion regulation.

87) When Denise's boss told her at her annual performance appraisal that, much to her shock, she was not getting the promotion that she had hoped for, she immediately blocked her first angry response, thanked her boss and walked away. The emotion regulation technique that Denise used is called .

A) cognitive dissonance B) cognitive reappraisal C) social sharing D) cognitive affirmation E) emotional suppression Answer: E Explanation: The technique that Denise used is emotional suppression, literally suppressing— blocking or ignoring—her initial response to the situation.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 4.6 Identify strategies for emotion regulation.

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88) When Ming learnt that she was one of many in her department who was laid off due to an industry-wide economic downturn, unlike her coworkers she saw this as an opportunity to fulfill her lifelong dream of opening a bakery. Ming's emotion regulation technique is called .

A) emotional distancing B) emotional suppression C) cognitive dissonance D) cognitive reappraisal E) social sharing Answer: D Explanation: Ming reframed her job loss as an opportunity to try her dream career of owning a bakery; in short, she used cognitive reappraisal.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 4.6 Identify strategies for emotion regulation.

89) When William was one of the many who were laid off when his company downsized, he immediately gathered his fellow fired co-workers to enable everyone to vent their feelings about their predicament. William and his co-workers were using as their emotion regulation technique.

A) emotional suppression B) social sharing C) emotional contagion D) emotional reappraisal E) cognitive dissonance Answer: B Explanation: Social sharing or venting is the emotion regulation technique which features open expression of emotions rather than keeping emotions "bottled up."

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.6 Identify strategies for emotion regulation.

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90) Carlos, the manager of a large investment fund, kept his reaction in check to the 10 percent drop in the day's stock market and was able to develop a number of moves to help his fund.

Carlos' emotion regulation technique is called .

A) emotional suppression B) cognitive dissonance C) cognitive reappraisal D) social sharing E) emotional contagion Answer: A Explanation: Emotional suppression is literally suppressing—blocking or ignoring—initial emotional responses to situations.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.6 Identify strategies for emotion regulation.

91) Emotional suppression is an emotion regulation technique.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Emotional suppression—blocking or ignoring initial emotional responses to situations—is an emotion regulation technique.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.6 Identify strategies for emotion regulation.

92) On the morning that Walter faced a job interview for a position that he was really interested in, his dog died. Should Walter use emotional suppression at his interview?

Answer: Emotional suppression is an emotion regulation technique. In emotional suppression, one blocks or ignores the initial emotional responses to situations. Emotional suppression allows one to temporarily counteract an emotion which might cause distress. In this case, given the importance of the job interview to Walter, the negative feeling regarding the dog should be repressed to keep the emotions from affecting the interview performance.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.6 Identify strategies for emotion regulation.

93) Briefly explain how social sharing acts as an emotion regulation technique.

Answer: Social sharing or venting is an open expression of emotions to help individuals regulate their emotions as opposed to keeping emotions "bottled up." Social sharing can reduce anger reactions when people can talk about the facts of a bad situation, their feelings about the situation, or any positive aspects of the situation.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 4.6 Identify strategies for emotion regulation.

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94) The corporate office has determined that the company vision needs to be amended. What should corporate leaders do to increase the likelihood that employees will accept this change?

A) Arouse emotions and link them to an appealing vision B) Demonstrate how the vision will better company profits C) Evoke empathy for the CEO D) Negotiate with them and express anger E) Motivate employees by putting them in a good mood Answer: A Explanation: Effective leaders rely on emotional appeals to help convey their messages.

Corporate executives know emotional content is critical if employees are to buy into their vision of the company's future and accept change. By arousing emotions and linking them to an appealing vision, leaders increase the likelihood that managers and employees alike will accept change.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.7 Apply concepts about emotions and moods to specific OB issues.

95) Eduardo is upset because his boss recently reprimanded him for missing a deadline. The boss put Eduardo on a probation period, causing him to lose his two days a week telecommuting privilege. Eduardo now has to work at the office five days a week. Which of the following is most likely to result from Eduardo's negative attitude due to the reprimand?

A) Deviant workplace behavior B) Emotional contagion C) Cognitive dissonance D) Positivity offset E) Distinction bias Answer: A Explanation: People who feel negative emotions, particularly anger or hostility, are more likely than others to engage in deviant behavior at work. Henry is feeling angry about his reprimand and may take it out on the company somehow.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.7 Apply concepts about emotions and moods to specific OB issues.

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96) Evidence suggests people who feel negative emotions, particularly or hostility, are more likely than others to engage in deviant behavior at work.

A) nervousness B) tension C) anger D) stress E) depression Answer: C Explanation: Evidence suggests people who feel negative emotions, particularly anger or hostility, are more likely than others to engage in deviant behavior at work.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.7 Apply concepts about emotions and moods to specific OB issues.

97) Theresa is the manager of a production unit. Which of the following methods would likely be of the least use to improve her employees' moods?

A) Use humor.

B) Give employees tokens of appreciation for work they do well.

C) Hire positive employees.

D) Be in a good mood herself.

E) Arrange for employees to see funny videos at work.

Answer: E Explanation: We can usually improve a friend's mood by sharing a funny video clip, giving the person a small bag of candy, or even offering a pleasant beverage. But to improve employees' moods, managers can use humor and give their employees small tokens of appreciation for work well done. Also, when leaders themselves are in good moods, group members are more positive, and as a result they cooperate better. Finally, selecting positive team members can have a contagion effect because positive moods transmit from team member to team member.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 4.7 Apply concepts about emotions and moods to specific OB issues.

98) More employers are starting to use emotional intelligence (EI) measures to hire people.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: EI is increasingly a factor in hiring employees, especially for jobs that require a high degree of social interaction.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 4.7 Apply concepts about emotions and moods to specific OB issues.

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99) Positive emotions and moods seem to help people make sound decisions.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Moods and decisions have effects on decision making that employees and managers should understand. Positive emotion is associated with both sound decision making and enhanced problem solving.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 4.7 Apply concepts about emotions and moods to specific OB issues.

100) What is emotional contagion? What implications does it have for the workplace?

Answer: Emotional contagion refers to the "catching" of emotions from others. When someone at work experiences positive emotions and laughs and smiles at you, like when they are sending you a funny meme about retail life, you tend to respond positively. The opposite is true as well.

This is important in the workplace because workers' emotional states influence the level of customer service they give, which in turn influences levels of repeat business and customer satisfaction.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 4.7 Apply concepts about emotions and moods to specific OB issues.

101) Elvira wants to hire three new customer service representatives. She is considering using a measure of EI to help select her new employees. Explain what EI is and how it could be useful to Elvira for the jobs that she's hiring for, and the reasons why she should not depend entirely on the EI measures for her selection.

Answer: Emotional intelligence (EI) is a person's ability to (1) be self-aware (to recognize her own emotions when she experiences them), (2) detect emotions in others, and (3) manage emotional cues and information. People who know their own emotions and are good at reading emotion cues, for instance, knowing why they're angry and how to express themselves without violating norms, are most likely to be effective. One implication from the evidence on EI to date is that employers should consider it a factor in hiring employees, especially in jobs that demand a high degree of social interaction. Elvira is hiring for customer service, which requires a great deal of social interaction. Elvira should also consider that EI is hard to measure and is very vaguely defined so she should not entirely depend on EI measures for her selection.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Synthesis LO: 4.7 Apply concepts about emotions and moods to specific OB issues.

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Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 11E (Robbins) Chapter 4 Personality and Values 1) You have decided to use Holland's Typology of Personality and Congruent Occupations to help your friends recognize which jobs they would be well-suited for. Aisha is shy, stable, and persistent. Carlos is ambitious and energetic and likes to dominate conversations. Ming is idealistic, impractical, and very imaginative. DeSean is efficient and practical, but he lacks imagination and tends to be inflexible. Chris is analytical, independent, and an original thinker.

According to Holland's Typology, a congruent occupation for Chris would be .

A) farmer B) teacher C) economist D) lawyer E) writer Answer: C Explanation: According to Holland's Typology, individuals belonging to the investigative type (Chris's type) would be suited for a job as an economist.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 5.1 Describe the differences between person-job fit and person-organization fit.

2) You have decided to use Holland's Typology of Personality and Congruent Occupations to help your friends recognize which jobs they would be well-suited for. Aisha is shy, stable, and persistent. Carlos is ambitious and energetic and likes to dominate conversations. Ming is idealistic, impractical, and very imaginative. DeSean is efficient and practical, but he lacks imagination and tends to be inflexible. Chris is analytical, independent, and an original thinker.

Which of your friends is best suited to being an accountant?

A) DeSean B) Carlos C) Ming D) Aisha E) Chris Answer: A Explanation: DeSean is efficient and practical, but he lacks imagination and tends to be inflexible. He has a conventional personality and would probably prefer rule-regulated, orderly, and unambiguous activities such as accounting.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 5.1 Describe the differences between person-job fit and person-organization fit.

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3) You have decided to use Holland's Typology of Personality and Congruent Occupations to help your friends recognize which jobs they would be well-suited for. Aisha is shy, stable, and persistent. Carlos is ambitious and energetic and likes to dominate conversations. Ming is idealistic, impractical, and very imaginative. DeSean is efficient and practical, but he lacks imagination and tends to be inflexible. Chris is analytical, independent, and an original thinker.

Which of your friends is most likely to find a successful career as a writer?

A) DeSean B) Carlos C) Ming D) Aisha E) Chris Answer: C Explanation: Ming is idealistic, impractical, and very imaginative. She has an artistic personality and would prefer ambiguous and unsystematic activities that allow creative expression such as writing.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 5.1 Describe the differences between person-job fit and person-organization fit.

4) You have decided to use Holland's Typology of Personality and Congruent Occupations to help your friends recognize which jobs they would be well-suited for. Mara prefers physical activities that require skill, strength, and coordination, Carlos prefers verbal activities in which there are opportunities to influence others and attain power, Inga prefers activities that involve helping and developing others, Rohan prefers activities that involve thinking, organizing, and understanding, while you (Peter) prefer rule-regulated, orderly, and unambiguous activities. Who might be well-suited to being a lawyer?

A) Mara B) Carlos C) Inga D) Peter E) Rohan Answer: B Explanation: Carlos's congruent occupation includes being a lawyer because his personality characteristics lend themselves to the occupation. The enterprising type (Carlos's type) has the personality characteristics that match what is required of a lawyer.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 5.1 Describe the differences between person-job fit and person-organization fit.

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5) John Holland's personality-job fit theory presents six personality types. Which of the following is not one of these six types?

A) Realistic B) Artistic C) Pragmatic D) Social E) Conventional Answer: C Explanation: John Holland's personality-job fit theory presents six personality types. Pragmatic is not one of them.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.1 Describe the differences between person-job fit and person-organization fit.

6) With reference to John Holland's personality-job fit theory, people belonging to the "conventional" type will be most suitable for the job of a(n) .

A) painter B) accountant C) mechanic D) lawyer E) biologist Answer: B Explanation: Conventional types prefer rule-regulated, orderly, and unambiguous activities.

One of the congruent occupations for them would be as an accountant.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.1 Describe the differences between person-job fit and person-organization fit.

7) You are seeking to fill the position of a counselor and have administered Holland's Vocational Preference Inventory questionnaire to all candidates. The best candidates for the position would have which of the following personality types?

A) Conventional B) Realistic C) Enterprising D) Investigative E) Social Answer: E Explanation: Social personalities prefer activities that involve helping and developing others— the very nature of the job of counselling.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.1 Describe the differences between person-job fit and person-organization fit.

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8) With reference to John Holland's personality-job fit theory, a congruent occupation for a person belonging to the "investigative" type would be a(n) .

A) accountant B) farmer C) lawyer D) news reporter E) teacher Answer: D Explanation: With reference to John Holland's personality-job fit theory, people belonging to the "investigative" type would fit well as a biologist, economist, mathematician, or a news reporter.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.1 Describe the differences between person-job fit and person-organization fit.

9) When Carlos was in high school, he took the Holland's Vocational Preference Inventory questionnaire. The results showed that he was a "conventional" type. Of the following occupations, which would best fit Carlos's personality?

A) Teacher B) Social worker C) Writer D) Bank teller E) News reporter Answer: D Explanation: With reference to John Holland's personality-job fit theory, people belonging to the conventional type fit well as accountants, corporate managers, bank tellers, and file clerks.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.1 Describe the differences between person-job fit and person-organization fit.

10) With reference to John Holland's personality-job fit theory, people belonging to the "enterprising" type prefer .

A) activities that involve helping others B) activities that involve thinking, organizing, and understanding C) physical activities that require skill, strength, and coordination D) ambiguous and imaginative activities that allow creative expression E) activities in which there are opportunities to influence others and attain power Answer: E Explanation: With reference to John Holland's personality-job fit theory, people belonging to the "enterprising" type prefer activities in which there are opportunities to influence others and attain power.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.1 Describe the differences between person-job fit and person-organization fit.

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11) essentially means that people are attracted to and selected by organizations that match their values, and they leave organizations that are not compatible with their personalities.

A) Person-job fit B) Dark Triad C) Work-life balance D) Person-organization fit E) Big-Five Personality Answer: D Explanation: Person-organization fit is a theory that explains why people are attracted to certain organizations and why they would leave the organization if it is incompatible with their personality.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 5.1 Describe the differences between person-job fit and person-organization fit.

12) John Holland is associated with .

A) the GLOBE framework B) MBTI C) cognitive dissonance theory D) person-supervisor fit theory E) person-job fit theory Answer: E Explanation: The effort to match job requirements with personality characteristics is described

by John Holland's person-job fit theory, one of the most supported OB theories in use internationally.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 5.1 Describe the differences between person-job fit and person-organization fit.

13) The personality characteristics that go with John Holland's "conventional" type are sociable, friendly, cooperative, and understanding.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: The traits associated with Holland's "conventional" type are conforming, efficient, practical, unimaginative, and inflexible.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 5.1 Describe the differences between person-job fit and person-organization fit.

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14) According to John Holland's personality-job fit theory, individuals belonging to the "investigative" type prefer physical activities that require skill, strength, and coordination.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: According to John Holland's personality-job fit theory, individuals belonging to the "realistic" type prefer physical activities that require skill, strength, and coordination. In contrast, the "investigative" type prefers activities that involve thinking, organizing, and understanding.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.1 Describe the differences between person-job fit and person-organization fit.

15) As per John Holland's personality-job fit theory, how would the qualities of an accountant differ from that of a musician?

Answer: The effort to match job requirements with personality characteristics is best articulated in John Holland's personality-job fit theory. Holland presents six personality types and proposes that satisfaction and the propensity to leave a position depend on how well individuals match their personalities to a job. Holland developed the Vocational Preference Inventory questionnaire, which contains 160 occupational titles. Respondents indicate which they like or dislike, and their answers form personality profiles.

Per Holland's typology, "artistic" types are those who prefer ambiguous and unsystematic activities that allow creative expression—qualities suitable for a musician. In contrast, a "conventional" type person prefers rule-regulated, orderly, and unambiguous activities—best suited for an accountant.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.1 Describe the differences between person-job fit and person-organization fit.

16) is/are defined as "the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determine his unique adjustments to his environment."

A) Values B) Beliefs C) Personality D) Attitudes E) Perceptions Answer: C Explanation: Personality is "the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determine his unique adjustments to his environment."

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.2 Describe personality, the way it is measured, and the factors that shape it.

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17) is the sum of ways in which an individual reacts to and interacts with others.

A) Talent B) Skill C) Knowledge D) Intelligence E) Personality Answer: E Explanation: Personality is the sum of ways in which an individual reacts to and interacts with others.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.2 Describe personality, the way it is measured, and the factors that shape it.

18) Which of the following statements is true about personality?

A) Personality is independent of environmental factors.

B) Personality traits are uniform across all cultures.

C) The most common means of measuring personality is through personal interviews.

D) Observer-ratings surveys do not provide an independent assessment of personality.

E) Personality is the sum of ways in which an individual reacts to and interacts with others.

Answer: E Explanation: Personality is the sum of ways in which an individual reacts to and interacts with others. Personality appears to be a result of both hereditary and environmental factors and it changes over time. We most often describe personality in terms of the measurable traits a person exhibits. The most common means of measuring personality is through self-report surveys.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.2 Describe personality, the way it is measured, and the factors that shape it.

19) Carlos has known Jose since their childhood, twenty-four years ago. When asked to describe Jose, Carlos says that he is nice, fun, and outgoing. Here, Carlos is referring to Jose's .

A) family upbringing B) cognitive skills C) personality traits D) mental acuity E) societal roles Answer: C Explanation: Personality traits are enduring characteristics that describe an individual's behavior. Carlos has observed Jose to be nice, fun, and outgoing over a twenty-four-year period.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 5.2 Describe personality, the way it is measured, and the factors that shape it.

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20) surveys provide an independent assessment of personality.

A) Self-report B) Observer-ratings C) Benchmark D) Cognitive E) Organizational Answer: B Explanation: Since in an observer-ratings survey a co-worker or another observer does the rating, it provides an independent assessment of personality.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.2 Describe personality, the way it is measured, and the factors that shape it.

21) Which of the following is the most common means of measuring personality?

A) Benchmark surveys B) Self-report surveys C) Cognitive tests D) Attitude surveys E) Dissonance tests Answer: B Explanation: The most common means of measuring personality is through self-report surveys in which individuals evaluate themselves on a series of factors such as "I worry a lot about the future."

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 5.2 Describe personality, the way it is measured, and the factors that shape it.

22) All personality traits are uniform across cultures.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Although many personality traits do tend to emerge across cultures, it appears that some traits do not emerge in certain cultures—moreover, certain unique personality traits might emerge.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.2 Describe personality, the way it is measured, and the factors that shape it.

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23) Personality refers to the sum of ways in which an individual reacts to and interacts with the world around them.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Personality is described in terms of the measurable traits a person exhibits in acting and reacting to the world around them.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 5.2 Describe personality, the way it is measured, and the factors that shape it.

24) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people belonging to the " " type are practical and prefer routine and order.

A) sensing B) introverted C) feeling D) perceiving E) extraverted Answer: A Explanation: According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people belonging to the sensing type are practical and prefer routine and order. Feeling types rely on their personal values and emotions while handling problems. Perceiving types are flexible and spontaneous. Extraverted individuals are outgoing, sociable, and assertive. Introverts are quiet and shy.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

25) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people belonging to the " " type are flexible and spontaneous.

A) thinking B) extraverted C) introverted D) feeling E) perceiving Answer: E Explanation: According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people belonging to the perceiving type are flexible and spontaneous. Feeling types rely on their personal values and emotions while handling problems. Extraverted individuals are outgoing, sociable, and assertive. Introverts are quiet and shy. Thinking types use reason and logic to handle problems.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

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26) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people belonging to the "judging" type .

A) are quiet and shy B) rely on unconscious processes and look at the "big picture" C) want control and prefer their world to be ordered and structured D) are outgoing, sociable, and assertive E) rely on their personal values and emotions Answer: C Explanation: According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people belonging to the judging type want control and prefer their world to be ordered and structured.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

27) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people belonging to the "intuitive" type .

A) are flexible and spontaneous B) are outgoing, sociable, and assertive C) rely on unconscious processes and look at the "big picture" D) want control and prefer their world to be ordered and structured E) rely on their personal values and emotions Answer: C Explanation: According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people belonging to the intuitive type rely on unconscious processes and look at the "big picture."

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

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28) The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator classifies people in all of the following categories except .

A) extraverted/introverted B) sensing/intuitive C) perceiving/judging D) independent/dependent E) thinking/feeling Answer: D Explanation: In the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, individuals are classified as extraverted or introverted (E or I), sensing or intuitive (S or N), thinking or feeling (T or F), and judging or perceiving ( J or P). Therefore, independent/dependent is not an MBTI classification.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

29) A major concern with the use of the MBTI is that it .

A) has a high error rate B) is easily manipulated through identity management C) forces individuals into one category or another D) is more favorable toward those in individualistic cultures E) permits employers to racially discriminate against applicants Answer: C Explanation: Within the MBTI, there is no in-between within the categories forcing the participate to be either one way or another. When people retake the assessment, they often end up with a different result.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

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30) What does the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator classification of "S or N" stand for?

A) Sensing/intuitive B) Social/thinking C) Stable/informative D) Sensitive/thinking E) Stable/innovative Answer: A Explanation: In the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, individuals are classified as extraverted or introverted (E or I), sensing or intuitive (S or N), thinking or feeling (T or F), and judging or perceiving (J or P).

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

31) The "Big Five" personality traits include all but which of the following?

A) Conscientiousness B) Self-confidence C) Extraversion D) Openness to experience E) Agreeableness Answer: B Explanation: Self-confidence is a factor within emotional stability, and therefore not one of the five dimensions.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

32) Miguel is practical and prefers routine and order. He tends to focus on details. In the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI), which of the following would Miguel's classification be?

A) Intuitive B) Thinking C) Sensing D) Feeling E) Judging Answer: C Explanation: Miguel would be a sensing type because he is practical, prefers routine and order, and focuses on details.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

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33) Neha is positive, optimistic, and usually happy. In which of the Big Five personality traits would Neha most likely score high?

A) Conscientiousness B) Extroversion C) Openness to experience D) Emotional stability E) Agreeableness Answer: D Explanation: The emotional stability dimension taps a person's ability to withstand stress. High scorers are more likely to be positive, optimistic, and experience fewer negative emotions; they are generally happier than low scorers.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

34) Which of the following pairs of traits are a part of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)?

A) Extraverted-introverted B) Unreliable-reliable C) Organized-disorganized D) Masculine-feminine E) Individualism-collectivism Answer: A Explanation: Extraverted-introverted is one of the four pairs of traits in the MBTI. Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

35) Which of the following is not true about the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)?

A) There is mixed evidence about its validity.

B) It is not widely used.

C) Results from the MBTI tend to be unrelated to job performance.

D) When people retake the assessment, they often receive different results.

E) The MBTI forces a person into one type or the other; that is, there is no in-between.

Answer: B Explanation: The MBTI is the most widely used personality-assessment instrument in the world.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

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36) Lakeesha is responsible, organized, dependable, and persistent. Lakeesha probably scores high on .

A) emotional stability B) openness to experience C) conscientiousness D) extraversion E) agreeableness Answer: C Explanation: The conscientiousness dimension is a measure of personal consistency and reliability. A highly conscientiousness person is responsible, organized, dependable, and persistent.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

37) Individuals with , who are unable to cope with changing demands in the workplace, may experience burnout.

A) high extraversion B) high conscientiousness C) low emotional stability D) high cognitive dissonance E) low extraversion Answer: C Explanation: People with high emotional stability can adapt to unexpected or changing demands in the workplace. However, individuals with low emotional stability would be unable to cope with these demands and so may experience burnout.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

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38) Which of the following is one of the five factors included in the Big Five Model?

A) Sensing B) Judging C) Extraversion D) Thinking E) Feeling Answer: C Explanation: The Big Five personality factors are extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, emotional stability, and openness to experience.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

39) Ankit is easily distracted, disorganized, and unreliable. In the Big Five personality model, this would make him low on .

A) emotional stability B) extraversion C) openness to experience D) conscientiousness E) agreeableness Answer: D Explanation: Those who score on the conscientiousness dimension of the Big Five model would be easily distracted, disorganized, and unreliable.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

40) According to the Big Five Model, a person who scores is responsible, organized, dependable, and persistent.

A) low on emotional stability B) high on openness to experience C) low on agreeableness D) high on extraversion E) high on conscientiousness Answer: E Explanation: According to the Big Five Model, a highly conscientious person is responsible, organized, dependable, and persistent.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

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41) According to the Big Five Model, people who score high on the dimension are creative, curious, and artistically sensitive.

A) emotional stability B) extraversion C) openness to experience D) agreeableness E) conscientiousness Answer: C Explanation: The openness to experience dimension addresses range of interests and fascination with novelty. Extremely open people are creative, curious, and artistically sensitive.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

42) Brenda is a highly conscientious person per the Big Five Model, so she would be A) gregarious, assertive, and sociable B) nervous, anxious, depressed, and insecure C) creative, curious, and artistically sensitive D) responsible, organized, dependable, and persistent E) reserved, timid, and quiet Answer: D Explanation: The conscientiousness dimension is a measure of reliability. A highly conscientious person, like Brenda, is responsible, organized, dependable, and persistent.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

43) Which of the following describes the Dark Triad trait of psychopathy?

A) A lack of concern for others, and a lack of guilt or remorse when actions cause harm B) A grandiose sense of self-importance, requires excessive admiration, and is arrogant C) Pragmatic, maintains emotional distance, and believes that ends justify means D) Good natured, cooperative, and trusting E) Sociable, gregarious, and assertive Answer: A Explanation: In the OB context, psychopathy (one of the Dark Triad) is defined as a lack of concern for others, and a lack of guilt or remorse when actions cause harm.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

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44) Lupe's goal is to visit at least one country in every continent in the next ten years. As a traveler, what Lupe likes to do best while abroad is visiting museums, painting, traveling, and learning new languages. Which dimension of the Big Five Model best describes Lupe, according to her interests?

A) Extraversion B) Agreeableness C) Conscientiousness D) Openness to experience E) Emotional stability Answer: D Explanation: The openness to experience dimension addresses range of interests and fascination with novelty. Extremely open people (like Lupe) are creative, curious, and artistically sensitive.

Those at the other end of the openness category are conventional and find comfort in the familiar.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

45) is as important for managers as for front-line employees, and among all Big Five traits, this trait is the best overall predictor of job performance.

A) Extraversion B) Agreeableness C) Conscientiousness D) Emotional stability E) Openness to experience Answer: C Explanation: Conscientiousness is the Big Five trait most consistently related to job performance. Conscientiousness is as important for managers as for front-line employees.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

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46) Which of the following is not a trait of a narcissistic individual?

A) Fantasies of grand success B) A tendency toward being insensitive C) A tendency to exploit situations and people D) A sense of entitlement E) A lack of empathy Answer: B Explanation: Narcissistic individuals are often hypersensitive and fragile people.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

47) Which of the following Big Five traits is most strongly related to life satisfaction, job satisfaction, and low stress levels?

A) Emotional stability B) Extraversion C) Openness to experience D) Agreeableness E) Conscientiousness Answer: A Explanation: Of the Big Five traits, emotional stability is most strongly related to life satisfaction, job satisfaction, and low stress levels. This is probably true because high scorers are more likely to be positive and optimistic in their thinking and experience fewer negative emotions.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

48) Which of the following traits is most likely to aid someone in becoming a leader?

A) Machiavellianism B) Narcissism C) Psychopathy D) Type A Personality E) Benevolence Answer: B Explanation: Narcissists are more likely to be chosen for leadership positions, and medium ratings of narcissism (neither extremely high nor extremely low) are positively correlated with leadership effectiveness.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

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49) You are the manager of a small boutique. You have decided to apply the Big Five Model in order to understand your employees and their work habits because it is generally supported by an impressive body of research. You want to use the five dimensions of personality to match individuals with jobs to which they are well-suited. You know that your customers are demanding and sometimes difficult. So the salesperson should be able to withstand high levels of stress. Which personality dimension taps a person's ability to withstand stress?

A) Extraversion B) Openness to experience C) Conscientiousness D) Emotional stability E) Agreeableness Answer: D Explanation: The emotional stability dimension taps a person's ability to withstand stress.

People with positive emotional stability tend to be calm, self-confident, and secure. Those with high negative scores tend to be nervous, anxious, depressed, and insecure.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

50) Ming rates low on openness. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true about Ming?

A) She will be less comfortable with ambiguity.

B) She will be very emotionally expressive.

C) She will be quite creative.

D) She will be well liked.

E) She will be quite compliant and conforming.

Answer: A Explanation: People high on openness at work are comfortable with ambiguity; those who are low on this dimension are not comfortable with ambiguity.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

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51) Which model adds the honesty/humility dimension to the Big Five framework?

A) HEXACO Model B) Leadership Grid C) Wonderlic Test D) The Dark Triad E) Hofstede's Value Dimensions Answer: A Explanation: The HEXACO model adds the honesty/humility trait to the Big Five traits.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Application LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

52) A high Mach would be most suited for which of the following positions?

A) A manager who leads a team of geographically distant consultants B) A human resources manager who ensures staff firings do not place the company in legal jeopardy C) An ombudsman who investigates consumer complaints and mediates their outcome D) An auditor who checks that all company accounts are kept properly E) A real estate broker negotiating the lease of large amounts of office space Answer: E Explanation: High Machs make good employees in jobs that require bargaining skills or that offer substantial rewards for winning (such as commissioned sales). The best job for them would be that of the broker negotiating the lease.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

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53) During an annual review, DeSean made the following assertion: "When I look at myself and my performance, I see that what I have achieved is outstanding and has, not surprisingly, won me the admiration and envy of most of my colleagues. I notice that everyone keeps talking about me; they are all just waiting to find out what triumph I will pull off next! In short, I don't just deserve a raise, but need one, since without me, let's face it, the place would simply fall apart."

Which of the following personality traits best describes DeSean's personality?

A) Type A personality B) External locus of control C) High-self monitoring D) Narcissistic E) High Machiavellianism Answer: D Explanation: DeSean is a narcissist. Narcissism is the tendency to be arrogant, have a grandiose sense of self-importance, require excessive admiration, and have a sense of entitlement.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

54) In comparison to low Machs, which of the following is true about high Machs?

A) They manipulate less.

B) They perform better in situations that have several rules and regulations.

C) They win less.

D) They are persuaded less.

E) They persuade others less.

Answer: D Explanation: High Machs manipulate more, win more, are persuaded less, and persuade others more than low Machs. High Machs perform better in situations that have a minimal number of rules and regulations, allowing latitude for improvisation.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

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55) The Briggs Public Relations firm wants to hire a marketing person who is sociable, gregarious, and assertive. This means, the firm wants to hire a person with the Big Five trait.

A) agreeableness B) introversion C) extraversion D) obsessive-compulsive E) avoidant Answer: C Explanation: The extraversion dimension in Big Five captures one's relational approach toward the social world. Extraverts tend to be gregarious, assertive, and sociable.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Application LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

56) Varghese is a high-level administrator at an organization. Consistently, he calls employees into his office to point out their mistakes and to inform them of flaws within their performance; however, he never praises his employees nor informs them of positive feedback. Varghese most likely has which of the Dark Triad?

A) Machiavellianism B) Narcissism C) Psychopathy D) Machiavellianism and narcissism E) Psychopathy and narcissism Answer: C Explanation: While he may find himself better than others, Varghese is demonstrating psychopathy tendencies in his lack of concern for the job satisfaction and wellbeing of his employees.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

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57) Carlos is a very exciting person, people want to be friends with him, and find his company very desirable. Carlos usually takes the lead within his circle of friends and seldom considers what others want. Most likely, Carlos has which of the Dark Triad?

A) Machiavellianism B) Narcissism C) Psychopathy D) Machiavellianism and narcissism E) Psychopathy and narcissism Answer: E Explanation: Carlos is demonstrating both psychopathy, in his lack of concern for others and narcissism, in his charismatic and self-centered behavior.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

58) Why are agreeable people usually less successful in their careers?

A) They aren't happy in their lives.

B) They aren't liked by superiors.

C) They don't make many friends.

D) They don't negotiate well.

E) They are prone to impulsive behavior.

Answer: D Explanation: A downside of agreeableness is that it is associated with lower levels of career success (especially earnings). Agreeable individuals may be poorer negotiators; they are so concerned with pleasing others that they often don't negotiate as much for themselves as they might.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

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59) You are assembling a team to work on a long-term project which requires creativity, persistence, and formal thinking. The only piece of information available to you is the Myers-Briggs Type of each of the applicants. These results are shown below: Candidate Myers-Briggs Type

Raj

Brenda

Carlos

Drusilla

Juanita

INTJ

ESTJ

ENTP

ESFP

INFP

You need to choose a lead person for the team. This person must be a visionary; combining an original mind with great drive. Who would be the best candidate based on their Myers-Briggs Type?

A) Raj B) Brenda C) Carlos D) Drusilla E) Juanita Answer: A Explanation: Raj, as an INTJ, is the best candidate for the job.

Introverted/Intuitive/Thinking/Judging people (INTJs) are visionaries. They usually have original minds and great drive for their own ideas and purposes. They are skeptical, critical, independent, determined, and often stubborn.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

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60) You are assembling a team to work on a long-term project. The only piece of information available to you is the Myers-Briggs Type of each of the applicants. These results are shown below: Candidate Myers-Briggs Type

Raj

Brenda

Carlos

Drusilla

Juanita

INTJ

ESTJ

ESTP

ESFP

ISFP

While you have filled most of the slots on the team, you are looking for a person who can look at the "big picture." Who would be the best candidate based on their Myers-Briggs Type?

A) Raj B) Brenda C) Carlos D) Drusilla E) Juanita Answer: A Explanation: Raj is the only candidate with an "N" or the intuitive type. Intuitives rely on unconscious processes and look at the "big" picture.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

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61) You are assembling a team to work on a long-term project to help prepare the organization for sudden and fundamental changes in the marketplace. The only piece of information available to you is the Myers-Briggs Type of each of the applicants. These results are shown below: Candidate Myers-Briggs Type

Raj

Brenda

Carlos

Drusilla

Juanita

INTJ

ESTJ

ENTP

ESFJ

INFJ

While you have filled most of the slots on the team, you need a person who is flexible to adapt to changes and able to spontaneously come up with solutions. Who would be the best candidate based on their Myers-Briggs Type?

A) Raj B) Brenda C) Carlos D) Drusilla E) Juanita Answer: C Explanation: Carlos is the only one of the applicants in the pool who is a perceiving type, indicated by the letter P. Perceiving types are flexible and spontaneous, exactly the qualities required for the team.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

62) Which of the following personality traits is described as having a lack of concern for others, and a lack of guilt or remorse when actions cause harm?

A) Psychopathy B) Machiavellianism C) Type A personality D) Self-monitoring E) Narcissism Answer: A Explanation: Psychopathy, one of The Dark Triads, is defined as a lack of concern for others, and a lack of guilt or remorse when actions cause harm.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

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63) Machiavellianism, narcissism, and psychopathy are three of the Big Five traits.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Machiavellianism, narcissism, and psychopathy—all socially undesirable traits— make up the "dark triad," traits that are not part of the Big Five framework.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

64) At work, Gopal's constant refrain is, "I do what I have to do to get ahead." Gopal would be described as high Machiavellian.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: People exhibiting high Machiavellianism make no apologies for using aggressive tactics such as using any means to get ahead.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

65) Chang manipulates his co-workers, persuades them on a regular basis but is himself not usually persuaded by them. Chang is a high-Mach individual.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: An individual high in Machiavellianism manipulates others, is persuaded less by others, but persuades others. Chang exhibits all these traits.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

66) Narcissists can be hypersensitive and fragile people.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: While narcissists often have fantasies of grand success, a tendency to exploit situations and people, a sense of entitlement, and a lack of empathy, they can be hypersensitive and fragile people.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

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67) When Varun did the Myers-Briggs assessment, he found out that he was an ISFP. What does this mean?

Answer: The ISFP in Varun's assessment means that he has the following personality traits: a) Introverted: Introverts are quiet and shy. b) Sensing: Sensing types are practical and prefer routine and order, and they focus on details. c) Feeling: Feeling types rely on their personal values and emotions. d) Perceiving: Perceiving types are flexible and spontaneous.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

68) Describe the Big Five personality dimension of emotional stability and explain how it can predict behavior at work.

Answer: The emotional stability dimension, often labeled by its converse, neuroticism, taps a person's ability to withstand stress. People with positive emotional stability tend to be calm, self-confident, and secure. Those with high negative scores tend to be nervous, anxious, depressed, and insecure.

People who score high on emotional stability are happier than those who score low. Of the Big Five traits, emotional stability is most strongly related to life satisfaction, job satisfaction, and low stress levels. This is probably true because high scorers are more likely to be positive and optimistic in their thinking and experience fewer negative emotions. People low on emotional stability are hypervigilant (looking for problems or impending signs of danger) and are especially vulnerable to the physical and psychological effects of stress. In the work place, emotionally stable employees offer less negative thinking and fewer negative emotions. They are less hypervigilant.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

69) Compare the characteristics of extraverts with those of introverts.

Answer: Both the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) and the Big Five Model identify the personality type of extraverts versus introverts. According to the MBTI, extraverted individuals are outgoing, sociable, and assertive, while introverts are quiet and shy. In the Big Five Model, the extraversion dimension captures our relational approach toward the social world. Extraverts tend to be gregarious, assertive, and sociable. They experience more positive emotions than do introverts, and they more freely express these feelings. On the other hand, introverts (those with low extraversion) tend to be more thoughtful, reserved, timid, and quiet.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

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70) Describe the personality characteristic of Machiavellianism.

Answer: The personality characteristic of Machiavellianism (often abbreviated Mach) is named after Niccolo Machiavelli, who wrote in the sixteenth century on how to gain and use power. An individual high in Machiavellianism is pragmatic, maintains emotional distance, and believes ends can justify means. "If it works, use it" is consistent with a high-Mach perspective. High Machs manipulate more, win more, are persuaded less, and persuade others more than low Machs. They are more likely to act aggressively and engage in CWBs as well.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.3 Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) personality framework, the Big Five Model, and the Dark Triad.

71) Which of the following terms indicates the degree to which people like or dislike themselves?

A) Core self-evaluation B) Authoritarianism C) Self-monitoring D) Machiavellianism E) Agreeableness Answer: A Explanation: People who have positive core self-evaluations like themselves and see themselves as effective, capable, and in control of their environment. Those with negative core self-evaluations tend to dislike themselves, question their capabilities, and view themselves as powerless over their environment.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.4 Discuss how the concepts of core self-evaluation (CSE), self-monitoring, and proactive personality contribute to the understanding of personality.

72) Which of the following statements is true about people with positive core self-evaluations?

A) They set ambitious goals.

B) They lack persistence.

C) They tend to question their capabilities.

D) They view themselves as powerless over their environment.

E) They are less popular co-workers than those with negative core self-evaluation.

Answer: A Explanation: People with positive core self-evaluation see more challenge in their job and attain more complex jobs. They also set more ambitious goals, are more committed to their goals, and persist longer in attempting to reach these goals. They are more popular co-workers than those with negative core self-evaluation.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.4 Discuss how the concepts of core self-evaluation (CSE), self-monitoring, and proactive personality contribute to the understanding of personality.

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73) Individuals high in self-monitoring .

A) show considerable adaptability in adjusting their behavior to external situational factors B) are pragmatic, maintain emotional distance, and believe ends can justify means C) have a grandiose sense of self-importance, require excessive admiration, and are arrogant D) are easily distracted, disorganized, and unreliable E) tend to dislike themselves and view themselves as powerless over their environment Answer: A Explanation: Self-monitoring refers to an individual's ability to adjust his or her behavior to external, situational factors. Individuals high in self-monitoring show considerable adaptability in adjusting their behavior to external situational factors.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.4 Discuss how the concepts of core self-evaluation (CSE), self-monitoring, and proactive personality contribute to the understanding of personality.

74) As compared to high self-monitors, low self-monitors .

A) tend to be more mobile in their careers B) pay closer attention to the behavior of others C) receive better performance ratings D) are less likely to emerge as leaders E) show less commitment to their organizations Answer: D Explanation: Evidence indicates high self-monitors pay closer attention to the behavior of others and are more capable of conforming than are low self-monitors. They also receive better performance ratings, are more likely to emerge as leaders, and show less commitment to their organizations. High self-monitoring managers tend to be more mobile in their careers.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.4 Discuss how the concepts of core self-evaluation (CSE), self-monitoring, and proactive personality contribute to the understanding of personality.

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75) Which of the following statements best describes the traits of people having a proactive personality?

A) They identify opportunities, show initiative, take action, and persevere until meaningful change occurs.

B) They naturally seem to think about other people a lot, being concerned about their well-being and feelings.

C) They make more rapid decisions and use less information than the low risk takers do.

D) They tend to display their true dispositions and attitudes in every situation and express behavioral inconsistency.

E) They are more charismatic and thus are more likely to emerge as leaders and display better psychological health.

Answer: A Explanation: Those with a proactive personality identify opportunities, show initiative, take action, and persevere until meaningful change occurs, compared to others who passively react to situations. Proactives create positive change in their environment, regardless of, or even in spite of, constraints or obstacles.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.4 Discuss how the concepts of core self-evaluation (CSE), self-monitoring, and proactive personality contribute to the understanding of personality.

76) Compared to others in his department, Mario is very good at identifying opportunities and showing initiative. Once he senses an opportunity, Mario is also one who will take action and persevere until meaningful change occurs. Mario likely has a(n) personality.

A) intuitive B) narcissistic C) judgmental D) proactive E) sensing Answer: D Explanation: Proactive people identify opportunities, show initiative, take action, and persevere until meaningful change occurs.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 5.4 Discuss how the concepts of core self-evaluation (CSE), self-monitoring, and proactive personality contribute to the understanding of personality.

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77) High self-monitor employees show less commitment to their organizations.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: High self-monitor employees tend to be more mobile in their career because they show less commitment to their organizations.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.4 Discuss how the concepts of core self-evaluation (CSE), self-monitoring, and proactive personality contribute to the understanding of personality.

78) People with a proactive personality need much oversight at work.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: People with a proactive personality identify opportunities, show initiative, take action, and persevere until meaningful change occurs, compared to others who generally react to situations. This means they are given more autonomy at work.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.4 Discuss how the concepts of core self-evaluation (CSE), self-monitoring, and proactive personality contribute to the understanding of personality.

79) Explain the concept of self-monitoring and how it is a powerful predictor of behavior in organizations.

Answer: Along with core self-evaluations and a proactive personality, self-monitoring is an attribute that is a powerful predictor of behavior in organizations. Self-monitoring describes an individual's ability to adjust behavior to external, situational factors. High self-monitors show considerable adaptability in adjusting their behavior to external situational factors. High self-monitors show less commitment to their organizations but receive better performance ratings and are more likely to emerge as leaders. However, they also tend to be more mobile in their careers.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.4 Discuss how the concepts of core self-evaluation (CSE), self-monitoring, and proactive personality contribute to the understanding of personality.

80) Who are proactive personalities?

Answer: Proactive personalities are people who identify opportunities, show initiative, take action, and persevere until meaningful change occurs, compared to others who generally react to situations. Proactive individuals have many desirable behaviors that organizations covet. They have higher levels of job performance and creativity and do not need much oversight. They tend to be satisfied with their jobs, committed to their organizations, and engaged in their work.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.4 Discuss how the concepts of core self-evaluation (CSE), self-monitoring, and proactive personality contribute to the understanding of personality.

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81) A commission-based compensation plan would likely activate the extraversion trait because extraverts are more reward-sensitive, than, say, open people. This is an example of .

A) cognitive dissonance theory B) instrumental values framework C) organizational citizenship theory D) trait-activation theory E) situation strength theory Answer: D Explanation: Trait activation theory (TAT) predicts that some situations, events, or interventions "activate" a trait more than others.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.5 Describe how the situation affects whether personality predicts behavior.

82) Amos works as a janitor. His job strength is dictated most likely by .

A) clarity B) consistency C) constraints D) comprehension E) consequences Answer: A Explanation: The job of a janitor probably provides higher clarity about each task than, say, that of a Hollywood talent agent.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 5.5 Describe how the situation affects whether personality predicts behavior.

83) Juanita is normally a very quiet person who remains somewhat quiet during conversations and social settings. Juanita is also the reigning national debate club champion. According to the Trait Activation Theory, what happens to Juanita at competitions?

A) She becomes highly narcissistic and is rude to the other competitors.

B) Being at the competition causes Juanita to draw on normally unused traits.

C) Juanita stops pretending to be shy.

D) Being at the competition causes Juanita to internalize.

E) Juanita wins by not saying much.

Answer: B Explanation: According to the theory, certain situations cause one to "activate" certain personality traits. In this case, the normally shy Juanita has extroversion traits activated for the competition.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 5.5 Describe how the situation affects whether personality predicts behavior.

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84) Joe, a paramedic, is a very self-directed person and does not need step-by-step instructions in his work. According to the idea of situational strength, if Joe's supervisor gives him detailed instructions on how to bandage a broken finger, Joe will perceive this as his manager .

A) being concerned for his well being B) being neurotic and narcissistic C) using good quality control D) not having enough to do with her own time E) not having faith in his abilities Answer: E Explanation: A person who is usually self-directed may view step-by-step instructions (high clarity) for a simple task as a lack of faith in his ability.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 5.5 Describe how the situation affects whether personality predicts behavior.

85) Ingrid rates autonomy, self-reliance, kindness, and goal-orientation as her most important values. These are her values.

A) instrumental B) cognitive C) genetic D) terminal E) existence Answer: A Explanation: Instrumental values refer to preferable modes of behavior or means of achieving goals. Examples of instrumental values include autonomy, self-reliance, kindness, and goal-orientation.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.6 Contrast terminal and instrumental values.

86) To Aisha, freedom was the highest value, followed by kindness, self-respect, honesty, and pleasure. This hierarchical list is Aisha's .

A) value system B) personality profile C) Big Five framework D) mission statement E) needs hierarchy Answer: A Explanation: A value system is defined as a hierarchy based on a ranking of an individual's values in terms of their intensity.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.6 Contrast terminal and instrumental values.

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87) When we rank values in terms of intensity, we obtain that person's .

A) personality type B) organizational profile C) trait activation profile D) social desirability framework E) value system Answer: E Explanation: We all have a hierarchy of values according to the relative importance we assign to values. Collectively, this becomes our value system.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.6 Contrast terminal and instrumental values.

88) argued that we can separate values into terminal versus instrumental values.

A) Geert Hofstede B) John Holland C) Milton Rokeach D) Milton Friedman E) Sam Donaldson Answer: C Explanation: Milton Rokeach was the researcher who separated values into terminal and instrumental.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 5.6 Contrast terminal and instrumental values.

89) Prosperity and economic success are examples of instrumental values.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Terminal values refer to desirable end-states, such as prosperity and economic success.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.6 Contrast terminal and instrumental values.

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90) How are terminal values different from instrumental values?

Answer: Values represent basic convictions that "a specific mode of conduct or end-state of existence is personally or socially preferable to an opposite or converse mode of conduct or end-state of existence." Terminal values refer to desirable end-states, such as prosperity, economic success, and freedom. In contrast, instrumental values refer to preferable modes of behavior, or means of achieving the terminal values. Examples of instrumental values are autonomy, self-reliance, and kindness.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.6 Contrast terminal and instrumental values.

91) In recent years, Hofstede has proposed an additional dimension that emphasizes enjoying life and having fun versus regulating conduct through strict social norms. That dimension is called .

A) power distance B) indulgence versus restraint C) individualism versus collectivism D) long-term versus short-term orientation E) uncertainty avoidance Answer: B Explanation: Hofstede's original five dimensions of national culture are power distance, individualism versus collectivism, masculinity versus femininity, uncertainty avoidance, and long-term versus short-term orientation. Later on he added indulgence versus restraint to refer to enjoying life and having fun versus regulating conduct through strict social norms.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.7 Compare Hofstede's five value dimensions and the GLOBE framework.

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92) Jose lives and works for a company in Guatemala where there are strict rules separating the office space and eating areas for managers and subordinates. Which dimension of Hofstede does this refer to?

A) Individualism B) Masculinity C) Power distance D) Uncertainty avoidance E) Long-term orientation Answer: C Explanation: Power distance describes the degree to which people in a country accept that power in institutions and organizations is distributed unequally. A high rating on power distance means that large inequalities of power and wealth exist and are tolerated in the culture, as in a class or caste system that discourages upward mobility. Guatemala scores very high on this dimension.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.7 Compare Hofstede's five value dimensions and the GLOBE framework.

93) Mexico is an example of a country where gender roles are very clearly defined. Here, certain occupations are staffed largely by men while others by women. Which of Hofstede's dimensions would this refer to?

A) Uncertainty avoidance B) Long-term orientation C) Masculinity D) Collectivism E) Power distance Answer: C Explanation: A high masculinity rating (that Mexico has) indicates that the culture has separate roles for men and women.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.7 Compare Hofstede's five value dimensions and the GLOBE framework.

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94) According to the GLOBE framework, indicates the extent to which a society supports collective action and resource distribution.

A) collectivism B) power distance C) long-term orientation D) institutional collectivism E) in-group collectivism Answer: D Explanation: Institutional collectivism refers to the extent to which a society supports collective action and resource distribution.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.7 Compare Hofstede's five value dimensions and the GLOBE framework.

95) People in cultures with short-term orientation .

A) are less rule oriented, take more risks, and more readily accept change B) prefer to maintain a link to their past C) treat women as the equals of men in all respects D) emphasize a tight social framework in which people expect others in groups of which they are a part to look after them and protect them E) tolerate large inequalities of power and wealth Answer: B Explanation: People in a culture with short-term orientation prefer to maintain a link to their past by honoring traditions, fulfilling social obligations, and upholding and protecting their image.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.7 Compare Hofstede's five value dimensions and the GLOBE framework.

96) In the GLOBE framework, the extent to which a society values caring, friendliness, altruism, fairness, kindness, and generosity is called .

A) future orientation B) power distance C) humane orientation D) individualism/collectivism E) gender differentiation Answer: C Explanation: Humane orientation, a dimension unique to GLOBE is the extent to which a society values caring, friendliness, altruism, fairness, kindness, and generosity.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.7 Compare Hofstede's five value dimensions and the GLOBE framework.

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97) Which of the following dimensions is common to both Hofstede and GLOBE? A) Gender egalitarianism B) Power distance C) Assertiveness D) Future orientation E) Humane orientation Answer: B Explanation: Except for power distance, all the other dimensions are unique to GLOBE. Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.7 Compare Hofstede's five value dimensions and the GLOBE framework.

98) According to Hofstede's framework, indulgence versus restraint refers to a national culture attribute that emphasizes enjoying life and having fun versus regulating conduct through strict social norms.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Hofstede added a sixth dimension to his framework—indulgence versus restraint—to refer to a culture orientation toward enjoying life and having fun versus regulating conduct through strict social norms.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.7 Compare Hofstede's five value dimensions and the GLOBE framework.

99) Per Hofstede's framework, Malaysia ranked number 1 in power distance while Greece took the top spot in uncertainty avoidance. What does this mean?

Answer: According to Hofstede, power distance is the degree to which people accept that power in institutions and organizations is distributed unequally. A high rating on this dimension (as exhibited by Malaysia) means large inequalities of power and wealth exist and are tolerated in the culture, as in a class or caste system that discourages upward mobility. Uncertainty avoidance refers to the degree to which people in a country prefer structured over unstructured situations. In cultures scoring high on this dimension (like Greece), people have increased anxiety about uncertainty and ambiguity and use laws and controls to reduce uncertainty.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.7 Compare Hofstede's five value dimensions and the GLOBE framework.

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100) What similarities and differences do Hofstede's cultural dimensions and the GLOBE framework share?

Answer: The Hofstede framework has six dimensions (if we include indulgence versus restraint that was added recently), while GLOBE has nine dimensions. Some dimensions—power distance, individualism/collectivism, uncertainty avoidance, gender differentiation (similar to masculinity/femininity of Hofstede), and future orientation (akin to Hofstede's long-term versus short-term orientation)—are the same, although they are defined differently. The main difference between Hofstede's cultural dimensions and the GLOBE framework is that the GLOBE framework added dimensions, such as humane orientation (the degree to which a society rewards individuals for being altruistic, generous, and kind to others) and performance orientation (the degree to which a society encourages and rewards group members for performance improvement). In addition, it also splits Hofstede's collectivism into institutional and in-group collectivism.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Concept LO: 5.7 Compare Hofstede's five value dimensions and the GLOBE framework.

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Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 11E (Robbins) Chapter 5 Perception and Individual Decision Making 1) is the process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment.

A) Cognitive dissonance B) Environmental analysis C) Social verification D) Emotional labor E) Perception Answer: E Explanation: Perception is defined as a process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment. People's behavior is based on their perception of what reality is, not on reality itself. What we perceive can be substantially different from objective reality.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.1 Explain the factors that influence perception.

2) Two people see the same thing at the same time yet interpret it differently. In this situation, factors that operate to shape their dissimilar perceptions reside in the .

A) perceivers B) target C) timing D) context E) situation Answer: A Explanation: Because the target and the situation are the same, the difference in perception must be in the perceivers themselves. Characteristics that can affect perception include perceiver attitudes, personality, motives, interests, past experiences, and expectations.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.1 Explain the factors that influence perception.

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3) When the situation has not changed, which of the following factors influences perception?

A) Self-serving bias B) Stereotyping C) Satisficing D) Selective perception E) Target Answer: E Explanation: Factors that shape and sometimes distort perception can reside in the perceiver, the object or target being perceived, or the situation in which the perception is made.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.1 Explain the factors that influence perception.

4) Which of the following statements is true regarding perception?

A) Our perception of reality is independent of our personality.

B) The context of the situation in which the perception is made has little effect on our perception of reality.

C) Our perception of reality can be different from the objective reality.

D) Our perception of reality is independent of our past experiences.

E) We form a perception of a target by looking at it in isolation.

Answer: C Explanation: Our perception of reality can be different from the objective reality. Our perception of reality is affected by our personality, past experiences and the context of the situation in which the perception is made. We do not look at targets in isolation.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.1 Explain the factors that influence perception.

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5) Lakeesha and Juanita started working at a human resources firm as recruiters on the same day and have the same position. Both women have been meeting their placement goals and are both very well liked within the organization. Because Juanita lives almost 60 miles away, she sometimes works 9-6 to avoid traffic rather than the 8-5 that Lakeesha works. Rohan, their supervisor, awarded Lakeesha the "Employee of the Month" award for her outstanding work.

Which factor shaped and distorted perception in this situation?

A) Perceiver: Rohan thinks because Juanita arrives at 9 that she must not be working a full day.

B) Perceiver: Juanita thinks she is entitled to special privilege because she is meeting her goals.

C) Target: Lakeesha arrives on time so people think she is doing her job better than Juanita.

D) Situation: Since the office opens at 8, Lakeesha is more conscientious than Juanita.

E) Situation: Since Juanita travels the farthest, she is actually more dedicated than Lakeesha.

Answer: A Explanation: Even though both women are doing their job the same, Rohan, the perceiver, sees that Lakeesha is at work at 8 and thus perceives that she is more dedicated than Juanita. His rewarding Lakeesha with the "Employee of the Month" award is based on this distorted perception.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 6.1 Explain the factors that influence perception.

6) On the first day of class, you came dressed in a business suit while the remainder of your classmates came dressed in casual clothing or their workout clothes. You also sat in the first row and volunteered to answer the questions the professor asked. You also made it a habit to ask questions to your professor after every class after all the other students had left, just when the professor was getting ready to leave the room. All semester you have noticed that your professor always seems to talk to you before or after class and that you always seem to get a little more feedback on your papers than your classmates. Why is this?

A) Your professor is hitting on you.

B) Your professor thinks you are a more serious student.

C) Your professor feels sorry for you because you are a social outcast.

D) You are sucking up to your professor.

E) There is no theoretical explanation for this.

Answer: B Explanation: Sometimes differences can work in our favor, such as when we are drawn to targets that are different from what we expect. In this case, a student who dresses nicely, sits in the first row, answers questions, and converses with the professor after class is perceived to be more serious about their education.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 6.1 Explain the factors that influence perception.

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7) The characteristics of the target affect what we perceive.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Factors shape and sometimes distort perception. One of these factors is the object or target being perceived.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.1 Explain the factors that influence perception.

8) One of the factors that shapes and sometimes distorts perception is the situation in which the perception is made.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Several factors shape and sometimes distort perception. Our perception of a target is affected by the characteristics of the target, by our personality and past experiences, and by the situation.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.1 Explain the factors that influence perception.

9) People are generally perceptive about their own abilities.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: People are not even that perceptive about their own abilities.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.1 Explain the factors that influence perception.

10) What factors that operate to shape and sometimes distort perception reside in the perceiver, what factors reside in the target being perceived, and what factors reside in the context of the situation in which the perception is made?

Answer: A number of factors operate to shape and sometimes distort perception. These factors can reside in the perceiver, in the object or target being perceived, or in the context of the situation in which the perception is made. When an individual looks at a target and attempts to interpret what he or she sees, that interpretation is heavily influenced by personal characteristics of the individual perceiver. Personal characteristics affecting perception include his or her attitudes, personality, motives, interests, past experiences, and expectations. Characteristics of the target being observed can affect what is perceived. The relationship of a target to its background influences perception, as does our tendency to group close things and similar things together. The context in which we see objects or events is also important. The time at which an object or event is seen can influence attention, as can location, light, heat, or any number of other factors.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.1 Explain the factors that influence perception.

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11) Lamar is of the opinion that people who wear flashy clothes are superficial thinkers. He often thinks that people wearing flashy clothes don't think deeply about things, even when other observers can point out examples of flashy dressers who are thoughtful. What factor is affecting Lamar's perception in this case?

A) His interests B) His personality C) His expectations D) His motives E) His attitude Answer: C Explanation: Lamar expects all flashy dressers to be superficial. His expectations are what color his perception. The example doesn't explain why he expects this, although it could be from a previous bad experience.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

12) Loud people are more likely to be noticed in a group than quiet ones. So, too, are extremely attractive or unattractive individuals. Which of the following statements best explains the reason behind this fact?

A) Our perception of reality depends on our past experiences.

B) Our perception of reality depends on our personality.

C) The relationship of a target to its background influences our perception of the target.

D) The time at which we see an object can influence our perception of the object.

E) Our motives and expectations affect our perception of a target.

Answer: C Explanation: Characteristics of the target we observe can affect what we perceive. Because we don't look at targets in isolation, the relationship of a target to its background influences our perception of the target.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

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13) Attribution theory suggests that when we observe an individual's behavior, we attempt to determine whether it was internally or externally caused. That determination, however, depends largely on three factors. Which of the following is one of these three factors?

A) Stereotyping B) Consistency C) Anchoring D) Rationality E) Intuition Answer: B Explanation: Attribution theory suggests that when we observe an individual's behavior, we attempt to determine whether it was internally or externally caused. That determination, however, depends largely on three factors. These three factors are (1) distinctiveness, (2) consensus, and (3) consistency.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

14) theory tries to explain the ways in which we judge people differently, depending on the meaning we attribute to a given behavior.

A) ERG B) Hierarchy of needs C) Acquired needs D) Attribution E) Two factor Answer: D Explanation: Attribution theory is an attempt to determine whether an individual's behavior is internally or externally caused. We judge people differently, depending on the meaning we attribute to a given behavior. Attribution theory suggests that when we observe an individual's behavior, we attempt to determine whether it was internally or externally caused.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

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15) Which of the following is not an example of externally caused behavior?

A) An employee is late to work because of bad traffic.

B) An employee is late because of a flat tire.

C) An employee is late to work because the parking lot was full due to a construction issue.

D) An employee was late to work because he had overslept.

E) An employee was late to work because the building elevators were malfunctioning.

Answer: D Explanation: Externally caused behavior is what we imagine the situation forced the individual to do. Being late to work because of oversleeping is not an external issue.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

16) Ming is known to be tardy to social events but is always punctual to work meetings. Per attribution theory, which element of attribution theory does Ming's behavior exhibit?

A) Continuity B) Integrity C) Stability D) Flexibility E) Distinctiveness Answer: E Explanation: Distinctiveness is one of three determining factors that contribute to attribution theory perceptions. Distinctiveness refers to whether or not an individual displays different behaviors (Ming in social versus work situations) in different situations.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

17) According to the attribution theory, if a behavior scores , we tend to attribute it to internal causes.

A) high on distinctiveness B) high on cognizance C) high on consistency D) high on superficiality E) high on consensus Answer: C Explanation: Consistency indicates if the person responds the same way over time. The more consistent the behavior over time, the more we are inclined to attribute it to internal causes.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

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18) Attribution theory uses three factors to determine if a person's behavior is caused internally or externally. One of these three factors is consensus. It indicates if .

A) the person has high propensity to defer to others B) the individual displays different behaviors in different situations C) everyone who faces a similar situation responds in the same way D) the individual responds the same way over time E) the person scores high on conscientiousness Answer: C Explanation: If everyone who faces a similar situation responds in the same way, we can say the behavior shows consensus. If consensus for a behavior is high, we tend to consider it as an externally caused behavior.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

19) DeSean always turns in reports with punctuation errors. The reports of the three other employees on the QA report writing team always produce grammatically clean reports. DeSean is about to turn in another report, and his manager has already noticed errors. DeSean demonstrates . His sloppy reports can be attributed to an cause.

A) low distinctiveness, low consensus, and high consistency; internal B) high distinctiveness, low consensus, and high consistency; external C) low distinctiveness, high consensus, and high consistency; internal D) low distinctiveness, low consensus, and high consistency; external E) high distinctiveness, high consensus, and high consistency; internal Answer: A Explanation: DeSean's behavior is not different from previous behavior, demonstrating low distinctiveness. His reports are different from the other reports of the team, showing low consensus. His next report is the same as his previous work, showing high consistency of poor work quality. Therefore, DeSean's poor work could be perceived as coming from an internal cause, probably his own carelessness and lack of conscientious work ethic.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

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20) Darci gets back to her workstation late each day by about fifteen minutes. How would the attribution theory describe Darci's behavior?

A) It shows consensus.

B) It shows similarity.

C) It shows reliability.

D) It shows consistency.

E) It shows distinctiveness.

Answer: D Explanation: Consistency in a person's actions means that the person responds the same way over time to the same situation. Darci demonstrates high consistency in her tardiness.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

21) According to attribution theory, if a behavior scores , we tend to attribute it to internal causes.

A) low on consistency B) high on traceability C) low on distinctiveness D) high on consensus E) low on flexibility Answer: C Explanation: Distinctiveness refers to whether an individual displays different behaviors in different situations. According to the attribution theory, if a behavior scores low on distinctiveness, we tend to attribute it to internal causes. The attribution theory does not take into consideration traceability and flexibility.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

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22) Which of the following terms best describes the tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal factors when making judgments about the behavior of others?

A) Fundamental attribution error B) Halo effect C) Selective perception D) Overconfidence E) Randomness error Answer: A Explanation: Errors and biases distort attributions. When a person makes judgments about the behavior of other people, he tends to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal or personal factors. This is called the fundamental attribution error.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

23) As a boss, Juan is known for attributing his own success to internal factors. At the same time, Juan's subordinates know that he is likely to blame them and other external factors for failures.

What is Juan's tendency called?

A) Fundamental attribution error B) Self-serving bias C) Distinction bias D) Selective perception E) Stereotyping Answer: B Explanation: Juan is likely attributing his own successes to internal factors such as his ability or effort, and places the blame for failure on external factors such as bad luck or unproductive co-workers. This is called a self-serving bias.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

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24) Megan's colleagues know that while she would accept positive feedback about her work, she would always reject any negative feedback. Megan is guilty of .

A) fundamental attribution error B) attribution bias C) confirmation bias D) distinction bias E) self-serving bias Answer: E Explanation: Self-serving bias refers to the tendency of people to attribute ambiguous information as relatively flattering, accept positive feedback, and reject negative feedback.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

25) We use a number of shortcuts when we judge others. Which of the following is a shortcut used to judge others?

A) Distinctiveness B) Consistency C) Consensus D) Self-serving bias E) Stereotyping Answer: E Explanation: Stereotyping is a commonly used shortcut for judging others. The others are not included in the shortcuts for judging people.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

26) Your boss never gives you the benefit of the doubt. When you arrived late from lunch, he assumed that you had simply taken too much time. He never considered that the elevators were not working that day and the fact that you had to walk up 10 flights of stairs. Your boss is guilty of .

A) a self-serving bias B) selective perception C) the fundamental attribution error D) inconsistency E) stereotyping Answer: C Explanation: Your boss has underestimated the influence of external factors and overestimated the influence of internal or personal factors. He is sure that your late arrival is caused by your own efforts, or lack thereof. This is called the fundamental attribution error.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

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27) William believes Carlos is a hardworking individual because Carlos always dresses nicely and wears well-tailored suits. Which short-cut is William using to judge Carlos?

A) Contrast effect B) Self-serving bias C) Framing effect D) Halo effect E) Impact bias Answer: D Explanation: When we draw a general impression about an individual on the basis of a single characteristic, such as intelligence, sociability, or appearance, a halo effect is operating.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

28) A comedian once said that Robin Williams, because he was so funny, was a tough act to follow. What is the comedian trying to avoid here?

A) The stereotyping effect B) The halo effect C) The contrast effect D) The projection effect E) The fundamental attribution error Answer: C Explanation: With the contrast effect, evaluation of a person's characteristics is affected by comparisons with other people recently encountered who rank higher or lower on the same characteristics. Since Robin Williams was so funny, the next comedian would need to be as good as him, or he would be more negatively judged than if he had done his bit after an average performing comedian.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

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29) You have heard that the teacher believes that men perform better in oral presentations than women. What shortcut has the teacher used in this case?

A) The halo effect B) The contrast effect C) The hindsight bias D) Stereotyping E) The self-serving bias Answer: D Explanation: When a person engages in stereotyping, they are judging someone on the basis of one's perception of the group to which that person belongs. The teacher is judging all the presenters by their gender group.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

30) Aisha has already presented two excellent reports. The third report she has just presented is clearly not as good as the first two reports, yet she is given the same high grade as before. What shortcut has the teacher used in this case?

A) The contrast effect B) The halo effect C) Stereotyping D) The framing effect E) The hindsight bias Answer: B Explanation: When a person draws a general impression about an individual on the basis of a single characteristic, such as intelligence, sociability, or appearance, a halo effect is operating.

Aisha's teacher has already determined that she is intelligent, and even though her report isn't as good, the teacher's perception is skewed.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

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31) It was Marisol's first day at work. At first, she was very nervous, but when she was introduced to her cubicle neighbor, Hanna, she was reassured by Hanna's soothing smile. Marisol thought that a person with such a beautiful smile could not be bad, and that she would enjoy having her in such close proximity. Which of the following concepts best describes this example?

A) Contrast effect B) Fundamental attribution error C) Halo effect D) Horns effect E) Self-serving bias Answer: C Explanation: The halo effect is the tendency to draw a general impression about an individual on the basis of a single characteristic. Marisol is judging Hanna based only on her smile, without getting to know any other details.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

32) We don't evaluate a person in isolation. Our reaction to a person is influenced by other persons we have recently encountered. This is known as the .

A) halo effect B) contrast effect C) confirmation bias D) framing effect E) impact bias Answer: B Explanation: Contrast effect is the evaluation of a person's characteristics that is affected by comparisons with other people recently encountered who rank higher or lower on the same characteristics.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

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33) Johannes loves European cars. All the cars that he has owned were European models and his last three cars were BMWs. While he has difficulty remembering his co-worker's names, he has no trouble remembering the names of his colleagues who drive BMWs. What is this common shortcut in judging others called?

A) Stereotyping B) Self-serving bias C) Selective perception D) Halo effect E) Contrast effect Answer: C Explanation: Because it is impossible for us to assimilate everything we see; we can take in only certain stimuli, and because we can't observe everything going on about us, we engage in selective perception. Due to selective perception, Johannes is more likely to notice cars like his own and remember the names of co-workers who drive these cars.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

34) "All men like sports. DeSean is a man and so he should like sports." What is this type of shortcut to judging others called?

A) Confirmation bias B) Stereotyping C) Framing effect D) Distinction bias E) Bandwagon effect Answer: B Explanation: Stereotyping is defined as judging someone on the basis of one's perception of the group to which that person belongs. Here, the group is men and DeSean's membership in this group leads him to be stereotyped.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

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35) Many of our perceptions are formed by and small that have little supporting evidence.

A) directives; targets B) targets; first impressions C) first impressions; cues D) cues; stereotypes E) stereotypes; directives Answer: C Explanation: The perception concepts most relevant to OB include person perceptions, or the perception people form about each other. Many of our perceptions of others are formed by first impressions and small cues that have little supporting evidence.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

36) Jose talks softly and has a winning smile. According to the halo effect, which of the following are we most likely to ascribe to Jose?

A) He is always punctual.

B) He has a good home life.

C) He is a nice person.

D) He is highly narcissistic.

E) He has low self-esteem.

Answer: C Explanation: Within the halo effect, we draw on one or two characteristics and then apply those feelings to other aspects about the person. In this case, we are influenced by Jose's "nice" characteristics to determine that he is also a nice person.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

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37) Priya's rating in a job interview is high in contrast to the candidate who was interviewed directly before her, who was rated extremely low. In this case, Priya's high rating can be partially attributed to the .

A) confirmation bias B) contrast effect C) fundamental attribution error D) self-serving bias E) bandwagon effect Answer: B Explanation: Contrast effect is the evaluation of a person's characteristics that is affected by comparisons with other people recently encountered who rank higher or lower on the same characteristics. Priya's high score in the interview may be attributed to this effect.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

38) Which of the following statements is true regarding a contrast effect?

A) Our tendency to attribute our success to internal factors and blame our failure on external factors is called the contrast effect.

B) The contrast effect states that we tend to judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which he or she belongs.

C) A person appears more appealing than normal when compared with a person of less appeal due to the contrast effect.

D) If we think that women won't relocate for a promotion, we are using a shortcut to judge all women and it is called the contrast effect.

E) The contrast effect indicates a tendency to fixate on initial information and fail to adequately adjust for subsequent information.

Answer: C Explanation: We don't evaluate a person in isolation. Our reaction to a person is influenced by other persons we have recently encountered. This is known as the contrast effect. Thus, due to the contrast effect, a person appears more appealing than normal when compared with a person of less appeal.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

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39) Which of the following statements best represents a horns effect?

