Test Bank for Animal Physiology 5th Edition by Richard Hill, Cavanaugh & Anderson

TEST BANK

TEST BANK

Part I Fundamentals of Physiology Chapter: 1 Animals and Environments: Chapter: 2 Molecules and Cells in Animal Physiology Chapter: 3 Genomics, Proteomics, and Related Approaches to Physiology Chapter: 4 Physiological Development and Epigenetics Chapter: 5 Transport of Solutes and Water

Part II Food, Energy, and Temperature Chapter: 6 Nutrition, Feeding, and Digestion Chapter: 7 Energy Metabolism Chapter: 8 Aerobic and Anaerobic Forms of Metabolism Chapter: 9 The Energetics of Aerobic Activity Chapter: 10 Thermal Relations Chapter: 11 The Lives of Mammals in Frigid Places

Part III Integrating Systems Chapter: 12 Neurons Chapter: 13 Synapses Chapter: 14 Sensory Processes Chapter: 15 Nervous System Organization and Biological Clocks Chapter: 16 Endocrine and Neuroendocrine Physiology Chapter: 17 Reproduction Chapter: 18 Animal Navigation

Part IV Movement and Muscle Chapter: 19 Control of Movement Chapter: 20 Muscle Chapter: 21 Plasticity in Response to Use and Disuse

Part V Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide, and Internal Transport Chapter: 22 Introduction to Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide Physiology

Chapter: 23 External Respiration Chapter: 24 Transport of Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide in Body Fluids Chapter: 25 Circulation Chapter: 26 Diving by Marine Mammals

Part VI Water, Salts, and Excretion Chapter: 27 Water and Salt Physiology Chapter: 28 Water and Salt Physiology of Animals in Their Environments Chapter: 29 Kidneys and Excretion Chapter: 30 Mammals of Deserts and Dry Savannas

Prof.Exams

Animal Physiology 5Ed.by Richard Hill ISBN-10 0197553591 ISBN-13 978-0197553596 Test bank for for Animal Physiology 5Ed.by Richard Hill

ISBN-10 0197553591 ISBN-13 978-0197553596 THIS IS NOT THE ACTUAL BOOK. YOU ARE BUYING it is the Official Test Bank in e-version INSTANT DOWNLOAD >The test bank is what most professors use as a template when making exams for their students, which means there’s a very high chance that you will see the exact questions in the tests! >The file is either in.pdf, excel, or zipped in the package and can easily be read on PCs and Macs. >Delivery is INSTANT. You can download the files IMMEDIATELY once payment is done.

If you have any questions, please feel free to contact us. Our response is the fastest. All questions will alwaysbe answered in 6 hours, most of the time within 30mins.

We also faced similar difficulties when we were students, and we understand how you feel. But now, with the Official Test Bank, you will be able to

* * * * * *

Anticipate the type of the questions that will appear in your exam.

Know the correct answers to those questions.

Reduce the hassle and stress of your student life.

Improve your studying and get a better grade!

Get prepared for examination questions.

Save you time and help you understand the material.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fifth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 1: Animals and Environments: Function on the Ecological Stage TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. Which statement about the discipline of physiology is false? a. It is a key discipline for understanding how animals change over Earth’s history. b. It is a key discipline for understanding the fundamental biology of all animals. c. It is a key discipline for understanding human health and disease. d. It is a key discipline for understanding the health and disease of nonhuman animals.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Importance of Physiology Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 2. To understand how a fish propels itself by applying forces to the water, physiologists would study its a. biomechanics. b. evolution. c. ecology. d. cell physiology.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Highly Integrative Nature of Physiology Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. The data in the graph below would be relevant to which subdiscipline of physiology?

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. Evolution b. Cell physiology c. Morphology d. Ecology Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Highly Integrative Nature of Physiology Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. In the study of physiology, the term “ ” refers to the components of living animals and the interactions among those components that enable animals to perform as they do. a. feedback b. regulation c. natural selection d. mechanism Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. How is the light reaction in the firefly inhibited? a. Mitochondria prevent oxygen from reacting with luciferyl-AMP. b. Nitric oxide combines with oxygen to prevent reaction with luciferyl-AMP. c. ATP is prevented from combining with luciferin. d. Luciferase is prevented from catalyzing the reaction.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. Which of the following is not needed in the mechanism of light production in the firefly? a. Oxygen b. ATP c. Light d. Luciferin Answer: c Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. In the firefly, light is emitted when a. ATP combines with luciferin, forming luciferyl-AMP. b. released nitric oxide blocks the mitochondria’s use of oxygen. c. the electron-excited product of O2 and luciferyl-AMP returns to its ground state. d. luciferase is activated by oxygen.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 8. Which of the following is considered the “on” switch for the light-emitting reaction of the firefly? a. Oxygen b. Luciferase c. Nitric oxide d. ATP Answer: c Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 9. A physiological mechanism or other trait that is a product of evolution and is advantageous is called a. an adaptation. b. natural selection. c. adaptive significance. d. evolution.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 10. What is the adaptive significance of light emission in the firefly? a. Female fireflies emit light in such a way that distinguishes their species. b. All fireflies emit light to lure prey. c. Male fireflies emit light to attract mates. d. Male fireflies emit light to evade predators.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. Which of the following is a similarity between an octopus and a fish? a. The evolutionary adaptation of excellent vision b. The mechanism of vision c. The processing of visual signals before reaching the optic nerve d. The neuroanatomy of the eye Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 12. Research in the field of biological organization. a. evolutionary b. comparative c. environmental d. integrative

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

physiology emphasizes synthesis across levels of

Answer: d Textbook Reference: This Book’s Approach to Physiology Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 13. Which statement regarding animals is true? a. There is no distinction between an animal and its environment. b. Once adults, animals are structurally static. c. All animals require energy to maintain their organization. d. Body size is significant in the lives of only small animals.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 14. Most cells of an animal a. are exposed to the external environment. b. are exposed to the internal environment. c. fluctuate between exposure to the external environment and the internal environment. d. turn over while being exposed to the internal environment.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 15.–17. Refer to the figures below.

15. Which figure refers to a physiological trait that is regulated by an organism?

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 16. A migrating salmon regulates its internal Cl– concentration, shown in figure while conforming to water temperature, shown in figure . a. I; II b. II; I c. II; IV d. I; III Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 17. Figure shows an animal’s regulation of its body temperature as the external temperature increases. Figure shows no regulation of its body temperature as external temperature increases. a. I; II b. II; I c. II; IV d. II; III Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 18. Which statement regarding physiological conformity and regulation is true? a. All animals will eventually conform. b. Animals are either regulators or conformers. c. An animal cannot be both an ion regulator and a temperature conformer. d. Conforming is more metabolically expensive than regulating.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 19. The functioning of regulatory mechanisms that automatically make adjustments to maintain internal constancy is called a. conformity. b. feedback. c. homeostasis. d. regulation.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

,

Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 20. During childbirth, muscular contractions acting to expel the fetus from the uterus induce hormonal signals that induce even more intense contractions. This is an example of a. homeostasis. b. negative feedback. c. a set point. d. positive feedback.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 21. Physiological changes that occur by alteration of gene frequencies over the course of many generations are referred to as changes. a. acute b. chronic c. evolutionary d. developmental Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 22. is an example of “abandoning constancy” during thermoregulation. a. Sweating b. Shivering c. Hibernating d. Huddling Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 23. What is the principal advantage of conformity? a. The process requires a large amount of energy. b. It allows cells to maintain a steady state. c. Very little energy is used by this process. d. Cells are subject to changes in their conditions.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 24. Sweating in response to heat is an example of a(n) a. acute change. b. chronic change. c. evolutionary change. d. developmental change.

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 25.–26. Refer to the figure below.

25. What type of physiological response does the figure refer to? a. Chronic response b. Acute response c. Evolutionary response d. Developmental response Answer: a Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 26. If the heat exposure were removed, the line in the diagram would a. continue to show a plateau. b. drop sharply. c. gradually drop to its initial starting point. d. drop but be maintained somewhere at the middle level.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 27. Which response is the longest lasting? a. Acute response b. Chronic response c. Evolutionary response d. Developmental response Answer: c

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 28. Rainbow trout captured and brought into a lab aquarium undergo a chronic adjustment to the conditions in the lab. This process is called a. phenotypic plasticity. b. feedback inhibition. c. acclimatization. d. acclimation.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 29.–31. Refer to the figure below.

29. What statistical method was used to draw the trend line in the figure? a. Phylogenetically independent contrasts b. Ordinary least squares regression c. Weight-specific mean d. Logarithmic scaling Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 30. According to the figure, what is the expected gestation period of a warthog? a. 20 weeks

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. 24 weeks c. 30 weeks d. 55 weeks Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 31. Which species in the figure shows an actual gestation period that is furthest from its expected gestation period? a. Bushbuck b. Dikdik c. Warthog d. Mountain zebra Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 32. Which statement regarding the Antarctic fish species rock cod is false? a. Some species have no hemoglobin. b. The fish metabolically synthesize antifreeze to keep from freezing. c. The fish live their entire lives at body temperatures near –1.6°C. d. If acclimated slowly enough, the fish can survive in tropical waters.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Environments Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 33. can tolerate a body temperature of temperatures recorded for any vertebrate animal. a. Humans; 50°C b. Thermophilic archaea; 100°C c. The desert iguana; 48.5°C d. Sea stars; 45.5°C Answer: c Textbook Reference: Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 34.–35. Refer to the figure below.

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

, one of the highest body

34. This figure shows that a. the number of butterfly species increases as one moves toward the equator. b. butterfly populations are larger near the equator than at any other latitude. c. the number of butterfly species increases as latitude increases. d. the butterfly population increases as latitude increases.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Environments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 35. The environmental factor that is most responsible for the data shown in the figure is a. sunlight. b. food. c. temperature. d. water.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Environments Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 36. In which habitat would O2 concentration most likely be the lowest? a. A subnivean air space b. An open meadow at 4000 m elevation c. The bottom of a waterfall

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. Pond water with a lot of algae Answer: d Textbook Reference: Environments Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 37. At altitudes above m, people often find simply walking uphill to be a significant challenge. a. 5000 b. 6500 c. 9000 d. 10,000 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 38. In order to obtain O2, water-breathers face a substantially greater challenge compared to air-breathers. Which of the following is not a reason for this difference? a. Water contains less O2 per liter than air does. b. Water is denser than air. c. Water can become anoxic more readily than air can. d. Oxygen diffuses more slowly across respiratory surfaces in water than in air.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Environments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 39. Most invertebrates that live in the ocean, such as sea stars and corals, a. tend to lose water via osmosis. b. must drink water. c. must actively excrete water. d. do not gain or lose much water.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Environments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 40. Which animal osmotically gains the most water per gram on a daily basis? a. Sea star b. Goldfish c. Coral d. Reef fish Answer: b Textbook Reference: Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 41. Certain a. toads b. tardigrades

can tolerate almost complete desiccation.

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. marine bony fish d. goldfish Answer: b Textbook Reference: Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 42. The subnivean air space is an example of a(n) a. microenvironment. b. desert burrow. c. hibernating area. d. anoxic environment.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Environments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 43. Which process most likely leads to adaptive evolution? a. Natural selection b. Genetic drift c. Bottlenecks d. Pleiotropy Answer: a Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 44. Which observation best demonstrates the process of evolution? a. The increased presence of a trait favored by natural selection b. A change of gene frequencies over time c. The shifting of gene frequencies in a population because of random events d. The change in an animal’s phenotype in response to environmental change Answer: b Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 45. The shift in gene frequencies in smaller populations because of random deaths is referred to as a. evolution. b. nonadaptive evolution. c. genetic drift. d. pleiotropy.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 46. Because of , populations of the mosquito Culex pipiens are experiencing increased resistance to organophosphates and in areas where organophosphates are sprayed.

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. pleiotropy; reduced cold tolerance b. maladaptation; all other insecticides c. nonadaptive evolution; accelerated larval developmental stages d. natural selection; altered sex ratios Answer: a Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 47. Which conclusion was not made from the seminal 1979 paper by Gould and Lewontin? a. Natural selection in the present environment is just one of several processes by which a species may come to exhibit a trait. b. When physiologists refer to a trait as an adaptation, they are making a hypothesis that natural selection has occurred. c. Data must be gathered in order to assess whether adaptation is likely to have occurred. d. Indirect evidence cannot be used to support the hypothesis of adaptation.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 48. Which method is based on the premise that although we cannot see evolution that occurred in the past, the many kinds of animals alive today provide us with many examples of outcomes of evolution, and patterns we identify in these outcomes may provide insights into processes that occurred long ago? a. Studies of laboratory populations over many generations b. The adaptation method c. Phylogenetic reconstruction d. The comparative method Answer: d Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 49. Which technique for the study of adaptation was used to generate the data shown in the figure below?

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. Studies of laboratory populations over many generations b. Single-generation studies of individual variation c. Creation of variation for study d. Studies of genetic structures of natural populations Answer: b Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 50. The raw material(s) for evolution is(are) a. trait variation. b. natural selection. c. clines. d. alleles.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 51.–53. Refer to the figure below.

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

51. What is the best caption for this figure? a. Variation in O2 consumption. b. Individual variation in maximum rate of O2 consumption. c. Mean maximum rate of O2 consumption. d. Range of maximum rate of O2 consumption.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Individual Variation and the Question of “Personalities” within a Population Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 52. Assuming the trait measured in this figure is heritable, a. there can be no basis for natural selection to act on this trait. b. there is no variation from which natural selection can act on this trait. c. natural selection acts on the individuals with extreme trait measurements. d. the variation provides the raw material for natural selection.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Individual Variation and the Question of “Personalities” within a Population Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 53. Statistically speaking, an elite weight lifter would be likely to have a maximum rate of O2 consumption a. mostly at the extreme low end of the distribution. b. mostly at the extreme high end of the distribution. c. in the average range to the lower end of the distribution. d. in the average range to the higher end of the distribution.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Individual Variation and the Question of “Personalities” within a Population

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

Short Answer 1. Using the firefly as an example, explain physiology’s two central questions— mechanism and origin.

Answer: The firefly emits a flash of light from its abdomen. The process inside the animal that results in this event is the mechanism. That is, the brain sends nerve impulses that cause the light cells to become bathed with nitric oxide, resulting in the production of excited electrons through the reaction of O2 with luciferyl-AMP. However, this explanation of the mechanism does not explain the evolutionary origin of the trait. In this case, evidence suggests that the firefly produces light for mate attraction.

Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 2. Compare and contrast adaptation and natural selection.

Answer: Adaptation and natural selection are both concepts of evolution. Natural selection is a main process by which evolution occurs. It is the increase of gene frequencies that produce phenotypes that raises the likelihood that animals will survive and reproduce. An adaptation refers to the mechanism or trait that is the product of evolution by natural selection.

Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 3. Describe three of the subdisciplines of animal physiology.

Answer: Mechanistic physiology emphasizes the study of mechanism. Evolutionary physiology emphasizes the study of evolutionary origins. Comparative physiology is the synthetic study of the function of all animals. Environmental physiology studies how animals respond physiologically to environmental conditions and challenges. Integrative physiology is a synthetic investigation of all levels of biological organization.

Textbook Reference: This Book’s Approach to Physiology Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. Compare and contrast conformity and regulation, including the advantages and disadvantages of each.

Answer: Conformity and regulation are responses of animals to changing environmental conditions. An animal that permits its internal conditions to be equal to those of the external environment is exhibiting conformity. Conformity has some energy-saving advantages, although the cells of the animal can be exposed to potentially widely varying conditions. An animal that maintains its internal conditions while external conditions change is exhibiting regulation. The advantage of regulation is internal consistency, although there is a trade-off in terms of increased energy expenditure.

Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

5. Which of the five time frames in which physiology changes is represented by phenotypic plasticity? Give an example.

Answer: Phenotypic plasticity refers to the chronic, reversible physiologic changes of acclimation and acclimatization. For example, as temperatures become colder in the winter, the fur on arctic hares becomes thicker and whiter.

Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. What is the importance of body size in the study of animal physiology?

Answer: Body size is important in the study of animal physiology because many physiological measurements are affected by body size. Gestation period in mammals, for example, increases in a predictable manner with body size. Metabolic rate and other factors related to metabolic rate also correlate with body size. If body size is not taken into account for certain measurements, this factor may produce most of the variation in the data collected and mask other factors.

Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. A water temperature of 6°C can be lethal for both tropical fish and Antarctic fish— explain.

Answer: Not all fish species are able to survive at all water temperatures, even if given years to acclimate. Most tropical fish will die if cooled (even slowly) to 6°C. In contrast, Antarctic fish species have evolved for millions of years at –1.9°C, and even slowly warming them to 6°C will kill them.

Textbook Reference: Environments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. Describe how the density layering of water can create anoxic zones.

Answer: Warmer water is less dense than colder water. During summer months, the water on the surface of lakes and ponds gets warmed and stays on the top for the duration of the summer, with little mixing. This leaves a colder, stagnant, bottom layer of water that will slowly lose oxygen because the microbes deplete the dissolved oxygen.

Textbook Reference: Environments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Explain how adaptive and nonadaptive processes can contribute to evolution.

Answer: Adaptive processes are the processes of natural selection that result in traits that provide advantages in a population. Nonadaptive evolution includes processes by which less-adaptable alleles may persist in a population. A trait may persist because of chance (genetic drift), or because it is related to another favored trait (pleiotropy), or because it was once advantageous and has not been selected against.

Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Explain the statement: “A trait is not an adaptation merely because it exists.”

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: Not all traits are evolutionary adaptations that confer an advantage. Traits can exist because of evolutionary drift and other forms of nonadaptive evolution. Even a trait that appears to be beneficial is not necessarily an evolutionary adaptation. As Gould and Lewontin point out, in order to call a trait adaptive, one must provide empirical evidence that the trait is an adaptation.

Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. Which statement regarding the discipline of physiology is false? a. Physiologists study how animals work. b. Physiology is a key discipline for understanding the fundamental biology of all animals. c. Physiology is a key discipline for understanding the health and disease of nonhuman animals. d. Physiology is a key discipline for understanding the social context of human disease.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Importance of Physiology Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. Which of the following is an example of a possible physiological effect a river dam could impose on migrating Pacific salmon? a. It could completely block the salmon’s migration. b. The salmon may get past the dam, but their efforts cost them too much energy. c. The salmon may get past the dam, but subsequent navigation may be impaired. d. It could slow the salmon, making them more vulnerable to predation.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Highly Integrative Nature of Physiology Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. Which statement regarding fish gills best approximates the description of a mechanism? a. Freshwater fish use ATP to pump ions inward across the gill membrane. b. Fish with more gill surface area have an advantage in hypoxic water. c. Gills evolved as an organ to extract oxygen from the water. d. The larger the fish, the larger the gill surface area must be to support its metabolism.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 4. Populations of one salmon species differ genetically, and this difference increases as the physical distance between the populations increases. This statement refers to the study of which level of organization?

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. Systems physiology b. Morphology c. Ecology d. Evolution Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 5. Which is the most accurate description of the mechanism of the light-emitting reaction in the firefly? a. Oxygen reacts with luciferin to produce light. b. Oxygen reacts with luciferyl-AMP to produce light. c. Nitric oxide reacts with luciferin to produce light. d. Nitric oxide reacts with luciferyl-AMP to produce light.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 6. The increase in frequency of genes that produce phenotypes that raise the likelihood that an animal will survive and reproduce is called a. feedback. b. adaptive significance. c. natural selection. d. adaptation.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 7. Which statement regarding fish eyes and octopus eyes is most accurate? a. They are similar in gross appearance and functional performance but differ in their adaptive significance and mechanisms. b. They are similar in gross appearance, functional performance, and adaptive significance but differ in their mechanisms. c. They are similar in gross appearance, functional performance, adaptive significance, and mechanism. d. They differ in gross appearance, functional performance, and adaptive significance, but are similar in their mechanisms.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanism and Origin: Physiology’s Two Central Questions Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 8. If an animal permits internal and external conditions to be equal, it is said to show a. conformity. b. regulation. c. homeostasis. d. physiological independence.

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 9. Which statement regarding conformity and regulation is false? a. Animals can be both regulators and conformers. b. Conformity and regulation are extremes; intermediate responses are more common. c. Animals frequently show conformity with respect to some characteristics while regulating others. d. Conformity costs more energy to maintain than regulation.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 10. Testosterone is released by the testes in response to luteinizing hormone, released from the pituitary gland. As circulating testosterone levels rise, they act on the pituitary gland to reduce the secretion of luteinizing hormone, thus reducing the production of testosterone. This is an example of a. positive feedback. b. negative feedback. c. adaptation. d. acclimation.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 11. The surprise of a phone call at 3:00 AM results in an increase in heart rate. This is an example of a(n) a. acute change. b. chronic change. c. evolutionary change. d. change controlled by a biological clock.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 12. An artic fox growing a thicker fur layer for the winter is an example of a(n) a. acute change. b. chronic change. c. evolutionary change. d. developmental change.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 13. Length of gestation _

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

body size in mammals.

a. is inversely proportional to b. is independent of c. is unrelated to d. scales as an exponential function of Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 14. The lowest temperature inhabited by active communities of relatively large, temperature-conforming animals is a. 1.9°C. b. 0°C. c. –1.9°C. d. –10°C. Answer: c Textbook Reference: Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 15. The number of species of swallowtail butterflies tends to a. increase at high longitudes. b. increase at low latitudes. c. increase at high latitudes. d. increase at high altitudes.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. The altitude limit at which dedicated human climbers can climb without supplemental oxygen is about a. 5000 m. b. 8000 m. c. 12,000 m. d. 15,000 m.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Environments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 17. In the summer, a sun-heated lake will tend to have the lowest concentration of dissolved oxygen a. at the lake’s surface. b. about 2 m below the lake’s surface. c. at about the middle depth of the lake. d. at the bottom of the lake.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Environments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

18. For terrestrial animals, one of the greatest physiological challenges is a. obtaining food. b. obtaining oxygen. c. preventing water loss. d. locomotion.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Environments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 19. A change of gene frequencies over time in a population of organisms is referred to as a. evolution. b. adaptation. c. genetic drift. d. pleiotropy.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 20. The process of chance assuming a preeminent role in altering gene frequencies is called a. evolution. b. adaptation. c. genetic drift. d. natural selection.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Evolutionary Processes Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 21. Which statement best describes the data in the figure below?

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. All 35 mice have virtually identical maximum O2 consumption values to each other. b. Maximum O2 consumption in the 35 mice changed over time. c. Maximum O2 consumption varied among the 35 mice. d. Natural selection is acting on maximum O2 consumption.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Individual Variation and the Question of “Personalities” within a Population Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 22. Variation in maximum O2 consumption rate among human populations is a. due to both genetic and nongenetic causes. b. primarily due to genetic causes. c. primarily due to nongenetic causes. d. what determines the nature of a person’s athletic ability.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Individual Variation and the Question of “Personalities” within a Population Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2022 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 2: Molecules and Cells in Animal Physiology TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. Which molecule is part of a cell membrane? a. Cholesterol b. Ubiquitin c. Cyclic AMP d. Calmodulin Answer: a Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 2. A molecule that consists of a polar portion and a nonpolar portion is said to be a. hydrophilic. b. hydrophobic. c. an integral protein. d. amphipathic.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. A saturated hydrocarbon tends to a. be more liquid at colder temperatures compared to an unsaturated hydrocarbon. b. be more solid at colder temperatures compared to an unsaturated hydrocarbon. c. contain many double bonds. d. contain fewer carbon–carbon bonds compared to an unsaturated hydrocarbon.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Compared to fish found in lower temperature habitats, fish that inhabit higher temperatures tend to have more a. saturated phospholipids in their brain synaptic membranes. b. saturated phospholipids in their brain proteins. c. unsaturated phospholipids in their brain synaptic membranes. d. unsaturated phospholipids in their brain proteins.

Answer: a © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 5. Which membrane protein is responsible for the passive movement of K + across the typical animal cell membrane? a. Channel b. Enzyme c. Transporter d. Receptor Answer: a Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. When a protein is denatured, which of the following structures is disrupted first? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Quarternary Answer: c Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 7. Which molecule is a functional membrane protein? a. Acetylcholine b. Cholesterol c. The Na+‒K+ pump d. Calmodulin Answer: c Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 8. A ring of demarcates the apical surface of the cell from its lateral and basal surfaces. a. tight junctions b. septate junctions c. gap junctions e. microvilli Answer: a Textbook Reference: Epithelia Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Which of the following is considered a communicating junction? a. Gap junction b. Tight junction c. Septate junction d. Desmosome

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Epithelia Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 10. is(are) the specific set of processes by which complex chemical compounds are broken down to release energy, create smaller chemical building blocks, or prepare chemical constituents for elimination. a. Metabolism b. Catabolism c. Anabolism d. Biochemical reactions Answer: b Textbook Reference: Elements of Metabolism Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 11. Per gram, the leopard frog can jump farther per jump compared to the western toad because the leopard frog a. is insensitive to lactic acid. b. tends to live in warmer climates. c. has a higher aerobic capacity. d. creates more lactic acid per unit time.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. Which statement regarding enzymes is false? a. All enzymes are catalysts. b. Enzymes have substrates and products. c. Enzymes speed chemical reactions. d. All catalysts are enzymes.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 13. Which reaction is catalyzed by LDH? a. Pyruvic acid + NADH2 → lactic acid + NAD b. Pyruvic acid + NAD → pyruvic acid + NADH2 c. Pyruvic acid + NAD → lactic acid + NADH2 d. Lactic acid + NADH2 → pyruvic acid + NAD Answer: a Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 14. The amount of substrate converted to product per unit of time is called the a. turnover number. b. saturated speed.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. Vmax. d. reaction velocity.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 15. Turnover number (kcat) describes what property of an enzymatic reaction? a. Activation energy b. Catalytic effectiveness c. Enzyme‒substrate affinity d. The transition state Answer: b Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. The likelihood that an enzyme will form a complex with the substrate during a collision is called the a. catalytic effectiveness. b. activation energy. c. enzyme‒substrate affinity. d. transition state.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 17. An enzymatic reaction is proceeding at subsaturation. Which of the following is not a means by which the enzymatic reaction can be increased? a. Adding more substrate b. Adding more enzyme c. Increasing the catalytic effectiveness d. Increasing the temperature Answer: b Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 18.–22. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

18. Which of the following represent the best labels for the x axis and the y axis in the figure? a. x = Substrate concentration; y = Reaction velocity b. x = Enzyme concentration; y = Reaction velocity c. x = Time; y = Substrate concentration d. x = Time; y = Enzyme‒substrate conversion rate Answer: a Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 19. Which letter in the figure represents high affinity? a. I b. II c. III d. V Answer: b Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 20. Which letter in the figure best represents the Vmax? a. VI b. I c. III d. V Answer: d Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 21. In the figure, which region best represents the Km of the highest affinity enzyme? a. I b. II c. VII d. IV Answer: c Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 5. Which membrane protein is responsible for the passive movement of K+ across the typical animal cell membrane? a. Channel b. Enzyme c. Transporter d. Receptor Answer: a Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. When a protein is denatured, which of the following structures is disrupted first? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Quarternary Answer: c Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 7. Which molecule is a functional membrane protein? a. Acetylcholine b. Cholesterol c. The Na+‒K+ pump d. Calmodulin Answer: c Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 8. A ring of _______ demarcates the apical surface of the cell from its lateral and basal surfaces. a. tight junctions b. septate junctions c. gap junctions e. microvilli Answer: a Textbook Reference: Epithelia Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Which of the following is considered a communicating junction? a. Gap junction b. Tight junction c. Septate junction d. Desmosome

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Epithelia Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 10. _______ is(are) the specific set of processes by which complex chemical compounds are broken down to release energy, create smaller chemical building blocks, or prepare chemical constituents for elimination. a. Metabolism b. Catabolism c. Anabolism d. Biochemical reactions Answer: b Textbook Reference: Elements of Metabolism Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 11. Per gram, the leopard frog can jump farther per jump compared to the western toad because the leopard frog a. is insensitive to lactic acid. b. tends to live in warmer climates. c. has a higher aerobic capacity. d. creates more lactic acid per unit time.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. Which statement regarding enzymes is false? a. All enzymes are catalysts. b. Enzymes have substrates and products. c. Enzymes speed chemical reactions. d. All catalysts are enzymes.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 13. Which reaction is catalyzed by LDH? a. Pyruvic acid + NADH2 → lactic acid + NAD b. Pyruvic acid + NAD → pyruvic acid + NADH2 c. Pyruvic acid + NAD → lactic acid + NADH2 d. Lactic acid + NADH2 → pyruvic acid + NAD Answer: a Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 14. The amount of substrate converted to product per unit of time is called the a. turnover number. b. saturated speed.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. Vmax. d. reaction velocity.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 15. Turnover number (kcat) describes what property of an enzymatic reaction? a. Activation energy b. Catalytic effectiveness c. Enzyme‒substrate affinity d. The transition state Answer: b Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. The likelihood that an enzyme will form a complex with the substrate during a collision is called the a. catalytic effectiveness. b. activation energy. c. enzyme‒substrate affinity. d. transition state.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 17. An enzymatic reaction is proceeding at subsaturation. Which of the following is not a means by which the enzymatic reaction can be increased? a. Adding more substrate b. Adding more enzyme c. Increasing the catalytic effectiveness d. Increasing the temperature Answer: b Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 18.–22. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

18. Which of the following represent the best labels for the x axis and the y axis in the figure? a. x = Substrate concentration; y = Reaction velocity b. x = Enzyme concentration; y = Reaction velocity c. x = Time; y = Substrate concentration d. x = Time; y = Enzyme‒substrate conversion rate Answer: a Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 19. Which letter in the figure represents high affinity? a. I b. II c. III d. V Answer: b Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 20. Which letter in the figure best represents the Vmax? a. VI b. I c. III d. V Answer: d Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 21. In the figure, which region best represents the Km of the highest affinity enzyme? a. I b. II c. VII d. IV Answer: c Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 22. If more substrate is added to the reaction system of line C in the diagram, what would be the most likely outcome? a. The curve of line C would shift toward line B. b. The Vmax will increase. c. Km will decrease. d. The curve will remain the same.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 23. Citrate binding to phosphofructokinase is an example of a. heterotropic cooperativity. b. negative cooperativity. c. allosteric inhibition. d. competitive inhibition.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 24. Human LDH-B4 and rat LDH-B4 are examples of a. isozymes. b. analogous enzymes. c. isoenzymes. d. interspecific enzyme homologs.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 25. An enzyme-encoding gene is considered to be_______ within a cell if the gene results in the synthesis of the encoded enzyme within that same cell. a. promoted b. induced c. expressed d. enhanced Answer: c Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 26. _______ enzymes are present in a tissue in relatively high and steady amounts regardless of conditions, whereas _______ enzymes are present at low levels (or not at all) in a tissue unless their synthesis is activated. a. Inducible; constitutive b. Promotable; constitutive c. Constitutive; inducible

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. Expressed; promotable Answer: c Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 27. Which statement regarding allosteric modulation is true? a. The binding of an allosteric modulator follows the law of mass action. b. The binding of an allosteric modulator is irreversible. c. An allosteric modulator, when present, will always bind to the enzyme it modulates. d. The binding of an allosteric modulator always increases the catalytic activity of the enzyme.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 28. Citrate combines with phosphofructokinase at the _______ site, ultimately _______ catalytic activity and thus regulating glycolysis. a. allosteric; increasing b. allosteric; decreasing c. active; increasing d. active; decreasing Answer: b Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 29. Which of the following is directly involved in covalent modulation? a. The Na+‒K+ pump b. Protein kinases c. van der Waals interactions d. Calcium Answer: b Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 30.–31. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

30. How many different enzymes are catalyzing reactions? a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five Answer: b Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 31. According to the figure, a high amount of products from the Kreb’s cycle could act as _______ and result in _______ of the overall reaction. a. covalent modulators; inhibition b. covalent modulators; acceleration c. allosteric modulators; inhibition d. allosteric modulators; acceleration Answer: c Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

32. A protein kinase catalyzes the phosphorylation of another protein kinase, which in turn catalyzes the phosphorylation of a third protein kinase. This series of multiple enzyme sequences is an excellent example of a. amplification. b. a rate-limiting reaction. c. inducing enzymes. d. allosteric regulation.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 33. The _______ is(are) directly responsible for the amplifying effects during a second messenger cascade. a. receptors b. substrates c. enzymes d. cell membrane Answer: c Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 34.–35. Refer to the figure below.

34. Which abiotic factor most likely explains the data in the figure? a. LDH expression © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. Allele frequencies c. Temperature d. Predation Answer: c Textbook Reference: Evolution of Enzymes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 35. The figure shows the a. frequency distribution of two predators on killifish. b. frequency distribution of two different alleles of the gene for LDH. c. frequency distribution of two main diets of killifish. d. temperature tolerance of two subtypes of killifish.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Evolution of Enzymes Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 36.–37. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

36. What is the best explanation for why mammalian and fish LDH-C enzymes are shown to be so distantly related? a. Many separate gene duplication events created the C version of LDH. b. The tree is based on LDH-A relationships, so it does not accurately show how closely related the LHD-C versions are to one another. c. The enzymes were named before the actual evolutionary relationships were known. d. The tree is separated based on animal phyla, not LDH. Answer: c Textbook Reference: Evolution of Enzymes Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 37. The diamonds refer to a. genetic divergence. b. gene duplication. c. mutations. © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. speciation.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Evolution of Enzymes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 38. In rats, phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase activity per gram of liver significantly increases at birth and remains at this higher level for the life of the animal. This is an example of enzymatic change that takes place over a(n) _______ time frame. a. acute b. chronic c. evolutionary d. developmental Answer: d Textbook Reference: Enzymes Are Instruments of Change in All Time Frames Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 39. If a protein in situ becomes partially denatured because of high temperature, the denaturation can be reversed by a a. molecular chaperone. b. proteasome. c. ubiquitin. d. peptidase.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Life and Death of Proteins Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 40. Which of the following tags proteins for destruction? a. Proteasome b. Ubiquitin c. Molecular chaperone d. Heat-shock protein Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Life and Death of Proteins Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 41. The process of absorbing preexisting light and re-emitting it at longer wavelengths is called a. bioluminescence. b. reflection. c. chromatophoration. d. fluorescence.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Light and Color Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

42. The ability of animals to change color in seconds or minutes depends on the function of a. photocytes. b. chromatophores. c. photoproteins. d. luciferin.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Light and Color Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 43. Intracellular modification of activity in response to an external signal is an example of a. transduction. b. transformation. c. conversion. d. covalent modulation.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 44. Extracellular signaling molecules initiate their actions on a cell by binding with certain protein molecules of the cell called a. ligands. b. peripheral proteins. c. integral proteins. d. receptors.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 45. Which of the following statements regarding the ligand-gated receptor is false? a. The naturally occurring ligand can cause the associated protein channel to open. b. The naturally occurring ligand should bind irreversibly to the receptor until it breaks down. c. A similarly shaped foreign ligand can attach to the receptor and block the naturally occurring ligand from binding. d. A ligand can attach to the receptor and activate an intracellular catalytic site on the same molecule.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 46. Receptor proteins can bring about all of the following cellular actions except a. reinforcing the structure of the membrane. b. opening a protein channel on the membrane. c. activating an enzyme on the intracellular surface.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. combining with a ligand to initiate transcription.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 47. The α-conotoxin injected into fish by the cone snail binds to and therefore blocks receptor sites on the muscle membrane. This prevents a(n) a. enzyme from being activated. b. G protein from being activated. c. channel from opening into the nucleus. d. channel from opening.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 48. Which reaction does not directly produce an amplification? a. Activation of a G protein by an activated receptor b. Formation of cyclic AMP by catalyzing action of adenylyl cyclase c. Activation of glycogen phosphorylase kinase by active cAMP-dependent protein kinase d. Opening of a ligand-gated channel on the membrane Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 49. Which substance is considered a second messenger? a. IP3-gated calcium channel b. Calcium c. Epinephrine d. Adenylyl cyclase Answer: b Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 50. As a second messenger, calcium typically binds to a. calmodulin, and the complex activates protein kinases. b. a G protein to activate general second messengers. c. cyclic AMP to activate cAMP-dependent protein kinases. d. inositol triphosphate to activate the endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

Short Answer Questions

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

1. Describe what it means for a phospholipid to be amphipathic and how this feature is paramount in the formation of the membrane.

Answer: The cell membrane is composed of bilayer phospholipids, which are amphipathic. This means that the molecule consists of a polar part (regional differences in charge) and a nonpolar part (lacking regional differences in charge). Because water is by nature a polar molecule, the polar ends of the phospholipids contact the aqueous solutions, whereas the hydrophobic nonpolar ends of the phospholipids face each other, forming the inner region of the membrane.

Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. Provide a specific example of how a membrane protein can be categorized as more than one functional type.

Answer: There are five functional types of membrane proteins, but a receptor protein, as a prominent example, can be classified into more than one category. Receptor proteins can also function as channels, transporters, and enzymes.

Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 3. Describe how epithelial cells control the transport of substances between the apical and basal sides and thus between different body regions.

Answer: Epithelial cells are able to control and even mediate the transport of substances between the apical and basal areas via occluding junctions between epithelial cells.

Substances must pass through the cell to cross the epithelia, and this transcellular path can be highly controlled. Only very small molecules may be able to pass through the occluding junctions and thus take the paracellular path.

Textbook Reference: Epithelia Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Define the law of mass action and apply it to a real biochemical reaction.

Answer: For a given reaction of A + B ↔ C + D, the law of mass action states that if the compounds are out of equilibrium, the reaction will proceed in the direction of equilibrium as dictated by the ratios of concentrations. For example, within glycolysis, pyruvate typically forms lactic acid. However, in the event that lactic acid concentrations rise significantly, the reaction can be reversed, forming pyruvate from lactic acid.

Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 5. Compare and contrast the factors affecting the rate of an enzymatic reaction in a substrate that is subsaturated and one that is saturated or at Vmax.

Answer: Both reaction velocities at Vmax and in reactions that are subsaturated will be affected by the number of active enzyme molecules present and the catalytic effectiveness of each enzyme molecule. However, reaction velocities in subsaturated reactions will also depend on the affinity of enzyme molecules for the substrate.

Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

6. Describe how amplification works in the cell and why it is important.

Answer: In the cell, if any agent that is activated is itself an enzyme, it is able to catalyze a reaction, forming many products. If these products are also enzymes for other reactions, the amplification process will be exponential. This is important in cell function because one receptor binding one ligand (such as epinephrine) can amplify and bring about a significant result (i.e., the creation of millions of glucose molecules from glycogen).

Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. How does the killifish demonstrate the present-day operation of evolutionary forces?

Answer: The killifish that live along the entire east coast of the United States show two different alleles of the gene for the B form of lactate dehydrogenase. Since these fish travel extensively along the coast, one would expect the alleles to be evenly distributed.

The fact that different allele frequencies persist from place to place indicates that fish with different alleles undergo differential survival and reproduction—an example of the working of present-day evolutionary forces.

Textbook Reference: Evolution of Enzymes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 8. Compare and contrast bioluminescence and fluorescence and describe the light production of the hydromedusan jellyfish (Aequorea victoria).

Answer: Both bioluminescence and fluorescence can occur within a photocyte, but in bioluminescence, the light is produced de novo. In fluorescence, preexisting light is absorbed and re-emitted at longer wavelengths. In the hydromedusan jellyfish, clusters of photocytes produce blue light. However, the light emitted is green because a green fluorescent protein converts the emission wavelengths.

Textbook Reference: Light and Color Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 9. List and briefly describe the four types of receptor proteins involved in cell signaling.

Answer: (1) Ligand-gated channels bind ligands so that channels can open for ions to pass through the cell membrane. (2) G protein receptors bind ligands and activate a G protein system, which is a complex secondary messenger system that typically amplifies effects in the cell. (3) The enzyme/enzyme-linked receptor binds a ligand on the extracellular surface that activates the receptor protein. The activated receptor protein is itself an enzyme that catalyzes a reaction, typically on the intracellular side. (4) The intracellular receptor is typically housed inside the nucleus, and the ligand usually passes through the cell membrane and the nuclear membrane via diffusion. Once the ligand attaches to the intracellular receptor, the complex initiates transcription by interacting with the DNA. Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Describe how a simple ion such as calcium is used as a second messenger.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: Calcium ions sometimes act as second messengers. Inositol triphosphate activates a gated channel on the endoplasmic reticulum, which releases calcium into the cytoplasm. Calcium then binds to the protein calmodulin, which can then activate protein kinases or other enzymes.

Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. Which statement regarding brain phospholipids in fish is most accurate? a. Tropical fish tend to have very unsaturated phospholipids in their brain synaptic membranes. b. Fish in very cold habitats tend to have very saturated phospholipids in their brain synaptic membranes. c. The colder the habitat, the greater the degree of phospholipid unsaturation in the brain synaptic membranes. d. The degree of phospholipid saturation in brain synaptic membranes is independent of habitat temperature.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 2. Which of the following is not a functional type of membrane protein? a. Enzyme b. Receptor c. Structural d. Resistance Answer: d Textbook Reference: Cell Membranes and Intracellular Membranes Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 3. Which cell‒cell junctions allow cytoplasmic flow between the connected cells? a. Tight junction b. Septate junction c. Gap junction d. Desmosome Answer: c Textbook Reference: Epithelia Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. When there are more substrate molecules than the enzyme molecules can accommodate, the reaction is a. saturated. b. subsaturated.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. showing the highest enzyme–substrate affinity. d. at its Km. Answer: a Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. The catalytic effectiveness of an enzyme molecule is expressed as the a. half-saturation constant, Km. b. activation energy during a saturated reaction. c. number of substrate molecules converted to product per second by each enzyme molecule when saturated. d. maximum velocity, Vmax.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 6. The allosteric site is located a. on the enzyme. b. on the substrate. c. on the cell surface. d. on the modulator.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 7. Human LDH-A4 and rat LDH-A4 together are a good example of a. isozymes. b. interspecific enzyme homologs. c. allosteric modulators. d. ligands.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Enzyme Fundamentals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 8. An animal is exposed to halogenated aromatic hydrocarbons, and as a result, its levels of P450 enzymes rise. This is an example of the action of a. transcription factors. b. enhancers. c. constitutive enzymes. d. inducible enzymes.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

9. When an allosterically modulated enzyme is the rate-limiting enzyme in a metabolic pathway, the entire pathway may be upregulated or downregulated by allosteric modulation. The result of downregulation of the entire pathway is called a. feedback inhibition. b. positive feedback. c. covalent modulation. d. phosphorylation.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Multiple-enzyme sequences in which each enzyme in the sequence activates another enzyme is an example of a. covalent modulation. b. allosteric modulation. c. amplification. d. feedback inhibition.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Regulation of Cell Function by Enzymes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. The example of killifish allele frequency distribution along the Atlantic coast describes enzyme changes over a(n) _______ time frame. a. acute b. chronic c. evolutionary d. developmental Answer: c Textbook Reference: Evolution of Enzymes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 12. In the most common protein-degradation mechanism, tagging occurs by the attachment of _______ to the protein targeted to be degraded. a. a heat-shock protein b. a molecular chaperone c. a proteasome d. ubiquitin Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Life and Death of Proteins Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 13. In a bioluminescent animal such as the hydromedusa jellyfish Aequorea victoria, the _______ consist(s) of luciferin, O2, and a protein. a. chromatophores b. pigment granules c. photocyte

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. photoprotein Answer: d Textbook Reference: Light and Color Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 14. Color change in fish depends on flattened pigment-containing cells called a. photoproteins. b. chromatophores. c. photocytes. d. chromocytes.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Light and Color Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 15. Which receptor protein brings about cascades of membrane proteins involving significant amplification? a. Ligand-gated channel b. G protein–coupled receptor c. Enzyme/enzyme-linked receptor d. Intracellular receptor Answer: b Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 16. Which receptor protein changes membrane voltage immediately when activated? a. Ligand-gated channel b. G protein–coupled receptor c. Enzyme/enzyme-linked receptor d. Intracellular receptor Answer: a Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 17. Which receptor proteins activate enzymes on the cell membrane? a. Ligand-gated channel and G protein–coupled receptor b. G protein–coupled receptor and enzyme/enzyme-linked receptor c. Enzyme/enzyme-linked receptor and intracellular receptors d. Ligand-gated channel, G protein–coupled receptor, and enzyme/enzyme-linked receptor Answer: b Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 18. Which receptor protein interacts with DNA? a. Ligand-gated channel b. G protein–coupled receptor

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. Enzyme/enzyme-linked receptor d. Intracellular receptors Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 19. When epinephrine attaches to a(n) _______, the process of _______ results in the formation of a large amount of intracellular _______. a. G protein‒coupled receptor; amplification; glucose b. ligand-gated receptor; amplification; glucose c. G protein‒coupled receptor; metabolic pathways; glycogen d. enzyme-enzyme‒linked receptor; amplification; glycogen Answer: a Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 20. Which of the following is not involved at the cell membrane in a second messenger cascade? a. Adenylyl cyclase b. G protein‒coupled receptor c. Protein kinase d. Phospholipase C Answer: c Textbook Reference: Reception and Use of Signals by Cells Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 3: Genomics, Proteomics, and Related Approaches to Physiology TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. For the Antarctic icefish, a consequence of their lack of hemoglobin is that they a. are sluggish and therefore prone to predation. b. are restricted to very cold water. c. have bluish blood. d. are very small in size.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. The coldest water that icefish typically inhabit is a. 1.9°C. b. 0°C. c. –1.9°C. d. –4.9°C. Answer: c Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. Today, there are _______ species of icefish. a. two b. about 16 c. about 50 d. about 100 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. How many genes code for the protein portion of the hemoglobin molecule? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. Which statement regarding the vertebrate hemoglobin molecule is false? a. Vertebrates have multiple copies of the genes that code for globins. b. The genes that code for globin diverged only recently. c. In birds and mammals, genes that code for α-globin are located on a different chromosome from those that code for β-globin. d. In fish, genes that code for globins are found on a single chromosome.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 6.–7. Refer to the figure below.

6. The genes on the figure are aligned based on a. homologous sequences. b. a matching of intron sequences. c. gene function. d. the beginning sequence on the chromosome.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 7. What is the best explanation for the differences, as shown in the figure, in the icefish globin genes? a. Redundant gene sequences have been selected against and removed over time. b. The α-globin gene is nonfunctional; the β-globin gene has been moved to another chromosome but is functional. c. The α-globin gene is nonfunctional; the β-globin gene has been moved to another chromosome and is nonfunctional. d. Deletions have rendered the α-globin gene nonfunctional and the β-globin gene has been removed.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

8.–12. Refer to the figure below.

8. Which statement about the figure is true? a. It shows when icefish diverged from red-blooded fish. b. It shows the phylogeny of teleost fish outgroups and their relatedness to icefish. c. It shows an evolutionary tree of 22 species of related Antarctic fish. d. It shows the relatedness of Antarctic fish that use antifreeze proteins.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 9. This phylogenetic tree is based on a. bone morphology. b. similarities of mitochondrial DNA. c. sequences of the hemoglobin genes. d. sequences of antifreeze genes.

Answer: b

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 10. Which point(s) refer(s) to the most likely divergence(s) of the hemoglobin-free icefish? a. I b. II c. III d. Both I and II Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 11. Which statement about the numbered points on the figure is true? a. All of the species beyond point B share the same missing portions of DNA. b. Species beyond points A and B share the same missing portions of DNA. c. Only species beyond point C share the missing sequences that render hemoglobin nonfunctional. d. Species beyond points C and D have nonfunctional hemoglobin but the missing sequences are different.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 12. At which location on the figure did antifreeze proteins evolve? a. I b. II c. III d. Before point I–II Answer: d Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 13. Which sequence represents the correct evolutionary order of events in some species of Antarctic fish? a. Presence of antifreeze proteins → presence of hemoglobin → loss of functional hemoglobin → loss of functional myoglobin b. Presence of antifreeze proteins → presence of hemoglobin → loss of functional myoglobin → loss of functional hemoglobin c. No functional hemoglobin → presence of antifreeze proteins → loss of functional myoglobin → presence of functional hemoglobin d. Presence of hemoglobin → presence of antifreeze proteins → loss of functional hemoglobin → loss of functional myoglobin Answer: d Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

14.–16. Refer to the figure below.

14. Which statement about the figure is true? a. It shows when icefish diverged from red-blooded fish. b. It shows the lineages of icefish that have lost functional myoglobin. c. It shows the lineages of icefish that have regained functional hemoglobin. d. It shows the lineages of Antarctic fish that use antifreeze proteins.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 15. This phylogenetic was tree constructed on the basis of a. bone morphology. b. similarities of mitochondrial DNA. c. sequences of the hemoglobin genes. d. sequences of antifreeze genes.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

16. What is the strongest evidence supporting the four independent events occurring in the figure? a. The sequence changes occurring at the four independent points are very different from one another. b. The sequence changes occurring at the four independent points are exactly the same. c. The loss of function resulting from the sequence changes is exactly the same. d. The morphology of the species at the four independent points is exactly the same.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 17. Which statement regarding myoglobin in Antarctic fish is true? a. All icefish have nonfunctional myoglobin. b. Mutations that eliminated myoglobin function occurred independently in four lines of icefish. c. Mutations that eliminated myoglobin function occurred once in early icefish evolution and have affected six species in different lineages. d. Identical mutations that eliminated myoglobin function occurred in four separate lineages of icefish.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 18. In what way is the loss of functional hemoglobin in icefish a disadvantage? a. An increase in fitness was shown following the appearance of nonfunctional hemoglobin. b. The appearance of nonfunctional hemoglobin was accompanied by a decrease in fitness. c. Icefish have enlarged hearts and faster blood circulation compared to red-blooded fish. d. Icefish have a very small body size to compensate for the loss of functional hemoglobin.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 19. Which protein is common in all species of Antarctic fish? a. Ventricular myoglobin b. Antifreeze glycoproteins c. Hemoglobin d. Myoglobin Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 20. Which protein is common in all species of icefish? a. Ventricular myoglobin

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. Antifreeze glycoproteins c. Hemoglobin d. Myoglobin Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 21. Which statement about glycoproteins is false? a. The genes responsible for producing the suite of glycoproteins in Antarctic fish evolved after the appearance of icefish. b. Glycoproteins reduce the freezing point of blood plasma. c. Genes coding for glycoproteins are similar in all species of Antarctic fish. d. When hemoglobin became deleted in icefish, they already had the genes coding for glycoproteins.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 22. A species’ full set of genetic material is termed its a. genome. b. sequence. c. transcriptome. d. proteome.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Genomics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 23. Sequencing a genome and identifying individual genes are processes typically carried out a. via manual transcription by a team of genetic scientists. b. using experimental processes. c. by computers using high-throughput methods. d. by hand with a team of information scientists.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Genomics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 24. The process of adding direct human interpretation to genetic sequencing data is called a. high-throughput processing. b. information processing. c. annotation. d. bioinformatics.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Genomics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

25. Which process is not an overarching goal of genomics? a. Elucidating the evolution of genomes b. Elucidating the current function of genes c. Elucidating the current function of genomes d. Elucidating the evolution of species through genomes Answer: d Textbook Reference: Genomics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 26. The genes coding for antifreeze proteins in Antarctic fish evolved from a. genes coding for plasma albumin. b. genes coding for pancreatic proteins such as trypsin. c. spontaneous mutations in intron sequences. d. insertion events from ancient bacteria.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Genomics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 27. All genes in a gene family share a. distinctive DNA sequences. b. distinctive RNA sequences. c. distinctive gene expression patterns. d. identical exon sequences.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Genomics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 28. Genomic analysis of the sea urchin led to the discovery that there are no genes coding for gap-junction proteins or for adrenaline. Functionally, this suggests that a. there are no gap junctions in sea urchins. b. there is no cellular communication system in sea urchins. c. sea urchins are not related to vertebrates. d. the cellular communication system of sea urchins is unusual.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Genomics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 29. Genomic analysis of the sea urchin led to the discovery of an exceptional number of genes that code for immune and detoxification proteins. Functionally, this suggests that sea urchins a. are not susceptible to diseases. b. have a long lifespan. c. are bombarded by pathogens and must react constantly. d. have unusually elaborate immune and detoxification systems.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Genomics

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 30. Which statement regarding sea urchins is false? a. No genes are present that code for gap-junction proteins. b. No genes are present that code for the enzymatic synthesis of adrenaline. c. Genes that code for cytochrome P450 detoxification enzymes are extraordinarily numerous. d. Genes that code for skeleton mineralization are very similar to those found in vertebrates.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Genomics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 31. When predictions are made from the genome of a species alone, they may prove to be wrong for several reasons. What is one of those reasons? a. The function predicted by extrapolation from already known genes always matches the current function. b. Even if the function is known, the expression pattern may differ. c. The function predicted by extrapolation may vary extensively within individuals of the species. d. Often, the introns within species vary too much between individuals.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Genomics Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 32. After the genome of a species has been sequenced, a. it is said to enter the postgenomic era. b. bioinformatics takes over. c. annotation is all that can take place. d. functional genomics is all that is left for that species.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Genomics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 33. Which sequence represents the order of investigation of the traditional, top-down approach to the study of animal physiology? a. Animal function → tissue-specific proteins → tissue function → genes b. Genes → tissue function → tissue-specific proteins → animal function c. Animal function → tissue function → tissue-specific proteins → genes d. Genes → tissue-specific proteins → tissue function → animal function Answer: c Textbook Reference: Top-down versus Bottom-up Approaches to the Study of Physiology Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

34. In the study of animal physiology, which statement expresses an advantage of the bottom-up approach pursued with high-throughput methods? a. It is specific in searching for proteins and metabolites instead of genes. b. It can proceed without preexisting biases regarding which genes are involved in a particular function. c. It can focus on a defined phenomenon of known importance to the whole organism. d. It is specific in searching for gene expression instead of profiling proteins or metabolites.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Top-down versus Bottom-up Approaches to the Study of Physiology Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating

35.–36. Refer to the figure below.

35. In terms of the labels in the figure, the classic experimental approach begins with a. a survey of substances at II. b. the sequencing of I. c. an a priori hypothesis regarding III. d. an a priori hypothesis regarding IV. Answer: d Textbook Reference: Top-down versus Bottom-up Approaches to the Study of Physiology Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 36. The study of the process of catalysis would take place between levels a. II and I. b. II and III.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. I and III. d. I and II. Answer: b Textbook Reference: Top-down versus Bottom-up Approaches to the Study of Physiology Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 37. At each stage of the bottom-up approach in the study of animal physiology, the most common strategy is the use of a. screening. b. sequencing. c. transcriptomics. d. expression profiling.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Screening or Profiling as a Research Strategy Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 38. The hypotheses from bottom-up research a. are all statistically significant, given the number of tests involved. b. typically are not formed a priori. c. produce false positives most of the time. d. cannot be validated statistically.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Screening or Profiling as a Research Strategy Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 39. Transcriptomics is the study of a. mRNA. b. genes. c. DNA. d. tRNA. Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

40.–41. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

40. The figure shows a classic data set in the field of a. genomics. b. transcriptomics. c. proteomics. d. metabolomics.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 41. Which explanation is the most valid for the low levels of mRNAs of the metabolic/mitochondrial enzyme genes shown in the figure? a. These genes are not as important as the other two categories in response to exercise. b. These mRNAs cannot be detected as easily as those of the other two categories. c. There are fewer genes producing this set of mRNAs compared to those producing the other two categories. d. Although the mRNAs are produced in small quantities, their half-lives are long.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 42. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

42. Which statement about the figure is true? a. It represents the output of a genomic analysis. b. It shows a two-species genomic analysis. c. It is a proteomic output. d. It is the output of a microarray.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 43. In a microarray technique, an mRNA will _______ the DNA spot representing its specific gene. a. hybridize with b. bind to c. transcribe d. reverse transcribe Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 44. In the _______ technique, tissues are subjected to experimentally increased synthesis of mRNA associated with the gene of interest. a. RNA interference b. forced overexpression c. gene knockout d. expression profiling Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 45.–46. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

45. The figure is based on the measurement of a. proteins. b. metabolites. c. mRNA. d. DNA. Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 46. This figure depicts a. the response of a selection of mRNAs to malarial parasites. b. the daily patterns of enzymes that are responsible for combating the malarial parasite. c. the daily patterns of mRNAs that code for detoxification enzymes. d. three enzymatic responses to a daily light cycle in the malarial parasite.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 47.–48. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

47. Which statement about the figure is true? a. It shows a two-species genomic analysis. b. It shows a two-species environmental response at the protein level. c. It shows the separation of proteins by a gel. d. It is the output of a microarray.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Proteomics Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 48. The circles in the figure represent a. genes. b. mRNA. c. DNA. d. proteins.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Proteomics Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 49.–50. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

49. Which statement about the figure is true? a. It represents the output of an NMR spectrum. b. It shows a two-species environmental response at the protein level. c. It shows the separation of proteins by a gel. d. It is the output of a microarray Answer: a Textbook Reference: Metabolomics Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 50. Which statement about the figure is true? a. The amplitudes of the peaks are used to sequence the metabolite. b. The amplitudes of the peaks are irrelevant and only provide information on the presence or absence of metabolites. c. The amplitudes of the peaks are used to calculate metabolite concentrations. d. The order of the metabolites on the spectrum is related to their concentration.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Metabolomics Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

Short Answer Questions 1. Discuss in detail how hemoglobin evolved in the vertebrates.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: Each hemoglobin molecule is composed of two α-globin subunits and two βglobin subunits. The genes that code for these units are members of an evolutionarily ancient gene family. The gene family has similarity with genes found in bacteria and yeasts. Because of gene duplication, each individual vertebrate animal today has multiple copies. Even though the copies of genes diversified over millions of years, all the genes retained their family resemblance. In modern birds and mammals, the genes that code for the α- and β-globin units are found on different chromosomes, whereas in fish, the two genes are found on the same chromosome.

Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. What is the leading hypothesis for why icefish lost their hemoglobin?

Answer: The leading hypothesis contends that a red-blooded fish ancestor lost the ability to produce functional globin due to DNA deletions. The various species of icefish that evolved all inherited the deletions from their common ancestor.

Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. Was the loss of hemoglobin in icefish an advantage or a disadvantage? Discuss.

Answer: The loss of hemoglobin in icefish was likely a disadvantage. First, evidence points to one event in which the ability to create functional hemoglobin was lost. If there were multiple events, the notion that this was disadvantageous would be more difficult to support. Icefish were able to survive this deletion because of several physiological changes. Compared to red-blooded fish of the same body size, icefish have very large hearts, and circulate their blood at much higher rates. This also suggests, however, that the loss of hemoglobin was a disadvantage and that cardiovascular compensation was necessary for survival.

Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Discuss the evidence suggesting that antifreeze proteins evolved after the loss of hemoglobin.

Answer: Researchers can show that antifreeze proteins existed before the loss of hemoglobin. The glycoproteins and the genes that code for them are essentially the same, not only in all icefish, but also in all Antarctic red-blooded fish related to icefish.

Therefore, it is likely that those early hemoglobin-free fish already had the types of antifreeze compounds that their descendants display today.

Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. What are the two overarching goals of genomics, and why is each of these goals important?

Answer: The first goal of genomics is to elucidate the evolution of genes and genomes.

The genome of each species has descended from the genomes of ancestral species, and genomes become modified as they evolve. Genome studies help clarify the mechanisms by which genes and genomes have been modified. The second goal of genomics is to

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

elucidate the current functioning of genes and genomes. Because of the evolutionary continuity of life, when a new genome is sequenced, many of the genes found in the new genome are likely to be similar to the genes already observed in genomes that were sequenced previously. Researchers can then predict the function of genes in the new genome by the extrapolation of preexisting knowledge of homologous genes.

Textbook Reference: Genomics Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 6. Compare and contrast top-down and bottom-up methods of study in physiology.

Answer: The top-down approach to the study of physiology is the traditional approach, whereby the researcher begins with an investigation of animal function and then moves to tissue function, biochemistry, and finally to genes. The bottom-up order of study proceeds in the reverse direction and takes advantage of high-throughput methods such as microarrays. The bottom-up approach can be extremely thorough in searching for genes, proteins, and metabolites that are instrumental in a physiological process. Additionally, it can proceed without preexisting biases regarding which genes or proteins are likely involved in a particular function.

Textbook Reference: Top-down versus Bottom-up Approaches to the Study of Physiology Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 7. Why are screening studies at odds with a priori hypotheses?

Answer: Screening studies are at odds with a priori hypotheses because of the amount of the data collected in such studies and the nature of statistical testing. The more statistical tests used within one screening, the more likely the researchers will find differences that are due to chance versus actual treatment effects. In other words, the chances of finding false positives increase dramatically in screening studies. Therefore, they typically are performed without a priori hypotheses.

Textbook Reference: Screening or Profiling as a Research Strategy Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. Explain how a DNA microarray works.

Answer: A DNA microarray consists of a grid of spots of DNA placed on a glass plate.

Each spot of DNA represents a single gene. mRNA is then extracted from a control tissue and an experimental tissue of the same species, and each is labeled with a different fluorescent protein. The mixed/labeled mRNA is added to each spot containing the DNA, and if it hybridizes, it emits fluorescence, with the particular color indicating the condition under which that gene was expressed.

Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Describe how RNA interference promises to provide important insights into gene function.

Answer: RNA interference (RNAi) is a recently discovered cellular process that promises to provide important insights into gene function. When select double-stranded RNA molecules are introduced into cells and processed by the RNAi pathway, specific mRNA

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

molecules that are naturally produced by the cells are destroyed. In effect, the gene that produces the targeted mRNA is silenced. This is essentially similar to gene deletion, but RNAi can be performed at any time during development on animals with normal genomes.

Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Compare and contrast proteomics and metabolomics.

Answer: Proteomics and metabolomics are both high-throughput methods that measure the complement of products produced in a cell. They are also a branch of the study of biochemical phenotype. Proteomics is the study of the proteins being synthesized by cells and tissues. One gene can code for multiple proteins; therefore, it is very difficult to predict protein synthesis based on gene expression. Unlike proteomics, metabolomics does not focus on gene products. Metabolomics is the study of all the organic compounds in cells and tissues other than macromolecules coded by the genome, such as sugars, amino acids, and fatty acids.

Textbook Reference: Proteomics; Metabolomics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. Icefish were once commonly called “bloodless fish” because of a. their ability to tolerate freezing. b. the fact that their blood is clear. c. their ability to tolerate the coldest aquatic temperatures on Earth. d. the fact that they have no blood.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. One unique feature of the icefish is that they a. regularly inhabit water temperatures of –4.9° C. b. are the only vertebrates that do not have red blood cells as adults. c. are the only vertebrates that do not have blood as adults. d. are the only vertebrates that can tolerate freezing.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. Which statement about icefish is true? a. They have only the two β-globin subunits in their hemoglobin. b. They have no red blood cells but do have circulating hemoglobin. c. They do not have hemoglobin. d. They have four subunits of α-globin.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 4. When researchers analyzed the DNA of icefish, they found that the a. β-globin gene was completely gone and the α-globin gene was missing parts. b. genetic material coding for Hb was identical to that of all other fish. c. genes coding for both α and β subunits were modified such that they could not form functional Hb. d. α-globin gene was completely gone and the β-globin gene was dysfunctional.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. The hearts of icefish a. do not have myoglobin. b. have myoglobin, but the globin has a slightly different protein conformation compared to that of other fish. c. have myoglobin just as other fish do. d. can have myoglobin or not, depending on the species.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. Which statement regarding icefish evolution is true? a. Only icefish share an ancestor containing genes that code for antifreeze proteins. b. Only icefish share an ancestor that lost the function of globin genes. c. The loss of functional globin genes occurred multiple times during the evolution of icefish. d. The evolution of antifreeze proteins occurred multiple times during the evolution of icefish.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 7. Compared to red-blooded fish of the same size, icefish have a. larger hearts. b. a higher rate of blood circulation. c. a higher metabolic rate and larger hearts. d. larger hearts and a higher circulation rate.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. Genome sequencing is a technique in which a. the DNA sequence of the entire genome of a species is determined.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. the DNA sequence of some portion of the genome of a species is determined. c. the DNA sequence of the entire genome of a group of species is determined. d. a gene family of a species is sequenced.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Genomics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. The process of adding human interpretation to computer-generated genetic comparisons is called a. annotation. b. high-throughput. c. bioinformatics. d. gene family identity.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Genomics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 10. The overarching goal of genomics is to elucidate the _______ of genes and genomes. a. evolution b. current function c. current function and expression patterns d. evolution and current function Answer: d Textbook Reference: Genomics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. The set of genes that encode for vertebrate globin proteins can be termed a a. genotype. b. gene family. c. genome. d. proteome.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Genomics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. Which observation resulted from the sea urchin gene family analysis? a. Genes that code for gap-junction proteins are present. b. Genes that code for the enzymatic synthesis of adrenaline are present. c. Genes that code for cytochrome P450 detoxification enzymes are unusually numerous. d. Genes that code for skeleton mineralization are very similar to those found in vertebrates.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Genomics Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 13. Which sequence of analysis represents the top-down order of study?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. Animal function → tissue-specific proteins → tissue function → genes b. Genes → tissue function → tissue-specific proteins → animal function c. Animal function → tissue function → tissue-specific proteins → genes d. Genes → tissue-specific proteins → tissue function → animal function Answer: c Textbook Reference: Top-down versus Bottom-up Approaches to the Study of Physiology Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 14. A comparison of the proteins produced in an animal’s muscle tissue before and after exercise is an example of a. transcription cDNA profiling. b. a top-down study. c. a screening study. d. a postgenomic study.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Screening or Profiling as a Research Strategy Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 15. The study of which genes are being transcribed to make messenger RNA and the rates at which they are transcribed is called a. transcriptomics. b. genomics. c. proteomics. d. mRNA profiling.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 16. In one study, researchers found that after 4‒8 hours after exercise the mRNAs of _______ genes were found to have increased. a. stress-response b. insulin c. mitochondrial enzyme d. myosin ATPase Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 17. Which technique is not used in a standard DNA microarray? a. mRNA extraction b. Hybridization of each mRNA with the DNA spot representing its specific gene c. Fluor-labeled mRNA d. Labeling of DNA by reverse transcription Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 18. An experimental manipulation in which animals come to lack functional copies of a gene is called a. RNA interference. b. a transcription block. c. gene knockout. d. DNA denaturation.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Study of Gene Transcription: Transcriptomics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 19. Which statement regarding proteomics is false? a. It is the study of proteins synthesized by cells and tissues. b. It is a branch of the study of the biochemical phenotype. c. A reason for the study of proteomics is that the proteins coded by many genes are unknown. d. The study of proteomics is based on the assumption that protein concentrations can be correlated to mRNA synthesis.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Proteomics Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 20. The study of all of the organic compounds in cells and tissues other than macromolecules coded by the genome is called a. organomics. b. metabolomics. c. physiomics. d. proteomics.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Metabolomics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 4: Physiological Development and Epigenetics TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. Which statement regarding hooded seals is true? a. Weanlings dive as deep as adults. b. Weanling hooded seals dive as many times per hour as adults do. c. Weanlings have the same dive duration capabilities as adults. d. Weanlings spend 90% of their time underwater just as adults do.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. Which source is the most significant oxygen store during a mammalian dive? a. Lung air b. Blood plasma c. Hemoglobin d. Myoglobin in skeletal muscle Answer: c Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 3. As hooded seals develop from weanlings, the most dramatic increase in their ability to store oxygen during a dive is seen in a. lung air. b. hemoglobin. c. myoglobin. d. blood volume.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4.–6. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

4. Based on the figure, what character is increasing overall as hooded seals develop into adults? a. Mass b. Dive duration c. Oxygen storage d. Carbon dioxide tolerance Answer: c Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 5. According to the figure, which statement regarding the lung data collected about hooded seals is the most accurate? a. The amount of O2 storage in the lung decreases during development. b. The amount of O2 storage per kg of body mass changes the least during development. c. Lung mass does not increase during development. d. Lung volume does not change during development.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 6. The y axis in the figure refers to which unit of measurement? a. Grams b. Liters c. mL O2 d. mL O2/kg Answer: d Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 7. Which statement regarding developing hooded seals is false? a. Increased body size accounts for the majority of the increase in oxygen storage.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. Oxygen storage is twice as great per unit body weight in an adult compared to a weanling. c. The concentration of hemoglobin increases during development. d. In the course of development muscles more than triple their myoglobin concentration.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 8.–9. Refer to the table below.

8. According to the table, which measurement changes most dramatically from weanling hooded seals to adults? a. Duration of most dives b. Longest dives c. Depth of most dives d. Deepest dives Answer: c Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 9. According to the table, which adult measurement has changed the least from the weanling measurement? a. Durations of most dives b. Longest dives c. Depths of most dives d. Deepest dives Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

10. The functions and processes occurring at all of the successive stages of individual ontogeny, as well as their mechanisms, are called a. developmental plasticity. b. phenotypic plasticity. c. developmental physiology. d. epigenetics.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 11.–12. Refer to the figure below.

11. According to the figure, which organ(s) develop(s) the most quickly? a. Human brain b. Rat reproductive organs c. Rat brain d. Human reproductive organs Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 12. According to the figure, which organ(s) develop(s) the most slowly? a. Rat reproductive organs b. Rat brain c. Human brain d. Human reproductive organs Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 13. The human _______ has(have) attained its(their) fully grown size by the time a person is 7 years of age. a. brain b. lungs c. liver d. gonads Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14. A 5-year-old human child typically devotes 50% of his or her total body metabolism to a. skeletal muscle. b. thermoregulation. c. the brain. d. sodium‒potassium pumps.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 15. Indigo buntings are able to determine which direction is north during for their first migration a. because of innate knowledge. b. by following their parents. c. by using the sun as a compass. d. by observing star movements.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 16. The physiological regulation of body temperature is called

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. endothermy. b. homeothermy. c. ectothermy. d. poikilothermy.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 17. In terms of homeothermy, newborn mammals _______ adult mammals. a. are less capable than b. are more capable than c. as capable as d. It varies depending on the mammal species.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 18.–21. Refer to the figures below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

18. What physiological concept is being shown by the data in the figures? a. Homeothermy b. The development of thermoregulation c. The ontogeny of metabolic rate d. Insulation Answer: b © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 19. What contributes most significantly to the data shown in figure II? a. An increase in brown fat b. An increase in the adipose layer under the skin c. An increase in the thickness of the epidermis d. The development of fur Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 20. The patterns in figures _______ and _______ are fundamental drivers of the pattern observed in figure _______. a. III, IV, II b. I, III, IV c. I, II, III d. II, IV, I Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 21. Considering the values of all panels of a mouse at 15°C on day 17 of development, which panel would represent the greatest difference when considering an adult whitefooted mouse? a. Panel I b. Panel II c. Panel III d. Panel IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 22.–23. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

22. According to the figure, which enzyme(s) is(are) upregulated during the fetal stage of the rat? a. Glycogen synthetase b. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase c. Glycogen synthetase and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase d. Glucokinase and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 23. According to the data in the figure, when is the rat’s blood glucose regulation fully functional? a. At birth b. Within a week following birth c. By day 20 d. After day 24 Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 24. In an 8-day-old killifish, the major site of osmoregulation is the a. gills. b. egg membrane. c. skin. d. yolk sac membrane. © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 25. In the killifish, the _______ are responsible for removing chloride from the body. a. yolk sac cells b. gills c. chloride cells d. skin cells Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 26. Researchers can study the developmental distribution of chloride transport in the killifish by a. labeling Na+-K+-ATPase with an antibody that glows green. b. exposing killifish to different concentrations of chloride during development and measuring chloride flux. c. labeling the membrane of the chloride cells with a fluorescent dye. d. using a microarray to measure the expression of chloride cells in different tissues.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 27.–28. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

27. The figure shows measurements of a. the onset of thermoregulation. b. organ development. c. gene transcription. d. enzyme upregulation.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 28. If additional data were added to the figure, the developmental trajectory would show a. an overall increase. b. an overall decrease. c. a steady level or an overall increase. d. a steady level, an overall increase, or an overall decrease.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 29. The ability of an animal (with a fixed genotype) to express two or more genetically controlled phenotypes is called a. phenotypic plasticity. b. epigenetics. c. genotypic plasticity. d. genomic imprinting.

Answer: a © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 30.–33. Refer to the figure below.

30. The data in the figure demonstrate the phenomenon of a. phenotypic plasticity. b. genotype by environment interaction. c. epigenetics. d. genomic imprinting.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 31. Which of the following populations in the figure are from the twentieth century? a. Population I b. Population II c. Population III d. Populations I and II Answer: a Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 32. In the figure, one of the lines tracks the height in a population of medieval children.

These measurements were derived a. from historical records. b. from comparative morphology of skull sizes. c. by assembling skeletons and measuring height. d. from calculations of long bone lengths. © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 33. If the heights of aristocratic children living during the 1830s were charted, this line would fall _______ on the figure. a. above line I b. a little below line I c. between lines II and III d. below line III Answer: b Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 34. Which observation would not be considered an example of phenotypic plasticity? a. Poor nutrition during development can delay menarche. b. Snails grow a thicker shell in the presence of predators. c. Butterflies develop darker pigments during the cold season. d. Worker and queen honeybees cooperate in an elaborate control of reproduction.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 35. Blue mussels _______ in response to the presence of crabs. a. grow defensive spines b. grow a thicker shell during development c. close up and move d. increase their shell thickness Answer: b Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 36. What is the likely adaptive advantage in the periwinkle snail’s growing of a thicker shell? a. Protection against intermittent harsh environments b. More effective mate attraction c. Better burrowing capabilities d. Better protection against predation Answer: d Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 37. When dietary protein is inadequate, a rat a. grows up to be deficient in its ability to learn. b. will be stunted in its growth. c. reproduces less frequently than normal.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. can compensate by eating more fats.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 38. The phenomenon in which genetically identical individuals can assume two or more distinct body forms, induced by differences in the environment, is called a. polyphenic development. b. epigenetics. c. phenotypic plasticity. d. seasonal polyphenism.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 39. Seasonal polyphenism in the western white butterfly aids in a. mate attraction. b. predator avoidance. c. thermoregulation. d. seasonal camouflage.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 40. Which characteristic does not appear in the gregarious phenotypes of migratory locusts? a. Presence of wings b. Swarming behavior c. Fasting behavior e. Camouflaged coloration Answer: d Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 41. Modifications of gene expression (with no change in DNA sequence) that are transmitted when genes replicate are called a. epigenetic changes. b. phenotypic plasticity. c. genetic imprinting. d. polyphonic development.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Epigenetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 42. What is altered during an epigenetic modification? a. The intron of the DNA

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. Gene expression c. The gene d. The mRNA Answer: b Textbook Reference: Epigenetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 43. What process is shown in the figure?

a. Epigenetic marking b. Genotypic plasticity c. Histone methylation d. Genomic imprinting Answer: a Textbook Reference: Epigenetics Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 44. Which mechanism is not used for epigenetic marking? a. DNA methylation b. mRNA methylation c. Histone methylation d. Histone phosphorylation Answer: b Textbook Reference: Epigenetics Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 45. Which process describes a mechanism whereby environmental effects are transmitted from one generation to the next? a. Natural selection b. Histone modification © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. Phenotypic plasticity d. Genetic drift Answer: b Textbook Reference: Epigenetics Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 46.–48. Refer to the figure below.

46. The data in the figure show evidence for the existence of a. nutritional deficiencies. b. phenotypic plasticity. c. epigenetic marking. d. similarities in sibling DNA methylation.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Epigenetics Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 47. The data in the figure show that DNA methylation a. correlates with caloric intake. b. does not change during a famine. c. of individuals conceived during a famine was lower than that of siblings conceived during no famine. d. of individuals conceived during a famine was higher than that of siblings conceived during no famine.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Epigenetics Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

48. Children born during the Dutch Hunger Winter had _______ compared to their siblings. a. comparatively more DNA methylation b. comparatively less DNA methylation c. comparatively more DNA expression d. comparatively less DNA expression Answer: b Textbook Reference: Epigenetics Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 49. Which of the following statements about DNA methylation is true? a. It is generally associated with increased gene expression. b. It is generally associated with reduced gene expression. c. It is not generally associated with changes in gene expression. d. It is generally not a heritable trait.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Epigenetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 50. If DNA methylation is blocked early in a developing worker honeybee, it develops into a a. larger worker honeybee. b. male drone honeybee. c. queen honeybee. d. fertile worker honeybee.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Epigenetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

Short Answer 1. What do hooded seals tell us about developmental physiology?

Answer: The study of hooded seals has added to the growing body of literature that supports the concept that the physiology of immature animals is always different from that of adults. In young hooded seals, the capacity to store oxygen for diving is limited.

This capacity increases dramatically as the animals age, and it does so independently of an increase in muscle mass. By adulthood, the oxygen that can be stored per gram of tissue has more than doubled, and this allows the adult hooded seal to significantly increase its dive depth and duration.

Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 2. Compare and contrast the growth of the brain and reproductive organs in humans and rats.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: The human brain is unique among mammals in that it attains its full weight comparatively early in development. A rat, by contrast, is fairly typical in that its brain mass increases rapidly to about 80% of its final weight and then tapers off. However, in terms of reproductive organ mass, rats and similar mammals attain full weight very early compared to a development-corrected human scale.

Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 3. Why are white-footed mice not able to survive colder temperatures until around 18 days of development?

Answer: White-footed mice are small, furless, and have a low peak rate of metabolic heat production at birth. This prohibits them from surviving temperatures much colder than 30°C. They must be kept warm in the nest until they grow fur, providing insulation, and increase their rate of metabolic heat production. Neither of these processes are completed until around day 18 of development.

Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. How do early larval killifish osmoregulate if they do not have gills?

Answer: While it is true that fish use their gills to osmoregulate, many of the same ion exchangers that are found on the gill membrane are also found on other membranes during development. For example, in the killifish, chloride cells are found on the yolk sac membrane and skin, well before the gills have begun to develop. As the gills develop, the chloride cells become more concentrated on the gills and less concentrated on the skin.

Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. Discuss the meaning of phenotypic plasticity and provide at least one example from human development.

Answer: Phenotypic plasticity is the ability of a single animal with a fixed genotype to express two or more genetically controlled phenotypes. Phenotypic plasticity is frequently observed during human development. For example, it is well known that a developing human will have a different adult phenotype depending on the environmental rearing conditions. Most notably, if poor nutrition is extensive during human development, the adult phenotype will be stunted no matter what the later nutrition is.

Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. We know the environment can have significant effects on development. Discuss how these effects can be adaptive or pathological. Provide examples of each.

Answer: The example of poor developmental nutrition stunting human adult height is an example of a pathology—the lack of nutrition has constrained development, and being short is not more (or less) advantageous than being tall. Snails will develop thicker shells

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

when they grow in the presence of predators. This response is likely adaptive because the thicker shells provide more protection against predators compared to thinner shells.

Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. What is meant by seasonal polyphenism? Provide an example.

Answer: Seasonal polyphenism is observed in a species in which individuals developing in one season differ in body form from individuals developing in a different season. An example of this is the western white butterfly. In the cool seasons, the darker phenotype that develops aids in absorbing heat from the sun. In the warmer seasons, lighter phenotypes develop and absorb less heat from the sun.

Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. Explain how the burgeoning field of epigenetics is providing a new dimension to the study of the interaction between genes and the environment.

Answer: The phenomenon of epigenetics discredits the old dogma that, in the transmission of hereditary material, genes are isolated from environmental influences.

Epigenetics refers to modifications of gene expression—with no change in DNA sequence—that are transmitted when genes replicate. Rather than thinking of genes or environment as affecting the phenotype of the animal, researchers are now considering how the environment affects gene expression without modifying the actual genetic sequence. In the snail, for example, the presence of predators results in an increased gene expression of the products producing the shell without modifying the DNA. Textbook Reference: Epigenetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Explain two major mechanisms of epigenetic marking.

Answer: Two major mechanisms of epigenetic marking are DNA methylation and covalent modification of histones. DNA methylation involves the attachment of methyl (‒CH3) groups by covalent bonds to cysteine residues in the structure of DNA. Histones are the basic proteins around which DNA is wrapped in the nucleosomes of the chromatin of the cell. Modification can be by methylation, acetylation, phosphorylation, or other covalent binding of modulators.

Textbook Reference: Epigenetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Describe an example of epigenetic control of polyphonic development.

Answer: In bees, the same genotype can have dramatically different phenotypes.

Genetically identical females can either be workers or queens. Workers can become queens during development if they are fed the royal jelly. This manipulates the epigenetic marking to alter size, longevity, and brain function.

Textbook Reference: Epigenetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. Which source contributes to the oxygen stores of the Australian sea lion? a. O2 in the lungs b. O2 attached to blood hemoglobin and muscle myoglobin c. O2 attached to blood hemoglobin and O2 in the lungs d. O2 in the lungs and O2 attached to blood hemoglobin and muscle myoglobin Answer: d Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Which statement regarding oxygen storage ability in Australian sea lions (aged 6 months to adult) is most accurate? a. By the time they have reached adulthood, sea lions have increased their lung capacity per gram 4-fold. b. By the time they have reached adulthood, the amount of O2 that can be stored per gram of tissue has tripled. c. By the time they have reached adulthood, their muscle myoglobin has a significantly higher affinity for O2. d. By the time they have reached adulthood, sea lions more than double their concentration of hemoglobin per unit of blood volume.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 3. _______ is the study of how animals function through all the successive stages of growth. a. Developmental physiology b. Ecology c. Physiology d. Developmental ontogeny Answer: a Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. The physiology of very young animals _______ differs from that of adults. a. always b. sometimes c. seldom d. never Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

5. Compared to rats, humans have a. a brain that uses much less energy per gram. b. faster reproductive development. c. a smaller brain to body ratio as infants. d. faster brain development relative to their reproductive age.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 6. Which statement regarding white-footed mouse development is true? a. At birth, white-footed mice have full thermoregulatory capacity. b. White-footed mice are born with fur. c. Metabolic rate increases dramatically during the nestling period. d. The lowest temperature at which isolated individuals can thermoregulate increases after birth.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 7. During early development in the killifish (8 days old), what is responsible for osmoregulation in seawater? a. Osmolytes b. Kidneys c. Chloride cells d. Gills Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Immature Animals Always Differs from That of Adults Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 8. The ability of an animal (with a fixed genotype) to express two or more genetically controlled phenotypes is called a. developmental physiology. b. phenotypic plasticity. c. genotypic plasticity. d. genotype–environment interaction.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 9. How does the environment affect growth in children? a. Environmental challenges tend to enhance growth. b. Environment has very little effect on growth. c. Environment tends to affect only humans of certain ethnic backgrounds.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. Environmental stresses tend to impair growth.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 10. What is the developmental relationship between marine periwinkle snails and crabs? a. Marine periwinkles develop thicker shells in waters with crabs present. b. Marine periwinkles develop faster and become larger in waters with crabs present. c. Crabs migrate during the development of marine periwinkles. d. Crabs sense developmental byproducts of marine periwinkles and avoid them.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 11. Low _______ diets during postnatal development _______ affect spatial learning in rats. a. caloric; permanently b. protein; permanently c. protein; temporarily d. caloric; temporarily Answer: b Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. _______ is a phenomenon in which genetically identical individuals can assume two or more distinct body forms, induced by differences in the environment. a. Environmental plasticity b. Developmental plasticity c. Polyphenic development e. Phenotypic polyphenism Answer: c Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 13. Which cue is responsible for producing the two phenotypes in the western white butterfly? a. Temperature b. Day length c. Predator density d. Both temperature and day length Answer: d Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 14. What is the proposed advantage to locusts adopting the gregarious phenotype? a. Gregarious locusts have a greater chance of finding mates.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. Gregarious locusts have a greater chance of cryptic avoidance of predators. c. Gregarious locusts have the advantage of safety in numbers. d. The voracious behavior of swarms enables locusts in a swarm to collect large quantities of food.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Phenotypic Plasticity during Development Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 15. Epigenetics refers to a. modifications of gene expression (with changes in DNA sequence) that are transmitted when genes replicate. b. modifications of gene expression (with no change in DNA sequence) that are transmitted when genes replicate. c. modifications in genotype during recombination. d. genetic code changes that alter gene expression in the subsequent generation.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Epigenetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 16. In some forms of epigenetic modification, when a gene is “marked,” its a. expression is permanently altered. b. expression is semi-permanently altered. c. genetic code is permanently modified. d. genetic code is temporarily modified.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Epigenetics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 17. The major mechanism(s) of epigenetic marking is(are) a. DNA methylation. b. covalent modification of histones. c. DNA methylation and base pair substitution. d. DNA methylation and covalent modification of histones.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Epigenetics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 18. The Dutch Hunger Winter study correlated _______ with subsequent _______. a. malnutrition; epigenetic marking b. malnutrition; reduced reproductive output c. hunger; reduced fitness d. malnutrition; lung disease Answer: a Textbook Reference: Epigenetics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

19. When all of the epigenetic marks in a cell or tissue are described together as a set, this global summary of marks is termed the a. epigenome. b. methylome. c. genome. d. mark set.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Epigenetics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 20. Which situation has been shown to demonstrate epigenetic marking? a. Birds learning the North Star. b. Marine molluscs forming thicker shells in the presence of predators. c. Honeybees fed royal jelly to produce a queen. d. Children not reaching their full potential height due to lack of nutrients.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Epigenetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 5: Transport of Solutes and Water TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. The process of _______ arises from the molecular agitation that exists in all systems above absolute zero and the tendency for such agitation to carry more molecules out of regions of relatively high concentration than into these regions. a. facilitated diffusion b. active transport c. diffusion d. osmosis Answer: c Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Outward diffusion of a substance from an animal cell increases the concentration of that substance around the outer surface of the cell. This surface is called the a. boundary layer. b. bulk solution of the cell. c. region of backup diffusion. d. low-concentration region.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. In the Fick diffusion equation, if the units of D are cm2 ∙ s‒1, which of the following best represents the units for J? a. Moles ∙ cm‒2 ∙ s‒1 b. M ∙ cm ∙ s c. Moles ∙ sec‒1 d. M ∙ cm2 ∙ s Answer: a Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 4. When X increases in the Fick diffusion equation, J a. also increases. b. decreases.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. remains the same. d. can increase or decrease.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 5. According to the Fick diffusion equation, which letter represents permeability? a. J b. Permeability is integrated into D c. Permeability is integrated into C1 – C2 d. X Answer: b Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. In the figure, the areas far above and far below the membrane denote

a. a boundary layer. b. the bulk solution of the cell and extracellular fluid. c. capacitance. d. a net negative charge.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

7. Outward diffusion of a substance from an animal cell increases the concentration of that substance around the outer surface of the cell. If this process continues, a. the rate of diffusion will increase. b. the rate of diffusion will decrease. c. the rate of diffusion will remain the same. d. active transport will be initiated.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8.–9. Refer to the figure below.

8. Which diagram in the figure shows a voltage-gated channel? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: a Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 9. In which diagram do the channels open and close based on chemical bonding? a. I b. II c. III d. Both III and IV Answer: d

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 10. If a change in the voltage of a cell membrane causes all the voltage-gated Na+ channels to open, the permeability of the cell membrane to Na+ has been a. inhibited. b. decreased. c. increased. d. unaffected.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. A solution that has a concentration effect on diffusion that is equal but opposite to the electrical effect is said to be a. in a steady state. b. part of the Nernst equation. c. in isoelectric balance. d. in electrochemical equilibrium.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. In the animal cell, the overall concentration effects on Na+ diffusion cause Na+ to _______ the cell. a. move into b. move out of c. remain inside d. remain outside of Answer: a Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 13. In the animal cell, the overall electrical effects on Cl‒ diffusion cause Cl‒ to _______ the cell. a. move into b. remain equal on both sides of c. remain inside d. remain outside of Answer: d Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 14. In the animal cell, the combined concentration and electrical effects on K+ cause K+ to _______ the cell. a. move into

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. leak out of c. remain inside d. remain outside of Answer: b Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 15. Among the ions outside and inside a typical living cell, which ion is furthest from electrochemical equilibrium? a. Cl‒ b. Na+ c. K+ d. Mg2+ Answer: b Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 16.–18. Refer to the figure below.

16. If the membrane shown in the beakers is permeable only to Na+, and the beaker on the left represents the initial state, a. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane, causing a net positive charge on the right side of the membrane. b. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane, causing a net negative charge on the right side of the membrane. c. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane, but there will be no separation of charges. d. there will be no net movement of ions.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

17. If the beaker on the left represents the initial state and the membrane shown in the beakers is permeable to K+ and Na+, a. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane, causing a net positive charge on the right side of the membrane. b. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane, causing a net negative charge on the right side of the membrane. c. there will be no net movement of ions. d. the movement of Na+ will be balanced by the movement of K+; therefore, there will be no net charge difference.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 18. If the figure on the left represents the initial state and the membrane shown in the beakers is permeable only to Na+, which manipulation would cause a net negative charge on the left side of the membrane once the system comes to equilibrium? a. Making the membrane permeable only to water b. Allowing the membrane to become permeable to K+ as well as to Na+ c. Tripling the amount of A2‒ and allowing the membrane to become permeable to A2‒ d. Tripling the amount of A1‒ and allowing the membrane to become permeable to A1‒ Answer: c Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 19. Which statement regarding facilitated diffusion is false? a. Diffusion occurs in the direction of electrochemical equilibrium. b. Solutes move faster with the protein facilitators than they would without them. c. Protein facilitators change conformation with the help of ATP. d. Solutes bind reversibly to the protein facilitators.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Facilitated Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 20. In the intestine, glucose is brought into the cell membrane by a. simple diffusion. b. active transport. c. facilitated diffusion. d. osmosis.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Facilitated Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 21.–22. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

21. What type of process is shown in the figure? a. Simple diffusion b. Facilitated diffusion c. Active transport d. Osmosis Answer: c Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 22. Which substance is mostly likely being pumped at A? a. Na+ b. H+ c. K+ d. ATP Answer: b Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 23. Which process is electrogenic? a. Glucose transport into the small intestine epithelium b. Acid production in the stomach c. The sodium‒potassium pump on a typical cell membrane d. Sodium uptake in the freshwater fish gill Answer: c Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 24.–26. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

24. At what point in the figure is energy being used? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 25. Which ion is moving into the cell via diffusion and where is it located? a. Na+ is diffusing into the cell at I. b. K+ is diffusing into the cell at I. c. K+ is diffusing into the cell at V. d. Na+ is diffusing into the cell at V. Answer: a Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 26. At which location(s) in the figure is K+ moving into or out of the cell? a. I b. II c. Both I and V d. Both II and V Answer: d Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 27. On the cell membrane, the Na+‒ K+ pump transports _______ in for every _______ that it transports out. a. 3 Na+; 2 K+ b. 2 Na+; 3 K+

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. 3 K+; 2 Na+ d. 2 K+; 3 Na+ Answer: d Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 28. The molecular species that binds and unbinds to the Na+‒K+-ATPase, causing sodium and potassium to shuttle through it, is a. PO42‒. b. ATP. c. Na+‒K+-ATPase. d. ADP. Answer: b Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 29. Which statement about the transport of glucose into the gut epithelial cell through the apical membrane is true? a. The glucose transporter on the apical membrane uses ATP-bond energy. b. Glucose diffuses through the apical membrane using its own concentration gradient; therefore, it does not use any energy. c. Na+ uses ATP-bond energy as it brings in glucose at the apical membrane. d. ATP-bond energy is used at the Na+‒K+ pump in setting up the Na+ gradient.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 30.–32. Refer to the figure below.

30. Which letter in the figure represents glucose? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: a

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 31. In the study of glucose transport, which pair of numerals in the figure represents the same ion? a. I and II b. II and III c. III and I d. IV and II Answer: b Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 32. How does glucose cross the basolateral membrane? a. Via cotransport with Na+ at A b. Via facilitated diffusion c. Via active transport at C d. Via simple diffusion Answer: b Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 33. Which y-axis measurement would not be supported by the figure?

a. Total glucose uptake

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. Mass-specific metabolic rate c. Glucose uptake per unit surface area of small intestine d. Glucose uptake per gram of animal weight Answer: a Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 34.–35. Refer to the figure below.

34. Which of the diagrams in the figure represents passive diffusion? a. III b. III and IV c. I and II d. I, II, and IV Answer: a Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 35. Which of the diagrams most accurately represents the mechanism for glucose transport at the epithelium? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: d

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 36. Which of the following statements about ion transport in the typical freshwater fish gill is true? a. Na+ and HCO3‒ are transported into the blood plasma. b. Na+ and Cl‒ are transported into the water. c. H+ and K+ are transported into the water. d. Na+ and Cl‒ are transported into the blood plasma Answer: d Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 37. Which statement regarding channels and transporters is false? a. Multiple molecular forms of channel and transporter proteins are common. b. Channel and transporter proteins have rapid turnover on the plasma membrane. c. Channel and transporter proteins are subject to covalent and noncovalent modulation. d. Channel and transporter proteins can be inserted into or retrieved from the plasma membrane.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Diversity and Modulation of Channels and Transporters Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 38. The number of dissolved entities per unit of volume defines a. colligative properties. b. osmotic pressure. c. osmolarity. d. ultrafiltration.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 39. The osmotic pressure of a solution is _______ to the concentration of dissolved entities. a. approximately proportional b. specific c. exponentially related d. not related Answer: a Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 40. Which measure is not affected by the colligative properties of an aqueous solution? a. Freezing point

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. Boiling point c. Temperature d. Osmotic pressure Answer: c Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 41. A 1-M solution of Na2SO4 has _______ a 1-M solution of glucose. a. one-third the osmolarity of b. twice the osmolarity of c. three times the osmolarity of d. the same osmolarity as Answer: c Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 42. A 1-osmolar solution has _______ dissolved entities per liter. a. 1 kg of b. 1 dalton of c. 1.0 × 1023 independent d. 6.022 × 1023 independent Answer: d Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 43. Most marine invertebrates typically have internal fluids of a. 1 mOsm. b. 1 Osm. c. 10 Osm. d. 300 mOsm. Answer: b Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 44. Most terrestrial vertebrates typically have internal fluids of approximately a. 1 mOsm. b. 1 Osm. c. 10 Osm. d. 300 mOsm. Answer: d Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous Solutions

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 45. A 1-M solution of serum albumin (66,000 daltons) has _______ a 1-M solution of urea (66 daltons). a. one-thousandth the osmolarity of b. twice the osmolarity of c. one thousand times the osmolarity of d. the same osmolarity as Answer: d Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 46.–48. Refer to the figure below. Assume that the two pistons have the same mass and move without friction, the center membrane in the diagram is permeable only to water, and solutes are shaded according to concentration (the darker the shading, the higher the concentration).

46. If the diagram represents the starting condition, what will occur as the solutions achieve equilibrium? a. The left piston will move up. b. The solutes will move but the pistons will not. c. The right piston will move up. d. The solutes will move to the left.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 47. If a piston moved up because of water movement, could it be physically pushed back down to force water through the membrane? a. Yes, the physical pressure would oppose the osmotic pressure. b. No, solutes would oppose the physical pressure. d. Yes, and this would generate more charge on the membrane. e. Yes, but only if the membrane were permeable to the solute. © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 48. The piston on the left would move upward if the membrane were permeable to only _______ and the solution on the left was _______ and the solution on the right was _______. a. Na+; 1 M Na+; 3 M Cl‒ b. Cl‒; 1 M Cl‒; 3 M Na+ c. water and Na+; 2 M Cl‒; 3 M Na+ d. Ca2+; 1 M Na+; 3 M Ca2+ Answer: c Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 49. Which statement regarding osmosis is true? a. Water cannot be described in terms of concentration. b. Osmotic pressure is inversely proportional to temperature. c. Large concentration gradients across cell membranes can generate osmotic pressure. d. Osmosis applies only to the movement of salts.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Osmosis Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 50. The passive transport of water across a membrane is called a. facilitated diffusion. b. diffusion. c. osmosis. d. osmotic pressure.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Osmosis Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 51. When two solutions exchange water by osmosis, water always moves a. from the solution with the lower osmotic pressure to the one with the higher osmotic pressure. b. from the solution with the higher osmotic pressure to the one with the lower osmotic pressure. c. via facilitated diffusion. d. from the lowest water concentration to the highest water concentration.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Osmosis Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

52. If you were to drop a mammalian red blood cell into a 10 mOsm solution, the red cell would _______ in this _______ solution. a. shrivel; hyposmotic b. swell and burst; hyposmotic c. swell and burst; hyperosmotic d. shrivel; hyperosmotic Answer: b Textbook Reference: Osmosis Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

Short Answer 1. Discuss how a boundary layer forms outside of a cell and how it can impede further diffusion.

Answer: The outward diffusion of a solute tends to create a boundary layer of elevated solute concentration next to the cell’s surface. This will occur if there is no mechanism to clear the solute from outside the cell surface. If the concentration of this solute builds up around the outside of the cell, it will effect a decrease in the rate of diffusion because diffusion is proportional to the concentration difference, which is reduced by the accumulating solute. In addition, the distance between the low external concentration and the high internal concentration is increased by the presence of the boundary layer, and the rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to diffusion distance.

Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. The inside of a typical animal cell is negatively charged. Therefore, it makes sense that Na+ diffuses into the cell if there are channels that allow it to do so. Considering K+ has the same charge as Na+, why will it diffuse out of the cell if there are channels that allow it to do so?

Answer: K+ would tend to diffuse inward if the movement of ions were based solely on charge. However, the concentration of K+ in the cell is so high that the concentration gradient overrides the electrical gradient. If given the opportunity, K+ will leak out of the cell due to the concentration gradient.

Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. Discuss the electrochemical equilibrium of Cl‒ across a typical animal cell.

Answer: Cl‒ will tend to move into the cell based on concentration, as it is more highly concentrated outside the cell than inside. However, since the inside of the cell is negatively charged, this charge will tend to repel the Cl‒ ion. Overall, the electrochemical equilibrium of Cl‒ is generally equal on both sides of the cell, meaning that it tends to diffuse neither in nor out.

Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

4. In what way does facilitated diffusion resemble simple diffusion as well as active transport?

Answer: Facilitated diffusion resembles simple diffusion in that energy is not being put into this activity and the molecules are moving from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration. However, even though facilitated diffusion does not use energy, it resembles active transport in that the molecules that are moving across the membrane actually bind to a membrane protein to facilitate the movement.

Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Facilitated Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 5. Briefly describe how the Na+‒K+-ATPase operates.

Answer: The resting Na+‒K+ pump has a high affinity on the intracellular side for Na+.

ATP is hydrolyzed, and this phosphorylates the protein. As Na+ shuttles through the protein, the ATP hydrolysis drives the opening of the channel to the extracellular side and reduces the affinity for Na+ while increasing the affinity for K+. ATP binds to a regulatory site, stimulating the half-channel and opening it to the extracellular side. The binding of K+ and ATP stimulates the dephosphorylation of the protein. This lowers the affinity for K+ and raises the affinity for Na+. It also induces the opening of the halfchannel to the intracellular fluid, and the process begins again.

Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. Why is glucose transport through the apical membrane considered secondary active transport?

Answer: Glucose transport across the epithelial membrane is called secondary active transport because it uses energy only secondarily, not directly. The actual transport of glucose across the epithelial membrane involves cotransport with Na+. The process uses the large gradient of Na+ to bring glucose into the cell against its concentration gradient.

Energy is used, however, by the Na+‒K+ pump to create the large Na+ gradient.

Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. What is meant by the “whole-epithelium” view of active ion transport? Provide an example.

Answer: Scientists who study transport through epithelia know that active transport occurs, but they do not know the exact mechanisms of transport. The simple wholeepithelium view regards the epithelium as a black box, meaning that it does not regard the apical and basolateral surfaces as two separate entities. For example, even in regard to the freshwater gill, the whole-epithelium view of the mechanisms for bringing Na+ and Cl‒ into the fish is that they are active but separate mechanisms.

Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. Describe four ways in which channel and transporter proteins can be regulated.

Answer: Channel and transporter proteins can be modulated in a variety of ways: (1) channel and transporter proteins can have multiple molecular forms; (2) gene expression

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

can control the production of channel and transporter proteins; (3) covalent and noncovalent modulation can control the activation or inhibition of channel proteins or transporters; and (4) the cell can insert and retrieve channels and transporter proteins to increase or decrease their function.

Textbook Reference: Diversity and Modulation of Channels and Transporters Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Support or refute the following statement, and provide evidence for your Answer: “All 1-M solutions have the same osmotic pressure.”

Answer: All 1-M solutions do not have the same osmolarity, and if they do not, they cannot have the same osmotic pressure. Osmolarity relates to the number of independent dissolved entities per liter of solution. A 1-M glucose solution will form 6.022 × 1023 dissolved entities. However a 1-M solution of NaCl will dissociate into two entities per molecule because ions are formed. As a result, a 1-M solution of NaCl will have twice the osmolarity of a 1-M solution of glucose.

Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. How can hydrostatic pressure develop from osmotic pressure?

Answer: An isolated solution does not exert hydrostatic pressure. However, if two solutions of differing osmotic pressure are separated by a water-permeable membrane, and the solution of higher osmotic pressure is contained in some way that limits its freedom to expand, then osmosis will create an elevated hydrostatic pressure.

Textbook Reference: Osmosis Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. In the Fick equation, J measures a. the total diffusion. b. the rate of diffusion. c. the net rate of diffusion. d. concentration.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. Which of the following is not a variable in the Fick equation? a. Distance separating regions of high and low concentration b. Concentration difference c. Diffusion coefficient d. Charge Answer: d

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 3. According to the Fick equation, what happens to J when X (the distance between the two concentrations) is increased? a. The net rate of diffusion decreases b. The concentration increases c. The net rate of diffusion increases d. The diffusion coefficient increases Answer: a Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 4. Boundary layers tend to a. increase the net rate of diffusion. b. decrease the net rate of diffusion. c. affect permeability only. d. increase the local rate of diffusion but not the net rate of diffusion.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. Electrical charges on molecules _______ diffusion across a membrane. a. play a large role in b. play an insignificant role in c. accelerate d. inhibit Answer: a Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. Which of the following is not a type of gated channel? a. Voltage-gated b. Phosphorylation-gated c. Ion-gated d. Ligand-gated Answer: c Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 7. In a typical animal cell, K+ tends to leak a. into the cell due to its electrical gradient. b. into the cell due to its concentration gradient. c. out of the cell due to its electrical gradient. d. out of the cell due to its concentration gradient.

Answer: d

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. A membrane that is permeable to only Na+ separates two solutions. The initial solutions are a 1-M solution of K+ on the left side of the membrane and a 1-M solution of Na+ on the right side. What will occur? a. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane, causing a net positive charge on the right side. b. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane, causing a net negative charge on the right side. c. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane, but there will be no separation of charges. d. The movement of Na+ will be balanced out by the movement of K+; therefore, there will be no net charge difference.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 9. A membrane that is permeable to Na+ and K+ separates two solutions. The initial solutions are a 1-M solution of K+ on the left side of the membrane and a 1 M solution of Na+ on the right side. What will occur? a. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane, causing a net positive charge on the right side. b. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane, causing a net negative charge on the right side. c. Na+ will diffuse to the left side of the membrane and K+ will not diffuse; however, there will be no separation of charges. d. The movement of Na+ will be balanced out by the movement of K+; therefore, there will be no net charge difference.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Simple Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 10. Which statement about facilitated diffusion is true? a. It always occurs in the direction of electrochemical equilibrium. b. It is a form of active transport. c. Energy is used by the proteins in the transport process. d. Solutes transported by this mechanism move across membranes much more slowly than they would if they did not associate with transporter proteins.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Passive Solute Transport by Facilitated Diffusion Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 11. The proton pump in the stomach is an example of a(n) _______ pump. a. electroneutral b. electrogenic

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. glucose-mediated d. facilitated Answer: a Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. Na+‒K+-ATPase pumps _______ the cell while _______ the cell. a. 2 Na+ out of; pumping 3 K+ into b. 3 Na+ into; pumping 2 K+ out of c. 3 Na+ out of; pumping 2 K+ into d. 2 Na+ into; pumping 3 K+ out of Answer: c Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 13. Which is the best description of the immediate process by which glucose is transported across the epithelial membrane of the small intestine? a. Active transport using Na+ b. Cotransport with K+ c. Active transport using ATP d. Cotransport with Na+ Answer: d Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 14. According to the whole-epithelium view of the gill, how does Cl‒ enter the gill membrane of a freshwater teleost fish? a. Passive countertransport with HCO3‒ b. Passive cotransport with Na+ c. Active countertransport with HCO3‒ d. Active cotransport with HCO3‒ Answer: c Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 15. Energy is used by _______ when bringing glucose into the intestinal epithelial cell. a. Na+‒K+-ATPase b. the Na+-glucose cotransporter c. Na+‒H+-ATPase d. the K+-glucose cotransporter Answer: a Textbook Reference: Active Transport Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 16. Which of the following is not a probable method of modulating channel or transporter function?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. The existence of multiple molecular forms of the same channel or transporter b. Control of the tissue-level expression of channels or transporters by gene expression c. Blocking or permanent disabling of channels or transporters by ligands d. Insertion or removal of channels or transporters from the plasma membrane Answer: c Textbook Reference: Diversity and Modulation of Channels and Transporters Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 17. The colligative properties of an aqueous solution are the properties that depend on the a. concentration of non-ionic particles dissolved in solution. b. number of dissolved entities per unit volume. c. number of dissolved entities per unit volume as well as their chemical nature. d. concentration of ions dissolved in solution.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 18. A 5 mOsm solution behaves as if it has a. 5 Avogadro’s number of independent dissolved entities per liter. b. 5 M of dissolved nonionic entities. c. 5 mM dissolved nonionic entities. d. 0.005 Avogadro’s number of independent dissolved entities per liter.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Osmotic Pressure and Other Colligative Properties of Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 19. The passive transport of water across a membrane is called a. osmotic pressure. b. osmosis. c. diffusion. d. ultrafiltration.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Osmosis Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 20. The blood plasma of a freshwater teleost fish is _______ relative to the pond water in which it lives. a. isotonic b. isosmotic c. hyposmotic d. hyperosmotic Answer: d Textbook Reference: Osmosis Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 6: Nutrition, Feeding, and Digestion TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. Among Africans, the Masai are unusual in that a. adults are strict carnivores. b. adults and children both produce lactase. c. only adults produce lactase. d. adults do not produce lactase but they can drink milk without gut distress.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Why do animals need to eat? a. Individual molecules deteriorate. b. Chemical-bond energy used in metabolism can be reused. c. Animals are physiologically static systems. d. Cells become damaged and need to be replaced.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. Which body component has the greatest mass in a normal, slender adult human? a. Proteins b. Lipids c. Nucleic acid d. Carbohydrates Answer: a Textbook Reference: Nutrition Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. Suppose a normal, slender adult gains 10 kg of fat. Which body component would weigh the most? a. Proteins b. Lipids c. Nucleic acid d. Body water Answer: d

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Nutrition Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 5. Which substances do not contain nitrogen? a. Essential and nonessential amino acids b. Carbohydrates and lipids c. Lipids and proteins d. Carbohydrates and polypeptides Answer: b Textbook Reference: Nutrition Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 6. Herbivorous animals obtain their nitrogen primarily from a. nitrogen gas. b. nitrates in drinking water. c. ammonium in drinking water. d. proteins in plants they eat.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Nutrition Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 7. In terms of essential nutritional requirements for particular molecules, the most exacting requirements are for _______ and the least exacting are for _______. a. proteins; carbohydrates b. proteins; lipids c. carbohydrates; lipids d. carbohydrates; proteins Answer: a Textbook Reference: Nutrition Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 8. A nonessential amino acid is an amino acid that a. is stored for future use in building proteins. b. can be synthesized by the animal. c. is deaminated and used in other biochemical pathways. d. can be used to synthesize essential amino acids.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Nutrition Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 9. In children, there are nine essential amino acids but in adults there are only eight. What accounts for this? a. Adults can synthesize enough of one amino acid that children cannot. b. Children store one essential amino acid that they later use as adults. c. Adults lose the ability to synthesize one amino acid that children can synthesize. d. Adults have an amino acid transporter that children lack.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Nutrition Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 10. Lipids are important for all of the following except a. reducing the permeability of the integument to water. b. storing water. c. forming cellular membranes. d. serving as hormones (for example, steroid lipids).

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Nutrition Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. Which organic compound is the most abundant among all animals in the biosphere? a. Glucose b. Glycogen c. Chitin d. Cellulose Answer: c Textbook Reference: Nutrition Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 12. The carbohydrates _______ are likely to be more important in insects than in mammals. a. trehalose and glycogen b. trehalose and chitin c. glucose and glycogen d. trehalose and fructose Answer: b Textbook Reference: Nutrition Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 13. Organic chemists and biochemists often classify molecules based on similarities in their chemical composition. For which compound would developing a generalizable “formula” for chemical composition be most difficult? a. Proteins b. Carbohydrates c. Lipids d. Vitamins Answer: d Textbook Reference: Nutrition Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 14. Which vitamin is water-soluble? a. Vitamin B12 b. Vitamin D

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. Vitamin E d. Vitamin K Answer: a Textbook Reference: Nutrition Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 15. Mineral deficiencies are a major problem in some impoverished regions of the world.

Ultimately, mineral deficiencies result from a. soils with insufficient mineral availability. b. diets low in lipids. c. lactose intolerance. d. diets with insufficient protein.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Nutrition Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. One of the minerals that is particularly important for lactating females and their offspring is a. selenium. b. calcium. c. zinc. d. riboflavin.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Nutrition Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 17. Which vitamin is most closely integrated with calcium metabolism? a. Vitamin B12 b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin E d. Vitamin K Answer: b Textbook Reference: Nutrition Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 18. A newborn is having problems with excessive bleeding following a very minor injury. It is therefore suspected that _______ was inadequate following birth. a. Vitamin B12 b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin E d. Vitamin K Answer: d Textbook Reference: Nutrition Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 19. The feeding modes that is most associated with a ruminant is

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. attack of individual prey items. b. suspension feeding. c. association with symbiotic microbes. d. coprophagy Answer: c Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 20. In the study by Mayntz et al., Wolf spiders were fed either a protein-rich or lipid-rich diet of fruit flies (Drosophila) and then tested for their preference by being presented with each diet in sequence. Which statement about the results of the study is true? a. All spiders preferred protein because protein is both uniquely important and uniquely tenuous in animal nutrition (i.e., it is “foremost”). b. All spiders preferred lipid because it has the most energy per gram. c. Spiders on the protein-rich diet ate flies rich in protein and spiders on the lipid-rich diet ate flies rich in lipid. d. Spiders on the protein-rich diet ate flies rich in lipid and spiders on the lipid-rich diet ate flies rich in protein.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 21. The radular teeth of snails are sometimes hardened by the addition of a. calcium and iodine. b. iron and silica. c. iron and folate. d. copper and vitamin K. Answer: b Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 22. Suppose that large nonavian dinosaurs still roamed the earth. If the lowest level of the food chains started with the same amount of energy, dinosaurs at the top of the food chain would receive the most amount of energy from a _______ food chain. a. three-level b. four-level c. five-level d. six-level Answer: a Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 23. Suspension feeding is more common in aquatic environments than in terrestrial environments because a. terrestrial vertebrates are too large to suspension feed. b. terrestrial animals are too selective in their feeding to be suspension feeders.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. terrestrial animals typically feed lower on the food chain than aquatic animals do. d. small suspended food items are abundant in aquatic systems but not in terrestrial systems.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 24. Which animal is not a suspension feeder? a. Blue whale b. Whale shark c. Snail d. Crabeater seal Answer: c Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 25. Suppose you discover the fossilized gill arches from a previously unknown species of fish. The gill arches have long, closely packed gill rakers. This fish most likely obtained its energy from a. eating aquatic plants. b. eating large molluscs. c. autotrophy. d. suspension feeding.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 26. You discover a fossil of an organism that came from a deep marine environment. The fossil has no mouth or gastrointestinal tract, and your colleague thinks that it cannot be that of an animal. Is your colleague correct? a. Yes, because all animals have mouths. b. Yes, because all animals have gastrointestinal tracts. c. Yes, because all animals have both mouths and gastrointestinal tracts. d. No, because some animals lack both mouths and gastrointestinal tracts.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 27. The microbes that live in the guts of animals are collectively known as the a. gut microhome. b. gut microbiome. c. gut lumen. d. gut culture.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

28. The sulfur-oxidizing bacteria of hydrothermal vent communities are a. anaerobic and heterotrophic. b. aerobic and heterotrophic. c. anaerobic and chemoautotrophic. d. aerobic and chemoautotrophic.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 29. The most abundant component of the gut microbiome in humans is(are) a. archaea. b. bacteria. c. viruses. d. prions.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 30. Cellulose is one of the most abundant organic molecules in the biosphere, but most animals lack the enzymes needed to break it down. Nevertheless, some animals have and can digest a diet high in cellulose because a. cellulose provides essential fatty acids. b. their microbial symbionts break it down, allowing them to obtain energy from cellulose indirectly. c. cellulose is a required nutrient for microbial symbionts. d. the only food supply available to them contains large amounts of cellulose.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 31. Which process is not a useful function of microbes in the rumen? a. Breakdown of cellulose b. Synthesis of B vitamins c. Synthesis of essential amino acids d. Water balance Answer: d Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 32. Ruminants obtain energy from cellulose by a. absorbing short-chain fatty acids produced by microbes and digesting microbes that break down the cellulose. b. absorbing proteins produced by microbes and digesting microbes that break down the cellulose.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. absorbing both short-chain fatty acids and nonessential amino acids produced by microbes. d. absorbing both essential and nonessential amino acids produced by microbes.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 33. Which animal would be most likely to survive on a diet high in cellulose and low in nitrogen? a. Sheep b. Horse c. Rabbit d. Koala Answer: a Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 34. The reactor model that is most analogous to the rumen of a cow is the_______; the model that is most analogous to the intestine of a cow is the _______. a. continuous-flow reactor with mixing; continuous-flow reactor without mixing b. continuous-flow reactor without mixing; continuous-flow reactor with mixing c. batch reactor; continuous-flow reactor with mixing d. continuous-flow reactor without mixing; batch reactor Answer: a Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 35. Nutritionally, the consumption of feces (coprophagy) makes more sense for hindgut fermenters than foregut fermenters. Why? a. Nutrients produced by microbes in the hindgut are not absorbed; therefore, coprophagy enables hindgut fermenters to absorb nutrients produced by microbes. b. Microbial symbionts are not activated to produce nutrients unless they have passed through the digestive system at least twice. c. Microbial symbionts are rarely excreted; therefore coprophagy enables hindgut fermenters to increase the population of beneficial microbes. d. The microenvironment in the hindgut is more favorable to microbes compared to the foregut.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 36.–38. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

36. What is the best title for this panel? a. Death rate is altered by diet b. Diet affects activity level c. Balancing protein and lipid intake d. Food selection affects metabolic rate Answer: c Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 37. What is the best label for the y axis? a. Food amount eaten (mg) b. Metabolic rate (J/mg/h) c. Activity (Watts/h) d. Percent protein or lipid Answer: a Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 38. According to the graph, spiders that fed most on protein-rich flies during the 24-hour period before testing a. were more active compared to those fed lipid-rich flies. b. preferred lipid-rich flies over the next 72 h. c. had a body composition higher in protein compared to fat. d. had the highest metabolic rate.

