Test Bank for Behavioral Neuroscience 8th Edition by Marc Breedlove & Neil Watson - Complete

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TEST BANK

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TEST BANK

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COMPLETE Elaborated Test Bank for

Behavioral Neuroscience 8th Edition S. Marc Breedlove Neil V. Watson 2023

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Behavioral Neuroscience 8th Edition by S. Marc Breedlove & Neil V. Watson

ISBN-10 1605356425 ISBN-13 978-1605356426

Test bank for Behavioral Neuroscience 8th Edition by S. Marc Breedlove & Neil V. Watson

ISBN-10 1605356425 ISBN-13 978-1605356426

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TABLE OF CONTENTS Chapter 1 Behavioral Neuroscience: Scope and Outlook PART I Biological Foundations of Behavior Chapter 2 Functional Neuroanatomy: The Nervous System and Behavior Chapter 3 Neurophysiology: The Generation, Transmission, and Integration of Neural Signals Chapter 4 The Chemistry of Behavior: Neurotransmitters and Neuropharmacology Chapter 5 Hormones and the Brain

PART II Evolution and Development of the Nervous System Chapter 6 Evolution of the Brain and Behavior Chapter 7 Life-Span Development of the Brain and Behavior

PART III Perception and Action Chapter 8 General Principles of Sensory Processing, Touch, and Pain Chapter 9 Hearing, Vestibular Perception, Taste, and Smell Chapter 10 Vision: From Eye to Brain Chapter 11 Motor Control and Plasticity

PART IV Regulation and Behavior Chapter 12 Sex: Evolutionary, Hormonal, and Neural Bases Chapter 13 Homeostasis: Active Regulation of the Internal Environment Chapter 14 Biological Rhythms, Sleep, and Dreaming

PART V Emotions and Mental Disorders Chapter 15 Emotions, Aggression, and Stress Chapter 16 Psychopathology: Biological Basis of Behavioral Disorders

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PART VI Cognitive Neuroscience Chapter 17 Learning and Memory Chapter 18 Attention and Higher Cognition Chapter 19 Language and Lateralization

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Chapter 1 – What are the origins of Brain and Behaviour?

1. Brain abnormalities can be related to: A) 500 disorders.

B) 1000 disorders.

C) 1500 disorders.

D) more ithan i2,000 idisorders.

2. All the nerve processes radiating out beyond the brain and spinal cord as well as all the neurons outside the brain and spinal cord constitute the: A) nervous system.

B) central nervous system.

C) peripheral inervous isystem.

D) external nervous system.

3. Which is NOT part of the peripheral nervous system?

A) sensory receptors in the skin B) connections to motor neurons C) sensory and motor connections to internal organs (e.g., the stomach) D) the ispinal icord

4. The set of brain structures responsible for most of our unconscious behaviors is called: A) the cerebral hemisphere.

B) the ibrainstem.

C) the cerebrum.

D) the cerebellum.

5. The postulation that we make subliminal movements of our larynx and muscles when we imagine was expounded by: A) D. O. Hebb.

B) Edmond iJacobson.

C) Irenäus Eibl-Eibesfeldt.

D) Fred Linge.

6. “Behavior consists of patterns in time” is a definition of behavior expounded by: A) D. O. Hebb.

B) Edmond Jacobson.

C) Irenäus iEibl-Eibesfeldt.

D) Fred Linge.

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7. Patterns in time can be made up of: A) movements.

B) thinking.

C) both imovements iand ithinking.

D) neither movements nor thinking.

8. Animals with smaller brains and simpler nervous systems have mostly behaviors, whereas animals with larger brains and more complex nervous systems have mostly behaviors.

A) learned; inherited B) inherited; ilearned C) innate; inherited D) learned; innate

9. Crossbill birds have a beak that is designed to eat pine cones. If we trim the beak, the behavior disappears. This example illustrates: A) fixed ibehavior.

B) flexible behavior.

C) learned behavior.

D) adaptive behavior.

10. The sucking response observed in newborn human infants is an example of a(n): A) learned response.

B) inherited iresponse.

C) flexible response.

D) adaptive response

11. Which statement is the MOST accurate?

A) Nonhuman animals have mostly inherited behavior and are little influenced by learning.

B) Humans ishare imany iinherited ibehaviors ibut iare imostly iinfluenced iby ilearning.

C) Unlike nonhuman animals, humans share very few inherited behaviors and are mostly influenced by learning.

D) Unlike nonhuman animals, humans' behavior is totally learned.

12. The hypothesis that the psyche is responsible for behavior was expounded by: A) Charles Darwin.

B) René Descartes.

C) Aristotle.

D) Socrates.

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13. Mentalism is: A) the study of the mind.

B) mental imagery.

C) the inotion ithat ithe imind iis iresponsible ifor ibehavior.

D) another word for mindfulness.

14. The is a nonmaterial entity that is responsible for intelligence, attention, awareness, and consciousness.

A) brain B) heart C) mind D) conscience

15. The notion that the mind resides in the pineal body comes from: A) Charles Darwin.

B) René iDescartes.

C) Aristotle.

D) Socrates.

16. According to the philosophy of dualism: A) the body influences the mind.

B) the pineal body is the mind.

C) the ipineal ibody iinfluence ithe ibody iby idirecting iflui ifrom ithe iventricle ito ithe im cle .

D) the pineal body is the mind and influences the body by directing fluids from the ventricles to the muscles.

17. Subsequent research indicated that the pineal body was responsible for controlling human behavior.

A) vision B) problem solving C) movement D) biological irhythms

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rather than

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18. The difficulty in explaining how a nonmaterial mind can influence a material body is called: A) the mind problem.

B) the imind-body iproblem.

C) the brain problem.

D) the psyche problem

19. Descartes's followers would argue that: A) the mind and the body are separate at birth.

B) humans and very few other animals have minds.

C) young ichildren ido inot ihave iminds.

D) the mentally ill have minds.

20. The notion that all behavior can be explained by the workings of the brain is commonly referred to as: A) psychology.

B) experimentalism.

C) materialism.

D) dualism.

21. The notion that all living things are related was put forward by: A) Charles Darwin.

B) Alfred Russel Wallace.

C) neither Charles Darwin nor Alfred Russel Wallace.

D) both iCharles iDarwin iand iAlfred iRussel iWallace.

22. The notion that differential success in the reproduction of characteristics results from interactions between organisms and their environment is known as: A) natural iselection.

B) genetic theory.

C) biological theory.

D) innate behavior.

23. Images of blood flow in the brain in monkeys have demonstrated that: A) humans and monkeys use different brain areas for language.

B) humans iand imonkeys iuse ithe isame ibrain iareas ifor ilanguage.

C) monkeys show no brain activation for language because they cannot understand language.

D) None of the answers is correct.

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24. Individual variation in plants and animals was first explained by: A) Charles Darwin.

B) Gregor iMendel i.

C) neither Charles Darwin nor Gregor Mendel.

D) both Charles Darwin and Gregor Mendel.

25. The study of how genetic expression is related to the environment and experience is known as: A) genotyping.

B) phenotyping.

C) epigenetics.

D) environmental genetics.

26. Neuroscientists study the nervous systems of other animals such as slugs, snails, fruit flies, rats and monkeys because: iare irelated ithen iall inervous i tem iare irelated iand i ican ilearn iabout A) ithe ihuman ibrain iby i tudying iother ianimal .

B) all animals' nervous systems are different, which means that we need to study each animal separately in order to understand how their specific nervous system works.

C) the mind and the body are separate which means that we need to study a variety of different animals to see how their minds work.

D) None of the answers is correct.

27. Inherited behavior: A) is demonstrated only by animal instincts.

B) includes iemotional iexpressions iin ihumans.

C) cannot include emotional expressions in humans because the behavior is learned.

D) includes emotional expression in animals but not in humans.

28. Of the 100,000 people in the United States who may become comatose in a given year, how many recover consciousness?

A) 5 percent B) 20 ipercent C) 30 percent D) 50 percent

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29. A person who can display some rudimentary behaviors such as smiling or blinking but is otherwise not conscious is described as being: A) in a coma.

B) in a persistent vegetative state.

C) in ia iminimally iconscious istate.

D) brain dead.

30. In a study with a patient in a minimally conscious state, Schiff and colleagues found that led to dramatic improvements in the patient's behavior.

A) deep ibrain istimulation B) reading to the patient C) music therapy D) gene therapy

31. The first humanlike brain evolved: A) 700 million years ago.

B) 250 million years ago.

C) 6 imillion iyears iago.

D) 100,000 to 200,000 years ago.

32. The first brain evolved approximately: A) 100,000 to 200,000 years ago.

B) 3 million to 4 million years ago.

C) 250 imillion iyears iago.

D) 700 million years ago.

33. Humans are of the order A) mammals; primates B) primates; mammals C) primates; igreat iapes D) great apes; primates

and the family

34. Which sequences is correct?

A) phylum, order, class, family, genus, species B) phylum, iclass, iorder, ifamily, igenus, ispecies C) phylum, class, family, order, genus, species D) phylum, family, class, order, genus, species

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35. The branch of biology that is concerned with naming and classifying species is: A) genetics.

B) embryology.

C) taxonomy.

D) evolutionary biology.

36. Humans, monkeys, Neanderthals, and chimpanzees—all belong to the same: A) species.

B) genus.

C) family.

D) order.

37. Humans, tigers, dogs, and monkeys are all part of the same: A) species.

B) class.

C) genus.

D) family.

38. Insects have: A) only nerve nets.

B) only a few ganglia.

C) enough iganglia ito ibe icalled ia ibrain.

D) the same brain organization as a chordate.

39. The correct order of organisms from the least complex to the most complex nervous system is: A) flatworm, frog, squid, sea anemone.

B) sea anemone, frog, flatworm, squid.

C) sea ianemone, iflatworm, isquid, ifrog.

D) frog, sea anemone, squid, flatworm.

40. Animals with both a brain and a spinal cord are called: A) mammals.

B) eukaryotic.

C) primates.

D) chordates.

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41.

Humans are unique in that they have the: A) largest brain of any animal species.

B) most complex spinal cord of any animal species.

C) largest ibrain ito ibody isize iratio iof iany iliving ianimal.

D) most advanced nervous system of any living animal.

42. More advanced nervous systems often have similar structures on the left and right sides (e.g., the left and right hemispheres of the brain). This concept is known as: A) mirroring.

B) bilateral isymmetry.

C) bilateral structures.

D) mirror symmetry.

43. A notochord is a: A) spinal cord and a brain.

B) longitudinal iflexible irod iin ithe iback.

C) segmented spine.

D) segmented spine and spinal cord.

44. Chordates are any organisms that have: A) a brain.

B) a spinal cord.

C) a peripheral nervous system.

D) a ibrain iand ia ispinal icord.

45. The correct order of the evolution of nervous systems from simple to complex is: A) nerve inet, isegmentation, iganglia, ispinal icord, ibrain.

B) spinal cord, nerve net, brain, ganglia, segmentation.

C) brain, spinal cord, nerve net, segmentation, ganglia.

D) ganglia, nerve net, segmentation, brain, spinal cord.

46. Other than humans, which chordate has the largest forebrain?

A) reptiles B) amphibians C) birds D) bony fish

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47. Increased brain size and increased folding are most prominent in which chordate species?

A) dolphins B) primates C) neither primates nor dolphins D) both iprimates iand idolphins

48. The primate order contains approximately: A) 275 ispecies.

B) 375 species.

C) 475 species.

D) 575 species.

49. Humans and chimpanzees shared a common ancestor approximately: A) 2–4 million years ago.

B) 3–6 million years ago.

C) 5–10 imillion iyears iago.

D) 10-15 million years ago.

50. Humans are most closely related to: A) gibbons.

B) orangutans.

C) chimpanzees.

D) gorillas.

51. The first primate to walk upright similar to humans was: A) Homo erectus.

B) Homo habilis.

C) Neanderthals.

D) Australopithecus.

52. The correct order of these early hominids from smallest to largest brain size is: A) Homo erectus, Homo habilis, Homo neanderthalensis.

B) Homo ihabilis, iHomo ierectus, iHomo ineanderthalensis.

C) Homo neanderthalensis, Homo habilis, Homo erectus.

D) Homo habilis, Homo neanderthalensis, Homo erectus.

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53. The oldest fossils that have been identified as human are approximately: A) 5 million years old.

B) 200,000 years old.

C) 2 imillion iyears iold.

D) 1 million years old.

54. Which of our human ancestors had the largest brain size?

A) Australopithecus B) Neanderthals C) Homo habilis D) Homo erectus

55. Tools are associated with: A) Homo habilis.

B) Homo erectus.

C) Homo sapiens.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

56. Modern humans appeared approximately: A) 50,000 years ago.

B) 200,000 iyears iago.

C) 100,000 years ago.

D) 1 million years ago.

57. Homo sapiens coexisted with: A) Homo erectus.

B) Homo habilis.

C) Neanderthals.

D) Australopithecus.

58. Which sequences is correct?

A) Homo ihabilis, i Homo ierectus, iHomo isapiens B) Homo erectus, Homo habilis, Homo sapiens C) Homo habilis, Homo sapiens, Homo erectus D) Homo erectus, Homo sapiens, Homo habilis

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59. Modern Europeans may have acquired genes that helped them adapt to the cold and absorb more vitamin D through interbreeding with: A) Homo habilis.

B) Homo erectus.

C) Neanderthals.

D) Australopithecus.

60. The idea that species exhibiting more complex behaviors will possess relatively larger brains is summed up by: A) the iprinciple iof iproper imass.

B) encephalization quotient.

C) the principle of mass action.

D) relativization.

61. The encephalization quotient is determined by: A) measuring the size of an animal's brain.

B) measuring the weight of an animal's brain.

C) relating iactual ibrain isize ito iexpected ibrain isize.

D) comparing the brain size of different species with one another.

62. Which living animal has an encephalization quotient that is closest to modern humans?

A) Chimpanzee B) Elephant C) Blue whale D) Dolphin

63. Which has the largest encephalization quotient?

A) Monkey B) Chimpanzee C) Homo habilis D) Dolphin

64. The human cerebellum contains about A) half B) one third C) four itimes D) twice

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65. Although the elephant brain contains many more neurons than the human brain, most of these additional neurons are located in the elephant's: A) cerebellum.

B) cerebrum.

C) spinal cord.

D) brain stem.

66. Climate change may have placed pressure on apes to adapt to their environment.

Specifically, apes that lived in climates may have begun to walk upright.

A) drier B) wetter C) colder D) coastal

67. Dunbar proposed that group sizes of in primates.

A) about 50 B) about 100 C) about i150 D) more than 200

tend to be correlated with increased brain size

68. Vegetation eaters have: A) larger brains than fruit eaters.

B) smaller ibrains ithan ifruit ieaters.

C) greater social skills than fruit eaters.

D) larger brains and greater social skills than fruit eaters.

69. Eating fruit favors a larger brain because it: A) requires good sensory skills.

B) requires good motor skills.

C) requires good memory skills.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

70. Fruit-eating primates: A) have a smaller brain than vegetation eaters.

B) eat more glucose and thus have a larger brain than vegetation eaters.

C) forage imore ithan ivegetation ieaters iand ithus ihave ia ilarger ibrain.

D) None of the answers is correct.

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71. Howler monkeys have smaller brains than equally sized spider monkeys. This is thought to stem from the fact that: A) howler monkeys eat more fruit than spider monkeys.

B) howler imonkeys ieat iless ifruit ithan ispider imonkeys.

C) howler monkeys eat less meat than spider monkeys.

D) howler monkeys live in larger social groups than spider monkeys.

72. You have discovered a new breed of monkey in the jungles of South America. The diet of these monkeys appears to consist mainly of fruit. Based on what you know about evolution and other fruit-eating monkeys, which statement is likely to apply to this newly discovered breed of monkey?

A) They will have color vision.

B) They will have relatively larger brains (with respect to body size).

C) They will have larger social groups.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

73. How much of the body's resources does the brain use?

A) 20 ipercent B) 50 percent C) 10 percent D) 80 percent

74. Humans are classed as: A) fruit ieaters.

B) vegetation eaters.

C) both fruit and vegetation eaters.

D) a separate category from vegetation and fruit eaters.

75.

A) B) C) D)

allowed humans to maximize caloric gain and spend less time foraging.

Living in larger social groups Cooking ifood Eating vegetation All of the answers are correct.

76. The radiator hypothesis is a theory relating to: A) cooling iof ithe ibrain iby iblood iflow.

B) cooling of the brain by cerebral spinal fluid.

C) cooling of the brain by blood flow and cerebral spinal fluid.

D) None of the answers is correct.

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77. Compared with Australopithecus skulls, human skulls contain holes through which blood vessels could pass. This would have led to: A) better brain cooling.

B) increased brain size.

C) changes in diet.

D) both ibetter ibrain icooling iand iincreased ibrain isize.

78. Stedman and colleagues argue that size reductions in facial muscles and facial bones in early hominids may have led to: A) changes iin idiet.

B) changes in mating patterns.

C) changes in hunting strategies.

D) None of the answers is correct.

79. Our small face, vaulted cranium, upright mobility, and distribution of hair are features that link us with juvenile chimps. This illustrates: A) natural selection.

B) neoteny.

C) selective dominant traits.

D) selective environmental influences.

80. One of the benefits of neoteny is that it allows: A) time ifor imore ibrain icells ito ibe iproduced.

B) greater genetic diversity.

C) greater variety in diet.

D) None of the answers is correct.

81. Brain size is correlated with: A) plasticity.

B) body size.

C) nutrition.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

82. If one person has a brain weighing 1000 grams and another has a brain weighing 1500 grams, the difference most likely reflects: A) a major difference in intelligence.

B) water content.

C) body isize.

D) both water content and body size.

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83. A behavior that is typical of all members of a species is called: A) instinct.

B) habit.

C) member-typical behavior.

D) species-typical ibehavior.

84. Which of the following is NOT correlated with brain size?

A) Health B) Gender C) Age D) Intelligence

85. You and your grandfather both take the same intelligence test and you score almost 20 points higher! This is an example of the and it is likely due to .

Flynn i effect; i differences i in i education i and/or i life i experiences A) B) Flynn effect; the increasing size of the human brain over generations C) Spearman effect; increasing size of the human brain over generations D) Spearman effect; differences in education and/or life experiences

86. Comparing intelligence between species is difficult because we are typically reduced to comparing: A) differences in brain size.

B) differences in mating patterns.

C) differences iin ispecies-typical ibehaviors.

D) None of the answers is correct.

87. Studies of the brains of very intelligent people (e.g., Albert Einstein) have revealed that intelligent people's brains: A) are usually larger than average.

B) are usually smaller than average.

C) have ino isize irelation ito iintelligence.

D) do not vary.

88.

is the complex learned behaviors passed on from one generation to another.

A) Neoteny B) Evolution C) Culture D) Intelligence

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89. The acquisition of culture by humans stems most directly from: A) an ievolved iability ifor ihigh imental iflexibility.

B) our larger brain.

C) improved diet.

D) the invention of smartphones.

90. The first artistic relics were made by modern humans approximately: A) 100,000 years ago.

B) 55,000 years ago.

C) 30,000 iyears iago.

D) 10,000 years ago.

91. Reading and writing were invented approximately: A) 25,000 years ago.

B) 7000 iyears iago.

C) 12,000 years ago.

D) 3000 years ago.

92.

are ideas, behaviors, or styles that spread from person to person in a culture and can be influenced by brain structure.

A) Phenotypes B) Trends C) Memes D) None of the answers is correct.

93. According to Mesoudi, language, music, mathematics, and art may have spread through cultures by way of: A) genetics.

B) learning.

C) religion.

D) memes.

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Chapter 2 – What is the Nervous system’s functional anatomy?

1. The cerebellum contains A) 20% B) 50% C) 10% D) 80%

of all the neurons in the adult human brain.

2. Neural agenesis refers to: A) an injury to a brain structure.

B) the degeneration of a structure.

C) the ifailure iof ia istructure ito idevelop.

D) the creation of a brain structure.

3. If a tree falls in the forest, does it make a sound if no one is present?

A) Yes, because sound is a physical phenomenon.

B) Yes, because if you record the noise and play it again later you will hear it.

C) No, ibecause isound iis ia ifabrication iof iyour ibrain.

D) This is an unanswerable philosophical question.

4. Phenotypic plasticity refers to: A) how ian iorganism's igenotype ican ibe iinfluenced iby ienvironmental ifactors.

B) how an organism's genetics can be influenced by its nervous system.

C) the study of nervous system plasticity.

D) None of the answers is correct.

5. The CNS includes the , whereas the PNS includes the .

A) brain and autonomic nervous system; spinal cord and somatic nervous system B) spinal cord and autonomic nervous system; brain and somatic nervous system C) spinal icord iand ibrain; iautonomic inervous isystem iand isomatic inervous isystem D) somatic nervous system and brain; spinal cord and autonomic nervous system

6. The somatic nervous system includes the , whereas the autonomic nervous system includes the .

A) sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions; cranial nerves and spinal nerves B) brain and spinal cord; cranial nerves and spinal nerves C) sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions; brain and spinal cord D) cranial inerves iand ispinal inerves; isympathetic iand iparasympathetic idivisions

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7. The subdivision of the nervous system that controls the gut is called the: A) somatic nervous system.

B) enteric inervous isystem.

C) digestive nervous system.

D) autonomic nervous system.

8. The term afferent refers to A) incoming B) outgoing C) different D) similar

signals.

9. Efferent is to afferent as: A) brain is to spinal cord.

B) sensory is to motor.

C) motor iis ito isensory.

D) incoming is to outgoing.

10. Afferent is to efferent as: A) out is to in.

B) top is to bottom.

C) in iis ito iout.

D) bottom is to top.

11. Moving from superficial layers to deep layers, in what order are the meninges found?

A) dura imater, iarachnoid ilayer, ipia imater B) pia mater, arachnoid layer, dura mater C) dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid layer D) pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid layer

12. Brain nomenclature can be very confusing. This is because: A) many structures have several names.

B) research on brain includes scientists of many nationalities and languages C) some structures were named by numbers.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

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13. Structures atop the brain or a structure within the brain are A) lateral.

B) ventral.

C) medial.

D) dorsal.

14. The ventral portion of a structure is sometimes called: A) superior.

B) inferior.

C) dorsal.

D) medial.

15. Rostral is to caudal as: A) superior is to inferior.

B) dorsal is to ventral.

C) medial is to lateral.

D) anterior iis ito iposterior.

16. Coronal section is to horizontal section as: A) frontal iview iis ito idorsal iview.

B) medial view is to frontal view.

C) frontal view is to medial view.

D) dorsal view is to medial view.

17. What best characterizes the composition of cerebrospinal fluid?

A) sodium ichloride iand iother isalts B) essential amino acids C) glucocorticoids D) simple sugars and small lipids

18. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flows between: A) the iarachnoid ilayer iand ipia imater.

B) the dura mater and pia mater.

C) the dura mater and arachnoid layer.

D) the superficial layer and deep layer.

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19. The functions of the temporal lobes lie mainly in: A) decision making.

B) hearing, ilanguage, iand imusic.

C) sensory processing and directing movements toward objects.

D) vision.

20. Following a brain injury Greg has difficulty in understanding language and music. He is most likely to have suffered damage to his: A) frontal lobe.

B) temporal ilobe.

C) occipital lobe.

D) parietal lobe.

21. The frontal lobes are responsible for controlling: A) decision imaking.

B) hearing, language, and music.

C) vision.

D) sensory processing and directing movements toward objects.

22. Following a brain injury Suzanne experiences difficulty with problem solving and decision making. She is most likely to have suffered an injury to her: A) parietal lobe.

B) occipital lobe.

C) frontal ilobe.

D) temporal lobe.

23. The parietal lobes primarily control: A) vision.

B) hearing, language, and music.

C) decision making.

D) sensory iprocessing iand idirecting imovements itoward iobjects.

24. Following a recent stroke Jim experiences difficulty with directing movements toward objects. The stroke is most likely to have occurred in his: A) frontal lobe.

B) temporal lobe.

C) occipital lobe.

D) parietal ilobe.

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25. The occipital lobes are responsible for: A) sensory processing and directing movements toward objects.

B) decision making.

C) visual iprocessing.

D) hearing, language, and music.

26. During a recent car accident Allison suffered a brain injury that left her blind even though her eyes are working fine. She is most likely to have suffered damage to her: A) occipital ilobe.

B) frontal lobe.

C) temporal lobe.

D) parietal lobe.

27. Sulci are: A) found only in the cerebellum.

B) found only in the cerebrum.

C) the icracks ibetween ithe ibumps ion ithe ibrain.

D) the bumps on the surface of the brain.

28. Gyri are: A) bumps ion ithe isurface iof ithe icortex.

B) cracks on the surface of the cortex.

C) deformities on the surface of the cortex.

D) only found in the spinal cord.

29. Which of the following is NOT a symptom associated with meningitis?

A) severe headache B) stiff neck C) aggressiveness D) convulsions

30. Sulcus is to gyrus as: A) crack iis ito ibump.

B) bump is to crack.

C) ridge is to mountain.

D) crack is to crevasse.

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31. The symptoms of the "sleeping sickness" that arose during World War I are caused by lesions to the: A) putamen.

B) globus pallidus.

C) substantia inigra.

D) amygdala.

32. Which of the following arteries does NOT act as a major supplier to the cerebrum?

A) anterior B) superior C) middle D) posterior

33. The artery that provides blood to the lateral, temporal, and frontal lobes is the cerebral artery.

A) anterior B) middle C) posterior D) inferior

34. The artery that provides blood to the occipital lobes is the A) anterior B) middle C) posterior D) inferior

35. A disruption of the blood supply to a brain region causes: A) meningitis.

B) encephalitis.

C) a istroke.

D) cerebral agenesis.

36.

A) B) C) D)

is mainly composed of cell bodies and capillaries.

Reticular matter Gray imatter The corpus callosum White matter

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37.

is(are) mainly composed of nerve fibers with fatty coverings.

A) Cerebral aqueducts B) Ventricles C) White imatter D) Gray matter

38. CSF is made in: A) the pia mater.

B) the dura mater.

C) the iventricles.

D) the arachnoid layer.

39. The large cavities inside the brain are known as: A) ventricles iand iare ifilled iwith iCSF. B) ventricles and are filled with blood.

C) the arachnoid layer and are filled with CSF. D) the arachnoid layer and are filled with blood.

40. What is the most unlikely function of CSF? A) aiding icell itransmission iin ithe ibrain B) acting as a shock absorber to the brain C) allowing certain compounds access D) helping the brain excrete metabolic wastes from the brain

41. Ischemic stroke is caused by: A) a iclot.

B) a broken blood vessel.

C) meningitis.

D) encephalitis.

42. A hemorrhagic stroke is caused by: A) a blood clot.

B) a iruptured iblood ivessel.

C) an embolism.

D) All of the answers are correct.

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43. Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) is effective for treating: A) ischemic istroke.

B) hemorrhagic stroke.

C) meningitis.

D) All of the answers are correct.

44. When observing a sagittal brain section at the midline, what is the prominent feature composed of white matter?

A) corpus icallosum B) ventricles C) cingulate cortex D) hippocampus

45. Cutting the brain from front to back will give: A) a coronal view.

B) a frontal view.

C) a horizontal view.

D) a isagittal iview.

46. According to Descartes, the seat of the mind was located in the: A) frontal lobes.

B) thalamus.

C) pineal igland.

D) temporal lobes.

47. The role of glial cells is primarily: A) to carry out information processing in the brain.

B) to send signals from one brain region to another.

C) to imodulate ithe iactivity iof ineurons.

D) to process sensory input.

48. CNS is to PNS as: A) neuron is to glia.

B) gray matter is to white matter.

C) nerve is to tract.

D) tract iis ito inerve.

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49. The prosencephalon is sometimes referred to as: A) the hindbrain.

B) the middle brain.

C) the auxiliary brain.

D) the ifront ibrain.

50. In the human brain the basal ganglia, limbic system, and olfactory bulbs are considered part of the: A) telencephalon.

B) metencephalon.

C) diencephalon.

D) mesencephalon.

51. In the human brain the mesencephalon contains: A) the neocortex.

B) cerebellum.

C) tectum iand itegmentum.

D) medulla.

52. The thalamus and hypothalamus are considered part of the: A) myelencephalon.

B) telencephalon.

C) metencephalon.

D) diencephalon.

53. Which of the following structures is NOT part of the metencephalon?

A) the cerebellum B) the pons C) the imedulla D) None of the answers is correct.

54. Which of the following is NOT part of the hindbrain?

A) the pons B) the itegmentum C) the reticular formation D) the medulla oblongata

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55. Awakening from sleep is a function of: A) the pons.

B) the medulla.

C) the cerebellum.

D) the ireticular iformation.

56. The reticular formation is primarily made up of: A) gray matter only.

B) white matter only.

C) gray imatter iand iwhite imatter.

D) None of the answers is correct.

57. The primary function of the cerebellum is: A) control of sleeping and waking.

B) control iof imovement.

C) control of heart rate and respiration.

D) sensory processing.

58. Orienting responses (e.g., turning your head to locate the source of a sound) are controlled by: A) the pons.

B) the isuperior iand iinferior icolliculi.

C) the cerebellum.

D) the diencephalon.

59. The red nucleus, substantia nigra, and periaqueductal gray matter are parts of the: A) tectum.

B) pons.

C) tegmentum.

D) reticular formation.

60. Regulation of breathing and the cardiovascular system is primarily controlled by: A) the pons.

B) the reticular activating system.

C) the imedulla.

D) the cerebellum.

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61. What are the functions of the superior and inferior colliculi respectively?

A) auditory and visual B) visual iand iauditory C) tactile and visual D) visual and tactile

62. Which of the following is part of the tegmentum?

A) the tectum B) the isubstantia inigra C) the inferior colliculus D) the superior colliculus

63. The hypothalamus is NOT primarily involved in: A) motor movements.

B) sleeping.

C) emotional behavior.

D) sensory iinput.

64. Sexual behavior is a primary function of: A) the thalamus.

B) the ihypothalamus.

C) the gyrus fornicutus.

D) the red nucleus.

65. The acts as a sensory relay station for signals arriving from sensory receptors that are being sent to the cortex.

A) pituitary B) pons C) hypothalamus D) thalamus

66. Thalamus is to hypothalamus as: A) sensory iinput iis ito ibody imaintenance.

B) body maintenance is to sensory input.

C) sexual behavior is to sleeping.

D) feeding is to endocrine function.

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67. The lateral geniculate nucleus deals with: A) touch.

B) hearing.

C) olfaction.

D) vision.

68. The primary function of the thalamus is: A) transmission iof isensory iinputs ito ithe icortex.

B) regulation of hormone function.

C) regulation of sleeping and waking.

D) control of orienting responses.

69. Which of the following is NOT part of the forebrain?

A) the cortex B) the itectum C) the basal ganglia D) the limbic system

70. The basal ganglia primarily controls: A) decision making.

B) voluntary imovement.

C) learning and memory.

D) processing of sound.

71. Cognition is usually attributed to: A) the limbic cortex.

B) the cingulate cortex.

C) the ineocortex.

D) the parahippocampal cortex.

72. Deficits in processing basic visual information (e.g., luminance) are caused by damage to the: A) frontal lobe.

B) parietal lobe.

C) occipital ilobe.

D) temporal lobe.

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73. A person who has trouble locating the source of stimulation on the skin most likely has damage to the: A) temporal lobe.

B) parietal ilobe.

C) occipital lobe.

D) frontal lobe.

74. Trouble recognizing sounds is most commonly associated with damage to the: A) parietal lobe.

B) frontal lobe.

C) occipital lobe.

D) temporal ilobe.

75. Following a brain injury Steven has trouble organizing himself and has difficulty formulating plans to accomplish goals. Steven is most likely to have damaged his: A) frontal ilobe.

B) temporal lobe.

C) parietal lobe.

D) occipital lobe.

76. Six layers of gray matter on top of a layer of white matter would describe: A) the limbic cortex.

B) the basal ganglia.

C) the ineocortex.

D) the cingulate cortex.

77. Cortical regions: A) have the same density of cell layers.

B) have idifferent ispecific ichemical icharacteristics.

C) when stained look the same across the various areas.

D) have very specific functions and rarely interrelate.

78. Motor output signals are sent through layer(s) A) V iand iVI B) I to III C) IV D) II

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79. Integrative functions are processed by layer(s) A) V and VI B) I ito iIII C) IV D) All of the answers are correct.

of the cortex.

80. Sensory inputs are transmitted through layer(s) A) I to III B) V and VI C) IV D) All of the answers are correct.

of the cortex.

81. Memory and emotion are processed by the: A) limbic isystem.

B) basal ganglia.

C) thalamus.

D) parietal lobe.

82. The caudate nucleus and the putamen are part of the: A) basal iganglia.

B) limbic system.

C) olfactory system.

D) hindbrain.

83. Parkinson disease and Tourette syndrome are neurological diseases associated with the: A) cerebellum.

B) frontal lobes.

C) basal iganglia.

D) thalamus.

84. The hippocampus and the amygdala are part of the: A) basal ganglia.

B) limbic isystem.

C) olfactory system.

D) hindbrain.

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85. The hippocampus and the cingulate cortex participate in performing A) digestive B) problem solving C) sexual D) memory

functions.

86. Which of the following structures is NOT part of the limbic system?

A) hippocampus B) amygdala C) cingulate cortex D) putamen

87. Removal of the amygdala in cats leads to: A) changes in temperature regulation.

B) sleep disruption.

C) emotional ichanges.

D) motor disruption.

88. There are A) 12 B) 24 C) 16 D) 8

pairs of cranial nerves.

89. Sensory and motor signals from the head and neck travel through: A) lumbar sections of the spinal cord.

B) sacral portions of the spinal cord.

C) the icranial inerves.

D) thoracic sections of the spinal cord.

90. Sensory and motor signals to the arms are sent through A) sacral B) thoracic C) lumbar D) cervical

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91. Sensory and motor signals from the head and neck are sent to spinal cord.

A) thoracic B) sacral C) lumbar D) None iof ithe ianswers iis icorrect.

sections of the

92. Dermatomes are associated with the: A) peripheral nervous system B) spinal inervous isystem.

C) autonomic nervous system.

D) cranial nervous system.

93. The law of Bell and Magendie states that the: A) dorsal spinal cord is motor and the ventral is sensory.

B) medial spinal cord is motor and the lateral is sensory.

C) dorsal ispinal icord iis isensory iand ithe iventral iis imotor.

D) medial spinal cord is sensory and the lateral is motor.

94. Motor output from the spinal cord travels via the: A) dorsal spinal cord.

B) ventral ispinal icord.

C) medial spinal cord.

D) lateral spinal cord.

95. Sensory input to the spinal cord travels via the: A) dorsal ispinal icord.

B) ventral spinal cord.

C) medial spinal cord.

D) lateral spinal cord.

96. Increases in heart rate and inhibition of digestion are controlled by the: A) sympathetic inervous isystem.

B) parasympathetic nervous system.

C) spinal nervous system.

D) cranial nervous system.

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97. The nervous system works to help us "rest and digest," whereas the system helps initiate fight-or-flight responses.

A) sympathetic; parasympathetic B) sympathetic; spinal C) parasympathetic; isympathetic D) somatic; parasympathetic

nervous

98. The vagus, facial, and oculomotor nerves are the primary components of the: A) cranial nervous system.

B) sympathetic nervous system.

C) the iparasympathetic inervous isystem.

D) spinal nervous system.

99. The contains a sheet of neurons lining the esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and colon.

A) enteric inervous isystem i(ENS) B) autonomic nervous system (ANS) C) somatic nervous system (SNS) D) central nervous system (CNS)

100.

Language control is usually situated in the: A) same place on both hemispheres.

B) different locations on each hemisphere.

C) right hemisphere.

D) left ihemisphere.

101.

The left hemisphere primarily controls functions on the A) contralateral B) left C) ipsilateral D) None of the answers is correct.

102.

Spatial navigation is controlled by A) the left hemisphere B) both hemispheres C) the iright ihemisphere D) None of the answers is correct.

of the brain.

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103.

The brain appears to have: A) mainly serial or hierarchical systems.

B) mainly parallel systems.

C) a icombination iof iserial iand iparallel isystems.

D) parallel systems at lower levels and serial processing farther up.

104.

The notion of segregation of sensory and motor functions in the nervous system was postulated by: A) François iMagendie iand iDavid iBell.

B) David Hubel.

C) John Hughlings Jackson.

D) Nige Toretle.

105.

Memory seems to be located: A) in the cingulate gyrus.

B) in the hippocampus.

C) throughout ithe ibrain.

D) primarily in the temporal lobes.

106.

Changes in balance between excitation and inhibition account for symptoms in: A) Tourette syndrome.