A) We tend to attribute our own successes to internal factors, but we tend to put the blame for our failure on external factors.

B) We tend to judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which he or she belongs.

C) We tend to draw a positive impression about an individual based on a single characteristic, such as intelligence or sociability.

D) We tend to draw a negative impression about an individual on the basis of a single characteristic, such as tardiness or appearance.

E) When we make judgments about the behavior of other people, we tend to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal or personal factors.

Answer: D Explanation: In the horns effect, we tend to draw a negative impression about an individual on the basis of a single characteristic.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

40) Our perception and judgment of a person's actions are influenced by the assumptions we make about that person's state of mind.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: When we observe people, we attempt to explain their behavior. Our perception and judgment of others' actions are influenced by the assumptions we make about that person's state of mind.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

41) Cognitive dissonance theory tries to explain the ways we judge people differently depending on the meaning we attribute to their behavior.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Attribution theory tries to explain the ways we judge people differently depending on the meaning we attribute to their behavior.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

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42) If everyone who faces a similar situation responds in the same way, we can say the behavior shows consistency.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Consensus, not consistency, is when everyone who faces a similar situation responds the same way.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

43) The halo effect is when we draw a negative impression about an individual from a single characteristic.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: The horns effect refers to when we draw a negative impression about a person from a single characteristic.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

44) What is the distinction between the halo and horns effects?

Answer: Shortcuts for judging others often allow us to make accurate perceptions rapidly and provide valid data for making predictions. However, they can and do sometimes result in significant distortions. The halo and horns effects are instances of such shortcuts. When we draw a positive impression about an individual based on a single characteristic, such as intelligence, sociability, or appearance, a halo effect is operating. In contrast, the horns effect is when we draw a negative impression from a single characteristic.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

45) Contrast the fundamental attribution error and the self-serving bias.

Answer: When we make judgments about the behavior of other people, we have a tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal or personal factors. This is called the fundamental attribution error. There is also a tendency for individuals to attribute their own successes to internal factors, such as ability or effort, while putting the blame for failure on external factors, such as bad luck or unproductive co-workers.

This is called the self-serving bias.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

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46) With the help of an example, point out the difference between the horns effect and stereotyping.

Answer: Both the horns effect and stereotyping are shortcuts used in judging others. In the horns effect, we draw a negative impression from a single characteristic. For example, Tom is exhibiting the horns effect when he concludes that Ana is an unmotivated, lazy, and unintelligent individual just because she is tardy to work. In contrast, when we judge someone based on our perception of the group they belong to, we are stereotyping. If Tom concludes that Ana is an unmotivated, lazy, and unintelligent person because she is a woman (because he categorizes all women to be unmotivated, lazy, and unintelligent), then he is stereotyping.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.2 Describe attribution theory.

47) Decision making occurs as a reaction to a .

A) judgment B) perception C) bias D) context E) problem Answer: D Explanation: Decision making occurs as a reaction to a problem—a discrepancy that exists between how things are and how we want them to be.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.3 Explain the link between perception and decision making.

48) Robbie and Carlos are both coaches for a city youth baseball league which has recently experienced a five-game losing streak. Robbie is concerned that the team is not practicing enough while Carlos thinks that it is just a slump. The discrepancy within their thoughts is explained by .

A) bounded rationality B) halo effect C) perceptual issue D) intuition E) escalation of commitment Answer: C Explanation: Awareness that a problem actually exists is related to one's perception of the situation.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.3 Explain the link between perception and decision making.

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49) Decision making tends to be generally objective.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Ideally, decision making would be objective rather than subjective, but the ways individuals make decisions are largely influenced by their perceptions.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.3 Explain the link between perception and decision making.

50) While decision-making models have merit, they do not always describe how people make decisions.

A) intuitive B) convolutional C) rational D) bounded rationality E) sequential Answer: C Explanation: The rational decision-making model (long espoused by business schools) has merit, but it does not always describe how people make decisions.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

51) With reference to decision making, satisficing involves .

A) identifying all possible alternative decisions B) seeking solutions that are merely sufficient C) evaluating all possible alternatives objectively D) selecting the best option with the highest utility E) using an unconscious decision-making process created from distilled experience Answer: B Explanation: The limited information-processing capability of human beings makes it impossible to assimilate and understand all the information necessary to optimize. Also many problems likely don't have an optimal solution because they are too complicated to be broken down into the parameters of the rational decision-making model. So people satisfice; that is, they seek solutions that are satisfactory and sufficient.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

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52) What is the last step in the rational decision-making model?

A) Developing alternatives B) Defining the problem C) Selecting the best alternative D) Weighing the decision criteria E) Collecting relevant data Answer: C Explanation: The rational decision-making model follows a six-step process. The steps are: 1) Define the problem; 2) Identify the decision criteria; 3) Allocate weights to the criteria; 4) Develop the alternatives; 5) Evaluate the alternatives; and 6) Select the best alternative.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

53) Meg has exceeded her budget by at least $200 every month for the last three months. After recognizing that this is a problem, she decides to use the rational decision-making model to decide what to do. What should be the next step she should take, if she follows this model?

A) Determine what criteria she needs to take into account when making her decision.

B) Choose a method to cut her expenses.

C) Implement some other method of budgeting.

D) Come up with different ways that would either reduce her expenses or increase her income.

E) Evaluate different ways that she could use to either reduce her expenses or increase her income.

Answer: A Explanation: The rational decision-making model follows a six-step process. The steps are: 1) Define the problem; 2) Identify the decision criteria; 3) Allocate weights to the criteria; 4) Develop the alternatives; 5) Evaluate the alternatives; 6) Select the best alternative. Meg needs to apply step two by determining the decision criteria, or what she needs to take into account.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

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54) In the real world, what do people typically do when making a decision about a problem?

A) Follow the rational decision-making model B) Seek the optimal decision C) Obtain complete information about all possible alternatives before making a decision D) Evaluate all the possible options in an unbiased and objective manner E) Find a satisfactory and sufficient solution Answer: E Explanation: Most decisions in the real world don't follow the rational model. People are usually content to find an acceptable or reasonable solution to a problem rather than an optimal one.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

55) When we take a simplified approach to decision making by perceiving and interpreting the essential features of the problem without capturing its complexity and by behaving rationally within these boundaries, we are using .

A) optimal decision making B) intuitive decision making C) bounded rationality D) rationality E) common sense Answer: C Explanation: The limited information-processing capability of human beings makes it impossible to assimilate and understand all the information necessary to optimize. So, most people respond to a complex problem by reducing it to a level at which they can readily understand it. This simplified level is called bounded rationality.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

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56) Which of the following statements is true regarding the rational decision-making model?

A) The rational decision-making model takes into consideration the limited information-processing capability of individuals.

B) Rational decision-making models involve constructing simplified models that extract the essential features from problems without capturing all their complexity.

C) The rational decision-making model involves satisficing; seek solutions that are satisfactory and sufficient.

D) The rational decision-making model assumes that an individual is able to identify all the relevant options in an unbiased manner.

E) The rational decision-making process is an unconscious one created from distilled experience.

Answer: D Explanation: The rational decision-making model relies on a number of assumptions, including that the decision maker has complete information, is able to identify all the relevant options in an unbiased manner, and chooses the option with the highest utility. Most decisions in the real world don't follow the rational model. People are usually content to find an acceptable or reasonable solution to a problem rather than an optimal one. This is known as satisficing.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

57) decision making is the least rational way of making decisions.

A) Contrast effect B) Halo effect C) Intuitive D) Selective perception E) Cognitive Answer: C Explanation: Intuition is a highly complex and highly developed form of reasoning that is based on years of experience and learning. However, it is also the least rational way of making decisions.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

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58) You are part of a group, making a decision about whether it is appropriate to discontinue research on a new drug. This new drug would save lives, but it is uncertain whether you can develop it within a reasonable time frame and at a reasonable cost. Your firm has already spent a small fortune on this drug. You have gathered so much information in preparation to making the decision that you are unable to sort the good information from the superfluous data. You just feel that this project has merit. What form of decision making are you using if you decide to continue the project because you feel that the project has merit?

A) Optimization B) Intuitive C) Rational D) Satisficing E) Bounded rationality Answer: B Explanation: Intuitive decision making is an unconscious process created from distilled experience. Its defining qualities are that it occurs outside conscious thought; it relies on holistic associations, or links between disparate pieces of information. In the example, the speaker just "feels" that the project is good, relying on intuition.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

59) Inga started and completed her term paper the night before it was due. She collected data from the first page of her Google search rather than go over to the library and do a detailed search. What is the common type of bias her paper is likely to suffer from?

A) Self-serving B) Availability C) Distinction D) Confirmation E) Hindsight Answer: B Explanation: Availability bias is our tendency to base judgments on readily available information, such as the first page of a Google search.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

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60) We tend to accept at face value information that is consistent with our preconceived views, while we are critical and skeptical of information that challenges these views. This represents the bias.

A) distinction B) impact C) hindsight D) confirmation E) self-serving Answer: D Explanation: The confirmation bias represents a specific case of selective perception: we seek out information that reaffirms our past choices, and we discount information that contradicts them. We also tend to accept at face value information that confirms our preconceived views, while we are critical and skeptical of information that challenges these views.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

61) The bias is typically associated with negotiation.

A) confirmation B) distinction C) anchoring D) hindsight E) availability Answer: C Explanation: The anchoring bias is a tendency to fixate on initial information and fail to adequately adjust for subsequent information. Anchors are widely used by people in professions in which persuasion skills are important–such as advertising, management, politics, real estate, and law. Anytime a negotiation takes place, so does anchoring.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

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62) While negotiating salary with your prospective employer, if you suggest an initial target salary of $55,000, your employer will consider $50,000 to $60,000 a reasonable range for negotiation, but if you mention $55,650, your employer is more likely to consider $55,000 to $56,000 the range of likely values for negotiation. In this example your employer is exhibiting the bias.

A) availability B) anchoring C) hindsight D) confirmation E) impact Answer: B Explanation: The anchoring bias is a tendency to fixate on initial information and fail to adequately adjust for subsequent information. When a prospective employer asks how much you made in your prior job, your answer typically anchors the employer's offer.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

63) One of the core problems that created the financial meltdown of 2008 was that large loans were made to individuals who could not repay them, and the finance companies purchased these bad debts without realizing how poor the prospects of repayment were. Which of the following decision-making errors was made by the lenders and borrowers?

A) Hindsight bias B) Availability bias C) Overconfidence bias D) Confirmation bias E) Anchoring bias Answer: C Explanation: When we are given factual questions and asked to judge the probability that our answers are correct, we tend to be far too optimistic. During the financial meltdown of 2008, the lenders and borrowers were overconfident about the ability to pay back loans. This overconfidence bias was clearly a major factor that created the financial crisis.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

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64) Jorge heads a venture capital fund that provides seed capital to entrepreneurs. In evaluating venture proposals, Jorge decides to avoid investing in ventures where the entrepreneur is overly optimistic about the venture's prospects because such ventures tend to be less successful. Which of the following systematic biases and errors in judgment is Jorge referring to?

A) Hindsight bias B) Anchoring bias C) Confirmation bias D) Availability bias E) Overconfidence bias Answer: E Explanation: The overconfidence bias represents a negative relationship between entrepreneurs' optimism and the performance of their new ventures: the more optimistic, the less successful.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

65) The statement, "I never make important decisions on Friday the 13th" is an example of .

A) overconfidence bias B) randomness error C) bounded rationality D) intuitive decision making E) selective perception Answer: B Explanation: Most of us like to think we have some control over our world and our destiny. Our tendency to believe we can predict the outcome of random events is the randomness error.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

66) The tendency of Hollywood studios to continue the production of a star-studded, big budget movie that goes out of control and over budget is an example of what error in decision making?

A) Escalation of commitment B) Hindsight bias C) Satisficing D) Selective perception E) Availability bias Answer: A Explanation: Escalation of commitment refers to staying with a decision even when there is clear evidence it's wrong. Instead of getting out of movies where they have lost control, Hollywood studios exhibit an escalation of commitment by continuing to invest in them.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

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67) Which of the following types of biases in decision making represents the tendency of decision makers to prefer a sure thing?

A) Hindsight bias B) Bounded rationality C) Escalation of commitment D) Selective perception E) Risk aversion Answer: E Explanation: Risk aversion is the tendency to prefer a sure gain of a moderate amount over a riskier outcome, even if the riskier outcome might have a higher expected payoff.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

68) Tom knows that the title insurance company made a mistake on his property title. Because of their mistake, his neighbor now has access to an easement road through the 25 acres located at the back of his property. He can't use the acreage for pasture, because his neighbor insists that the gates remain open. The title company has offered a $40,000 settlement. Tom has decided to take the settlement rather than possibly lose in court if he were to sue the title company for more money. Tom's decision is based on .

A) hindsight bias B) availability bias C) risk aversion D) randomness error E) escalation of commitment Answer: C Explanation: Risk aversion is the tendency to prefer a sure gain of a moderate amount over a riskier outcome, even if the riskier outcome might have a higher expected payoff. Tom does not want to risk losing the $40,000 for a possible, but uncertain, higher payoff.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

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69) Which of the following statements is true regarding escalation of commitment?

A) It indicates a tendency to fixate on initial information and fail to adequately adjust for subsequent information.

B) It indicates that we seek out information that reaffirms our past choices, and we discount information that contradicts them.

C) It indicates our tendency to base judgments on information readily available.

D) It refers to staying with a decision even when there is clear evidence it is wrong.

E) It indicates our tendency to draw a general impression about an individual on the basis of a single characteristic, such as intelligence.

Answer: D Explanation: When we persist even when there is evidence that we should try a different approach, refers to the decision-making bias called escalation of commitment.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

70) For many people, a 50-50 flip of a coin for $100 might not be worth as much as a sure promise of $50, even though the gamble is mathematically worth twice as much as the sure thing. This is an example of .

A) selective perception B) self-serving bias C) risk aversion D) availability bias E) confirmation bias Answer: C Explanation: Risk aversion represents a tendency to prefer a sure thing over a risky outcome.

Thus, preferring a sure promise of $50 represents the tendency to prefer a sure thing over a risky outcome.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

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71) What are the three generally accepted constructs of decision making each of us employs to make determinations?

A) Rational decision making, bounded rationality, and intuition B) Escalation of commitment, risk aversion, and hindsight bias C) Utilitarianism, rights, and justice D) Expertise, creative-thinking skills, and intrinsic task motivation E) Distinctiveness, consensus, and consistency Answer: A Explanation: In OB, there are three generally accepted constructs of decision making each of us employs to make determinations: Rational Decision Making, Bounded Rationality, and Intuition.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

72) The normative decision-making model describes how individuals should behave in order to maximize some outcome.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Rational decision-making model describes how individuals.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

73) The rational decision-making model assumes the decision maker has complete information, can identify all relevant options without bias, and chooses the option with the highest utility.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: While the rational model assumes the decision maker has complete information, can identify all relevant options without bias, and chooses the option with the highest utility, most decisions do not follow this model.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

74) Overconfidence bias is the tendency to fixate on initial information and fail to adequately adjust to subsequent information.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: The tendency to fixate on initial information and fail to adequately adjust to subsequent information is called anchoring bias.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

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75) If you suggest a salary of $45,000, your interviewer will consider $40,000 to $50,000 a reasonable range for negotiation, but if you mention $45,550, your interviewer is more likely to consider $45,000 to $46,000 the range of likely values. This is an example of anchoring bias.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Anytime a negotiation takes place, so does anchoring or the tendency to fixate on initial information. The more precise the anchor is ($45,550 instead of $45,000), the smaller the adjustment.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

76) Confirmation bias refers to our staying with a decision even if there is clear evidence it is wrong.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Escalation of commitment is the term used to refer to our staying with a decision even if there is clear evidence it is wrong.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

77) What do we do when we "satisfice?" How is it related to decision making?

Answer: The rational decision-making model assumes the decision maker has complete information, can identify all relevant options without bias, and chooses the option with the highest utility. However, most decisions do not follow this model. People are usually content to find an acceptable or reasonable solution to a problem rather than an optimal one. When we cannot solve complex problems with full rationality, we operate within the confines of bounded rationality. Satisficing, or seeking solutions that are merely sufficient, i.e., "good enough," is an outcome of the bounded rationality model of decision making.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

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78) What is escalation of commitment?

Answer: Escalation of commitment refers to staying with a decision even when there is clear evidence it's wrong. Individuals escalate commitment to a failing course of action when they view themselves as responsible for the failure. In fact, people who carefully gather and consider information consistent with the rational decision-making model are more likely to engage in escalation of commitment than those who spend less time thinking about their choices. Perhaps they have invested so much time and energy into making their decisions that they have convinced themselves they're taking the right course of action and don't update their knowledge in the face of new information.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

79) Discuss some of the errors in perceptual judgment made by interviewers in job interviews.

Answer: Interviewers make perceptual judgments that may be inaccurate. They generally draw early impressions that very quickly become entrenched. Research shows that we form impressions of others within a tenth of a second, based on our first glance at them. This is the halo effect. Interviewers might draw conclusions about a candidate based on the group (such as religion, ethnicity) to which the candidate belongs. This is known as stereotyping. If these first impressions are negative, they tend to be more heavily weighted in the interview than if that same information came out later. Most interviewers' decisions change very little after the first 4 or 5 minutes of the interview. This represents anchoring bias. Also, candidates are generally evaluated by comparing them with the previous candidates. This is known as the contrast effect.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

80) Why is risk aversion considered a bias in decision making?

Answer: Systematic biases and errors can creep into the judgment of decision makers. One of them is risk aversion. Risk aversion is the tendency to prefer a sure gain of a moderate amount over a riskier outcome, even if the riskier outcome might have a higher expected payoff. The framing of a decision has an effect on whether or not people will engage in risk averse behavior.

When decisions are framed positively (such as a potential gain of fifty dollars), people will be more risk averse. In contrast, when the decision is framed in a negative manner (such as a loss of fifty dollars), people will engage in riskier behaviors.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

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81) Explain how stereotyping can cause problems for some managers when making ethical decisions. Provide an example.

Answer: Because one of the criteria of ethical decision making is to focus on individual rights, the use of stereotyping would affect the ethical decision-making process. The focus on rights calls on individuals to make decisions consistent with fundamental liberties and privileges as set forth in documents like the Bill of Rights. An emphasis on rights in decision making means respecting and protecting the basic rights of individuals. If a manager engages in stereotyping, for example, believing that all women are less productive than men, he may be inclined to base organizational decisions on this stereotype. When an important project or promotion comes up, he would always be inclined to reward men over women.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Synthesis LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

82) You are in your senior year and, unfortunately, your GPA is a very low 1.87 (on a scale of 4.0), you hate going to class, and your internship makes you want to purposely catch food poisoning just so you can miss work. During a visit with your academic advisor, it is suggested that you might want to change your major. Why do you not change your major?

Answer: Responses to this question will vary but should feature a discussion regarding escalation of commitment. The student should discuss elements of the money that has been spent, the time that has been used, and the effort which has been expended on earning their current degree.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 6.4 Contrast the rational model of decision making with bounded rationality and intuition.

83) Which of the following is not an example of an organizational constraint that influences decision-making?

A) Performance evaluation B) General mental ability C) Reward systems D) Formal regulations E) Historical precedents Answer: B Explanation: The organization's reward system influences decision makers by suggesting which choices have better personal payoffs. General mental ability, however, is an individual factor that influences decision making.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 6.5 Explain how individual differences and organizational constraints affect decision making.

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84) Which of the following is not an example of individual differences that influence decision making?

A) Personality B) Gender C) General mental ability D) Historical precedent E) Cultural differences Answer: D Explanation: Unlike the others, historical precedent is an organizational constraint to decision making.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 6.5 Explain how individual differences and organizational constraints affect decision making.

85) Of the five organizational constraints of decision making, which is most likely to be affected by risk aversion?

A) Performance evaluations B) Reward system C) Formal regulation D) Time constraints E) Historical precedents Answer: B Explanation: If an organization rewards risk aversion, decision makers will most likely be rewarded for conservative decisions; while if the organization rewards risk taking, conservative decisions will not be rewarded.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 6.5 Explain how individual differences and organizational constraints affect decision making.

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86) When an employee says, "I've got rules and directives covering almost every decision I make and so my job doesn't come with much freedom of choice," what kind of constraint to decision making is the employee referring to?

A) Peer pressure B) Reward systems C) Performance evaluation systems D) Formal regulations E) Personality Answer: D Explanation: The employee is referring to formal regulations—an organizational constraint to decision making. Rules and policies limit decision choices.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 6.5 Explain how individual differences and organizational constraints affect decision making.

87) Individual differences such as personality create deviations from the rational decision-making model.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Because individual differences such as personality influence the degree to which people are susceptible to errors and biases, they create deviations from the rational decision-making model.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.5 Explain how individual differences and organizational constraints affect decision making.

88) In the ethical yardstick of , decisions are made solely on the basis of their outcomes, ideally to provide the greatest good for the greatest number.

A) utilitarianism B) self-serving bias C) bounded rationality D) selective perception E) anchoring bias Answer: A Explanation: The first ethical yardstick is utilitarianism, in which decisions are made to provide the greatest good for the greatest number. Decisions are made solely on the basis of their outcomes.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.6 Contrast the three ethical decision criteria.

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89) Which ethical yardstick is consistent with goals such as rationality, efficiency, productivity, and high profits?

A) Deonance B) The rights approach C) The justice approach D) Utilitarianism E) The rationality approach Answer: D Explanation: The utilitarianism view dominates business decision making and is consistent with goals such as rationality, efficiency, productivity, and high profits.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.6 Contrast the three ethical decision criteria.

90) The three criteria for making ethical decisions are .

A) utilitarianism, creativity, and rights B) historical precedents, rights, and utilitarianism C) rewards, regulations, and time orientation D) utilitarianism, rights, and justice E) historical precedents, reward, and justice Answer: D Explanation: There are three ways to frame decisions ethically. The first ethical yardstick is utilitarianism, in which decisions are made solely on the basis of their outcomes, ideally to provide the greatest good for the greatest number. Another ethical criterion is to make decisions consistent with fundamental rights. A third criterion is to impose and enforce rules fairly and impartially to ensure justice or an equitable distribution of benefits and costs.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.6 Contrast the three ethical decision criteria.

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91) Juanita is the manager of a development group in a large computer software company. She has decided that it is important for her group to understand the many ways that ethical decisions can be made and she is designing a training program on the subject of ethics. Since she wishes to emphasize the importance of making decisions solely based on their outcomes, ideally to provide the greatest good for all, the focus of her program will be on .

A) utilitarianism B) justice C) rights D) privilege E) service Answer: A Explanation: Utilitarianism is an ethical perspective in which decisions are made to provide the greatest good for all.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 6.6 Contrast the three ethical decision criteria.

92) Aisha submitted a formal complaint to OSHA about unsafe work conditions in her company's warehouse. Aisha is a .

A) utilitarian thinker B) judge C) creative thinker D) whistle-blower E) humanitarian Answer: D Explanation: Whistle-blowers are individuals who reveal an organization's unethical practices to the press or government agencies, using their right to free speech.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 6.6 Contrast the three ethical decision criteria.

93) The ethical yardstick of deonance proposes making decisions solely based on their outcomes, ideally to provide the greatest good for all.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Utilitarianism is the ethical yardstick that proposes making decisions solely based on their outcomes, ideally to provide the greatest good for all.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.6 Contrast the three ethical decision criteria.

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94) The statement, "employees feel as if they ought to behave in a certain way, as laid out in rules, laws, norms, and moral principles," illustrates the deonance standpoint.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: The deonance yardstick to ethical decision making imposes and enforces rules fairly and impartially to ensure justice or an equitable distribution of benefits and costs. The statement exemplifies this standpoint.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 6.6 Contrast the three ethical decision criteria.

95) Which of the following traits does a decision maker need to have if they are to fully appraise a problem and even see problems that others are not aware of?

A) Creativity B) Rationality C) Conceptual style D) Intuition E) Individuality Answer: A Explanation: A rational decision maker also needs creativity, the ability to produce novel and useful ideas, to appraise problems and find original solutions. Creativity allows the decision maker to more fully appraise and understand the problem, including seeing problems others can't see.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.7 Describe the three-stage model of creativity.

96) Gene is regarded by his peers as an extremely creative designer of watercraft. He attributes much of his success to his family: he was raised by a traditional boat builder and from a very early age was surrounded by boats and the people who made them. To what element of creativity does Gene attribute his success?

A) Intuitiveness B) External locus of control C) Task motivation D) Expertise E) Creative thinking skills Answer: D Explanation: Expertise is the foundation for all creative work. The potential for creativity is enhanced when individuals have abilities, knowledge, proficiencies, and similar expertise in their field of endeavor.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 6.7 Describe the three-stage model of creativity.

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97) Given a problem, the solution is rarely clear at the outset. We need time to learn more and to process what we have learned. This step in creative behavior is called .

A) problem formulation B) information gathering C) idea generation D) idea evaluation E) selective perception Answer: B Explanation: Information gathering is the stage of creative behavior when knowledge is sought and possible solutions to a problem incubate.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.7 Describe the three-stage model of creativity.

98) Creativity is positively linked to each of these traits except .

A) intelligence B) personality C) risk-taking D) ethics E) expertise Answer: D Explanation: Although creativity is linked to many desirable individual characteristics, it is not correlated with ethicality. People who cheat may actually be more creative than those who behave ethically, according to recent research.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.7 Describe the three-stage model of creativity.

99) Bounded rationality allows the decision maker to appraise and understand problems fully, including seeing problems others cannot see.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Since creativity (and not bounded rationality) is the ability to produce novel and useful ideas, it allows the decision maker to appraise and understand problems fully, including seeing problems others cannot see.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.7 Describe the three-stage model of creativity.

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100) Intelligence is related to creativity.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Research has shown that some degree of intelligence is necessary in order to be creative.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 6.7 Describe the three-stage model of creativity.

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Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 11E (Robbins) Chapter 6 Motivation Concepts 1) is defined as the processes that account for an individual's intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal.

A) Leadership B) Management C) Selective perception D) Emotional labor E) Motivation Answer: E Explanation: Motivation is defined as the processes that account for an individual's intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.1 Describe the three key elements of motivation.

2) Motivation can be defined by three key elements. is one of these three key elements and it is the element most of us focus on when we talk about motivation.

A) Intelligence B) Experience C) Expertise D) Intensity E) Knowledge Answer: D Explanation: Intensity describes how hard a person tries. This is the element most of us focus on when we talk about motivation.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.1 Describe the three key elements of motivation.

3) Motivation has a persistence dimension.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Persistence is one of the dimensions of motivation because motivation is defined as the processes that account for an individual's intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.1 Describe the three key elements of motivation.

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4) How are intensity and persistence related to the concept of motivation?

Answer: Motivation is defined as the processes that account for an individual's intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal.

Intensity describes how hard a person tries. The persistence dimension measures how long a person can maintain effort. In other words, motivated individuals work intensely on an appropriate task, long enough to achieve their goals.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.1 Describe the three key elements of motivation.

5) According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following is at the bottom of the hierarchy?

A) Social B) Safety C) Esteem D) Self-actualization E) Physiological Answer: E Explanation: At the bottom of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is physiological needs—hunger, thirst, shelter, sex, and other bodily needs.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

6) In Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, which of the following needs would self-respect and autonomy fall under?

A) Physiological B) Safety-security C) Social-belongingness D) Esteem E) Self-actualization Answer: D Explanation: According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, internal factors such as self-respect, autonomy, and achievement would fall under one's esteem needs.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

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7) Which of the following needs is at the top of Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

A) Physiological B) Safety-security C) Social-belongingness D) Self-actualization E) Esteem Answer: D Explanation: Self-actualization or the drive to become what we can be is at the very top of Maslow's needs hierarchy.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

8) The question, "What do people want from their jobs" is at the heart of theory.

A) hierarchy of needs B) goal-setting C) self-determination D) cognitive evaluation E) two-factor Answer: E Explanation: Psychologist Frederick Herzberg proposed the two-factor theory–also called motivation-hygiene theory by asking people to describe, in detail, situations in which they felt exceptionally good or bad about their jobs.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

9) In Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, hunger and thirst would fall under needs.

A) safety-security B) social-belongingness C) esteem D) physiological E) self-actualization Answer: D Explanation: Hunger, thirst, shelter, sex, and other bodily needs are physiological needs in Maslow's hierarchy of needs.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

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10) According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, job security and company policies would be examples of factors.

A) esteem B) physiological C) hygiene D) security E) social Answer: C Explanation: In the two-factor theory, job security and company policies would be hygiene factors—factors that, when adequate in a job, placate workers and limit job dissatisfaction.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

11) Which of the following statements is true according to the two-factor theory?

A) The hygiene factors tend to be intrinsic factors.

B) Factors that lead to job satisfaction are extrinsic factors.

C) Adequate hygiene factors ensure that people are not dissatisfied.

D) Recognition is a hygiene factor.

E) Hygiene factors lead to job satisfaction.

Answer: C Explanation: According to Herzberg, the factors that lead to job satisfaction are separate and distinct from those that lead to job dissatisfaction. Intrinsic factors such as advancement, recognition, responsibility, and achievement seem related to job satisfaction. Extrinsic factors are related to job dissatisfaction and these factors are called hygiene factors.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

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12) In a down economy, the only job that Raymond could find was that of a plant supervisor at an auto component manufacturer. The plant is located in an old, run-down building with an antiquated heating system. The work itself is tedious, in that it involves doing repetitious things on an assembly line. The labor-management relationship is poor and the only interaction that appears to happen between shift supervisors and employees is when supervisors reprimand workers for tardiness or sloppy work. Raymond is trying to improve this situation with the help of Herzberg's two-factor theory. He has decided that his first step should be to improve the hygiene factors. Which of the following should Raymond attend to first?

A) The working conditions in the plant B) Forming employee social groups C) An "employee of the month" scheme D) Growth opportunities for employees E) Promotion prospects for employees Answer: A Explanation: Hygiene factors—such as working conditions—cause dissatisfaction when they are not present. Unless Raymond attends to them first, he cannot address the motivation of his employees.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

13) Regardless of the criticisms, Herzberg's two-factor theory has been quite influential and has been used in many studies in countries such as and .

A) Portugal; Spain B) Japan; India C) Germany; France D) Australia; New Zealand E) Chile; Argentina Answer: B Explanation: Herzberg's theory has been used in many studies in Asian countries such as Japan and India.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

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14) A local church is made up of people who are very different in their lifestyles and their stages of life. Mary is a 23-year-old single parent who earns the minimum wage. Jonathan is 60 years old, extremely wealthy, and works because he enjoys it. Jane is a 45-year-old lawyer who earns well and is well-respected in her profession. She is extremely career-oriented and is proud of her achievements. According to Maslow's hierarchy, Mary is likely to focus on satisfying needs.

A) social B) esteem C) physiological D) self-actualization E) growth Answer: C Explanation: Since Mary has a very low income and is a single parent, she is probably trying to satisfy her most basic physiological needs, such as shelter and hunger.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

15) A local church is made up of people who are very different in their lifestyles and their stages of life. Mary is a 23-year-old single parent who earns the minimum wage. Jonathan is 60 years old, extremely wealthy, and works because he enjoys it. Jane is a 45-year-old lawyer who earns well and is well-respected in her profession. She is extremely career-oriented and is proud of her achievements. Jane is likely to focus on which of the following levels of needs?

A) Esteem B) Growth C) Physiological D) Self-actualization E) Safety Answer: A Explanation: Jane is well-respected in her profession. She is extremely career-oriented and is proud of her achievements. This indicates that she is trying to satisfy her esteem needs.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

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16) A local church is made up of people who are very different in their lifestyles and their stages of life. Mary is a 23-year-old single parent who earns the minimum wage. Jonathan is 60 years old, extremely wealthy, and works because he enjoys it. Jane is a 45-year-old lawyer who earns well and is well-respected in her profession. She is extremely career-oriented and is proud of her achievements. Which of the following do you think would motivate Jonathan the most?

A) More vacation time B) More responsibility C) Greater career growth D) More money E) A greater sense of inner peace Answer: E Explanation: Because Jonathan is extremely wealthy and works because he enjoys it, he is more likely to be seeking self-actualization, which includes aspects such as achieving our potential and self-fulfillment.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

17) You manage a department of five employees. You have identified that Joe has high need for achievement, Mary has high need for power, and Tim has high need for affiliation. Sarah scored high on the need for power and low on the need for affiliation. Doug scores low on both need for power and need for affiliation. Which of these five employees is most likely to be suitable for a new assignment that involves a high degree of personal responsibility and feedback?

A) Joe B) Mary C) Tim D) Sarah E) Doug Answer: A Explanation: Joe's need for achievement (nAch) stimulates a drive to excel, to achieve in relation to a set of standards, and to strive to succeed. Joe would enjoy a challenging assignment with a high degree of personal responsibility and feedback.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

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18) You manage a department of five employees. You have identified that Joe has high need for achievement, Mary has high need for power, and Tim has high need for affiliation. Sarah scored high on the need for power and low on the need for affiliation. Doug scores low on both need for power and need for affiliation. Which of these five employees would be best suited as a mentor to new employees with a chance to develop friendships?

A) Joe B) Mary C) Tim D) Sarah E) Doug Answer: C Explanation: Tim's high score in affiliation demonstrates the desire for friendly and close interpersonal relationships. He would be a good relationship builder.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

19) You manage a department of five employees. You have identified that Joe has high need for achievement, Mary has high need for power, and Tim has high need for affiliation. Sarah scored high on the need for power and low on the need for affiliation. Doug scores low on both need for power and need for affiliation. Which of these five employees is most suitable for taking on your responsibilities when you are on a vacation?

A) Joe B) Mary C) Tim D) Sarah E) Doug Answer: D Explanation: The best managers are high in their need for power and low in their need for affiliation. Sarah has high need for power and low need for affiliation.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

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20) According to the two-factor theory, when factors are adequate, people will not be dissatisfied; neither will they be satisfied.

A) esteem B) achievement C) hygiene D) self-actualization E) intrinsic Answer: C Explanation: Factors related to job dissatisfaction are called hygiene factors. Working conditions and quality of supervision are hygiene factors and promotion is a motivation factor.

Hygiene factors placate workers and limit job dissatisfaction when they are adequate.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

21) According to the two-factor theory, which of the following factors is most likely to merely placate workers when adequate?

A) Promotional opportunities B) Responsibility C) Supervision D) Status E) Autonomy Answer: C Explanation: According to the two-factor theory, a hygiene factor such as supervision, when adequate, merely placate workers and limit job dissatisfaction. It would have no effect on motivation.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

22) According to the two-factor theory, is a motivating factor.

A) better company policy B) quality of supervision C) responsibility D) job security E) pay Answer: C Explanation: According to the two-factor theory, conditions such as quality of supervision, pay, company policies, physical working conditions, relationships with others, and job security are motivation hygiene factors. Factors such as promotional opportunities, personal growth opportunities, recognition, responsibility, and achievement are motivating factors.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

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23) According to the two-factor theory proposed by Herzberg, which of the following factors is considered a hygiene factor?

A) Promotional opportunity B) Quality of supervision C) Achievement D) Recognition E) Responsibility Answer: B Explanation: Two-factor theory relates intrinsic factors such as promotional opportunities, personal growth opportunities, recognition, responsibility, and achievement to job satisfaction and associates extrinsic factors with dissatisfaction. Conditions such as quality of supervision, pay, company policies, physical working conditions, relationships with others, and job security are considered hygiene factors or extrinsic factors.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

24) Which theory would be associated with a statement such as ,"Removing dissatisfying characteristics from a job does not necessarily make the job satisfying; managers would be placating, rather than motivating, the employees"?

A) Hierarchy of needs theory B) Self-determination theory C) Two-factor theory D) Cognitive evaluation theory E) Theory of needs Answer: C Explanation: The statement identifies what are called hygiene factors in Frederick Herzberg's two-factor theory. When they are adequate, such factors placate workers in a job and limit job dissatisfaction.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

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25) The two-factor theory proposes that .

A) within every human being, there exists a hierarchy of five needs and as each of these needs becomes substantially satisfied, the next one becomes dominant B) employees inherently dislike work and must therefore be directed or even coerced into performing it C) employees can view work as being as natural as rest or play, and therefore the average person can learn to accept, and even seek, responsibility D) the factors that lead to job satisfaction are separate and distinct from those that lead to job dissatisfaction E) achievement, power, and affiliation are three important needs that help explain motivation Answer: D Explanation: The two-factor theory proposes that the factors that lead to job satisfaction are separate and distinct from those that lead to job dissatisfaction.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

26) McClelland's theory of needs concentrates on which three needs?

A) Achievement, growth, and security B) Achievement, power, and affiliation C) Self-actualization, stability, and affiliation D) Affiliation, control, and security E) Control, status, and affiliation Answer: B Explanation: McClelland's theory of needs states that achievement (need for achievement, nAch), power (need for power, nPow), and affiliation (need for affiliation, nAff) are three important needs that help explain motivation.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

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27) Jasmine wants to become head of her department. Although she will be greatly compensated if she achieves this aim and will gain control over many subordinates, the main reason she is pursuing this position is that she thinks she can do the job better than anyone else and wants people to know this. According to the McClelland's theory of needs, which of the following needs primarily drives Jasmine in this case?

A) The need for stability B) The need for achievement C) The need for growth D) The need for affiliation E) The need for power Answer: B Explanation: Need for achievement (nAch) is the drive to excel, to achieve in relation to a set of standards, to strive to succeed. Jasmine is demonstrating the need to achieve.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

28) Which of the following statements is true according to McClelland's theory of needs?

A) People with a high achievement need prefer doing tasks that involve a very high level of risk.

B) People with a high achievement need prefer jobs that have a low degree of personal responsibility.

C) The best managers tend to have a high need for affiliation.

D) People with a high achievement need tend to be successful managers, especially in large organizations.

E) The best managers tend to have a high need for power.

Answer: E Explanation: According to McClelland's theory of needs when jobs have a high degree of personal responsibility and feedback and intermediate degree of risk, high achievers are strongly motivated. A high need to achieve does not necessarily make someone a good manager, especially in large organizations. The best managers are high in their need for power and low in their need for affiliation.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

29) According to Maslow, there is a hierarchy of five needs humans are motivated to meet.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Maslow's theory of motivation, called the hierarchy of needs, identifies five needs humans are motivated to meet.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

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30) According to Herzberg, advancement, recognition, responsibility, and achievement are hygiene factors.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Per Herzberg, examples of hygiene factors would be job security and physical work conditions, not advancement, recognition, responsibility, and achievement.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

31) Why is Herzberg's two-factor theory criticized?

Answer: While influential, Herzberg's two-factor theory faces a number of shortcomings. First, the theory has not been well supported in research. Criticisms center on Herzberg's original methodology and his assumptions, such as how the participants may be biased in thinking back to times when they felt good or bad about their jobs. Second, if hygiene and motivational factors are equally important to a person, both should be capable of motivating.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

32) How does the question, "What do people want from their jobs?" help us understand the two-factor theory?

Answer: Psychologist Frederick Herzberg tried to understand motivation by wondering what people wanted from their jobs. He asked people to describe, in detail, situations in which they felt exceptionally good or bad about their jobs. What he found was that the responses differed significantly. This led him to formulate his two-factor theory, that essentially says the factors leading to job satisfaction are separate and distinct from those that lead to job dissatisfaction.

Conditions surrounding the job such as quality of supervision, pay, company policies, physical working conditions, relations with others, and job security were characterized by Herzberg as hygiene factors. When they are adequate, people will not be dissatisfied; neither will they be satisfied. If we want to motivate people on their jobs, Herzberg suggested emphasizing factors associated with the work itself or to outcomes directly derived from it, such as promotional opportunities, opportunities for personal growth, recognition, responsibility, and achievement.

These are the characteristics that people find intrinsically rewarding.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

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33) Differentiate motivators from hygiene factors.

Answer: Conditions surrounding the job such as quality of supervision, pay, company policies, physical working conditions, relations with others, and job security were characterized by Herzberg as hygiene factors. When hygiene factors are adequate, people will not be dissatisfied.

Herzberg suggested that factors associated with the work itself or outcomes directly derived from it, such as promotional opportunities, opportunities for personal growth, recognition, responsibility, and achievement are motivators. These are the characteristics that people find intrinsically rewarding. These factors are motivators.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

34) According to McClelland's theory of needs, what type of job is preferred by those employees who have high need for achievement?

Answer: Individuals with a high need to achieve prefer job situations with personal responsibility, feedback, and an intermediate degree of risk. When these characteristics are prevalent, high achievers will be strongly motivated. The evidence consistently demonstrates, for instance, that high achievers are successful in entrepreneurial activities such as running their own businesses and managing a self-contained unit within a large organization. A high need to achieve does not necessarily lead to being a good manager, especially in large organizations.

People with a high achievement need are interested in how well they do personally and not in influencing others to do well.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.2 Compare the early theories of motivation.

35) Which of the following theories is a meta-theory of motivation at work that is concerned with autonomy, intrinsic motivation, extrinsic motivation, and the satisfaction of psychological work needs?

A) Theory of needs B) Motivation-hygiene theory C) Two-factor theory D) Self-determination theory E) Goal setting theory Answer: D Explanation: Self-determination theory is a meta theory (or a collection of related theories behind a common theme) that is concerned with autonomy, intrinsic motivation, extrinsic motivation, and the satisfaction of psychological work needs.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.3 Contrast the elements of self-determination theory and goal-setting theory.

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36) Which of the following theories suggests that extrinsic rewards will reduce intrinsic interest in a task?

A) Two-factory theory B) Cognitive evaluation theory C) Motivation-hygiene theory D) Theory of needs E) Expectancy theory Answer: B Explanation: The cognitive evaluation theory (CET) hypothesizes that extrinsic rewards will reduce intrinsic interest in a task.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.3 Contrast the elements of self-determination theory and goal-setting theory.

37) The concept of self-concordance proposes that .

A) the factors that lead to job satisfaction are separate and distinct from those that lead to job dissatisfaction B) employees inherently dislike work and must therefore be directed or even coerced into performing it C) individuals who pursue goals because of an intrinsic interest are more likely to attain their goals D) people with high achievement need tend to be the best general managers E) extrinsic rewards will reduce intrinsic interest in a task Answer: C Explanation: According to the concept of self-concordance, if individuals pursue goals because of an intrinsic interest, they are more likely to attain their goals and are happy even if they do not.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.3 Contrast the elements of self-determination theory and goal-setting theory.

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38) Intrinsic motivation contributes to the of work; incentives contribute to the of work.

A) quality; quality B) quality; quantity C) quality; outcome D) quantity; quality E) quantity; quantity Answer: B Explanation: Research confirms that intrinsic motivation contributes to the quality of work, while incentives contribute to the quantity of work. Although intrinsic motivation predicts performance whether or not there are incentives, it may therefore be less of a predictor when incentives are tied to performance directly (such as with monetary bonuses) rather than indirectly.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.3 Contrast the elements of self-determination theory and goal-setting theory.

39) What can be an unintended result of goal-setting?

A) Employees might bond together.

B) Employees might become hyper competitive.

C) Employees might act in unethical manners.

D) Employees might improve their performance.

E) All options may be an unintended result of goal setting.

Answer: C Explanation: The time pressures associated with meeting a goal/deadline might cause some employees to act in an unethical manner as to avoid looking bad.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 7.3 Contrast the elements of self-determination theory and goal-setting theory.

40) indicates how strongly people's reasons for pursuing goals are consistent with their interests and core values.

A) Selective perception B) Positivity offset C) Cognitive dissonance D) Emotional contagion E) Self-concordance Answer: E Explanation: Self-concordance indicates how strongly people's reasons for pursuing goals are consistent with their interests and core values. If individuals pursue goals because of an intrinsic interest, they are more likely to attain their goals and are happy even if they do not.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.3 Contrast the elements of self-determination theory and goal-setting theory.

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41) Goals seem to have a more substantial effect on performance when the .

A) goals are generalized (like "Do your best") rather than specific B) tasks are complex rather than simple C) tasks are novel rather than well learned D) goals are easy rather than difficult E) tasks are independent rather than interdependent Answer: E Explanation: Specific goals produce a higher level of output than does the generalized goal of "do your best." Difficult goals, when accepted, result in higher performance than do easy goals.

The evidence suggests goals seem to have a more substantial effect on performance when tasks are simple rather than complex, well learned rather than novel, and independent rather than interdependent.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.3 Contrast the elements of self-determination theory and goal-setting theory.

42) Which of the following is a self-regulation strategy that involves striving for goals through advancement and accomplishment?

A) Locus of control focus B) Actualization focus C) Promotion focus D) Prevention focus E) Efficacy focus Answer: C Explanation: People differ in the way they regulate their thoughts and behaviors during goal pursuit. Those with a promotion focus strive for advancement and accomplishment, and approach conditions that move them closer toward desired goals.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.3 Contrast the elements of self-determination theory and goal-setting theory.

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43) What sort of participatively set goals does Management by Objectives (MBO) emphasize?

A) Tangible, verifiable, and measurable B) Achievable, controllable, and profitable C) Inspirational, verifiable, and creative D) Challenging, rewarding, and measurable E) Profitable, attainable, and verifiable Answer: A Explanation: Management by Objectives (MBO) emphasizes participatively set goals that are tangible, verifiable, and measurable. The organization's overall objectives are translated into specific objectives for each succeeding level in the organization. MBO works from the bottom up as well as from the top down. The result is a hierarchy that links objectives at one level to those at the next.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.3 Contrast the elements of self-determination theory and goal-setting theory.

44) involves translating the organization's overall objectives into specific objectives for each succeeding level in the organization.

A) Strategic planning B) Management by objectives C) Representative participation D) Management buy-out E) Management by exception Answer: B Explanation: Management by objectives involves translating the organization's overall objectives into specific objectives for each succeeding level in the organization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.3 Contrast the elements of self-determination theory and goal-setting theory.

45) Which of the following is not an ingredient common to all MBO programs?

A) An explicit time period B) Participative decision making C) Top down identification of tasks D) Performance feedback E) Specificity of the goal Answer: C Explanation: Four ingredients are common to MBO programs: goal specificity, participation in decision making (including participation in the setting of goals or objectives), an explicit time period, and performance feedback.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.3 Contrast the elements of self-determination theory and goal-setting theory.

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46) Which of the following is a key feature of management by objectives (MBO) programs?

A) Profit-driven framework B) Industry-specific heuristics C) Cascading objectives D) Autocratic goal setting E) Hierarchy of needs approach Answer: C Explanation: In a management by objectives (MBO) program, the organization's overall objectives are translated into specific cascading objectives for each level (divisional, departmental, individual).

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.3 Contrast the elements of self-determination theory and goal-setting theory.

47) Which of the following statements is true regarding a management by objective (MBO) program?

A) Many elements in MBO programs match propositions of cognitive evaluation theory.

B) MBO strongly advocates that the goals should be assigned by the managers without the employees participating in the goal setting process.

C) MBO programs set generalized rather than specific goals.

D) MBO programs involve explicit time periods.

E) MBO programs strongly discourage providing performance feedback because it can have negative effects on employee motivation.

Answer: D Explanation: Many elements in MBO programs match propositions of goal-setting theory. Four ingredients are common to MBO programs: goal specificity, participation in decision making (including participation in the setting of goals or objectives), an explicit time period, and performance feedback.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.3 Contrast the elements of self-determination theory and goal-setting theory.

48) Self-determination theory is an example of a meta-theory.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: A meta-theory is a collection of theories behind a common theme.

Self-determination theory is a meta-theory because it contains several sub-theories, including cognitive evaluation theory and self-concordance theory.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.3 Contrast the elements of self-determination theory and goal-setting theory.

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49) Cognitive evaluation theory suggests that extrinsic rewards will reduce intrinsic interest in a task.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: According to cognitive evaluation theory, when people are paid for work (extrinsic reward), it feels less like something they want to do (intrinsic reward) and more like something they must do.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.3 Contrast the elements of self-determination theory and goal-setting theory.

50) What is self-determination theory?

Answer: Self-determination theory is a meta theory, a collection of related theories behind a common theme, of motivation at work that is concerned with autonomy, intrinsic motivation, extrinsic motivation, and the satisfaction of psychological work needs. It is widely used and contains several sub-theories, including cognitive evaluation theory and self-concordance theory.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.3 Contrast the elements of self-determination theory and goal-setting theory.

51) According to expectancy theory, which of the following terms refers to the relationship between performance and reward?

A) Instrumentality B) Expectancy C) Valence D) Congruence E) Divergence Answer: A Explanation: According to expectancy theory, the performance-reward relationship deals with instrumentality.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

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52) In an automotive service dealership, service technicians' pay depends on whether they work on a customer paid job or on a warranty job. A customer paid job pays more in wages than warranty jobs. In an effort to remedy this imbalance, an automotive dealership decided to offer a monetary bonus to a well-done warranty job. Per expectancy theory, which relationship is the bonus aimed at?

A) Expectancy B) Instrumentality C) Valence D) Behaviorism E) Goal congruence Answer: C Explanation: In expectancy theory, valence refers to the rewards-personal goals relationship.

One way of addressing this relationship is to increase the attractiveness of the potential reward (like a bonus) for the individual.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

53) With reference to the expectancy theory, when pay is based on factors other than performance, such as seniority, the relationship tends to be weak.

A) effort-satisfaction B) performance-reward C) effort-performance D) personal goal-self actualization E) performance-achievement Answer: B Explanation: According to expectancy theory, the performance-reward relationship indicates the degree to which the individual believes performing at a particular level will lead to the attainment of a desired outcome. When pay is based on factors such as having seniority or being cooperative, employees are likely to see the performance-reward relationship as weak and demotivating.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

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54) With reference to the expectancy theory, which of the following examples indicates a weak rewards-personal goals relationship?

A) The employee lacks the skill required for the desired performance level.

B) The organization's appraisal system assesses nonperformance factors such as creativity and initiative.

C) The organizational rewards are based on seniority.

D) The employee expects a poor appraisal as he believes that his manager does not like him.

E) The employee wants to be relocated to the Paris office but instead is transferred to Singapore.

Answer: E Explanation: According to expectancy theory, the rewards-personal goals relationship indicates the degree to which organizational rewards satisfy an individual's personal goals or needs and the attractiveness of those potential rewards for the individual. If the employee puts in extra effort to be relocated to the Paris office but instead is transferred to Singapore, then it indicates weak rewards-personal goals relationship.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

55) If a manager incorrectly assumes that all employees want the same thing, then according to the expectancy theory, it is most likely to result in a weak relationship.

A) performance-achievement B) effort-performance C) performance-reward D) rewards-personal goals E) effort-satisfaction Answer: D Explanation: According to the expectancy theory, the rewards-personal goals theory indicates the degree to which organizational rewards satisfy an individual's personal goals or needs and the attractiveness of those potential rewards for the individual. So, if a manager incorrectly assumes that all employees want the same thing, then according to the expectancy theory, it is most likely to result in a weak rewards-personal goals relationship.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

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56) Which of the following is not a way to increase self-efficacy?

A) Enactive mastery B) Espousal C) Vicarious modeling D) Verbal persuasion E) Arousal Answer: B Explanation: While enactive mastery, vicarious modeling, verbal persuasion, and arousal are ways to increase self-efficacy, espousal is not.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

57) When you give employees relevant experiences with the task, you are increasing self-efficacy via .

A) vicarious modeling B) verbal persuasion C) enactive mastery D) arousal E) espousal Answer: C Explanation: One of the four ways to increase self-efficacy is via enactive mastery, by giving employees relevant experiences with the task.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

58) theory is a component of social cognitive theory or social learning theory.

A) Two-factor B) Self-determination C) Goal-setting D) Self-efficacy E) Hierarchy of needs Answer: D Explanation: Self-efficacy theory is a component of social cognitive theory or social learning theory.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

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59) refers to an individual's belief that he or she is capable of performing a task.

A) Emotional contagion B) Affect intensity C) Self-efficacy D) Cognitive dissonance E) Need for power Answer: C Explanation: Self-efficacy is an individual's belief that he or she is capable of performing a task. The higher your self-efficacy, the more confidence you have in your ability to succeed.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

60) The effect is a form of self-fulfilling prophecy.

A) self-efficacy B) self-concordance C) Pygmalion D) self-determination E) pseudocertainty Answer: C Explanation: The Pygmalion effect is a form of self-fulfilling prophecy in which believing something can make it true.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

61) Self-efficacy theory proposes four ways self-efficacy can be increased. Which of the following refers to increasing self-efficacy by enabling employees to watch someone else do the task?

A) Arousal B) Enactive mastery C) Focused training D) Vicarious modeling E) Verbal persuasion Answer: D Explanation: Vicarious modeling refers to seeing someone else do the task.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

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62) Which of the following is one of the four ways of increasing self-efficacy that involves gaining relevant experience with the task or job?

A) Verbal persuasion B) Enactive mastery C) Vicarious modeling D) Arousal E) Focused training Answer: B Explanation: Enactive mastery involves gaining relevant experience with the task or job.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

63) Which of the following ways of increasing self-efficacy is generally used by motivational speakers?

A) Espousal B) Enactive mastery C) Focused training D) Vicarious modeling E) Verbal persuasion Answer: E Explanation: Verbal persuasion involves becoming more confident because someone convinces you that you have the skills necessary to be successful. Motivational speakers use this tactic a lot.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

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64) Jim and Pam are two salespeople at The Magna Corporation. Pam is a great salesperson who always overshoots her targets, while Jim is a perennial underachiever when it comes to achieving targets. In an effort to improve his prospects, Jim shadows Pam during her sales calls. This increases his confidence that he can close more sales too. Which of the following ways of increasing self-efficacy is represented by this example?

A) Enactive mastery B) Vicarious modeling C) Arousal D) Verbal persuasion E) Focused training Answer: B Explanation: Vicarious modeling involves becoming more confident because you see someone else doing the task, like Jim does in shadowing Pam. Vicarious modeling is most effective when you see yourself as similar to the person you are observing.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

65) Which of the following theories see behavior as environmentally caused?

A) Expectancy B) Equity C) Two-factor D) Reinforcement E) Pygmalion Answer: D Explanation: Reinforcement theorists see behavior as environmentally caused.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

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66) Self-efficacy has been found to be associated with a higher level of focused attention, which led to .

A) increased counterproductive work behaviors B) increased task performance C) increased citizenship behaviors D) decreased task performance E) decreased counterproductive work behaviors Answer: B Explanation: Self-efficacy can create a positive spiral in which those with high efficacy become more engaged in their tasks and then, in turn, increase performance, which increases efficacy further. One recent study introduced a further explanation, in that self-efficacy was associated with a higher level of focused attention, which led to increased task performance.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

67) suggests that people learn to behave a certain way to either get something they want or to avoid something they do not want.

A) Cognitive dissonance B) The Pygmalion effect C) Self-fulfilling prophecy D) Operant conditioning E) Enactive mastery Answer: D Explanation: Operant conditioning (part of the broader concept of behaviorism) suggests that people learn to behave a certain way to either get something they want or to avoid something they do not want.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

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68) Christine has recently hired Wanda, Ming, and Jasmine for a consulting position in her firm.

Not only did Jasmine attend the same college but they were also in the same sorority, but several years apart. Christine is very excited about Jasmine joining the team and has told her that she knows someone with her background will move up the ladder quickly. According to the Pygmalion effect theory, which is the most likely outcome in this situation?

A) Wanda and Ming will quit because Christine does not care about them.

B) Christine will be disappointed in Jasmine because no one can live up to these expectations.

C) Jasmine will quit because of the pressure of living up to Christine's expectations.

D) Jasmine will succeed because Christine's expectations can form self-fulfilling prophecy.

E) Jasmine, Wanda, and Ming will band together more closely because of Christine's faith in Jasmine.

Answer: D Explanation: The Pygmalion effect is a form of self-fulfilling prophecy in which believing something can make it true. Here, it is often used to describe "that what one person expects of another can come to serve a self-fulfilling prophecy."

Diff: 3 AACSB: Interpersonal Relations and Teamwork Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

69) argues that behavior follows stimuli in a relatively unthinking manner.

A) Behaviorism B) The Pygmalion effect C) Self-fulfilling prophecy D) Cognitive dissonance E) Social-learning theory Answer: A Explanation: B.F. Skinner's concept of behaviorism argues that behavior follows stimuli in a relatively unthinking manner.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

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70) After receiving a new position, you are told that you will spend the first three days in training. While you expected to be sitting in the conference room being told what to do, you arrive your first day to find you will be following Puja around and watching her do the job you will be expected to do. On which theory is this type of training based?

A) Pygmalion Effect B) Reinforcement Theory C) Operant Conditioning D) Social-Learning Theory E) Equity Theory Answer: D Explanation: Individuals can learn by being told or by observing what happens to other people, as well as through direct experience.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

71) Which of the following theories discusses three relationships: effort-performance relationship, performance-reward relationship, and rewards-personal goals relationship?

A) Goal-setting theory B) Self-efficacy theory C) Equity theory D) Expectancy theory E) Self-determination theory Answer: D Explanation: The expectancy theory discusses three relationships: effort-performance relationship, performance-reward relationship, and rewards-personal goals relationship.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

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72) Which of the following theories proposes that the strength of a tendency to act in a certain way depends on the strength of our expectation of a given outcome and its attractiveness?

A) Equity B) Reinforcement C) Expectancy D) Social learning E) Operant conditioning Answer: C Explanation: The expectancy theory proposes that the strength of a tendency to act in a certain way depends on the strength of our expectation of a given outcome and its attractiveness.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

73) Among students at Northern University, the perception of Professor Matthews's tests is that they are extremely hard because the questions are trickily worded and usually about material not explicitly covered in class. The conclusion is that no matter how hard they prepare for Professor Matthews' tests, they are likely to get a poor score. Professor Matthews' students are most likely to perceive that there is a problem in the relationship.

A) rewards-personal goals B) performance-awareness C) effort-performance D) personal goal-self actualization E) performance-achievement Answer: C Explanation: The effort-performance relationship is the probability perceived by the individual that exerting a given amount of effort will lead to performance. This part is missing for Professor Matthews's students who do not see their increased efforts leading to higher test grades.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

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74) An employee, rightly or wrongly, perceives the boss doesn't like him. As a result, he expects to get a poor appraisal, regardless of the level of effort he puts in. Under such circumstances, according to the expectancy theory, the employee is likely to see the relationship as weak and demotivating.

A) rewards-personal goals B) effort-performance C) performance-reward D) personal goal-self actualization E) performance-achievement Answer: B Explanation: The effort-performance relationship is the probability perceived by the individual that exerting a given amount of effort will lead to performance. The employee expects to get a poor appraisal, regardless of the level of effort he puts in. His new source of low motivation is the belief that, no matter how hard he works, the likelihood of getting a good performance appraisal is low.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

75) According to expectancy theory, the degree to which an individual believes that performing at a particular level will generate a desired outcome is indicated by the relationship.

A) instrumentality B) expectancy C) valence D) convergence E) divergence Answer: A Explanation: Performance-reward relationship explains the degree to which the individual believes performing at a particular level will lead to the attainment of a desired outcome. This is referred to as instrumentality in expectancy theory.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

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76) Jamie is looking for a new job. She used to be the top sales representative for the region and was expecting to be promoted. However, one of the regional manager's golfing buddies was promoted to district manager instead. Jamie's dissatisfaction with her current job stems from a breakdown in the relationship.

A) performance-reward B) effort-performance C) rewards-personal goals D) effort-satisfaction E) personal goal-self actualization Answer: A Explanation: Performance-reward relationship explains the degree to which the individual believes performing at a particular level will lead to the attainment of a desired outcome. Many organizations reward a lot of things besides performance. When pay is based on factors such as having seniority, employees are likely to see the performance-reward relationship as weak and demotivating.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

77) Reinforcement theorists see behavior as internally caused.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Reinforcement theorists see behavior as environmentally caused.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

78) What are the key relationships that underpin expectancy theory?

Answer: Expectancy theory focuses on three relationships: the effort-performance relationship (called expectancy), the performance-reward relationship (called instrumentality), and the rewards-personal goals relationship (called valence). Motivation per this theory is explained by the presence or absence of a direct link between effort, performance, and rewards.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 7.4 Demonstrate the differences among self-efficacy theory, reinforcement theory, and expectancy theory.

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79) In equity theory, individuals assess the .

A) cost-benefit ratio B) efficiency-effectiveness trade-off C) quantity-quality trade-off D) outcome-input ratio E) quality of outcome Answer: D Explanation: Equity theory is a theory that says that individuals compare their job inputs and outcomes with those of others and then respond to eliminate any inequities. Employees perceive what they get from a job situation (salary levels, raises, recognition) in relationship to what they put into it (effort, experience, education, competence) and then compare their outcome-input ratio with that of relevant others.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.5 Describe the forms of organizational justice, including distributive justice, procedural justice, informational justice, and interactional justice.

80) Gloria thinks that she is paid less than other workers in her division and feels extremely resentful. She starts taking long breaks and generally wasting time. Her actions result due to a perceived injustice.

A) interactive B) interpersonal C) procedural D) distributive E) associative Answer: D Explanation: Gloria is focusing on and reacting to a perceived inequity of her income. Equity theory focuses on distributive justice, the employee's perceived fairness of the amount and allocation of rewards among individuals.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 7.5 Describe the forms of organizational justice, including distributive justice, procedural justice, informational justice, and interactional justice.

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81) Jessica does not believe that the methods and processes for determining salary increases in her company are fair. As per this example, Jessica believes that there is a problem with the firm's justice.

A) interpersonal B) distributive C) associative D) procedural E) outcome Answer: D Explanation: Procedural justice refers to the perceived fairness of the process used to determine the distribution of rewards. Jessica believes that the process used for determining salary increases is unfair.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 7.5 Describe the forms of organizational justice, including distributive justice, procedural justice, informational justice, and interactional justice.

82) Which of the following types of justice is concerned with the fairness of outcomes, such as pay and recognition that employees receive?

A) Associative justice B) Interactional justice C) Distributive justice D) Procedural justice E) Integrative justice Answer: C Explanation: Distributive justice refers to the perceived fairness of the amount and allocation of rewards among individuals.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.5 Describe the forms of organizational justice, including distributive justice, procedural justice, informational justice, and interactional justice.

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83) A recent large-scale study suggested that justice perceptions are more important to all of the following values except .

A) individualism B) feminine C) uncertainty-avoidance D) low power-distance E) collectivism Answer: E Explanation: One large-scale study of 190,000 employees in thirty-two countries and regions suggested that justice perceptions are more important to people in countries with individualistic, feminine, uncertainty-avoidance, and low power-distance values.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.5 Describe the forms of organizational justice, including distributive justice, procedural justice, informational justice, and interactional justice.

84) The policy of Sam's calculus instructor is that when he decides to give one student the chance for extra credit work, he opens up the same opportunity to all his students. Sam's instructor's behavior is an attempt at .

A) procedural justice B) distributive justice C) punitive justice D) interpersonal justice E) intrinsic justice Answer: A Explanation: Procedural justice looked at the perceived fairness of the process used to determine the distribution of rewards. Here the process used to determine grades for the course is based upon giving extra credit opportunity to all students.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 7.5 Describe the forms of organizational justice, including distributive justice, procedural justice, informational justice, and interactional justice.

85) According to equity theory, individuals compare their job inputs and outcomes with those of others and then respond to eliminate any inequities.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: According to equity theory, employees compare what they get from their jobs (outcomes) to what they put in (inputs), and this equation determines what they do to set things right.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.5 Describe the forms of organizational justice, including distributive justice, procedural justice, informational justice, and interactional justice.

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86) Distributive justice refers to fairness in the workplace.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Organizational justice refers to fairness in the workplace. Distributive and procedural justice are subsets of organizational justice.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.5 Describe the forms of organizational justice, including distributive justice, procedural justice, informational justice, and interactional justice.

87) While procedural justice looks at what outcomes are allocated, distributive justice examines how.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Distributive justice looks at what outcomes are allocated. On the other hand, procedural justice examines how the outcomes are allocated.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.5 Describe the forms of organizational justice, including distributive justice, procedural justice, informational justice, and interactional justice.

88) Sensitivity to the quality of interpersonal treatment is called collaborative justice.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Employees care about the way they are treated during interactions with others.

This is referred to as interactional justice.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.5 Describe the forms of organizational justice, including distributive justice, procedural justice, informational justice, and interactional justice.

89) The statement, "I got the pay I deserved" refers to distributive justice.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Distributive justice deals with the perceived fairness of the outcome. This is what the statement refers to.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.5 Describe the forms of organizational justice, including distributive justice, procedural justice, informational justice, and interactional justice.

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90) The statement, "When telling me about my raise, my supervisor was very nice and complimentary" refers to procedural justice.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: The statement reflects sensitivity to the quality of interpersonal treatment and so refers to interactional justice.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.5 Describe the forms of organizational justice, including distributive justice, procedural justice, informational justice, and interactional justice.

91) Inputs and outcomes are valued the same in all cultures.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: While across nations the same principles of procedural justice are respected, inputs and outcomes, however, are valued differently in various cultures.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.5 Describe the forms of organizational justice, including distributive justice, procedural justice, informational justice, and interactional justice.

92) What is equity theory?

Answer: Equity theory falls under the broad category of organizational justice. Equity theory states individuals compare their job inputs and outcomes with those of others and then respond to eliminate any inequities. According to this, employees compare what they get from their jobs (their outcomes such as pay, promotions, recognition, or a bigger office) to what they put into it (their inputs such as effort, experience, and education). They take the ratio of their outcomes to their inputs and compare it to the ratio of others, usually someone similar such as a coworker.

Based on this ratio of outcomes to inputs, employees take action to eliminate any inequities.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.5 Describe the forms of organizational justice, including distributive justice, procedural justice, informational justice, and interactional justice.

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93) What choices do employees have when they perceive inequity with respect to the ratio of their outcomes to inputs?

Answer: Outcome-input comparison is at the heart of equity theory. Based on equity theory, employees who perceive inequity will make one of six choices: a) change inputs b) change outcomes c) distort perceptions of self d) distort perceptions of others e) choose a different referent (i.e., compare with someone else) f) leave the field.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.5 Describe the forms of organizational justice, including distributive justice, procedural justice, informational justice, and interactional justice.

94) How do critics react to equity theory?

Answer: While equity theory has support from some researchers, it does face criticism. As some examples demonstrate, it appears that some employees are more sensitive to equity than others. In other words, some feel more entitled with respect to equity while others feel more benevolent. Also, it is unlikely to expect someone who is overpaid in a job to give back part of their salary.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.5 Describe the forms of organizational justice, including distributive justice, procedural justice, informational justice, and interactional justice.

95) Discuss distributive justice, procedural justice, and interactional justice.

Answer: Distributive justice indicates the employee's perceived fairness of the amount and allocation of rewards among individuals.

Procedural justice indicates the perceived fairness of the process used to determine the distribution of rewards. Interactional justice indicates an individual's perception of the degree to which she is treated with dignity, concern, and respect.

People base distributive judgments on a feeling or an emotional reaction to the way they think they are being treated relative to others. Procedural justice relates most strongly to job satisfaction, employee trust, withdrawal from the organization, job performance, and citizenship behaviors. There is less evidence about interactional justice.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.5 Describe the forms of organizational justice, including distributive justice, procedural justice, informational justice, and interactional justice.

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96) What do we know about culture and justice?

Answer: Across nations, the same principles of procedural justice are respected. In other words, workers around the world prefer rewards based on performance and skills over rewards based on seniority. However, culture plays a part in how one values inputs and outcomes. A study pointed out that justice perceptions are most important to people in countries with individualistic, feminine, uncertainty-avoidance, and low power-distance (all Hofstede's dimensions) values.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.5 Describe the forms of organizational justice, including distributive justice, procedural justice, informational justice, and interactional justice.

97) Job refers to the investment of an employee's physical, cognitive, and emotional energies into job performance.

A) description B) posting C) engagement D) enhancement E) enrichment Answer: C Explanation: Job engagement refers to the investment of an employee's physical, cognitive, and emotional energies into job performance.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.6 Identify the implications of employee job engagement for managers.

98) What is job engagement and why is it important?

Answer: Job engagement refers to the investment of an employee's physical, cognitive, and emotional energies into job performance. Practicing managers and scholars have been interested in facilitating job engagement, given that disengaged employees cost U.S. businesses up to $550 billion annually in lost productivity. Job engagement appears to matter for organizations and has been found to predict higher levels of task performance and citizenship behaviors.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 7.6 Identify the implications of employee job engagement for managers.

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99) When thinking about the progression of individual effort leading into individual performance, we see that an objective performance evaluation system plays a large role. Which individual element also plays an important role?

A) Personality B) Ethics C) Ability D) Needs E) Opportunity Answer: C Explanation: Regardless of what circumstances are in place, the opportunity for one to have goal achievement rests heavily on their actual abilities and thus potential to complete the tasks necessary for goal achievement.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Synthesis LO: 7.7 Describe how the contemporary theories of motivation complement one another.

100) Given that individuals tend to judge the favorability of their outcomes relative to what others receive, what can be the result of someone getting rewarded for their performance but yet being disappointed in the reward that they receive?

Answer: When someone is disappointed by the reward they receive; they will tend to focus on the fairness of the reward. This is not to say they will find fault in and/or reject the reward itself but rather will focus on the fairness of the procedures used to determine the reward and the consideration given to them as an individual by their supervisor.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 7.7 Describe how the contemporary theories of motivation complement one another.

