TEST BANK for Digital Radiography and PACS 4th Edition by Christi Carter & Beth Veale - Complete

TEST BANK

TEST BANK

Chapter 1 Introduction to Digital Radiography and Picture Archiving and Communication System

Part II Basic Principles of Digital Radiography Chapter 2 Digital Imaging Characteristics Chapter 3 Digital Radiographic Image Processing and Manipulation

Part III Digital Image Acquisition Chapter 4 Photostimulable Phosphor Image Capture Chapter 5 Thin-Film Transistor Flat Panel Array Image Acquisition Chapter 6 Charge-Coupled Device/Complementary Metal

Part IV PACS Chapter 7 Basic Computer Principles Chapter 8 Networking and Communication Basics Chapter 9 Medical Image Management and Processing System, Medical Image Storage Devices, and Medical Image Communications Devices Chapter 10 Medical Image Storage Device and Peripherals Chapter 11 Medical Informatics

Part V Quality Control and Quality Management Chapter 12 Ensuring Quality in Digital Image Viewing and Storage Systems Chapter 13 Quality Acceptance Testing Within Digital Projection Imaging

Chapter 01: Picture Archiving and Communication System Fundamentals Carter: Digital Radiography and PACS, 4thEdition MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.

The acronym PACS stands for system. .

a.

picture archival and control

b.

picture archival and communication

c.

physical archive and communication

d.

physical archive and compression

.

ANS: BOBJ: Define picture archival and communication system (PACS).

2.

A PACS consists of

3.

1.

image acquisition.

2.

display workstation.

3.

archive servers.

a.

1 and 2

b.

1 and 3

c.

2 and 3

d.

1, 2, and 3

ANS: DOBJ: Define PACS.

3.

A universally accepted standard for exchanging medical imaging via a networked set of display

workstations, archive, and imaging modalities is a.

HIPAA.

.

b.

DICOM.

c.

HL-7.

d.

All of the above.

ANS: BOBJ: Define PACS.

4.

Reading images on a computer screen is known as

a.

soft copy

b.

hard copy

c.

computer

d. e.

Both A and B

testing.

.

ANS: AOBJ: Define picture archival and communication system (PACS).

5.

Any computer that a health care worker uses to view a digital image is a(n):

a.

Archive.

b.

Web server.

c.

Image manager. .

d.

Display workstation.

ANS: DOBJ: Compare and contrast the various types of PACS display workstations.

6.

Which part of the PACS houses all of the historic digital image data along with the current digital data

beinggenerated by the modalities? a.

Archive.

b.

Display workstation

c.

File room

d.

Review workstation

ANS: AOBJ: Define picture archival and communication system (PACS).

7.

The acronym RIS stands for

a.

radiology integrated

b.

redundant information

c.

radiology information

d.

reading integrated

system.

.

.

ANS: COBJ: Differentiate among the different types of digital imaging workflow.

8.

Which of the following are considered PACS

1.

Distributed system

2.

Client/server-based system

3.

Web-based system

a.

1 only

b.

2 only

c.

1 and 2

d. e.

1, 2, and 3

.

ANS: DOBJ: Define system architecture and recognize the three major models.

9.

Which of the following would be considered advantages of a client/server-based system?

1. Any image can be seen anywhere without interventions.

2. Even if the archive goes down, images can still be viewed at workstations.

3.

Only one person can open a study with the intent to read it, and others will be notified that the study is being read by someone else.

a.

1 and 2

b.

1 and 3

c.

2 and 3

d.

1, 2, and 3

ANS: BOBJ: Define system architecture and recognize the three major models.

10.

Which of the following would be considered disadvantages of a client/server-based system?

1.

The archive is considered a single point of failure.

2.

The system depends on the network.

3.

Each workstation has a different worklist.

a.

1 only

b.

3 only

c.

1 and 2

d.

1 and 3

.

ANS: COBJ: Define system architecture and recognize the three major models.

11.

In which system architecture do the acquisition modalities send their images directly to a

designated workstation? a.

Client/server-based system

b.

Distributed system

c.

Web-based system

d. e.

Image manager system

.

ANS: BOBJ: Define system architecture and recognize the three major models.

12.

Which of the following would be considered advantages of a distributed system?

1.

Any images can be seen anywhere without any interruptions.

2.

Even if the archive goes down, images can still be seen at all workstations.

3.

The system is less dependent on the network for its speed.

a.

1 and 2

b.

1 and 3

c.

2 and 3

d.

1, 2, and 3

ANS: C

OBJ: Define system architecture and recognize three major models.

13.

Which of the following would be considered disadvantages of a distributed system?

1.

There is a heavy reliance that the images are being sent to the correct locations.

2.

The archive is considered a single point of failure.

3.

Each workstation has a different worklist.

a.

1 and 2

b.

1 and 3

c.

2 and 3

d.

1, 2, and 3

ANS: BOBJ: Define system architecture and recognize the three major models.

14.

In which system architecture do the images and applications reside on a central server?

a.

Client/server-based system

b.

Distributed system

c.

Web-based system

d.

Image manager system

.

ANS: COBJ: Define system architecture and recognize the three major models.

15.

What term is used to describe the reading of images outside of the hospital walls, generally at home

or inremote locations? a.

Teleradiology .

b.

Offsite reporting

c.

Long-range reporting

d.

Home-based reading

ANS: AOBJ: Define system architecture and recognize the three major models.

16.

Which is the most interactive part of a PACS?

a.

Archive.

b.

Image manager

c.

Web server

d.

Display workstation

ANS: DOBJ: Summarize the common functions found on a PACS workstation.

17.

What factors might be used when determining the best type of monitor for each workstation?

1.

Resolution

2.

Size

3.

Monitor orientation

a.

1 and 2

b.

1 and 3

c.

2 and 3

d. 1, 2, and 3

.

ANS: DOBJ: Summarize the common functions found on a PACS workstation.

18.

Which term best describes a basic picture element on a display?

a.

Matrix

b.

Pixel

c.

Dot pitch

d. e.

Resolution

.

ANS: BOBJ: Summarize the common functions found on a PACS workstation.

19.

The number of pixels contained on a display is known as

a.

matrix.

b.

pixel.

c.

resolution.

d.

dot pitch.

.

ANS: COBJ: Summarize the common functions found on a PACS workstation.

20.

If the number of ___________increase(s) on a monitor, resolution___________ .

a.

pixels; decreases

b.

matrices; decreases

c.

pixels; improves

d.

dot pitch; improves

ANS: C

.

OBJ: Summarize the common functions and benefits of a PACS workstation.

21.

A square table of numbers that represents the intensity to be displayed on the monitor is a

a.

matrix.

b.

pixel.

c.

resolution.

d.

dot pitch.

ANS: A

.

OBJ: Summarize the common functions and benefits PACS workstation.

22.

Which of the following would be considered categories for display workstations?

1.

Primary reading.

2.

Technologist QC

3.

Archive server

a.

1 only

b.

1 and 2

c.

1 and 3

d.

1, 2, and 3

ANS: BOBJ: Summarize the common functions found on a PACS workstation.

23.

Which workstation is used to review images after acquisition but before being sent

off forreporting?

.

a.

Primary reading

b.

Referring physician

c.

Technologist QC

d.

Image management

.

ANS: COBJ: Summarize the common functions found on a PACS workstation.

24.

Which workstation might be used to print copies of images or burn images to a CD for outsideuse?

a.

Primary reading

b.

Referring physician

c.

Technologist QC

d.

Image management

ANS: D

.

OBJ: Summarize the common functions and benefits of a PACS workstation

25.

Which of the following would be considered categories of workstation functions?

1.

Navigation

2.

Image manipulation and enhancement

3.

Image management

a.

1 and 2 .

b.

1 and 3

c.

2 and 3

d.

1, 2, and 3

.

ANS: DOBJ: Summarize the common functions found on a PACS workstation.

26.

Which set of functions is used to move through images, series, studies, and patients?

a.

Navigation

b.

Image management

c.

Image manipulation and enhancement

d.

Advanced workstation

.

ANS: AOBJ: Summarize the common functions found on a PACS workstation.

27.

Which function determines how images are displayed on the monitor(s)?

a.

Series

b.

Hanging protocol

c.

Flip and rotate

d.

All of the above.

ANS: BOBJ: Summarize the common functions found on a PACS workstation.

28.

Which function allows the user to move through a series of images frame by frame?

a.

Pan and zoom

b.

Hanging protocol

c.

Cine

d.

Both A and B

.

ANS: COBJ: Summarize the common functions found on a PACS workstation.

29.

Which function represents the range of gray values that are being viewed on the monitor?

a.

Window

b.

Level

c.

Contrast

d.

Density

.

ANS: AOBJ: Summarize the common functions found on a PACS workstation.

30.

Which function can be used to orient the image in the anatomic hanging position?

a.

Pan and zoom

b.

ROI

c.

Annotations

d.

Flip and rotate

.

ANS: D OBJ: Summarize the common functions found on a PACS workstation.

31.

Which function increases the size of an area on the image?

a.

Pan and zoom

b.

ROI

c.

Annotations

d.

Flip and rotate

.

ANS: A OBJ: Summarize the common functions and benefits found on a PACS workstation

32.

Which of the following measurements are commonly found on a PACS workstation?

1.

ROI

2.

Distance

3.

Angle

a.

1 and 2

b.

1 and 3

c.

2 and 3

d.

1, 2, and 3

.

ANS: DOBJ: Summarize the common functions found on a PACS workstation.

33.

Which advanced workstation function can reconstruct images into another plane?

a.

MPR

b.

MIP

c.

VRT

d.

S

.

SD ANS: A.

OBJ: Describe the situations and users that may require advanced PACS workstation functions.

34.

Which advanced function is used most often in computed tomography to visualize contrast medium-

filled vessels separate from the surrounding tissue? a.

MPR

b.

MIP

c.

MinIP

d.

S

SD ANS: B OBJ: Describe the situations and users that may require advanced PACS workstation functions.

35.

Which advanced function uses a histogram-type graph to differentiate various structures using different

colorsthat represent each of the intensities a.

MPR

b.

MIP

c.

VRT

d.

SSD

.

ANS: C OBJ: Describe the situations and users that may require advanced PACS workstation functions.

36.

Which advanced function allows the user to remove all tissue above and below a certain threshold

and to show the object in three-dimensions for better visualization? a.

MPR

b.

MIP

c.

MinIP

d.

SSD

.