B) Parkinson disease.

C) stroke.

D) both iTourette isyndrome iand iParkinson idisease.

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Chapter 3 – What are the Nervous system’s functional units?

1.

is the technique that allows researchers to label different neurons by marking them with distinct colors.

A) Straining B) Defragmentation C) Brainbow D) Bluetooth

2. Golgi staining makes use of microscope.

A) cresyl violet B) silver initrate C) pen ink D) squid ink

to stain neurons so they can be viewed under a

3. Based on their observations of stained neurons, Golgi put forward the whereas Cajal proposed the theory.

A) nerve inet; ineuron B) neuron; nerve net C) nerve net; glia D) neuron; glia

4. The human central nervous system consists of approximately: A) 86 ibillion ineurons.

B) 1 trillion neurons.

C) 16 billion neurons.

D) 1 million neurons.

5. Neurons: A) all have the same number of dendrites.

B) usually have several axons.

C) are all remarkably similar in size.

D) have ionly ione iaxon.

6. The is the core region of the cell that contains the nucleus.

A) dendrite B) axon C) Golgi body D) soma

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7.

are branches extending out of a neuron's cell membrane that allow it to collect information from other cells.

A) Somas B) Axons C) Terminal buttons D) Dendrites

8.

A) B) C) D)

are single fibers that carry messages to other neurons.

Dendrites Axons Terminal buttons Somas

9. The junction of the axon and the soma of a neuron is called: A) the neural bridge.

B) the iaxon ihillock.

C) the axon collateral.

D) a synapse.

10. The part of the axon that conveys information to other neurons is the: A) axon hillock.

B) terminal ibutton.

C) Golgi body.

D) soma.

11. What is the MOST common sequence of information flow through a neuron?

A) nucleus, axon, axon hillock, end foot B) dendrite, inucleus, iaxon ihillock, iaxon C) dendrite, nucleus, axon, axon hillock D) dendrite, teleodendria, nucleus, axon

12. What is the BEST analogy for a neuron?

A) a multi-input computational device with many output wires B) a imulti-input icomputational idevice iwith ione ioutput iwire C) a single-input computational device with many output wires D) a single-input computational device with two output wires

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13. Which of the following are NOT a type of bipolar neuron?

A) retinal neurons B) sensory neurons in the skin C) sensory neurons in muscle D) motor ineurons

14.

are also called association cells because they link up sensory and motor neurons.

A) Interneurons B) Golgi neurons C) Glial cells D) Bipolar neurons

15.

A) B) C) D)

16.

are a special type of interneuron found in the cerebellum.

Purkinje icells Motor neurons Bipolar neurons Glial cells

The simplest neuron is a(n): A) somatosensory neuron.

B) motor neuron.

C) bipolar ineuron.

D) interneuron.

17. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a pyramidal cell?

A) long axon B) pyramid-shaped body C) two sets of dendrites D) one iset iof idendrites

18. Interneurons: A) produce glial cells in the midbrain.

B) are responsible for producing myelin sheets.

C) are iinvolved iin iproce ing i e imotor ineurons.

D) are involved in processing motor feedback.

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19. Stellate cells are: A) sensory neurons.

B) interneurons.

C) motor neurons.

D) not affected by either sensory input or motor output.

20. Which of the following is NOT an interneuron?

A) Purkinje cell B) stellate cell C) pyramidal cell D) Schwann icell

21. Glial cells are primarily responsible for: A) the reception of sensory information.

B) the isupport iof ineurons.

C) the processing of information.

D) the production of actions or motor outputs.

22. For every neuron in the central nervous system there is (are) A) 1 B) 5 C) 10 D) 100

glial cell(s).

23. Some act as "glue" that helps bind neurons together.

A) glial icells B) pyramidal cells C) stellate cells D) Purkinje cells

24. According to the text, which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Both isome inew ineurons iand imany inew iglial icells iare iformed ithroughout ilife.

B) Neither neurons nor glial cells continue to be formed after the first few years of life.

C) Some new neurons are formed throughout life, but glial cells are not.

D) Many new glial cells are formed throughout life, but new neurons are not.

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25. Which of the following are responsible for producing cerebrospinal fluid?

A) ependymal icells B) microglia C) astrocytes D) Schwann cells

26. Ependymal cells are associated with: A) the blood–brain barrier.

B) the iproduction iof icerebrospinal ifluid.

C) the production of myelin.

D) the healing of damaged tissue.

27. Hydrocephalus is usually caused by blockage at: A) the first ventricle.

B) the lateral ventricle.

C) the third ventricle.

D) the ifourth iventricle.

28.

A) B) C) D)

29.

are glial cells that have nutritive and supportive functions.

Ependymal cells Purkinje cells Telodendria Astrocytes

are tumors that begin in one part of the body and spread to another part of the body.

A) Meningiomas B) Gliomas C) Metastatic itumors D) Gangliomas

30.

A) B) C) D)

are tumors that are often encapsulated and relatively easy to remove with surgery.

Gliomas Meningiomas Metastatic Neuromas

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31. The blood–brain barrier is made up of A) astrocytes B) microglia C) Schwann cells D) ependymal cells

attached to neurons and blood vessels.

32. Chris has been feeling very ill lately. He has had a severe headache for a week now and has been vomiting, has had trouble concentrating, and has started losing some of his vision. This morning he had a seizure. You tell Chris he should go to the hospital immediately because he probably has: A) the flu.

B) multiple sclerosis.

C) a ibrain itumor.

D) Huntington disease.

33. The fluid in which the cell's internal structures are suspended is called: A) lysosome.

B) endoplasmic reticulum.

C) cerebrospinal fluid.

D) intracellular ifluid.

34. Astroglia are NOT associated with: A) expansion of blood vessels.

B) the blood–brain barrier.

C) formation of scar tissue.

D) removal iof idead itissue.

35. When neurons are continuously firing, they need a constant supply of glucose and oxygen to continue operating. This is achieved via , which signal blood vessels to expand and increase blood flow.

A) Schwann cells B) ependymal cells C) astrocytes D) microglia

36.

operate as part of the brain's immune system.

A) Astrocytes B) Microglia C) Oligodendroglia D) Ependymal cells

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37. Phagocytosis, or the breakdown of any foreign tissue or dead brain cells, is carried out by: A) astrocytes.

B) microglial icells.

C) ependymal cells.

D) oligodendroglial cells.

38. Microglia originates in: A) the ventricles.

B) most areas of brain tissue.

C) the iblood.

D) the cerebrospinal fluid.

39. Greg accidentally cuts his fingertip with a knife. The next day he notices that his fingertip seems numb to the touch. Greg is very concerned about this, but you tell him not to worry because nerves in the regenerate thanks to .

A) central nervous system; oligodendroglial cells.

B) central nervous system; Schwann cells C) peripheral inervous isystem; iSchwann icells D) peripheral nervous system; oligodendroglial cells

40.

help generate myelin in the central nervous system, whereas myelin in the peripheral nervous system.

A) Schwann cells; oligodendroglial cells B) Astrocytes; Schwann cells C) Oligodendroglial icells; iSchwann icells D) Oligodendroglial cells; microglial cells

41. Myelin is produced by: A) oligodendroglia iand iSchwann icells.

B) oligodendroglia and microglia.

C) astroglia and Schwann cells.

D) microglia and astroglia.

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42. Myelin around axons: A) speeds iup itransmission iof iinformation.

B) slows down transmission as if by an insulator.

C) has no effect on speed of transmission but acts as a protective coat on the fragile axon.

D) has no effect on speed of transmission but allows the cell access to nutrition.

43. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) In the central nervous system Schwann cells serve as guideposts to show axons where to terminate when regeneration occurs.

B) tem i c ann icells i erve i i ignpost ito iguide iaxons ito itheir iappropriate iend ipoint .

C) Schwann cells cannot help damaged axons, because neither nervous system can regenerate.

D) Schwann cells are present only in the developing organism and thus have nothing to do with regeneration.

44. Which three elements constitute more than 90% of a cell?

A) oxygen, potassium, sodium B) oxygen, hydrogen, sodium C) oxygen, ihydrogen, icarbon D) carbon, hydrogen, sodium

45. The smallest quantity of an element that retains the properties of an element is a(n): A) neutron.

B) atom.

C) proton.

D) electron.

46. The is a structure that gathers, stores, and releases energy.

A) nucleus B) endoplasmic reticulum C) mitochondrion D) Golgi body

47. The contain(s) the chromosomes and genes of a cell.

A) nucleus B) Golgi body C) lysosomes D) endoplasmic reticulum

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48. The place in a cell where protein packages are wrapped and shipped is called: A) endoplasmic reticulum.

B) mitochondrion.

C) Golgi ibody.

D) lysosome.

49. Mitochondria and lysosomes are analogous to: A) power iand itransportation.

B) transportation and power.

C) fence and power.

D) power and fence.

50.

are involved in transporting molecules and help give the cell its shape.

A) Axons B) Golgi bodies C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Tubules

51. Cell wastes are handled by: A) Golgi bodies.

B) lysosomes.

C) microtubules.

D) endoplasmic reticulum.

52. Which of the following refers to layers of membrane where proteins are assembled?

A) lysosomes B) soma C) endoplasmic ireticulum D) mitochondria

53. The cell membrane is important because: A) it controls the amount of water in the cell.

B) it regulates the concentration of salts on two sides of the membrane.

C) it icontrol ithe iamount iof i ater iin ithe icell iand iregulate ithe iconcentration iof i alt ion it o i ide iof ithe imembrane.

D) it forms myelin sheaths in the cell.

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54. The help(s) regulate the concentration of different ions inside and outside of the neuron.

A) cell imembrane B) nuclear membrane C) microfilaments D) lysosomes

55. All of the cells in our body are made from a book of blueprints contained in: A) growth cells in the pituitary gland, at the base of the brain.

B) glial cells surrounding the neurons.

C) chromosomes iof ieach iindividual icell.

D) pyramidal cells in the brain.

56. Membranes of a cell are made of special molecules called: A) cytosols.

B) phospholipids.

C) hydrophilics.

D) hydrophobics.

57. The code for the synthesis of proteins is stored in: A) ribosomes.

B) genes.

C) microtubules.

D) endoplasm.

58. DNA is composed of four nucleotide bases. Which one of the following is NOT a nucleotide base?

A) thymine B) adenine C) histamine D) cytosine

59. Human cells contain: A) 46 ichromosomes.

B) 23 chromosomes.

C) 92 chromosomes.

D) 13 chromosomes.

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60. A chain of amino acids forms a: A) protein.

B) carboxyl group.

C) peptide bond.

D) carbohydrate.

61. Proteins are assembled in: A) the iendoplasmic ireticulum.

B) Golgi bodies.

C) the nucleus.

D) the cytosol.

62. A series of amino acids is called a: A) peptide bond.

B) polypeptide ichain.

C) carboxyl group.

D) side group.

63. Humans utilize A) 100 B) 20 C) 300 D) 4000

different amino acids for the synthesis of proteins.

64. Golgi bodies package and ship them to other parts of the neuron via A) proteins; imicrotubules B) waste materials; microtubules C) proteins; filaments D) waste materials; lysosomes

65. Golgi bodies essentially act as A) an administrative office B) a marketing department C) a ipostal iservice D) a repair shop

for neurons.

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66. An analogous term for receptor is: A) door.

B) hinge.

C) keyhole.

D) doorknob.

67. Protein molecules can: A) act as a gate.

B) act as a pump.

C) change shape.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

68. Some membrane channels can selectively allow in one type of ion (e.g., K+) but not others. The ability to restrict passage to only certain ions largely depends on: A) where on the membrane the channel is.

B) what type of neuron the channel is on.

C) the isize iand ishape iof ithe ichannel.

D) the pigmentation of the channel.

69. Membrane channels are made up of: A) phospholipids.

B) proteins.

C) microtubules.

D) carbohydrates.

70. Humans have approximately: A) 20,000 igenes.

B) 75,000 genes.

C) 125,000 genes.

D) 175,000 genes.

71. Expressed genetic traits of an individual are referred to as their: A) genotype.

B) phenotype.

C) wild type.

D) mutation.

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72. The nucleotide sequence MOST common in a population is called the: A) homozygous allele.

B) heterozygous allele.

C) wild-type iallele.

D) mutant allele.

73. The chromosome pair determines our sexual characteristics.

A) fifteenth B) twenty-first C) twenty-third D) eighty-seventh

74.

A) B) C) D)

means having two different alleles for the same trait.

Homozygous Omnizygous Mutated Heterozygous

A) B) C) D)

means having two identical alleles for the same trait.

Homozygous Omnizygous Mutated Heterozygous

75.

76. In both an allele's own trait and that of the other allele in the gene pair are expressed completely.

A) dominance B) incomplete dominance C) codominance D) cloning

77.

A) B) C) D)

, caused by a genetic mutation, can help prevent malaria.

Tay-Sachs disease Sickle-cell ianemia Trisomy 21 Vasectomy

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78. Abnormalities on chromosome A) 4 B) 17 C) 11 D) 24

cause sickle-cell anemia.

79. A child who has seizures, blindness, and degenerating motor and mental ability and who dies at an early age most likely has: A) Down syndrome.

B) Huntington disease.

C) Tay-Sachs idisease.

D) Parkinson disease.

80. The mutation that leads to Tay-Sachs disease is recessive. Therefore, if a child's parents both carry the recessive Tay-Sachs allele, the probability that the child will develop TaySachs disease is: A) 100 percent.

B) 50 percent.

C) 25 ipercent.

D) 75 percent.

81. Because the gene that leads to Huntington disease is dominant, a child who has one parent with Huntington disease has a chance of developing the disorder.

A) 50 ipercent B) 100 percent C) 25 percent D) 75 percent

82. A patient who shows abnormal involuntary movements and loss of memory most likely has: A) Tay-Sachs disease.

B) Huntington idisease.

C) Alzheimer disease.

D) Down syndrome.

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83. Ashley, a 36-year-old female, has recently had trouble controlling the movement of her arms. For example, sometimes her arms will flail about as if they are reaching for something even though she does not want them to. She has also started having memory problems and changes in her personality. Her father had similar symptoms in his thirties but died before he turned 40. You tell Ashley to go to the doctor because she MOST likely have: A) Parkinson disease.

B) Huntington idisease.

C) multiple sclerosis.

D) a brain tumor.

84. In Huntington disease, as the number of CAG repeats on the HTT (huntingtin) gene exceeds 40: A) the iearlier iin ilife isymptoms iwill ibegin.

B) the less likely a person is to develop Huntington disease.

C) the less severe the symptoms will be.

D) the more likely the chances of contracting rabies.

85. Down syndrome is caused by (an) extra A) twenty-third B) fifth C) twenty-first D) twenty-first and twenty-third

chromosome(s).

86. Characteristic facial features, short stature, heart defects, and mental retardation are signs of: A) Alzheimer disease.

B) Tay-Sachs disease.

C) Down isyndrome.

D) Huntington disease.

87. The simplest way to select for specific genetic traits in animals (e.g., dogs) is through the use of: A) cloning.

B) selective ibreeding.

C) transgenic techniques.

D) gene therapy.

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88. Transgenic animals are produced by: A) knockout technology to inactivate a gene.

B) cloning.

C) addition iof ia igene ito ithe igenome.

D) combining genes from different species.

89. If you are interested in testing the role of a specific gene in a disorder, you can eliminate the gene and observe the effects using: A) knockout itechnology.

B) knock-in technology.

C) chimeric animals.

D) cloning.

90. If you want to study the role of a specific gene on a particular behavior, you could take the gene from one species and insert it into the genome of another species. This is: A) cloning.

B) knockout technology.

C) knock-in itechnology.

D) use of chimeric animals.

91. Chimeric animals are the result of: A) cloning.

B) spontaneous mutations.

C) adding a gene to the genome.

D) combining igenes ifrom idifferent ispecies.

92. One method that could be used to produce new tissue or organs for transplant to the original donor is: A) cloning.

B) gene transfer.

C) knock-in technique.

D) selective breeding.

93. The notion that two individuals with the exact same genes could end up developing differently is explained by: A) phenotypic iplasticity.

B) codominance.

C) genetic mutation.

D) recessive alleles.

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94. The concordance rates in identical twins for diseases like Alzheimer, schizophrenia, and multiple sclerosis is: A) 100%.

B) 25%.

C) between 90% and 100%.

D) between i30% iand i60%.

95.

A) B) C) D)

is the study of how the environment can influence the expression of genes.

Transgenics Genotyping Epigenetics Prototyping

96. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways in which epigenetic mechanisms can influence the expression of a particular gene?

A) ribosome imodification B) histone modification C) DNA modification D) mRNA modification

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Chapter 4 – How do Neurons use electrical signals to transmit information?

1. Erica is an 18-year-old in her first year of university. One day while she was watching a video in class, Erica started to hear what she thought was music playing. Suddenly, she began shaking in her seat and fell to the floor. After the incident ended, one of her classmates helped her to the campus medical center, where she was later diagnosed as having: A) Huntington disease.

B) Parkinson disease.

C) epilepsy.

D) myasthenia gravis.

2. Which of the following treatments is (are) used to help reduce epilepsy?

A) medication B) deep brain stimulation C) a high-fat, low-carbohydrate diet D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

3.

A) B) C) D)

is a neurological disorder that is linked to periods of excessive neural synchrony.

Epilepsy Parkinson disease Multiple sclerosis Stroke

4. René Descartes believed that A) neurons B) phlegm C) the pineal gland D) cerebrospinal ifluid

carried signals through the nervous system.

5. The technique of electrical stimulation was first discovered by: A) Luigi iGalvani.

B) René Descartes.

C) Gustave Fritsch and Edward Hitzig.

D) David Ferrier.

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6. In a now-famous experiment, Fritsch and Hitzig discovered that electrical stimulation of the neocortex led to: A) hearing sounds.

B) movements.

C) seizures.

D) seeing patterns.

7. Electricity is a flow of electrons from a body that contains a higher charge (more electrons) to a body that has a lower charge (fewer electrons). The body containing the higher electrical charge is called a: A) positive pole.

B) negative ipole.

C) dipole.

D) ground pole.

8. Another term for volts is: A) the idifference iin ielectrical ipotential ibetween itwo ipoles.

B) current flow.

C) amps.

D) current flow and amps.

9. Roberts Bartholow is remembered for being the first person to stimulate the brain of a: A) dog.

B) rabbit.

C) human.

D) a dog and a rabbit.

10. When Richard Caton first measured fluctuations on a voltmeter from electrodes placed on the scalp of a human subject, he was recording what we now call: A) the ielectroencephalogram.

B) the action potential.

C) the magnetoencephalogram.

D) axonal conductance.

11. An electroencephalogram, or EEG, can theoretically be recorded by: A) a ivoltmeter.

B) a current meter.

C) an amp meter.

D) either a voltmeter or a current meter.

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12. The speed of information flow in a nerve was first measured by: A) Hermann ivon iHelmholtz.

B) Wilder Penfield.

C) Eduard Hitzig.

D) Gustave Fritsch.

13. Because the giant axons of the squid are nearly in diameter, they were used to record electrical activity in neurons for the first time.

A) 1 centimeter B) 1 imillimeter C) 5 millimeters D) 0.1 millimeter

14. Neurons in most animals, including humans, are approximately diameter.

A) 0.001 ito i0.02 B) 0.05 to 0.1 C) 0.5 to 0.7 D) up to 1

15.

millimeter in

won the Nobel Prize in 1963 for being the first to describe the electrical activity of neurons.

A) Young B) von Helmholtz C) Hodgkin iand iHuxley D) Watson and Crick

16. Recording from single neurons was made possible by the invention of: A) the electroencephalogram.

B) the oscilloscope.

C) the microelectrode.

D) the ioscilloscope iand ithe imicroelectrode.

17. Microelectrodes can: A) be made from glass.

B) be made from wire.

C) have a tip as small as 0.001 millimeter.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

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18. The patch technique involves: A) placing the tip of a microelectrode on an axon.

B) recording between two microelectrodes, one inside the axon and the other outside.

C) placing ithe itip iof ithe imicroelectrode iin ian iaxon iand iapplying isome iback isuction.

D) placing the tips of two microelectrodes in an axon and recording between them.

19. To measure the voltage across the cell membrane, you would normally: A) insert two electrodes into the axon and measure the voltage difference.

B) place ione ielectrode ion ithe iouter i imembrane iand ianother ii ide ithe iaxon iand imea C) place two electrodes on the outer surface of the axon's membrane and measure the voltage difference.

D) All of the answers are correct.

20. When a substance moves from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration, it is an example of a(n): A) concentration igradient.

B) voltage gradient.

C) ionic translocation.

D) None of the answers is correct.

21. The movement of ions from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is called: A) a concentration gradient.

B) a voltage gradient.

C) diffusion.

D) ionic translocation.

22. The notion that opposites attract best describes: A) a concentration gradient.

B) a ivoltage igradient.

C) diffusion.

D) All of the answers are correct.

23. If a small amount of dye is placed in a beaker of water, it will flow away from the initial point of contact. The ensuing process illustrates: A) diffusion.

B) concentration.

C) charge.

D) electrostatic pressure.

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24. Channels in the cell membrane are formed by: A) sodium ions.

B) potassium ions.

C) protein imolecules.

D) lipids.

25. The neuronal membrane is best described as such that through.

A) impermeable; no ions B) impermeable; sodium C) semipermeable; sodium (Na+) and calcium (Ca+) D) semipermeable; ipotassium i(K+) iand ichloride i(Cl–)

is (are) able to pass

26. The resting potential: A) is –70 mV in all species.

B) can vary from –40 mV to –90 mV within a species.

C) can ivary ifrom i–40 imV ito i–90 imV ibetween ispecies.

D) None of the answers is correct.

27. At rest, the concentrations of are higher inside of a neuron, whereas the concentrations of are higher outside of a neuron.

A) potassium i(K+); isodium i(Na+) B) sodium (Na+); potassium (K+) C) potassium (K+); chloride (Cl–) D) potassium (K+); anions (A–)

28. Which of the following is NOT true?

A) The cell membrane is semipermeable, so it keeps in large negatively charged protein molecules.

B) The membrane keeps out Na+ and allows K+ and Cl– to pass more freely.

C) The imembrane iha ia i odium–pota ium ipump ithat iremove ipota ium ifrom ii ide ithe icell iand ireplace iit i ith i odium.

D) The summed charges of the unequally distributed ions leave the inside of the membrane at –70 mV relative to the outside. This is the cell's resting potential.

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29. Large protein anions are: A) manufactured by glial cells.

B) manufactured iwithin ia ineuron.

C) transported to a neuron by glial cells.

D) not part of a neuron.

30. The negative charge inside of the cell membrane is largely a product of the presence of negatively charged: A) potassium ions.

B) sodium ions.

C) protein ianions.

D) All of the answers are correct.

31. The sodium–potassium pump exchanges three continuously; i intracellular i Na+; iextracellular i K+.

A) B) continuously; intracellular K+; extracellular Na+.

C) continuously; extracellular Na+; intracellular K+.

D) intermittently; intracellular K+; extracellular Na+.

for two

.

32. When the neuron is at rest, enter and leave the cell.

A) K+; Na+ B) Cl–; Na+ C) Na+; iK+ D) K+; Cl–

channels are normally closed, whereas

33. There are approximately A) 20 itimes B) 2 times C) one-tenth D) half

as many K+ ions inside the cell as outside it.

34. Which of the following is NOT involved in producing the resting potential?

A) potassium ions B) chloride ions C) calcium iions D) sodium ions

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35. A change in the resting potential from –70 mV to –73 mV is called: A) depolarization.

B) hyperpolarization.

C) graded excitatory potential.

D) nothing, as these changes occur spontaneously.

36. A change in the resting potential from –70 mV to –68 mV is called: A) depolarization.

B) hyperpolarization.

C) graded excitatory potential.

D) nothing, as these changes occur spontaneously.

37. Small voltage fluctuations in the cell membrane that occur in the vicinity of the axon are called: A) action potentials.

B) graded ipotentials.

C) ion fluctuations.

D) nerve impulses.

38. Depolarization is primarily linked with linked with .

A) sodium; calcium B) potassium; sodium C) sodium; ichloride D) chloride; potassium

, whereas hyperpolarization is mainly

39. A change in the resting potential from –70 mV to –50 mV typically results in: A) an excitatory postsynaptic potential.

B) repolarization.

C) an iaction ipotential.

D) hyperpolarization.

40. Tetrodotoxin (puffer fish poison) mainly influences: A) the role of potassium channels in hyperpolarization.

B) the irole iof isodium ichannels iin idepolarization.

C) the role of potassium channels in depolarization.

D) the role of sodium channels in hyperpolarization.

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41. Tetraethylammonium (TEA) A) blocks ipotassium ichannels.

B) blocks sodium channels.

C) blocks chlorine channels.

D) neutralizes large protein molecules.

42. An action potential is: A) a large graded potential.

B) a ilarge, ibrief ireversal iin ithe ipolarity iof ia imembrane.

C) the same as a threshold potential.

D) seldom shorter than 10 milliseconds.

43. The voltage of a neural membrane that is sufficient to cause an action potential is approximately ; it is called a(n) .

A) –70 mV; resting potential B) –50 mV; graded potential C) –65 mV; threshold potential D) –50 imV; ithreshold ipotential

44. The action potential normally consists of the summed current changes caused by the and the .

A) inflow iof isodium; ioutflow iof ipotassium B) outflow of sodium; inflow of potassium C) inflow of calcium; outflow of potassium D) inflow of sodium; outflow of chloride

45. During an action potential: A) the voltage of the cell membrane drops to zero and then returns to –70 mV. B) the voltage of the cell membrane drops to zero, returns to about –100 mV, and then goes to 70 mV. C) the ivoltage iof ithe icell imembrane igoes ito iabout i+30 imV iand ithen idrops ito i–70 imV. D) the voltage of the cell membrane goes to about +30 mV, drops to –100 mV, and then goes to –70 mV.

46. Na+ and K+ channels on axons are mainly: A) neurotransmitter dependent.

B) voltage idependent.

C) calcium dependent.

D) both neurotransmitter and voltage dependent.

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47.

channels are less sensitive than open more slowly but remain open longer.

A) calcium; sodium B) sodium; potassium C) chloride; sodium D) potassium; isodium

channels, so during an action potential they

48.

channels are more sensitive than action potential.

A) Calcium; potassium B) Potassium; calcium C) Sodium; ipotassium D) All channels are equally sensitive.

channels, so they open first during the

49. Sodium channels close when the membrane potential reaches approximately: A) +50 mV. B) +30 imV. C) –50 mV. D) 0 mV.

50. Voltage-sensitive sodium channels are active: A) whenever the cell membrane starts to depolarize.

B) when the voltage across the membrane reaches zero.

C) when ithe ithreshold ivoltage iof ithe icell iis ireached.

D) when the voltage across the membrane reaches +30 mV.

51. A cell cannot produce an action potential: A) during the relative refractory period.

B) during ithe iabsolute irefractory iperiod.

C) during the intermediate refractory period.

D) None of the answers is correct.

52. Refractory periods are due to: A) voltage-sensitive isodium iand ipotassium ichannels.

B) voltage-sensitive chloride channels.

C) the time constraint on the sodium–potassium pump.

D) inhibitory postsynaptic potentials.

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53. The repolarization of the neuronal membrane is largely due to the: A) closing of calcium channels, stopping the influx of calcium.

B) opening iof ipotassium ichannels, iallowing ithe ioutflow iof ipotassium.

C) closing of potassium channels, stopping the influx of potassium.

D) closing of sodium channels, stopping the outflow of sodium.

54. The magnitude of an action potential (AP) is measured near the axon hillock using an electrode and then measured again 2 mm farther down the axon. Compared to the AP measured near the axon hillock, the AP 2 mm farther down the axon is: A) larger.

B) smaller.

C) of ithe isame imagnitude.

D) completely nullified.

55. Nerve impulse describes: A) an action potential crossing the synaptic cleft.

B) input at the dendrites of a cell.

C) the imovement iof ian iaction ipotential ialong ithe iaxon.

D) an action potential along the combined axons, which are called nerves.

56. The propagation of the nerve impulse is: A) not decremental.

B) related to the opening of potassium and sodium ion channels.

C) similar to the effect of falling dominoes.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

57. The domino effect best describes: A) the absolute refractory period.

B) the inerve iimpulse.

C) the relative refractory period.

D) the resting membrane potential.

58. Because of refractory periods, the maximum firing rate of a neuron is approximately impulses per second.

A) 500 B) 1000 C) 100 D) 200

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59. An action potential usually goes only in one direction in an axon because: A) the ions can flow only in one direction.

B) the irefractory iperiods iforce ithe iimpulse ito igo iin ione idirection.

C) the ion flow is attracted to chemicals in the synaptic knob.

D) autoreceptors inhibit backward flow of ions.

60. Which of the following is NOT one of the important reasons for refractory periods in neurons?

A) It limits the firing rate of the neuron.

B) It forces nerve impulses to travel in one direction.

C) It iincreases ithe isensitivity iof ithe ineuron.

D) It allows time for the neuron to reset prior to another action potential.

61.

produce(s) myelin in the peripheral nervous system, whereas myelin in the central nervous system.

A) Ependymal cells; Schwann cells B) Astroglia; oligodendroglia C) Oligodendroglia; Schwann cells D) Schwann icells, ioligodendroglia

produce(s)

62. Saltatory conduction is aided by located at .

A) sodium–potassium pumps; terminal buttons B) sodium iand ipotassium ichannels; inodes iof iRanvier C) calcium channels; nodes of Ranvier D) glial cells; nodes of Ranvier

63. Myelin is important for propagating action potentials (AP) because: A) it increases the AP's conduction speed.

B) it reduces the need for sodium and potassium.

C) it conserves energy.

D) it iboth iincreases ithe iAP's iconduction ispeed iand iconserves ienergy.

64. Saltatory conduction refers to: A) sodium concentration in the extracellular fluid.

B) action potentials that are facilitated by sodium.

C) action ipotentials ijumping ifrom ione inode ito ithe inext.

D) the leakage of the sodium channels that require the existence of a sodium–potassium pump.

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65. On larger myelinated axons, nerve impulses can reach speeds of up to second.

A) 100 B) 50 C) 120 D) 30

meters per

66. The symptoms of multiple sclerosis are caused by: A) excess myelin on axons.

B) loss iof imyelin iaround iaxons.

C) excess excitatory input.

D) excess inhibitory input.

67. Melissa, a 23-year-old woman, has been having tingling sensations in her right arm and leg for a few weeks. Today, when she woke up, she realized that she could barely move her right arm. She had a similar set of symptoms a couple of years ago, but they went away, so she thought everything was fine. Your advice to Melissa is to go to the doctor because: A) she may have the flu.

B) she may have a brain tumor.

C) she imay ihave imultiple isclerosis.

D) she may have Huntington disease.

68. Multiple sclerosis is thought to be: A) an autoimmune disease.

B) related to vitamin D. C) related to genetic risk factors.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

69. The speed at which nerve impulses travel down an axon are greatly increased by: A) myelin.

B) refractory periods.

C) the length of the axon.

D) calcium channels.

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70. A brief depolarization of the neuronal membrane that makes it more likely that the neuron will fire an action potential is called: A) saltatory conduction.

B) an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP).

C) an iexcitatory ipostsynaptic ipotential i(EPSP).

D) spatial summation.

71. A brief hyperpolarization of the neuronal membrane that makes it less likely that the neuron will fire an action potential is called: A) saltatory conduction.

B) an iinhibitory ipostsynaptic ipotential i(IPSP).

C) an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP).

D) spatial summation.

72. Excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) are recorded: A) at the synaptic knob.

B) in the axon.

C) in the dendrites.

D) from ithe icell ibody.

73. EPSPs are associated with , whereas IPSPs are associated with A) opening iof isodium ichannels; iopening iof ipotassium ichannels B) opening of sodium channels; closing of potassium channels C) closing of sodium channels; opening of potassium channels D) opening of calcium channels; closing of potassium channels

74. Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) are associated with: A) the iopening iof ipotassium ichannels, iallowing ithe ioutflow iof ipotassium.

B) the opening of sodium channels, allowing the influx of sodium.

C) the closing of potassium channels, stopping the influx of potassium.

D) the closing of sodium channels, stopping the influx of potassium.

75. EPSPs are associated with: A) the opening of potassium channels, allowing the outflow of potassium.

B) the iopening iof isodium ichannels, iallowing ithe iinflux iof isodium.

C) the closing of potassium channels, stopping the influx of potassium.

D) the closing of sodium channels, stopping the influx of potassium.

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76. Stimulation producing two EPSPs in quick succession illustrates: A) spatial summation.

B) temporal isummation.

C) both spatial and temporal summation.

D) neither spatial nor temporal summation.

77. Simultaneous stimulation at two locations on a cell membrane that leads to an EPSP is an example of: A) spatial isummation.

B) temporal summation.

C) both spatial and temporal summation.

D) neither spatial nor temporal summation.

78. Spatial summation is more likely to occur: A) when the two impulses are far apart on the membrane.

B) when ithe itwo iimpulses iare iclose itogether ion ithe imembrane.

C) without regard to distance on the membrane.

D) when one EPSP follows the second by a short interval.

79. EPSPs on the distant dendrite's tree: A) have maximum influence on an action potential.

B) are easier to summate both spatially and temporally than EPSPs elsewhere.

C) are iless ilikely ito ihave ia idynamic ieffect ithan ithose iclose ito ithe iaxon ihillock.

D) do not modulate action potentials.

80. For an EPSP to cause another action potential, the stimulation must reach the which is (are) rich in voltage-sensitive ion channels.

A) initial isegment i(axon ihillock) B) cell body C) dendrites D) terminal buttons

81. Action potentials originate in the: A) axon.

B) dendrites.

C) cell body.

D) initial isegment i(axon ihillock).

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82. The acts in a way similar to a democracy in that it "counts votes" from incoming EPSPs and IPSPs, and if there is enough excitation, an action potential will fire.

A) axon ihillock B) dendrite C) soma D) ion channel

83.

is the term used to denote reverse movement of the action potential into the dendrites.

A) EPSP reversal B) Back ipropagation C) Inverse IPSP D) None of the answers is correct.

84.

A) B) C) D)

may play a role in the neural plasticity that is associated with learning.

Spatial summation Back ipropagation Temporal summation The relative refractory period

A) B) C) D)

combines genetics and light to control targeted cells in living tissue.

Photogenetics Optogenetics Infragenetics None of the answers is correct.

85.

86. Research on optogenetics and light-sensitive ion channels has revealed that channel rhodopsin-2 can be used to neurons and halorhodopsin can be used to neurons.

A) hyperpolarize; depolarize B) depolarize; ihyperpolarize C) destroy; depolarize D) depolarize; destroy

87. EPSPs and IPSPs are first received by: A) the soma.

B) the neuronal membrane.

C) dendrites.

D) the axon hillock.

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88. Stretch-sensitive channels are typically found on the dendrites of: A) motor neurons.

B) interneurons.

C) sensory ineurons.

D) All of the answers are correct.

89. Dendrites of touch-sensitive neurons are activated by: A) stretching iopen iNa+ ichannels.

B) stretching open K+ channels.

C) closing K+ channels.

D) closing Cl– channels.

90. An end plate is found on: A) a imuscle imembrane.

B) a dendrite membrane.

C) an axon.

D) touch receptors.

91. Hair receptors are associated with: A) taste.

B) vision.

C) hearing iand ibalance.

D) touch.

92. The muscle end plate is activated by the neurotransmitter: A) serotonin.

B) norepinephrine.

C) dopamine.

D) acetylcholine.

93. The neurotransmitter-sensitive ion channels on muscle end plates differ from other ion channels in that: A) they have a different resting membrane potential.

B) they allow only K+ to leave the neuronal membrane.

C) they allow only Cl– to leave the neuronal membrane.

D) K+ iand iNa+ ienter iand ileave ithrough ithe isame ichannels.

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94. Lou Gehrig's disease is also known as: A) multiple sclerosis.

B) arteriosclerosis.

C) amyotrophic ilateral isclerosis.

D) poliomyelitis.

95.

is a disease that has been linked with the death of A) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis; sensory neurons B) Myasthenia gravis; sensory neurons C) Amyotrophic ilateral isclerosis; ispinal imotor ineurons D) Myasthenia gravis; interneurons

.

96. Alex is 53 years old and has had weakness in his throat and chest for a few months. Now, he is also starting to have general weakness in his arms and legs. The weakness in his legs has gotten so bad that yesterday he fell down when walking across his living room.

Alex appears to be showing early signs of: A) Parkinson disease.

B) amyotrophic ilateral isclerosis i(Lou iGehrig's idisease).

C) Huntington disease.

D) Alzheimer disease.