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Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 11E (Robbins) Chapter 7 Motivation: From Concepts to Applications 1) With reference to the job characteristics model, which of the following defines skill variety?

A) The degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work B) The degree to which work activities generates direct and clear information about performance C) The degree to which a job provides the worker freedom in scheduling and procedure D) The degree to which a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people E) The degree to which a job requires a range of different activities Answer: E Explanation: The job characteristics model (JCM) describes jobs in terms of five core job dimensions: skill variety, the degree to which a job requires a variety of different activities; task identity, the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work; task significance, the degree to which a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people; autonomy, the degree to which a job provides the worker freedom in scheduling; and feedback, the degree to which carrying out work activities generates direct and clear information about performance.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

2) With reference to the job characteristics model, which of the following defines task identity?

A) The degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work B) The degree to which work activities generate direct and clear information about performance C) The degree to which a job provides the worker freedom in scheduling and procedure D) The degree to which a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people E) The degree to which a job requires a variety of different activities Answer: A Explanation: The job characteristics model (JCM) describes jobs in terms of five core job dimensions: skill variety, the degree to which a job requires a variety of different activities; task identity, the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work; task significance, the degree to which a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people; autonomy, the degree to which a job provides the worker freedom in scheduling; and feedback, the degree to which carrying out work activities generates direct and clear information about performance.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

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3) suggests that the way elements in a job are organized can influence employee effort.

A) Organizational design B) Workflow C) Job enrichment D) Job design E) Job enlargement Answer: D Explanation: Job design refers to the way the elements in a job are organized. Job design influences employee effort.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

4) Ned is particularly adept at designing and creating new fashions. In which of the following would Ned have the highest level of skill variety?

A) Doing alterations at the dry cleaners B) Creating custom bridal gowns in a bridal store C) Creating custom gowns and suits for a pageant D) Working as a private tailor for a local real estate agent E) Working as a stylist for a local celebrity Answer: C Explanation: While all positions would allow some skill variety, creating gowns and suits for a pageant would allow Ned the opportunity to use the widest range of skills and talents.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

5) Ned is particularly adept at designing and creating new fashions. In which of the following would Ned have the highest level of task identity?

A) Doing alterations at the dry cleaners B) Creating custom bridal gowns in a bridal store C) Creating custom gowns and suits for a pageant D) Working as a private tailor for a local real estate agent E) Working as a stylist for a local celebrity Answer: D Explanation: By working with one specific person, Ned cannot only create custom suits, but he can also create the whole, identifiable look for the agent.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

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6) Ned is particularly adept at designing and creating new fashions. In which of the following would Ned have the highest level of autonomy?

A) Working as a freelance tailor B) Creating custom bridal gowns in a bridal store C) Creating custom gowns and suits for a pageant D) Working as a private tailor for a local real estate agent E) Working as a stylist for a local celebrity Answer: A Explanation: As a freelance tailor, Ned would have more autonomy than in working for someone else.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

7) How many core job dimensions are there in the job characteristics model (JCM)?

A) 5 B) 4 C) 3 D) 6 E) 2 Answer: A Explanation: The job characteristics model (JCM) describes jobs in terms of five core job dimensions: skill variety, the degree to which a job requires a variety of different activities; task identity, the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work; task significance, the degree to which a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people; autonomy, the degree to which a job provides the worker freedom in scheduling; and feedback, the degree to which carrying out work activities generates direct and clear information about performance.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

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8) John is a design manager for a production company. He independently assigns teams, chooses projects, researches trends, and is able to work from home two to three days a week. He provides a status report to the design director once a month. Based on this description and as per the job characteristics model, it's safe to say that John's job is high in .

A) task identity B) feedback C) autonomy D) task significance E) skill variety Answer: C Explanation: Autonomy is the degree to which a job provides the worker freedom, independence, and discretion in scheduling the work and determining the procedures in carrying it out. John has freedom and control over his job procedures and assignments and although John's job has many job characteristics, the description provided best describes autonomy.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

9) Samantha is an emergency medical technician. Yesterday, due to an emergency, she was called to a house where a man suffered a heart attack. She was able to resuscitate the man, and while her colleagues were transporting him to the ambulance, she spent 10 minutes calming the 12-year-old daughter, who was home alone with the father at that time. Based on this description, it's safe to say that Samantha's job is high in .

A) task identity B) feedback C) reward D) task significance E) skill variety Answer: D Explanation: Although Samantha's job has many job characteristics, the description provided best describes her sense of task significance. Task significance refers to the degree to which a job has an impact on the lives of other people.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

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10) Atul works on an assembly line that produces iPads. His job involves installing a specific part to the iPad all through his eight-hour shift. Per the job characteristics model (JCM), the characteristic that is most lacking in Atul's job is .

A) feedback B) causality C) ambiguity D) resonance E) convergence Answer: A Explanation: The five dimensions of the JCM are skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, and feedback. Atul's iPad assembly line job lacks feedback because he does not test and inspect either his work or the work of others.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

11) According to the job characteristics model, indicates the degree to which carrying out work activities generates direct and clear information about your own performance.

A) task significance B) autonomy C) feedback D) task identity E) skill variety Answer: C Explanation: According to the job characteristics model, feedback indicates the degree to which carrying out work activities generates direct and clear information about your own performance.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

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12) Anya is a graphic designer in a firm specializing in making logos for their clients. Last week, she got client specifications on how to make a new logo. She was able to create a prototype and with an initial review by her immediate supervisor, she made changes until the client was satisfied with her final product. Based on this description, it's safe to say that Anya's job is high in and .

A) task significance; feedback B) autonomy; skill variety C) feedback; skill variety D) task identity; feedback E) skill variety; autonomy Answer: D Explanation: According to the job characteristics model, task identity is the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work. Feedback indicates the degree to which carrying out work activities generates direct and clear information about your own performance.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

13) The core dimensions of the job characteristics model (JCM) are combined into a single predictive index called the .

A) motivating potential score (MPS) B) organizational motivation score (OMS) C) job motivation score (JMS) D) potential aggregate score (PAS) E) cognitive ability score (CAS) Answer: A Explanation: The motivating potential score (MPS) is a predictive index obtained by combining the core dimensions of the JCM. Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

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14) In thinking about the motivating potential score (MPS), if jobs score high on motivating potential, the model predicts that motivation, performance, and satisfaction will improve, while and will be reduced.

A) counterproductive work behaviors; gossip B) gossip; recidivism C) recidivism; absence D) absence; turnover E) turnover; counterproductive work behaviors Answer: D Explanation: When jobs have high levels of motivation, employees are less likely to experience the withdrawal behaviors of absences and turnover.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

15) The Kingstown plant of a major auto manufacturer makes a popular model of sports utility vehicles (SUVs) using an assembly line. Since the workers' tasks involve working eight-hour shifts doing a single task (such as installing the front passenger door), the plant supervisor came up with the idea of prominently displaying a fully assembled SUV at the end of each assembly line. Which job characteristics model (JCM) dimension did the plant supervisor address with this move?

A) Skill variety B) Job enrichment C) Task significance D) Task identity E) Feedback Answer: D Explanation: Task identity is the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work. By showing the employees what a finished SUV would look like, employees know how their contribution (like fitting a door) helps the end product.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

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16) In the job characteristics model (JCM), skill variety refers to the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: In the JCM, task identity is the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work. Skill variety, on the other hand, is the degree to which a job requires a variety of activities using different skills or talents.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

17) In the job characteristics model (JCM), task significance is one of the five core dimensions of a job.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Task significance is one of the five core dimensions of a job in the job characteristics model. The others are skill variety, task identity, autonomy, and feedback.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

18) Per the job characteristics model (JCM), a cabinetmaker who designs furniture, selects the wood, builds the objects, and finishes them has a job that scores high on task significance.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Task significance is the degree to which a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people. Task identity is the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work. What the cabinetmaker's job has is task identity.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

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19) The job characteristics model describes any job in terms of five core job dimensions.

Autonomy is one of these five dimensions and it is the degree to which a job provides the worker freedom, independence, and discretion in scheduling work and determining the procedures for carrying it out.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Autonomy is the degree to which a job provides the worker freedom, independence, and discretion in scheduling work and determining the procedures for carrying it out.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

20) The job of a body shop worker who sprays paint eight hours a day scores low on the task significance dimension.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: The job of a body shop worker who sprays paint eight hours a day scores low on the skill variety dimension.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

21) Andrew is a software tester. He runs through the same types of programs day after day looking for bugs and reporting them. He is taking night classes on programming. Often, he knows the best solution to many of the bugs, but he is still learning to code. Describe two job characteristics that Andrew is striving to improve and explain two ways that Andrew's manager can redesign his current job to help him reach his goals.

Answer: Andrew is striving to have greater task identity, which is the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work. He would like to not only look for the programming bugs but be able to fix them. He is also looking for skill variety, or the degree to which a job requires a variety of different activities so the worker can use a number of different skills and talent. It is clear that he is bored with only the testing aspect of his job.

Andrew's boss needs to redesign his job to include aspects of job enrichment, which refers to the vertical expansion of jobs. Job enrichment increases the degree to which the worker controls the planning, execution, and evaluation of his or her work. One way to enrich Andrew's job would be to put him in contact with his internal clients, the programmers. They could establish a set of bug recommendations that Andrew could fix, where he could begin to learn the types of code required. His boss should also open the feedback channels so that the programmers can tell Andrew when he is making proper adjustments and using his new skills adequately.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Synthesis LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

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22) What do we know about the efficacy of the job characteristics model (JCM)?

Answer: Much evidence supports the relationship between the presence of the job characteristics per the JCM and higher job satisfaction and organizational commitment through increased motivation. Also, although employees have noticed that jobs are becoming more autonomous, interdependent, and require more skills than before, the relationship with job satisfaction has not changed since the 1970s, suggesting that employees still value enriched work. In general, research supports the JCM, although some personality and context differences exist.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Synthesis LO: 8.1 Describe how the job characteristics model (JCM) motivates by changing the work environment.

23) Which of the following statements is true regarding job rotation?

A) It decreases the flexibility with which an organization can adapt to a change.

B) It decreases employee motivation.

C) It decreases productivity.

D) It decreases supervisory workload.

E) It decreases the flexibility in scheduling work.

Answer: C Explanation: Job rotation increases the flexibility with which an organization can adapt to a change. It reduces boredom and increases motivation. Productivity tends to reduce when a worker moves into a new position and supervisory workload tends to increase because supervisors may have to spend more time answering questions and monitoring the work of recently rotated employees.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.2 Compare the main ways jobs can be redesigned.

24) The periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level is called job .

A) enlargement B) expansion C) rotation D) sharing E) enrichment Answer: C Explanation: The periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level is called job rotation.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.2 Compare the main ways jobs can be redesigned.

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25) What is another term for job rotation?

A) Work enrichment B) Job sharing C) Work enlargement D) Job enhancement E) Cross-training Answer: E Explanation: Job rotation, or the periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level, is also called cross-training.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.2 Compare the main ways jobs can be redesigned.

26) Shawna works as a sales agent at a local big box electronics retailer in the camera department. Though she has been successful in her position, she has grown a bit tired and is suffering from over-routinization. Which of the following would be the best opportunity for job rotation for Shawna?

A) Moving to sales in the computer department B) Moving to customer service C) Moving to human resources D) Moving to assistant manager E) Moving to a new store Answer: A Explanation: In job rotation, people stay at the organizational level with similar skills sets.

Moving to computers would allow Shawna to continue using her skills, just in a different setting.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 8.2 Compare the main ways jobs can be redesigned.

27) Managers at Precision Technologies, a custom-machine shop in Indiana, train workers on all the company's equipment so they can move around as needed in response to incoming orders.

Based on this information, which of the following methods is most likely being used by Precision Technologies?

A) Job rotation B) Job enlargement C) Job enrichment D) Job sharing E) Flextime Answer: A Explanation: This is an example of job rotation, or the periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 8.2 Compare the main ways jobs can be redesigned.

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28) What is the main drawback of job rotation?

A) It eliminates management involvement.

B) It increases training costs.

C) It has no effect on productivity.

D) It impacts sales.

E) It decreases supervisor workload.

Answer: B Explanation: One of the major drawbacks of job rotation is that training costs increase. This is because each rotation necessitates a round of training.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.2 Compare the main ways jobs can be redesigned.

29) You notice that members of the janitorial staff are low skilled and are suffering from over-routinization of their work. They are most likely to be motivated by .

A) employee stock options B) skill-based pay plans C) job rotation D) merit-based pay plans E) gainsharing Answer: C Explanation: If employees suffer from over-routinization of their work, one alternative is job rotation, or the periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 8.2 Compare the main ways jobs can be redesigned.

30) Which of the following is true about job enrichment?

A) It adds high-level responsibilities to the job.

B) It increases the number of tasks to be performed.

C) It increases the horizontal integration of tasks.

D) It includes evaluation of superiors.

E) It excludes feedback that a worker receives from his or her supervisor and peers.

Answer: A Explanation: In job enrichment, high-level responsibilities are added to the job to increase a sense of purpose, direction, meaning, and intrinsic motivation.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.2 Compare the main ways jobs can be redesigned.

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31) Job adds another layer of responsibility and meaning.

A) sharing B) enrichment C) centralization D) enlargement E) rotation Answer: B Explanation: Job enrichment adds another layer of responsibility and meaning to increase a sense of purpose, direction, meaning, and intrinsic motivation.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.2 Compare the main ways jobs can be redesigned.

32) The job characteristics model describes five dimensions of a job. A job can be enriched by modifying one or more of these five dimensions. Which of the following methods of job enrichment involves modifying task identity and task significance dimensions of a job?

A) Combining tasks B) Forming natural work units C) Establishing client relationships D) Expanding jobs vertically E) Opening feedback channels Answer: B Explanation: Forming natural work units makes an employee's tasks an identifiable and meaningful whole. Thus, it involves modifying task identity and task significance dimensions of a job.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.2 Compare the main ways jobs can be redesigned.

33) The evidence on job enrichment shows it .

A) reduces absenteeism B) increases supervisory workload C) reduces satisfaction D) increases turnover cost E) reduces employee motivation Answer: A Explanation: The evidence on job enrichment shows it reduces absenteeism and turnover costs and increases satisfaction.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.2 Compare the main ways jobs can be redesigned.

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34) Singapore Airlines is rated one of the best airlines in the world and often requires ticket agents to serve as baggage handlers. What is the logic behind this action?

A) Ticket agents often have attitude problems and need to be "punished."

B) Ticket agents often have stressful jobs and need a break.

C) Ticket agents often deal with luggage and so cross-training makes them more efficient.

D) Baggage handlers in Singapore often go on strike and replacements are needed.

E) There is no logical reason for this action.

Answer: C Explanation: Job rotation and cross training allows for more job flexibility as well as a better understanding of the overall operations of the organization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.2 Compare the main ways jobs can be redesigned.

35) Job rotation typically increases productivity.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Moving a worker into a new position (i.e., job rotation) reduces overall productivity for that role.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 8.2 Compare the main ways jobs can be redesigned.

36) The periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level is called job enrichment.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Job rotation (not enrichment) is the periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.2 Compare the main ways jobs can be redesigned.

37) Job rotation tends to decrease productivity and increase training costs.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Job rotation tends to decrease productivity and increase training costs because each rotation necessitates a round of training.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.2 Compare the main ways jobs can be redesigned.

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38) Enriching a job is the same as enlarging it.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Job enrichment expands jobs by increasing the degree to which the worker controls the planning, execution, and evaluation of the work. In contrast, job enlargement simply adds more tasks and requirements to the job.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.2 Compare the main ways jobs can be redesigned.

39) Job rotation creates disruptions when members of the work group must adjust to new employees.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: One of the drawbacks of job rotation is that it could be disruptive to work groups because they must constantly adjust to new employees.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.2 Compare the main ways jobs can be redesigned.

40) What is job redesign? What are the ways jobs can be redesigned?

Answer: Since job design deals with the way elements in a job are organized, job redesign simply means that the job elements are reorganized or configured in a different way. This has important implications because job design influences employee effort. Redesigning jobs therefore has important practical implications—reduced turnover and increased job satisfaction among them.

Job rotation and job enrichment are two ways by which a job can be redesigned. Job rotation is the periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level. In job enrichment, high-level responsibilities are added to the job to increase a sense of purpose, direction, meaning, and intrinsic motivation.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.2 Compare the main ways jobs can be redesigned.

41) What is job enrichment? How does it motivate?

Answer: In job enrichment, high-level responsibilities are added to the job to increase a sense of purpose, direction, meaning, and intrinsic motivation. This is different from enlarging it (which simply adds more tasks and requirements). It involves adding another layer of responsibility and meaning. Job enrichment has its roots in Herzberg's two-factor theory which talks about providing hygiene, or motivating factors to the job to increase motivation.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.2 Compare the main ways jobs can be redesigned.

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42) Beyond redesigning the nature of the work itself and involving employees in decisions, another approach to making the work environment more motivating is to alter work arrangements. Which of the following is designed to give an employee greater control of their schedule?

A) Flextime B) Job centralization C) Job rotation D) Job enlargement E) Job enrichment Answer: A Explanation: With flextime, employees can schedule their work hours to align with personal demands, reducing tardiness and absences, and they can work when they are most productive.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.3 Explain how specific alternative work arrangements can motivate employees.

43) An arrangement that allows two or more individuals to split a traditional 40-hour-a-week job is called .

A) flextime B) job sharing C) job rotation D) telecommuting E) job enrichment Answer: B Explanation: Job sharing allows two or more individuals to split a traditional 40-hour-a-week job. One might perform the job from 8:00 A.M. to noon and the other from 1:00 P.M. to 5:00 P.M., or the two could work full, but alternate, days.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.3 Explain how specific alternative work arrangements can motivate employees.

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44) Which of the following is the major drawback of job sharing from management's perspective?

A) Increase in supervisory workload B) Increased costs for providing supporting infrastructure (such as desk and computer) to two employees instead of one C) Difficulty in finding compatible partners D) Difficulty in designing the reward structure E) Difficulty in coordinating schedules Answer: C Explanation: The major drawback of job sharing from management's perspective is finding compatible pairs of employees who can successfully coordinate the intricacies of one job.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.3 Explain how specific alternative work arrangements can motivate employees.

45) Janice and Sunil are both senior software analysts. They have worked together on projects for six years and get along great. Janice is pregnant and anticipating the arrival of her first child and she is not willing to work full time. Sunil would like to experiment with opening his own business as a home media installation consultant and does not want to continue to work full time.

They both need some income. Which of the following alternative job structures would be best for Janice and Sunil?

A) Job enlargement B) Telecommuting C) Job rotation D) Job sharing E) Job enrichment Answer: D Explanation: Because Janice and Sunil are looking for fewer required work hours, the best option for them would be to participate in job sharing, which allows two or more individuals to split a traditional 40-hour-a-week job. The other structure options are still a 40-hour-a-week commitment.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 8.3 Explain how specific alternative work arrangements can motivate employees.

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46) Which of the following is a job that does not lend itself to telecommuting?

A) An attorney who spends most of her time researching on the computer B) A copywriter for an advertising firm C) A car salesman who demonstrates the features of a new model of car D) A telemarketer who uses the phone to contact clients E) A product support specialist who handles queries sent by customers Answer: C Explanation: Writers, attorneys, analysts, and employees who spend the majority of their time on computers or the telephone (such as telemarketers, customer-service representatives, reservation agents, and product support specialists), are natural candidates. A car salesman cannot opt for telecommuting as he has to demonstrate the features of the car to the potential customers.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.3 Explain how specific alternative work arrangements can motivate employees.

47) Which of the following statements is true regarding job sharing?

A) It expands jobs by increasing the degree to which the worker controls the planning, execution, and evaluation of the work.

B) It is also called cross-training.

C) It allows two or more individuals to split a traditional 40-hour-a-week job.

D) It involves periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level.

E) Job sharing is a method of job enrichment.

Answer: C Explanation: Job sharing allows two or more individuals to split a traditional 40-hour-a-week job.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.3 Explain how specific alternative work arrangements can motivate employees.

48) Which of the following is not a management benefit of telecommuting?

A) Larger labor pool for recruitment B) Higher productivity of employees C) Decreased office expenditures D) Improved morale in general E) Decreased salary expenses Answer: E Explanation: The plusses of telecommuting for management include a larger labor pool from which to select, higher productivity, less turnover, improved morale, and reduced office space costs. Telecommuting does not lead to decreased salary expenses.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.3 Explain how specific alternative work arrangements can motivate employees.

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49) Andy is an architect who works for a large design company. At the birth of their first child, Andy and his wife decided that he should play a significant role in providing childcare for their newborn. Toward this, Andy arranged to work two days a week from home on his computer that was linked to his firm's office. Which of the following terms accurately represents Andy's work arrangement?

A) Autonomy B) Job sharing C) Flextime D) Telecommuting E) Task identity Answer: D Explanation: Telecommuting refers to working at home at least 2 days a week on a computer linked to the employer's office.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.3 Explain how specific alternative work arrangements can motivate employees.

50) For employees, the major downside of telecommuting is .

A) decreased productivity B) increased turnover C) reduced morale D) difficulty in scheduling work E) increased feelings of isolation Answer: E Explanation: From the employee's standpoint, telecommuting can increase feelings of isolation.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.3 Explain how specific alternative work arrangements can motivate employees.

51) What percentage of U.S. organizations offer some form of flextime?

A) 35 B) 46 C) 57 D) 68 E) 79 Answer: C Explanation: Flextime has become extremely popular. According to recent surveys, 57 percent of U.S. organizations offer some form of flextime.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 8.3 Explain how specific alternative work arrangements can motivate employees.

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52) You are looking at flextime and realize that it will probably work least well for which of the following jobs?

A) Insurance billers B) Custodial workers C) Receptionist D) Equipment maintenance staff E) IT personnel Answer: C Explanation: Flextime is not applicable to every job. It is not a viable option for receptionists, sales personnel in retail stores, or similar jobs for which comprehensive service demands that people be at their workstations at predetermined times. A school nurse must be at her workstation during school hours. Insurance billers, custodial workers, equipment maintenance staff, and IT personnel can work in flexible working hours.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 8.3 Explain how specific alternative work arrangements can motivate employees.

53) Working from a virtual office on a relatively permanent basis is called telecommuting.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Telecommuting refers to working at home (or anywhere outside the employee's office) at least two days a week on a computer linked to the employer's office. One is working from a virtual office if one works from outside the workplace on a relatively permanent basis.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.3 Explain how specific alternative work arrangements can motivate employees.

54) Telecommuting allows two or more individuals to split a traditional 40-hour-a-week job.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Job sharing allows two or more individuals to split a traditional 40-hour-a-week job. Telecommuting refers to where one works from and not the number of people the job is shared with.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.3 Explain how specific alternative work arrangements can motivate employees.

55) The percent of U.S. organizations offering job sharing decreased in 2014 compared to 2008.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Only 18 percent of U.S. organizations offered job sharing in 2014, a 29 percent decrease since 2008.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.3 Explain how specific alternative work arrangements can motivate employees.

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56) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of flextime.

Answer: There are several advantages of flextime. They include reduced absenteeism, increased productivity, reduced overtime expenses, reduced traffic congestion around work sites, elimination of tardiness, and increased autonomy and responsibility for employees, any of which may increase employee job satisfaction.

Flextime's major drawback is that it's not applicable to every job. It works well with clerical tasks for which an employee's interaction with people outside his or her department is limited. It is not a viable option for receptionists, sales personnel in retail stores, or similar jobs for which comprehensive service demands that people be at their workstations at predetermined times.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.3 Explain how specific alternative work arrangements can motivate employees.

57) is a participative process that uses employees' input to increase their commitment to the organization's success.

A) Job enrichment B) Employee involvement C) Organizational reengineering D) Corporate restructuring E) Job sharing Answer: B Explanation: Employee involvement is a participative process that uses employees' input to increase their commitment to the organization's success. The logic is that if workers are engaged in decisions that affect them and have increased autonomy, they will become more motivated, committed, productive, and satisfied with their jobs.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.4 Describe how employee involvement measures can motivate employees.

58) Which of the following is the distinct characteristic common to all participative management programs?

A) Joint decision making B) Autonomy C) Commitment D) Productivity enhancement E) Quality improvement Answer: A Explanation: The distinct characteristic common to all participative management programs is joint decision making, in which subordinates share a significant degree of decision-making power with their immediate superiors.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.4 Describe how employee involvement measures can motivate employees.

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59) Participative management is a method of management where .

A) representatives of workers form work councils, and these councils must be consulted when management makes decisions about employees B) few representatives of workers sit on a company's board of directors C) subordinates share a significant degree of decision-making power with their immediate superiors D) low-level workers meet occasionally with the CEO to discuss problems within their department E) low-level workers are responsible for making corporate policy decisions Answer: C Explanation: Participative management is joint decision making, in which subordinates share a significant degree of decision-making power with their immediate superiors.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.4 Describe how employee involvement measures can motivate employees.

60) Lavon has been feeling dissatisfied with his position of late. Particularly, he feels that he is underutilized. According to motivation theories, what should Lavon's supervisor do?

A) Fire him B) Promote him C) Include him in revising his job description D) Mentor him to use his time better E) Appoint him to numerous committees Answer: C Explanation: By including Lavon in determining the job description, his supervisor would allow Lavon the opportunity to not only make decisions about his work but also to take those tasks from start to finish.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 8.4 Describe how employee involvement measures can motivate employees.

61) The two major forms of employee involvement are participative management and .

A) organizational restructuring B) job sharing C) representative participation D) job rotation E) job enlargement Answer: C Explanation: The two major forms of employee involvement are participative management and representative participation.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.4 Describe how employee involvement measures can motivate employees.

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62) Most countries in Western Europe require companies to practice , which redistributes power within an organization by putting labor's interests on a more equal footing with the interests of management and stockholders.

A) participative management B) corporate restructuring C) representative participation D) management by objectives E) organizational reengineering Answer: C Explanation: Most countries in Western Europe require companies to practice representative participation, by including a small group of employees as participants in decision making.

Corporate restructuring and organizational reengineering are not related to employee involvement.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.4 Describe how employee involvement measures can motivate employees.

63) Which of the following statements is true regarding participative management?

A) Participative management typically has only a modest influence on variables such as employee productivity and motivation.

B) The two most common forms are works councils and board representatives.

C) It is called "the most widely legislated form of employee involvement around the world."

D) Research evidence on participative management indicates that it is a sure means for improving employee performance.

E) Participative management involves few representatives of workers sitting on the company's board of directors.

Answer: A Explanation: Participative management typically has only a modest influence on variables such as employee productivity and motivation. The research evidence on participative management is decidedly mixed and it is not a sure means for improving employee performance. One of the most common forms of representative participation (not participative management) is work councils and it involves few representatives of workers sitting on the company's board of directors.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.4 Describe how employee involvement measures can motivate employees.

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64) The two most common forms of representative participation are and board representatives.

A) quality circles B) works councils C) employee unions D) task teams E) self-regulatory organization Answer: B Explanation: The two most common forms of representative participation are works councils and board representatives.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.4 Describe how employee involvement measures can motivate employees.

65) Which of the following terms best describes employees who sit on a company's board of directors and represent the interests of the firm's employees?

A) Board representatives B) Works councils C) Quality circles D) Union representatives E) Board leaders Answer: A Explanation: Board representatives are employees who sit on a company's board of directors and represent the interests of the firm's employees. The influence of representative participation on working employees seems to be minimal.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.4 Describe how employee involvement measures can motivate employees.

66) To be successful, employee involvement and participation (EIP) programs should be tailored to local and national norms.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: To be successful, EIP programs should be tailored to local and national norms. A study of four countries, including India and the United States, confirmed the importance of modifying practices to reflect national culture.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.4 Describe how employee involvement measures can motivate employees.

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67) A study pointed out that managers in India who tried to empower their employees did very well in their evaluations.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Because India is a high power distance culture (which accepts and expects differences in authority), managers in India who tried to empower their employees were rated low by those employees.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.4 Describe how employee involvement measures can motivate employees.

68) What is employee involvement and why is it important? What are the two major forms of employee involvement?

Answer: Employee involvement is defined as a participative process that uses employees' input to increase their commitment to the organization's success. The underlying logic is that by involving workers in those decisions that affect them and by increasing their autonomy and control over their work lives, employees will become more motivated, more committed to the organization, more productive, and more satisfied with their jobs. The two major forms of employee involvement are: a) Participative management. Participative management programs use joint decision making.

Subordinates actually share a significant degree of decision-making power with their immediate superiors. b) Representative participation. Representative participation refers to worker representation by a small group of employees who actually participate on the board. The goal is to redistribute power within an organization, putting labor on a more equal footing with the interests of management and stockholders by letting workers be represented by a small group of employees who actually participate.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.4 Describe how employee involvement measures can motivate employees.

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69) What is representative participation? Discuss its influence on workers.

Answer: Almost every country in Western Europe requires companies to practice representative participation. Its goal is to redistribute power within an organization, putting labor on a more equal footing with the interests of management and stockholders by letting workers be represented by a small group of employees who actually participate. The two most common forms are works councils and board representatives. Works councils are groups of nominated or elected employees who must be consulted when management makes decisions about employees.

Board representatives are employees who sit on a company's board of directors and represent employees' interests.

The influence of representative participation on working employees seems to be mixed, but generally employees would need to feel that their interests were well represented and make a difference to the organization for motivation to increase.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.4 Describe how employee involvement measures can motivate employees.

70) Explain how participative management can enhance skill variety, task identity, and autonomy as described in the job characteristics model (JCM).

Answer: Skill variety, the degree to which a job requires a variety of different activities so the worker can use a number of different skills and talent, can be enhanced by participative management because the employees can begin to view their tasks from a different perspective, that of management, and the need for high productivity and efficiency. By learning to think differently, the employees are learning different mental and relational skills.

Task identity, the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work, can be enhanced by participative management by allowing employees to make decisions on the spot without management approval. For example, the woman at the Wegman's bakery who convinced management to let her include a traditional family recipe in the product line will feel a much stronger sense of task identity.

Autonomy, in the sense of determining work procedures and carrying them out, is enhanced by participative management because the employee is able to participate in the decision-making process. Having a voice in the process increases the sense of autonomy and control.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Synthesis LO: 8.4 Describe how employee involvement measures can motivate employees.

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71) Approximately what percentage of respondents to an American Psychological Association survey indicated that they were staying with their current employer because of the pay and benefits?

A) 90 B) 80 C) 70 D) 60 E) 50 Answer: D Explanation: Although not as important as enjoyment of one's work and the job fitting well with other areas of an employee's life, approximately 60 percent of respondents to an American Psychological Association survey indicated that they were staying with their current employer because of the pay and benefits.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.5 Demonstrate how the different types of variable-pay programs can increase employee motivation.

72) The competitiveness of an organization's pay relative to pay in its industry is called equity.

A) internal B) compensatory C) external D) organizational E) validating Answer: C Explanation: The process of initially setting pay levels entail balancing internal equity and external equity which is the competitiveness of an organization's pay relative to pay in its industry (usually established through pay surveys).

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 8.5 Demonstrate how the different types of variable-pay programs can increase employee motivation.

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73) The worth of the job to the organization that is usually established through a technical process called job evaluation refers to .

A) societal equity B) pay equity C) internal equity D) external equity E) compensatory equity Answer: C Explanation: The worth of the job to the organization refers to internal equity.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.5 Demonstrate how the different types of variable-pay programs can increase employee motivation.

74) Which of the following is an example of a piece-rate plan?

A) $20 for each hour of work B) $2 for each unit produced C) Productivity bonus D) Commission E) Paying employees based on number of skills Answer: B Explanation: The piece-rate pay plan is a means of compensating production workers by paying a fixed sum for each unit of production completed. Paying $2 for each unit produced represents a piece-rate pay plan.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.5 Demonstrate how the different types of variable-pay programs can increase employee motivation.

75) Vance and Jared were both recently hired to be program directors at an urban university.

Vance attended a large, historic university while Jared attended a branch campus of a regional university. Jared is paid 15 percent more than Vance. The best explanation for this is .

A) Jared is a better negotiator B) Vance did not do well in school C) Jared's position is worth more to the university D) Vance's position is not important to the university E) the institution is not competitive within the industry Answer: C Explanation: While Vance has the better education level, it appears that through internal equity that Jared's position is worth more than Vance's to the organization.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 8.5 Demonstrate how the different types of variable-pay programs can increase employee motivation.

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76) The competitiveness of an organization's pay relative to pay in its industry is called equity.

A) internal B) external C) organizational D) societal E) compensatory Answer: B Explanation: External equity refers to the competitiveness of an organization's pay relative to pay in its industry. It is usually established through pay surveys.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 8.5 Demonstrate how the different types of variable-pay programs can increase employee motivation.

77) The key to a successful bonus plan is that the reward needs to be .

A) tied to a recent performance B) tied to a specific amount of deliverables C) equal across everyone in the department D) made very public E) cumulative in nature Answer: A Explanation: As opposed to a merit pay raise, bonuses reward a recent event in which the employee has reached a goal or completed an action.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.5 Demonstrate how the different types of variable-pay programs can increase employee motivation.

78) Which of the following is not a form of a variable-pay program?

A) Profit sharing B) Dental benefits C) Piece rate D) Bonus E) Employee stock ownership plans Answer: B Explanation: Dental benefits are not based upon individual and/or organizational measure of performance.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.5 Demonstrate how the different types of variable-pay programs can increase employee motivation.

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79) Patrick and Allison work at a local car dealership as salespersons and are paid on both salary and commission. What type of pay related motivation is being used?

A) Variable-pay program B) Internal equity C) External equity D) Skill-based plan E) Flexible benefits Answer: A Explanation: Being paid on salary and commission means that pay is determined on the organizational level while still rewarding the individual efforts of the employee.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 8.5 Demonstrate how the different types of variable-pay programs can increase employee motivation.

80) A pay plan pays for individual performance based on performance appraisal ratings.

A) piece-rate B) merit-based C) skill-based D) profit sharing E) competency-based Answer: B Explanation: A merit-based pay plan pays for individual performance based on performance appraisal ratings.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.5 Demonstrate how the different types of variable-pay programs can increase employee motivation.

81) Globally, around percent of companies offer some form of variable-pay plan.

A) 26 B) 39 C) 57 D) 72 E) 84 Answer: E Explanation: Globally, around 84 percent of companies offer some form of variable-pay plan.

Variable-pay plans have long been used to compensate salespeople and executives, but the scope of variable-pay jobs has broadened.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.5 Demonstrate how the different types of variable-pay programs can increase employee motivation.

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82) A pure plan provides no base salary and pays the employee only for what they produce.

A) merit-based B) piece-rate C) bonus D) employee stock option E) profit-sharing Answer: B Explanation: A pure piece-rate plan provides no base salary and pays a fixed sum for each unit produced.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.5 Demonstrate how the different types of variable-pay programs can increase employee motivation.

83) External equity refers to the worth of the job to the organization.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Internal equity refers to the worth of the job to the organization.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.5 Demonstrate how the different types of variable-pay programs can increase employee motivation.

84) Variable-pay programs are also called piece-rate pay plans.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Variable-pay programs are also called pay-for-performance because they base a portion of an employee's pay on some individual and/or organizational measure of performance.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.5 Demonstrate how the different types of variable-pay programs can increase employee motivation.

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85) Lewis Vacation Rentals has been experiencing a recent decline in its bookings. In an effort to increase sales, the company is offering its employees a 1 percent share in the company profit over the next six months in addition to regular employee salaries. Will this plan increase motivation? Why or why not?

Answer: While there is always the possibility that some individuals might be motivated by this plan, as a whole this plan will fail to create the motivation and increased sales that Lewis Vacation Rentals desires. The reason for this is that for profit sharing to be effective, there has to be some sort of profit available. If the company is losing money, it is unlikely employees will be motivated to work more when it is unclear if their efforts will result in any additional income.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Application LO: 8.5 Demonstrate how the different types of variable-pay programs can increase employee motivation.

86) What conditions affect the results of pay-for-performance plans?

Answer: Pay-for-performance plans are also called variable-pay programs. The results of such programs vary by several conditions. Group-based pay-for-performance plans may have a strong positive effect on organizational performance, but they may only be effective in stable economic environments and in organizations that have fair policies. Research in Canada indicated that variable-pay plans increase job satisfaction only if employee effort is rewarded as well as performance. Finally, there are cultural differences as well. For instance, when guanxi (e.g., specific, personal connections between subordinates, supervisors, and co-workers) plays a role in human resources practices, pay-for-performance plans tend to be less effective.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.5 Demonstrate how the different types of variable-pay programs can increase employee motivation.

87) How are profit-sharing plans different from employee stock ownership plans?

Answer: Both profit-sharing plans and employee stock ownership plans (ESOPs) are variable-pay plans that are also called pay-for-performance plans. A profit-sharing plan distributes compensation based on some established formula designed around a company's profitability. Such compensation can be direct cash outlays or, particularly for top managers, allocation of stock options. In contrast, an ESOP is a company-established benefit plan in which employees acquire stock, often at below-market prices, as part of their benefits. Via ESOPS, employees experience ownership of the organization they work for.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.5 Demonstrate how the different types of variable-pay programs can increase employee motivation.

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88) Which of the following is an example of an intrinsic reward?

A) Bonus B) Profit-sharing plan C) Employee stock option D) Employee recognition E) Gainsharing Answer: D Explanation: Work rewards can be both intrinsic and extrinsic. Rewards are intrinsic in the form of employee recognition programs and extrinsic in the form of compensation systems.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.6 Show how flexible benefits turn benefits into motivators.

89) Flexible benefits can accommodate differences in employee needs based on age, marital status, partners' benefit status, and number and age of dependents.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Flexible benefits are geared toward individualized rewards by allowing each employee to choose the compensation plan that best satisfies their own current needs and situation.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.6 Show how flexible benefits turn benefits into motivators.

90) Are flexible benefits more motivating than traditional plans?

Answer: It is difficult to tell if flexible benefits are more motivating than traditional plans.

Some organizations that have moved to flexible plans report increased employee retention, job satisfaction, and productivity. However, flexible benefits may not substitute for higher salaries when it comes to motivation. As more organizations worldwide adopt flexible benefits, the individual motivation they produce will likely decrease (the plans will be seen as a standard work provision). The downsides of flexible benefit plans may be obvious: They may be costlier to manage and identifying the motivational impact of different provisions is challenging.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.6 Show how flexible benefits turn benefits into motivators.

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91) The FlipBurger national chain of fast food restaurants enjoys an unusually low labor turnover rate and high productivity although it only pays the minimum wage for all non-managerial positions. One of the reasons for this is that at FlipBurger, supervisors constantly act as cheerleaders in singling out employees for public praise and having a lavish ceremony to reward their "Employee of the Month." Based on this, what kind of rewards are used to motivate employees at FlipBurger?

A) Profit-sharing B) Intrinsic C) Extrinsic D) Pay-for-performance E) Variable-pay program Answer: B Explanation: Employee recognition programs, such as those followed at FlipBurger, are examples of intrinsic rewards.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 8.7 Identify the motivational benefits of intrinsic rewards.

92) Which of the following is a form of intrinsic reward?

A) Bonus B) Profit sharing C) Employee of the month recognition D) Employee stock ownership plans E) Merit-based pay Answer: C Explanation: Employee recognition programs, such as having an "Employee of the Month" award are an example of an intrinsic reward used to motivate employees.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.7 Identify the motivational benefits of intrinsic rewards.

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93) Which of the following programs is associated with self-esteem, self-efficacy, and job satisfaction?

A) Bonus B) Merit-based pay C) Piece-rate D) Employee recognition E) Stock options Answer: D Explanation: While there is not a lot of research on the motivational outcomes or global usage of employee recognition programs, studies indicate that such programs are associated with self-esteem, self-efficacy, and job satisfaction.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.7 Identify the motivational benefits of intrinsic rewards.

94) Which of the following statements is true regarding employee recognition?

A) Employee recognition is an extrinsic reward.

B) Critics argue that employee recognition programs are highly susceptible to political manipulation by management.

C) Employee recognition programs are expensive.

D) Nonfinancial incentives such as recognition are more motivating in the short term but in the long run financial incentives are more motivating.

E) Employee stock option is a more powerful workplace motivator than recognition.

Answer: B Explanation: Employee recognition is an intrinsic reward. Employee recognition programs are inexpensive. Some research suggests financial incentives may be more motivating in the short term, but in the long run it's nonfinancial incentives and according to research, recognition is the most powerful workplace motivator. Critics argue that employee recognition programs are highly susceptible to political manipulation by management.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.7 Identify the motivational benefits of intrinsic rewards.

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95) Jackie works as the front office receptionist in a lube shop. Her exemplary manner in dealing with often irate customers caught the eye of the lube shop's manager. He gave her a monetary bonus. What type of award did Jackie receive?

A) Intrinsic B) Extrinsic C) Profit-sharing D) Compensatory E) Variable Answer: B Explanation: Since Jackie got a monetary bonus, she got an extrinsic award.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 8.7 Identify the motivational benefits of intrinsic rewards.

96) Recently, the Pennypoint Corporation instituted an employee recognition program that consisted of identifying an "Employee of the Month" for each department and designated parking spots for exemplary employees. Pennypoint Corporation was doing this to improve .

A) absenteeism B) punctuality C) punctuality and productivity D) self-esteem and job satisfaction E) productivity and citizenship behavior Answer: D Explanation: Via the employee recognition program, Pennypoint Corporation was trying to improve its employees' self-esteem and job satisfaction.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 8.7 Identify the motivational benefits of intrinsic rewards.

97) Recognition programs increase an employee's intrinsic motivation.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: While pay and benefits are extrinsic rewards and motivators, employee recognition programs are intrinsic motivators.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 8.7 Identify the motivational benefits of intrinsic rewards.

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98) Employee recognition programs are often expensive.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: An obvious advantage of recognition programs is that they are inexpensive. For example, praise is free!

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.7 Identify the motivational benefits of intrinsic rewards.

99) As companies and government organizations face tighter budgets, nonfinancial incentives become more attractive.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: One of the major advantages of recognition programs is that they are inexpensive.

This makes such programs very attractive when organizations face tight budgets.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.7 Identify the motivational benefits of intrinsic rewards.

100) What are intrinsic rewards? How are they used to motivate employees?

Answer: Extrinsic rewards are typically pay and benefits. These are given to employees in the form of money or money-related services such as health and dental coverage. In contrast, intrinsic rewards do not require the outlay of cash from the employer to the employee. Employee recognition programs are intrinsic benefits in that they encourage specific employee behaviors by formally appreciating specific employee contributions. Research suggests that financial incentives (extrinsic rewards) may be more motivating in the short term, but in the long run nonfinancial incentives (intrinsic rewards) work best. They are associated with employees' self-esteem, self-efficacy, and job satisfaction.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.7 Identify the motivational benefits of intrinsic rewards.

101) What do we know about the motivational capabilities of nonfinancial rewards?

Answer: Research suggests financial incentives (extrinsic rewards such as pay and benefits) may be more motivating in the short term, but in the long run nonfinancial incentives (intrinsic rewards such as recognition) work best. While surprisingly, there is not a lot of research on the motivational outcomes or global usage of employee recognition programs, what we know is that, based on studies, employee recognition programs are associated with self-esteem, self-efficacy, and job satisfaction.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 8.7 Identify the motivational benefits of intrinsic rewards.

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Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 11E (Robbins) Chapter 8 Foundations of Group Behavior 1) Which one of the following characteristics is not necessarily true about groups?

A) Group members are interdependent.

B) Groups have two or more members.

C) Groups are determined by the organization chart.

D) Groups interact.

E) Groups have particular objectives.

Answer: C Explanation: A group has two or more individuals, interacting and interdependent, who have come together to achieve a particular objective.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.1 Distinguish between the different types of groups.

2) Which of the following statements is true regarding informal groups?

A) Informal groups are defined by the organization's structure.

B) In informal groups, the behaviors team members should engage in are stipulated by and directed toward organizational goals.

C) A group of people who come together to protest against a new law is an informal group.

D) The six members of an airline flight crew are an informal group.

E) Command groups and task groups are examples of informal groups.

Answer: C Explanation: An informal group is neither formally structured nor organizationally determined.

Informal groups are natural formations in the work environment that appear in response to the need for social contact. Command groups and task groups are examples of formal groups. A group of people who come together to protest against a new law is an informal group.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.1 Distinguish between the different types of groups.

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3) Tammy, Lisa, Bartolo, Shonda, and Roberto all work in product development for office applications at Brinks Software. After work, to get to know each other better and to talk shop, Tammy, Lisa, Shonda, and Roberto all also enjoy going to the Lux Lounge for Happy Hour.

Tammy, Lisa, Bartolo, Shonda, and Roberto constitute a(n) group.

A) task B) formal C) informal D) performance E) action Answer: B Explanation: These five individuals are placed into the organization per the organizational chart. They are all part of product development for the same product.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 9.1 Distinguish between the different types of groups.

4) Tammy, Lisa, Bartolo, Shonda, and Roberto all work in different departments at Brinks Software. After work, Tammy, Lisa, and Shonda all enjoy going to the Lux Lounge for Happy Hour. Tammy, Lisa, and Shonda constitute a(n) group.

A) task B) formal C) informal D) performance E) action Answer: C Explanation: These three individuals are not structured by the organization and are meeting for social contact.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 9.1 Distinguish between the different types of groups.

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5) Andie, Lupe, and Lashonda work in different departments at Auto Mechanics Inc. Via the company's intranet, they found out that they shared an interest in scrapbooking. They decided to get together on the third Saturday of each month to talk about their scrapbooking projects. They are an example of a(n) group.

A) formal B) informal C) command D) task E) interest Answer: B Explanation: Informal groups, such as friendship groups, are neither formally structured nor organizationally determined. An interest group consists of individuals who affiliate to attain a specific objective with which each individual is concerned. Three employees from different departments who regularly have lunch or coffee together are an informal group. Here, Andie, Lupe, and Lashonda come together because of their shared interest in scrapbooking.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 9.1 Distinguish between the different types of groups.

6) theory explains our tendency to personally invest in the accomplishment of a group.

A) Social identity B) Cognitive dissonance C) Expectancy D) Equity E) Path-goal Answer: A Explanation: Social identity theory is a perspective that considers when and why individuals consider themselves members of groups.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.1 Distinguish between the different types of groups.

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7) Shehenna, Puja, and Miguel were all recently hired by Blair Industries as account representatives. During their orientation, these three discovered that they would not be receiving any paid vacation time for their first year of employment. Social identity theory tells us which of the following is likely to occur?

A) The trio will quit.

B) The trio will bond together closely.

C) The trio will bond with others in the organization.

D) The trio will turn on each other.

E) The trio will sue.

Answer: B Explanation: Social identity theory tells us that shared events are important and are a catalyst for group formation. As the trio in question will receive the troubling news together, they will most likely form a bond with each other that others within the organization will not share.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Application LO: 9.1 Distinguish between the different types of groups.

8) The Walt Disney Company is world renowned for its destination resorts and theme parks. The company prides itself on providing the highest quality experiences for visitors to the parks and trains its employees as "cast members" who are all part of the show. Which group of employees is most likely to be considered an "outgroup" at the theme park?

A) Those portraying famous Disney characters B) Those operating the rides C) Those repairing the rides after park hours D) Those cleaning the parks during park hours E) Those taking the tickets Answer: C Explanation: While all of these roles are important to the company, those repairing the rides after park hours do not have interaction with the guests, and therefore they would be considered an outgroup in relation to the other roles mentioned. It is unlikely, though, that animosity would be present.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.1 Distinguish between the different types of groups.

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9) The Walt Disney Company is world renowned for its destination resorts and theme parks. The company prides itself on providing the highest quality experiences for visitors to the parks and trains its employees as "cast members" who are all part of the show. Which group of employees is most likely to be considered the "ingroup" at the theme park?

A) Those portraying famous Disney characters B) Those operating the rides C) Those repairing the rides D) Those cleaning the parks E) Those taking the tickets Answer: A Explanation: When one thinks of Disney Parks, most often they think about seeing the famous characters. In essence, those portraying the characters might see themselves as being the most important cast members and therefore better than those in the other roles. Disney in fact addresses this strenuously in the employee training to prevent the formation of ingroups.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.1 Distinguish between the different types of groups.

10) An informal group is neither formally structured nor organizationally determined.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: An informal group often meets to fulfill social needs or to bind employees with common interests. It is neither formally structured nor organizationally determined.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.1 Distinguish between the different types of groups.

11) In the punctuated equilibrium model, which stage is likely to feature inertia?

A) The first stage where the group sets the direction B) The brainstorming stage C) The nominal group technique stage D) The social loafing stage E) The first phase of group activity Answer: E Explanation: Once the first meeting sets the group's direction, the first phase of group activity following that is one of inertia and slow progress.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.2 Describe the punctuated equilibrium model of group development.

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12) When a group first meets, which of the following occurs?

A) General purpose is defined.

B) Assumptions on direction are made.

C) Approach to the project is determined.

D) Both general purpose is defined and approach to the project is determined.

E) All of general purpose is defined, assumptions on direction are made, and approach to the project is determined occur.

Answer: E Explanation: At the first meeting, the group's general purpose and direction is established, and then a framework of behavioral patterns and assumptions through which the group will approach its project emerges, sometimes in the first few seconds of the group's existence.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.2 Describe the punctuated equilibrium model of group development.

13) At the midpoint of a project, groups tend to experience all of the following except which?

A) Bursts of changes B) Dropping of old patterns C) Increased group conflict D) Adoption of new perspectives E) Heightened awareness of time Answer: C Explanation: The midpoint appears to work like an alarm clock, heightening members' awareness that their time is limited, and they need to get moving. This transition ends phase 1 and is characterized by a concentrated burst of changes, dropping of old patterns, and adoption of new perspectives. There is no indication that group conflicts increase.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.2 Describe the punctuated equilibrium model of group development.

14) According to the punctuated-equilibrium model, which two triggers bring about brief revolutionary change during the group's inertia?

A) Group conflict and missed deadlines B) Missed deadlines and resource utilization C) Resource utilization and awareness of time D) Awareness of time and awareness of deadlines E) Awareness of deadlines and group conflict Answer: D Explanation: When individual members become aware of time and deadlines during the process, they tend to be inspired to make changes in the processes that are being followed.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.2 Describe the punctuated equilibrium model of group development.

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15) Per the punctuated equilibrium model, the first meeting is one of inertia and slow progress of the group.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: In the punctuated equilibrium model, the first meeting sets the group's direction.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.2 Describe the punctuated equilibrium model of group development.

16) According to the punctuated-equilibrium model, once set, the group's direction is solidified and is unlikely to be reexamined throughout the first half of its life.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: According to the punctuated equilibrium model, the time following the first meeting, where the group's agenda is set, is a period of inertia where the group tends to stand still or become locked into a fixed course of action.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.2 Describe the punctuated equilibrium model of group development.

17) Please describe how the punctuated-equilibrium model addresses inertia in the stages of group development.

Answer: The punctuated equilibrium model looks at the stages of group development as a set of phases that temporary groups go through that involve transitions between inertia and activity.

Once at the first meeting the group's direction is solidified, it is unlikely to be reexamined throughout the first half of its life. This is a period of inertia—the group tends to stand still or become locked into a fixed course of action, even if it gains new insights that challenge initial patterns and assumptions. Inertia is also present after a transition happens after the first period of inertia. The burst of activity after the first period of inertia results in a second phase of inertia following the transition.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 9.2 Describe the punctuated equilibrium model of group development.

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18) Role perception indicates .

A) others' belief regarding how you should act in a given situation B) the skills required for performing the job C) the social norms that are to be followed while performing the role D) our view of how we're supposed to act in a given situation E) acceptable standards of behavior shared by nongroup members Answer: D Explanation: Our view of how we're supposed to act in a given situation is a role perception.

We engage in certain types of behavior based on how we believe we are supposed to behave.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.3 Show how role requirements change in different situations.

19) At the new product development group at Abode Homes Company, Jessica knows that she is expected to call group meetings and interact with members outside the new product group if their input is required. These refer to Jessica's in the new product development group.

A) norms B) status C) role D) standing E) title Answer: C Explanation: All group members are actors, each playing a role, including Jessica in the new product development group. A role is a set of expected behavior patterns (calling meetings, interacting with outsiders) attributed to someone occupying a given position in a social unit.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.3 Show how role requirements change in different situations.

20) Role indicates the way others believe you should act in a given context.

A) perception B) identity C) expectation D) criterion E) style Answer: C Explanation: Role expectations are the way others believe you should act in a given context.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.3 Show how role requirements change in different situations.

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21) Jose is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His manager offers him a promotion, but the new role will require him to work Sundays. Jose would like the promotion but realizes that it would force him to miss some church activities. In such a situation, Jose is most likely to experience .

A) role conflict B) emotional contagion C) cognitive dissonance D) emotional labor E) self-concordance Answer: A Explanation: When compliance with one role requirement may make it difficult to comply with another, the result is role conflict. Jose is feeling conflict between his role as a church member and his role as an employee.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 9.3 Show how role requirements change in different situations.

22) When , the result is role conflict.

A) we lack the skills required for performing the role B) we do not approve of the behavioral requirements of a role C) our view of the role is different from others' expectations of that role D) compliance with one role requirement may make it difficult to comply with another E) different groups of people associate different norms with a role Answer: D Explanation: When compliance with one role requirement may make it difficult to comply with another, the result is role conflict. At the extreme, two or more role expectations can be mutually contradictory.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.3 Show how role requirements change in different situations.

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23) Rhoda is an executive assistant at a major medical center. Because she works directly with the head doctor, Rhoda feels that it is appropriate to council patients on their upcoming procedures. Marge, a recent graduate with a degree in Healthcare Administration, also works at the medical center and is responsible for new patients. Marge typically becomes irritated when Rhoda attempts to council new patients. Rhoda is struggling with her .

A) role perception B) role expectation C) role norms D) social norms E) performance norm Answer: A Explanation: Rhoda feels that because she works closely with the doctor that she has a higher level of responsibility within the medical office; however, this is an incorrect perception of her role as she is not responsible for counseling patients.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 9.3 Show how role requirements change in different situations.

24) DeSean, an aggressive and dynamic football coach of a very successful high school team, was visibly upset when a newspaper report described him as warm and cuddly. He believed that the report would undermine his ability to be a demanding coach. DeSean is referring to issues with .

A) role perception B) role expectation C) role norms D) social norms E) performance norm Answer: B Explanation: Role expectations can influence the way people perform their work. DeSean believes that a football coach is expected to be tough and aggressive, and being referred to as warm and cuddly could make him less effective with his players.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 9.3 Show how role requirements change in different situations.

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25) are the way others believe you should act in a given situation.

A) Social identities B) Citizenship behaviors C) Role expectations D) Psychological contracts E) Group status Answer: C Explanation: People associate certain actions and behaviors with certain roles in society and believe that all in those roles should act accordingly.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.3 Show how role requirements change in different situations.

26) Which of the following is most likely to experience interrole conflict?

A) A policewoman who is also a mother B) A college student who is also working full time C) A politician who is also a clergyman D) An actor who is also homosexual E) A college professor who is also an author Answer: C Explanation: While everyone has the potential to experience role conflict, someone who is a politician is called up on to represent the population and the interests of that population. As we often see in the news, a politician who is also involved in the church struggles to find a balance on many controversial topics and therefore experiences role conflicts.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 9.3 Show how role requirements change in different situations.

27) Role perception refers to the way others believe you should act in a given context.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Role perception is our view of how we are supposed to act in a given situation.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.3 Show how role requirements change in different situations.

28) The social contract refers to an unwritten agreement between employees and employers that establishes mutual expectations.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: The unwritten agreement between employees and employers that establishes mutual expectations is called the psychological contract.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.3 Show how role requirements change in different situations.

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29) When compliance with one role requirement makes it difficult to comply with another, the result is role conflict.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: When two or more role expectations clash, the result is role conflict.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.3 Show how role requirements change in different situations.

30) What is the psychological contract?

Answer: Role expectations are the way others believe you should act in a given context. In the workplace, we often look at role expectations through the perspective of the psychological contract: an unwritten agreement between employees and employers (including senior management, supervisors, coworkers, and recruiters) that establishes mutual expectations.

Management is expected to treat employees justly, provide acceptable working conditions, clearly communicate what is a fair day's work, and give feedback on how well an employee is doing. Employees are expected to demonstrate a good attitude, follow directions, and show loyalty to the organization.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.3 Show how role requirements change in different situations.

31) You have been working at Saxet Consulting for the past year and are expected to complete three client reviews per week. You have been very productive and have been completing two extra reviews per week. At a recent team meeting, you expected to receive praise from the President for this extra work; however, your manager took credit for the extra work and received the praise from the President. What has your manager violated and what is your likely reaction?

Answer: My manager has violated the psychological contract which exists between a manager and an employee. Managers are supposed to act in an ethical manner and not take credit for other people's work. It is very unlikely that I will continue to complete the extra work and it is also possible I will start to exert less than expected efforts.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 9.3 Show how role requirements change in different situations.

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32) refers to the adjustment of one's behavior to align with the norms of the group.

A) Psychological contract B) Conformity C) Social contract D) Discipline E) Organizational citizenship Answer: B Explanation: Groups desire acceptance and stability. This means that group members have to adjust their behavior—to conform—to align with the norms of the group.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.4 Demonstrate how norms exert influence on an individual's behavior.

33) Individuals do not conform to the pressures of all groups to which they belong. When they do conform, it is most likely to their groups.

A) peer B) social C) reference D) work E) hierarchical Answer: C Explanation: Reference groups are important groups to which individuals belong or hope to belong and which adopt norms with which individuals are most likely to conform.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.4 Demonstrate how norms exert influence on an individual's behavior.

34) Which of the following terms best describes the acceptable standards of behavior that are shared by a group's members?

A) Norms B) Rules C) Status D) Traditions E) Role perception Answer: A Explanation: All groups have established norms, or acceptable standards of behavior shared by their members that express what they ought and ought not to do under certain circumstances.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.4 Demonstrate how norms exert influence on an individual's behavior.

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35) Tomaz joined his firm's social media group more than a year after it was formed. In the beginning, believing that this group was similar to his previous group in the same organization that was not strict on punctuality and deadlines, he was often tardy with his work in his new group. Noticing that he was not popular with the social media group, he decided that he would be punctual in meeting deadlines. Tomaz was addressing the issue of .

A) conformity B) coercion C) commitment D) convergence E) confluence Answer: A Explanation: Conformity is the adjustment of one's behavior to align with the norms of the group. As a member of a group, you desire acceptance by the group. Tomaz was not accepted by the social media group because he was tardy with deadlines. Tomaz decided on conformity by changing his behavior.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.4 Demonstrate how norms exert influence on an individual's behavior.

36) The important groups to which an individual belongs or hopes to belong are known as the groups.

A) conformation B) reference C) status D) power E) appearance Answer: B Explanation: Reference groups are groups in which a person is aware of other members, defines himself or herself as a member or would like to be a member, and feels group members are significant to him or her.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.4 Demonstrate how norms exert influence on an individual's behavior.

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37) Milhouse, a classically trained violinist, recently joined a country band. The members of the band, though they like Milhouse, do not appreciate his attention to details and the preppy way he dresses. The band is pressuring Milhouse to change in order to fit into the group. Which of the following represents the most likely conformity expected of Milhouse?

A) For Milhouse to bathe less B) For Milhouse to wear jeans and boots C) For Milhouse to play the fiddle D) Both for Milhouse to bathe less and for him to wear jeans and boots E) Both for Milhouse to bathe less and for him to play the fiddle Answer: B Explanation: The concept of conformity relates to pressuring someone to change their attitude and behavior. While he may need to play the fiddle, it is his attitude toward dress that is the major obstacle to his fitting in with the group.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 9.4 Demonstrate how norms exert influence on an individual's behavior.

38) Which of the following statements is true regarding behavior in a group?

A) Group norms do not press us toward conformity.

B) A recent study suggests those working in a group were less likely to lie, cheat, and steal than individuals working alone.

C) Conformity to social norms is higher in individualistic cultures as compared to that in collectivist cultures.

D) Deviant workplace behavior is likely to flourish where it's supported by group norms.

E) The low-status people in the group speak more often as compared to the high-status people.

Answer: D Explanation: A recent study suggests those working in a group were more likely to lie, cheat, and steal than individuals working alone. Deviant workplace behavior is likely to flourish where it's supported by group norms.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 9.4 Demonstrate how norms exert influence on an individual's behavior.

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39) Leaving work early, lying about hours worked, and wasting organizational resources are examples of .

A) cognitive dissonance B) deviant workplace behavior C) conformity to norms D) role expectations E) social identity Answer: B Explanation: Deviant workplace behavior is voluntary behavior that violates significant organizational norms and, in so doing, threatens the well-being of the organization or its members. Leaving work early, lying about hours worked, and wasting organizational resources are all voluntary behavior detrimental to the organization.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.4 Demonstrate how norms exert influence on an individual's behavior.

40) At the first meeting of Angus Realty's first time homeowners' group, Jorge Angus said, "Let's talk about how we should and how we shouldn't do things." Jorge was establishing group .

A) rules B) citizenship behaviors C) norms D) agenda E) expectations Answer: C Explanation: Jorge Angus was trying to establish group norms—acceptable standards of behavior shared by members that express what they ought to do and ought not to do under certain circumstances.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.4 Demonstrate how norms exert influence on an individual's behavior.

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41) Which of the following terms best represents voluntary actions that violate significant organizational norms and, in doing so, threatens the well-being of the organization or its members?

A) Negativity offset B) Deviant workplace behavior C) Self-concordance D) Emotional contagion E) Positivity offset Answer: B Explanation: Deviant workplace behavior (also called counterproductive behavior or employee withdrawal) is voluntary behavior that violates significant organizational norms and, in doing so, threatens the well-being of the organization or its members.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.4 Demonstrate how norms exert influence on an individual's behavior.

42) All groups have established norms.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Different groups, communities, and societies have different norms, but they all have them.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.4 Demonstrate how norms exert influence on an individual's behavior.

43) How do norms and conformity relate to each other?

Answer: Norms are acceptable standards of behavior shared by members that express what they ought to do and ought not to do under certain circumstances. As a member of a group, you desire acceptance and stability. Conformity is the adjustment of one's behavior to align with the norms of the group. Thus, you may conform to group norms when you perceive that others are doing so or if you experience conflict or frustration. Considerable evidence suggests that groups can place strong pressures on members to change (i.e., conform) in order to match the group's standard.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.4 Demonstrate how norms exert influence on an individual's behavior.

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44) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of status on group interaction?

A) Lower-status members state fewer commands than high status members.

B) Lower-status members tend to be more assertive group members as compared to high-status members.

C) Lower-status members speak more often as compared to high-status members.

D) Lower-status members interrupt others more often compared to high-status members.

E) As compared to high-status members, lower-status members tend to participate in group discussions more actively.

Answer: A Explanation: High-status people tend to be more assertive group members. They speak out more often, criticize more, state more commands, and interrupt others more often. Lower-status members tend to participate less actively in group discussions.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.5 Show how status and size differences affect group performance.

45) According to status characteristics theory, which of the following factors does not determine status?

A) Control over the resources needed by the group B) Contribution to goals C) Ability to conform to group norms D) Personality E) Talent Answer: C Explanation: According to status characteristics theory, status tends to derive from one of three sources: the power a person wields over others; a person's ability to contribute to a group's goals; and an individual's personal characteristics (special talent, intelligence, money, or a friendly personality).

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.5 Show how status and size differences affect group performance.

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46) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of status on conformity pressure?

A) High-status individuals are often given less freedom to deviate from norms than are other group members.

B) People in high-status jobs have especially negative reactions to social pressure exerted by people in low-status jobs.

C) Lower-status people are better able to resist conformity pressures than their high-status peers.

D) Groups exert equal conformity pressure on all individuals regardless of their status.

E) As compared to high-status members, low-status members are given a wider range of discretion as long as their activities aren't severely detrimental to group goal achievement.

Answer: B Explanation: High-status individuals are often given more freedom to deviate from norms than are other group members. People in high-status jobs (such as physicians, lawyers, or executives) have especially negative reactions to social pressure exerted by people in low-status jobs.

Physicians actively resist administrative decisions made by lower-ranking insurance company employees.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.5 Show how status and size differences affect group performance.

47) Groups of approximately or more members are good for gaining diverse input.

A) twelve B) seven C) four D) three E) ten Answer: A Explanation: Groups with a dozen or more members are good for gaining diverse input.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.5 Show how status and size differences affect group performance.

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48) Which of the following terms indicates the tendency of individuals to spend less effort when working collectively?

A) Groupthink B) Collective efficacy C) Social loafing D) Groupshift E) Clustering Answer: C Explanation: Social loafing is the tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working in a group than when working individually. Group performance increases with group size, but the addition of new members has diminishing returns on productivity.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.5 Show how status and size differences affect group performance.

49) Which of the following is not an effective means of countering social loafing?

A) Increase intergroup competition B) Create virtual groups C) Engage in peer evaluations D) Structure work so that each member's contribution can be identified E) Select members who have high motivation and prefer to work in groups Answer: B Explanation: Simply creating virtual groups does not address the social loafing problem. All the other options are ways to prevent social loafing.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.5 Show how status and size differences affect group performance.

50) Chang is the manager of the marketing department of an organization. He is restructuring his department and is creating teams to increase the effectiveness of his department. He recognizes that the size of groups impacts their overall behavior and effectiveness. The first team that Chang forms is a new product marketing group. What would be the better group size to do something productive?

A) Two B) Five C) Seven D) Ten E) Over twelve Answer: C Explanation: Smaller groups of about seven members are better at doing something productive.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 9.5 Show how status and size differences affect group performance.

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51) Most likely, what would be the size of the group that is expected to get diverse input on the effectiveness of social media as an advertising platform?

A) Two B) Five C) Seven D) Ten E) Over twelve Answer: E Explanation: Groups with a dozen or more members are good for gaining diverse input, such as the effectiveness of social media as an advertising platform.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 9.5 Show how status and size differences affect group performance.

52) Julio and Waylin both work at a trendy uptown clothing store and were hired at the same time. Julio was recently promoted over Waylin (who is balding), even though Julio often misses work. Which element of status explains this occurrence?

A) Power a person wields over others B) Person's ability to contribute to group goals C) An individual's personal characteristics D) Group interactions E) The size of the organization Answer: C Explanation: Even though he appears to not be as dedicated an employee, Julio must be better looking than Waylin, which is beneficial to the mission of the organization.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 9.5 Show how status and size differences affect group performance.

53) is consistent with individualistic cultures.

A) Brainstorming B) Nominal group technique C) Social loafing D) Psychological contract E) Group cohesiveness Answer: C Explanation: Social loafing has a Western bias and is consistent with individualistic cultures, such as Canada and the United States which are dominated by self-interest Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.5 Show how status and size differences affect group performance.

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54) directly challenges the assumption that the productivity of the group as a whole should at least equal the sum of the productivity of the individuals in it, no matter what the group size.

A) Self-concordance B) Emotional contagion C) Social loafing D) Negative offset E) Emotional labor Answer: C Explanation: Social loafing refers to the tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working collectively than alone. When the productivity of the group is less than the sum of the productivity of the individuals in it, then it implies that somebody in the group is expending less effort than they should.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.5 Show how status and size differences affect group performance.

55) Low-status groups, perhaps in response to discrimination, are likely to leverage compete for higher status.

A) ingroup fighting B) outgroup fighting C) citizenship behaviors D) outgroup favoritism E) ingroup favoritism Answer: E Explanation: Leveraging ingroup favoritism allows individuals or groups to improve their status, usually though ingratiation.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.5 Show how status and size differences affect group performance.

to

56) Status is a legally defined position or rank given to groups or group members by others.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Status is a socially defined position or rank given to groups or group members by others. Status permeates every society.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.5 Show how status and size differences affect group performance.

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57) According to status characteristics theory, status tends to derive from one of three sources.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: According to status characteristics theory, status tends to derive from: (1) the power a person wields over others, (2) a person's ability to contribute to a group's goals, and (3) an individual's personal characteristics.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.5 Show how status and size differences affect group performance.

58) It is important for group members to believe the status hierarchy is equitable.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Since perceived inequity creates disequilibrium, which inspires various types of corrective behaviors, it is important for group members to believe the status hierarchy is equitable.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.5 Show how status and size differences affect group performance.

59) What do we know about status and stigmatization?

Answer: Although it is clear that status affects the way people perceive others, the status of people with whom one is affiliated can also affect others' view. People who are stigmatized can "infect" others with their stigma. This "stigma by association" effect can result in negative opinions and evaluations of the person affiliated with the stigmatized individual, even if the association is brief and purely coincidental.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.5 Show how status and size differences affect group performance.

60) What do we know about status and group interaction?

Answer: People tend to become more assertive when they seek to attain higher status in a group. They speak out more often, criticize more, state more commands, and interrupt others more often. Conversely, some evidence suggests that those who do have higher status tend to conceal it to promote group harmony. Lower status members participate less actively in group discussions; when they possess insights that could aid the group, failure to fully utilize these members reduces the group's overall performance.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 9.5 Show how status and size differences affect group performance.

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61) Andy, Jamie, Carlos, and Neha are working on a product development group at Ambys, Inc. Andy, Jamie, and Carlos notice that Neha contributes very little to the group's activities. They find out from colleagues that Neha works hard and is good at what she does when working on her own. What problem does the group face and how should Andy, Jamie, and Carlos address this situation?