ANS: D OBJ: Describe the situations and users that may require advanced PACS workstation functions.

37.

Which advanced function allows the user to put multiple images into one single image, such as in a

scoliosis series? a.

Image post processing

b.

MPR

c.

Stitching

d.

V

.

RT ANS: C. OBJ: Describe the situations and users that may require advanced PACS workstation functions.

TRUE/FALSE

1.

Early PACS radiologists believed that they needed four to six monitors to view images.

ANS: T

2.

Digital annotations may be used to indicate the right or left side of the patient.

ANS: F

3.

OBJ: Summarize the common functions and benefits PACS workstation

OBJ: Summarize the common functions and benefits PACS workstation.

Incorrect patient demographic information is unimportant in a PACS.

ANS: F

OBJ: Summarize the common functions and benefits PACS workstation.

Chapter 02: Digital Imaging Characteristics Carter: Digital Radiography and PACS, 4thEdition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Multiple numeric values divided into an array of small elements capable of being processed is the definition of digital images. a. analog b. digital c. medical d. radiographic ANS: B OBJ:Differentiate between analog and digital images.

2. The continuous and varying levels of brightness and colors describe analog images. a. analog b. digital c. medical d. radiographic ANS: A OBJ:Differentiate between analog and digital images.

3. Critical characteristics of a digital image include all of the following except: a. contrast resolution b. noise efficiency c. sample resolution d. dose efficiency of the receptor ANS: C OBJ:Differentiate between analog and digital images.

4. Which of the following statements is not true? a. Matrix size can change without affecting the FOV. b. FOV can change without affecting the matrix. c. Changing the matrix or the FOV will change the size of the pixel. d. Changing the matrix and the FOV will not change the size of the pixel.

ANS: D OBJ:Relate pixel size, matrix size, and FOV to each other.

5. Each square in a matrix is called a: a. matrix element b. picture element c. bit d. byte ANS: B OBJ:Define pixel and image matrix and characteristics of each.

6. The number of bits per pixel is known as bit: a. pitch b. depth c. height d. width ANS: B OBJ:Define pixel and image matrix and characteristics of each.

7. If a pixel has a bit depth of 10, the number of gray tones that can be produced is: a. 256 b. 512 c. 1024 d. 2500 ANS: C OBJ:Define pixel and image matrix and characteristics of each.

8. The size of the pixel is determined by the: a. bit b. bit depth c. matrix d. byte ANS: C OBJ:Define pixel and image matrix and characteristics of each.

9. Which of the following statements is not true? a. Exposure index refers to the amount of exposure to the patient. b. Exposure index refers to the amount of exposure to the receptor. c. Exposure is not uniformly represented across manufacturers. d. Exposure index standardization is beneficial to the technologist.

ANS: A OBJ:Discriminate between standard units of measure for exposure indicators.

10. The measurement for radiation that was incident on the image receptor for a particular exposure is known as: a. Gy b. KSTD c. KIND d. KTGT ANS: C OBJ:Discriminate between standard units of measure for exposure indicators.

11. Deviation index is the difference between actual exposure (KIND) and target exposure (KTGT), expressed in logarithmic fashion. a. actual exposure (KIND); target exposure (KTGT) b. standard exposure (KSTD); actual exposure (KIND) c. standard exposure (KSTD); target exposure (KTGT)

ANS: A OBJ:Discriminate between standard units of measure for exposure indicators.

12. Factors that can adversely affect the pixel values expressed in the deviation index include all of the following except: a. gonadal shielding within the image b. a prosthesis within the image c. failure of the system to recognize the exposure indicator d. failure of the system to recognize the collimated border ANS: C OBJ:Discriminate between standard units of measure for exposure indicators.

13. How dark or light a digital image appears on a display monitor is known as: a. density b. contrast resolution c. brightness d. spatial resolution ANS: C OBJ:Define image brightness.

14. The ability of a digital system to display subtle changes in shades of gray is called: a. image quality b. contrast resolution c. spatial resolution d. dynamic range ANS: B OBJ:Discuss the differences between spatial and contrast resolution.

15. The ability of an imaging system to demonstrate small details of an object is known as: a. image quality

b. contrast resolution c. spatial resolution d. dynamic range ANS: C OBJ:Discuss the differences between spatial and contrast resolution.

16. A system’s ability to respond to varying levels of exposure, resulting in more detail, is referred to as: a. spatial resolution b. dynamic range c. contrast resolution d. dynamic resolution ANS: B OBJ:Discuss the differences between spatial and contrast resolution.

17. “The sum of the components in a recording system cannot be greater than the system as a whole” is a definition of: a. modulation transfer function (MTF) b. enhanced visualization image processing c. digital image contrast and density latitude d. principles of contrast enhancement ANS: A OBJ:Discuss the implications of image noise, MTF, and detective quantum efficiency.

18. A perfect image processing system would have an MTF of: a. 1% b. 10% c. 100% d. 1000% ANS: C OBJ:Discuss the implications of image noise, MTF, and detective quantum efficiency.

19 The more light spread, the __________ lower the MTF. a. higher b. lower c. more equal d. None of these ANS: B OBJ:Discuss the implications of image noise, MTF, and detective quantum efficiency.

20. The range of exposure values the image detector is able to produce is known as: a. dynamic range b. modulation transfer c. latitude d. detective quantum efficiency ANS: C OBJ:Define exposure latitude.

21. The efficiency of a system to convert x-ray input signal into a useful output image is known as: a. dynamic range b. spatial resolution c. latitude d. detective quantum efficiency ANS: D OBJ:Define exposure latitude.

TRUE/FALSE 1. Air kerma is the measurement of radiation energy absorbed in a unit of air.

ANS: True OBJ:Discriminate between standard units of measure for exposure indicators.

2. The reflection of ambient light can be problematic with monochromatic monitors.

ANS: True OBJ:Define image brightness.

3. MTF is a way to quantify the contribution of each system component and the component’s overall efficiency.

ANS: False OBJ:Discuss the implications of image noise, MTF, and detective quantum efficiency.

4. It is possible to achieve an MTF of 100%.

ANS: False OBJ:Discuss the implications of image noise, MTF, and detective quantum efficiency.

Chapter 03: Digital Radiographic Image Processing and Manipulation Carter: Digital Radiography and PACS, 4thEdition MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.

Failure of the reader to find the collimation edges of an imaabgirbe.com/test

a.

will result in image cutoff.

b.

may cause the image to be too bright or too dark.

c.

will eliminate all scatter.

d.

will have no effect on the resultant image.

.

ANS: BOBJ: Describe the formation of an image histogram.

2.

If the entire range of exposure were digitized, pixel values representing

a.

scatter

b.

only diagnostic values .

c.

only the extreme values

d. e.

all values

ANS: D

would be digitized.

OBJ: Describe the formation of an imagaebihrbi.sctoomg/rteasmt .

3.

Data collected within the collimator are represented by a

a.

histogram.

b.

characteristic curve.

c.

pixel graph.

d.

matrix graph.

.

ANS: AOBJ: Describe the formation of an image histogram.

4.

A histogram displays the useful signal by locating

a.

all pixel values. .

b.

maximum and minimum signal.

c.

maximum signal only.

d. e.

minimum signal only.

.

ANS: BOBJ: Describe the formation of an image histogram.

5.

The higher the kilovoltage peak, the

a.

wider the histogram.

b.

narrower the histogram.

c.

higher the frequency.

d. e.

lower the frequency.

.

.

ANS: BOBJ: Describe the formation of an image histogram.

6.

The Nyquist theorem states that the

.

a.

sampling frequency must be equal to the input signal bandwidth.

b.

input signal bandwidth must be twice the sampling frequency.

c.

sampling frequency must be twice the input signal banadbwirbi.dcotmh./test

d.

input signal bandwidth must be sampled twice.

ANS: COBJ: State the Nyquist theorem.

7.

If too few pixels are sampled, the result will be .

a.

high resolution.

b.

low resolution.

c.

high contrast.

d.

low contrast.

.

ANS: BOBJ: State the Nyquist theorem.

8.

Raw data used to form the image histogram are compared with

a.

a normal histogram referenced by the computer.

b.

all histograms stored for that anatomic part.

c.

the last histogram of that anatomic part. .

d. e.

None of these

ANS: AOBJ: Describe the formation of an image histogram.

9.

Loss of detail in a digitally processed image

a.

occurs because of the number of conversions.

b.

is extremely minimal compared with film/screen.

c.

is equal to film/screen.

d.

has almost no impact on the image.

.

ANS: AOBJ: State the Nyquist theorem..

10.

The longer an image is stored in the computed radiography (CR) cassette, the

a.

more detailed the processed image.

b.

more energy is lost by the electrons.

c.

easier the image is to process.

d.

slower the processing time.

.

ANS: BOBJ: State the Nyquist theorem..

11.

A wraparound image or image aliasing occurs when

a.

sampling occurs twice per cycle..

b.

spatial frequency is less than the Nyquist frequency.

c.

sampling occurs less than twice per cycle.

d.

spatial frequency is equal to the Nyquist frequency.

ANS: COBJ: State the Nyquist theorem.

12.

In an effort to display the pixels for the area of interest when exposure is greater or less

thanwhat is needed to produce an image, occurs. . a.

overexposure

b.

underexposure

c.

automatic collimation

d.

automatic rescaling

.

ANS: DOBJ: Discuss automatic rescaling.

13.

Automatic rescaling means that images are produced, regardless of the amount of exposure, with

a.

uniform size and shape. .

b.

uniform contrast and density.

c.

variable size and shape.

d.

variable contrast and density.

ANS: BOBJ: Discuss automatic rescaling.

14.

A look-up table is not used as a reference to

15. a.

set appropriate kilovoltage peak and milliampere-secoanbdirsb.vcoamlu/teesst.

b.

evaluate raw luminance values.

c.

correct luminance values.

d. e.

provide appropriate brightness and contrast.

.

ANS: AOBJ: List the functions of contrast enhancement parameters.

16.

Changing the slope of the look-up table graph will increasaeboirbr.cdoemc/treestase

a.

density.

b.

the number of pixels.

c.

the matrix size.

d. e.

contrast.

.

ANS: DOBJ: List the functions of contrast enhancement parameters.

17.

If all of the shades were left in an image after processing, athbierbc.coomn/ttreasst t would be

a.

too low.

b.

too high.

c.

sufficient.

d.

unaffected.

.

ANS: AOBJ: List the functions of contrast enhancement parameters.

18.