97. Myasthenia gravis is: A) an iautoimmune idisease.

B) more common in men than women.

C) caused by a viral infection.

D) caused by a bacterial infection.

98.

is often accompanied by drooping eyelids, difficulty swallowing, and general fatigue.

A) Huntington disease B) Tay-Sachs disease C) Myasthenia igravis D) Tetrodotoxin poisoning

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Chapter 5 – How do neurons communicate and adapt?

1.

A) B) C) D)

is a neurotransmitter that slows down heart rate, whereas Acetylcholine; inorepinephrine Epinephrine; norepinephrine Norepinephrine; acetylcholine Epinephrine; acetylcholine

speeds it up.

2. Acetylcholine helps muscle contraction in the somatic nervous system (SNS), whereas it acts to muscle contraction in the autonomic nervous system (ANS).

A) excite; iexcite ior iinhibit B) inhibit; slow down C) excite; inhibit D) inhibit; excite

3. The notion that the nervous system communicates using chemical messages was first demonstrated by: A) Santiago Ramón y Cajal.

B) Camillo Golgi.

C) Otto iLoewi.

D) Donald Hebb.

4. Chemicals released by a neuron onto a target with an excitatory or inhibitory effect are called: A) messengers.

B) action potentials.

C) neurotransmitters.

D) second messengers.

5.

A) B) C) D)

acts to increase heart rate.

Acetylcholine Norepinephrine Serotonin Dopamine

A) B) C) D)

can also act as neurotransmitters.

Synapses Mitochondria Hormones None of the answers is correct.

6.

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7.

is linked with shaking in the limbs, loss of balance, and general loss of muscular control.

A) Parkinson idisease B) Lou Gehrig disease C) Huntington disease D) All of the answers are correct.

8. Parkinson disease is linked with the loss of A) acetylcholine B) dopamine C) norepinephrine D) serotonin

neurons in the midbrain.

9. The structure of synapses is best viewed with a(n): A) electron imicroscope.

B) light microscope.

C) confocal microscope.

D) Nissl-stained microscopic procedure.

10.

contain the neurotransmitters.

A) Synaptic ivesicles B) Ribosomes C) Axons D) Dendrites

11. Electron microscopy is a useful tool in the study of synaptic morphology. The resolution of an electron microscope is much greater than that of a light microscope because: A) smaller ielectron iwaves iscatter iless ithan ilight iwaves.

B) light waves scatter less than electron waves.

C) larger electron waves scatter more than light waves.

D) larger light waves scatter in patterns similar to those of electron waves.

12. A synaptic cleft is the space between: A) a synaptic vesicle and an axon terminal.

B) a dendrite and an ion channel.

C) an ion channel and an axon terminal.

D) an iaxon iterminal iand ia idendrite.

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13.

contribute to chemical neurotransmission by supplying the building blocks for neurotransmitters or by cleaning up excess neurotransmitters.

A) Glial icells B) Dendrites C) Receptors D) Neurons

14. The contents of a synaptic vesicle include: A) neurotransmitters.

B) structural proteins.

C) DNA. D) neurotransmitters, structural proteins, and DNA.

15. Axon terminals are found on the whereas dendritic spines are found on the A) postsynaptic membrane; presynaptic membrane B) soma; neuron C) presynaptic imembrane; ipostsynaptic imembrane D) neuron; synapse

16. Neurons in which the ion channels from one cell connect directly with ion channels on another cell are called: A) gap junctions.

B) electrical synapses.

C) chemical synapses.

D) Both igap ijunctions iand ielectrical isynapses iare icorrect.

17.

A) B) C) D)

store several vesicles containing neurotransmitters.

Storage igranules Synaptic vesicles Transporter proteins Golgi bodies

18. Which of the following would NOT be found at the axon terminal?

A) mitochondria B) cell membrane C) synaptic vesicles D) axon ihillock

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19. Electrical synapses: A) do not exist in mammals.

B) are irelatively irare iin imammals.

C) are roughly 50 percent of all mammalian synapses.

D) are the prime mechanism of neurotransmission in mammals.

20. Compared with chemical synapses, electrical synapses: A) transmit imessages ifaster.

B) transmit messages more slowly.

C) require more metabolic energy.

D) do not require presynaptic activation.

21. There are more chemical synapses than electrical synapses in the mammalian nervous system because chemical synapses: A) transmit signals more quickly.

B) allow ibetter icontrol iof imessages ipassed ibetween ineurons.

C) send only excitatory signals.

D) cannot be modified by learning.

22. Precursor chemicals that form the building blocks for neurotransmitters are absorbed from the: A) mitochondria.

B) blood isupply.

C) cell nucleus.

D) Golgi apparatus.

23. Protein molecules that pump substances across a membrane are called: A) microfilaments.

B) microtubules.

C) transporters.

D) microvehicles

24. Neurotransmitters are produced in the: A) cell body.

B) presynaptic terminals.

C) Golgi body.

D) cell ibody iand ipresynaptic iterminals.

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25. Voltage-gated calcium ion channels that function in neurotransmission are primarily found on the: A) postsynaptic membrane.

B) presynaptic imembrane.

C) synaptic vesicles.

D) dendrites.

26. In order for neurotransmitters to be released, A) Na+ B) Ca2+ C) K+ D) Cl–

must enter the terminal button.

27. Ultimately Ca2+ serves to aid neural transmission by: A) causing an action potential.

B) helping to make neurotransmitters.

C) opening K+ channels on axon terminals.

D) causing ithe irelease iof ineurotransmitter iinto ithe isynaptic icleft.

28. Synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitters via: A) endocytosis.

B) pinocytosis.

C) exocytosis.

D) phagocytosis.

29. Which of the following presynaptic events are in correct chronological order?

A) calcium ion influx, action potential reaches axon terminal, vesicle fuses with membrane, diffusion of neurotransmitter B) action ipotential ireache iaxon iterminal, icalcium iion ichannel iopen, iexocyt i , idiff ion iof ineurotra mitter C) exocytosis, calcium ion influx, action potential reaches axon terminal, membrane depolarization D) action potential reaches axon terminal, calcium ion channels open, neurotransmitter diffusion, exocytosis

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30. When a neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to a transmitteractivated receptor, which of the following may occur in the postsynaptic cell?

A) membrane depolarization B) membrane hyperpolarization C) initiation of chemical reactions D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

31. Receptors on the presynaptic side that may be influenced by neurotransmitters are called: A) autoreceptors.

B) presynaptic receptors.

C) presynaptic terminals.

D) All of the answers are correct.

32. For an action potential to be elicited: A) one quantum of neurotransmitter must be released from the presynaptic cell.

B) multiple iquanta iof ineurotransmitter imust ibe ireleased ifrom ithe ipresynaptic icell.

C) calcium ions must enter the postsynaptic cell.

D) one quantum of neurotransmitter must be released from the presynaptic cell, and calcium ions must enter the postsynaptic cell.

33. How is a neurotransmitter removed from the synaptic cleft?

A) diffusion B) enzymatic degradation C) uptake by surrounding glial cells D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

34.

is the deactivation of a neurotransmitter by transporter proteins that bring the transmitter back into the presynaptic side for reuse.

A) Diffusion B) Enzymatic degradation C) Reuptake D) Neurochemical recycling

35.

is the process of neurotransmitter deactivation whereby the neurotransmitter simply leaves the synaptic cleft.

A) Diffusion B) Enzymatic degradation C) Reuptake D) Glial uptake

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36.

is the deactivation of a neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft by enzymes.

A) Reuptake B) Degradation C) Breakdown D) Decay

37. Reuptake is accomplished by: A) transporter iproteins.

B) glial cells.

C) enzymes.

D) calcium channels .

38. Transmitters are usually released in the blood via: A) axodendritic synapses.

B) axosomatic synapses.

C) axosecretory isynapses.

D) axoaxonic synapses.

39.

A) B) C) D)

synapses send signals from one axon to another axon.

Axoaxonic Axodendritic Dendodendritic Axosynaptic

A) B) C) D)

synapses are terminals that have no specific target.

Axoextracellular Axosomatic Axodendritic Axosynaptic

40.

41.

synapses send signals from an axon to a cell body.

A) Axoextracellular B) Axosomatic C) Axodendritic D) Axosynaptic

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42. When an axon terminal synapses on another axon terminal, it is called: A) an axosomatic synapse.

B) an axoaxonic synapse.

C) an iaxosynaptic isynapse.

D) an axodendritic synapse.

43. Gap junctions are: A) axoaxonic synapses.

B) dendodendritic synapses.

C) somasomatic synapses.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

44. A chemical that has not yet met all the conditions that constitute a neurotransmitter is referred to as a(n): A) chemical signaler.

B) secondary messenger.

C) putative ineurotransmitter.

D) unclassified neurotransmitter.

45.

was the first neurotransmitter discovered in the CNS. A) Histamine B) Serotonin C) Dopamine D) Acetylcholine

46. A Renshaw loop consists of: A) an iinterneuron ithat iinhibits ithe iactivity iof ia imotor ineuron.

B) a sensory neuron that increases the activity of a motor neuron.

C) an interneuron that increases the activity of a motor neuron.

D) a sensory neuron that increases the activity of an interneuron.

47. Which of the following is NOT part of the amine subtype of small-molecule neurotransmitters?

A) dopamine B) glycine C) serotonin D) norepinephrine

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48.

is found in foods such as egg yolk, avocado, salmon, and olive oil.

A) Choline B) Acetate C) Tryptophan D) All of the answers are correct.

49. Which of the following is NOT a classification type of neurotransmitter?

A) small molecule B) nucleic iacid C) gaseous D) peptide

50. Acetylcholine is synthesized from acetate and choline by: A) choline iacetyltransferase i(ChAT).

B) choline acetylbinderase (ChAB).

C) tyrosine hydroxylase.

D) histamine.

51.

is a neurotransmitter that helps control arousal, walking, and the contraction of smooth muscle. It also contributes to asthma, a constriction of the airways.

A) Acetylcholine B) Histamine C) Glycine D) Dopamine

52. Acetylcholine is deactivated through: A) reuptake.

B) diffusion.

C) enzymatic idegradation.

D) glial reuptake.

53.

A) B) C) D)

is an amino acid that is important for the synthesis of Tyrosine hydroxylase; acetylcholine Choline; dopamine Tryptophan; L-dopa Tyrosine ihydroxylase; idopamine

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54. The rate by which dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine can be synthesized is controlled by a rate-limiting factor that is linked to the availability of: A) tryptophan.

B) ChAT. C) tyrosine ihydroxylase.

D) histamine.

55.

is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain whereas primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain.

A) GABA; iglutamate B) Glycine; glutamate C) Glutamate; GABA D) Aspartate; glycine

is the

56. The rate-limiting factor of dopamine synthesis can be bypassed through the oral administration of: A) acetylcholine.

B) L-dopa.

C) tryptophan.

D) norepinephrine.

57.

plays a role in regulating mood, appetite, aggression, and arousal.

A) Norepinephrine B) Dopamine C) Acetylcholine D) Serotonin

58.

are(is) assembled in the cell body and transported to the terminal buttons via microtubules.

A) Amines B) Serotonin C) Peptide itransmitters D) Amino acid transmitters

59. What is the predominant inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord?

A) GABA B) glutamate C) glycine D) histamine

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60.

is a neurotransmitter that is synthesized from tryptophan.

A) Dopamine B) L-dopa C) Glutamate D) Serotonin

61. Which of the following is NOT an amino acid neurotransmitter?

A) dopamine B) glutamate C) glycine D) GABA

62. Which is the correct sequence of amine neurotransmitters?

A) tyrosine, dopamine, L-dopa, epinephrine, norepinephrine B) L-dopa, tyrosine, dopamine, norepinephrine, epinephrine C) tyrosine, L-dopa, dopamine, epinephrine, norepinephrine D) tyrosine, iL-dopa, idopamine, inorepinephrine, iepinephrine

63. Which two neurotransmitters are synthesized from the same precursor molecule?

A) glycine and dopamine B) glutamate iand iGABA C) histamine and serotonin D) acetylcholine and glycine

64.

are a class of neurotransmitters that can act as hormones for fertility, childbirth, and lactation.

A) Peptides B) Amines C) Transmitter gases D) None of the answers is correct.

65. Both THC and anandamide are examples of: A) endocannabinoids.

B) recreational drugs.

C) excitatory neurotransmitters.

D) All of the answers are correct.

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66.

is part of a class of lipid transmitters called endocannabinoids that can influence appetite, pain, sleep, mood, and stress.

A) CB1 B) Anandamide C) Glycine D) Met-enkephalin

67. In the popular movie Awakenings, was used to treat patients with a rare movement disorder that followed a severe influenza outbreak in the 1920s.

A) acetylcholine B) norepinehphrine C) L-dopa D) dopamine

68. Nitric oxide (NO) is a gas neurotransmitter that: A) is stored in synaptic vesicles.

B) is synthesized in the soma.

C) dilates iblood ivessels iin iactive ibrain iareas.

D) is degraded by digestive enzymes.

69. Ionotropic receptors: A) change iin ishape iwhen ineurotransmitters ibind ito ithem.

B) have no openings for ion diffusion.

C) activate second messenger systems.

D) are more metabolically expensive than metabotropic receptors.

70. The opening of an ionotropic receptor can directly influence the movement of across the neuronal membrane.

A) Ca2+ B) Na+ C) K+ D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

71. Metabotropic receptors consist of: A) complex units of membrane-spanning proteins.

B) a isingle imembrane-spanning iprotein.

C) a single non–membrane-spanning protein.

D) complex units of non–membrane-spanning proteins.

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72. Which of the following terms is NOT associated with metabotropic receptors?

A) second messengers B) G proteins C) alpha subunits D) All iof ithese iterms iare iassociated iwith imetabotropic ireceptors.

73. A second-messenger system can: A) alter ion flow through the membrane channels.

B) cause a series of reactions that result in the formation of new membrane ion channels.

C) initiate or cease the production of specific proteins.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

74. What chemicals are the first messenger?

A) G proteins B) alpha subunits C) neurotransmitters D) sodium ions

75. Dopamine binds to receptors.

A) ionotropic B) metabotropic C) both ionotropic and metabotropic D) None of the answers is correct.

76. Acetylcholine is the main neurotransmitter for: A) all iskeletal imotor isynapses.

B) 95 percent of skeletal motor synapses.

C) half of skeletal motor synapses.

D) no skeletal motor synapses.

77. All neurons leaving the spinal cord have: A) acetylcholine ias ia ineurotransmitter.

B) dopamine as a neurotransmitter.

C) GABA as a neurotransmitter.

D) both dopamine and GABA as neurotransmitters.

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78.

activates the sympathetic nervous system, whereas parasympathetic nervous system.

A) Norepinephrine; epinephrine B) Norepinephrine; iacetylcholine C) Acetylcholine; norepinephrine D) Epinephrine; norepinephrine

activates the

79. Neurotransmitters are identified by which of the following criteria?

A) synthesis B) release C) receptor activation D) synthesis, irelease, iand ireceptor iactivation

80. Which of the following is NOT one of the activating systems in the CNS? A) glutamate B) dopamine C) norepinephrine D) acetylcholine

81. Which of the following activating system–cell body location pairs is NOT correct?

A) acetylcholine, basal forebrain B) norepinephrine, locus coeruleus C) dopamine, substantia nigra D) serotonin, iventral itegmentum

82. Acetylcholine has been related to: A) depression.

B) schizophrenia.

C) Alzheimer idisease.

D) mania.

83. Dopamine may be related to: A) depression.

B) schizophrenia.

C) Alzheimer disease.

D) mania.

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84. The substance MPTP has been found to be selectively toxic to A) serotonin-producing B) dopamine-producing C) acetylcholine-producing D) norepinephrine-producing

neurons.

85. Fetal tissue transplants have been used to help treat: A) Alzheimer disease.

B) schizophrenia.

C) Huntington disease.

D) Parkinson idisease.

86. Serotonin has been related to: A) depression.

B) schizophrenia.

C) Alzheimer disease.

D) mania.

87. Mania has been related to: A) acetylcholine.

B) dopamine.

C) norepinephrine.

D) serotonin.

88. The neural basis of habituation: A) involves icalcium iion iinflux idecrease.

B) involves calcium ion influx increase.

C) occurs postsynaptically.

D) involves calcium ion influx increase and occurs postsynaptically.

89. Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has been linked with: A) an iincreased iresponse ito istimuli.

B) a decreased response to stimuli.

C) a decrease in acetylcholine.

D) a decreased response to stimuli and a decrease in acetylcholine.

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90. Habituation is the result of: A) sensory neurons not being able to produce action potentials.

B) motor neurons not being able to produce action potentials.

C) excitatory ipostsynaptic ipotentials ibeing ismaller.

D) both sensory and motor neurons not being able to produce action potentials.

91. It has been found that in well-trained and habituated Aplysia, the number of sensory synapses: A) decreases but the size stays constant.

B) stays constant but the size decreases.

C) decreases and the size increases.

D) decreases iand ithe isize idecreases.

92. Increasing the number of synapses to account for learning involves activation of , a second messenger.

A) calcium; cGMP B) potassium; cAMP C) calcium; icAMP D) sodium; cGMP

, leading to the

93. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A) Dendritic spines mediate learning that lasts, including habituation and sensitization B) Dendritic ispines iare idesigned ito iact ionly iin iunison.

C) Dendritic spines may appear or disappear on a dendrite in a matter of seconds.

D) Dendritic spines, when forming a synapse, can change in size and shape and can even divide.

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Chapter 6 – How do drugs and hormones influence the brain and behaviour?

1. Various forms of A) barbiturates B) opioids C) amphetamines D) antipsychotics

2.

A) B) C) D)

have been used as study pills by students.

is the study of how drugs affect the nervous system and behavior.

Neuroscience Biopsychology Neuropsychology Psychopharmacology

3. Drugs that are used to manage neuropsychological illness are called: A) prophylactic drugs.

B) psychoactive idrugs.

C) mood drugs.

D) psychodepressant drugs.

4. Which of the following is the LEAST efficient method of drug administration?

A) injection into the bloodstream B) injection into the brain C) oral iconsumption D) inhaling the drug

5. If a person is dying and needs lifesaving medication to be administered as quickly as possible, what is the BEST method of administration?

A) oral consumption B) injection into muscle C) injection iinto ithe ibloodstream D) a patch on the skin

6. The correct order from LEAST efficient to MOST efficient method of drug administration is: A) oral iconsumption, iinhalation, iinjection iinto ithe ibloodstream.

B) skin patch, oral consumption, injection into muscle.

C) injection into muscle, injection into bloodstream, oral consumption.

D) inhalation, oral consumption, injection into the brain.

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7. Approximately how many liters of blood are in the circulatory system at any one time?

A) 3 B) 6 C) 9 D) 12

8. Which is the MOST effective in passing through the blood–brain barrier easily?

A) weak-base drugs B) drugs bound to proteins C) hydrophobic drugs D) water-soluble idrugs

9. One thousand micrograms of amphetamine taken orally is equivalent to: A) 100 micrograms injected into the cerebrospinal fluid.

B) 10 imicrograms iinjected iinto ithe icerebrospinal ifluid.

C) 5 micrograms injected into the cerebrospinal fluid.

D) 1 microgram injected into the cerebrospinal fluid.

10. Endothelial cells are: A) surrounded iby ithe iend ifeet iof iastrocyte iglial icells.

B) associated with veins.

C) organized in the same fashion throughout the body.

D) None of the answers is correct.

11. Tight junctions are associated with: A) astrocyte glial cells.

B) endothelial icells.

C) synaptic clefts.

D) drugs bound to proteins.

12. The pituitary gland is to the area postrema of the lower brainstem as: A) toxins are to hormones.

B) hormones iare ito itoxins.

C) vomiting is to shivering.

D) shivering is to vomiting.

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13. The does NOT have a blood–brain barrier.

A) amygdala B) pineal igland C) thalamus D) None of these answers are correct.

14. Drugs that influence hormones primarily do so by acting on the: A) hypothalamus.

B) pituitary igland.

C) area postrema.

D) pineal gland.

15. The blood–brain barrier does NOT allow A) glucose B) amino acids C) neurochemicals D) oxygen

to pass through.

16. Which of the following substances can pass through the endothelial membrane in the blood–brain barrier unassisted (i.e., without active transport)?

A) glucose B) carbon idioxide C) amino acids D) All of the answers are correct.

17. Which of the following does NOT cross the blood–brain barrier?

A) oxygen B) glucose C) amino acids D) None iof ithe ianswers iis icorrect.

18. The breakdown of drugs by the body is referred to as: A) reuptake.

B) metabolization.

C) catabolization.

D) deactivation.

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19. The is especially important for catabolizing drugs in the body.

A) liver B) pancreas C) kidneys D) gallbladder

20.

cannot be easily broken down by the body and can cause severe neurological side effects.

A) Mercury B) Magnesium C) Aluminum D) Potassium

21. Psychoactive drugs have most of their effects at the: A) cell body.

B) axon.

C) synapse.

D) dendrites.

22. A drug that prevents the breakdown of acetylcholine at synapses is an example of an: A) antagonist.

B) accelerant.

C) blocker.

D) agonist.

23. A drug that reduces dopamine release at synapses is an example of a(n): A) antagonist.

B) accelerant.

C) blocker.

D) agonist.

24. Agonist is to antagonist as: A) receptor is to terminal button.

B) drug is to neurotransmitter.

C) accelerate iis ito ibrake.

D) slow is to fast.

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25. Botulin toxin (botulism) causes paralysis and slowed breathing and is therefore: A) an acetylcholine agonist.

B) an iacetylcholine iantagonist.

C) a dopamine agonist.

D) a dopamine antagonist.

26. Black widow spider venom: A) promotes ithe irelease iof iacetylcholine.

B) blocks receptors.

C) stimulates receptors.

D) inhibits the release of acetylcholine.

27. Black widow spider venom affects its victim by: A) promoting ithe irelease iof iacetylcholine.

B) inhibiting the release of acetylcholine.

C) blocking postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors.

D) activating postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors.

28. Curare acts as a(n): A) acetylcholine agonist.

B) acetylcholine iantagonist.

C) serotonin antagonist.

D) dopamine antagonist.

29. Nicotine acts as a(n): A) acetylcholine iagonist.

B) serotonin agonist.

C) acetylcholine antagonist.

D) dopamine antagonist.

30. Curare: A) promotes the release of acetylcholine.

B) blocks ireceptors.

C) stimulates receptors.

D) inhibits the release of acetylcholine.

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31. Nicotine, a chemical found in tobacco smoke, has its effect by: A) promoting ithe irelease iof iacetylcholine.

B) inhibiting the release of acetylcholine.

C) blocking the GABA receptors.

D) activating the GABA receptors.

32.

was used to make poison arrowheads by South American natives.

A) Curare, an acetylcholine agonist, B) Physostigmine, an acetylcholine antagonist, C) Physostigmine, an acetylcholine agonist, D) Curare, ian iacetylcholine iantagonist,

33.

A) B) C) D)

has been used to treat some memory disorders.

Curare, an acetylcholine antagonist, Botulin toxin, an acetylcholine agonist, Physostigmine, ian iacetylcholine iagonist, None of the answers is correct.

34. Physostigmine acts by: A) reducing the release of acetylcholine.

B) increasing the release of acetylcholine.

C) speeding up the reuptake of acetylcholine.

D) slowing ithe ibreakdown iof iacetylcholine iin ithe isynapse.

35. An example of an organophosphate is: A) curare.

B) physostigmine.

C) insecticide.

D) botulinum toxin.

36.

is a decreased response to a drug over time.

A) Addiction B) Tolerance C) Dependence D) Sensitization

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37. If a person consumes five alcoholic drinks per day for 2 months that person will demonstrate and at the end of the 2 months.

A) less iintoxication; ithe isame iblood ialcohol ilevel B) more intoxication; an increased blood alcohol level C) less intoxication; a lower blood alcohol level D) more intoxication; the same blood alcohol level

38. When the number of enzymes needed to break down a drug in the liver increases, it is called: A) cellular tolerance.

B) metabolic itolerance.

C) sensitization.

D) habituation.

39. The development of can explain why a person may not appear to be intoxicated despite having a high blood alcohol level.

A) metabolic tolerance B) addiction C) sensitization D) cellular itolerance

40.

is likely to increase with A) Tolerance; occasional B) Sensitization; repeated C) Sensitization; ioccasional D) None of the answers is correct.

drug use.

41. Sensitization has been linked with: A) changes in receptor number on the postsynaptic membrane.

B) changes in transmitter metabolism in the synapse.

C) changes in transmitter reuptake on the presynaptic side.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

42. Sensitization usually occurs: A) as a result of cellular tolerance.

B) as a result of metabolic tolerance.

C) in ia inew ienvironment.

D) in a familiar environment.

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43. If I had an anxiety disorder I would probably take: A) Haldol.

B) Valium.

C) Prozac.

D) Imipramine.

44. Which of the following are antianxiety agents?

A) alcohol B) benzodiazepines C) barbiturates D) All of the answers are correct.

45. Haloperidol and chlorpromazine are examples of: A) antianxiety drugs.

B) antipsychotic idrugs.

C) mood stabilizers.

D) antidepressant drugs.

46. Oxycodone, fentanyl, and methadone are examples of: A) hallucinogenic drugs.

B) opioids.

C) antianxiety medications.

D) antidepressants.

47. SSRIs are often prescribed to treat: A) depression.

B) schizophrenia.

C) bipolar disorder.

D) Tourette syndrome.

48.

is an example of a psychedelic or hallucinogenic drug.

A) Phencyclidine (PCP) B) Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) C) MDMA (Ecstasy) D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

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49. Which of the following drugs is NOT considered to be an opioid analgesic?

A) heroin B) codeine C) morphine D) mescaline

50.

results when tolerance for one drug is carried over to a different member of the same drug group.

A) Addiction B) Sensitization C) Cross-tolerance D) Cellular tolerance

51. GABA: A) increases the firing of cells.

B) decreases ithe ifiring iof icells.

C) is very slowly reabsorbed.

D) All of the answers are correct.

52. MAO inhibitors and tricyclics are examples of: A) antianxiety drugs.

B) antipsychotic drugs.

C) mood stabilizers.

D) antidepressant idrugs.

53. Lithium and carbamazepine are typically prescribed as: A) antianxiety drugs.

B) antipsychotic drugs C) mood istabilizers.

D) antidepressant drugs.

54.

is a disorder characterized by unusually wide spacing between the eyes, low intelligence, hyperactivity, social problems, and small brain size.

A) ADHD B) Schizophrenia C) Fetal ialcohol ispectrum idisorder D) Williams syndrome

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55. Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD) is worse if a mother drinks during the trimester(s).

A) first B) second C) third D) second and third

56. The incidence of schizophrenia is: A) one iin i100.

B) one in 1000.

C) one in 10,000.

D) one in 100,000.

57. First-generation antipsychotics influence antipsychotics influence receptors.

A) D2; i D2 iand iserotonin B) D3; D2 and serotonin C) serotonin; D2 D) serotonin; D3

receptors, whereas second-generation

58. The hypothesis of schizophrenia suggests that patients have A) norepinephrine; too much serotonin B) serotonin; not enough serotonin C) dopamine; not enough dopamine D) dopamine; itoo imuch idopamine

.

59. Schizophrenia is treated with: A) phenothiazines.

B) monoamine oxidase.

C) lithium.

D) benzodiazepines.

60. Over the course of a lifetime approximately episode that lasts for several months.

A) 10 percent B) 30 ipercent C) 50 percent D) 25 percent

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61.

deficiency has been linked with higher rates of depression.

A) Vitamin E B) Vitamin iD C) Vitamin B D) Vitamin A

62. Selective serotonin reuptake blockers are used in the treatment of: A) depression.

B) bipolar disorders.

C) schizophrenia.

D) anxiety.

63. Depression is treated with: A) butyrophenone.

B) lithium.

C) selective iserotonin ireuptake iinhibitors.

D) benzodiazepines.

64. Which of the following drugs is used to treat depression?

A) serotonin selective reuptake inhibitors B) monoamine oxidase inhibitors C) tricyclics D) All of the answers are correct.

65. MAO inhibitors increase levels of serotonin by: A) inhibiting ithe ibreakdown iof iserotonin.

B) increasing the release of serotonin.

C) increasing the sensitivity of serotonin receptors.

D) All of the answers are correct.

66. SSRIs treat depression by: A) blocking ithe ireuptake iof iserotonin.

B) increasing the release of serotonin.

C) stopping the breakdown of serotonin.

D) increasing the synthesis of serotonin.

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67. If I had a bipolar disorder, I would probably take: A) lithium.

B) Prozac.

C) Librium.

D) Haldol.

68. Anticonvulsant drugs that are used to treat epilepsy are also effective in treating: A) schizophrenia.

B) depression.

C) anxiety.

D) bipolar idisorder.

69. Your friend has recently been diagnosed with major depression. She has been prescribed several SSRIs over the last few months, but none seem to be working well. Your advice to her is to ask her doctor about using: A) clozapine.

B) ketamine.

C) L-dopa.

D) barbiturates.

70. Endorphins, enkephalins, and dynorphins are examples of: A) amphetamines.

B) hallucinogens.

C) opioid ipeptides.

D) endocannabinoids.

71. Enkephalins and dynorphins are examples of: A) opioid analgesics.

B) amphetamines.

C) endorphins.

D) antipsychotics.

72.

A) B) C) D)

is an example of an opioid analgesic.

Codeine Morphine Heroin All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

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73. The term "Soldier's Disease" was used to describe American Civil War. A) cocaine B) morphine C) heroin D) opium

addiction following the

74. The effects of cocaine can be mimicked by: A) endorphins.

B) heroin.

C) amphetamines.

D) morphine.

75.

was used by soldiers in World War II as a means of staying awake and alert and to help increase confidence.

A) Morphine B) Cocaine C) Heroin D) Amphetamine

76.

A) B) C) D)

77.

was once added to many drinks to help give them an energizing effect.

Amphetamine Cocaine Opium Morphine

has been shown to be effective in treating nausea, lack of appetite, glaucoma, and chronic pain.

A) Marijuana B) Cocaine C) Methamphetamine D) Heroin

78. An example of a serotonin psychedelic would be: A) mescaline.

B) marijuana.

C) heroin.

D) LSD.

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79. Chad is normally quiet and reserved and enjoys having a few drinks while catching up with his friends on Fridays. However, this week when they went to a new bar Chad was convinced that a person at another table was giving him "dirty looks." Chad confronted the person and started a fight which resulted in him being arrested for the first time in his life. This type of behavior could be explained by: A) disinhibition theory.

B) learning.

C) behavioral myopia.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

80. The disinhibition theory attempts to explain the effects of: A) morphine.

B) heroin.

C) amphetamine.

D) alcohol.

81. Drug abuse has been associated with changes in: A) serotonin levels.

B) dopamine ilevels.

C) acetylcholine levels.

D) All of the answers are correct.

82. Sensitivity to drugs is determined by: A) size.

B) sex.

C) age.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

83. According to recent research, females are more like than males to abuse: A) nicotine.

B) cocaine.

C) caffeine.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

84. Another term for the incentive-sensitization theory of addiction is: A) incentive-salience theory.

B) wanting-and-liking itheory.

C) associative learning theory.

D) goal and pleasure theory.

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85. Which of the following is the correct sequence for drug addiction?

A) incentive salience, pleasure, associative learning B) associative learning, pleasure, incentive salience C) pleasure, iassociative ilearning, iincentive isalience D) incentive salience, associative learning, pleasure

86. When cues that have previously been associated with drug taking are encountered, the system becomes active, producing the subjective feeling of wanting.

A) serotonin B) limbic C) dopamine D) endorphin

87. At present, the basis for alcohol addiction is: A) mostly genetic.

B) mostly learned.

C) 50 percent learned and 50 percent genetic.

D) still iuncertain.

88. Which of the following drugs has the HIGHEST concordance rate for addiction among identical twins?

A) tobacco B) marijuana C) alcohol D) heroin

89. In large doses has been shown to have toxic effects in neurons.

A) monosodium glutamate (MSG) B) kainic acid C) ibotenic acid D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

90. Domoic acid is most toxic to the: A) neocortex.

B) medulla.

C) hippocampus.

D) basal ganglia.

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91.

Botulin toxin is found in: A) bee and wasp stings.

B) the crocus plant.

C) tainted ifood.

D) plant berries.

92. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) Kainate receptors are glutamate receptors.

B) Glutamate can be a neurotoxin.

C) Glutamate and MSG have a similar structure.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

93. Which of the following street drugs is LEAST likely to cause brain damage?

A) PCP (angel dust) B) MDMA (Ecstasy) C) LSD D) amphetamines

94. MDMA (Ecstasy) has been shown to have toxic effects on: A) dopamine terminals.

B) serotonin inerve ifibers.

C) norepinephrine synthesis.

D) glutamate release.

95. The produces neurohormones, whereas the A) pituitary gland; hypothalamus B) thalamus; hypothalamus C) hypothalamus; thalamus D) hypothalamus; ipituitary igland

secretes releasing hormones.

96. The hormone testosterone MOST likely has its behavioral effects by: A) acting like a neurotransmitter and activating postsynaptic receptors.

B) acting like a neurotransmitter and activating presynaptic transmitter release.

C) entering ia ineuron iand iactivating igenes.

D) modifying RNA messengers.

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97. Testosterone and cortisol are examples of: A) steroid ihormones.

B) peptide hormones.

C) gonadal hormones.

D) homeostatic hormones.

98.

is an important homeostatic hormone.

A) Testosterone B) Cortisol C) Insulin D) Oxytocin

99. Gonadal hormones: A) contribute to cognitive functioning.

B) are less important for females in producing the female body.

C) act on us before we are born.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

100.

Epinephrine: A) turns off insulin.

B) shuts down reproductive functions.

C) inhibits the immune system.

D) prepares ithe ibody ifor ia isudden isurge iof iactivity.

101.

The hormone involved in our fast response to danger or threat is: A) cortisol.

B) epinephrine.

C) corticotropin.

D) thyrotropin.

102.

Periods of prolonged stress can result in as well as .

A) a idecrease iin isize iof ithe ihippocampus; ian iincrease iin isize iof ithe iamygdala B) a decrease in size in the hippocampus; a decrease in the size of the amygdala C) an increase in the size of the hippocampus; an increase in the size of the amygdala D) an increase in the size of the hippocampus; a decrease in the size of the amygdala

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103.

Which of the following sequences is correct?

A) corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), adrenocorticotropic-releasing hormone (ACTH), adrenal medulla B) adrenocorticotropic-releasing hormone (ACTH), corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), adrenal medulla C) corticotropin-relea ing ihormone i(CRH), iadrenocorticotropic-relea ing ihormone i CT D) adrenocorticotropic-releasing hormone (ACTH), corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), adrenal cortex

104.

It is suggested that high levels of stress can damage neurons in the: A) hypothalamus.

B) hippocampus.

C) thalamus.

D) amygdala.

105.

Cortisol levels are usually regulated by the: A) amygdala.

B) hippocampus.

C) pituitary gland.

D) thalamus,

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Chapter 7 – How do we study the brain’s structures and functions?

1. In a study on infant language, researchers found that when newborn infants listened to a familiar language there was a(n) in oxygenated hemoglobin, and there was in oxygenated hemoglobin when they listened to an unfamiliar language.

A) decrease; an increase B) increase; no change C) decrease; no change D) increase; ia idecrease

2. The electroencephalograph (EEG) was invented by: A) Hans iBerger.

B) Wilder Penfield.

C) Paul Broca.

D) Karl Lashley.

3. Broca's area is located in the: A) temporal lobe.

B) parietal lobe.

C) frontal ilobe.

D) limbic lobe.

4. The first field to study the relationship between brain function and behavior was: A) neurology.

B) neuropsychology.

C) physiological physiology.

D) behaviorism.

5.

stains show cell bodies, whereas (e.g., dendrites).

A) Golgi; Nissl B) Nissl; iGolgi C) Broca; Golgi D) Nissl; Broca

stains show cell bodies and processes

6. A study contrasting normal rats and ADX rats (which had their adrenal glands removed) observed that: A) both groups of rats learned normally.

B) both groups of rats had difficulty remembering objects they had encountered before.

C) only iADX irats ihad idifficulty iremembering iobjects ithey ihad iencountered ibefore.

D) corticosterone plays no role in learning and memory.

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7. The Corsi test measures: A) verbal memory.

B) language.

C) sensory perception.

D) spatial imemory.

8. The mirror drawing task measures: A) sensory perception.

B) motor imemory.

C) sensory memory.

D) spatial memory.

9. In rats, place learning is measured using: A) the Corsi test.

B) a ihidden iescape iplatform iin ia iswimming ipool.

C) the recency memory task.