Answer: What Neha is exhibiting is called social loafing—the tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working collectively than when alone. To prevent Neha's social loafing, the group has to get together and (1) set group goals, so the group has a common purpose to strive toward; (2) increase intergroup competition, which focuses on the shared group outcome; (3) engage in peer evaluations; (4) select members who have high motivation and prefer to work in groups; and (5) base group rewards in part on each member's unique contributions.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Application LO: 9.5 Show how status and size differences affect group performance.

62) How does group size affect a group's behavior?

Answer: Group size does affect the group's overall behavior, but the effect depends on the outcomes one is interested in. Large groups–with a dozen or more members–are good for gaining diverse input. So if the goal of the group is fact-finding, larger groups should be more effective.

On the other hand, smaller groups are better at doing something productive with that input.

Groups of approximately seven members, therefore, tend to be more effective for taking action.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.5 Show how status and size differences affect group performance.

63) Which of the following terms indicates the degree to which group members are attracted to one another and are motivated to stay in the group?

A) Cohesiveness B) Integration C) Sociability D) Reliability E) Interdependence Answer: A Explanation: Cohesiveness describes the degree to which group members are attracted to each other and are motivated to stay in the group. Cohesiveness is important because it affects group productivity.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.6 Describe how issues of cohesiveness and diversity can be integrated for group effectiveness.

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64) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of group cohesiveness and performance norms on group productivity?

A) When cohesiveness is low and performance norms are also low, productivity will be high.

B) The productivity of the group is affected by the performance norms but not by the cohesiveness of the group.

C) If cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low, productivity will be high.

D) If cohesiveness is low and performance norms are high, productivity will be low.

E) When both cohesiveness and performance norms are high, productivity will be high.

Answer: E Explanation: Studies consistently show that the relationship between cohesiveness and productivity depends on the group's performance-related norms. If performance-related norms are high, a cohesive group will be more productive than will a less cohesive group. If cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low, productivity will be low. If cohesiveness is low and performance norms are high, productivity increases, but less than in the high-cohesiveness/high-norms situation. When cohesiveness and performance-related norms are both low, productivity tends to fall into the low-to-moderate range.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.6 Describe how issues of cohesiveness and diversity can be integrated for group effectiveness.

65) Which of the following is not likely to encourage group cohesiveness?

A) Stimulating competition with other groups B) Increasing the size of the group C) Obtaining agreement upon the established goals D) Increasing the group's status and the perceived difficulty of attaining membership E) Physically isolating the group Answer: B Explanation: Making smaller groups encourages group cohesiveness.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.6 Describe how issues of cohesiveness and diversity can be integrated for group effectiveness.

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66) Alberto is working with a group of seven people to coordinate the merger of his company with another company in the same industry. Everyone in Alberto's group is highly qualified, offers relevant information, and has high norms. Every group member works on their regular responsibilities and the group meets for thirty minutes once a week. The group seems to be slow at outlining a definitive plan for the merger. With the information provided, what would be the fastest and best way for Alberto to increase cohesiveness and productivity?

A) Increase the time members spend together B) Stimulate competition within the group C) Give rewards to individual members D) Increase the size of the group E) Invite more members into the group Answer: A Explanation: If both cohesiveness and performance norms are high, the productivity tends to be high. The group is most likely not cohesive because they don't spend enough time together. They work on their regular job responsibilities for the major part of the week and only meet for thirty minutes a week. Alberto should immediately increase the time the group spends together.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 9.6 Describe how issues of cohesiveness and diversity can be integrated for group effectiveness.

67) Which of the following factors corresponds to surface-level diversity in groups?

A) Race, ethnicity, and gender B) Roles, status, and power C) Ability, intelligence, and personality D) Underlying attitudes, values, and opinions E) Security, self-esteem, and affiliation Answer: A Explanation: Race, ethnicity, and gender are examples of surface-level diversity in groups.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.6 Describe how issues of cohesiveness and diversity can be integrated for group effectiveness.

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68) Differences in skills, abilities, or other characteristics needed for the job are called diversity.

A) organizational B) social C) functional D) occupational E) corporate Answer: C Explanation: Functional diversity refers to the differences in skills, abilities, or other characteristics needed for the job.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.6 Describe how issues of cohesiveness and diversity can be integrated for group effectiveness.

69) refer(s) to the perceived divisions that split groups into two or more subgroups based on individual differences such as sex, race, age, work experience, language, and education.

A) Faultlines B) Norms C) Outcomes D) Diversity E) Externalities Answer: A Explanation: One possible negative effect of diverse teams is the presence of faultlines— perceived divisions that split the group into subgroups based on commonalities. Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.6 Describe how issues of cohesiveness and diversity can be integrated for group effectiveness.

70) One way to increase cohesiveness in groups is to stimulate competition with other groups.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: One of the seven ways to encourage group cohesiveness is to stimulate competition with other groups.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.6 Describe how issues of cohesiveness and diversity can be integrated for group effectiveness.

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71) There is a strong link between actual diversity and perceived diversity in groups.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: There is only a modest link between actual diversity and perceived diversity in groups, and some research suggests that members seek to balance a need to belong and a need to be distinctive in group membership.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.6 Describe how issues of cohesiveness and diversity can be integrated for group effectiveness.

72) Surface-level diversity (e.g., gender, race) increases group conflict.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Surface-level diversity appears to increase group conflict, especially in the early stages of a group's tenure, which often lowers group morale and raises dropout rates.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.6 Describe how issues of cohesiveness and diversity can be integrated for group effectiveness.

73) How can faultlines be addressed or harnessed for good within organizations?

Answer: Faultlines are perceived divisions that split groups into two or more subgroups based on individual differences such as sex, race, age, work experience, language, and education.

Research on faultlines has shown that splits are generally detrimental to group functioning and performance.

Studies show that problems stemming from diversity and strong faultlines may be overcome when their roles are crosscut, the group is given a common goal to strive for, and similar pairs are recruited within a diverse group. Altogether, forced collaboration between members of subgroups and a focus on accomplishing a goal may boost performance in some organizations.

Pro-diversity beliefs and open-mindedness norms also help.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.6 Describe how issues of cohesiveness and diversity can be integrated for group effectiveness.

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74) Which of the following is a weakness of group decision making?

A) Group decision making is time consuming.

B) Groups lead to decreased acceptance of a solution.

C) Groups have nonconformity pressures.

D) Groups tend to generate incomplete information.

E) Groups offer decreased diversity of views.

Answer: A Explanation: Group decisions are time-consuming because groups typically take more time to reach a solution, especially for virtual groups.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

75) Which of the following statements is true regarding group decision making?

A) If creativity is important, then individuals tend to be more effective than groups.

B) Group decision making tends to decrease the acceptance of the solution.

C) Group decisions are typically less time consuming than individual decisions.

D) Group decisions are generally less accurate than the decisions of the average individual in a group.

E) Groups generate more complete information and knowledge than individuals.

Answer: E Explanation: Group decisions are time consuming because groups typically take more time to reach a solution. Group decisions are generally more accurate than the decisions of the average individual in a group. If creativity is important, groups tend to be more effective. Groups lead to increased acceptance of a solution. Groups generate more complete information and knowledge than individuals.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

76) The phenomenon of describes situations in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views.

A) social loafing B) groupshift C) groupthink D) group polarization E) satisficing Answer: C Explanation: Groupthink relates to norms and describes situations in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

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77) In discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution, group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold. This phenomenon is called .

A) self-concordance B) groupshift C) satisficing D) emotional labor E) groupthink Answer: B Explanation: In discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution, group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold. This phenomenon is called groupshift. Group discussion leads members toward a more extreme view of the position they already held.

Conservatives become more cautious, and more aggressive types take on more risk.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

78) If you ever felt like speaking up in a meeting, a classroom, or an informal group but decided against it then the reason behind it could be .

A) self-efficacy B) positivity offset C) groupthink D) self-concordance E) groupshift Answer: C Explanation: The phenomenon of groupthink describes situations in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views. So if you felt like speaking up in a meeting, a classroom, or an informal group but decided against it then the reason behind it could be groupthink.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

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79) Sandy, Lupe, and Aisha are on the board of directors for an area non-profit organization. At a recent meeting, guest David delivered a rousing speech on how group leadership is often too complex and that non-profits could often be better served by a CEO and no board of directors.

Sandy emphatically disagreed with David stating that not having the board could open the organization up to massive levels of corruption. Lupe agreed with David and feels that maybe the organization might do better if only one of the ladies were in charge, mainly herself. Aisha chose not to comment on the matter, thus leading Sandy to assume that she agreed with her. It could be said that Sandy is suffering from .

A) groupthink B) groupshift C) group polarization D) both groupthink and groupshift E) groupthink, groupshift, and group polarization Answer: D Explanation: Sandy is suffering first from groupthink because she is assuming, due to her silence, that Aisha agrees with her. Sandy is also suffering from groupshift because her views have become very extreme due to David's actions.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

80) Sandy, Lupe, and Aisha are on the board of directors for an area non-profit organization. At a recent meeting, guest David delivered a rousing speech on how group leadership is often too complex and that non-profits could often be better served by a CEO and no board of directors.

Sandy emphatically disagreed with David stating that not having the board could open the organization up to massive levels of corruption. Lupe agreed with David and feels that maybe the organization might do better if only one of the ladies were in charge, mainly herself. Aisha chose not to comment on the matter, thus leading Sandy to assume that she agreed with her. It could be said that Sandy and Lupe are suffering from .

A) groupthink B) groupshift C) group polarization D) both groupthink and groupshift E) all three—groupthink, groupshift, and group polarization Answer: B Explanation: Sandy and Lupe are both suffering from groupshift in their dramatic change in beliefs, caused mainly by their being influenced by David. The thoughts of the two women have dramatically polarized the individual beliefs of the group.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

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81) Which of the following is a strength of group decision making?

A) Groups generate more complete information and knowledge.

B) There are conformity pressures in groups.

C) Groups offer clear accountability for decisions.

D) Group decisions facilitate ambiguous responsibility.

E) Group decisions are not very time consuming.

Answer: A Explanation: One of the strengths of group decision making is that they generate more complete information and knowledge. By aggregating the resources of several individuals, groups bring more input as well as heterogeneity into the decision process (as long as the information is reliable).

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

82) Your organization has recently started using group decision making. You are most likely to observe that .

A) group decision making is slower than individual decision making B) group decision making leads to decreased acceptance of the solution C) groups generate less information and knowledge than individuals D) group decisions are less creative than individual decisions E) group decisions are more accurate than the judgments of the most accurate individual in the group Answer: A Explanation: Groups generate more complete information and knowledge. Group decisions are time consuming because groups typically take more time to reach a solution. Group decisions are generally more accurate than the decisions of the average individual in a group but less accurate than the judgments of the most accurate. In terms of speed, individuals are superior. If creativity is important, groups tend to be more effective.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

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83) You have observed that the group tends to come to consensus very quickly and there appears to be an illusion of unanimity. You conclude that they may be suffering from .

A) negative affect B) groupshift C) cognitive dissonance D) groupthink E) positivity offset Answer: D Explanation: Groupthink relates to norms and describes situations in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

84) Which of the following is not a group decision-making technique?

A) Cognitive mapping B) Brainstorming C) Nominal group technique D) Group polarization E) Both cognitive mapping and group polarization Answer: E Explanation: While brainstorming and nominal group techniques are group decision making techniques, cognitive mapping and group polarization are not.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

85) While using which of the following type of group decision-making techniques is a group more likely to experience increased groupthink?

A) Interacting group B) Brainstorming C) Video conference D) Nominal group technique E) Electronic meeting Answer: A Explanation: In interacting groups, members meet face to face and rely on both verbal and nonverbal interaction to communicate. But interacting groups often censor themselves and pressure individual members toward conformity of opinion, generating fewer ideas.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

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86) Patricia needs as many creative ideas as she can get for the new advertising campaign, and her small agency doesn't have a lot of money for high-tech meeting facilities. Given the information provided, which meeting technique will provide the highest number of quality ideas?

A) Interacting groups B) Brainstorming C) Nominal group technique D) Electronic meeting E) Social interaction Answer: C Explanation: The nominal group technique restricts discussion or interpersonal communication during the decision-making process. Nominal group technique is an inexpensive means for generating a large number of ideas.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

87) Maya just got out of a meeting. She is extremely frustrated because nothing got done and now she has to deal with workplace drama. Ming is threatening to quit because the group members severely criticized her idea without even giving her a chance to complete her point. The entire meeting turned into a conflict management session for Maya. Which of the following meeting techniques was most likely used by Maya?

A) Interacting group B) Brainstorming C) Nominal group D) Electronic meeting E) Video conferencing Answer: A Explanation: Interacting groups often pressure individual members toward conformity of opinion. Brainstorming and the nominal group technique have been proposed as ways to reduce problems inherent in the traditional interacting group. Brainstorming can overcome the pressures for conformity that dampen creativity by encouraging any and all alternatives while withholding criticism.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

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88) is the most common form of group decision making.

A) Electronic meeting B) Brainstorming C) Nominal group technique D) An interacting group E) Delphi technique Answer: D Explanation: The most common form of group decision making takes place in interacting groups. In interacting groups, members meet face to face and rely on both verbal and nonverbal interaction to communicate.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

89) In this group discussion technique, the group leader states the problem in a clear manner so all participants understand. Members then freewheel as many alternatives as they can in a given length of time. No criticism is allowed, and all alternatives are recorded for later discussion and analysis. One idea stimulates others, and judgments of even the most bizarre suggestions are withheld until later to encourage group members to "think the unusual." Identify the decision-making technique in the discussion.

A) Group polarization B) Morphological analysis C) Mind mapping D) Electronic meeting E) Brainstorming Answer: E Explanation: Brainstorming can overcome the pressures for conformity that dampen creativity by encouraging any and all alternatives while withholding criticism. During brainstorming, one idea stimulates others, and judgments of even the most bizarre suggestions are withheld until later to encourage group members to "think the unusual."

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

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90) Which of the following statements is not true regarding brainstorming?

A) Brainstorming withholds criticism of ideas.

B) Brainstorming overcomes the pressure for conformity.

C) Brainstorming increases creativity.

D) In brainstorming, members freewheel as many alternatives to the problem in a given length of time.

E) In brainstorming, groups often censor themselves.

Answer: E Explanation: Brainstorming can overcome the pressures for conformity that dampen creativity by encouraging any and all alternatives while withholding criticism. Censoring of ideas is avoided because ideas are not evaluated when they are generated.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

91) Huberto needs an instruction manual for his new product. He needs a small team of technical writers to work together closely to rapidly write the manual. He needs them to communicate ideas quickly, creatively, and affordably. Which of the following group techniques should Huberto consider?

A) Nominal and virtual B) Nominal and interacting C) Brainstorming and global D) Electronic and interacting E) Interacting and brainstorming Answer: E Explanation: Huberto needs a group with high creativity, high cohesion, and low expense. He should choose either interacting or brainstorming techniques to get his task completed. Nominal techniques, although high in creativity and affordability, are slow and only moderately cohesive.

Electronic techniques are slow and expensive and have zero cohesion.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

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92) You decide that your company's choice of which new product to manufacture needs to have widespread acceptance and that this decision needs to be of the highest quality possible. Having read the literature on decision making, you believe that this choice needs to be made by a group of your best managers. You have decided to use the nominal group technique. Which of the following statements is true about this method?

A) This method is good for building group cohesiveness.

B) This method is good for processing ideas rapidly.

C) This method is good for encouraging independent thinking.

D) This method is not an inexpensive means for generating a large number of ideas.

E) This method is good for achieving commitment to a solution.

Answer: C Explanation: Nominal group technique is a group decision-making method in which individual members meet face to face to pool their judgments in a systematic but independent fashion. It does not restrict independent thinking.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

93) You are likely to select the nominal group technique over brainstorming because .

A) nominal group technique involves a great deal of face-to-face interaction B) brainstorming encourages severe criticism to all ideas C) research generally shows nominal groups outperform brainstorming groups D) brainstorming decreases group cohesiveness E) during brainstorming sessions, group members feel high pressure for conformity Answer: C Explanation: The chief advantage of the nominal group technique is that it permits a group to meet formally but does not restrict independent thinking, as does an interacting group. Research generally shows nominal groups outperform brainstorming groups.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

94) While groups offer increased diversity of views, they lead to decreased acceptance of a solution.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Groups lead to increased acceptance of a solution. During decision making, members are more likely to be accepting when dissenting opinions are framed as debates rather than disagreements.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

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95) There are conformity pressures in groups.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: The desire by group members to be accepted and considered an asset to the group can squash any overt disagreement and cause group members to settle for less.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

96) Group decisions suffer from ambiguous responsibility.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: In an individual decision, it is clear who is accountable for the outcome. In a group decision, the responsibility of any single member is diluted.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

97) The most common form of group decision making takes place in interacting groups.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: In interacting groups (the most common form of group decision making), members rely on both verbal and nonverbal interactions to communicate.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

98) In group decision making, brainstorming can overcome the pressures for conformity that dampen creativity.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: By encouraging any and all alternatives while withholding criticism, brainstorming overcomes the pressures for conformity in groups that dampen creativity.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

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99) Why is the nominal group technique considered an effective method?

Answer: One of the ways to reduce problems inherent in the traditional interacting group is the nominal group technique. This is a group decision making method in which individual members meet face to face to pool their judgments in a systematic but independent fashion. Here, before any discussion takes place, each member independently writes down ideas about the problem.

Each member then presents one idea to the group. No discussion takes place until all ideas have been presented and recorded. The group discusses all the ideas for clarity and evaluates them.

Each group member silently and independently rank-orders the ideas. The idea with the highest aggregate ranking determines the final decision. This is an effective method to enable independent thinking by group members.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

100) Explain the following terms: "groupthink" and "groupshift."

Answer: Groupthink is related to norms. It describes situations in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views.

Groupthink is a disease that attacks many groups and can dramatically hinder their performance.

Groupshift indicates that in discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution, group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions that they hold. What appears to happen in groups is that the discussion leads members toward a more extreme view of the position they already held. Conservatives become more cautious, and more aggressive types take on more risk.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 9.7 Contrast the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

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Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 11E (Robbins) Chapter 9 Understanding Work Teams 1) Research has shown that having a positive experience working within a team can also influence one's .

A) attitudes toward diversity B) abilities C) job satisfaction D) views on management E) personal decision making Answer: E Explanation: While having a positive experience may allow specific individuals to experience any of the choices, research has shown that working within a team introduces a collaborative mindset into one's personal decision-making processes.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 10.1 Contrast groups and teams.

2) One of the dangers of teams is that .

A) they are less flexible than traditional departments B) they take time to assemble, deploy, refocus, and disband C) team members can be swayed by errors in decision-making processes D) they emphasize the personal mindset in decision-making E) There are no dangers of teams.

Answer: C Explanation: Team members, being human, can be swayed by errors in decision-making processes and dynamics that can lead them astray from the best decisions.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.1 Contrast groups and teams.

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3) Which of the following statements best defines a work group?

A) A work group's performance is generally greater than the sum of its inputs from individual members.

B) A work group interacts primarily to share information, rather than to engage in work that requires joint effort.

C) A work group consists of 5 or more people who work collaboratively.

D) A work group has a positive synergy and no active group dynamics, resulting in greater outputs.

E) A work group is a group composed of 10 or more people who belong to the same department.

Answer: B Explanation: A group consists of two or more individuals, interacting and interdependent, who have come together to achieve particular objectives. A work group is defined as a group that interacts primarily to share information and to make decisions to help each group member perform within his or her area of responsibility. They have no need or opportunity to engage in collective work that requires joint effort. Their performance is merely the summation of each group member's individual contribution. There is no positive synergy that would create an overall level of performance greater than the sum of the inputs. With both work groups and work teams, there are often behavioral expectations of members, collective normalization efforts, active group dynamics, and some level of decision-making (even if just informally about the scope of membership).

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.1 Contrast groups and teams.

4) Which of the following statements is true regarding a work team?

A) Today, work teams are rarely used in organizations.

B) Work teams are less flexible than traditional departments.

C) Work teams generate positive synergy through coordinated effort.

D) Work teams are less responsive to changing events than are traditional departments.

E) Work teams impede employee participation in decision making.

Answer: C Explanation: Today most organizations use teams. Teams are more flexible and responsive to changing events than traditional departments or other forms of permanent groupings. A work team generates positive synergy through coordinated effort. Teams facilitate employee participation in operating decisions.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.1 Contrast groups and teams.

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5) results in a level of performance that is greater than the sum of the individual inputs.

A) Synergy B) Positive affect C) Emotional labor D) Cognitive dissonance E) Emotional dissonance Answer: A Explanation: A work team generates positive synergy through coordinated effort. The individual efforts result in a level of performance greater than the sum of those individual inputs.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.1 Contrast groups and teams.

6) Which of the following is true of work teams?

A) A team consists of two or more people who work independently, with distinct goals and strategies.

B) A team works over some time period to accomplish common goals related to some task-oriented purpose.

C) Groups are formed with a specific purpose in mind, while teams do not have a specific goal.

D) The members of a team operate relatively independently of each other, and other members are not essential to their accomplishment of goals.

E) Interactions among members within teams are more personal and informal than interactions between people in groups.

Answer: B Explanation: A work team consists of two or more people who work interdependently over some time period to accomplish common goals related to some task-oriented purpose.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 10.1 Contrast groups and teams.

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7) Work teams differ from groups because .

A) teams have no limits on the number of members, while groups have a restricted membership B) members of teams work independently of each other, while those in groups show greater dependence on each other C) members of teams work toward individual goals that may or may not be related, while groups have a common goal D) members of teams have a specific task-related purpose, while groups do not E) teams have no fixed duration, while groups have a fixed duration Answer: D Explanation: A work team consists of two or more people who work interdependently over some time period to accomplish common goals related to some task-oriented purpose.

Interactions among members within teams revolve around a deeper dependence on one another than the interactions within groups and occur with a specific task-related purpose in mind.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 10.1 Contrast groups and teams.

8) Which of the following statements is not true regarding a work team?

A) A work team generates positive synergy through coordination.

B) Work teams look for members with complementary skills.

C) The goal of a work team is collective performance.

D) Accountability in a work team is at the individual level.

E) The performance level of the work team is greater than the summation of each group member's individual contribution.

Answer: D Explanation: Accountability in a work team is both at the individual and at the mutual level.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.1 Contrast groups and teams.

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9) Laski United is a rock group that has been around for 5 years creating music in their studio and going on tours to play their music. They had just had their first #1 hit. This band would be best described as a .

A) work group B) work team C) problem-solving team D) cross-functional team E) self-managed team Answer: B Explanation: Work teams generate positive synergy through coordinated efforts. In an effort to achieve success, the band has had to realize that their collected efforts are more important than their individual efforts.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 10.1 Contrast groups and teams.

10) After a successful 20-year career as a rock band, and 10 years apart, Laski United has reunited for a tour. Their lead singer, Chuck Corcoran, has returned to the band after a fairly successful solo album. In this scenario, Laski United could be most likely classified as a .

A) work group B) work team C) problem-solving team D) cross-functional team E) self-managed team Answer: A Explanation: Though when they started out, they were probably a team, at this point, the members are functioning as a group, simply coming together to make money.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 10.1 Contrast groups and teams.

11) Teams can quickly assemble, deploy, refocus, and disband.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Teams are more flexible and responsive to changing events than traditional departments or other forms of permanent groupings. This flexibility shows in the fact that they can quickly assemble, deploy, refocus, and disband.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.1 Contrast groups and teams.

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12) The fact that organizations have embraced teamwork means that teams are always effective.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: While there a number of benefits to teams, it does not necessarily mean that teams are always effective.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.1 Contrast groups and teams.

13) Functionally, groups and teams are often used to refer to the same thing.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: According to some scholars, groups and teams do not mean the same thing.

However, functionally, they are often used to refer to the same thing.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.1 Contrast groups and teams.

14) A work team is a collection of individuals doing their work, albeit with some interaction and/or dependency.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: The statement is true of work groups and not work teams. A work team generates positive synergy through coordination.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.1 Contrast groups and teams.

15) In work groups, the accountability is at the individual level.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: In contrast to work teams, where the accountability is at both the individual and mutual levels, in work groups accountability is at the individual level.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.1 Contrast groups and teams.

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16) How do work groups and work teams differ on goals, accountability, and skills?

Answer: While both work groups and work teams involve a collection of individuals working together, they differ on key parameters. While the goal of a work group is to share information, the goal of a work team is collective performance. There is individual accountability in a work group. In contrast, there is both an individual as well as mutual accountability in a work team.

This is because in a work group, performance is merely a summation of each member's individual contribution. In a work team, however, positive synergy is created through coordination so that the sum is greater than the collection of individual efforts. Finally, individuals bring their random and varied skills to a work group, while effective work teams look for complementary skills in their members.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.1 Contrast groups and teams.

17) The Accurate Watch Company employs a full-time quality control team that meets face to face every day and hand-checks every manufactured watch and clock. The team is most likely to be a team.

A) cross-functional B) virtual C) self-managed D) problem-solving E) task Answer: D Explanation: In a problem-solving team, members share ideas or suggest how work processes and methods can be improved; they rarely have the authority to unilaterally implement any of their suggestions. Here, the team is put together to address quality control problems.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

18) Which of these teams can only make recommendations?

A) Problem-solving B) Virtual C) Self-managed D) Cross-functional E) Both problem-solving and virtual Answer: A Explanation: Problem-solving teams only make recommendations. They typically do not have the authority to unilaterally implement their suggestions.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

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19) Which of the following types of teams is most likely to be assembled to improve the efficiency of a company's production process?

A) Cross-functional B) Problem-solving C) Self-managed D) Critical E) Task Answer: B Explanation: Problem-solving teams share ideas or suggest how work processes and methods (such as quality, efficiency, and the work environment) can be improved. They rarely have the authority to unilaterally implement any of their suggestions.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

20) teams are groups of employees who perform highly related or interdependent jobs and take on many of the responsibilities of their former supervisors.

A) Critical B) Self-managed work C) Cross-functional D) Problem-solving E) Task Answer: B Explanation: Self-managed work teams are groups of employees who perform highly related or interdependent jobs and take on many of the responsibilities of their former supervisors.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

21) When Omega Inc. puts together a team of assistant managers from marketing, finance, operations, and production, what type of a team are they forming?

A) Problem-solving B) Self-managed C) Cross-functional D) Task E) Rapid action Answer: C Explanation: Cross-functional teams are teams made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level (e.g., all assistant managers) but different work (e.g., functions) areas, who come together to accomplish a task.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

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22) Which of the following statements is true regarding self-managed work teams?

A) Self-managed work teams typically consist of forty to fifty employees.

B) Self-managed work teams typically manage conflicts well.

C) Members of self-managed work teams typically report lower job satisfaction.

D) Self-managed work teams are typically composed of employees from different departments who work independent of each other.

E) In the case of self-managed work teams, supervisory positions take on decreased importance.

Answer: E Explanation: Self-managed work teams are groups of employees (typically ten to fifteen in number) who perform highly related or interdependent jobs and take on many of the responsibilities of their former supervisors. Supervisory positions take on decreased importance and are sometimes even eliminated. Self-managed teams do not typically manage conflicts well.

Members of this team report higher levels of job satisfaction than other individuals.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

23) teams are an effective way to allow people from diverse areas within an organization to exchange information, develop new ideas, solve problems, and coordinate complex projects.

A) Self-managed B) Problem-solving C) Cross-functional D) Task E) Command Answer: C Explanation: Cross-functional teams are teams made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level but different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task. They are an effective means of allowing people from diverse areas to exchange information, develop new ideas, solve problems, and coordinate complex projects.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

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24) The Boeing Company created a team made up of twelve employees who performed highly related jobs and gave the team some supervisory responsibilities. This team is most likely to be an example of a team.

A) command B) cross-functional C) self-managed D) problem-solving E) task Answer: C Explanation: Self-managed work teams are groups of ten to fifteen people who perform highly related or interdependent jobs and take on some supervisory responsibilities.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

25) Which of the following statements is true regarding a cross-functional team?

A) A cross-functional team is made up of employees from different hierarchical levels.

B) A cross-functional team is made up of employees from the same department.

C) Today, cross-functional teams are rarely used in well-established organizations.

D) In the case of a cross-functional team, the early stages of development are typically very short.

E) Cross-functional teams are used for developing new ideas and coordinating complex projects.

Answer: E Explanation: Cross-functional teams are made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level but different work areas. Today cross-functional teams are widely used in several organizations. Cross-functional teams are an effective means of developing new ideas and coordinating complex projects. Their early stages of development are often long, as members learn to work with diversity and complexity.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

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26) The Jupiter company has offices all over the United States and in several Latin American countries. What is the best option for The Jupiter Company to create teams?

A) Virtual teams B) Self-managed teams C) Task teams D) Problem-solving teams E) Command teams Answer: A Explanation: Virtual teams use computer technology to unite physically dispersed members and achieve a common goal.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

27) You are vice-president of a division of a large, multi-national company that makes electronic equipment for consumers and the military. Your company has several teams and there are several managers managing those teams. Juanita, the head of business development, has created a team of seven vice-presidents from various departments who meet for three hours a week to discuss new market entry. This is an example of a team.

A) problem-solving B) self-managed C) cross-functional D) virtual E) task-resolution Answer: C Explanation: Cross-functional teams have employees from about the same hierarchical level (such as vice-presidents), but from different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

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28) Eva is not getting the results she needs from her data base administration team. She believes that this problem is occurring because the administration team is a virtual team. Which of the following is one of the things that Eva should do to create an effective virtual team?

A) Conduct training for improving interpersonal skills.

B) Allow more independence among members.

C) Monitor progress of the team closely.

D) Include peer evaluation in the appraisal system.

E) Avoid publicizing team successes company wide.

Answer: C Explanation: For virtual teams to be effective, management should ensure that (1) trust is established among members; (2) team progress is monitored closely; and (3) the efforts and products of the team are publicized throughout the organization (so the team does not become invisible). The members should be highly monitored, and less independent. Training related to interpersonal skills will not be very effective in the case of a virtual team. Peer evaluation is not related to improving effectiveness of a virtual team.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

29) Aisha is your director of sales. Since her team members are located in Europe, Asia, and North America, she has decided to use video conferencing facilities to tie her team members together in order to develop a marketing strategy for a new product line. This is an example of a team.

A) problem-solving B) self-managed C) cross-functional D) virtual E) task-resolution Answer: D Explanation: Virtual teams use computer technology to unite physically dispersed members and achieve a common goal. Aisha has created a virtual team.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

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30) Which type of team is permanent, meets at a regular time, and solves problems?

A) Action teams B) Quality-control teams C) Cross functional teams D) Virtual teams E) Manufacturing teams Answer: B Explanation: Quality-control teams are a type of problem-solving team which originated in the manufacturing world but have become common in many other fields, including the medical field.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

31) Cross-functional teams are not easy to manage because power is shifted due to the need for different expertise in different areas. What does this situation create?

A) Counterproductive work behaviors B) Virtual teams C) Leadership ambiguity D) Lack of diversity E) Citizenship behaviors Answer: C Explanation: Conflict can arise when power is shifted due to changing needs of expertise.

Creating a climate of trust can aid in reducing undue conflict.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

32) Leadership is especially important in , in which different teams coordinate their efforts to produce a desired outcome.

A) technical teams B) self-managed teams C) problem-solving teams D) management teams E) multiteam systems Answer: E Explanation: Leadership is especially important in multiteam systems. Here, leaders need to empower teams by delegating responsibility to them, and then play the role of facilitator, making sure the teams work together rather than against one another.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

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33) Lamar, your director of manufacturing, has created a team of eleven employees from quality control. Lamar gives the team members the responsibility of planning and scheduling their own work, and making operating decisions. Also, members of this team evaluate each other's performance. This is an example of a team.

A) problem-solving B) self-managed C) cross-functional D) virtual E) task-resolution Answer: B Explanation: Self-managed work teams are groups of employees who perform highly related or interdependent jobs and take on many of the responsibilities of their former supervisors. These tasks are planning, assigning tasks to members, making operating decisions, taking action on problems, and working with suppliers and customers.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

34) Your company has recently landed a contract to design and manufacture a new state-of-the-art electronic device for the military. This will be a very complex project, requiring many different types of skills. Which of the following types of teams is most suited for the project?

A) Problem-solving B) Self-managed C) Cross-functional D) Virtual E) Task-resolution Answer: C Explanation: Cross-functional teams are teams made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level but different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task. They are an effective means of allowing people from diverse areas to exchange information, develop new ideas, solve problems, and coordinate complex projects such as this one.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

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35) Research suggests that when members feel confident to without fear of punishment, can be beneficial and boost team performance.

A) speak up; training sessions B) complain; training sessions C) complain; conflict D) speak up; conflict E) speak up; gossip Answer: D Explanation: Disputes can often lead to lower group performance; however, a strong feeling of psychological safety can increase team performance.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

36) Quality-controls teams are an example of problem-solving teams.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Problem-solving teams are set up to address organizational problems, one of which is typically improving quality of the products and/or the processes.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

37) Self-managed work teams are employees from about the same hierarchical level, but from different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Cross-functional teams are employees from about the same hierarchical level, but from different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

38) Virtual teams use technology to unite physically dispersed members to achieve a common goal.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: While most teams do their work face-to-face, virtual teams use technology to unite physically dispersed members to achieve a common goal.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

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39) Cross-functional teams share a superordinate goal.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Multiteam systems share a superordinate goal—they are often referred to as a "team of teams."

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

40) Are self-managed work teams effective?

Answer: Research on the effectiveness of self-managed work teams has not been uniformly positive. Some research indicates that the effectiveness of self-managed teams is contingent on the degree to which team-promoting behaviors are rewarded. For example, when team members perceive that economic rewards such as pay are dependent on input from their teammates, performance improves for both the individuals and the team. Research also indicates that self-managed teams are not effective when there is conflict. When disputes arise, members often stop cooperating and power struggles ensue, which leads to lower group performance. However, other research indicates that conflict can be beneficial and boost performance under specific conditions. Finally, the research on the effect of self-managed teams on member behavior is mixed. Although individuals on teams report higher levels of job satisfaction than other individuals, studies indicate that they also have higher absenteeism and turnover rates. Finally, research also suggests that in the absence of controlled supervision, leaders may "over-emerge," in that people who are not very effective leaders can take control more readily.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

41) What is a multiteam system?

Answer: Most teams are small, standalone teams, although their activities relate to the broader objectives of the organization. As tasks become more complex, teams often grow, which is accompanied by higher coordination demands. This creates a tipping point at which the addition of another team member does more harm than good. To solve this problem, organizations use multiteam systems—collections of two or more interdependent teams that share a superordinate goal. In short, a multiteam system is a "team of teams."

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

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42) What are some special challenges that virtual teams face? For virtual teams to be effective, what should management ensure?

Answer: Virtual teams may suffer from less social rapport and less direct interaction among members. They aren't able to duplicate the normal give-and-take of face-to-face discussion.

Especially when members haven't personally met, virtual teams tend to be more task-oriented and exchange less social-emotional information. Not surprisingly, virtual team members report less satisfaction with the group interaction process than do face-to-face teams. For virtual teams to be effective, management should ensure that: (a) trust is established among team members (research has shown that one inflammatory remark in a team member e-mail can severely undermine team trust); (b) team progress is monitored closely (so the team doesn't lose sight of its goals, and no team member "disappears"); and (c) the efforts and products of the virtual team are publicized throughout the organization (so the team does not become invisible).

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.2 Contrast the five types of team arrangements.

43) Which of the following is not one of the key components of effective teams?

A) Team efficacy B) Large size C) Adequate resources D) Member flexibility E) Leadership and structure Answer: B Explanation: The most effective teams have five to nine members. And experts suggest using the smallest number of people who can do the task. Managers often err by making teams too large.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

44) With reference to the team effectiveness model, which of the following is not one of the key components of an effective team, included under the category of contextual factors?

A) Allocating roles B) Adequate resources C) Norms D) Interdependence E) Culture or climate Answer: A Explanation: Allocating roles falls under the team composition factor and is not a contextual factor.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

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45) In which of the following type of teams does the team take on some supervisory responsibilities?

A) Technical B) Self-managed C) Problem-solving D) Task E) Virtual Answer: B Explanation: In a self-managed team, team members absorb many of the duties typically assumed by managers. These teams take on some supervisory responsibilities.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

46) According to the team effectiveness model, which of the following is not a process variable that influences effectiveness of a team?

A) Common purpose B) Motivation C) Member preferences D) Team efficacy E) Social loafing Answer: C Explanation: Member preferences is a team composition and not a process factor in the team effectiveness model.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

47) The team effectiveness model classifies the key components of effective teams into three general categories: context, composition, and process. Which of the following variables does not belong to the composition category?

A) Allocating roles B) Motivation C) Diversity D) Member flexibility E) Personality Answer: B Explanation: Motivation is a process and not a composition factor in the team effectiveness model.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

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48) The Alpha team at the Douglas Corporation is charged with identifying new markets for the company's products and developing market entry strategies. The team finds that getting information about various foreign markets requires access to proprietary databases that they do not have. According to the information provided, which contextual factor is most likely hindering the success of the Alpha team?

A) Adequate resources B) Culture or climate C) Technology/virtuality D) Leadership and structure E) Interdependence Answer: A Explanation: The Alpha team lacks adequate resources to subscribe to proprietary databases to access information about specific countries.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

49) In addition to evaluating and rewarding employees for their individual contributions, management should consider using to reinforce team effort and commitment.

A) personalized incentives B) consistent wages for all team members C) individual performance evaluations D) fixed hourly wages E) profit sharing Answer: E Explanation: In addition to evaluating and rewarding employees for their individual contributions, management should modify the traditional, individually oriented evaluation and reward system to reflect team performance. Group-based appraisals, profit sharing, and gainsharing are examples of team reward systems.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

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50) With reference to the team effectiveness model, which of the following would be a team composition factor?

A) Motivation B) Diversity C) Common purpose D) Norms E) Interdependence Answer: B Explanation: Diversity is one of the factors in team composition per the team effectiveness model.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

51) According to studies, when team members share an accurate mental model, they .

A) have an indifferent attitude toward their work B) have frequent interactions C) face acute stress D) work independently E) display increased social loafing tendencies Answer: B Explanation: A review found that teams with shared mental models engaged in more frequent interactions with one another, were more motivated, had more positive attitudes toward their work, and had higher levels of objectively rated performance.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

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52) You are the manager of a software design firm that develops software programs for clients using teams of specialists. One of your most successful teams has been together for nearly 5 years. In the past, this team has performed effectively, and you have been very satisfied with the team's output. Recently, however, you have noticed a marked decrease in the team's performance. You investigate to determine the problem. After interviewing all 7 team members, you determine that one of the team members performs routine administrative tasks that are rarely visible to any of the other team members. You suspect that this team member may be loafing off and lagging in his duties. You could most likely improve that team member's output by .

A) encouraging him to work more independently B) making his work clearly visible to the other team members C) empowering the team member to make decisions D) providing him with administrative training E) giving him additional assignments to complete Answer: B Explanation: This team member is engaging in social loafing. Effective teams undermine this tendency by making members individually and jointly accountable for the team's purpose, goals, and approach. Therefore, members should be clear on what they are individually responsible for and what they are jointly responsible for on the team.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

53) During an interview with one team member, you learn that several members of the team have had conflicts regarding the content of a task to which the team was recently assigned. Are these conflicts likely to be reducing the group's productivity?

A) Yes, because interpersonal conflicts always hurt a team's performance.

B) No, because conflicts based on personal animosity rarely affect team operations.

C) Yes, because task-related conflicts lead to poor team decisions.

D) No, because task-related conflicts usually benefit the performance of a team.

E) Yes, because disagreements about tasks usually lessen groupthink.

Answer: D Explanation: Interpersonal conflicts are almost always dysfunctional but the conflict involved in this case is a task conflict. Conflict on a team isn't necessarily bad. On teams performing nonroutine activities, disagreements among members about task content (called task conflicts) stimulate discussion, promote critical assessment of problems and options, and can lead to better team decisions.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

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54) In the Alpha team at Dalton Auto Parts, Marci's role is to fight external battles with other departments and top management for resources. Marci is a .

A) linker B) maintainer C) promoter D) controller E) producer Answer: B Explanation: Maintainers fight external battles on behalf of the team.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

55) Teams that are composed of people who score high on are more creative and innovative.

A) emotional stability B) agreeableness C) openness to experience D) extraversion E) conscientiousness Answer: C Explanation: Team members scoring high on openness to experience communicate better with one another and throw out more ideas, which makes teams composed of open people more creative and innovative.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

56) Teams that consist of team members that score are more likely to perform poorly.

A) high on conscientiousness B) high on openness to experience C) high on emotional stability D) low on extraversion E) low on agreeableness Answer: E Explanation: Teams that rate higher on mean levels of conscientiousness and openness to experience tend to perform better, and the minimum level of team member agreeableness also matters; teams perform poorly when they have one or more highly disagreeable members.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

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57) The A Team at Atomic Consulting often finds that it has to negotiate for resources from the organization to conduct its activities. In addition, the team finds itself constantly disturbed by outsiders criticizing the work of the team. The A Team needs a(n) .

A) adviser B) linker C) controller D) maintainer E) promoter Answer: D Explanation: To address its problems, the A Team needs a maintainer—one whose role is to fight external battles on behalf of the team.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

58) suggest(s) that attributes such as age or the date of joining should help us predict turnover.

A) Employee mobility B) Organizational demography C) Residential mobility D) Demographic environment E) Population dynamics Answer: B Explanation: The degree to which members of a work unit (group, team, or department) share a common demographic attribute, such as age, sex, race, educational level, or length of service in the organization, is the subject of organizational demography.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

59) systems represent a shared model of information relevant to the team.

A) Cognitive B) Organizational C) Transactive memory D) Relationship conflict E) Task conflict Answer: C Explanation: Effective teams develop transactive memory systems, which represent a shared model of information relevant to the team.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

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60) According to the concept of organizational demography, if team members have dissimilar experiences, it will lead to .

A) increased employee satisfaction B) decreased level of conflicts C) higher employee motivation D) higher employee turnover E) higher team efficacy Answer: D Explanation: Organizational demography suggests that attributes such as age or the date of joining should help us predict turnover. The logic goes like this: Turnover will be greater among those with dissimilar experiences because communication is more difficult. Conflict and power struggles are more likely and are more severe when they occur. Increased conflict makes membership less attractive, so employees are more likely to quit.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

61) Diversity of members includes all of the following except .

A) age B) sex C) marital status D) race E) educational level Answer: C Explanation: While marital status is an important element of the individual's life, it is not considered an important demographic for the diversity of the organization.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

62) Generally speaking, the most effective teams have members.

A) two to four B) three to five C) five to nine D) ten to fifteen E) fifteen to twenty Answer: C Explanation: Generally speaking, the most effective teams have five to nine members.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

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63) One of the reasons that Shonda's team is very effective is because the team constantly focuses on their mission, the goals to achieve their mission, and the strategies for achieving their goals. As a case in point, the team recently moved away from what was a good plan because the external conditions had changed. A key reason for Shonda's team's success is its focus on .

A) reflexivity B) diversity C) modularity D) civility E) compatibility Answer: A Explanation: Reflexivity refers to the team characteristic of reflecting on and adjusting their purpose or plan when necessary (as, for example, when conditions change).

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

64) Cultural diversity seems to be for tasks that call for a variety of viewpoints; also, these teams have learning to work with each other and problem solving.

A) a liability; difficulty B) an asset; difficulty C) difficult; collaboration while D) collaborative; indifference E) indifferent; difficulty Answer: B Explanation: While diversity can be good for generating a variety of viewpoints, groups with high levels of cultural diversity have difficulty learning to work with one another, at least initially.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

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65) Individuals with a positive identity but without a positive identity can become fixed to their teams and unwilling to coordinate with other teams within the organization.

A) organizational; self-efficacy B) self-efficacy; virtual C) virtual; individual D) individual; team E) team; organizational Answer: E Explanation: Teams do not operate in a vacuum and therefore coordination is vital.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

66) Effective teams have confidence in themselves; they believe they can succeed. This is called team .

A) hubris B) congruence C) bonding D) efficacy E) reflexivity Answer: D Explanation: Teams that have been successful raise their beliefs about future success, which, in turn, motivates them to work harder. This collective belief is called team efficacy.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

67) Effective teams begin their work by .

A) allocating roles to team members according to their personalities and preferences B) analyzing the team's mission C) developing a climate of trust among team members D) developing team efficacy E) discussing individual goals Answer: B Explanation: Effective teams begin by analyzing the team's mission, developing goals to achieve that mission, and creating strategies for achieving the goals.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

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68) In the case of a team, when each member's contribution is not clearly visible, .

A) team efficacy tends to increase B) team cohesiveness tends to decrease C) motivation of the team members tends to increase D) team members tend to decrease their efforts E) mutual accountability of the team members tends to decrease Answer: D Explanation: In the case of a team, when each member's contribution is not clearly visible, individuals tend to decrease their effort.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

69) Members of successful teams put a tremendous amount of time and effort into discussing, shaping, and agreeing on , which then provides direction and guidance under any and all conditions.

A) the level of individual contribution B) allocation of resources C) a common purpose D) allocation of roles E) developing team efficacy Answer: C Explanation: Members of successful teams put a tremendous amount of time and effort into discussing, shaping, and agreeing on a purpose that belongs to them both collectively and individually. This common purpose, when accepted by the team provides direction and guidance under any and all conditions.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

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70) Alberto's team is evaluating and developing the database for the water pollution data of three cities. He wants to improve the team efficacy of his team. Which of the following actions can Alberto take to increase team efficacy before the project starts?

A) Plan a team outing for the team members.

B) Make sure that his team is not comprised of more than nine people.

C) Spend considerable time evaluating team members and allocating proper roles for each.

D) Provide client's software and database training for all the team members.

E) Create team goals that are very challenging.

Answer: D Explanation: Efficacy means that a team believes it can succeed in the job and goal that is placed before them. There are two ways of increasing efficacy: 1) provide training to improve skills and increase confidence, and 2) help the team achieve small, incremental successes.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

71) By recognizing individuals' specific skills and abilities, as well as create a climate of respect and inclusion, leaders and members can foster positive team and realize improved team outcomes.

A) identity B) congruence C) efficacy D) bonding E) cognition Answer: A Explanation: Team identity refers to team members' affinity for and sense of belongingness to their teams. It helps realize improved team outcomes.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

72) Which of the following is most likely to increase team efficacy?

A) Providing measurable goals B) Helping the team achieve small successes C) Improving the reflexivity of the team D) Ensuring that team goals are challenging E) Reducing the number of members on a team Answer: B Explanation: Efficacy means that a team believes it can succeed in the job and goal that is placed before them. There are two ways to increasing efficacy: 1) provide training to improve skills and increase confidence, and 2) help the team achieve small, incremental successes.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

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73) Which of the following refers to a shared model of information relevant to the team?

A) Cognitive mental model B) Transactive memory system C) Goal congruence system D) Convergence model E) Reflexivity system Answer: B Explanation: Transactive memory systems represent a shared model of information relevant to the team. These types of models enable team members to know "who knows what and is best at what" so that the most-skilled members are assigned tasks they are best suited for and the most knowledgeable are consulted for advice on issues they are experts in.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

74) If team members have similar mental models then it means that the team members have similar .

A) roles within the team B) self-efficacy C) knowledge and skills D) beliefs about how the work gets done E) attitudes towards social loafing Answer: D Explanation: Mental models indicate knowledge and beliefs of team members about how the work gets done. If team members have different ideas about how to do things, the team will fight over how to do things rather than focus on what needs to be done.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

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75) Which type of conflict can lead to better team decisions?

A) Task conflict B) Efficacy conflict C) Relationship conflict D) Resource conflict E) Goal conflict Answer: A Explanation: Conflict on a team isn't necessarily bad and can actually improve team effectiveness. When teams are performing nonroutine activities, disagreements about task content—called task conflicts—stimulate discussion, promote critical assessment of problems and options, and can lead to better team decisions.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

76) In team member roles, a(n) encourages the search for more information.

A) adviser B) linker C) maintainer D) creator E) promoter Answer: A Explanation: The role of an adviser is to encourage the team to search for more information.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

77) In the product development team at Nurture Inc. Randy's role is to examine the options that the team has identified and offer an insightful analysis. Randy's role is that of a(n) .

A) adviser B) linker C) organizer D) maintainer E) assessor Answer: E Explanation: The role of an assessor is to offer insightful analysis of options.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

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78) Teams are often created deliberately but sometimes evolve organically.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Tech teams are often started naturally (i.e., deliberately) by friends. This appears to increase the likelihood of failure, and research suggests that this leads to entry and exit of team members (i.e., they evolve organically).

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

79) One of the key components of effective teams is role fluidity.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Leadership and structure with properly allocated roles are key to effective teams.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Interpersonal Relations and Teamwork Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

80) Team scaffolds are fluid, underlying structures that establish role types, shared responsibilities, and boundaries in teams.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Team scaffolds establish structure in teams and have been shown to help support coordination during crises because they establish accountability, a shared understanding, and a sense of identity or belonging.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

81) One of the roles in a team is that of the assessor—one who examines details and enforces rules.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: In teams, assessors offer insightful analysis of options. Controllers, on the other hand, examine details and enforce rules.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

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82) What contextual factors, according to the team effectiveness model, make up effective teams?

Answer: According to the team effectiveness model, there are eight contextual factors most significantly related to team performance. The first is the adequacy of resources. A scarcity of resources directly reduces the ability of a team to perform its job effectively and achieve its goals. The second is leadership and structure. Teams function well if they properly allocate roles and ensure the workload is shared by all team members. This requires leadership and structure, either from management or from team members themselves. The third is climate or culture.

Teams can have their own cultures and climates that influence their effectiveness. The fourth is performance evaluation and reward system. A system must be put in place to both recognize individual contributions as well as overall team outcomes. The fifth deals with technology, the sixth describes the importance of interdependence among team members, while the seventh identifies the importance of group norms. Finally, crises and extreme contexts are a crucible in which the merits of teams can be put to the test. These contexts can unlock the potential of team members who do truly great things under stress. They can also lead to the unraveling of the team fabric, resulting in disaster.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

83) How does climate of trust improve effectiveness of teams?

Answer: Interpersonal trust among team members facilitates cooperation, reduces the need to monitor each other's behavior, and bonds members around the belief that others on the team won't take advantage of them. Team members are more likely to take risks and expose vulnerabilities when they believe they can trust others on their team. Trust is the foundation of leadership. It allows a team to accept and commit to its leader's goals and decisions.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

84) Discuss the effect of team size on effectiveness of teams.

Answer: Generally speaking, the most effective teams have five to nine members. And experts suggest using the smallest number of people who can do the task. Unfortunately, managers often err by making teams too large. It may require only four or five members to develop diversity of views and skills, while coordination problems can increase exponentially as team members are added. When teams have excess members, cohesiveness and mutual accountability decline, social loafing increases, and more people communicate less. Members of large teams have trouble coordinating with one another, especially under time pressure. Keep teams at nine or fewer members.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

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85) What is team efficacy? What can management do to increase team efficacy?

Answer: Effective teams have confidence in themselves; they believe they can succeed. We call this team efficacy. Teams that have been successful raise their beliefs about future success, which, in turn, motivates them to work harder. The two ways in which the management can increase team efficacy are: (1) helping the team achieve small successes that build confidence, (2) providing training to improve members' technical and interpersonal skills.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

86) Why are mental models an important team process?

Answer: Mental models are organized mental representations of the key elements within a team's environment. While team mission and goals pertain to what a team needs to be effective, mental models pertain to how a team does its work. If team members have the wrong mental models, which is particularly likely in teams under acute stress, their performance suffers. One review found that teams with shared mental models engaged in more frequent interactions with one another, were more motivated, had more positive attitudes toward their work, and had higher levels of objectively rated performance.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

87) In allocating team roles, what do linkers, promoters, and controllers do?

Answer: Linkers, promoters, and controllers are three of nine potential team member roles.

Successful work teams have selected people to play all these roles based on their skills and preferences (on many teams, individuals will play multiple roles). A linker coordinates and integrates. Promoters champion ideas after they are initiated. Controllers examine details and enforce team rules.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

88) What is demography and what role does it play in work teams?

Answer: Demography is the degree to which members of a work unit share a common demographic attribute, such as age, sex, race, educational level, or length of service in an organization. Demography research suggests that turnover will be greater among those with dissimilar experiences, as communication may be more difficult and conflict more likely.

However, the conclusion from reviews of hundreds of studies suggests that demographic diversity has a negative (but very small) effect on team performance and creativity.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Application LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

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89) With respect to work teams, what is reflexivity?

Answer: Reflexivity is a team characteristic of reflecting on and adjusting their purpose or plan when necessary. Effective teams show reflexivity. A team must have a good plan, but it needs to be willing and able to adapt when conditions call for it. Reflexivity can help improve psychological well-being in manufacturing teams, help startup teams learn from their setbacks, and help improve performance in extreme environments like hospital emergency rooms.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.3 Identify the characteristics of effective teams.

90) You need to hire an analyst for an important project team. It is essential that the new employee work well on the already established team in order to meet the project's challenging deadlines. The most talented candidate doesn't have any team experience and when asked in the interview about his team experience, he replied, "I prefer to work alone. I'm much more efficient alone." What should you do?

A) Hire him and train him.

B) Hire him and hope that he learns.

C) Hire him and redesign the job.

D) Look for a different candidate.

E) Hire him and assign him a mentor.

Answer: D Explanation: The candidate should not be hired. Creating teams often means resisting the urge to hire the best talent no matter what. The project has looming deadlines, so training isn't an option. Hoping that he'll learn is too much of a risk to the project, and not fair to the existing team. Redesigning the job is not an option.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 10.4 Explain how organizations can create team players.

91) In an effort to improve the efficacy of its teams, the Belding Mattress Company recently added to its basic individual incentive system an annual bonus based on the achievement of team goals. Based on the information above, which of the following statements is true?

A) Resources were given to company teams.

B) Team performance is likely to suffer because of misaligned incentives.

C) The change in reward system is likely to make the teams dysfunctional.

D) The reward system changed from competition to cooperation.

E) Team members are now likely to distrust each other.

Answer: D Explanation: To foster team effectiveness, a traditional organization's reward system must be reworked to encourage cooperative efforts rather than competitive ones.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.4 Explain how organizations can create team players.

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92) Which of the following statements is true regarding a reward system that attempts to create good team players?

A) The reward system should encourage competitive efforts.

B) Rewards given to individuals should be based on peer evaluation.

C) The reward system should ignore individual contributions.

D) Performance-based rewards could include a bonus based on achievement of team goals.

E) The reward system should discourage cooperative efforts.

Answer: D Explanation: In order to create good team players, an organization's reward system must be reworked to encourage cooperative efforts rather than competitive ones. This doesn't mean individual contributions should be ignored; rather, they should be balanced with selfless contributions to the team. In order to encourage cooperative efforts, the reward system can include a bonus based on achievement of team goals.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.4 Explain how organizations can create team players.

93) Which of the following techniques can be used for increasing effectiveness of teams?

A) Implement a reward system that encourages competitive efforts.

B) The appraisal system should take into consideration peer evaluation.

C) Avoid giving promotions and pay raises for individual contributions.

D) Training should be provided to those candidates who lack team skills.

E) The reward system should discourage cooperative efforts.

Answer: D Explanation: In order to create good team players, an organization's reward system must be reworked to encourage cooperative efforts rather than competitive ones. This doesn't mean individual contributions should be ignored; rather, they should be balanced with selfless contributions to the team. Training should be provided to those candidates who lack team skills.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.4 Explain how organizations can create team players.

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94) Myriam has been a standout team member at Amohalka Consulting for several years. She is always the first person to train new colleagues, share information, help resolve team conflicts, and master new and modern skills. Clearly, Myriam also does what in the organization?

A) Makes individual contributions B) Avoids promotions and pay raises C) Has a low level of trust in her teammates' abilities D) Both makes individual contributions and has a low level of trust in her teammates' abilities E) Both seeks promotions and pay raises and has a low level of trust in her teammates' abilities Answer: A Explanation: As a standout employee, Myriam clearly knows that her individual contributions in her work are just as important as her contributions to the team effort.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 10.4 Explain how organizations can create team players.

95) Creating teams often means resisting the urge to hire the best talent no matter what.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: When hiring team members, it is important to make certain that candidates can fulfill their team roles as well as technical requirements. This means that in creating teams one has to resist the urge to hire the best talent no matter what.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.4 Explain how organizations can create team players.

96) Explain how reward systems can create team players.

Answer: A traditional organization's reward system must be reworked to encourage cooperative efforts rather than competitive ones. When this happens, teams select new members carefully so they will contribute to team effectiveness (and, thus, team bonuses). Promotions, pay raises, and other forms of recognition should be given to individuals who work effectively as team members by training new colleagues, sharing information, helping resolve team conflicts, and mastering needed new skills. Team-based rewards have been shown to positively influence team performance, especially when they are distributed based on individual's levels of contribution (rather than equally distributed).

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.4 Explain how organizations can create team players.

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97) Which of the following is a relevant question to ask to determine if the work of a group would be better done in teams?

A) Can one person do the work well?

B) Are the members of the group interdependent?

C) Is the total performance we expect the sum of each individual's performance?

D) Is the task simple to do?

E) Is individual responsibility adequate to complete the job?

Answer: B Explanation: Using teams makes sense when there is interdependence among tasks—the success of the whole depends on the success of each one, and the success of each one depends on the success of others.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.5 Decide when to use individuals instead of teams.

98) Teams have increased communication demands, conflicts to manage, and meetings to run.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: There are costs to create and manage teams, including the increased communication demands, conflicts to manage, and meetings to run. So, the benefits of using teams must exceed the costs, something that is not always possible.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.5 Decide when to use individuals instead of teams.

99) Teams should be used when tasks are independent.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Using teams makes sense when there is interdependence between tasks—the success of the whole depends on the success of each one, and the success of each one depends on the success of the others. They make less sense when the tasks to be performed are independent of each other.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.5 Decide when to use individuals instead of teams.

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100) What tests would you use when deciding whether the work of your group would be better done in teams?

Answer: When deciding whether the work of a group is better done in teams, we can use three tests: (1) Can the work be done better by more than one person? Good indicators of this are the complexity of the work and the need for different perspectives, (2) Does the work create a common purpose or set of goals for the people in the group that is more than the aggregate of individual goals? and (3) Are the members of the group interdependent? Using teams makes sense when there is interdependence among tasks—the success of the whole depends on the success of each one, and the success of each one depends on the success of the others.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 10.5 Decide when to use individuals instead of teams.

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Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 11E (Robbins) Chapter 10 Communication 1) Before communication can take place, it needs a .

A) purpose B) channel C) receiver D) filter E) decoder Answer: A Explanation: Before communication can take place it needs a purpose, a message to be conveyed between a sender and a receiver. The key parts of the communication process are (1) the sender, (2) encoding, (3) the message, (4) the channel, (5) decoding, (6) the receiver, (7) noise, and (8) feedback.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.1 Describe the functions and process of communication.

2) In a communication process, the A) receiver B) decoder C) channel D) sender E) signal Answer: D

initiates a message by encoding a thought.

Explanation: In a communication process, the sender initiates a message by encoding a thought.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.1 Describe the functions and process of communication.

3) Mary calls her employee, Jose, from her cell phone to let him know that today's meeting has been moved to one o'clock. Because Mary's call kept breaking up, Jose was unable to understand what Mary was saying. This is an example of .

A) dissonance B) noise C) divergence D) convergence E) ambivalence Answer: B Explanation: Noise represents communication barriers that distort the clarity of the message.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Application LO: 11.1 Describe the functions and process of communication.

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4) In a communication process, the is the actual physical product of the sender's encoding.

A) channel B) message C) feedback D) transmitter E) noise Answer: B Explanation: The message is the actual physical product of the sender's encoding.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.1 Describe the functions and process of communication.

5) With reference to the communication process, when a sender speaks, the message is then .

A) channelized B) encoded C) decoded D) sent E) transmitted Answer: B Explanation: The sender initiates a message by encoding a thought.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.1 Describe the functions and process of communication.

6) John writes a memo to his employees. Putting his thoughts onto paper is an example of .

A) encoding B) decoding C) transferring D) channeling E) editing Answer: A Explanation: The sender initiates a message by encoding a thought. The message is the actual physical product of the sender's encoding. John uses writing to encode his message.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Application LO: 11.1 Describe the functions and process of communication.

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7) With reference to the communication process, the is the medium through which the message travels.

A) feedback B) noise C) encoder D) channel E) decoder Answer: D Explanation: The channel is the medium through which the message travels.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.1 Describe the functions and process of communication.

8) When Amy sends a text full of emojis to Ming, Ming has to first the message to understand it.

A) decode B) encode C) transmit D) send E) channelize Answer: A Explanation: After receiving the message, the receiver has to first decode the message.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.1 Describe the functions and process of communication.

9) In a communication process, is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our messages as originally intended.

A) editing B) decoding C) feedback D) encoding E) noise Answer: C Explanation: Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our messages as originally intended. It determines whether understanding has been achieved.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.1 Describe the functions and process of communication.

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10) Which of the following statements is definitely true regarding an informal communication channel?

A) It traditionally follows the authority chain within the organization.

B) It generally transmits messages related to the professional activities of members.

C) It is established by the organization.

D) It is generally used for communicating personal or social messages.

E) Information regarding change in the policies of the organization is transmitted through it.

Answer: D Explanation: Formal channels are established by the organization and transmit messages related to the professional activities of members. They traditionally follow the authority chain within the organization. Other forms of messages, such as personal or social, follow informal channels, which are spontaneous and emerge as a response to individual choices.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.1 Describe the functions and process of communication.

11) Since Andre's six-page report had a number of typos, spelling and syntax errors, in addition to being poorly organized, Angie, Andre's boss, had difficulty in understanding Andre's recommendations. This is an example of .

A) feedback B) decoding C) noise D) encoding E) filtering Answer: C Explanation: Noise represents communication barriers that distort the clarity of the message, such as perceptual problems, information overload, semantic difficulties, or cultural differences.

Andre's poor writing represents noise.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.1 Describe the functions and process of communication.

12) The final link in the communication process is .

A) encoding B) decoding C) feedback D) transmission E) noise Answer: C Explanation: The final link in the communication process is a feedback loop. Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our messages as originally intended.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.1 Describe the functions and process of communication.

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13) A receiver who translates a sender's message is engaging in the process of .

A) encoding B) decoding C) transmission D) feedback E) recoding Answer: B Explanation: The receiver is the person(s) to whom the message is directed, who must first translate the symbols into understandable form. This step is the decoding of the message.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.1 Describe the functions and process of communication.

14) Which is not one of the five major functions that communication covers within a group or organization?

A) Foundation building B) Feedback C) Emotional sharing D) Persuasion E) Information exchange Answer: A Explanation: The five major functions that communication serves are managing behavior, feedback, emotional sharing, persuasion, and information exchange.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.1 Describe the functions and process of communication.

15) DeSean left a written note about a schedule change to his subordinate, Aisha. In the communication process, the written note is the .

A) noise B) feedback C) object D) medium or channel E) subject Answer: D Explanation: The way the message is passed from the sender to the receiver is the medium or the channel.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Interpersonal Relations and Teamwork Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.1 Describe the functions and process of communication.

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16) Communication acts to manage member behavior.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: One of the five major functions of communication is to manage member behavior in organizations.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.1 Describe the functions and process of communication.

17) Communication means the transfer of meaning.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Communication includes both the transfer and the understanding of meaning.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.1 Describe the functions and process of communication.

18) What are the functions of communication?

Answer: The functions of communication are (1) management, (2) feedback, (3) emotional sharing, (4) persuasion, and (5) information exchange. Communication acts to manage member behavior in organizations—such as formal hierarchies and guidelines. Communication can be used to convey feedback, such as by clarifying to employees what they must do, how well they are doing it, and how they can improve their performance. In addition, communication is a fundamental mechanism by which members show satisfaction and frustration. Communication, therefore, provides for the sharing of feelings to fulfill social needs. Communication can be used for persuasion, such as when a leader is trying to persuade a workgroup to commit to the organization's corporate social responsibility initiatives. Finally, communication provides the information individuals and groups need to make decisions.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.1 Describe the functions and process of communication.

19) How are formal communication channels different from informal communication channels?

Answer: Formal communication channels are established by an organization to transmit messages related to the professional activities of members. For example, a formal resignation letter conveys an employee's intentions to quit. In contrast, informal communication channels are those that are created spontaneously and that emerge as responses to individual choices. For example, when an employee dramatically shuts off her computer, packs her belongings, and storms out of the office, she is conveying in an informal way her intentions to quit.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 11.1 Describe the functions and process of communication.

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20) The vice president of operations at Delta Manufacturing sent a memo to all operations personnel about the importance of increasing productivity and the effect of productivity on the company's bottom line. This is an example of a(n) communication.

A) downward B) lateral C) upward D) grapevine E) horizontal Answer: A Explanation: Communication that flows from one level of a group or organization to a lower level is downward communication. Here, the company's head of operations is communicating with lower level operations people.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

21) As part of the annual performance evaluation process, The Burke Company has subordinates communicate their perceptions of their bosses. This is an example of communication.

A) downward B) lateral C) informal D) directional E) upward Answer: E Explanation: Upward communication flows to a higher level in the group or organization— such as when subordinates evaluate their bosses.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

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22) Which of the following is an example of downward communication flow?

A) An employee provides feedback to higher-ups regarding her progress toward goals.

B) An employee suggests a way of improving efficiency of a process to his team lead.

C) An employee receives mail from her team leader pointing out problems that need attention.

D) An employee informs her colleague about changes in the company policy.

E) An employee informs his friend from a different department about a new coffee shop that has just opened in the town.

Answer: C Explanation: Communication that flows from one level of a group or organization to a lower level is downward communication. It's used by group leaders and managers communicating with employees to assign goals, provide job instructions, explain policies, and offer feedback about performance.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

23) All of the following are examples of downward communication flows except .

A) managers assigning goals B) managers informing employees of procedures C) managers pointing out problems that need attention D) employees completing attitude surveys E) managers telling employees to work more quickly Answer: D Explanation: Downward communication is used by group leaders and managers communicating with employees to assign goals, provide job instructions, explain policies and procedures, point out problems that need attention, and offer feedback about performance. Employee surveys are an example of upward communication.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

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24) communication flows to a higher level in the group or organization.

A) Horizontal B) Downward C) Lateral D) Upward E) Grapevine Answer: D Explanation: Upward communication flows to a higher level in the group or organization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

25) Communication that takes place among members of work groups at the same level is known as communication.

A) diagonal B) grapevine C) upward D) lateral E) downward Answer: D Explanation: When communication takes place among members of the same work group, members of work groups at the same level, managers at the same level, or any other horizontally equivalent workers, it is described as lateral communication.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

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26) Which of the following is an example of upward communication?

A) A team leader sends an e-mail to one of her team members giving him feedback about his performance.

B) A team leader sends an e-mail to his team members pointing out problems that need attention.

C) A team member sends an e-mail to his team leader informing her about the problems faced by him on the current project.

D) A manager sends an e-mail to all members in the organization informing them about new policies and procedures.

E) A team member sends an e-mail to his colleague informing him about the latest changes in the specifications of the project.

Answer: C Explanation: Upward communication flows to a higher level in the group or organization. A team member sending an e-mail to his team leader informing her about the problems faced by him on the current project is an example of upward communication.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

27) When engaging in upward communication, an employee should not .

A) meet his manager alone in a conference room B) communicate in headlines C) support ideas with action D) engage in a meandering discussion E) prepare an agenda Answer: D Explanation: To engage in effective upward communication, the employee should try to reduce distractions, communicate in headlines not paragraphs, support headlines with actionable items (what he or she believes should happen), and prepare an agenda to make sure that the boss's attention is used well.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

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28) Which of the following is considered the ultimate example of downward communication?

A) Performance review B) Conference call C) Job interview D) Email E) Interoffice memo Answer: A Explanation: During a performance review, it is essential to have interaction between the leader and the subordinate as to facilitate growth, motivation, and relationship building.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

29) Your can be as important as the of your communication.

A) attitude; delivery B) delivery; content C) content; style D) style; timeliness E) timeliness; attitude Answer: B Explanation: Understanding the correct method of how to deliver your message can be just as important as the message or meaning of the communication. Often, a poor delivery can harm an otherwise good message.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

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30) The grapevine within an organization provides which benefit(s)?

A) Creates a sense of closeness within the organization B) Gives managers a feel for the morale of the organization C) Gives managers a sense of who is well networked in the organization D) Both creates a sense of closeness within the organization and gives managers a feel for the morale of the organization E) Creates a sense of closeness within the organization, gives managers a feel for the morale of the organization, and gives managers a sense of who is well networked in the organization.

Answer: E Explanation: The small talk of the grapevine can be an important source of knowledge and understanding for the managers to use in the organization's development. The grapevine can also be an important source of bonding within the organization; however, it also has the potential to create outgroups.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Interpersonal Relations and Teamwork Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

31) The Binary Company has periodic town hall meetings where employees provide feedback to higher-ups, inform them of progress toward goals, and relay current problems. What kind of communication does The Binary Company's town halls illustrate?

A) Lateral communication B) Upward communication C) Downward communication D) Horizontal communication E) Grapevine communication Answer: B Explanation: Upward communication flows to a higher level in the group or organization. It is used to provide feedback to higher-ups, inform them of progress toward goals, and relay current problems. In The Binary Company's town halls, employees provide feedback to their superiors.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

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32) Which of the following types of small-group communication networks is most effective for facilitating the emergence of a leader?