Changing the steepness of the exposure gradient

a.

varies density.

b.

determines spatial frequency.

c.

controls image contrast. .

d. e.

has no effect on the image.

ANS: COBJ: List the functions of contrast enhancement parameters.

19.

Focal spot and OID affect image sharpness

a.

only in film/screen

b.

only in digital .

c.

in both film/screen and digital

d. e.

in neither film/screen nor digital

ANS: C

imaging.

OBJ: List the functions of contrast enhaanbcirebm.coemn/ttepsat rameters.

20.

The improper algorithm application may result in

a.

enhanced contrast.

b. c. d.

improved resolution.

c.

repeat examinations.

d. degradation of the image.

ANS: DOBJ: List the functions of contrast enhancement parameters.

21.

The more manipulation of the image, the greater the

a.

amount of resolution.

b.

loss of information.

c.

quality of the image.

d. e.

radiologist manipulation.

ANS: B

.

OBJ: List the functions of contrast enhaanbcirebm.coemn/ttepsat rameters.

22.

Amplification of the frequencies of the areas of interest is known as

a.

algorithm application.

b.

center enhancement.

c.

edge enhancement.

d. e.

masking.

ANS: C

.

OBJ: Describe the effects of improper aalgbiorbr.ictohmm/teaspt plication.

23.

Suppressing frequencies in the areas of interest is known as

a.

algorithm application. .

b.

center enhancement.

c.

edge enhancement.

d.

masking.

ANS: DOBJ: Describe the effects of improper algorithm application.

24.

Low-pass filtering is also known as

a.

evening.

b.

smoothing.

c.

masking.

d. e.

marking.

.

.

ANS: BOBJ: Discuss the purpose and function of image manipulation factors.

25.

High-pass filtering is useful for enhancing

a.

small structures.

b.

fine bone tissues.

c.

large bony structures.

d. e.

organs and soft tissue. .

.

ANS: DOBJ: Discuss the purpose and function of image manipulation factors.

26.

Averaging the frequency of each pixel with surrounding paixbierbl.cvoaml/uteesst to remove high-

frequency noise is called a.

high-pass filtering.

b.

low-pass filtering.

c.

edge enhancement.

d. e.

noise enhancement.

ANS: B

.

OBJ: Discuss the purpose and function aobfiribm.caomge/temstanipulation factors.

27.

Image level parameters control image

a.

brightness.

b.

darkness.

c.

contrast.

d.

density.

.

e.

ANS: A

OBJ: Discuss the purpose and function aobfiribm.caomge/temstanipulation factors.

28.

Window width controls the ratio of black and white, also known as

a.

window.

b.

level.

c.

contrast.

d. e.

matrix.

ANS: C

.

OBJ: Discuss the purpose and function aobfiribm.caomge/temstanipulation factors.

29.

Excessive light entering the eye when viewing an image is known as

a.

veil

b.

window

c.

level

d.

None of these

_ glare.

.

ANS: AOBJ: Discuss the purpose and function of image manipulation factors.

30.

An image manipulation process that fills in the background so that it is darkened is known as

a.

window.

b.

level.

c.

shuttering.

d. e.

collimation.

.

.

ANS: COBJ: Discuss the purpose and function of image manipulation factors.

31.

The image reader scans and reads the image from the

a.

back edge of the imaging plate to the opposite end.

.

b.

leading edge of the imaging plate to the opposite end.

c.

right to left side.

d. e.

left to right side.

.

ANS: BOBJ: Describe the formation of the CR image reader.

32.

The process of joining two or more images into one continaubiorbu.csomim/teasgt e is known as image

a.

connection.

b.

annotation.

c.

stitching.

d. e.

lacing.

.

ANS: COBJ: Discuss the purpose and function of image manipulation factors.

33.

The workstation function that allows selection of preset terms or manual text input is termed image

a.

connection.

b.

annotation.

c. d. e.

stitching.

f.

lacing.

.

ANS: BOBJ: Discuss the purpose and function of image manipulation factors.

34.

Input of annotation for identification of the patient’s left or right side

a.

should take the place of the technologist’s anatomy markers.

b.

should be used in conjunction with the technologist’s mabairbrk.ceorms/.test

c.

eliminates the need for any other type of anatomy markers.

d.

None of the above

ANS: B

OBJ: Discuss the purpose and function aobfiribm.caomge/temstanipulation factors.

35.

Magnification of the entire image at the workstation is termed

a.

image intensification.

b.

macroradiography.

c.

enlargement.

d. e.

zoom.

ANS: D

.

OBJ: Discuss the purpose and function oabfiribm.caomge/temstanipulation factors.

36.

Proper patient demographic input ensures

a.

multiple records on each patient..

b.

linking of all the patient’s files.

c.

multiple versions of the patient’s name.

d.

an increase in the amount of data tracking.

ANS: BOBJ: Describe the major factors in image management.

37.

The ability to send images to local network stations can be accomplished using the

a.

archive query. .

b.

patient demographic input.

c.

QC query.

d. e.

manual send function. .

ANS: DOBJ: Describe the major factors in image management.

38.

Proper patient demographic input is the responsibility of thabeirb.com/test

a.

technologist.

b.

QC manager.

c.

radiologist.

d. e.

transporter.

.

ANS: AOBJ: Describe the major factors in image management.

39.

An archive query retrieves images from the PACS based oanbirabn.cyomo/tfestthe following except

a.

patient name.

b.

examination date.

c.

anatomical area.

d. e.

technologist anatomical number.

.

ANS: DOBJ: Describe the major factors in image management.

TRUE/FA LSE

1.

The shape of the histogram is anatomy specific.

ANS: T OBJ: Describe the formation of an image histogram.

2.

Image aliasing is similar to the moiré effect caused by grid error.

ANS: F OBJ: State the Nyquist theorem.

3.

Automatic rescaling can be substituted for appropriate technical factors.

ANS: F OBJ: Discuss automatic rescaling.

4.

Basic workstation functions include contrast manipulationa,beirdb.gcoeme/tneshtancement, and smoothing.

5.

ANS: T OBJ: List the functions of contrast enhancement parameters.

6.

7.

Shuttering removes the dark exposed border, reducing the amount of information to be stored.

ANS: F OBJ: Discuss the purpose and function of image manipulation factors.

8.

Historical study of patient examinations can be accomplished through the manual send function.

ANS: F OBJ: Describe the major factors in image management.

9.

No matter where the orientation stickers or labels exist on a digital cassette, the image will display correctly.

ANS: F OBJ: Describe the major factors in image management.

Chapter 04: Photostimulable Phosphor Image Capture Carter: Digital Radiography and PACS, 4thEdition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The PSP cassette is backed by aluminum that: a. reflects x-rays b. absorbs backscatter x-rays c. captures the image d. transmits x-rays ANS: B OBJ: Describe the basic construction of a PSP cassette and imaging plate.

2. Which of the following serves to protect against static build-up, dust collection, and mechanical damage to the imaging plate? a. Aluminum backing b. Lightweight plastic c. Felt material d. Cassette front ANS: C OBJ: Describe the basic construction of a PSP cassette and imaging plate.

3. The layer of the imaging plate that traps electrons during exposure is the __________ layer. a. Protective . b. Reflective c. Active d. Support

ANS: B OBJ: Describe the purpose of each layer of the imaging plate.

4. The imaging plate layer that absorbs stimulating light and reflects emitted light is the _______ layer.

A. Active B. Color C. Reflective .

D. Backing

ANS: B OBJ: Describe the purpose of each layer of the imaging plate.

5. The reflective layer: a. absorbs and reduces static b. gives the imaging sheet strength c. protects the back of the cassette d. sends light in a forward direction ANS: D OBJ: Describe the purpose of each layer of the imaging plate.

6. The purpose of the barcode label is to match the image information with the: a. imaging plate b. patient identifier c. technologist d. radiographic room ANS: B OBJ: Describe the basic construction of a PSP cassette and imaging plate.

7. The phosphor layer is made of phosphors from the ________________ family. a. barium sulfate b. halide calcium . c. barium fluorohalide d. calcium fluorohalide ANS: C OBJ: Describe the basic construction of a PSP cassette and imaging plate.

8. When the imaging plate is irradiated, stimulated electrons enter the ____________ layer. a. active b. conductive . c. protective d. support

ANS: A OBJ: Explain the process of photostimulating the imaging plate.

9. During laser beam formation, both ends of the laser reflect energy back and forth so that the atoms _______________________ .

a. absorb each other. b. bombard each other. c. lose energy. d. create x-ray energy.

ANS: B OBJ: Explain the process of reading and erasing the imaging plate.

10. Coherent light is formed by the laser because the photons ____________________________ . a. Are at right angles to each other. b. Travel in all directions. c. Travel in the same direction.

.

d. Are at varying frequencies.

ANS: C OBJ: Explain the process of reading and erasing the imaging plate.

11. The optical mirror in the reader: a. directs the laser beam to the imaging plate surface b. forms the laser beam into a circle c. causes the laser beam to diverge d. creates the laser beam ANS: A OBJ: Explain the process of reading and erasing the imaging plate.

12. Typical cassette throughput is ___________ cassettes per ______________.

ANS: D OBJ: Explain the process of reading and erasing the imaging plate.

13. Each light photon is assigned a number during _________________________. a. Amplification. b. Sampling. . c. Digitization. d. Laser scanning.

ANS: C OBJ: Explain the process of reading and erasing the imaging plate.

14. The wavelength of the PSP reader laser is ______________ nm. a. 336 b. 636

c. 633 d. 366 ANS: C OBJ: Explain the process of reading and erasing the imaging plate.

15. The laser scans the imaging plate in a ____________ pattern. a. Raster

.

b. Horizontal c. Circular d. Random ANS: A OBJ: Explain the process of reading and erasing the imaging plate.

16. The process of scanning the moving imaging plate is known as _____________________.

a. Transition. . b. Raster scanning. c. Digitization. d. Translation.

ANS: D OBJ: Explain the process of reading and erasing the imaging plate.

17. Which of the following does not determine PSP resolution? a. Phosphor layer thickness b. Pixel size c. The number of pixels d. Laser scan speed ANS: D OBJ: Compare conventional radiographic screen and film speed to PSP systems.

18. PSP imaging plates are erased by flooding the plate with: a. light b. radiation c. electrons d. phosphors ANS: A OBJ: Explain the process of reading and erasing the imaging plate.