D) the block span task.

10. For measuring spatial memory in rats the platform is placed in one location for numerous trials to measure , whereas the platform is placed in a new location on each trial for measuring .

A) place ilearning; imatching-to-place ilearning B) matching-to-place learning; place learning C) matching-to-place learning; landmark learning D) landmark learning; matching-to-place learning

11. Modifying the brain and observing the effects on behavior is a valuable experimental tool because: A) it allows researchers to develop testable hypotheses about how the brain influences behavior.

B) it allows a hypothesis to be tested experimentally.

C) it allows for the development of animal models of human disorders.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

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12. Lashley made lesions on the cortex of rats in his search for the location of memory. He found that: A) memory resided in the hippocampus.

B) small lesions to the temporal lobes produced memory loss.

C) memory iis idistributed ithroughout ithe ibrain iand inot ilocated iin iany isingle iplace.

D) None of the answers is correct.

13. To study the role of a specific brain structure in behavior, you should: A) study patients with damage to the brain region of interest.

B) study animals with damage to the brain region of interest.

C) apply transcranial magnetic stimulation to the brain region of interest.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

14. In 1957 Scoville and Milner described a patient who had profound amnesia following a surgical removal of the: A) frontal lobe.

B) amygdala.

C) hippocampus.

D) parietal lobe.

15. A stereotaxic apparatus is primarily used: A) in fMRI. B) for itargeting ia ispecific ipart iof ithe ibrain ifor iablation.

C) for transcranial magnetic stimulation.

D) for lesioning and transcranial magnetic stimulation.

16. To place subcortical lesions accurately, it is necessary to use: A) a istereotaxic iapparatus.

B) an aspiration lesion.

C) an fMRI. D) All of the answers are correct.

17. Neurotoxic lesions destroy , and electrolytic lesions destroy A) only neurons; only fibers B) neurons; ineurons iand ifibers C) only fibers; only neurons D) neurons and fibers; fibers

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18.

applied to the globus pallidus has been used as a treatment for Parkinson disease.

A) Self-stimulation B) Deep ibrain istimulation C) Transcranial magnetic stimulation D) All of the answers are correct.

19.

was the first to use electrical stimulation in humans during neurosurgery.

A) Hebb B) Wishaw C) Penfield D) Broca

20. One can create a behavioral model of Parkinson disease in a rat by: A) lesioning ithe isubstantia inigra.

B) stimulating the substantia nigra.

C) lesioning the globus pallidus.

D) stimulating the globus pallidus.

21. Deep brain stimulation has been used as a treatment for: A) Parkinson disease.

B) Huntington disease.

C) schizophrenia.

D) both Parkinson disease and obsessive-compulsive disorder.

22. With

the effects on neurons do not outlive the period of stimulation, whereas with the effects on neurons can last several minutes.

A) rTMS; TMS B) TMS; irTMS C) DBS; TMS D) rTMS; DBS

23. The administration of can produce hypokinetic rats, whereas administration of produces hyperkinetic rats.

A) amphetamine; haloperidol B) haloperidol; iamphetamine C) L-dopa; amphetamine D) amphetamine; L-dopa

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24. Administering nicotine to rats: A) improves learning.

B) impairs learning.

C) first iimproves ilearning, ithen iimpairs ilearning ion ia isecond itask.

D) first impairs learning, then improves learning on a second task.

25. The use of blue light to excite and green-yellow light to inhibit neurons is part of: A) transcranial magnetic stimulation.

B) near-infrared spectroscopy.

C) optogenetics.

D) photomicroscopy.

26. In optogenetics, channelrhodopsin-2 (ChR2) can be used to halorhodopsin (NpHR) can be used to neurons. depolarize; i hyperpolarize A) B) hyperpolarize; depolarize C) inactivate; activate D) destroy; promote the growth of

neurons, whereas

27. Which of the following is NOT one of the techniques used to measure the brain's electrical activity?

A) EEG B) MEG C) TMS D) single-cell recording

28. To study the electrical activity of a group of neurons you would use study the electrical activity of a single neuron you would use .

A) intracellular recording; extracellular recording B) EEG; ECoG C) extracellular irecording; iintracellular irecording D) ERP; MEG

29. EEG is a measure of: A) graded ipotentials.

B) evoked potentials.

C) action potentials.

D) event-related potentials.

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30.

rhythms are extremely regular, with a frequency of approximately 11 cycles per second, and are commonly observed when a person is awake but relaxed.

A) Alpha B) Beta C) Theta D) Delta

31. If a person is awake and alert, the EEG pattern will consist of: A) high-amplitude, high-frequency waves.

B) low-amplitude, low-frequency waves.

C) low-amplitude, ihigh-frequency iwaves.

D) There is no systematic pattern to EEG activity.

32.

EEG can be used to: A) monitor sleep.

B) estimate the depth of anesthesia.

C) detect epilepsy.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

33.

is used to measure the electrical activity of neurons on the surface of the cortex.

A) ECG B) ECoG C) MEG D) ERP

34. Place cells are found in the: A) parietal cortex.

B) cingulate gyrus.

C) amygdala.

D) hippocampus.

35. Event-related potentials are: A) quite different from the EEG. B) recorded from single neurons.

C) brief ichanges iin ithe iEEG iassociated iwith ia ispecific isensory ievent.

D) None of the answers is correct.

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36. The terms N1, P2, and P3 are related to: A) TMS. B) EEG. C) ERP. D) fMRI.

37.

measures the magnetic fields associated with electrical signals in the cortex.

A) EEG B) fMRI C) ERP D) MEG

38. The main advantage of MEG over event-related potentials (ERP) is: A) E i ibetter iat imore iprec ely iidentifying ithe i ource iof ithe iactivity ibeing i

recorded.

B) MEG is cheaper than EEG. C) MEG is better at detecting electrical activity than EEG. D) All of the answers are correct.

39. X-ray absorption is: A) low in bone.

B) high in cerebrospinal fluid.

C) high in blood.

D) medium iin ineural itissue.

40. CT scans are not useful in differentiating: A) bone from blood.

B) bone from cerebrospinal fluid.

C) white imatter ifrom igray imatter.

D) cerebrospinal fluid from white matter.

41. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scans take advantage of the magnetic properties of: A) hydrogen iatoms.

B) oxygen atoms.

C) nitrogen atoms.

D) glucose atoms.

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42. Magnetic resonance imaging involves: A) hydrogen atoms.

B) magnets.

C) radio pulses.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

43. Magnetic resonance imaging measures: A) radio ipulses iemitted iby ihydrogen iatoms.

B) radiation emitted by nitrogen atoms.

C) radiation emitted by oxygen atoms.

D) radio pulses emitted by oxygen atoms.

44. Compared to CT scans, MRI scans are more useful for differentiating gray matter from white matter because: A) MRI acquires the images at a higher resolution compared to a CT scan. ignal ifrom ithat iof iti ue B) ti ue i ith ihigh i ater icontent igenerate ia idifferent i i ith il i ater icontent.

C) of differences in oxygen content between gray matter and white matter.

D) All of the answers are correct.

45. A computed tomography (CT) scan is a: A) series iof iX-rays.

B) series of gamma rays.

C) electromagnetic differentiation of brain tissue.

D) measure of the density of hydrogen atoms.

46. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) images nerve fiber pathways by detecting: A) the idirectional imovement iof iwater imolecules.

B) different signal intensities between white blood cells and red blood cells.

C) differences in blood oxygenation.

D) changes in regional cerebral blood flow.

is used to identify changes in fiber myelination.

47.

A) B) C) D)

ECG CT scan MRS DTI

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48.

can be used to determine the concentration of various brain metabolites.

A) Diffusion tensor imaging B) Electrocardiogram C) Magnetoencephalography D) Magnetic iresonance ispectroscopy

49. If one wanted to examine changes in the levels of various brain metabolites following a concussion, one could use: A) Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI).

B) electrocardiogram (ECG).

C) Positron Emission Tomography (PET).

D) Magnetic iresonance ispectroscopy i(MRS).

50. The basis of the fMRI signal is centered on the fact that: A) the magnetic properties of blood does not change with the amount of oxygen content in it.

B) water has magnetic properties.

C) oxygen-rich iblood ihas ia ismaller imagnetic isignal ithan ioxygen-poor iblood.

D) oxygen-rich blood has a larger magnetic signal than oxygen-poor blood.

51. fMRI has high but low .

A) temporal resolution; spatial resolution B) spatial iresolution; itemporal iresolution C) radiation exposure; imaging clarity D) None of the answers is correct.

52. Which of the following is NOT one of the disadvantages of fMRI? A) poor temporal resolution B) subject must remain completely still C) feelings of claustrophobia D) poor ispatial iresolution

53. Which of the following is a form of optical tomography?

A) PET B) fMRI C) fNIRS D) MRI

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54. The technique that uses reflected infrared light to measure oxygen consumption by the brain is: A) fMRI. B) fNIRS. C) cytogenetics.

D) cryogenetics.

55. If one is interested in measuring changes in brain activity over the frontal lobes as infants and toddlers learn language, the best technique to use is: A) ECG. B) MRI. C) CT. D) fNIRS.

56. Positron emission tomography (PET) uses: A) magnets.

B) radioactive iisotopes.

C) L-dopa.

D) hydrogen atoms.

57. To measure brain metabolic activity PET uses radioactive isotopes of: A) oxygen.

B) hydrogen.

C) potassium.

D) glutamate.

58. PET can: A) detect the decay of radiochemicals.

B) detect relative amounts of neurotransmitters.

C) be used to study cognitive function.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

59. Stimuli related to rewarding behaviors such as food and sex are correlated with fluctuations of: A) dopamine in the substantia nigra.

B) serotonin in the nucleus accumbens.

C) serotonin in the substantia nigra.

D) dopamine iin ithe inucleus iaccumbens.

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60.

is a procedure in which a cannula is implanted to collect extracellular fluid.

A) Microdialysis B) Cerebral voltammetry C) PET D) Microiontophoresis

61. Cerebral voltammetry is used to measure: A) neurotransmitter ilevels.

B) electrical activity using scalp electrodes.

C) electrical activity using large electrodes placed in the brain tissue.

D) electrical activity of single neurons.

62. One advantage of cerebral voltammetry over microdialysis is that it: A) costs far less.

B) is not destructive in nature.

C) does inot irequire ichemical ianalysis iof ithe iextracellular ifluid.

D) None of the answers is correct.

63. Brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) plays an important role in: A) neural transmission.

B) neurotransmitter reuptake.

C) neural iplasticity.

D) All of the answers are correct.

64. Low levels of brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) have been associated with: A) depression.

B) stroke.

C) Alzheimer's disease.

D) Parkinson's disease.

65. A study by Caspi and colleagues observed that if participants with the used cannabis in , they were more likely to develop psychosis.

A) Val; adulthood B) Met; adolescence C) Met; adulthood D) Val; iadolescence

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66. The alleles Val 66Met and Val 66Val have been linked with: A) ADHD. B) bipolar disorder.

C) depression.

D) stroke.

67. The Met allele (gene) has been associated with: A) neuroticism.

B) poor iepisodic imemory.

C) anxiety disorders.

D) depression.

68. The COMT gene has been linked with: A) depression.

B) schizophrenia.

C) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

D) dementia.

69. Epigenetics is: A) the same as gene expression.

B) the istudy iof ithe ichange iin igene iexpression icaused iby iexperience.

C) the study of gene alteration.

D) the alteration of DNA sequences.

70. Research has linked maternal attention in early childhood with: A) hippocampal ivolume.

B) temporal cortex volume.

C) basal ganglia volume.

D) both temporal cortex and basal ganglia volume.

71. Identical twins' gene expression is: A) virtually identical throughout life.

B) totally dissimilar throughout life.

C) similar iwhen ithey iare iyoung ibut idiffers iwith iage.

D) different when they are young but gets more similar with age.

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72. Maternal attention given by mother rats to their infants alters the expression of certain genes in the: A) hippocampus.

B) amygdala.

C) septum.

D) cingulate.

73. Humans who have a history of childhood abuse and who commit suicide show epigenetic differences in the: A) cingulate.

B) septum.

C) hippocampus.

D) amygdala.

74. Which of the following uses a rat model?

A) Parkinson disease B) stroke C) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

75. To receive ethics approval to use animals in an experiment, the researcher must demonstrate: A) that the knowledge gained from the experiment is important enough to warrant the use of animals.

B) that no other methods are available to investigate the same question.

C) that the animals will be treated humanely, D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

76. ADD and ADHD have been linked with in the .

A) abnormal dopamine levels; parietal lobes B) abnormal idopamine ilevels; ifrontal ilobes iand ibasal iganglia C) abnormal serotonin levels; frontal lobes and basal ganglia D) abnormal noradrenaline levels; temporal lobes and amygdala

77. A recent review of ADD and ADHD by researchers demonstrated that: A) rates of ADD and ADHD are higher in developed nations.

B) rates of ADD and ADHD are lower in developed nations.

C) iof i iand i iare ithe i ame iin ideveloped iand ideveloping inati i ame idiagnostic icriteria iare i ed.

D) None of the answers is correct.

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78. Companies using animals for research generally follow good laboratory practice, because if they don't: A) their work will not be published in journals.

B) government agencies will not accept their findings.

C) they will be refused approval for clinical trials with humans.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

79. Companies that use animals for research: A) must submit protocols to a university board.

B) must submit protocols to a government board.

C) must be overseen by the SPCA. D) are inot irequired ito ifollow ia iscreening iprocess.

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Chapter 8 – How does the nervous system develop and adapt?

1. Neuroimaging studies of brain development have revealed that children from families with low SES (socioeconomic status) show and score on tests of cognitive performance.

A) decreased icortical isurface iarea; ilower B) decreased cortical surface area; the same as high SES peers C) the same cortical surface area as their high SES peers; lower D) increased cortical surface area; higher

2. The ability to plan efficiently is a cognitive behavior controlled by the: A) parietal lobes.

B) temporal lobes.

C) occipital lobes.

D) frontal ilobes.

3. You can test planning capability by using the: A) Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale.

B) digit span test.

C) Tower iof iHanoi itest.

D) mirror drawing test.

4. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about development?

A) The ibrain iof ia ichild iis ithe isame ias ithat iof ian iadult, ionly ismaller.

B) Because there are behaviors that develop late, there must be neural structures that develop late.

C) Because some brain structures develop late, there must be some behaviors that develop late.

D) The brains of children at different ages are not comparable.

5. The frontal lobes are fully developed: A) at birth.

B) around age 5.

C) around age 10.

D) None iof ithe ianswers iis icorrect.

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6. The idea of preformation would imply that: A) an iembryo iis ia iminiature iadult.

B) embryos of different species look different.

C) embryos should look nothing like an adult.

D) embryos of different species look different and embryos should look nothing like an adult.

7. A primitive brain can be seen in a human embryo by the A) first B) second C) third D) fourth

8. After the second week of prenatal development the .

A) zygote; iembryo B) embryo; zygote C) zygote; fetus D) embryo; fetus

9. After 9 weeks of prenatal development the A) embryo; ifetus B) zygote; egg C) zygote embryo D) embryo; zygote

week after conception.

progresses to become a(n)

is considered a(n)

.

10. The forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain are first visible in a human embryo after about: A) 10 days.

B) 14 days.

C) 28 idays.

D) 35 days.

11. The central nervous system originates from: A) the neural crest.

B) the ineural itube.

C) the neural envelope.

D) the neural palace.

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12. In human embryos, gyri and sulci first start to form after about: A) 30 days.

B) 5 months.

C) 7 imonths.

D) 9 months.

13. Sexual differentiation occurs by the end of the A) first B) second C) third D) fourth

month of gestation.

14. Testosterone: A) is present only after the testes are formed.

B) affects the peripheral sexual characteristics but not the development of the brain.

C) affects the peripheral sexual characteristics and the development of the brain in males.

D) is iresponsible ifor ithe ipigmentation iof icell iwalls iinside ineurons.

15. Male and female genitalia become differentiated at around: A) 30 days.

B) 60 idays.

C) 4 months.

D) 6 months.

16.

have an extensive capacity for self-renewal.

A) Stem icells B) Progenitor cells C) Glial cells D) Neuroblasts

17. In an adult, stem cells are found in: A) the hippocampus.

B) the iventricles.

C) the pia mater.

D) the CSF.

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18. Progenitor cells come from: A) neuroblasts.

B) stem icells.

C) glioblasts.

D) glial cells.

19. Neuroblasts and glioblasts are formed directly from: A) pyramidal cells.

B) progenitor icells.

C) the ventricles.

D) the neural tube.

20. Which of the following sequences is correct?

A) stem, iprogenitor, iblast, iglia B) progenitor, stem, blast, glia C) blast, stem, progenitor, glia D) stem, progenitor, glia, blast

21.

A) B) C) D)

is the process that works to suppress gene expression during development.

Methylation Mutation Translation Transcription

22. Prenatal stress gene methylation.

A) can increase B) can ireduce C) can reverse D) has no influence on

23. Compounds that signal brain cells to develop in certain ways are called: A) progenitors.

B) neurotropic ifactors.

C) somites.

D) chemical factors.

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24. If you want to stimulate the production of progenitor cells in a stem cell culture, you should add the compound: A) nerve growth factor.

B) fibroblast growth factor.

C) epidermal igrowth ifactor.

D) testosterone.

25.

A) B) C) D)

can be used to stimulate progenitor cells to produce neuroblasts.

Nerve growth factor BDNF bFGF EGF

26. Which of the following is the correct sequence of brain development?

A) cell birth, cell differentiation, cell migration, myelogenesis B) cell ibirth, icell imigration, icell idifferentiation, icell imaturation C) cell birth, cell maturation, cell differentiation, cell migration D) cell birth, cell maturation, myelogenesis, cell migration

27. Neurogenesis (the process of forming neurons) is largely complete after about months of gestation.

A) one B) two C) five D) seven

28. Neuronal differentiation is largely complete by: A) 8 weeks.

B) 23 weeks.

C) 29 iweeks.

D) 11 weeks.

29. Cell differentiation: A) occurs after neuron maturation.

B) occurs iafter imigration.

C) occurs before neuron generation.

D) is not complete until well after birth.

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30. The brain can cope with injury more easily during: A) differentiation.

B) cell migration.

C) neurogenesis.

D) neuron maturation.

31. The is thought to contain a primitive map or blueprint of the cortex that tells developing neurons to which location to migrate.

A) brainstem B) thalamus C) subventricular izone D) hippocampus

32. Cells find their appropriate location by following a road laid down by: A) astrocytes.

B) oligodendrocytes.

C) radial iglial icells.

D) epithelial cells.

33. Cells in layer A) I B) III C) IV D) VI

of the cortex develop first.

34. The majority of glial cells migrate to their correct locations via: A) neurotrophic factors.

B) radial iglial icells.

C) chemical signals.

D) EGF.

35. Neuronal maturation involves and A) migration; specialization B) dendrite igrowth; isynapse iformation C) migration; synapse formation D) specialization; dendrite growth

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36. The process of dendrite growth that occurs in the first 2 years of life is referred to as: A) arborization.

B) extension.

C) sprouting.

D) shaping.

37. The dendritic field in starts off very simply, but becomes increasingly complex until about 2 years of age.

A) the visual cortex B) Broca's iarea C) the auditory cortex D) the somatosensory cortex

38.

Dendrites develop on cells: A) before differentiation.

B) before migration.

C) after cell maturation.

D) during icell imaturation.

39. Jane is 7 years old. She has very poor language skills and is incredibly clumsy with her hands. Jane may have: A) autism spectrum disorder (ASD).

B) Asperger syndrome.

C) Rett isyndrome.

D) William syndrome

40. In the 1990s, rates of autism were approximately 1 in 2000. However, recent estimates suggest that as many as children has some form of autism.

A) 1 in 198.

B) 1 in 76,000.

C) 1 iin i68.

D) 1 in 1988.

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41. Jeffrey is 6 years old. He is socially awkward and did not learn to walk until he was almost 2. In addition, he still has a hard time using a fork or spoon to feed himself. He is obsessed with model airplanes (he has more than 200 models and can name each one).

Playing with his model airplanes is the only activity he engages in unless he is pressured into doing something else. Jeffrey MOST likely has: A) Asperger isyndrome.

B) Autism spectrum disorder.

C) Rett's syndrome.

D) William syndrome.

42. Which of the following guide growth cones to their appropriate destination?

A) tropic imolecules B) neurotrophic factors C) adhesion molecules D) tropic and adhesion molecules

43. The number of synaptic contacts in the human cerebral cortex is estimated to be on the order of: A) 1010.

B) 108.

C) 1014.

D) 10100.

44.

A) B) C) D)

is(are) molecules that help(s) cells bind to one another to aid in migration.

Tropic molecules Nerve growth factor Cell iadhesion imolecules Trophic molecules

45. It is estimated that synaptic pruning eliminates approximately in the human cortex.

A) 10 B) 40 C) 50 D) 65

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46. One reason why cholinergic neurons in the basal forebrain die during synaptic pruning is that they must compete for limited amounts of: A) radial glial cells.

B) cell adhesion molecules.

C) nerve igrowth ifactor.

D) tropic molecules.

47. Most neurons that die during synaptic pruning die as a result of: A) apoptosis.

B) necrosis.

C) structural damage.

D) the death of sodium-potassium pumps.

48. In an experiment examining the ability of children to discriminate speech sounds of various languages, Werker and Tees found: A) that children younger than 2 years had no discrimination ability.

B) that ichildren icould idiscriminate, ibut ithe iability ideclines iover ithe ifirst iyear iof ilife.

C) that children begin to discriminate during the first year and this ability continues to grow until they begin to speak at around age 2.

D) that children are better at discriminating sounds than adults.

49. Which of the following statements about synaptic pruning is NOT true?

A) Synaptic pruning probably can be influenced by drugs.

B) Synaptic ipruning iis iproportionally ilarger iin ismaller-brained ianimals.

C) Synaptic pruning is probably influenced by hormones.

D) Synaptic pruning is probably influenced by experience.

50. Research has demonstrated that aversive childhood experiences (e.g., physical abuse) are linked with: A) increased rates of mental illness in middle age.

B) increased rates of suicide in middle age.

C) increased rates of addiction in middle age.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

51. Children who score high on intelligence tests show the greatest plastic changes in their over time.

A) parietal lobe B) temporal lobe C) frontal ilobe D) hippocampus

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52. The dendritic spine density on the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (DLPFC) is greatest in: A) children.

B) teenagers.

C) adults.

D) older adults (i.e., age 65+).

53. The pincer grasp: A) is a reflex present at birth.

B) is not evident until age 2.

C) develops ibetween i8 iand i11 imonths iof iage.

D) disappears as the motor cortex develops.

54. Increases in cortical thickness in the hand area of the primary motor cortex are associated with: A) increases in hand size.

B) increases in grip strength.

C) increases iin imanual idexterity.

D) increase in tendon brittleness.

55. The typical 6-year-old has a: A) 300- to 600-word vocabulary.

B) 600- to 1000-word vocabulary.

C) 1000- to 2000-word vocabulary.

D) 2000- ito i2500-word ivocabulary.

56. Which of the following statements regarding language areas of the cortex is NOT correct?

A) Changes in dendritic complexity in speech areas are among the most impressive in the brain.

B) Language iareas iare ithe iearliest iregions iof ithe icortex ito icomplete imyelination.

C) Between 15 and 24 months of age there is a dramatic increase in the density of dendrites and axons in the language areas.

D) By age 2 cell division and migration are complete in the language zones of the cerebral cortex.

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57. Language development in children aged 2 to 4 years has been linked with: A) pruning of neurons in the left inferior frontal gyrus.

B) pruning of neurons in superior temporal gyrus.

C) thickening iof ithe icortex iin ithe ileft iinferior ifrontal icortex iareas.

D) thinning of the cortex in the mouth region of the primary motor cortex.

58. Which of the following sequences is correct according to Piaget's theory of cognitive development?

A) sensorimotor, ipreoperational, iconcrete ioperational, iformal ioperational B) sensorimotor, concrete operational, preoperational, formal operational C) sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational, preoperational D) sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational

59. Kristen likes it when her mom cuts her sandwich into four pieces because she likes having four sandwiches instead of just one. Based on what you know about Piaget's theory of cognitive development (assuming Kristen is a normally developing child), pick the age that most accurately represents how old Kristen might be.

A) 5 B) 13 C) 9 D) 11

60. William is playing a game with his little brother, and he takes his brother's favorite stuffed animal and hides it underneath a blanket. His little brother then grabs the blanket to reveal the hidden toy. It appears as though William's little brother has progressed past the: A) preoperational period.

B) concrete operational period.

C) sensorimotor iperiod.

D) formal operational period.

61. According to Piaget, in which development stage do children first begin to understand mathematical transformations?

A) preoperational period B) concrete ioperational iperiod C) sensorimotor period D) formal operational period

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62. Growth spurts up to age 16 account for large increases in brain weight. This is MOST likely due to increases in: A) the number of neurons and glial cells.

B) the inumber iof iglial icells iand ilarger iblood ivessels.

C) myelination.

D) neural pruning.

63. Which of the following is NOT associated with brain growth up to age 16?

A) an iincrease iin ithe inumber iof ineurons B) an increase in the number of glial cells C) an increase in the number of synapses D) an increase in the number of blood vessels

64. The nonmatching-to-sample task described in your text is thought to measure the functions of the: A) frontal lobes.

B) temporal ilobes.

C) basal ganglia.

D) limbic system.

65. The concurrent discrimination task described in your text is thought to measure the functions of the: A) frontal lobes.

B) temporal lobes.

C) basal iganglia.

D) brainstem.

66. Studies have shown that children are able to solve the prior to the A) nonmatching-to-sample task; concurrent discrimination task B) nonmatching-to-sample task; displacement task C) concurrent idiscrimination itask; inonmatching-to-sample itask D) concurrent discrimination task; displacement task

67. Rats raised in "stimulating" environments solve mazes: A) more slowly than rats raised in laboratory environments.

B) faster ithan irats iraised iin ilaboratory ienvironments.

C) just as quickly as rats raised in laboratory environments.

D) None of the answers is correct.

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68. In rats has (have) been shown to lead to enhanced motor and cognitive skills and recovery from brain injury.

A) an injection of growth hormones B) a low-fat diet C) tactile istimulation D) high dosages of vitamin C

69. Brain imaging studies that investigated native and second languages revealed that second languages tend to result in great activation in: A) the auditory cortex.

B) the istriatum iand icerebellum.

C) the inferior parietal cortex.

D) All of the answers are correct.

70. The is the notion that neurons or their axons and dendrites are drawn toward a chemical that indicates the correct pathway.

A) chemical biomarker hypothesis B) chemo-gradient hypothesis C) chemoaffinity ihypothesis D) genetic blueprint hypothesis

71. The condition in which vision in one eye is reduced as a result of disuse is known as: A) hemianopia.

B) macular degeneration.

C) astigmatism.

D) amblyopia.

72. The results of Horn's electron microscopic studies show that synapses in a specific region enlarge with imprinting.

A) forebrain B) basal ganglia C) midbrain D) hindbrain

73. Dogs that are deprived of stimulation during rearing: A) seek out human affection.

B) seek out other dogs.

C) have ian iabnormal iresponse ito ipain.

D) perform better on intelligence tests than dogs reared in stimulating settings.

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74. Masculinization refers to the effects of: A) testosterone ion ibrain icells.

B) too little estrogen on female embryos.

C) testosterone on female embryos.

D) too little estrogen on brain cells.

75. Romanian orphans who were adopted before children born and raised in North America.

A) 24 imonths iof iage B) 36 months of age C) 5 years of age D) 8 years of age

later tested at the same IQ level as

76. Jocelyne Bachevalier trained infant male and female monkeys on both the concurrent discrimination task and the object reversal task. She found that the female monkeys were: A) superior to the males on the object reversal task and equal on the concurrent discrimination task.

B) superior to the males on the concurrent discrimination task and equal on the object reversal task.

C) better ion ithe iconcurrent itask iand ithe imales iwere ibetter ion ithe iobject ireversal itask.

D) better on the object reversal task and the males were better on the concurrent task.

77. Complex environmental housing: A) increases idendritic igrowth iin ithe ihippocampus iof ifemale irats imore ithan iin imales.

B) increases dendritic growth in the visual cortex of both sexes equally.

C) increases dendritic growth in the hippocampus of male rats more than in females.

D) has no effect on dendritic growth in the visual cortex of either sex but does produce an increase in the number of glial cells.

78. Male and female brains are: A) different only in size.

B) different iin iresponse ito ienvironmental ievents.

C) different only during early development.

D) unaffected by gonadal hormones.

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79. Children who have brain injuries to language areas in the first 2 years of life: A) never recover language function.

B) recover function over many years.

C) almost inever ishow isevere ilanguage idisturbances.

D) show lack of further development of language while maintaining their pre-injury level of function.

80. In utero the fetus's gut: A) has the same microbiome as the mother.

B) has a microbiome that is half from the mother and half from the father.

C) is isterile.

D) has a microbiome that is determined by what the mother eats.

81. Some researchers suggest that prenatal exposure to caffeine or nicotine may lead to a child developing: A) autism spectrum disorder.

B) William syndrome C) ADHD. D) developmental dyslexia.

82. Anencephaly is a result of: A) acute brain injury.

B) failure of the back end of the neural tube to close.

C) failure iof ithe ifront iend iof ithe ineural itube ito iclose.

D) a spinal cord abnormality.

83. Abnormal brain development that results in behavioral effects: A) is immediately evident.

B) may inot ibe ievident iuntil iadolescence.

C) may not be evident until the brain starts to lose neurons in the third decade.

D) cannot be detected until autopsy.

84. Research has linked sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) with: A) genes ithat iregulate iserotonin itransporters.

B) genes that regulate dopamine transporters.

C) genes that regulate norepinephrine transporters.

D) genes that regulate acetylcholine transporters.

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85.

Down syndrome is caused by: A) a hormonal abnormality.

B) a brain injury.

C) a neurological disease.

D) a igenetic iabnormality.

86. Cerebral palsy can be caused by: A) a genetic abnormality.

B) a neurological disease.

C) a hormone imbalance.

D) oxygen ideprivation.

87. Phenylketonuria is caused by: A) anoxia.

B) metabolic ierror.

C) infection.

D) abnormal brain development.

88. Kwashiorkor syndrome is caused by: A) chronic imalnutrition.

B) birth trauma.

C) a genetic abnormality.

D) sensory deprivation.

89. In a study examining the brains of developmentally disabled children, Dominique Purpura found: A) fewer idendrites ithan inormal.

B) fewer neurons than normal.

C) fewer glial cells.

D) more glial cells.

90. Brain scans and autopsies of the brains of patients with schizophrenia have shown: A) smaller ventricles.

B) heavier brains because of increased glial growth.

C) a idecrease iin ithe inumber iof ineurons iin ithe iprefrontal icortex.

D) a larger parahippocampal gyrus.

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91. Some researchers have suggested that schizophrenia results from the abnormal development of the: A) amygdala.

B) frontal icortex.

C) hippocampus.

D) temporal cortex.

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Chapter 9 – How do we sense, perceive and see the world?

1. The patient D. B. became blind in the left half of his visual field after surgery but: A) regained his sight after a long recovery.

B) could itell iyou iwhere ia iflashing ilight iwas ilocated iin ihis iblind iarea.

C) was only blind to the right half of the midline and never showed recovery.

D) filled in the scotoma left by the surgery at the cortical level.

2. The part of the sensory world that stimulates a neuron is called the neuron's: A) target zone.

B) response region.

C) receptive ifield.

D) active region.

3. Optic flow tells us: A) how fast we are going.

B) whether we are going in a straight line or up or down.

C) whether we are moving or the object is moving.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

4. Auditory flow gives us information about: A) the isource iof isounds iin ithe ienvironment.

B) the frequency of a sound.

C) the timbre of a sound.

D) changes in pitch.

5. Photoreceptors for black and white light are A) less sensitive B) more isensitive C) smaller D) fewer in number

than photoreceptors for color.

6. A is a neural-spatial representation of areas of the sensory world perceived by a sensory organ.

A) sensory blueprint B) sensory layout C) receptor grid D) topographic imap

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7. A condition in which a person hears in color or experiences different tastes when touching different textures would likely be diagnosed as: A) schizophrenia.

B) synesthesia.

C) sensory crossing disorder.

D) a damaged thalamus.

8. The light-sensitive surface in the back of the eye is called the: A) sclera.

B) lens.

C) iris.

D) retina.

9. The retina: A) has receptors that face the incoming light.

B) receives an image that is upside down but not backward.

C) receives ian iimage ithat iis iupside idown iand ibackward.

D) has receptors that face the incoming light and receives an image that is upside down but not backward.

10. If we wear glasses that turn the image of the world upside down, the brain: A) will immediately compensate and turn the world right side up again.

B) will turn the world so it is right side up again after only a few hours.

C) after iseveral idays iwill isuddenly iturn ithe iworld iso iit iis iright iside iup iagain.

D) cannot compensate, but while the world is upside down we very rapidly adapt our behavior.

11.

is the subjective interpretation of sensations by the brain; of events from the environment on the sensory receptors.

A) Perception; isensation B) Sensation; perception C) Transduction; sensation D) Perception; transduction

12. Visible light is: A) 100 to 700 nanometers.

B) 400 ito i700 inanometers.

C) 300 to 800 nanometers.

D) 500 to 1000 nanometers.

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13. Difficulty seeing things that are not close to you (i.e., nearsightedness) is called: A) hyperopia.

B) myopia.

C) presbyopia.

D) maculitis.

14. The clinical term for farsightedness is: A) hyperopia.

B) myopia.

C) fovea.

D) maculitis.

15.

A) B) C) D)

is caused by weakening of the elasticity of the lens in people older than 50 years.

Hyperopia Myopia Presbyopia Macular degeneration

16. The white part that forms the eyeball is called the: A) cornea.

B) sclera.

C) retina.

D) choroid layer.

17. Which of the following is NOT true of rates of myopia in children?

A) Children spend more time doing schoolwork, which encourages the use of shortrange vision and strains the eye muscles.

B) Children i ho i atch imore ithan i2 ihours iof itelevi ion ia iday ihave ihigher irate iof imyopia.

C) Children who live in sunnier climates have lower rates of myopia.

D) Spending too much time indoors increases rates of myopia.

18. Light is bent first by the A) lens B) cornea C) sclera D) fovea

before entering the pupil.

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19. The colored part of the eye is called the: A) iris.

B) lens.

C) cornea.

D) sclera.

20. People with myopia often have eyeballs that are often have eyeballs that are .

A) too short; too long B) too large; too small C) too ilong; itoo ishort D) too small; too large

, whereas people with hyperopia

21. Photoreceptors are mostly densely packed in: A) the ifovea.

B) peripheral vision.

C) the retina.

D) the optic disc.

22. The portion of the eye that has the highest visual acuity is called the: A) retina.

B) fovea.

C) magnification zone.

D) lens.

23. The optic disc is also known as the: A) fovea.

B) optic nerve.

C) blind ispot.

D) iris.

24. Swelling of the optic disc is known clinically as: A) macular degeneration.

B) presbyopia.

C) retinopathy.

D) papilledema.

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25. Optic neuritis: A) swells the blind spot.

B) causes loss of vision.

C) is probably the most common neurologic visual disorder.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

26. There is(are) A) two B) three C) four D) one

type(s) of cone cells.

27. Rods are found primarily in , whereas cones are found primarily in A) the fovea; peripheral vision B) the retina; the optic disc C) the optic disc; the fovea D) peripheral ivision; ithe ifovea

28. A wavelength of 559 nanometers appears to us as: A) orange.

B) green.

C) yellow.

D) blue.

29. A wavelength of 419 nanometers appears to us as: A) red.

B) green.

C) yellow.

D) blue.

30. Rods have a peak sensitivity at: A) 250 nanometers.

B) 419 nanometers.

C) 559 nanometers.

D) 496 inanometers.

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31. People's ability to see in dim light decreases by approximately and 40 years.

A) 50 ipercent B) 25 percent C) 75 percent D) 60 percent

between ages of 20

32. David is 40 years old. He is having a hard time seeing at night when he drives because his eyesight has decreased around 50 percent since he was 20. His night vision will likely decrease by another by the time he is 60.

A) 10 percent B) 30 percent C) 50 ipercent D) 70 percent

33. Which of the color-sensitive photoreceptors are fewest in number?

A) yellow cones B) red cones C) blue icones D) green cones

34. Which of the following is the correct order of neuron layers in the retina from outermost to innermost?

A) bipolar cell layer, ganglion cell layer, photoreceptor layer B) photoreceptor layer, ganglion cell layer, bipolar cell layer C) ganglion icell ilayer, ibipolar icell ilayer, iphotoreceptor ilayer D) photoreceptor layer, bipolar cell layer, ganglion cell layer

35. Which of the following is NOT a type of retinal neuron?

A) bipolar cells B) horizontal cells C) amacrine cells D) stellate icells

36. Horizontal cells in the eye link the: A) bipolar cells to the retinal ganglion cells.

B) receptors ito ithe ibipolar icells.