Answer: b

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 39. The posterior “pyloric” stomach chamber of a crustacean often has a lining of bristlelike setae. Collectively, these setae share a functional similarity with the omasum of ruminants, in that both a. prevent larger food particles from passing down the digestive tract. b. participate in the mechanical grinding of food. c. participate in the storing of food. d. are the primary site of nutrient absorption.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 40. Many bats and rodents feed on insects, but humans and rabbits generally do not.

These dietary habits suggest that a. humans and rabbits are strict herbivores. b. many bats and rodents produce cellulase and chitinase enzymes but humans and rabbits do not. c. many bats and rodents produce cellulase enzymes but humans and rabbits do not. d. many bats and rodents produce chitinase enzymes but humans and rabbits do not.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 41. The entry of molecules into the living tissues of an animal from outside the living tissues of an animal is called a. targeted entry. b. absorption. c. intracellular digestion. d. extracellular digestion.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 42. In vertebrates, the principal site of digestion of carbohydrates and lipids is the a. headgut. b. foregut. c. midgut. d. hindgut.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 43. Which substance(s) is(are) secreted in one part of the digestive tract and then reabsorbed downstream?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. Bile salts and sodium b. Proenzymes c. Exopeptidases d. Zymogens Answer: a Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 44. A major difference between vertebrate and insect digestive systems is that a. only vertebrates have a foregut. b. gut motility is a characteristic of vertebrates only. c. the hindgut affects urine composition in insects but not in vertebrates. d. insects lack digestive enzymes and rely solely on endosymbionts.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 45. In crustaceans, the hepatopancreas performs functions very similar to those of the _______ in vertebrates. a. liver b. pancreas c. liver and pancreas d. stomach Answer: c Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 46. In which animal does intracellular digestion play a major role? a. Fish b. Molluscs c. Insects d. Crustaceans Answer: b Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 47. Which substance is associated with extracellular digestion? a. Intraluminal enzymes b. Membrane-associated enzymes c. Intracellular enzymes d. Intraluminal enzymes and membrane-associated enzymes Answer: d Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 48. Which substance is a disaccharidase?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. Amylase b. Lactase c. Sucrose d. Fructase Answer: b Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 49. _______ contain the greatest diversity of chemical bonds that must be broken down during digestion. a. Structural carbohydrates b. Nonstructural carbohydrates c. Proteins d. Lipids Answer: c Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 50. The inactive forms of digestive enzymes are called a. endopeptidases. b. inactivases. c. zymogens. d. bile salts.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 51. Bile salts are important for the effective functioning of a. amylase. b. endopeptidases. c. exopeptidases. d. lipases.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 52. Two transporters are needed for secondary active transport of glucose into a midgut epithelial cell. One transporter is needed to pump _______, and the other is needed to _______. a. Na+; cotransport glucose b. glucose; pump water c. Ca2+; cotransport glucose d. glucose; pump galactose Answer: a Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

53. In humans and many other vertebrates, the midgut contains minute fingerlike projections called _______ that increase the surface area of the gut epithelium. a. villi b. goblet cells c. crypts d. enterocytes Answer: a Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 54. Three polypeptide hormones secreted in the upper midgut are gastric inhibitory polypeptide, a. gastrin, and secretin. b. cholecystokinin, and secretin. c. gastrin, and cholecystokinin. d. secretin, and acetylcholine.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 55. Which substance has stimulatory effects on acid-secreting cells, pepsinogen-secreting cells, and muscle motility in the stomach? a. Secretin b. Cholecystokinin c. Gastrin d. Gastric inhibitory polypeptide Answer: c Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 56.–58. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

56. In which area(s) is sodium transport involved? a. I b. I and II c. II and III d. II and IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 57. In which area(s) is facilitated diffusion of fructose occurring? a. I b. I and II c. I and III d. II and III Answer: c Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 58. In which area(s) is secondary active transport occurring? a. I b. II c. I and III d. IV Answer: b Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 59.–60. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

59. What process is being shown by the figure? a. Fatty acid absorption b. Fatty acid metabolism c. Bile synthesis d. Glycerol cycling Answer: a Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 60. Which label most accurately points to lipoproteins? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 61. Which hormone increases muscle motility of the stomach? a. Gastrin b. Secretin c. Leptin d. Cholecystokinin Answer: a Textbook Reference: Responses to Eating Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

62. Following a large meal, which hormone(s) is downregulated? a. Gastrin b. Ghrelin c. Secretin d. Cholecystokinin Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Control of Hunger and Satiation Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 63. Many “megachiropteran” bats feed on fruit, and many “microchiropteran” bats feed on insects. Compared to “megachiropteran” bats, “microchiropteran” bats probably secrete _______ amylase and _______ pancreatic peptidase. They also probably have a _______ density of sugar transporters and a _______ density of amino acid transporters. a. less; more; lower; lower b. less; more; lower; higher c. more; less; lower; higher d. more; less; higher; lower Answer: b Textbook Reference: Nutritional Physiology in Longer Frames of Time Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 64. In a ruminant animal, the stomach chamber that secretes acid and digestive enzymes is called the a. rumen. b. reticulum. c. abomasum. d. cecum.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering Short Answer 1. Why is phenotypic plasticity important in digestion and absorption by vertebrates?

Answer: It is important in vertebrates because the particular enzymes or absorption transporters expressed by a given animal at a given time may depend on the amounts and types of foods it has recently eaten.

Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 2. Omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids are essential fatty acids. Can eating saturated fatty acids supply these essential nutritional needs? Explain.

Answer: Saturated fatty acids cannot supply these essential nutrients because omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids are unsaturated.

Textbook Reference: Nutrition

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 3. Explain how the chemical structure of the retinol (vitamin A) molecule makes it suitable for inclusion in visual pigments of animals?

Answer: In plants and algae the molecule evolved for photon capture, which makes it “opportunistically” suitable for photon capture in vision.

Textbook Reference: Nutrition Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. Urea is highly soluble in water and readily diffuses across cells, but uric acid is relatively insoluble in water and does not readily diffuse across cell membranes. If ruminants excreted their nitrogenous wastes as uric acid, how might that affect the benefits that symbiotic microbes provide to them?

Answer: It might affect the ability to recycle nitrogen because uric acid could not diffuse across the rumen as urea does.

Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 5. If the Na+–K+-ATPase in the basolateral membrane were blocked, would you predict a larger effect on glucose transport or fructose transport? Why? Answer: The blockage would have a larger effect on the glucose transport because glucose relies on secondary co-transport, while fructose can cross the cell membrane via facilitated diffusion.

Textbook Reference: Digestion and absorption Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 6. Some people have trouble swallowing pills. What might account for this?

Answer: Such difficulty might be caused by an inability to relax the upper esophageal sphincter.

Textbook Reference: Responses to Eating Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 7. In some ways, short-chain fatty acids share similarities with monosaccharides and amino acids. In other ways, they resemble long-chain fatty acids. What characteristic of short-chain fatty acids accounts for these resemblances?

Answer: The relevant characteristic is solubility. Short chain fatty acids are water-soluble like monosaccharides and amino acids, but they are also lipid-soluble like long chain fatty acids.

Textbook Reference: Responses to Eating Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 8. What response to the ingestion of food is shared by Burmese pythons and molluscs such as oysters, muscles, and clams?

Answer: The molluscs rapidly synthesize new cell membranes to meet requirements for phagocytosis and pinocytosis when exposed to food. Pythons substantially increase the mass of their gut epithelium after eating.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Responses to Eating Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 9. Why can the nutritional value of a single food item vary across animals and across time?

Answer: The nutritional value of a single item can vary because animals can upregulate digestive enzymes and absorption transporters when they eat new types of foods.

Animals also differ in the digestive enzymes they possess.

Textbook Reference: Nutritional Physiology in Longer Frames of Time Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 10. Running is an energetically costly activity. If mice that normally run 4 km a day are forced to run 10 km a day, what might happen to their digestive tract?

Answer: The length of their midgut might increase so that they could metabolize more food.

Textbook Reference: Nutritional Physiology in Longer Frames of Time Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. In humans, which organ is responsible for the production of lactase? a. Stomach b. Small intestine c. Pancreas d. Liver Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Five students participate in a new reality TV show. Their only food for a week is bread and milk. The _______ student is most likely to make it through the week without gastrointestinal distress. a. African-American b. Chinese-American c. Italian d. Danish Answer: d Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 3. Proteins are important for all except a. regulating biochemical reactions. b. storing genetic information. c. determining structural properties of tissues.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. transporting oxygen.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Nutrition Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. Saturated fatty acids are generally bad for human health. Based on the standard symbols describing fatty acids, which fatty acid is probably most detrimental? a. 16.0 b. 18.1 c. 18.3 d. 22.6 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Nutrition Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 5. Flying is energetically expensive, and the energetic cost of flying increases with increasing weight. For a bird flying across the Gulf of Mexico, which substance would be the most efficient energy storage compound? a. Proteins b. Carbohydrates c. Lipids d. Essential amino acids Answer: c Textbook Reference: Nutrition Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 6. Which type of chemical compound contains common molecules that many animals cannot digest? a. Proteins b. Carbohydrates c. Lipids d. Fatty acids Answer: b Textbook Reference: Nutrition Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 7. Compared to zebras, wildebeests have an exceptionally blunt muzzle and a wide row of incisors. This makes them more effective than zebras at feeding on a. short grasses. b. shrubs. c. sedges. d. grasshoppers found on grass leaves.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

8. In clupeid fish with specialized gill rakers, as ingested water moves from the mouth toward the throat, the a. gill rakers function like a sieve. b. concentration of food particles increases. c. food particles are concentrated by water flowing in from the gill. d. baleen captures the suspended food.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 9. Coral bleaching refers to a. loss of algal symbionts along with chlorophyll and other algal pigments. b. treatment of corals reefs with bleach to kill parasites. c. conversion of algal symbionts from photosynthesis to chemosynthesis. d. loss of external coral coloration when coral is eaten by reef fish.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. In hydrothermal vent communities, a major source of energy is a. sunlight. b. oxidation of H2S to SO42–. c. calcium carbonate. d. phosphates.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 11. You are asked to identify the gut microbes contributing to the three major enterotypes in humans. Which of the following would be the best way to accomplish this? a. Sequence the proteins from a collective sample of the gut. b. Sequence the DNA from a collective sample of the gut. c. Electron microscopy d. Direct culture of the microbes Answer: b Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 12. The largest stomach chamber of a cow is the a. cecum. b. abomasum. c. omasum. d. rumen.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

13. Without symbioses, _______ can intrinsically produce the enzymes necessary to digest cellulose. a. Some ruminants b. All invertebrates c. Some invertebrates d. All termites Answer: c Textbook Reference: Feeding Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14. In vertebrates, the principal site of absorption is the a. foregut. b. biliary system. c. hindgut. d. midgut.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 15. Which structure plays a crucial role in emulsifying lipids? a. Pancreas b. Foregut c. Midgut d. Biliary system Answer: d Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. Which animal is most different from the others in terms of how food is moved through the digestive system? a. Baleen whales b. Crustacean c. Oyster d. Insects Answer: c Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 17. Suppose an animal is fed a diet in which the only carbohydrate is glycogen. All of the animal’s enzymes for digesting carbohydrates are disaccharidases. What percentage of the glycogen can it digest? a. 0% b. 50% c. 80–90% d. 100%

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 18. Inward diffusion of _______ drives the cotransport of glucose and galactose across the apical membrane of epithelial cells in the vertebrate midgut. a. ATP b. K+ c. Na+ d. H2O Answer: c Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 19. The transport of nutrients across the gut epithelium that relies on metabolically generated electrochemical gradients of inorganic ions is called a. secondary active transport. b. electrochemical drive. c. facilitated diffusion. d. facilitated active transport.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 20. Lipids are solubilized in the gut lumen by a. chylomicrons. b. micelles. c. bile salts. d. GLUT2.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Digestion and Absorption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 7: Energy Metabolism TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. Catabolic processes _______ and anabolic processes _______. a. break down organic molecules to release energy; use energy to build molecules b. use energy to build molecules; break down organic molecules to release energy c. use energy to break down molecules; use energy to build molecules d. use energy to break down all molecules; break down organic molecules Answer: a Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. The statement “If an isolated system undergoes internal change, the direction of change is always toward greater disorder” is a description of a. energy metabolism. b. molecular kinetic energy. c. physiological work. d. the second law of thermodynamics.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Why Animals Need Energy: The Second Law of Thermodynamics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. Which of the following is an example of an isolated system? a. An electrically powered pump circulating hot water through an apartment building b. A lone astronaut in the international space station c. An individual bacterium in an animal’s gastrointestinal tract d. A hypothetical construct in which neither energy nor matter can pass Answer: d Textbook Reference: Why Animals Need Energy: The Second Law of Thermodynamics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Animals need _______ to create and maintain internal organization. a. entropy b. heat c. an open system d. energy Answer: d

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Why Animals Need Energy: The Second Law of Thermodynamics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. Which type of energy cannot be used by animals to do physiological work? a. Chemical energy b. Electrical energy c. Heat (molecular kinetic energy) d. Mechanical energy Answer: c Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 6. Which form of energy is totipotent for animals? a. Electrical energy b. Chemical energy c. Heat (molecular kinetic energy) d. Mechanical energy Answer: b Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 7. In a fully grown animal (i.e., one that is not growing), ingested energy becomes a. fecal chemical energy + absorbed chemical energy. b. heat + chemical energy accumulated in body tissues. c. exported chemical energy + mechanical energy of external work. d. heat + absorbed chemical energy.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 8. “High-grade” energy refers to a. chemical and mechanical energy. b. chemical, electrical, and mechanical energy. c. chemical, electrical, and mechanical energy + heat. d. electrical and mechanical energy plus heat.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 9. An alpine skier rides a ski lift to the top of a mountain and then skis down a ski run. A telemark skier skis up the same mountain and then down the same ski run. Assuming the skiers weigh the same amount, which statement best describes the amount of work they do? a. Both skiers do the same amount of physiological work but the telemark skier does more external work.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. Both skiers do the same amount of external work but the telemark skier does more physiological work. c. Both skiers do the same amount of external work but the alpine skier does more physiological work. d. The telemark skier does much more work going up the mountain but both skiers do about the same amount of work skiing down the mountain.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 10. What is different between the heat resulting from a fire and the heat produced by animals? a. There is no difference. b. Heat from animals results from internal work and heat from a fire comes from external work. c. The heat that animals obtain from food is always less than heat obtained from burning food in a fire. d. Energy from fires always produces heat, but energy use by animals does not always generate heat.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. Suppose you eat five cookies, each of which contains 100 calories. If the same amount of energy in the cookies was used to heat 50,000 g of water, the temperature of the water would increase by a. 0.1°C. b. 1.0°C. c. 10°C. d. 100°C. Answer: c Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 12. A person’s resting heat production is approximately equivalent to that of a _______ incandescent light bulb. a. 15-W b. 50-W c. 100-W d. 300-W Answer: c Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 13. A direct calorimeter measures the rate of a. oxygen consumption.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. carbon dioxide production. c. heat production. d. oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14. Suppose that you use direct calorimetry to monitor a person enclosed in a small room.

During the measurement the person lowers many heavy weights from a desk onto the floor. The heat production you measure will a. slightly underestimate the person’s metabolic rate. b. slightly overestimate the person’s metabolic rate. c. precisely and directly measure the person’s metabolic rate. d. be unrelated to the person’s metabolic rate.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 15. Sprinting is an activity that relies heavily on anaerobic metabolism over short periods of time. From a conceptual perspective, what would be the most accurate way to measure metabolic rate during sprinting? a. Material balance b. O2 consumption c. Direct calorimetry d. Respiratory exchange ratio Answer: c Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 16. Suppose an animal is oxidizing food according to the following reaction: C6H12O6 + 6 O2  6 CO2 + 6 H2O + 2820 kJ/mol. What is the respiratory quotient? a. 1 b. 6 c. 18 d. 2820 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 17. Suppose an animal is oxidizing food according to the following reaction: C16H32O2 + 23 O2  16 CO2 + 6 H2O + 10,042 kJ/mol. What is the respiratory quotient? a. 23/16 b. 16/23 c. 10,042/23 d. 10,042/16 Answer: b

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 18. For which macromolecule is the conversion factor for heat to amount of oxygen consumed furthest from the conversion factor for heat to amount of carbon dioxide produced? a. Carbohydrates b. Lipids c. Proteins d. Nucleic Acids Answer: b Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 19. Which factor is not an advantage of measuring metabolic rate via oxygen consumption? a. Technical ease of measurement b. Small uncertainty of estimates under many conditions c. Exclusion of the energy used in external work d. Exclusion of metabolism by gut microbes Answer: c Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 20. If an animal’s metabolic rate is measured in a respirometer that has a continuous stream of air flowing through it, the type of calorimetry is called _______ and the type of respirometry is called _______. a. open; direct b. open; indirect c. indirect; open d. direct; open Answer: c Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 21. What is the respiratory quotient (RQ value) during the aerobic catabolism of a typical lipid? a. 0.71 b. 0.83 c. 1.00 d. 21.1 J/mL O2 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 22. The increase in the metabolic rate of an animal that results from eating food is called

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. specific dynamic action. b. aerobic metabolism. c. material balance. d. diet induced thermogenesis.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Factors That Affect Metabolic Rates Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 23. The specific dynamic action (SDA) is measured for an animal that eats 100 g of protein. The measurement is repeated a few days later, after the animal has been fed 300 g of protein. According to the usual model of SDA, how will the magnitude of the second SDA compare with the first SDA measurement? a. It will be about the same. b. It will be about three times as much. c. It will be more than three times as much. d. It is not possible to estimate without the RQ. Answer: b Textbook Reference: Factors That Affect Metabolic Rates Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 24. The specific dynamic action (SDA) for an animal is measured in an animal that consumes 100 g of carbohydrate. The measurement is repeated a few days later, after the animal has been fed 200 g of protein. How will the magnitude of the second SDA compare with the first SDA measurement? a. It will be about the same. b. It will be about twice as much. c. It will be more than twice as much. d. It is not possible to estimate without the RQ. Answer: c Textbook Reference: Factors That Affect Metabolic Rates Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 25. Which factor exerts a particularly large effect on metabolic rates? a. Environmental O2 level b. Time of day c. Age d. Environmental temperature Answer: d Textbook Reference: Factors That Affect Metabolic Rates Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 26. In most animals, the largest contributions to SDA occur a. during chewing. b. during digestion. c. during absorption. d. after absorption.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Factors That Affect Metabolic Rates Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 27. A semipermanent increase in metabolic rate in response to repeatedly eating unusually large amounts food is called a. diet-induced thermogenesis. b. the heat increment of feeding. c. fat-stimulated metabolism. d. dietary scaling.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Factors That Affect Metabolic Rates Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 28. Suppose an animal has been deprived of food so long that it is in a postabsorptive state and its physiology is abnormal. Which measure would provide physiologically valid results? a. BMR b. SMR c. SDA d. Rate of heat production Answer: d Textbook Reference: Basal Metabolic Rate and Standard Metabolic Rate Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 29. Specific conditions must apply when either basal or standard metabolic rate is being measured. The animals must be a. measured at standard temperature and pressure. b. fully grown. c. fed a standard diet. d. fasting.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Basal Metabolic Rate and Standard Metabolic Rate Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 30. A 30-g vole eats 175 g of forage per week and a 1900-kg rhino eats 650 kg of forage per week. This demonstrates that a. voles eat more than rhinos. b. the energy needs of the two species are not proportional to body size. c. the rhino has a higher SDA as a percentage of ingested energy. d. the vole has a lower digestive efficiency than a rhino.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

31. The term “weight-specific metabolic rate” refers to a. whole-animal metabolic rate at a specific body weight. b. whole-animal metabolic rate divided by body weight. c. the change in metabolic rate with body weight. d. whole-animal metabolic rate multiplied by mass.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 32. Suppose that you compare the amount of food needed by four groups of lizards, each of which has an MR that is expected for its body size. There are 10 lizards weighing 10 g each, 5 lizards weighing 20 g each, 2 lizards weighing 50 g each, and a single 100-g lizard. Assuming equivalent digestions, similar food, and so on, which lizard group requires the most food? a. The 10-g lizard group b. The 20-g lizard group d. The 100-g lizard e. All lizard groups require the same amount of food.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 33. In which case would the equation M =aWb not be considered allometric? a. a = 1 and b < 1 b. a = 1 and b > 1 c. a = 1 and b equals any value d. b = 1 and a equals any value Answer: d Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 34. Suppose that a study reports the allometric equation relating whole-animal metabolic rate to body weight for a new group of organisms. Based on existing data for other groups, which value would you predict for b? a. 0.5 b. 0.7 c. 1 d. 12 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

35. Suppose the value of b for the allometric equation for maximal metabolic rate (MMR) and body weight is 0.87. The exponent for the equation relating the mass-specific MMR to body weight would be a. ‒0.87. b. 0.13. c. ‒0.13. d. (0.87)2.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 36. Suppose that W (weight) for groups of big and little eaters has been measured in grams. Daily food consumption of big eaters is described by the allometric equation: food (g/day) = 5 W0.67. Daily food consumption of little eaters is described by the allometric equation: food (g/day) = 0.75 W0.67. Each day, a 1-g big eater will need _______ more food than a 1-g little eater. a. (4.25)–0.33 g b. (4.25)0.67 g c. 4.25 g d. no Answer: c Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 37. Assume that the standard allometric equation (M = aWb) applies to a given species.

Weight-specific metabolic rate will not depend on weight when a. b < 0. b. b > 1. c. b = 1. d. a = 1.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 38. Suppose that you want to plot metabolic data for animals ranging in weight from 2 g to 10,000,000 g. A log‒log plot would be useful because a. data > 1,000,000 g or < 1 g cannot be plotted on other kinds of graphs. b. a log‒log plot transforms an allometric equation into a curve. c. a log‒log plot puts all animals (e.g., birds and frogs) on the same trend line. d. with a log‒log plot, a wide range of body weights can easily be plotted on the same graph.

Answer: d

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 39. You measure the metabolic rate of a group of poikilotherms that has never been studied before. Compared to the relationship between metabolic rate and weight for birds, the value of a for the new group is likely to be _______ and the value of b is likely to be _______. a. about the same; lower b. lower; higher c. lower; lower d. lower; about the same Answer: d Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 40. Suppose the relationship between resting heart rate (RHR, in beats/min) and body weight (W, in grams) is: RHR = aW ‒0.23. What can be deduced from this relationship? a. There is no systematic relationship between heart rate and weight, but large animals have faster heart rates. b. Heart rate tends to be faster for small animals. c. Heart rate tends to be exponentially slower for animals weighing 23 g, 230 g, 2300 g, and so on. d. Heart rate tends to be faster for larger animals.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 41. Larger mammals need more oxygen than smaller mammals, but they need less oxygen per gram of body weight. Smaller mammals meet their need for more oxygen with a _______ mass-specific heart size and a _______ heart rate. a. bigger; faster b. smaller; faster c. similar; faster d. bigger; slower Answer: c Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 42. In order to measure the maximal aerobic metabolic rate of an animal, researchers commonly induce it by exercise. In vertebrates, a useful rule of thumb is that the maximal aerobic metabolic rate is about _______ times the resting metabolic rate. a. 2

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. 3 c. 10 d. 50 Answer: c Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 43. Small mammals need more O2 per gram of body weight than large mammals do.

Compared to large mammals, small mammals have _______ lungs and breathe _______ times per minute. a. bigger; more b. smaller; more c. similar-sized; more d. smaller; fewer Answer: b Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 44. Suppose that the body‒surface area of mammals was proportional to weight 5/6.

Following the other lines of reasoning associated with Rubner’s surface “law,” what would be the predicted relationship between metabolic rate and weight? a. M = aW0.5 b. M = aW2/3 c. M = aW5/6 d. M = aW(2/3*5/6) = aW (5/9) Answer: c Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 45. Rubner’s surface “law” cannot be applied to fish and crabs because a. these animals do not elevate their body temperatures above those of the environment. b. these animals are too small for it to be applicable. c. these animals do not have four limbs. d. it can be applied only to mammals.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 46. The exponent for the relationship between metabolic rate and weight a. varies across different animals but is commonly around 0.5. b. varies across different animals but is commonly around 0.7. c. is two-thirds.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. is three-fourths.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 47. Attempts to explain the mechanistic basis for the allometric scaling of metabolic rate with size have focused mostly on the a. skeletal muscles. b. gastrointestinal tract. c. lungs. d. circulatory system.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 48.–51. Refer to the figure below.

48. Which animal consumes the most oxygen per unit time? a. Pygmy mouse b. Wood rat c. Gray squirrel d. Desert cottontail Answer: d

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 49. Where on the graph would you plot a wood frog? a. About half way down directly below the pygmy mouse data point b. Close to the x axis in the 0- to 100-gram weight range c. Very close to the wood rat data point d. About twice as high as the white-footed mouse data point Answer: b Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 50. What would be the best label for the y axis? a. Rate of oxygen consumption (ml O2/h) b. Weight-specific metabolic rate (J/g•h) c. Rate of oxygen consumption (ml O2/g•h) d. Weight-specific metabolic rate (J/h) Answer: b Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 51. Based on the graph, change the scale of both axes and change the y axis units to be non-mass-specific. What is the best description of the line that fits the replotted data? a. A straight line that begins low on the y axis and increases moving along the x axis b. A straight line that begins high on the y axis and decreases moving along the x axis c. Very similar shape to the plot above with different units on the y axis d. An exponential curve that begins low on the y axis and increases moving along the x axis Answer: a Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 52. Humans can digest and absorb approximately _______% of their energy in cellulose. a. 0 b. 25 c. 50 d. 75 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Energetics of Food and Growth Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 53. Compared to gross growth efficiency, energy absorption efficiency

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. must be lower. b. must be higher. c. can be lower but does not have to be. d. can be higher but does not have to be.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Energetics of Food and Growth Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 54. Compared to net growth efficiency, gross growth efficiency a. must be lower. b. must be higher. c. can be lower but does not have to be. d. can be higher but does not have to be.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Energetics of Food and Growth Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing Short Answer 1. As part of an exercise program, a person holds a heavy weight above the ground for 10 minutes without moving the weight. Is the person doing work?

Answer: The person is not doing mechanical (external) work because the weight is not moving, but the person is doing physiological work.

Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 2. Do microorganisms produce heat?

Answer: Yes; like all animals, microorganisms produce heat because transformations of high-grade energy always produce heat.

Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 3. Suppose you use direct calorimetry to measure heat production by a person picking textbooks out of a box on the floor and stacking them onto a bookshelf. Is the measure of heat production an accurate indicator of the person’s metabolic rate? Why or why not?

Answer: No. To measure the person’s metabolic rate accurately, you would need to account for the potential energy change due to moving the books higher in Earth’s gravitational field.

Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 4. The doubly labeled water (DLW) procedure entails injecting animals with water that has labeled hydrogen and labeled oxygen atoms. In a complex way, the DLW method makes it possible to estimate the rate of CO2 production. What kind of calorimetry is this?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: This is indirect calorimetry because it is a measurement of CO2 production rather than a direct measurement of heat (energy).

Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. Suppose you use indirect calorimetry to estimate an animal’s metabolic rate and you do not know what foodstuff the animal is oxidizing. Is it better to estimate energy use from O2 or CO2? Why? Answer: It is better to estimate energy use from O2 because the conversion factors for translating O2 consumption into energy are less variable for O2 than the comparable conversion factors are for CO2 production.

Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 6. In the equation M =aWb, a and b are constants. Why, then, do the values of a and b vary across different groups of animals or even with different samples from a related group of animals?

Answer: The values of a and b depend on the particular data being used. They are constant for a particular data set but they are not universal constants that apply to all data sets.

Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. In English, the idiomatic expression “He eats like a horse” suggests that the person eats a lot. The plot of metabolic rate versus body weight for carnivorous mammals depicts the metabolic rate of the least weasel as higher than that of other carnivorous mammals of the same weight. What would the phrase “He eats like a least weasel” mean?

Answer: The person eats a lot for his size (because he has a higher metabolic rate than that predicted for other animals of the same size).

Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 8. Suppose you are a livestock manager tasked with maintaining or increasing the growth efficiency of animals that normally have low levels of physical activity. What would be the likely result if all animals were put on a regimen of vigorous physical exercise?

Answer: More energy would be used for maintenance (activity), so less would be left for the growth of new tissue. Consequently, growth efficiency would be reduced.

Textbook Reference: Energetics of Food and Growth Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 9. Suppose you breed and market fish sold for food and your greatest expense is the cost of the food. Why would it make sense to harvest animals either as soon as they reach adult size or before?

Answer: Growth efficiency declines with age.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Energetics of Food and Growth Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Why is thinking hard not an effective way to lose weight?

Answer: The increase in metabolic rate due to hard mental effort is too small to help with a dieting program.

Textbook Reference: Postscript: The Energy Cost of Mental Effort Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

ONLNE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. Which of the following forms of energy can be used to do mechanical work in a machine but cannot be used to do physiological work in an animal? a. Chemical-bond energy b. Electrical energy c. Mechanical energy d. Heat Answer: d Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 2. While riding a stationary bicycle, the maximum efficiency of converting chemical bond energy to external work is about a. 5%. b. 10%. c. 30%. d. 75%.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. Animals use absorbed chemical energy for a. exported chemical energy, fecal energy, heat, and mechanical energy of external work. b. exported chemical energy and mechanical energy of external work only. c. heat and mechanical energy of external work only. d. exported chemical energy, heat, and mechanical energy of external work.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Consider a lactating animal that eats three times as much food as one that is not lactating. The lactating animal does not grow, deposit fat, or markedly increase her metabolic rate. The extra ingested energy was a. saved, by reduced physical activity.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. exported, in the form of milk. c. lost by the animal’s increased surface area. d. turned to catabolized lipids for energy.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Fundamentals of Animal Energetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. Imagine your physiology class has 100 students. It is winter and the heat has failed in the classroom, but you are not worried because 100 sitting students produce heat at the rate of about a. 10 W. b. 1000 W. c. 10 kW. d. 100 kW. Answer: c Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 6. During vigorous exercise at high altitude, which substrate would be best for an animal to use if it needed to get the most energy production per unit of O2? a. Carbohydrate b. Lipid c. Protein e. Carbohydrate and lipid are equal and both are better than protein.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 7. The respiratory exchange ratio is a. CO2 production/O2 consumption per unit of time, measured at the gas exchange organ. b. O2 consumption/CO2 production per unit of time, measured at the gas exchange organ. c. CO2 production/O2 consumption per unit of time, measured at the level of the cells. d. O2 consumption/CO2 production per unit of time, measured at the level of the cells.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 8. With respect to the energy yield from the combustion of a carbohydrate in a bomb calorimeter and the oxidation of the same quantity of carbohydrate in an animal, a. less energy would be measured in the calorimeter. b. more energy would be measured in the calorimeter. c. biochemical inefficiencies in an animal would lead to more heat production and less work. d. the amount of energy measured would be equal in both cases.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 9. _______ is the most common measure of metabolic rate. a. Rate of CO2 production b. Rate of O2 consumption c. Rate of heat production d. Ingested energy minus fecal energy Answer: b Textbook Reference: Metabolic Rate: Meaning and Measurement Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 10. SDA tends to be _______ for meals high in _______. a. lower; lipids b. lower; protein c. higher; lipids d. higher; protein Answer: d Textbook Reference: Factors That Affect Metabolic Rates Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. Suppose you feed a snake a large meal and then monitor the increase in its metabolic rate after eating until the rate returns back to the fasting value. How would you quantify the magnitude of the SDA? a. Measure the metabolic rate exactly 1 hour after the meal b. Measure the highest metabolic rate before the metabolic rate returns to the fasting level c. Measure fasting CO2 production and add O2 consumption after eating d. Measure the cumulative increase in metabolic rate above the fasting level Answer: d Textbook Reference: Factors That Affect Metabolic Rates Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 12. Carbohydrates can be fully oxidized by animals but proteins cannot. Consequently, some of the energy from _______ must always be _______. a. proteins; exported as chemical energy b. carbohydrates; exported as chemical energy c. proteins; used for external work d. carbohydrates; used for external work Answer: a Textbook Reference: Factors that Affect Metabolic Rates Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 13. In homeotherms the resting metabolic rate of a fasting animal is the _______ and in poikilotherms the equivalent term is the _______. a. standard metabolic rate; basal metabolic rate b. basal metabolic rate; standard metabolic rate c. specific dynamic action; calorigenic effect of feeding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. routine metabolic rate; standard metabolic rate Answer: b Textbook Reference: Basal Metabolic Rate and Standard Metabolic Rate Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14. Suppose you are trying to heat a barn using the heat from your livestock. The most total heat would be produced by _______ animal(s) that weigh _______. a. 1000; 1 kg each b. 100; 10 kg each c. 10; 100 kg each d. 2; 504 kg each Answer: a Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 15. Small mammals need more O2 per gram of body weight than large mammals do.

Compared to large mammals, small mammals have_______ mass-specific lung size and breathe _______ times per minute. a. larger; more b. similar; more c. smaller; more d. larger; fewer Answer: b Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. Compared to small mammals, large mammals tend to a. produce more heat per unit of body weight. b. have a larger surface area per unit of body weight. c. lose heat less rapidly per unit of body weight. d. have a smaller volume per unit body weight Answer: c Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 17. One of the first anatomically accurate descriptions of the human circulatory system came from a. Galileo. b. Rembrandt. c. Vesalius. d. Rubner.

Answer: c

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 18. While the exponent for the metabolic rate to body weight relationship was originally the source of some controversy, there is now a. strong agreement that the universal scaling exponent is two-thirds. b. strong agreement that the universal scaling exponent is three-quarters. c. general recognition that no single scaling exponent applies across all animals. d. general recognition that the exponent depends on lung volume.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Metabolic Scaling: The Relation between Metabolic Rate and Body Size Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 19. The common currency of life is a. heat. b. carbon dioxide. c. energy. d. oxygen.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Conclusion: Energy as the Common Currency of Life Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 20. Suppose you eat five tangerines for lunch. On average, the energy from _______ would end up being used by your brain. a. one b. two c. three d. four Answer: a Textbook Reference: Postscript: The Energy Cost of Mental Effort Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 8: Aerobic and Anaerobic Forms of Metabolism TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. Glycolysis occurs in the _______ and generates _______ NADH molecules. a. cytosol; 4 b. cytosol; 2 c. mitochondria; 2 d. mitochondria; 4 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. The enzyme _______ is needed to convert phosphoenolpyruvic acid to pyruvic acid. a. hexokinase b. phosphofructokinase c. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase d. pyruvate kinase Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. The substrate _______ is required for glycolysis to begin. a. pyruvate b. glucose c. acetyl coenzyme A d. NADH2 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. The enzyme _______ is required to convert glucose to glucose-6-phosphate. a. hexokinase b. phosphofructokinase c. pyruvate kinase d. isomerase Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. The reaction that uses _______ as a substrate is an oxidation reaction in glycolysis. a. glucose b. fructose-1,6-diphosphate c. 2-phosphoglyceric acid d. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 6. The substrate needed to initiate the Krebs cycle is a. pyruvate. b. glucose. c. acetyl coenzyme A. d. citrate.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. Which molecule(s) is(are) generated during aerobic metabolism? a. CO2 b. Lactic acid c. CO2 and lactic acid d. CO2 and H2O Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. Which chemical reaction of the Krebs cycle produces FADH2? a. Succinate  fumarate b. Citrate  isocitrate c. Fumarate  malate d. Isocitrate  -ketoglutarate Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 9. Which chemical reaction of the Krebs cycle produces NADH? a. Citrate  isocitrate b. Succinate  fumarate c. Fumarate  malate d. Isocitrate  -ketoglutarate Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

10. Which chemical reaction of the Krebs cycle produces GTP? a. Succinate  fumarate b. Fumarate  malate c. Isocitrate  -ketoglutarate d. Succinyl coenzyme A  succinate Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 11. The specific role of oxygen in the cell is to a. enhance the production of NADH in glycolysis. b. promote oxidation of FADH2. c. act as an energy source for ATP production. d. act as a final electron acceptor.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 12. What effect would consumption of cytochrome c oxidase inhibitor have on an animal? a. The Krebs cycle would accelerate b. The electron transport chain would be halted c. NADH recycling to NAD+ would accelerate d. FADH2 recycling will be directly inhibited Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 13. Which molecule oxidizes FADH2? a. NADH-Q oxidoreductase b. Succinate dehydrogenase c. Cytochrome b-c1 d. Cytochrome oxidase Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14. Which molecule does not participate in proton pumping in the mitochondria? a. NADH-Q oxidoreductase b. Succinate dehydrogenase c. Cytochrome oxidase d. ATP synthase Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

15. The molecule that receives electrons from protein complex I is called a. NADH-Q oxidoreductase. b. ubiquinone. c. cytochrome b-c1. d. cytochrome oxidase.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. If 43 protons pass through the ATP synthase, _______ ATP are produced. a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 43 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 17. If 20 ATP molecules are produced, _______ protons passed through ATP synthase. a. 20 b. 36 c. 46 d. 86 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 18. If a P/O ratio is 1.9, oxidative phosphorylation and electron transport are said to be a. partly coupled. b. uncoupled. c. loosely coupled. d. tightly coupled.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 19. If a cell loses its mitochondria, the net number of ATP molecules that can be produced from one glucose molecule is a. 2. b. 4. c. 21. d. 29.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

20. When a glucose molecule is completely hydrolyzed, _______ NADH2 molecules and _______ FADH2 molecules are produced. a. 2; 10 b. 10; 2 c. 12; 3 d. 3; 12 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 21. Aerobic substrate-level phosphorylation produces a total of _______ ATP molecules per glucose molecule. a. 2 b. 6 c. 29 d. 31 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 22. Which enzyme is used to minimize the effect of reactive oxygen species? a. Catalase b. Phosphofructokinase c. Pyruvate kinase d. Isomerase Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 23. Which enzyme is used to minimize the effect of reactive oxygen species? a. Superoxide dismutase b. cytochrome c oxidase c. succinate dehydrogenase d. coenzyme A Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 24. If the ratio of NAD to NADH2 in a cell is 1 (NAD/NADH2 = 1), the cell is in a. an oxidative state. b. a reduced state. c. redox balance. d. oxygen deficiency.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 25. The rate-limiting factor that determines whether a cell can undergo anaerobic glycolysis is the amount of a. ATP it produces. b. pyruvate available. c. protons available. d. lactate dehydrogenase available.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 26. Blocking lactate dehydrogenase in a cell producing ATP in the absence of oxygen would a. not affect glycolysis. b. halt the ETC that was functioning. c. halt glycolysis. d. allow two ATP molecules to be produced from each glycolysis cycle.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 27. Which statement regarding lactic acid is true? a. It is generated during aerobic conditions. b. It is produced in the mitochondrial matrix. c. It is produced in the presence of oxygen. d. It is an organic molecule.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 28. When pyruvic acid is metabolized, the ratio of ATP to lactic acid produced is a. 2:27. b. 27:2. c. 2:31. d. 31:2.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 29. Which molecule is not generated when phosphagens are used? a. Creatine b. Arginine c. ATP d. ADP Answer: d

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 30. A blocker that inhibits creatine kinase would halt a. glycolysis. b. the citric acid cycle. c. phosphagen production. d. pyruvate oxidation.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 31. Which molecule is abundant in skeletal muscle cells of vertebrates? a. Myoglobin b. Hemoglobin c. Calmodulin d. Arginine Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 32. During the only oxidation reaction in glycolysis, the molecule of primary importance in combining with hydrogen atoms is a. NAD. b. NADH. c. oxygen. d. pyruvate.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 33. Pyruvate enters the Krebs cycle as a. carbon dioxide. b. acetyl coenzyme A. c. lactic acid. d. glucose.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 34. The final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain is a. oxygen. b. NAD. c. glucose. d. water.

Answer: a

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 35. In the mitochondria, ATP is formed by the direct movement of a. electrons. b. protons. c. bicarbonate. d. oxygen.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 36. Excess creatine kinase enhances a. electron transport chain activity. b. glycolysis levels. c. burst exercise performance. d. citric acid cycle productivity.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Comparative Properties of Mechanisms of ATP Production Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 37. Which type of leg muscles do various animals depend on for long distance ground locomotion? a. Slow oxidative, because of their endurance b. Fast glycolytic, because of their intensity c. Slow glycolytic, because of their intensity d. Fast oxidative, because of their endurance Answer: a Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber Types Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 38. In the term “slow oxidative” used to describe muscle fibers, “oxidative” refers to a. the physiology of energy production. b. the fatigability rate. c. motion of the muscle. d. the type of physical activity to be undertaken.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber Types Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 39. In the term “fast glycolytic” used to describe muscle fibers, “fast” refers to a. the physiology of energy production. b. the motion of the muscle. c. low resistance to fatigue.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. the type of physical activity to be undertaken.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber Types Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 40. In the term “fast glycolytic” used to describe muscle fibers, “glycolytic” refers to a. the physiology of energy production. b. the fatigability rate. c. motion of the muscle. d. the type of physical activity to be undertaken.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber Types Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 41. During sustained muscular work in humans, the use of fatty acids as an energy source a. increases. b. decreases. c. does not change. d. increases first and then decreases after 2 hours.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber Types Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 42. Slow oxidative muscle fibers are used during a. jogging. b. speed skating. c. weight lifting. d. sprinting.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber Types Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 43. Fast glycolytic muscle fibers are used during a. walking. b. running. c. weight lifting. d. standing.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber Types Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

44. During a short intense bout of heavy weight lifting in a human, what is the source of the initial supply of ATP? a. Creatine Phosphate (the phosphagen system) b. Anaerobic glycolysis c. Aerobic catabolism using glucose d. Aerobic catabolism using lipids Answer: a Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber Types Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 45. To escape from a predator, a fish most likely uses _______ muscles. a. slow oxidative b. fast glycolytic c. a combination of oxidative and glycolytic d. fast glycolytic first and after few seconds slow oxidative Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during Exercise Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 46. While swimming in a school, a fish is most likely using _______ muscles. a. slow oxidative b. fast glycolytic c. a combination of oxidative and glycolytic d. fast glycolytic first and after few seconds slow oxidative Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during Exercise Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 47. Which of the following would you expect to see in abundance in the muscles of a sprinter? a. Lactate dehydrogenase b. Mitochondria c. Myoglobin d. ETC proteins Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during Exercise Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 48. _______ exercise is the type of exercise in which a weight lifter is lifting the heaviest weight he can handle. a. Submaximal b. Maximal

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. Supramaximal d. Oxygen deficit Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during Exercise Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 49. Which statement about a rabbit and a lizard evading a common predator is true? a. The rabbit would clear lactic acid faster than the lizard. b. The lizard would clear lactic acid faster than the rabbit. c. Both the lizard and the rabbit would clear lactic acid at the same rate. d. Both the lizard and the rabbit would be in oxygen deficiency.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during Exercise Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 50. The enzyme that muscle cells depend on during the oxygen deficit phase is a. NADH-dehydrogenase. b. ATP synthase. c. coenzyme A. d. creatine kinase.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during Exercise Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 51.–55. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

51. According to the figure, which term best describes the y axis? a. Exercise intensity b. Oxygen consumption c. Rate of oxygen demand or supply d. Theoretical oxygen demand Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during Exercise Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 52. Which graph represents “heavy submaximal exercise”? a. I b. II c. III d. II and III Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during Exercise Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 53. According to the figure, the shaded area denoted by the arrow is the a. oxygen deficit. b. hyperoxygenation region. c. postexercise oxygen consumption. d. theoretical Vo2 max.

Answer: a

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during Exercise Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 54. In how many of the graphs does lactic acid accumulate? a. none b. one c. two d. three Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during Exercise Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 55. Where is the maximum oxygen consumption represented on the graphs? a. The horizontal dashed line b. The shaded area at the beginning of the solid line curve c. The shaded area at the end of the solid line curve d. The solid curve line Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during Exercise Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 56. Which statement regarding anoxia is false? a. During anoxia, there is less oxygen available than the tissue demands. b. During anoxia, vertebrates rely on anaerobic catabolism. c. During anoxia, vertebrates generate a large amount of lactic acid. d. During anoxia, vertebrates excrete excess lactic acid.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 57. Which of the following does not occur in mammals in hypoxic situations? a. ATP concentration in brain tissues falls drastically. b. Na+–K+-ATPase pumps ions across the cell membrane to reverse the effects of hypoxia. c. Action potentials cease. d. The release of neurotransmitters is interrupted.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 58. Which animal can survive under completely anaerobic conditions? a. Sea turtle b. Slack-water darter

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. Clam d. Leopard frog Answer: c Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 59. What occurs during anaerobiosis in invertebrates? a. Decreased usage of alanine b. Decreased usage of succinic acid c. Decreased production of ATP d. Decreased buffering mechanisms Answer: c Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 60. When invertebrate anaerobes excrete their anaerobic byproducts, most likely, a. their body fluid will become more acidic. b. their body fluid will become less acidic. c. they will gain organic by-products. d. their body fluid will remain neutral.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 61–63. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

61. According to the figure, what do the dots scattered around line I represent? a. Mean rates of oxygen consumption of different species b. Individual measurements of rate of oxygen consumption in one species c. Death rates d. Individual measurements of oxygen consumption in many species Answer: b Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 62. According to the figure, as the concentration of oxygen in the water drops, the slope of lines I, II, and III change. What does this mean? a. Animals go from becoming oxygen regulators to oxygen conformers. b. Animals become physiologically compromised. c. Animals go from becoming oxygen conformers to oxygen regulators. d. Animals increase their metabolic rate.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 63. The additional lines added to the figure represent data from additional species. Using this additional information, which line represents the species best able to cope with hypoxic water? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: c Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing

Short Answer 1. Glucose undergoes 10 chemical reactions during glycolysis to become pyruvate. Name the reactants, enzymes, and products of two ATP-producing reactions in glycolysis.

Answer: Answers will vary and could include the following: 1,3 diphosphoglycerate to 3 phosphoglycerate. The enzyme used is phosphoglycerate kinase.

Phosphoenol pyruvate to pyruvate. The enzyme used is pyruvate kinase.

Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Glucose undergoes 10 chemical reactions during glycolysis to become pyruvate. Name the reactant, product, and enzyme of one NADH-producing reaction in glycolysis.

Answer: Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 1,3 diphosphoglycerate. The enzyme used is glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. What are the net yields of ATP, NADH, and FADH2 molecules during the breakdown of one glucose molecule under aerobic conditions?

Glycolysis:

___ ATP ___ NADH ___ FADH2

Pyruvate oxidation: ___ ATP ___ NADH ___ FADH2 Citric acid cycle:

___ ATP ___ NADH ___ FADH2

Answer: Glycolysis:

2 ATP 2 NADH 0 FADH2 Pyruvate oxidation: 0 ATP 2 NADH 0 FADH2 Citric Acid Cycle: 2 ATP (0 is acceptable if they are referring to GTP) 6 NADH 2 FADH2 Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 4. Name and state the function(s) of four of the six proteins in the inner mitochondrial membrane that play a role in ATP synthesis.

Answer: Protein complex I/NADH-Q reductase/NADH dehydrogenase accepts protons and electrons from NADH and delivers them to ubiquinone; it also moves protons to the intermembrane space.

Protein complex II/succinate dehydrogenase accepts protons and electrons from FADH2 and delivers them to ubiquinone.

Protein complex III/cytcochrome b-c1 reductase receives electrons from ubiquinone and delivers them to cytochrome c; it also moves protons to the intermembrane space.

Cytochrome c carries electrons from cytochrome oxidase and delivers them to cytochrome reductase.

Protein complex IV/cytochrome oxidase receives electrons from cytochrome c and delivers them to oxygen; it also moves protons to the intermembrane space.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

ATP synthase acts as a proton pathway to move protons from the intermembrane space back to the mitochondria; it uses the chemical energy of the protons to synthesize ATP from ADP. Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. Explain what the fate of pyruvate would be under aerobic conditions and anaerobic conditions in a vertebrate muscle cell. Include the name(s) of the enzyme(s) used.

Answer: Under aerobic conditions, pyruvate undergoes pyruvate oxidation and is converted to acetyl-coA with the help of coenzyme A. Under anaerobic conditions, pyruvate undergoes fermentation and is converted to lactate (or lactic acid) with the help of lactate dehydrogenase.

Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 6. Explain why reactive oxygen species (ROS) can be harmful to cells.

Answer: Reactive oxygen species have a high potential to react with cell lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids. ROS can damage macromolecules upon which health and life depend.

ROS are the primary causative agents of aging and many diseases and muscle fatigue.

Mitochondria routinely generate superoxide, an ROS produced by metabolism, as a byproduct of electron transport. Superoxide and its ROS products can injure mitochondria by reacting in destructive ways with mitochondrial macromolecules.

Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. Briefly describe the antioxidant mechanisms cells use to counter oxidative stress.

Answer: Cells possess enzymatic and non-enzymatic antioxidant mechanisms of detoxifying reactive oxygen species (ROS). Enzyme antioxidants catalyze the transformation of ROS to less-reactive chemical forms. For example, superoxide dismutase converts superoxide to hydrogen peroxide, and catalase converts hydrogen peroxide to water and O2. Non-enzymatic antioxidants prevent the ROS from reacting with other, more critical molecules.

Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. What are phosphagens, and how can they be used to power muscle activities?

Answer: Phosphagen are compounds that serve as temporary stores of high-energy phosphate bonds. Creatine phosphate and arginine phosphate are two examples.

Phosphagens are synthesized by the use of high-energy phosphate bonds taken from ATP; later they can donate the phosphate bonds to ADP to form ATP. The reversible reactions for creatine phosphate and arginine phosphate are catalyzed by phosphagen kinases (creatine kinase and arginine kinase). When ATP concentrations fall, the phosphagens react with ADP in the presence of their specific kinase and form ATP without a simultaneous need for O2. Each ADP molecule in a vertebrate muscle cell can be rephosphorylated three to six times by this mechanism.

Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Explain, on the molecular level, why muscles can generate ATP under anaerobic conditions, but neurons cannot.

Answer: Muscle cells can undergo fermentation because they have the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase; neurons do not.

Neurons cannot generate ATP under anaerobic conditions because they lack lactate dehydrogenase. In the muscles, fermentation can metabolize pyruvate by oxidizing NADH to NAD+.

Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber Types Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 10. What is the pay-as-you-go phase?

Answer: Muscle cells need to produce ATP in order to initiate and maintain exercise.

When the lungs and the circulatory system sufficiently accelerate their rate of O2 delivery to meet the full O2 demand of the exercise, the exercise is said to enter a pay-as-you-go phase because thereafter its full O2 cost is met on a moment-to-moment basis by use of O2 taken up from the environment by breathing. With all ATP being made by steady-state aerobic catabolism, the exercise can, in principle, be sustained indefinitely. The onset of the pay-as-you-go phase occurs soon enough to prevent biochemical self-termination of anaerobic glycolysis, use of phosphagen, and use of O2 stores by delivering oxygen to the needed tissues.

Textbook Reference: The Interplay of Aerobic and Anaerobic Catabolism during Exercise Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. Which enzyme is required to convert fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6diphosphate? a. Hexokinase b. Phosphofructokinase c. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase d. Pyruvate kinase Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Which enzyme is required to use an ATP molecule during glycolysis? a. Phosphoglycerate kinase b. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase c. Pyruvate kinase d. Phosphofructokinase

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. Which part of the cell would have a high level of activity when the lactic acid to pyruvic acid ratio increases? a. Cytosol b. Intermembrane space c. Mitochondrial matrix d. Inner membrane of the mitochondria Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 4. How many ATP molecules are produced from one glucose molecule during the Krebs Cycle? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. Which statement most accurately summarizes the chemiosmotic hypothesis? a. Electrons are transferred along the electron transport chain and delivered to oxygen. b. Hydrogen ions are pumped into the matrix to create an electrochemical gradient. c. Protons move from low concentration to high concentration, creating unequal distribution across the inner mitochondrial membrane. d. A phosphate group moves from ATP to another substrate.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 6. What would happen to energy production if NADH2 and FADH2 were not available? a. Glycolysis would continue. b. Oxygen would become unavailable. c. The Krebs cycle would stop. d. The electron transport chain would stop.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 7. Protons are transferred back to the mitochondrial matrix via a. succinate dehydrogenase. b. cytochrome b-c1.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. cytochrome oxidase. d. ATP synthase.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 8. Which protein does not participate in proton movement? a. Cytochrome b-c1 b. Cytochrome oxidase c. ATP synthase d. Succinate dehydrogenase Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. The pH in the intermembrane space is a. acidic because of proton diffusion. b. acidic because of proton pumping. c. basic because of proton diffusion. d. basic because of proton pumping.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 10. Redox balance is the a. removal of electrons from a compound as quickly as they are added. b. removal of electrons from a compound without any addition of them. c. loss of electrons. d. gain of electrons.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 11. Which statement about reactive oxygen species (ROS) is false? a. They are an ordinary mechanism of aerobic metabolism. b. They are generated in the mitochondria. c. The enzyme catalase converts oxygen free radicals to hydrogen peroxide. d. The damage they cause is called oxidative stress.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. Suppose that the ratio of FADH to FADH2 is 1. The molecule is said to be in a. oxidative state. b. reductive state. c. redox balance.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. oxygen deficiency.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 13. The enzyme needed to convert pyruvic acid to lactic acid is called a. hexokinase. b. phosphofructokinase. c. catalase. d. lactate dehydrogenase.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14. During anaerobic glycolysis, only about ______ of free energy from glucose is released. a. 5% b. 7% c. 10% d. 15% Answer: b Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 15. Which molecule is generated during pyruvate oxidation? a. CO2 b. H2O c. ATP d. Lactic acid Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. In vertebrate muscle, how is the supply of NAD regenerated in the absence of oxygen? a. Using the Krebs cycle b. By forming pyruvate c. By breathing faster d. By forming lactic acid Answer: d Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 17. Which molecule, found in skeletal muscles of vertebrates, stores oxygen? a. Myoglobin b. Hemoglobin

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. ATP d. Ubiquinone Answer: a Textbook Reference: Mechanisms of ATP Production and Their Implications Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 18. In the term “slow oxidative,” used to describe muscle fibers, “slow” refers to a. the length of time it takes for the muscle to contract. b. the type of energy to be used. c. their low resistance to fatigue. d. the type of physical activity to be performed.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber Types Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 19. During long term muscle activity, peak fuel usage occurs in which order? a. Muscle glucose; muscle glycogen; phosphagens; glycogen brought in by the circulation b. Phosphagens; muscle glucose; glycogen brought in by the circulation; muscle glycogen c. Phosphagens; muscle glucose; muscle glycogen; glucose brought in by the circulation d. Muscle glucose; phosphagens; muscle glycogen; glycogen brought in by the circulation Answer: c Textbook Reference: Two Themes in Exercise Physiology: Fatigue and Muscle Fiber Types Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 20. In hypoxia, a. ATP is being used. b. ATP is being depleted. c. there is a lack of oxygen. d. there is a lack of lactate dehydrogenase.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 21. The maintenance of a steady rate of oxygen consumption, regardless of the level of oxygen in the environment, is called oxygen a. regulation. b. deficit. c. conformity. d. steady state.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

22. The metabolic by-product of anaerobic glycolysis that fish excrete across their gills is a. lactic acid. b. ethanol. c. pyruvic acid. d. succinic acid.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Responses to Impaired O2 Influx from the Environment Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 9: The Energetics of Aerobic Activity TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. The metabolic rate of a young adult human is greatest while a. walking at 4 miles per hour. b. bicycling at 13 miles per hour. c. running at 10 miles per hour. d. crawl swimming at 2 miles per hour.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. In an experiment in which an animal is injected with deuterium and oxygen-18 (D218O method) and then released into the wild, which of the following trends would you expect to see from measurements taken after a period of rest and again after a period of exercise? a. CO2 production will be higher during exercise than at rest. c. CO2 production will be equal during exercise and at rest. d. O2 production will be higher during exercise than at rest. e. O2 production will be equal during exercise than at rest.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 3. Which behavior represents the smallest component per unit time of the average daily metabolic rate (ADMR)? a. An animal chasing a prey b. An animal avoiding a predator c. An animal sleeping in the shade d. An animal standing guard Answer: c Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 4. If an animal spends 3 hours a day chasing a prey (49 kJ/hr) and 20 hours a day resting (using 15 kJ/hr), its total daily cost of behavior in kJ is a. 147 kJ/day. b. 153 kJ/day.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. 300 kJ/day. d. 447 kJ/day.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 5. A monitor placed on or in a study animal that stores data is called a a. telemetric device. b. data logger. c. motor driven treadmill. d. deuterium infusing device.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 6. A monitor placed on or in a study animal that transmits data is called a a. telemetric device. b. data logger. c. motor driven treadmill. d. deuterium infusing device.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 7. If an animal spends 3 hours a day running away from a predator and 20 hours a day resting (using 20 kJ/hr), the total daily cost of behavior is 700 kJ. The kJ spent per hour running away from a predator is _______ kJ/hr. a. 60 b. 100 c. 300 d. 400 Answer: b Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 8. If an animal spends 6 hours a day chasing prey (50 kJ/hr) and 18 hours a day resting (10 kJ/hr), its average hourly cost of behavior is _______ kJ/hr. a. 20 b. 24 c. 30 d. 50 Answer: a Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

9. The average daily metabolic rate (ADMR) refers to the amount of energy expended _______ in their natural habitat. a. during routine lives of animals b. during strenuous physical activities of animals c. in animals chasing prey d. in animals avoiding a predator Answer: a Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 10. The relationship between average daily metabolic rate (ADMR) per unit of body weight and body size is a(n) a. inverse proportion. b. direct proportion. c. J-shaped curve. d. U-shaped curve.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. Which animal would display a U-shaped curve of oxygen consumption per unit of time relative to speed? a. Sockeye salmon b. Kangaroo c. Ground squirrel d. Magpie Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 12. Based on the study done by Taylor et al. (1970), the animal whose rate of oxygen consumption relative to its running speed creates a linear plot is a a. lizard. b. magpie. c. trout. d. ground squirrel.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 13. As a human runs faster, her metabolic rate a. increases. b. decreases. c. stays the same. d. decreases first and then increases.