A) Chain network B) All-channel network C) Wheel network D) Mesh network E) Bus network Answer: C Explanation: The wheel relies on a central figure to act as the conduit for all the group's communication; it facilitates the emergence of a leader.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

33) Which of the following types of small-group communication networks should be used if high member satisfaction is desired?

A) Star network B) Wheel network C) Mesh network D) All-channel network E) Chain network Answer: D Explanation: The all-channel network permits all group members to actively communicate with each other; it's most often characterized in practice by self-managed teams, in which all group members are free to contribute and no one person takes on a leadership role. The all-channel network is best if you desire high member satisfaction.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

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34) Harriet has been assigned the task of setting up work teams for a complex software development project. Each team has different work requirements. Harriet must choose the best structure for each team, based on its specific requirements. Team A must operate very quickly to meet stringent deadlines. The quality of the final project depends highly on Team A's output, so Team A must also work very accurately. Which of the following network structures should Harriet choose for this team?

A) Chain B) Wheel C) Mesh D) Star E) All-channel Answer: B Explanation: The wheel rates highest of effectiveness in speed, emergence of leaders, and accuracy. However, it rates low on membership satisfaction. It is the best choice for Harriet as she needs accuracy and speed to meet her deadline.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Application LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

35) Which of the following formal small-group network structures most rigidly follows the organization's hierarchical command structure?

A) Wheel B) Chain C) Mesh D) Star E) All-channel Answer: B Explanation: The chain structure rigidly follows the formal chain of command; this network approximates the communication channels you might find in a rigid three-level organization.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Application LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

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36) In a(n) communication network, any group member can actively communicate with any other member.

A) wheel B) all-channel C) mesh D) chain E) star Answer: B Explanation: The all-channel network permits all group members to actively communicate with each other; it's most often characterized in practice by self-managed teams, in which all group members are free to contribute and no one person takes on a leadership role. It rates the highest in effectiveness of member satisfaction.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

37) The communication network is best illustrated by self-managed teams.

A) wheel B) all-channel C) mesh D) chain E) ring Answer: B Explanation: The all-channel network permits all group members to actively communicate with each other; it's most often characterized in practice by self-managed teams, in which all group members are free to contribute and no one person takes on a leadership role. It rates the highest in effectiveness of member satisfaction.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

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38) An informal communication network in an organization is typically called the .

A) wheel network B) grapevine C) chain network D) contextual system E) free acting system Answer: B Explanation: The informal communication network in a group or organization is called the grapevine. Although the grapevine may be informal, it's still an important source of information.

A survey found it's where 75 percent of employees hear about matters first.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

39) Which of the following is a type of formal small-group network structure?

A) All-channel B) Lattice C) Mesh D) Star E) Top-down Answer: A Explanation: The all-channel network permits group members to actively communicate with each other; it is most often characterized by self-managed teams.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

40) Which of the following statements is true regarding the grapevine?

A) It is a formal channel of communication in an organization.

B) It can lead to negative performance because of social pressures.

C) It serves the needs of the employer.

D) The grapevine is viewed negatively by most people.

E) The grapevine always helps employees' well-being.

Answer: D Explanation: The informal communication network in a group or organization is called the grapevine. It is viewed negatively by most people. While it can lead to positive performance because of the sense of social pressure it produces, it can also undermine employee well-being. It serves employees' needs.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

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41) Which one of the following is an informal source of information for job applicants joining an organization?

A) Electronic communication B) Nonverbal communication C) Horizontal communication D) Vertical communication E) Grapevine communication Answer: E Explanation: The informal communication network in a group or organization is called the grapevine. Although the rumor and gossip transmitted through the grapevine may be informal, it's still an important source of information. A recent report shows that grapevine or word-of-mouth information from peers about a company has important effects on whether job applicants join an organization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

42) Shonda has been charged with the task of evaluating two employees for possible promotions.

She is interested in learning which employee has the most effective leadership skills. One of the employees is assigned to Team B, and the other is assigned to Team C. Which network structure should Shonda choose for these teams if she wishes to place the two employees in clear leadership positions on the teams?

A) Wheel B) Chain C) Concentric D) All-channel E) Mesh Answer: A Explanation: The wheel relies on a central figure to act as the conduit for all the group's communication; it simulates the communication network you would find on a team with a strong leader.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Application LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

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43) Shonda is tasked with creating a network structure that would come up with a speedy decision. Which of the following small-group network structures should she avoid?

A) Wheel B) All-channel C) Chain D) Both wheel and all-channel E) Both all-channel and chain Answer: C Explanation: The chain structure is only moderate when it comes to speedy decisions, unlike both wheel and all-channel which facilitate fast decision making.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

44) The ultimate downward communication is the performance review.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Communication that flows from one level of a group or organization to a lower level is downward communication. In a performance review, a manager reviews his or her subordinates.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

45) Lateral communication saves time and facilitates coordination.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: When communication takes place among members of the same work group, members of work groups at the same level, managers at the same level, or any other horizontally equivalent workers, we describe it as lateral communication. As it involves communication at the same hierarchical level, lateral communication saves time and facilitates organizational coordination.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

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46) What is the role of upward communication in organizations?

Answer: Communication can flow vertically or laterally, through formal small-group networks or the informal grapevine. Vertical communication can be downward or upward. Upward communication flows to a higher level in the group or the organization. It is used to provide feedback to higher ups, inform them of progress towards goals, and relay current problems.

Upward communication keeps managers aware of how employees feel about their jobs, co-workers, and the organization in general. Managers also rely on upward communication for ideas on how conditions can be improved.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

47) What are the features of the all-channel small-group network structure?

Answer: The all-channel network permits group members to actively communicate with each other. This structure is most often characterized by self-managed teams, in which group members are free to contribute and no one person takes on a leadership role. Many organizations today like to consider themselves all-channel, meaning that anyone can communicate with anyone (but sometimes they should not). The all-channel network is the best choice if the desired outcome is high member satisfaction.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

48) How do the small group networks compare on the criteria of speed, accuracy, and member satisfaction?

Answer: The three common formal small-group networks are chain, wheel, and all-channel.

While the speed of communication is high in both wheel and all- channel, it is only moderate in chain. This is because the chain rigidly follows the formal chain of command. In terms of accuracy, both the chain and wheel score high, while all-channel is only moderate. This is likely because the all-channel network permits group members to actively communicate with each other. Finally, the wheel scores the lowest in terms of member satisfaction while the all-channel scores the highest, with the chain in the middle. The wheel's low score is because it relies on a central figure to act as the conduit for all group communication and is often characterized by a team with a strong leader.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.2 Contrast downward, upward, and lateral communication through small-group networks and the grapevine.

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49) Which of the following statements is true regarding oral communication?

A) It is often tangible and verifiable.

B) It can be stored for an indefinite period.

C) The sender can quickly obtain feedback from the receiver.

D) As compared to written communication, it is more likely to be well thought out, logical, and clear.

E) In the case of oral communication, when the message has to pass through a number of people, as the number of people increases the possibility of distortion of the message decreases.

Answer: C Explanation: The advantages of oral communication are speed and feedback. We can convey a verbal message and receive a response in minimal time. If the receiver is unsure of the message, rapid feedback allows the sender to quickly detect and correct it. The major disadvantage of oral communication surfaces whenever a message has to pass through a number of people: the more people, the greater the potential distortion.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.3 Contrast oral, written, and nonverbal communication.

50) Communication messages that are passed through a great many people will most likely suffer from which of the following?

A) Selective perception B) Distortion C) Lack of nonverbal cues D) Information overload E) Formal communication integration Answer: B Explanation: The major disadvantage of oral communication surfaces whenever a message has to pass through a number of people: the more people, the greater the potential distortion.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.3 Contrast oral, written, and nonverbal communication.

51) Which mode of communication has the advantages of speed, feedback, and exchange?

A) Written communication B) Downward communication C) Nonverbal communication D) Oral communication E) Upward communication Answer: D Explanation: The advantages of oral communication over other modes are speed, feedback, and exchange.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.3 Contrast oral, written, and nonverbal communication.

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52) All of the following are examples of nonverbal communication except .

A) intonations or emphasis B) instant messaging C) physical distance between the sender and the receiver D) facial expressions E) hand gestures Answer: B Explanation: It is important in communication to consider nonverbal communication, which includes body movements, the intonations or emphasis we give to words, facial expressions, and the physical distance between the sender and receiver. Such clues cannot be observed in instant messaging. Instant messaging is not an example of nonverbal communication.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.3 Contrast oral, written, and nonverbal communication.

53) Priscilla's team at Rhythm Company is charged with selecting one of France, Germany, Spain, and Portugal as the next market for the company's flagship guitars. They are expected to research the attractiveness of each market and suggest an entry mode for the selected market.

Which of the following is most likely to be the best form of communication for Priscilla's team to communicate their plan?

A) Nonverbal communication B) Oral communication C) Written communication D) Grapevine communication E) Virtual communication Answer: C Explanation: A market entry plan presents a lot of data and analysis. The reader should be able to follow along the logic that leads to the recommended market. A written report would provide a long-lasting record of how the team arrived at their conclusions.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.3 Contrast oral, written, and nonverbal communication.

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54) What type of communication creates a digital or physical long-term record?

A) Oral B) Grapevine C) Written D) Nonverbal E) Lateral Answer: C Explanation: The major advantage of written communication is that it creates a digital or physical long-term record.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.3 Contrast oral, written, and nonverbal communication.

55) Generally, which of the following methods of communication should be used for communicating a complex and lengthy message when the message has to pass through a number of people?

A) Grapevine communication B) Written communication C) Oral communication D) Nonverbal communication E) Filtered communication Answer: B Explanation: Written communication is often tangible and verifiable. When it's printed, both the sender and receiver have a record of the communication; and the message can be stored for an indefinite period. If there are questions about its content, the message is physically available for later reference. This feature is particularly important for complex and lengthy communications.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.3 Contrast oral, written, and nonverbal communication.

56) Intonation, body movement, and facial expressions are all part of communication.

A) lateral B) nonverbal C) verbal D) downward E) upward Answer: B Explanation: Nonverbal communication includes body movements, the intonations or emphasis we give to words, and facial expressions.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Interpersonal Relations and Teamwork Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.3 Contrast oral, written, and nonverbal communication.

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57) The advantages of written communication are speed, feedback, and exchange.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: The advantages of oral (not written) communication are speed, feedback, and exchange.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.3 Contrast oral, written, and nonverbal communication.

58) The exchange given through oral communication has social, cultural, and emotional components.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: One major advantage of oral communication is exchange. Cultural social exchange, in which we purposefully share exchanges that transcend cultural boundaries, can build trust, cooperation, and agreement between individuals and teams.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication; Information Technology Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.3 Contrast oral, written, and nonverbal communication.

59) When we deliver a message, we also impart an unspoken message.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Nonverbal communication includes body movements, the intonations or emphasis we give to words, and facial expressions. These add meaning to the message.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.3 Contrast oral, written, and nonverbal communication.

60) Nonverbal communication can affect the behavior of communication receivers.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Nonverbal communication adds meaning to the message that affects the behavior of the receivers of the communication. For example, racial bias can also be contagious through nonverbal communication.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.3 Contrast oral, written, and nonverbal communication.

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61) The choice between modes of communication can greatly enhance or detract from the way the receiver reacts to the message.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Since each communication mode (written, oral, and nonverbal) has its own advantages and disadvantages, the choice of the mode affects how the receiver reacts to the message.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.3 Contrast oral, written, and nonverbal communication.

62) A primary means of conveying messages is oral communication.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Speeches, formal one-on-one and group discussions, and informal grapevine (all forms of oral communication) are the primary means of conveying information.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.3 Contrast oral, written, and nonverbal communication.

63) Discuss the advantages of written communication.

Answer: Written communication includes letters, e-mail, instant messaging, organizational periodicals, and any other method that uses words or symbols. An important advantage of written communication is that it creates a digital or physical long-term record that can be used, for example, as evidence or precedent. Some specific forms of written communication, such as e-mail and instant messaging have the advantage of facilitating quick, fleeting information exchange.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.3 Contrast oral, written, and nonverbal communication.

64) How do body movements and intonation affect communication?

Answer: Nonverbal communication includes body movements, the intonations or emphasis we give to words, facial expressions, and the physical distance between the sender and receiver.

One could argue that every body movement has meaning, and no movement is accidental (though some are unconscious). We smile to project trustworthiness, uncross our arms to appear approachable, and stand to signal authority. In short, we communicate through our body movements. Intonations can change the meaning of a message. Along with facial expressions, intonations can show arrogance, aggressiveness, fear, shyness, and other emotions.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.3 Contrast oral, written, and nonverbal communication.

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65) refers to the amount of information that can be transmitted during a communication episode.

A) Channel richness B) Channel bottleneck C) Communication capacity D) Communication bottleneck E) Channel feedback Answer: A Explanation: Channels of communication differ in their capacity to convey information.

Channel richness is the amount of information that can be transmitted during a communication episode.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.4 Describe how channel richness underlies the choice of communication channel.

66) One of the major disadvantages of oral communication is that .

A) people unintentionally change the message and meaning B) people intentionally change the message and meaning C) people can ask for immediate feedback D) both people unintentionally and intentionally change the message and meaning E) both people unintentionally change the message and meaning and people can ask for immediate feedback Answer: D Explanation: As communication passes from individual to individual, the meaning of the message can be both intentionally and unintentionally changed.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.4 Describe how channel richness underlies the choice of communication channel.

67) Of telephone conversations, video conferences, written bulletins, live speeches, and voice mail, which medium is the highest in media richness?

A) Telephone conversations B) Video conferences C) Written bulletins D) Live speeches E) Voice mail Answer: B Explanation: Channel richness refers to the ability to communicate on multiple cues, rapid feedback, and being personal. Of those listed, video conference comes out on top on all three counts.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.4 Describe how channel richness underlies the choice of communication channel.

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68) Whenever you need to gauge the receiver's receptivity, the better choice is communication.

A) memo B) letter C) oral D) nonverbal E) e-mail Answer: C Explanation: In oral communication, you can see the receiver's reaction to your message. It is the better choice in such circumstances.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 11.4 Describe how channel richness underlies the choice of communication channel.

69) Formal reports score high on channel richness.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Since formal reports score low on feedback and the ability to personalize, they are quite low in terms of channel richness.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.4 Describe how channel richness underlies the choice of communication channel.

70) Face-to-face conversation scores highest in channel richness.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Face-to-face conversation scores highest in channel richness because it transmits the most information per communication episode, it uses multiple information cues, provides immediate feedback, and has the personal touch of being present.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.4 Describe how channel richness underlies the choice of communication channel.

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71) How does channel richness help explain channel selection among managers?

Answer: Channels differ in their capacity to convey information. Some are rich in that they can (1) handle multiple cues simultaneously, (2) facilitate rapid feedback, and (3) be very personal.

Others are lean, in that they score low on these factors. Channel richness is the amount of information that can be transmitted during a communication episode. Face-to-face conversation scores highest in channel richness because it transmits the most information per communication episode—multiple information cues (words, postures, etc.), immediate feedback (both verbal and nonverbal), and the personal touch of being present. In contrast, a formal report scores quite low on richness. Depending on the intent of the communication, managers can choose the appropriate channel.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.4 Describe how channel richness underlies the choice of communication channel.

72) When Priya was going through a social media interaction with her friends, up popped an ad for a beauty product that caught her eye. Moments later, Priya made an impulse buy of the product. This is an example of processing.

A) automatic B) hedonistic C) controlled D) personal E) linear Answer: A Explanation: In automatic processing, there is a relatively superficial consideration of evidence and information that takes little time or effort and makes use of heuristics.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Application LO: 11.5 Differentiate between automatic and controlled processing of persuasive messages.

73) Even when buying a low value, everyday item, Penelope's preference is always for a detailed examination of the pros and cons of each brand and a careful examination of objective facts like price and ingredients. This is an example of processing.

A) automatic B) hedonistic C) controlled D) personal E) linear Answer: C Explanation: Penelope's style is called controlled processing—a process that involves a detailed consideration of evidence and information relying on facts, figures, and logic.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Application LO: 11.5 Differentiate between automatic and controlled processing of persuasive messages.

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74) Let us say that you are the head of a team that is charged with writing a report that identifies a potential foreign market for your firm's entry. Explain the concept of controlled processing with respect to your task.

Answer: Controlled processing is a detailed consideration of evidence and information relying on facts, figures, and logic. The foreign market entry report exemplifies controlled processing.

Unlike automatic processing that is a relatively superficial consideration of evidence and information, here the team has to expend the energy in collecting and evaluating data, drawing conclusions from the data, and making a persuasive argument to select a particular country to get into.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 11.5 Differentiate between automatic and controlled processing of persuasive messages.

75) Filtering is a barrier to effective communication. Filtering takes place when .

A) the interpretation of the message gets affected by the receiver's emotion B) the information we have to work with exceeds our processing capacity C) a sender purposely manipulates information so the receiver will see it more favorably D) the receivers in the communication process selectively see and hear based on their motivations, experience, and other personal characteristics E) receivers also project their interests and expectations into communications as they decode them Answer: C Explanation: Filtering refers to how a sender purposely manipulates information so the receiver will see it more favorably.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.6 Identify common barriers to effective communication.

76) In interviewing applicants for the job of quality control manager, DeJuan expects all the fourteen female job applicants to put their family ahead of their career. DeJuan is using .

A) filtering information B) selective perception of information C) communication apprehension D) emotional blockage E) emotional contagion Answer: B Explanation: Selective perception refers to when receivers in the communication process selectively see and hear based on their needs, motivations, experience, background, and other personal characteristics.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Application LO: 11.6 Identify common barriers to effective communication.

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77) Because of an adversarial organizational culture at Bombast Inc., subordinates only tell their superiors what the superiors want to hear. What is the communication issue at Bombast Inc.?

A) Communication apprehension B) Filtering C) Selective perception D) Emotional block E) Information overload Answer: B Explanation: Filtering refers to the manipulation of information so that it will be seen more favorably by the receiver.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.6 Identify common barriers to effective communication.

78) When Gio came out of the four-day self-help seminar, he felt that he had learned a lot of useful things but the speaker had talked about a number of strategies with multiple pre-conditions for each strategy that Gio was not sure that he would be able to implement what he had learned. This is an example of .

A) information overload B) selective perception C) emotional labor D) filtering E) communication apprehension Answer: A Explanation: Information overload is a condition in which information inflow exceeds an individual's processing capacity.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Application LO: 11.6 Identify common barriers to effective communication.

79) Which of the following is not a barrier to effective communication?

A) Filtering B) Silence C) Selective perception D) Information overload E) The grapevine Answer: E Explanation: Filtering, silence, selective perception, and information overload are all barriers to effective communication. The grapevine is a popular form of oral communication.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.6 Identify common barriers to effective communication.

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80) Information overload occurs when .

A) the interpretation of the message gets affected by the receiver's cultural background B) the information we have to work with exceeds our processing capacity C) a sender purposely manipulates information so the receiver will see it more favorably D) the information transmitted to the receiver is distorted by the communication channel E) the information sent by the sender does not reach the receiver Answer: B Explanation: Individuals have a finite capacity for processing data. When the information we have to work with exceeds our processing capacity, the result is information overload.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.6 Identify common barriers to effective communication.

81) Even when we're communicating in the same language, words mean different things to different people, with and jargon being two of the biggest factors that influence such differences.

A) educational qualification B) gender C) age D) religion E) social class Answer: C Explanation: Even when we're communicating in the same language, words mean different things to different people, and age and jargon are two of the biggest factors that influence such differences.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.6 Identify common barriers to effective communication.

82) In the communication process, also project their interests and expectations into communications as they decode them.

A) managers B) employees C) receivers D) senders E) corporations Answer: C Explanation: Selective perception is important because the receivers in the communication process selectively see and hear based on their needs, motivations, experience, background, and other personal characteristics. Receivers also project their interests and expectations into communications as they decode them.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.6 Identify common barriers to effective communication.

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83) If Alberto is apprehensive regarding oral communication, which of the following behaviors is he least likely to display?

A) He prefers to talk on the phone.

B) He distorts the communication demands of his job.

C) He limits his oral communication and then tends to rationalize his behavior.

D) He relies on memos or letters.

E) He avoids face-to-face communication.

Answer: A Explanation: People suffering communication apprehension experience undue tension and anxiety in oral communication. They may find it extremely difficult to talk with others face to face or may become extremely anxious when they have to use the telephone, relying instead on memos or faxes when a phone call would be faster and more appropriate.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Application LO: 11.6 Identify common barriers to effective communication.

84) Zeus Industries sells satellite television systems. Recently, the company invested heavily in one of the many new technologies available. Employees tell senior management that this investment was the right choice, but sales keep decreasing. Some sales employees have also given incorrect information to suppliers, even though the company has held numerous intensive training sessions to keep sales personnel apprised of changes in the industry. The company has also received low customer service ratings from recent consumer surveys. These surveys indicate that customers are frustrated with the specialized technical knowledge necessary to operate their satellite systems. Which of the following best characterizes the communication problems occurring between employees and senior management?

A) Filtering B) Sabotage C) Communication apprehension D) Information overload E) Selective perception Answer: A Explanation: Filtering refers to a sender's purposely manipulating information so the receiver will see it more favorably. A manager who tells his boss what he feels the boss wants to hear is filtering information. In this example, the company is filtering the information that reaches management.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Application LO: 11.6 Identify common barriers to effective communication.

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85) Zeus Industries sells satellite television systems. Recently, the company invested heavily in one of the many new technologies available. Employees tell senior management that this investment was the right choice, but sales keep decreasing. Some sales employees have also given incorrect information to suppliers, even though the company has held numerous intensive training sessions to keep sales personnel apprised of changes in the industry. The company has also received low customer service ratings from recent consumer surveys. These surveys indicate that customers are frustrated with the specialized technical knowledge necessary to operate their satellite systems. The mistakes committed by the sales staff suggest that sales personnel are probably experiencing which of the following as a result of their intensive training?

A) Filtering B) Emotional labor C) Information overload D) Communication apprehension E) Selective perception Answer: C Explanation: When the information we have to work with exceeds our processing capacity, the result is information overload. In this example the sales team is choosing to select, ignore, pass over, or forget information which is most likely to be the result of information overload.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Application LO: 11.6 Identify common barriers to effective communication.

86) Telling the boss what the boss wants to hear is filtering information.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Filtering refers to the purposeful manipulation of information so the receiver will see it more favorably. When you tell your boss what he/she wants to hear you are manipulating information so that he/she will receive it more favorably.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.6 Identify common barriers to effective communication.

87) More than half of the population suffers debilitating communication apprehension.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: An estimated 5 to 20 percent of the population (not a significant majority) suffer undue tension and anxiety about oral communication, written communication, or both—what is called communication apprehension.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.6 Identify common barriers to effective communication.

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88) What is communication apprehension?

Answer: Communication apprehension is the undue tension and anxiety in oral communication, written communication, or both that an estimated five to twenty percent of the population suffers from. People with communication apprehension may find it extremely difficult to talk with others face-to-face or become extremely anxious when they have to use the phone, relying on memos or e-mails when a phone call would be faster and more appropriate. The great concern here is evidence that high oral-communication apprehension may distort the communication demands of their jobs in order to minimize the need for communication.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.6 Identify common barriers to effective communication.

89) In , people rely heavily on nonverbal and subtle situational cues in communicating with others, and a person's official status, place in society, and reputation carry considerable weight.

A) individualistic cultures B) low power distance cultures C) cultures that score low on uncertainty avoidance D) high-context cultures E) cultures that have long time orientation Answer: D Explanation: In high-context cultures, people rely heavily on nonverbal and subtle situational cues in communicating with others, and a person's official status, place in society, and reputation carry considerable weight.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.7 Discuss how to overcome potential problems of cross-cultural communication.

90) Which of the following is not a barrier in cross-cultural communication?

A) Barriers caused by physical distance B) Barriers caused by semantics C) Barriers caused by word connotations D) Barriers caused by tone differences E) Differences in tolerance for conflict and methods for resolving conflicts Answer: A Explanation: Semantics, word connotations, tone differences, and tolerance for and different methods to resolving conflicts cause problems in cross-cultural communications. Physical distance in and of itself is not a barrier.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.7 Discuss how to overcome potential problems of cross-cultural communication.

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91) Some words do not translate between cultures. Which of the following cross-cultural communication barriers does this refer to?

A) Barriers caused by nonverbal communication B) Barriers caused by semantics C) Barriers caused by word connotation D) Barriers caused by tone differences E) Barriers due to differences in tolerance for conflicts Answer: B Explanation: Words mean different things to different people, particularly people from different national cultures. Some words do not translate between cultures. These refer to barriers caused by semantics.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Application LO: 11.7 Discuss how to overcome potential problems of cross-cultural communication.

92) Which of the following values is most likely to be important to low-context cultures?

A) Status B) Directness C) Titles D) Trust E) Space Answer: B Explanation: People from Europe and North America reflect their low-context cultures. They rely essentially on spoken and written words to convey meaning and value directness.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.7 Discuss how to overcome potential problems of cross-cultural communication.

93) A manager should practice , which means in dealing with cross-cultural communication, a manager should put herself in the place of the employee to understand the employee's values, experiences, and frames of reference.

A) evaluation B) empathy C) complicity D) commiseration E) apathy Answer: B Explanation: A manager should practice empathy, which means seeing things from another's perspective and being sympathetic to that perspective. Examine others' values, experiences, and frames of reference. Determine what can provide added insight. Try to see the other person as he or she really is.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.7 Discuss how to overcome potential problems of cross-cultural communication.

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94) Brenda is a new employee orientation trainer for a global corporation with subsidiaries all over the world. She needs to convey information to new employees that will help them in communicating across cultures. Brenda explains to new employees that cultures rely heavily on nonverbal cues and subtle situational cues in communicating with others, and a person's official status, place in society, and reputation carry considerable weight.

A) low power distance B) high power distance C) uncertainty avoiding D) low-context E) high-context Answer: E Explanation: In high-context cultures such as China, Korea, Japan, and Vietnam, people rely heavily on nonverbal and subtle situational cues in communicating with others, and a person's official status, place in society, and reputation carry considerable weight. What is not said may be more significant than what is said.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Application LO: 11.7 Discuss how to overcome potential problems of cross-cultural communication.

95) Brenda is a new employee orientation trainer for a global corporation with subsidiaries all over the world. She needs to convey information to new employees that will help them in communicating across cultures. Brenda should advise new employees to do which of the following when dealing with others from different cultures?

A) Remember that individuals are similar in many ways.

B) Avoid interpreting another's actions until you know the full story.

C) Act decisively and quickly to demonstrate your power.

D) Minimize opportunities for feedback.

E) Do your best to avoid conflict.

Answer: B Explanation: Interpreting or evaluating what someone has said or done draws more on your own culture and background than on the observed situation. So delay judgment until you've had sufficient time to observe and interpret the situation from the differing perspectives of all concerned.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Application LO: 11.7 Discuss how to overcome potential problems of cross-cultural communication.

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96) One of the problems in cross-cultural communication is the barrier caused by semantics.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Words mean different things to different people, particularly people from different national cultures. Some words do not translate between cultures. These semantic barriers cause problems in cross-cultural communication.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.7 Discuss how to overcome potential problems of cross-cultural communication.

97) Nonverbal cues are less important in high-context cultures.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: In high-context cultures, people rely heavily on nonverbal and subtle situational cues in communicating with others.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.7 Discuss how to overcome potential problems of cross-cultural communication.

98) How do cultural barriers affect communication?

Answer: Cross-cultural factors clearly create the potential for increased communication problems. Semantics can act as a communication barrier. Words mean different things to different people, particularly people from different national cultures. Some words do not translate between cultures. Barriers are also caused by word connotations. Words imply different things in different languages. In addition, barriers are caused by tone differences. In some cultures, language is formal, in others, it is informal. In some cultures, the tone changes depending on the context. People speak differently at home, in social situations, and at work.

Finally, there are cultural differences in tolerance for conflict and methods for resolving conflict.

People from individualistic cultures tend to be more comfortable with direct conflict and will make the source of their disagreements overt. Collectivists are more likely to acknowledge conflict only implicitly and avoid emotionally charged disputes.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.7 Discuss how to overcome potential problems of cross-cultural communication.

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99) When communicating with people from a different culture, what can you do to reduce misinterpretations?

Answer: Experts offer the following suggestions to reduce misinterpretations in communicating with people from a different culture. The first suggestion is to know yourself. Recognizing one's own cultural identity and biases is critical to understanding the viewpoints of other people. The second is to foster a climate of mutual respect, fairness, and democracy. The third suggestion is to state facts and not one's interpretation. Interpreting or evaluating what someone has said or done draws more on one's own culture and background than on the observed situation. The fourth suggestion is to consider the other person's viewpoint. Finally, it is important to proactively maintain the identity of the group. This is done by reminding members of one's group of their common goals, mutual respect, and need to adapt to individual communication preferences.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.7 Discuss how to overcome potential problems of cross-cultural communication.

100) How does cultural context play a role in communication?

Answer: Cultures tend to differ in the degree to which context influences the meaning individuals take from communication. In high-context cultures such as China, Korea, Japan, and Vietnam, people rely heavily on nonverbal and subtle situational cues in communicating with others, and a person's official status, place in society, and reputation carry considerable weight.

What is not said may be more significant than what is said. In contrast, people from Europe and North America reflect their low-context cultures. They rely essentially on spoken and written words to convey meaning; body language and formal titles are secondary. Contextual differences mean quite a lot in terms of communication. Communication in high-context cultures implies considerably more trust by both parties. What may appear to be casual and insignificant conversation, in fact reflects the desire to build a relationship and create trust. Oral agreements imply strong commitments in high-context cultures. In low-context cultures, enforceable contracts tend to be in writing, precisely worded, and highly legalistic.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 11.7 Discuss how to overcome potential problems of cross-cultural communication.

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Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 11E (Robbins) Chapter 11 Leadership 1) Leadership is best defined as .

A) the ability to influence a group toward the achievement of a vision or set of goals B) the process of drawing up formal plans and monitoring their implementation C) the process of carrying out the vision and strategy provided by management D) the process of coordinating and staffing the organization and handling day-to-day problems E) the proper use of the influence gained exclusively as a result of one's organizational position Answer: A Explanation: Leadership can be defined as the ability to influence a group toward the achievement of a vision or set of goals. Leaders can emerge from within a group as well as by formal appointment.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

2) Which of the following statements regarding leadership is true?

A) All leaders are managers.

B) Formal rights ensure good leadership.

C) All managers are leaders.

D) All leaders are hierarchically superior to followers.

E) Nonsanctioned leadership is as important as formal influence.

Answer: E Explanation: The source of a leader's influence may be formal, such as that provided by managerial rank in an organization. But not all leaders are managers, nor, for that matter, are all managers leaders. Just because an organization provides its managers with certain formal rights is no assurance they will lead effectively. Nonsanctioned leadership—the ability to influence that arises outside the formal structure of the organization—is often as important or more important than formal influence.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

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3) Within organizations, leaders are needed to and managers are needed to .

A) oversee the manager; execute the leader's ideas B) challenge the status quo; create visions of the future C) formulate detailed plans; create efficient organizational structures D) inspire organizational members; oversee day-to-day operations E) Leaders and managers both oversee others and execute others' ideas.

Answer: D Explanation: The roles of leaders and managers are quite different within an organization.

Leaders take on the more creative role within the organization while managers handle the more common and routine activities.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

4) While Carlos did not hold any title at the Big Sur Company, his wisdom and empathy for others made his peers look at him as a leader. Carlos is a leader.

A) nonsanctioned B) transformational C) transactional D) managerial E) mentoring Answer: A Explanation: Often leaders can emerge from within a group and not be formally appointed to a leadership position. These are called nonsanctioned leaders, such as Carlos.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

5) Sharla, Atul, and Irving started working as managers at the Golden Hotel one year ago.

Though they were all hired at the same time, Sharla is the best of the three on sensing others' needs, listening to what followers say, and reading the reactions of others. Sharla scores high on .

A) charisma B) emotional intelligence C) intelligence D) task orientation E) cognition Answer: B Explanation: A core component of emotional intelligence (EI) is empathy. Sharla scores very high on various aspects of empathy.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

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6) Which theory of leadership differentiates leaders from nonleaders by focusing on personal qualities and characteristics?

A) Fiedler's model B) Attributes theory C) LMX theory D) Contingency theory E) Trait theory Answer: E Explanation: Trait theories of leadership focus on personal qualities and characteristics. The search for personality, social, physical, or intellectual attributes that differentiate leaders from nonleaders goes back to the earliest stages of leadership research.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

7) Which of the following Big Five traits is the strongest predictor of leader emergence?

A) Agreeableness B) Extraversion C) Openness D) Neuroticism E) Conscientiousness Answer: B Explanation: In examining personality traits, researchers have consistently found extraversion to be important for several leadership outcomes. It is the strongest predictor of leader emergence.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

8) Leaders who effectively display and manage emotions will .

A) not express genuine enthusiasm B) keep the commitments they make C) find it easier to influence the feelings of followers D) focus on their own self-interest E) use sympathy for those who fail to perform Answer: C Explanation: A leader who effectively displays and manages emotions will find it easier to influence the feelings of followers, by both expressing genuine sympathy and enthusiasm for good performance and by using irritation for those who fail to perform.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

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9) According to research, which of the Big Five personality traits is less important in effective leaders?

A) Conscientiousness B) Openness C) Extraversion D) Agreeableness E) Emotional stability Answer: B Explanation: Openness to experience, of the Big Five traits, appears to be less important as a trait for leadership.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

10) Emotional intelligence (EI) is critical to effective leadership because one of its core components is .

A) conscientiousness B) empathy C) optimism D) introversion E) perfectionism Answer: B Explanation: A core component of EI is empathy. A leader who effectively displays and manages emotions will find it easier to influence the feelings of followers, by both expressing genuine sympathy and enthusiasm for good performance and by using irritation for those who fail to perform.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

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11) In a watercooler discussion on leadership, DeSean indicated that he identifies leaders by their personal qualities and characteristics. In contrast, Aisha vehemently argued that leaders should be identified by what they do and how they do it. DeSean most likely subscribes to the theory of leadership.

A) behavioral B) trait C) contingency D) situational E) organizational Answer: B Explanation: Trait theories of leadership consider personal qualities and characteristics that differentiate leaders from nonleaders.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

12) Which of the following statements accurately reflects the conclusions about the trait theories of leadership?

A) Traits were better predictors of leadership 20 years ago than they are now.

B) The Big Five traits are inadequate for predicting leadership.

C) Traits are especially useful for distinguishing between effective and ineffective leaders.

D) Traits do a good job of predicting the emergence of leaders.

E) Overall, traits are poor predictors of leadership.

Answer: D Explanation: Two conclusions can be offered about the effectiveness of the trait theory of leadership. First, traits can predict leadership. Second, traits do a better job predicting the emergence of leaders and the appearance of leadership than actually distinguishing between effective and ineffective leaders.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

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13) Your company's HR director is a believer in trait theories of leadership. He believes that he can differentiate leaders from nonleaders by focusing on personal qualities and characteristics.

The HR director plans to promote Chang, a highly extraverted manager with a great deal of ambition and energy to the position of VP, Manufacturing. He asks for your expertise in helping him to apply trait theory to leadership selection within your company. The director believes that because of his innate characteristics, Chang will be highly effective at helping the company achieve its production goals. You advise the director against basing his decision purely on traits because .

A) research has identified emotional stability as the strongest predictor of leadership effectiveness B) studies have found that the Big Five traits are difficult to identify in leaders C) studies have shown that traits are poor predictors of leadership effectiveness D) research has found that conscientiousness is a better predictor of effectiveness than extraversion E) research has shown that effective managers are often unlikely to become effective leaders Answer: C Explanation: Traits do a better job predicting the emergence of leaders and the appearance of leadership than actually distinguishing between effective and ineffective leaders. The fact that an individual exhibits the traits and others consider that person to be a leader does not necessarily mean the leader is successful at getting his or her group to achieve its goals. The context matters, too.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

14) Nonsanctioned leadership refers to which of the following situations?

A) When one influences others outside of the formal organizational structures B) When one influences others outside of their defined leadership role C) When one influences others in a manner which is approved by the subordinates D) When subordinates supersede the directives of the leader E) When leaders and subordinates abandon all organizational structures Answer: A Explanation: Nonsanctioned leadership, sometimes called informal leadership, occurs when someone steps up and takes on a leadership role outside of their normal job duties.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

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15) Leadership research has sought to identify all but which of the following attributes of leaders?

A) Personality B) Social attributes C) Intellectual attributes D) Physical attributes E) Communication abilities Answer: E Explanation: While communication abilities might be seen within other attributes of what makes a leader, it is not one of the four areas of leadership research.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

16) Research has shown which two skills can be helpful for leaders in controlling the effects of their Dark Side traits?

A) Emotional stability and self-awareness B) Self-awareness and self-regulation C) Self-regulation and narcissism D) Narcissism and openness to new experiences E) Openness to new experiences and emotional stability Answer: B Explanation: By knowing one has dark tendencies as well as the ability to control them, one has the chance to be effective as a leader.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

17) Navar is an emotionally intelligent, well-respected manager at a financial analytics firm. One day, Navar sensed something was wrong with one of his team members, Michael, and asked him what was wrong. Michael immediately started crying and telling Navar that his grandmother was sick and in the hospital. Being high in EI, which reaction is most likely for Navar?

A) Navar starts crying along with Michael and gives him a hug.

B) Navar hurriedly gets Michael out of the room so he will not embarrass himself.

C) Navar listens quietly to Michael but does not offer any type of advice or physical contact.

D) Navar tells Michael to step outside to regain his composure.

E) Navar tells Michael all about how when his own grandmother was sick.

Answer: C Explanation: An emotionally intelligent leader is able to manage their own emotions and is empathetic to sense others' needs, listen to what followers say, and read the reactions of others.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Interpersonal Relations and Teamwork Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

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18) Leadership is the ability to influence that arises outside the formal structures of the organization.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Nonsanctioned leadership is the ability to influence that arises outside the formal structure of the organization. Leadership relates to formal influence.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

19) Empathetic leaders can sense others' needs, listen to what followers say (and do not say), and read the reactions of others.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Emotional intelligence (EI) is an important trait for effective leadership. A core component of EI is empathy.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

20) Trait theories imply that people can be trained to be leaders.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Trait research provides a basis for selecting the right people for leadership. In contrast, behavioral studies imply we could train people to be leaders.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

21) Openness to experience is a less important trait to effective leadership.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: While trait theories of leadership focus on personal qualities (such as the Big Five traits), openness to experience appears to be less important as a leadership trait.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

22) Research indicates that the Dark Triad personality traits are not all bad for leadership.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Research has indicated that mid-range scores on Dark Triad personality traits (even psychopathy) were optimally related to leadership, while both low and high scores were associated with ineffective leadership.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

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23) How do the Dark Triad traits relate to leadership?

Answer: Research indicates that the Dark Triad traits are not all bad for leadership: normative (mid-range) scores on Dark Triad personality traits (even psychopathy) were optimal, and low (and high) scores were associated with ineffective leadership. Both this study and other international research indicate that building self-awareness and self-regulation skills may be helpful for leaders to control the effects of their Dark Triad traits.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.1 Summarize the conclusions of trait theories of leadership.

24) Which of the following theories provide a basis for selecting the right people for leadership?

A) Trait theories B) LMX theory C) Contingency theories D) Behavioral theories E) Fiedler model Answer: A Explanation: While behavioral theories imply we can train people to be leaders, trait theories provide a basis for selecting the right people for leadership.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.2 Identify the central tenets and main limitations of behavioral theories.

25) The Ohio State Studies narrowed the independent dimensions of leader behavior to two dimensions that substantially accounted for most of the leadership behavior described by employees: initiating structure and .

A) employee-orientation B) empathy C) consideration D) constructing vision E) charisma Answer: C Explanation: Seeking to identify independent dimensions of leader behavior, the Ohio State Studies determined that two dimensions accounted for most effective leadership behavior: initiating structure and consideration.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.2 Identify the central tenets and main limitations of behavioral theories.

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26) As a leader, Juan emphasizes meeting deadlines. Per the Ohio State Studies model of leadership, Juan is a leader high in .

A) consideration B) empathy C) emotional intelligence D) initiating structure E) charisma Answer: D Explanation: Leaders who are high in initiating structure attempt to organize work, relationships, and goals, such as Juan's insistence on meeting deadlines.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.2 Identify the central tenets and main limitations of behavioral theories.

27) In the context of behavioral dimensions of leadership identified in the Ohio State Studies, initiating structure refers to the extent to which .

A) a person's job relationships are characterized by mutual trust, respect for employees' ideas, and regard for their feelings B) a leader engages in participative management C) a leader is accepting of and respects individual differences among various team members D) a leader is likely to define and structure his or her role and those of employees in the search for goal attainment E) a leader initiates efforts to communicate personally with employees Answer: D Explanation: As a behavioral dimension of leaders, initiating structure is the extent to which a leader is likely to define and structure his or her role and those of employees in the search for goal attainment. It includes behavior that attempts to organize work, work relationships, and goals.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.2 Identify the central tenets and main limitations of behavioral theories.

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28) Kimberley, a manager at a large company, tends to assign group members to particular tasks, expects workers to maintain definite standards of performance, and emphasizes the meeting of deadlines. In the light of the Ohio State Studies, this indicates that Kimberley, as a leader, is .

A) low in task orientation B) high in consideration C) relationship oriented D) employee oriented E) high in initiating structure Answer: E Explanation: Initiating structure is the extent to which a leader is likely to define and structure his or her role and those of employees in the search for goal attainment. It includes behavior that attempts to organize work, work relationships, and goals. A leader high in initiating structure is someone who "assigns group members to particular tasks," "expects workers to maintain definite standards of performance," and "emphasizes the meeting of deadlines."

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 12.2 Identify the central tenets and main limitations of behavioral theories.

29) In the context of behavioral dimensions of leadership identified in the Ohio State Studies, is the extent to which a person's job relationships are characterized by mutual trust, respect for employees' ideas, and regard for their feelings.

A) consideration B) initiating structure C) production orientation D) task orientation E) position power Answer: A Explanation: In the context of behavioral dimensions of leadership identified in the Ohio State Studies, consideration is the extent to which a person's job relationships are characterized by mutual trust, respect for employees' ideas, and regard for their feelings.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.2 Identify the central tenets and main limitations of behavioral theories.

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30) The Jacoby Group built a huge business training people to be leaders. Which of the following theories of leadership is The Jacoby Group's business based on?

A) Cognitive B) Behavioral C) Trait D) Structural E) Competitive Answer: B Explanation: Behavioral theories of leadership (like the Ohio State Studies) imply that people can be trained to be leaders.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.2 Identify the central tenets and main limitations of behavioral theories.

31) Which of the following is strongly related to positive performance evaluations?

A) Initiating structure B) Task-orientation C) Consideration D) Empathy E) Structural orientation Answer: A Explanation: According to a review of hundreds of leadership studies, initiating structure is strongly related to positive performance evaluations.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.2 Identify the central tenets and main limitations of behavioral theories.

32) The most comprehensive behavioral theory of leadership is the Studies.

A) University of Michigan B) Oregon State C) Ohio State D) University of Florida E) Bentley College Answer: C Explanation: The most comprehensive behavioral theories of leadership resulted from the Ohio State Studies and their initiating structure and consideration dimensions.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.2 Identify the central tenets and main limitations of behavioral theories.

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33) Research on cultural preferences suggest that leaders high in succeeded best in countries where cultural values did not favor unilateral decision making.

A) consideration B) task orientation C) empathy D) cognition E) initiating structure Answer: A Explanation: Research suggests that leaders high in consideration succeeded best in countries (like Brazil) where cultural values did not favor unilateral decision making.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.2 Identify the central tenets and main limitations of behavioral theories.

34) Leo supervises a global team of project members based in multiple countries. Maria is Brazilian, Jean-Paul is French, Amit is Egyptian, and Xiang is Chinese. Leo is American and is based in the United States. In the light on the findings of the GLOBE project, which team members can be expected to respond most favorably when Leo exhibits high levels of initiating structure?

A) Jean-Paul and Xiang B) Amit and Xiang C) Maria and Jean-Paul D) Amit and Maria E) Xiang and Amit Answer: A Explanation: France and China are countries where individuals tend to value initiating structure. The French have a bureaucratic view of leaders and expect leaders to make decisions relatively autocratically. The Chinese have a high performance orientation that emphasizes status differences between employees. Leaders with high initiating structures therefore have better results in these countries.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 12.2 Identify the central tenets and main limitations of behavioral theories.

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35) Leo supervises a global team of project members based in multiple countries. Maria is Brazilian, Jean-Paul is French, Amit is Egyptian, and Xiang is Chinese. Leo is American and is based in the United States. Which of the following team members would be least likely to respond favorably if Leo made project-related decisions independently, without consulting the team?

A) Maria B) Jean-Paul C) Amit D) Xiang E) Maria and Jean-Paul Answer: A Explanation: Brazilians value participatory decision-making. Maria would thus be least likely to respond favorably to autocratic decision-making on Leo's part. As one Brazilian manager remarked in a research study, "We do not prefer leaders who take self-governing decisions and act alone without engaging the group. That's part of who we are."

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 12.2 Identify the central tenets and main limitations of behavioral theories.

36) The team agrees that a large component of the project will be carried out at the Chinese headquarters, with Xiang responsible for leading that support team. Based on what the GLOBE project concludes about Chinese culture, which of the following leader behaviors would be most effective?

A) Infrequent decision making B) Highly participatory decision making C) Autocratic decision making D) Decision making without initiating structure E) Moderately participatory decision making Answer: E Explanation: Chinese culture emphasizes being polite, considerate, and unselfish, but it also has a high performance orientation. These two factors suggest consideration and initiating structure may both be important. Although Chinese culture is relatively participative compared to that of the United States, there are also status differences between leaders and employees. This suggests a moderately participative style may work best there.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 12.2 Identify the central tenets and main limitations of behavioral theories.

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37) The two dimensions used in the Ohio State Studies on leadership are initiating structure and consideration.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: The most comprehensive behavioral theories of leadership resulted from the Ohio State Studies that used initiating structure and consideration as the two dimensions of leadership.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.2 Identify the central tenets and main limitations of behavioral theories.

38) According to the Ohio State Studies, initiating structure is the extent to which a person's work relationship are characterized by mutual trust, respect for employees' ideas, and regard for their feelings.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Initiating structure is the extent to which leaders define and structure their roles and those of their subordinates in pursuit of goal attainment.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.2 Identify the central tenets and main limitations of behavioral theories.

39) What cultural differences do we see with respect to the preference for initiating structure and consideration?

Answer: Research suggests that there are international differences in the preference for initiating structure and consideration. The study found that leaders high in consideration succeeded best in countries where cultural values did not favor unilateral decision making, such as Brazil. In contrast, the French have a more bureaucratic view of leaders and are less likely to expect them to be humane and considerate. A leader high in initiating structure (relatively task-oriented) will do best there and can make decisions in a relatively autocratic manner. A manager who scores high in consideration (people-oriented) may find that the style backfires in France. In other cultures, like China, both dimensions may be important.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.2 Identify the central tenets and main limitations of behavioral theories.

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40) Research has narrowed the thousands of leadership behaviors into two primary dimensions.

Please list and describe these two behaviors.

Answer: The two behaviors are initiating structure and consideration. Initiating structure refers to the extent to which a leader is likely to define and construct their role as well as those of their employees. A leader who is high in initiating structure is very task-oriented and expects workers to maintain standards. Consideration refers to the extent to which a person's job relationships are characterized by mutual trust, respect for employees' ideas, and regard for their feelings. A leader with high consideration aids employees with personal problems, is friendly and approachable, treats all employees as equals, and expresses appreciation and support.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.2 Identify the central tenets and main limitations of behavioral theories.

41) Which of the following was the first comprehensive contingency model for leadership?

A) The Ohio State Studies B) Path-Goal Theory C) Leader-Member Exchange D) The Charisma Model E) Fiedler contingency model Answer: E Explanation: Fred Fiedler developed the first comprehensive contingency model for leadership—the Fiedler contingency model.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.3 Contrast contingency theories of leadership.

42) If followers are and , the leader needs to use a supportive and participative style.

A) unable; willing B) able; unwilling C) able; willing D) unable; unwilling E) able; complacent Answer: B Explanation: Based on situational leadership, the leader needs to be sensitive to the readiness of the followers.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.3 Contrast contingency theories of leadership.

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43) If followers are and , the leader does not need to do much.

A) unable; willing B) able; unwilling C) able; willing D) unable; unwilling E) able; complacent Answer: C Explanation: Based on situational leadership, the leader needs to be sensitive to the readiness of the followers. If they are ready and willing, then the leader does not have to play an overt role in leading them.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.3 Contrast contingency theories of leadership.

44) In the questionnaire used in the Fiedler contingency model, respondents are asked to think of all the co-workers they ever had and describe the one they with.

A) had the most empathy B) had the least empathy C) most enjoyed working D) least enjoyed working E) most socialized Answer: D Explanation: Fiedler's least preferred co-worker (LPC) questionnaire measures whether a person is task or relationship-oriented by asking respondents to rate their least favorite co-worker. Respondents who describe their least-preferred co-worker in unfavorable terms (a low LPC score) are viewed as primarily interested in productivity and as being task-oriented.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.3 Contrast contingency theories of leadership.

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45) Aisha has just completed and scored the LPC questionnaire given to her during an evaluation exercise. She is surprised when she finds out that she described her least preferred co-worker in relatively positive terms because she recalls being particularly annoyed by this difficult co-worker several times in the past. Based on your understanding of Fiedler's model, you explain to Aisha that her LPC score makes sense within the model because .

A) Aisha tends to become very dominating when given ambiguous tasks B) Aisha is usually much more focused on productivity than on developing relationships C) Aisha tends in general to focus on building good relationships with the other employees D) Aisha has a spotty work history and has tended to switch jobs every couple of years E) Aisha is usually chosen for positions of high responsibility within your organization Answer: C Explanation: If you describe the person you are least able to work with in favorable terms (a high LPC score), Fiedler would label you relationship-oriented. In contrast, if you see your least preferred co-worker in relatively unfavorable terms (a low LPC score), you are primarily interested in productivity and are task-oriented.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 12.3 Contrast contingency theories of leadership.

46) Fiedler's contingency leadership model assumes that .

A) an individual's leadership style is essentially fixed B) an individual can use the LPC to change his/her style to a more productive style C) there is no ideal way to match leadership styles with situations D) all leaders can learn to adapt to different contingencies E) each person's style will change in accordance with the situation at hand Answer: A Explanation: Fiedler assumes an individual's leadership style is fixed. This means if a situation requires a task-oriented leader and the person in the leadership position is relationship-oriented, either the situation has to be modified or the leader has to be replaced to achieve optimal effectiveness.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.3 Contrast contingency theories of leadership.

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47) Fiedler labels the degree of influence a leader has over variables such as hiring, firing, and discipline as .

A) leader-member relations B) task structure C) position power D) leader-member exchange E) leader-member orientation Answer: C Explanation: Fiedler identified three contingency or situational dimensions to leadership success, including leader-member relations, task structure, and position power. Position power is the degree of influence a leader has over power variables such as hiring, firing, discipline, promotions, and salary increases.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.3 Contrast contingency theories of leadership.

48) Which of the following situational dimensions identified by Fiedler relates to the degree to which job assignments are procedurized, that is, structured or unstructured?

A) Leader-member relations B) Task orientation C) Task structure D) Initiating structure E) Productivity oriented Answer: C Explanation: Fiedler identified three contingency or situational dimensions in which certain types of leaders might excel or fail, including leader-member relations, task structure, and position power. Task structure is the degree to which job assignments are procedurized (that is, structured or unstructured). Leaders who are task-oriented, Fielder proposes, perform best when the situation is very favorable or very unfavorable.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.3 Contrast contingency theories of leadership.

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49) As a shift manager at Arnie's Bakery, Sharniece enjoys a high degree of confidence, trust, and respect from her subordinates. Per Fiedler's model, this relates to .

A) task structure B) leader-member relations C) position power D) initiating structure E) leader-member exchange Answer: B Explanation: In the context of Fiedler's model, leader-member relations is the degree of confidence, trust, and respect members have in their leader.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.3 Contrast contingency theories of leadership.

50) If you were using the Fiedler contingency model of leadership to establish a scenario in your company which gives managers maximum control, which of the following combinations of situational dimensions would you seek to achieve?

A) High task structure, good leader-member relations, and strong position power B) Limited position power, good leader-member relations, and low task structure C) Less structured jobs, strong position power, and moderate leader-member relations D) Broad employee responsibilities, low position power, and moderate leader-member relations E) Good leader-member relations, low position power, and unstructured jobs Answer: A Explanation: The Fiedler contingency model proposes that effective group performance depends on the proper match between the leader's style and the degree to which the situation gives the leader control. Fiedler states that the better the leader—member relations, the more highly structured the job, and the stronger the position power, the more control the leader has.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 12.3 Contrast contingency theories of leadership.

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51) According to the Fiedler contingency model of leadership, task-oriented leaders perform best in situations of , while relationship-oriented leaders perform best in situations.

A) moderate control; high and low control B) high control; low and moderate control C) high and moderate control; low control D) high and low control; moderate control E) moderate and low control; high control Answer: D Explanation: According to the Fiedler contingency model, task-oriented leaders perform best in situations of high and low control, while relationship-oriented leaders perform best in moderate control situations.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.3 Contrast contingency theories of leadership.

52) Which of the following leadership models argues that the way the leader makes decisions is as important as what is decided?

A) Fiedler Contingency Model B) Cognition Model C) Leader-Participation Model (LPM) D) Path-Goal Theory E) Situational Leadership Theory (SLT) Answer: C Explanation: LPM rests heavily on how the subordinate is included in the decision-making process. It argues that the way the leader makes decisions is as important as what is decided.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.3 Contrast contingency theories of leadership.

53) In the Fiedler contingency model, the questionnaire used is called the most preferred coworker (MPC) questionnaire.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: The Fiedler contingency model uses the least preferred coworker (LPC) scale that asks respondents to think of all the coworkers they ever had and describe the one they least enjoyed working with.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.3 Contrast contingency theories of leadership.

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54) In Fiedler's contingency model, successful leadership depends on selecting the right leadership style contingent on the followers' readiness.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Follower readiness is not a contingency factor in the Fiedler model. It is, however, a contingency factor in situational leadership theory (SLT).

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.3 Contrast contingency theories of leadership.

55) Path-goal theory combines elements of initiating structure and consideration with the expectancy theory of motivation.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Path-goal theory suggests it is the leader's job to provide followers with information, support, or other resources necessary to achieve goals (i.e., clarify path and remove roadblocks).

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.3 Contrast contingency theories of leadership.

56) What is the path-goal theory of leadership?

Answer: The path-goal theory of leadership combines elements of initiating structure and consideration with the expectancy theory of motivation. The theory suggests that it is the leader's job to provide followers with information, support, or other resources necessary to achieve their goals, to ensure that the path to accomplishing these goals is understandable or clear, and to reduce any roadblocks that may be making goal accomplishment difficult.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.3 Contrast contingency theories of leadership.

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57) Which theory of leadership proposes that followers attribute heroic or extraordinary leadership abilities when they observe certain behaviors?

A) Transformational leadership theory B) Authentic leadership theory C) Transactional leadership theory D) Attributional leadership theory E) Charismatic leadership theory Answer: E Explanation: According to the charismatic leadership theory, followers attribute heroic or extraordinary leadership abilities when they observe certain behaviors. A number of studies have attempted to identify the characteristics of charismatic leaders: they have a vision, they are willing to take personal risks to achieve that vision, they are sensitive to follower needs, and they exhibit extraordinary behaviors.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

58) Which of the following is not a key characteristic of a charismatic leader?

A) Sensitivity to follower needs B) Unconventional behavior C) Vision and articulation D) Focus on maintaining status quo E) Willingness to take risks Answer: D Explanation: Charismatic leadership theory is based on the idea that when followers observe certain behaviors displayed by a leader, they view that leader as having extraordinary or even heroic leadership abilities. Recent studies have sought to identify these specific behaviors.

Charismatic leaders appear to possess key characteristics, including sensitivity to follower needs, unconventional behavior, vision and articulation, and willingness to take risks.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

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59) refers to a certain quality of an individual personality, by virtue of which the leader is set apart from ordinary people and treated as endowed with supernatural, superhuman, or at least specifically exceptional powers or qualities.

A) Leadership B) Management C) Charisma D) Executive power E) Autocratic power Answer: C Explanation: Derived from the Greek word for "gift," sociologist Max Weber defined charisma as a certain quality of an individual personality, by virtue of which the leader is set apart from ordinary people and treated as endowed with supernatural, superhuman, or at least specifically exceptional powers or qualities.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

60) In leader-member exchange (LMX) theory, the trusted followers of a leader who get a disproportionate amount of the leader's attention is called the .

A) ingroup B) outgroup C) focus group D) servant group E) control group Answer: A Explanation: LMX theory makes the distinction between ingroups and outgroups. The ingroup consists of followers who are trusted and who get a disproportionate amount of the leader's attention.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

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61) In leader-member exchange (LMX) theory, the consists of followers not trusted by the leader and who get a disproportionately lower amount of the leader's attention.

A) ingroup B) outgroup C) focus group D) servant group E) control group Answer: B Explanation: In LMX theory, the favored group of the leader's followers fall into the ingroup— they are trusted by the leader and they get a disproportionate amount of the leader'sattention.

Other followers fall into the outgroup.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

62) In leader-member exchange (LMX) theory, followers who are ingratiating and self-promoting would fall into which group?

A) Outgroup B) Control group C) Focus group D) Ingroup E) Object group Answer: D Explanation: While competent, conscientious, proactive, and positive employees tend to be placed in the ingroup, so would those who are ingratiating and self-promoting.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

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63) leaders inspire followers to transcend their self-interests for the good of the organization and can have an extraordinary effect on their followers.

A) Transformational B) Transactional C) Task-oriented D) Laissez-faire E) Transcendental Answer: A Explanation: Transformational leaders can have an extraordinary effect on their followers, inspiring them toward selfless goals that benefit the larger organization. These types of leaders inspire their followers by paying attention to their concerns, helping them rethink old problems in new ways, and encouraging them to achieve goals as a group.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

64) How do charismatic leaders influence followers?

A) They show their ability to leverage higher salaries even with mediocre performance.

B) They advise a larger-than-life attitude that does not act in the best interest of the organization.

C) They convince their followers to pursue a vision that can be ruinous.

D) They articulate an appealing vision.

E) They encourage those who follow them to be more creative.

Answer: D Explanation: Charismatic leaders influence followers by articulating an appealing vision, a long-term strategy for attaining a goal by linking the present with a better future for the organization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

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65) In terms of the full range of leadership model, which leader behavior is the least effective?

A) Management by exception (active) B) Contingent reward C) Management by exception (passive) D) Individualized consideration E) Laissez-faire Answer: E Explanation: According to the full range of leadership model, laissez-faire is the most passive and therefore least effective of leader behaviors. Management by exception—active or passive—is slightly better than laissez-faire.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

66) In leader-member exchange (LMX) theory, when leaders and followers interact with one another, research suggests that leaders and followers build with one another.

A) contempt B) animosity C) ennui D) passivity E) social capital Answer: E Explanation: In LMX theory, leaders and followers build social capital with one another via interaction.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

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67) Individuals who are narcissistic are higher in some behaviors associated with .

A) charismatic leadership B) transactional leadership C) transformational leadership D) authentic leadership E) servant leadership Answer: A Explanation: Charismatic leaders who are larger than life don't necessarily act in the best interest of their organizations. Many have allowed their personal goals to override the goals of the organization. It is little wonder research has shown that individuals who are narcissistic are also higher in some behaviors associated with charismatic leadership.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

68) Rev. Martin Luther King Jr., Mahatma Gandhi, and former president Barack Obama are often considered as examples of leaders.

A) transactional B) transformational C) sanctioned D) nonsanctioned E) charismatic Answer: E Explanation: All of the examples are people who have/had a great deal of charisma which set them apart from the masses.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

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69) Research indicates that charismatic leadership strategies work as followers " " the emotions and values their leader is conveying.

A) manipulate B) catch C) influence D) discourage E) mimic Answer: B Explanation: Employees find that they have a stronger sense of personal belonging when they have a charismatic leader.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

70) According to the Leader-Member Exchange theory, followers with ingroup status experience all of the following except which?

A) Engagement in more citizenship behaviors B) Higher levels of satisfaction with their superior C) Higher performance ratings D) Participate in more helping behaviors E) Rise more quickly within the organization Answer: E Explanation: While it would not be unfathomable that ingroup status would lead to quicker movement in the organization, there is no research within LMX which supports that ingroup status causes quicker advancement.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

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71) Historian Doris Kearns Goodwin identified Abraham Lincoln, Theodore Roosevelt, and Lyndon Johnson as leaders who personally appealed to Americans and inspired followers to make sacrifices to pursue goals for the country. This description suggests that the three past presidents are leaders.

A) transactional B) situational C) transformational D) contingent E) cognitive Answer: C Explanation: Transformational leaders inspire followers to transcend their self-interests for the good of the organization.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

72) Which of the following styles of leadership focuses on contingent rewards?

A) Transactional B) Transformational C) Charismatic D) Inspirational E) Passionate Answer: A Explanation: Contingent reward contracts exchange rewards for effort, promise rewards for good performance, and recognize accomplishments. Transactional leaders use this kind of reward.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

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73) Which of the following types of leadership focuses on individualized consideration?

A) Transactional B) Transformational C) Corporate D) Institutionalized E) Laissez-faire Answer: B Explanation: A transformational leader gives personal attention, treats each employee individually, coaches, and advises.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

74) In his leadership role, Jack typically abdicates responsibility and avoids making decisions.

Jack is likely to be a leader.

A) charismatic B) situational C) transactional D) transformational E) cognitive Answer: C Explanation: One of the characteristics of a transactional leader is abdicating responsibility and avoiding making decisions. Collectively, this is called a laissez-faire attitude.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

75) Ramon's leadership style features watching and searching for deviations from rules and standards and then taking corrective action. Ramon is a(n) leader.

A) transformational B) transactional C) charismatic D) laissez-faire E) institutional Answer: B Explanation: Transactional leaders practice management by exception. They watch and search for deviations from rules and standards and then take corrective action.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Synthesis LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

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76) According to leader-member exchange (LMX) theory, the ingroup members get a disproportionate amount of the leader's attention.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: In LMX theory, leaders establish a special relationship with a small group of their followers—the ingroup. Ingroup members are trusted, get a disproportionate amount of the leader's attention, and are more likely to receive special privileges.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

77) According to leader-member exchange (LMX) theory, leaders and followers of different genders tend to have closer (higher LMX) relationships than those of the same gender.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: According to LMX theory, leaders and followers of the same gender tend to have closer (higher LMX) relationships than those of different genders.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

78) Charismatic leadership theory is a leadership theory that states that followers make attributions of heroic or extraordinary leadership abilities when they observe certain behaviors.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Charismatic leadership theory suggests that specific personality traits give them power.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

79) One factor that decreases the effectiveness of charismatic leadership is stress.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: One factor that enhances charismatic leadership is stress. People are especially receptive to charismatic leadership when they sense a crisis, when they are under stress, or when they fear for their lives.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

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80) How does one become a charismatic leader?

Answer: Anyone can develop, within our own limitations, a more charismatic leadership style.

If you stay active and central in your leadership roles, you will naturally communicate your vision for achieving goals to your followers, which increases the likelihood that you will be charismatic. To further develop an aura of charisma, use your passion as a catalyst for generating enthusiasm. Bring out the potential in followers by tapping into their emotions and forging a unifying bond among the team.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

81) How are transactional leaders different from transformational leaders?

Answer: Transactional leaders guide their followers toward established goals by clarifying role and task requirements, allocating rewards and punishment where needed, and (passively or actively) intervening when the situation calls for it. In contrast, transformational leaders inspire followers to transcend their self-interests for the good of the organization. Transactional leaders focus on contingent rewards, management by exception, and a laissez-faire attitude.

Transformational leaders work through idealized influence, inspirational motivation, intellectual stimulation, and individualized consideration.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

82) What are ingroups and outgroups in leader-member exchange (LMX)? How does leadership work according to this model?

Answer: Leader-member exchange (LMX) suggests leaders and followers have unique, one-on-one relationships that vary with each follower (e.g., some are higher quality than others).

It also suggests that leaders establish a special relationship with a small group of their followers.

These followers make up the ingroup—they are trusted, get a disproportionate amount of the leader's attention, and are more likely to receive special privileges. Other followers fall into the outgroup. Leaders induce higher quality LMX perceptions by engaging in transformational leadership behaviors, ingratiating their followers, rewarding employees with whom they want a closer linkage, and punishing those with whom they do not.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Interpersonal Relations and Teamwork Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 12.4 Describe the contemporary theories of leadership and their relationship to foundational theories.

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83) Which of the following would best serve as evidence to support the conclusion that an individual is an authentic leader?

A) The leader is cautious about information sharing and tends to provide updates only to top management.

B) In business exchanges, the leader puts the company's bottom line before his or her ideals.

C) The leader acts in the company's best interest as long as those interests don't conflict with his personal ambitions.

D) The leader constantly questions his or her values.

E) The leader inspires a great deal of trust in his or her followers.

Answer: E Explanation: Authentic leaders know who they are, know what they believe in and value, and act on those values and beliefs openly and candidly. Their followers consider them ethical people. The primary quality produced by authentic leadership, therefore, is trust. Authentic leaders share information, encourage open communication, and stick to their ideals.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.5 Discuss the roles of leaders in creating ethical organizations.

84) Because leadership is based on the value of serving the needs of others, research has focused on its outcomes for the well-being of followers.

A) servant B) contingent C) situational D) procedural E) occupational Answer: A Explanation: Servant leadership is a leadership style marked by going beyond the leader's own self-interest and instead focusing on opportunities to help followers grow and develop.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.5 Discuss the roles of leaders in creating ethical organizations.

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85) Which of the following types of leadership involves going beyond self-interest to focus on opportunities that help followers grow and develop?

A) Transformational B) Servant C) Relational D) Ethical E) Transactional Answer: B Explanation: By listening, empathizing, persuading, accepting stewardship, and actively developing followers' potential, servant leaders go beyond self-interest to focus on opportunities that help followers grow and develop.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.5 Discuss the roles of leaders in creating ethical organizations.

86) Research in leadership points out that transformational and leadership are extremely similar in practice, to the point where many researchers consider them to be identical.

A) situational B) transactional C) authentic D) contingent E) cognitive Answer: C Explanation: Reviews of the leadership literature point out how transformational and authentic leadership are extremely similar in practice, to the point where many researchers consider them to be identical.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.5 Discuss the roles of leaders in creating ethical organizations.

87) Which of the following is a characteristic of an authentic leader?

A) One who is self-aware B) One who focuses on self-interest C) One who reduces team potency D) One who gives orders to followers E) One who serves the needs of self Answer: A Explanation: Authentic leaders are self-aware—they know what is important to them, including their own strengths and weaknesses.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.5 Discuss the roles of leaders in creating ethical organizations.

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88) Sergio's restaurant was doing poorly. To remedy the situation, Sergio sought the opinions of others, admitted to them his own shortcomings, stuck to his mission of providing traditional Mexican rather than Tex-Mex type of food, and collaborated with his employees to develop a plan of action to make the restaurant profitable. In doing this, Sergio demonstrates leadership.

A) charismatic B) emotional C) cognitive D) authentic E) transactional Answer: D Explanation: Authentic leaders are self-aware and anchored by their mission, consider others' opinions and all relevant information before acting, and display their true selves when interacting with employees.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.5 Discuss the roles of leaders in creating ethical organizations.

89) Authentic leadership strongly predicts outcomes such as group performance and organizational citizenship behaviors (OCBs).

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Authentic leadership strongly predicts a number of outcomes. They include group performance, OCBs, LMX, satisfaction and trust in the leader, ratings of leader effectiveness, follower attitudes and empowerment, and, to a lesser degree, follower creativity, engagement, deviance, turnover intentions, and burnout.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.5 Discuss the roles of leaders in creating ethical organizations.

90) What is servant leadership?

Answer: Servant leadership is a leadership style marked by going beyond the leader's own self-interest and instead focusing on opportunities to help followers grow and develop.

Characteristic behaviors of servant leadership include listening, empathizing, persuading, accepting stewardship, and actively developing followers' potential. Because servant leadership is based on the value of serving the needs of others, research has focused on its outcomes for the well-being of its followers, including followers' job attitudes, as well as their trust in leadership and LMX perceptions.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 12.5 Discuss the roles of leaders in creating ethical organizations.

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91) is a psychological state that exists when you agree to make yourself vulnerable to another because you have positive expectations about how things are going to turn out.

A) Consideration B) Trust C) Empowerment D) Empathy E) Respect Answer: B Explanation: Trust is a psychological state that exists when you agree to make yourself vulnerable to another because you have positive expectations about how things are going to turn out. Even though you aren't completely in control of the situation, you are willing to take a chance that the other person will come through for you.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.6 Describe how leaders can have a positive impact on their organizations through building trust and mentoring.

92) A senior level employee who sponsors and supports a less-experienced employee is a .

A) protégé B) mentor C) guardian angel D) colleague E) protectorate Answer: B Explanation: A mentor sponsors and supports a less-experienced employee.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.6 Describe how leaders can have a positive impact on their organizations through building trust and mentoring.