C) bipolar cells to the amacrine cells.

D) receptors to the amacrine cells.

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37. Amacrine cells link: A) bipolar cells with horizontal cells.

B) horizontal cells with photoreceptors.

C) photo receptors with retinal ganglion cells.

D) bipolar icells iwith iretinal iganglion icells.

38. Parvocellular cells: A) primarily receive their input from rods.

B) are sensitive to light but not color.

C) primarily ireceive itheir iinput ifrom icones.

D) form the first retinal layer.

39. Magnocellular cells: A) primarily receive input from rods.

B) are insensitive to color.

C) have low visual acuity.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

40. Retinal ganglion cells form the: A) fovea.

B) optic disc.

C) lateral geniculate nucleus.

D) optic inerve.

41. In the optic chiasm, information from the retinas crosses to the opposite side, whereas information from the retinas stays on the same side.

A) nasal; itemporal B) central; peripheral C) temporal; nasal D) peripheral; central

42. Cutting the optic nerve of the right eye prior to reaching the optic chiasm will result in loss of vision in: A) the right visual field.

B) the left visual field.

C) half iof ieach ivisual ifield.

D) the two nasal fields.

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43. A second main visual pathway (in addition to the geniculostriate system) is organized as follows: A) retina, lateral geniculate nucleus, superior colliculus, pulvinar, striate cortex, other visual areas.

B) retina, superior colliculus, pulvinar, striate cortex, other visual areas.

C) retina, isuperior icolliculus, ipulvinar, iother ivisual iareas.

D) retina, pulvinar, superior colliculus, other visual areas.

44. The is the primary visual relay nucleus in the thalamus.

A) medial geniculate nucleus B) lateral igeniculate inucleus C) ventral pulvinar nucleus D) mediodorsal nucleus

45. The geniculostriate system is as follows: A) retina, ilateral igeniculate inucleus iof ithe ithalamus, ilayer iIV iof ithe ivisual icortex.

B) retina, lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus, layer VI of the visual cortex.

C) retina, superior colliculus, thalamus, layer IV of the visual cortex.

D) retina, superior colliculus, thalamus, layer VI of the visual cortex.

46. The superior colliculus sends its most direct connections to the: A) lateral geniculate nucleus.

B) pulvinar.

C) striate cortex.

D) parietal cortex.

47. Photosensitive retinal ganglion cells form the: A) geniculostriate visual pathway.

B) tectopulvinar visual pathway.

C) retinohypothalamic itract.

D) All of the answers are correct.

48. The function of the retinohypothalamic tract is to: A) process color information.

B) process form information.

C) initiate orienting responses.

D) regulate icircadian irhythms.

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49. The ventral stream projects to the: A) occipital lobe.

B) parietal lobe.

C) temporal ilobe.

D) limbic lobe.

50. The dorsal stream projects to the: A) occipital lobe.

B) parietal ilobe.

C) temporal lobe.

D) limbic lobe.

51. The six layers of the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) receive which of the following inputs from the eyes?

A) layers 2, 4, and 6 from the ipsilateral eye B) layers 2, 4, and 6 from the contralateral eye C) layers i1, i4, iand i6 ifrom ithe icontralateral ieye D) layers 1, 4, and 6 from the ipsilateral eye

52. Magnocellular cells send their projections to layers and parvocellular neurons send their projections to layers of the lateral geniculate nucleus.

A) 1 to 3; 4 to 6 B) 4 to 6; 1 to 3 C) 1 iand i2; i3 ito i6 D) 3 to 6; 1 and 2

53. Parvocellular cells send their projections to layer A) IVC B) IVC C) IVCd D) V

of visual cortex.

54. Magnocellular cells send their projections to layer A) IVC B) IVC C) IVCd D) V

of visual cortex.

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55. The tectopulvinar pathway is especially sensitive to: A) fine details.

B) movement.

C) color.

D) texture.

56. The tectopulvinar pathway can be used to explain: A) blindsight.

B) visual agnosia.

C) cortical blindness.

D) color blindness.

57. The superior colliculus plays an important role in: A) object recognition.

B) color perception.

C) circadian rhythms.

D) orienting iresponses.

58. The pulvinar sends projections to the temporal lobe, whereas the sends projections to the parietal lobe.

A) dorsal; ventral B) medial; lateral C) ventral; dorsal D) lateral; imedial

pulvinar

59. Patient D. B. was able to locate spots of light presented in his blind field even though he could not see them because: A) his geniculostriate pathway was intact.

B) his retinohypothalamic pathway was still intact.

C) his itectopulvinar ipathway iwas istill iintact.

D) his dorsal stream was damaged.

60. Which of the following sequences is correct?

A) rods, icones, ibipolar, iganglion, ilateral igeniculate, isimple icortical icells B) rods, cones, ganglion, bipolar, lateral geniculate, simple cortical cells C) rods, cones, bipolar, ganglion, simple cortical cells, lateral geniculate D) rods, cones, ganglion, lateral geniculate, bipolar, simple cortical cells

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61. The primary visual cortex is also known as: A) V1.

B) V2.

C) V3.

D) V4.

62. Cells in the blobs found in the visual cortex are involved in: A) form perception.

B) motion perception.

C) color iperception.

D) form and color perception.

63. In area V2, the thin stripes carry information about information about .

A) color; form B) form; motion C) motion; color D) color; imotion

, whereas thick stripes carry

64. The ventral stream is important for , whereas the dorsal stream is important for .

A) object iidentification; icontrol iof imovement B) control of movement; control of language C) control of language; object identification D) control of movement; object identification

65. Area controls eye movements, whereas area grasping.

A) LIP; FFA B) AIP; LIP C) PPA; AIP D) LIP; iAIP

controls visually guided

66. Since his recent stroke Roger has had trouble controlling his eye movements. In addition, when he reaches out to pick up objects, he often misses them. Roger most likely has damage to his: A) ventral stream in the temporal lobe.

B) dorsal istream iin ithe iparietal ilobe.

C) dorsal stream in the temporal lobe.

D) ventral stream in the parietal lobe.

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67. You are a researcher interested in understanding how single neurons might play a role in coding the identity of different faces. To examine this, you plan to do single unit recordings in monkeys. To ensure best chances of success, you decide to place your recording electrodes in area: A) FFA. B) PPA. C) MT. D) V4.

68. The receptive field of a lateral geniculate cell is: A) larger than the receptive field of a retinal ganglion cell.

B) the same shape as the receptive field of a retinal ganglion cell.

C) composed of on-centers and off-surrounds or off-centers and on-surrounds.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

69. Visual information from the lower portion of the visual field is coded in the: A) upper iportion iof iV1.

B) lower portion of V1.

C) anterior portion of V1.

D) posterior portion of V1.

70. In the visual cortex, the fovea has: A) less representation than the periphery because the fovea has fewer cells on the retina.

B) the same representation on the cortex as the periphery.

C) more irepre entation ion ithe icortex ithan ithe iperiphery ieven ithough iit iha ife er icell iin ithe iretina.

D) more representation on the cortex because the fovea has more cells than the periphery.

71. Compared with retinal ganglion cells, cells in V1 have A) larger B) smaller C) equally sized D) upside down

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72. The corpus callosum: A) connects ithe imedial ibut inot ithe ilateral iportions iof ithe ivisual ifields.

B) connects the lateral but not the medial portions of the visual fields.

C) connects the entire visual fields from the two hemispheres.

D) does not connect the two visual fields but does connect the parietal and frontal lobes.

73. Luminance contrast begins at the A) lateral geniculate B) ganglion C) simple cortical D) complex cortical

cell level.

74. On-center cells: A) are excited by light that falls across their entire receptive field.

B) are excited by light that falls in the periphery of their receptive field.

C) are inhibited by light that falls in the center of their receptive field.

D) are iexcited iby ilight ithat ifalls iin ithe icenter iof itheir ireceptive ifield.

75. Retinal ganglion cells are very active when their receptive fields process: A) uniformly bright surfaces.

B) uniformly dark surfaces.

C) the iedge ibetween ia ilight isurface iand ia idark isurface.

D) dimly illuminated surfaces.

76. Orientation detection is first coded by: A) the lateral geniculate cells.

B) simple icortical icells.

C) complex cortical cells.

D) hypercomplex cortical cells.

77. Cells that respond to a moving bar of light in a specific orientation, without a strong inhibitory area at one end, are called: A) lateral geniculate cells.

B) simple cortical cells.

C) complex icortical icells.

D) hypercomplex cortical cells.

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78. Cells that respond to moving bars and have a strong inhibitory area at one end of the receptive field are called: A) lateral geniculate cells.

B) simple cortical cells.

C) complex cortical cells.

D) hypercomplex icortical icells.

79. Ocular dominance columns: A) respond to lines in the same orientation.

B) respond to lines in slightly different orientations.

C) receive iinput ifrom ieach ieye.

D) None of the answers is correct.

80. Single-cell recordings in the primate temporal cortex have revealed that many neurons there respond to: A) a single visual feature.

B) a combination of two visual features.

C) a icombination iof imany idifferent ivisual ifeatures.

D) bright and dark areas in the visual scene.

81. The trichromatic theory of color vision is associated with the: A) retina.

B) lateral geniculate.

C) striate cortex.

D) temporal lobe.

82. In order to be able to see at least some range of color you need: A) three types of cones.

B) two itypes iof icones.

C) one type of cone.

D) four types of cones.

83. The incidence of partial lack of one of the cones in the male population is: A) 5 ipercent.

B) 7 percent.

C) 10 percent.

D) 12 percent.

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84. Someone who lacks red cones and is red-green color blind has: A) tritanopia.

B) protanopia.

C) deuteranopia.

D) rhodanopsia.

85. Someone who lacks green cones and is red-green color blind has: A) tritanopia.

B) protanopia.

C) deuteranopia.

D) rhodanopsia.

86. Someone who lacks blue cones has: A) tritanopia.

B) protanopia.

C) deuteranopia.

D) rhodanopsia.

87. Opponent-process color coding begins in: A) V1.

B) the lateral geniculate nucleus.

C) cones.

D) retinal iganglion icells.

88. A spot of green light presented entirely within the center of a red (on-center)–green (offsurround) color opponent retinal ganglion cell would result in: A) a strong response (i.e., an increase in firing).

B) a iweak iresponse i(i.e., ia idecrease iin ifiring).

C) a very strong response (i.e., a large increase in firing).

D) no response (i.e., no firing at all).

89. Which visual cortical region mediates color constancy?

A) V1 B) V2 C) V3 D) V4

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90. Cells in the dorsal stream are sensitive to: A) faces.

B) color.

C) movement.

D) color and movement.

91. Allen is 84 years old and recently had a stroke that damaged the lower (inferior) portion of his calcarine fissure in the right hemisphere. This resulted in: A) a left homonymous hemianopia.

B) a right upper visual field quadrantanopia.

C) a ileft iupper ivisual ifield iquadrantanopia.

D) a left lower visual field quadrantanopia.

92.

Homonymous hemianopia occurs when: A) the optic nerve is cut behind the eye.

B) the optic chiasm is cut.

C) the ilateral igeniculate iis icut.

D) the optic nerve and the lateral geniculate are cut.

93. Small blind spots in the visual field are called: A) hemianopias.

B) scotomas.

C) nystagmus.

D) agnosias.

94. A person with visual-form agnosia: A) cannot see objects in the visual field.

B) can see the object and tell you what it does but cannot name it.

C) can isee ithe iobject, ibut icannot itell iyou iwhat iit idoes iand icannot iname iit.

D) None of the answers is correct.

95. Which of the following is NOT one of the symptoms of visual-form agnosia in patient D. F.?

A) an inability to recognize objects B) an inability to copy drawings of objects C) an iinability ito idraw iobjects ifrom imemory D) an inability to determine the orientation of an object

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96. The visual-form agnosia patient D. F. could not A) identify iobjects; igrasp iobjects iappropriately B) identify objects; draw objects accurately C) grasp objects appropriately; identify objects D) draw objects accurately; recognize objects

, but she could still

.

97. Shaping of the fingers to pick up an object is a: A) visually guided conscious act.

B) nonvisually guided conscious act.

C) nonvisually guided unconscious act.

D) visually iguided iunconscious iact.

98. After lesions to V5, patient L. M. could no longer: A) read.

B) grasp objects.

C) detect imovement.

D) recognize objects.

99. Patients described as having optic ataxia could NOT: A) make accurate movements toward their body.

B) make ivisually iguided imovements.

C) walk.

D) make accurate movements toward their body or make visually guided movements.

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Chapter 10 – How do we hear, speak and make music?

1. Neanderthals: A) did not bury their dead with artifacts.

B) were assumed to have complex language.

C) left ievidence ithat ithey imay ihave ihad imusical iinstruments.

D) did not use tools.

2. Research into the evolution of music suggests that: A) all singing primates are monogamous.

B) music may be related to sexual behavior.

C) music is processed by the right temporal lobe.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

3. Sound waves are created by: A) the compression of air molecules.

B) the rarefaction of air molecules.

C) undulating idisplacement iof iair imolecules icaused iby ipressure ichanges.

D) None of the answers are correct.

4. Sound travels at a speed of: A) 700 feet/second.

B) 1100 ifeet/second.

C) 1000 feet/second.

D) 800 feet/second.

5. Twenty-five cycles per second is equivalent to: A) 5 Hz. B) 25 iHz. C) 50 Hz. D) 100 Hz.

6. Frequency of sound waves roughly corresponds to our perception of: A) timbre.

B) complexity.

C) loudness.

D) pitch.

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7. The range for the perception of sound in humans is: A) 10 to 15,000 Hz. B) 20 ito i20,000 iHz. C) 30 to 25,000 Hz. D) 20 to 30,000 Hz.

8. Which of the following species is said to have a narrow range of auditory frequency perception?

A) birds B) whales C) humans D) bats

9. Another word for sound quality or complexity is: A) pitch.

B) timbre.

C) loudness.

D) prosody.

10. If we increase the amount of air that is compacted in each sound wave but keep the same number of waves, then we have changed the: A) timbre.

B) pitch.

C) amplitude.

D) frequency.

11. Decibels are a measure of: A) sound iamplitude.

B) pitch.

C) frequency.

D) timbre.

12. Normal speech sounds are around: A) 30 dB. B) 40 idB. C) 50 dB. D) 60 dB.

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13. Sounds that are louder than A) 50 dB B) 90 dB C) 100 dB D) 70 idB

14. Exposure to sounds louder than A) 50 dB B) 70 dB C) 120 dB D) 100 idB

are considered by most people to be loud.

is likely to cause hearing damage.

15. Rock musicians frequently show loss of sensitivity to sound in the: A) 4000 Hz range.

B) 5000 Hz range.

C) 6000 iHz irange.

D) 7000 Hz range.

16. Pure tones are sounds: A) that are not amplified.

B) with ia isingle ifrequency.

C) that have a unique timbre.

D) with a pitch between 5000 and 10,000 Hz.

17. Complex tones are: A) low-frequency tones.

B) high-frequency tones.

C) a icombination iof ifrequencies.

D) half tones.

18. In order to break down a complex tone into its constituent pure tones, perform a: A) Fourier ianalysis.

B) regression analysis.

C) pattern analysis.

D) spectral analysis.

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19. The rate at which a complex waveform repeats is called its: A) resonant frequency.

B) Fourier frequency.

C) fundamental ifrequency.

D) repetition frequency.

20. Overtones are: A) high-frequency tones.

B) half increments of the fundamental frequency.

C) multiples iof ithe ifundamental ifrequency.

D) restricted only to speech sounds.

21.

A) B) C) D)

are examples of complex tones.

Notes played by musical instruments Bird songs Human speech sounds All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

22. Aperiodic tones are considered to be: A) noise.

B) pure tones.

C) complex tones.

D) overtones.

23. The threshold of human hearing allows us to detect the displacement of air molecules of roughly: A) 10 ipicometers.

B) 1 picometer.

C) 20 picometers.

D) 100 picometers.

24. Nonspeech and nonmusical noise are perceived as a buzz at a rate of about: A) 3 segments per second.

B) 5 isegments iper isecond.

C) 7 segments per second.

D) 10 segments per second.

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25. We are capable of understanding speech at rates of A) 30 B) 40 C) 50 D) 60

segments per second.

26. Frequency is described in: A) decibels.

B) hertz.

C) pitch.

D) segments per second.

27. Timbre refers to: A) our perception of loudness.

B) our perception of pitch.

C) a isound's iperceived iuniqueness.

D) None of the answers are correct.

28. Susan is able to distinguish between a French horn and a trombone even when they are playing the same note at the same loudness. This is accomplished through using the differences in: A) amplitude.

B) pitch.

C) frequency.

D) timbre.

29. Prosody means the same as: A) tone iof ivoice.

B) speech amplitude.

C) speed of language.

D) frequency.

30. It is likely that speech and music perception are located in the: A) frontal lobes.

B) parietal lobes.

C) temporal ilobes.

D) frontal and temporal lobes.

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31. The auditory system has: A) one itype iof ireceptor.

B) three types of receptors.

C) a different type of receptor for each frequency.

D) four types of receptors.

32. The purpose of the pinna is to: A) transduce sound waves into neural firing.

B) protect the inner ear.

C) funnel isound i waves iinto ithe iear icanal.

D) vibrate in response to sound waves.

33. The correct order of the middle ear bones from nearest to the eardrum to nearest the oval window is: A) stirrup, anvil, hammer.

B) anvil, hammer, stirrup.

C) hammer, stirrup anvil.

D) hammer, ianvil, istirrup.

34. The stirrup sits against the: A) eardrum.

B) oval iwindow.

C) round window.

D) cochlea.

35. Which of the following structures is NOT part of the organ of Corti?

A) inner hair cells B) outer hair cells C) eardrum D) basilar membrane

36. Which of the following frequencies is likely to be coded closest to the apex of the cochlea?

A) 15,000 Hz B) 18,000 Hz C) 300 iHz D) 1000 Hz

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37. In the human cochlea there are approximately A) 2000 B) 3500 C) 12,000 D) 15,500

inner hair cells.

38. The act(s) to relax or contract the basilar membrane to change its stiffness, and thus, its response to sound waves.

A) inner hair cells B) outer ihair icells C) bipolar cells D) cochlear nuclei

39. Movement of hair-cell cilia in a direction toward the tallest cilia results in: A) hyperpolarization.

B) polarization.

C) depolarization.

D) None of the answers are correct.

40. Movement of hair-cell cilia in a direction toward the shortest cilia results in: A) hyperpolarization.

B) polarization.

C) depolarization.

D) None of the answers are correct.

41. Bipolar cells receive input from: A) many hair cells.

B) many ganglion cells.

C) one ihair icell.

D) one ganglion cell.

42. The axons of form the auditory nerve.

A) inner hair cells B) outer hair cells C) bipolar icells D) auditory interneurons

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43. Which of the following sequences is the correct auditory route to the cortex?

A) cochlear inucle , iolivary icomplex, iinferior icollicul , imedial igeniculate, iauditory icortex B) cochlear nucleus, inferior colliculus, olivary complex, medial geniculate, auditory cortex C) cochlear nucleus, olivary complex, medial geniculate, inferior colliculus, auditory cortex D) cochlear nucleus, medial geniculate, olivary complex, inferior colliculus, auditory cortex

44. The thalamic relay nucleus for the auditory system is the: A) pulvinar nucleus.

B) lateral geniculate nucleus.

C) medial igeniculate inucleus.

D) ventrolateral nucleus.

45. Inputs from the are sent to primary auditory cortex (A1).

A) dorsal lateral geniculate nucleus B) ventral lateral geniculate nucleus C) ventral imedial igeniculate inucleus D) dorsal medial geniculate nucleus

46. Damage to the left auditory cortex would lead to: A) deafness in the left ear.

B) deafness in the right ear.

C) deafness in both ears.

D) None iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

47. The recognition of objects by sound is accomplished by the: A) dorsal auditory pathway.

B) ventral iauditory ipathway.

C) anterior auditory pathway.

D) lateral auditory pathway.

48.

A) B) C) D)

is (are) often used to measure the functionality of the inner ear in newborn infants.

Frequency analysis Otoacoustic iemissions Fourier analysis Auditory evoked potentials

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49. The planum temporale is: A) the same as Heschl's gyrus.

B) smaller on the left than on the right in right-handed people.

C) also iknown ias iWernicke's iarea ion ithe ileft iside.

D) All of the answers are correct.

50. The human A1 auditory area is found in: A) the planum temporale.

B) Wernicke's area.

C) Broca's area.

D) Heschl's igyrus.

51. The left planum temporale is generally larger in: A) left-handed individuals.

B) right-handed iindividuals.

C) bilingual speakers.

D) females.

52.

A) B) C) D)

has a special role in processing music.

The left planum temporale The right planum temporale Heschl's gyrus in the left hemisphere Heschl's igyrus iin ithe iright ihemisphere

53. A study by Thaler and colleagues examined the brain regions involved in human echolocation by blind individuals. Their study found that echolocation in blind individuals seemed to rely on activation in: A) Broca's area.

B) the ventral auditory pathway.

C) primary auditory cortex.

D) visual icortex.

54. Damage to the can cause problems with both language and taste perception.

A) left planum temporale B) insula C) left Wernicke's area D) right parietal cortex

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55. Research on the tuning curves of individual inner hair cells indicates that: A) each hair cell responds only to a single frequency.

B) each hair cell responds to all possible frequencies in the human hearing range.

C) each ihair icell ire ingle ifrequency ibut ial o ire ome hat ito inearby ifrequencie .

D) only outer hair cells respond to different frequencies.

56. Increases in loudness are coded by: A) the activation of more hair cells.

B) the activation of more bipolar cells.

C) an iincreased irate iof ifiring iin ibipolar icells.

D) activation of loudness detectors in the medial geniculate nucleus.

57. Gerald is walking through the forest at night, and he hears what sounds like an animal walking somewhere to his left. Gerald localized the source of this sound using _,which relies on neurons in the .

A) differences in arrival time between the two ears; medial superior olive B) differences in loudness between the two ears; medial superior olive C) differences iin iarrival itime ibetween ithe itwo iears; ilateral isuperior iolive D) differences in loudness between the two ears; lateral superior olive

58. Barn owls' ears are at different heights on the left and right sides of their head. This unique feature helps them better locate sounds that are: A) to the left or right.

B) above ior ibelow.

C) in front or behind.

D) All of the answers are correct.

59. Rachael hears what sounds like a car alarm sounding off. In order for her to localize this high frequency continuous sound her auditory system will take advantage of: A) differences in the arrival times of the sound between the two ears.

B) differences in the elevation of the sound between the two ears.

C) differences iin ithe iintensity iof ithe isound iarriving iat iboth iears.

D) All of the answers are correct.

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60. Studies with humans have shown that if two sounds presented through earphones are separated by as little as microseconds, the sound will be perceived as being on the side of the leading ear.

A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20

61. The computation for detecting the location of a sound by comparing the time difference between the two ears occurs at the: A) auditory cortex.

B) superior iolivary icomplex.

C) medial geniculate.

D) inferior colliculus.

62. In the world today there are approximately A) 2000 B) 3000 C) 6000 D) 10,000

languages.

63. Children in all cultures begin to combine words around A) 12 B) 14 C) 18 D) 36

months of age.

64. The sensitive period (i.e., critical period) for learning language is probably between: A) 2 years and 7 years of age.

B) 1 iyear iand i6 iyears iof iage.

C) 1 year and 10 years of age.

D) 2 years and 10 years of age.

65. The development of new languages is sometimes described as: A) pidginization.

B) creolization.

C) lingualization.

D) None of the answers are correct.

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66. Eric is a 10-year-old boy who learned English and German at the same time as a child.

Eric suffered a recent head injury and has damage to Broca's area in the left hemisphere.

This means that Eric will most likely have Broca's aphasia: A) for English only.

B) for German only.

C) for iboth iEnglish iand iGerman.

D) only if Broca's area is damaged in both hemispheres.

67. Broca's area is located in the: A) left temporal lobe.

B) right temporal lobe.

C) left ifrontal ilobe.

D) right frontal lobe.

68. Wernicke's area is located in the: A) left itemporal ilobe.

B) right temporal lobe.

C) left frontal lobe.

D) right frontal lobe.

69. Broca's aphasia is associated with: A) deficits iin iinitiating ithe imotor iprograms ifor ispeech.

B) deficits in the comprehension of language.

C) impaired facial movements.

D) impaired auditory perception.

70. Wernicke's aphasia is associated with: A) deficits in initiating the motor programs for speech.

B) deficits iin ithe icomprehension iof ilanguage.

C) impaired facial movements.

D) impaired auditory perception.

71. Wernicke's area is connected to Broca's area via the: A) arcuate ifasciculus.

B) temporal fasciculus C) inferior longitudinal tract.

D) corona radiata.

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72. Since James's recent stroke he has had a lot of difficulty speaking meaningful sentences.

For example, the other day when a nurse asked him how he was doing, he said, "Colorful bicycles sleep furiously." It appears James may have damage to his: A) right frontal lobe.

B) left itemporal ilobe.

C) left frontal lobe.

D) right temporal lobe.

73. Stimulation of Broca's area by Penfield produced: A) comprehension deficits.

B) language-expression deficits.

C) both icomprehension ideficits iand ilanguage iexpression ideficits.

D) None of the answers are correct.

74. Using electrical stimulation, Penfield was able to show that stimulation of what later became known as the supplementary speech area caused: A) auditory hallucinations (i.e., hearing voices).

B) the patient to produce meaningless sentences.

C) speech iarrest.

D) sensations in the mouth and tongue.

75. Mapping of language sites using electrical stimulation was first accomplished by: A) Paul Broca.

B) Karl Wernicke.

C) Wilder iPenfield.

D) John Hughlings Jackson.

76. Stimulation of the A1 area of the auditory cortex by Penfield produced: A) elicitation of words.

B) hearing voices.

C) simple itones.

D) slurring of speech.

77. When the patient Susan S. (described in the text) lost her left temporal lobe, she could no longer: A) recognize melodies.

B) write or read music.

C) read.

D) pick up tiny mistakes in performed music.

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78. Joanne had to have her entire left hemisphere removed to treat her severe epilepsy. Since the removal of her left hemisphere Joanne: A) can no longer understand language.

B) can no longer understand music.

C) can ino ilonger iunderstand ilanguage ibut ican istill iunderstand imusic.

D) can no longer understand language or music.

79. Simple auditory stimuli such as tones are processed in (e.g., speech syllables) are processed in .

A) A1; isecondary iauditory iareas B) secondary auditory areas; A1 C) A1; Broca's area D) A1; the parietal cortex

, whereas complex sounds

80. Discriminating between speech sounds (e.g., "ba" versus "ga") activates: A) Wernicke's area.

B) Broca's iarea.

C) A1.

D) the insula.

81. A ballooning of an arterial wall is called an: A) embolism.

B) blood clot.

C) aneurysm.

D) angioma.

82. The left hemisphere may play a role in the A) perception B) production C) understanding D) None of the answers are correct.

of music.

83. Evidence would suggest that melodies primarily activate: A) Heschl's gyrus on the left side.

B) Heschl's gyrus on the right side.

C) the area in front of Heschl's gyrus on the left side.

D) the iarea iin ifront iof iHeschl's igyrus ion ithe iright iside.

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84. PET imaging studies have revealed that comparing different pitches of sound activates: A) the left frontal lobe.

B) the iright ifrontal ilobe.

C) the left auditory cortex.

D) Heschl's gyrus in the right hemisphere.

85. Compared with nonmusicians, musicians have: A) thicker frontal and parietal areas.

B) thicker itemporal iand ifrontal iareas.

C) thicker temporal areas but thinner parietal areas.

D) thinner frontal but thicker temporal areas.

86. Which of the following statements about birdsong is correct?

A) Birdsong ivaries ibetween ispecies ibut inot iwithin ia ispecies.

B) Birdsong is used to mark territories.

C) Birdsong is used to attract a mate.

D) All of the answers are correct.

87. Research into the acquisition of birdsong has indicated that birdsongs are: A) learned from other birds.

B) genetically determined.

C) learned specifically from parents.

D) genetically idetermined iand ilearned ifrom iother ibirds.

88. Subsong refers to: A) songs that are not completely learned.

B) noises ithat iwould ibe ilike ibabbling iin ihumans.

C) songs that are below the perceived human auditory threshold.

D) syrinx movements not accompanied by sound.

89. Birdsong structures are: A) larger iin imale ithan iin ifemale ibirds.

B) influenced entirely by genetics.

C) unaffected by hormones.

D) All of the answers are correct.

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90. The higher vocal control center and nucleus robustus archistriatalis are to birdsong as: A) V1 and IT are to seeing.

B) A1 and A2 are to hearing.

C) Broca's iarea iand iWernicke's iarea iare ito ihuman ilanguage.

D) M1 and premotor cortex are to movement.

91. An echolocating bat can emit cries in the range of: A) 13,000 to 20,000 Hz. B) 20,000 to 50,000 Hz. C) 5000 to 100,000 Hz. D) 12,000 ito i200,000 iHz.

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Chapter 11 – How does the nervous system respond to stimulation and produce movement?

1. An example of a brain–computer interface (BCI) would be: A) using ionly iyour ithoughts ito icontrol ia icomputer ikeyboard.

B) having electrical signals from an electronic device influence brain function.

C) having your thoughts relayed to someone else's brain via a computer.

D) None of the answers is correct.

2.

is an example of a computer–brain interface.

A) A icochlear iimplant B) Using EEG signals to change the channel on your television C) Using fMRI signals to read someone's thoughts D) Using single unit recordings in a monkey's motor cortex to control a prosthetic arm

3. The control(s) the force of a movement, whereas the and accuracy of the movement.

A) motor cortex; basal ganglia B) basal ganglia; motor cortex C) basal iganglia; icerebellum D) cerebellum; basal ganglia

control(s) the timing

4. Which part of the brain is responsible for planning and initiating movements?

A) frontal ilobe B) hippocampus C) basal ganglia D) cerebellum

5. The arms are controlled by motor neurons in the the legs are controlled by motor neurons in the A) cervical; thoracic B) lumbar; sacral C) cervical; ilumbar D) thoracic; lumbar

levels of the spinal cord, whereas levels of the spinal cord.

6. Signals from the motor cortex to the spinal cord are transmitted via cortical layer(s): A) 1 to 3.

B) 2 to 4.

C) 4.

D) 5 ito i6.

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7. The prefrontal cortex is responsible for: A) planning imovements.

B) organizing movement sequences.

C) producing specific movements.

D) inhibiting spontaneous movements.

8. The premotor cortex is responsible for: A) planning movements.

B) producing specific movements.

C) producing imovement isequences.

D) inhibiting spontaneous movements.

9. The primary motor cortex is responsible for: A) planning movements.

B) organizing movement sequences.

C) producing ispecific imovements.

D) inhibiting spontaneous movements.

10. In a person performing a sequence of finger movements, cerebral blood flow increases in the: A) primary motor cortex.

B) temporal cortex.

C) premotor icortex.

D) cingulate cortex.

11. The decision to set your alarm an hour early so you won't be late for your exam is made in the: A) prefrontal icortex.

B) primary motor cortex.

C) premotor cortex.

D) basal ganglia.

12. Coordinating multiple simultaneous movements to accomplish a goal is a function of the: A) primary motor cortex.

B) premotor icortex.

C) prefrontal cortex.

D) cerebellum.

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13. Walter Hess's experiments reveal that one of the functions of the brainstem is to: A) regulate blood osmolarity.

B) regulate breathing and heart rates.

C) produce ispecies-typical ibehavior.

D) produce behavior common across all species.

14. Walter Hess's classic experiments on stimulating the brainstem in animals revealed that the brainstem controlled aspects of: A) sexual behavior.

B) feeding behavior.

C) grooming behavior.

D) All iof ithese ianswers iare icorrect.

15. Locked-in syndrome can occur following damage to the: A) basal ganglia.

B) brainstem.

C) cerebellum.

D) primary motor cortex.

16. Shortly after birth, baby Alex seemed completely normal; however, a few months later he started demonstrating signs of increased muscle spasticity, dyskinesia (problems with involuntary muscle movements), and movement tremors. Based on this symptom profile it appears that Alex may have: A) developmental dyspraxia.

B) damage to his cerebellum.

C) cerebral ipalsy.

D) a rare congenital form of Parkinson disease.

17. Damage to level C1–C2 of the spinal cord would likely result in: A) paraplegia.

B) quadriplegia.

C) hemiplegia.

D) numbness in the legs.

18. Injury to level L1–L2 of the spinal cord would likely result in: A) paraplegia.

B) quadriplegia.

C) hemiplegia.

D) numbness in the legs.

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19. The spinal cord has a role in: A) conveying sensory and motor information between the brain and body.

B) reflexive behaviors.

C) walking.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

20. The first direct evidence that the cortex controls movement was provided by: A) Wilder Penfield.

B) Paul Broca.

C) Gustav iFritsch iand iEduard iHitzig.

D) John Hughlings-Jackson.

21. On the motor homunculus: A) all muscles are given equal representation.

B) an inverse relation exists between motor control and the space allocated on the homunculus.

C) areas iof iprecise imotor icontrol iare igiven ia ilarger irepresentation.

D) no clear relation exists between movement precision and the amount of area allocated on the motor cortex.

22. The person MOST credited with mapping the human motor cortex was: A) Gustave Fritsch.

B) Eduard Hitzig.

C) Roberts Bartholow.

D) Wilder iPenfield.

23. Which of the following sequences is in the correct order from largest to smallest representation in the motor homunculus?

A) feet, hands, lips B) hands, feet, lips C) hands, ilips, ifeet D) lips, feet, hands

24. Early research on the motor cortex suggested that it ; however, more recent work suggests that the motor cortex may actually .

A) controlled iindividual imuscle imovements; istore ia irepertoire iof imovement icategories B) stored a repertoire of movement categories; control individual muscle movements C) controlled only reflexive movements; control both reflexive and voluntary movement D) controlled only learned movements; control both learned and innate movements

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25. The sensory and motor cortices are: A) stable neocortical areas that are fixed in function after birth.

B) stable neocortical areas that are fixed in function after puberty.

C) changed only in response to damage.

D) continuously imodified iwith ilearning iand iexperience.

26. Neurons in the primary motor cortex: A) start to discharge just prior to a movement.

B) discharge during a movement.

C) increase their rate of firing if a weight is added to the movement apparatus.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

27. Early research by Evarts demonstrated that movement force was related to: A) an increased number of neurons firing in primary motor cortex.

B) larger (that is, greater amplitude) action potentials in neurons in premotor cortex.

C) an increase in the rate of firing in neurons in premotor cortex.

D) an iincrease iin ithe irate iof ifiring iin ineurons iin iprimary imotor icortex.

28. Motor cortex is activated when a person: A) plans a movement.

B) imagines making a movement.

C) executes a movement.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

29. Following a recent stroke Anthony now has a great deal of difficulty using his right hand.

Instead, he has resorted to doing things with his left hand. Your advice to Anthony is to: A) keep using his left hand so he can become independent more quickly.

B) try using both hands to accomplish a task to recover function in his right hand more quickly.

C) force himself to only use his impaired right hand to increase the surface area of motor cortex that is used to control his right hand.

D) elf ito ionly i e ihi iimpaired iright ihand ito iprevent ia idecrea e iin ithe i iarea iof imotor icortex ithat i i ed ito icontrol ihi iright ihand.

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30. The major motor pathway that relays signals from the primary motor cortex to the spinal cord is the: A) rubrospinal tract.

B) tectospinal tract.

C) corticospinal itract.

D) pontospinal tract.

31. The controls limbs and digits, whereas the controls mainly trunk muscles.

A) lateral icorticospinal itract; ianterior icorticospinal itract B) anterior corticospinal tract; lateral corticospinal tract C) rubrospinal tract; lateral corticospinal tract D) lateral corticospinal tract; tectospinal tract

32. Neurons from the corticospinal tract project mainly to A) motor neurons B) sensory neurons C) interneurons D) bipolar cells

in the spinal cord.

33. In the spinal cord, laterally located motor neurons project to the medially located motor neurons project to the .

A) trunk; limbs and digits B) limbs; trunk and feet C) arms; legs D) limbs iand idigits; itrunk iand ishoulders

, whereas more

34. The limb regions of the motor homunculus are involved in activating motor neurons that move the arms, hands, and legs primarily on the , and the trunk regions of the motor homunculus are mainly involved in activating motor neurons that move the trunk primarily on the .