Answer: a

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 14. Which rate would allow an animal to continue walking for the longest period of time? a. 15 kJ/min b. 20 kJ/min c. 25 kJ/min d. 30 kJ/min Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 15. Which rate would be most advantageous for a fish trying to swim for the longest period of time? a. 1 m/h b. 2 m/h c. 3 m/h d. 4 m/h Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 16. For animals of any given body size, engaging in their primary form of locomotion, which activity would be the most energetically costly to cover a long distance? a. Walking b. Running at a high speed c. Swimming (in fish) d. Flying (in birds) Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 17. For animals of any given body size, engaging in their primary form of locomotion, which is the least energetically costly way to cover a long distance? a. Walking b. Running at a high speed c. Swimming (in fish) d. Flying (in birds) Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 18. Comparing animals that share a single primary mode of locomotion, large bodied species will cover distances at a _______ weight-specific cost than small bodied species. a. lower b. slightly higher

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. higher d. much higher Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 19. An animal weighing _______ kg can cover the greatest distance before running out of fat (assuming all the animals have the same proportion of body fat). a. 100 b. 200 c. 300 d. 500 Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 20. Which animal covers the largest distance at the lowest weight-specific cost? a. Millipede b. Mouse c. Dog d. Horse Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 21. Which organism would have the lowest cost of transport? a. Duck b. Fish c. Goose d. Human Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 22. Which statement regarding an individual riding a bike and a running individual is true? a. The individual cyclist will have less cost of transport than the runner. b. The runner will have less cost of transport than the cyclist. c. Both individuals will have the same cost of energy. d. The runner will have more cost of energy during the first ten minutes and then he will have less.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

23. The speed that _______ the cost of transport is the speed that _______ the distance that can be traveled with a given amount of energy. a. maximizes; maximizes b. sustains; maximizes c. minimizes; maximizes d. minimizes; minimizes Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 24.–28. Refer to the figure below.

24. Choose the most appropriate label for the x axis. a. Body weight (kg) on a log scale b. Body weight (g) c. Body weight (g) on a log scale d. Swimming speed (m/s) Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 25. Choose the most appropriate units for the y axis. a. J/m•s b. J/h•g c. J/m•kg d. J/g•h Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 26. Which data point indicates the most efficient swimmer? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 27. Of the three groups of data represented by the circled data points and the two lines, to which group would a human belong? a. Group A b. Group B c. Group C d. The data point for the human would fall outside of these groups Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 28. If you were to plot a swimming mouse on this figure, where would the data point go? a. Close to I b. Close to III c. Close to VI d. Close to V Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 29. Energy production is highly correlated with the amount of a. food consumed. b. oxygen consumed. c. water excreted. d. carbohydrates used.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 30. If animal A has a V̇O2max of 22.4 ml/g•h and animal B has a V̇O2max of 24 ml/ g•h, a. animal A can produce more energy. b. animal B can produce more energy. c. both animals can produce the same amount of energy. d. animal A can produce more energy if it is bigger.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 31. V̇O2max refers to an animal’s a. capacity to use fat as a source of energy. b. maximum oxygen consumption. c. maximum oxygen usage. d. maximum energy production.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 32. Of the following values, an exercise requiring _______ of V̇O2max is the most strenuous. a. 45% b. 55% c. 65% d. 75% Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 33. Assuming the same body size, an individual who is _______ years old would have the lowest V̇O2max. a. 35 b. 40 c. 50 d. 55 Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 34. Assuming individuals of the same body size, a person who is _______ years old would have the most difficulty performing an exercise that requires 65% V̇O2max. a. 35 b. 40 c. 50 d. 55 Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 35. Assuming individuals of the same body size, one who is at _______ would have the lowest V̇O2max. a. sea level b. 500 feet above sea level c. 1000 feet above sea level

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. 1500 feet above sea level Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 36. The symmorphosis hypothesis states that a. the circulatory system is the “weakest link.” b. V̇O2max is the maximal amount of oxygen consumed. c. all systems have the same limitations when it comes to oxygen transport. d. the consumed amount of oxygen is correlated with the amount of ATP produced.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 37. According to many physiologists, the _______ system is considered to be the “weakest link” regarding V̇O2max. a. circulatory b. nervous c. muscular d. digestive Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 38. When comparing the difference in V̇O2max and resting O2 consumption at the same temperature, we are referring to the a. symmorphosis. b. aerobic scope of activity. c. aerobic expansibility. d. aerobic capacity.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 39. According to the symmorphosis hypothesis, the skeletal system a. and the circulatory system have the same capability regarding oxygen consumption. b. has a higher capability regarding oxygen consumption compared to the circulatory system. c. has a lower capability regarding oxygen consumption compared to the circulatory system. d. has a lower capability regarding oxygen consumption compared to the pulmonary system.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

40. When looking at the ratio of V̇O2max to resting O2 consumption at the same temperature, we are referring to a. symmorphosis. b. aerobic scope of activity. c. aerobic expansibility. d. aerobic capacity.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 41. If an organism has a resting oxygen consumption of 1mL/g•h, and its V̇O2max is 10 mL/g•h, its aerobic scope of activity will be _______ mL/g•h. a. 9 b. 10 c. 0.1 d. 11 Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 42. If an organism has a resting oxygen consumption of 1mL/g•h, and its V̇O2max is 10 mL/g•h, its aerobic expansibility will be a. 0.1. b. 0.1 mL/g•h. c. 10 mL/g•h. d. 10.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 43. If an organism has a resting oxygen consumption of 1mL/g•h, and its aerobic expansibility is 10, its V̇O2max will be a. 0.1. b. 0.1 mL/g•h. c. 10 mL/g•h. d. 10.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 44. If an organism has a V̇O2max of 5 mL/g•h, and its aerobic expansibility is 5, its resting oxygen consumption will be a. 1. b. 1 mL/g•h. c. 10 mL/g•h. d. 10.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 45. If an organism has a V̇O2max of 10mL/g•h, and its aerobic scope of activity is 8 mL/g•h, its resting oxygen consumption will be _______ mL/g•h. a. 2 b. 8 c. 0.1 d. 18 Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 46. If a human has a V̇O2max of 2.5 ml O2/kg•min, his O2 consumption at rest is about _______ O2/kg•min. a. 0.025 b. 0.25 c. 2.5 d. 20 Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 47. If a human has a resting O2 consumption of 10 mL/kg•min, her V̇O2max consumption is _______ mL O2/kg•min. a. 1 b. 10 c. 100 d. 250 Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 48. A pronghorn can run for a longer period of time than a cheetah because a pronghorn a. is adapted to aerobic respiration during running while the cheetah relies on anaerobic cellular respiration. b. achieves faster speeds than the cheetah does. c. has stronger sprinting skeletal muscles than the cheetah does. d. more glycogen in its muscles than the cheetah does.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 49. An athlete weighs 70 kg. His V̇O2max is 30 mL/kg•min. After 6 months of regular endurance training, his V̇O2max could be as high as _______ mL/kg•min.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. 10 b. 19 c. 39 d. 100 Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 50. Which animal will have the fastest rate of aerobic ATP production per unit of body mass? a. Lizard b. Monkey c. Salamander d. They will all have the same rate Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 51. According to the study done by Lindstedt (1991), which animal has the highest V̇O2max? a. Horse b. Dog c. Fox d. Pronghorn Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 52. An untrained sedentary person has a V̇O2max measured at 40 mL/kg•min. After 10 weeks of intense endurance training, this person’s aerobic performance has improved. A reasonable measurement of this person’s V̇O2max would be _______ mL/kg•min. a. 40 b. 48 c. 80 d. 100 Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 53. Individual A has a V̇O2max of 30 mL O2/kg•min. Individual B has a V̇O2max of 60 mL O2/kg•min. If both individuals are competing in a soccer activity, who will be able compete for a longer period of time? a. Individual A because he has a lower V̇O2max. b. Individual B because he has a higher V̇O2max. c. Both individuals will get tired at the same time. d. Individual A because he has a higher capacity to produce ATP.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 54. Which activity requires the highest V̇O2max? a. Long distance running b. Canoeing c. Ice hockey d. Cross-country skiing Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 55. Which is the optimal temperature for bumblebees to fly at? a. 15°C b. 20°C c. 25°C d. 30°C Answer: d Textbook Reference: Ecological Energetics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

Short Answer 1. Explain in detail how metabolism is studied in running animals.

Answer: For running animals, an animal stands on a motor-driven treadmill. The belt is driven at a specific rate by a motor. The animal’s rate of O2 consumption is measured as the speed of a treadmill is varied. Devices attached to the animal’s mouth ensure accurate gas exchange readings. This method permits investigators to describe the relation between speed and the metabolic cost of locomotion.

Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. What are some specific characteristics of the relationship between the metabolic cost per unit time and the speed of locomotion in swimming, running, and flying animals?

Answer: In swimming animals, such as a fish, the metabolic rate typically increases in a J-shaped power function as speed increases. This relationship occurs because the drag that a fish must overcome to move through water increases approximately in proportion to the square of its speed of swimming.

In running animals, the metabolic rate usually increases as a linear function of the speed.

The relationship applies for running insects and terrestrial crabs as well.

In flying animals, the aerodynamic theory predicts a U-shaped relationship between metabolic rate and speed.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. What is the significance of V̇O2max in metabolism studies?

Answer: V̇O2max is a key property in studies of aerobic activity. It determines the peak rate at which an animal can synthesize ATP by aerobic catabolism. Thus, it determines how intensely an animal can exercise in a pay-as-you-go mode. A second reason that V̇O2max is important is that the maximal rate of O2 consumption provides a benchmark by which to judge the strenuousness of all aerobic physical activity.

Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. What is the relationship between V̇O2max and aging? What effect does the change in V̇O2max have on the type of exercise performed?

Answer: As people age beyond young adulthood, their V̇O2max tends to decline; after age 30; the decline is about 9% per decade for sedentary people. The rate of decline is only about 5% for active individuals. Because of the decline in V̇O2max, an activity that requires any particular absolute rate of O2 consumption tends to demand an ever-greater proportion of V̇O2max as people age. Thus, the same activity becomes more strenuous. For example, a form of exercise that demands 35% of V̇O2max in youth might require 50% in old age; the exercise would thus shift from being sustainable for 8–10 hours in youth to being sustainable for half that time in older age.

Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. What are the physiological causes of the limits of oxygen consumption?

Answer: Some physiologists argue that a particular organ system sets the limit on V̇O2max.

For instance, some believe the circulatory system is the “weak link” in mammals, arguing that all other organ systems could transport and use O2 at a greater rate if it were not for the limits on how fast the circulatory system can transport O2. Another view is the hypothesis of symmorphosis, which states that all organ systems that serve a single function in an animal are interactively adapted to have approximately equal limits because it would make no sense for any one system to have evolved capabilities that could never be used because of more-restrictive limits in other systems.

Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. Suppose at a particular body temperature, a fish has a resting oxygen consumption rate of 0.05 mL/g•h and an aerobic expansibility of 6. What is its aerobic scope?

Answer: Aerobic expansibility = V̇O2max/resting O2 consumption V̇O2max = Aerobic expansibility  resting O2 consumption V̇O2max = 6  0.05 mL/g•h V̇O2max = 0.3 mL/g•h Aerobic scope = V̇O2max – resting O2 consumption Aerobic scope = (0.3 – 0.05) = 0.25 mL/g•h Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 7. Explain how V̇O2max changes with endurance training.

Answer: As a result of endurance training, aerobic ATP production is improved and V̇O2max increases. One reason for the increase in V̇O2max is the widespread change in gene expression in exercising muscles. Endurance training effects an increase in numbers of mitochondria in muscle cells and upregulation of mitochondrial enzymes of aerobic catabolism, such as citrate synthase (or other CAC enzymes) and cytochrome oxidase (an electron-transport enzyme). Other changes that affect V̇O2max include increases in muscle glucose transporters, the density of blood capillaries in muscles, and the heart’s capacity to pump blood.

Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. What is the fuel that birds store and use to meet their energy needs during migration?

How are birds are able to use this energy source?

Answer: Most of the energy used by birds during long distance migration comes from stored fat. Birds accumulate fat prior to migration (they often increase 50–100% in body weight) and use their stored fat during migration. Some of the organs that are involved in building up fat stores shrink substantially after the fuel-storage phase and during migration, thereby lightening the load that must be transported. Birds appear to have highly developed mechanisms for fatty acid transport across cell membranes. Although fatty acids are water-insoluble, birds have highly developed mechanisms for solubilizing fatty acids, (formation of lipoprotein complexes) so the fatty acids can be distributed to the working muscles from storage depots.

Textbook Reference: Long-Distance Migration Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. In birds, what is the advantage of using proteins as a source of energy during migration?

Answer: Although birds do not store proteins for energy use as they do fat, organ reductions effectively free proteins for metabolism. About 10% of the energy used during migration comes from protein catabolism. The brain needs glucose as a source of energy, and the extra protein, due to organ reduction, undergoes gluconeogenesis to increase glucose availability in the circulation to be used in the brain for ATP production.

Textbook Reference: Long-Distance Migration Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 10. Bumblebees require a specific flight muscle temperature to fly. What is this temperature and how do bumblebees maintain it during flight and while hovering between flowers?

Answer: Bumblebees require their flight muscles to be 30°C or higher to fly. They maintain this temperature in flight by the heat produced from the flying muscles. When bees land on flowers in cool weather, however, their temperature may decrease enough to prevent them from taking off again. To keep their flight muscles warm while they are alighted on flowers, bees produce heat by a process analogous to human shivering. The

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

intensity and energetic cost of this form of shivering becomes greater as the air temperature decreases. Although shivering may be unnecessary at air temperatures greater than 25°C, shivering at 5°C may raise a stationary bee’s metabolic rate to a level necessary for flight.

Textbook Reference: Ecological Energetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. What is the best method for studying metabolic rate in animals in the wild? a. Place the animal on a treadmill. b. Inject them with deuterium and oxygen-18 then measure levels after the animal engages in its normal behavior for a period of time. c. Place the flying/swimming animal in a wind/water tunnel. d. Use a mask and a valve system on the animal.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. Which of the following isotopes is(are) used in the doubly labeled water method? a. D216O b. H218O c. Both D216O and H218O d. 14C Answer: c Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. Another term for ADMR is a. telemetric device. b. time–energy budget. c. field metabolic rate. d. D2 method.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. If an animal spends 4 hours a day chasing prey and 20 hours a day resting, its total daily cost of behavior in kilojoules is a. 5 KJ/day. b. 16 KJ/day. c. 24 KJ/day. d. Insufficient data is provided to calculate the daily cost of behavior.

Answer: d

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 5. An animal that spends 3 hours a day running from predators and 20 hours a day resting (using 20 KJ/hour) has a total daily cost of behavior of 700 KJ. The total energy spent running from predators is a. 100 KJ/day. b. 200 KJ/day. c. 300 KJ/day. d. 400 KJ/day.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: How Active Animals Are Studied Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 6. Which animal would display a J-shaped curve for its rate of oxygen consumption relative to its speed? a. Kangaroo b. Sockeye salmon c. Ground squirrel d. Bird Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. An animal that weighs _______ will have the highest weight-specific metabolic rate. a. 65 g b. 70 g c. 65 kg d. 80 kg Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 8. Which type of migration is most favored by natural selection? a. Long-distance migration b. Short-distance migration c. Long-distance migration, but only if the cost of covering distance is relatively low d. Short-distance migration, but only if the cost of covering distance is relatively low Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 9. Which animal has the most expensive mode of locomotion? a. Cheetah b. Bird c. Dolphin

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. Eagle Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 10. Cost of transport is the a. energy cost for a unit of time. b. energy cost of covering a unit of distance. c. amount of fat required to a traverse a unit of distance. d. speed required to travel a unit of distance.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. Which of the following is the most energetically expensive way to cover distance? a. Running b. Swimming c. Flying d. Both running and swimming Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Energy Costs of Defined Exercise Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. In vertebrates, V̇O2max is about _______ than resting O2 consumption. a. 5 times lower b. 2 times higher c. 5 times higher d. 10 times higher Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 13. An organism with a resting oxygen consumption of 1 mL/g•hr and an aerobic scope for activity of 10 mL/g•hr will have a V̇O2max of _______ mL/g•hr. a. 0.1 b. 0.11 c. 9 d. 11 Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 14. The conventional unit of measure for V̇O2max in humans is a. mL O2/kg•min. b. mL O2/lbs•min. c. mL O2/kg•hr.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. mL O2/lbs•hr.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 15. Which of the following does not occur in endurance training to maximize V̇O2max a. Increase in number of mitochondria b. Increase in density of blood capillaries c. Increase in small intestine glucose transporters d. Increase in mitochondrial enzymes Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. Which enzyme increases during endurance training? a. Hexokinase b. Phosphofructokinase c. Pyruvate kinase d. Citrate synthase Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 17. When training a group of athletes to increase their endurance, which change would occur after 3 months of training? a. V̇O2max would not change. b. V̇O2max would increase. c. Blood testosterone level would increase. d. Blood testosterone level would decrease.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Maximum Rate of Oxygen Consumption Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 18. In the general population of 20–50-year-old humans, ADMR tends to vary from _______ to _______ times the BMR. a. 1; 2 b. 2; 4 c. 1.2; 2.5 d. 2.5; 3.5 Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Energetics of Routine and Extreme Daily Life Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 19. Which change occurs when migratory birds reduce their organ function? a. Glucose synthesis from amino acids increases. b. Protein anabolism increases.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. Amino acid usage as a source of energy decreases. d. Usage of fatty acids as a source of energy in the brain increases.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Long-Distance Migration Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 20. Which molecule is used as the principle fuel in migratory birds? a. Proteins b. Lipids c. Carbohydrates d. Nucleic acids Answer: b Textbook Reference: Long-Distance Migration Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 10: Thermal Relations TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. An ectotherm is also called a a. thermoregulator. b. thermoconformer. c. homeotherm. d. poikilotherm.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. A homeotherm is a a. nonthermoregulating poikilotherm. b. thermoregulating ectotherm. c. nonthermoregulating endotherm. d. thermoregulating endotherm.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. Most animals are _______. Most endotherms are _______. a. endotherms; thermoregulators b. ectotherms; thermoconformers c. endotherms; nonthermoregulators d. ectotherms; thermoregulators Answer: d Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. Suppose that due to global climate change, the average minimum air temperature during January increased by 4°C. What would be the likely effect on the northern range limit for birds such as the eastern phoebe? a. The limit would move farther north to the new ‒4°C isotherm. b. The limit would move farther north to the new 0°C isotherm. c. The limit would move farther north to the new 4°C isotherm. d. The limit would move farther south.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 5. Which of the following is not one of the mechanisms by which animals exchange heat with their environment? a. Convection b. Evaporation c. Metabolic heat production d. Thermal radiation Answer: c Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 6. Which statement about an animal’s body temperature is true? a. The body temperature of a poikilotherm is always constant. b. The body temperature of an endotherm is always constant. c. Body temperature will remain constant when heat gained is equal to heat lost. d. Body temperature is always constant because metabolic heat production is equal to heat exchanged by thermal radiation.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 7. When the body temperature of ghost crabs is raised from 15°C to 24°C, resting metabolic rate and V̇O2max both increase, but the increase in V̇O2max is much greater than the increase in resting metabolic rate. Given this information, what would be the likely result if ghost crabs in nature experienced conditions that raised their typical body temperature from 15°C to 24°C? a. Aerobic scope and capacity for aerobic exercise would increase. b. Aerobic scope and capacity for aerobic exercise would decrease. c. Aerobic scope would decrease and capacity for aerobic exercise would increase. d. Aerobic scope would increase and capacity for aerobic exercise would decrease.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 8. For animals, an advantage of fur is that a. if the air it traps is motionless, heat is transferred by convection. b. if the air it traps is motionless, heat is transferred by conduction. c. it has a high convection coefficient. d. it has a high thermal conductivity.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

9. Besides temperature, the factor that is important for conduction, convection, and thermal radiation is a. thermal conductivity. b. wind speed. c. emissivity. d. surface area.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 10. All else being equal, the convective coefficient (per unit area) is likely to be highest when wind speed is _______ and animal size (diameter) is _______. a. high; low b. high; high c. low; low d. low; high Answer: a Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. Evaporation is an effective mechanism for cooling because the latent heat of a. vaporization for water is large. b. vaporization for water is small. c. fusion for water is large. d. fusion for water is small.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. Suppose that an animal is sweating profusely. The dripping of sweat off the animal’s surface a. cools the animal due to the latent heat of condensation. b. heats the animal due to the latent heat of fusion. c. cools the animal due to the latent heat of vaporization. d. does not contribute to heating or cooling of the animal.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 13. Animals, plants, and other objects in the natural environment generally emit radiation at wavelengths of _______ or longer. a. 3–4 nm b. 3–4 m c. 3–4 mm d. 3–4 m Answer: b

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14. Per unit of surface area, animals emit _______ radiation than the sun; at wavelengths shorter than 3 m, they emit _______ radiation than the sun. a. more; more b. more; less c. less; more d. less; less Answer: d Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 15. When thermal radiation strikes an object, it is a. absorbed. b. reflected or absorbed. c. absorbed or transmitted (pass through). d. reflected, absorbed, or transmitted (pass through).

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. On an overcast night, as opposed to a night with a clear sky, the thermal environment experienced by a desert rodent will be a. warmer because less radiant heat is lost to an overcast sky. b. warmer because the rodent has lower emissivity when the sky is overcast. c. cooler because the rodent has higher emissivity when the sky is overcast. d. cooler because the atmosphere’s convective coefficient is increased by an overcast sky.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 17. You are in Las Vegas in summer and you see a dog tied to a fence with no access to shade. As the dog is obviously having problems with the heat, what would be the fastest means of cooling the dog’s internal temperature? a. Put the dog in an 87°F pool of water. b. Put a few ice cubes in the dog’s water bowl. c. Put the dog in the shade and near a fan. d. Shave the dog’s fur off.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 18. Animals most commonly use _______ in terms of their thermal relationship with the environment. a. poikilothermy.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. endothermy. c. thigmothermy. d. homeothermy.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 19. Behavioral thermoregulation depends on _______ of the thermal environment and preferential selection of _______ sites within the environment. a. heterogeneity; particular b. heterogeneity; sunny c. homogeneity; sunny d. homogeneity; particular Answer: a Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 20. The three time frames over which animals respond physiologically to environmental change are a. acclimation, acclimatization, and adaptation. b. acute, chronic, and evolutionary. c. eons, eras, and periods. d. behavioral, physiological, and cognitive.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 21. Based on how the metabolic rates of ectotherms and endotherms respond to temperature, at which temperature would you expect the differences in metabolic rates between ectotherms and endotherms to be largest? (Hint: Think about the response curve of each type of animal to environmental temperature.) a. 5°C b. 15°C c. 25°C d. 35°C Answer: a Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 22. Suppose an animal has a metabolic rate of 3 ml O2/h at 10°C? The Q10 is 2. What is its metabolic rate at 20°C? a. 2 ml O2/h b. 3 ml O2/h c. 6 ml O2/h d. 9 ml O2/h Answer: c

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 23. Suppose an animal has a metabolic rate of 10 ml O2/h at 20°C. The Q10 is 2.5. What is its metabolic rate at 10°C? a. 2.5 ml O2/h b. 4 ml O2/h c. 10 ml O2/h d. 25 ml O2/h Answer: b Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 24. Most commonly, the slope of the line depicting the chronic response of metabolic rate to temperature is _______ the slope of the lines depicting the acute response of metabolic rate to temperature. a. parallel to but higher than b. parallel to but lower than c. steeper than d. shallower than Answer: d Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 25. Compensation is acclimation via a. behavioral changes. b. metabolic rate changes. c. postural changes. d. changes in vasculature diameter.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 26. Performance curves a. should always be calculated acutely. b. should always be calculated chronically. c. are equivalent to measurements of evolutionary fitness. d. can be used to calculate critical temperatures.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 27. In aquatic poikilotherms, the most likely reason for impairment of function in the pejus range is a. destruction of DNA. b. irreversible denaturation of proteins.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. oxygen limitation. d. disruption of osmotic balance.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 28. The maximum sprinting speeds of lizards a. are always highest near a body temperature of 40°C. b. are often well-correlated with the average body temperature of the species in nature. c. often peak at lower temperatures. d. are uncorrelated with body temperature.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 29. Enzyme–substrate affinity a. generally decreases with temperature. b. generally increases with temperature. c. does not vary with temperature. d. increases with temperature in eurythermal species but decreases with temperature in stenothermal species.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 30. At any given temperature, LDH–substrate affinity _______ across species of poikilotherms; at the temperatures at which these species typically live in nature, LDH– substrate affinity _______ across species. a. varies; varies b. is similar; varies c. varies; is similar d. is similar; is similar Answer: c Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 31. Antarctic fur seals live in cold water, thermoregulate, and maintain elevated core body temperatures. Manatees, another marine mammal, live in warm water, thermoregulate, and maintain elevated core body temperatures. Based on general principles, one would predict that for Antarctic fur seals, the effect of temperature on enzyme–substrate activity would be similar to that of _______-water fish, and for manatees it would be similar to that of _______-water fish. a. stenothermal cold; stenothermal warm b. eurythermal cold; eurythermal warm c. stenothermal cold; eurythermal warm d. stenothermal warm; stenothermal warm

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 32. When carp or goldfish that are acclimated to warm temperatures are subsequently acclimated to colder temperatures, their swimming performance is impaired initially but then improves over time. Which of the following is thought to be the most likely explanation? a. Shifts in myosin isoforms and shifts in isozyme forms for glycolysis and the Krebs cycle b. Shifts in myosin isoforms, but no shifts in isozyme forms for glycolysis or the Krebs cycle c. Shifts in isozyme forms for glycolysis and the Krebs cycle, but no shifts in myosin isoforms d. Shifts in the amounts of enzymes for glycolysis and the Krebs cycle, but no shifts in myosin isoforms Answer: b Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 33. Some animals can survive freezing and others cannot. Which of the following is associated with the ability of animals to survive freezing? a. Freezing of the intracellular and extracellular fluids b. Freezing of the intracellular fluids only c. Freezing of the extracellular fluids only d. Their colligative properties Answer: c Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 34. Over evolutionary time, membrane fluidity can be maintained at lower temperatures by a. adding cholesterol to the membranes. b. adding more saturation to the phospholipids. c. unsaturating the phospholipids. d. making the membranes thinner.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 35. Antifreezes are synthesized primarily by a. marine and freshwater fish. b. amphibians and marine fish. c. insects and marine fish. d. insects and amphibians.

Answer: c

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 36.–40. Refer to the figure below.

36. Fish were housed under three different temperature conditions. Their response to acute and chronic temperature changes is plotted on the figure. What is the property most likely to be plotted on the y axis? a. Rate of oxygen consumption b. Mass-specific metabolic rate c. Metabolic rate on a log scale d. Ventilation rate Answer: c Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 37. Which line best represents the acute response line of animals acclimated to the coldest temperature? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: a Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 38. Which line best represents the chronic response of animals being cooled from 30°C to 10°C? a. I

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. II c. III d. IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 39. What will happen to line IV as temperature continues to increase beyond the scale of the visible x axis? a. The line will continue along the same slope indefinitely. b. The line will slope downward at 30°C until it reaches 0. c. The line will continue along the same slope, but ultimately turn downward. d. The line will increase along slope it reached at 30°C until the animal dies.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 40.–42. Refer to the figure below.

40. Multiple species of poikilotherms that naturally experience different body temperatures are shown in the figure. The response of each species at multiple temperatures is plotted on the figure. What is the most appropriate label for the y axis? a. Oxygen consumption b. Metabolic rate c. Enzyme-substrate affinity d. Rate of performance Answer: c

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 41. Which line indicates the species that naturally experiences the narrowest body temperature range? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: a Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 42. Which line indicates the species that needs to be coldest for enzyme function to be in the range favored by evolution? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: a Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 43. Dry heat transfer refers to heat exchange a. by convection only. b. by conduction and convection only. c. by conduction, convection, and thermal radiation. d. in any environment with low humidity.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 44. With respect to heat flow between animals and their environments, high conductance corresponds to _______ insulation and to _______ resistance to heat loss a. high; high b. high; low c. low; high d. low; low Answer: d Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 45. For a typical bird or mammal, the slope of the line below the thermoneutral zone equals _______ and is steeper for an animal with _______ insulation and higher thermal conductance. a. C; higher

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. C; lower c. –C; lower d. –C; higher Answer: c Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 46. Compared to the average field metabolic rates for a nonavian reptile, the average field metabolic rate of a similar size bird or mammal is a. twice as high. b. 4–10 times higher. c. 12–20 times higher. d. 100–300 times higher.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 47. Birds adjust their insulation via a. ptilomotor and vascular responses. b. ptilomotor, vascular, and postural responses. c. ptilomotor, vascular, postural, and thermogenic responses. d. ptilomotor, vascular, postural responses, and nonshivering thermogenesis.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 48. Uncoupling protein 1 is critical for a. freeze tolerance. b. brown adipose tissue. c. mitochondria in birds. d. supercooling.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 49. In winter, some birds stand on frozen ponds and lakes. How do they prevent their feet from freezing while simultaneously preventing excessive heat loss? a. By alternately standing on one foot and then the other b. By metabolizing brown adipose tissue in their lower legs and feet c. By selective shivering d. By allowing their feet to cool below core temperature but remain above freezing Answer: d Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 50. A rete mirabile is

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. a specialized tissue for heat production. b. a part of the body whose temperature differs from the core body temperature. c. the splitting of arteries and veins into many intermingling finer vessels. d. the controller “thermostat” for body temperature.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 51. In a very hot environment, the benefit of hyperthermia is that it a. saves water and reduces heat gain. b. saves water, but does not reduce heat gain. c. reduces heat gain, although it does not save water. d. maintains the lipid structure in the skin that prevents dehydration.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 52. Which method of evaporative water loss can induce respiratory alkalosis? a. Gular fluttering b. Panting c. Saliva spreading d. Sweating Answer: b Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 53. Which group includes only forms of hypothermia? a. Estivation, hibernation, and torpor b. Thermogenesis, hibernation, and torpor c. Shivering, thermogenesis, and metabolic heat production d. Gular fluttering, panting, and sweating Answer: a Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 54. Suppose that a mammal that was a temporal heterotherm needed to survive in a winter environment with severely limited food resources. At which of the following mean ambient temperatures would the animal most likely survive the winter? a. 5°C b. 10°C c. 15°C d. 25°C Answer: a Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

55. _______ describes the process of rewarming of the tissues of a mammal after controlled hypothermia. a. Metabolic acclimatization b. Endothermy c. Q10 effect d. Arousal Answer: d Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 56.–59. Refer to the figure below.

56. One species of homeotherm under two different environmental conditions was exposed to the temperature changes shown in the figure. What is the most appropriate label for the y axis? a. Maximum metabolic rate b. Resting mass-specific oxygen consumption c. Body temperature d. Membrane-lipid fluidity Answer: b Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 57. Data from which species is most likely represented in this figure? a. Mouse b. Naked human c. Fox d. Rabbit Answer: c Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

58. Which term best describes what was studied in this experiment? a. Acclimatization b. Metabolic rate c. Heterothermy d. Thermal tolerance Answer: a Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 59. In the following list, what is the lowest lower-critical temperature represented in this figure? a. –50°C b. –14°C c. 0°C d. 10°C Answer: b Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 60. The dromedary camel can survive without drinking water for days because of a. the water stored in its humps. b. its very large bladder, which stores water. c. daily heat loading and unloading. d. its very low metabolic rate.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 61. Compared to a summer acclimatized fox, what is a winter fox’s resting metabolic rate when both are placed at –50°C? a. Resting metabolic rate in the winter fox is higher than the summer fox. b. Resting metabolic rate in the winter fox is lower than the summer fox. c. Resting metabolic rate in both foxes will be similar. d. There is not enough information to predict the relationship of their resting metabolic rates.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 62. What happens to a homeotherm’s resting metabolic rate when the temperature is outside its thermoneutral zone? a. Resting metabolic rate goes up. b. Resting metabolic rate goes down. c. Answer depends on whether it is too hot or too cold. d. Resting metabolic rate does not change.

Answer: a

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 63. In 10°C ocean water, you would expect the tip of a killer whale’s flipper to be about a. 37°C b. 8°C c. 12°C d. 45°C Answer: c Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 64. Which structure has a physiological function that shares major similarities with the function of brown adipose tissues? a. Stomach of lamnid sharks b. Parts of the extraocular eye muscles of billfishes c. Red swimming muscles in tunas d. White swimming muscles in tunas Answer: b Textbook Reference: Warm-Bodied Fish Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 65. What is the minimum number of times that endothermy has evolved independently in vertebrates? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Warm-Bodied Fish Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 66. Endothermy in insects a. typically is restricted to the abdomen. b. typically is restricted to the thorax. c. occurs only in the largest insects. d. occurs only during flight.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Endothermy and Homeothermy in Insects Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 67. Which statement about insect flight is true? a. In order to fly, all insects require high abdominal and high thoracic temperatures. b. In order to fly, all insects require high thoracic but not high abdominal temperatures. c. In order to fly, all insects require elevated flight muscle temperatures. d. Some insects can fly despite low abdominal and low thoracic temperatures.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Endothermy and Homeothermy in Insects Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

Short Answer 1. Why can warmer winter temperatures have a negative impact on hibernators?

Answer: Warmer temperatures lead to higher metabolic rates than colder temperatures.

Since hibernators have to live off of stored fat or stored food, warmer temperatures are likely to result in increased hunger, increased or early arousal, and, ultimately, an increased likelihood of starvation.

Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 2. How might a vapor barrier liner in a sleeping bag decrease a person’s heat loss when camping outside in the cold?

Answer: By reducing water loss, the amount of heat lost via evaporation will be reduced.

Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 3. How would the emissivities (e) of a desert rodent and a desert lizard compare at wavelengths of 3‒4 mm or longer?

Answer: They would be about the same because all organisms have similar emissivities at these wavelengths.

Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. Why is it that the body temperatures of terrestrial poikilotherms can substantially exceed air temperature but body temperatures of aquatic poikilotherms are generally very close to water temperature?

Answer: On land, thermal radiation can increase body temperature above the air temperature. In water, thermal radiation would heat the surface of the water, not the animal. The conductance of water is also very high such that true poikilotherms essentially match water temperature.

Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. On hot days some dragonflies tip their abdomen and point it directly at the sun. From the perspective of heat exchange, what effect might this have and why?

Answer: It may reduce heat gain from solar radiation and thereby help prevent the dragonfly from overheating.

Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

6. Suppose you use inanimate lizard models to comprehensively and randomly sample the thermal environment of a lizard’s habitat. You then compare that distribution of inanimate model temperatures with the distribution of actual body temperatures from lizards in that habitat. If the distributions differ, what does the discrepancy indicate?

Answer: It indicates that the lizards are behaviorally thermoregulating.

Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 7. You collect lizards from three populations, immediately measure each lizard’s metabolic rate at 20°C, and find that the rates differ among the lizards. Other than genetic differences among the populations, what factor could these differences be attributed to?

Answer: The populations may have been acclimatized to different conditions.

Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 8. Human blood has an osmolarity of about 300 mOsm and shark blood has an osmolarity of about 1000 mOsm. If you collected blood samples from both humans and sharks and attempted to freeze them, which would freeze at a lower temperature?

Answer: The shark blood would freeze at a lower temperature because its solute concentration is greater. More concentrated solutions freeze at lower temperatures.

Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 9. Why are antifreezes unimportant for most birds and mammals?

Answer: Most birds and mammals maintain high body temperatures that do not come close to levels at which freezing would occur.

Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 10. Why is insulatory acclimatization typically more important for medium-sized and large mammals than for small mammals?

Answer: Small species cannot have as thick a pelage given their size, so they rely more on metabolic acclimatization. Larger species can more readily adjust their pelage (insulation), which is a more energy-efficient strategy.

Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 11. What are two major benefits of controlled hypothermia in birds and mammals?

Answer: Controlled hypothermia permits conservation of energy and water.

Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

1. All animals produce heat but only some are endothermic. This is because a. only endotherms produce heat fast enough or retain it well enough to elevate tissue temperatures. b. ectotherms are too small to be endothermic. c. ectotherms cannot thermoregulate. d. thermoregulation requires endothermy.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. If a 3800-kg elephant and a 20-g mouse both have body temperatures of 37°C, which statement would be true? a. The temperatures of the animals and the amount of heat they contain are similar but different. b. Both animals have the same temperature and contain the same amount of heat. c. Both animals have the same temperature but contain different amounts of heat. d. Both animals have the same temperature but the average molecular speed inside the mouse is faster.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Temperature and Heat Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 3. What is the key distinction between conduction and convection? a. In conduction, the atoms of the substance participate in transfer of heat, but in convection they do not. b. In convection, the atoms of the substance participate in transfer of heat, but in conduction they do not. c. Convection involves heat transfer through macroscopic motion. d. Conduction involves heat transfer through macroscopic motion.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. Hradiative emission =   Tsurface4 is known as a. the heat balance equation. b. Bergmann’s rule. c. the second law of thermodynamics. d. the Stefan-Boltzmann equation.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. The effects of animal coloration on heat balance are a. greater at night. b. greater in sunlight. c. unaffected by sunlight.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. primarily via convection.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 6. Compared to light-colored animals, dark-colored animals absorb _______ short wavelength radiation and _______ longer wavelength radiation. a. more; less b. less; more c. about the same amount of; more d. more; about the same amount of Answer: d Textbook Reference: Heat Transfer between Animals and Their Environments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. An animal that can function effectively over a wide range of temperatures and cannot elevate its tissue temperature above the environmental temperature is a a. stenothermal poikilotherm. b. stenothermal endotherm. c. eurythermal endotherm. d. eurythermal poikilotherm.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 8. As environmental temperature increases, a poikilotherm’s metabolic rate a. stays the same if it is within its thermoneutral zone. b. increases linearly. c. increases exponentially. d. can either increase or decrease, depending on the species.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 9. If metabolic rate (M) were a true exponential function of the body temperature (TB) of an ectotherm, which equation would describe that relationship? (Assume that a and n are constants for each data set.) a. M = a·10n·TB b. TB = aMn c. M = aTB10·n d. TB = aM10·n Answer: a Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

10. Some Antarctic molluscs die of heat stress if their body temperature rises above 2°C and some tropical molluscs die of cold stress if cooled to 4°C. This comparison illustrates a. the phenomenon of acclimation. b. the phenomenon of acclimatization. c. the phenomenon of evolutionary specialization. d. that the pejus temperature for molluscs is about 3°C. Answer: c Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 11. Why do the eyes of cows and soldierfish get cold cataracts at low temperatures, while the lenses of the Antarctic toothfish stay clear? a. Toothfish are acclimatized to cold; cows and soldierfish are not. b. The chemical structure of the crystalline proteins of the toothfish differ from that of the cow and the soldierfish. c. Toothfish have tissues that serve as heaters to keep their eyes warm in cold water; the cow and the soldierfish do not. d. Toothfish are eurythermal; the cow and soldierfish are stenothermal.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 12. If the temperature of the oceans increased by 4°C, which organism would likely be most affected? a. Pagothenia (an Antarctic genus of fish) b. The mullet (a warm water fish) c. Temperate water gobies d. A very eurythermal fish Answer: a Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 13. Animals from numerous habitats tend to have relatively similar membrane fluidities when they are living at their respective, normal body temperatures. The relative constancy of membrane fluidity regardless of tissue temperature is called a. lipid stabilization. b. saturation dynamics. c. bilayer constancy. d. homeoviscous adaptation.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Poikilothermy (Ectothermy) Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14. Homeothermy is a. the regulation of body temperature by physiological means. b. the regulation of body temperature through behavior.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. the regulation of metabolic rate within the thermal neutral zone. d. equal to basal metabolic rate plus external work.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 15. As a mammal experiences an increase in ambient temperature from the lower critical temperature to the upper critical temperature, its body temperature _______, metabolic rate _______, and thermal conductance _______. a. increases; increases; increases b. increases; is relatively constant; decreases c. is relatively constant; is relatively constant; decreases d. is relatively constant; is relatively constant; increases Answer: d Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 16. Which mechanism is used by mammals, but not birds, to ameliorate heat stress at temperatures above thermoneutrality? a. Shivering b. Sweating c. Gular fluttering d. Panting Answer: b Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 17. In the studies of Hill et al., the ear temperatures of resting jackrabbits were at about 8°C when air temperature was 8°C. Immediately after running, the rabbits registered ear temperatures higher than 30°C, but in less than 30 minutes the temperatures had returned to about 8°C. What is the likely reason for the increase in ear temperature during running? a. An increase in radiative heat gain by the ears b. An increase in convective heat gain by the ears c. Dissipation of excess metabolic heat produced during running d. Retention of body heat during exercise Answer: c Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 18. During a bout of fever in a placental mammal, _______ of cutaneous vascular beds are activated when the set point of the thermoregulatory control system is above body temperature. When the set point of the thermoregulatory control system is below body temperature, _______ of cutaneous vascular beds are activated. a. sweating and vasodilation; shivering and vasoconstriction b. sweating and vasoconstriction; shivering and vasodilation

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. shivering and vasodilation; sweating and vasoconstriction d. shivering and vasoconstriction; sweating and vasodilation Answer: d Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 19. In a limb, a countercurrent flow arrangement of arteries and veins short-circuits the flow of _______ down its length. a. heat b. oxygen c. nutrients d. waste products Answer: a Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 20. Antelope ground squirrels are diurnally active rodents that live in hot deserts. In summer, they alternate between trips above-ground and trips down to their cooler burrows. When they are above-ground their body temperature temporarily rises (transient hyperthermia). This most likely a. conserves energy. b. conserves water. c. occurs because they are not capable of thermoregulation. d. allows them to bring heat back down into the burrows to warm their young.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Homeothermy in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 21. Countercurrent heat exchange is important in the _______ of a warm-bodied fish. a. backbone b. gills c. red swimming muscles d. white swimming muscles Answer: c Textbook Reference: Warm-Bodied Fish Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 11: Food, Energy, and Temperature AT WORK: The Lives of Mammals in Frigid Places TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. Reindeer have low energy costs in cold environments because of their a. skin. b. pelage. c. hypodermis. d. antlers.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the Lives of Adult Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. In winter, reindeer _______ is _______. a. fur; 3–4 cm thick. b. fur; 1–2 cm thick. c. skin; 3–4 cm thick. d. skin; 1–2 cm thick.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the Lives of Adult Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. In winter, reindeer have low energy costs because they a. increase their heart rate. b. change their behavior by constantly moving to warm up. c. maintain different temperatures in different body parts. d. hide in caves where the temperature is warmer.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the Lives of Adult Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. According to the experiment done by Nilssen et al. (1984), the resting metabolic rate in adult reindeer during winter a. increases dramatically as the air temperature changes from –40°C to –20°C.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. decreases significantly as the air temperature changes from 20°C to 40°C. c. remains about the same as the air temperature changes from 0°C to 10°C. d. decreases drastically as the air temperature changes from 0°C to 10°C. Answer: c Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the Lives of Adult Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 5. Oleic acid is _______ and contains _______ double bond(s). a. monounsaturated; 1 b. monounsaturated; 2 c. polyunsaturated; 1 d. polyunsaturated; 2 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the Lives of Adult Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 6. Fatty acids isolated from the distal limb of a reindeer would consist of a. unsaturated fatty acids only. b. some saturated fatty acids and some unsaturated fatty acids. c. fatty acids that aggregate to form triglycerides. d. more unsaturated than saturated fatty acids.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the Lives of Adult Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 7. Which statement regarding microbes in reindeer rumen is false? a. Microbes that digest fibers are less prevalent in summer communities than winter communities. b. Microbes that digest cellulose are less prevalent in winter communities than summer communities. c. Microbes that digest proteins are more prevalent in summer communities than winter communities. d. Microbes that digest starch are more prevalent in summer communities than winter communities.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the Lives of Adult Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. In response to seasonal diets, the microbial community in reindeer will preferentially breakdown _______ in the winter. a. chitin b. fiber

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. protein d. starch Answer: b Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the Lives of Adult Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9.–11. Refer to the figure below.

9. What is this figure showing? a. Maximum metabolic rate at various temperatures in summer-acclimatized and winteracclimatized reindeer b. Resting metabolic rate at various temperatures in summer-acclimatized and winteracclimatized reindeer c. Maximum metabolic rate at various temperatures in a northern species and southern species of reindeer d. Resting metabolic rate at various temperatures in a northern species and southern species of reindeer Answer: b Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the Lives of Adult Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 10. According to the figure, which animal is saving the most energy? a. Summer-acclimatized reindeer at 10°C b. Summer-acclimatized reindeer at –30°C c. Winter-acclimatized reindeer at 10°C d. Winter-acclimatized reindeer at –30°C

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the Lives of Adult Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 11. If animals in both groups of animals were exposed to progressively higher air temperatures than shown, and data collection from the experiment continued, what results would you expect to see? a. Both metabolic rates would remain flat. b. Both metabolic rates would decrease, however, the summer-acclimatized reindeer would decrease first. c. Both metabolic rates would increase, however, the winter-acclimatized reindeer would increase first. d. Only the summer-acclimatized metabolic rates would decrease.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the Lives of Adult Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 12. Which animal has the highest mass-specific metabolic rate? a. Summer-acclimatized reindeer at 10°C b. Summer-acclimatized reindeer at –30°C c. Winter-acclimatized reindeer at 10°C d. Winter-acclimatized reindeer at –30°C Answer: b Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the Lives of Adult Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 13. As the ambient temperature drops below zero, a newborn reindeer’s resting metabolic rate a. increases. b. decreases. c. stays the same. d. decreases first and then levels off.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14. If a newborn reindeer’s maximum rate of metabolic heat production is 10 watts/kg, its resting metabolic rate is _______ watts/kg. a. 20 b. 10 c. 5 d. 15 Answer: c

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 15. Which protein is found in brown fat? a. UCP1 b. UCP2 c. UCP1 and UCP2 d. UCP1 and UCP3 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. Which hormone was used to test for brown-fat function in newborn reindeer? a. Thyroxine b. Epinephrine c. Cortisol d. Testosterone Answer: b Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 17. Which marker is used to test for the presence of brown fat? a. UCP1 b. Lactate dehydrogenase c. UCP2 d. Hexokinase Answer: a Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 18. In newborn humans, brown fat concentration is a. high and remains high throughout growth. b. low and remains low throughout growth. c. high and declines as growth occurs. d. low and increases as growth occurs.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 19. If you were to do an immunocytochemistry experiment on a newborn reindeer, a onemonth-old reindeer, and a two-month-old reindeer to test for the presence of brown fat, your results would show a _______ amount of brown fat on the _______ compared to the _______-month old. a. higher; newborn; one b. lower; newborn; one c. lower; newborn; two

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. higher; one-month-old; two Answer: a Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 20. The elevated rate of oxygen consumption response to norepinephrine in newborn reindeer has declined by _______ of age. a. one week b. one month c. two months d. one year Answer: b Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 21. The major role of brown fat is to a. warm the body by acting as insulation. b. provide an energy source for muscle movement by storing lots of triglycerides. c. warm the body by nonshivering mechanisms. d. provide a source of fat for phospholipid synthesis.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 22. If an adult animal had a lot of brown fat, a. its metabolic rate would be higher at rest compared to an animal of the same size that does not have a lot of brown fat. b. its metabolic rate would be lower during exercise compared to an animal of the same size that does not have a lot of brown fat. c. it would facilitate the storage of high-energy triglycerides. d. the metabolism of its brown fat cells would increase during exercise due to the release of cortisol.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 23. Which would have more brown fat, a lamb born in Palm Desert or one born in Alaska? a. The lamb born in Alaska b. The lamb born in Palm Desert c. Both lambs will have an equal amount of brown fat d. Neither; brown fat is not produced in sheep Answer: a Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

24. Which newborn animal does not have brown fat? a. Reindeer b. Mice c. Lamb d. Piglet Answer: d Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 25. Studies on domestic pigs have shown that the UCP1 gene is a. duplicated. b. mutated during the birthing process. c. mutated by a deletion of 2 exons. d. mutated by a deletion of 2 introns.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 26. How do newborn piglets stay warm? a. Very thick fur b. Non-shivering thermogenesis c. Shivering thermogenesis d. Very thick layer of blubber Answer: c Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 27.–28. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

27. What does the figure show? a. Changes in fur thickness as a function of temperature in four different species b. Changes in metabolic rate as a function of temperature in different seasons c. Changes in nonshivering thermogenesis as a function of temperature in different aged animals d. Changes in metabolic rate as a function of temperature in different aged animals Answer: d Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 28. Which line most closely approximates an adult animal in the summer season? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 29. Lambs born to shorn mothers _______ at birth compared to lambs born to unshorn mothers. a. shiver more b. engage in exercise more c. have more brown fat d. have less brown fat Answer: c Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 30. If near-term sheep fetuses with normal blood circulation are cooled inside the uteruses of their mothers, a. brown fat is upregulated. b. the fetus shivers. c. fetal metabolic rate increases. d. nothing happens.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 31. Which animal will have the greatest amount of brown fat, relative to its body, at birth? a. Lamb b. Piglet c. Mouse d. Rat Answer: a Textbook Reference: Thermoregulatory Development: Small Mammals Compared with Large Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 32. Which will favor nonshivering thermoregulation at birth, a reindeer or a mouse? a. The reindeer, because it is a larger mammal. b. Both mice and reindeer use nonshivering thermogenesis at birth. c. The mouse, because it is a small mammal. d. The mouse, because it has to avoid predators.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Thermoregulatory Development: Small Mammals Compared with Large Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 33. Which mammal would be most likely to maintain some brown fat as an adult? a. Mouse b. Beaver c. Dog d. Reindeer Answer: a Textbook Reference: Thermoregulatory Development: Small Mammals Compared with Large Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 34. Which statement about white-footed mice newborns is false? a. They are born in a highly protective habitat. b. They can fully thermoregulate in isolation.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. They do not have any fur covering their bodies. d. They can keep warm by shivering in secluded underground burrows.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Thermoregulatory Development: Small Mammals Compared with Large Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 35. Which of the following is an advantage for small mammals, such as lemmings, in the winter? a. They can escape the cold by huddling together. b. They can thermoregulate to lower their core temperature when ambient temperatures are –30°C. c. They can escape the cold by living under the snow. d. They can keep warm because they grow a very thick pelage.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Thermoregulatory Development: Small Mammals Compared with Large Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 36. The single greatest option large-bodied mammals have to beat the cold environment is a. migration. b. daily torpor. c. hibernation. d. growing fur.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Effect of Body Size on Mammals’ Lives in Cold Environments: An Overview Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 37. Which animal is most likely to have the advantage of migration to a warmer region as winter approaches? a. Adult white footed mouse b. Lemming c. Alpine marmot d. Bighorn sheep Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Effect of Body Size on Mammals’ Lives in Cold Environments: An Overview Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 38. Based on the relationship of metabolic rate and body weight, an animal that weighs _______ kg as an adult is most likely to hibernate. a. 4 b. 9 c. 10

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. 20 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 39. Which animal has the lowest weight-specific metabolic rate? a. Nonhibernating mouse b. Small reindeer c. Bear d. Elephant Answer: d Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 40. An animal that weighs _______ will have the lowest weight-specific metabolic rate. a. 100 g b. 1000 g c. 10 kg d. 100 kg Answer: d Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 41. Physiologists have always pondered the relationship of body size to the evolution of hibernation. Based on evolutionary theory, an animal of that weighs _______ kg will have the least energy savings in hibernation. a. 400 b. 300 c. 200 d. 100 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 42. Which animal will have the highest weight-specific metabolic rate during hibernation? a. Mouse b. Marmot c. Bear d. All animals listed will have the same mass-specific metabolic rate during hibernation.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 43. Which hibernating animal will have the highest weight-specific metabolic rate in the summer?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. Mouse b. Marmot c. Bear d. All animals listed will have the same mass-specific metabolic rate in the summer.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 44. Which animal does not hibernate? a. Arctic ground squirrel b. Reindeer c. Alpine marmot d. Hoary bat Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 45. Permafrost is a. soil that thaws in the summer. b. soil that never freezes. c. soil that never melts throughout the year. d. frost that never melts, (e.g., icebergs).

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 46. Ground squirrels that live in the Arctic Circle cannot burrow deeper than _______ m. a. 0.1 b. 0.5 c. 0.8 d. 1 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 47. During winter in the Arctic Circle, the temperature inside a ground squirrel hibernacula could reach as low as a. –25°C. b. –20°C. c. –10°C. d. 10°C. Answer: a Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 48. The fat stored in animals prior to hibernation is in the form of

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. fatty acids. b. glycerol. c. triacylglycerols. d. phospholipids.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 49. Which of the following is most likely the cue for animals to begin to store nutrients in preparation for hibernation? a. Changes in Earth’s magnetic field b. Decrease in length of daylight in the fall c. Change in temperature in the spring d. Change in temperature in the fall Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 50. Researchers have shown that animals that consume a diet rich in _______ can tolerate the lowest body temperature without being aroused from hibernation. a. carbohydrates b. protein c. saturated fats d. unsaturated fats Answer: d Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 51. When experimental animals are fed different diets and their subsequent hibernation times are measured, the animals that hibernate the most effectively are animals that were fed a _______ diet. a. starchy b. polyunsaturated fatty acid c. mixed 75% saturated and 25% unsaturated fat d. protein Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 52. When experimental animals are fed different diets and their body temperature is monitored during subsequent hibernation, the animals that tolerate the lowest body temperature without arousal are the animals that were fed a a. carbohydrate-rich diet. b. polyunsaturated fatty acids diet. c. mixed diet of 65% saturated and 35% unsaturated fat. d. protein diet.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 53. When experimental animals are fed different diets and the length of each continuous hibernation bout at an ambient temperature of 5° C is measured, animals that have the shortest continuous hibernation bouts are the animals that have been fed a a. carbohydrate-rich diet. b. polyunsaturated fatty acids diet. c. saturated fat diet. d. protein-rich diet.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 54. Which type of fat is important for calcium pump function in heart cells at low temperatures? a. Saturated fatty acids b. Triglycerides c. Omega-3 fatty acids d. Omega-6 fatty acids Answer: d Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 55. An early hypothesis for arousal during hibernation was that animals a. must wake up to metabolize glucose in their brains. b. produce nitrogenous wastes and therefore must wake up to void. c. must wake up because they need to move their muscles regularly. d. must wake up and move because they need to circulate their blood.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 56. In ground squirrels, testosterone levels _______ during hibernation. a. increase b. decrease c. stay the same d. initially increase and then decrease Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 57. Which statement about small hibernating mammals is true? a. Their chances for survival increase during hibernation. b. Their chances for survival decrease with hibernation.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. Their chances of encountering a predator increase with hibernation. d. Testosterone plasma levels increase during hibernation.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 58. In ground squirrels, males emerge before females because a. males have more body mass and therefore can arouse sooner. b. males have less brown fat and therefore cannot hibernate as long as females can. c. the higher testosterone levels in males rouses them. d. the testicles shrink during hibernation, so males emerge first to prepare to be successful mates.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 59.–60. Refer to the figure below.