93) Within mentoring relationships, .

A) only the protégé benefits B) the protégé mainly benefits, but the mentor might also benefit C) both the protégé and the mentor benefit D) the mentor mainly benefits, but the protégé might also benefit E) only the mentor benefits Answer: C Explanation: Within a mentoring relationship, all parties involved benefit.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.6 Describe how leaders can have a positive impact on their organizations through building trust and mentoring.

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94) The primary benefit(s) of mentoring is/are .

A) monetary B) performance C) psychological D) both performance and psychological E) all three—monetary, performance, and psychological Answer: C Explanation: While mentoring can have a good effect on objective outcomes such as compensation and job performance, research suggests that the primary benefit is psychological.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.6 Describe how leaders can have a positive impact on their organizations through building trust and mentoring.

95) Which of the following statements accurately describes the attribution theory of leadership?

A) Leadership is merely an attribution people make about other individuals.

B) Good leaders attribute their successes to their team or group members.

C) Leadership qualities are attributions that are independent of performance.

D) The achievement of group goals is rarely attributed to good leadership.

E) Leadership is an attribute that individuals are born with.

Answer: A Explanation: The attribution theory of leadership says leadership is merely an attribution people make about other individuals. Thus, we attribute to leader's intelligence, outgoing personality, strong verbal skills, aggressiveness, understanding, and industriousness. At the organizational level, we tend to see leaders, rightly or wrongly, as responsible for extremely negative or extremely positive performance.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.7 Identify the challenges to our understanding of leadership.

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96) The president of a small Asian country was hailed as a visionary and a genius when the nation's economy burgeoned during his first term in office. However, when the currency and the stock markets crashed during his government's second term, he was criticized as arrogant, elitist, and shortsighted. This scenario reflects the theory of leadership.

A) traits B) behavioral C) LMX D) substitutes E) attribution Answer: E Explanation: The attribution theory of leadership says leadership is merely an attribution people make about other individuals. Thus, we attribute to leader's intelligence, outgoing personality, strong verbal skills, aggressiveness, understanding, and industriousness. At the organizational level, we tend to see leaders, rightly or wrongly, as responsible for extremely negative or extremely positive performance.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 12.7 Identify the challenges to our understanding of leadership.

97) Zenith Technologies has a very flat organizational system with few managers. Instead, it has a rigid system of clear, formalized goals, clear procedures, and cohesive work groups. In this case, the various components of the organizational system are acting as to formal leadership by replacing the support and ability offered by leaders.

A) detriments B) traits C) attributes D) substitutes E) supplements Answer: D Explanation: One theory of leadership suggests that in many situations leaders' actions are irrelevant. Experience and training are among the substitutes that can replace the need for a leader's support or ability to create structure. Organizational characteristics such as explicit formalized goals, rigid rules and procedures, and cohesive work groups can also replace formal leadership.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 12.7 Identify the challenges to our understanding of leadership.

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98) Much of an organization's success or failure is due to factors outside the influence of leadership.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: While leadership is often seen as our all-purpose explanation to organizational issues, much of an organization's success or failure is due to factors outside the influence of leadership.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.7 Identify the challenges to our understanding of leadership.

99) Attribution theory suggests that what is important is focusing on actual accomplishments rather than projecting the appearance of being a leader.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Attribution theory suggests that what is important is projecting the appearance of being a leader rather than focusing on actual accomplishments.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 12.7 Identify the challenges to our understanding of leadership.

100) What are neutralizers? How are they different from substitutes?

Answer: Neutralizers, such as indifference to rewards, make it impossible for leader behavior to make any difference to follower outcomes. On the other hand, experience and training are among the substitutes that can replace the need for a leader's support or ability to create structure.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 12.7 Identify the challenges to our understanding of leadership.

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Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 11E (Robbins) Chapter 12 Power and Politics 1) Which one of the following is not implied in the definition of power?

A) Influence B) Potential C) Dependency D) Actualization E) Control Answer: D Explanation: Power refers to a capacity that A has to influence the behavior of B so B acts in accordance with A's wishes. However, A can have power over B only if A controls something B desires. Someone can thus have power but not use it; it is a capacity or potential. Probably the most important aspect of power is that it is a function of dependency.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.1 Contrast leadership and power.

2) In organizational behavior (OB), simply refers to the capacity, discretion, and means to enforce one's will over others.

A) dependence B) actualization C) realization D) cognition E) power Answer: E Explanation: Power refers to the capacity, discretion, and means to enforce one's will over others.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.1 Contrast leadership and power.

3) Power is a function of .

A) goal congruency B) realization C) inheritance D) dependence E) altruism Answer: D Explanation: Power is a function of dependence.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.1 Contrast leadership and power.

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4) Which of the following statements is true regarding power?

A) A is said to have power over B if B controls something that A desires.

B) The greater A's dependence on B, the greater A's power in the relationship.

C) If A has the capacity to influence the behavior of B, then A is said to have power over B. D) A can have power over B only if A is B's leader.

E) A can have power over B only when A and B have similar goals.

Answer: C Explanation: If A has the capacity to influence the behavior of B, then A is said to have power over B. The most important aspect of power is that it is a function of dependency. The greater B's dependence on A, the greater A's power in the relationship.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.1 Contrast leadership and power.

5) Which of the following terms best represents a point of difference between power and leadership?

A) Control B) Potential C) Cognitive dissonance D) Goal compatibility E) Negative affect Answer: D Explanation: Power does not require goal compatibility, merely dependence. Leadership, on the other hand, requires some congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.1 Contrast leadership and power.

6) Leadership requires .

A) congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led B) focus on tactics for gaining compliance C) a dependency of those being led on the leader D) followers who share behavioral traits with their leaders E) a dependency of the leader on those being led Answer: A Explanation: Power does not require goal compatibility, merely dependence. Leadership, on the other hand, requires some congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.1 Contrast leadership and power.

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7) does not require goal compatibility, just dependence.

A) Leadership B) Cognition C) Power D) Charisma E) Resolution Answer: C Explanation: Power does not require goal compatibility, just dependence. Leadership, on the other hand, requires some congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.1 Contrast leadership and power.

8) Which of the following statements is true about research on power and leadership?

A) Leadership research often emphasizes style.

B) Leadership focuses more on the downward influence on followers.

C) Leadership minimizes the importance of lateral relationships.

D) Leadership minimizes the importance of upward relationships.

E) Power requires some congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led.

Answer: A Explanation: Leadership research often emphasizes style. It seeks answers to questions such as: How supportive should a leader be? How much decision making should be shared with followers?

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.1 Contrast leadership and power.

9) Dependence is a function of power.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Power is a function of dependence. The more people rely or depend upon the powerful person, the more powerful that person becomes.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.1 Contrast leadership and power.

10) Power does not require goal compatibility, just dependence.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: The difference between leadership and power is that, unlike leadership, power does not require goal compatibility, it requires just dependence.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.1 Contrast leadership and power.

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11) How are power and dependence related?

Answer: In organizational behavior, power is the capacity, discretion, and means to enforce one's will over others. The definition implies that someone can have power but not use it. A powerful person, thus, has discretion over when to exercise their power. Power is also a function of dependence. Dependence refers to the extent to which people depend or rely upon a powerful person. The more people rely or depend upon the powerful person (who controls something the others rely or want), the more powerful that person becomes. When people begin to have more alternatives and options, or begin to rely on themselves or different people, the less dependent they are on the powerful person, who then loses power.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.1 Contrast leadership and power.

12) power is based on an individual's position in an organization.

A) Referent B) Expert C) Formal D) Cognitive E) Knowledge Answer: C Explanation: The bases or sources of power are divided into two general groupings, formal and personal. Formal power is based on an individual's position in an organization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

13) As the plant manager, DeSean has the power to assign to the less popular night shift those of his employees who do not meet the productivity mark. DeSean has power.

A) cognitive B) coercive C) expert D) referent E) subordinative Answer: B Explanation: The coercive power base depends on fear of the negative results from failing to comply. If subordinates do not meet their productivity mark, DeSean will punish them by scheduling them for the night shift.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

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14) At the organizational level, if Carla can give Chang a favorable sales territory, Carla has power over Chang.

A) reward B) legitimate C) coercive D) expert E) referent Answer: A Explanation: In reward power, someone who can distribute rewards (such as assigning someone to a favorable sales territory) that others view as valuable will have power over them.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

15) People in an organization who have data or knowledge others need can make others dependent on them. power comes also from withholding key information.

A) Reward B) Legitimate C) Coercive D) Expert E) Referent Answer: C Explanation: Coercive power is a power base that is dependent on fear of the negative results from failing to comply. One way of exerting this power is by withholding key information.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

16) You know that the vice-president has the authority to accept or reject your report. This is part of his power.

A) reward B) coercive C) expert D) legitimate E) personal Answer: D Explanation: Legitimate power represents the formal authority to control and use organizational resources based on structural position in the organization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

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17) When a former professional athlete tells you that he can teach you how to improve your game, his base of power is .

A) coercive B) referent C) positional D) authoritative E) expert Answer: E Explanation: Expert power is based on influence wielded as a result of expertise, special skills, or knowledge. The ex-professional athlete has the expertise to improve your game.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

18) Shonda can assign Oliver work activities that Oliver finds unpleasant. Shonda possesses power over Oliver.

A) reward B) expert C) legitimate D) coercive E) referent Answer: D Explanation: The coercive power base depends on fear of the negative results from failing to comply. If A can assign B work activities B finds unpleasant or treat B in a manner B finds embarrassing, A possesses coercive power over B. Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

19) The opposite of coercive power is power.

A) referent B) reward C) legitimate D) charismatic E) expert Answer: B Explanation: The opposite of coercive power is reward power, with which people comply because it produces positive benefits; someone who can distribute rewards others view as valuable will have power over them. These rewards can be either financial, such as controlling pay rates, or nonfinancial, including recognition, or promotions.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

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20) If your superior tells you that she will offer you a raise provided you perform additional work beyond the requirements of your job, he/she is exercising power.

A) legitimate B) coercive C) reward D) personal E) reflective Answer: C Explanation: The opposite of coercive power is reward power, with which people comply because it produces positive benefits; someone who can distribute rewards others view as valuable will have power over them. These rewards can be either financial, such as controlling pay rates, or nonfinancial, including recognition, or promotions.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

21) Legitimate power is based on in the organization.

A) the ability to provide rewards B) interpersonal trust C) structural position D) expert knowledge E) respect and admiration Answer: C Explanation: In formal groups and organizations, probably the most common access to one or more of the power bases is through legitimate power. It represents the formal authority to control and use organizational resources based on structural position in the organization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

22) As the chief executive officer (CEO) of the Randolph Company, Sergio has power in the organization.

A) referent B) coercive C) legitimate D) expert E) charismatic Answer: C Explanation: As the CEO of the company, Sergio has legitimate power in the organization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

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23) Andre, who has never participated in athletics since middle school, is the general manager of a basketball team. He often finds himself fighting for players' attention because players seem to listen more to DeSean who had a long and illustrious professional career prior to his retirement and current position as advisor to the team. In this scenario, Andre has power while DeSean has power.

A) positional; athletic B) positional; referent C) legitimate; expert D) referent; athletic E) charismatic; legitimate Answer: C Explanation: Legitimate power represents the formal authority to control and use organizational resources based on structural position in the organization. This is what Andre has. Because of his past achievements, DeSean has expert power.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

24) Which of the following statements is true regarding legitimate power?

A) Legitimate power develops out of admiration of another and a desire to be like that person.

B) Legitimate power comes from an individual's unique characteristics.

C) Legitimate power is broader than the power to coerce and reward.

D) Celebrities who endorse products in commercials wield legitimate power over people.

E) Legitimate power is a type of personal power.

Answer: C Explanation: In formal groups and organizations, probably the most common access to one or more of the power bases is through legitimate power. It represents the formal authority to control and use organizational resources based on structural position in the organization. Legitimate power is broader than the power to coerce and reward.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

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25) Which of the following types of power can be categorized as personal power?

A) Coercive B) Legitimate C) Reward D) Referent E) Positional Answer: D Explanation: Personal power comes from an individual's unique characteristics. There are two bases of personal power: expert power and referent power.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

26) Most of us follow our doctor's advice because our doctor has power.

A) legitimate B) reward C) referent D) expert E) coercive Answer: D Explanation: Expert power is influence wielded as a result of expertise, special skill, or knowledge. As jobs become more specialized, we become increasingly dependent on experts to achieve goals. It is generally acknowledged that physicians have expertise and hence expert power: Most of us follow our doctor's advice.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

27) Steve Jobs, the former co-founder and chief executive officer (CEO) of Apple had power based on his personal traits. Jobs' source of power is called .

A) coercive B) societal C) referent D) expert E) cognitive Answer: C Explanation: Referent power is based on identification with a person who has desirable resources or personal traits. Steve Jobs' power came from his personal traits.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

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28) Your colleagues at work are constantly talking about the vice president in your region. He is perceived throughout the organization as a ruthless man who is not to be antagonized. It is necessary for you to bring him a report, and you are very nervous about having to deal with him.

The vice president's major base of power seems to be .

A) reward B) coercive C) referent D) expert E) personal Answer: B Explanation: The coercive power base depends on fear of the negative results from failing to comply. It rests on the application, or the threat of application, of physical sanctions such as the infliction of pain, frustration through restriction of movement, or the controlling by force of basic physiological or safety needs.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

29) Your immediate supervisor is a nice person. He helps you solve your problems and gives valuable advice. You admire your supervisor and aspire to become like him. The power that your supervisor possesses over you is known as power.

A) transactional B) coercive C) expert D) reward E) referent Answer: E Explanation: Referent power is based on identification with a person who has desirable resources or personal traits.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

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30) John is good with numbers, but he wasn't sure what he wanted to study in college. During his senior year in high school he had a math teacher, Mr. Ahmed. John liked his teaching style and got interested in numbers. He also joined the Math Club to spend more time with Mr. Ahmed. As a result, John went on to study math and later engineering in college, and today tells his kids that he owes his career to Mr. Ahmed. Mr. Ahmed exhibited power over John.

A) positional B) referent C) coercive D) reward E) legitimate Answer: B Explanation: Referent power is based on identification with a person who has desirable resources or personal traits. If a person is respected and admired, he can exercise power and influence over others who desire to please him. John admired Mr. Ahmed and wanted to please him, which influenced his career choice.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

31) Celebrities are paid millions of dollars to endorse products in commercials because the advertisers believe the celebrities have power.

A) coercive B) referent C) expert D) legitimate E) reward Answer: B Explanation: Referent power develops out of admiration of another and a desire to be like that person. It helps explain, for instance, why celebrities are paid millions of dollars to endorse products in commercials.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

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32) While different bases of power are effective depending upon the perceptions and characteristics of the dependent, it does appear that power can be an especially powerful motivator.

A) referent B) coercive C) reward D) legitimate E) positional Answer: A Explanation: While answering the question of which bases of power are the most effective, it does appear, though, that referent power can be an especially powerful motivator.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

33) People especially likely to comply with soft power tactics tend to .

A) be more action oriented B) have greater desire for control C) be extrinsically motivated D) have low self-esteem E) be more focused on getting along with others than with getting their own way Answer: B Explanation: People especially likely to comply with soft power tactics tend to be more reflective, are intrinsically motivated, have high self-esteem, and have greater desire for control.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

34) The opposite of coercive power is reward power.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: People comply with reward power because it produces positive benefits. Its opposite is coercive power because they fear negative results if they don't comply.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

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35) The most common way to access one or more of the power bases is probably through legitimate power.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Legitimate power represents the formal authority to control and use organizational resources based on structural position in the organization. Expert power is influence wielded as a result of expertise, special skill, or knowledge.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

36) Physicians have expertise in diagnosing and treating illnesses and hence have expert power.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Expert power is based on influence wielded as a result of expertise, special skills, or knowledge—what physicians have.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

37) Why is coercive power considered the opposite of reward power?

Answer: Both coercive and reward powers are formal powers because they are based on an individual's position in an organization. The coercive power base depends on the target's (say, a subordinate) fear of negative results from failing to comply or acting in a way that would anger the power holder. In other words, coercive power produces negative results for the target. In contrast, the opposite is true of reward power. In reward power, people comply because it produces positive benefits. Someone who can distribute rewards that others view as valuable will have power over them.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

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38) In a meeting of the liberal arts faculty at State University (SU), the discussion turned to the power held by the university's information technology (IT) staff. One professor remarked that while the IT department was not even organizationally a part of the college of liberal arts, they seem to hold undue power over the college. How would you explain expert power to the liberal arts faculty at SU? Answer: There are two groups of power in organizations—formal power and personal power.

Formal power is based on an individual's position in the organization. Since the IT staff is not a part of the college of liberal arts' hierarchy (although they are a part of the university's hierarchy), they cannot exercise their formal power over the college. However, they can exercise personal power, more specifically expert power. Expert power is based on influence wielded as a result of expertise, special skills, or knowledge. It is likely that the IT staff wield a lot of power over the faculty of the college of liberal arts at SU because of the faculty's dependence on computers for their work and their inability to fix things when their computers don't work. In short, the faculty is dependent on the IT staff's expertise. This dependence leads to power.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.2 Explain the three bases of formal power and the two bases of personal power.

39) The greater B's A, the more power A has over B. A) importance to B) dependence on C) substitutability is for D) attachment to E) relationship to Answer: B Explanation: According to the general dependence postulate, the greater B's dependence on A, the more power A has over B. Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.3 Explain the role of dependence in power relationships.

40) Dependence increases when a resource you control is .

A) important B) scarce C) nonsubstitutable D) both important and scarce E) important, scarce, and nonsubstitutable Answer: E Explanation: A resource has to meet all three conditions—mportance, scarcity, and nonsubstitutability—for it to create dependence.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.3 Explain the role of dependence in power relationships.

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41) Amit, Chang, and Eric work as software developers on a project team. Since Amit and Eric are both experts in the Python programming language (Chang is not proficient in it), their work is more coordinated than it is with Amit and Chang or with Eric and Chang. Per social network analysis, all three would be considered .

A) nodes B) bonds C) ties D) nests E) cliques Answer: A Explanation: Within a social network, or connections between people who share professional interests, each individual or group is called a node.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.3 Explain the role of dependence in power relationships.

42) The greater B's dependence on A, the more power A has over B. Answer: TRUE Explanation: This is called the general dependence postulate—that power is a function of dependence.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.3 Explain the role of dependence in power relationships.

43) Dependence increases when a resource one controls is important, scarce, and nonsubstitutable.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Dependence is resource related—in that, when one controls a resource that is important, scarce, and nonsubstitutable, others become more dependent on this person.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.3 Explain the role of dependence in power relationships.

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44) Amit, Chang, and Eric work as software developers on a project team. Since Amit and Eric are both experts in the Python programming language (Chang is not proficient in it), their work is more coordinated than it is with Amit and Chang or with Eric and Chang. Explain the relationship among the three in terms of social network analysis.

Answer: According to social network analysis, all three—Amit, Chang, and Eric—would be considered nodes. Within a social network, or connection between people who share professional interests, each individual is called a node. Also, here, both Amit and Eric share an interest in the Python programming language. This link between them is called a tie. If Amit and Eric communicate or exchange resources frequently, they would be said to have strong ties. A graphical illustration of the associations among Amit, Chang, and Eric can be captured in a sociogram.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Application LO: 13.3 Explain the role of dependence in power relationships.

45) What is the general dependence postulate?

Answer: The general dependence postulate relates power to dependence. It states that: the greater B's dependence on A, the more power A has over B. When A possesses something that B requires and that A alone controls, it makes B dependent on A, and therefore leads to A having power over B. However, if what A controls is plentiful, possessing it will not increase A's power.

Therefore, if B expands his/her options, the less power that A holds over B. Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 13.3 Explain the role of dependence in power relationships.

46) Please discuss one way in which a company might implement a social network analysis within an organization.

Answer: While responses will vary, there should be some basis in one of the following foundations. Some organizations keep track of the flow of e-mail communications or document sharing across departments. These big-data tools are an easy way to gather objective information about how individuals exchange information. Other organizations look at data from human resources (HR) information systems, analyzing how supervisors and subordinates interact with one another. These data sources can produce sociograms showing how resources and power flow. Leaders can then identify powerful brokers who exert the strongest influence on many groups, and address these key individuals.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Application LO: 13.3 Explain the role of dependence in power relationships.

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47) Which of the following influence tactics involves using flattery, praise, or friendly behavior prior to making a request?

A) Personal appeals B) Exchange C) Consultation D) Ingratiation E) Pressure Answer: D Explanation: The influence tactic of ingratiation involves using flattery, praise, or friendly behavior prior to making a request.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.4 Identify power or influence tactics and their contingencies.

48) Influence tactics are defined as .

A) approaches for influencing goal setting B) techniques for translating power bases into specific action C) strategies for gathering and maintaining support D) characteristics of organizational structure E) approaches for reducing conflict Answer: B Explanation: Influence tactics are defined as ways in which individuals translate power bases into specific actions. They are the specific options that people have for influencing their bosses, co-workers, or employees.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.4 Identify power or influence tactics and their contingencies.

49) Which of the following is not considered to be an influence tactic?

A) Consultation B) Substitution C) Rational persuasion D) Ingratiation E) Coalition Answer: B Explanation: The nine influence tactics are legitimacy, rational persuasion, inspirational appeals, consultation, exchange, personal appeals, ingratiation, pressure, and coalitions.

Substitution is not an influence tactic.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.4 Identify power or influence tactics and their contingencies.

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50) Evidence indicates people in different countries tend to prefer different influence tactics.

Managers from the United States prefer .

A) rational persuasion B) exchange C) ingratiation D) coalition E) inspirational appeals Answer: A Explanation: Managers from the United States prefer rational appeal, whereas Chinese managers prefer coalition tactics.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.4 Identify power or influence tactics and their contingencies.

51) Shonda comes to Rebecca, her department head with a request for funds for a project. She reminds Rebecca that per company policy, the department head should approve the funds.

Shonda is using the tactic of .

A) coalition B) consultation C) ingratiation D) legitimacy E) pressure Answer: D Explanation: Legitimacy means relying on your authority position (such as the head of a department) or saying a request accords with organizational policies or rules. Shonda is relying on legitimacy because Rebecca is her department head.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 13.4 Identify power or influence tactics and their contingencies.

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52) James and Juanita are both salespeople covering the challenging Midwestern market. They have found it difficult to meet their yearly sales quota. Their manager, Petros, decides to involve them in developing a plan to meet their sales quota. Petros is using the influence tactic of .

A) consultation B) legitimacy C) rational persuasion D) inspirational appeal E) exchange Answer: A Explanation: Petros hopes to increase support for achieving the sales quota for the Midwest by involving both James and Juanita, the targets necessary to achieve the goal. He is using the consultation influence tactic.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 13.4 Identify power or influence tactics and their contingencies.

53) Which of the following tactics is most effective if I want to influence performance at work?

A) Coalitions B) Exchange C) Pressure D) Rational persuasion E) Ingratiation Answer: D Explanation: Along with inspirational appeal and consultation, rational persuasion is effective in influencing performance at work.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.4 Identify power or influence tactics and their contingencies.

54) The influence tactic of using flattery and creating goodwill before making a request is known as .

A) ingratiation B) consultation C) inspirational appeal D) motivational appeal E) affective appeal Answer: A Explanation: Ingratiation is defined as using flattery, praise, or friendly behavior prior to making a request, hoping that the kindness will help get what is desired.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.4 Identify power or influence tactics and their contingencies.

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55) Vivian has not been handling one portion of her duties in a satisfactory manner. As a result, her manager resorts to invoking Vivian's goals of becoming a manager one day and says that Vivian's path to promotion is in doing all her duties well and that she would surely be on her way up the organization if she performs all aspects of her job. Which influence tactic is being used by Vivian's manager?

A) Rational persuasion B) Ingratiation C) Pressure D) Personal appeals E) Inspirational appeals Answer: E Explanation: Vivian's manager is using the influence tactic of inspirational appeals—by appealing to Vivian's values, needs, hopes, and aspirations.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 13.4 Identify power or influence tactics and their contingencies.

56) Which of the following influence tactics is more effective when the audience is highly interested in the outcomes of a decision process?

A) Ingratiation B) Consultation C) Personal appeals D) Exchange E) Pressure Answer: B Explanation: Rational persuasion, inspirational appeals, and consultation tend to be the most effective influence tactics, especially when the audience is highly interested in the outcomes of a decision process.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.4 Identify power or influence tactics and their contingencies.

57) When the influence tactic of works, it's generally downward only.

A) exchange B) coalition C) ingratiation D) pressure E) legitimacy Answer: D Explanation: Pressure tends to backfire and is typically the least effective of the nine tactics.

When pressure works, it's generally downward only.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.4 Identify power or influence tactics and their contingencies.

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58) Which of the following influence tactics can be used most effectively for exerting upward influence?

A) Legitimacy B) Inspirational appeal C) Rational persuasion D) Ingratiation E) Exchange Answer: C Explanation: Rational persuasion is the preferred influence tactic to exert upward influence.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.4 Identify power or influence tactics and their contingencies.

59) Neha finds out that her salary is lower than her peers. She discusses this with her boss, showing him how her performance has increased company revenues. As a result, she gets a substantial raise. Which of the following influence tactics did she use?

A) Pressure B) Inspirational appeals C) Exchange D) Rational persuasion E) Legitimacy Answer: D Explanation: Rational persuasion is an effective tactic for exerting upward influence. It is the only tactic effective across organizational levels.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 13.4 Identify power or influence tactics and their contingencies.

60) Which of the following influence tactics is considered a "harder" tactic that emphasizes formal power and incurs greater costs and risks?

A) Personal appeal B) Coalition C) Rational persuasion D) Inspirational appeal E) Consultation Answer: B Explanation: You're more likely to be effective if you begin with "softer" tactics that rely on personal power, such as personal and inspirational appeals, rational persuasion, and consultation.

If these fail, you can move to "harder" tactics, such as exchange, coalitions, and pressure, which emphasize formal power and incur greater costs and risks.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.4 Identify power or influence tactics and their contingencies.

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61) Rational persuasion is one of the preferred lateral influence tactics.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Rational persuasion is one of the preferred influence tactics regardless of whether it is upward, downward, or lateral influence.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.4 Identify power or influence tactics and their contingencies.

62) Inspirational appeals work best as a downward-influencing tactic with subordinates.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: While rational persuasion works in all directions—upward, downward, and lateral—inspirational appeals works only from superior to subordinates, i.e., downwards.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.4 Identify power or influence tactics and their contingencies.

63) Preference for influence tactics are generally the same across cultures.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Culture plays a big role in the effectiveness of influence tactics. As a case in point, managers in the United States seem to prefer rational appeal, whereas Chinese managers may prefer coalition tactics.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.4 Identify power or influence tactics and their contingencies.

64) What influence tactics are preferred by superiors attempting to influence subordinates?

Answer: While there are several influence tactics, the effectiveness of specific tactics depends to some extent on the direction of influence. When superiors attempt to influence subordinates, the direction of influence is downward. In such situations, while rational persuasion, inspirational appeals, ingratiation, and legitimacy work and are preferred, tactics such as consultation and coalition building do not. Rational persuasion is a strong tactic for downward influence attempts. However, inspirational appeals work best as a downward-influencing tactic with subordinates. While ingratiation is most effective as a lateral influence, it can also be effective in downward influence. Finally, superiors can use legitimacy—their position in the organization—as an influence tactic.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.4 Identify power or influence tactics and their contingencies.

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65) What do we know about cultural preferences for influence tactics?

Answer: Influence tactics refer to the ways in which individuals translate power bases into specific action. Research indicates that the preference for influence tactics varies across cultures.

Those from individualistic countries (Hofstede's dimension) tend to see power in personalized terms and as a legitimate means of advancing their personal ends, whereas those in collectivistic countries (Hofstede's dimension) see power in social terms and as a legitimate means of helping others. For example, managers in the United States seem to prefer rational appeal (an influence tactic), whereas Chinese managers may prefer coalition tactics.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.4 Identify power or influence tactics and their contingencies.

66) According to the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, the definition of sexual harassment includes all of the following at work except which?

A) Unwelcome sexual advances B) Requests for sexual favors C) Verbal conduct of a sexual nature D) Physical conduct of a sexual nature E) Differential treatment based on gender Answer: E Explanation: Differential treatment based on gender is a form of discrimination but does not constitute sexual harassment. Some sexual harassment is also a form of discrimination.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.5 Identify the causes and consequences of abuse of power.

67) In the restaurant industry, what percentage of female waitstaff reported having been sexually harassed by co-workers or customers?

A) 80 B) 70 C) 60 D) 50 E) 40 Answer: A Explanation: A study reported that in the restaurant industry, 80 percent of female waitstaff reported having been sexually harassed by co-workers or customers.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.5 Identify the causes and consequences of abuse of power.

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68) Power leads people to place their own interests ahead of others' needs or goals.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Power not only leads people to focus on their self-interests because they can; it also liberates them to focus inward and thus come to place greater weight on their own aims and interests.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.5 Identify the causes and consequences of abuse of power.

69) Employees exhibiting which of the following traits are more likely to engage in political behavior?

A) Lack of sensitivity to social cues B) External locus of control C) Low need for power D) Machiavellian personality E) Low self-monitoring Answer: D Explanation: The Machiavellian personality–characterized by the will to manipulate and the desire for power–is comfortable using politics as a means to further his or her self-interest.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.6 Describe how politics work in organizations.

70) If an individual , then he is less likely to engage in illegitimate political behavior.

A) has invested a lot in the organization in terms of time and efforts B) possesses a scarce skill or knowledge C) has influential contacts outside the organization D) does not expect any future benefits from the organization E) has an external locus of control Answer: A Explanation: An individual's investment in the organization, perceived alternatives, and expectations of success influence the degree to which he or she will pursue illegitimate means of political action. The more a person expects increased future benefits from the organization, the more that person has to lose if forced out and the less likely he or she is to use illegitimate means.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.6 Describe how politics work in organizations.

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71) Which of the following factors encourages politicking?

A) Clear performance evaluation systems B) Role clarity C) Zero-sum reward allocation practices D) Increase in organizational resources E) Low pressures for performance Answer: C Explanation: Cultures characterized by low trust, role ambiguity, unclear performance evaluation systems, zero-sum reward allocation practices, democratic decision making, high pressures for performance, and self-serving senior managers will create breeding grounds for politicking.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.6 Describe how politics work in organizations.

72) Andy, who works for the Omega Corporation, sees a lot of political behavior at work. Andy views politics as a useful way of getting things done. Which of the following is the way Andy construes politics?

A) Reactive B) Reluctant C) Cognitive D) Strategic E) Integrated Answer: D Explanation: When people construe politics as strategic, they are viewing politics as a useful way of getting things done.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.6 Describe how politics work in organizations.

73) Which of the following is not one of the ways of construing politics?

A) Reactive B) Proactive C) Strategic D) Integrated E) Reluctant Answer: B Explanation: There are four ways of construing politics: reactive, reluctant, strategic, and integrated. While reactive (believing that politics involves engaging in destructive and manipulative behavior) is one way of construing politics, proactive is not.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.6 Describe how politics work in organizations.

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74) Political behavior in organizations is within one's specified job requirements.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Political behavior in organizations consists of activities that are not required as part of an individual's formal role but that influence, or attempt to influence, the distribution of advantages and disadvantages within the organization.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.6 Describe how politics work in organizations.

75) Political behavior in organizations include whistleblowing and joining a coalition.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Political behavior in organizations require some attempt to use power bases. It includes efforts to influence the goals, criteria, or processes used for decision making. This definition of political behavior includes whistleblowing and joining a coalition.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.6 Describe how politics work in organizations.

76) Describe the various individual factors that are related to political behavior.

Answer: Both individual and organizational factors contribute to political behavior. At the individual level, researchers have identified certain personality traits, needs, and other factors likely to be related to political behavior. Employees who are high self-monitors, possess an internal locus of control, and have a high need for power are more likely to engage in political behavior. For example, because they believe they can control their environment, individuals with an internal locus of control are more prone to take a proactive stance and attempt to manipulate situations in their favor. Also, an individual's investment in the organization and perceived alternatives influence the degree to which they will pursue illegitimate means of political action.

Finally, some individuals engage in political behavior simply because they are better at it. Such individuals read interpersonal interactions well, fit their behavior to situational needs, and excel at networking. These people are often indirectly rewarded for their political efforts.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.6 Describe how politics work in organizations.

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77) Which of the following is not an individual antecedent of political behavior in organizations?

A) Role ambiguity B) Internal locus of control C) Perceived job alternatives D) Expectations of success E) Organizational investment Answer: A Explanation: Role ambiguity is an organizational and not individual antecedent of political behavior.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

78) A sales manager says to her boss, "We failed to get the ad in the paper on time, but no one responds to those ads anyway." Which of the following impression management (IM) techniques does this statement refer to?

A) Favors B) Apologies C) Conformity D) Excuses E) Self-promotion Answer: D Explanation: The IM technique of excuses refers to explaining a predicament-creating event aimed at minimizing the apparent severity of the predicament. It is a defensive IM technique.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

79) Inga, a manager at Storks, Inc., told her boss, Juan, "You're absolutely right on your reorganization plan for the Western regional office. I couldn't agree with you more." What is the impression management (IM) technique that Inga used?

A) Ingratiation B) Self-promotion C) Flattery D) Conformity E) Rationalization Answer: D Explanation: Conformity is agreeing with someone else's opinion (Juan's, in this case) to gain his approval. This is a form of ingratiation.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

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80) Jerrod is relatively new to Xenon Corporation and wants to make sure that he makes a good impression on his co-workers and supervisor. He agrees with the supervisor's opinion most of the time and constantly compliments others about their good work. Jerrod is attempting to use .

A) illegitimate political behavior B) impression management C) defensive behavior D) referral power E) expert power Answer: B Explanation: Impression management (IM) is the process by which individuals attempt to control the impression others form of them. Jarrod hopes to control his supervisor's opinion of him by ingratiating himself.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

81) A political map is useful for .

A) selecting which candidate to support for office B) selecting which relationships can influence your career C) determining which policies should be in place D) determining which candidate to give a donation to E) determining which rules should be challenged Answer: B Explanation: Visualizing which relationships in the organization can aid you in advancing is useful and necessary for success.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

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82) Jerrod is relatively new to Xenon Corporation and wants to make sure that he makes a good impression on his supervisor. He tells his supervisor that he has two tickets to the theater for next Friday that he won't be able to use and that his supervisor can have them free of charge as a thank you for helping him (Jerrod) through his initial period at the company. Jerrod is engaging in which of the following impression management techniques as far as his supervisor is concerned?

A) Favors B) Self-promotion C) Excuses D) Conformity E) Apologizing Answer: A Explanation: Favors is the IM technique where you do something nice for someone to gain that person's approval. It is a form of ingratiation.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

83) Which of the following is most likely to help Jerrod earn higher performance evaluations?

A) Apologies B) Ingratiation C) Excuses D) Buffing E) Self-promotion Answer: B Explanation: Ingratiation is positively related to performance ratings, meaning those who ingratiate with their supervisors get higher performance evaluations.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

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84) Which of the following questions can aid in determining if someone is engaged in unethical politicking?

A) What would be the point of politicking?

B) Would politicking be worth the risk to the person?

C) How are others being affected by this alleged politicking?

D) Both what would be the point of politicking and would politicking be worth the risk to the person?

E) Both what would be the point of politicking and how are others being affected by this alleged politicking?

Answer: D Explanation: The distinction between ethical and unethical politicking can often be more clearly defined by the motives of the person engaging in the activity.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

85) Which of the following is an example of a defensive impression management technique?

A) Flattery B) Apologies C) Exemplification D) Enhancement E) Self-promotion Answer: B Explanation: The IM technique of apology is a defensive technique.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

86) Which of the following is an example of the impression management (IM) technique of ingratiation?

A) Flattery B) Enhancement C) Self-promotion D) Favors E) Excuses Answer: D Explanation: Favors is doing something nice for someone to gain that person's approval. It is a form of ingratiation.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Quest. Category: Application LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

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87) Juan scored all his points long after the basketball game was decided. He, however, claimed to his coach that he had played an integral part in his team's victory. The impression management technique that Juan used is called .

A) flattery B) self-promotion C) exemplification D) buffering E) enhancement Answer: E Explanation: Enhancement is claiming that something you did is more valuable than most other members of the organization would think. It is a self-focused IM technique.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Quest. Category: Application LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

88) Marilyn is the department head for a large call center and is responsible for conducting quarterly performance evaluations on her employees. While a good portion of the evaluation is based on areas such as friendliness, punctuality, and customer ratings, roughly half of the appraisal is based on call volume and the conversion of callers to customers. An employee's evaluations are used to determine quarterly raises. Algemar and Nick both work for Marilyn.

Marilyn feels that she is a mentor for Nick while she feels that she simply inherited Algemar from another department; thus, Marilyn sometimes strikes from Nick's call records customers who are extremely difficult or perhaps too set against buying the product. For the last quarter, Marilyn awarded Nick a raise while she did not award one to Algemar. Marilyn's awarding Nick a raise based on his evaluations could best be called .

A) politicking B) unethical politicking C) identity management D) self-serving E) cognitive management Answer: B Explanation: Marilyn has clearly acted unethically because she knowingly used false information as the basis for a raise.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

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89) Exemplification is an example of a(n) impression management (IM) technique.

A) cognitive B) ingratiating C) self-focused D) defensive E) assertive Answer: E Explanation: Exemplification is doing more than you need to in an effort to show how dedicated and hardworking you are. It is an assertive IM technique.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

90) Marilyn is the department head for a large call center and is responsible for conducting quarterly performance evaluations on her employees. While a good portion of the evaluation is based on areas such as friendliness, punctuality, and customer ratings, roughly half of the appraisal is based on call volume and the conversion of callers to customers. An employee's evaluations are used to determine quarterly raises. Algemar and Nick both work for Marilyn.

Marilyn feels that she is a mentor for Nick while she feels that she simply inherited Algemar from another department; thus, Marilyn sometimes strikes from Nick's call records customers who are extremely difficult or perhaps too set against buying the product. For the last quarter, Marilyn awarded Nick a raise while she did not award one to Algemar. Nick's accepting the raise based on his performance evaluation could best be described as .

A) politicking B) unethical politicking C) identity management D) both politicking and identity management E) both unethical politicking and identity management Answer: A Explanation: The altered performance appraisals are not of Nick's creation and thus his behavior cannot be called truly unethical. While perhaps questionable, Nick has to decide if becoming a whistle blower is worth risking his identity within the organization.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

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91) According to various studies around the world, higher levels of political skill are associated with higher levels of perceived .

A) citizenship behaviors B) counterproductive work behaviors C) social networking D) resource scarcity E) job performance Answer: E Explanation: Studies have shown that those with higher levels of political skills are more likely to be viewed as successful in their work.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

92) Aisha told her boss, "I'm sorry I made a mistake on the report. Please forgive me." Aisha was using the impression management (IM) technique of .

A) ingratiation B) self-promotion C) apology D) collaboration E) exemplification Answer: C Explanation: Aisha was admitting responsibility for an undesirable event and also seeking to get a pardon—she was using the IM technique of apology.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

93) In which type of interview setting would manipulative behaviors like impression management be likely to be effective?

A) A highly structured interview just between the interviewer and the candidate B) A highly structured interview which featured several interviewers and the candidate C) A highly structured group interview which featured several interviewers and candidates D) An unstructured interview just between the interviewer and the candidate E) Impression management can be highly effective regardless of the interview setting.

Answer: D Explanation: Manipulative behaviors such as IM are more likely to have an effect in ambiguous and unstructured interviews.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

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94) Employees who possess an external locus of control are more likely to engage in political behavior.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: One of the individual factors that acts as an antecedent of political behavior is employees with an internal locus of control.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

95) The more an organizational culture emphasizes the zero-sum approach to reward allocation, the less employees will be motivated to engage in politicking.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: A zero-sum approach to reward allocation suggests a win-lose mentality—one's win means someone else's loss. This increases the motivation to engage in politicking.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

96) Employees with a high Mach personality are more likely to engage in political behavior.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: The Machiavellian personality—characterized by the will to manipulate and the desire for power—is consistent with politics to further personal interests.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

97) How does the zero-sum approach relate to political behavior?

Answer: A number of organizational factors act as antecedents to political behavior. One factor is the reward allocation process. The zero-sum approach is an approach to reward allocation that treats the reward "pie" as fixed, so any gain one person or group achieves comes at the expense of another person or group. This win-lose reward allocation approach is a motivation to engage in politicking. This is because such a practice encourages making others look bad and increasing the visibility of what you do.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

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98) How do conformity and self-promotion help in impression management (IM)?

Answer: The process by which individuals attempt to control the impression others form of them is called impression management (IM). The IM process can be conscious or unconscious and can be perceived as authentic or disingenuous. Conformity and self-promotion are two of several IM techniques. Conformity is agreeing with someone else's opinion to gain his or her approval. It is a form of ingratiation. In self-promotion, you highlight your own qualities and downplay your defects. This way of calling attention to your achievements is a self-focused IM technique.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

99) Why are defensive behaviors a part of politicking?

Answer: Defensive behaviors are reactive and protective behaviors to avoid action, blame, or change. While such behaviors are a part of politicking, they are both destructive and negative.

Instead of attempting to influence people in "soft" bond-affirming ways, defensive behaviors protect self-interests through aggressive or avoidant means, such as withholding ideas or contributions. In the short run, employees may find that defensiveness protects their self-interests, but in the long run it wears them down.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

100) How is performance evaluation related to impression management (IM)?

Answer: The process by which individuals attempt to control the impression others form of them is called impression management. IM techniques include conformity (i.e., ingratiation), doing favors, making excuses, apologizing, self-promotion, enhancement, flattery, and exemplification. Research indicates that ingratiation is positively related to performance ratings, meaning that those who ingratiate with their supervisors get higher performance evaluations.

However, self-promotion appears to backfire. In general, those who self-promote may receive lower performance ratings, unless their political skill is able to translate IM into higher performance appraisals.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 13.7 Identify the causes, consequences, and ethics of political behavior.

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Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 11E (Robbins) Chapter 13 Conflict and Negotiation 1) is defined as a process that begins when one party perceives another party has or is about to negatively affect something the first party cares about.

A) Problem solving B) Assessment C) Conflict D) Negotiation E) Collective bargaining Answer: C Explanation: Conflict is defined as a process that begins when one party perceives another party has or is about to negatively affect something the first party cares about.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.1 Describe the three types of conflict and the three loci of conflict.

2) At the Omega Corporation, a global virtual team engaged in product development had two people who continuously fought for control of the team. This distracted the team members from focusing on the task at hand. The conflict in the team is called conflict.

A) dysfunctional B) functional C) promotional D) contingent E) rational Answer: A Explanation: Dysfunctional conflict is conflict that hinders group performance. A highly personal struggle for control that distracts from the task at hand in a team is dysfunctional.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.1 Describe the three types of conflict and the three loci of conflict.

3) conflict supports the goals of the group while conflict hinders group performance.

A) Interactionist; dysfunctional B) Functional; dysfunctional C) Dysfunctional; functional D) Dysfunctional; interactionist E) Functional; interactionist Answer: B Explanation: Within the interactionist viewpoint, conflict can be both positive and negative.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.1 Describe the three types of conflict and the three loci of conflict.

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4) Which of the following would be an example of a functional conflict within an organization?

A) Two co-workers trying to decide where to eat lunch B) Two co-workers trying to decide where to hold the staff retreat C) Two married co-workers deciding on a vacation destination D) Two co-workers who were married getting a divorce E) Two co-workers deciding on a movie to watch after work Answer: B Explanation: A functional conflict supports the goals of the group, improves its performance, and is constructive. Working through determining the location of the retreat meets all of these needs.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Interpersonal Relations and Teamwork Quest. Category: Application LO: 14.1 Describe the three types of conflict and the three loci of conflict.

5) DeSean and Molly, who both work in the order processing department at Acme Building Supplies, are involved in a conflict about handling a particular difficult customer. The type of conflict involving DeSean and Molly is called conflict.

A) intergroup B) cognitive C) titular D) dyadic E) complicating Answer: D Explanation: Dyadic conflict is conflict between two people. Here, DeSean and Molly are the two people involved in the conflict.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Interpersonal Relations and Teamwork Quest. Category: Application LO: 14.1 Describe the three types of conflict and the three loci of conflict.

6) The marketing team at an advertising agency recently had a conflict over content and goals of the work. What is this type of conflict called?

A) Dyadic B) Relationship C) Process D) Task E) Intergroup Answer: D Explanation: Task conflict refers to conflict over content and goals of the work.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.1 Describe the three types of conflict and the three loci of conflict.

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7) When a conflict occurs within a group or team, it is called a(n) conflict.

A) dyadic B) intergroup C) intragroup D) complicating E) cognitive Answer: C Explanation: Intragroup conflict occurs within a group or team.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.1 Describe the three types of conflict and the three loci of conflict.

8) When your work group disagrees, the disagreements usually concern how the group's work should be accomplished. The type of conflict experienced by your group is .

A) task conflict B) relationship conflict C) process conflict D) traditional conflict E) reactive conflict Answer: C Explanation: Process conflict relates to how the work gets done.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 14.1 Describe the three types of conflict and the three loci of conflict.

9) You are a marketing director for a large food manufacturer. Lately, you have noticed that you are spending a great deal more time at work, sometimes 14 hours a day, because your best friend, who is head of product development, continues to ask you to serve on taste test panels for new products. Which type(s) of conflict are you experiencing?

A) Task B) Relationship C) Process D) Both task and relationship E) Task, relationship, and process Answer: B Explanation: Your job is not to test new products; however, it is your relationship conflict which is causing you to spend more hours at work.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 14.1 Describe the three types of conflict and the three loci of conflict.

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10) When employees working in the warehouse have a conflict over how the work should be done, the conflict is called conflict.

A) task B) process C) dyadic D) relationship E) intergroup Answer: B Explanation: Process conflict refers to conflicts over how work gets done.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.1 Describe the three types of conflict and the three loci of conflict.

11) Conflict that hinders group performance is called dysfunctional conflict.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Conflict can be either functional or dysfunctional. Conflict that hinders group performance is destructive or dysfunctional conflict.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.1 Describe the three types of conflict and the three loci of conflict.

12) Task conflict is about how the work gets done.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Process conflict is about how the work gets done. Task conflict relates to the content and goals of the work.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.1 Describe the three types of conflict and the three loci of conflict.

13) Studies demonstrate that relationship conflicts, at least in work settings, are almost always dysfunctional.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: The friction and interpersonal hostilities inherent in relationship conflict increases interpersonal clashes and decreases mutual understanding.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.1 Describe the three types of conflict and the three loci of conflict.

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14) Relationship conflicts are often about delegation and roles.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Process conflicts, not relationship conflicts, are often about delegation and roles.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Synthesis LO: 14.1 Describe the three types of conflict and the three loci of conflict.

15) Conditions that can create conflicts can be classified into three categories. Which of the following is one of these three categories that includes variables such as emotions and values?

A) Communication B) Structure C) Personal variables D) Group interactions E) Process variables Answer: C Explanation: Personal variables are potential sources of conflict. They include personality, emotions, and values.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

16) What is the relationship between tenure and conflict?

A) Inverse B) Direct C) No relationship D) Tangential E) Curvilinear Answer: A Explanation: Tenure and conflict are inversely related, in that the longer a person stays with an organization, the less likely intragroup conflict becomes.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

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17) Stage I of the conflict process deals with .

A) cognition related to the conflict B) the appearance of conditions that create conflict to arise C) personalization of the conflict D) perception of the conflict E) the felt emotions about the conflict Answer: B Explanation: The first stage of conflict (stage I) is the appearance of conditions—causes or sources—that create opportunities for it to arise.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

18) The stage of the conflict process is important because it's where conflict issues tend to be defined.

A) potential opposition B) cognition and personalization C) intuitions D) behavior E) reaction and transference Answer: B Explanation: The cognition and personalization stage of the conflict process is important because it's where conflict issues tend to be defined. This is the point when the parties decide what the conflict is about.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

19) is the third stage in the conflict process and it intervenes between people's perceptions and their overt behavior.

A) Potential for opposition B) Intention C) Cognition D) Attribution E) Behavioral manifestation Answer: B Explanation: Intentions intervene between people's perceptions and emotions and their overt behavior. They are decisions to act in a given way.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

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20) When conflict is personalized and individuals become emotionally involved, the conflict is at the conflict level.

A) perceived B) felt C) dyadic D) cognitive E) tertiary Answer: B Explanation: Felt conflict refers to the emotional involvement in a conflict that creates anxiety, tension, frustration, or hostility.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

21) The conflict-handling techniques are characterized by two dimensions, cooperativeness and assertiveness. Assertiveness indicates the degree to which .

A) one party attempts to satisfy their own concerns B) one party attempts to suppress the conflict C) the parties attempt to find a win-win solution D) one party attempts to satisfy the other party's concerns E) the parties are willing to involve third-party conflict resolution techniques Answer: A Explanation: Assertiveness is the degree to which one party attempts to satisfy their own concerns.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

22) Based on the dimensions of cooperativeness and assertiveness, the conflict-handling intentions are classified into five categories. Which of the following is not one of these five conflict-handling intentions?

A) Collaborating B) Competing C) Accommodating D) Avoiding E) Resisting Answer: E Explanation: We can identify five conflict-handling intentions: competing (assertive and uncooperative), collaborating (assertive and cooperative), avoiding (unassertive and uncooperative), accommodating (unassertive and cooperative), and compromising (midrange on both assertiveness and cooperativeness).

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

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23) The conflict-handling intention of competing is .

A) assertive and uncooperative B) assertive and cooperative C) unassertive and uncooperative D) unassertive and cooperative E) affective and reflective Answer: A Explanation: Competing intentions are assertive and uncooperative.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

24) Which of the following conflict-handling intentions is mid-range on both assertiveness and cooperativeness?

A) Competing B) Collaborating C) Avoiding D) Compromising E) Accommodating Answer: D Explanation: Compromising intentions occupy the mid-range on both assertiveness and cooperativeness.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

25) The conflict-handling intention of accommodating is .

A) assertive and uncooperative B) assertive and cooperative C) unassertive and uncooperative D) unassertive and cooperative E) reflective and assertive Answer: D Explanation: Accommodating intentions are unassertive and cooperative.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

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26) Which of the following conflict-handling intentions involves attempting to find a win-win solution?

A) Avoiding B) Collaborating C) Accommodating D) Compromising E) Competing Answer: B Explanation: In collaborating, the parties intend to solve a problem by clarifying differences rather than by accommodating various points of view. If you attempt to find a win-win solution that allows both parties' goals to be completely achieved, that's collaborating.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

27) Ming feels that her cubicle neighbor talks loudly on the phone, but in other ways she is a great neighbor. Ming gets annoyed every time her neighbor's phone rings, but she has decided it's simply not worth the trouble to talk to her neighbor. Ming's conflict-handling intention is called .

A) competing B) avoiding C) accommodating D) compromising E) collaborating Answer: B Explanation: A person may recognize a conflict exists and want to withdraw from or suppress it.

Examples of avoiding include trying to ignore a conflict and avoiding others with whom you disagree.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

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28) Which of the following outcomes is not a dysfunctional consequence of conflict?

A) Dissolution of common ties B) Reassessment of group goals C) Destruction of the group D) Poor communication E) Reduced group cohesiveness Answer: B Explanation: The destructive consequences of conflict on the performance of a group or an organization are generally well known: uncontrolled opposition breeds discontent, which acts to dissolve common ties and eventually leads to the destruction of the group. Among the undesirable consequences are poor communication, reductions in group cohesiveness, and subordination of group goals to the primacy of infighting among members. The creation of new ideas, reassessment of group goals and activities, and increase in the probability that the group will respond to change are functional outcomes of conflict.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

29) Ana does not agree with the standard operating procedures adapted for the new project.

However, she discusses the items with the team and comes to know that she was in the minority.

She has, therefore, decided to accept the new procedures to maintain smooth operations within the team. This type of intention is called .

A) sacrificing B) accommodating C) collaborating D) compromising E) competing Answer: B Explanation: A party who seeks to appease an opponent may be willing to place the opponent's interests above his or her own, sacrificing to maintain the relationship. We refer to this intention as accommodating. Supporting someone else's opinion despite your reservations about it, for example, is accommodating.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

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30) The conflict-handling techniques are characterized by two dimensions, cooperativeness and assertiveness. Cooperativeness indicates the degree to which .

A) one party attempts to satisfy his or her own concerns B) one party attempts to suppress the conflict C) the parties attempt to find a win-win solution D) one party attempts to satisfy the other party's concerns E) the parties are willing to involve third-party conflict resolution techniques Answer: D Explanation: Cooperativeness is the degree to which one party attempts to satisfy the other party's concerns.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

31) Leah has found some ethical problems with the healthcare policy of her organization. She knows she is right in considering this as a vital issue to her organization's welfare. She finds that others are taking advantage of her noncompetitive behavior. Which conflict-handling strategy should Leah select in this situation?

A) Competition B) Collaboration C) Avoidance D) Accommodation E) Compromise Answer: A Explanation: The conflict-handling strategy competition is used when quick, decisive action is needed (in emergencies), when issues are important, when unpopular actions need to be implemented (in cost cutting, enforcement of unpopular rules, discipline), when the issue is vital to the organization's welfare and you know you're right, and when others are taking advantage of noncompetitive behavior.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

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32) When Juan supports someone else's opinion despite having reservations about it, his conflict handling strategy is called .

A) competing B) collaborating C) avoiding D) compromising E) accommodating Answer: E Explanation: The strategy of accommodating refers to the willingness of one party in a conflict to place the negotiation partner's interests above his or her own.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

33) A party who seeks to appease an opponent may be willing to place the negotiating partner's interests above his or her own, sacrificing to maintain the relationship. We refer to this intention as .

A) collaborating B) avoiding C) compromising D) competing E) accommodating Answer: E Explanation: A party who seeks to appease an opponent may be willing to place the negotiating partner's interests above his or her own, sacrificing to maintain the relationship. We refer to this intention as accommodating.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

34) Which of the following conflict-handling intentions involves accepting a solution that provides incomplete satisfaction of both parties' concerns?

A) Collaborating B) Compromising C) Avoiding D) Competing E) Accommodating Answer: B Explanation: In compromising, there is no clear winner or loser. Rather, there is a willingnessto ration the object of the conflict and accept a solution that provides incomplete satisfaction of both parties' concerns.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

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35) The distinguishing characteristic of the conflict-handling strategy of is that each party intends to give up something.

A) avoiding B) compromising C) competing D) collaborating E) confronting Answer: B Explanation: In compromising, each party to a conflict is willing to give up something.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Interpersonal Relations and Teamwork Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

36) When Chang and Elisa were involved in a work conflict, Chang simply chose to ignore the conflict and kept away from Elisa. Chang is using the strategy of .

A) compromising B) avoiding C) accommodating D) competing E) confronting Answer: B Explanation: In avoiding, the desire is to withdraw from or suppress a conflict.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

37) Which of the following statements is true regarding negotiation that takes place in a collectivist culture?

A) Collectivists may be less interested in demonstrations of concern.

B) Collectivists may be less interested in working through third parties to resolve disputes.

C) Competing tactics are the most preferred methods of conflict management in China.

D) Collectivists may be more interested in working through third parties to resolve disputes.

E) Collectivists will be more likely to confront differences of opinion directly and openly.

Answer: D Explanation: Collectivists may be more interested in working through third parties to resolve disputes.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

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38) Lupe has come to realize that conflict has both functional, as well as dysfunctional, outcomes. She has observed examples of both in her organization. Last month, Lupe's department experienced constructive conflict during a meeting. Which of the following is not an outcome of this functional conflict?

A) The quality of decisions is improved.

B) Creativity and innovation are stimulated.

C) Tensions are released.

D) Groupthink is increased.

E) Interest and curiosity are encouraged.

Answer: D Explanation: Conflict is constructive when it improves the quality of decisions, stimulates creativity and innovation, encourages interest and curiosity among group members, provides the medium through which problems can be aired and tensions released, and fosters an environment of self-evaluation and change. Conflict is an antidote for groupthink.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

39) What is the overall goal of conflict management?

A) Achieving the desired conflict level B) Resolving conflict C) Stimulating conflict D) Identifying conflict E) Assessing the source of conflict Answer: A Explanation: Conflict management helps in achieving the desired level of conflict.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

40) In which stage of the conflict process does conflict become visible?

A) Outcomes B) Intentions C) Incompatibility D) Behavior E) Personalization Answer: D Explanation: When most people think of conflict situations, they tend to focus on Stage IV because this is where conflicts become visible. The behavior stage includes the statements, actions, and reactions made by the conflicting parties, usually as overt attempts to implement their own intentions.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

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41) is an antidote for groupthink.

A) Politics B) Distributive bargaining C) Conflict D) Integrative bargaining E) Negotiation Answer: C Explanation: Conflict is an antidote for groupthink. It doesn't allow the group to passively rubber-stamp decisions that may be based on weak assumptions, inadequate consideration of relevant alternatives, or other debilities. Conflict challenges the status quo and therefore furthers the creation of new ideas, promotes reassessment of group goals and activities, and increases the probability that the group will respond to change.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

42) is an antidote for groupthink.

A) Collaboration B) Confrontation C) Competition D) Conflict E) Inertia Answer: D Explanation: Conflict does not allow the group to passively rubber-stamp decisions that may be based on weak assumptions, inadequate consideration of relevant alternatives, or other weaknesses.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

43) The first stage of the conflict process is cognition and personalization.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: The first stage of the conflict process is potential opposition or incompatibility.

Cognition and personalization is the second step.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

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44) Communication can be a source of conflict in dyadic exchanges.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Semantic difficulties, misunderstandings and "noise" in the communication process can be a source of conflict in group interactions and dyadic exchanges.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

45) Felt conflict is the awareness by one or more parties of the existence of conditions that create opportunities for conflicts to arise.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Awareness by one or more parties of the existence of conditions that create opportunities for conflicts to arise is called perceived and not felt conflict.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

46) How is organizational structure related to conflict?

Answer: The three general categories of conditions which may be the sources of conflict are communication, structure, and personal variables.

Structure includes variables such as size, degree of specialization in the tasks assigned to group members, jurisdictional clarity, member-goal compatibility, leadership styles, reward systems, and the degree of dependence between groups. The larger the group and the more specialized its activities, the greater the likelihood of intragroup conflict. Tenure and conflict are inversely related, in that the longer a person stays with an organization, the less likely intragroup conflict becomes. Therefore, the potential for intragroup conflict is greatest when group members are newer to the organization and when turnover is high. Also, intragroup conflict can self-perpetuate, actually imbuing meaning and identity to the groups experiencing conflict, such as the long-standing rivalry between the New York Yankees and the Boston Red Sox in professional baseball.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

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47) Why is communication called an antecedent condition for conflict?

Answer: Certain conditions do not always lead to conflict but are necessary for conflict to surface. One such antecedent condition is communication. Communication can be a source of conflict in group interactions and dyadic exchanges. There are opposing forces that arise from semantic difficulties, misunderstandings, and "noise" in the communication channel. These factors, along with jargon and insufficient information, can be barriers to communication and potential antecedent conditions to conflict. Even the way communication can be framed can have an effect. Finally, the potential for conflict has also been found to increase with too little or too much communication. Communication is functional up to a point, after which it is possible to overcommunicate, increasing the potential for conflict.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

48) What is the difference between perceived conflict and felt conflict?

Answer: Perceived conflict is awareness by one or more parties of the existence of conditions that create opportunities for conflicts to arise. However, just because a disagreement is a perceived conflict does not mean it is personalized. It is personalized at the felt conflict level, when individuals become emotionally involved, that they experience anxiety, tension, frustration, or hostility. By making sense of the preceding events, employees perceive conflict and then recognize that the other party violated norms or did something wrong. Following these processes of naming and blaming, employees naturally feel the negative emotions surrounding conflict.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

49) What is stage II of the conflict process and why is the stage important?

Answer: Stage I of the conflict identifies antecedent conditions that pave the way for a conflict to occur. Stage II—cognition and personalization—is important because it is the stage where conflict issues tend to be defined, where the parties decide what the conflict is about. This is where the perceived conflict moves to the felt conflict stage.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

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50) How does competing differ from collaborating as a conflict intention?

Answer: Intentions are decisions to act in a particular way. Intentions intervene between people's perceptions and emotions and their overt behavior. In terms of conflict, when one person seeks to satisfy their own interests regardless of the impact on the other parties in the conflict, that person is competing. We are more apt to compete when resources are scarce, when we have competition-prone personalities, when we are close to satisfying our own interests, or when the culture or climate supports competition. In collaboration, parties intend to solve a problem by clarifying differences by accommodating various points of view. An attempt to find a win-win solution is an example of collaboration. Collaboration is more likely if the party is seen as competent, rational, and open to collaborating.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

51) What is conflict management?

Answer: Conflict management refers to the use of resolution and stimulation techniques to achieve the desired level of conflict. In anticipating and managing conflict, organizations can target three specific domains: strategy (such as designing conflict management activities), function (such as job design to reduce conflict), and worker (such as improving employee perceptions of conflict).

Diff: 3 AACSB: Interpersonal Relations and Teamwork Quest. Category: Application LO: 14.2 Outline the conflict process.

52) Which of the following terms best describes the process that occurs when two or more parties decide how to allocate scarce resources?

A) Mediation B) Conflict management C) Negotiation D) Unionization E) Arbitration Answer: C Explanation: We can define negotiation as a process that occurs when two or more parties decide how to allocate scarce resources.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

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53) Labor and management at DJ Trucking cannot agree upon a contract for the truck drivers.

The drivers are threatening to strike, and management knows that such a strike would be very costly. Each side contends that they are bargaining fairly, but no agreement seems to be possible.

Both sides agree that they are competing over a fixed amount of resources. Each side feels that what one side wins, the other loses. Based on this information we can say that the two sides are engaged in .

A) conciliation B) distributive bargaining C) mediation D) integrative bargaining E) arbitration Answer: B Explanation: The essence of distributive bargaining is negotiating over who gets what share of a fixed pie. When the pie is fixed, or parties believe it is, they tend to bargain distributively.

Probably the most widely cited example of distributive bargaining is labor management negotiations over wages.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

54) Which of the following is a characteristic of integrative bargaining?

A) Win-win solution B) Short-term focus C) Positions as focus D) Opposed interests E) Low information sharing Answer: A Explanation: Integrative bargaining seeks a win-win solution. The other characteristics of integrative bargaining are long-term focus, a focus on interests, congruent issues, and high information sharing.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

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55) You have decided to hold on to the position of "I can't go beyond this point on this issue" in a labor-management conflict. You are attempting to engage in .

A) integrative bargaining B) conciliation C) mediation D) distributive bargaining E) arbitration Answer: D Explanation: The focus of distributive bargaining is on positions—such as holding on to your position of "I can't go beyond this point on this issue."

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

56) At first, the disputing parties resist your offer to help create a win-win situation for both groups. They are each highly focused on their demands in the negotiation, otherwise known as their .

A) focal points B) distribution points C) resistance points D) settlement ranges E) target points Answer: E Explanation: With distributive bargaining, each party has a target point that defines what he or she would like to achieve. Each also has a resistance point, which marks the lowest outcome that is acceptable, or the point below which the party would break off negotiations rather than accept a less favorable settlement.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

57) The terms negotiation and are used interchangeably.

A) mediation B) bargaining C) collaboration D) accommodating E) arbitration Answer: B Explanation: Negotiation can be defined as a process that occurs when two or more parties decide how to allocate scarce resources. The terms negotiation and bargaining can be used interchangeably.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

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58) The two general approaches to bargaining are known as bargaining.

A) emotional and rational B) affective and reflective C) distributive and integrative D) formal and informal E) reflexive and restrictive Answer: C Explanation: There are two general approaches to negotiation, distributive bargaining and integrative bargaining. In distributive bargaining negotiation seeks to divide up a fixed amount of resources into a win-lose situation. With integrative bargaining negotiation seeks one or more settlements that can create a win-win solution.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

59) Which of the following statements is a condition necessary for integrative bargaining to succeed in organizations?

A) Opposing parties must not be guarded about their concerns.

B) Opposing parties must not be sensitive to others' needs.

C) Opposing parties must not trust each other.

D) Opposing parties must not be open to sharing information.

E) Opposing parties must not want to maintain flexibility.

Answer: A Explanation: An important advantage of integrative negotiations is that even when you "win," you want your opponent to feel good about the negotiation. Why, then, don't we see more integrative bargaining in organizations? The answer lies in the conditions necessary for it to succeed. These include opposing parties who are open with information and candid about their concerns, are sensitive to the other's needs and trust, and are willing to maintain flexibility.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

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60) bargaining is negotiation that seeks to "expand the pie."

A) Distributive B) Integrative C) Reflective D) Affective E) Conjunctive Answer: B Explanation: The goal of integrative bargaining is to expand the pie so that both parties are satisfied.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

61) Emma is the labor union negotiator. Today, she is meeting with management to discuss the new five-year contract, including wages and benefits. This example of labor-management negotiations over wages exemplifies .

A) integrative bargaining B) arbitration C) distributive bargaining D) mediation E) conciliation Answer: C Explanation: An example of distributive bargaining is labor-management negotiations over wages.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

62) In the case of distributive bargaining, the point indicates what a person would like to achieve out of a negotiation.

A) resistance B) clarification C) target D) closure E) focus Answer: C Explanation: Each party in a negotiation has a target point that defines what he or she would like to achieve. Each also has a resistance point, which marks the lowest outcome that is acceptable, or the point below which the party would break off negotiations rather than accept a less favorable settlement.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

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63) In case of distributive bargaining, the point marks the lowest outcome that is acceptable–the point below which the party would break off negotiations rather than accept a less favorable settlement.

A) resistance B) tolerance C) target D) focal E) clarification Answer: A Explanation: Each party in a negotiation has a target point that defines what he or she would like to achieve. Each also has a resistance point, which marks the lowest outcome that is acceptable, or the point below which the party would break off negotiations rather than accept a less favorable settlement.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

64) Which of the following statements is not true regarding distributive bargaining?

A) It operates under zero-sum conditions.

B) It focuses on short-term relationships.

C) It involves high information sharing.

D) It attempts to create a win-lose solution.

E) The goal is to get as much of the pie as possible.

Answer: C Explanation: In distributive bargaining, there is low information sharing. This is because sharing information will only allow the other party to take advantage.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

65) During a negotiation, making an initial offer leads to the bias.

A) self-serving B) framing C) attributional D) anchoring E) cognitive Answer: D Explanation: During a negotiation, making an initial offer leads to the anchoring bias. People tend to fixate on initial information. Once that anchoring point is set, they fail to adequately adjust it based on subsequent information.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

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66) All things being equal, bargaining is preferable to distributive bargaining because the former builds long-term relationships.

A) accommodative B) transformational C) integrative D) collaborative E) distributive Answer: C Explanation: In terms of intraorganizational behavior, all things being equal, integrative bargaining is preferable to distributive bargaining because the former builds long-term relationships. Integrative bargaining bonds negotiators and allows them to leave the bargaining table feeling they have achieved a victory. Distributive bargaining, however, leaves one party a loser.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

67) Which of the following statements is true regarding integrative bargaining?

A) Integrative bargaining leaves one party a loser.

B) Integrative bargaining makes the first offer, and makes it an aggressive one.

C) Integrative bargaining focuses on long-term relationships.

D) Integrative bargaining operates under zero-sum conditions.

E) Integrative bargaining involves low information sharing.

Answer: C Explanation: Integrative bargaining involves high information sharing and attempts to create a win-win solution. In terms of intraorganizational behavior, all things being equal, integrative bargaining is preferable to distributive bargaining because the former builds long-term relationships.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

68) The phrase, "any gain I make is at your expense, and vice versa" is associated with distributive bargaining.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Distributive bargaining operates under zero-sum conditions. The essence of distributive bargaining is negotiating over who gets what share of a fixed pie. Distributive bargaining involves a win-lose situation, leading to a phrase such as "any gain I make is at your expense, and vice versa."

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

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69) The goal of integrative bargaining is to expand the pie so that both parties are satisfied.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Integrative bargaining is a type of negotiation that seeks one or more settlements that can create a win-win solution.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

70) The duration of relationship in distributive bargaining is long term.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Since distributive bargaining envisages a win-lose solution, the duration of relationship is short term.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

71) What is negotiation?

Answer: Negotiation is a process in which two or more parties exchange goods or services and attempt to agree on the exchange rate for them. Negotiation permeates the interactions of almost everyone in groups and organizations. Labor bargains with management. Managers negotiate with employees, peers, and bosses. Salespeople negotiate with customers, as do purchasing agents with suppliers. Negotiations are not always one-off situations (such as an employee negotiating a job offer), rather they are often continuing occurrences.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

72) How do distributive and integrative bargaining differ in terms of goals and motivation?

Answer: The motivation in distributive bargaining is to divide up a fixed amount of resources— a win-lose situation. On the other hand, the motivation in integrative bargaining is tocreate a win-win solution. The goal of distributive bargaining (for each party) is to get as much of the pie as possible. In contrast, the goal of integrative bargaining is to expand the pie so that both parties are satisfied.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

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73) How do hardline and softline strategies impact distributive bargaining?

Answer: Hardline strategies are situations where you minimize your concessions and make extreme offers. In softline strategies, you elicit concessions from the other party through your own concessions. The use of these strategies in distributive bargaining depends on the outcome sought. If it is important to preserve the relationship, softline strategies might be better. If a higher economic return is sought, then hardline strategies may be better.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.3 Contrast distributive and integrative bargaining.