19. The amount of detail present in any image is known as _____________ resolution. a. contrast b. density. c. spatial d. optical ANS: C OBJ: Explain the process of reading and erasing the imaging plate.

20. The selection of the incorrect body part from the examination menu may result in _________________ a.no image. b. image misinterpretation. c. proper density and contrast. d. no difference in image sharpness ANS: B OBJ: Discuss the importance of matching the body part being examined to the examination menu.

21. Kilovoltage peak (kVp) should be chosen _________________________________ a. to provide the least contrast possible.

.

b. to provide penetration. c. for the type and amount of contrast desired. d. for the type of imaging plate phosphor ANS: B OBJ: Discuss the selection of technical factors for density, contrast, and penetration.

22. The k-edge of phosphor imaging plates ranges from ______________________ keV.

a. 10–30 b. 20–40 c. 30–50 d. 40–60 ANS: C OBJ: Discuss the selection of technical factors for density, contrast, and penetration.

23. The range of kVp that can be used with PSP systems is ____________________ kVp. a. 45–120. b. 55–130. c. 65–120.

d. 75–130.

ANS: A OBJ: Discuss the selection of technical factors for density, contrast, and penetration.

24. Milliampere-seconds (mAs) is selected for the _________________________________. a. shortest time possible. b. longest time possible. c. number of electrons needed. d. amount of penetration needed.

ANS: C OBJ: Discuss the selection of technical factors for density, contrast, and penetration.

25. When insufficient light is produced by the imaging plate phosphor, the image will _____________. a. not be formed. b. be grainy. . c. be dark. d. be detailed ANS: B OBJ: Discuss the selection of technical factors for density, contrast, and penetration.

26. Quantum mottle is caused by __________________________. a. excessive mA-s.

.

b. excessive kVp. c. insufficient distance. d. insufficient light ANS: D OBJ: Discuss the selection of technical factors for density, contrast, and penetration.

27. Which of the following should be considered when selecting a PSP cassette a. Size and speed b. Type and speed c. Size and type

.

d. None of these ANS: C OBJ: Describe the imaging plate and grid selection process.

28. The higher the number of pixels in a matrix, the higher the ___________________________ . a. higher the image resolution.

b. lower the image resolution. c. lack of effect on image resolution. . d. smaller the image.

ANS: A OBJ: Describe the imaging plate and grid selection process.

29. Grid use for PSP examinations is more critical than in film/screen radiography because CR___________________________________________. a. Examinations produce more scatter. b. Imaging plates record more densities.

.

c. Imaging plates record less scatter. d. Examinations require much higher kVp values ANS: B OBJ: Describe the imaging plate and grid selection process.

30. The number of grid lines per centimeter or lines per inch describes grid _____________. a. frequency. b. ration. c. focus. d. size.

ANS: A OBJ: Describe the imaging plate and grid selection process.

31. Grid ratio describes the _____________________________________________________. a. Number of grid lines per centimeter or lines per inch. . b. Angling of the lead strips to coincide with x-ray beam diversion. c. Relationship between the height of the lead strips to the interspace. d. Physical size of the grid to be used for each distance measured.

ANS: C OBJ: Describe the imaging plate and grid selection process.

32. Which of the following requires more critical beam centering? a. Parallel grids b. Focused grids c. Low-ratio grids d. Low-frequency grids

ANS: B OBJ: Describe the imaging plate and grid selection process.

33. Collimation to a smaller area ______________________________. a. increases scatter.

.

b. increases amount of tissue irradiated. c. decreases resolution. d. decreases scatter.

ANS: D OBJ: Discuss the importance of preprocessing collimation and image marking.

34. Shuttering is a post-exposure image manipulation technique that _____________________. a. is placed on the patient. b. is placed on the cassette. c. is added to the screen image. d. changes the amount of scatter ANS: C OBJ: Discuss the importance of preprocessing collimation and image marking.

35. A technologist can lend credibility to his or her expertise by _________________________. a. using a grid. b. using personal position markers. c. using less collimation. . d. None of the above ANS: B OBJ: Discuss the importance of preprocessing collimation and image marking.

36. The exposure indicator number is ________________________________________________. a. an accurate measure of the patient dose. b. an indication of radiation absorbed by the imaging plate. c. Both A and B

.

d. Neither A nor B ANS: B OBJ: Compare exposure indicators for the major computed radiography (CR) manufacturers and vendors.

37. Cracks in the imaging plate can be caused by ____________________________________. a. excessive kVp.

b. removing and replacing the plate in the reader. c. improper erasure. d. scatter through the back of the cassette.

ANS: B OBJ: Discuss the importance of preprocessing collimation and image marking.

38. Intermittent extraneous line patterns are imaging plate artifacts. a. Imaging plate b. Plate reader c. Image processing d. Printer ANS: A OBJ: Discuss the importance of preprocessing collimation and image marking.

TRUE/FALSE 1. PSP phosphor speed and radiographic film speed are always equivalent.

ANS: False OBJ: Compare conventional radiographic screen and film speed to CR systems.

2. The PSP imaging plate does not require periodic erasure because of its ability to record background radiation.

ANS: False OBJ: Explain the process of reading and erasing the imaging plate.

3. Less kVp is needed with conventional radiographic screens than is necessary for PSP systems.

ANS: False OBJ: Discuss the selection of technical factors for density, contrast, and penetration.

4. Grid lines projected onto the imaging plate will not interfere with the image.

ANS: False OBJ: Describe the imaging plate and grid selection process.

5. It is acceptable to replace collimation with shuttering.

ANS: False OBJ: Discuss the importance of preprocessing collimation and image marking.

6. Images should be marked only with computerized markers.

ANS: False OBJ: Discuss the importance of preprocessing collimation and image marking.

Chapter 05: Thin-Film Transistor Flat-Panel Array Image Acquisition Carter: Carter: Digital Radiography and PACS, 4thEdition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Photoconductors are materials that:

a. produce light when absorbing x-rays b. produce x-rays when absorbing light c. absorb light and produce electric charges d. absorb x-rays and produce electrical charges

ANS: D OBJ: Define a TFT flat-panel digital image detector.

2. Scintillators are phosphors that:

a. produce light when absorbing x-rays b. produce x-rays when absorbing light c. absorb light and produce electrical charges d. absorb x-rays and produce electrical charges

ANS: A OBJ: Define a TFT flat-panel digital image detector.

3. A device that includes a photosensitive array and small pixels that convert light into electrical charges is known as a thin-film transistor.

ANS: C OBJ: Define a TFT flat-panel digital image detector.

4. A device that acts like a switch to send electrical charges to the image processor in a direct conversion flatpanel detector is known as a ___________ transistor.

a. thin-field b. field-effect c. thin-film d. field-energy

ANS: B

OBJ: Describe the construction of direct and indirect TFT flat-panel detector systems.

5. In a flat-panel detector, specialized silicon integrated circuits control:

a. line scanning sequence b. readout c. amplification d. analog-to-digital conversion

ANS: A OBJ: Describe the construction of direct and indirect TFT flat-panel detector systems.

6. Amplifiers perform all of the following functions except:

a. readout b. amplification c. noise cancelling d. analog-to-digital conversion

ANS: C OBJ: Describe the construction of direct and indirect TFT flat-panel detector systems.

7. Which of the following is used as a photoconductor? a. Gd₂O₂S b. a-Se c. a-Si d. Cesium Iodide (CsI)

ANS: B OBJ: Describe the construction of direct and indirect TFT flat-panel detector systems.

8. Which of the following is not considered a scintillator? a. Gd₂O₂S b. CsI c. a-Se d. None of the above

ANS: C OBJ: Describe the construction of direct and indirect TFT flat-panel detector systems.

9. Flat-panel detectors that use indirect conversion technology convert:

a. electrical signals to light b. light to x-rays c. x-rays to electrical signals d. x-rays to visible light

ANS: D OBJ: Describe the construction of direct and indirect TFT flat-panel detector systems.

10. Indirect conversion in flat-panel detectors is a ______-step process. a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

ANS: B OBJ: Differentiate between direct and indirect image capture.

11. The type of flat-panel detector that uses thin films of silicon integrated with arrays of photodiodes is known as an amorphous silicon detector.

a. CsI detector b. charge-coupled device. c. CMOS. d. amorphous silicon detector.

ANS: D OBJ: Differentiate between direct and indirect image capture.

12. CsI detectors use:

a. rare-earth scintillators b. thin crystalline needles c. miniature cameras d. specialized pixel sensors

ANS: B OBJ: Describe a CsI detector.

13. In CsI detectors:

a. there is very little light spread b. crystalline needles block light from the detector c. x-rays are converted into an electrical signal d. light spread causes resolution to decrease

ANS: A OBJ: Describe a CsI detector.

14. A Gd₂O₂S scintillator is known as what type of phosphor?

a. Turbid b. Unstructured c. Structured d. Both A and B

ANS: D OBJ: Describe a Gd₂O₂S detector.

15. Detector performance is measured with all of the following except:

a. spatial resolution b. observation of low-contrast objects in a phantom c. DQE d. contrast

ANS: D OBJ: Relate the design of a TFT flat-panel detector to its performance measurements.

16. Defective pixels can result from all of the following except:

a. chemical corrosion b. static discharge c. software programs d. age

ANS: C OBJ: Relate the design of a TFT flat-panel detector to its performance measurements.

17. Manufacturers make efforts to maintain a standard of less than 0.1–0.2% defective pixels.

ANS: B OBJ: Relate the design of a TFT flat-panel detector to its performance measurements.

18. Possible causes of image lag include all except:

a. rapid succession images b. overexposure c. lack of beam attenuation d. underexposure

ANS: D OBJ: Describe the cause of image lag and the process of correcting it.

19. All of the following statements are true except:

a. As the detector ages, the number of dead pixels increases b. Software programs identify and isolate dead pixels c. Interpolation uses information from surrounding pixels to “fill in” missing information d. Dead pixels at the edge of the detector are easily identified

ANS: D OBJ: Relate the design of a TFT flat-panel detector to its performance measurements.

20. Which of the following can be done to decrease the chance of image lag in the next image?

a. Decrease the amount of time between exposures b. Increase the amount of time between exposures c. Leave collimation open d. Acquire the image requiring the highest technical factors first

ANS: B OBJ: Describe the cause of image lag and the process of correcting it.

TRUE/FALSE

1. The absorption material can be attached to the pixel array electrically or physically.

ANS: True OBJ: Describe the construction of direct and indirect TFT flat-panel detector systems.