A) same side of the body; opposite side of the body B) opposite iside iof ithe ibody; isame iside iof ithe ibody C) same side of the body; same side of the body D) opposite side of the body; opposite side of the body

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35. Neurons in the anterior corticospinal tract in the left hemisphere control on of the body A) limb; the right side B) trunk; the right side C) trunk; iboth isides D) limb; both sides

muscles

36. What constitutes the "final common path"?

A) sensory neurons B) muscles C) motor ineurons D) the corticospinal tract

37.

muscles move the limb away from the trunk, whereas limb back toward the trunk.

A) Extensor; iflexor B) Flexor; extensor C) Dorsal; ventral D) Medial; lateral

muscles move the

38. In all animals, a large proportion of the motor cortex is represented by: A) the tongue and paws or hands.

B) the arms, legs, and other large muscle groups.

C) no single area. There is equal representation of all muscles.

D) muscles iover iwhich ian ianimal ihas iskilled iand iintricate icontrol.

39. Which of the following is NOT part of the basal ganglia?

A) globus pallidus B) amygdala C) caudate D) putamen

40. Which of the following is NOT part of the direct pathway of the basal ganglia?

A) the caudate nucleus B) the iglobus ipallidus iexternal C) the globus pallidus internal D) the putamen

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41. Which of the following structures is NOT part of the indirect pathway in the basal ganglia?

A) the globus pallidus internal B) the ithalamus C) the caudate nucleus D) the subthalamic nucleus

42. The neurotransmitter system that is MOST important for basal ganglia function is the: A) nigrostriatal idopamine isystem.

B) mesolimbic dopamine system.

C) acetylcholine system.

D) norepinephrine system.

43. Damage to the results in .

A) substantia nigra; Huntington disease B) striatum; iHuntington idisease C) striatum; Parkinson disease D) putamen; Parkinson disease

44. In the basal ganglia, movement excitation is to .

A) putamen; globus pallidus B) direct ipathway; iindirect ipathway C) indirect pathway; direct pathway D) subthalamic nucleus; thalamus

as movement inhibition is to

45. The contributes to motor control by adjusting the forces associated with movements, while the compares the intended movement with actual movement for the improvement of movement skill.

A) motor cortex; cerebellum B) cerebellum; basal ganglia C) basal ganglia; motor cortex D) basal iganglia; icerebellum

46. Which of the following is NOT associated with Tourette syndrome?

A) motor tics (for example, hitting, jumping) B) unwanted cries and vocalizations C) excessive levels of dopamine D) hypokinetic isymptoms

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47. Brain imaging studies have noted DECREASED connectivity between the patients with Tourette syndrome.

A) temporal cortex and frontal cortex B) frontal icortex iand iparietal icortex C) occipital cortex and parietal cortex D) None of these answers is correct.

in

48. The globus pallidus is an internal component of the basal ganglia that is involved in: A) skilled motor movements.

B) determining iwhether ia imovement iwill ibe iweak ior istrong.

C) species-specific behaviors.

D) involuntary motor behaviors.

49. Cellular recordings from the globus pallidus internal in patients with Parkinson disease show: A) excessive iactivity.

B) underactivity.

C) no activity.

D) intermittent spikes of activity.

50. The flocculus of the cerebellum is involved in: A) control iof ibalance iand ieye imovements.

B) control over the face and midline of the body.

C) gross limb movements.

D) fine finger and hand movements.

51. The lateral parts of the cerebellar hemispheres control: A) movement of the body midline.

B) movement iof ilimbs iand idigits.

C) eye movements.

D) balance.

52. The cerebellum consists of A) one B) two C) three D) six

distinct cell layer(s).

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53.53.

A)

are the primary output cells of the cerebellum.

Purkinje icells B) Basket cells C) Stellate cells D) Pyramidal cells

54. The cerebellum's role in motor behavior is primarily involved with: A) timing iof imovements iand imaintaining imovement iaccuracy.

B) initiating movements and timing of movements.

C) maintaining movement accuracy and initiating movements.

D) All of the answers are correct.

55. If a patient with cerebellar damage is asked to throw darts while wearing a pair of glasses that shift the vision to the right, the patient will most likely: A) learn to adjust movements leftward to compensate for the visual shift.

B) begin throwing farther and farther to the right on successive throws.

C) fail ito ishow iany iadaptation ito icompensate ifor ithe ivisual ishift.

D) learn to adjust movements rightward to compensate for the visual shift.

56. The motor system sends a copy of the instructions for a movement to the cerebellum via the: A) inferior iolive.

B) superior olive.

C) basal ganglia.

D) thalamus.

57.

skin is much more richly endowed with receptors and is exquisitely more sensitive to a wider range of stimuli than skin.

A) Glabrous; ihairy B) Smooth; glabrous C) Smooth; hairy D) Hairy; glabrous

58. The ability to discriminate the distance between two points on the skin is MOST sensitive in: A) hairy skin.

B) glabrous iskin.

C) smooth skin.

D) epidermal skin.

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59. Which of the following receptors is MOST responsive to pain and temperature?

A) Pacinian corpuscles B) free inerve iendings C) Golgi tendon organs D) dendrites of alpha motor neurons

60.

are critical for proprioception.

A) Muscle spindles B) Golgi tendon organs C) Joint receptors D) Muscle ispindles, iGolgi itendon iorgans, iand ijoint ireceptors

61. Nociception is the perception of: A) fine touch.

B) the location of one's body in space.

C) pain.

D) noise.

62. Pacinian corpuscles are most responsive to: A) movements of tendons.

B) pain and temperature.

C) pressure iand iflutter istimuli.

D) movement of tendons and pressure.

63. Hapsis is the perception of: A) fine itouch.

B) the location of one's body in space.

C) pain.

D) chemical irritants.

64. Proprioception is the perception of: A) fine touch.

B) the ilocation iof ione's ibody iin ispace.

C) pain.

D) chemical irritants.

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65. The three major classes of sensory receptors are: A) nociception, ihapsis, iproprioception.

B) flocculoception, nociception, hapsis.

C) stasisception, nociception, proprioception.

D) flocculoception, nociception, proprioception.

66. Which of the following receptors are rapidly adapting receptors?

A) Meissner corpuscles B) Pacinian corpuscles C) Ruffini corpuscles D) All iof ithese iare irapidly iaccepting ireceptors.

67. Which of the following receptors are slowly adapting receptors?

A) Meissner corpuscles B) Merkel ireceptors C) Ruffini corpuscles D) Pacinian corpuscles

68. Somatosensory information is carried from the body to the CNS by the: A) anterior-root ganglion neurons.

B) posterior-root iganglion ineurons.

C) gamma somatosensory neurons.

D) corticospinal tract.

69. The haptic and proprioceptive axons form the: A) dorsal ispinothalamic itract.

B) ventral spinothalamic tract.

C) caudal spinothalamic tract.

D) rostral spinothalamic tract.

70. Information from the crosses to the other side of the brain in the brainstem, whereas the crosses to the other side of the brain in the spinal cord.

A) anterior spinothalamic tract; posterior spinothalamic tract B) posterior ispinothalamic itract; ianterior ispinothalamic itract C) lateral spinothalamic tract; medial spinothalamic tract D) medial spinothalamic tract; medial spinothalamic tract

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71. Axons that carry information about pain and temperature form the: A) posterior spinothalamic tract.

B) anterior ispinothalamic itract.

C) caudal spinothalamic tract.

D) rostral spinothalamic tract.

72. Both the posterior and anterior spinothalamic tracts send their signals to the nucleus of the thalamus.

A) ventrolateral B) ventromedial C) mediodorsal D) lateral geniculate

73. Eric has a great degree of difficulty maintaining muscle contraction over time. For example, if he picks up a cup and begins doing something else, the cup will slip and fall out of his hand because he loses his grip on it. In addition, if Eric is asked to close his eyes and use his left index finger to point to his right thumb he cannot seem to find it.

Based on your knowledge of the somatosensory system you believe that Eric may have damage to in the .

A) posterior root ganglion neurons; anterior spinothalamic tract B) posterior iroot iganglion ineurons; iposterior ispinothalamic itract C) anterior root ganglion neurons; anterior spinothalamic tract D) anterior root ganglion neurons; posterior spinothalamic tract

74. Unilateral damage to the spinal cord will result in the loss of on the same side of the body and loss of on the opposite side of the body below the site of the damage.

A) touch iand iproprioception; ipain iand itemperature B) pain and temperature; touch and proprioception C) pain and touch; temperature and proprioception D) temperature and touch; pain and proprioception

75. When a physician taps the patellar tendon with a hammer, it causes a knee jerk reflex by sending stretch signals to: A) motor ineurons iin ithe ispinal icord ithat icause imuscles ito icontract.

B) motor neurons in the cortex that cause muscles to contract.

C) the thalamus, which sends signals to motor neurons to contract.

D) the cerebellum, which sends signals to motor neurons to contract.

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76. Research has demonstrated that phantom limb pain can be alleviated through the use of: A) further amputation.

B) destroying remaining nerves in the limb stump.

C) using ia imirror ito ifool ithe isensory isystem iinto iperceiving ithe imissing ilimb.

D) acupuncture.

77. According to the gate theory of pain transmission, activity in the pain pathway in the spinal cord.

A) motor cortex B) haptic-proprioceptive ipathway C) nociceptive pathway D) corticospinal pathway

can inhibit the

78. Stimulation of the is effective in reducing pain.

A) amygdala B) thalamus C) periaqueductal igray imatter D) cerebellum

79. Pain in blood vessels and internal organs that is felt as pain at the body surface is known as: A) transferred pain.

B) relocated pain.

C) referred ipain.

D) transposed pain.

80. The vestibular system is in the: A) brainstem.

B) cerebellum.

C) middle ear.

D) inner iear.

81. Action potentials in the semicircular canals are stimulated by: A) bending ihair icells.

B) the endolymph.

C) the utricle and saccule.

D) Pacinian corpuscles.

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82. Hair cells in the vestibular system fire more action potentials when the hair: A) is ibent iin ia ispecific idirection.

B) vibrates at a specific frequency.

C) is moved with a specific force.

D) cells remain motionless.

83. Vestibular receptors convey information about: A) changes in the direction of movement.

B) changes in the speed of movement.

C) the position of one's body in relation to gravity.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

84. Andrea has been experiencing vertigo and problems with balance for several months now. She is otherwise healthy and has no problems with controlling her limbs. You tell Andrea she may want to go to see a neurologist because she might have: A) cerebellar ataxia.

B) Ménieré idisease.

C) an ear infection.

D) Parkinson disease.

85. The primary somatosensory cortex is found in the somatosensory cortex is located in the .

A) precentral gyrus; postcentral gyrus B) parietal lobe; postcentral gyrus C) postcentral igyrus; iparietal ilobe D) precentral gyrus; parietal lobe

, while the secondary

86. The homunculus on the primary somatosensory cortex is MOST similar to the homunculus found in the: A) primary imotor icortex.

B) secondary motor cortex.

C) cerebellum.

D) basal ganglia.

87. How many homunculi are present in the primary somatosensory cortex, according to the Kaas model?

A) one B) three C) four D) five

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88. Neurons in area 3b of the primary somatosensory cortex are responsive to: A) muscle sense.

B) slow-responding iskin ireceptors.

C) fast-responding skin receptors.

D) pressure.

89. Damage to the primary somatosensory motor cortex results in: A) impaired sensory discrimination on the ipsilateral side.

B) impaired isensory idiscrimination ion ithe icontralateral iside.

C) impaired sensory discrimination on both sides.

D) no impairment of sensory discrimination.

90. Research has demonstrated that tickle perception is primarily due to: A) touch sensations.

B) the predictability of the touch sensations.

C) the iunpredictability iof ithe itouch isensations.

D) the laughter associated with tickling.

91. In a study by Pons and colleagues, monkeys' arm nerves were cut, thereby depriving the somatosensory cortex of sensory input from the arm. Several years later, when the researchers mapped the monkeys' somatosensory homunculus, they discovered that the arm region of the homunculus: A) had expanded.

B) was the same size it was previously.

C) had ibeen itaken iover iby ithe iface iregion.

D) had been taken over by the foot region.

92. The inability to accurately complete a plan of motor action is called: A) ataxia.

B) aphasia.

C) apraxia.

D) acalcula.

93. The dorsal visual stream is the stream.

A) what; how B) how; iwhat C) where; how D) how; where

stream, while the ventral visual stream is the

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Chapter 12 – What causes emotional and motivated behaviour?

1. A brain imaging study by Kross and colleagues (2011) examined the regions that were important for processing both physical and emotional pain. The results of this study demonstrated that: A) physical pain activated the somatosensory cortex, whereas emotional pain activated the amygdala.

B) physical pain activated the somatosensory cortex, whereas emotional pain activated the anterior cingulate cortex.

C) physical pain activated the frontal lobes, whereas emotional pain activated the somatosensory cortex.

D) the isame ibrain iareas iresponded ito iboth iphysical iand iemotional ipain.

2. Emotion can be considered , whereas motivation can be considered .

A) cognitive iinterpretations iof isubjective ifeelings; ibehavior ithat iis ipurposeful iand igoaldirected B) behavior that is purposeful and goal-directed; cognitive interpretations of subjective feelings C) chemical reactions to subjective feelings; behavior that serves a self-regulatory function D) chemical reactions to subjective feelings; behavior that helps to promote sexual reproduction

3. Your text describes a patient by the name of Roger. Roger ate indiscriminately. He was found to have: A) an amygdala lesion.

B) an acquired neurosis.

C) a itumor inear ihis ihypothalamus.

D) a tumor near his brainstem.

4. Subjects who are paid handsomely to do nothing, see nothing, and hear and touch nothing rarely stay in the experiment longer than: A) 12 hours.

B) 24 ihours.

C) 36 hours.

D) 48 hours.

5. Monkeys who have been deprived of sensory experience find A) looking iat ia itoy itrain icircling ia itrack B) looking at a bowl of fruit C) looking at a dog D) doing nothing

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6. The receptors for smell are embedded within the .

A) nasal iepithelium; iolfactory imucosa B) olfactory bulb; pyriform cortex C) pyriform cortex; olfactory bulb D) nasal epithelium; glomeruli

and have cilia that extend into the

7. The size of the receptor surface in the olfactory epithelium in humans is roughly: A) 15 square centimeters.

B) 10 square centimeters.

C) 8 to 12 square centimeters.

D) 2 ito i4 isquare icentimeters.

8. The correct order of species with the smallest to the largest receptor surface area in the olfactory epithelium is: A) cats, dogs, humans.

B) dogs, cats, humans.

C) humans, idogs, icats.

D) humans, cats, dogs.

9. Olfactory receptor neurons code different scents because: A) each ineuron iresponds ito ia ispecific iscent.

B) each neuron responds to all scents equally.

C) each scent activates a unique pattern of receptor neurons.

D) None of the answers is correct.

10. There are approximately A) 100 B) 400 C) 700 D) 10

different types of olfactory receptors

11. The correct order of connections along the olfactory pathway is: A) olfactory ireceptor icells, iglomeruli, imitral icells, iamygdala iand ipyriform icortex.

B) olfactory receptor cells, mitral cells, glomeruli, amygdala and pyriform cortex.

C) glomeruli, olfactory receptor cells, mitral cells, amygdala and pyriform cortex.

D) amygdala and pyriform cortex, mitral cells, olfactory receptor cells, glomeruli.

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12. The receives projections from the olfactory system via the thalamus and plays an important role in a variety of emotional and social behaviors.

A) superior temporal gyrus B) lateral prefrontal cortex C) amygdala D) orbitofrontal icortex

13.

are biochemicals that can act as chemosignals to affect the physiology or behavior of another animal.

A) Hormones B) Neurotransmitters C) Pheromones D) Synapses

14. Pheromones are detected by: A) glomeruli.

B) mitral cells.

C) the ivomeronasal iorgan.

D) the olfactory mucosa.

15. Cats are NOT able to detect: A) saltiness.

B) sweetness.

C) bitterness.

D) sourness.

16. "Supertasters" who are able to taste the substance PROP are extremely sensitive to tastes.

A) sweet B) salty C) bitter D) sour

17. There are A) four B) three C) five D) six

taste receptors.

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18. One reason that adults and children may have such different food preferences is because: A) children enjoy being picky eaters.

B) adults have more taste receptors than children and so are more sensitive to different tastes.

C) children ihave imore ita te irecept ithan iadult iand i iare imore i e itive ito idifferent ita te .

D) there is no difference between taste receptors in children and adults.

19. Which of the following cranial nerves is NOT involved in transmitting gustatory information?

A) 12 i(hypoglossal) B) 7 (facial nerve) C) 9 (glossopharyngeal nerve) D) 10 (vagus nerve)

20. Which of the following is the correct order of connections in the gustatory system?

A) ta te ireceptor icell , icranial inerve , i olitary itract, ithalam , i omat e iand ii ula B) taste receptor cells, solitary tract, cranial nerves, somatosensory cortex and insula, thalamus C) solitary tract, taste receptor cells, cranial nerves, somatosensory cortex and insula, thalamus D) cranial nerves, taste receptor cells, solitary tract, thalamus, somatosensory cortex and insula

21. The gustatory region of the insula is responsive to somatosensory cortex is responsive to .

A) taste; itactile istimulation iand itexture B) tactile stimulation and texture; taste C) taste; food preferences D) food preferences; taste

, whereas the primary

22. Brain imaging studies have found that the left orbitofrontal cortex codes for the tastes, whereas the right orbitofrontal cortex codes for the of tastes.

A) pleasantness; unpleasantness B) unpleasantness; ipleasantness C) intensity; complexity D) sweetness; saltiness

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23. The insula identifies the of flavors, whereas the orbitofrontal cortex evaluates the of tastes.

A) intensity; iaffective iproperties B) affective properties; intensity C) individual components; nutritional value D) nutritional value; individual components

24. Activators for inborn adaptive responses that aid in an animal's survival are called: A) innate ireleasing imechanisms.

B) innate behavioral mechanisms.

C) innate evolutionary mechanisms.

D) innate learning mechanisms.

25. Blind human children: A) do not smile.

B) show abnormal musculature when they smile.

C) show ithe isame ifacial iexpressions ias isighted ichildren.

D) must be trained, using the tactile sense, to show facial expressions.

26. Young human infants can mimic facial expressions. This is: A) a rapidly learned response.

B) only seen in babies with vision because blind children show no facial expression.

C) only seen when the face is that of a parent or caretaker.

D) an iexample iof ian iinnate ireleasing imechanism.

27.

Innate releasing mechanisms: A) disappear as we mature.

B) are responsible for eliciting all infant behavior.

C) can ibe imodified iby iexperience.

D) are present in lower species but not in humans.

28. According to Daly and Wilson, homicide is: A) a means of population control.

B) a maladaptive trait that is gradually being eliminated from the gene pool.

C) related ito isome ibehavior ithat ihas ibeen iadaptive iin ithe ipast.

D) a purely learned behavior.

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29. The idea that reinforcement controls behavior is MOST often associated with: A) Charles Darwin.

B) B. iF. iSkinner.

C) Steve Glickman.

D) Martin Daly.

30. A pigeon cannot be trained to peck a disk to: A) receive food.

B) receive water.

C) escape ifrom ifoot ishock.

D) obtain sex.

31. Learned taste aversion: A) appears ito itake ionly ione itrial iof ilearning.

B) is found only in humans.

C) is not really learning but an instinctive reaction.

D) is caused by an innate releasing mechanism.

32. You get sick with the flu and vomit a few hours after you eat a roast beef sandwich. Now every time you see a roast beef sandwich you begin to feel ill. This is an example of: A) food poisoning.

B) operant conditioning.

C) learned itaste iaversion.

D) innate taste aversion.

33. The predisposition to make certain associations easier than others is called: A) selective learning.

B) preparedness.

C) innate preference.

D) evolutionary memory.

34. Coyotes cannot learn to stop attacking sheep even if farmers shoot and kill many of them.

However, if the coyotes are allowed to eat a poisoned sheep carcass that makes them sick they will quickly learn not to eat sheep anymore. This is an example of: A) selective learning.

B) preparedness.

C) innate preference.

D) evolutionary memory.

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35. Flies prefer which of the following tastes?

A) sour B) salty C) bitter D) sweet

36. Eating behavior in the fly is controlled by: A) blood-sugar levels.

B) signals from the intestine.

C) signals ifrom ithe iesophagus.

D) signals from the stomach.

37. If you cut the recurrent nerve in flies it will: A) cause them to stop eating immediately.

B) cause ithem ito inever istop ieating.

C) alter their taste preferences.

D) have no effect on their eating.

38. Most homeostatic mechanisms involve the: A) hypothalamus.

B) thalamus.

C) amygdala.

D) anterior pituitary gland.

39. If you are cold, you begin to shiver. If you are hot, you begin to sweat. These are examples of: A) physiological responses.

B) regulatory ibehaviors.

C) nonregulatory behaviors.

D) learned responses.

40.

A) B) C) D)

is an example of a nonregulatory behavior.

Eating Drinking Sexual iintercourse Maintaining internal body temperature

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41. The medial forebrain bundle helps transmit A) dopamine; ibasal iganglia B) dopamine; brainstem C) serotonin; brainstem D) serotonin; frontal lobes

to the

.

42. Peptides released by the axons of the hypothalamus: A) affect the postsynaptic membrane.

B) are inhibitory.

C) are very rapidly reabsorbed.

D) are ipicked iup iby ithe iblood iand isent ito idistant iparts iof ithe ibody.

43. Which of the following hormones controls secretions of the mammary glands?

A) luteinizing hormone B) prolactin C) thyroid-stimulating hormone D) adrenocorticotrophic hormone

44. Which of the following hormones controls secretions of the gonads?

A) prolactin B) adrenocorticotrophic hormone C) luteinizing ihormone D) thyroid-stimulating hormone

45. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone is produced by the: A) anterior ipituitary.

B) posterior pituitary.

C) lateral hypothalamus.

D) posterior hypothalamus.

46. Generally speaking the controls releasing hormones, whereas the the secretion of hormones.

A) pituitary; hypothalamus B) hypothalamus; ipituitary C) pituitary; thalamus D) thalamus; hypothalamus

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47. Stimulation of the hypothalamus elicits: A) simple reflexive behaviors.

B) instinctive nondirected behaviors, such as eating or drinking movements, even though there is no food or water available.

C) directed ibehavior i uch i ieating ior idrinking, ibut ionly i hen ifood iand i ater iare iavailable.

D) aversive effects that the animal will learn a response to terminate.

48. Broca's limbic lobe consists of the: A) cingulate igyrus iand ithe ihippocampal iformation.

B) cingulate gyrus and the frontal cortex.

C) cingulate gyrus, the hippocampal formation, and the basal ganglia.

D) cingulate gyrus, the hippocampal formation, and the pineal gland.

49. If I was receiving brain stimulation and I suddenly felt anxious and fearful, the MOST likely site of stimulation would be the: A) hypothalamus.

B) thalamus.

C) amygdala.

D) prefrontal cortex.

50. Which of the following is NOT one of the subdivisions of the amygdala?

A) corticomedial B) basolateral C) central D) ventromedial

51. Which of the following structures is NOT involved in emotion?

A) the hippocampus B) the amygdala C) the imedial iforebrain ibundle D) the anterior thalamus

52. A person who started eating cardboard or an old pair of shoes might have damage to the: A) prefrontal cortex.

B) basal ganglia.

C) amygdala.

D) hypothalamus.

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53. The selection of motor sequences that are to be executed comes from the: A) motor cortex.

B) premotor icortex.

C) cerebellum.

D) prefrontal cortex.

54. The dorsolateral region of the prefrontal cortex projects to the: A) eating deficits.

B) dependency ion ienvironmental icues.

C) dependency on internal cues.

D) eating deficits and dependency on internal cues.

55. Which of the following is likely to cause inappropriate social responses and an inability to respond to social context?

A) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex lesions B) medial prefrontal lesions C) orbital iprefrontal ilesions D) lateral prefrontal lesions

56. Richard is normally a very polite individual. However, following a recent car accident Richard has begun to act inappropriately in social situations, such as swearing in front of his grandparents, and choosing inappropriate conversation topics with his parents (sexual intercourse, for example). You recommend that Richard see a neuropsychologist, since he may have damage to his: A) orbital iprefrontal icortex.

B) amygdala.

C) lateral prefrontal cortex.

D) hippocampus.

57. The James–Lange theory considers emotions to be BEST explained as: A) cognitive iinterpretations iof iphysiological istates.

B) physiological reactions to cognitive states.

C) cognitive interpretations of emotional reactions.

D) emotional reactions based on cognitive interpretations.

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58. The fact that many people who have a spinal cord injury have a decrease in perceived emotion supports the theory of emotion.

A) neural B) Darwinian C) James–Lange D) cognitive

59. Emotions entail autonomic changes, subjective feelings, and cognition. Which sequence of brain structures is MOST likely involved in each of these three forms of experience?

A) cortex, hypothalamus, amygdala B) hypothalamus, iamygdala, icortex C) amygdala, hypothalamus, cortex D) amygdala, cortex, hypothalamus

60. I tremble and develop a rapid heartbeat, then my brain interprets these changes as a specific emotion. This is the theory of emotion.

A) Cannon–Bard B) Kolb–Whishaw C) James–Lange D) Klüver–Bucy

61. The somatic marker hypothesis argues that: A) emotion originates in the amygdala.

B) emotion originates in the hypothalamus.

C) ioccur ifi t, iand ithen ithe ibrain iconcoct ia i tory ito iinterpret iour ivi ceral ireaction.

D) emotion in the relevant brain structures directs our autonomic nervous system.

62. According to Damasio's somatic marker hypothesis, a frontal lobe injury can impair decision making by: A) di connecting ibrain iregi iinvolved iin ideci ion imaking ifrom it e iinvolved iin iemotion.

B) separating thought from reason.

C) disconnecting the frontal lobes from the parietal lobes.

D) disconnecting the frontal lobes from the thalamus.

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63. Loss of fear, inappropriate sexual activity, and indiscriminate eating behavior: A) are isymptoms iof i Klüver–Bucy isyndrome.

B) occur after lesions to the hypothalamus.

C) occur after lesions to the thalamus.

D) occur after lesions to the septum.

64. Which of the following is NOT one of the symptoms described as part of the original Klüver–Bucy syndrome?

A) loss of fear response B) increased sexual activity C) tendency to explore objects using the mouth D) dementia

65. Electrical stimulation of the A) cingulate cortex B) hypothalamus C) orbital prefrontal cortex D) amygdala

produces a fear response.

66. Frontal lobotomies were first performed on humans for the relief of psychiatric disorders by: A) Heinrich Klüver.

B) Carlyle Jacobsen.

C) David Fulton.

D) Egas iMoniz.

67. Loss of initiative or drive and apathy are characteristic of: A) orbital iprefrontal icortex ilesions.

B) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex lesions.

C) amygdala lesions.

D) hypothalamic lesions.

68. The is responsible for our conscious awareness of emotional states.

A) amygdala B) lateral prefrontal cortex C) orbital iprefrontal icortex D) cingulate cortex

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69. Which of the following is NOT one of the symptoms of major depression?

A) feelings of worthlessness and guilt B) inappropriate isexual ibehavior C) sleep disturbances D) general slowing of behavior

70. The MOST prevalent psychiatric disorder is: A) schizophrenia.

B) depression.

C) anxiety idisorder.

D) personality disorder.

71.

A) B) C) D)

is (are) often treatable with a single exposure session lasting 2 to 3 hours.

Phobias Depression Panic disorder Generalized anxiety disorder

72. Drugs that act as are often prescribed to treat anxiety disorders.

A) GABA iagonists B) GABA antagonists C) dopamine agonists D) serotonin antagonists

73. It has been estimated that A) 30 B) 55 C) 65 D) 75

percent of North Americans are overweight.

74. Enzymes produced by the gallbladder and the pancreas break down food in the: A) esophagus.

B) upper ipart iof ithe ismall iintestine.

C) duodenum.

D) lower intestine.

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75. Cholecystokinin plays an important role in: A) initiating eating.

B) initiating food cravings.

C) ending ia imeal i(that iis, ifeeling ifull).

D) the breakdown of cholesterol.

76. Damage to the lateral hypothalamus causes: A) obesity in animals.

B) animals ito istop ieating.

C) anorexia nervosa.

D) overeating in animals.

77. Aphagia (lack of eating) can be produced by lesioning the: A) ventromedial hypothalamus.

B) lateral ihypothalamus.

C) dorsal hypothalamus.

D) anterior hypothalamus.

78. Damage to the ventromedial hypothalamus leads to: A) digestive problems in animals.

B) animals not eating.

C) anorexia nervosa.

D) overeating iin ianimals.

79.

A) B) C) D)

contained in the helps initiate eating behavior.

CCK; arcuate nucleus neuropeptide Y; lateral hypothalamus neuropeptide iY; iarcuate inucleus CCK; ventromedial hypothalamus

80. Learned taste aversion can be abolished by lesions to the: A) amygdala.

B) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

C) inferior frontal cortex.

D) orbital frontal cortex.

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81. Patients with lesions to the orbital prefrontal cortex typically become: A) overweight.

B) picky eaters.

C) indiscriminate eaters.

D) very islim ifrom iundereating.

82. Bars and pubs that offer their customers very salty free popcorn are hoping to capitalize on: A) osmotic ithirst.

B) hypovolemic thirst.

C) the fact that students will never turn down free food.

D) dehydration.

83. Drinking water as a result of an increase in concentrations of chemicals is: A) hypovolemic thirst.

B) osmotic ithirst.

C) regulated by the thalamus.

D) regulated by the amygdala.

84. Matt is running a marathon in the middle of a heat wave and is extremely worried about getting dehydrated, so he starts to consume large amounts of water. Suddenly his heartbeat becomes irregular and he gets a severe headache. You tell Matt that he should: A) drink more water because he is probably very dehydrated.

B) see a doctor because he might be having a heart attack.

C) stop idrinking iwater ibecause ihe iis iexperiencing iwater iintoxication.

D) start running again until the feeling goes away.

85. The effects that hormones have on the adult brain are referred to as: A) organizing effects.

B) activating ieffects.

C) endocrine effects.

D) hormonal effects.

86. Masculinization of the brain is most directly caused by: A) testosterone.

B) estradiol.

C) progesterone.

D) androgens.

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87. High estrogen levels in female rats: A) increase ithe inumber iof idendritic ispines ion ihippocampal ipyramidal icells.

B) decrease the number of dendritic spines on hippocampal pyramidal cells.

C) peak every eight days.

D) increase the number of axons of hippocampal pyramidal cells.

88. In androgen insensitivity syndrome: A) a igenetic imale idevelops ia ifemale iphenotype.

B) a genetic female develops a male phenotype.

C) males fail to undergo puberty.

D) females fail to undergo puberty.

89. In males, the medial preoptic area controls A) mating; isexual imotivation B) sexual motivation; mating C) mating; lordosis D) lordosis; sexual motivation

, whereas the amygdala controls

90. Homosexual males have a hypothalamus that is organized: A) like a female hypothalamus.

B) like a heterosexual hypothalamus.

C) unlike ieither ithe iheterosexual imale ihypothalamus ior ithe ifemale ihypothalamus.

D) like a lesbian hypothalamus.

91. Which of the following neurotransmitters is the MOST likely source of reward in brain self-stimulation experiments?

A) serotonin B) dopamine C) acetylcholine D) noradrenaline

92. Reward is thought to be regulated largely by the: A) nigrostriatal dopamine pathway.

B) serotonin pathway.

C) norepinephrine pathway.

D) mesolimbic idopamine ipathway.

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93. When animals engage in activities such as eating and sexual activity, there is a marked increase in dopamine levels in the: A) amygdala.

B) nucleus iaccumbens.

C) caudate nucleus.

D) hypothalamus.

94. According to Robinson and Berridge, wanting is controlled by controlled by .

A) dopamine; serotonin B) norepinephrine; opioids and GABA C) dopamine; iopioids iand iGABA D) dopamine; acetylcholine

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Chapter 13 – Why do we sleep and dream?

1. Diurnal is to nocturnal as: A) night is to day.

B) sleep is to activity.

C) activity is to sleep.

D) day iis ito inight.

2. The day–night cycle that influences sleeping and waking is called: A) circadian irhythm.

B) diurnal rhythm.

C) nocturnal rhythm.

D) metabolic rhythm.

3.

A) B) C) D)

is influenced by daily biorhythms.

Body temperature Metabolic rate Sexual drive All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

4. Our biological rhythms are influenced by: A) the earth orbiting around the sun.

B) the rotational axis of the planet.

C) light.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

5. Daily fluctuations in the rhythmical movement of plant leaves come from: A) temperature changes.

B) conditions iwithin ithe iplant.

C) sunlight changes.

D) changes in the electromagnetic field.

6. The time required for a complete cycle of activity is called a(n): A) biological rhythm.

B) cycle.

C) period.

D) epoch.

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7. Migratory cycles of birds are examples of: A) circannual irhythms.

B) circadian rhythms.

C) ultradian rhythms.

D) infradian rhythms.

8. Daily body-temperature changes are an example of: A) circannual rhythm.

B) circadian irhythm.

C) ultradian rhythm.

D) infradian rhythm.

9. Eating behavior is an example of: A) circadian rhythm.

B) ultradian irhythm.

C) infradian rhythm.

D) circannual rhythm.

10. Ultradian rhythms have a period of , while infradian rhythms have a period of .

A) less ithan ione iday; imore ithan ione iday ibut iless ithan ione iyear B) more than one day but less than one year; less than one day C) one day; less than one day D) less than one day; one day

11. When all external cues are removed, animals develop a free-running rhythm. The freerunning rhythm of a human is: A) 24 hours.

B) more ithan i24 ihours.

C) less than 24 hours.

D) inconsistent and vastly different for all people.

12. A free-running rhythm is: A) determined by temperature.

B) determined by light.

C) determined ifrom iwithin ithe ibody.

D) determined by temperature and light and from within the body.

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13. When all external cues are removed (e.g., living in a dark, windowless basement) humans will start: A) going to bed earlier and earlier every night.

B) going ito ibed ilater iand ilater ieach inight.

C) eating less and less.

D) There is no change in sleep–wake cycle.

14. A biological clock that is entrained: A) is a free-running rhythm.

B) has ibeen ireset iby ia iZeitgeber.

C) has been temporarily terminated by a hormonal change.

D) is the same as a sequence of rhythms.

15. If sparrows are tested in constant light, their free-running periods are they are tested in constant darkness, their free-running periods are A) more ithan i24 ihours; iless ithan i24 ihours B) less than 24 hours; more than 24 hours C) absent; extended D) extended; absent

, whereas if .

16. The clock on most computers is continually updated and reset via an Internet connection to a time server. In this example the time server acts as a(n): A) circadian rhythm.

B) Zeitgeber.

C) free-running rhythm.

D) infradian rhythm.

17. Which of the following is likely the most potent Zeitgeber?

A) eating times B) darkness C) light D) temperature

18. Cues that maintain rhythmicity are known as: A) circadian rhythms.

B) cyclers.

C) pacemakers.

D) Zeitgebers.

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19. Which of the following would be the most effective treatment for your friend who seems to develop seasonal affective disorder during the winter?

A) alcohol B) a high-carbohydrate diet C) phototherapy D) vitamin C

20. One of the most common treatments for the control of seasonal affective disorder is: A) benzodiazepines.

B) white ilight.

C) seconal.

D) sodium amytal.

21. Research has shown that Zeitgebers are most effective: A) at sunrise.

B) at sunset.

C) during the night.

D) at isunrise iand isunset.

22. Morning light resets the biological clock by , whereas evening darkness resets the biological clock by .

A) moving it backward; moving it forward B) moving it forward; moving it forward again C) moving it backward; moving it backward again D) moving iit iforward; imoving iit ibackward

23. Shift workers (e.g., working 7 p.m. to 3 a.m.) tend to develop: A) insomnia.

B) hypersomnia.

C) metabolic isyndrome.

D) anxiety problems.

24. David routinely works shift work (e.g., from 10 p.m. to 6 a.m.). Recently he has noticed that he is gaining a lot of weight, is restless and irritable most of the time, and has had a lot of trouble sleeping. Given these symptoms David may have: A) depression.

B) metabolic isyndrome.

C) a vitamin D deficiency.

D) SAD.

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25. Jet lag would be the worst if you were flying: A) from iBoston ito iLondon.

B) from Paris to Rome.

C) from London to New York.

D) from Paris to London.

26. According to a study by Curt Richter, running, eating, and drinking no longer occurred at appropriate times following lesions to the: A) orbitofrontal cortex.

B) thalamus.

C) hypothalamus.

D) tectum.

27. The suprachiasmatic nucleus is located in the: A) optic chiasm.

B) thalamus.