74) Which of the following is the second step in the negotiation process?

A) Preparation and planning B) Bargaining and problem solving C) Clarification and justification D) Definition of ground rules E) Closure and implementation Answer: D Explanation: After the first step of preparation and planning, comes the second step where the negotiation's ground rules are laid out.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.4 Apply the five steps of the negotiation process.

75) Which of the following is not a step in the negotiation process?

A) Definition of ground rules B) Clarification and justification C) Bargaining and problem solving D) Process evaluation E) Preparation and planning Answer: D Explanation: Negotiation is made up of five steps: (1) preparation and planning, (2) definition of ground rules, (3) clarification and justification, (4) bargaining and problem solving, and (5) closure and implementation.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.4 Apply the five steps of the negotiation process.

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76) In negotiation, the least the individual should accept is called the individual's .

A) asking price B) margin of error C) bid price D) BATNA E) hidden value Answer: D Explanation: As part of your strategy, you should determine your and the other side's best alternative to a negotiated agreement (BATNA). Your BATNA determines the lowest value acceptable to you for a negotiated agreement.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.4 Apply the five steps of the negotiation process.

77) During which phase of the negotiation process do the parties exchange their initial proposals or demands?

A) Opening and initiating B) Definition of ground rules C) Clarification and justification D) Bargaining and problem-solving E) Integration of preferences Answer: B Explanation: After planning and having developed a strategy, it is important to begin defining with the other party the ground rules and procedures of the negotiation itself. During this phase, the parties will also exchange their initial proposals or demands.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.4 Apply the five steps of the negotiation process.

78) In a negotiation process, which of the following activities is most likely to be included in the "preparation and planning" step?

A) Justifying your original demands B) Determining your best alternative to a negotiated agreement C) Determining where the negotiation will take place D) Designing procedures for implementing the agreement that has been worked out E) Exchange of the initial proposals or demands Answer: B Explanation: In a negotiation process, your best alternative to a negotiated agreement (BATNA) is determined during the "preparation and planning" step.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.4 Apply the five steps of the negotiation process.

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79) Lakeesha is negotiating for the labor union. Today, she is presenting the evidence and papers that demonstrate the average wages in the area, the cost of health care for the average worker, and a pie graph demonstrating how these costs affect the new salary request. Which phase of the negotiation process is Lakeesha currently in?

A) Preparation and planning B) Definition of ground rules C) Clarification and justification D) Bargaining and problem solving E) Closure and implementation Answer: C Explanation: The clarification and justification phase is the opportunity for both parties to explain, amplify, clarify, bolster, and justify their original demands. It's an opportunity for educating and informing each other on the issues, why they are important, and how the initial demands were determined. At this point documentation that helps support each position is presented.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 14.4 Apply the five steps of the negotiation process.

80) In a negotiation process, which of the following activities is most likely to be included in the "closure and implementation" step?

A) Determining your best alternative to a negotiated agreement B) Justifying your original demands C) Formalizing the agreement that has been worked out D) Determining time constraints, if any, applicable to negotiation E) Exchange of the initial proposals or demands Answer: C Explanation: The closure and implementation step is the final step in the negotiation process. It involves formalizing the agreement that has been worked out and developing any procedures necessary for implementation and monitoring.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.4 Apply the five steps of the negotiation process.

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81) In a negotiation process, which of the following activities is most likely to be included in the "clarification and explaining" step?

A) Determining your best alternative to a negotiated agreement B) Determining time constraints, if any, applicable to negotiation C) Justifying your original demands D) Formalizing the agreement that has been worked out E) Determining who will do the negotiation Answer: C Explanation: In the clarification and explaining step, you and the other party will explain, amplify, clarify, bolster, and justify your original demands.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.4 Apply the five steps of the negotiation process.

82) Negotiators with absolutely no alternative to a negotiated agreement sometimes .

A) become hostile and end the negotiation B) become hostile and agree to whatever is offered to them C) adopt a "go for broke" mentality D) adopt a "worst case scenario" mentality E) seek out another party with whom to negotiate Answer: C Explanation: When there is no other alternative, one might "go for broke" as they do not even consider what would happen if the negotiation falls through.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.4 Apply the five steps of the negotiation process.

83) Determining your and the other side's best alternative to a negotiated agreement (BATNA) is part of the definition of the ground rules step in the negotiation process.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: BATNA should be determined in step one—preparation and planning.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.4 Apply the five steps of the negotiation process.

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84) What is covered in the ground rules step in negotiations?

Answer: Definition of ground rules is the second step in the negotiation process, right after the preparation and planning step. Ground rules are set by both parties in the negotiation process.

The ground rules should consist of questions such as: Who will do the negotiating? Where will it take place? What time constraints, if any, will apply? To what issues will negotiation be limited?

Will a specific procedure be followed if an impasse is reached? During this phase of the negotiation process, the parties will exchange their initial proposals or demands.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.4 Apply the five steps of the negotiation process.

85) Which of the following is not a factor that influences how effectively individuals negotiate?

A) Personality B) Mood/emotions C) Gender D) Age E) Culture Answer: D Explanation: Four factors influence how effectively individuals negotiate: personality, mood/emotions, culture, and gender.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.5 Show how individual differences influence negotiations.

86) is one individual-difference variable that consistently seems to relate to negotiation outcomes.

A) Self-efficacy B) Introversion C) Narcissism D) Cognitive dissonance E) Diffidence Answer: A Explanation: Those who believe they will be more successful (i.e., high on self-efficacy) in negotiation situations tend to perform more effectively.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 14.5 Show how individual differences influence negotiations.

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87) Sergio, a manager, always displays anger when he negotiates with his team members. Which type of bargaining is Sergio employing to induce concessions from his team?

A) Integrative bargaining B) Collective bargaining C) Distributive bargaining D) Individual bargaining E) Dysfunctional bargaining Answer: C Explanation: In distributive negotiations, it appears that negotiators in a position of power or equal status who show anger negotiate better outcomes because their anger induces concessions from their opponents. Angry negotiators also feel more focused and assertive in striking a bargain.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 14.5 Show how individual differences influence negotiations.

88) For successful cross-cultural negotiations, it is especially important that the negotiators be high in .

A) individualism B) emotions C) openness D) underestimation E) belligerence Answer: C Explanation: It is a good strategy to choose cross-cultural negotiators who are high on openness so that it avoids factors, such as time pressures that tend to inhibit learning about the other party.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.5 Show how individual differences influence negotiations.

89) Age is one of the four factors that influences how effectively individuals negotiate.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Four factors influence how effectively individuals negotiate: personality, mood/emotions, culture, and gender.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.5 Show how individual differences influence negotiations.

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90) Self-efficacy is one individual-difference variable that consistently seems to relate to negotiation outcomes.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Those who believe they will be more successful in negotiation situations tend to perform more effectively.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.5 Show how individual differences influence negotiations.

91) Discuss the effects of culture on effectiveness of negotiations.

Answer: Culture plays a role in the effectiveness of negotiations. In general, people negotiate more effectively within cultures than between them. A good strategy is to choose cross-cultural negotiators who are high on openness, and it helps to avoid factors, such as time pressure, that tend to inhibit learning about the other party. Also, because emotions are culturally sensitive, negotiators need to be especially aware of the emotional dynamics in cross-cultural negotiations.

Research suggests that the same language that leads to integrative agreements in Western cultures can backfire in others. Finally, some idiosyncratic rituals (such as handshakes in Western cultures) that differ across cultures can improve the success of integrative bargaining.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.5 Show how individual differences influence negotiations.

92) in a negotiation process opens the door to many forms of integrative negotiation strategies that benefit both parties.

A) Knowledge B) Trust C) Communication skills D) Secret information E) Alliances Answer: B Explanation: When it comes to negotiation, having a reputation for being trustworthy matters.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Interpersonal Relations and Teamwork Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.6 Describe the social factors that influence negotiations.

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93) Why is reputation considered a social factor in negotiations?

Answer: Most types of negotiations are not those that occur among parties that meet only once and in isolation from other individuals. Organizational negotiations are typically open-ended and public. Reputation is a social factor that plays a role in negotiations. When it comes to negotiations, having a reputation for being trustworthy matters. Trust in a negotiation process opens the door to many forms of integrative negotiation strategies that benefit both parties. The most effective way to build trust is to behave in an honest way across repeated interactions—in short, to build one's reputation.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.6 Describe the social factors that influence negotiations.

94) Why do relationships matter in negotiations?

Answer: Reputation and relationships are the two social factors in negotiations. Since most negotiations are not isolated incidents between parties, relationships matter. The social, interpersonal component of relationships with repeated negotiations means that individuals go beyond valuing what is simply good for themselves and instead start to think about what is best for the other party and the relationship as a whole.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.6 Describe the social factors that influence negotiations.

95) Which of the following has the authority to dictate an agreement?

A) Mediator B) Moderator C) Arbitrator D) Conciliator E) Peacemaker Answer: C Explanation: An arbitrator is a third party to a negotiation who has the authority to dictate an agreement.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.7 Assess the roles and functions of third-party negotiations.

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96) When both parties are open to resolving their conflict, and the conflict intensity is not too high, which of the following is the most appropriate third party to use?

A) Mediator B) Arbitrator C) Conciliator D) Both mediator and arbitrator E) Both mediator and conciliator Answer: A Explanation: A mediator is most appropriate in this situation because mediators work to bring the conflicting parties to their own conclusions. Mediators are best in low-intensity situations.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.7 Assess the roles and functions of third-party negotiations.

97) A(n) is a trusted third party who provides an informal communication link between the negotiator and the negotiation partner.

A) mediator B) arbitrator C) conciliator D) moderator E) ombudsman Answer: C Explanation: Agreeable individuals with a concern for others tend to adopt the role of conciliator, and they tend to be respected and admired by their peers as a result.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.7 Assess the roles and functions of third-party negotiations.

98) Arbitration is always voluntary.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Arbitration can be voluntary (requested by the parties) or compulsory (forced on the parties by law or contract).

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 14.7 Assess the roles and functions of third-party negotiations.

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99) What do mediators do in negotiations?

Answer: A mediator is a neutral third party who facilitates a negotiated solution by using reasoning and persuasion, suggesting alternatives, and the like. Mediators are widely used in labor-management negotiations and in civil court disputes and their overall effectiveness is impressive. Three factors affect the efficacy of mediation: the motivation of the conflicting parties to bargain and resolve their conflict, the intensity of the conflict (mediation works best under moderate levels of conflict), and perceptions of the mediator (whether seen as neutral and noncoercive).

Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Application LO: 14.7 Assess the roles and functions of third-party negotiations.

100) What role do conciliators play in negotiations?

Answer: A conciliator is a trusted third party who provides an informal communication link between the negotiators and the negotiation partner. Agreeable individuals with a concern for others tend to adopt the role of a conciliator, and they tend to be respected and admired by their peers as a result. In practice, conciliators typically act as more than mere communication conduits. They also engage in fact finding, interpret messages, and persuade disputants to develop agreements.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Application LO: 14.7 Assess the roles and functions of third-party negotiations.

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Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 11E (Robbins) Chapter 14 Foundations of Organization Structure 1) Which of the following is not one of the seven key elements of organizational structure?

A) Chain of command B) Departmentalization C) Work specialization D) Span of control E) Location of authority Answer: E Explanation: Managers need to address seven key elements when they design their organization's structure: work specialization, departmentalization, chain of command, span of control, centralization and decentralization, and formalization.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

2) The answer to the key question, "To what degree are activities subdivided into specific jobs?" is provided by .

A) departmentalization B) work specialization C) chain of command D) span of control E) formalization Answer: B Explanation: The term "work specialization" describes the degree to which activities in the organization are subdivided into separate jobs. The essence of work specialization is to divide a job into a number of steps, each completed by a separate individual.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

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3) A allows management to make the most efficient use of its employees' skills and even successfully improve them through repetition.

A) low degree of centralization B) high degree of formalization C) wider span of control D) low degree of departmentalization E) high degree of work specialization Answer: E Explanation: Work specialization describes the degree to which activities in the organization are subdivided into separate jobs. Because not all employees in an organization have the same skills, management saw specialization as a means of making the most efficient use of its employees' skills and even successfully improving them through repetition.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

4) Which of the following statements is true regarding work specialization?

A) Work specialization indicates to what degree there will be rules and formalization regulations to direct employees and managers.

B) Work specialization decreases the time spent in changing tasks.

C) Work specialization increases the cost of finding and training workers to do specific and repetitive tasks.

D) Work specialization provides an unending source of increased productivity.

E) Work specialization hinders efficient use of employee skills.

Answer: B Explanation: Work specialization indicates the degree to which activities in the organization are subdivided into separate jobs. Work specialization makes the most efficient use of employees' skills. Less time is spent in changing tasks, putting away tools and equipment from a prior step, and getting ready for another.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

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5) The answer to the key question, "To whom do individuals and groups report?" is provided by .

A) formalization B) departmentalization C) chain of command D) span of control E) centralization Answer: C Explanation: The chain of command clarifies who reports to whom.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

6) Which one of the following is not one of the primary ways to group jobs?

A) Skill B) Customer C) Function D) Product E) Service Answer: A Explanation: One popular way to group activities is by functions performed. Businesses also departmentalize jobs by the type of product or service the organization produces. A firm can also departmentalize on the basis of geography, or territory. A final category of departmentalization uses the particular type of customer the organization seeks to reach. Grouping jobs by skills required is not a primary way of grouping jobs.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

7) A manufacturing manager organizes a plant into engineering, accounting, manufacturing, personnel, and supply specialists departments. This division of an organization into groups according to work functions is an example of .

A) social clustering B) organizational bureaucracy C) functional departmentalization D) functional centralization E) service departmentalization Answer: C Explanation: The basis by which jobs are grouped is called departmentalization. One of the most popular ways to group activities is by functions performed. This is called functional departmentalization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

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8) AgriProducers provides services related to the testing of soil and crops. It also provides advice to its customers for improving the productivity of the soil and the quality of the crops. It has customers all over the United States. The crops and soil are different in the various large areas of the nation, such as the West Coast and the Midwest. Which type of departmentalization would be best for AgriProducers?

A) Functional B) Process C) Product D) Geographic E) Temporal Answer: D Explanation: AgriProducers' needs would best be served by departmentalizing on the basis of geography. This form is valuable when an organization's customers are scattered over a large geographic area and have similar needs based on their location.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

9) Some of the departments in Procter & Gamble are Tide, Pampers, Charmin, and Pringles. This is an example of departmentalization by .

A) function B) process C) geography D) product E) interest Answer: D Explanation: Firms can departmentalize jobs by the type of product the organization produces.

Procter & Gamble places each major product, such as Tide, Pampers, Charmin, and Pringles, under an executive who has complete global responsibility for it.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

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10) Aeronautics Inc., a parts supplier, has departments for government aircraft and contracts, large commercial aircraft clients, and small personal aircraft clients. This is an example of departmentalization.

A) product B) function C) geography D) customer E) service Answer: D Explanation: A firm can departmentalize based on the particular type of customer the organization seeks to reach. Customers in each department have a common set of problems and needs best met by having specialists for each. Aeronautics Inc. is departmentalized to meet different customer needs.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

11) Which of the following is another name for work specialization?

A) Chain of command B) Departmentalization C) Division of labor D) Formalization E) Hierarchy Answer: C Explanation: Work specialization is the degree to which tasks in an organization are subdivided into separate jobs. It is also called division of labor.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

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12) The right inherent in a managerial position to give orders and expect orders to be obeyed is termed .

A) chain of command B) authority C) span of control D) unity of command E) leadership Answer: B Explanation: Chain of command can't be discussed without discussing authority. Authority refers to the rights inherent in a managerial position to give orders and expect them to be obeyed.

To facilitate coordination, each managerial position is given a place in the chain of command, and each manager is given a degree of authority in order to meet his or her responsibilities.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

13) The principle of helps preserve the concept of an unbroken line of authority.

A) span of control B) chain of command C) cross-functionality D) centralization E) unity of command Answer: E Explanation: The principle of unity of command helps preserve the concept of an unbroken line of authority. It says a person should have one and only one superior to whom he or she is directly responsible. If the unity of command is broken, an employee might have to cope with conflicting demands or priorities from several superiors.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

14) The unity-of-command principle states that .

A) managers should limit their oversight to a maximum of 12 employees B) managers should oversee 1-4 employees on average C) an individual should be directly responsible to only one supervisor D) managers should provide direction to their employees in a unified fashion E) employees should report directly to two supervisors to maintain task balance Answer: C Explanation: The principle of unity of command helps preserve the concept of an unbroken line of authority. It says a person should have one and only one superior to whom he or she is directly responsible.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

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15) Span of control is a key element of an organization's structure. Which of the following key questions is addressed by this element?

A) On what basis will jobs be grouped together?

B) To whom do individuals and groups report?

C) To what degree will there be rules and regulations to direct employees and managers?

D) How many individuals can a manager efficiently and effectively direct?

E) To what degree are activities subdivided into separate jobs?

Answer: D Explanation: Span of control determines the number of levels and managers an organization has. All things being equal, the wider or larger the span, the more efficient the organization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

16) Locos Tacos has several regional managers for each region in the country. A typical regional manager at Locos Tacos oversees eight restaurants in his or her territory. The eight restaurants represent the regional manager's .

A) unity of command B) span of control C) organizational network D) boundary spanning limit E) work specialization Answer: B Explanation: Span of control refers to the number of subordinates a manager can efficiently and effectively control. At Locos Tacos, that number is eight.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

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17) Consultants Exceptional (CE) has hired you to develop training materials for their consultants. Your first assignment is to develop a training program that helps their consultants to analyze and understand the organizational structure of the company that they are assisting. You believe that in order to adequately evaluate and understand a client company, consultants need to understand the basic organizational structure of the company. Consultants are then able to recommend actions and changes based on the company's structure. One of the questions you tell the trainees to ask is, "To what degree are tasks subdivided into separate jobs?" This question addresses the issue of .

A) formalization B) work specialization C) span of control D) chain of command E) matrix restructuring Answer: B Explanation: Work specialization is the degree to which tasks in an organization are subdivided into separate jobs.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

18) What key question does departmentalization address?

A) "Do individuals from different areas need to regularly interact?"

B) "On what basis will jobs be grouped together?"

C) "Where does decision-making authority lie?"

D) "How many individuals can a manager efficiently and effectively direct?"

E) "To what degree are activities subdivided into separate jobs?"

Answer: B Explanation: Since departmentalization deals with grouping of people, it addresses the question, "On what basis will jobs be grouped together?"

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

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19) DeSean, a trainee at a consulting firm is given a case study concerning a local manufacturing firm called Acme Products. In assessing Acme's organizational structure, DeSean notices that all of the company's decisions are pushed down to the managers closest to the action. The trainees most likely identify Acme as a(n) organization.

A) highly decentralized B) highly formalized C) highly departmentalized D) highly centralized E) informally structured Answer: A Explanation: In decentralized organizations, decision-making is pushed down to the managers closest to the action or to workgroups.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

20) The senior management at the Randolph Group is concerned because the company takes so long to bring new products to the market. Which of the following approaches would you identify as the most likely solution to resolve this problem?

A) Reducing the use of cross-functional work teams B) Decentralization of the decision-making process C) Decreased work specialization D) Increased formalization of policies and procedures E) Reduced diversity within the company's work force Answer: B Explanation: Decentralized decision making is pushed down to the managers closest to the action. Management efforts to make organizations more flexible and responsive have produced a recent trend toward decentralized decision making by lower-level managers, who are closer to the action and typically have more detailed knowledge about problems than top managers. Acme needs to decentralize its organizational hierarchy for more flexibility.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

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21) You are the head of training for a consulting organization, and as part of your job, you help new hires become effective consultants by training them to ask the right questions of their clients. One of the things you do in the training session is instruct the trainees to ask the client organization if they have clearly defined procedures covering most of the jobs in the organization and lots of rules and policies. In doing this, you want to help them understand the client organization's .

A) chain of command B) degree of formalization C) span of control D) degree of departmentalization E) degree of centralization Answer: B Explanation: Formalization refers to the degree to which jobs within the organization are standardized. There are explicit job descriptions, lots of organizational rules, and clearly defined procedures covering work processes in organizations in which there is high formalization.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

22) refers to the degree to which decision making is concentrated at a single point in the organization.

A) Formalization B) Departmentalization C) Centralization D) Work specialization E) Line of command Answer: C Explanation: Centralization refers to the degree to which decision making is concentrated at a single point in the organization. In centralized organizations, top managers make all the decisions, and lower-level managers merely carry out their directives.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

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23) Which of the following statements is true regarding a centralized organization?

A) A centralized organization is more flexible than a decentralized organization.

B) In a centralized organization, decision making is pushed down to the managers closest to the action.

C) A centralized organization is more responsive than a decentralized organization.

D) In a centralized organization, top managers are rarely involved in decision making.

E) In a centralized organization, decision making is concentrated at a single point in the organization.

Answer: E Explanation: Centralization refers to the degree to which decision making is concentrated at a single point in the organization. In centralized organizations, top managers make all the decisions, and lower-level managers merely carry out their directives.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

24) Matthew is a new divisional manager. In reorganizing his division, he must make some decisions regarding the span of control for management within his division. The question of span of control determines .

A) the employee grievance policy of the organization B) the number of levels and managers an organization has C) where decisions are made D) how jobs will be grouped E) how employees will be compensated Answer: B Explanation: The number of employees a manager can efficiently and effectively direct refers to the span of control. It is important because it largely determines the number of levels and managers an organization has. All things being equal, the wider or larger the span, the more efficient the organization.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

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25) While observing the departments in her division, Aisha notices that some managers with wide spans of control seem to perform more effectively than other managers with similarly sized spans of control. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding the high-performing managers?

A) These managers are paid higher salaries than the low-performing managers.

B) These managers have external locus of control.

C) The employees within their departments tend to compete to reach productivity goals, which boosts performance.

D) The employees within their departments score high on agreeableness.

E) The employees within their departments are highly skilled and very knowledgeable about their jobs.

Answer: E Explanation: To ensure performance doesn't suffer because of these wider spans, organizations have to invest heavily in employee training. Managers recognize they can handle a wider span when employees know their jobs inside and out or can turn to co-workers when they have questions.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

26) The more the lower-level personnel provide input or are actually given the discretion to make decisions, the within that organization.

A) higher is the degree of formalization B) lower is the level of empowerment C) lower is the degree of work specialization D) higher is the degree of departmentalization E) higher is the degree of decentralization Answer: E Explanation: In decentralized organizations decision making is pushed down to the managers closest to the action. A decentralized organization can act more quickly to solve problems, more people provide input into decisions, and employees are less likely to feel alienated from those who make decisions that affect their work lives.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

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27) Publishing representatives who call on college professors to inform them of their company's new publications have a great deal of freedom in their jobs. They have only a general sales pitch, which they tailor as needed. Based on this information, we can say that the job of these publishing representatives scores .

A) low on the degree of work specialization B) low on the degree of decentralization C) high on the degree of departmentalization D) high on the degree of centralization E) low on the degree of formalization Answer: E Explanation: Formalization refers to the degree to which jobs within the organization are standardized. If a job is highly formalized, the incumbent has a minimum amount of discretion over what, when, and how to do it. The publishing representatives have a great deal of freedom in their jobs so we can say that the job scores low on the degree of formalization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

28) Aisha, a human resources (HR) executive is tasked with frequently coordinating with the company's information technology department (IT) in an effort to streamline the computerization of work at the company. Aisha is involved in .

A) decentralizing B) organizing C) formalizing D) boundary spanning E) centralizing Answer: D Explanation: The concept of boundary spanning deals with the relationships that one forms with individuals outside of their formally assigned groups—such as Aisha from HR with IT. Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

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29) Employee discretion is inversely related to .

A) complexity B) formalization C) specialization D) departmentalization E) empowerment Answer: B Explanation: Where formalization is low, job behaviors are relatively unprogrammed, and employees have a great deal of freedom to exercise discretion in their work. Standardization not only eliminates the possibility of employees engaging in alternative behaviors, but it even removes the need for employees to consider alternatives.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

30) The clerical and editorial employees in a publishing house need to be at their desks by 8:00 AM and follow a set of precise procedures dictated by management. The jobs of these clerical and editorial employees .

A) have a wide span of control B) score high on the degree of departmentalization C) score high on the degree of formalization D) lack a unity of command E) score low on the degree of work specialization Answer: C Explanation: Formalization refers to the degree to which jobs within the organization are standardized. If a job is highly formalized, the incumbent has a minimum amount of discretion over what, when, and how to do it. A high degree of formalization is characterized by clearly defined procedures covering work processes in organizations. Since the clerical and editorial employees have to follow a set of precise procedures dictated by management, their jobs score high on the degree of formalization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

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31) occurs when individuals form relationships with people outside their formally assigned groups.

A) Formalization B) Centralization C) Decentralization D) Boundary spanning E) Bureaucratization Answer: D Explanation: Boundary spanners coordinate across groups.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

32) Departmentalization refers to the degree of subdivision of activities into separate jobs.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Work specialization refers to the degree of subdivision of activities into separate jobs.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

33) Chain of command indicates to whom individuals and groups report.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: The key question, "To whom do individuals and groups report?" is answered by the organization's chain of command.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

34) Once jobs have been divided through work specialization, they must be grouped so common tasks can be coordinated and complexity can be reduced.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Departmentalization—grouping of people—follows work specialization.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

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35) One of the most popular ways to group activities is by the functions performed.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Functional departmentalization—grouping people by the functions performed—is one of the most popular ways to group activities.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

36) Chain of command refers to the number of subordinates a manager can efficiently and effectively direct.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Span of control refers to the number of subordinates a manager can efficiently and effectively direct.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

37) What are the advantages of functional departmentalization?

Answer: The basis by which jobs are grouped is called departmentalization. One of the most popular ways to group activities is by the functions performed—functional departmentalization.

Functional departmentalization allows efficiencies to be gained from putting specialists who focus on similar areas together. Furthermore, the functional structure allows specialists to become experts more easily than if they worked in diversified units. Employees can also be motivated by a clear career path to the top of the organization chart specific to their specialties.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

38) What is organizational structure and what are its key elements?

Answer: An organizational structure defines how job tasks are formally divided, grouped, and coordinated. There are seven key elements that should be considered when designing an organization's structure. They are: work specialization, departmentalization, chain of command, span of control, centralization and decentralization, formalization, and boundary spanning.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

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39) What advantages do divisional structures offer?

Answer: The divisional structures (product, geographical, process, customer departmentalization) offer a number of benefits that functional structures do not. They facilitate coordination in units to achieve on-time completion, budget targets, and development and introduction of new products to market, while addressing the specific concerns of each unit.

They provide clear responsibility for all activities related to a product.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

40) What is span of control? What trends do we see with respect to spans of control?

Answer: The span of control is the number of subordinates a manager can efficiently and effectively direct. Narrow or small spans have their advocates. By keeping the span of control to five or six employees, a manager can maintain close control. They, however, add levels of management, make vertical communication more complex, and encourage tight supervision and discourage employee autonomy. The trend in recent years has been toward wider spans of control. To ensure no drop off in performance because of wider spans, organizations have been investing heavily in employee training.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

41) What are the organizational behavior (OB) implications of centralization and decentralization?

Answer: A decentralized organization can act more quickly to solve problems, more people provide input into decisions, and employees are less likely to feel alienated from those who make decisions that affect their work lives. Centralized organizations are better for avoiding commission errors, while decentralized organizations are better for avoiding omission errors.

Decentralization is often necessary for companies with offshore sites because localized decision making is needed to respond to each region's profit opportunities, client base, and specific laws, while centralized oversight is needed to hold regional managers accountable.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.1 Identify seven elements of an organization's structure.

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42) Startups in Silicon Valley typically employ a structure.

A) matrix B) functional C) divisional D) simple E) team Answer: D Explanation: A simple structure is common in many startups, such as those found in Silicon Valley.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

43) You are interested in explaining the different types of organizational designs to students of basic management. In so doing, you talk about a structure that has a low degree of departmentalization, wide spans of control, little formalization, and authority centralized in a single person. You are probably talking about the .

A) matrix structure B) virtual organization C) bureaucracy D) team structure E) simple structure Answer: E Explanation: The characteristics of the simple structure are a low degree of departmentalization, wide spans of control, authority centralized in a single person, and little formalization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

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44) You assign your students a project that involves developing a business plan for a retail chain.

The retail chain will have 1000 employees and will serve customers both locally and internationally via a storefront and an Internet catalog. Which of the following organizational designs is least likely to be suitable for this retail store?

A) Matrix B) Virtual C) Bureaucracy D) Team E) Simple Answer: E Explanation: A simple structure describes an organization structure characterized by a low degree of departmentalization, wide spans of control, authority centralized in a single person, and little formalization. When an organization begins to employ 50 or 100 people, it's very difficult for the owner-manager to make all the choices. If the structure isn't changed and made more elaborate, the firm often loses momentum and can eventually fail.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

45) Which of the following statements is true about the simple structure?

A) It is very expensive to operate.

B) It is characterized by a high degree of departmentalization.

C) It becomes increasingly inadequate as an organization grows.

D) It is rigid.

E) It is characterized by a narrow span of control.

Answer: C Explanation: A simple structure has a low degree of departmentalization, wide spans of control, authority centralized in a single person, and little formalization. It's fast, flexible, and inexpensive to operate, and accountability is clear. One major weakness is that it's difficult to maintain in anything other than small organizations. It becomes increasingly inadequate as an organization grows because its low formalization and high centralization tend to create information overload at the top.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

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46) Lakeesha is the owner of a flower shop. She has five employees who all report directly to her, and she makes all the decisions regarding the type and quantity of flowers and looks after the shop's finances. Which type of organizational structure does Lakeesha have?

A) Bureaucracy B) Virtual structure C) Matrix structure D) Boundaryless structure E) Simple structure Answer: E Explanation: A simple structure has a low degree of departmentalization, wide spans of control, authority centralized in a single person, and little formalization. It is a "flat" organization; it usually has only two or three vertical levels, a loose body of employees, and one individual in whom the decision-making authority is centralized. So, Lakeesha's shop has a simple structure.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

47) Which of the following is a weakness of a bureaucracy?

A) Performing standardized activities inefficiently B) Breaking the unity of command constraint C) An obsessive concern with following the rules D) Maximizing duplication of people E) Decreasing economies of scale Answer: C Explanation: One of the weaknesses of a bureaucracy is its obsessive concern with following the rules. When cases do not precisely fit the rules, there is no room for modification. The bureaucracy is efficient only if employees confront familiar problems with programmed decision rules.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

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48) A bureaucracy is characterized by all of the following except .

A) highly routine operating tasks B) formalized rules and regulations C) tasks that are grouped into functional departments D) decentralized decision making E) high work specialization Answer: D Explanation: A bureaucracy is an organization structure with highly routine operating tasks achieved through specialization, very formalized rules and regulations, tasks that are grouped into functional departments, centralized authority, narrow spans of control, and decision making that follows the chain of command.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

49) Which of the following statements is true regarding a bureaucracy?

A) Bureaucracies need innovative and experienced decision makers at all levels in the organization.

B) Bureaucracy is an ideal organizational design for those organizations that operate under highly uncertain conditions.

C) Typically bureaucracies have wider spans of control.

D) Bureaucracies can get by with less talented middle- and lower-level managers.

E) Bureaucracies encourage employee empowerment.

Answer: D Explanation: Bureaucracies can get by with less talented–and, hence, less costly–middle- and lower-level managers. Rules and regulations substitute for managerial discretion. Standardized operations and high formalization allow decision making to be centralized. There is little need for innovative and experienced decision makers below the level of senior executives.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

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50) Which of the following types of organizational designs combines two forms of departmentalization: functional and product?

A) Simple structure B) Bureaucracy C) Matrix structure D) Virtual structure E) Team structure Answer: C Explanation: The matrix structure combines two forms of departmentalization: functional and product. Thus, members in a matrix structure have a dual chain of command: to their functional department and to their product groups.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

51) Which of the following statements is true regarding a matrix structure?

A) It breaks the unity-of-command concept.

B) It cannot achieve economies of scale.

C) It reduces ambiguity about who reports to whom.

D) It prevents power struggles.

E) It enhances role clarity and avoids role conflict.

Answer: A Explanation: The matrix structure breaks the unity-of-command concept and increases ambiguity about who reports to whom. The strength of the matrix is its ability to facilitate coordination when the organization has a number of complex and interdependent activities.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

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52) Which of the following types of organization structures is best suited for coordination when the organization has a number of complex and interdependent activities?

A) Simple structure B) Bureaucracy C) Matrix structure D) Divisional structure E) Centralized structure Answer: C Explanation: The matrix structure facilitates coordination when the organization has a number of complex and interdependent activities. It combines two forms of departmentalization: functional and product.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

53) Sergio works in new product development at Xenon Corp. As a marketing specialist, he reports both to Adam, his marketing manager, and to Ming, his product manager. The structural characteristic that is broken at product development at Xenon Corp. is called .

A) decentralization B) unity of command C) span of control D) line of command E) formalization Answer: B Explanation: On an everyday basis, Sergio confronts the break of the unity of command concept—that a subordinate answers to a single superior. He answers to two bosses.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

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54) You describe to your students a new committee within the university that brings together specialists from all different departments to develop a new interdisciplinary program. The structure of the committee best meets the definition of the .

A) matrix structure B) simple structure C) team organization D) virtual organization E) bureaucracy Answer: A Explanation: The matrix structure describes an organization structure that creates dual lines of authority and combines functional and product departmentalization.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

55) The simple structure has a low degree of departmentalization.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: The features of the simple structure are a low degree of departmentalization, wide spans of control, authority centralized in a single person, and little formalization.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

56) Even in a growing organization, the simple structure facilitates quick decision making.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: In a growing organization, the simple structure slows down decision making as the single executive tries to continue doing it all.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

57) Customization is the key aspect underlying all bureaucracies.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Standardization is the key aspect underlying all bureaucracies.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

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58) The matrix structure combines functional and product departmentalization.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: The matrix structure is an organization structure that creates dual lines of authority and combines functional and product departmentalization.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

59) A major weakness of a bureaucracy is its obsessive concern with following the rules.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: A bureaucracy pushes standardization that requires following rules. A bureaucracy is efficient only if employees confront familiar problems with programmed decision rules.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

60) How does the simple structure fare on key structural dimensions?

Answer: The simple structure addresses various organizational structure elements as follows: it has a low degree of departmentalization (how people are grouped), wide spans of control (resulting in fewer layers and a flat structure), authority centralized in a single person (such as the owner or the founder), and little formalization (in terms of rules, policies, and standards).

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

61) What constraints does the simple structure pose as an organization grows in size?

Answer: A major weakness of the simple structure is that it becomes increasingly inadequate as an organization grows. It other words, it doesn't scale well. This is because its low formalization and high centralization tend to create information overload at the top. Decision making typically becomes slower as the single executive tries to continue doing it all. If the structure is not changed (i.e., from the simple structure to something else) and made more elaborate, the firm loses momentum and can eventually fail.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

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62) Why is bureaucracy a dirty word in many people's minds? Does it have any advantages?

Answer: A bureaucracy is characterized by highly routine operating tasks achieved through specialization, very formalized rules and regulations, tasks grouped into functional departments, centralized authority, narrow spans of control, and decision making that follows the chain of command. Given that a bureaucracy is rule and hierarchy based, people typically don't have a positive view of it. To most people, a bureaucracy means delays. However, bureaucracies have several advantages. One is its ability to perform standardized activities in a highly efficient manner. Putting like specialties together in functional departments results in economies of scale, minimum duplication of personnel and equipment, and a common language that people can share. The second is that, in a bureaucracy, rules and regulations substitute for managerial discretion. Standardized operations and high formalization allow decision making to be centralized. There is little need for innovative and experienced decision makers below the level of senior executives. This means the organization can avoid the cost of hiring several managers at the middle and lower levels.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

63) What is the relationship between the matrix structure and the unity of command principle?

Answer: The matrix structure combines two forms of departmentalization: functional and product. This results in the creation of dual lines of authority. For example, in a matrix organization that combines functional and product departmentalization, a person working in marketing for product A would be answerable to two superiors—the functional head of marketing and the head of product A. This means the matrix structure breaks the unity of command principle. It is possible that confusion is created in matrix structures because of the lack of unity of command.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.2 Identify the characteristics of the simple structure, bureaucracy, and the matrix structure.

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64) A organization is a small, core organization that outsources major business functions.

A) centralized B) virtual C) bureaucratic D) matrix E) simple Answer: B Explanation: The virtual organization is also sometimes called the network, or modular, organization. It is typically a small, core organization that outsources major business functions.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.3 Identify the characteristics of the virtual structure, the team structure, and the circular structure.

65) The question of "Why own when you can rent?" captures the essence of the structure.

A) matrix B) team C) virtual D) functional E) simple Answer: C Explanation: A virtual structure is typically a small, core organization that outsources its major business functions.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.3 Identify the characteristics of the virtual structure, the team structure, and the circular structure.

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66) You are the CEO of Apex Systems. You have decided to hire other organizations to perform many of the basic functions of your business. You have hired an accounting firm to keep your records, a recruiting firm to handle human resource functions, and a computer firm to handle all records. To keep costs down, you are looking for other areas in which to outsource operations.

You have chosen to operate your business as a .

A) matrix organization B) virtual organization C) highly centralized organization D) team organization E) bureaucracy Answer: B Explanation: A virtual organization is a small, core organization that outsources major business functions.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 15.3 Identify the characteristics of the virtual structure, the team structure, and the circular structure.

67) The virtual structure is sometimes called the structure.

A) network B) bureaucratic C) centralized D) simple E) matrix Answer: A Explanation: The virtual structure is sometimes called the network, or modular, structure.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.3 Identify the characteristics of the virtual structure, the team structure, and the circular structure.

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68) Lotus Inc. is attempting to flatten its organizational hierarchy. It is encouraging the use of cross-hierarchical teams, participative decision-making practices, and the use of 360-degree performance appraisals. Based on this information we can say that Lotus Inc. is attempting to create a organization.

A) highly centralized B) virtual C) team D) highly formalized E) highly departmentalized Answer: C Explanation: A team organization tries to flatten the hierarchy. It encourages use of cross-functional teams. It encourages participative decision-making practices. It tends to use 360-degree performance appraisals. The team organization seeks to eliminate the chain of command, have limitless spans of control, and replace departments with empowered teams. In this example Lotus Inc. is attempting to create a team organization.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.3 Identify the characteristics of the virtual structure, the team structure, and the circular structure.

69) The virtual structure is highly .

A) departmentalized B) centralized C) decentralized D) bureaucratized E) formalized Answer: B Explanation: Virtual organizations are highly centralized, with little or no departmentalization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.3 Identify the characteristics of the virtual structure, the team structure, and the circular structure.

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70) The core of HyperShield is a small group of executives whose job is to oversee directly any activities done in-house and to coordinate relationships with organizations that manufacture, distribute, and perform other crucial functions. What type of structure does HyperShield have?

A) Matrix B) Team C) Functional D) Virtual E) Divisional Answer: D Explanation: A virtual structure typically is a small, core organization that outsources its major functions.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 15.3 Identify the characteristics of the virtual structure, the team structure, and the circular structure.

71) In a team organization, how does management flatten the hierarchy and minimize status and rank?

A) By eliminating cross-hierarchical teams B) By removing vertical boundaries C) By discouraging participative decision-making practices D) By dividing jobs into small, standardized tasks E) By enforcing the chain of command Answer: B Explanation: By removing vertical boundaries, management flattens the hierarchy and minimizes status and rank. Cross-hierarchical teams, participative decision-making practices, and the use of 360-degree performance appraisals are examples of breaking down vertical boundaries.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.3 Identify the characteristics of the virtual structure, the team structure, and the circular structure.

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72) The type of structure has executives at the center, spreading their vision outward in rings grouped by functions (managers, then specialists, then workers).

A) circular B) matrix C) virtual D) functional E) divisional Answer: A Explanation: The circular structure is similar to the concentric rings of an archery target. In the center are the executives; radiating outward in rings grouped by function are the managers, then the specialists, then the workers.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.3 Identify the characteristics of the virtual structure, the team structure, and the circular structure.

73) Within the circular structure, what is the correct order of people within the organization, starting from the center?

A) Workers, specialists, managers B) Managers, consultants, specialists, workers C) Workers, specialists, consultants, managers D) Managers, specialists, workers E) Workers, mangers, specialists, consultants Answer: D Explanation: Within this structure, managers are at the center of the operation, followed by specialists and then workers.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.3 Identify the characteristics of the virtual structure, the team structure, and the circular structure.

74) The virtual structure is sometimes called the network structure.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Virtual structures are sometimes called the network or modular structure.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.3 Identify the characteristics of the virtual structure, the team structure, and the circular structure.

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75) One of the forms of the network organization is the franchise.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Network organizations often take on many forms—one of them is the franchise form.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.3 Identify the characteristics of the virtual structure, the team structure, and the circular structure.

76) The team structure seeks to retain the chain of command.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: The team structure seeks to eliminate the chain of command and replace departments with empowered teams.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.3 Identify the characteristics of the virtual structure, the team structure, and the circular structure.

77) Describe the characteristics and advantages of the team structure.

Answer: The team structure replaces departments with empowered teams, and that eliminates horizontal boundaries and external barriers between customers and suppliers. The major advantage of the team structure is that by removing vertical boundaries, management flattens the hierarchy and minimizes status and rank. The structure can also break down geographic barriers.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.3 Identify the characteristics of the virtual structure, the team structure, and the circular structure.

78) is a systematic effort to make an organization leaner by selling off business units, closing locations, or reducing staff.

A) Removing boundaries B) Departmentalizing C) Decentralizing D) Downsizing E) Formalizing Answer: D Explanation: The goal of the new organizational forms is to improve agility by creating a lean, focused, and flexible organization. Companies may need to cut divisions that aren't adding value.

Downsizing is a systematic effort to make an organization leaner by selling off business units, closing locations, or reducing staff.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.4 Describe the effects of downsizing on organizational structures and employees.

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79) Some firms downsize to direct all their efforts toward their core .

A) employees B) competencies C) managers D) policies E) principles Answer: B Explanation: Sometimes organizations downsize (make the organization leaner) to direct all their efforts toward their core competencies.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.4 Describe the effects of downsizing on organizational structures and employees.

80) Which of the following is not a negative impact of downsizing?

A) Employees may become more insecure about their jobs.

B) Employees may experience a greater amount of stress and strain.

C) The firm may be able to direct all its efforts toward its core competencies.

D) Employees may become less committed to the organization.

E) Employees may become more uncertain about their careers.

Answer: C Explanation: One of the advantages or reasons why a firm would downsize is that this enables them to direct all their efforts toward their core competencies.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.4 Describe the effects of downsizing on organizational structures and employees.

81) What effect does downsizing have on employee attitudes?

Answer: Downsizing is a systematic effort to make an organization leaner by closing locations, reducing staff, de-layering (such as by narrowing the span of control by reducing the number of levels in a hierarchy), or selling off business units that do not add value. Downsizing does have an effect on employee attitudes. From a broad perspective, many have argued that the prominence of downsizing has led employees across the world to be insecure about their jobs and uncertain about their careers. Employees who remain often feel worried about future layoffs, may be less committed to the organization, and may experience a greater amount of stress and strain. Downsizing can also lead to more voluntary turnover, so vital human capital is lost.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.4 Describe the effects of downsizing on organizational structures and employees.

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82) The model is generally synonymous with the bureaucracy.

A) virtual B) matrix C) organic D) mechanistic E) circular Answer: D Explanation: The mechanistic model of organization has high specialization, rigid departmentalization, narrow spans of control, centralized management, and high formalization. It is generally synonymous with the bureaucracy.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.5 Contrast the reasons for mechanistic and organic structural models.

83) Which of the following is typically a characteristic of the organic model of organization?

A) Narrow spans of control B) Centralization C) Free flow of information D) High formalization E) Clear chain of command Answer: C Explanation: The organic model of organization has cross-hierarchical teams, wide spans of control, decentralized management, low formalization, and free flow of information.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.5 Contrast the reasons for mechanistic and organic structural models.

84) A(n) strategy emphasizes the introduction of major new products and services.

A) innovation B) cost-minimization C) imitation D) organic E) mechanistic Answer: A Explanation: The degree to which an organization introduces major new products or services is the innovation strategy. This strategy strives to achieve meaningful and unique innovations.

Innovation strategy emphasizes the introduction of major new products and services.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.5 Contrast the reasons for mechanistic and organic structural models.

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85) Organizations following a(n) strategy try to both minimize risk and maximize opportunity for profit, moving into new products or new markets only after innovators have proven their viability.

A) innovation B) cost-cutting C) imitation D) organic E) mechanistic Answer: C Explanation: Organizations following an imitation strategy try to both minimize risk and maximize opportunity for profit, moving into new products or new markets only after innovators have proven their viability.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.5 Contrast the reasons for mechanistic and organic structural models.

86) Which of the following is not part of an organization's environment?

A) Public pressure groups B) Customers C) Employees D) Competitors E) Suppliers Answer: C Explanation: An organization's environment includes outside institutions or forces that can affect its performance, such as suppliers, customers, competitors, government regulatory agencies, and public pressure groups. Personnel is not an outside institution. Employees are an integral part of the organization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.5 Contrast the reasons for mechanistic and organic structural models.

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87) Any organization's environment has three dimensions. Identify these dimensions.

A) Stability, adaptability, and employee-orientation B) Complexity, volatility, and capacity C) Replaceability, product-orientation, and stability D) Flexibility, employee-orientation, and capacity E) Volatility, product-orientation, and adaptability Answer: B Explanation: Any organization's environment has three dimensions: capacity, volatility, and complexity. Capacity refers to the degree to which the environment can support growth.

Volatility describes the degree of instability in the environment. Complexity is the degree of heterogeneity and concentration among environmental elements.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.5 Contrast the reasons for mechanistic and organic structural models.

88) Which of the following dimensions of an environment describes the degree to which the environment can support growth?

A) Capacity B) Flexibility C) Volatility D) Sustainability E) Complexity Answer: A Explanation: Any organization's environment has three dimensions: capacity, volatility, and complexity. Capacity refers to the degree to which the environment can support growth.

Volatility describes the degree of instability in the environment. Complexity is the degree of heterogeneity and concentration among environmental elements.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.5 Contrast the reasons for mechanistic and organic structural models.

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89) Volatility refers to the degree of within an environment.

A) sustainability B) instability C) flexibility D) complexity E) adaptability Answer: B Explanation: Any organization's environment has three dimensions: capacity, volatility, and complexity. Capacity refers to the degree to which the environment can support growth.

Volatility describes the degree of instability in the environment. Complexity is the degree of heterogeneity and concentration among environmental elements.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.5 Contrast the reasons for mechanistic and organic structural models.

90) The structure is flat, uses cross-functional and cross-hierarchical teams, and has low formalization.

A) organic B) mechanistic C) bureaucratic D) functional E) institutional Answer: A Explanation: The organic model is flat, uses both cross-hierarchical and cross-functional teams, has low formalization, possesses a comprehensive information network, and relies on participative decision making.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.5 Contrast the reasons for mechanistic and organic structural models.

91) Which of the following determinants of an organization's structure describes the way an organization transfers inputs into outputs?

A) Strategy B) Environment C) Investment D) Size E) Technology Answer: E Explanation: Technology describes the way an organization transfers inputs into outputs. Every organization has at least one technology for converting financial, human, and physical resources into products or services.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.5 Contrast the reasons for mechanistic and organic structural models.

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92) Institutional theory focuses on .

A) elements which are not changeable B) constant pursuit of corporate social responsibility C) maintaining the culture of the organization D) changing the mid-level managers to protect the top-level leadership E) pressures that are not necessarily adaptive Answer: E Explanation: Many institutional theorists try to highlight the ways corporate behaviors sometimes seem to be performance oriented but are actually guided by unquestioned social norms and conformity.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.5 Contrast the reasons for mechanistic and organic structural models.

93) The organic model is generally synonymous with the bureaucracy.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: The mechanistic model is generally synonymous with the bureaucracy in that it has highly standardized processes for work, high formalization, and more managerial hierarchy.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 15.5 Contrast the reasons for mechanistic and organic structural models.

94) Logically, strategy should follow structure.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Because structure is a means to achieve objectives, and objectives derive from the organization's overall strategy, it is only logical that structure should follow strategy.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.5 Contrast the reasons for mechanistic and organic structural models.

95) What role does environment play in influencing organizational structure?

Answer: An organization's environment includes outside institutions or forces that can affect its structure, such as suppliers, customers, competitors, and public pressure groups. Dynamic environments create significantly more uncertainty for managers than do static ones. To minimize uncertainty in key market arenas, managers may broaden their structure to sense and respond to threats. An organization's environment can be looked at along the dimensions of capacity, volatility, and complexity.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.5 Contrast the reasons for mechanistic and organic structural models.

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96) How do institutions shape organizational structure?

Answer: In this context, institutions are cultural factors, especially those factors that might not lead to adaptive consequences, that lead many organizations to similar structures. In other words, institutional theory identifies some of the forces that lead many organizations to have similar structures. The most obvious institutional factors come from regulatory pressures. Sometimes simple inertia determines an organizational form—companies can be structured in a particular way just because that is the way things have always been done, or what others are doing.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.5 Contrast the reasons for mechanistic and organic structural models.

97) Job candidates who prefer are likely to seek out and take employment in mechanistic structures, and those who want are more likely to end up in an organic structure.

A) predictability; autonomy B) centralization; decentralization C) job satisfaction; job security D) simple structure; matrix structure E) virtual organizations; team organizations Answer: A Explanation: Other things equal, people don't select employers randomly. They are attracted to, are selected by, and stay with organizations that suit their personal characteristics. Job candidates who prefer predictability are likely to seek out and take employment in mechanistic structures, and those who want autonomy are more likely to end up in an organic structure.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.6 Analyze the behavioral implications of different organizational designs.

98) Organizations that operate with people from high power-distance cultures often find their employees are much more accepting of structures than are employees from low power-distance countries.

A) meritocratic B) flexible C) mechanistic D) organic E) adhocratic Answer: C Explanation: In high power-distance cultures such as Greece, France, and most of Latin America, it is likely that employees are much more accepting of mechanistic structures than their counterparts from low power-distance cultures.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.6 Analyze the behavioral implications of different organizational designs.

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99) Some employees like to be left alone; others prefer the security of a boss who is always quickly available. From this, it is probably safe to say that no evidence supports a relationship between and employee satisfaction or performance.

A) meritocracy B) adhocracy C) organic structures D) span of control E) cognitive dissonance Answer: D Explanation: Although it is intuitively attractive that large spans lead to higher employee performance because they provide more distant supervision and more opportunity for personal initiative, research fails to support this notion.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 15.6 Analyze the behavioral implications of different organizational designs.

100) Which of the following statements is true about span of control?

A) Small spans lead to higher employee performance.

B) Large spans lead to lower employee performance C) No evidence supports a relationship between span of control and employee satisfaction or performance.

D) There is a positive relationship between span of control and employee performance.

E) There is an inverse relationship between span of control and employee satisfaction or performance.

Answer: C Explanation: There is no evidence to support a relationship between span of control and employee satisfaction or performance.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 15.6 Analyze the behavioral implications of different organizational designs.

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Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 11E (Robbins) Chapter 15 Organizational Culture 1) The system of shared meaning that makes up organizational culture includes values, beliefs, , and assumptions that characterize the organization.

A) goals B) tasks C) shared rewards D) material symbols E) policies Answer: D Explanation: Organizational culture is a system of shared meanings that includes values, beliefs, material symbols, and assumptions that characterize the organization.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

2) Alessio's boss doesn't care whether Alessio works at home, at the office, or from his beach house. All he cares about is that the project is completed on time, under budget, and with exemplary quality. Which dimension of organizational culture, according to the Organizational Culture Profile (OCP), best describes this aspect of Alessio's job?

A) Risk taking B) Outcome orientation C) Attention to detail D) Aggressiveness E) Supportiveness Answer: B Explanation: One of the eight dimensions of organizational culture, according to the OCP, is outcome orientation. This is what is described in Alessio's job.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

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3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational culture according to the Organizational Culture Profile (OCP)?

A) Attention to detail B) Innovation C) Process orientation D) Team orientation E) Outcome orientation Answer: C Explanation: According to the OCP, eight primary characteristics seem to capture the essence of an organization's culture: innovation, attention to detail, decisiveness, team orientation, outcome orientation, aggressiveness, supportiveness, and rewards emphasis.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

4) According to the competing values framework, which of the following cultures would be a culture based on change?

A) The Bureaucracy B) The Clan C) The Adhocracy D) The Market E) The Hierarchy Answer: C Explanation: The Adhocracy is a culture based on achievement. Here, employees value growth, variety, attention to detail, stimulation, and autonomy.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

5) The Hendricks Company has a culture based on achievement. The employees of the company value communication, competence, and competition. According to the competing values framework, the Hendricks Company has a(n) culture.

A) market B) clan C) adhocracy D) meritocracy E) hierarchy Answer: A Explanation: The Hendricks Company has a market culture, a culture that is based on achievement and where employees value communication, competence, and competition.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

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6) The key characteristic of the hierarchy organizational culture according to the competing values framework is .

A) human affiliation B) team orientation C) stability D) risk taking E) aggressiveness Answer: C Explanation: The hierarchy is a culture based on stability. Here, employees value communication, formalization, and routine.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

7) Which of the following statements distinguishes between organizational culture and job satisfaction?

A) Job satisfaction is descriptive, whereas organizational culture is evaluative.

B) Organizational culture is static, whereas job satisfaction is dynamic.

C) Job satisfaction is immeasurable, whereas organizational culture is measurable.

D) Organizational culture is descriptive, whereas job satisfaction is evaluative.

E) Organizational culture measures how employees feel about an organization's expectations, whereas job satisfaction is concerned about how employees perceive the organization's culture.

Answer: D Explanation: The concept of organizational culture is concerned with how employees perceive the characteristics of an organization's culture, not whether they like them, and is therefore a descriptive term. On the other hand, the concept of job satisfaction seeks to measure how employees feel about the organization's expectations, reward practices and therefore is an evaluative term.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

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8) Which of the following statements is true regarding an organization's culture?

A) Organizational culture is evaluative rather than descriptive.

B) Large organizations rarely have subcultures.

C) A dominant culture expresses the core values shared by a majority of the organization's members.

D) A strong culture increases employee turnover.

E) Subcultures and dominant cultures must not share any common values.

Answer: C Explanation: Organizational culture is descriptive. Most large organizations have a dominant culture and numerous subcultures. A dominant culture expresses the core values shared by a majority of the organization's members. A strong culture should reduce employee turnover, because it demonstrates high agreement about what the organization represents. Subcultures tend to develop in large organizations to reflect common problems or experiences members face in the same department or location. The purchasing department can have a subculture that includes the core values of the dominant culture plus additional values unique to members of that department.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

9) Cultures that tend to develop in large organizations to reflect common problems, situations, or experiences faced by groups of members in the same department or location are often called .

A) micro-cultures B) subcultures C) divisional cultures D) microcosms E) counter cultures Answer: B Explanation: Subcultures tend to develop in large organizations to reflect common problems, situations, or experiences faced by groups of members in the same department or location. The purchasing department can have a subculture that includes the core values of the dominant culture plus additional values unique to members of the purchasing department.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

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10) Which of the following statements is not true regarding subcultures?

A) Subcultures include core values of the organization.

B) Subcultures typically exist within a department.

C) When we talk about an organization's culture, we are referring to its subculture.

D) If organizations were composed only of numerous subcultures, organizational culture as an independent variable would be significantly less powerful.

E) Subcultures influence members' behavior.

Answer: C Explanation: Subcultures tend to develop in large organizations to reflect common problems, situations, or experiences faced by groups of members in the same department or location.

Subcultures include the core values of the dominant culture plus additional values unique to the respective department. If organizations were composed only of numerous subcultures, organizational culture as an independent variable would be significantly less powerful.

Subcultures influence members' behavior. When we talk about an organization's culture, we are referring to its dominant culture.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

11) The primary or dominant values that convey an organization's culture and are widely accepted throughout the organization are known as .

A) foundational values B) core values C) shared values D) institutional values E) unique values Answer: B Explanation: The dominant culture includes the core values, the primary or dominant values that are accepted throughout the organization.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

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12) Which of the following is most likely to be the indicator of a strong organizational culture?

A) High employee turnover B) Narrow span of control C) Employees' diverse views of organization's mission D) Presence of several subcultures E) Widely shared values Answer: E Explanation: In a strong culture, the organization's core values are both intensely held and widely shared. Narrow span of control and presence of several subcultures, do not indicate a strong culture. If most employees have the same opinions about the organization's mission and values, the culture is strong; if opinions vary widely, the culture is weak. A strong culture should reduce employee turnover because it demonstrates high agreement about what the organization represents.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

13) Which of the following is not a type of culture according to the competing values framework?

A) The meritocracy B) The clan C) The adhocracy D) The market E) The hierarchy Answer: A Explanation: The four types of organizational cultures per the competing values framework are the clan, the adhocracy, the market, and the hierarchy.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

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14) Trends Inc. is an apparel company. To keep up with the latest changes in the fashion industry, the company has to come up with innovative designs and follow strict timelines. The culture of the company values aggressiveness, innovation, and risk taking. The members of the organization accept these cultural values. They know exactly what is expected of them and these expectations go a long way in shaping their behavior. In addition to this, the culture of the marketing department is outcome oriented, and the finance department emphasizes attention to detail. The organizational culture of Trends Inc. values aggressiveness, innovation, and risk taking. These characteristics express its .

A) autocratic culture B) subculture C) highly formalized culture D) reflective culture E) dominant culture Answer: E Explanation: A dominant culture expresses the core values shared by a majority of the organization's members. When we talk about an organization's culture, we are referring to its dominant culture, which gives an organization its distinct personality.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

15) Trends Inc. is an apparel company. To keep up with the latest changes in the fashion industry, the company has to come up with innovative designs and follow strict timelines. The culture of the company values aggressiveness, innovation, and risk taking. The members of the organization accept these cultural values. They know exactly what is expected of them and these expectations go a long way in shaping their behavior. In addition to this, the culture of the marketing department is outcome oriented, and the finance department emphasizes attention to detail. Aggressiveness, innovation, and risk taking are the of the culture of Trends Inc. A) foundational values B) institutional traits C) core values D) significant traits E) unique values Answer: C Explanation: The dominant culture includes the core values, the primary or dominant values that are accepted throughout the organization. In this example, aggressiveness, innovation, and risk taking are the core values of the organizational culture.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

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16) Trends Inc. is an apparel company. To keep up with the latest changes in the fashion industry, the company has to come up with innovative designs and follow strict time lines. The culture of the company values aggressiveness, innovation, and risk taking. The members of the organization accept these cultural values. They know exactly what is expected of them and these expectations go a long way in shaping their behavior. In addition to this, the culture of the marketing department is outcome oriented, and the finance department emphasizes attention to detail. Based on the information in the example, we can say that Trends Inc. .

A) is a highly centralized organization B) is a virtual organization C) has a strong culture D) is a highly formalized organization E) is a matrix organization Answer: C Explanation: Based on the information in the example, we can say that Trends Inc. has a strong culture. In a strong culture, the organization's core values are both intensely held and widely shared. The more members who accept the core values and the greater their commitment, the stronger the culture and the greater its influence on member behavior. If an organization has a strong culture then the members of the organization know exactly what is expected of them, and these expectations go a long way in shaping their behavior.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

17) A strong culture should reduce employee turnover because it results in .

A) a highly centralized organization B) narrow spans of control C) cohesiveness and organizational commitment D) a highly formalized organization E) an outcome-oriented organization Answer: C Explanation: A strong culture should reduce employee turnover because it demonstrates high agreement about what the organization represents. Such unanimity of purpose builds cohesiveness, loyalty, and organizational commitment. These qualities, in turn, lessen employees' propensity to leave.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

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18) Organizational culture shows how the employees like the essence of an organization.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Organizational culture shows how employees perceive the essence of an organization, not whether they like them. In other words, it is a descriptive term.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

19) "The clan" is an organizational culture based on human affiliation.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: In a clan culture, employees value attachment, collaboration, trust, and support.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

20) An adhocracy is an internally focused culture.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: An adhocracy is externally focused and flexible.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

21) According to the Organizational Culture Inventory, aggressive-defensive cultures are competitive, perfectionist, and power-oriented.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: According to the Organizational Culture Inventory, aggressive-defensive is one of three types. Such cultures are competitive, perfectionist, and power-oriented.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

22) Dominant cultures tend to develop in large organizations in response to common problems or experiences a group of members face in the same department or location.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Subcultures tend to develop in large organizations in response to common problems or experiences a group of members face in the same department or location.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

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23) What is organization culture? Why is it considered a descriptive term?

Answer: Organizational culture is a system of shared meaning that distinguishes the organization from other organizations. This system is characterized by values, beliefs, and underlying assumptions that serve several purposes. Organizational culture shows how employees perceive the essence of an organization, not whether they like them. Hence, it is a descriptive term. It is not an evaluative term like job satisfaction.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

24) What are the four types of organizational cultures based on the competing values methodology?

Answer: Based on competing values, organizational cultures can be one of four kinds: the clan, the adhocracy, the market, and the hierarchy. The clan is a culture based on human affiliation.

Here, employees value attachment, collaboration, trust, and support. The adhocracy is a culture based on change. In this type of culture, employees value growth, variety, attention to detail, stimulation, and autonomy. The market culture is based on achievement. Here, employees value communication, competence, and competition. Finally, the hierarchy is based on stability. In a hierarchy, employees value communication, formalization, and routine.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

25) Why do subcultures develop in certain organizations?

Answer: Organizational culture represents a perception that the organization's members hold in common. The dominant culture expresses the core values most members share and that gives the organization its distinct personality. Subcultures tend to develop in large organizations in response to common problems or experiences a group of members face in the same department or location. Most large organizations have a dominant culture and numerous subcultures.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.1 Describe the common characteristics of organizational culture.

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26) are repetitive sequences of activities that express and reinforce the key values of the organization, which goals are most important, which people are important, and which are expendable.

A) Stories B) Material symbols C) Rituals D) Language E) Corporate chants Answer: C Explanation: Rituals are one way culture is transmitted. They are a repetitive sequence of activities that reinforce what is important in the organization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.2 Show how culture is transmitted to employees.

27) Nunya is a computer software company that employs highly intelligent, but somewhat unusual people. Every Friday, free lollipops, toys, or other treats are given out to encourage employees to remember how creative they were when they were children. All the new members of the organization are told about the founders who were three young people who "got lucky" and sold a video game that they invented. The employees are allowed to dress informally and can set their own working hours. Informing employees about the founders is an example of which technique for transmitting culture?

A) Stories B) Material symbols C) Language D) Rituals E) Corporate chants Answer: A Explanation: Stories circulate through organizations. They typically contain a narrative of events about the organization's founders, rule breaking, rags-to-riches successes, reductions in the workforce, relocation of employees, reactions to past mistakes, and organizational coping.

These stories anchor the present in the past and explain and legitimate current practices.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 16.2 Show how culture is transmitted to employees.

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28) Miguel is new at JPS Corp., but after a week he already knows that the founder of the corporation started the business in his garage with only $4,000 and one client. This information was most likely transmitted to Miguel by way of .

A) stories B) material symbols C) rituals D) language E) corporate chants Answer: A Explanation: Miguel most likely knows this legend through the passing of stories. Stories circulate through organizations. They typically contain a narrative of events about the organization's founders, rule breaking, rags-to-riches successes, reductions in the workforce, relocation of employees, and organizational coping.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 16.2 Show how culture is transmitted to employees.

29) Which of the following is not an example of stories?

A) How the new standard operating procedures will be implemented B) How the founders started the company C) How the workforce grew from three to three hundred in one year D) How the company had to cut one thousand employees last year E) How one of its most popular products was invented Answer: A Explanation: Stories circulate through organizations. They typically contain a narrative of events about the organization's founders, rule breaking, rags-to-riches successes, reductions in the workforce, relocation of employees, and organizational coping. The method of implementation of operating procedures is not considered a story.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.2 Show how culture is transmitted to employees.

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30) Alcoa headquarters has few individual offices, even for senior executives. The space is essentially made up of cubicles, common areas, and meeting rooms. This is an example of transmitting culture through .

A) stories B) language C) rituals D) material symbols E) procedures Answer: D Explanation: The layout of Alcoa headquarters conveys to employees that Alcoa values openness, equality, creativity, and flexibility. It transmits culture via symbols.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.2 Show how culture is transmitted to employees.

31) Rituals are also known as artifacts.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Symbols are sometimes also known as artifacts. They indicate the values inherent in the organization's culture.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.2 Show how culture is transmitted to employees.

32) Research suggests that rituals work because they inspire a sense of control in their participants and, as a result, reduce anxiety.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Rituals are repetitive sequences of activities that express and reinforce the key values of the organization. They work because they reduce participants' anxiety by giving them a sense of control.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.2 Show how culture is transmitted to employees.

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33) What are rituals? How is culture transmitted through rituals?

Answer: Culture is transmitted to employees in a number of forms, the most potent being stories, rituals, material symbols, and language.

Rituals are repetitive sequences of activities that express and reinforce the key values of the organization, what goals are most important, which people are important and which are expendable. Some companies have nontraditional rituals to help support the values of their cultures. Others use rituals to "convert" potential customers, clients, and investors. Rituals work in reinforcing values and placating supervisors, employees, and customers alike. This is because they inspire a sense of control in their participants and, as a result, reduce anxiety.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.2 Show how culture is transmitted to employees.

34) The ultimate source of an organization's culture is .

A) its top management B) its environment C) the country in which the organization operates D) its founders E) the sociocultural backgrounds of its employees Answer: D Explanation: An organization's customs, traditions, and general way of doing things are largely due to what it has done before and how successful it was in doing it. Because of this, the ultimate source of an organization's culture tends to be its founders.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

35) The selection process helps sustain the organization's culture by .

A) encouraging discussion about norms B) hiring candidates who fit well within the organization C) selecting employees who deserve to be promoted D) developing performance evaluation criteria E) rewarding conformity of skills Answer: B Explanation: The selection process helps sustain the organization's culture by hiring candidates who fit well within the organization. Selection also provides information to applicants. Those who perceive a conflict between their values and those of the organization can remove themselves from the applicant pool.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

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36) Your first day at work is part of the stage of socialization.

A) orientation B) prearrival C) encounter D) metamorphosis E) post-encounter Answer: C Explanation: On entry into the organization, the new member enters the encounter stage and confronts the possibility that expectations–about the job, co-workers, the boss, and the organization in general–may differ from reality. If expectations were fairly accurate, the encounter stage merely cements earlier perceptions.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

37) You are new to an organization and do not really know what to expect about the socialization process. You are a recent MBA and have an undergraduate degree in computer science. Your new firm is a software development company with an emphasis in the healthcare industry. Your hiring process includes campus interviews, a day-long trip for an interview at the company, an offer phone call and letter, and some promotional material sent via the mail. When you arrive for your first day at work, you spend half a day in an orientation session that is conducted by the human resources department, where you complete paperwork and receive a company handbook.

Then you spend the rest of the day with your supervisor, who gives you a tour, introduces you to your co-workers, and explains your first project. After that, you begin working and getting to know the others in the company. You find that in most respects, your experience fits your expectations, but in some ways you are surprised by realities that you hadn't expected. None of these surprises is too difficult to accept, so you eventually begin to feel at home and happy with your new job. The information that you receive during the interviewing and hiring process is a part of the stage of employee socialization.

A) preencounter B) prearrival C) encounter D) metamorphosis E) post-encounter Answer: B Explanation: The prearrival stage explicitly recognizes that each individual arrives with a set of values, attitudes, and expectations about both the work to be done and the organization. One way to capitalize on the importance of prehire characteristics in socialization is to use the selection process to inform prospective employees about the organization as a whole.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

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38) You are new to an organization and do not really know what to expect about the socialization process. You are a recent MBA and have an undergraduate degree in computer science. Your new firm is a software development company with an emphasis in the healthcare industry. On the first day at work, when you begin to notice things that are not as per your expectation, you are in the stage of socialization.

A) orientation B) prearrival C) encounter D) metamorphosis E) post-arrival Answer: C Explanation: On entry into the organization, the new member enters the encounter stage and confronts the possibility that expectations, about the job, co-workers, the boss, and the organization in general, may differ from reality.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

39) Which of the following is the last step in the socialization process?

A) Encounter B) Onboarding C) Metamorphosis D) Prearrival E) Transition Answer: C Explanation: The metamorphosis stage is the last stage in the socialization process. Here a new employee changes and adjusts to the job, workgroup, and organization.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

40) When you start to accept the differences between your expectations and the reality of the organization, you move into the stage of socialization.

A) prearrival B) post-arrival C) acceptance D) metamorphosis E) post-encounter Answer: D Explanation: To work out any problems discovered during the encounter stage, the new member changes or goes through the metamorphosis stage.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

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41) The process helps candidates learn about the organization and if employees perceive a conflict between their values and those of the organization, they can remove themselves from the applicant pool.

A) orientation B) training C) performance evaluation D) selection E) institutionalization Answer: D Explanation: The explicit goal of the selection process is to identify and hire individuals with the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform successfully. Selection also provides information to applicants. Those who perceive a conflict between their values and those of the organization can remove themselves from the applicant pool.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

42) is a process that helps new employees adapt to the prevailing organizational culture.