2. The 2-D array determines whether the imager is direct conversion or indirect conversion.

ANS: False OBJ: Describe the construction of direct and indirect TFT flat-panel detector systems.

3. Gain calibration will remove inherent detector artifacts from an image.

ANS: True OBJ: Relate the design of a TFT flat-panel detector to its performance measurements.

4. Offset correction is used to remove inherent signal that remains in a detector.

ANS: True OBJ: Describe the cause of image lag and the process of correcting it.

5. All flat-panel detector systems have the ability to take images faster than the detector can accommodate.

ANS: False OBJ: Describe the cause of image lag and the process of correcting it.

Chapter 06: Charge-Coupled Device/Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor Image Capture Carter: Digital Radiography and PACS, 4thEdition MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which statement best describes a charge-coupled device (CCD)?

a. It is the oldest direct conversion technology that is still in use today. b. It is the oldest direct conversion technology with limitations. c. It is the oldest indirect conversion technology that is no longer used in medical imaging. d. It is the oldest indirect conversion technology used in a variety of image capture applications.

ANS: D OBJ: Explain the function of a CCD.

2. A device that acts like a camera in an indirect conversion detector is known as a:

a. CCD b. field-effect transistor c. CMOS d. thin-field transistor

ANS: A OBJ: Explain the function of a CCD.

3. The components that focus the signal from the scintillators to the CCD are called:

a. detector elements b. capacitors c. fiber optics d. analog-digital converters

ANS: C OBJ: Describe the components of a CCD.

4. Which statement best describes a capacitor?

a. It converts x-ray photons to light. b. It converts light to an electrical charge and stores it. c. It converts x-ray photons to light and stores it. d. It stores light and converts it from an analog to a digital signal.

ANS: B OBJ: Describe the components of a CCD.

5. Which of the following statements about scintillators is true?

a. All scintillators absorb the same amount of x-ray photons. b. The amount of x-rays absorbed depends on the type of scintillator. c. Structured phosphors produce more light spread. d. Unstructured phosphors are more efficient.

ANS: B OBJ: Describe the components of a CCD.

6. Detector elements are formed by voltage gates that close at readout to allow the flow of electrons.

a. close; allow b. open; allow c. close; stop d. open; stop

ANS: A OBJ: Describe the components of a CCD.

7. The readout process requires that ____________ and ______________________.

ANS: D OBJ: Describe the components of a CCD.

8. The most common types of noise that affect image quality include all of the following except:

a. quantum noise b. statistical noise

c. "dark" current noise d. amplification noise

ANS: A OBJ: Explain the function of a CCD.

9. Clinical applications for CCDs include all of the following except:

a. digital fluoroscopy b. computed tomography fluoroscopy c. digital mammography d. general radiography

ANS: B OBJ: Explain the function of a CCD.

10. When compared with a CMOS, CCDs:

a. are less light sensitive b. are more susceptible to noise c. use more than 100 times the power d. are inexpensive to manufacture

ANS: C OBJ: Differentiate between CCD and CMOS technology.

11. The most popular base material used in integrated circuits is:

a. selenium b. sulfur c. silicon d. tellurium

ANS: C OBJ: Describe the basic construction and function of a CMOS.

12. Demagnification is:

a. reducing the phosphor output image to the size of the active area of the CCD b. reducing the field size of the CCD detector c. reducing the amount of light spread from the scintillator d. None of the above

ANS: A OBJ: Describe the components of a CCD.

13. A detector in which each pixel has its own amplifier is known as a:

a. CCD b. field-effect transistor c. CMOS d. thin-field transistor

ANS: C OBJ: Describe the basic construction and function of a CMOS.

14. A highly efficient indirect conversion system that takes up less fill space than CCDs is known as a(n):

a. analog to digital converter b. field-effect transistor c. CMOS d. thin-field transistor

ANS: C OBJ: Differentiate between CCD and CMOS technology.

15. The indirect conversion detector system that requires optical coupling and image size reduction is known as a:

a. CCD b. field-effect transistor c. CMOS d. thin-field transistor

ANS: A

OBJ: Differentiate between CCD and CMOS technology.

16. Which of the following flat-panel detector technologies was developed by NASA?

a. CCD b. field-effect transistor c. CMOS d. thin-field transistor

ANS: C OBJ: Differentiate between CCD and CMOS technology.

17. When specialized pixels in a complementary metal-oxide silicon (CMOS) system are struck with x-ray photons:

a. the x-ray photons are converted into light b. light photons are stored in capacitors c. light photons are converted into electrical charges d. All of the above

ANS: D OBJ: Describe the basic construction and function of a CMOS.

18. Quantum efficiency is a measurement of the:

a. Number of electron-hole pairs held by the electrostatic force b. Percentage of light that is absorbed c. Number of electrons produced relative to the incident light from the scintillator d. Total amount of light that is absorbed

ANS: C OBJ: Compare detector detective quantum efficiency to cassette-based systems.

19. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Quantum efficiency and detective quantum efficiency are the same b. Quantum efficiency will affect detective quantum efficiency c. Quantum efficiency has no effect on detective quantum efficiency

d. Quantum efficiency is the absolute efficiency of the amount of light collected

ANS: B OBJ: Explain the function of a CCD.

20. Some advantages of CCDs include:

a. less expensive to manufacture b. module design makes repairs and upgrades easy c. demagnification capabilities d. a and c only e. All of the above

ANS: D OBJ: Differentiate between CCD and CMOS technology.

21. Dopants are used to turn semiconductors into full electrical conductors.

a. Dopants b. Amplifiers c. Positive transistors d. Negative transistors

ANS: A OBJ: Describe the basic construction and function of a CMOS.

22. All of the following are considered impurities except:

a. gallium arsenide b. indium antimonide c. tellurium d. most metal oxides

ANS: C OBJ: Describe the basic construction and function of a CMOS.

TRUE/FALSE

1. The number of electron-hole pairs produced is related to the amount of light absorbed.

ANS: True OBJ: Describe the components of a CCD.

2. The polysilicon layer within a CCD acts as an insulator.

ANS: False OBJ: Describe the components of a CCD.

3.

CCDs use more power than CMOS.

ANS: True OBJ: Differentiate between CCD and CMOS technology.

Chapter 07: Basic Computer Principles Carter: Digital Radiography and PACS, 4thEdition MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A barcode reader is a type of device:

a. processing b. input c. output

ANS: B OBJ:Describe the major components of a computer.

2. Binary code is a computer language based on:

a. ones and zeros b. ones and tens c. tens and zeros

ANS: A OBJ:Define binary code, bit, and byte, and discuss how they relate to one another.

3. In binary code, the value of one is assigned when a transmission passes through a closed circuit.

a. open; passes b. closed; passes c. open; does not pass d. closed; does not pass

ANS: B OBJ:Define binary code, bit, and byte, and discuss how they relate to one another.

4.

How many bits make up four bytes?

a. 8 b. 16 c. 32 d. 64

ANS: C OBJ:Define binary code, bit, and byte, and discuss how they relate to one another.

5.

How many bytes are needed to store one alphanumeric character?

a. 1 b. 8 c. 32 d. 64

ANS: A OBJ:Define binary code, bit, and byte, and discuss how they relate to one another.

6.

The CPU is:

a. the PC encasement b. an external storage device c. a microprocessor found on the motherboard d. a stand-alone microprocessor

ANS: C OBJ:List and define the hardware components discussed in this chapter.

7. The microprocessor uses the BIOS during: a. start-up diagnostics b. the standby mode c. the shutdown process

ANS: A OBJ:List and define the hardware components discussed in this chapter.

8. The series of connections, controllers, and chips that create the information highway within the computer system is known as the:

a. motherboard b. BIOS c. BUS d. memory

ANS: C OBJ:List and define the hardware components discussed in this chapter.

9. All of the following use buses found within the computer except the:

a. USB b. SCSI c. AGP d. BCBV

ANS: D OBJ:List and define the hardware components discussed in this chapter.

10. RAM is an acronym for: a. rapid access memory b. read alternative memory c. random access memory d. read access memory

ANS: C OBJ:List and define the hardware components discussed in this chapter.

11. RAM is: a. permanent for the CPU b. long-term for open programs c. temporary for the CPU d. short-term for open programs ANS: D OBJ:List and define the hardware components discussed in this chapter.

12. Memory is measured in:

a. hertz b. joules c. bits d. bytes

ANS: D OBJ:List and define the hardware components discussed in this chapter.

The collection of connectors that link the PC to various peripherals is known as:

a. terminals b. piers c. ports d. docks

ANS: C OBJ:List and define the hardware components discussed in this chapter.

13. A parallel port sends 8 bits of data through a connection compared with a serial port, which can send 1 bit of data.

a. 8; 2 b. 8; 1 c. 2; 8 d. 1; 8

ANS: B OBJ:List and define the hardware components discussed in this chapter.

14. All of the following are used with a serial port except a:

a. mouse b. modem c. printer d. scanner

ANS: C OBJ:List and define the hardware components discussed in this chapter.

The fastest and most versatile port is the:

a. parallel port b. serial port c. USB d. SCSI

ANS: D OBJ:List and define the hardware components discussed in this chapter.

15. All of the following are common SCSI devices except the: a. modem b. hard drive c. CD-ROM d. scanner e. printer ANS: A OBJ:List and define the hardware components discussed in this chapter.

16. The system clock uses a: a. lithium battery b. quartz battery c. vibrating quartz crystal d. vibrating lithium crystal

ANS: C OBJ:List and define the hardware components discussed in this chapter.

17. If a PC had a 5.0-GHz CPU, it would have a system clock that would tick 5 billion times per second.

a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7

ANS: C OBJ:List and define the hardware components discussed in this chapter.

18. Storage capacity for early hard drives was:

a. 10 GB b. 100 GB c. 10 MB d. 100 MB

ANS: C OBJ:List and define the hardware components discussed in this chapter.

19. The information storage capacity of a DVD is 7 times more than that of a CD.

a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7

ANS: D OBJ:List and define the hardware components discussed in this chapter.

20. What metal is contained behind the outer layers of a DVD? a. Silver b. Aluminum c. Gold d. Platinum

ANS: C OBJ:List and define the hardware components discussed in this chapter.

21. "Write once, read many" is represented by which of the following identifiers?

a. ROM b. RO c. R d. RW

ANS: C OBJ:List and define the hardware components discussed in this chapter.