C) hypothalamus.

D) cerebellum.

28. The brain's master clock is housed in the: A) pineal gland.

B) caudate nucleus.

C) pituitary gland.

D) suprachiasmatic inucleus.

29. If inputs and outputs from the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) are severed, its neurons: A) increase their rates of firing.

B) decrease their rates of firing.

C) cease firing altogether.

D) continue ito ifire iat ithe isame irate ias ibefore.

30. Which of the following would describe the electrical activity of neurons in a rat's suprachiasmatic nucleus if it were removed and placed in a dish?

A) The rhythm of the neurons would speed up.

B) The rhythm of the neurons would slow down.

C) There iwould ibe ino ichange iin ithe irhythm iof ithe ineurons.

D) It would lose all rhythm.

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31. If you separated the neurons of the suprachiasmatic nucleus, put them in a dish, and then recorded from the cells: A) all rhythmicity would be gone.

B) each iof ithe icells iwould ihave ia islightly idifferent irhythm.

C) all of the cells would have the same rhythm.

D) there would be no activity because all the inputs would be gone.

32. Light information reaches the suprachiasmatic nucleus via the: A) lateral geniculate pathway.

B) occipital cortex.

C) thalamic pathway.

D) retinohypothalamic ipathway.

33. Cells in the suprachiasmatic nucleus use the neurotransmitter synchrony.

A) dopamine B) norepinephrine C) glutamate D) GABA

to help them act in

34. The suprachiasmatic nucleus receives light-related inputs from retinal ganglion cells containing: A) melanopsin.

B) rhodopsin.

C) retinol.

D) vitamin A.

35. Greg had a stroke in both sides of his occipital lobe and is now cortically blind. How will complete cortical blindness affect Greg's circadian rhythm?

A) His circadian rhythm will cease functioning and he will get his days and nights confused.

B) There iwill ibe ino ichange iin ihis icircadian irhythm.

C) His circadian rhythm will speed up.

D) His circadian rhythm will slow down.

36. Which of the following structures does NOT send inputs to the suprachiasmatic nucleus?

A) intergeniculate leaflet B) raphe nucleus C) retinohypothalamic tract D) tectopulvinar itract

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37. The effects of lesioning the suprachiasmatic nucleus can be reversed by: A) intense exposure to light.

B) electrical stimulation.

C) transplants iof iSCN icells.

D) stem cell transplants.

38. Steven is often referred to as a morning person because he wakes up at 5 a.m. and goes to sleep at 10 p.m., whereas Jennifer is described as a night owl because she wakes up at 10 a.m. but stays up until 3 a.m. Steven's and Jennifer's sleeping and waking habits may differ because of the differences in: A) diet.

B) exercise.

C) suprachiasmatic nucleus core neurons.

D) suprachiasmatic inucleus ishell ineurons.

39. If a female rat is lesioned in the suprachiasmatic nucleus, so her behavior is no longer rhythmic, and she subsequently becomes pregnant, her pups will: A) fail to develop a circadian rhythm.

B) have to learn rhythmic behavior by watching intact rats.

C) develop ia inormal icircadian irhythm.

D) adopt nocturnal rhythms.

40. Rhythmicity in the suprachiasmatic nucleus likely: A) is learned.

B) originated elsewhere in the brain.

C) is igenetically idetermined.

D) developed as the result of sunlight.

41. Eating, body temperature, and motor activity are hypothesized to be driven by: A) pacemakers.

B) slave ioscillators.

C) entrainment cells.

D) phase modulators.

42. Lesions to the suprachiasmatic nucleus: A) abolish eating.

B) abolish sleep.

C) disrupt ithe itiming iof isleep iand ieating.

D) have no effect on either eating or sleeping.

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43. Which of the following neural structures functions as a pacemaker?

A) lateral geniculate nucleus B) amygdala C) suprachiasmatic inucleus D) hypothalamic nucleus

44. The suprachiasmatic nucleus entrains slave oscillators via connection(s) with the: A) thalamus.

B) hypothalamus.

C) pituitary.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

45.

promote(s) rest and relaxation, whereas A) Glucocorticoids; melatonin B) Melatonin; iglucocorticoids C) GABA; melatonin D) Glucocorticoids; GABA

promote(s) arousal.

46. The suprachiasmatic nucleus controls the release of the hormone(s): A) melatonin.

B) glucocorticoid.

C) thyroid-stimulating hormone.

D) melatonin iand iglucocorticoid.

47. Melatonin is released primarily during the A) dark B) light C) midday portion D) early morning portion

of the circadian cycle.

48. Which of the following sequences accurately depicts the process by which rhythms are linked to hormones?

A) suprachiasmatic inucleus, islave ioscillators, ihormone irelease B) slave oscillators, suprachiasmatic nucleus, hormone release C) hormone release, suprachiasmatic nucleus, slave oscillators D) suprachiasmatic nucleus, hormone release, slave oscillators

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49. Melatonin is secreted by the: A) suprachiasmatic nucleus.

B) pineal igland.

C) gonads.

D) hypothalamus.

50. Male hamsters who are exposed to male hamsters who are exposed to A) increased; idecreased B) decreased; increased C) constant; decreased D) increased; constant

light levels have enlarged gonads, whereas light levels have smaller gonads.

51. Rats trained to associate a particular place with the delivery of a small electric shock tend to show poorest recall for the association when they are tested at: A) a consistent time of day.

B) varying itimes iof iday.

C) a consistent location.

D) both a consistent location and a consistent time of day.

52. Electromyography (EMG) measures: A) brain wave activity.

B) muscle iactivity.

C) eye movements.

D) heart rate.

53. Electrooculography (EOG) measures: A) brain wave activity.

B) muscle activity.

C) eye imovements.

D) heart rate.

54. Sleep is commonly measured using an: A) electroencephalograph.

B) electromyograph.

C) electrooculograph.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

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55. What is the correct order of EEG patterns, from lowest to highest frequency?

A) alpha, beta, delta B) beta, alpha, delta C) delta, ialpha, ibeta D) delta, beta, alpha

56. A waking EEG rhythm is the same as: A) alpha rhythm.

B) beta irhythm.

C) delta rhythm.

D) theta rhythm.

57. Which of the following rhythms occurs during sleep?

A) alpha rhythm B) beta rhythm C) delta irhythm D) theta rhythm

58. John is participating in a sleep study. While examining John's EEG pattern, the researcher notices that the waves are extremely regular, with a frequency of 7 to 11 Hz. Based on this observation the researcher can conclude that: A) John is still wide awake and alert.

B) John is asleep.

C) John is dreaming.

D) John iis iawake ibut irelaxed, iwith ihis ieyes iclosed.

59. Sarah is participating in a sleep study. Although she appears to be sleeping, her EEG pattern exhibits fast brain wave activity, and the recording from the electrooculogram seems to indicate that she is moving her eyes. This suggests that Sarah: A) is having a seizure.

B) is lying with her eyes closed and is relaxed but not actually sleeping.

C) has a sleep disorder.

D) is iin iREM isleep.

60. The EEG patterns taken from skull recordings of REM sleep are characterized by: A) low-frequency waves, as if the person were awake.

B) low-frequency waves similar to those found in stage 4 sleep.

C) high-frequency iwaves, ias iif ithe iperson iwere iawake.

D) high-frequency waves similar to those found in stage 2 sleep.

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61. The data collected when subjects are awakened at various times suggest that deepest sleep.

A) stage 1 B) stage 2 C) stage 3 D) stage i4

is the

62. REM (rapid eye movement) sleep occurs during: A) stage 1.

B) stage 2.

C) stages 3 and 4.

D) None iof ithe ianswers iis icorrect.

63. Body temperature during NREM sleep and decreases; i increases A) B) stays constant; decreases C) stays constant; increases D) increases; decreases

64. In the first part of a night's sleep, sleep dominates.

A) REM; NREM B) NREM; iREM C) stage 1; stage 3 D) stage 3; stage 1

during REM sleep.

sleep is prominent, whereas in the second part,

65. REM sleep is most frequent in: A) children.

B) adolescents.

C) middle age.

D) the elderly.

66. Adults spend in REM sleep than children.

A) more time B) less itime C) the same amount of time D) Children do not engage in REM sleep.

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67. Someone who feels tingling and pain in the legs at night when trying to sleep may have: A) poor blood circulation.

B) had too much caffeine during the day.

C) restless ilegs isyndrome.

D) sleep dystonia.

68. Restless legs syndrome is most common in: A) men.

B) women.

C) teenagers.

D) seniors.

69. Restless legs syndrome is sometimes treated with: A) l-dopa B) SSRIs C) benzodiazepines D) haloperidol

70. Sleepwalking can occur in: A) all stages of NREM sleep.

B) stage i4 isleep.

C) REM sleep.

D) stage 1 sleep.

71. Victoria is watching her cat sleep on the floor. The cat is sprawled out and its legs seem to be twitching. It would appear that her cat is in .

A) stage 2 sleep B) stage i3 isleep C) stage 4 sleep D) REM sleep

72. Dreaming occurs most commonly during: A) stage 1 and 2 sleep.

B) stage 3 and 4 sleep.

C) REM isleep.

D) all five stages of sleep.

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73. Night terrors, or brief, frightening dreams, occur during: A) REM sleep.

B) stage 2 and 3 sleep.

C) stage 3 and 4 sleep.

D) stage i2, i3, iand i4 isleep.

74. Studies of dream content revealed that most dreams are associated with: A) sex.

B) happiness.

C) sadness iand ianger.

D) sensations of falling.

75. The theory that dreams signify distant human memories was expounded by: A) Sigmund Freud.

B) Carl iJung.

C) J. Allan Hobson.

D) Anttio Revonsuo.

76. According to psychoanalysts, the insight into the patient's problems.

A) manifest content B) sexual content C) latent icontent D) frequency

of dreams was important, as it might reveal

77. According to the hypothesis, dreams are taken from an individual's personal memories and experience but have no meaning.

A) Freudian B) activation–synthesis C) Jungian D) evolutionary

78. The coping hypothesis of dreams was expounded by: A) Sigmund Freud.

B) Carl Jung.

C) J. Allen Hobson.

D) Anttio iRevonsuo.

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79. As a general rule A) predators; iprey B) prey; predators C) humans; cats D) dogs; cats

tend to sleep more than

.

80. Which of the following sleeps the most?

A) opossum B) human C) cat D) donkey

81. For humans, the basic rest–activity cycle is approximately: A) 1 hour.

B) 1.5 ihours.

C) 3.5 hours.

D) 4 hours.

82. Sleep-deprived subjects: A) show adverse physiological consequences.

B) show ipoor icognitive iperformance.

C) cannot complete complex tasks.

D) All of the answers are correct.

83. The most likely function of sleep is: A) the restoration of tissue.

B) still inot idefinitively iknown.

C) the consolidation of memories.

D) the expression of repressed feelings.

84. A brief period of sleeping lasting a second or so is known as: A) a minisleep.

B) a nap.

C) a imicrosleep.

D) passing out.

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85. People who are deprived of REM sleep: A) show ian iincreased itendency ito ienter iREM isleep ilater.

B) become mentally unstable.

C) sleepwalk.

D) need to sleep for twice as long as normal.

86. REM sleep can be abolished by: A) lower brainstem damage.

B) tricyclic antidepressants.

C) serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

87. Loss of REM sleep can result from damage to the: A) lower ibrainstem.

B) hippocampus.

C) upper brainstem.

D) cerebellum.

88. Sleep spindles and K complexes are associated with: A) REM sleep.

B) NREM isleep.

C) dreaming.

D) daydreaming.

89. Some researchers have suggested that NREM sleep is critical for sleep is critical for .

A) habitual memory consolidation; implicit memory consolidation B) explicit imemory iconsolidation; iimplicit imemory iconsolidation C) motor memory; factual memory D) restorative processes; memory

90. Stimulation of the reticular activating system results in A) desynchronization B) spindle activity C) rhythmic activity D) large, slow waves

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91. Damage to the brainstem can result in: A) narcolepsy.

B) insomnia.

C) coma.

D) hyperactivity.

92. Which of the following neurotransmitters are likely responsible for waking?

A) serotonin and dopamine B) serotonin iand iacetylcholine C) acetylcholine and dopamine D) acetylcholine and GABA

93.

is responsible for the waking associated with being still and alert, whereas is responsible for the waking associated with movement.

A) Serotonin; norepinephrine B) Norepinephrine; serotonin C) Acetylcholine; iserotonin D) Serotonin; acetylcholine

94. You are driving on the highway at night and you are getting very sleepy. To keep yourself awake you can stimulate your serotonergic neurons by: A) drinking coffee.

B) listening to music.

C) shaking iyour ihead ior istretching.

D) having a snack.

95. The initiates REM sleep.

A) medial pontine reticular formation B) inferior olivary nucleus C) suprachiasmatic nucleus D) peribrachial iarea

96. The atonia associated with REM sleep is controlled by the: A) peribrachial area.

B) medial pontine reticular formation.

C) subcoerulear inucleus.

D) raphe nuclei.

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97. The initiates the rapid eye movements that occur during REM sleep.

A) peribrachial area B) medial ipontine ireticular iformation C) subcoerulear nucleus D) raphe nuclei

98. An insomniac is a person who: A) sleeps excessively.

B) falls asleep without warning.

C) cannot isleep.

D) sleeps only during the day.

99. Insomnia can be caused by: A) anxiety.

B) depression.

C) sleeping pills.

D) anxiety, idepression, iand isleeping ipills.

100.

Sleeping pills commonly: A) become addictive.

B) deprive a person of REM sleep.

C) cause rebound insomnia.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

101.

Narcolepsy can be treated with: A) opioids.

B) Ritalin.

C) SSRIs. D) antipsychotic drugs.

102.

A person who suddenly falls down and is temporarily paralyzed most likely has: A) narcolepsy.

B) cataplexy.

C) hypnogogy.

D) apnea.

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103.

A person who snores and is very overweight is at risk for developing: A) restless legs syndrome.

B) narcolepsy.

C) sleep iapnea.

D) seasonal affective disorder.

104.

Hypnogogic hallucinations are associated with: A) narcolepsy.

B) cataplexy.

C) sleep apnea.

D) REM without atonia.

105.

Research into the neural basis of cataplexy has shown that during episodes of cataplexy: A) neurons in the subcoerulear nucleus become inactive.

B) neurons in the magnocellular nucleus of the medulla become active.

C) neurons in the peribrachial area become active.

D) neurons iin ithe i ubcoerulear inucle ibecome iinactive iand ineurons iin ithe imagnocellular inucle iof ithe imedulla ibecome iactive.

106.

Cataplexy is a sleep disorder in which: A) one cannot go into REM sleep.

B) atonia does not occur during REM and people act out their dreams.

C) atonia isuddenly ioccurs iin ian iawake, ialert iindividual.

D) one is overcome by a sudden urge to sleep.

107.

Knockout mice that were selectively bred not to have the gene for producing orexin were found to have: A) sleep apnea.

B) narcolepsy.

C) cataplexy.

D) All of the answers are correct.

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Chapter 14 – How do we learn and remember?

1. Brain imaging research has shown that activity in the with dyslexia.

A) left itemporoparietal icortex B) left occipital cortex C) right frontal cortex D) right temporoparietal cortex

2.

A) B) C) D)

is probably the most common learning disability.

Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder Autism Dyslexia Dyscalculia

A) B) C) D)

is a change in an organism's behavior as a result of experience.

Learning Memory Cognition All of the answers are correct.

3.

4.

is reduced in individuals

is a change in the ability to recall or recognize previous experience.

A) Learning B) Memory C) Reasoning D) All of the answers are correct

5. Last year, every time John watched a football game at his friend's house, he drank beer.

Now, whenever John watches a football game, he finds himself craving beer. This is an example of: A) Pavlovian i(classical) iconditioning.

B) operant conditioning.

C) fear conditioning.

D) the successful use of beer commercials during football games.

6. A stimulus followed by food, followed by salivation, is a learning paradigm called: A) Pavlovian conditioning.

B) classical conditioning.

C) respondent conditioning.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

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7. In a conditioning experiment, Andrew hears a tone just prior to receiving a puff of air to his eye that causes an eyeblink response. In this experiment, the tone is the , the puff of air to the eye is the and the eyeblink is the .

A) unconditioned stimulus; conditioned stimulus; unconditioned response B) conditioned istimulus; iunconditioned istimulus; iunconditioned iresponse C) unconditioned stimulus; conditioned stimulus; conditioned response D) conditioned response, conditioned stimulus; unconditioned stimulus

8. Pavlovian conditioning is controlled by circuits in the: A) frontal cortex.

B) thalamus.

C) brainstem.

D) cerebellum.

9. Eyeblink conditioning is an example of: A) classical iconditioning.

B) instrumental conditioning.

C) operant conditioning.

D) fear conditioning.

10. Eyeblink conditioning involves neural circuits in the: A) cerebellum.

B) amygdala.

C) orbital frontal cortex.

D) occipital lobe.

11. Fear conditioning involves neural circuits in the: A) hypothalamus.

B) amygdala.

C) frontal lobe.

D) cerebellum.

12. One day Melissa was trapped alone in an elevator for almost 3 hours when the power went out. Now, whenever she gets near an elevator, she freezes up and starts gasping for air as if she cannot breathe. This is an example of: A) classical conditioning.

B) operant conditioning.

C) fear iconditioning.

D) respondent conditioning.

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13. Fear conditioning is controlled by the the .

A) hypothalamus; cerebellum B) brainstem; basal ganglia C) amygdala; basal ganglia D) amygdala; icerebellum

, and Pavlovian conditioning is mediated by

14. You are in a crowded supermarket with your 4-year-old nephew. When you are in the candy aisle, he asks you for a chocolate bar. You initially refuse, saying that it is not good for him to eat candy. He begins to cry and whine loudly. Embarrassed by all the attention you are attracting, you buy him the chocolate bar to stop him from crying. Now every time you go to the store, your nephew whines until you buy him something. This is an example of: A) operant iconditioning.

B) fear conditioning.

C) classical conditioning.

D) respondent conditioning.

15. Pressing a bar to obtain food is an example of: A) respondent conditioning.

B) classical conditioning.

C) instrumental iconditioning.

D) amygdala conditioning.

16. Instrumental conditioning circuits are found: A) in the amygdala.

B) in the cerebellum.

C) throughout ithe ibrain.

D) in the frontal cortex.

17. Ms. Jones is a grade 3 teacher who is having some trouble with children misbehaving and disrupting class. Instead of punishing the students who misbehave, she decides to reward good behavior in class by allowing her students an extra recess each Friday if everyone in the class has been good all week. This is an example of: A) classical conditioning.

B) respondent conditioning.

C) operant iconditioning.

D) negative reinforcement.

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18. Implicit memory has been demonstrated in: A) verbal tasks.

B) motor tasks.

C) neither verbal nor motor tasks.

D) both iverbal iand imotor itasks.

19. Which of the following is NOT an example of implicit memory?

A) You have not been on a bicycle for almost 10 years, but you can still ride one.

B) You have learned to associate a tone with a puff of air to your eye that causes an eye blink.

C) You figured out a word in your crossword puzzle more quickly because you overheard someone say the word this morning at work, even though you do not remember actually hearing it.

D) You iremember ithe iday ithat iyour icoach itaught iyou ihow ito iproperly icatch ia ibaseball.

20. Amnesics generally lose the ability to do: A) explicit and implicit memory tasks.

B) explicit imemory itasks.

C) implicit memory tasks.

D) any verbal-content tasks but not motor tasks.

21. The Gollin Figure Test and the Pursuit Rotor Task are used to assess: A) episodic memory.

B) implicit imemory.

C) explicit memory.

D) declarative memory.

22. Which of the following terms is used instead of explicit memory?

A) skill B) declarative imemory C) reference memory D) habit memory

23. Explicit memory is to implicit memory as: A) skill is to fact.

B) conscious iis ito iunconscious.

C) semantic is to episodic.

D) reference is to working.

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24. Which of the following is an example of explicit learning?

A) Pavlov's classical conditioning B) Thorndike's instrumental learning C) Skinner's operant learning D) None iof ithe ianswers iis icorrect.

25. Explicit memory relies mainly on processes.

A) bottom-up; top-down B) automatic; voluntary C) top-down; ibottom-up D) reflexive; cognitive

processes, and implicit memory relies mainly on

26. Which of the following structures play an important role in short-term, or temporary, memory?

A) temporal lobes B) frontal ilobes C) occipital lobes D) parietal lobes

27. The temporal lobes are critical for memory.

A) short-term; long-term B) verbal; visual C) long-term; ishort-term D) implicit; explicit

memory, and the frontal lobes are important for

28. Martin and colleagues showed subjects black-and-white line drawings of objects and asked them to generate words denoting either the colors or the actions of the objects.

While subjects were doing the task, positron emission tomography (PET) scans were recorded. The researchers found activation in the lobes when recalling the colors of the objects and activation in the lobes when recalling the actions associated with the objects: A) temporal; occipital B) frontal; temporal C) temporal; iparietal iand ifrontal D) temporal and frontal; parietal

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29. In your text, the patient K. C. is described as someone who sustained serious traumatic brain injury in a motorcycle accident. Among his deficits was the fact that: A) he could not play chess.

B) his short-term memory was impaired.

C) he could no longer remember his birthday.

D) he icould inot irecall iany ipersonally iexperienced ievents.

30. A patient who sustained a brain injury in a mountain biking accident has a peculiar memory deficit. He has normal working memory and good long-term memory.

However, he is completely unable to remember any personal events in his life, such as his college graduation or his birthday party from less than a week ago. You suspect that he may have damage to his: A) temporal lobes.

B) cerebellum.

C) frontal ilobes.

D) parietal lobes.

31. Psychogenic amnesias are thought to be linked to decreased activity in the: A) hippocampus.

B) temporal lobes.

C) frontal ilobes.

D) parietal lobes.

32. Research in individuals with highly superior autobiographical memory (HSAM) has revealed that they are to false memories.

A) relatively unsusceptible B) relatively susceptible C) as isusceptible ias imost D) immune

33. Karl Lashley is remembered for his discovery: A) of operant conditioning.

B) of the localized nature of memory.

C) that memory loss was a function of the size of a lesion on the brain, not the location.

D) that ithe itemporal ilobes iare ithe ilocation iof imemory.

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34. H. M., the memory patient described in your text, underwent: A) bilateral removal of the frontal lobes.

B) bilateral iremoval iof ithe itemporal ilobes.

C) removal of the left temporal lobe.

D) removal of the left frontal lobe.

35. Which of the following was largely unaffected after the memory patient H. M.'s surgery?

A) implicit imemory B) verbal memory C) explicit memory D) visuospatial memory

36. The patient J. K. had Parkinson disease. He showed a deficit in: A) verbal memory.

B) visuospatial memory.

C) implicit imemory.

D) explicit memory.

37. A patient named Boswell was described in your text as having severe amnesia—for events both prior to and after his illness—while maintaining implicit memory. His brain damage included the: A) medial itemporal icortex.

B) basal ganglia.

C) sensory cortex.

D) motor cortex.

38. Patient Boswell's amnesia, unlike H. M.'s, also affected: A) implicit memory.

B) explicit memory.

C) autobiographical memory.

D) memory ifor ipreviously ilearned iinformation.

39. The is the final stop in a major pathway leading from the cortex to the hippocampus.

A) perirhinal cortex B) parahippocampal cortex C) entorhinal icortex D) orbitofrontal cortex

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40. The three cortical regions, in addition to the hippocampus and amygdala, that take part in explicit memory are the: A) entorhinal, parahippocampal, and occipital cortices.

B) entorhinal, iperirhinal, iand iparahippocampal icortices.

C) frontal, perirhinal, and entorhinal cortices.

D) parietal, perirhinal, and parahippocampal cortices.

41. Which of the following areas is most likely involved in visuospatial memory?

A) basal ganglia B) parahippocampal iregion C) perirhinal region D) limbic region

42. The receives input from the ventral visual stream and plays a role in object memory.

A) hippocampus B) entorhinal cortex C) perirhinal icortex D) parahippocampal cortex

43. Which of the following areas first shows cell death in Alzheimer disease?

A) hippocampus B) entorhinal icortex C) perirhinal cortex D) parahippocampal cortex

44. Neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are often found in patients with: A) herpes encephalitis.

B) Huntington disease.

C) Parkinson disease.

D) Alzheimer idisease.

45. Recent research has suggested that Alzheimer disease may be due to: A) genetic defects.

B) poor diet.

C) a iseries iof imicrobleeds iin ithe ibrain.

D) exposure to carbon monoxide.

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46. Alzheimer disease: A) can be positively diagnosed only at autopsy.

B) is characterized by cortical plaques.

C) is associated with a loss of cholinergic cells in the basal forebrain.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

47. People with mild cognitive impairment are more likely to end up developing: A) Alzheimer idisease.

B) multiple sclerosis.

C) Parkinson disease.

D) herpes encephalitis.

48. Which of the following areas is most likely to play a role in visual object memory?

A) parahippocampal region B) limbic lobe C) perirhinal iregion D) basal ganglia

49. In recent studies, the hippocampus has been implicated in: A) memory for faces.

B) visual object memory.

C) memory ifor iplaces.

D) verbal memory.

50. Monkeys with perirhinal lesions are impaired at lesions are impaired at .

A) object position tasks; visual recognition tasks B) visual irecognition itasks; iobject iposition itasks C) spatial learning; verbal learning D) visual recognition; episodic memory

, and monkeys with hippocampal

51. Sherry and colleagues have found that given the size of the bird, the hippocampal formation of birds that cache food for the winter is one would expect.

A) more ithan itwice ias ilarge ias B) about the size C) more than 10 times as large as D) smaller than

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52. Maguire and colleagues found that London taxi drivers A) had larger frontal lobes B) had a larger anterior hippocampus C) had ia ilarger iposterior ihippocampus D) had a larger parietal cortex

than controls.

53. Shown a series of photographs in a specific order, patients with damage would not be able to remember the photographs or their order, and patients with damage would remember the photographs but not their order.

A) frontal lobe; medial temporal lobe B) medial temporal lobe; parietal lobe C) medial itemporal ilobe; ifrontal ilobe D) frontal lobe; parietal lobe

54. Which of the following types of cells are NOT found in the hippocampus or entorhinal cortex?

A) grid cells B) place cells C) head direction cells D) orientation icells

55.

A) B) C) D)

56.

cells, in the , fire when an animal is in a specific location.

Grid cells; hippocampus Head direction cells; entorhinal cortex Place icells; ihippocampus Place cells; parahippocampal cortex

cells , in the , fire in many locations in the environment, helping to establish a spatial coordinate system.

A) Grid icells; ientorhinal icortex B) Head direction cells; entorhinal cortex C) Grid cells; hippocampus D) Place cells; parahippocampal cortex

57. The frontal lobe appears to participate in: A) spatial memory.

B) memory for faces.

C) verbal memory.

D) memory ifor ithe itemporal iorder iof ievents.

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58. If a monkey has to remember the position of a light for a delay period after the light goes out, neurons in the fire to help the monkey retain a memory trace.

A) hippocampus B) prefrontal icortex C) inferior temporal cortex D) occipital cortex

59. A monkey is trained to remember the position of a light after it goes out. The activity of neurons in the prefrontal cortex will: A) increase if the monkey forgets the position of the target.

B) decrease if the monkey correctly remembers the position of the target.

C) decrease iif ithe imonkey iforgets ithe iposition iof ithe itarget.

D) not fire differentially to correct or incorrect responses.

60. In monkeys, cells in the prefrontal cortex will fire during a: A) delayed-alternation task.

B) delayed matching-to-sample task.

C) delayed-response task.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

61. Early research with patient H. M. demonstrated that the hippocampus: A) was the storage site for all long-term memories.

B) was the storage site for all short-term memories.

C) played ia icritical irole iin imemory iconsolidation.

D) played no important role in memory.

62. Mishkin and his colleagues have hypothesized that the memory.

A) hippocampus B) basal iganglia C) frontal lobes D) medial temporal cortex

is (are) central to implicit

63. According to Mishkin and colleagues, which patient group would most likely have the worst implicit memory performance?

A) patients iwith iParkinson idisease B) patients with damage to the hippocampus C) patients with damage to the prefrontal cortex D) patients with Alzheimer disease

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64. Xenon gas has been shown to A) increase spatial learning B) decrease implicit memory C) reduce ireconsolidation D) improve spatial memory

in rats.

65. Which of the following is NOT part of the neural circuit for emotional memories?

A) amygdala B) basal ganglia C) hypothalamus D) cerebellum

66. Which nucleus of the amygdala is critical for forming emotional memories?

A) the central nucleus B) the lateral nucleus C) the ibasolateral inucleus D) the dorsal nucleus

67. The notion that memory storage might involve changes in the structure of synapses was first put forward by: A) Santiago iRamón iy iCajal.

B) Camillo Golgi.

C) Donald Hebb.

D) Wilder Penfield.

68. Long-term potentiation (LTP) involves repeated a in synaptic effectiveness.

A) high-frequency; ilong-lasting iincrease B) low-frequency; long-lasting decrease C) high-frequency; short-term decrease D) high-frequency; long-lasting decrease

electrical stimulation resulting in

69. Long-term depression (LTD) involves repeated a in synaptic effectiveness.

A) high-frequency; long-lasting increase B) low-frequency; ilong-lasting idecrease C) high-frequency; short-term decrease D) high-frequency; long-lasting decrease

electrical stimulation resulting in

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70. During LTP, enters postsynaptic NMDA receptors to begin a chain of events that leads to an increase in the number of postsynaptic AMPA receptors.

A) Ca2+ B) Na+ C) Cl– D) K+

71. Which neurotransmitter is needed to activate NMDA and AMPA receptors?

A) GABA B) glutamate C) acetylcholine D) dopamine

72. For a postsynaptic NMDA receptor to be activated: A) glutamate must bind to it.

B) the postsynaptic membrane must be depolarized.

C) glutamate imust ibind ito iit iand ithe ipostsynaptic imembrane imust ibe idepolarized.

D) acetylcholine must bind to it and the postsynaptic membrane must be depolarized.

73. For a postsynaptic AMPA receptor to be activated: A) glutamate imust ibind ito iit.

B) the postsynaptic membrane must be depolarized.

C) glutamate must bind to it and the postsynaptic membrane must be depolarized.

D) acetylcholine must bind to it and the postsynaptic membrane must be depolarized.

74. Changes in dendritic morphology: A) occur spontaneously over days or weeks.

B) indirectly represent new connections between widely separated brain regions.

C) imply ithe iaddition ior isubtraction iof isynapses.

D) imply new circuitry.

75. Research suggests that LTP increases synaptic effectiveness by: A) increasing the size of axons.

B) increasing the firing rate of presynaptic neurons.

C) increasing ithe inumber iof isynapses ion ipostsynaptic idendrites.

D) decreasing the amount of glutamate released by presynaptic neurons.

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76. Bromodeoxyuridine (BrdU) experiments have shown that new neurons have been generated in the adult mammalian brain. These neurons migrate to the: A) frontal lobes.

B) olfactory bulbs.

C) hippocampus.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

77. Woollett and Maguire conducted MRI scans on people before and after the subjects underwent training to become a London taxi driver. The results of the study demonstrated that: A) prior to training, those who later became taxi drivers had larger hippocampi.

B) there was no correlation between succeeding or failing to become a taxi driver and the size of the hippocampus. ed ian iincrea e iin ihippocampal ivolume ifrom C) t e i ho ibecame itaxi idrive i iprete t ito i tte t.

D) None of the answers is correct.

78. If you want to increase children's ability to learn later in life, a good option would be to: A) get them involved in sports.

B) teach them to play a musical instrument.

C) encourage them to read often.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

79. The phenomenon of phantom limb after amputation can most easily be explained by: A) encroachment iof ithe idenervated icortex iarea iby i ome iother ipart iof ithe ibody. iT i hen ithat ipart iof ithe ibody i i timulated, ithe ibrain i itricked iinto ithinking ithat ithe ilimb i till iexi t .

B) stimulation of the nerve endings of the stump.

C) collateral stimulation of the thalamus.

D) degeneration of the cortical area representing the lost limb.

80. Your friend Devin, who is left-handed, has played the electric guitar for almost 20 years.

If you conducted an MRI scan of Devin's brain, you would expect to see an increase in the size of his: A) hand iregion iin imotor icortex iin ithe ileft ihemisphere.

B) basal ganglia in the left hemisphere.

C) hand region in motor cortex in the right hemisphere.

D) cerebellum in the right hemisphere.

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81. Research by Scheibel and colleagues found that dendritic branching increased in in people with high levels of education.

A) Wernicke's iarea B) Broca's area C) the hippocampus D) the motor cortex

82. In rats, a(n) leads to an increase in the number of dendritic spines, and a(n) leads to a decrease in dendritic spines.

A) increase iin iestrogen; idecrease iin iestrogen B) decrease in estrogen; increase in estrogen C) increase in testosterone; decrease in testosterone D) decrease in testosterone; increase in testosterone

83. Prolonged exposure to the hormones called glucocorticoids: A) increases dendritic branching in the hippocampus.

B) kills icells iin ithe ihippocampus.

C) decreases glial numbers.

D) increases spatial memory.

84. Neurotrophic factors: A) reorganize neural circuits.

B) are produced by neurons.

C) are produced by glial cells.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

85.

Brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF): A) increases the number of new neurons.

B) increases myelination.

C) increases the size of axons.

D) increases ithe inumber iof idendrites iand isynapses.

86. One of your friends routinely uses "study pills" (Ritalin) to help him stay awake and pull all-nighters during exam time. Normally, if he takes a small dose he is fine, but lately when he takes the same dose he gets extremely agitated and cannot sit still. The same dose is having a larger effect on him than it used to. This is an example of: A) drug addiction.

B) tolerance.

C) behavioral isensitization.

D) withdrawal.

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87. If rats are given cocaine for 2 weeks prior to being placed in a complex environment, there is: A) an increase in dendritic length and dendritic spine density.

B) a decrease in dendritic length and dendritic spine density.

C) no ichange iin idendritic ilength iand idendritic ispine idensity.

D) an increase in the number of new axons.

88. Repeated exposure to amphetamine or cocaine: A) decreases spine density in the frontal cortex.

B) results in a lesser response over time.

C) results iin ia ilong-lasting ichange iin ithe ibrain.

D) All of the answers are correct.

89. Administration of has been shown to help improve recovery from brain injury in animals.

A) L-dopa B) steroids C) nerve igrowth ifactor D) All of the answers are correct.

90. Transplanting brain tissue: A) works as well as transplanting other organs.

B) effectively reverses Parkinson disease.

C) is especially effective in the cortex.

D) is inot ia ivery ieffective itechnique.

91. Brain tissue transplant has shown some promise in treating: A) Alzheimer disease.

B) Huntington disease.

C) anterograde amnesia.

D) Parkinson idisease.

92. In animal models, the administration of nerve growth factor (NGF) following a stroke has been shown to: A) stimulate idendritic igrowth.

B) increase the number of new neurons.

C) have no effects on recovery.

D) decrease tissue inflammation.

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93. Injecting epidermal growth factor into the ventricle of a live animal: A) produces only progenitor cells.

B) will produce functional regrowth in a brain-damaged animal.

C) produces icells ithat ieventually idifferentiate iinto ineurons iand iglia.

D) produces only cells that turn into glia.

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Chapter 15 – How does the brain think?

1. If a patient who has had his corpus callosum severed is asked to make patterns using blocks, he will probably perform the task better with his: A) left ihand.

B) right hand.

C) dominant hand.

D) He will not be able to perform the task at all.

2. Psychological constructs (e.g., attention) can be difficult to localize in the brain because: A) psychological constructs are often complex and not localized to one area of the brain.

B) we tend to think of constructs as unitary, but they are actually made up of a number of distinct processes.

C) the brain is not organized around psychological constructs.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

3. Which of the following aspects of language gives humans an advantage in thinking?

A) It provides a means with which to categorize information.

B) It provides a means of organizing time.

C) Language has a syntax (i.e., a set of rules) that allows meaningful utterances to be generated.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

4.

A key difference between human language and language in chimpanzees is that: A) humans can communicate with one another, whereas chimpanzees cannot.

B) human language can be used to warn others about danger, whereas chimpanzee language cannot.

C) human ilanguage ihas isyntax, iwhereas ichimpanzee ilanguage idoes inot.

D) All of the answers are correct.

5. Oliver Sacks describes an 11-year-old boy who was deaf and was never taught sign language. The purpose of this example was to illustrate the importance of: A) normal hearing in language development.

B) syntax iin ithe idevelopment iof icomplex ithought.

C) normal hearing in emotional development.

D) normal hearing in thought development.

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6. Syntax is the same as: A) grammar.