59. In the figure, what do the arrows represent? a. Energy savings per gram per hour during hibernation b. The aerobic scope per gram per hour in relation to body mass c. The winter season metabolic effect per gram per hour d. The mass effect on cost of metabolism with winter fur insulation Answer: a Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 60. Which statement is not supported by data shown in the figure? a. Larger animals save less energy during hibernation. b. Smaller animals have higher nonhibernating metabolic rates. c. There is no mass effect on metabolic rate in hibernating animals. d. The larger the animal, the less likely they are to hibernate.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 61.–62. Refer to the figure below.

61. What is the most accurate title for this figure? a. Annual cycle of energy use in alpine marmots b. Annual metabolic rate cycling in ground squirrels c. Hibernation frequency in alpine marmots d. Hibernation effects on metabolic rate in ground squirrels Answer: a Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

62. What best represents the actual cost savings of hibernation? a. Line I b. The difference between line I and line II c. Line II d. The difference between line II and line III Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 63.–64. Refer to the figure below.

63. What is indicated by the arrow in the figure? a. End of hibernation b. Birth c. Beginning of hibernation d. Beginning of mating season Answer: a Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 64. Which conclusion is best supported by the data in the figure? a. As temperature increases, testicle size and testosterone level increase. b. Following birth, testicle size and testosterone level increase. c. Following hibernation, both testosterone levels and testicle size increase. d. Longer summer days increase testosterone levels and testicle size.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

Short Answer 1. Explain the differences between brown fat and white fat.

Answer: Brown fat is much richer in mitochondria than white fat and therefore it increases metabolism. The fat deposits in brown fat adipocytes are multilocular, whereas white adipose deposits are unilocular. Many studies have shown that brown fat decreases with age in many animals, whereas the quantity of white fat cells increases over the course of an animal’s life.

Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. Describe the immunocytochemistry assay that was devised to test for brown fat in newborn reindeer.

Answer: In the lab, experimenters produced antibodies to UCP1, found virtually exclusively in brown fat. They then subjected different fat tissue samples from newborn reindeer to the antibodies to UCP1 produced in the laboratory. The UCP1 in a newborn reindeer can be identified by its antigen–antibody reaction (immunocytochemistry).

Studies have shown that all of the major adipose-tissue deposits in newborn reindeer react with UCP1 antibodies.

Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. It has been shown that fetuses inside the uterus do not rely on brown fat and only begin to rely on it after birth. Describe an experiment to test this conclusion.

Answer: Separate the fetus’ circulation from the mother’s circulation by clamping the umbilical cord and measure changes in rate of O2 consumption in the fetus. The fetus will rapidly exhibit substantial nonshivering thermogenesis (NST). Another method is to lower the ambient temperature of the fetus by circulating chilled fluid through a tube coiled around the fetus while monitoring the fetus for NST. In the latter case, the fetus does not engage in NST. These results indicate that the placenta supplies a signaling molecule that inhibits the activation of brown fat.

Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

4. Explain how body size relates to weight-specific metabolic rate in hibernating and nonhibernating animals.

Answer: The weight-specific metabolic rates of hibernators in hibernation are the same, statistically, regardless of body size. However, when animals are not hibernating, smallbodied species have higher weight-specific metabolic rates than large-bodied species.

Thus, the energy saved by hibernation decreases as body size increases.

Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. Explain how technological advances have helped researchers record data pertaining to hibernation and other physiological mechanisms.

Answer: Early advances included small radio transmitters that could be implanted in animals and could report body temperatures by radiotelemetry. Today’s transmitters can continuously transmit data for many months, and they transmit their data directly to computers. In addition, data loggers are microcomputers that have large amounts of internal memory to store the temperature measurements they take. (Answers may also include the development of molecular genetic tools which have paved the way to understanding physiological mechanisms on a molecular level.)

Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. Explain how animals prepare for hibernation. Include the cues that trigger preparation, the type of nutrients stored, and the specific location of storage molecules.

Answer: Fattening is important to support metabolic needs during hibernation, thus animals that hibernate markedly increase their food consumption as winter approaches.

The extra fat storage takes time and it must be set in motion by cues or processes that occur well in advance of winter stresses. In some species, the primary controls of fattening are photoperiodic—the shortening of day length in autumn. In other species, the timing of fattening is endogenously programmed and under the control of a circannual biological clock. Consumed fat is stored in white fat tissue. Triacylglycerols are stored in adipocytes.

Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. Which hypotheses for arousal during hibernation are currently popular?

Answer: Recent studies of brain function have suggested that brain dendrites tend to be lost and synapses tend to deteriorate during hypothermia; arousal is required to restore dendrites and synapses. Another theory postulates that normal immune responses may be downregulated or blocked during hypothermia. Periodic arousals allow periodic function of the immune system, thereby enabling hibernators to better combat pathogenic organisms during hibernation.

Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. Explain social hibernation using a specific animal example.

Answer: During social hibernation, individuals hibernate in social groups. Alpine

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

marmots, for example, live throughout the year in social groups and a typical social group consists of a dominant male and female and an assemblage of related, younger animals of various ages. All these animals hibernate together in sets that number up to 20 individuals.

Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Explain the significance of social hibernation.

Answer: Social hibernation has been shown to increase each individual’s chance of survival, particularly among juveniles. To survive hibernation, marmots do not allow their body temperatures to go below 3–4°C in winter, even though temperatures in their hibernacula are often lower, meaning that hibernating animals must elevate their metabolic rates to keep their body temperatures from going too low. Animals huddled together in a large cluster are better insulated and require a smaller increase in metabolic rate than those hibernating alone or in small groups.

Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Explain how certain animals undergo synchrony in their hibernation.

Answer: Adults and subadults in a hibernating group of alpine marmots usually undergo their periodic arousals in close synchrony. This synchrony lowers their mutual energy costs to arouse. If a single adult were to arouse alone within a hibernating group, it would experience heightened energy costs in the group because the cold bodies of the other animals in the group, pressed closely against it, would increase the heat production required to raise its own body temperature. Adults and subadults in a group arouse simultaneously, thereby lowering each other’s arousal energy costs by mutually warming each other.

Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. In the distal limb of a reindeer, the lipid composition a. is mostly stearic acid. b. is mostly palmitic acid. c. has a very small amount of oleic acid. d. has a high proportion of oleic acid.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the Lives of Adult Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Which statement about reindeer is false? a. There is more unsaturated fat in the distal limb than in the proximal limb.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. The microbe composition in their rumen changes in winter. c. In winter, their ability to digest cellulose decreases. d. Palmitic acid and stearic acid are less abundant in the distal limb.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the Lives of Adult Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. Stearic acid is _______ and contains _______ double bond (s) a. saturated; 0 b. monounsaturated; 1 c. polyunsaturated; 1 d. polyunsaturated; 2 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the Lives of Adult Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. Which fatty acid would you expect to find in the proximal limb of a reindeer? a. Only stearic acid b. Only oleic acid c. Triglycerides d. Some saturated fatty acids and some unsaturated fatty acids.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Food, Nutrition, Energy Metabolism, and Thermoregulation in the Lives of Adult Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 5. A newborn reindeer with a resting metabolic rate of 10 watts/kg may have a rate of metabolic heat production of _______watts/kg. a. 20 b. 10 c. 5 d. 1 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 6. Which statement regarding microbes in the rumen of reindeer is true? a. The microbes increase their activity to digest cellulose in summer as compared to winter. b. In winter, microbes that digest xylan decrease in activity relative to their activity in summer. c. In summer, microbes that digest proteins increase in activity relative to their activity in winter.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. In summer, microbes that digest starch decrease slightly in activity relative to their activity in winter.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 7. The gene for UCP1 is no longer expressed in newborn reindeer by _______ of age. a. 1 week b. 1 month c. 2 months d. 1 year Answer: b Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 8. Which organelle is found in large quantities in brown fat cells? a. Nucleus b. Lysosome c. Mitochondria d. Golgi apparatus Answer: c Textbook Reference: Newborn Reindeer Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 9. Which ability is most advantageous for a large mammal, such as a reindeer, in a cold environment? a. The ability to escape the cold by living under the snow b. Possessing physiological modifications to thermoregulate c. Finding refuge d. Producing very thick pelage Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Effect of Body Size on Mammals’ Lives in Cold Environments: An Overview Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Mammals that weigh _______ are generally not hibernators. a. 6 g b. 1 kg c. 4 kg d. 50 kg Answer: d Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 11. Which animal would have the least energy savings per gram if it were to hibernate? a. Elephant

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. Bear c. Mouse d. Squirrel Answer: a Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 12. Hibernators store fat in a. hepatocytes. b. enterocytes. c. adipocytes. d. reticulocytes.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 13. Which statement about hibernating animals storing nutrients to prepare for hibernation is true? a. Some animals start storing nutrients based on photoperiodic cues. b. Some animals start storing nutrients based on pheromonal signals. c. Some animals start storing nutrients just before the first frost. d. Some animals start storing nutrients based on behavioral signals.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 14. The most common macromolecule stored in the adipocytes of animals prior to hibernation is a. carbohydrate. b. fat. c. protein. d. nucleic acid.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 15. Which diet supports longer bouts of hibernation? a. High starch diet b. Protein-rich grain diet c. Nucleic acid-rich diet d. Polyunsaturated fat-rich diet Answer: d Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. An animal with a saturated fatty acid to polyunsaturated fatty acid ratio of _______

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

will have the best hibernation performance. a. 3:1 b. 2:1 c. 1.5:1 d. 1:1 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 17. Animals are fed different diets and their oxygen consumption at an ambient temperature of 2°C is measured. The animals that will have the lowest oxygen consumption are the animals that have been fed a _______ diet. a. carbohydrate-rich b. polyunsaturated fatty acid-rich c. saturated fat-rich d. protein-rich Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 18. Which is a plausible rationale for periodic arousal of animals during hibernation? a. To restore synapses in the brain b. To void c. To exercise muscles d. To increase blood circulation Answer: a Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 19. If one alpine marmot consumes a diet poor in omega-6 PUFAs and another alpine marmot consumes a diet rich in omega-6 PUFAs, the animal that consumed fewer omega-6 PUFAs would a. lose more weight during hibernation. b. be a more effective hibernator. c. have a lower body temperature. d. have a superior lipid matrix for membrane protein function.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 20. In ground squirrels, the size of testes _______ during hibernation. a. increases b. decreases c. stays the same d. increases first and then decreases Answer: b

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Hibernation as a Winter Strategy: New Directions and Discoveries Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 12: Neurons TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. Initiation of the action potential usually occurs _______ of the neuron. a. in the cell body b. on the dendrites c. at the axon initial segment d. on the axon Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Control: Neurons and Endocrine Cells Compared Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Which statement about an animal’s nervous system is true? a. Neurotransmitter is released throughout the body via the blood. b. Signal transmission rate is relatively slow. c. Neurons form highly discrete lines of communication. d. Action potential signals degrade over distance.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Control: Neurons and Endocrine Cells Compared Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. For a hormone to elicit a specific response from a cell, the cell must possess a. a synapse. b. a cell body. c. dendrites specific to the hormone. d. receptor proteins specific to the hormone.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Control: Neurons and Endocrine Cells Compared Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Which statement about the startle response of the cockroach is true? a. Vibrations of hairs generate nerve impulses in sensory neurons. b. Sound waves or air currents synapse with the filiform hairs. c. Sensory neurons synapse with and excite the dorsal hollow spinal cord. © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. At the metathoracic ganglion, the interneurons synaptically inhibit leg motor neurons.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neurons Are Organized into Functional Circuits in Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 5. Which glial cells are found in the peripheral nervous system? a. Oligodendrocytes b. Schwann cells c. Astrocytes d. Microglial cells Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Cellular Organization of Neural Tissue Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 6. Which statement about glial cells is true? a. They integrate cell membrane potentials to enhance or inhibit action potentials. b. They decrease the velocity of nerve-impulse propagation. c. They help supply metabolic substrates to neurons. d. They act as metabolic intermediaries between epithelial cells and neurons.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Cellular Organization of Neural Tissue Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. The separation of positive and negative charges constitutes a. resistance. b. an electric current. c. a voltage. d. capacitance.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 8. Which statement about membrane capacitance is true? a. It is in series with membrane resistance. b. In a cell, the membrane separates only similarly charged ions. c. It is measured in ohms. d. It is a function of the permeability of the membrane.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9.–10. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

9. What is occurring at the membrane? a. Depolarization b. Hyperpolarization c. Increase in resistance d. Decrease in capacitance Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 10. In the lower panel, the difference between the dashed line and the solid red line is due to a. membrane resistance. b. the fact that one represents a depolarization and the other represents a hyperpolarization. c. the capacitive properties of the membrane. d. the difference in applied voltage.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 11.–13. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

11. In the figure, the _______ decreases with distance. a. graded potential b. action potential c. membrane current d. membrane capacitance Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 12. Which statement offers the best explanation for the difference between the middle panel and the lower panel? a. The membrane in the lower panel is producing a lower current. b. There is a lower resistance in the lower panel at the point where voltage is measured. c. There is a greater capacitance in the lower panel at the point where voltage is measured. d. The membrane voltage measured in the lower panel is farther away from the current pulse.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 13. The properties shown in the figure can be measured in a. neurons. b. neurons and pacemaker cells. c. muscle cells. d. neurons, pacemaker cells, and muscle cells © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 14. Which variable does not contribute to the passive electrical properties of a cell? a. Membrane resistance b. Membrane capacitance c. The resting membrane current d. The time constant Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 15.–16. Refer to the figure below.

15. The figure shows that the membrane potential results from a. the six pairs of ions sitting on the membrane. b. the thousands of ions sitting on the membrane. c. the overall difference intra- and extra cellular ion concentrations in the volume of cell shown. d. movement of ions across the cell membrane.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 16. In the figure, _______in the center of the cell. a. there would be a slight negative charge

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. there would be a strong negative charge c. the overall charge neutrality would be maintained independently of the membrane potential d. there would be a slight positive charge Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 17. Which characteristic is not a factor in the Nernst Equation? a. Capacitance b. Temperature c. The valence of the ion species d. The ion concentrations on the two sides of the membrane Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 18. In a cell, the difference in ion concentration between the intracellular and extracellular fluids results from a. active ion transport. b. passive diffusion of ions. c. bulk movements of intracellular and extracellular fluids. d. both active ion transport and passive diffusion of ions.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 19. According to the Nernst equation, which change will depolarize Vm, the membrane potential? a. A decrease in temperature b. An increase in the valence of the ion species involved c. A decrease in the concentration of anions inside the membrane d. A decrease in the electromotive force of the ion Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 20. Which statement regarding the ions in intracellular and extracellular fluids in a standard animal cell is true? a. Na+ leaks into the cell rapidly because its electrochemical gradient is large. b. K+ leaks out of the cell slowly because the electrochemical gradient is small. c. Cl– leaks into the cell rapidly because its electrochemical gradient is large. d. Negatively charged proteins leak out of the cell slowly because their electrochemical gradient is small.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 21. According to the Goldman equation, the contribution of each ion to the membrane potential depends most on a. its size. b. its membrane permeability. c. its activation energy. d. the resting membrane potential.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 22. Which structure is most responsible for the all-or-none property of the action potential? a. Myelin b. Voltage-gated K+ channels c. Voltage-gated Na+ channels d. Leakage of K+ channels Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 23.–26. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

23. Which arrow best represents the point where permeability to sodium is the highest? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 24. Which arrow best represents the point where the voltage-gated sodium channels are inactivated? a. I b. III c. IV d. III and IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 25. _______ channels are responsible for the undershoot at point D of the figure. a. Voltage-gated sodium b. Voltage-gated potassium c. Ligand-gated potassium d. Voltage-gated calcium Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 26. What occurs when the membrane is clamped at –100 mV? a. Voltage-gated ion channels behave in a similar manner as in the diagram. b. Voltage-gated ion channels do not open at all. c. There is a brief shift in ions and then a flat current at –100 mV. d. Only ligand-gated channels work at this point.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 27.–29. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

27. How many separate current pulses cause the membrane potential to reach the threshold? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5 Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 28. What would likely occur if stimulus 3 and 6 were performed simultaneously? a. An action potential would likely occur. b. An action potential would likely not occur. c. Multiple action potentials would likely occur. d. The threshold voltage would likely decrease.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 29. If stimulating current pulse 9 (not shown) was both stronger and longer than stimulating current pulse 8, then a. the train of action potentials would continue for the length of the stimulating current. b. action potentials would increase in amplitude. c. action potentials would first increase in frequency and then decrease. d. the line at stimulus 9 would look exactly same as the line at stimulus 8.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 30. For an axon at resting membrane potential, the K+ leak channel is _______, the voltage-gated Na+ channel is _______, and the voltage-gated K+ channel is _______. a. open; inactivated; closed b. closed; inactivated; closed © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. open; inactivated; open d. open; closed; closed Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 31. During the falling phase of an action potential, the K+ leak channel on the axon is _______, the voltage-gated Na+ channel is _______, and the voltage-gated K+ channel is _______. a. open; inactivated; closed b. closed; inactivated; closed c. open; inactivated; open d. open; closed; closed Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 32.–34. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

32. Which technique was used to collect the data in the bottom panel? a. Patch-clamp b. Voltage-clamp c. Current-clamp d. Hodgkin clamp Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 33. On the figure, I represents _______ currents through voltage-gated _______ channels. a. outward; Na+ b. inward; Na+ c. outward; K+ © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. inward; K+ Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 34. Why do the channels at II on the figure stay open longer than those at I? a. Channels at I are responding to a depolarization, whereas channels at II are responding to a hyperpolarization. b. The depolarization is a faster event compared to the repolarization. c. Channels at I are less sensitive to voltage compared to channels at II. d. Channels at I become inactivated, whereas channels at II close due to membrane voltage.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 35.–37. Refer to the figure below:

35. Which technique was used to collect the data shown in the figure? a. Patch-clamp b. Hodgkin clamp c. Current-clamp d. Voltage-clamp Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 36. The treatment difference between the membranes shown in the graphs is that the membrane on the left is being _______, while the membrane on the right is being _______. a. depolarized; depolarized in Na+-free seawater b. hyperpolarized; hyperpolarized in an isoionic Na+ solution c. hyperpolarized; depolarized d. depolarized; hyperpolarized © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 37. How would the trace on the right look if the neuron was soaking in TEA? a. The inward ionic current would disappear. b. The outward ionic current would disappear. c. The trace would look exactly like the trace in the left panel. d. The outward ionic current would be amplified.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 38. Which statement about a voltage clamp of a neuron at 0 mV is true? a. Once clamped, the membrane depolarizes then returns to resting potential. b. Voltage-gated potassium channels open. c. Apart from the initial current shift from the clamp, no other current is produced. d. Voltage-gated sodium channels close Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 39. Which statement regarding the structure of the voltage-gated Na+ channels is false? a. P loops mediate ion selectivity. b. It has four domains with extensive sequence homology. c. The channel protein changes its primary structure in response to membrane depolarization. d. A cytoplasmic loop is thought to inactivate the channel by blocking the opening.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 40. A spiking neuron and a nonspiking neuron share which characteristic? a. High concentration of voltage-gated Na+ channels at the axon hillock b. A graded potential down the entire length of the axon c. An action potential down the entire length of the axon d. Neurotransmitter secretion based on a change in membrane potential Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 41. How do nonspiking neurons function even though their depolarization signal significantly degrades with distance? a. Voltage-gated Na+ channels are replaced by ligand-gated Na+ channels. b. These neurons are very short, so there is no major signal decrement.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. There are sufficient numbers of voltage-gated Na+ channels to convey the signal without major decrement. d. Voltage-gated K+ channels compensate for the lack of voltage-gated Na+ channels.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

42.–44. Refer to the figure below.

42. The figure depicts a a. neuronal action potential. b. cardiac action potential. c. pacemaker potential. d. graded potential.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 43. What is the best explanation for the plateau shown in the figure? a. Voltage-gated Na+ channels remain open. b. Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels remain open. c. Voltage-gated K+ channels close. d. Leaky K+ channels remain open.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 44. Which statement about ion permeability as shown in the figure is true? a. K+ permeability is at its lowest very close to the membrane potential peak. © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. K+ permeability is at its highest very close to the membrane potential peak. c. Na+ permeability is at its lowest very close to the membrane potential peak. d. Na+ permeability is at its highest very close to the membrane potential peak.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 45. The absolute refractory period of the action potential is best explained by a. inactivated voltage-gated sodium channels. b. closed voltage-gated sodium channels. c. open slow calcium channels. d. inactivated voltage-gated potassium channels.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 46. Which statement about a local circuit in an axon is false? a. Ions flow in intracellular fluid, carrying current to more distant parts of the membrane. b. At the membrane, the ion movements change the distribution of charges on the membrane capacitance. c. An ionic current completes the local circuit as cations move toward the locus of the action potential and anions move away. d. Anions migrate into the membrane interior.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Propagation of Action Potentials Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 47. _______ prevents bidirectional propagation of action potentials. a. The inactivation of Na+ channels b. A decrease in membrane resistance c. Myelination d. The K+ channel Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Propagation of Action Potentials Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 48. Conduction velocity shows _______ axon diameter. a. a proportional relationship to b. a proportional relationship to the square root of c. an exponential relationship to d. either a proportional relationship to, or a proportional relationship to the square root of Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Propagation of Action Potentials Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

49. Considering neurons in living systems, which variable affects conduction velocity the most? a. Myelination b. Temperature c. Length d. Diameter Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Propagation of Action Potentials Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 50. Myelination by Schwann cells increases the velocity of action potential propagation by a. increasing the resistance and decreasing the capacitance, allowing the action potential to “jump” over the myelinated area. b. decreasing the resistance and increasing the capacitance, allowing the action potential to “jump” over the myelinated area. c. increasing the resistance and increasing the capacitance, allowing the action potential to “jump” over the myelinated area. d. increasing the diameter of the neuron.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Propagation of Action Potentials Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

Short Answer 1. Compare and contrast nervous systems and endocrine systems.

Answer: Neural and endocrine systems are both systems for communication within the body. Nervous systems are faster and capable of much finer temporal and spatial control, whereas endocrine systems typically control more widespread and prolonged activities.

Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Control: Neurons and Endocrine Cells Compared Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. Describe the startle response in the cockroach.

Answer: The cockroach’s startle response is a reflex. Sound waves or air vibrate the filiform hair receptors, which generate impulses in sensory neurons. The sensory neurons excite the giant interneurons that synapse with leg motor neurons. Once excited, the leg motor neurons activate the leg muscles.

Textbook Reference: Neurons Are Organized into Functional Circuits in Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. What are glial cells and how do they aid in the function of the nervous system?

Answer: Glial cells are the support cells of the nervous system. They form the myelin around neurons, which increases action potential velocity. They surround capillaries and

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

act as metabolic intermediaries between neurons and their circulatory supply. They also serve immune and scavenging functions in order to protect surrounding neurons.

Textbook Reference: The Cellular Organization of Neural Tissue Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Compare and contrast current and voltage with respect to the cell membrane.

Answer: The net movement of charge constitutes an electric current. The separation of positive and negative charges constitutes a voltage. In terms of the cell membrane, the current would be a flow of ions through channels in the membrane, whereas the voltage would be the separation of charges across the membrane.

Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. Since the bulk solutions that make up the intracellular and extracellular fluids maintain charge neutrality, how does the cell produce membrane potentials?

Answer: The charge separation producing the membrane potential is an extraordinarily local phenomenon. According to Figure 12.11, in any given 1 µm3 section around each side of the membrane, only six pairs of ions, from the 110,000 cations and 110,000 anions in each fluid compartment, need to sit on the membrane to charge its capacitance, producing a membrane potential of –90 mV. Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. Explain in mechanistic terms how the action potential is an all-or-none phenomenon.

Answer: The action potential is initiated only when a threshold depolarization is reached near the axon hillock. That is, a certain critical number of voltage-gated Na+ channels have to open in order to cause a depolarization that is strong enough to initiate the Hodgkin cycle and, by definition, perpetuate the further opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels via their own depolarization. If the threshold is not reached, there will be no Hodgkin cycle or action potential.

Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. Compare and contrast the techniques of patch clamping and voltage clamping.

Answer: Both patch clamping and voltage clamping provide experimental information about membrane currents, especially during an action potential. The patch-clamp technique uses a micropipette to record single channel currents, whereas the voltageclamp technique shows whole cell ionic currents.

Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. What are the similarities and differences among the channels in the voltage-gated channel superfamily?

Answer: All the voltage-gated channels have principal subunits with extensive sequence homology and thus are evolutionarily related. Voltage-gated Na+ and Ca2+ channels have

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

four domains, whereas the voltage-gated K+ channel has one domain that is homologous to one of the domains on the Na+ channel.

Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Explain in mechanistic terms why the action potential can travel a great distance along an axon without degrading.

Answer: The same mechanism that is responsible for the rising phase of the action potential also aids in its perpetuation along the axon without degradation. The action potential on one location on the axon can itself initiate an action potential at a neighboring location, and the induced action potential will have the same all-or-none amplitude as the original.

Textbook Reference: The Propagation of Action Potentials Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Describe the significance of myelination.

Answer: Myelination greatly increases conduction velocity of an axon by increasing the membrane resistance while decreasing the membrane capacitance. In other words, conduction velocity is increased by increasing the length constant without increasing the time constant. Action potentials occur only at the nodes of Ranvier, in a process that is called saltatory conduction.

Textbook Reference: The Propagation of Action Potentials Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. The neuron converts an electrical signal to a chemical signal in the a. dendrite. b. presynaptic terminal. c. cell body. d. axon hillock.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Control: Neurons and Endocrine Cells Compared Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Neurons that relay sensory signals to integrative centers of the CNS are called a. interneurons. b. afferent neurons. c. synaptic neurons. d. efferent neurons.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Physiology of Control: Neurons and Endocrine Cells Compared

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. Which glial cells function as metabolic intermediaries between capillaries and neurons? a. Schwann cells b. Oligodendrocites c. Astrocytes d. Microglial cells Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Cellular Organization of Neural Tissue Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. Which term best describes the movement of ions across a membrane? a. Current b. Voltage c. Resistance d. Capacitance Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. A decrease in the absolute value of the membrane potential toward zero is called a. depolarization. b. an action potential. c. hyperpolarization. d. a membrane potential.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 6. Which of the following actively contributes to the cell’s membrane potential? a. Permeability to K+ b. Permeability to Na+ c. The overall resistance of the membrane d. Electrogenic ion pumps Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 7. The time constant (τ) depends on the _______ of the membrane. a. resistance b. capacitance c. resistance and voltage d. resistance and capacitance Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. If a current pulse is generated on the membrane and creates a passive potential, which statement will be true? a. The change in the membrane potential will increase as the distance from the current pulse increases. b. The change in the membrane potential will decrease as the distance from the current pulse increases. c. The change in the membrane potential will remain constant throughout the length of the membrane. d. The change in the membrane potential will fluctuate depending on the strength of the initial current pulse.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 9. The plasma membrane of a resting neuron is most permeable to which ion? a. Na+ b. K+ c. Cl– d. Ca2+ Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. If ouabain was used to block Na+–K+-ATPase pumps, a. Na+ would go to equilibrium across the cell membrane. b. the membrane potential would become more negative. c. the concentration of K+ would be equal on both sides of the membrane. d. the cell would maintain steady state with a different membrane potential.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 11. In a typical neuron, which ion is in passive equilibrium across the cell membrane? a. Na+ b. K+ c. Cl– d. Both Na+ and K+ Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Ionic Basis of Membrane Potentials Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. A stimulating depolarizing current that depolarizes the axon hillock just slightly negative to the threshold will a. not change the overall membrane potential at all.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. produce an action potential. c. produce a very small action potential. d. produce a temporary graded potential.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 13. _______ channels govern the generation of an action potential. a. Ligand-gated Na+ b. Ligand-gated K+ c. Voltage-gated Na+ d. Voltage-gated K+ Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14. Considering the cycle of an action potential, when is the permeability to K+ at its greatest? a. During the resting membrane potential b. During the rising phase of the action potential c. At the peak of the action potential d. During the falling phase of the action potential Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 15. Which statement regarding the action potential is false? a. In an extremely long axon, the action potential eventually will degrade. b. During the “falling” phase, K+ permeability increases. c. During the “rising” phase, Na+ moves into the neuron. d. In the recovery phase, Na+ channels are closed.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 16. What allows the action potential to return to a repolarized state? a. Voltage-gated Na+ channels become inactivated. b. Voltage-gated K+ channels become inactivated. c. Na+ reaches equilibrium across the neural membrane and stops leaking in. d. Voltage-gated Na+ channels close.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 17. Which statement regarding cardiac pacemaker cells is false? a. They spontaneously generate action potentials.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. The frequency of action potential generation can be modified by neural input. c. The pacemaker cells are modified neural tissue. d. They are connected to myocardium via gap junctions.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 18. _______ are responsible for extending the time of the cardiac action potential relative to a neural action potential. a. Slow Ca2+ channels b. Slow Na+ channels c. Slow K+ channels d. Voltage-gated Na+ channels Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Action Potential Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 19. Which character of neurons affects conduction velocity the least? a. Axon diameter b. Myelination c. Axon length d. Temperature Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Propagation of Action Potentials Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 20. In myelinated axons, action potentials occur a. all along the axon. b. only at the internodes. c. only at the initial segment of the axon. d. only at the nodes of Ranvier.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Propagation of Action Potentials Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 17: Reproduction TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1.‒2. Refer to the figure below.

1. The figure shows a classic example of a. induced ovulation. b. testicular recrudescence. c. a follicle-stimulating hormone surge. d. seasonal ovulation.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Introduction © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 2. According to the figure, copulation triggers an increase in _______. a. luteinizing hormone b. follicle-stimulating hormone c. progesterone d. estrogen Answer: a Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. Which is the correct order of events leading to the luteinizing hormone surge? a. Copulation stimulates sensory neurons in the cervix → a surge of LH stimulates ovulation in the ovaries → GnRH stimulates anterior pituitary cells to secrete LH → neuronal impulses release norepinephrine b. Copulation stimulates sensory neurons in the cervix → a surge of LH stimulates ovulation in the ovaries → neuronal impulses release norepinephrine → GnRH stimulates anterior pituitary cells to secrete LH c. Copulation stimulates sensory neurons in the cervix → neuronal impulses release norepinephrine → GnRH stimulates anterior pituitary cells to secrete LH → a surge of LH stimulates ovulation in the ovaries d. GnRH stimulates anterior pituitary cells to secrete LH → copulation stimulates sensory neurons in the cervix → a surge of LH stimulates ovulation in the ovaries → neuronal impulses release norepinephrine Answer: c Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 4. Which aspect of reproduction is not typically studied by physiologists? a. Control of the annual cycle of reproduction b. Mechanisms of function of the reproductive cells and organs c. Sexual selection d. Delivery of resources to offspring by parents Answer: c Textbook Reference: What Aspects of Reproduction Do Physiologists Study?

Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 5. In temperate climates, temperature often _______ photoperiod timing in the coordination of reproductive events. a. magnifies b. blunts c. fine tunes d. supersedes Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Environment as a Player in Reproduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

6.‒7. Refer to the figure below.

6. The graphs in the figure represent the a. number of offspring produced in a given season. b. number of copulating animals in a given season. c. percentage of the population capable of reproducing. d. percentage of pregnant females as a function of the season.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Environment as a Player in Reproduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 7. Which conclusion can be drawn from the information in the figure? a. Populations at high latitudes reproduce during just 1–2 months. b. High latitude populations breed all year long. c. Populations at high latitudes show greater fecundity compared to populations at midlatitudes. d. Populations at high latitudes reproduce over a period of many months.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Environment as a Player in Reproduction Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 8. Which species is semelparous? a. Human b. Dogfish shark c. Octopus d. Dog Answer: c Textbook Reference: Reproduce Once or More Than Once? © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 9. Which species is iteroparous? a. Octopus b. Mayfly c. Dogfish shark d. Sockeye salmon Answer: c Textbook Reference: Reproduce Once or More Than Once?

Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 10. Most mammals are a. protandrous. b. semelparous. c. parthenogenetic. d. iteroparous.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reproduce Once or More Than Once?

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. Which is the best example of postnatal provisioning? a. Lactation b. Yolk deposition c. Nutrient transfer via the placenta d. Producing eggs that serve as food for young Answer: a Textbook Reference: Eggs, Provisioning, and Parental Care Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. Some species of female crabs, queen honey bees, certain bats, sharks, turtles, snakes, and birds all share a common adaptation that permits flexible timing between copulation and fertilization. This is called a. embryonic diapause. b. sperm storage. c. delayed implantation. d. seasonal estrous.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Timing of Reproductive Cycles Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 13. In placental mammals, delayed implantation usually occurs when the a. embryo is at the blastocyst stage. b. fertilized egg is at the 4-cell stage. c. embryo is at the trophoblast stage. d. embryo is in the middle of the placental stage.

Answer: a

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: The Timing of Reproductive Cycles Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 14. Which statement regarding embryonic diapause in the Antarctic fur seal is true? a. The resumption of development following diapause is under photoperiodic control. b. Diapause delays implantation for 1‒2 months. c. Delayed implantation is facultative in this species. d. The period from copulation to birth is about 165 days.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Timing of Reproductive Cycles Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 15. A protandrous animal is a. an animal that can produce viable offspring without sperm. b. a sex-changing species that begins as a male. c. a sex-changing species that begins as a female. d. a species that has both eggs and sperm simultaneously.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Sex Change Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 16. Which statement regarding human female gametes is true? a. All primary oocytes are formed during fetal life. b. Primary oocytes are produced in the ovary as they are needed. c. During ovulation, as many as four primary oocytes are released from the ovaries. d. Oocytes complete meiosis and form secondary oocytes just prior to ovulation.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 17. Which animal(s) menstruate(s)? a. Humans only b. Humans and horses c. Humans and gorillas d. Humans, horses, and gorillas Answer: c Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 18. The oocyte and its layer of somatic cells together are called a a. secondary follicle. b. primordial follicle. c. granulosa cell. d. primary follicle.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 19. Which statement about the mature (or Graafian) follicle is false? a. There is an expanded, fluid-filled antrum. b. It consists of many granulosa cells. c. A layer of theca cells differentiates. d. It contains the secondary oocyte.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 20.‒23. Refer to the figure below.

20. What process is occurring at arrow III in the figure? a. Ovulation b. Estrous c. Fertilization d. Both ovulation and estrous Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 21. What process is occurring at arrow I in the figure? a. Ovulation b. Estrous c. Fertilization d. Menstruation Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

22. Which of the following hormones would not be surging at the time of arrow III in the figure? a. Luteinizing hormone b. Follicle-stimulating hormone c. Estrogen d. Progesterone Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 23. Which arrow in the figure best corresponds to the time of the most likely success of implantation? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 24. The enzyme responsible for converting androgens to estrogens is a. androgenase. b. aromatase. c. granulase. d. follicle-stimulating hormone.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 25.‒27. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

25. The release of LH and FSH is occurring at what letter in the figure? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: b Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 26. The hormones produced at location II in the figure are stimulating the _______ to produce _______ at location III. a. theca cells; androgens b. theca cells; estrogen c. granulosa cells; androgens d. granulosa cells; estrogen Answer: a Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 27. A hormone released from location _______ stimulates the granulosa cells to convert androgens to estrogens using the action of the enzyme at location _______. a. II; III b. II; IV © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. III; IV d. IV; V Answer: b Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 28. Which statement regarding estrogen during the follicular phase is true? a. At high concentrations, estrogen has a negative feedback effect on the hypothalamus, suppressing luteinizing hormone. b. At low concentrations, estrogen has a positive feedback effect on the anterior pituitary, increasing FSH and LH secretions. c. Along with follicle-stimulating hormone, estrogen stimulates the proliferation of granulosa cells. d. Estrogen initiates the sloughing off of the endometrium.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 29. The physiological trigger for the onset of menstruation in humans is caused by a. ovulation. b. an increase in estrogen. c. the secretion of progesterone by the corpus luteum. d. degeneration of the corpus luteum, resulting in a lack of progesterone for the support of the endometrium.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 30. Sperm are produced in the a. seminal vesicles. b. seminiferous tubules. c. epididymis. d. vas deferens.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 31. The _______ cells support and regulate spermatogenesis. a. Leydig b. theca c. Sertoli d. granulosa Answer: c Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

32. In human males, the scrotum a. maintains the testes at 35°C, the optimum temperature for viable sperm. b. provides for the production of all the supporting fluids in semen. c. maintains the testes at 39°C, the optimum temperature for viable sperm. d. prevents the testes from entering the body cavity.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 33. In an adult, there is a strong correlation between the _______ and both testis size and the rate of sperm production. a. number of Leydig cells that exist b. number of Sertoli cells that exist c. amount of follicle-stimulating hormone produced d. amount of testosterone produced Answer: b Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 34. Refer to the figure below.

The figure shows _______ during the life span of _______. a. follicle stimulating hormone secretion and gamete production; humans b. egg production; human females c. testosterone secretion and sperm production; human males d. reproductive capability; human females Answer: c Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 35. Which structure is homologous to the scrotum? a. Labia minora b. Clitoris c. Glans penis d. Labia majora Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 36.‒37. Refer to the figure below.

36. Which letter in the figure corresponds to the precursor tissue to the shaft of the penis? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 37. Which statement regarding the figure is true? a. This is a diagram of a developing male. b. The figure shows an indifferent state in development that is identical in males and females. c. This is a diagram of a developing female. d. The labioscrotal swelling becomes the clitoris in the female.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 38. In a sexually indifferent embryo whose gonads will develop into ovaries, which external structure will become the labia majora? a. Labioscrotal swelling b. Urethral groove c. Urethral fold © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. Perineum Answer: a Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 39. Which substance is not contained in semen? a. Sperm b. Fructose c. Albumin d. Prostaglandins Answer: c Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 40. The process that prevents polyspermy is a. the acrosomal reaction. b. the cortical reaction. c. fertilization. d. meiosis.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 41. To breach the zona pellucida, the sperm releases enzymes via exocytosis from the acrosome in a process called a. the acrosomal reaction. b. the cortical reaction. c. fertilization. d. implantation.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 42. The entry of the early embryo into the cellular matrix of the endometrium is called a. the cortical reaction. b. the acrosomal reaction. c. fertilization. d. implantation.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 43. Which statement regarding the placenta is true? a. Maternal blood and embryonic blood mix. b. The placenta supplies the embryo with O2 and nutrients from fertilization to parturition.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. The placenta mainly secretes oxytocin during parturition. d. The placenta carries out the main functions of the lung for the fetus.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 44. The main structure maintaining the production of progesterone before initial implantation is the a. chorion. b. corpus luteum. c. placenta. d. zygote.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 45. Which event occurs during (or just prior to) parturition? a. Estrogen stimulates myometrial cells to remove gap junctions. b. Oxytocin stimulates myometrial cells to produce estrogen receptors. c. Mechanoreceptors in the placenta send action potentials to the hypothalamus. d. Oxytocin is secreted into the general circulation at an increased rate.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 46. Which hormone is directly responsible for milk secretion by the alveolar epithelial cells? a. Oxytocin b. Prolactin c. Follicle-stimulating hormone d. Luteinizing hormone Answer: b Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 47. During the birthing process, the release of _______ results in myometrial muscle contractions. a. estrogen b. progesterone c. oxytocin d. prolactin Answer: c Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

48. During the birthing process, a _______ feedback loop maintains high levels of oxytocin, a hormone that stimulates smooth muscle, until _______ occurs. a. positive; parturition b. positive; uterine contraction c. negative; parturition d. negative; uterine contraction Answer: a Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 49. During the birthing process, oxytocin stimulates the myometrial muscle to produce a. estrogen. b. prostaglandin. c. progesterone. d. chorionic gonadotropin.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 50. Oxytocin, which initiates the birthing process, is produced by the a. hypothalamus. b. posterior pituitary. c. myometrium. d. fetus.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing

Short Answer 1. What is the functional significance of induced ovulation? Provide an example.

Answer: Induced ovulators are classified as those species that release mature eggs from the ovaries of the female as a result of the actual act of copulation. The advantage of this simple synchronization is that copulation, the signal to release the eggs, maximizes the chances that the eggs will meet the sperm and be fertilized. Induced ovulation occurs in rabbits and hares.

Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. What is the functional significance of embryonic diapause? Provide an example.

Answer: Embryonic diapause is a programmed state of arrested or profoundly slowed embryonic development. It serves to decouple fertilization and the full development of embryos. This is important because the mating season and development of the young may not be timed appropriately for birth in an advantageous environment. Antarctic seals, for example, will delay implantation approximately 2‒3 months so that their normally 250-

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

day placental development will be extended to 365 days, thus ensuring birth during the summer when the temperature is favorable.

Textbook Reference: The Timing of Reproductive Cycles Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. What is the functional significance of sequential hermaphroditism? Provide an example.

Answer: Sequential hermaphroditism is the ability of an animal to change sex and produce the opposite gametes at some point during its lifetime. Biologists think this feature evolved in cases in which lifetime reproductive output is maximized by a sex change. In the bluehead wrasse, for example, there is a reproductive advantage to being female when the fish is small, since a harem is controlled by one large male. When the individual becomes large enough to control a harem, reproductive success can be maximized further by becoming a male.

Textbook Reference: Sex Change Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Briefly compare and contrast the production of female and male gametes in humans.

Answer: The prevailing view is that most of the female gametes are formed during fetal life. After a female reaches sexual maturity, one or a few of the primary oocytes in her ovaries mature and undergo ovulation during each reproductive cycle. The rest remain in the ovaries, awaiting ovulation, for many years. In contrast, males begin production of sperm at puberty and continue this production for most of their adult life.

Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. Androgens are classified as “male hormones,” yet they are produced in the female mammal. Why are they important in the female mammal?

Answer: Androgens are importance precursors to estrogens. When LH binds to receptors on the cell membranes of the theca cells, those cells are stimulated to produce androgens.

The androgens diffuse to the nearby granulosa cells. The binding of FSH to receptors on the cell membranes of the granulosa cells stimulates the action of the enzyme aromatase, which converts the androgens to estrogen.

Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 6. Describe the role of luteinizing hormone as it leads to ovulation.

Answer: When the anterior pituitary gland secretes LH in amounts sufficient to produce a surge, many reactions occur leading to ovulation. First, LH causes the granulosa cells to secrete chemical mediators, inducing the oocyte to complete its first meiotic division. LH also causes the granulosa cells to secrete progesterone, decrease their secretion of estrogen, and release enzymes and prostaglandins that lead to the breakdown of the outer follicular membranes and overlying ovarian epithelium. As the membranes rupture, the oocyte is released into the oviduct from the ovary.

Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

7. What is the role of the corpus luteum in pregnancy and menstruation?

Answer: The corpus luteum is formed from the ruptured follicle. It is the first structure to produce progesterone in significant quantities following ovulation. Progesterone is important in that it prepares the endometrium for implantation. If implantation occurs, a hormonal signal sent from the implanted embryo maintains the corpus luteum and its production of progesterone until the placenta forms and produces more progesterone. If implantation does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates and the lack of progesterone causes menstruation to occur.

Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 8. Explain the functional significance of the scrotum.

Answer: The scrotum houses the testes outside the body cavity in most mammals.

Although the reason is debated, most mammals require that sperm be maintained at 35°C, which is 2°C cooler than the normal abdominal temperature. Housing sperm in the body cavity would offer greater protection, but it would render the sperm nonviable. The reason for this temperature difference between body temperature and the temperature for sperm viability is still being debated.

Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Since the mammalian embryo is in an “undifferentiated state” at 4 weeks of development, how is sex determined?

Answer: At 4 weeks of development, the human is still in a sexually undifferentiated state. This means that regardless of the chromosomal sex, the embryo will look the same in terms of its genitalia. At around 5 months, the Y chromosome, if present, expresses a gene that upregulates the production of testosterone. It is testosterone that causes the external genitalia to develop into the male form. Without testosterone, the genitalia will remain in the female form.

Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Describe the positive feedback loop during birth and how this feedback ends.

Answer: Myometrial contractions force the fetus against the cervix, stimulating mechanoreceptors that send action potentials to the hypothalamus. This stimulates the secretion of oxytocin, which stimulates the myometrial smooth muscles to contract. This positive feedback loop continues and becomes stronger until birth.

Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

1. The term that refers to the increase in luteinizing hormone within an hour after copulation in a female rabbit is a. estrus. b. spontaneous ovulation. c. induced ovulation. d. delayed implantation.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. _______ is the process in which the female produces eggs that do not require sperm to develop into an adult. a. Parthenogenesis b. Hermaphroditism c. Cloning d. Haploid zygoticism Answer: a Textbook Reference: What Aspects of Reproduction Do Physiologists Study?

Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. Which statement regarding semelparity is true? a. An octopus is considered a semelparous species. b. Most species of animals are semelparous. c. A human is considered a semelparous species. d. Semelparity is very uncommon among insects.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Reproduce Once or More Than Once?

Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. The hormone melatonin has strong effects on _______, and therefore also affects reproduction. a. the nutritional environment b. the social environment c. photoperiod d. temperature Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Environment as a Player in Reproduction Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 5. The process by which fertilization is decoupled from the full development of the embryo is called a. postpartum estrus. b. embryonic diapause. c. ovulation. d. sperm storage.

Answer: b

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: The Timing of Reproductive Cycles Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. An animal that begins as female and later changes its sex to become a male is most accurately referred to as a. a hermaphrodite. b. protandrous. c. protogynous. d. a sequential hermaphrodite.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Sex Change Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. The spike of luteinizing hormone during the menstrual cycle of a woman causes a. menstruation. b. ovulation. c. estrus. d. endometrial regression.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. After the follicle ruptures during _______, it becomes the _______. a. menstruation; corpus luteum b. estrus; secondary oocyte c. fertilization; secondary oocyte d. ovulation; corpus luteum Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Which physiological process takes place because of a hormone-level drop? a. Ovulation b. Growth of the corpus luteum c. Estrus d. Menstruation Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 10. In a female mammal, _______ cells are capable of producing androgens. a. Leydig b. theca c. granulosa d. Sertoli Answer: b

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 11. Which statement regarding estrogen in late pregnancy is false? a. Estrogen levels increase during late pregnancy. b. Estrogen stimulates the release of oxytocin. c. Estrogen stimulates myometrial cells in the uterine smooth muscle to produce receptors for oxytocin. d. Estrogen stimulates myometrial cells in the uterine smooth muscle to produce gap junctions.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. Sperm are produced in the a. seminiferous tubules. b. seminal vesicles. c. vas deferens. d. epididymis.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 13. The hormone that directly stimulates Leydig cells to secrete androgens is a. testosterone. b. estrogen. c. luteinizing hormone. d. follicle-stimulating hormone.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 14. Which statement about the trophoblast is true? a. Cells from the trophoblast include cells from the developing embryo and cells that will help form the placenta. b. Cells from the trophoblast contribute to the formation of the placenta. c. Cells from the trophoblast will ultimately develop into the newborn individual. d. Cells from the trophoblast are produced immediately following the acrosomal reaction.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 15. Fertilization usually takes place in the a. oviduct. b. ovary. c. uterus.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. cervix.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 16. During mammalian pregnancy, implantation of the _______ usually takes place in the _______. a. zygote; uterus b. zygote; endometrium c. blastocyst; myometrium d. blastocyst; endometrium Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 17. In a primate or a horse, the hormone that prevents the corpus luteum from degenerating is a. progesterone. b. estrogen. c. chorionic gonadotropin. d. follicle-stimulating hormone.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 18. Which hormone can be measured to detect early pregnancy in a primate? a. Chorionic gonadotropin b. Progesterone c. Estrogen d. Follicle-stimulating hormone Answer: a Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 19. Which hormone has a more pivotal, clearly defined function in females than in males? a. Luteinizing hormone b. Oxytocin c. Prolactin d. Both oxytocin and prolactin Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 20. Which hormone is not directly involved in the process of lactation? a. Prolactin

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. Dopamine c. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone d. Vasopressin Answer: d Textbook Reference: Reproductive Endocrinology of Placental Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson Chapter 19: Control of Movement: The Motor Bases of Animal Behavior

TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. Compared to the neural circuits responsible for reflexes of invertebrates, the circuits of vertebrates involve a. many more steps in sequence. b. fewer steps in sequence. c. many more individual neurons to complete the same steps. d. fewer individual neurons to complete the same steps.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. According to the principle of reciprocity, when a muscle is stimulated to contract, its a. agonists and antagonists also contract. b. agonists and antagonists relax. c. agonists contract while its antagonists relax. d. antagonists contract while its agonists relax.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. Agonists are a. muscles that work together to generate a given motion. b. muscles that extend a joint. c. muscles that have opposing actions. d. sensory fibers that detect pain in order to trigger protective reflexes.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. The muscle fibers in a muscle spindle a. are not true muscle fibers because they cannot contract. b. function to maintain tension on spindle stretch receptors. c. are recruited only during very high force contractions. d. are recruited only during very low force contraction.

Answer: b

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. When your family physician taps your left patellar tendon with a mallet, a. the intrafusal muscle fibers in your left quadriceps contract. b. many motor neurons innervating your left quadriceps are excited by 1a afferent fibers. c. a single motor neuron innervating your left quadriceps is excited by a 1a afferent fiber. d. a single motor neuron innervating your left quadriceps is inhibited by a 1a afferent fiber.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. Your family physician taps your left patellar tendon with a mallet. What is the correct sequence of the events that occur?

I. Inhibition of motor neuron innervating flexors II. Action potentials in 1a sensory neuron III. Muscle spindle stretch receptor activated IV. Action potentials in neuron innervating flexors V. Action potentials in neuron innervating extensors a. III → II → I and V simultaneously b. II → III → IV c. III → II → I → V d. II → IV and V simultaneously → III Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. When your family physician taps your left patellar tendon with a mallet, motor neurons innervating the flexors of the left knee are inhibited by _______ in the _______. a. interneurons; spinal cord b. interneurons; muscle c. interneurons; tendon d. sensory neurons; muscle Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. In the stretch reflex, a signal from a sensory neuron that detects stretch in a muscle reaches a motor neuron innervating the stretched muscle via a. excitatory interneurons in the brain. b. a single excitatory synapse. c. inhibitory interneurons in the spinal cord. d. direct sensory-to-motor-neuron synapses as well as excitatory spinal interneurons.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Which statement illustrates the principle of divergence? a. A single muscle spindle afferent stimulates many motor neurons. b. A single muscle spindle afferent stimulates a single spinal motor neuron. c. Each motor neuron receives input from thousands of synapses. d. Each motor neuron receives input that has passed through multiple synapses on its way from the CNS. Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 10. When you step on a tack, excitation of sensory afferents leads to excitation of motor neurons innervating one set of muscles and inhibition of motor neurons innervating another set of muscles. The stimulus produces opposite responses in different motor neurons because a. motor neurons innervating different muscles have different receptors. b. the afferent neuron releases different neurotransmitters at different synapses. c. the sensory afferents transmit both excitatory and inhibitory action potentials that are sent to different motor neurons. d. the signals reach some motor neurons via excitatory interneurons but they reach other motor neurons via inhibitory interneurons.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. When you are walking barefoot and your left foot lands on a marble, the a. flexors of your left leg relax. b. flexors of your right leg contract. c. extensors of your left leg contract. d. extensors of your right leg contract.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 12. When you voluntarily pick up a glass of milk, your a.  motor neurons stimulate extrafusal muscle fibers to contract, while γ motor neurons stimulate the ends of intrafusal muscle fibers to contract. b.  motor neurons stimulate extrafusal muscle fibers to contract, while α motor neurons stimulate the ends of intrafusal muscle fibers to contract. c.  motor neurons stimulate extrafusal muscle fibers to contract, while γ motor neurons stimulate the ends of intrafusal muscle fibers to relax. d.  motor neurons stimulate extrafusal muscle fibers to contract, while α motor neurons stimulate the ends of intrafusal muscle fibers to relax.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 13. If only α motor neurons were activated during a voluntary movement, the muscle spindle would be unable to transmit information to correct the rate of the movement because the a. extrafusal fibers would not shorten. b. intrafusal fibers would be stretched excessively. c. intrafusal fibers would be slack. d. intrafusal fibers would remain at their resting length.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 14. If you voluntarily lift an object and have correctly judged its weight, a. the intrafusal muscle fibers shorten at a rate that maintains constant tension on the stretch receptor. b. the muscle spindle afferents fire a rapid burst of action potentials. c. α motor neurons fire action potentials but γ motor neurons do not. d. γ motor neurons fire action potentials but α motor neurons do not.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 15. If you voluntarily lift an object and have underestimated its weight, a. the intrafusal muscle fibers shorten at a rate that maintains constant tension on the stretch receptor. b. the muscle spindle afferents fire a rapid burst of action potentials. c. α motor neurons fire action potentials but γ motor neurons do not. d. γ motor neurons fire action potentials but α motor neurons do not.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 16. If you voluntarily lift an object and have underestimated its weight, a. a burst of action potentials from the muscle spindle afferents causes the contracting muscles to contract more forcefully. b. a burst of action potentials from the muscle spindle afferents causes the contracting muscles to stop contracting. c. the absence of action potentials from the muscle spindle afferents causes the contracting muscles to contract more forcefully. d. the absence of action potentials from the muscle spindle afferents causes the contracting muscles to stop contracting.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 17.–18. Refer to the figure below.

17. According to the figure, which numeral represents the sensory neuron? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 18. Which neuron in the figure is inhibitory? a. II b. III c. IV d. All neurons are excitatory.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 19.–20. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

19. Which numeral in the figure represents the 1a afferent pathway? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 20. The flexion-reflex afferent pathway originates with which neurons? a. I

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. II c. III d. IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 21.–22. Refer to the figure below.

21. Which caption best describes the figure? a. Intrafusal fiber training b. Response of intrafusal fibers to no load c. Successful lengthening extrafusal fibers under load via coactivation d. 1a activated contraction of extrafusal fibers to lift heavy load Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 22. Of the four numerals in the figure, which one best represents a reflex pathway? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

23. In rhythmic behavior such as human walking, each muscle contraction occurs in response to a. nerve action potentials originating in the CNS. b. nerve action potentials originating in peripheral neurons. c. stretch reflexes originating in the muscle. d. spontaneous action potentials originating in muscle cells.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 24. According to the peripheral control model of insect flight, a. sensory detection of wing depression stimulates motor neurons innervating the depressor muscles. b. sensory detection of wing depression stimulates motor neurons innervating the levator muscles. c. motor neurons stimulating the depressors also inhibit the levators. d. sensory detection of wind causes the depressors to contract.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 25. Which experimental results would demonstrate that central pattern generators are involved in producing the muscle contractions involved in rhythmic movement? a. A cat whose cerebral cortex has been removed can walk and run on a treadmill. b. A cat whose cerebral cortex has been removed has impaired balance on a treadmill. c. An insect in which the sensory afferents from the wings have been cut can fly. d. An insect in which the sensory afferents from the wings have been cut has an unusually slow wingbeat frequency.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 26. How are central pattern generators and peripheral reflexes thought to interact in normal locomotion? a. Peripheral reflexes initiate locomotion, and central pattern generators maintain it. b. Central pattern generators initiate locomotion, and peripheral reflexes maintain it. c. Central pattern generators control locomotion with no input from peripheral reflexes. d. Central pattern generators initiate and maintain locomotion, and reflexes correct and fine-tune motion.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 27. A cellular oscillator in a central pattern generator is a cell a. whose membrane potential responds to stimulation from other cells.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. whose membrane potential goes through regular cycles of depolarization and repolarization. c. whose membrane potential is unusually resistant to depolarization or hyperpolarization. d. that fires action potentials.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 28. Refer to the figure below.