22. Most modern keyboards connect to the back of the box using a PS/2 connection.

a. PS/1 b. PS/2 c. PS/3 d. PS/4

ANS: B OBJ:List and define the hardware components discussed in this chapter.

23. All mice connections are serial type.

a. serial b. parallel c. pier d. port

ANS: A OBJ:List and define the hardware components discussed in this chapter.

24. The topology in which the bus is collapsed into a central box is the: a. hub b. star c. ring d. mesh ANS: B OBJ:Differentiate between the common network topologies.

TRUE OR FALSE: 1. Digital radiography systems eliminate the need for film and chemical processing, significantly improving workflow efficiency. ⊚

true

⊚

false

ANS: True Feedback: Digital radiography (DR) systems capture images electronically, eliminating the need for physical film and chemical processing. This reduces processing time, storage space requirements, and environmental waste, thereby improving overall workflow efficiency.

2. In PACS, images are stored in a standard format called DICOM, which ensures interoperability between different imaging systems. ⊚

true

⊚

false

ANS: True Feedback: PACS (Picture Archiving and Communication System) uses the DICOM (Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine) format, a universal standard that enables compatibility and interoperability between imaging devices and software from different vendors.

3. The spatial resolution of digital radiography systems is inherently higher than that of traditional film-based systems. ⊚

true

⊚

false

ANS: False Feedback: While digital radiography systems have many advantages, such as dynamic range and image manipulation capabilities, their spatial resolution is typically lower than that of traditional film-based radiography. However, the improved contrast resolution often compensates for this limitation.

4. PACS allows remote access to medical images, facilitating teleradiology and collaboration among healthcare providers. ⊚

true

⊚

false

ANS: True Feedback: PACS enables images to be stored digitally and accessed via secure networks. This allows radiologists and other healthcare providers to view and analyze images remotely, enhancing collaboration and supporting teleradiology practices.

5. Digital radiography systems are less sensitive to radiation exposure than conventional radiography systems, requiring higher doses for image acquisition. ⊚

true

⊚

false

ANS: False Feedback: Digital radiography systems are more sensitive to radiation, meaning they can produce diagnosticquality images with lower radiation doses compared to conventional film systems. This contributes to reduced patient exposure while maintaining image quality.

Chapter 08: Networking and Communication Basics Carter: Digital radiography and PACS, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The topology on which the Internet is based is the: a. Hub b. Star c. Ring d. Mesh

ANS: D OBJ:Differentiate between the common network topologies.

2. The almost universally accepted standard for exchanging medical images is known as:

a. NEMA b. ACR c. DICOM d. TCP/IP

ANS: C OBJ: Discuss the use of DICOM in medical imaging.

3. The first version of DICOM was completed in: a. 1975 b. 1985 c. 1995 d. 2005

ANS: B OBJ:Discuss the use of DICOM in medical imaging.

4. Devices commonly referred to as roles include: a. DICOM b. SCU c. ACR d. MRI

ANS: B OBJ:Discuss the use of DICOM in medical imaging.

5. DICOM was considered better than previous exchange mechanisms for all but which one of the following?

a. It runs on top of TCP/IP b. It required strict image header contents c. It did not require a conformance system d. It embraced an open standard of development

ANS: C OBJ:Discuss the use of DICOM in medical imaging.

6. Which of the following is not one of the 20 parts of the DICOM standard?

a. Conformance b. Message exchange c. Data thesaurus d. Data structures

ANS: C OBJ:Discuss the use of DICOM in medical imaging.

7. The part of DICOM that ensures that modalities can communicate with existing image-viewing devices is:

a. conformance statement b. message exchange c. data dictionary d. data structures

ANS: A OBJ:Discuss the use of DICOM in medical imaging.

8. Lossy compression is used to:

a. increase image detail b. decrease compression values c. shrink file size d. reduce image degradation

ANS: C OBJ:Discuss the use of DICOM in medical imaging.

9. The standard that oversees most computerized clinical and administrative data is known as:

a. DICOM b. HL-7 c. RIS d. HIS

ANS: B OBJ:Define HL-7 and describe its use in medical imaging.

10. RIS is specific to:

a. the patient b. radiology c. the hospital d. patient billing

ANS: B OBJ:Define HL-7 and describe its use in medical imaging.

11. The system that holds a specific patient’s lab results, radiology reports, and physician notes is the:

a. RIS b. HIS c. electronic medical record (EMR) d. picture archival and communication system (PACS)

ANS: C OBJ:Define HL-7 and describe its use in medical imaging.

12. The system that contains patient information, billing records, and inpatient orders is the:

a. RIS b. HIS c. EMR d. PACS

ANS: B OBJ:Define HL-7 and describe its use in medical imaging.

13. Film and intensifying screens are primarily used in:

a. computed radiography (CR) b. digital radiography (DR) c. conventional radiography d. picture archival and communication systems

ANS: C OBJ:Explain latent image formation for conventional radiography.

14. Intensifying screens:

a. absorb light b. emit light c. absorb scatter d. emit positive electrons

ANS: B OBJ:Explain latent image formation for conventional radiography.

15. Which modality was the first to use the principle of digital imaging?

a. Computed tomography (CT) b. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) c. Ultrasonography d. Cardiac catheterization

ANS: A OBJ:Define the term digital imaging.

16. Who was the first to incorporate digital imaging with the CT scanner?

a. Paul Lauterbur b. Godfrey Hounsfield c. Sol Nudelman d. M. Paul Capp

ANS: B OBJ:Define the term digital imaging.

17. Teleradiology, moving images via telephone lines to and from remote locations, was first conceptualized by:

a. Paul Lauterbur b. M. Paul Capp c. Albert Jutras d. Sol Nudelman

ANS: C OBJ:Define digital imaging and communications in medicine.

18. The invention of CT is heralded as:

a. the advanced use of three-dimensional computation in medical imaging b. one of the greatest milestones in medical imaging c. the stepping stone for the development of MRI d. the first modality to use PACS

ANS: B OBJ:Define the term digital imaging.

19. Early reconstruction of raw CT data took a few a.

Minutes

b.

Hours

c.

Days

ANS: C Days OBJ:Define the term digital imaging.

20. The first commercial CT scanners could image the:

a. abdomen only b. head only c. head and abdomen d. total body

ANS: B OBJ:Define the term digital imaging.

to form a recognizable image.

21. In which decade was MRI first introduced?

a. 1950s b. 1960s c. 1970s d. 1980s

ANS: D OBJ:Define the term digital imaging.

22. Which two modalities could easily be converted to digital imaging properties?

a. CT and ultrasonography b. CT and MRI c. Ultrasonography and nuclear medicine d. Nuclear medicine and CT

ANS: C OBJ:Define the term digital imaging.

TRUE OR FALSE: 1. A Local Area Network (LAN) is typically used to connect devices within a single facility, such as a hospital or imaging center. ⊚ true ⊚ false ANS: True Feedback: A Local Area Network (LAN) is designed to connect devices within a limited geographical area, such as a single building or campus, enabling communication and resource sharing in environments like hospitals or imaging centers.

2. The Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) is not used in PACS systems for communication between devices. ⊚ true ⊚ false ANS: False Feedback: TCP/IP is the foundational protocol suite used for communication in PACS systems. It ensures reliable data transfer between devices over the network, enabling interoperability and efficient communication.

3. The speed of data transfer in a network is primarily determined by the bandwidth and the network's infrastructure. ⊚ true ⊚ false

ANS: True Feedback: The speed of data transfer in a network is influenced by the available bandwidth and the quality of the network infrastructure, such as the type of cables, switches, and routers used in the system.

4. Wireless networks are rarely used in PACS environments due to security and bandwidth limitations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

ANS: False Feedback: While wireless networks have traditionally faced security and bandwidth challenges, advancements in technology have made them increasingly reliable and secure for use in PACS environments, particularly in mobile and remote settings.

5. A server in a PACS network acts as a centralized storage location for medical images and patient data. ⊚ true ⊚ false ANS: True Feedback: In a PACS network, the server functions as a centralized storage hub, allowing medical images and patient data to be stored, managed, and accessed by authorized users across the network.

Chapter 09: Medical Image Management and Processing System, Medical Image Storage Devices, and Medical Image Communications Devices Carter: Digital radiography and PACS, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Early picture archival and communication systems were first developed: a. in Canada b. by the U.S. military c. by Albert Jutras d. by NASA

ANS: B OBJ:Explain what a PACS is and how it is used.

2. Teleradiography incorporated

to produce radiographic images.

a. satellite feeds b. Cable lines c. TI lines d. Telephone Lines

ANS: D OBJ:Explain what a PACS is and how it is used.

3. One of the early goals related to the development of PACS was to:

a. reduce costs related to overstaffing b. allow radiologists to read stat films from a hospital while at home c. provide a means to move battlefield images to an established hospital d. eliminate the need for chemical processing

ANS: C OBJ:Explain what a PACS is and how it is used.

4. CR acquires an image through:

a. conventional film/screen processing using a digital scanner b. the heating of a thermoluminescent device c. an electrically charged cassette d. the use of a storage phosphor plate

ANS: D OBJ:Describe the latent image formation process for PSP image capture.

5. Storage phosphor plates are similar to:

a. intensifying screens b. xeromammography cassettes c. flat panel detectors d. cardboard cassettes

ANS: A OBJ:Describe the latent image formation process for PSP image capture.

6. In a DR system, which of the following are needed to produce a radiographic image?

a. X-ray absorber and a CCD b. Intensifying screen and a TFT c. Storage phosphor plate and a CCD d. Storage phosphor plate and a TFT

ANS: A OBJ:Compare and contrast the latent image formation processes.

7. The two elements needed to convert light signals into an electrical signal while using indirect capture DR are TFT and: a. photodiodes b. photoconductors c. phototransistors d. photostators

ANS: A OBJ:Compare and contrast the latent image formation processes.

8. The x-ray absorber typically used in direct capture DR is a:

a. photodiode b. phototransistor c. photoconductor d. photoelectron

ANS: C OBJ:Compare and contrast the latent image formation processes.

9. Technologist efficiency ratings are generally the same when comparing conventional radiography with:

a. Digital Radiography (DR) b. Computed Radiography (CR) c. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) d. Ultrasound (US)

ANS: A OBJ:Compare and contrast the latent image formation processes.

10. Compared with a 90-second processing time found in conventional radiography, image acquisition with DR has now been reduced to: a. instantaneous acquisition b. 1–2 seconds c. 3–5 seconds d. 6–8 seconds

ANS: C OBJ:Compare and contrast the latent image formation processes.