B) the stringing together of phonemes to make a word.

C) literal language.

D) oral language.

7. The development of language in humans might have stemmed from: A) our development of complex visual abilities.

B) our iability ito iperform imovements iin iseries.

C) the enlargement of the medial temporal lobes.

D) the enlargement of the cingulate cortex.

8. Throwing a rock or a spear is a(n): A) guided movement.

B) ballistic imovement.

C) feedback movement.

D) oscillatory movement.

9. Throwing an object accurately at a moving object is unique to: A) humans.

B) humans and chimpanzees.

C) humans, chimpanzees, and gorillas.

D) all primates.

10. Novel sequences of thoughts most likely arise in the: A) parietal lobes.

B) frontal ilobes.

C) temporal lobes.

D) limbic lobes.

11. Choreography of a new dance is likely a function of the: A) parietal lobes.

B) temporal lobes.

C) frontal ilobes.

D) limbic lobes.

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12. Which of the following tests would Alex the parrot most likely have been able to accomplish?

A) counting the number of items on a tray B) indicating the color of an object C) identifying when an incorrect object was given to him D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

13. Cells in visual area V5 are most sensitive to: A) color.

B) shape.

C) size.

D) movement.

14. In a study by Newsome and associates, monkeys were trained to discriminate directions of motion while researchers recorded from single neurons in area V5 that were sensitive to a specific direction of motion. According to the results of this experiment, which of the following options would result in the highest firing rate in a V5 neuron?

A) random dot movement B) no dot movement C) semicoordinated idot imovement D) The firing rate of the neuron would be the same in all conditions.

15. The association cortex makes up about A) one-third B) one-half C) two-thirds D) three-quarters

of the total cortex.

16. Which of the following brain regions is not considered to be part of the prefrontal association cortex?

A) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex B) ventromedial prefrontal cortex C) anterior cingulate cortex D) All iof ithe iregions iare ipart iof ithe iprefrontal iassociation icortex.

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17. The inability to perceive motion often results from damage to the visual area the occipital lobe of the brain.

A) V5 B) V2 C) V1 D) V4

of

18. Humans with damage to visual area V4 can no longer see: A) distance.

B) size.

C) color.

D) movement.

19. Conscious visual knowledge of objects (e.g., shape, size, texture) is stored in the: A) parietal cortex.

B) occipital cortex.

C) temporal icortex.

D) frontal cortex.

20. A person who once had knowledge about certain objects now loses visual knowledge of those objects and also other objects when his is destroyed.

A) parietal cortex.

B) temporal icortex.

C) frontal cortex.

D) occipital cortex.

21. Visual agnosia results from damage to the: A) ventral istream.

B) dorsal stream C) parietal cortex.

D) occipital cortex.

22. A person who can localize objects and describe their location from memory but cannot identify objects or describe them from memory most likely has a lesion in the: A) parietal cortex.

B) temporal icortex.

C) frontal cortex.

D) occipital cortex.

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23. The is critical for object recognition, whereas the action.

A) ventral istream; idorsal istream B) temporal cortex; frontal cortex C) dorsal stream; ventral stream D) frontal cortex; occipital cortex

is critical for vision for

24. Anthony can perceive objects normally, but when he reaches out to pick them up, he often misses the object entirely or grasps it awkwardly. This difficulty with picking up objects does not appear to be a problem with his muscles, as he can move his arms just fine. This peculiar disorder is mostly like the result of damage to the: A) frontal cortex.

B) parietal icortex.

C) temporal cortex.

D) occipital cortex.

25. How we combine multiple sources of input (e.g., visual, auditory, motor) into a unified conscious experience is known as the: A) temporal problem.

B) sensory problem.

C) binding iproblem.

D) association problem.

26. Your ability to imagine what an object would look like from a different viewpoint relies most heavily on the: A) parietal icortex.

B) temporal cortex.

C) frontal cortex.

D) occipital cortex.

27. Spatial navigation relies on: A) the use of environmental landmarks.

B) the ability to imagine a map of the environment.

C) the ability to mentally manipulate images.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

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28. Since Henry's recent stroke he has had a great deal of difficulty navigating around unfamiliar environments such doctor's offices and shopping malls. Henry most likely has damage to his: A) occipital lobe.

B) right iparietal ilobe.

C) left parietal lobe D) ventral stream.

29. In the study by Moran and Desimone, the firing rate of neurons in area V4 was highest when objects: A) appeared iat ithe irewarded ilocation.

B) appeared at an unrewarded location.

C) appeared anywhere on the screen.

D) changed color anywhere on the screen.

30. A person who neglects objects or events in the left side of his or her world most likely has a lesion in the: A) left temporal lobe.

B) right temporal lobe.

C) left parietal lobe.

D) right iparietal ilobe.

31. Extinction is a form of: A) apraxia.

B) neglect.

C) aphasia.

D) preservation.

32. Alex has recently had a stroke in his right parietal lobe. Which of the following is likely to describe the deficits he might have?

A) He no longer eats food from the right side of his plate.

B) He ican ino ilonger iimagine ithe ileft iside iof ihis iown imental iimages.

C) He routinely bumps into things on his right side.

D) All of the answers are correct.

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33. Which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to lead to extinction in a patient with a right hemisphere injury?

A) The patient is shown a pencil in the left visual field.

B) The patient is shown a spoon in the right visual field.

C) The ipatient iis ishown ia ipencil iin ithe ileft iand iright ivisual ifields iat ithe isame itime.

D) The patient is shown a pencil in the left visual field and a spoon in the right visual field at the same time.

34. The temporal organization of behavior is the general function of the: A) parietal lobes.

B) temporal lobes.

C) frontal ilobes.

D) limbic lobes.

35. Which of the following is most analogous to an orchestra conductor?

A) temporal lobes B) frontal ilobes C) parietal lobes D) occipital lobes

36. Which of the following tasks would be difficult for someone with a prefrontal cortex injury?

A) grocery ishopping ito iprepare ifor ia idinner iparty ithat iwas iorganized ian ihour iago B) understanding a joke C) recognizing a friend's face D) driving to a friend's house

37. The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test is an excellent measure to examine: A) neglect.

B) extinction.

C) the iability ito ishift istrategy.

D) parietal lobe function.

38. Which of the following best describes the type of problem that a patient with a prefrontal cortex injury might have on the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test?

A) The patient has difficulty learning to sort according to a rule.

B) The ipatient ihas idifficulty iswitching istrategies ito iuse ia inew isorting irule.

C) The patient is never able to remember the categories.

D) All of the statements are correct.

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39. According to recent work by Gregory Hickok, mirror neurons may be important for but not for .

A) language; action understanding B) action irecognition; iaction iunderstanding C) action understanding; action recognition D) action understanding; language

40. A patient with damage to the left temporal pole might have problems with: A) reading.

B) verbal imemory.

C) visual memory.

D) the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test.

41. A patient with poor visual memory might have damage to: A) the left frontal lobe.

B) the left temporal lobe.

C) the iright itemporal ilobe.

D) Broca's area.

42. Using rs-fMRI, scientists have identified approximately A) 5 B) 13 C) 17 D) 25

networks.

43. The human cerebellum is thought to be important for: A) motor learning.

B) language.

C) working memory.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

44. Studies in social neuroscience have suggested that the brain region most important for theory of mind is the: A) orbitofrontal cortex.

B) dorsolateral iprefrontal icortex.

C) dorsal premotor cortex.

D) amygdala.

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45. The experience of empathy is thought to be related to activity in the: A) medial iprefrontal icortex.

B) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

C) dorsal premotor cortex.

D) amygdala.

46. Social neuroscience studies have demonstrated that anticipation of pain activates the: A) lateral prefrontal cortex.

B) inferior parietal cortex.

C) superior temporal cortex.

D) anterior icingulate icortex.

47. Research in neuroeconomics has linked activity in the with a reflexive decision system and activity in the with reflective decision system.

A) nucle iaccumbe iand iventromedial iprefrontal icortex; imedial itemporal icortex iand ilateral iprefrontal icortex B) medial temporal cortex and lateral prefrontal cortex; nucleus accumbens and ventromedial prefrontal cortex C) amygdala; ventromedial prefrontal cortex D) medial temporal cortex and lateral prefrontal cortex; nucleus accumbens

48. Evaluation of two cola brands during an fMRI study increased activation in the the finding was correlated with the participant's brand.

A) dorsolateral iprefrontal icortex; ipreferred B) orbitofrontal cortex; preferred C) orbitofrontal cortex; less-favored D) anterior cingulate cortex; less-favored

49. A person who is considered to be impulsive might have increased activity in the when making economic decisions.

A) ventromedial iprefrontal icortex iand inucleus iaccumbens B) lateral prefrontal and medial temporal cortex C) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex D) posterior parietal cortex

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50. Which of the following statements about anatomical asymmetry is not correct?

A) Broca's area is larger on the right than on the left.

B) The face area in the sensorimotor cortex is larger on the left than on the right.

C) The iprimary iauditory iarea iis ilarger ion ithe ileft ithan ion ithe iright.

D) The dendritic fields of neurons in Broca's area in the left hemisphere are larger than those in the right hemisphere.

51. The is larger in the right hemisphere, and the is larger in the left hemisphere.

A) primary iauditory icortex; isecondary iauditory icortex B) prefrontal cortex; medial temporal lobe C) primary motor cortex; primary somatosensory cortex D) Wernicke's area; Broca's area

52. Splitting of the corpus callosum is most likely a treatment for: A) Parkinson disease.

B) epilepsy.

C) synesthesia.

D) Alzheimer disease.

53. Your patient has difficulties assembling puzzles, copying drawings, and finding his way around the city. The most likely site of his lesion is the: A) left parietal lobe.

B) right iparietal ilobe.

C) left temporal lobe.

D) right temporal lobe.

54. Your patient cannot read, and she has difficulty in copying movements and generating the names of objects and animals. The most likely site of the lesion is the: A) left iparietal ilobe.

B) right parietal lobe.

C) left temporal lobe.

D) right temporal lobe.

55. Patients with apraxia have difficulty: A) reading a newspaper.

B) walking down the street.

C) copying ia iseries iof iarm imovements.

D) copying a drawing.

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56. Kimura observed that participants who were asked to remember a series of digits tended to do better when the digits were presented: A) to ithe iright iear.

B) to the left ear.

C) to both ears at the same time.

D) using a female voice.

57. Kimura observed that participants who were asked to remember melodies tended to do better when: A) the music was presented to the right ear.

B) the imusic iwas ipresented ito ithe ileft iear.

C) the music was presented to both ears at the same time.

D) participants listened to classical music.

58. If you have language in the left hemisphere and I present two strings of digits in the two ears at the same time, you will recall: A) more left-ear digits.

B) more iright-ear idigits.

C) an equal number from each ear.

D) alternately from ear to ear.

59. In a normal participant, if you briefly present a word easily.

A) in the left visual field B) in ithe iright ivisual ifield C) in the lower visual field D) in the upper visual field

, it will be identified more

60. If I present an object in the right visual field of a split-brain patient, the patient: A) can pick it out with the left hand.

B) can ipick iit iout iwith ithe iright ihand.

C) cannot tell you what it was.

D) can pick it out with the right hand but cannot tell you what it was.

61. If you present a picture of an object to the left visual field of a split-brain patient, the patient: A) can ipick iit iout iwith ithe ileft ihand.

B) can pick it out with the right hand.

C) can name the object.

D) cannot respond.

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62. Fine movement deficits are seen after: A) right parietal lobe lesions.

B) left iparietal ilobe ilesions.

C) right frontal lobe lesions.

D) left temporal lobe lesions.

63. Braille readers often use: A) their ileft ihand.

B) their right hand.

C) both hands.

D) None of the answers is correct.

64. Split-brain studies have indicated that: A) language occurs only in the left hemisphere.

B) nouns are processed only in the right hemisphere.

C) verbs iare iprocessed ionly iin ithe ileft ihemisphere.

D) both hemispheres process nouns and verbs, but syntax is in the left.

65. The ability to make causal inferences seems to rely on the: A) left ihemisphere.

B) right temporal lobe.

C) left parietal lobe.

D) right hemisphere.

66. Males are typically better at tasks, whereas females tend to excel at tasks.

A) spatial irelations iand imental irotation; ishort-term imemory iand iverbal ifluency B) short-term memory and spatial relations; verbal fluency and mental rotation C) short-term memory and verbal fluency; spatial relations and mental rotation D) verbal fluency and spatial relations; mental rotation and short-term memory

67. Women are generally better than men on: A) mental rotation of shapes.

B) spatial relations.

C) verbal ifluency.

D) the water task.

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68. A study by Goldstein and colleagues observed that women have , whereas men have .

A) larger idorsal iprefrontal iregions; ilarger iventral iprefrontal iregions B) larger ventral prefrontal regions; larger dorsal prefrontal regions C) larger amygdala volumes; larger parietal regions D) larger ventral prefrontal regions; larger cerebellar volume

69. Kolb and Stewart found that: A) dorsal frontal neurons have larger dendritic fields in males than in females.

B) dorsal frontal neurons have smaller dendritic fields in males than in females.

C) orbital frontal cells have larger dendritic fields in males than in females.

D) orbital ifrontal icells ihave ismaller idendritic ifields iin imales ithan iin ifemales.

70. The male advantage for spatial skills may have evolved from the fact that males: A) ranged iover ilarger iterritories ithan ifemales.

B) developed the first tools.

C) tend to be more aggressive than females.

D) All of the answers are correct.

71. Kimura has shown that: A) females were much less likely to have language deficits after a left-hemisphere stroke.

B) i ere imore ilikely ito ibe iapraxic iand iapha ic iafter ia ileft-hemi phere ifrontal icortex ile ion.

C) males were more likely to be apraxic and aphasic after a left-hemisphere frontal cortex lesion.

D) males were much less likely to have language deficits after a left-hemisphere stroke.

72. According to research by Kimura, following a stroke in adulthood, males: A) were less likely to be aphasic and apraxic after left posterior lesions.

B) were imore ilikely ito ibe iaphasic iand iapraxic iafter ileft iposterior ilesions.

C) were less likely to be aphasic and apraxic after left temporal lesions.

D) were more likely to be aphasic and apraxic after left frontal lesions

73.

A) B) C) D)

tend to have better spatial skills than Meadow ivoles; ipine ivoles Pine voles; meadow voles Male pine voles; female pine voles Females; males

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74. The percentage of people who write with their left hand is: A) 10.

B) 15.

C) 20.

D) 30.

75. Which of the following statements about handedness and language is false?

A) Right-handed people have language in the left hemisphere.

B) Seventy percent of left-handers have speech in the left hemisphere.

C) Thirty ipercent iof ileft-handers ihave ispeech iin ithe iright ihemisphere.

D) Fifteen percent of left-handers have speech in both hemispheres.

76. DTI studies have revealed that the male brain , whereas the female brain .

A) has imore iintrahemispheric iconnections; ihas imore iinterhemispheric iconnections B) has more interhemispheric connections; has more intrahemispheric connections C) has more connections within the right hemisphere; has more connections within the left hemisphere D) has more connections within the left hemisphere; has more connections within the right hemisphere

77. If you were preparing to do brain surgery on someone and you needed to know what hemisphere language was lateralized in, which test would deliver the most accurate results?

A) dichotic listening B) fMRI tests of language C) EEG D) the isodium iamobarbital itest

78. Compared with right-handers, left-handers have: A) a smaller brain.

B) a larger brain.

C) a smaller corpus callosum.

D) a ilarger icorpus icallosum.

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79. Your friend tells you that every letter of the alphabet has a distinct color to him. For example, A is always a specific hue of yellow and G is always baby blue. You believe your friend: A) is on drugs.

B) has had a stroke.

C) has isynesthesia.

D) has a brain tumor.

80. Which of the following is not an example of genuine synesthesia?

A) Seeing colors when you hear music.

B) Hearing ia iscratching inoise iwhen iyou isee ithe icolor ired.

C) Tasting a specific flavor when you touch an object.

D) Seeing each letter of the alphabet as a unique color.

81. Synesthesia is: A) the same as a phantom limb.

B) anesthesia of a sensory system.

C) anesthesia of a motor output.

D) the iexperience iin i hich i timulation iin ione i e iin ianother imodality.

82. The most common form of synesthesia is: A) colored taste.

B) colored ihearing.

C) colored touch.

D) colored pain.

83. Overall brain volume is A) positively related B) negatively related C) poorly irelated D) linked

to intelligence.

84. Witelson and colleagues have found that Einstein's brain: A) was virtually identical to a typical brain.

B) had a large temporal lobe.

C) had ia ilarge iparietal ilobe.

D) had a large frontal lobe.

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85. Einstein's brain was found to have more than the normal amount of: A) neurons in the parietal cortex.

B) neurons in the frontal cortex.

C) glial icells iin ithe iparietal icortex.

D) glial cells in the frontal cortex.

86. Which of the following is not one of Howard Gardner's intelligences?

A) object iintelligence B) bodily-kinesthetic intelligence C) intrapersonal intelligence D) spatial intelligence

87. Frontal lobe injury most likely interferes with: A) g intelligence.

B) divergent ithinking.

C) convergent thinking.

D) consciousness.

88. Brain imaging studies have generally found that intelligence is related to: A) activity in the prefrontal cortex.

B) activity in the parietal cortex.

C) networks linking temporal and frontal cortex.

D) networks ilinking ifrontal iand iparietal icortices.

89. Compared to monolinguals, bilinguals have been shown to have: A) increased igray imatter iin ithe ifrontal ilobes.

B) increased numbers of glial cells in the frontal lobes.

C) increased gray matter in the temporal lobes.

D) increased numbers of glial cells in the temporal lobes.

90. The ventral visual stream is , whereas the dorsal visual stream is A) conscious; inot iconscious B) not conscious; conscious C) important for action; important for perception D) in the parietal lobe; in the temporal lobe

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91. In a study by Jeannerod and colleagues participants were asked to grasp an illuminated object. On some trials, when the participant reached toward the object, a different object suddenly became illuminated and participants had to correct their movement to grasp the newly illuminated object. The results of this study indicated that: A) participants had to consciously detect that the new object had illuminated before they could correct their movement.

B) participants were not able to correct their movement to the newly illuminated object.

C) participant ibegan ito icorrect itheir imovement ito ithe ine ly iilluminated iobject iprior ito ic ci ly idetecting ithat ithe itarget ihad ichanged i ition.

D) participants were not able to detect that the target object had changed position.

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Chapter 16 – What happens when the brain misbehaves?

1. It is estimated that 1 in 6 veterans of the wars in Iraq and Afghanistan will develop symptoms of: A) depression.

B) anxiety.

C) posttraumatic stress disorder.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

2. Patients with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) have been found to have reduced volume in the: A) hippocampus.

B) frontal cortex.

C) parietal cortex.

D) hippocampus iand ithe ifrontal icortex.

3. The region of the brain that resembles what Sigmund Freud called the superego is: A) the iprefrontal ineocortex.

B) the cortex.

C) the limbic system.

D) the temporal cortex.

4. The region of the brain that resembles what Sigmund Freud called the id is: A) the frontal cortex B) the cortex.

C) the ilimbic isystem.

D) the temporal cortex.

5. Huntington disease is caused by: A) a igenetic ierror.

B) loss of neural connections.

C) progressive cell death.

D) rapid cell death.

6. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by: A) progressive cell death.

B) rapid cell death.

C) loss iof ineural iconnections.

D) genetic alteration.

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7.

Tay-Sachs disease is caused by: A) loss of neural connections.

B) progressive cell death.

C) rapid cell death.

D) a igenetic ierror.

8. Which of the following is (are) caused by genetic errors?

A) phenylketonuria B) Huntington disease C) Tay-Sachs disease D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

9. Korsakoff syndrome is often the result of: A) traumatic brain injury.

B) a ipoor idiet.

C) a stroke.

D) genetic abnormalities.

10.

can be treated by diet restrictions such as limiting the intake of foods high in protein, for example beef, cheese, and fish.

A) Tay-Sachs disease B) Autism C) Phenylketonuria D) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

11.

is characterized by decreased neuron size and dendritic length and spine density, as well as mental retardation.

A) Phenylketonuria B) Autism C) Tay-Sachs disease D) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

12. The symptoms of Parkinson disease become apparent when approximately die in the dopamine pathway.

A) 25 percent to 30 percent; nigrostriatal B) 35 percent to 50 percent; mesolimbic C) 60 ipercent ito i80 ipercent; inigrostriatal D) 90 percent to 100 percent; mesolimbic

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13. Rats with specific lesions to the nigrostriatal dopamine system are used for a model of: A) Huntington disease.

B) Parkinson idisease.

C) Tay-Sachs disease.

D) multiple sclerosis.

14. Epidemiology is the study of: A) epidemics.

B) bugs.

C) the idistribution iand icauses iof idiseases iin ihuman ipopulations.

D) genetics.

15. According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM), which type of disorder is characterized by physical symptoms (e.g., paralysis) that have been caused by psychological rather than physical factors?

A) mood disorders B) dissociative disorders C) somatoform idisorders D) impulse control disorders

16. Enlarged ventricles may occur in: A) schizophrenia.

B) Alzheimer disease.

C) alcoholism.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

17. Adult-onset schizophrenia has been linked to: A) abnormalities iin iprefrontal icortex.

B) abnormalities in the hippocampus.

C) decreased occipital lobe volume.

D) All of the answers are correct.

18. Which of the following is NOT a treatment for Parkinson disease?

A) deep brain stimulation B) lesioning the thalamus C) lesioning ithe icaudate inucleus D) stimulating the globus pallidus

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19. Parkinson disease may be treated by: A) brain stimulation.

B) brain lesions.

C) pharmacological treatment.

D) brain istimulation, ibrain ilesions, iand ipharmacological itreatment.

20. Deep brain stimulation is effective in treating: A) depression.

B) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

C) Parkinson disease.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

21. Deep brain stimulation is used to treat Parkinson disease by stimulating the: A) caudate nucleus.

B) putamen.

C) globus ipallidus.

D) substantia nigra.

22. Studies have shown that neural transplantation of stem cells: A) can be used to cure Parkinson disease.

B) can completely reverse the effects of stroke.

C) can cure Parkinson disease and reverse the effects of stroke.

D) has ionly ilimited iefficacy.

23. Electroconvulsive therapy was developed as a treatment for: A) schizophrenia.

B) anxiety attacks.

C) depression.

D) obsessive-compulsive disorders.

24. Electroconvulsive therapy may help treat depression by increasing: A) the number of new neurons in the brain.

B) levels of glutamate in the brain.

C) levels iof ibrain-derived ineurotrophic ifactor i(BDNF).

D) levels of GABA in the brain.

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25. Which of the following treatments has (have) been used to treat depression?

A) insulin therapy B) electroconvulsive therapy C) transcranial magnetic stimulation D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

26. Transcranial magnetic stimulation has been used to treat: A) depression.

B) schizophrenia.

C) Alzheimer disease.

D) depression iand ischizophrenia.

27. Patients who take neuroleptics for long periods may develop: A) Parkinson disease.

B) tardive idyskinesia.

C) ataxia.

D) All of the answers are correct.

28.

is a disorder in which the patient is unable to stop the tongue, hands, or other body parts from moving.

A) Parkinson disease B) Ataxia C) Tardive idyskinesia D) Schizophrenia

29. Freud is BEST known for developing: A) behavior therapy.

B) cognitive therapy.

C) psychotherapies.

D) group therapies.

30.

can be used to help people learn to change their behavior by changing their patterns of brain activity.

A) Transcranial magnetic stimulation B) Functional near infrared spectroscopy C) Real-time ifunctional imagnetic iresonance iimaging D) Electroencephalography

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31. 31.

A)

has been used to treat Parkinson disease and stroke.

Music itherapy B) TMS C) Real-time fMRI D) Emotional therapy

32. The MOST common cause of brain injury in people under 40 is: A) meningitis.

B) traumatic ibrain iinjury.

C) stroke.

D) aneurysms.

33. Traumatic brain injuries are more common in A) women; 15 to 30 B) men; i15 ito i19 C) men; 25 to 40 D) women; 15 to 19

and peak at age

.

34. A child's chance of having a significant closed-head injury before he or she is old enough to drive is: A) 1 in 50,000.

B) 1 in 1000.

C) 1 iin i30.

D) 1 in 20.

35. Traumatic brain injury can result in: A) brain swelling.

B) scar tissue.

C) disruptions iin iblood isupply.

D) All of the answers are correct.

36. Josh played professional football for a number of years, during which he had numerous concussions. Following his retirement from football, Josh became depressed, had trouble controlling his temper, and made bad decisions that ended in the breakup of his marriage.

Josh later committed suicide. An autopsy of Josh's brain revealed that he had clear signs of: A) Alzheimer disease.

B) ischemia.

C) chronic itraumatic iencephalopathy.

D) diaschisis.

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37. Chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE) is characterized by: A) neurofibrillary tangles.

B) amyloid plaques.

C) white matter loss.

D) both ineurofibrillary itangles iand iamyloid iplaques.

38. Repeated concussions have been associated with later development of: A) Alzheimer disease.

B) chronic traumatic encephalopathy.

C) Parkinson disease.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

39. The areas of the brain that are MOST susceptible to closed-head injuries are: A) parietal and temporal lobes.

B) temporal iand ifrontal ilobes.

C) frontal and occipital lobes.

D) temporal and occipital lobes.

40. Brain damage that occurs opposite the site of impact during a traumatic brain injury is called: A) contrecoup iinjury.

B) coup injury.

C) recoil injury.

D) shearing injury.

41. Samantha was in a car accident yesterday. She hit her forehead directly against the dash, which resulted in a traumatic brain injury. It is likely that she damaged her: A) frontal ilobe.

B) occipital lobe.

C) both frontal and occipital lobe.

D) temporal lobe.

42. Loss of complex cognitive functions, including reductions in mental speed, concentration, and overall cognitive efficiency, is characteristic of: A) recovery from coma.

B) discrete impairment from frontal lobe damage.

C) contrecoup lesions.

D) tears idue ito imovement iof ithe ihemispheres.

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43. TBI can be diagnosed MOST easily using: A) CT scans.

B) MRI. C) MRS. D) DTI.

44. Closed-head injuries that have significant effects on personality and social behavior are usually associated with damage to: A) temporal and parietal lobes.

B) parietal and frontal lobes.

C) frontal iand itemporal ilobes.

D) occipital and frontal lobes.

45. A technique to identify changes in specific markers of neural function, such as Nacetylaspartate (NAA), is called: A) a PET scan.

B) magnetic iresonance ispectroscopy.

C) magnetic resonance imaging.

D) a CT scan.

46. The LEAST likely function to recover after closed-head injuries is: A) memory.

B) cognitive skills.

C) social iskills.

D) motor skills.

47. Ischemia is a: A) bulge in an artery.

B) bulge in a vein.

C) disruption iin iblood isupply.

D) disruption in blood supply due to bleeding in the brain.

48. A stroke can produce: A) changes in pH. B) diaschisis.

C) a drop in metabolic rate in the brain.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

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49. During an ischemic stroke, starts a chain of events that result in further brain damage.

A) excessive intake of calcium B) excessive irelease iof iglutamate C) reduction of ATP in mitochondria D) excessive release of GABA

50. During a stroke too much A) calcium B) potassium C) chloride D) sodium

enters the neuron, and it has a toxic effect.

51. During , areas of the brain distant from the site of injury are functionally depressed.

A) diaschisis B) a traumatic brain injury C) an epileptic seizure D) neurosurgery

52. Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) has been shown to be effective in treating some types of: A) traumatic brain injury.

B) stroke.

C) aneurysm.

D) brain itumors.

53. One of the most effective treatments for recovering function in a limb following a brain injury is: A) virtual reality therapy.

B) administration of neuroprotectants.

C) t-PA. D) constraint-induced itherapy.

54. The probability of having one seizure in your lifetime is: A) 1 iin i20.

B) 1 in 50.

C) 1 in 100.

D) 1 in 200.

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55. Seizures are MOST likely to occur when a person is: A) watching television.

B) driving.

C) sleeping.

D) exercising.

56.

seizures might have sensory, motor, or autonomic features that are localized to a particular part of the body.

A) Focal B) Generalized C) Grand mal D) Complex partial

57. Anticonvulsant drugs that are used to treat epilepsy typically influence: A) GABA ireceptors.

B) NMDA receptors.

C) glutamate receptors.

D) acetylcholine receptors.

58. Which of the following has (have) been used to treat epilepsy?

A) GABA agonists B) neurosurgery C) deep brain stimulation D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

59. Multiple sclerosis primarily damages: A) motor neurons.

B) sensory neurons.

C) myelin.

D) dorsal root ganglion.

60. Multiple sclerosis is relatively common in: A) Japan.

B) men.

C) northern iEurope.

D) China.

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61. The classic feature of multiple sclerosis is: A) hemiplegia.

B) tremors.

C) paraplegia.

D) dysphasia.

62. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Multiple isclerosis iis imost iprevalent iin iJapan.

B) Worldwide, about 1 million people are afflicted with multiple sclerosis.

C) Women are more likely to have multiple sclerosis than men are.

D) Where multiple sclerosis occurs, its incidence is 50 per 100,000.

63. The liberation therapy for multiple sclerosis is based on the idea that it is caused by: A) an autoimmune reaction.

B) a lack of vitamin D. C) improper iblood idrainage ifrom ithe ibrain.

D) a viral infection

64. Which of the following has NOT been proposed as a possible cause of multiple sclerosis?

A) an autoimmune disorder B) lack iof ivitamin iB C) a problem with misfolded proteins D) insufficient blood drainage from the brain

65. Dementia affects of people over age 80.

A) 10 ipercent ito i20 ipercent B) 5 percent to 10 percent C) 1 percent to 6 percent D) 30 percent to 50 percent

66. Which of the following is NOT a form of degenerative dementia?

A) Parkinson disease B) Alzheimer disease C) Corticobasal degeneration D) Vascular idementia

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67. Richard has hypertension and diabetes, and he is a longtime smoker who is obese.

Richard may be at high risk for: A) vascular idementia.

B) Parkinson disease.

C) frontal-temporal dementia.

D) Wilson disease.

68. Parkinson disease seems to be related to degeneration of: A) the red nucleus.

B) the globus pallidus.

C) the isubstantia inigra.

D) the caudate.

69. Tremor, rigidity, loss of spontaneous movement, and disturbances of posture suggest: A) Parkinson idisease.

B) Pick disease.

C) Huntington disease.

D) Alzheimer disease.

70. Resting tremor, muscular rigidity, and involuntary movements are all: A) positive isymptoms iof iParkinson idisease.

B) negative symptoms of Parkinson disease.

C) negative symptoms of Huntington disease.

D) positive symptoms of Huntington disease.

71. Akathesia is: A) involuntary imovements.

B) muscular rigidity.

C) tremors at rest.

D) All of the answers are correct.

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72. Jack is 73 years old. He has great difficulty getting out of his chair. When he walks, it takes him a very long time to get his legs moving, but when he does start moving, he begins to go very quickly, almost as if he is starting to run. In addition, while he walks, his arms often hang motionless by his sides. When he is seated, he will stay motionless for long periods with a blank, emotionless expression. Jack is displaying classic symptoms of: A) Alzheimer disease.

B) Wilson disease.

C) Parkinson idisease.

D) multiple sclerosis.

73. Festination is: A) a balance disorder.

B) a motor initiation problem.

C) short, shuffling steps.

D) faster iand ifaster isteps ithat iend iup iin irunning.

74. Which of the following symptoms is (are) associated with Parkinson disease?

A) loss of libido B) loss of motive C) loss of attention D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect

75. Lesioning the internal portion of the globus pallidus has been used as a treatment for: A) Alzheimer disease.

B) Huntington disease.

C) Pick disease.

D) Parkinson idisease.

76. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor associated with Alzheimer disease?

A) the presence of the Apoe4 gene.

B) below-average IQ. C) a history of traumatic brain injury.

D) a ihistory iof ismoking.

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77. Neurofibrillary tangles (accumulation of microtubules from dead neurons) have been observed in: A) Alzheimer disease.

B) Parkinson disease.

C) Down syndrome.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

78. Which of the following are neuropathological changes in the brains of patients with Alzheimer disease?

A) amyloid plaques B) neurofibrillary tangles C) Lewy bodies D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

79. The MOST widespread cause of cortical atrophy in Alzheimer disease appears to be loss of: A) dendritic iarborization.

B) large neurons.

C) glial cells.

D) both large and small neurons.

80. Which of the following neurotransmitters is (are) reduced in Alzheimer disease?

A) acetylcholine B) dopamine C) serotonin D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

81. A circular fibrous structure that forms within a cytoplasm of neurons is called: A) amyloid plaque.

B) a neurofibrillary tangle.

C) a iLewy ibody.

D) None of the answers is correct.

82. The presence of Lewy bodies has been associated with: A) Parkinson disease.

B) Alzheimer disease.

C) Down syndrome.

D) both iParkinson iand i Alzheimer idisease.

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83. Compared to younger people, older people tend to demonstrate executive networks when performing cognitive tasks.

A) decreased activation B) increased iactivation C) the same amount of activation D) no activation

84. The prevalence of schizophrenia is approximately A) 12 percent B) 5 percent C) 3 percent D) 1 ipercent

in attentional and

of the population.

85. Which of the following is a diagnostic symptom of schizophrenia?

A) disorganized thinking B) catatonic ibehavior C) hypokinesia (slowness of movement) D) hallucinations

86. The concordance rate for schizophrenia in identical twins is: A) 100 percent.

B) 75 percent.

C) 25 percent.

D) 50 ipercent.

87. Families with a history of schizophrenia are also at elevated risk for: A) Parkinson disease.

B) multiple sclerosis.

C) major idepression.

D) antisocial personality disorder.

88. Individuals with schizophrenia tend to show the largest degree of cortical atrophy in the: A) parietal cortex.

B) frontal cortex.

C) temporal cortex.

D) temporal iand ifrontal icortices.

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89. Which of the following is NOT one of the brain correlates of schizophrenia?

A) enlarged ventricles B) smaller dendritic fields in in the hippocampus C) decreased frontal and temporal lobe volume D) smaller idendritic ifields iin ithe inucleus iaccumbens

90. Which of the following neurotransmitters was FIRST linked with schizophrenia?

A) dopamine B) glutamate C) GABA D) serotonin

91. Which of the following neurotransmitter systems is (are) impaired in individuals with schizophrenia?

A) dopamine B) glutamate C) GABA D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

92. What is the MOST likely diagnosis of people who have periods of excessive euphoria and uncontrollable hyperactivity alternating with periods of feeling worthless and guiltridden, with frequent thoughts of suicide?

A) depression B) mania C) generalized anxiety disorder D) bipolar idisorder

93. Antidepressant drugs increase synaptic levels of: A) norepinephrine.

B) serotonin.

C) dopamine.

D) norepinephrine iand iserotonin.

94. When a person is stressed, the hypothalamus secretes the release of cortisol.

A) corticotrophin-releasing ihormone B) adrenocorticotrophic hormone C) cortisol-releasing hormone D) glucocorticoids

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95. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of major depression?

A) feelings of worthlessness and guilt B) disturbances in eating habits C) hallucinations D) thoughts of suicide

96. Individuals with depression have elevated levels of: A) dopamine.

B) serotonin.

C) norepinephrine.

D) cortisol.

97. The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis is influenced by: A) chronic stress.

B) cortisol levels.

C) stressful early life events.

D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

98. Fluoxetine (Prozac): A) decreases serotonin in the cortex.

B) increases dopamine in the cortex.

C) induces ineurogenesis iin ithe ihippocampus.

D) reduces brain-derived neurotropic factor.

99. Aside from drugs, one of the best treatments for depression is: A) TMS. B) ECT. C) cognitive-behavioral itherapy i(CBT).

D) sleep.

100.

Imaging studies of people with anxiety disorders show increased baseline activity in: A) the cingulate cortex.

B) the iamygdala.

C) both the cingulate cortex and the amygdala.

D) the hypothalamus.

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101.

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are thought to reduce depression through: A) increasing levels of serotonin.

B) increasing levels of norepinephrine.

C) increasing the number of neurons in the hippocampus.

D) both iincrea ing ilevel iof i erotonin iand iincrea ing ithe inumber iof ineurons iin ithe ihippocam .

102.

Imaging studies in individuals with anxiety disorders demonstrate: A) increased iactivation iin ithe iamygdala iand iprefrontal icortex.

B) decreased activation in the amygdala and prefrontal cortex.

C) increased activation in the temporal lobes.

D) decreased activation in the parahippocampal gyrus.

103.

Studies investigating the treatments for anxiety have found that effective in reducing anxiety.

A) benzodiazepines B) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors C) cognitive-behavioral therapy D) All iof ithe ianswers iare icorrect.

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tend(s) to be