In order to function effectively as an oscillatory network, the half-center model depicted in the figure must a. include a cell that depolarizes spontaneously. b. involve a mechanism for the activated neuron to stop signaling. c. involve a mechanism for one of the neurons to start signaling first. d. include both excitatory and inhibitory synapses between the two neurons.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 29. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

In the closed-loop network depicted in the figure, stimulation from outside the network would cause cell 3 to fire a. an indefinite train of action potentials. b. action potentials until it is inhibited by the CNS. c. action potentials as long as it receives stimulation from the CNS. d. action potentials until it is inhibited by cell 1.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 30. Oscillatory networks based on the half-center model are unstable unless a. there is a fatigue mechanism so that the first neuron that fires action potentials stops firing action potentials. b. there is a stabilizing mechanism that helps the first neuron that depolarizes to remain depolarized. c. there is a stabilizing mechanism so that the first neuron that fires action potentials keeps firing action potentials. d. there is a fatigue mechanism so that the external command stimulation stops.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 31. The stomatogastric ganglion of decapod crustaceans has received extensive study because a. control of the crustacean stomach is very similar to control of the human stomach. b. the stomatogastric ganglion is the simplest oscillator studied to date. c. the stomatogastric ganglion generates a variety of rhythmic output with a small number of neurons. d. the drugs that act on the stomatogastric ganglion are likely to have effects similar to those that act on the human digestive tract.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

32. Neuromodulators of the stomatogastric ganglion of a decapod crustacean would be least likely to have what action? a. Change the order in which the neurons of the pyloric circuit contract b. Speed up the rhythm of contractions in the stomach c. Slow down the rhythm of contractions in the stomach d. Alter the strength of muscle contractions in the stomach Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 33.–35 Refer to the figure below.

33. Which statement is the most likely explanation for the data shown in the figure? a. PD/AB is a cellular oscillator that activates PY, which activates LP. b. PD/AB is a cellular oscillator that inhibits both LP and PY, which are autoactive. c. PY is a cellular oscillator that activates both PD/AB and LP. d. LP is a cellular oscillator that inhibits both PD/AB and PY. Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 34. If PD/AB fires first, which statement is true? a. PY recovers the fastest and fires before LP b. PD/AB activates firing of LP c. LP and PY are activated and LP fires first d. LP and PY are inhibited and LP recovers first and fires Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 35. The hybrid oscillator in the figure produces a. a pyloric rhythm that controls the straining of food particles. b. contractions that contract the gastric mill to grind food. c. muscle cotractions that contract vertebrate jaws. d. an esophageal rhythm that controls food movement through the esophagus.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 36. The action potentials that directly trigger muscle contractions of walking movements in a vertebrate animal are initiated by neurons whose cell bodies are located in the a. motor cortex. b. cerebellar cortex. c. basal ganglia. d. spinal cord.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 37. Experiments in which cats with transected spinal cords are able to walk on treadmills demonstrate that the a. brain does not normally initiate walking in cats. b. brain does not control the timing of repetitive limb/wing movements in all animals. c. brain does not control the timing of repetitive limb movements in cats. d. spinal cord is not necessary for communication between the brain and the limbs.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 38. Injections of L-dopa, the precursor of norepinephrine, can enable spinally transected cats to walk on a treadmill. The most likely explanation for this result is that a. norepinephrine stimulates spinal motor neurons, causing muscle contractions. b. norepinephrine acts on the neuromuscular junctions of the limb muscles and causes muscle contractions.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. norepinephrine activates sensory afferents that cause reflex muscle contractions in the limbs. d. norepinephrine activates the central pattern generator that causes rhythmic stepping motions.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 39. Modeling experiments on walking and swimming in robotic salamanders suggest that a. each type of repetitive motion that an animal performs is controlled by a distinct central pattern generator. b. some repetitive motions are controlled by a central pattern generator, but others are not. c. a particular central pattern generator always produces the same pattern of limb movements. d. simple changes in the coordination of central pattern generators can produce different locomotor gait.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 40. In the network of central pattern generators that governs walking and swimming in salamanders, a. movement is normally initiated by sensory input from the limbs. b. oscillators on opposite sides of the body are coupled so that they are active at the same time. c. stronger stimulation causes trunk oscillation to prevail over limb movements. d. stronger stimulation increases the rate of movement and force of both trunk and limb muscles.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 41. In the primary motor cortex, the neurons most responsible for sending motor output to spinal motor neurons are the a. mirror neurons. b. pyramidal cells. c. Purkinje cells. d. granule cells.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 42. Output from the primary motor cortex consists mostly of action potentials that are transmitted to a. synapses with interneurons in the spinal cord.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. synapses with motor neurons in the brain. c. synapses with motor neurons in the spinal cord. d. the cerebellum.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 43. The primary motor cortex contains neurons that a. make decisions about what movements to undertake. b. encode the force and direction of movements. c. correspond to individual muscles according to location in the cortex. d. connect only to areas outside of the brain.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 44. Evidence for the role of the primary motor cortex comes from experiments that show that a. activation of individual neurons of the motor cortex matches activation of individual muscles. b. activation of individual neurons of the motor cortex matches activation of individual motor units. c. activity of some neurons of the motor cortex correlates with the force or direction of a movement. d. the number of motor cortex neurons that fire action potentials is linearly related to the force of the muscle contraction.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 45. Electrical recordings from human volunteers indicate that the decision to move a body part and the signals generating that movement arise from a. one specific area of the motor cortex. b. one specific area of the cerebellum. c. one specific area of the spinal cord. d. interactions of multiple cortical regions.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 46. A readiness potential is a(n) a. localized electrical potential within the primary motor cortex that corresponds precisely to the intended movement. b. broad wave of electrical activity in the cerebral cortex that precedes a voluntary movement.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. graded depolarization of spinal motor neurons that makes it easier for them to reach threshold in response to sensory input. d. electrical potential generated in the cerebellum in preparation for a voluntary movement.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 47. The frontal cortex contains areas that are involved in a. receiving visual or auditory stimuli that might trigger a movement. b. monitoring and correcting the accuracy of movement. c. planning and organizing movement. d. sending signals to muscle fibers.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 48. The main role of the cerebellum is to a. make decisions on which voluntary movements to perform. b. plan the sequence of muscle contractions involved in an involuntary movement. c. send the signals to activate muscle fibers involved in a voluntary movement. d. provide feedback to correct errors as a voluntary movement is performed.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 49. Output from the cerebellar cortex is sent by a. Purkinje cells. b. Golgi cells. c. granule cells. d. stellate cells.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 50. The involvement of the cerebellum in motor learning is demonstrated by the observation that patients with cerebellar lesions are a. paralyzed on one side of their body. b. paralyzed on both sides of their body. c. capable of voluntary movements but are clumsy and uncoordinated. d. capable of coordinated movement if they are helped with initiating the movement.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

51. The involvement of the cerebellum in preprogramming voluntary movements is demonstrated by the observation that many patients with cerebellar lesions are a. paralyzed on one side of their body. b. paralyzed on both sides of their body. c. capable of coordinated movement if they are helped with initiating the movement. d. capable of voluntary movements but must think about each step in complex movements individually.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 52. Most of the neurons in the basal ganglia are inhibitory. How can an inhibitory synapse be involved in generating a movement? a. Inhibitory action potentials are converted to excitatory action potentials when they arrive at the neuromuscular junction. b. Inhibition of a tonically active inhibitory neuron results in disinhibition of its target neuron. c. Muscle fibers receive the inhibitory input and convert it into excitatory input. d. Inhibiting other motor pathways automatically excites the relevant motor pathway.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 53. Excitatory inputs from the cerebral cortex to the striatum will lead to what effects on corresponding neurons downstream in the direct pathway of the basal ganglia? a. Excitation in the globus pallidus and inhibition in the thalamus b. Excitation in the globus pallidus and excitation in the thalamus c. Inhibition in the globus pallidus and excitation in the thalamus d. Inhibition in the globus pallidus and inhibition in the thalamus Answer: c Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 54. Which human pathology has been linked to degeneration of the basal ganglia? a. Alzheimer’s disease b. Multiple sclerosis c. Parkinson’s disease d. Retrograde amnesia Answer: c Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 55. Movement disorders such as Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease are associated with degeneration in what areas of the central nervous system? a. The frontal cortex b. The primary motor cortex

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. Spinal motor neurons d. The basal ganglia Answer: d Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 56. What experimental evidence indicates that the decision to perform a voluntary movement originates in the association cortex? a. A localized electrical potential in the association cortex is the first electrical signal recorded prior to a motion. b. Diffuse readiness potentials can be recorded over most of the cortical surface prior to the localized potentials that precede movement. c. Lesions of specific locations in the association cortex correspond to deficits in movement of corresponding body parts. d. Animals with superior motor coordination have significantly larger association cortices than other animals.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 57. The motor cortex sends output to the cerebellum as movements are initiated, and the cerebellum a. transmits output from the motor cortex to the spinal motor neurons. b. transmits output from the motor cortex to the muscle fibers. c. compares sensory feedback to the initial motor output to detect errors. d. generates the readiness potential that precedes movement.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 58. A 66-year-old man has difficulty controlling voluntary movements. He can clearly state what he intends to do, describe how he would do it, and initiate or stop the movement. However, he has poor coordination and often misses his target. If his difficulty arises from a defect in one particular area of the central nervous system, which area is most likely to be involved? a. Association cortex b. Primary motor cortex c. Muscle spindles d. Spinocerebellum Answer: d Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 59.–60. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

59. Joey is lying in bed motionless. Which neuron in this figure is tonically active? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: b Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 60. Beth knows the answer to a question and raises her hand. During the initiation of this movement, which neuron in the figure becomes disinhibited? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: c Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing

Short Answer 1. Write a paragraph describing the mechanism that causes you to withdraw your right hand very rapidly when you reach out and touch a hot frying pan by mistake.

Answer: Painful stimuli activate flexion-reflex afferents that synapse on spinal interneurons. These interneurons excite motor neurons leading to the ipsilateral flexor muscles as well as interneurons that inhibit motor neurons leading to the ipsilateral extensors. They also activate the crossed extensor reflex by exciting interneurons that activate motor neurons of the contralateral extensors and inhibitory interneurons leading to the contralateral flexors.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 2. Explain why α‒γ coactivation is important for quality control of voluntary motions.

Answer: When extrafusal muscle fibers contract, the entire muscle shortens, including the portion surrounding the intrafusal fibers that contain the muscle spindles. If the contractile portion of the intrafusal fiber is not activated to contract, the normal baseline tension on the muscle spindles will be released and the action potential frequency of the spindle afferents will decrease or stop entirely. α‒γ coactivation ensures that the intrafusal fiber contracts at a rate that corresponds to the expected rate of shortening of the entire muscle. If the muscle shortens at the expected rate, the tension on the spindle remains constant, resulting in a constant rate of action potentials in the 1a afferent fibers.

If the muscle shortens more slowly than expected, the tension on the spindle increases, resulting in a higher action potential frequency in the 1a afferents. This would occur in lifting an object heavier than anticipated. The feedback in this case would increase the recruitment of muscle fibers in order to successfully lift the object. If the muscle shortens too quickly, the tension on the spindle decreases, resulting in a lower action potential frequency in the 1a afferents. This would occur in lifting an object that is much lighter than anticipated. The feedback in this case reduces the recruitment of muscle fibers to reduce the velocity of the lift and possibly prevent losing control of the object or injuring oneself.

Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. Compare and contrast the central control hypothesis and peripheral control hypothesis as they relate to insect flight Answer: According to the central control hypothesis, a central pattern generator sends alternating output that produces alternating contractions of depressor and levator muscles.

According to the peripheral control hypothesis, stretch of a muscle (or other sensory feedback) activates receptors and neural pathways leading to contraction of that muscle.

Alternating stretch and contraction leads to rhythmic motion.

Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 4. Draw a diagram of a network oscillator involving at least three neurons, and label each synapse as excitatory or inhibitory. Graph the membrane potential of each neuron in the oscillator as a function of time on a single x-axis and write a paragraph describing how the network works and the pattern of output that it generates.

Answer: Answers may vary. This is one example of a network oscillator. Many other valid networks could be diagrammed.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

All synapses in the circuit are excitatory and each neuron fires a brief burst of action potentials before fatiguing. The circuit is activated by a burst of action potentials from the command neuron (C) and then continues oscillating through many cycles. Synaptic transmission and axonal transmission are slow enough that neuron #1 recovers before it is re-excited by neuron #3. The output of the entire network corresponds to the activity of neuron #3. The circuit could stop sending output by one of several means. For example, the #3 neuron could be inhibited by a neuron that is not shown in the diagram.

Alternately, neuron #1 could depend on low-level tonic output from the command neuron to remain sensitive to excitation from neuron #3.

Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 6. Creating 5. Contrast the mechanisms by which cellular oscillators and network oscillators generate patterns of rhythmic motion.

Answer: A cell that acts as a cellular oscillator has a combination of ion channels or other cellular mechanisms that cause its membrane potential to oscillate spontaneously. It may or may not fire action potentials when its membrane potential is depolarized in the cycle.

A network oscillator can generate rhythmic output without any single cell that oscillates spontaneously. Network oscillators typically involve networks of cells that activate or inhibit one another sequentially. If the cells inhibit one another, some or all of them may be tonically active in the absence of inhibition. If the cells are tonically active or activate

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

one another, they are likely to have some intrinsic mechanism of fatigue or synaptic antifacilitation to prevent indefinite activation.

Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 6. The phrase “like a chicken with its head cut off” refers to a person rushing around frantically or carelessly. Explain how a chicken might be able to run (briefly) after its brain has been disconnected from the rest of its body.

Answer: Once initiated, rhythmic contractions of the limbs can be sustained by a spinal central pattern generator. Neurons descending from the brain to the spinal cord are depolarized due to the physical destruction of the neurons during detaching of the head.

Because the cerebellum and other portions of the brain are disconnected, normal quality control of movement patterns will be absent and movements are likely to be poorly coordinated.

Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 7. In what ways do mirror neurons in the premotor areas of the cerebral cortex highlight the complexity of motor pathways?

Answer: The premotor area is involved in planning and organizing voluntary motor patterns. Experiments on primates indicate that particular mirror neurons are activated when an animal generates a particular movement, initially suggesting a simple correspondence of neurons in the cortex to particular patterns of muscle contraction.

However, these neurons are also activated when an animal observes another animal making the same movement. Thus the neurons cannot be immediately responsible for causing the movement, and must operate at a higher level of motor programming.

Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. Sketch and give a written description of how the nervous system plans, programs, and executes a voluntary movement. Include a sentence describing the role of each of at least four different brain areas.

Answer: A proper example includes something similar to Figure 19.14: The sensory association cortex (as well as other cortical areas) funnels activity to premotor cortical areas, including loops through the basal ganglia (selection and initiation of movement) and the cerebrocerebellum (initial programming), in the planning and programming of the movement. Activity passes to the primary motor cortex for executing the movement, with correction from a cerebellar loop through the spinocerebellum. Inputs to the cerebral cortex pass through the thalamus.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Describe how observations of human patients or animals with lesions of the nervous system have contributed to our understanding of normal motor control. Include relevant examples and relate them to general experimental principles.

Answer: Functional deficits observed in an animal with a lesion may indicate that the site of the lesion is important to the function. However, some deficits may be related to more general impairment or reduced connectivity of the nervous system. Proper controls need to be included in the experimental design in order to determine the specificity of the lesion.

Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 10. Discuss some of the areas of scientific uncertainty regarding the control of voluntary movement by vertebrate animals. Speculate on some experimental techniques (either current or still to be developed) and possible experimental results that might help to refine our models of motor control.

Answer: Important areas of uncertainty include how decisions are made to generate a voluntary motion, how neurons in the central nervous system interact to generate a voluntary motion, and the number of neurons that are involved in a simple motion. While relevant areas of the brain have been identified, scientists lack “wiring diagrams” for the generation of voluntary motions. High resolution functional imaging (both spatial and temporal) may help to improve our models of motor control.

Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. Invertebrates have often been used in motor control studies because a. invertebrates have many more motor neurons in a single pathway compared to vertebrates. b. individual neurons are simpler in invertebrates than in vertebrates, and therefore motor control pathways are also simpler. © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. motor control pathways in invertebrates are all reflex pathways and therefore are simpler than pathways in vertebrates. d. often only a few neurons are involved in a particular step in an invertebrate motor control pathway.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. The 1a afferent fibers associated with muscle spindles increase their action potential frequency only when the muscle a. shortens more than expected during a voluntary contraction. b. shortens involuntarily or shortens more than expected during a voluntary contraction. c. lengthens involuntarily or shortens less than expected during a voluntary contraction. d. lengthens involuntarily.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. When your family physician taps your left patellar tendon with a mallet, stretch is sensed by sensory receptors associated with a. extrafusal fibers in the patellar tendon. b. intrafusal fibers in the patellar tendon. c. extrafusal fibers in the quadriceps. d. intrafusal fibers in the quadriceps.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Which statement illustrates the principle of convergence? a. A single muscle spindle afferent stimulates a single spinal motor neuron. b. A single pain receptor afferent stimulates a single spinal interneuron. c. Each motor neuron receives input from thousands of synapses. d. A single muscle spindle afferent stimulates many motor neurons.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. If you accidentally grab a very hot frying pan with your right hand, _______ will _______ action potential frequency. a. α motor neurons innervating the left elbow extensors; decrease b. α motor neurons innervating the right elbow flexors; increase c. afferent neurons from the Golgi tendon organ in the right elbow extensors; increase d. afferent neurons from the intrafusal fibers of the right elbow flexors; increase Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

6. Suppose that you contract your biceps brachii muscle to toss a juggling pin into the air and find that it is much lighter than you expected. Which of the following will happen in compensation? a. The action potential frequency in the α motor neurons to the biceps brachii will be decreased reflexively. b. The action potential frequency in the α motor neurons to the biceps brachii will be increased reflexively. c. The action potential frequency in the γ motor neurons to the biceps brachii will be increased reflexively. d. The action potential frequency in the γ motor neurons to the biceps brachii will be decreased reflexively.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Is the Basis of Animal Behavior Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 7. Which experimental result would demonstrate most strongly that sensory feedback is important in the control of rhythmic movement? a. A cat whose cerebral cortex has been removed can still walk and run on a treadmill. b. An insect in which sensory afferents from the wings have been cut can still fly. c. Repetitive stimulation of sensory afferents alters the frequency of wingbeats in a tethered insect. d. Repetitive stimulation of sensory afferents does not alter the frequency of wingbeats in a tethered insect.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 8. Which statement about a network oscillator is true? a. One or more neurons receive input that turns the network on, and then neurons interact to generate a rhythmic output pattern. b. A pacemaker cell outside of the network turns the network on and off to control other effectors such as muscle fibers. c. Each cell in the network has pacemaker properties that determine the rate of output from the network. d. The cells in the network depolarize in response to input from sensory afferents.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Which statement about the stomatogastric ganglion of a crayfish is true? a. The central nervous system sends output that depolarizes each cell in the ganglion simultaneously. b. The central nervous system sends a depolarizing signal that begins each wave of depolarization.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. A rhythm generated by a cellular oscillator is reinforced and stabilized by network properties. d. A cellular oscillator generates rhythmic output under the control of a network of ganglionic cells.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neural Generation of Rhythmic Behavior Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 10. Compared to the repetitive motor patterns of locomotion, more complex motor behaviors a. probably involve many more spinal motor neurons in each step. b. probably rely on mechanisms that are completely different from those involved in locomotion. c. may be composed of simple patterns linked by CNS commands and responses to sensory feedback. d. involve similar patterns within the CNS but different output pathways to the skeletal muscles.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. Experiments in which sensory afferent fibers in the hindlimbs of cats are transected show that sensory feedback from the limbs a. is necessary to maintain repetitive movements. b. is not necessary to maintain repetitive movements. c. is necessary to initiate locomotor movements. d. normally acts to inhibit limb muscle contractions.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. Modeling experiments on walking and swimming in robotic salamanders have concluded that walking and swimming a. are completely distinct motor patterns involving separate central pattern generators. b. use the same central pattern generator and timing, but the output goes to different muscle groups for each mode of locomotion. c. movements can be generated automatically by a network of central pattern generators responding to the intensity of the central command. d. movements are generated from a single central pattern generator responding to the sensory feedback received by the salamander.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 13. Pyramidal cells are a. neurons in the primary motor cortex that send output to activate spinal motor neurons.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. neurons in the cerebellum that send the sole output from the cerebellar cortex. c. neurons in the cerebellum that exert excitatory effects on other cerebellar neurons. d. sensory neurons that collect information on joint position and muscle length.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14. In vertebrates, the highest-level planning of voluntary movement, such as deciding whether or not to make a movement, begins in the a. association cortex. b. basal ganglia. c. cerebellar cortex. d. primary motor cortex.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 15. The Purkinje cells of the cerebellum send _______ output from the cerebellar cortex to the _______. a. excitatory; cerebellar nuclei b. inhibitory; cerebellar nuclei c. excitatory; spinal cord d. inhibitory; spinal cord Answer: b Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. Studies of the circuitry and function of the vertebrate cerebellum have resulted in a. a detailed map of the representation of individual muscles in the cerebellar cortex, as well as functional details of how the neurons interact to coordinate movement. b. a detailed map of the representation of individual muscles in the cerebellar cortex, although there is still some uncertainty about the function of the different neurons. c. a detailed explanation of how different categories of neurons interact to coordinate movement, but no spatial map. d. several competing models of how the cerebellum might work to coordinate movement.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 17. Voluntary movements in a vertebrate animal are generated by a. the motor cortex. b. the cerebellum. c. basal ganglia. d. interactions of several regions.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 18. How does the indirect pathway of synaptic transmission in the basal ganglia help to fine tune voluntary movement? a. The indirect pathway sends the signals that activate thalamic neurons associated with the intended movement. b. The indirect pathway inhibits thalamic neurons, thereby suppressing movements that may compete with the intended movement. c. The indirect pathway inhibits thalamic neurons, thereby modulating muscular force so that movements are not too forceful. d. The indirect pathway reinforces the direct pathway so that thalamic neurons stimulate the motor cortex at higher frequency.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 19. According to the current general model describing planning and execution of a voluntary movement, decisions generated in the _______ cortex are passed to the _______ via the _______. a. motor; association cortex; cerebellum b. association; motor cortex; basal ganglia c. association; cerebellum; basal ganglia d. frontal; basal ganglia; motor cortex Answer: b Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 20. A 52-year-old woman has difficulty initiating voluntary movements. She can clearly state what she intends to do, describe exactly how she would do it, and picture herself doing it easily. When she is able to begin the motion, she can complete it smoothly and accurately, but she has difficulty beginning the motion. If the difficulty arises from a defect in one particular area of the nervous system, which area is most likely to be involved? a. Association cortex b. Basal ganglia c. Spinal motor neurons d. Spinocerebellum Answer: b Textbook Reference: Control and Coordination of Vertebrate Movement Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 15: Nervous System Organization and Biological Clocks TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. Which statement about the features of a nervous system is true? a. The transmission rate is relatively slow. b. Neurotransmitter release takes place throughout the body via the blood. c. Neurons form highly discrete lines of communication. d. In the PNS, a nerve consists of the axons of five or fewer neurons bundled together.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 2. Interneurons are located in a. the central nervous system. b. the peripheral nervous system. c. the somatic system. d. the autonomic system.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. Which statement describes a general feature of a nervous system? a. Interneurons are collected into integrated areas at one end of the body rather than randomly dispersed. b. Sensory receptor cells transform electrical stimuli into environmental signals. c. Central interneurons integrate signals from sensory receptors and other signals arising within the animal, generating an integrated pattern of impulses. d. Motor commands are sent out from the effectors to the CNS. Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Which of the following is the effector in the startle response of the cockroach? a. Movement of filiform hair receptors b. Action potentials in the giant interneuron c. Contraction of the hind leg muscle d. A train of action potentials produced by the leg motor neuron. © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 5. Which is the most primitive organism that contains genes for nervous system organization? a. Protists b. Sponges c. Arthropods d. Echinoderms Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 6. In an arthropod, the bundle of nerve axons located within a ganglion is called a a. connective. b. sheaf. c. neuropile. d. tract.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 7. A structural organization in which integrating neurons are all collected into central integrating areas rather than being randomly dispersed is referred to as a. cephalization. b. centralization. c. centrification. d. a ganglion.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 8. A connective is a bundle of a. axons in the PNS. b. axons within a ganglion. c. axons between ganglia in the CNS. d. axons between the right and left sides of a bilaterally symmetrical ganglion.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 9. The figure below depicts a cross section of a(n)

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. vertebrate spinal cord. b. arthropod ganglion. c. vertebrate ganglion. d. arthropod connective.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 10. In the vertebrate PNS, collections of neuronal cell bodies associated with peripheral nerves are called a. central ganglia. b. peripheral ganglia. c. a tract. d. a commissure.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 11.‒13. Refer to the figure below.

11. Which number(s) in the figure represent(s) the hindbrain? © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. III b. III and IV c. IV d. IV and V Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 12. Which number in the figure best corresponds to the area of the brain responsible for learning and memory? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 13. Which number in the figure best corresponds to the area of the brain responsible for autonomic and respiratory control? a. II b. III c. IV d. V Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 14. Which principle of functional organization of the vertebrate brain explains the concept of memories? a. Brains have maps. b. The expansion of the forebrain is a recorded event in vertebrate brain evolution. c. Brain function is somewhat localized. d. Neural circuits are plastic.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 15. A map of the body projected to a brain area is called a a. somatotopic map. b. sensory homunculus. c. motor homunculus.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. localization-of-function map.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. Which statement regarding the brain is true? a. Processing capability is related to the hindbrain. b. Primate brains have a similar cerebral cortex compared to amphibian brains. c. The larger the cerebral cortex, the more the processing capability of the brain. d. Primate brains are more evolved compared to the brains of fish.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 17. Which area has the most sensory neurons per unit area of epidermis? a. Scalp b. Upper arm c. Lips d. Ring finger Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 18.‒20. Refer to the figure below.

18. Which statement best reflects the adaptive significance of brain representations in the star-nosed mole?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. The comparatively large brain representations reflect the importance of somatosensory functions. b. The mole shows evidence of plasticity of brain development. c. The brain of the mole has very little area devoted to auditory processes. d. The brain of the mole demonstrates a clear visual processing area.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 19. Which statement about the figure is true? a. The figure on the left depicts a cross section of a somatosensory map in a star-nosed mole. b. The figure on the right depicts a side view map of the cerebral cortex in a star-nosed mole. c. The figure on the right depicts a somatosensory map of a hedgehog. d. The figure on the left depicts a somatosensory map of a star-nosed mole.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 20. Which statement about the figure is false? a. Both hedgehogs and star-nosed moles demonstrate localization of cerebral cortical function. b. Star-nosed moles can hear. c. Hedgehogs are incredibly specialized visual animals. d. In star-nosed moles, large amounts of sensory information are sent from their star noses to their brains.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 21. Which division of the nervous system regulates digestion? a. Parasympathetic b. Sympathetic c. Enteric d. Parasympathetic and enteric Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 22.‒26. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

22. The labels in the figure correspond to which parts of the nervous system? a. I = somatic; II = parasympathetic; III = sympathetic b. I = sympathetic; II = parasympathetic; III = somatic c. I = somatic; II = autonomic; III = sympathetic d. I = peripheral; II = autonomic; III = somatic Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 23. Which neurotransmitter is being released at arrow V? a. Acetylcholine b. Epinephrine/norepinephrine c. Glutamate d. GABA Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 24. Describe the effect of adding acetylcholine to the area indicated by arrow IV in the figure. a. Acceleration of heart rate b. Deceleration of heart rate © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. Complete stopping of the heart d. There is no effect.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 25. Describe the effect of adding acetylcholine to the area indicated by arrow V in the figure. a. Acceleration of heart rate b. Deceleration of heart rate c. Complete stopping of the heart d. There is no effect.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 26. In the figure, how many arrows (including labeled and unlabeled) are in the vicinity of a possible EPSP? a. Three b. Four c. Five d. Eight Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 27. The peripheral synapses between the first and second neurons in the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are located within clusters of neuronal cell bodies called _______ ganglia. a. enteric b. peripheral c. central d. autonomic Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 28. The nerve that runs from the paravertebral ganglia to the heart would be termed a(n) _______ neuron. a. sympathetic postganglionic b. parasympathetic postganglionic c. sympathetic preganglionic

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. parasympathetic preganglionic Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 29. What would be the effect of applying epinephrine/norepinephrine to the paravertebral ganglia in the upper thoracic area? a. Acceleration of heart rate b. Deceleration of heart rate c. Complete stopping of the heart d. There is no effect.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 30. A surprise phone call at 3 AM would likely cause which physiological reaction? a. Increased salivation b. Pupil dilation c. Increased digestion d. Decreased glucose production Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 31.‒33. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

31. The structure at arrow I in the figure is the a. paravertebral ganglion. b. thoracic ganglion. c. thoracic division of the spinal column.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. inferior mesenteric ganglion.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 32. If epinephrine/norepinephrine were applied in the vicinity of arrow II in the figure, a. heart rate would accelerate. b. hormone and enzyme release in the stomach would be inhibited. c. the gallbladder would be stimulated to release bile. d. there would be no effect.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 33. In the figure, the “+” symbol represents stimulation, increase, or constriction, and the “–” symbol represents inhibition, decrease, or relaxation. Which numeral in the figure is paired incorrectly with the symbol? a. III b. IV c. V d. VI Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 34. The preganglionic neuron of the sympathetic system releases the neurotransmitter a. acetylcholine. b. epinephrine/norepinephrine. c. glutamate. d. GABA. Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 35. Which statement regarding the enteric system is true? a. Neurons exit the CNS in the thoracic region to innervate the gut. b. It plays a role in segmentation. c. It is largely under autonomic control. d. In humans, it contains about 2 million neurons.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 36. Rhythms that continue in the absence of environmental information about time are called a. entrained rhythms. b. endogenous rhythms. c. circadian rhythms. d. free-running circadian rhythms.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 37. In mammals, what inhibits the activity of CLOCK/BMAL1? a. PER b. period mRNA c. PER/CRY d. PER/TIM Answer: c Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 38.‒40. Refer to the figure below.

38. According to this figure, the light‒dark cycle _______ the physiological rhythms. a. disrupts b. phases c. entrains d. synchronizes Answer: c Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

39. Which label is not appropriate for the y-axis of the figure? a. Growth b. Metabolic rate c. Oxygen consumption d. Urine output Answer: a Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 40. Which statement about the figure is false? a. The two rhythms shown here are in phase. b. The rhythms are entrained to the light‒dark cycle. c. The period of this rhythm is about 24 hours. d. The figure likely represents a nocturnal animal.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 41. Which statement regarding biological clocks is true? a. The period of an animal’s free-running rhythm is not affected by light‒dark cycles. b. Biological clocks are very sensitive to internal (cellular) temperature. c. Nocturnal animals often have periods of free-running rhythms much shorter than 24 hours. d. Biological clocks permit the timing of processes during 24-hour periods when environmental cues are unreliable.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 42.‒43. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

42. Which statement regarding the data in this figure is the most accurate? a. The animal loses its circadian rhythm following destruction of the hypothalamus. b. The animal loses its circadian rhythm following destruction of the suprachiasmatic nucleus. c. In part B, the activity period of the animal was entrained by the light‒dark cycle. d. In part A, the activity period of the animal was entrained by the light‒dark cycle.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 43. The most accurate conclusion that can be made from the data shown in the figure is that the free-running circadian rhythm of the animal a. is not influenced by light or dark. b. is slightly longer than 24 hours. c. is slightly shorter than 24 hours. d. when entrained is exactly 24 hours.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 44. Which statement best describes the mechanism for circadian rhythm? a. There is an alternation between enhanced and inhibited expression of clock genes. b. Clock genes inhibit gene expression of positive elements. c. Clock genes inhibit expression of negative elements. d. The time-keeping mechanism depends only on the breakdown of negative elements.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 45. When the suprachiasmatic nucleus in a horse is destroyed, a. circadian rhythm becomes free-running. b. a zeitgeber is induced. c. the animal loses its ability to navigate. d. most circadian activity ceases.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 46.‒48. Refer to the figure below.

46. What experimental procedure is indicated by the arrow in the figure? a. Removal of the medial pituitary b. Destruction of the hypothalamus c. Removal of the cerebral cortex d. Destruction of the suprachiasmatic nucleus Answer: d Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 47. Which statement about the result of the experimental procedure indicated by the arrow in the figure is the most accurate? a. The circadian oscillator was activated. b. The free-running circadian activity ceased. c. A zeitgeber was induced. d. Activity remained constant.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 48. Which statement is the most accurate conclusion that can be drawn from the data in the figure? a. The hamster’s hypothalamus was destroyed, and therefore it could not control the animal’s circadian rhythm. b. The thalamus is significantly involved in the circadian rhythm of the golden hamster. c. The suprachiasmatic nuclei are significantly involved in the circadian rhythm of the golden hamster. d. The suprachiasmatic nuclei are likely not involved in the circadian rhythm of the golden hamster.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 49. Physiological timing mechanisms that, like stopwatches, permit the timing of parts of days for different functions are called a. stochastic rhythms. b. neurophysiological timers. c. circannual rhythms. d. interval timers.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 50. In vertebrates, melatonin is secreted in a circadian rhythm from the a. pineal gland. b. suprachiasmatic nucleus. c. circadian oscillator. d. clock genes.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

Short Answer 1. Describe the two major trends in nervous system evolution once animal lineages became bilaterally symmetrical.

Answer: The two major trends that characterize the evolution of nervous systems in bilaterally symmetrical phyla are centralization and cephalization. Centralization of nervous systems refers to a structural organization in which neurons are collected into central integrating areas rather than being randomly dispersed. Cephalization is the concentration of nervous structures and functions at one end of the body, in the head.

Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

2. Compare and contrast the organization of arthropod and vertebrate central nervous systems.

Answer: Both the arthropod and vertebrate central nervous systems are centralized in organization and do show cephalization. However, the arthropod CNS consists of a chain of segmental ganglia, whereas the vertebrate CNS consists of a continuous column of neural tissue.

Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. Explain a somatotopic map.

Answer: A somatotopic map is a representation of the body that is projected to a brain area in a way that preserves the relative anatomical position of the parts the body. The relative sizes of brain areas that represent different parts of the body reflect the relative number of neurons serving that area.

Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Briefly explain what is meant by synaptic plasticity. Provide one example.

Answer: Synaptic plasticity refers to changes in synaptic properties over time. Synapses may change in strength and efficacy with development, maturation, and experiences such as learning. These changes can be temporary or permanent. For example, receptors can be modified in number within the synapse, synapses can be created or destroyed, or they can change size or efficacy. These changes can be seen microscopically or measured as changes in efficacy (e.g., changes in PSP amplitude).

Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. How do star-nosed moles exemplify the principles of brain functional organization?

Answer: The star-nosed mole provides a great example of functional organization of the brain because the size of representations in the brain reflects the importance of different sensory qualities. Somatosensory representations of the star and of the forepaws are large, whereas areas devoted to vision are small. The star has three somatosensory representations that together occupy more area in the brain than that devoted to the rest of the body.

Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. Compare and contrast the functions of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.

Answer: Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems are both divisions of the autonomic nervous system that functionally link the CNS with autonomic effectors. However, the two divisions typically have opposing effects. The sympathetic actions mediate “fight-orflight” responses, whereas the parasympathetic actions mediate “rest-and-digest.”

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. If atropine is an antagonist to acetylcholine, explain what this drug would do to the heart.

Answer: If atropine is added to the heart, it will competitively bind to ACh receptors on the heart. Since ACh receptors on the heart mediate the actions of the parasympathetic system, blocking this signal on the heart will effectively increase its rate.

Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 8. Describe what is meant by entrainment and provide an example.

Answer: Entrainment is the process by which a biological rhythm is brought into phase with an environmental rhythm. For example, the onset of darkness each night entrains the circadian rhythm of the activity of nocturnal flying squirrels.

Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Compare and contrast free-running circadian rhythms of nocturnal and diurnal mammals.

Answer: Free-running circadian rhythms of both nocturnal and diurnal mammals are not exactly 24 hours and thus will tend to slowly shift the sleep‒wake cycles of these animals. Nocturnal mammals tend to have periods of free-running rhythm that are longer than 24 hours, and many diurnal mammals tend to have periods shorter than 24 hours.

Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Explain how the pineal gland may operate differently in nonmammalian vertebrates compared to mammals.

Answer: The pineal physiology of nonmammalian vertebrates differs from that of mammals in two ways. First, the nonmammalian pineal gland may be endogenously rhythmic and can act as a primary circadian control center. Second, the pineal gland is often light-sensitive and acts as a “third eye,” providing extraocular information about the environmental day‒night cycle.

Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. Of a squid, an earthworm, a human, a cockroach, and a bacterium, how many have a brain? a. 2

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 2. Which term refers to the concentration of nervous structures and functions in the head region? a. Centriolization b. Centralization c. Radialization d. Cephalization Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. A _______ is a swelling that contains discrete aggregations of nerve cell bodies and processes. a. ganglion b. connective c. commissure d. neuropil Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. Which of the following is characteristic of an arthropod central nervous system? a. A cross section of a ganglion consisting of gray matter and white matter b. Neuronal bodies located throughout the entire animal c. A CNS consisting of a single continuous column d. A CNS consisting of a chain of segmental ganglia Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Organization and Evolution of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. Most tissues in the body are under _______ control. a. neural b. endocrine c. both neural and endocrine d. neurohormonal Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

6. Which statement regarding the vertebrate nervous system is true? a. White matter is composed almost entirely of unmyelinated tracts of neurons. b. The cerebral cortex is part of the midbrain, or mesencephalon. c. Spinal nerves run from the brain to the spinal cord. d. Gray matter is composed of intermingled neuronal cell bodies, processes, and synaptic contacts.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 7. Which brain subdivision is responsible for higher sensory, motor, and integrative functions? a. Diencephalon b. Mesencephalon c. Metencephalon d. Telencephalon Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 8. A _______ is a term used when parts of the body are mapped onto the cerebral cortex in a way that preserves their anatomical position on the body. a. localization of function map b. somatotopic map c. somatosensory cortex d. brain map Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 9. Which of the following is not directly related to neuronal plasticity? a. Short-term memory b. Localized increases in brain metabolic activity c. Neural connections changing in strength d. New neurons developing Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 10. Acid-secreting cells of the stomach are controlled by a. the autonomic system. b. the enteric division. c. hormones only. © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. paracrine signaling only.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. The _______ division has a long preganglionic neuron synapsed with a short postganglionic neuron. a. sympathetic b. enteric c. parasympathetic d. autonomic Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 12. What are the divisions of the autonomic nervous system? a. Parasympathetic, sympathetic b. Sympathetic, parasympathetic, somatic c. Sympathetic, parasympathetic, enteric d. Somatic, enteric Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 13. Application of acetylcholine along the paravertebral ganglia will a. cause the heart to speed up. b. cause the heart to slow down. c. have no effect on the heart. d. cause the heart to stop.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 14. Which action is considered a parasympathetic effect? a. Simulation of the secretion of epinephrine b. Inhibition of digestion c. Increased blood pressure d. Constriction of lung airways Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

15. Application of acetylcholine directly to the heart will a. cause the heart to speed up. b. cause the heart to slow down. c. have no effect on the heart. d. cause the heart to stop.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Vertebrate Nervous System: A Guide to the General Organizational Features of Nervous Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. Which definition of circadian rhythm is the most accurate? a. An endogenous rhythm that has a period of about one day b. An entrained rhythm that has a period of about one day c. An endogenous rhythm that has a period of precisely 24 hours d. An entrained rhythm that has a period of precisely 24 hours Answer: a Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 17. A biological rhythm brought into phase with an environmental rhythm is said to be a. endogenous. b. a free-running circadian rhythm. c. entrained. d. a zeitgeber.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 18. In the absence of environmental cues, the biological rhythm that persists is called a(n) a. phasing factor. b. zeitgeber. c. entrained rhythm. d. free-running rhythm.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 19. The intrinsic timekeeping mechanism in a cell typically depends on a. environmental information transduced into chemical information the cell can interpret. b. the rhythmic alternation between enhanced and inhibited expression of clock genes. c. the rhythmic alternation between expression of clock genes and transcription factors. d. the alternation of various sets of inhibiting elements.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

20. Which of the following is not considered to be related to biological clocks? a. Melatonin b. Peristalsis c. Superchiasmatic nucleus d. Pineal gland Answer: b Textbook Reference: Biological Clocks Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 18: Integrating Systems AT WORK: Animal Navigation TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. The periodic movement of an animal from one region to another is called a. migration. b. homing. c. piloting. d. trail following.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. During the winter breeding season, humpback whales migrate from the polar seas to tropical waters because warm water provides a. less thermoregulatory stress for the young. b. more food for the adults and young. c. less predatory pressure on the young. d. better shelter for the young.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. The _______ provides the most dramatic example of navigational skills involved in natal philopatry. a. humpback whale b. starling c. Pacific salmon d. honeybee Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 4.‒7. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

4. Panel A illustrates a. migration. b. path integration. c. homing. d. trail following.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. Choose the correct order of the life cycle illustrated in the panels.

1. Live in lake 2. Live in ocean 3. Migrate from ocean to lake 4. Migrate from lake to ocean 5. Young hatch in lake 6. Young hatch in ocean 7. Spawn in lake © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

8. Spawn in ocean a. 5 → 1 → 4 → 2 → 3 → 7 b. 6 → 2 → 3 → 1 → 4 → 8 c. 6 → 3 → 1 → 7 → 4 d. 5 → 4 → 2 → 3 → 1 → 7 Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 6. The panels illustrate the life cycle of the a. humpback whale. b. starling. c. Pacific salmon. d. arctic tern.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 7. The main adaptive advantage of the process shown in the panels is a. a consistent osmotic environment. b. access to abundant food. c. a predictable feeding environment. d. adaptation to local breeding environments.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 8.–10. Refer to the figure below.

8. What process is illustrated by the figure? a. Migration

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. Path integration c. Homing d. Trail following Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Which number(s) correspond(s) to information about the direction of the food source, as indicated by the honeybee? a. I and III b. II and IV c. IV d. V Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 10. Which number(s) encode(s) information about the distance to the food source? a. I and III b. II c. IV d. V Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 11. Which of the following is not one of the five behavioral strategies animals use to navigate? a. Piloting b. Path integration c. Map-and-compass navigation d. Map navigation Answer: d Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 12. Which statement about piloting animals is true? a. They follow a discontinuous series of learned landmarks to obtain compass-heading information. b. They follow a continuous series of learned landmarks to determine where they are. c. They follow a discontinuous series of learned landmarks to determine where they are. d. They follow a continuous series of learned landmarks to obtain compass-heading information.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

13. In a classic experiment, Nikkolaas Tinbergen showed that digger wasps can use a. flowers as landmarks for piloting. b. pinecones as landmarks for navigation. c. landmarks for remembering the locations of hidden food. d. pheromones as olfactory cues for trail following.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14.–17. Refer to the figure below.

14. Part A of the figure illustrates which navigational strategy? a. Trail following b. Piloting © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. Path integration d. Map-and-compass navigation Answer: c Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 15. Part B of the figure illustrates which experimental procedure? a. Displacement b. Sensory deprivation c. Sensory disruption d. Landmark modification Answer: a Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 16. What did the experimental procedure reveal? a. Desert ants use trail following for homing. b. Desert ants use path integration for homing. c. Desert ants use compass navigation. d. Desert ants use landmarks in navigation.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 17. The animal searching for food in part B of the figure would need to use which navigational strategy to return to its original starting point (or home)? a. Piloting b. Path integration c. Compass navigation d. Map-and-compass navigation Answer: d Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 18. Animals that use path integration, such as desert ants, must collect information in order to identify the path home. What information do desert ants collect? a. They collect directional information from the sun’s position and measure distance by integrating proprioceptive information while walking. b. They collect directional information from learned landmarks and measure distance by integrating proprioceptive information while walking. c. They collect directional and distance information from the sun’s position. d. They collect directional information from the sun’s position and distance information from learned landmarks Answer: a Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

19. In attempting to understand how desert ants calculate distance while walking in the desert, researchers altered the length of the ants’ legs. What were the results of their experiment? a. Ants with stilt legs found their home much faster compared to ants with normal legs. b. Ants with stilt legs began their search for home far earlier than ants with normal legs. c. Ants with stilt legs walked too far before searching for their home. d. Ants with altered legs were able to use polarized light to correct their heading after they noticed an error in their search for home.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 20. Honeybees use _______ to estimate distances between the hive and food sources. a. the sun b. landmarks c. optic flow d. flight proprioception Answer: c Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 21. A _______ is a mechanism that indicates geographical direction. a. map b. landmark c. heading d. compass Answer: d Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 22. The sun compass requires integration of the sun’s position and a. the direction of Earth’s movement. b. circadian time information. c. polarized light information. d. the direction of magnetic north.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 23. Which statement about polarized light is true? a. It is non-reflected light. b. It vibrates in only one plane with respect to its line of propagation. c. Light is never fully polarized. d. It is perceived by all non-human mammals Answer: b

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 24.–27. Refer to the figure below.

24 Based on the information presented in the figure, this bird uses which type of navigational strategy? a. Piloting b. Compass navigation c. Path integration d. Map-and-compass navigation Answer: b Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 25. In part A of the figure above, if the time at point I is 1:00 PM, then the time at point II is a. 7:00 AM. b. 9:00 AM. c. 3:00 PM. d. 7:00 PM. Answer: a Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 26. Suppose that the time at point I is 1:00 PM (under normal conditions). The pigeon’s circadian clock is then shifted 6 hours ahead, and it flies in the direction indicated in panel B. What time must it be at point III? a. 7:00 AM b. 9:00 AM c. 3:00 PM © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. 7:00 PM Answer: a Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 27. Suppose that the time at point I is 1:00 PM (under normal conditions). The pigeon’s circadian clock is then shifted 3 hours backward. What direction heading will it then take at 7:00 AM? a. South b. East c. Southeast d. Southwest Answer: d Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 28. Which statement about polarized light is true? a. Light is never fully polarized. b. Light is fully polarized when the animal is in the direct light path from the sun. c. Light is fully polarized at a reflection angle of 45°. d. Light is fully polarized at a reflection angle of 90°.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 29. How do animals use polarized light for compass information? a. They can detect the angle of polarization. b. They can detect the gradients in the degree of light polarization. c. They can relate polarized light to direct light information coming from the sun. d. They can detect the angle of polarization and relate polarized light to direct light information coming from the sun.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 30. Which navigational strategy is illustrated by the figure?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. Magnetic compass navigation b. Polarized-light compass navigation c. Sun compass navigation d. Map-and-compass navigation Answer: b Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 31. Which statement regarding the moon as a compass is true? a. Many animals use the moon as a compass, but only at night. b. Many animals use the moon as a compass, but only during the day. c. Only aquatic animals can use the moon as a compass. d. Animals do not use the moon as a compass.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 32. Nocturnal migrants tend to use a. a star compass. b. a magnetic compass. c. olfactory cues. d. map-and-compass navigation.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 33.–34. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

33. The illustrations, which were generated from data on indigo buntings held in a planetarium, show which navigational strategy? a. Star compass navigation b. Magnetic compass navigation c. Olfactory cue navigation d. Map-and-compass navigation Answer: a Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 34. The illustration on the right represents an experimental treatment in which a. the magnetic field was reversed. b. circadian rhythm was shifted by 12 hours. c. all sensory information was removed. d. the star pattern was reversed.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 35. Indigo buntings know how to fly north via a. an innate magnetic compass. b. an innate star compass. c. learned migration routes by following their parents. d. a learned north star by observing constellations rotating.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 36. Animals that use a magnetic compass must be able to sense _______ of Earth’s magnetic field. a. the polar component b. the inclination component c. the variation in amplitude d. either the polar component or the inclination component Answer: d © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 37. Arthropods such as bees use their magnetic compass to sense _______ of Earth’s magnetic field. a. the polar component b. the inclination component c. the variation in amplitude d. either the polar component or the inclination component Answer: a Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 38. In one experiment, pigeons whose clocks were shifted 6 hours flew in the wrong direction when they attempted to navigate by following their sun compass. What happened when another group of identically treated pigeons navigated on a cloudy day? a. They used their polarized-light compass and flew in circles. b. They were able to navigate by using their polarized-light compass. c. They were able to navigate on the basis of olfactory cues. d. They were able to navigate by using their magnetic compass.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 39. Which animal does not use magnetic information for navigation? a. Indigo Buntings b. Monarch butterflies c. Turtles d. Pigeons Answer: a Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 40.–43. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

40. The illustrations, which are based on data from an experiment with pigeons, represent which navigational strategy? a. Star compass navigation b. Magnetic compass navigation c. Olfactory cue navigation d. Map-and-compass navigation Answer: b Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 41. The red dots in the figure represent the a. direction faced by a pigeon that is about to be released. b. distance traveled in a particular direction. c. direction in which one pigeon was heading as it vanished over the horizon. d. time of day when the pigeon flew off.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 42. The illustration on the right represents an experimental treatment in which a. the magnetic field was reversed. b. circadian rhythm was shifted by 12 hours. c. all sensory information was removed. d. the star pattern was reversed.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 43. What would happen in the experiment depicted by the figure if the animals were also subjected to a time shift ahead 6 hours? © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. The animals would fly 90 degrees off their original heading. b. The results would remain the same since the experiment was performed on an overcast day. c. The magnetic treatment would no longer have an effect. d. The animals would be unable to navigate whatsoever.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 44.–45. Refer to the figure below.

44. The data on this map suggests that adult starlings use which type of navigational strategy? a. Star compass navigation b. Magnetic compass navigation c. Sun compass navigation d. Map-and-compass navigation Answer: d Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 45. Which is the most accurate conclusion that can be derived from the data illustrated in the figure? a. Juvenile birds migrate for longer distances than adults do. © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. Captured birds respond differently from naturally migrating birds. c. Migrating adult and juvenile starlings respond differently to displacement. d. Juvenile birds compensate for displacement by using map-and-compass navigation.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 46. Pigeons whose sense of vision or magnetic field perception is experimentally altered a. cannot navigate. b. can navigate using olfactory cues. c. can navigate based on tactile sensation. d. can navigate based on proprioception.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 47.–49. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

47. The data shown in the figure refer to the navigational strategies of which animal? a. Whale b. Pigeon c. Salmon d. Sea turtle Answer: d Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 48. The data shown in the figure refer to which navigational strategy? a. Star compass navigation b. Magnetic compass navigation c. Olfactory cue navigation d. Map-and-compass navigation Answer: b Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 49. The red dots on the compasses in the figure represent the a. direction faced by the animal about to be released. b. distance traveled in a particular direction. c. mean angle of one animal’s oriented movement. d. time of day when the animal began to move.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 50. Which animal best demonstrates the innate component of navigation? a. Pigeons b. Monarch butterflies c. European starlings d. Honeybees Answer: b Textbook Reference: Innate and Learned Components of Navigation Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 51. The critical area for vertebrate spatial learning and memory is the a. cerebellum. b. hippocampus. c. medulla oblongata. d. cerebrum.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Innate and Learned Components of Navigation Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

52. Which statement does not describe one of the documented effects of hippocampal lesions? a. Lesioned rats cannot remember the location of a submerged platform in the Morris water maze. b. Lesioned rats cannot remember which radial arm (of a radial-arm maze) has food at the end. c. Lesioned nutcracker birds hide food normally but cannot recover their caches. d. Lesioned nutcracker birds cannot pair a sound with a reward.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Innate and Learned Components of Navigation Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 53. Which cells are involved in the active map-and-compass navigation of a rat in a nonuniform environment? a. Place cells b. Head direction cells c. Grid cells d. Both place cells and head direction cells Answer: d Textbook Reference: Innate and Learned Components of Navigation Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating

Short Answer 1. Compare and contrast the terms “navigation,” “migration,” and “homing.”

Answer: These terms all refer to the movement of animals through their environment.

“Navigation” is the most general of the three terms. It refers to an animal’s movement on a particular course and its use of sensory cues to determine direction and position.

“Migration” is a more specific term referring to periodic movement of an animal from one region to another, usually as prompted by seasonal changes. On a more localized scale, “homing” is the ability of an animal to find its way repeatedly to a specific point, most often its nesting or dwelling place.

Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. Discuss how navigational abilities promote reproductive success, and provide an example.

Answer: Many animals reproduce at a time and place that presents the lowest degree of stress to the parents and, more importantly, the offspring. Very often this place is not the same as the feeding area. Therefore, many animals rely on navigation to get them to a safe place to reproduce. One example is the humpback whale. These animals travel from the food-rich polar seas of the Northern Hemisphere to tropical waters in order to reproduce. Although these tropical areas do not have rich food supplies, they offer less thermoregulatory stress, especially for the young.

Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. What is the adaptive significance of the honeybee waggle dance and how is information coded in this dance?

Answer: The adaptive significance of the honeybee waggle dance is that one bee can provide specific information about a food source to the entire hive. This allows many bees to harvest food in a short period of time and increases the chances of the hive’s survival. On a horizontal surface, the straight run of the waggle dance points to the food source; on a vertical surface, the angle of the straight run from vertical indicates the location of the food as measured from the angle from the sun. The distance of the food source is coded in the duration of the waggle run.

Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Compare and contrast the navigational strategies of path integration versus trail following.

Answer: Trail following and path integration both involve the use of local sensory cues.

Although trail following can rely on visual cues, many animals use olfactory cues. Path integration differs from trail following in that homing is not simply a retracing of steps using local cues. Homing with path integration allows the animal to take a direct route back to its home or nest, thus saving time and energy. Information on direction and distance allows the animal to determine the direct line toward home.

Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. Describe what displacement experiments tell us about navigational strategies.

Answer: Displacement experiments take animals during periods of navigation and move them to another location. Many times this tells us a lot about how the animals are navigating. For example, if an animal is trail following, simply moving the animal will disrupt its navigation. For more advances types of navigation, other disruptions may be required, sometimes including sensory deprivation. By varying the kinds of sensory deprivation, researchers can determine which sensory input is most important for that animal’s navigational strategy.

Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. Use the example of a sun compass to explain what a compass is and how it is used.

Answer: A compass is a mechanism that indicates geographical direction. Because of the predictable movement of Earth relative to the sun, the sun is often used as a compass. The sun moves across the sky at about 15° per hour, so animals must know the time of day to determine a compass heading. An animal that navigates using a sun compass must integrate solar position and circadian time information in order to orient its path of travel.

Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. Explain how a polarized light compass works.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: A polarized light compass is a sun compass in which the animal does not directly see the sun. The animal is able to determine the location of the sun by calculating the reflected angles of polarized light. Light emanating directly from the sun to the animal’s eye is unpolarized. Light becomes polarized when it reflects off the surface of things such as water droplets, dust, and ice crystals. The closer the angle of reflection gets to 90°, the more polarized the light becomes. Although humans cannot detect useful differences in polarized light, many animals, including insects, can distinguish these reflected angles and calculate the location of the sun.

Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. Compare and contrast map sense and compass sense. Describe experimental evidence for these aspects of animal navigation.

Answer: Map sense and compass sense are both strategies used in navigation. Compass sense is the awareness (from sensory cues) of direction. Map sense allows an animal to identify its position relative to home or another goal location. Many migrating animals use both map and compass sense to navigate. Experiments on migrating adult and juvenile starlings showed that their map sense is not integrated or learned until they complete one successful migration. First-time migrators that are moved mid-migration are not able to figure out their position and therefore continue in their original direction.

This is not the case for adult starlings, which use their map sense to compensate for the experimental disruption.

Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Compare and contrast the navigational abilities of pigeons and sea turtles.

Answer: Experimental evidence shows that both sea turtles and pigeons use magnetic and visual information to navigate. Evidence shows that pigeons use polarized light information when available. There is no evidence that sea turtles rely on polarized light, and given that they are submerged (sometimes quite deep), it will not likely be found to be a strong navigational cue. There is also no evidence showing turtles use olfactory cues, whereas pigeons have a strong olfactory map. It is clear that both animals use multiple senses for map and compass navigation and in the absence of one environmental cue, the animal can use another.

Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Describe and give an example of innate navigation and learned navigation.