11. The active element in a storage phosphor is: a. lithium b. glutaraldehyde c. europium d. barium fluorohalide

ANS: D OBJ:Compare and contrast the latent image formation processes.

12. In reference to PSP image capture, to release the latent image, which of the following devices is scanned over the phosphor plate?

a. Photomultiplier tube b. Fluorescent light c. Focused laser light d. Lithium crystal

ANS: C OBJ:Describe the latent image formation for PSP image capture.

13. Which of the following best describes the sequence for PSP image capture?

a. Phosphor plate, focused laser light scanner, photomultiplier, digital-analog converter, review station b. Phosphor plate, focused laser light scanner, photodensitometer, digital-analog converter, review station c. Phosphor plate, focused laser light scanner, photodensitometer, analog-digital converter, review station d. Phosphor plate, focused laser light scanner, photomultiplier, analog-digital converter, review station

ANS: D OBJ:Compare and contrast the latent image formation processes.

14. X-ray energy related to direct capture DR will stimulate a scintillator, which eventually is changed into an electrical signal.

a. photodensitometer b. scintillator c. TFT array d. charge-coupled device

ANS: B OBJ:Compare and contrast the latent image formation processes.

15. The photoconductor converts x-ray energy directly to a digital electrical signal.

a. photoconductor b. photomultiplier c. scintillator d. TLD

ANS: A OBJ:Compare and contrast the latent image formation processes.

16. Exposure latitude is to conventional radiography as dynamic range is to DR.

a. characteristic response b. linear manner c. subject contrast d. dynamic range

ANS: D

OBJ:Compare and contrast the latent image formation processes.

17. A look-up table maps:

a. latent images b. subject contrasts c. image grayscale values d. optical density

ANS: C OBJ:Compare and contrast the latent image formation processes.

18. With conventional radiography, optical density is primarily controlled by:

a. kilovoltage b. milliamperage c. line voltage d. milliampere-seconds

ANS: D OBJ:Compare and contrast the latent image formation processes.

19. Preset image annotation controls include all of the following except:

a. arrows b. position indicators c. date and time stamps d. image acquisition markers

ANS: C OBJ:Explain what a PACS is and how it is used.

20. The first full-scale PACS was installed in 1993 in:

a. Boston b. Philadelphia c. New York d. Baltimore

ANS: D OBJ:Explain what a PACS is and how it is used.

21. All of the following are components of a PACS except independent kilovoltage peak and milliampere-second stations.

a. web access b. multiple interfaces c. reading stations

ANS: A OBJ:Explain what a PACS is and how it is used.

TRUE/FALSE

1. Light exposing the film is in direct proportion to the amount and energy of the incident photon upon the screen.

ANS: True OBJ: Explain latent image formation for conventional radiography.

2. The earliest CT of the head took several hours to acquire a single slice of information.

ANS: True OBJ: Define the term digital imaging.

3. When switching from a conventional diagnostic radiography to CR, major equipment changes are to be expected.

ANS: False OBJ:Describe the latent image formation process for PSP image capture.

4. Similar to CR, DR can use the existing diagnostic equipment found in today’s imaging departments.

ANS: False OBJ:Compare and contrast the latent image formation processes.

5. Indirect capture DR converts absorbed x-ray energy into visible light.

ANS: True OBJ:Compare and contrast the latent image formation processes.

6. A Bucky apparatus is required for DR. ANS: False OBJ:Compare and contrast the latent image formation processes.

7. Many PACS reading stations also have image-processing capabilities.

ANS: True OBJ:Explain what a PACS is and how it is used.

8. DICOM is a standard that allows imaging modalities and PACS to communicate in the same language.

ANS: True OBJ: Explain what a PACS is and how it is used.

Chapter 10: Medical Image Storage Device and Peripherals Carter: Digital radiography and PACS, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following is a primary purpose of PACS in a radiology department? a. Film development and printing b. Image acquisition, storage, and retrieval c. Enhancing resolution of radiographic images d. Performing patient diagnoses directly

ANS: B Feedback: The Picture Archiving and Communication System (PACS) centralizes image acquisition, storage, and retrieval, reducing reliance on physical film. It integrates with modalities, allowing radiologists to access and share images efficiently for diagnostics and treatment planning.

OBJ: Explain the purpose and components of PACS.

2. What type of memory is most suitable for long-term storage of radiographic images? a. Random Access Memory (RAM) b. Solid-State Drives (SSD) c. Digital Versatile Discs (DVD) d. Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID)

ANS: D Feedback: RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) systems provide fault tolerance and redundancy, ensuring that even if one disk fails, the stored data remains accessible. It is ideal for long-term storage in PACS, as it handles large volumes of data securely and reliably.

OBJ: Identify and describe storage solutions for digital images.

3. Which peripheral device is essential for converting analog images into digital format? a. Flat-panel detector b. Image scanner c. Digital processor d. X-ray tube

ANS: B Feedback: An image scanner converts analog films into digital images, making them compatible with PACS. This process is essential for transitioning from traditional film-based radiography to a digital workflow.

OBJ: Outline devices used in image digitization.

4. In a PACS setup, which storage technology provides fast access for frequent image retrieval? a. Offline tape storage b. Cloud-based storage c. Network Attached Storage (NAS) d. Optical storage

ANS: C Feedback: NAS (Network Attached Storage) provides high-speed, scalable storage connected to a network, enabling rapid and frequent retrieval of radiographic images. This makes it suitable for online storage in PACS environments.

OBJ: Differentiate between storage types in PACS.

5. What does the acronym "DICOM" stand for? a. Digital Imaging and Communication in Medicine b. Digital Image Control and Optimization Methods c. Data Interchange and Coordination for Medicine d. Diagnostic Imaging Code of Medicine

ANS: A Feedback: DICOM (Digital Imaging and Communication in Medicine) is the international standard for managing, storing, and sharing medical imaging data across devices and systems, ensuring interoperability in healthcare environments.

OBJ: Define the standards used for medical imaging.

6. Which of the following devices is used for high-resolution diagnostic displays in radiology? a. Standard LCD monitor b. LED monitor c. Diagnostic workstation monitor d. Television screen

ANS: C Feedback: Diagnostic workstation monitors are specifically designed with high resolution, contrast ratios, and luminance levels to meet radiology standards, ensuring accurate interpretation of medical images.

OBJ: Discuss the requirements of diagnostic displays.

7. What is a significant advantage of SSDs in a PACS environment compared to traditional hard drives? a. Lower cost b. Greater durability and speed

c. Higher storage capacity d. Improved backward compatibility

ANS: B Feedback: SSDs (Solid-State Drives) are faster, more reliable, and energy-efficient than traditional hard drives. They have no moving parts, reducing the risk of mechanical failure and making them suitable for PACS environments where performance is critical.

OBJ: Compare storage technologies for PACS.

8. Which image compression method is most suitable for maintaining diagnostic image quality? a. Lossy compression b. Lossless compression c. Hybrid compression d. Adaptive compression

ANS: B Feedback: Lossless compression reduces file size without losing image data, preserving diagnostic quality. This is essential in medical imaging, where even small details can affect diagnosis and treatment.

OBJ: Evaluate image compression techniques in PACS.

9. What is the function of an X-ray absorber in a DR system? a. Converts X-ray photons into visible light b. Converts X-ray photons directly into an electric charge c. Enhances the resolution of X-ray images d. Stores the latent image for digital conversion

ANS: B Feedback: In DR systems, X-ray absorbers directly convert X-ray photons into electrical signals, bypassing intermediate steps like intensifying screens, resulting in faster image processing and higher efficiency.

OBJ: Compare DR and CR systems in radiography.

10. Which of the following peripherals is crucial for high-speed network communication in PACS? a. Ethernet switch b. Optical disk drive c. Printer d. Backup power supply

ANS: A Feedback: An Ethernet switch connects PACS components, enabling high-speed communication between imaging modalities, workstations, and storage devices. This ensures seamless data transfer within the network.

OBJ: Identify network components in a PACS environment.

11. Which type of RAID configuration is ideal for balancing performance and redundancy? a. RAID 0 b. RAID 1 c. RAID 5 d. RAID 10

ANS: C Feedback: RAID 5 distributes parity across multiple drives, offering both fault tolerance and improved performance. This makes it a cost-effective choice for PACS, balancing speed with data protection.

OBJ: Explain RAID configurations used in PACS.

12. In PACS, what does the storage hierarchy typically include? a. Online, offline, nearline storage b. Online, offline, static storage c. Local, cloud-based, encrypted storage d. Primary, secondary, and tertiary storage

ANS: A Feedback: PACS organizes storage into online (immediate access), nearline (accessible with some delay), and offline (archival) tiers. This hierarchy optimizes performance and cost-effectiveness for managing large datasets.

OBJ: Describe the storage hierarchy in PACS.

13. Which hardware component manages the flow of images between PACS and modalities? a. Archive server b. Image manager c. Interface gateway d. Network router

ANS: C Feedback: Interface gateways act as intermediaries between imaging modalities and PACS, translating data formats and ensuring compatibility for seamless communication and data integration.

OBJ: Explain the role of interface devices in PACS.

14. What is the main purpose of a diagnostic display calibration tool?

a. Adjust brightness and contrast automatically b. Maintain consistent image quality across monitors c. Enhance resolution during imaging d. Convert images to grayscale

ANS: B Feedback: Calibration tools ensure consistent display performance and accurate image interpretation.

OBJ: Explain the importance of monitor calibration.

15. Which PACS component handles long-term image storage? a. Acquisition workstation b. Archive server c. Imaging modality d. Diagnostic monitor

ANS: B Feedback: Archive servers are used for long-term storage of medical images in PACS. OBJ: Discuss the components of PACS.

16. What does the PACS workflow begin with? a. Image storage b. Image acquisition c. Image compression d. Image distribution

ANS: B Feedback: Image acquisition is the initial step in the PACS workflow.

OBJ: Outline the PACS workflow process.

17. Which storage medium offers the highest durability for offline backup? a. Magnetic tape b. Optical disc c. External hard drive d. USB flash drive

ANS: A Feedback: Magnetic tape is highly durable and cost-effective for long-term offline storage.

OBJ: Evaluate offline storage media for PACS.

18. In a DR system, which of the following are needed to produce a radiographic image? a. X-ray absorber and a CCD b. Intensifying screen and a TFT c. Storage phosphor plate and a CCD d. Storage phosphor plate and a TFT

ANS: A Feedback: A DR system requires an X-ray absorber and a CCD for image formation.