A) Satisficing B) Reciprocal interdependence C) Socialization D) Formalization E) Social loafing Answer: C Explanation: No matter how good a job the organization does in recruiting and selection, new employees are not fully indoctrinated in the organization's culture and can disrupt beliefs and customs already in place. The process that helps new employees adapt to the prevailing culture is socialization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

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43) The process of socialization consists of three stages. Which of the following is the first stage?

A) Prearrival B) Encounter C) Evaluation D) Post-arrival E) Metamorphosis Answer: A Explanation: We can think of socialization as a process with three stages: prearrival, encounter, and metamorphosis. This process has an impact on the new employee's work productivity, commitment to the organization's objectives, and eventual decision to stay with the organization.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

44) Identify the correct order in the socialization process.

A) Encounter, metamorphosis, post-encounter B) Prearrival, arrival, evaluation C) Prearrival, arrival, post-arrival D) Prearrival, encounter, metamorphosis E) Metamorphosis, preencounter, arrival Answer: D Explanation: We can think of socialization as a process with three stages: prearrival, encounter, and metamorphosis.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

45) Ming joined her new law firm expecting to participate in exciting environmental law cases, and cutting edge research. After one month at the firm she still hasn't been assigned a case and spends most of her time filing standardized appeals for title disputes with insurance companies.

In which stage of the socialization process is Ming?

A) Prearrival B) Encounter C) Metamorphosis D) Post-encounter E) Post-arrival Answer: B Explanation: On entry into the organization, the new member enters the encounter stage and confronts the possibility that expectations, about the job, co-workers, the boss, and the organization in general, may differ from reality. Ming is in the encounter stage.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

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46) If there is a basic conflict between the individual's expectations and the reality of working in an organization, the employee is most likely to be disillusioned and quit during the stage of socialization.

A) prearrival B) post-arrival C) encounter D) metamorphosis E) post-encounter Answer: C Explanation: On entry into the organization, the new member enters the encounter stage and confronts the possibility that expectations–about the job, co-workers, the boss, and the organization in general–may differ from reality. If there occurs a mismatch between the expectations of the new member and the reality, then the new member may become disillusioned enough with the reality to resign.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

47) During the socialization process, to work out any problems discovered during the encounter stage, the new member changes or goes through the stage.

A) post-arrival B) metamorphosis C) post-encounter D) analysis E) evaluation Answer: B Explanation: During the socialization process, to work out any problems discovered during the encounter stage, the new member changes or goes through the metamorphosis stage.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

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48) New employees are usually comfortable with their organizations by the end of the stage of socialization.

A) encounter B) post-arrival C) establishment D) metamorphosis E) adaptation Answer: D Explanation: To work out any problems discovered during the encounter stage, the new member changes or goes through the metamorphosis stage, by the end of which they are usually comfortable in their new position.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

49) Which of the following is not an entry socialization option in the metamorphosis stage?

A) Formal versus informal B) Individual versus collective C) Hierarchical versus mechanistic D) Fixed versus variable E) Serial versus random Answer: C Explanation: The five entry socialization options during the metamorphosis stage of socialization are formal versus informal, individual versus collective, fixed versus variable, serial versus random, and investiture versus divestiture.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Application LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

50) Socialization can help alleviate the problem many employees report when their new jobs are different than they expected.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Socialization is a process that enables new employees to acquire the social knowledge and necessary skills in order to adapt to the organization's culture. The process also helps alleviate problems that new hires may encounter when their new jobs are different than they expected.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

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51) Prearrival is one of the stages in the socialization process.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Socialization is a process with three stages: prearrival, encounter, and metamorphosis.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

52) In the prearrival stage of the socialization process, new members confront the possibility that expectations about the job, boss, and organization in general may differ from reality.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: It is at the second stage of the socialization process—encounter—that new hires confront the possibility that expectations may differ from reality.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

53) How does organizational culture develop?

Answer: An organization's current customs, traditions, and general way of doing things are largely due to what it has done before and the degree of success it has had with those endeavors.

The founders of an organization traditionally have a major impact on that organization's early culture. They have a vision of what the organization should be. The small size that typically characterizes new organizations further facilitates the founders' imposition of their vision on all organizational members. The process of culture-creation occurs in three ways. a) First, founders only hire and keep employees who think and feel the way they do. b) Second, they indoctrinate and socialize these employees to their way of thinking and feeling. c) And finally, the founders' own behavior acts as a role model that encourages employees to identify with them and thereby internalize their beliefs, values, and assumptions.

When the organization succeeds, the founders' vision becomes seen as a primary determinant of that success. At this point, the founders' entire personalities become embedded in the culture of the organization.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

54) One of the main ways that culture is created and maintained within an organization is for the founder to only hire and keep employees who think and feel the same as he/she does. Discuss both the pros and cons of this idea and offer an opinion as to why this system can be effective.

Answer: Responses will vary but should include statements such as shared vision, potential discrimination, lack of diversity, reduced conflict, and such.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

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55) Describe the significance of selection in the context of maintaining the organizational culture.

Answer: The explicit goal of the selection process is to identify and hire individuals with the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform successfully. The final decision, because it's significantly influenced by the decision maker's judgment of how well the candidates will fit into the organization, identifies people whose values are essentially consistent with at least a good portion of the organization's. Selection also provides information to applicants. Those who perceive a conflict between their values and those of the organization can remove themselves from the applicant pool. Selection thus becomes a two-way street, allowing employer or applicant to avoid a mismatch and sustaining an organization's culture by selecting out those who might attack or undermine its core values.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

56) How does socialization help in keeping a culture alive?

Answer: No matter how good a job the organization does in recruitment and selection, new employees need help adapting to the prevailing culture. This adaptation comes in the form of socialization. Socialization is a process that enables new employees to acquire the social knowledge and necessary skills in order to adapt to the organization's culture. Socialization can help alleviate the problem many employees report when their new jobs are different than they expected.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

57) What happens in the encounter stage of the socialization process?

Answer: Socialization is a process involving three stages: prearrival, encounter, and metamorphosis. The selection process can help inform prospective employees about the organization. Upon entry into the organization, the new member enters the encounter stage and confronts the possibility that expectations (about the job, co-workers, boss, and organization in general) may differ from reality. Learning, unlearning, and relationship building are key during this stage.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.3 Identify the factors that create and sustain an organization's culture.

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58) Which of the following is not a function of culture?

A) Culture defines "the rules of the game."

B) Culture conveys a sense of identity for organization members.

C) Culture helps members evaluate the organization.

D) Culture facilitates commitment to something larger than individual self-interest.

E) Culture enhances the stability of the social system.

Answer: C Explanation: Culture is a descriptive and not an evaluative construct. Organizational evaluation is not one of the functions of culture.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

59) When formal authority and control systems are reduced through decentralization, culture's can point everyone in the same direction.

A) rigidity B) shared meaning C) policies D) procedures E) rules Answer: B Explanation: One of the functions of culture is to convey a sense of identity for organization members, even when the organization is decentralized. This is done through the cultural attribute of shared meaning.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

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60) Organizational refers to the shared perceptions organizational members have about their organization's policies, procedures, and practices.

A) culture B) climate C) charter D) chart E) hierarchy Answer: B Explanation: Culture and climate are two crucial building blocks for organizational description.

Organizational climate represents the more readily observable behavioral evidence of an organization's culture such as policies, procedures, and practices.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

61) Which of the following statements is true regarding the functions of culture in an organization?

A) It hinders the generation of commitment to something larger than individual self-interest.

B) It conveys a sense of identity for organization members.

C) It reduces the stability of the social system.

D) It reduces distinctions between one organization and others.

E) It does not affect employees' attitudes and behavior.

Answer: B Explanation: Culture facilitates the generation of commitment to something larger than individual self-interest. It conveys a sense of identity for organization members. Culture has a boundary-defining role: it creates distinctions between one organization and others. It enhances the stability of the social system. Culture is the social glue that helps hold the organization together by providing standards for what employees should say and do. It is a sense-making and control mechanism that guides and shapes employees' attitudes and behavior.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

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62) Organizational culture is considered one of the two crucial building blocks for organizational description. Which of the following is the other?

A) Organizational climate B) Organizational hierarchy C) Organizational mandate D) Top management team E) Organizational charter Answer: A Explanation: Organizational culture and organizational climate are the two crucial building blocks for organizational description.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

63) Which of the following statements is true regarding the establishment of organizational culture and its effects on the organization?

A) Today's trend toward decentralized organizations makes it easier to establish a strong culture.

B) In a virtual organization, a strong culture can be established quickly and easily.

C) Employees organized in teams always show greater allegiance to the values of the organization as a whole than to their team and its values.

D) Culture acts as a control mechanism and guides the behavior of employees.

E) Cultures reduce the stability of the social system.

Answer: D Explanation: Today's trend toward decentralized organizations makes establishing a strong culture more difficult. When formal authority and control systems are reduced, culture's shared meaning points everyone in the same direction. However, employees organized in teams may show greater allegiance to their team and its values than to the values of the organization as a whole. Culture enhances the stability of the social system and acts as a control mechanism that guides and shapes employees' attitudes and behavior.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

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64) Janice works for a pet store where everyone is committed to the happiness of the animals.

Often employees, bosses, and hourly workers alike, come into the store "off the clock" and spend time training the animals. Everyone loves the store, the animals, and their jobs. This attitude of her co-workers inspires Janice to do her best. Based on this information, we can say that Janice is experiencing the effects of .

A) centralization B) organizational climate C) high departmentalization D) high formalization E) high work specialization Answer: B Explanation: Organizational climate refers to the shared perceptions organizational members have about their organization and work environment. This aspect of culture is like team spirit at the organizational level.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

65) A(n) organization is an organization that takes on a life of its own, apart from its founders or members and is valued for itself and not for the goods or services it produces.

A) virtual B) matrix C) team D) institutionalized E) centralized Answer: D Explanation: An institutionalized organization is an organization that takes on a life of its own, apart from its founders or members and is valued for itself and not for the goods or services it produces.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

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66)66) workplace.

develops over time as the shared concept of right and wrong behavior in the

A) Organizational climate B) Ethical culture C) Institutionalization D) Organizational identity E) Citizenship identity Answer: B Explanation: Organizational cultures are not neutral in their ethical orientation, even when they are not openly pursuing ethical goals. Ethical culture develops over time as the shared concept of right and wrong behavior in the workplace.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

67) Culture is most likely to be a liability when the .

A) employees of the organization are highly skilled B) organization's environment is undergoing rapid change C) organization's management is highly efficient D) organization is highly centralized E) organization scores low on the degree of formalization Answer: B Explanation: Culture is a liability when the shared values are not in agreement with those that further the organization's effectiveness. This is most likely when an organization's environment is dynamic, undergoing rapid change, and its entrenched culture may no longer be appropriate.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

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68) Which of the following is not a major factor that signals a negative organizational culture?

A) Institutionalization B) Barriers to change C) Openness to diversity D) Toxicity and dysfunctions E) Environmental stability Answer: C Explanation: Barriers to diversity are a major factor that signals a negative organizational culture. Barriers to diversity can, in part, be addressed through cultures and climates of inclusion—by showing the organization values and enacting an inclusive environment, diversity may flourish within the organization, and employees may be more committed to the organization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

69) In recent years, has become the primary concern in acquisitions and mergers.

A) cultural compatibility B) employee diversity C) financial advantage D) product synergy E) legal complication Answer: A Explanation: Historically, when management looked at acquisition or merger decisions, the key factors were financial advantage and product synergy. In recent years, cultural compatibility has become the primary concern. All things being equal, whether the acquisition actually works seems to have more to do with how well the two organizations' cultures match up.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

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70) refers to practices that can be maintained over very long periods of time.

A) Laws/codes B) Rules C) Sustainability D) Corporate responsibility E) Erosion Answer: C Explanation: Sustainability refers to practices that can be maintained over very long periods of time because the tools or structures that support the practices are not damaged by the processes.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

71) Lakeesha wants to create a sustainable employee recognition program for her office. In keeping with the concepts of sustainability, which of the following is most likely to be successful?

A) Awarding 100 dollars occasionally to the "Employee of the Month" B) Having an employee appreciation lunch when budget permits C) Having an employee appreciation lunch the last Friday of the month D) Having a one-time "Employee of the Month" celebration E) Giving an extra week of vacation, when budget permits, to the "Employee of the Year" Answer: C Explanation: For something to be sustainable, it must be maintained over long periods of time and not be harmed by the processes. A one-time recognition or a recognition when budget permits are not examples of practices that are maintained systematically over long periods of time.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Application LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

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72) The most innovative companies are often characterized by all of the following except .

A) vision-driven B) collaborative C) entrenched cultures D) unconventional E) openness Answer: C Explanation: Innovative companies are characterized by accelerating cultures, not entrenched cultures.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

73) Culture defines "the rules of the game."

Answer: TRUE Explanation: One of the functions of culture is that it defines "the rules of the game." It is the social glue that helps hold the organization together by providing standards for what employees should say and do.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

74) The trend toward decentralized organizations prevalent today makes culture less important.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Today's trend toward decentralized organizations makes culture more important than ever. Ironically, though, it makes establishing a strong culture difficult.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

75) Organizational culture refers to the shared perceptions organizational members have about their organization's policies, procedures, and practices.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: The shared perceptions that organizational members have about their organization's policies, procedures, and practices is called organizational climate.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

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76) Organizational cultures are neutral in their ethical orientation.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Organizational cultures are not neutral in their ethical orientation, even when they are not openly pursuing ethical goals.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

77) To create a truly sustainable business, an organization must develop a long-term culture and put its values into practice through climate.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: There needs to be a sustainable system for creating sustainability. It needs a long-term orientation and leadership.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

78) Corporatization refers to the phenomenon of an organization being valued for itself and not for the goods or services it produces.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Institutionalization is when an organization becomes valued for itself and not for its goods or services. It is one of the downsides of corporate culture.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

79) What do we mean by organizational climate? How is it different from organizational culture?

Answer: Organizational climate refers to the shared perceptions organizational members have about their organization's policies, procedures, and practices. Although it may appear difficult on the surface to distinguish organizational culture from climate, culture and climate are "two crucial building blocks for organizational description." Organizational climate represents the more readily observable "behavioral evidence" for an organization's culture. It directly links what the organization values and believes with explicit practices, policies, and procedures.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

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80) Describe the functions of organizational culture.

Answer: Organizational culture performs a number of functions within an organization. First, it has a boundary-defining role. That is, it creates distinctions between one organization and others.

Second, it conveys a sense of identity for organization members. Third, culture facilitates the generation of commitment to something larger than one's individual self-interest. Fourth, it enhances social system stability. Culture is the social glue that helps hold the organization together by providing appropriate standards for what employees should say and do. Finally, culture serves as a sense-making and control mechanism that guides and shapes the attitudes and behavior of employees.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

81) Describe the various situations under which culture acts as a liability.

Answer: The various situations under which culture acts as a liability are: a) Institutionalization: When an organization undergoes institutionalization and becomes institutionalized–that is, it is valued for itself and not for the goods or services it produces–it takes on a life of its own, apart from its founders or members. It doesn't go out of business even if its original goals are no longer relevant. Acceptable modes of behavior become largely self-evident to members, and although this isn't entirely negative, it does mean behaviors and habits that should be questioned and analyzed become taken for granted, which can stifle innovation and make maintaining the organization's culture an end in itself. b) Barriers to change: Culture is a liability when the shared values are not in agreement with those that further the organization's effectiveness. This is most likely when an organization's environment is undergoing rapid change and its entrenched culture may no longer be appropriate. c) Barriers to diversity: By limiting the range of acceptable values and styles, strong cultures put considerable pressure on employees to conform. d) Barriers to acquisitions and mergers: Historically, when management looked at acquisition or merger decisions, the key factors were financial advantage and product synergy. In recent years, cultural compatibility has become the primary concern. e) Strengthening Dysfunctions: Coherence around negativity and dysfunctional management systems in a corporation can produce downward forces that are equally powerful. Negative attitudes in groups add to negative outcomes, suggesting a powerful influence of culture on individuals.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.4 Compare the functional and dysfunctional effects of organizational culture on people and the organization.

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82) An organizational culture most likely to shape high ethical standards among its members is one that .

A) sends a neutral message B) maximizes ethical ambiguities C) focuses only on outcomes D) minimizes the importance of processes E) provides protective mechanisms Answer: E Explanation: To foster an ethical culture, the organization has to provide protective mechanisms so everyone can discuss ethical dilemmas and report unethical behavior without fear of reprimand.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.5 Describe the similarities and differences in creating an ethical culture, a positive culture, and a spiritual culture.

83) Which of the following does not help build a positive organizational culture?

A) Building on employees strengths B) Focusing on punishment C) Encouraging vitality D) Rewarding employees E) Encouraging growth Answer: B Explanation: To create a positive organizational culture, the focus should be on rewarding rather than on punishing.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.5 Describe the similarities and differences in creating an ethical culture, a positive culture, and a spiritual culture.

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84) To create a more ethical culture, management should do all of the following except .

A) serve as a visible role model B) encourage unbridled competition C) provide ethical training D) communicate ethical expectations E) provide protective mechanisms Answer: B Explanation: To create an ethical organizational culture, managers should be supported for taking risks and innovating, discouraged from engaging in unbridled competition, and guided to pay attention not just to what goals are achieved but also to how. Management should serve as a visible role model, communicate ethical expectations, provide protective mechanisms so that employees can discuss ethical dilemmas and report unethical behavior without fear of reprimand, and provide ethical training.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.5 Describe the similarities and differences in creating an ethical culture, a positive culture, and a spiritual culture.

85) Priya works for a corporation that recently fired three top managers who were caught using the company credit cards to lavishly furnish their offices and even purchase "office" furniture that was found in their personal homes. Which method of maintaining an ethical culture is Priya's company pursuing?

A) Serving as a visible role model B) Communicating ethical expectations C) Providing ethical training D) Visibly punishing unethical acts E) Providing protective mechanisms Answer: D Explanation: Research suggests managers can have an effect on the ethical behavior of employees by adhering to the following principles: be a visible role model, communicate ethical expectations, provide ethical training, visibly reward ethical acts and punish unethical ones, and provide protective mechanisms. In this example, the company is visibly punishing unethical acts.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 16.5 Describe the similarities and differences in creating an ethical culture, a positive culture, and a spiritual culture.

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86) Sergio has an employee who is amazing at clearly seeing rules and enforcing them. He has recently promoted her to the lead position in quality assurance. Which aspect of creating a positive organizational culture is Sergio utilizing?

A) Rewarding more than punishing B) Building on organization strengths C) Encouraging intense competition D) Building on employee strengths E) Emphasizing short-term gains Answer: D Explanation: Sergio is building on employee strengths. Because his employee is good at regulating rules, he is showing her how she can put that strength to use. Although a positive organizational culture does not ignore problems, it does emphasize showing workers how they can capitalize on their strengths.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 16.5 Describe the similarities and differences in creating an ethical culture, a positive culture, and a spiritual culture.

87) Barbara is the lead editor for a small, city newspaper. One of her advertising sales representatives, Chang, is pulling in a lot of restaurant clients. Barbara realizes that Chang is quite knowledgeable about food and speaks quite elegantly while describing different dishes. She has offered Chang an opportunity to write a weekly restaurant review. Chang is very happy with his new job role. Which aspect of creating a positive organization is being utilized by Barbara?

A) Rewarding more than punishing B) Building on organization strengths C) Emphasizing individual growth D) Encouraging intense unbridled competition E) Focusing on outcomes Answer: C Explanation: A positive organizational culture emphasizes not only organizational effectiveness but also individuals' growth. No organization will get the best from employees who see themselves as mere tools or parts of the organization. Barbara is helping her employee discover new aspects of his abilities and giving him new career opportunities.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 16.5 Describe the similarities and differences in creating an ethical culture, a positive culture, and a spiritual culture.

35 Copyright © 2012 Pearson Education, Inc.

88) A popular catchphrase at the Indigo Group is to "catch employees doing something right."

The company was known for celebrating such moments with an elaborate award ceremony with speeches and balloons. Which of the following ways to creating a positive organizational culture at the Indigo Group does this practice suggest?

A) Encouraging vitality B) Encouraging growth C) Building on employee strengths D) Rewarding more than punishing E) Fostering fame Answer: D Explanation: When the Indigo Group makes a big deal out of "catching employees doing something right" they are promoting a positive organizational culture via a focus on rewarding employee behavior.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.5 Describe the similarities and differences in creating an ethical culture, a positive culture, and a spiritual culture.

89) A positive organizational culture emphasizes all of the following except which?

A) Building on employee strengths B) Tailoring positions to encourage work life balance C) Rewarding more than it punishes D) Encouraging vitality E) Encouraging growth Answer: B Explanation: Tailoring positions to encourage work life balance is not typically one of the ways organizations use to create a positive organizational culture.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.5 Describe the similarities and differences in creating an ethical culture, a positive culture, and a spiritual culture.

36 Copyright © 2012 Pearson Education, Inc.

90) Which of the following is one of the characteristics of a spiritual organization?

A) Benevolence B) Promotion of organized religion C) Promoting God D) Promoting theology E) Promotion of a strong religious foundation Answer: A Explanation: The concept of a spiritual organization has nothing to do with religion or God. However, benevolence is a characteristic of a spiritual organization.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.5 Describe the similarities and differences in creating an ethical culture, a positive culture, and a spiritual culture.

91) Organizational culture usually grows organically over time.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: In an ideal scenario, a strong founder (or founders) carefully plan the organization's culture beforehand. This seldom happens, though. It usually grows organically over time.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.5 Describe the similarities and differences in creating an ethical culture, a positive culture, and a spiritual culture.

92) A positive culture should make no distinction between a job and a career.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: A positive culture recognizes the difference between a job and a career. It supports not only what the employee contributes to organizational effectiveness but how the organization can make the employee more effective, personally and professionally.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.5 Describe the similarities and differences in creating an ethical culture, a positive culture, and a spiritual culture.

93) Workplace spirituality is about organized religious practices.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Workplace spirituality is not about God or theology. It recognizes that people have an inner life that nourishes and is nourished by meaningful work in the context of community.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.5 Describe the similarities and differences in creating an ethical culture, a positive culture, and a spiritual culture.

37 Copyright © 2012 Pearson Education, Inc.

94) What is workplace spirituality?

Answer: Workplace spirituality is not about organized religious practices. It is not about God or theology. Workplace spirituality recognizes that people have an inner life that nourishes and is nourished by meaningful work in the context of community. Organizations that support a spiritual culture recognize that people seek to find meaning and purpose in their work and desire to connect with other human beings as part of a community.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.5 Describe the similarities and differences in creating an ethical culture, a positive culture, and a spiritual culture.

95) What are the characteristics of a spiritual organization?

Answer: Four cultural variables tend to be evident in spiritual organizations. The first is benevolence. Spiritual organizations value kindness toward others and the happiness of employees and other organizational stakeholders. Second, they have a strong sense of purpose.

Spiritual organizations build their cultures around a meaningful purpose. Although profits may be important, they are not the primary value. Third, spiritual organizations are characterized by mutual trust, honesty, and openness. Finally, there is open-mindedness in a spiritual organization. They value flexible thinking and creativity among employees.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 16.5 Describe the similarities and differences in creating an ethical culture, a positive culture, and a spiritual culture.

96) Which of the following is not one of the ways for U.S. employees to be more culturally sensitive?

A) To be less self-absorbed B) To be aware of how one's actions are perceived by others C) To be less loud D) To consider others' backgrounds and perspectives before speaking or acting E) To consider their emotions before speaking or acting Answer: E Explanation: One of the ways by which U.S. employees can be more culturally sensitive is to consider others' emotions before speaking or acting.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.6 Show how national culture can affect the way organizational culture is interpreted in another country.

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97) Which of the following statements is true regarding effects of national culture on organizational culture and ethical behavior within an organization?

A) As compared to managers in the United States, managers in developing economies are less likely to see ethical decisions as embedded in a social environment.

B) Organizations can safely ignore local culture while establishing its operation in another country.

C) Generally, managers in the United States see bribery, nepotism, and favoring personal contacts as highly unethical.

D) Organizational cultures rarely reflect national culture.

E) Most managers in the United States do not view profit maximization as a moral obligation.

Answer: C Explanation: Managers in the United States endorse the supremacy of anonymous market forces and implicitly or explicitly view profit maximization as a moral obligation for business organizations. This worldview sees bribery, nepotism, and favoring personal contacts as highly unethical.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.6 Show how national culture can affect the way organizational culture is interpreted in another country.

98) Which of the following is not true of U.S. managers and employees?

A) They endorse the supremacy of anonymous market forces as a moral obligation for business organizations.

B) They see bribery as highly unethical.

C) They believe favoring personal contacts is ethical.

D) They value profit maximization.

E) They see nepotism as highly unethical.

Answer: C Explanation: U.S. managers and employees see bribery, nepotism, and favoring personal contacts as highly unethical.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.6 Show how national culture can affect the way organizational culture is interpreted in another country.

99) Organizational culture transcends national boundaries.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Organizational culture is so powerful that it often transcends national boundaries.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Concept LO: 16.6 Show how national culture can affect the way organizational culture is interpreted in another country.

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100) Organizational culture is so powerful that it often transcends national boundaries. Does this mean that organizations should ignore national and local cultures?

Answer: While organizational culture is powerful enough to transcend national and local cultures, it does not mean that organizations should ignore them. Cultural sensitivity is vitally important, particularly for U.S. managers. Some ways in which U.S. employees can be culturally sensitive include being aware of one's actions and how they may be perceived by others and to consider others' backgrounds, perspectives, and emotions before speaking or acting. A second area that requires attention is in the management of ethical behavior where national culture can rub against corporate culture. U.S. managers and employees often endorse the supremacy of anonymous market forces as a moral obligation for business organizations. This worldview sees bribery, nepotism, and favoring personal contacts as highly unethical. They also value profit maximization, so any action that deviates from profit maximization may suggest inappropriate or corrupt behavior. In contrast, managers in developing economies are more likely to see ethical decisions as embedded in the social environment. That means doing special favors for family and friends is not only appropriate but possibly even an ethical responsibility. Managers in many nations also view capitalism skeptically and believe the interests of workers should be put on a par with the interests of shareholders, which may limit profit maximization.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Quest. Category: Critical Thinking LO: 16.6 Show how national culture can affect the way organizational culture is interpreted in another country.

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Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 11E (Robbins) Chapter 16 Organizational Change and Stress Management 1) Each of the following is most likely to result in the changing nature of the workforce except .

A) immigration B) outsourcing C) multicultural environment D) demographic changes E) changing tolerance levels Answer: E Explanation: The nature of the workforce is most likely to change due to a multicultural environment, demographic changes, immigration, and outsourcing.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.1 Contrast the forces for change and planned change.

2) Change that is intentional, proactive, and goal-oriented is called A) reactionary B) organizational C) planned D) situational E) contingent Answer: C Explanation: Planned change is proactive, intentional, and goal-oriented.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.1 Contrast the forces for change and planned change.

change.

3) Organizations must continually adjust product and marketing strategies to be sensitive to consumers' needs. One such consumer need is their expectation of personalized experiences. This is a response to changes in .

A) demographic trends B) social trends C) cultural trends D) economic shocks E) nature of the workforce Answer: B Explanation: Social trends don't remain static. More and more consumers want personalized experiences—an example of a changing social trend.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.1 Contrast the forces for change and planned change.

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4) Consumers now meet and share information in chat rooms and blogs. This is an example of changes in the .

A) competition B) nature of the workforce C) social trends D) world politics E) economy Answer: C Explanation: Consumers meeting and sharing information in chat rooms and blogs is an example of changing social trends.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.1 Contrast the forces for change and planned change.

5) Competition precipitates change.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: In the current business environment, competitors are as likely to be across the ocean as across town. Successful organizations are flexible in adapting to changes brought about by competition.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.1 Contrast the forces for change and planned change.

6) All change is reactionary.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: While oftentimes changes are unplanned, certain situations involve proactive, intentional, and goal-oriented efforts to realize change—what is called planned change.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.1 Contrast the forces for change and planned change.

7) What is planned change? What are its goals?

Answer: Change is when things become different from the way they were. While oftentimes changes are unplanned and happen naturally (reactionary change), certain situations involve proactive, intentional, and goal-oriented efforts to realized change. This is called planned change.

There are two goals of planned change. The first is that it seeks to improve the ability of the organization to adapt to changes in its environment. The second is that it seeks to change employee behavior.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.1 Contrast the forces for change and planned change.

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8) It is easiest for management to deal with resistance when it is .

A) covert B) deferred C) passive D) implicit E) overt Answer: E Explanation: Resistance doesn't necessarily surface in standardized ways. It can be overt, implicit, immediate, or deferred. It's easiest for management to deal with overt and immediate resistance, such as complaints, a work slowdown, or a strike threat. The greater challenge is managing resistance that is implicit or deferred.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

9) A(n) resistance to change clouds the link between the change and the reaction to it and may surface weeks, months, or even years later.

A) overt B) immediate C) active D) explicit E) deferred Answer: E Explanation: A deferred resistance to change clouds the link between the change and the reaction to it and may surface weeks, months, or even years later.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

10) Which of the following resistance to change is explicit?

A) Strike threat B) Increased errors C) Loss of loyalty D) Loss of motivation E) Absenteeism Answer: A Explanation: Examples of explicit resistance to change would be complaints, a work slowdown, or a strike threat.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

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11) Which of the following is not an example of a source of individual resistance?

A) Habit B) Security C) Fear of the unknown D) Structural inertia E) Selective information processing Answer: D Explanation: Structural inertia is an organizational (and not an individual) source of resistance to change.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

12) Which of the following is not an example of an organizational source of resistance to change?

A) Structural inertia B) Group inertia C) Limited focus of change D) Threat to established power relationships E) Selective information processing Answer: E Explanation: Selective information processing is an individual (and not an organizational) source of change.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

13) Selective information processing is a major force for resistance to change. It indicates that .

A) changes in organizational patterns may threaten the expertise of specialized groups so these groups tend to resist change B) individuals hear what they want to hear and they ignore information that challenges the world they've created C) limited changes in subsystems tend to be nullified by the larger system D) groups in the organization that control sizable resources often resist change E) even if individuals want to change their behavior, group norms may act as a constraint Answer: B Explanation: Individuals are guilty of selectively processing information in order to keep their perceptions intact. They hear what they want to hear and they ignore information that challenges the world they've created.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

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14) After restructuring, your division has had trouble filling the open positions with appropriate candidates. The selection processes used by human resources have not yet adjusted to the new criteria required for the restructured job positions. This problem is an example of which kind of resistance to change?

A) Structural inertia B) Limited focus of change C) Group inertia D) Threat to expertise E) Threat to established power relationships Answer: A Explanation: This is an example of structural inertia. Organizations have built-in mechanisms, such as their selection processes and formalized regulations, to produce stability. When an organization is confronted with change, this structural inertia acts as a counterbalance to sustain stability.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

15) Which one of the following is not listed as a tactic for dealing with resistance to change?

A) Acceleration B) Manipulation C) Participation D) Cooptation E) Communication Answer: A Explanation: Eight tactics can help change agents deal with resistance to change: education and communication, participation, building support and commitment, developing positive relationships, implementing changes fairly, manipulation and cooptation, selecting people who accept change, and coercion.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

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16) In overcoming resistance to change, when you combine manipulation and participation, you get .

A) negotiation B) cooptation C) communication D) coercion E) coordination Answer: B Explanation: While manipulation refers to covert influence attempts, cooptation combines manipulation and participation.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

17) If individuals resisting change are included in making change decisions in an attempt to gain their support, this approach is called .

A) cooptation B) exploitation C) manipulation D) coercion E) communication Answer: A Explanation: Cooptation, on the other hand, combines manipulation and participation. It seeks to "buy off" the leaders of a resistance group by giving them a key role, seeking their advice not to find a better solution but to get their endorsement.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

18) Which tactic to overcome resistance to change is a relatively inexpensive way to gain the support of adversaries, but may backfire if the targets become aware of the tactic?

A) Negotiation B) Conciliation C) Manipulation D) Coercion E) Arbitration Answer: C Explanation: Both manipulation and cooptation are relatively inexpensive ways to gain the support of adversaries, but they can backfire if the targets become aware they are being tricked or used. Once that's discovered, the change agent's credibility may drop to zero.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

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19) "Buying off" the leaders of a resistance group by giving them a key role and seeking their advice not to find a better solution but to get their endorsement is an example of .

A) coercion B) cooptation C) procedural fairness D) distributive bargaining E) operant conditioning Answer: B Explanation: Cooptation combines manipulation and participation. "Buying off" the leaders of a resistance group by giving them a key role and seeking their advice not to find a better solution but to get their endorsement is an example of cooptation.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

20) Which of the following statements is true with respect to overcoming resistance to change?

A) If changes are framed as threatening, people will comply.

B) It is difficult to resist a change decision in which we have participated.

C) When managers or employees have high emotional commitment to change, they resist it.

D) Coaching and training programs to cope with change help employees embrace the status quo.

E) Manipulation refers to overt influence attempts.

Answer: B Explanation: Assuming participants have the expertise to make a meaningful contribution, their involvement can reduce resistance, obtain commitment, and increase the quality of the change decision.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

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21) The management of a firm threatens to close a manufacturing plant whose employees are resisting an across-the-board pay cut. If the threat is untrue, the management is using .

A) coercion B) cooptation C) communication D) manipulation E) procedural fairness Answer: D Explanation: Manipulation refers to covert influence attempts. Twisting facts to make them more attractive, withholding information, and creating false rumors to get employees to accept change are all examples of manipulation. If management threatens to close a manufacturing plant whose employees are resisting an across-the-board pay cut, and if the threat is untrue, management is using manipulation.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

22) The application of direct threats or force upon resisters is called .

A) negotiation B) cooptation C) manipulation D) coercion E) arbitration Answer: D Explanation: Coercion is the application of direct threats or force on the resisters. If management really is determined to close a manufacturing plant whose employees don't acquiesce to a pay cut, the company is using coercion.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

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23) Your company, Johnson Farm Products, has decided to expand its traditional business serving farm owners in order to include home gardeners in its customer base. This change is not met with enthusiasm by the sales personnel who have had good long-term relationships with area farmers. You know that the change will be difficult if you cannot overcome the resistance of the sales personnel and obtain their cooperation. You have brought in the local extension agent to explain demographics and the changing nature of the area in which you live. The method for overcoming resistance that you have chosen is .

A) communication B) participation C) negotiation D) manipulation and cooptation E) coercion Answer: A Explanation: In this example, the method chosen for overcoming resistance is education and communication. Communicating the logic of a change can reduce employee resistance on two levels. First, it fights the effects of misinformation and poor communication: If employees receive the full facts and clear up misunderstandings, resistance should subside. Second, communication can help "sell" the need for change by packaging it properly.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

24) Your company, Johnson Farm Products, has decided to expand its traditional business serving farm owners in order to include home gardeners in its customer base. This change is not met with enthusiasm by the sales personnel who have had good long-term relationships with area farmers. You know that the change will be difficult if you cannot overcome the resistance of the sales personnel and obtain their cooperation. You have decided to involve the sales personnel in planning for the change and in stocking appropriate new items to sell to gardeners. The method for overcoming resistance that you have chosen is .

A) communication B) participation C) negotiation D) manipulation and cooptation E) coercion Answer: B Explanation: In this example, the method chosen for overcoming resistance is participation. It's difficult to resist a change decision in which we've participated. Assuming participants have the expertise to make a meaningful contribution, their involvement can reduce resistance, obtain commitment, and increase the quality of the change decision.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

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25) You have threatened to eliminate positions and even to close down the company if your employees don't change their attitudes. The method for overcoming resistance that you have chosen is .

A) communication B) participation C) negotiation D) coercion E) cooptation Answer: D Explanation: In this example, the method chosen for overcoming resistance is coercion.

Coercion is the application of direct threats or force on the resisters. If management really is determined to close a manufacturing plant whose employees don't acquiesce to a pay cut, the company is using coercion. Other examples are threats of transfer, loss of promotions, negative performance evaluations, and a poor letter of recommendation.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Reflective Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

26) Higher-level managers will resist changes proposed by subordinates, especially if these leaders are focused on performance.

A) immediate B) long-term C) goal statement D) proactive E) individual Answer: A Explanation: When the manager is focused on immediate job performance, they most often will be too concerned with keeping on their own track rather than listening to the ideas of the subordinates.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

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27) The Acme Manufacturing Company tried to use the false truism of "this change is for the better" to overcome resistance to change. The change resistance method used by the Acme Manufacturing Company is called .

A) coercion B) cooptation C) manipulation D) arbitration E) negotiation Answer: C Explanation: Examples of manipulation, which is the use of covert influence attempts, are twisting facts to make them more attractive and hiding behind false truisms.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Written and Oral Communication Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

28) The Acme Manufacturing Company tried to buy off the maintenance workers group, who were key resistors to the change, by giving them a key role in the change process. The change resistance method used by the Acme Manufacturing Company is called .

A) manipulation B) negotiation C) counseling D) cooptation E) arbitration Answer: D Explanation: An example of cooptation, which combines manipulation and participation, is buying off members of a resisting group by giving them a key role.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

29) Resistance to change typically surfaces in standardized ways.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Resistance to change does not necessarily surface in standardized ways. It can be overt, implicit, immediate, or deferred.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

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30) It is typical to resist a change decision in which we have participated.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: It is difficult to resist a change decision in which we have participated. Assuming participants have the expertise to make a meaningful contribution, their involvement can reduce resistance, obtain commitment, and increase the quality of the change decision.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

31) How does resistance to change surface?

Answer: Change is when things become different from the way they were. Employees often see change as threatening. This resistance can come not just from lower levels of the organization, but also from higher levels. Resistance does not necessarily surface in standardized ways. It can be overt, implicit, immediate, or deferred. It is easiest for management to deal with overt and immediate resistance. The greater challenge is managing resistance that is implicit or deferred because these responses (such as loss of loyalty) are more subtle and more difficult to recognize for what they are.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

32) How do habit and security act as sources of resistance to change?

Answer: Individual (those residing in human characteristics) sources are one of two categories (the other being organizational factors) that act as resistance to change. Habit and security are two individual factors impacting resistance to change. To cope with life's complexities, we rely on habits or programmed responses. But when confronted with change, this tendency to respond in our accustomed ways becomes a source of resistance. Likewise, people with a high need for security are likely to resist change because it threatens their feelings of safety.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

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33) Manipulation and cooptation are two tactics to help deal with resistance to change. How are they different?

Answer: Manipulation refers to covert influence attempts. Twisting facts to make them more attractive, hiding behind false truisms, withholding information, and creating false rumors to get employees to accept change are all examples of manipulation. Like manipulation, cooptation is another technique of overcoming resistance to change. Cooptation combines manipulation and participation. It seeks to "buy off" the leaders of a resistance group by giving them a key role, seeking their advice not to find a better solution but to get their endorsement. Cooptation is a relatively inexpensive way to gain the support of adversaries, but it can backfire if the targets become aware they are being tricked or used.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

34) How does coercion act to counter resistance to change?

Answer: Coercion is the application of direct threats or force on dissenters. Examples include threatening employees with forced transfers, blocked promotions, negative performance evaluations, and poor letters of recommendation. Coercion is most effective when some force or pressure is enacted on at least some resisters—for instance, if an employee is publicly refused a transfer request, the threat of blocked promotions will become a real possibility in the minds of other employees.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

35) Why is change a political activity?

Answer: Because change invariably threatens the status quo, it inherently implies political activity. Politics suggests the impetus for change is more likely to come from outside change agents, employees new to the organization, or managers who are slightly removed from the main power structure. Managers who have spent a long time with an organization and achieved a senior position in the hierarchy are often major impediments to change. This explains why boards of directors that recognize the imperative for rapid and radical change frequently turn to outside candidates for new leadership.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Application LO: 17.2 Describe ways to overcome resistance to change.

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36) Which of the following are the three terms used in Kurt Lewin's change model?

A) Status quo, movement, settlement B) Unfreezing, status quo, settlement C) Unfreezing, movement, and refreezing D) Movement, status quo, refreezing E) Status quo, unfreezing, refreezing Answer: C Explanation: In Kurt Lewin's change model unfreezing is followed by movement, which is followed by refreezing.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

37) Who built on Lewin's three-step model to create a more detailed approach for implementing change?

A) John Kotter B) David McClelland C) Douglas Surber D) Lawrence Summers E) Henry Mintzberg Answer: A Explanation: John Kotter built on Lewin's three-step model to create a more detailed approach for implementing change. Kotter began by listing common mistakes managers make when trying to initiate change. Kotter then established eight sequential steps to overcome these problems.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

38) In John Kotter's eight-step plan for implementing change, the first step is to establish a sense of urgency by creating a compelling reason for why change is needed. Which of the following is the step that follows that?

A) Create a new vision to direct the change and strategies for achieving the vision.

B) Consolidate improvements, reassess changes, and make necessary adjustments in the new programs.

C) Plan for, create, and reward short-term "wins" that move the organization toward the new vision.

D) Form a coalition with enough power to lead the change.

E) Communicate the vision throughout the organization.

Answer: D Explanation: The second step in the Kotter's eight-step plan for implementing change is forming a coalition with enough power to lead the change.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

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39) Which of the following is the last step in the Kotter's eight-step plan for implementing change?

A) Form a coalition with enough power to lead the change.

B) Establish a sense of urgency by creating a compelling reason for why change is needed.

C) Communicate the vision throughout the organization.

D) Reinforce the changes by demonstrating the relationship between new behaviors and organizational success.

E) Consolidate improvements, reassess changes, and make necessary adjustments in the new programs.

Answer: D Explanation: The last step in the Kotter's eight-step plan for implementing change is reinforcing the changes by demonstrating the relationship between new behaviors and organizational success.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

40) Sensitivity training and survey feedback are techniques and interventions used in .

A) cognitive training B) appreciative inquiry C) organizational development D) action research E) economic validation Answer: C Explanation: Organizational development (OD) is a collection of change methods that try to improve organizational effectiveness and employee well-being. OD methods include sensitivity training and survey feedback.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

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41) The Keyman Group hired the consulting firm of Planmark Consulting to identify what to improve and how. Which of the following organizational development (OD) techniques did the Keyman Group use?

A) Action research B) Intergroup development C) Process consultation D) Appreciative inquiry E) Social reinforcement Answer: C Explanation: Managers often sense their unit's performance can be improved but are unable to identify what to improve and how. The purpose of process consultation (PC) is for an outside consultant, such as Planmark Consulting to assist a client, usually a manager, "to perceive, understand, and act upon process events" with which the manager must deal.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

42) Rather than looking for problems, seeks to identify the unique qualities and special strengths of an organization, which can then be built upon to improve performance.

A) appreciative inquiry B) action research C) team building D) process consultation E) social reinforcement Answer: A Explanation: Most organizational development approaches are problem centered. They identify a problem or set of problems, then look for a solution. Appreciative inquiry (AI) instead accentuates the positive. Rather than looking for problems to fix, it seeks to identify the unique qualities and special strengths of an organization, which members can build on to improve performance. That is, AI focuses on an organization's successes rather than its problems.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

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43) The purpose of is for an outside consultant to assist a client, usually a manager, through crafting "a relationship through a continuous effort of 'jointly deciphering what is going on' to make co-authored choices about how to go on."

A) action research B) process consultation C) sensitivity training D) survey feedback E) team building Answer: B Explanation: The purpose of process consultation is for an outside consultant to assist a client, usually a manager, "to perceive, understand, and act upon process events" with which the manager must deal.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

44) Team building may include " " rooms.

A) escape B) confrontation C) intergroup D) pow wow E) manipulation Answer: A Explanation: Team building includes "escape rooms" where members have to work together and solve puzzles in order to escape a themed room.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

45) Which of the following OD techniques involves changing groups' attitudes, stereotypes, and perceptions about each other?

A) Survey feedback B) Process consultation C) Team building D) Intergroup development E) Appreciative inquiry Answer: D Explanation: A major area of concern in OD is dysfunctional conflict among groups. Intergroup development seeks to change groups' attitudes, stereotypes, and perceptions about each other.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

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46) Which of the following is not a step in the appreciative inquiry process?

A) Debriefing B) Dreaming C) Discovery D) Design E) Destiny Answer: A Explanation: The appreciative inquiry process consists of four steps: discovery, dreaming, design, and destiny.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

47) Appreciative inquiry (AI) is an organizational development technique. Which of the following statements is true regarding appreciative inquiry?

A) It tries to identify discrepancies among member perceptions and solve these differences.

B) It uses high-interaction group activities to increase trust and openness among team members, improve coordinative efforts, and increase team performance.

C) It involves an outside consultant who helps the manager to analyze processes within his or her unit and identify what to improve and how.

D) It consists of four steps including discovery, dreaming, design, and destiny.

E) It seeks to change groups' attitudes, stereotypes, and perceptions about each other.

Answer: D Explanation: Appreciative inquiry focuses on an organization's successes rather than its problems. The AI process consists of four steps–discovery, dreaming, design, and destiny–often played out in a large-group meeting over a 2- or 3-day time period and overseen by a trained change agent.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

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48) In which of the following steps of the appreciative inquiry technique do participants write action plans?

A) Dreaming B) Destiny C) Collaboration D) Inferring E) Discovery Answer: B Explanation: The appreciative inquiry process consists of four steps—discovery, dreaming, design, and destiny. In the destiny step, participants write action plans and develop implementation strategies.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

49) During the "dreaming" step of appreciative inquiry, participants .

A) identify the organization's strengths B) use information from the discovery phase to speculate on possible futures C) find a common vision of how the organization will look in the future D) write action plans and develop implementation strategies E) recount times they felt the organization worked best Answer: B Explanation: During the "dreaming" step of appreciative inquiry, employees use information from the discovery phase to speculate on possible futures, such as what the organization will be like in 5 years.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

50) During the "design" step of appreciative inquiry, participants .

A) find a common vision of how the organization will look in the future B) use information from the discovery phase to speculate on possible futures C) identify the organization's strengths D) recount times they felt the organization worked best E) write action plans and develop implementation strategies Answer: A Explanation: During the "design" step of appreciative inquiry, participants find a common vision of how the organization will look in the future and agree on its unique qualities.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

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51) Which of the following is not one of the four approaches to managing organizational change?

A) Lewin's three-step model B) Kotter's eight-step plan C) Taylor's classic theory D) Action research E) Organizational development Answer: C Explanation: Taylor's theory has nothing to do with the change process.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

52) What is the correct order within the action research process?

A) Analysis, feedback, action, evaluation, and diagnosis B) Feedback, action, evaluation, diagnosis, and analysis C) Action, evaluation, diagnosis, analysis, and feedback D) Diagnosis, analysis, feedback, action, and evaluation E) Evaluation, diagnosis, analysis, feedback, and action Answer: D Explanation: Action research consists of five steps (note how they closely parallel the scientific method): diagnosis, analysis, feedback, action, and evaluation.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

53) The first step in Lewin's three-step model is unfreezing the status quo.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: In Lewin's model, status quo is an equilibrium state. To move from equilibrium— to overcome the pressures of both individual resistance and group conformity—unfreezing of the status must happen first.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

54) In Lewin's three-step model, driving forces hinder movement away from the equilibrium.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: In Lewin's model, restraining forces hinder movement away from the equilibrium.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

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55) Action research provides a scientific methodology for managing planned change.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Action research is a change process based on the systematic collection of data and selection of a change action based on what the analyzed data indicate. Its value is in providing a scientific methodology for managing planned change.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

56) What do we mean by driving and restraining forces in Kurt Lewin's three-step change model?

Answer: By definition, status quo is an equilibrium state. According to Kurt Lewin, to move from equilibrium—to overcome the pressures of both individual resistance and group conformity—unfreezing must happen in one of three ways. For one, the driving forces, which direct behavior away from the status quo, can be increased. For another, the restraining forces, which hinder movement away from equilibrium, can be decreased. A third alternative is to combine the first two approaches.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

57) What are the criticisms of Kurt Lewin's three-step change model?

Answer: There are three main criticisms of Kurt Lewin's three-step change model. The first is that, much like Maslow's hierarchy of needs to explain motivation, Lewin assumes that change happens sequentially, in order, always progressing. Second, the model implies a sense of perfect agency for managers; in other words, do change agents really know where they are, where the people in the organization are, and where they are going? Since organizations are so fluid, it is impossible to do this in real life. The final criticism is the use of the term "freezing." This is problematic to some. Time keeps moving, freezing may never happen, and new changes interrupt current changes dynamically.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

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58) What is organizational development (OD)?

Answer: Organizational development (OD) is a collection of planned change interventions, built on humanistic-democratic values, that seeks to improve organizational effectiveness and employee well-being. OD methods value human and organizational growth, collaborative and participative processes, and a spirit of inquiry. Examples of OD techniques include sensitivity training, survey feedback, process consultation, team building, intergroup development, and appreciative inquiry.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.3 Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

59) Idea champions display characteristics associated with leadership.

A) narcissistic B) transformational C) autocratic D) transactional E) laissez-faire Answer: B Explanation: Idea champions display characteristics associated with transformational leadership–they inspire and energize others with their vision of an innovation's potential and their strong personal conviction about their mission.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.4 Demonstrate three ways of facilitating change.

60) Which of the following statements is true about innovation?

A) Organic structures negatively influence innovation.

B) Contingent rewards positively influence innovation.

C) Innovation is nurtured when there are scarce resources.

D) Interunit communication is low in innovative organizations.

E) Mechanistic structures positively influence innovation.

Answer: B Explanation: Contingent rewards positively influence innovation. When creativity is rewarded (i.e., the reward is based on the contingency of creativity), firms tend to become more innovative.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.4 Demonstrate three ways of facilitating change.

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61) Which of the following is not a reason why organic structures promote innovation?

A) High formalization B) Low vertical differentiation C) High flexibility D) Low centralization E) Low cross-fertilization Answer: A Explanation: Organic structures positively influence innovation because they're lower in vertical differentiation, formalization, and centralization, therefore facilitating the flexibility, adaptation, and cross-fertilization that make the adoption of innovations easier.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.4 Demonstrate three ways of facilitating change.

62) Alex has a new idea for a way to cut costs in his department, but he is not willing to share his idea with his boss because the last department head that tried new cost cutting methods was recently fired because the new methods could not achieve expected results. Based on the example, how can Alex's company improve the culture to create innovation?

A) Flatten the organizational structure.

B) Reward both successes and failures.

C) Increase the resources in Alex's department.

D) Encourage communication between various departments.

E) Conduct team building activities.

Answer: B Explanation: Innovative organizations tend to have similar cultures. They encourage experimentation. People will suggest and try new ideas only when they feel such behaviors exact no penalties. Managers in innovative organizations recognize that failures are a natural by-product of venturing into the unknown.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 17.4 Demonstrate three ways of facilitating change.

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63) Darg's team just had a research breakthrough. They'll need several thousand dollars to complete the project. Darg has called a series of meetings in which he's promoting the significance of the new discovery, explaining the economic benefits that will result from the final project, and answering questions. Darg is a(n) within his company.

A) change agent B) arbitrator C) manipulator D) idea champion E) stress creator Answer: D Explanation: Darg is an idea champion. Idea champions are individuals who take an innovation and actively and enthusiastically promote the idea, build support, overcome resistance, and ensure that the idea is implemented.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 17.4 Demonstrate three ways of facilitating change.

64) In the area of innovation, there are people with extremely high self-confidence, persistence, energy, and a tendency to take risks. They may display traits associated with transformational leadership. People with these traits are called .

A) slack dispersers B) idea champions C) action agents D) paradox busters E) idea disrupters Answer: B Explanation: Idea champions are individuals who take an innovation and actively and enthusiastically promote the idea, build support, overcome resistance, and ensure that the idea is implemented.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Diverse and Multicultural Work Environments Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.4 Demonstrate three ways of facilitating change.

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65) Managers who think and recognize the importance of balancing paradoxical factors are more effective, especially in generating in those they are managing.

A) holistically; proactive behaviors B) holistically; adaptive and creative behaviors C) holistically; resistance behaviors D) atomistically; adaptive and creative behaviors E) atomistically; proactive behaviors Answer: B Explanation: There is some evidence that managers who think holistically and recognize the importance of balancing paradoxical factors are more effective, especially in generating adaptive and creative behavior in those they are managing.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 17.4 Demonstrate three ways of facilitating change.

66) Passion for change among is greatest when work roles and the social environment encourage them to put their creative identities forward.

A) mid-level managers B) high-level managers C) front-line managers D) executives E) entrepreneurs Answer: E Explanation: Situations can influence the extent to which idea champions are forces for change.

For example, passion for change among entrepreneurs is greatest when work roles and the social environment encourage them to put their creative identities forward.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.4 Demonstrate three ways of facilitating change.

67) A theory in management says that there is a final optimal status for an organization.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: The paradox theory in management states that there is no final optimal status for an organization.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.4 Demonstrate three ways of facilitating change.

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68) Innovation is different from change.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Change refers to making things different. Innovation is a specialized kind of change because it is applied to initiating or improving a product, process, or service.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.4 Demonstrate three ways of facilitating change.

69) All innovations imply change, but not all changes are innovative.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: All innovations imply change, but not all changes introduce new ideas or lead to significant improvements (which is what innovations do).

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.4 Demonstrate three ways of facilitating change.

70) How is managing paradox one of the ways to facilitate change?

Answer: The paradox theory states that the key paradox in management is that there is no final optimal status for an organization. In a paradox situation, we are required to balance tensions across various courses of action, which are caused by resource anxiety. There is a constant process of finding a balancing point, a dynamic equilibrium, among shifting priorities over time.

There is some evidence that managers who think holistically and recognize the importance of balancing paradoxical factors are more effective, especially in generating adaptive and creative behaviors in those they are managing.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Application LO: 17.4 Demonstrate three ways of facilitating change.

71) Why is innovation considered a kind of change?

Answer: Change refers to making things different. Innovation is a specialized kind of change. It is applied to initiating or improving a product, process, or service. This means that all innovations imply change, but not all changes introduce new ideas or lead to significant improvements. Innovations can range from incremental improvements to radical breakthroughs.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.4 Demonstrate three ways of facilitating change.

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72) Stress is associated with and .

A) demands; resources B) support; commitment C) manipulation; cooptation D) education; communication E) unfreezing; refreezing Answer: A Explanation: Stress is associated with demands and resources. Demands are responsibilities, pressures, obligations, and uncertainties individuals face in the workplace. Resources are things within an individual's control that he can use to resolve those demands.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.5 Identify the potential environmental, organizational, and personal sources of stress at work as well as the role of individual and cultural differences.

73) Which of the following resources should you seek when emotional demands are stressing you?

A) Computer support B) Information support C) Social support D) Cross-functional support E) Organizational support Answer: C Explanation: If emotional demands are stressing you, having emotional resources in the form of social support is especially important. Under the demands-resources perspective, having resources to cope with stress is just as important in offsetting it as demands are in increasing it.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 17.5 Identify the potential environmental, organizational, and personal sources of stress at work as well as the role of individual and cultural differences.

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74) is a dynamic condition in which an individual is confronted with an opportunity, demand, or resource related to what the individual desires and for which the outcome is perceived to be both uncertain and important.

A) Change B) Stress C) Innovation D) Stimulation E) Creativity Answer: B Explanation: Stress is a dynamic condition in which an individual is confronted with an opportunity, demand, or resource related to what the individual desires and for which the outcome is perceived to be both uncertain and important.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.5 Identify the potential environmental, organizational, and personal sources of stress at work as well as the role of individual and cultural differences.

75) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effects of stress?

A) Challenge stressors tend to produce more strain than hindrance stressors.

B) When challenge stress increases, those with high levels of organizational support have higher role-based performance.

C) Hindrance stress improves job performance in a supportive work environment.

D) Employees who have a stronger affective commitment to their organization perform worse under stress as compared to those who have low levels of commitment.

E) Challenge stress reduces job performance in all work environments.

Answer: B Explanation: Challenge stress improves job performance in a supportive work environment, whereas hindrance stress reduces job performance in all work environments. Employees with low levels of commitment to their organization perform worse under stress as compared to those who have strong affective commitment. When challenge stress increases, those with high levels of organizational support have higher role-based performance, but those with low levels of organizational support do not.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.5 Identify the potential environmental, organizational, and personal sources of stress at work as well as the role of individual and cultural differences.

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76) Raul is stressed with the new corporate reorganization. He now reports to a foreign office that has usurped many of his responsibilities, including the contract labor for his projects, therefore he's working with less qualified and new contractors with whom he doesn't have a relationship. However, the managers of the other departments find themselves in the same boat and every day they are able to laugh over lunch about their new managerial impotence. is helping Raul handle his stress.

A) Emotional contagion B) Cognitive dissonance C) Social support D) Time management E) Self-efficacy Answer: C Explanation: Social support, collegial relationships with co-workers or supervisors, can buffer the impact of stress. It acts as a palliative, mitigating the negative effects of even high-strain jobs. Raul is using this social support to be able to laugh at his new situation.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Application LO: 17.5 Identify the potential environmental, organizational, and personal sources of stress at work as well as the role of individual and cultural differences.

77) In , we work to find stability by changing our behaviors and attitudes.

A) homeostatic B) equilibrium C) allostasis D) stressors E) social support Answer: C Explanation: While early research tended to emphasize such a homeostatic, or balanced equilibrium, perspective, it has now become clear that no single ideal state exists. Instead, it's more accurate to talk about allostatic models in which demands shift, resources shift, and systems of addressing imbalances shift.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.5 Identify the potential environmental, organizational, and personal sources of stress at work as well as the role of individual and cultural differences.

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78) The three main types of environmental uncertainty influencing employee stress levels are .

A) economic, political, and technological B) economic, social, and technological C) economic, political, and social D) social, political, and technological E) social, political, and culture Answer: A Explanation: There are three main types of environmental uncertainty influencing employee stress levels: economic, political, and technological.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.5 Identify the potential environmental, organizational, and personal sources of stress at work as well as the role of individual and cultural differences.

79) Lakeesha is an administrative assistant. While she is good at her job, she often feels copious amounts of stress because she is constantly interrupted in her work because her desk happens to be by the front entrance to the office. Which organizational factor seems to be most affecting Lakeesha's stress?

A) Task demands B) Role demands C) Interpersonal demands D) Economic demands E) Family demands Answer: A Explanation: Lakeesha is having a problem with her working conditions, which are related to task demands.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 17.5 Identify the potential environmental, organizational, and personal sources of stress at work as well as the role of individual and cultural differences.

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80) John works as the financial director for a business college. In addition to overseeing all of the daily expenditures of the budget, John is responsible for organizing the overtime for teachers working off contract during the summer months. During April, John had a great deal of trouble sleeping and was at the office usually 10 hours a day. Which organizational factor seems to be most affecting John's stress?

A) Task demands B) Role demands C) Interpersonal demands D) Economic demands E) Family demands Answer: B Explanation: While the salaries of the teachers are of importance to him, it is not particularly logical that John would also have to organize the overtime for the teachers. John is having an issue with role overload, which is part of role demands.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 17.5 Identify the potential environmental, organizational, and personal sources of stress at work as well as the role of individual and cultural differences.

81) Josue is an accountant for a mid-sized accounting firm and there are four other people in his department with roughly the same job description. Despite all five of them working well together, accomplishing their goals, and on occasion socializing with one another after work, Josue feels a great amount of stress at his job that the other employees do not seem to experience. Of the five employees, Josue is the only homosexual. Which organizational factor seems to be most affecting Josue's stress?

A) Task demands B) Role demands C) Interpersonal demands D) Economic demands E) Family demands Answer: C Explanation: Even though the work environment is seemingly equitable in relation to job stressors, Josue seems to be feeling psychological strain due to his sexual orientation in relation to the other team members. Even though there is no evidence of discrimination, Josue may still feel the psychological strain, one of the interpersonal demands, because he feels like the outcast of the office.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 17.5 Identify the potential environmental, organizational, and personal sources of stress at work as well as the role of individual and cultural differences.

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82) Aisha is a successful nurse who is accustomed to working 50+ hours a week. Typically, she does this well and has managed to maintain a positive work life balance, despite the extended work hours. Two weeks ago, Aisha's son Carlos needed to have surgery which required him to need at-home medical care. Despite being a nurse, Aisha has been having trouble sleeping and has started to receive complaints about her performance at work. Which personal factor seems to be most affecting Aisha's stress?

A) Task demands B) Role demands C) Interpersonal demands D) Economic demands E) Family demands Answer: E Explanation: Individuals tend to hold family very dear. Even though Aisha is a qualified and successful nurse, nursing her child is different than nursing a patient. Her personal factors, in this case caring for her son, are causing her stressors which are overlapping into her work life.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 17.5 Identify the potential environmental, organizational, and personal sources of stress at work as well as the role of individual and cultural differences.

83) Which personality trait is most often associated with stress?

A) Conscientiousness B) Agreeableness C) Emotional stability D) Extroversion E) Openness Answer: C Explanation: Individuals low on emotional stability are more prone to experience psychological strain.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.5 Identify the potential environmental, organizational, and personal sources of stress at work as well as the role of individual and cultural differences.

84) Challenge stressors keep you from reaching your goals.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hindrance stressors (such as red tape and office politics) are those that keep one from reaching their goals.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.5 Identify the potential environmental, organizational, and personal sources of stress at work as well as the role of individual and cultural differences.

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85) Why is it important to study stress at work?

Answer: Stress is a psychological process in which an individual is confronted with an opportunity, demand, or resource related to what the individual desires and for which the outcome is perceived to be both uncertain and important. Stress has an important role in the workplace. One compilation of statistics suggests that (1) 83 percent of workers in the United States are stressed, (2) stress results in $300 billion in losses annually, (3) it accounts for 60 to 80 percent of workplace accidents, (4) it causes one million people to miss work daily, and (5) 29 percent of workers have admitted to wanting to punch a co-worker because of stress. Work is a major source of stress in most people's lives, which makes it important to make it a focus of study.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.5 Identify the potential environmental, organizational, and personal sources of stress at work as well as the role of individual and cultural differences.

86) What is allostasis?

Answer: Allostasis refers to working to change behavior and attitudes to find stability. While early research on stress tended to emphasize a homeostatic, or balanced equilibrium perspective, it has now become clear that no single ideal state exists. Instead, it is more accurate to talk about allostatic models, in which demands shift, resources shift, and systems of addressing imbalances shift. It all depends on the allostatic load, or the cumulative effect of stressors on us given the resources we draw upon.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 17.5 Identify the potential environmental, organizational, and personal sources of stress at work as well as the role of individual and cultural differences.

87) How is stress associated with demands and resources?

Answer: Typically, stress is associated with demands and resources. Demands are responsibilities, pressures, obligations, and uncertainties individuals face in the workplace.

Resources are things within an individual's control that they can use to resolve the demands. An example of how demands and resources relate to stress is the annual performance review that employees undergo. When you undergo your annual performance review at work, you feel stress because you confront opportunities and performance pressures. To the extent you can apply resources to the demands on you (such as preparing for the review or obtaining social support), you will feel less stress.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 17.5 Identify the potential environmental, organizational, and personal sources of stress at work as well as the role of individual and cultural differences.

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88) How do task and role demands cause stress?

Answer: Various organizational factors cause stress. Two such factors are task demands and role demands. Task demands relate to a person's job. They include the design of the job, the working conditions, and the physical work layout. The single factor most consistently related to stress in the workplace is the amount of work that needs to be done, followed closely by the presence of looming deadlines. Role demands relate to pressures placed on a person as a function of the role they play in the organization. Role conflicts create expectations that may be hard to reconcile or satisfy. Role overload occurs when the employee is expected to take on too much.

Role ambiguity means role expectations are not clearly understood and the employee is not sure what to do.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Analytical LO: 17.5 Identify the potential environmental, organizational, and personal sources of stress at work as well as the role of individual and cultural differences.

89) Why do we say that stressors are additive?

Answer: When we review stressors individually, it is easy to overlook that stress is an additive phenomenon, it builds up over time. Each new and persistent stressor adds to an individual's stress level. A single stressor may be relatively unimportant in and of itself, but if added to an already high level of stress, it can be too much. To appraise the total amount of stress an individual is under, we must sum up all the sources and severity levels of that person's stress.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Quest. Category: Application LO: 17.5 Identify the potential environmental, organizational, and personal sources of stress at work as well as the role of individual and cultural differences.

90) There is no evidence that indicates that stress improves job performance.

Answer: FALSE Explanation: There is evidence that challenge stress improves job performance in a supportive work environment.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.6 Identify the physiological, psychological, and behavioral symptoms of stress at work.

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91) Describe the physiological consequences of stress.

Answer: Most early concerns with stress were directed at physiological symptoms because most researchers were specialists in the health and medical sciences. Their work led to the conclusion that stress could create changes in metabolism, increase heart and breathing rates and blood pressure, bring on headaches, and induce heart attacks. Evidence now clearly suggests stress may have other harmful physiological effects including backaches, headaches, eye strain, sleep disturbances, dizziness, fatigue, loss of appetite, and gastrointestinal problems. Other research has found that stress, in general, impairs episodic memory (but enhances memory after a stressful event).

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.6 Identify the physiological, psychological, and behavioral symptoms of stress at work.

92) Describe the psychological consequences of stress.

Answer: Job dissatisfaction is an obvious symptom of stress. But stress manifests itself in other psychological states—for instance, tension, anxiety, irritability, boredom, and procrastination.

One study that tracked physiological responses of employees over time found that stress due to high workloads was related to lower emotional well-being.

Jobs that make multiple and conflicting demands or that lack clarity about the incumbent's duties, authority, and responsibilities increase both strain and dissatisfaction. Similarly, the less control people have over the pace of their work, the greater their strain and dissatisfaction. Jobs that provide a low level of variety, significance, autonomy, feedback, and identity appear to create strain and reduce satisfaction and involvement in the job. Not everyone reacts to autonomy in the same way, however. For those with an external locus of control, increased job control increases the tendency to experience strain and exhaustion.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.6 Identify the physiological, psychological, and behavioral symptoms of stress at work.

93) Describe the behavioral consequences of stress.

Answer: Research on behavior and stress has been conducted across several countries and over time, and the relationships appear relatively consistent. Behavior-related stress symptoms include reductions in productivity, increases in absence and turnover, as well as changes in eating habits, increased smoking or consumption of alcohol, rapid speech, fidgeting, and sleep disorders.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.6 Identify the physiological, psychological, and behavioral symptoms of stress at work.

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94) All of the following strategies are organizational approaches to managing stress, except .

A) employee selection B) job placement C) realistic goal-setting D) employee sabbaticals E) time management Answer: E Explanation: Organizational approaches to managing stress include improved employee selection and job placement, training, realistic goal-setting, redesign of jobs, increased employee involvement, improved organizational communication, employee sabbaticals, and corporate wellness programs.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.7 Describe individual and organizational approaches to managing stress at work.

95) Which of the following is not an individual approach to managing stress?

A) Relaxation techniques B) Social support networks C) Physical exercise D) Goal setting E) Time-management techniques Answer: D Explanation: Goal setting is an organizational approach to managing stress.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.7 Describe individual and organizational approaches to managing stress at work.

96) How does redesigning jobs help reduce stress?

A) It expands the number of tasks required for the job.

B) It seeks to buy off the leaders of a resistance group by giving them a key role.

C) It gives individuals greater control over work activities and lessens dependence on others.

D) It increases uncertainty by lessening role ambiguity and role conflict.

E) It avoids the need for employees to reframe stressful situations and use active coping strategies.

Answer: C Explanation: Redesigning jobs to give employees more responsibility, more meaningful work, more autonomy, and increased feedback can reduce stress because these factors give employees greater control over work activities and lessen dependence on others.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.7 Describe individual and organizational approaches to managing stress at work.

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97) Which of the following statements is true regarding stress?

A) Employees with external locus of control tend to be less prone to stress.

B) Training tends to decrease job stress.

C) Highly experienced employees tend to be more prone to stress.

D) Employees who are highly committed to their goals experience more stress.

E) Goal feedback tends to increase stress.

Answer: B Explanation: Individuals with little experience or an external locus of control tend to be more prone to stress. Training can increase an individual's self-efficacy and thus lessen job strain.

Individuals perform better when they have specific and challenging goals and receive feedback on their progress toward these goals.

Diff: 2 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.7 Describe individual and organizational approaches to managing stress at work.

98) Individuals with an external locus of control tend to be more prone to stress.

Answer: TRUE Explanation: Individuals with external locus of control tend to be more prone to stress.

Diff: 1 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.7 Describe individual and organizational approaches to managing stress at work.

99) What role do social support networks play in managing stress?

Answer: Friends, family, or work colleagues can provide an outlet when stress levels become excessive. Expanding your social support network provides someone to hear your problems and offer a more objective perspective on a stressful situation than your own. However, in some cases, the opposite can happen. If you do not try to expand your network and instead ruminate with similarly stressed friends, you can get caught in a vicious cycle. That's why it is important to be proactive and try to address your stress head on.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.7 Describe individual and organizational approaches to managing stress at work.

100) What are sabbaticals and how do employee sabbaticals help in managing stress?

Answer: Sabbaticals are voluntary leaves of absences. Some employees need an occasional escape from the frenetic pace of their work. To address this, companies such as Goldman Sachs provide voluntary leaves ranging in length from a few weeks to several months. Employees can recharge themselves during these sabbaticals and help mitigate their stress.

Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytical Thinking Quest. Category: Concept LO: 17.7 Describe individual and organizational approaches to managing stress at work.

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