Answer: Monarch butterflies provide an excellent example of innate navigation. An individual monarch butterfly does not complete a migration; rather, it takes a few generations for an entire migratory cycle to be completed. Therefore, it is the ancestors of the original migrants that return to the starting point of the migration. The information about the heading and distance of the migration must have a strong genetic component, since there can be no learned component. The European starling offers an excellent example of a learned navigation. In order to attain its full map sense for migration, it must complete one migration event with the adults.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Innate and Learned Components of Navigation Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. The periodic movement of an animal from one region to another is termed a. migration. b. homing. c. navigation. d. piloting.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Which species exhibits natal philopatry? a. Bees b. Sockeye salmon c. Pacific salmon d. Both Sockeye and Pacific salmon Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. Bees communicate the distance of a food source via the a. duration of the waggle run. b. angle of the loop component relative to the sun. c. direction of the straight waggle. d. size of the figure eight.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Bees communicate the direction of a food source on either a horizontal or vertical surface via the a. intensity of the waggle run. b. angle of the loop component relative to the sun. c. direction of the straight waggle run. d. size of the figure eight.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Adaptive Significance of Animal Navigation Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. The most rudimentary form of animal navigation is a. piloting.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. trail following. c. path integration. d. compass navigation.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. An animal that uses the stones around a burrow to return to the burrow is relying on a. trail following. b. piloting. c. navigation. d. landmark integration.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 7. The act of moving on a particular course by following a series of landmarks that help an animal determine where it is located on the path with respect to its ultimate destination is called a. navigation. b. homing. c. trail following. d. piloting.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 8. The observed use of path integration by desert ants means that a. they have a true map-and-compass navigation strategy. b. they follow a carefully marked trail back to the nest. c. regardless of the paths taken, they can return to their nest via the most direct route. d. they are able to find the shortest means to the food source.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 9. A honeybee estimates its distance between its hive and food source on the basis of a. path integration. b. compass navigation. c. optic flow. d. map-and-compass navigation.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 10. Researchers typically disrupt an animal’s sun compass

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. by resetting the animal’s circadian clock. b. by displacing the animal. c. via induced migration. d. through medication.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. Which of the following is not a type of compass? a. Polarized-light compass b. Star compass c. Magnetic compass d. Landmark compass Answer: d Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 12. Which statement regarding caged buntings and migratory restlessness in the fall is true? a. Caged buntings that can see the night sky have the expected north-oriented restlessness. b. Caged buntings that can see a representation of the constellations in a planetarium do not have expected north-oriented restlessness. c. Caged buntings that can see the sun have the expected north-orientation restlessness. d. Caged buntings have north-oriented restlessness during the migratory time, no matter what visual cues they have.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 13. The navigational cues that animals use as a magnetic compass are provided by the a. polarity of Earth’s magnetic field. b. dip of Earth’s magnetic field. c. rotational moment of Earth’s magnetic field. d. dip and polarity of Earth’s magnetic field.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14. At what location would an animal’s inclination compass be the least effective? a. North magnetic pole b. Magnetic equator c. Geographical equator d. Geographical north pole Answer: b Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 15. Experiments in which the magnetic field around a pigeon’s head was reversed a. had no effect in any weather condition. b. caused them to lose their navigational ability in all weather conditions. c. caused them to navigate in the opposite direction, but only on overcast days. d. caused them to navigate in the opposite direction in all weather conditions.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 16. Based on our current understanding, which animal does not make use of magnetic compass information? a. Primates b. Monarch butterflies c. Pigeons d. Sea turtles Answer: a Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 17. The initial orientation cue for hatchling sea turtles is a. magnetic. b. the sun. c. the ocean waves. d. their mother.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 18. Which animal’s behavior suggests use of a magnetic map? a. Monarch butterflies b. Sea turtles c. Starlings d. Bees Answer: b Textbook Reference: Navigational Strategies Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 19. Which statement about monarch butterflies is true? a. Their navigational performance has a strong innate component. b. Their navigational performance has a strong learned component. c. They use primarily a magnetic compass for navigation, even during sunny days. d. They use primarily a star compass for navigation.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Innate and Learned Components of Navigation

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 20. The critical area for vertebrate spatial learning and memory is the a. cerebellum. b. hypothalamus. c. hippocampus. d. medulla oblongata.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Innate and Learned Components of Navigation Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 13: Synapses TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. A specialized site of contact of one neuron with another neuron (or effector) is known as a a. neuron. b. receptor–neurotransmitter complex. c. membrane. d. synapse.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Synaptic Transmission Is Usually Chemical but Can Be Electrical Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Which of the following transmits information the fastest? a. Ionotropic EPSP b. Metabotropic IPSP c. Electrical synapse d. Fast EPSP Answer: c Textbook Reference: Synaptic Transmission Is Usually Chemical but Can Be Electrical Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. In an electrical synapse, the main structure responsible for transmission of an impulse from one cell to the next is a. any generic activating neurotransmitter. b. acetylcholine. c. the gap junction. d. the cell membrane.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Synaptic Transmission Is Usually Chemical but Can Be Electrical Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. Which structure is associated with signal transmission in an electrical synapse? a. Postsynaptic densities b. Synaptic vesicles c. Neurotransmitters d. Connexons

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Synaptic Transmission Is Usually Chemical but Can Be Electrical Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. Which protein is most uniquely associated with a metabotropic receptor? a. Neurotransmitter b. Second messenger c. Ligand-gated receptor d. Voltage-gated receptor Answer: b Textbook Reference: Synaptic Transmission Is Usually Chemical but Can Be Electrical Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. In chemical synapses, neurotransmitters are released by a. facilitated diffusion. b. calcium-dependent exocytosis. c. active transport. d. vesicular cycling.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Synaptic Transmission Is Usually Chemical but Can Be Electrical Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 7. Ultimately, it is the _______ that determines whether the postsynaptic membrane produces an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) or an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP). a. frequency of action potentials b. movement of ions c. neurotransmitter d. receptor’s affinity for the neurotransmitter Answer: b Textbook Reference: Synaptic Potentials Control Neuronal Excitability Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. Two sets of axons carry stimuli near the axonal hillock. One set produces an IPSP and the other set produces an EPSP. If both sets produce action potentials at the same time, what is the likely effect at the axonal hillock? a. There will be a hyperpolarization. b. There will be a depolarization. c. An action potential will be produced. d. The potentials created will cancel each other out.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Synaptic Potentials Control Neuronal Excitability Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 9.–10. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

9. Where is depolarizing temporal summation occurring? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: a Textbook Reference: Synaptic Potentials Control Neuronal Excitability Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 10. Where is hyperpolarizing spatial summation occurring? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: c Textbook Reference: Synaptic Potentials Control Neuronal Excitability Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 11. The _______ is the flow of ions through all the channels that open in response to release of a neurotransmitter. a. postsynaptic potential b. synaptic current c. action potential d. voltage Answer: b Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate Neuromuscular Junction

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. Once acetylcholine is released into the synapse it a. is actively pumped back into the presynaptic neuron. b. crosses the postsynaptic membrane and then is broken down inside that cell. c. is inactivated by calcium. d. is broken down by acetylcholinesterase.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate Neuromuscular Junction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 13. During an inhibitory postsynaptic potential, the postsynaptic membrane a. increases in permeability to K+. b. increases in permeability to Na+. c. decreases in permeability to Cl–. d. increases in permeability to Ca2+.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate Neuromuscular Junction Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 14.–17. Refer to the figure below.

14. What is occurring at IV? a. Depolarization

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. Hyperpolarization c. An action potential d. Muscle contraction Answer: a Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate Neuromuscular Junction Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 15. What is entering the cell at III? a. Na+ b. K+ c. Ca2+ d. Serotonin Answer: c Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate Neuromuscular Junction Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 16. What is occurring at I? a. Calcium is being pumped. b. A second messenger system is being activated. c. Acetylcholine is being broken down. d. Acetylcholine is attaching to a receptor.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate Neuromuscular Junction Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 17. What is the best description of II? a. Na+, which just entered the cell, is now being transported deep into the muscle. b. Ca2+ leaks into channels causing depolarization. c. Acetylcholine binds to and opens ligand-gated channels. d. Muscle fiber action potential.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate Neuromuscular Junction Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 18. Which statement regarding postsynaptic potentials is true? a. In a neuromuscular synapse, the main neurotransmitter is glutamate. b. In a CNS neural synapse, serotonin produces an IPSP. c. In a CNS neural synapse, K+ is the main ion producing the EPSP. d. In a neuromuscular synapse, Na+ is the main ion producing the EPSP. Answer: d Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate Neuromuscular Junction

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 19. Fast IPSPs result mainly from a(n) _______ in permeability to _______. a. decrease; Na+ b. increase; Cl– c. increase; K+ d. increase; Na+ Answer: b Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate Neuromuscular Junction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 20. What is a miniature EPSP (mEPSP)? a. The movement of Na+ across the postsynaptic membrane b. The diffusion of a neurotransmitter across the synapse c. A depolarization caused by the release of a neurotransmitter from several synaptic vesicles d. The postsynaptic response to the release of the contents of one synaptic vesicle Answer: d Textbook Reference: Presynaptic Neurons Release Neurotransmitter Molecules in Quantal Packets Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 21. A quantum is a a. count of the number of acetylcholine molecules in a vesicle. b. measure of the total amount of acetylcholine released into the synapse. c. measure of the stored acetylcholine in the presynaptic terminal. d. the number of vesicles in the synapse.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Presynaptic Neurons Release Neurotransmitter Molecules in Quantal Packets Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 22. How were extracellular ion concentrations manipulated in the experiments supporting the theory of quantal release of neurotransmitters? a. Ca2+ was increased in the extracellular fluid so that action potentials would release many vesicles. b. Ca2+ was absent in the extracellular fluid so that action potentials would release no vesicles. c. Mg2+ replaced Ca2+ in the extracellular fluid so that action potentials would release few vesicles. d. Mg2+ replaced Ca2+ in the extracellular fluid so that action potentials would release many vesicles.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Presynaptic Neurons Release Neurotransmitter Molecules in Quantal Packets

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 23. How do we account for the two hypotheses of vesicular fusion and retrieval? a. There is more experimental support for the classical pathway of neurotransmitter release. b. There was very little support for the classical pathway of neurotransmitter release, therefore the kiss-and-run pathway is currently the favored pathway. c. Both pathways are portions of a larger pathway and therefore there should be one hypothesis. d. The kiss-and-run pathway is likely used at lower rates of neurotransmitter release while the classical pathway predominates at higher rates of neurotransmitter release.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Presynaptic Neurons Release Neurotransmitter Molecules in Quantal Packets Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 24. Which statement best describes the fusion process in exocytotic release of neurotransmitter? a. v-SNARE proteins attach to t-SNARE proteins. b. Synapsin detaches the vesicle from the cytoskeleton. c. Dynamin interacts with clathrin. d. Calcium interacts with synaptotagmin.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Presynaptic Neurons Release Neurotransmitter Molecules in Quantal Packets Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 25. Which statement regarding the mechanism of vesicular docking and release is false? a. Targeted vesicles move to active zones where they attach reversibly. b. Docking is mediated by the formation of a SNARE complex. c. The v-SNAREs and t-SNARES interact to hold the vesicle at the release site. d. Fusion is triggered by the binding of Ca2+ to syntaxin.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Presynaptic Neurons Release Neurotransmitter Molecules in Quantal Packets Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 26. Which neurotransmitter elicits responses of both ionotropic and metabotropic receptors? a. Acetylcholine b. Dopamine c. Glutamate d. Both acetylcholine and glutamate Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neurotransmitters Are of Two General Kinds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

27. The enzyme tryptophan hydroxylase synthesizes what neurotransmitter? a. Acetylcholine b. Serotonin c. Dopamine d. Norepinephrine Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neurotransmitters Are of Two General Kinds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 28. The major excitatory neuromuscular junction neurotransmitter in a moth is a. acetylcholine. b. glutamate. c. glycine. d. GABA. Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neurotransmitters Are of Two General Kinds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 29. Which statement regarding neurotransmitters is true? a. Small-molecule neurotransmitters are synthesized mainly in the nucleus. b. Small-molecule neurotransmitters are contained in large dense-cored vesicles. c. Neuropeptides are synthesized at the axon terminal. d. The inactivation of small molecule neurotransmitters can occur via reuptake or via enzymes.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neurotransmitters Are of Two General Kinds Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 30. How does the acetylcholine receptor respond to prolonged exposure to acetylcholine? a. The receptor will flicker, and the rate of flickering will increase. b. Acetylcholine will no longer be able to bind to the receptor. c. Acetylcholine will remain bound to the receptor, and the channel will remain open indefinitely. d. Acetylcholine will remain bound to the receptor, but the channel will close.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Fast Ionotropic Actions: Ligand-Gated Channels Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 31. Which statement regarding the ligand-gated channel at the vertebrate neuromuscular junction is false? a. It binds acetylcholine. b. K+ travels through this channel when it is open. c. Two acetylcholine molecules need to bind to the intracellular side of the receptor. d. When the channel opens, ions depolarize the membrane.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Fast Ionotropic Actions: Ligand-Gated Channels Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 32.–34. Refer to the figure below.

32. What technique is being used to collect the data presented? a. Voltage clamp b. Ion flux c. Stimulation d. Patch clamp Answer: d Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Fast Ionotropic Actions: Ligand-Gated Channels Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 33. What is the principal ion that is moving? a. Na+ b. K+ c. Ca2+ d. Cl– Answer: a Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Fast Ionotropic Actions: Ligand-Gated Channels Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 34. Which statement best describes what is occurring in the bottom panel? a. More electrical stimulation is occurring on the voltage-gated channels, therefore, they open with more frequency.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. The increased concentration of acetylcholine eventually overwhelms the receptors, and the bottom panel represents what will happen just before they remain open permanently. c. Because the channels are staying open longer due to increased acetylcholine concentration, K+ begins to move in significant quantities. d. In this section of membrane, there are two acetylcholine channels that, in the presence of increasing neurotransmitter concentration, have an increasing probability of being open at the same time.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Fast Ionotropic Actions: Ligand-Gated Channels Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 35. Which statement best reflects the evolutionary history of the ligand-gated channel? a. The sequence homology of the ligand-gated receptors is similar to that of voltage-gated receptors. b. Ligand-gated channels have had a minimum of three independent appearances in evolutionary history. c. Ligand-gated channels in the neuromuscular junction are evolutionarily distinct from ligand-gated channels in the brain. d. Most kinds of ligand-gated channels appear to have evolved from a common ancestor.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Fast Ionotropic Actions: Ligand-Gated Channels Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 36. How does the G protein activate adenylyl cyclase? a. The G protein mediates the release of cAMP-dependent protein kinase, which activates adenylyl cyclase. b. The G protein activates various second messengers, which all activate pathways that activate adenylyl cyclase. c. The α subunit of the G protein, with GTP, diffuses laterally in the membrane and binds to and activates adenylyl cyclase. d. The G protein causes a depolarization, which activates adenylyl cyclase.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Slow, Metabotropic Actions: G Protein– Coupled Receptors Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 37. Which response is not directly mediated by a G protein? a. Activating cAMP-dependent protein kinase b. Opening of a K+ channel c. Activating adenylyl cyclase d. Activating phospholipase C Answer: a Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Slow, Metabotropic Actions: G Protein– Coupled Receptors

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 38. Which second messenger acts directly to mediate the release of Ca2+ from the endoplasmic reticulum? a. Diacylglycerol (DAG) b. Inositol triphosphate (IP3) c. Calmodulin d. Phospholipase C Answer: b Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Slow, Metabotropic Actions: G Protein– Coupled Receptors Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 39. When a superior cervical ganglion is heavily stimulated, how does it keep from running out of acetylcholine? a. Presynaptic inhibition occurs to conserve the acetylcholine. b. Acetylcholinesterase is inhibited by the increased amount of acetylcholine. c. More acetylcholine is created via second messenger systems. d. More choline is produced in the cleft and taken back up into the cell to create more acetylcholine.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and Activity Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 40. Antidepressants, such as Prozac, work by a. upregulating the production of serotonin. b. stimulating serotonin receptors. c. inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin. d. increasing the number of serotonin receptors.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and Activity Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 41. Which of the following would not be considered synaptic plasticity? a. Altering the amount of calcium entering the cell at the presynaptic terminus b. Increasing the amount of neurotransmitter released from an action potential c. Increasing the number of receptors on the postsynaptic membrane d. Reducing voltage gated Na+ channels on the neuron Answer: d Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and Activity Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 42.–44. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

42. The primary site of behavioral plasticity is at the _______ synapse. a. head-to-motor neuron b. sensory-to-motor neuron c. skin-to-sensory neuron d. motor neuron-to-gill Answer: b Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and Activity Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 43. Which mechanism explains Panel 1? a. At the synapse, the neurotransmitter changes function. b. The amount of neurotransmitter per presynaptic impulse changes. c. Receptor density on the postsynaptic membrane changes. d. The frequency of action potentials increases.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and Activity Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 44. What are the best titles for Panel 1 and Panel 2? a. Panel 1 = Motor-neuron EPSP; Panel 2 = Gill withdrawal b. Panel 1 = Skin PSP; Panel 2 = Gill contraction c. Panel 1 = Synapse EPSP; Panel 2 = Head EPSP d. Panel 1 = Synapse EPSP; Panel 2 = Gill contraction Answer: a

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and Activity Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 45. Which statement best describes the mechanism of sensitization? a. Protein kinase dephosphorylates Ca2+ channels and decreases the Ca2+ current that normally terminates the action potential, which leads to a decrease in Ca2+ influx. b. Protein kinase phosphorylates K+ channels and decreases the K+ current that normally terminates the action potential, which leads to an increase in Ca2+ influx. c. Protein kinase dephosphorylates K+ channels and increases the K+ current that normally terminates the action potential, which leads to an increase in Ca2+ influx. d. Protein kinase phosphorylates Na+ channels and decreases the Na+ current that normally activates the action potential, which leads to a decrease in Ca2+ influx.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and Activity Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 46. Long-term potentiation has been extensively studied in the a. hippocampus. b. hypothalamus. c. neuromuscular junction. d. cerebellum.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and Activity Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 47. Which occurrence in the synapse is not likely to be involved in the formation of longterm memories? a. Increase in AMPA receptors in the postsynaptic membrane b. NMDA receptors mediate increases in intracellular Ca2+ c. Long-lasting neurotransmitter release d. Lengthening of dendritic spines e. Growth of new dendritic spines Answer: c Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and Activity Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 48. Which statement best describes long-term potentiation? a. Increased synaptic response occurs with increased numbers of AMPA receptors. b. Increased synaptic response occurs with increased numbers of NMDA receptors. c. A massive amount of glutamate releases Mg2+ from the NMDA receptor. d. A massive amount of glutamate releases Mg2+ from the AMPA receptor.

Answer: a

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and Activity Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 49. Which statement best describes of the mechanistic uniqueness of the Doogie mouse strain? a. They have longer-opening NMDA receptors compared to standard lab mice. b. They produce more neurotransmitters than standard lab mice. c. They produce more action potentials per second than standard lab mice. d. They have a better long-term memory than standard lab mice.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and Activity Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

Short Answer 1. Compare and contrast electrical synapses with chemical synapses, including advantages and disadvantages for each.

Answer: Both electrical and chemical synapses can rapidly change the membrane potential of a postsynaptic cell. In electrical synapses, there is a direct electrical coupling that allows current to flow between cells with only negligible delay. While this provides a speed and synchronization advantage, there is low plasticity and directionality within these synapses. In chemical synapses, on the other hand, a presynaptic neuron releases a neurotransmitter, which diffuses across a synapse and binds to the postsynaptic receptor, causing a postsynaptic potential. While generally slower than the electrical synapse, the advantage of chemical synapses is their high plasticity, which gives them the ability to integrate neuronal functions.

Textbook Reference: Synaptic Transmission Is Usually Chemical but Can Be Electrical Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. Compare and contrast ionotropic and metabotropic receptors.

Answer: Ionotropic and metabotropic receptors are both found on the postsynaptic membrane of a chemical synapse and respond to the binding of a neurotransmitter. When bound to a neurotransmitter, ionotropic receptors directly alter permeability to ions, whereas metabotropic receptors trigger a signaling cascade of second messengers.

Textbook Reference: Synaptic Transmission Is Usually Chemical but Can Be Electrical Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. If Na+ and K+ move in opposite directions through the acetylcholine receptor (which has similar permeability to both ions) when it is bound to acetylcholine, why is there an overall depolarization instead of no change in the membrane potential?

Answer: Although the acetylcholine channel has similar permeabilities to Na+ and K+, most of the synaptic current underlying the EPSP is created by Na+ movement. This is

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

because the driving force for Na+ to enter the cell is far greater than the driving force for K+ to leave the cell.

Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate Neuromuscular Junction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Explain why it is the receptor and not the neurotransmitter that determines whether the postsynaptic membrane produces an EPSP or an IPSP. Answer: Whether the PSP is excitatory or inhibitory depends on what kinds of ions flow through the ion channels when the channels open. A particular neurotransmitter can act at different receptors, and they may produce similar effects or different effects.

Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate Neuromuscular Junction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. Briefly describe the mechanism of docking and fusion in the release of neurotransmitters.

Answer: Docking is mediated by the formation of a SNARE complex; the v-SNAREs and t-SNAREs interact to hold the vesicle at the release site. Following priming, Ca2+ entry through voltage-gated Ca2+ channels triggers fusion by the binding of Ca2+ to the vesicular protein synaptotagmin. The Ca2+–synaptotagmin complex changes conformation to fuse the vesicular and terminal membranes.

Textbook Reference: Presynaptic Neurons Release Neurotransmitter Molecules in Quantal Packets Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. Why were the terms nicotinic and muscarinic both used as names for the acetylcholine receptor?

Answer: The two types of acetylcholine receptors were first characterized many years ago by their pharmacological response. The acetylcholine receptor in skeletal muscle is stimulated by nicotine and was hence named a nicotinic receptor. The acetylcholine receptor on the heart muscle is stimulated by muscarine and was thus named a muscarinic receptor.

Textbook Reference: Neurotransmitters Are of Two General Kinds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 7. Briefly explain the patch clamp technique and why it is important.

Answer: The patch clamp technique uses a fine glass microelectrode, sealed to the membrane with suction. The patch of membrane is then pulled from the cell, and the researcher is then able to alter the solution on either side of the membrane, as well as measure the receptor channel current. Because of its small size, researchers are able to measure the current on isolated receptors, which has been invaluable in advancing the field of receptor physiology and pharmacology.

Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Fast Ionotropic Actions: Ligand-Gated Channels Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

8. How do most second messengers go on to affect the membrane potential?

Answer: Most second messengers activate protein kinases, which phosphorylate proteins, such as ion channels, and change their permeability, which then alters the membrane potential.

Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Slow, Metabotropic Actions: G Protein– Coupled Receptors Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. In two sentences, explain the overall mechanism of presynaptic facilitation (sensitization) in Aplysia.

Answer: Serotonin acts via a G protein to upregulate cAMP, which activates cAMPdependent protein kinases to phosphorylate the K+ channel. This leads to a decrease in the repolarizing K+ current, allowing Ca2+ channels to stay open longer, mediating a greater release of neurotransmitter per action potential.

Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and Activity Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. List three specific changes in the synapse that would be categorized as synaptic plasticity.

Answer: a) Number of receptors on the postsynaptic membrane b) Amount of neurotransmitter released per action potential c) The effectiveness of the uptake or breakdown of the neurotransmitter once released into the synapse Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and Activity Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. Which substance is most directly responsible for exocytosis of synaptic vesicles? a. Na+ b. Acetylcholine c. K+ d. Ca2+ Answer: d Textbook Reference: Synaptic Transmission Is Usually Chemical but Can Be Electrical Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Which statement regarding chemical synapses is true? a. Chemical synapses are only excitatory. b. Chemical synapses transmit information in two directions. c. Chemical synapses have high plasticity.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. Pre- and postsynaptic currents are always similar.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Synaptic Transmission Is Usually Chemical but Can Be Electrical Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. What effect would injecting a leg muscle with a drug that binds to and disables acetylcholinesterase have on that leg? a. Delayed paralysis b. Immediate tetany c. Tetany once the leg muscle was contracted d. Paralysis once the leg muscle was contracted Answer: c Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate Neuromuscular Junction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 4. Ligand-gated channels on the postsynaptic membrane open and K+ and Na+ both move through these channels in opposite directions. Why then do we measure depolarization on the postsynaptic membrane? a. Na+ has a much stronger driving force into the cell. b. K+ has a much stronger driving force into the cell. c. Na+ has a much stronger driving force out of the cell. d. K+ has a much stronger driving force out of the cell.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate Neuromuscular Junction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. The main ion responsible for the EPSP is a. Na+. b. K+. c. Cl–. d. Ca2+.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Fast Chemical Synaptic Actions Are Exemplified by the Vertebrate Neuromuscular Junction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. The limiting factor in the synthesis of acetylcholine is the speed at which a. acetyl groups are formed. b. vesicles are formed. c. choline is recycled. d. vesicles release choline.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Presynaptic Neurons Release Neurotransmitter Molecules in Quantal Packets

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. The protein responsible for triggering the actual release of neurotransmitter at the synapse is a. synaptotagmin. b. SNARE. c. dynamin. d. sytaxin.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Presynaptic Neurons Release Neurotransmitter Molecules in Quantal Packets Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 8. Epinephrine is a. excitatory. b. inhibitory. c. simultaneously excitatory and inhibitory. d. either excitatory or inhibitory.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neurotransmitters Are of Two General Kinds Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Which statement regarding vertebrate neurotransmitters is true? a. Most synapses (numerically) in the CNS use peptide neurotransmitters. b. In the CNS, many receptors for biogenic amines mediate fast ionic responses. c. Biogenic amines are found in almost all neurons in the CNS. d. A neuroactive peptide may be co-released with one or more small-molecule neurotransmitters and may function as a cotransmitter.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neurotransmitters Are of Two General Kinds Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 10. Which statement regarding metabotropic receptors is true? a. They can directly open or close ion channels. b. They always activate a G protein. c. They use no second messengers. d. They mediate membrane voltage changes via slow postsynaptic potentials.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Fast Ionotropic Actions: Ligand-Gated Channels Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. Which statement about the neuromuscular junction acetylcholine (Ach) receptor is false? a. The probability an ACh channel will open depends on ACh concentration.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. The synaptic current is the sum of the net ionic currents through all activated ACh receptors. c. The opening of the ACh receptor is all-or-none. d. The probability that an ACh channel will open depends on membrane voltage.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Fast Ionotropic Actions: Ligand-Gated Channels Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. Which protein cannot contact a G protein directly? a. Protein kinase C b. Potassium channel c. Phospholipase C d. Adenylyl cyclase Answer: a Textbook Reference: Postsynaptic Receptors for Slow, Metabotropic Actions: G Protein– Coupled Receptors Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 13. During presynaptic inhibition, a(n) a. metabotropic response reduces the number of action potentials reaching the synapse. b. metabotropic response reduces the amount of calcium entering the nerve terminus. c. ionotropic response reduces the number of action potentials reaching the synapse. d. ionotropic response reduces the amount of calcium entering the nerve terminus.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and Activity Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 14. How often does a neuron’s output equal its input? a. All the time b. Most of the time c. Seldom d. Never Answer: d Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and Activity Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 15. What is the relationship between synaptic facilitation and behavioral sensitization? a. Synaptic facilitation is a short term response and behavioral sensitization is a long term response. b. Synaptic facilitation is related to the sensory system and behavioral sensitization is related to the motor system. c. Synaptic facilitation underlies behavioral sensitization. d. They are both fundamentally the same thing.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and Activity Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 16. In Aplysia, the result of sensitization at the synapse is a(n) a. decrease in the amount of neurotransmitter per impulse. b. increase in the number of impulses per second. c. increase in the amount of neurotransmitter per impulse. d. decrease in the number of impulses per second.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and Activity Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 17. What is the mechanistic explanation for sensitization? a. Increase in sodium flux b. Increase in potassium flux c. Decrease in potassium flux d. Increase in calcium flux Answer: d Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and Activity Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 18. Calmodulin binds to _______ and becomes activated. a. G protein b. Ca2+ c. protein kinase C d. adenylyl cyclase Answer: b Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and Activity Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 19. The induction of long-term potentiation occurs in the a. presynaptic neuron. b. synapse. c. postsynaptic neuron. d. motor neuron.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and Activity Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 20. Which statement best describes long-term potentiation?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. More sodium entering the postsynaptic membrane per presynaptic action potential b. More neurotransmitter released per action potential c. More action potentials sent per second d. More calcium released per action potential Answer: a Textbook Reference: Synaptic Plasticity: Synapses Change Properties with Time and Activity Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 20: Muscle TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. A striated muscle fiber is made up of many parallel _______, each containing a series of _______. a. fascicles; fibrils b. myofibrils; sarcomeres c. fascicles; Z discs d. sarcomeres; myotomes Answer: b Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. According to the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction, myosin heads pull on _______ filaments and _______. a. thick; move the Z discs apart b. thick; move the Z discs together c. thin; move the Z discs apart d. thin; move the Z discs together Answer: d Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. The smallest unit of a skeletal muscle that shortens during a muscle contraction is the a. myosin molecule. b. thin filament. c. sarcomere. d. myofibril.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. In striated muscle, phosphate is released from the myosin head at the same instant that a. the myosin head binds to actin. b. the myosin head releases from actin. c. the myosin head returns to the cocked position. d. the myosin head starts the power stroke.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. In relaxed skeletal muscle, myosin heads are a. bound to actin with ADP and phosphate bound. b. bound to actin with ATP bound. c. dissociated from actin with ATP bound. d. dissociated from actin with ADP and phosphate bound.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. In skeletal muscle cells, cytoplasmic Ca2+ is bound by a. actin. b. myosin. c. troponin. d. tropomyosin.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 7.–9. Refer to the figure below.

7. In the figure, which numeral represents the A band? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: a Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. What state of muscle activity does this figure represent? a. Fully contracted b. Somewhat contracted c. Fully relaxed d. Tetany Answer: c © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 9. Which area(s) shorten(s) during muscle contraction? a. I b. III c. I and III d. III and V Answer: d Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10.–12. Refer to the figure below.

10. In the figure, which panel represents the transient rigor state? a. I

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. IV c. V d. VI Answer: a Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 11. In the figure, which panel represents the power stroke? a. I b. IV c. V d. VI Answer: c Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 12. In the figure, which panel, taken out of context, represents a state where muscle relaxation could be occurring? a. I b. II c. IV d. VI Answer: b Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 13. What happens when Ca2+ increases in the cytoplasm of a striated muscle cell? a. Myosin-binding sites on actin are exposed, allowing a single cross-bridge cycle to occur. b. Myosin-binding sites on actin are exposed, allowing cross-bridge cycles to occur until Ca2+ drops again. c. Actin-binding sites on myosin are exposed, allowing a single cross-bridge cycle to occur. d. Actin-binding sites on myosin are exposed, allowing cross-bridge cycles to occur until Ca2+ drops again.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 14. In resting skeletal muscle, contraction does not occur because a. there is very little ATP in the cytoplasm. b. most of the ATP is bound to other molecules for storage. c. there is very little calcium in the cytoplasm. d. myosin is inactivated.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

15. Running mice are capable of moving their legs back and forth much more quickly than elephants. Thus, compared to an elephant muscle cell, a mouse muscle cell likely contains more a. actin. b. myosin. c. troponin C. d. SR Ca2+-ATPase.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 16. When the cell membrane of a vertebrate skeletal muscle is depolarized, ryanodine receptors change configuration and permit passage of Ca2+ a. passively, from the extracellular fluid to the cytoplasm. b. passively, from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to the cytoplasm. c. actively, from the extracellular fluid to the cytoplasm. d. actively, from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to the cytoplasm.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 17. In striated muscle, _______ before the sarcomere can generate force. a. Ca2+ must dissociate from troponin C b. Ca2+ must be pumped by the SR Ca2+-ATPase c. the SR calcium channel must open d. calcium must bind to tropomyosin Answer: c Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 18. During the latent period of an isometric twitch, a. myosin hydrolyzes ATP and releases from actin. b. Ca2+ binds to troponin C. c. ryanodine receptors open and conduct Ca2+ into the SR. d. tropomyosin moves to block myosin-binding sites on actin. e. dihydropyridine receptors open and conduct Ca2+ into the cytoplasm.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 19.–21. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

19. What do the tiny dots at area I represent? a. Ca2+ b. ATP c. Phosphate d. Na+ Answer: a Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 20. What is the best explanation for the release of the dots at area II? a. DHPR actively pumping b. DHPR changes conformation due to depolarization c. RyR channel actively pumping d. RyR changes conformation due to depolarization Answer: b Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 21. What are the tiny dots at area III binding to? a. Ca2+ b. ATP c. actin d. troponin Answer: d Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 22. Lengthening of a muscle occurs

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. as a result of an external load that acts on the muscle. b. as the muscle cell action potential repolarizes. c. as Ca2+ levels drop following a contraction. d. only when the muscle is generating negative force.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 23. During an eccentric muscle contraction, the a. length of the sarcomeres remains unchanged, but the length of the elastic component increases. b. sarcomeres shorten, but the length of the elastic component remains unchanged. c. muscle produces force and its length decreases. d. muscle produces force and its length increases.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 24. During an isometric tetanic contraction, the sarcomeres a. shorten, but the elastic components lengthen. b. shorten, but the elastic components stay the same length. c. and the elastic components shorten. d. lengthen, but the elastic components shorten.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s category: 2. Understanding 25. Cross-bridges generate force in a skeletal muscle cell any time a. the muscle is shortened. b. there is an action potential in a motor neuron. c. Ca2+ levels in the cytoplasm are high. d. ATP levels are high enough.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s category: 2. Understanding 26. During an isotonic muscle twitch, the presence of elastic elements causes the latent period to be _______ than during an isometric twitch, and the peak force transmitted through the tendon to be _______. a. shorter; lower b. shorter; higher c. longer; higher d. longer; lower Answer: d Textbook reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

27. The elastic component of the gastrocnemius a. is composed of the epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium surrounding the muscle. b. is composed of actin and myosin proteins within the muscle cells. c. must be fully stretched before the gastrocnemius can exert any external force. d. must be fully stretched in order for the muscle to exert maximum tetanic force.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 28. How can summation of skeletal muscle twitches occur if the motor neuron’s refractory period prevents multiple action potentials from being transmitted to the neuromuscular junction at the same time? a. The motor neuron’s absolute refractory period is much shorter than the time it takes for calcium release and reuptake from the SR. b. The motor neuron’s absolute refractory period is much longer than the time it takes for calcium release and reuptake from the SR. c. The motor neuron’s absolute refractory period is much shorter than the muscle action potential. d. The motor neuron’s absolute refractory period is much longer than the muscle action potential.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s category: 3. Applying 29. A muscle produces less force during a twitch than during a tetanic contraction because during a twitch a. peak cytoplasmic Ca2+ is lower. b. tropomyosin does not have time to unblock all of the actomyosin binding sites. c. myosin does not have time to bind to as many actin molecules. d. the elastic components of the muscle are not fully stretched.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s category: 3. Applying 30. In skeletal muscle, an incomplete tetanus would result from a. action potentials arriving at a rate fast enough for the intracellular Ca2+ levels to rise much higher than they would in a muscle twitch. b. action potentials arriving at a rate fast enough for sarcomeres to generate force while the elastic components of the muscle are still stretched. c. action potentials arriving so quickly that there is no fluctuation in intracellular Ca2+ levels. d. many, but not all, of the thin filaments being activated to permit cross-bridge formation.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 31. Which condition contributes to the length‒tension relationship observed in skeletal muscle? a. When sarcomere lengths are long, thin filaments overlap.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. When sarcomere lengths are long, thick and thin filaments do not overlap optimally. c. When sarcomere lengths are short, thick and thin filaments do not overlap fully. d. When sarcomere lengths are short, the elastic elements in the muscle are not fully stretched.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 32. The sarcomeres of vertebrate skeletal muscles are all about the same length, but squid have different sarcomere lengths in different muscles in the body. If all other factors are equal, the muscle with shorter sarcomeres will a. shorten more slowly. b. shorten more rapidly. c. generate more force. d. generate less force.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 33. The force‒velocity relationship for skeletal muscle indicates that a muscle a. produces maximum force when contracting at its maximum velocity. b. shortens at maximum velocity when contracting against the maximum load it can move. c. produces maximum power when contracting isometrically. d. shortens at maximum velocity when contracting against no load.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 34. Suppose that muscle A is long with a narrow diameter and muscle B is short with a large diameter. Compared to muscle A, muscle B is capable of producing a _______ maximum force and a _______ maximum velocity. a. lower; lower b. higher; higher c. lower; higher d. higher; lower Answer: d Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 35. Suppose that each cross-bridge cycle moves the thin filament 10 nanometers relative to the thick filament. If myosin in a particular muscle can go through the cross-bridge cycle at 250 cycles per second, what is the rate at which a muscle that is 30 cm long can shorten? a. 75 mm/s b. 0.30 m/s c. 0.60 m/s d. 2.5 m/s Answer: c

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying [Instructor Note: Assume a sarcomere length of 2.5 µm. Therefore, a 30 cm long muscle contains (30 × 10–2m) / (2.5 × 10–6 m / sarcomere) = 1.2 × 105 sarcomeres One x-bridge cycle pulls thin filament 10 nm toward the center on one side of the sarcomere while x-bridge on facing side of sarcomere pulls thin filament10 nm toward center → sarcomere shortens 20 nm per cycle. Thus, in one sec, the sarcomere shortens: 20nm/cycle × 250 cycles/sec = 5000 nm/sec = 5µm/sec = 5 × 10–6 m/sec Therefore, the 30 cm long muscle consisting of 1.2 x 105 sarcomeres would shorten at a speed of (5 × 10–6 m/sec/sarcomere) × (1.2 × 105 sarcomeres) = 6.0 × 10–1m/sec = 0.6 m/sec] 36. Muscle A has a volume of 200 cm3, a length of 20 cm, and a cross-sectional area of 10 cm2.

Muscle B has a volume of 200 cm3, a length of 10 cm, and a cross-sectional area of 20 cm2.

Which of the following statements about these muscles is true? a. Both muscles can produce the same power, but they will shorten at different speeds. b. Both muscles will shorten at the same speed, but they can produce different amounts of power. c. Both muscles can exert the same force, but one will shorten more quickly than the other. d. Both muscles can produce the same power and the same force.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 37. Which muscle can generate the most power per cubic centimeter of muscle? a. A muscle containing mostly slow oxidative fibers contracting at its Vmax b. A muscle containing mostly slow oxidative fibers contracting against a moderate load c. A muscle containing mostly fast glycolytic fibers contracting at its Vmax d. A muscle containing mostly fast glycolytic fibers contracting against a moderate load Answer: d Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 38. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Which number on the diagram represents the most optimal positioning of actin and myosin before contraction? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: c Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 39. When muscle is suddenly activated to perform contractions at a rapid rate, most of the ATP to fuel the first 3‒5 seconds of exercise comes from a. the aerobic breakdown of glycogen. b. creatine phosphate hydrolysis.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. anaerobic glycolysis. d. ATP stored in the cell.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 40. Fast glycolytic muscle fibers depend on carbohydrate as a fuel, whereas slow oxidative fibers are capable of metabolizing carbohydrates, lipids, or amino acids. What is the physiological reason for this difference? a. Anaerobic glycolysis can produce ATP from glucose much more quickly than lipid or amino acid oxidation can take place. b. The myosin in fast glycolytic fibers can only bind to glycogen. c. Compared to fast glycolytic fibers, slow oxidative fibers need to metabolize a wider variety of fuels to meet a higher ATP demand. d. Slow oxidative fibers need to metabolize lipid because they have less creatine kinase.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 41. Lactate produced by muscle cells a. is produced only during very intense exercise. b. is always broken down to yield ATP within the muscle cell that produced it. c. is always used to produce glucose by gluconeogenesis in the cell that produced it. d. can be exported into the bloodstream and used by other cells.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 42. Tonic muscle a. is a form of smooth muscle. b. has large amounts of sarcoplasmic reticulum. c. is found primarily in postural muscles. d. consumes no ATP. Answer: c Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 43. One reason that fast glycolytic muscle fibers fatigue more rapidly than slow oxidative muscle fibers is that fast glycolytic fibers a. contain lower amounts of ATP than slow oxidative fibers. b. have a lower capacity for glycolysis than slow oxidative fibers. c. have a higher capacity for oxidative phosphorylation than slow oxidative fibers. d. use ATP more rapidly than slow oxidative fibers.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

44. The diffusion rate of which factor best explains why vertebrates evolved to have slow oxidative muscle fibers that are smaller in diameter than fast glycolytic fibers? a. Lipid b. Oxygen c. Ca2+ d. Glucose Answer: b Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 45. A skeletal muscle fiber with high myosin ATPase activity, a high rate of Ca2+ reuptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum, and large number of mitochondria would be classified as a a. slow oxidative fiber. b. fast oxidative glycolytic fiber. c. fast glycolytic fiber. d. slow glycolytic fiber.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 46. Fast oxidative glycolytic fibers in skeletal muscle are used a. only for motions requiring maximum power output, such as jumping. b. constantly, for postural activities such as standing and sitting. c. intermittently, for activities requiring more force output than the fast glycolytic fibers alone can produce. d. intermittently, for activities requiring more force output than the slow oxidative fibers alone can produce.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 47. Slow oxidative fibers in skeletal muscle have a. few mitochondria but abundant sarcoplasmic reticulum. b. few mitochondria but numerous capillaries. c. large diameters, to hold many mitochondria. d. low levels of glycolytic enzymes but high levels of oxidative enzymes.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 48. The small diameter of slow oxidative muscle fibers is particularly advantageous for minimizing the distance over which a. calcium diffuses from the sarcolemma to the myofibrils. b. oxygen diffuses from the sarcolemma to the mitochondria. c. glycogen diffuses from the sarcolemma to the myofibrils.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. lactate diffuses from the myofibrils to the sarcolemma.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 49. The extraocular muscles that move the mammalian eyeball can contract and relax at much higher frequencies than the muscles of the limbs, but they produce relatively low force as they rotate the eye. These characteristics tell us that extraocular muscles have a. high levels of myosin. b. a high volume fraction of myofibrils. c. a high volume fraction of sarcoplasmic reticulum. d. troponin C with high Ca2+ affinity.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 50. A vertebrate motor unit consists of a. a single motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it innervates. b. all of the muscles that contract to complete a particular body movement. c. a particular muscle and all of its synergistic and antagonistic muscles. d. all of the fibers of a particular fiber type in a given muscle.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 51. The force that a particular vertebrate skeletal muscle produces can be altered by a change in the a. size of the action potentials in motor neurons. b. number of motor units recruited. c. amount of calcium released in response to each action potential. d. proportion of myofibrils activated per muscle fiber.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 52. Which statement is true of most arthropod and vertebrate skeletal muscle? a. Muscle fibers are innervated by multiple neurons. b. Muscle fibers receive both EPSPs and IPSPs. c. Different myosin isoforms in adjacent fibers produce different maximum shortening velocities. d. Ca2+ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in response to depolarization of the fiber.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 53. Which statement provides the most likely explanation for the differing patterns of innervation in arthropod skeletal muscle (polyneuronal) and vertebrate skeletal muscle (single innervation)?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. Vertebrates need to modulate muscle force, whereas arthropods always exert the same force with a given muscle. b. Action potentials in vertebrate neurons are all-or-nothing, whereas arthropod neurons fire action potentials of varying magnitude. c. Action potentials in arthropod neurons are all-or-nothing, whereas vertebrate neurons fire action potentials of varying magnitude. d. The two patterns are products of the evolutionary history of the two taxa, and each one allows effective control of muscle contraction.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neural Control of Skeletal Muscle Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 54. Smooth muscle cells possess which component? a. Sarcoplasmic reticulum b. T-tubules c. Multiple nuclei d. Sarcomeres Answer: a Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 55. Single-unit smooth muscle differs from multiunit smooth muscle in that multiunit smooth muscle a. contains gap junctions that link the cells as an electrical syncytium. b. is often spontaneously active. c. is usually stretch-activated. d. has cells that function as independent units.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 56. For contraction to occur in smooth muscle, a. myosin light chains must be phosphorylated. b. myosin light-chain kinase must be phosphorylated. c. calcium must bind to troponin C. d. DHPR must interact physically with ryanodine receptor calcium channels.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 57. ATP use is lower in smooth muscle than in skeletal muscle in part because a. there is no sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium ATPase in smooth muscle. b. smooth muscle myosin does not require an ATP molecule for each cross-bridge cycle. c. smooth muscle myosin completes the cross-bridge cycle more slowly than skeletal muscle myosin does. d. calcium removal from the cytoplasm does not require ATP in smooth muscle.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 58. The force produced by a smooth muscle cell could be increased by a. inhibition of myosin light-chain kinase. b. inhibition of myosin light-chain phosphatase. c. inhibition of calmodulin. d. an increase in the amount of Ca2+ binding to troponin C. Answer: b Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 59. In tonic smooth muscle that contracts continuously for long periods, the highly efficient “latch state” depends on a. high myosin ATPase activity. b. very slow turnover of ATP bound to myosin. c. slow release of Ca2+ by troponin C. d. high activity of myosin light-chain phosphatase.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 60. Nervous signaling to smooth muscle cells a. is always inhibitory. b. can be excitatory or inhibitory. c. is all-or-nothing. d. can regulate frequency, but not force, of contraction.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 61. Mammalian cardiac muscle cells are stimulated to contract by a. hormonal signals that trigger Ca2+ release and myosin light-chain phosphorylation. b. electrical signals transmitted through gap junctions from other autorhythmic cardiac muscle cells. c. action potentials from excitatory autonomic neurons. d. ion channels that open in response to stretch of the cardiac muscle cell membranes.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Cardiac Muscle Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding Short Answer 1. Explain why a muscle always works by shortening and cannot actively increase its length unless an external force pulls on it.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: During the cross-bridge cycle, myosin goes through a characteristic sequence of conformational changes and interactions with actin. The power-stroke of the myosin head can only pull the actin-containing thin filament in one direction, so the muscle always works by shortening. However, external forces from other muscles or loads external to the body can act on the muscle to lengthen it.

Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. Vertebrate skeletal muscle is characterized by thin-filament regulation of contraction while smooth muscle is characterized by thick-filament regulation. Explain the distinction between thin-filament and thick-filament regulation.

Answer: In skeletal muscle, actin and myosin are able to interact and generate force when calcium binds to troponin C, which is part of the thin filament. In smooth muscle, actin and myosin are able to interact when calcium triggers phosphorylation of myosin light chains by myosin light-chain kinase.

Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle Bloom’s category: 2. Understanding 3. List four factors that could allow a leg muscle in one animal to activate and relax more quickly than a leg muscle in another animal.

Answer: Possible factors include: higher levels of parvalbumin, higher density of sarcoplasmic reticulum, greater quantities of SR Ca2+-ATPase, troponins that change configuration more quickly, faster isoform of myosin ATPAse, and lower affinity of troponin for calcium.

Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 4. Put the steps in neuromuscular junction synaptic transmission and EC-coupling in chronological order.

1. Myosin heads hydrolyze ATP during the cross-bridge cycle.

2. An EPSP is generated in the muscle cell.

3. An action potential is conducted along the sarcolemma.

4. Voltage-gated Na+ channels open in sarcolemma.

5. Ca2+ rises in the muscle cell cytoplasm.

6. Vesicles containing acetylcholine fuse with axon terminal membrane.

7. Tropomyosin rotates into groove of thin filament.

8. Ca2+ dissociates from troponin.

9. Motoneuron axon terminal are depolarized.

10. RyRs open.

11. Acetylcholine receptors open and conduct ions.

12. Ca2+ binds to troponin C. Answer: 9–6–11–2–4–3–10–5–12–7–1–8 Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling Bloom’s category: 4. Analyzing 5. Why does a skeletal muscle twitch last longer than a skeletal muscle action potential?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: The twitch begins with the action potential but also requires opening of ryanodine receptors, diffusion of Ca2+ from the interior of the SR to the myofibrils, Ca2+ binding to troponin, configuration changes in tropomyosin, cross-bridge cycling, release of Ca2+ from troponin, and removal of Ca2+ from the cytoplasm. Many fewer ions are moved by pumps per unit time than occurs with fluxes of ions through channels. Each of these events takes time, so the twitch lasts substantially longer than the action potential that produces it.

Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. Describe two mechanisms by which the human nervous system can voluntarily alter the force and velocity of a contraction of the biceps muscle of the arm.

Answer: 1. Varying numbers of motor units can be recruited. 2. Varying action potential frequency can generate twitches, unfused tetani, or fused tetanic contractions.

Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. Briefly explain why fast glycolytic muscle fibers fatigue more rapidly than slow-twitch muscle fibers.

Answer: Fast glycolytic muscle fibers use ATP much more rapidly than slow-twitch fibers. At first, they can produce ATP very rapidly through phosphagen breakdown and anaerobic glycolysis. However, these pathways are limited by the quantity of phosphagen and the build up of end products, including inorganic phosphate, pyruvate, and lactate. Fast glycolytic fibers have fewer mitochondria per unit volume to generate ATP by aerobic mechanisms. Therefore, as the ATP supply declines below ATP demand, fatigue sets in. Slow-twitch fibers use ATP more slowly and have a higher capacity for sustained ATP production via aerobic pathways.

Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. Identify the two major uses of ATP in skeletal muscle cells that are involved in contraction and relaxation, and explain why each process uses ATP more rapidly in fast-twitch muscles than in slow-twitch muscles.

Answer: Myosin hydrolyzes ATP as part of the cross-bridge cycle that generates force and causes the muscle to shorten. The myosin isoforms in fast-twitch muscle go through the crossbridge cycle more quickly than the isoforms in slow-twitch muscle, so ATP is broken down more rapidly. The sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) Ca2+-ATPase uses ATP to pump Ca2+ into the SR during relaxation. Fast-twitch muscle has more sarcoplasmic reticulum containing more SR Ca2+-ATPase and more ryanodine receptors than slow-twitch muscle. Therefore, Ca2+ is released more rapidly and taken up more quickly in response to each action potential, requiring more ATP. Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. On the same set of axes, graph the relationship of velocity to force in two muscles of equal mass from the same animal. Muscle A contains predominantly fast glycolytic fibers, while muscle B contains predominantly slow oxidative fibers.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: The graph should show that both muscles produce the same maximum force, but muscle A has a faster maximum shortening velocity when force is zero and shortens more quickly at any given force/load.

Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 10. Some crabs have giant skeletal muscle fibers that are much larger in diameter than muscle fibers found in most other animals. What fiber type are these fibers likely to be and why?

Answer: The giant fibers are fast glycolytic fibers (FG). Oxidative fibers rely on continuous diffusion of oxygen from outside the cell to the mitochondria in order to generate ATP, so they can work effectively only if the fiber diameter (i.e., the diffusion distance for oxygen) is relatively small. Glycolytic fibers can generate ATP using substrates contained within the cell.

Metabolic byproducts can then diffuse out of the cell slowly before the muscle is used again.

Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 11. Explain why muscles such as rattlesnake tail-shaker muscles, which are capable of very fast activation and relaxation, tend to produce lower forces than other skeletal muscles.

Answer: Muscles that contract and relax very rapidly require small myofibrils surrounded by extensive sarcoplasmic reticulum. This arrangement minimizes the distance over which Ca2+ must diffuse to reach each thin filament within the myofibrils, speeding both contraction and relaxation. Rapid Ca2+ pumping by the SR Ca2+ ATPase requires a large amount of ATP, so mitochondria and glycogen granules tend to be abundant as well. If the SR, mitochondria, and glycogen take up more of each muscle cell’s volume, there is less space available for myofibrils containing actin and myosin, so fewer cross-bridges can form and the muscle cell cannot produce as much force as a typical skeletal muscle. (In fact, in tail-shaker muscle, only a third of the cell volume is devoted to myofibrils compared to about 85% in the body muscle.)

Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. Which statement about skeletal muscle is true? a. Proteins in thick filaments pull on thin filaments, while intermediate filaments hold sarcomeres together. b. Proteins in thin filaments pull on intermediate filaments, while thick filaments hold sarcomeres together. c. Proteins in thin filaments pull on thick filaments, while intermediate filaments hold sarcomeres together. d. Proteins in intermediate filaments pull on thin filaments, while thick filaments hold sarcomeres together.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 2. The power stroke of the myosin head occurs in conjunction with what other event of the crossbridge cycle? a. ATP hydrolysis to ADP and inorganic phosphate b. ATP binding to the myosin head c. Release of ADP from the myosin head d. Release of inorganic phosphate from the myosin head Answer: d Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. In the absence of _______, a muscle can contract but cannot relax. a. Ca2+ b. myosin c. ATP d. oxygen Answer: c Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Skeletal Muscle Cells Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. In a vertebrate skeletal muscle cell, depolarization of the t-tubule membrane causes dihydropyridine receptors to a. open and conduct Ca2+ into the t-tubule. b. open and conduct Ca2+ into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. c. change conformation and interact with ryanodine receptors. d. bind dihydropyridines and change configuration.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. A hypothetical skeletal muscle cell with no t-tubules would probably a. contract and relax more quickly during twitch contractions. b. contract and relax more slowly during twitch contractions. c. shorten more quickly during tetanic contractions. d. have a lower rate of aerobic ATP production.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 6. During an isometric tetanic contraction, the sarcomeres generate a. no force. b. force but cannot stretch the elastic component of the muscle. c. force and stretch the elastic component of the muscle, but they cannot move the load. d. force but do not transmit it to the elastic component of the muscle.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. Why is the latent period of an isotonic twitch different from that of an isometric twitch? a. The motoneuron sends a longer action potential if there is an isotonic load on the muscle. b. The motoneuron sends a longer action potential if there is an isometric load on the muscle. c. An isotonic twitch does not begin until the muscle develops enough force to lift the load. d. An isometric twitch does not begin until the muscle develops enough force to lift the load.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 8. Which of the following factors would increase the stimulation frequency at which a muscle shifts from twitch to tetanic contractions? a. Voltage-gated sodium channels with faster kinetics b. A larger volume fraction of mitochondria c. A larger volume fraction of myofibrils d. A larger number of SR Ca2+-ATPase proteins Answer: d Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 9. On the plateau of the length‒tension curve, a. all myosin heads are in proximity to actin. b. all actin monomers are in proximity to myosin heads. c. the width of the A band is minimized. d. the distance between Z disc is minimized.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. If a muscle contains 10,000 sarcomeres in a series (i.e., end-to-end along its length), each sarcomere is ~2.5 µm in length, and each sarcomere can shorten by 2.5 µm/s, how fast can the muscle shorten? a. 2.5 µm/s b. 2.5 mm/s c. 2.5 cm/s d. 2.5 m/s Answer: c Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 11. Muscle A has a volume of 200 cm3, a length of 10 cm, and a cross-sectional area of 20 cm2.

Muscle B has a volume of 100 cm3, a length of 5 cm, and a cross-sectional area of 20 cm2.

Which statement about muscles A and B is true? a. Both muscles can produce the same power, but they can shorten at different speeds. b. Both muscles can shorten at the same speed, but they can produce different amounts of power. c. Both muscles can exert the same force and can produce the same amount of power. d. Both muscles can exert the same force, but one can shorten more quickly than the other.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Whole Skeletal Muscles Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 12. Order the mechanisms of ATP generation by decreasing yield per episode of use. a. Creatine phosphate; anaerobic glycolysis; aerobic catabolism b. Anaerobic glycolysis; creatine phosphate; aerobic catabolism c. Aerobic catabolism; creatine phosphate; anaerobic glycolysis d. Aerobic catabolism; anaerobic glycolysis; creatine phosphate Answer: d Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 13. Which statement about slow oxidative and fast glycolytic muscle fibers is false? a. Their thick and thin filaments are arranged differently. b. They have different numbers of organelles such as mitochondria and sarcoplasmic reticulum. c. They have different amounts of metabolic enzymes such as hexokinase or citrate synthase. d. They have different amounts of certain excitation–contraction coupling proteins, such as SR Ca2+-ATPase.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 14. Which best explains why fast glycolytic muscle fibers are larger than slow oxidative fibers? a. Slow oxidative fibers rely on the diffusion of oxygen via capillaries.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. Slow oxidative fibers can oxidize a variety of fuels, whereas fast glycolytic fibers primarily oxidize glucose/glycogen. c. Fast glycolytic fibers are larger to generate larger action potentials and greater force. d. Fast glycolytic fibers are larger to exchange glucose across the sarcolemma more quickly.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 15. Slow oxidative fibers in skeletal muscle are used a. only for motions requiring maximum power output, such as jumping. b. constantly, for postural activities such as standing and sitting. c. intermittently, for activities requiring more force output than the fast glycolytic fibers alone can produce. d. intermittently, for activities requiring more force output than the fast glycolytic and fast oxidative glycolytic fibers alone can produce.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 16. Compared to a typical avian leg muscle, hummingbird flight muscle a. produces more force per cross-sectional area. b. has an exceptionally high volume fraction of mitochondria. c. has very high numbers of muscle fibers per capillary. d. has very high levels of SR Ca2+-ATPase, but low levels of mitochondria.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 17. Muscles of the larynx that help mammals to produce complex sounds can contract and relax at much higher frequencies than the muscles of the limbs, but they produce relatively low force as they act on the vocal cords. Based on these characteristics, one would predict that laryngeal muscles have a. high levels of myosin. b. high levels of parvalbumin. c. high levels of troponin T. d. unusually long sarcomeres.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Excitation–Contraction Coupling; Muscle Energetics Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 18. Calcium enters the cytoplasm of a smooth muscle cell by a. active transport from the sarcoplasmic reticulum only. b. active transport from the extracellular space and the sarcoplasmic reticulum. c. diffusion from the sarcoplasmic reticulum only. d. diffusion from the extracellular space and the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Answer: d

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 19. Which of the following cannot modulate force production in smooth muscle? a. Inhibition of myosin light-chain kinase b. Inhibition of myosin light-chain phosphatase c. Binding of Ca2+ to troponin C d. Hormonal stimuli Answer: c Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 20. In smooth muscle, calcium must bind to _______ to initiate contraction. a. calmodulin b. troponin C c. myosin d. ryanodine receptor Answer: a Textbook Reference: Vertebrate Smooth (Unstriated) Muscle Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 14: Sensory Processes TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. The conversion of stimulus energy into an electrical signal is known as a. transference. b. transduction. c. an action potential. d. a graded potential.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Organization of Sensory Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Which receptor uses a metabotropic mechanism of signal transduction? a. Photoreceptors b. Vestibular receptors c. Mechanoreceptors d. Thermoreceptors e. Auditory receptors Answer: a Textbook Reference: Organization of Sensory Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. “The sensory modality or quality of sensation associated with a stimulus depends solely on which receptor cells are stimulated, rather than on how they are stimulated.”