OBJ: Compare and contrast the latent image formation processes.

19. Which of the following technologies is used for remote image access in PACS? a. Web-based PACS viewer b. Direct USB image transfer c. Manual film distribution d. Standalone hard drive access

ANS: A Feedback: Web-based PACS viewers allow secure remote access to images.

OBJ: Discuss the role of remote access in PACS.

20. How does a flat-panel detector contribute to digital radiography? a. By intensifying X-rays b. By storing latent images c. By directly capturing digital images d. By compressing images

ANS: C Feedback: Flat-panel detectors capture digital images directly in digital radiography systems.

OBJ: Explain the function of flat-panel detectors.

21. What is a key advantage of cloud-based PACS storage? a. Requires no data security measures b. Offers unlimited storage capacity c. Enables scalable storage with remote access d. Provides faster processing speeds

ANS: C Feedback: Cloud-based PACS storage is scalable and supports remote access for collaborative

workflows.

OBJ: Evaluate cloud-based storage solutions for PACS.

22. What is the function of a redundancy system in PACS storage? a. To prevent unauthorized access b. To improve image resolution c. To ensure data availability in case of hardware failure d. To enable faster data transfer

ANS: C Feedback: Redundancy systems ensure uninterrupted access to stored data, even during hardware failures.

OBJ: Explain the importance of redundancy in PACS.

TRUE OR FALSE: 1. RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) systems are commonly used in PACS to provide reliable and redundant medical image storage. ⊚

true

⊚

false

ANS: True Feedback: RAID systems are essential in PACS for storing large volumes of medical images with redundancy and fault tolerance, ensuring data reliability and quick retrieval.

2. Medical image storage devices in PACS are designed to retain data only for short-term use, with no options for long-term archiving. ⊚

true

⊚

false

ANS: False Feedback: PACS storage solutions often include both short-term (online) and long-term (archive) storage capabilities to meet regulatory requirements and ensure accessibility over time.

3. Optical disks, such as CDs and DVDs, are the primary storage medium for PACS systems in modern healthcare facilities. ⊚

true

⊚

false

ANS: False Feedback: While optical disks were once commonly used, modern PACS systems rely on faster and more reliable storage solutions such as RAID arrays and cloud-based storage to handle the high data volume and access speed requirements.

4. A DICOM-compatible printer is considered a peripheral device in a PACS environment. ⊚

true

⊚

false

ANS: True Feedback: DICOM-compatible printers are peripheral devices in PACS that allow hardcopy outputs of medical images, ensuring compatibility with other devices in the system.

5. Cloud-based storage is becoming increasingly popular in PACS for medical image archiving and sharing. ⊚

true

⊚

false

ANS: True Feedback: Cloud-based storage offers scalability, remote access, and cost-effectiveness, making it an attractive option for PACS systems in modern healthcare settings.

Chapter 11: Medical Informatics Carter: Digital radiography and PACS, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the primary goal of medical informatics? a. To manage financial records b. To enhance clinical decision-making c. To improve patient communication d. To analyze hospital revenue ANS: B Feedback: Medical informatics integrates technology with healthcare to improve clinical decisionmaking through efficient management and analysis of patient data, fostering better patient outcomes.

2. Which of the following is a key component of electronic health records (EHRs)? a. Data encryption for security b. Integrated gaming systems c. Financial auditing tools d. Marketing campaigns ANS: A Feedback: EHRs prioritize data security and confidentiality through encryption, ensuring patient information is protected from unauthorized access.

3. What is the function of a Clinical Decision Support System (CDSS)? a. Scheduling patient appointments b. Providing evidence-based recommendations c. Managing hospital budgets d. Tracking hospital inventory ANS: B Feedback: CDSS uses data analysis and algorithms to provide clinicians with evidence-based recommendations, enhancing diagnostic and treatment accuracy.

4. Which type of medical informatics focuses on population health? a. Consumer health informatics b. Public health informatics c. Clinical informatics d. Research informatics ANS: B Feedback: Public health informatics addresses data collection and analysis to improve population health outcomes and monitor public health trends.

5. Which database language is commonly used in medical informatics? a. Python b. SQL c. HTML d. CSS ANS: B Feedback: SQL (Structured Query Language) is widely used to query, manage, and analyze healthcare databases, enabling efficient data retrieval and storage.

6. What does HIPAA stand for? a. Health Information Privacy and Accountability Act b. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act c. Health Information Policy and Access Act d. Health Insurance Protection and Analysis Act ANS: B Feedback: HIPAA ensures the privacy and security of patient data while allowing appropriate access to healthcare information for treatment and operations.

7. What is interoperability in medical informatics? a. The ability of systems to process data simultaneously b. The seamless exchange of data between systems c. The compatibility of hardware devices d. The speed of internet connectivity ANS: B Feedback: Interoperability allows different healthcare systems to exchange and interpret data seamlessly, ensuring continuity of care and improved patient outcomes.

8. Which technology enables secure remote access to EHRs? a. Blockchain b. Virtual Private Network (VPN) c. Artificial intelligence (AI) d. Cloud computing ANS: B Feedback: VPNs create secure connections over the internet, enabling authorized users to access sensitive EHR data remotely without compromising security.

9. What is the primary advantage of cloud-based storage in medical informatics? a. Higher computational speed b. Enhanced scalability and remote access c. Better image resolution d. Cost reduction in physical servers ANS: B Feedback: Cloud-based solutions allow healthcare providers to scale storage and access data remotely, promoting collaboration and flexibility in managing medical records.

10. Which standard is essential for data exchange in medical informatics? a. JPEG b. HL7 c. MIDI d. FTP ANS: B Feedback: HL7 (Health Level Seven) is a set of international standards for transferring clinical and administrative data between healthcare systems.

11. Which of the following supports personalized medicine? a. Genomic data integration b. Financial analysis software c. Appointment scheduling tools d. Revenue cycle management

ANS: A Feedback: Integrating genomic data into medical informatics helps customize treatment plans based on individual patient genetics, advancing personalized medicine.

12. What is the role of an EMR system? a. Financial reporting b. Storing and accessing patient data c. Conducting medical research d. Enhancing hospital marketing ANS: B Feedback: Electronic Medical Records (EMRs) are used for securely storing and accessing patient data, ensuring accurate and efficient clinical workflows.

13. Which informatics technology aids in diagnosing diseases? a. Image compression software b. Clinical Decision Support Systems (CDSS) c. Secure email services d. Patient appointment apps ANS: B Feedback: CDSS provides real-time, data-driven suggestions to clinicians, improving diagnostic precision and patient care.

14. What is telemedicine? a. Remote diagnosis and treatment of patients via technology b. Using robots for surgeries c. Conducting medical conferences online d. Managing hospital equipment remotely ANS: A Feedback: Telemedicine allows healthcare professionals to diagnose, treat, and consult patients remotely, enhancing accessibility and convenience.

15. Which of the following technologies supports medical imaging analysis? a. Blockchain b. Artificial intelligence (AI) c. Voice recognition d. Virtual reality ANS: B Feedback: AI algorithms are used to analyze medical images, identifying abnormalities and assisting radiologists in accurate diagnoses.

16. Why is data encryption critical in medical informatics? a. To prevent data compression b. To ensure data confidentiality and security c. To allow interoperability d. To enhance image quality ANS: B Feedback: Encryption ensures sensitive healthcare data is protected from unauthorized access, maintaining confidentiality and compliance with regulations.

17. What is a major challenge of EHR adoption? a. Increased patient satisfaction b. Initial implementation costs and training c. Compatibility with imaging systems d. Lack of government support ANS: B Feedback: Implementing EHRs requires significant investment in software, hardware, and training, which can pose a challenge for healthcare facilities.

18. Which of the following enables real-time patient monitoring? a. Wearable devices b. EHR systems c. Blockchain d. SQL databases ANS: A Feedback: Wearable devices track vital signs and transmit data to healthcare systems in real-time, aiding in continuous patient monitoring.

19. What does HIE stand for? a. Health Informatics Exchange b. Health Information Exchange c. Hospital Informatics Enterprise d. Health Information Encryption ANS: B Feedback: Health Information Exchange (HIE) facilitates the secure sharing of patient information between healthcare organizations to ensure coordinated care.

20. Which organization oversees healthcare data standards? a. FDA b. HL7 International c. ISO d. AMA ANS: B Feedback: HL7 International develops and maintains standards for healthcare information exchange, promoting system interoperability globally.

21. What is the primary benefit of big data in medical informatics? a. Reduced server costs b. Improved clinical insights and research c. Enhanced image compression d. Reduced hardware dependency ANS: B Feedback: Big data enables the analysis of large datasets to uncover patterns, improve diagnostics, and advance research in healthcare.

22. Which technology enhances cybersecurity in medical informatics? a. AI-powered threat detection b. Virtual desktop interfaces c. Data compression tools d. High-resolution monitors ANS: A Feedback: AI-driven threat detection identifies vulnerabilities and malicious activity in healthcare systems, ensuring robust cybersecurity.

TRUE OR FALSE: 1. Medical informatics integrates healthcare, computer science, and information technology to improve patient care. ⊚

true

⊚

false

ANS: True Feedback: Medical informatics focuses on using technology and information systems to enhance healthcare delivery, improve patient outcomes, and streamline clinical workflows.

2. Health Level Seven (HL7) standards are not relevant to medical informatics and PACS systems. ⊚

true

⊚

false

ANS: False Feedback: HL7 standards are critical in medical informatics, enabling interoperability between healthcare systems, including PACS, by standardizing the exchange of clinical and administrative data.

3. Electronic Health Records (EHRs) are an essential component of medical informatics, ensuring centralized access to patient data. ⊚

true

⊚

false

ANS: True Feedback: EHRs are central to medical informatics, providing a digital platform for storing, sharing, and managing patient health information, which supports coordinated care and decisionmaking.

4. Decision support systems in medical informatics provide real-time recommendations based on patient data and evidence-based guidelines. ⊚

true

⊚

false

ANS: True Feedback: Decision support systems analyze patient data and provide evidence-based recommendations to assist healthcare providers in making informed decisions, enhancing patient safety and care quality.

5. The primary goal of medical informatics is to replace healthcare professionals with automated systems. ⊚

true

⊚

false

ANS: False Feedback: Medical informatics aims to support, not replace, healthcare professionals by improving data access, clinical workflows, and decision-making through technology integration.

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