This generalization is known as the a. brain partitioning principle. b. principle of pathway analysis. c. principle of labeled lines. d. principle of sensory organization.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Organization of Sensory Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Which sense is based on indirect, G protein-coupled receptor activation? a. Vertebrate touch b. Insect hearing c. Insect vision © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. Vertebrate hearing Answer: c Textbook Reference: Organization of Sensory Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 5.–6. Refer to the figure below.

5. Which panel(s) would be categorized as a phasic receptor? a. I b. IV c. I and II d. III and IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: Organization of Sensory Systems Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 6. Which panel best represents the action of a Pacinian corpuscle? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: Organization of Sensory Systems Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 7. In insects, the most common form of auditory organ is the a. tympanal organ. b. statocyst. c. cochlea. d. bristle sensillum.

Answer: a © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 8. Which statement regarding the vertebrate hair cell is false? a. The vertebrate hair cell is an epithelial cell. b. Displacement toward the kinocilium produces a depolarization. c. Displacement away from the kinocilium produces a hyperpolarization. d. When displaced enough toward the kinocilium, the hair cell will produce a train of action potentials.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Which of the following defines the main transduction process of sound? a. The hair cell bending b. The vibration of the ear drum c. The vibration of the stapes on the oval window d. Action potentials sent to the brain along the auditory nerve Answer: a Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 10. Which statement best describes the vertebrate vestibular system? a. Three semicircular canals detect movement via fluid that stimulates hair cells in the crista ampullaris. b. A circular canal detects movement via fluid that stimulates the oval window. c. Four canals, including the cochlea, detect indirect movement of hair cells. d. The incus, malleus, and stapes detect movement by amplifying sound to the oval window.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 11. Which statement regarding the basilar membrane is false? a. It separates the cochlea into an upper chamber and a lower chamber. b. It is widest at its basal end and narrowest at its apical end. c. It is stiffer at its basal end and more compliant near its apical end. d. It responds maximally to high frequency sounds toward its basal end.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. In the ear, low-frequency sounds tend to displace a. the whole length of the basilar membrane equally. b. mainly the basal portion (oval window end) of the basilar membrane. c. mainly the apex portion of the basilar membrane.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. only the portion of the basilar membrane between the basal portion and the apex.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 13. The major source of auditory input to the brain comes from _______ hair cell signals. a. lateral line b. semicircular canal c. inner d. outer Answer: c Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14. Which statement about bat navigation is true? a. Bats emit high-frequency sound pulses and detect the echoes reflected by the objects around them. b. Bats emit ultra-low-frequency sound pulses and detect the echoes reflected by the objects around them. c. In addition to detecting echoes from sound emissions, bats have keen night vision. d. Bats navigate by detecting sounds from animals and those reflected by the objects around them.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 15. Which statement regarding fish taste is true? a. Fish taste buds are structurally very different compared to mammalian taste buds. b. Fish do not have taste buds. c. Fish have taste buds on their mouth and skin. d. Fish do not have a sense of taste, only smell.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Chemoreception and Taste Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 16. The family of GPCRs that sense bitter compounds is much larger and more disparate in amino acid sequence than those that sense sweet or umami. Why might this be adaptive? a. Bitter receptors do not have to be as sensitive as those for sweet or umami. b. The ability to distinguish between many bitter compounds allows the animal to eat the one most agreeable to its digestive system. c. Bitter compounds are usually toxic, and so the ability to sense a wide variety of them is protective. d. Bitter compounds usually contain dense calories, which help a species survive and thrive.

Answer: c

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Chemoreception and Taste Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 17. Which sense perception depends on a metabotropic mechanism for initial signal transduction? a. Auditory reception b. Touch c. Bitter taste d. Acceleration Answer: c Textbook Reference: Chemoreception and Taste Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 18.–19. Refer to the figure below.

18. How many different (taste) qualities depend on the mechanism shown in the figure? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 Answer: c Textbook Reference: Chemoreception and Taste Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 19. Which taste qualities are represented by the mechanism shown in the figure? a. Sweet, sour, umami, and bitter b. Sweet, umami, and bitter © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. Salty, umami, and bitter d. Umami and bitter Answer: b Textbook Reference: Chemoreception and Taste Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 20. Which statement regarding vertebrate olfactory receptor cells is true? a. Their axons reside in the mucous layer. b. They have fine, myelinated axons. c. They undergo continuous turnover (die and are replaced). d. Their axons are among the largest axons in the nervous system.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Olfaction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 21.‒23. Refer to the figure below.

21. The sensory process shown in the figure is a. the bitter taste response. b. the vomeronasal mechanism. c. vertebrate olfaction. d. insect vision.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Olfaction Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 22. Which key best represents the ion movement shown in the figure? a. I = Na+ and Ca2+; II = Cl‒ b. I = K+; II = Cl‒ c. I = Na+ and Cl‒; II = Ca2+ © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. I = Ca2+; II = K+ Answer: a Textbook Reference: Olfaction Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 23. What is the resulting electrical event on the membrane as shown in the figure? a. Hyperpolarization b. Depolarization at I, hyperpolarization at II c. Hyperpolarization at I, depolarization at II d. Depolarization Answer: d Textbook Reference: Olfaction Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 24. In the mechanism of vertebrate olfaction, a G protein activates the enzyme a. cGMP phosphodiesterase. b. phospholipase C. c. adenylyl cyclase. d. transducin.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Olfaction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 25. Which statement best describes the ion movement on the cilium of the olfactory receptor cell in vertebrate olfaction? a. Na+ enters the cell and K+ leaves the cell. b. Cl‒ moves out of the cell. c. Na+ and Ca2+ enter the cell. d. Na+ and Ca2+ move into the cell and Cl‒ moves out of the cell.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Olfaction Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 26. Which statement about the mammalian vomeronasal organ is true? a. It mostly detects pheromones and other chemical signals. b. It integrates the olfactory information before sending it to the brain. c. It interacts with the olfactory system to amplify the signal. d. It detects chemicals from greater distances than olfaction does.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Olfaction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 27. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

What electrical outcome on the membrane is the end result of the mechanism shown in the figure? a. An action potential b. A metabotropic response c. Depolarization d. Hyperpolarization Answer: c Textbook Reference: Olfaction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 28. The molecule that absorbs light is called a a. photoreceptor. b. photochemical. c. rhabdomere. d. photopigment.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Photoreception Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 29. Which of the following is the most common evolved feature of eyes? a. A lens b. A retina c. Similar genes regulating eye development d. A rhodopsin-based photoreceptor cell Answer: d Textbook Reference: Photoreception Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 30. Which statement regarding the transduction mechanism in vision is true of both vertebrates and invertebrates? a. G proteins activate cGMP phosphodiesterase. b. Light triggers the conversion of cis retinal to trans retinal. c. Cation channels are opened and Na+ enters the photoreceptor membrane. d. Second messengers IP3 and DAG are synthesized.

Answer: b © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Photoreception Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 31. Phototransduction in Drosophila takes place on the membrane of the a. microvilli of the retinular cell’s rhabdomere. b. ommatidium of the compound eye’s retinular cell. c. outer segment of the rod. d. ommatidium’s rhabdomere.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Photoreception Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 32.‒34. Refer to the figure below.

32. The animals that make use of the sensory mechanism shown in this figure are all a. arthropods. b. arthropods with compound eyes. c. insects. d. vertebrates.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Photoreception Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 33. Which letter in the figure corresponds to activated rhodopsin? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: b Textbook Reference: Photoreception Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 34. What the mechanism is occurring at IV in the figure? © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. Second messengers have led to the opening of a K+ channel. b. Second messengers have led to the opening of a Ca2+ channel. c. Second messengers have led to the opening of a cation channel, causing depolarization. d. G proteins open a sodium channel.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Photoreception Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 35. For terrestrial vertebrates, the greatest amount of refraction occurs a. at the interface between the air and the cornea. b. in the aqueous humor. c. in the lens. d. in the vitreous humor.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Photoreception Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 36. Which statement best describes the vertebrate mechanism that operates on the outer segment cell membrane of the rod in the presence of light? a. cGMP detaches from the sodium channels, causing them to close. b. cGMP that is attached to the sodium channels causes them to open. c. Light activates rhodopsin by isomerizing retinal from cis to trans. d. Light activates rhodopsin by isomerizing retinal from trans to cis.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Photoreception Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 37.‒39. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

37. The sensory mechanism depicted in the figure is that of a. vertebrate vision. b. invertebrate vision. c. vertebrate sweet taste reception. d. vertebrate olfaction.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Photoreception Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 38. Which number in the figure corresponds to the location where an aldehyde is isomerized? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Photoreception Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 39. What would occur at location number 4 in the figure in the absence of light? a. cGMP would detach itself from the sodium channels, causing them to close. b. cGMP attached to the sodium channels would cause them to open. c. Darkness would inactivate rhodopsin by isomerizing retinal from cis to trans. d. Darkness would inactivate rhodopsin by isomerizing retinal from trans to cis.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Photoreception Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 40. What happens in the vertebrate rod in the absence of light? a. Rhodopsin is activated. b. cGMP is converted back to 5'-GMP. c. cGMP dissociates from Na+ channels. d. cGMP opens Na+ channels.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Photoreception Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 41. In the dark, a cone membrane of a fish will be a. relatively depolarized. b. relatively hyperpolarized. c. at zero mV. d. photochemically fluctuating.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Photoreception Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

42. Which statement regarding the regeneration of rhodopsin in vertebrates is false? a. All-trans retinol is re-isomerized back to all-cis retinol b. Regeneration of rhodopsin is enzymatic. c. All-trans retinal becomes unbound from the opsin protein. d. An added photon is necessary to change all-trans retinal back to all-cis retinal.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Photoreception Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 43. _______ cells are the output of the retina. a. Amacrine b. Horizontal c. Bipolar d. Ganglion Answer: d Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 44. The area of the retina within which the membrane potential of a particular neuron can be influenced by light is called the a. on-center area. b. straight-through area. c. outer plexiform layer. d. receptive field.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 45.‒47. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

45. The figure shows the activity of _______ cells a. bipolar b. horizontal c. cone d. ganglion Answer: d Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 46. If the top panel (activity trace) of the figure is the result of light shining in the center of the receptive field, which of the following is true? a. The entire receptive field has been inhibited. b. Central illumination has increased activity. c. This is likely an off-center cell response. d. This is likely an on-center cell response.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 47. The bottom panel of the figure depicts _______ illumination of an _______ cell. a. central; on-center b. diffuse; on-center c. peripheral; on-center d. central; off-center Answer: b Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 48.‒50. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

48. The light in the figure is entering a. from the bottom. b. from the top. c. from the right. d. by diffusion from all directions.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 49. Which letter in the figure best represents only a depolarizing graded potential in the presence of light. a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: b Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 50. According to the letters in the figure, light inducing (activating) an on-center response would proceed through which of the following sequences? © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. I → II → III → V → IV b. I → II → IV c. I → III → V d. I → II → V Answer: b Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing

Short Answer 1. What are the four different ways a sensory receptor cell can be classified?

Answer: Sensory receptor cells can be classified by sensory modality, by the form of stimulus energy, by the mechanism of transduction, and according to the location of the source of the stimulus energy relative to the body.

Textbook Reference: Organization of Sensory Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Explain the principle of labeled lines.

Answer: The principle of labeled lines explains why action potentials that appear to be exactly the same are interpreted, when isolated, as the different senses. This relates to where in the brain these action potentials are being interpreted. The sensory modality or quality of sensation associated with a stimulus depends solely on which receptor cells are stimulated, rather than on how they are stimulated.

Textbook Reference: Organization of Sensory Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. How does the transduction mechanism work in a stretch (mechano-) receptor?

Answer: Stretch receptors have stretch-activated channels that are opened by the physical stretching of the membrane of the receptor cell. Typically, cations (Na+ and Ca2+) will then flow through these open channels and cause a depolarization on the membrane.

Textbook Reference: Mechanoreception and Touch Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Describe the process of adaptation as it relates to mechanoreceptors in mammalian skin.

Answer: Adaptation in a skin mechanoreceptor occurs as constant stimulation over time produces a lower frequency of action potentials.

Textbook Reference: Mechanoreception and Touch Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. How could the statocyst of a lobster be manipulated experimentally to cause the lobster to behave as if Earth’s gravity were the opposite of its true gravity?

Answer: If the dense grains in the statocyst could be removed and replaced with magnetic particles, such as small grains of iron, a simple magnet placed at the top of an aquarium

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

would move the grains to the “top” of the statocyst. This would then alter the sense of gravity in the lobster and cause it to turn upside down.

Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 6. Explain how the hair cells transduce sound intensity and frequency.

Answer: In the cochlea, both the number of bending hair cells and the degree of the bending transduce the mechanical information into a depolarization, which is decoded as sound intensity. It is the actual location of the bending hair cells on the cochlea that encodes frequency. Hair cells located toward the basal end of the cochlea will transduce higher frequency sounds, while hair cells located toward the apical end will transduce lower frequency sounds.

Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. A blowfly can taste with its feet. Explain.

Answer: A blowfly has taste receptors located within sensilla on the terminal segment of its legs. By walking into a substance, typically a fluid, it may be able to detect sugar or salt, or even bitter substances.

Textbook Reference: Chemoreception and Taste Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. How would you test whether an olfactory receptor cell responds to an odor?

Answer: A simple experiment is found in Figure 14.19 of the textbook. Typically, if you can isolate the olfactory receptor cell and record the current through a channel or channels, you only need to expose the cell to various odorants and a current change would indicate that the odorant causes that receptor (or receptors) to respond.

Textbook Reference: Chemoreception and Taste Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 9. Compare and contrast vertebrate and invertebrate transduction in photoreception.

Answer: While vertebrate and invertebrate photoreception share a similar initial transduction mechanism, with the activation of rhodopsin (cis to trans retinal), the second messenger system is different and the ultimate electrical events on the membrane are the opposite. Light on an invertebrate photoreceptor causes an eventual depolarization, whereas light in a vertebrate photoreceptor causes a hyperpolarization.

Textbook Reference: Photoreception Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Explain how hyperpolarization of a vertebrate cone will eventually be transduced into a train of action potentials sent to the brain via the optic nerve.

Answer: A hyperpolarization in a vertebrate cone will have two possible results on the associated bipolar cells. If the bipolar cell is an on-center bipolar cell, it will depolarize in response to the hyperpolarized cone, thus reversing the potential. On-center bipolar cells can excite an on-center ganglion cell to send a train of action potentials to the brain via the optic nerve.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. In vestibular receptors, the stimulus perceived is a. pressure. b. chemicals. c. sound. d. body position and movement.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Organization of Sensory Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. How does the CNS differentiate between sensory signals from the PNS? a. The action potentials are slightly different for each sense. b. The different sensory pathways project to different areas of the cerebral cortex. c. Some senses only produce graded potentials. d. The frequencies of action potentials from each sensory modality are different.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Organization of Sensory Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. Which mammalian skin mechanoreceptor cell is considered extremely phasic? a. Merkel disk b. Hair cell c. Pacinian corpuscle d. Ruffini ending Answer: c Textbook Reference: Mechanoreception and Touch Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. Which structure is most commonly used as the auditory organ in insects? a. Semicircular canals b. Statocyst c. Tympanal organ d. Hair cells Answer: c Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. Which of the following does not directly relate to transduction of an aspect of sound? a. The magnitude of hair cell bending b. The location (population) of hair cells bending

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. The direction of hair cell bending d. The number of action potentials coming from the hair cell Answer: d Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 6. Which statement regarding the transduction mechanism of the hair cell is true? a. Displacement of the hair cell bundle toward the tallest stereocilia depolarizes the membrane. b. The vibration of the hair cell bundle produces an action potential on the membrane. c. Displacement of the hair cell bundle in any direction depolarizes the membrane. d. Displacement of the hair cell bundle toward the shortest stereocilia depolarizes the membrane.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 7. Which statement regarding the mechanism of hearing is false? a. Sound travels into the semicircular canal and vibrates the tectorial membrane. b. The sound amplitude relates to the amount of hair cell membrane depolarization. c. Inner hair cells are responsible for most of the afferent signal to the brain. d. High frequency sounds tend to bend hair cells near the oval window.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Vestibular Organs and Hearing Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 8. In the taste sensilla of Drosophila, which substance would likely elicit action potentials in a deterrent cell? a. 1 mM KCl b. 30 mM sucrose c. 50 mM NaCl d. quinine Answer: d Textbook Reference: Chemoreception and Taste Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Which taste quality mechanism involves a G protein receptor? a. Sweet b. Salty and sour c. Bitter and sweet d. Bitter, sweet, and umami Answer: d Textbook Reference: Chemoreception and Taste Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 10. Which sense has a receptor cell that directly produces an action potential?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. Hearing b. Olfactory c. Taste d. Vision Answer: b Textbook Reference: Olfaction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. Which is the most likely mechanism for odorant receptor molecules in mammals? a. Odorant receptors initiate a G protein-mediated signal cascade, which ultimately opens a cyclic nucleotide-gated cation channel. b. Odorant receptors bind to the odorant molecule and open, producing a depolarization. c. Odorant receptors initiate a G protein-mediated signal cascade, which ultimately produces a metabotropic action. d. Odorant receptors initiate a G protein-mediated signal cascade, which ultimately opens potassium channels.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Olfaction Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 12. In many vertebrates, _______ predominantly detect(s) pheromones. a. specialized taste buds b. the olfactory system c. the vomeronasal organ d. internal chemoreceptors Answer: c Textbook Reference: Olfaction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 13. In the vertebrate eye, the main transduction event takes place a. on the iris. b. at the cornea. c. in the retina. d. at the lens.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Photoreception Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 14. _______ is the vertebrate sense in which the “resting,” or unexcited, condition of the receptor is depolarized. a. Touch b. Smell c. Vision d. Hearing Answer: c Textbook Reference: Photoreception

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 15. Which statement best describes the first major transduction event in the vertebrate eye? a. Retinal changes from cis- to trans-isomer. b. Opsin changes conformation. c. Activated rhodopsin activates a G protein. d. Light is refracted at the lens to focus on the retina.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Photoreception Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 16. When light activates rhodopsin, the result at the vertebrate rod or cone outer membrane is a. depolarization. b. hyperpolarization. c. inhibition. d. an action potential.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Photoreception Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 17. Which statement best describes the regeneration of rhodopsin in vertebrate rods? a. Photochemical regeneration of rhodopsin is instantaneous. b. Photochemical regeneration of rhodopsin is slow. c. Enzymatic regeneration is slow. d. Enzymatic regeneration is based on dark adaptation.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Photoreception Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 18. Which type of cells in the retina have their most prominent action in the lateral pathway, as opposed to the straight-through pathway? a. Bipolar cells b. Horizontal cells c. Ganglion cells d. Cone cells Answer: b Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 19. In the visual projection pathway of mammals, the geniculostriate pathway projects a. from one eye to the primary visual cortex. b. to the lateral geniculate nucleus within the primary visual cortex. c. to the primary visual cortex and then to the lateral geniculate nucleus. d. to the lateral geniculate nucleus and then to the primary visual cortex.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 20. Based on spectral sensitivities of human retinal cones, what types of cones do we have? a. Blue cones, green cones, and red cones b. Yellow cones, green cones, and red cones c. Ultraviolet cones, green cones, and red cones d. Yellow cones, green cones, and violet cones Answer: a Textbook Reference: Visual Sensory Processing Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 21: Movement and Muscle AT WORK: Plasticity in Response to Use and Disuse TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. In response to exercise training, the muscles in adult mammals change as a. muscle cells of one fiber type die and are replaced by muscle cells of different fiber types. b. new muscle cells are produced and work along with existing muscle cells. c. proteins in muscle cells are broken down and replaced by proteins with different properties. d. existing muscle proteins change from one isoform to another.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. Endurance exercise involves a. few repetitions of movements involving low force and aerobic metabolism. b. few repetitions of movements involving high force and aerobic metabolism. c. repetitive movements involving high force and anaerobic metabolism. d. repetitive movements involving low force and aerobic metabolism.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. Isoforms of myosin are a. different conformations of the same protein triggered by different cellular conditions. b. versions of myosin that have the same function but different kinetics. c. versions of myosin that perform different cellular functions. d. versions of myosin that occur in different locations in the cell.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Glycolytic muscle fibers contain _______ and myosin isoforms that go through the cross-bridge cycle _______. a. low levels of SR Ca2+-ATPase; slowly b. high levels of SR Ca2+-ATPase; slowly

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. low levels of SR Ca2+-ATPase; rapidly d. high levels of SR Ca2+-ATPase; rapidly Answer: d Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. In which order are motor units recruited as the load on a muscle increases? a. Fast glycolytic, fast oxidative, slow oxidative b. Fast oxidative, slow oxidative, fast glycolytic c. Slow oxidative, fast oxidative, fast glycolytic d. Slow oxidative, fast glycolytic, fast oxidative Answer: c Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 6. The recruitment order of different fiber types matches and reinforces their cellular properties because a. Type I fibers are recruited most frequently, and this helps to maintain their oxidative properties. b. Type IIa fibers are recruited most frequently and are the most efficient in their use of ATP. c. Type I fibers are recruited most frequently because they have the largest diameters. d. Type IIb fibers are recruited most frequently and thus require the largest stores of glycogen.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. A single motor unit typically consists of a. equal numbers of slow oxidative, fast oxidative, and fast glycolytic fibers. b. mostly fast glycolytic fibers along with a few fast oxidative and slow oxidative fibers. c. only a single fiber type. d. a single muscle fiber and the motor neuron that innervates it.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 8.–9. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

8. If the muscle represented in the figure can produce a maximal force of 20 N and has a Vmax of 1 m/s, what is its maximal power output? a. 2 watts b. 10 watts c. 20 watts d. 200 watts Answer: a Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying (Instructor Note: Power is the product of force times velocity, but maximum power is not the product of maximum force times maximum velocity. Maximum force, or Fo is produced during isometric or lengthening contractions (zero or negative velocity), whereas maximum velocity is produced with no external load (zero force). Maximum power occurs at intermediate force and intermediate velocity. Eyeballing the graph, maximum power occurs where force is about one fourth of Fo and velocity is a bit less than half of Vmax (perhaps 40% of Vmax).

Thus, maximum power = (0.25 × Fo) × (0.4 × Vmax) = 0.1 × 20 N × 1 m/s = 2 N × m/s = 2 watts) 9. If the muscle represented in the figure can produce a maximal power of 6 watts and has a Vmax of 1.5 m/s, what is its maximum isometric force? a. 0 newtons b. 4 newtons c. 9 newtons d. 40 newtons Answer: d

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying (Instructor Note: Refer to Note for #8.

Maximum power = (0.25 × Fo) × (0.4 × Vmax) Fo = Maximum power / (0.25 × 0.4 × Vmax) = 6 N × m/s / (0.1 × 1.5 m/s) = 40 N) 10. Suppose you are comparing several muscles from the same animal. Which muscle would have the highest power output? a. Muscle length = 20 cm, cross-sectional area = 10 cm2, composed primarily of fast oxidative fibers b. Muscle length = 20 cm, cross-sectional area = 10 cm2, composed primarily of fast glycolytic fibers c. Muscle length = 20 cm, cross-sectional area = 20 cm2, composed primarily of slow oxidative fibers d. Muscle length = 20 cm, cross-sectional area = 20 cm2, composed primarily of fast glycolytic fibers Answer: d Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 11. Fast glycolytic fibers can generate more power than slow oxidative fibers of similar diameter because they a. produce more force per cross-sectional area. b. shorten more rapidly. c. use ATP more efficiently. d. have much more myosin per cross-sectional area.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. A training program that increased the proportion of slow oxidative fibers in a muscle would _______ the muscle’s maximum _______. a. increase; isometric force b. increase; power output c. decrease; isometric force d. decrease; power output Answer: d Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 13. In humans, endurance training typically causes _______ muscle fibers to be converted to _______. a. Type I; Type IIx. b. Type I; Type IIa. c. Type IIa; Type IIx. d. Type IIx; Type IIa.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14. Suppose you take a muscle biopsy from an elite athlete and perform a histological analysis on the sample. You find that the muscle cells are relatively small in diameter, contain high numbers of mitochondria, and have an unusually large proportion of Type IIa myosin. The athlete is most likely a a. marathoner. b. bodybuilder. c. 100 m sprinter. d. mile runner.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 15. To identify the cellular signals responsible for exercise effects in human muscle, scientists can examine a. mRNA expression in blood samples. b. protein activation in blood samples. c. information obtained from muscle biopsy samples. d. information obtained from muscle samples obtained from cadavers.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 16. In skeletal muscle, endurance exercise a. increases VEGF levels, causing increased angiogenesis and leading to greater numbers of capillaries. b. increases the number of capillaries, allowing greater VEGF expression. c. decreases the number of capillaries, causing decreased VEGF expression. d. decreases VEGF levels, causing decreased angiogenesis and leading to fewer capillaries.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 17. Endurance exercise generates signals in muscle cells, such as a. high ATP. b. VEGF. c. high partial pressures of oxygen. d. low calcium.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

18. Endurance training produces the greatest percentage increase in expression of genes encoding a. sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca2+-ATPase. b. Type IIx myosin. c. the mitochondrial enzyme succinate dehydrogenase. d. hexokinase.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 19. According to the data in the figure, a single bout of endurance exercise

a. increases VEGF mRNA levels, and the increase is greater in muscle that is not used in exercising. b. increases VEGF mRNA levels, and the increase is greater in muscle that has been trained. c. decreases VEGF mRNA levels, and the decrease is greater in muscle that has been trained. d. decreases VEGF mRNA levels, and the decrease is greater in muscle that is not used in exercising.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 20. A single bout of exercise increases VEGF mRNA less in a trained muscle than in an untrained muscle. The most plausible explanation for this difference is that trained muscle has a. more capillaries, so intracellular oxygen delivery remains higher during exercise. b. more mitochondria, so it can generate much more force than untrained muscle. c. more capillaries, so intracellular oxygen delivery remains lower during exercise.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. more mitochondria, so it does not need more capillaries.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 21. In skeletal muscle cells, endurance exercise training typically produces a. increases in creatine phosphate levels. b. increases in the mitochondrial enzyme citrate synthase activity. c. increased phosphorylation of IGF-1. d. increased myosin IIb expression.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 22. Increases in mitochondrial number and capillary number a. increase the power of fast glycolytic muscle. b. permit the muscle cells to use more oxygen per unit time. c. increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. d. increase the oxygen-storage capacity of the muscle.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 23. Endurance training increases the amounts of both glycogen and lipid stored in muscle cells. This most directly increases the a. shortening velocity of the muscle cells when unloaded. b. force output of the muscle cells in an isometric contraction. c. amount of work that can be performed before the cells are depleted of fuel. d. maximum frequency at which the cells can produce distinct twitch contractions.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 24. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

The figure illustrates a part of the typical response of skeletal muscle to a. endurance training. b. resistance training. c. immobilization. d. detraining following resistance training.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 25. Resistance exercise involves _______ repetitions per unit time of movements involving _______ force and _______ metabolism. a. few; high; anaerobic b. few; low; aerobic c. many; high; anaerobic d. many; low; aerobic Answer: a Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 26. Resistance training increases muscle mass primarily by increasing the a. number of muscle cells. b. length of muscle cells. c. diameter of muscle cells. d. thickness of the extracellular space in the muscle.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 27. In skeletal muscle cells, resistance training typically results in an increase in a. the number of mitochondria. b. the amount of Type IIx myosin. c. muscle fiber diameter. d. muscle fiber length.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 28. Many athletes engage in resistance training to increase the speed at which they can perform motions required for their sports. Which statement best explains the effect of resistance training on speed? a. It increases the proportion of the fastest myosin isoforms. b. It increases myosin expression of Type IIa and decreases Type IIx expression. c. It increases the power output of the muscles, improving their ability to move loads. d. It increases the number of mitochondria in the muscles, increasing the ATP supply.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 29. Resistance training of skeletal muscle would normally result in an increase in the a. muscle’s maximum oxygen consumption. b. muscle’s maximum isometric force. c. muscle’s maximum unloaded shortening velocity. d. number of capillaries in the muscle.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 30. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Based on the figure, detraining following resistance training results in an increase in _______ myosin relative to the _______ state. a. Type I; untrained b. Type IIa; untrained c. Type IIa; trained d. Type IIx; trained Answer: d Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 31. Experiments that combine endurance and resistance training indicate that a. resistance training prevents endurance training from having any effect on skeletal muscle. b. resistance and endurance training can produce some of their characteristic effects on skeletal muscle simultaneously. c. resistance and endurance training have identical effects on skeletal muscle. d. resistance and endurance training produce different effects but activate the same cellular pathways.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 32. Bob has been sedentary for several years. As a New Year’s resolution, he starts an intense exercise program, but after three months he stops exercising completely. What was the likely effect of the program on his heart mass while he was exercising, and what is the most likely outcome a year later? a. His heart mass most likely increased during the exercise program and has remained at the same larger size. b. His heart mass most likely increased during the exercise program and then decreased to its previous size.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. His heart mass most likely decreased during the exercise program and has remained at the same smaller size. d. His heart mass most likely decreased during the exercise program and has increased to its previous size.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 33. Burmese pythons are a uniquely useful model for studies of cardiac hypertrophy because their a. heart anatomy is very similar to that of humans. b. hearts increase in size very rapidly in response to exercise training. c. hearts increase in size very rapidly in response to feeding. d. hearts are highly resistant to atrophy and hypertrophy.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 34. The figure shows changes in heart mass of Burmese pythons 3 days after feeding (DPF), infusion with plasma from fed or fasted snakes, or infusion with a solution of bovine serum albumin (BSA) with or without three specific fatty acids (FA) found in blood of fed snakes. According to the figure, feeding increases heart mass primarily through

a. the influence of an unknown hormone in the blood. b. the influence of the three fatty acids tested. c. nervous signals generated when the stomach stretches. d. the action of bovine serum albumin.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 35.–36. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

35. What is the likely treatment in this figure? a. Microgravity b. Resistance training c. Endurance training d. Resistance training followed by detraining Answer: c Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 36. What best explains the results for the experimental group of mice on the right of the figure? a. The group of mice on the right lacked PGC-1α. b. The group of mice on the right was the control group. c. The group of mice on the right had an extra copy of PGC-1α. d. The group of mice on the right lacked myostatin.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 37. Which statement about muscle atrophy is true? a. Muscle atrophy occurs only in pathological conditions. b. Muscle proteins are degraded only when atrophy is taking place. c. Atrophy of muscle makes amino acids available for other systems in the body. d. Muscle protein synthesis stops completely in muscles that are undergoing atrophy.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Atrophy Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 38. Experiments involving microgravity can be used to study the cellular processes involved in a. resistance training. b. endurance training. c. muscle atrophy. d. muscle development.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Atrophy Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 39. Atrophy of muscles due to disuse is accompanied by a shift in fiber type from _______ fibers to _______ fibers. a. faster and more glycolytic; slower and more oxidative b. slower and more oxidative; faster and more glycolytic c. faster and more oxidative; slower and more glycolytic d. Type IIx; Type I Answer: b Textbook Reference: Atrophy Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 40. Based on the phenotype of patients who have been paralyzed for a substantial period of time, scientists have inferred that the default fiber type of skeletal muscle is a. fast oxidative. b. fast glycolytic. c. slow oxidative. d. slow glycolytic.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Atrophy Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 41. Sarcopenia, or age-related loss of muscle mass, is a. due entirely to disuse atrophy as older people become less active. b. due entirely to reduction in size of individual muscle fibers in aging individuals. c. due entirely to reduction in the number of muscle fibers in aging individuals. d. inevitable, but the rate of muscle loss can be minimized by resistance training.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Atrophy Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 42. In the muscles of elderly people, a. the ability to repair cellular damage is lost, leading to sarcopenia. b. muscle deteriorates due to the same processes that lead to atrophy when muscle is unloaded. c. muscle becomes unresponsive to training, leading to sarcopenia. d. normal repair and hypertrophy processes are still active but less effective than in younger people.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Atrophy Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 43. Studies of bears indicate that their adaptations for a lifestyle that involves hibernation include

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. pronounced muscle hypertrophy during hibernation. b. reduced rates of muscle atrophy during hibernation. c. increased muscle protein synthesis during hibernation. d. no muscle atrophy during hibernation.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Atrophy Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 44. “Double-muscled” animals such as Belgian Blue cattle and whippets have naturally occurring mutations in the gene encoding the protein a. myostatin. b. myosin. c. IGF-1. d. Akt. Answer: a Textbook Reference: Atrophy Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 45.–46. Refer to the figure below.

45. What is the most logical label for the x axis? a. Age (years) b. Development (days) c. Force (N) d. Velocity (m/s) Answer: a Textbook Reference: Atrophy Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 46. An elite distance runner would display a curve that is closest to

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. curve I. b. curve II. c. curve III. d. a curve that is much higher than curve I. Answer: c Textbook Reference: Atrophy Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 47. Myostatin mutations that increase muscle mass may not be favored by evolution because a. larger muscles in animals that have impaired myostatin production actually produce less force than normal muscles. b. larger muscles fatigue more rapidly in myostatin-null animals. c. impaired atrophy may deprive myostatin-null animals of the amino acids needed for physiological processes in non-muscle tissues. d. the high degree of conservation of the myostatin sequence in different tetrapods indicates that the gene is not important in most animals.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Regulating muscle mass Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 48. Binding of IGF-1 (insulin-like growth factor-1) to its receptor on a skeletal muscle cell membrane leads to _______ protein synthesis and _______ protein degradation. a. increased; decreased b. increased; increased c. decreased; increased d. decreased; decreased Answer: a Textbook Reference: Regulating muscle mass Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 49. Cachexia, or muscle wasting (loss of muscle mass), is a common complication of cancer. A muscle biopsy sample from a cancer patient would likely show a. increased activation of PI3-kinase. b. decreased levels of myostatin. c. decreased phosphorylation of Akt. d. decreased mRNA levels of atrophy promoting genes.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Regulating muscle mass Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 50. Which drug would likely be the most effective for restoring muscle mass in a cancer patient undergoing chemotherapy? a. A drug that blocks insulin receptors b. A drug that activates the myostatin receptor c. A drug that activates transcription of atrophy genes

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. A drug that enhances phosphorylation of Akt Answer: d Textbook Reference: Regulating muscle mass Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 51. Which drug would likely be the most effective for restoring muscle mass in a cancer patient undergoing chemotherapy? a. A drug that blocks insulin receptors b. A drug that blocks the IGF-1 receptor c. A drug that blocks the myostatin receptor d. A drug that inhibits phosphorylation of Akt Answer: c Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 52. Which experimental treatment would most likely increase levels of IGF-1 protein in a rat’s plantaris muscle? a. Putting the hindlimb in a cast for two weeks b. Cutting the motor neurons that normally innervate the plantaris c. Putting a running wheel in the rat’s cage so that it can perform voluntary endurance exercise d. Surgically removing the rat’s other calf muscles to overload the plantaris Answer: d Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 53. Satellite cells a. are stem cells that fuse into existing muscle cells to add nuclei to the muscle cells. b. are stem cells that fuse into existing muscle cells to add cytoplasm to the muscle cells. c. provide metabolic support to other muscle cells by processing lactate and other wastes. d. are muscle cells that are not connected to tendons or other connective tissue.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 54. The number of myonuclei in a muscle cell is important to the process of muscle repair and hypertrophy because each nucleus must a. transcribe mRNA to serve as a template for protein synthesis. b. translate protein to overcome protein degradation. c. recycle proteins that are being degraded. d. duplicate its DNA to make additional muscle cells.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 55. Which factor would most likely lead to muscle hypertrophy?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. Increased levels of stress hormones, such as glucocorticoids b. Increased intake of dietary protein c. Increased caloric intake d. Decreased levels of dietary protein Answer: b Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 56. There currently is great scientific interest in identifying genetic polymorphisms that underlie different individual responses to exercise training. The muscle size and bulk of a champion bodybuilder, for example, might be due in part to a missense mutation in the a. IGF-1 gene. b. androgen receptor. c. myostatin gene. d. Akt gene.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

Short Answer 1. Explain how the cellular effects of endurance training improve the balance between ATP supply and demand during extended exercise. Refer to specific changes that occur and indicate whether they increase or decrease ATP supply or ATP demand.

Answer: In the course of endurance training, a shift from fast to slow myosins reduces ATP demand per unit time. An increase in capillary density increases capacity for O2 uptake, increasing aerobic ATP supply. An increase in mitochondrial density increases the capacity for aerobic ATP production, thus also increasing ATP supply.

Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. Describe how force, speed, and power output differ among muscle fibers of different fiber types.

Answer: FG, FOG, and SO fibers produce similar amounts of force per cross-sectional area. Of the three types, FG fibers can shorten the most quickly and SO fibers are the slowest. A muscle’s power output equals its force times its velocity. As a result of differences in shortening velocity, FG fibers produce the greatest power and SO fibers produce the least power.

Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. In humans, the vastus lateralis is a mixed fiber type muscle from which biopsies are often taken in exercise studies. Why might it be particularly worthwhile to use a mixed fiber type muscle in studies of exercise training?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: Both resistance training and endurance training induce shifts in expression of proteins associated with particular fiber types. These shifts may be particularly easy to study in muscles that normally have a mixture of fiber types.

Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Explain how endurance training increases the ability of muscle cells to use oxygen.

Include three specific cellular effects of endurance training and explain how each one increases oxygen uptake.

Answer: The increase in capillary number that results from endurance training steepens increases the maximum rate of O2 diffusion. Increased numbers of mitochondria steepen the PO2 gradient and provide more sites for oxygen to accept electrons from the electron transport chain. Increased levels of Krebs cycle enzymes increase the rate at which substrates such as carbohydrates and fatty acids can be processed upstream of the electron-transport chain.

Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. Describe the effects of exercise training on cardiac muscle and identify how they are similar to the effects of either endurance or resistance training on skeletal muscle.

Answer: The cross-sectional area of cardiac myofibrils and overall mass of the heart increase in response to an increased workload, which is similar to resistance training in skeletal muscle. Capillary density in the heart increases, which is similar to the effects of endurance training on skeletal muscle.

Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 6. Describe what happens to the muscle cells at the molecular level in a person’s biceps when the person has to wear a cast for a broken arm.

Answer: The lack of contraction reduces the release of IGF-1 and similar signals, thus reducing protein synthesis. Muscle fibers decrease in diameter as a result of atrophy.

Reduced activity causes the cells to revert to the “default” fast glycolytic fiber type.

Myosin expression shifts from Types I and IIa toward Types IIa and IIx. Mitochondrial number and capillary density decrease.

Textbook Reference: Atrophy Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 7. Describe the effects of wearing a cast for a broken foot on whole-muscle performance in a person’s calf muscles.

Answer: Muscle fibers decrease in diameter, leading to a reduction in overall muscle mass and cross-sectional area. The muscle’s force and power output decrease and the muscle becomes more susceptible to fatigue.

Textbook Reference: Atrophy Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

8. List two experimental techniques used to study muscle atrophy in animal or human models.

Answer: Denervation, limb immobilization, bed rest, and spaceflight are all acceptable responses.

Textbook Reference: Atrophy Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 9. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of using humans versus rodents for experimental studies of muscle plasticity.

Answer: Humans can be told to follow specific exercise protocols and participate in tests of muscular strength and endurance. However, tissue sampling in humans is limited to small biopsies of easily accessible skeletal muscles. Rodents can be used for terminal experiments in which hearts or entire skeletal muscles can be removed and analyzed.

However, it may not be possible to train rodents to perform in certain experiments.

Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 10. Compare and contrast the effects of resistance and endurance exercise on skeletal muscle tissue. What changes in protein expression occur in each mode of training? How do the overall effects on the muscle cells and the whole muscle differ between the two modes?

Answer: Endurance exercise improves the balance between aerobic ATP supply and ATP demand. Resistance exercise increases the diameter of muscle fibers and the overall muscle mass to increase force production. Endurance exercise shifts myosin expression toward slower myosins and increases expression of mitochondrial proteins and other enzymes involved in aerobic metabolism. Resistance exercise increases expression of myofibrillar proteins and tends to shift myosin expression from Types IIb and IIx toward IIa. Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. Fast glycolytic muscle fibers can shorten more rapidly than slow oxidative muscle fibers because fast glycolytic fibers have a. more myosin. b. a myosin that works faster than the myosin found in slow oxidative fibers. c. more mitochondria. d. more glycolytic enzymes.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. A muscle that lifts 40 kg at a rate of 0.5 m/s would generate power at a rate of

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. 0.0125 watts. b. 20 watts. c. 80 watts. d. 200 watts.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 3. In humans, endurance training typically causes _______ muscle fibers to be converted to _______ muscle fibers. a. fast glycolytic; fast oxidative b. fast oxidative; fast glycolytic c. slow oxidative; fast glycolytic d. slow oxidative; fast oxidative Answer: a Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Endurance exercise leads to increased transcription of genes encoding a. faster myosin isoforms, glycolytic enzymes, and sarcoplasmic reticulum proteins. b. faster myosin isoforms, mitochondrial proteins, and sarcoplasmic reticulum proteins. c. slower myosin isoforms, mitochondrial proteins, and angiogenic signals. d. slower myosin isoforms, creatine phosphate, and angiogenic signals.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. Which effect on skeletal muscle would result from several weeks of endurance exercise training, such as long-distance running? a. An increase in enzymes needed for lipid oxidation b. An increase in muscle cell cross-sectional area c. An increase in myosin Type IIb d. An increase in glycolytic enzyme concentrations Answer: a Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 6. The increase in mitochondrial number that occurs with endurance training increases the a. rate at which ATP is used in the muscle. b. rate at which ATP can be supplied by steady-state aerobic pathways. c. rate of calcium release and reuptake in the muscle. d. maximum shortening velocity of the muscle.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

7. Resistance exercise generates signals in muscle cells. Plausible signals include a. stretch of cell membranes and the cytoskeleton. b. high partial pressures of oxygen. c. high ATP. d. low calcium.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. Resistance training does not typically result in an increase in a. muscle fiber diameter. b. maximum isometric force. c. mitochondrial number. d. myosin mRNA levels.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 9. Increases in workload can cause cardiac myocytes to a. increase in both cross-sectional area and length. b. increase in cross-sectional area and decrease in length. c. decrease in cross-sectional area and increase in length. d. decrease in both cross-sectional area and length.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 10. When researchers compared the hearts of unfed Burmese pythons with hearts of pythons that had eaten a large meal, they observed that fed pythons had larger hearts, higher concentrations of myosin mRNA, and lower concentrations of DNA per gram of heart muscle. These results indicate that the a. heart cells of the fed animals could not synthesize as much protein. b. fed pythons had more heart cells. c. fed pythons had larger heart cells. d. fed pythons had fewer heart cells.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Muscle Phenotypes Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. Muscle atrophy takes place whenever protein a. synthesis in muscle stops. b. degradation in muscle stops. c. degradation takes place in muscle. d. degradation exceeds protein synthesis.

Answer: d

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Atrophy Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. During spaceflight, leg muscles atrophy more than arm muscles do. This may occur because a. leg muscles experience more training than arm muscles during daily activity in normal gravity. b. arm muscles lack the atrophy-promoting genes that are expressed in leg muscles. c. arm muscles lack the gene for myostatin, so they maintain higher muscle masses. d. leg muscles contain more protein, so the body catabolizes them first to maintain protein balance.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Atrophy Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 13. The muscle cells of patients who have been paralyzed for a substantial period tend to a. consist of mostly slow oxidative fibers. b. consist of mostly fast glycolytic fibers. c. have a very slow unloaded shortening velocity. d. be very efficient at using ATP. Answer: b Textbook Reference: Atrophy Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14. Analysis of the athletic performance of aging athletes indicates that a. muscle power increases with age, but endurance declines with age. b. muscle endurance increases with age, but power declines with age. c. both power and endurance performance decline with age, but endurance declines sooner. d. both power and endurance performance decline with age, but power declines sooner.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Atrophy Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 15. When a motor neuron dies, the muscle fibers innervated by that motor neuron a. are reinnervated by other motor neurons. b. die. c. are converted into slow-twitch fibers. d. cannot contract, but they remain healthy.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Atrophy Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. Studies of the estivating frog Cyclorana alboguttata indicate that a. their muscles are unusually plastic in response to immobilization and starvation.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. amino acids are readily liberated from muscle to maintain energy balance during starvation. c. high levels of reactive oxygen species are produced during estivation. d. large muscles used in jumping are especially resistant to atrophy during estivation.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Atrophy Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 17. Which condition would be the most likely to increase expression of myostatin mRNA in a person’s left calf muscles? a. A whole-body weight-training program b. A marathon training program c. Immobilization of the right leg in a cast d. Immobilization of the left leg in a cast Answer: d Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 18. Animals with myostatin gene mutations (including some dogs and cattle) have increased muscle mass relative to animals with nonmutated myostatin genes. This indicates that myostatin may a. increase rates of muscle protein synthesis. b. increase its target cell response by serving as an IGF-1 receptor agonist. c. trigger pathways that increase rates of protein degradation, in addition to regulating muscle mass by inhibiting protein synthesis. d. increase phosphorylation of Akt. Answer: c Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 19. Satellite cells a. divide and fuse into existing muscle cells when the cell is shrinking. b. differentiate into endothelial cells to form capillaries in response to endurance exercise. c. grow larger in response to resistance training and become new muscle cells. d. divide and fuse into existing muscle cells to increase the number of nuclei in the muscle cells.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 20. There is currently great scientific interest in identifying genetic polymorphisms underlying different individual responses to exercise training. What polymorphism might one expect to find in a champion distance runner? a. A mutation that increases transcription of the mRNA for myostatin b. A mutation that increases transcription of mRNA encoding Kreb’s cycle enzymes c. A mutation that yields a missense reading in the myostatin gene

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. A mutation that increases transcription of the mRNA for atrophy genes Answer: b Textbook Reference: Regulating Muscle Mass Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 22: Introduction to Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide Physiology TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. Which molecules are respiratory gases or chemical forms of respiratory gases?

I) O2 II) O3 III) CO2 IV) HCO3– V) N2 a. I, II, and III b. I, II, III, and IV c. I, III, and IV d. I, III, and V Answer: c Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. From the list below, choose the correct order of “physiological urgency” for each element in a given terrestrial animal, beginning with the most urgent.

I) The need for water II) The need to void CO2 III) The need to obtain oxygen IV) The need for food a. I, III, II, IV b. III, II, I, IV c. II, III, I, IV d. II, III, IV, I Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 3. Respiratory gases move from place to place principally by a. diffusion. b. convection. c. active transport. d. both diffusion and convective transport.

Answer: d © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. The diffusion of an uncharged solute in aqueous solution a. always diffuses from regions of high concentration to regions of low concentration. b. will diffuse at a rate exponential to the difference in concentration between regions. c. involves a passive diffusion component as well as an active diffusion component. d. diffuses faster compared to charged solutes.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. The strength of a chemical substance’s tendency to undergo a physical or chemical change is called a. diffusion. b. its partial pressure. c. its chemical potential. d. its potential energy.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 6. Which statement regarding the diffusion of materials between gas mixtures and aqueous solutions is false? a. Diffusion can be predicted by means of partial pressure measurements. b. Diffusion can be predicted by using concentrations. c. Respiratory gases can exist in the gas phase as well as dissolved in an aqueous solution. d. Each gas has a unique solubility in aqueous solution.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 7. Which statement regarding gas mixtures in aqueous solutions is false? a. When a gas dissolves in a solution, it becomes incorporated into the liquid phase. b. When a gas dissolves in a solution, the molecules become distributed among the H2O molecules in much the same way as glucose molecules do. c. Gas in solution can appear as microscopic bubbles. d. When a large bubble rises to the surface of a solution, the solution is considered to be in the gas phase.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 8. The partial pressure of any given gas a. cannot be calculated from the universal gas law.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. is dependent on any other gas present. c. is the individual pressure exerted by the gas in a gas mixture. d. is proportional to the size of the gas molecule.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Which factor is a constant according to the universal gas law? a. Moles of gas b. Temperature c. The universal gas constant d. Partial pressure Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 10. According to the universal gas law, _______ is(are) inversely proportional to the partial pressure. a. moles of gas b. temperature c. volume d. the universal gas constant Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 11.–14. Refer to the figure below.

11. According to the data in the figure, the partial pressures at sea level total a. 1 atm. b. 0.5 atm. © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. 100%. d. 1 kPa. Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 12. If the total pressure was 2 atm, the partial pressure of CO2 would be _______ atm. a. 0.04 b. 0.08 c. 0.0004 d. 0.0008 Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 13. If the total pressure was 0.5 atm, the partial pressure of O2 would be _______ atm. a. 20.95 b. 10.48 c. 0.2095 d. 0.1048 Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 14. If the total pressure was 0.1 atm, the percent of O2 in the gas mixture would be _______%. a. 20.95 b. 2.095 c. 0.2095 d. 0.02095 Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 15. The fraction of the total moles of gas in a gas mixture is called the a. mole fractional concentration. b. volume fractional concentration. c. partial pressure. d. absorption coefficient.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. Suppose that at a temperature of 25°C and pressure of 1 atm, all the O2 is removed from 10 L of dry atmospheric air, and the remaining gas is restored to the original temperature and pressure. The final volume will be

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. 10 L. b. about 7.9 L. c. about 5 L. d. about 2.1 L. Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 17. Consider two gas mixtures that are identical in temperature. The concentration of O2 in mixture #1 is 20 mmol/L, and the concentration of O2 in mixture #2 is 60 mmol/L. Which statement about the mixtures is true? a. The partial pressure of O2 in mixture #2 is three times higher than it is in mixture #1. b. The partial pressure of O2 in mixture #2 is 3 times lower than it is in mixture #1. c. The percent of O2 in mixture #2 is three times higher than it is in mixture #1. d. The partial pressures of O2 in both mixtures are the same.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 18. Henry’s law relates _______ in aqueous solutions. a. partial pressure and concentration b. partial pressure and volume c. pressure and volume d. temperature and concentration Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 19. The _______ of a particular gas in a mixture is the dissolved concentration of that gas when the partial pressure is 1 atm. a. gas tension b. absorption coefficient c. volume fractional concentration d. density Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 20. Which statement about gases dissolved in aqueous solutions is true? a. Different gases have different solubilities. b. Gas solubilities increase strongly with increasing temperature. c. Gas solubilities increase with increasing salinity. d. Gas solubility decreases with increasing molecular size.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

21. Which scenarios will result in dissolved gas coming out of solution?

I) Collecting cold creek water, sealing the container, and allowing the solution to warm II) Collecting warm water, sealing the container, and allowing the solution to cool III) Collecting cold creek water, adding salt, sealing the container, and allowing the solution to warm IV) Collecting cold creek water, adding salt, sealing the container, and keeping the solution at the original temperature a. I, II, and III b. I, III, and IV c. II, III, and IV d. III and IV Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 22. Which statement regarding the diffusion of gases is false? a. Within gas mixtures, gases diffuse in net fashion from areas of relatively high partial pressure to areas of relatively low partial pressure. b. Within aqueous solutions, gases diffuse in net fashion from areas of relatively high partial pressure to areas of relatively low partial pressure. c. Across gas‒water interfaces, gases diffuse in net fashion from areas of relatively high partial pressure to areas of relatively low partial pressure. d. Depending on the circumstance, gases can diffuse from low to high partial pressure.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 23. If a water beetle has used up half of the oxygen in its air bubble, the concentration of oxygen in the bubble is _______ the concentration of oxygen in the water. The partial pressure of oxygen in the bubble is _______ the partial pressure of oxygen in the water.

Therefore, oxygen will move from the _______. a. greater than; less than; water into the bubble b. less than; less than; bubble into the water c. less than; less than; water into the bubble d. greater than; less than; bubble into the water Answer: a Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 24. If a water beetle has been using an air bubble as a gill for 1 hour, the O2 partial pressure will be _______ that of air and the N2 partial pressure will be _______ that of air. a. less than; less than b. equal to; equal to c. less than; equal to

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. greater than; greater than Answer: c Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 25. In which situation would a water beetle’s gas bubble last the shortest amount of time as a functional gill? a. Gas bubble = 0.1 atm O2, 0.75 atm N2; water = 0.21 atm of O2 b. Gas bubble = 0.1 atm O2, 0.75 atm N2; water = 0.1 atm of O2 c. Gas bubble = 0.2 atm O2, 0.75 atm N2; water = 0.1 atm of O2 d. Gas bubble = 1 atm O2; water = 0.21 atm of O2 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 26. A scuba diver remaining at a depth of 50 m for a significant amount of time needs to worry about the possible effects of which gas when he or she ascends? a. Oxygen b. Carbon dioxide c. Nitrogen d. Nitric oxide Answer: c Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 27. The “bends” refers to a physiological condition sustained by a scuba diver in which a. oxygen gas is too concentrated in the blood due to a dive that lasts too long at a deep depth. b. nitrogen gas is too concentrated in the blood due to a dive that lasts too long at a deep depth. c. oxygen gas comes out of solution in the blood due to a rapid ascent. d. nitrogen gas comes out of solution in the blood due to a rapid ascent.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 28. In the diffusion equation, if the units of K are cm2 ∙ s–1, which of the following best represents the units for J? a. moles ∙ cm–2 ∙ s–1 b. moles ∙ sec–1 c. M ∙ g–1 ∙ cm–2 d. M ∙ cm2 ∙ s Answer: a Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

29. In the diffusion equation, when X increases, a. J increases. b. J decreases. c. J is not affected. d. J can increase or decrease.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 30. In the diffusion equation, a. permeability is integrated into P1–P2. b. permeability is integrated into K. c. P1–P2 represents permeability. d. X represents permeability.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 31. The Krogh diffusion coefficient (K) for O2 in air is _______ K for O2 in water. a. slightly greater than b. slightly lower than c. about 200,000 times lower than d. about 200,000 times greater than Answer: d Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 32.–33. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

32. The eggs of which animal would most likely have the data profile in the figure? a. Bald eagle b. Snapping turtle c. Bullfrog d. Largemouth bass Answer: b Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 33. According to the figure, what was the most likely cause of the zeroing of oxygen partial pressure in the nest? a. The eggs grew rapidly and used up the available oxygen. b. The nest was flooded with water. c. An algal bloom rapidly used up the available oxygen. d. The eggs hatched and rapidly used up the available oxygen.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 34. Which of the following contributes to a respiratory gas partial pressure in solution?

I) O2 II) CO2 III) O2 bound to hemoglobin IV) HCO3– dissolved in plasma a. I and II b. I, II, and III c. I, II, and IV © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. I, II, III, and IV Answer: a Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 35. If the diameter of the body of a larval fish exceeded _______, diffusion alone would not be able to meet the demands of its oxygen consumption. a. 0.1 mm b. 1.0 mm c. 5 mm d. 1 cm Answer: b Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 36. The process that occurs when a gas mixture or an aqueous solution flows and gas molecules in the gas or liquid phase are carried from place to place by the fluid flow is called a. diffusion. b. convection. c. tidal flow. d. partial pressure.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 37. The principle process(es) by which animals use convection to transport gases is(are) a. ventilation. b. the pumping of blood. c. digestion. d. ventilation and the pumping of blood.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 38. The rate of convective gas transport depends on the a. partial pressure of a particular gas in solution. b. rate of fluid flow. c. total concentration of gas in the fluid. d. rate of fluid flow and the total concentration of gas in the fluid.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 39. The movement of water across a fish gill is a good example of a. permeability.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. tidal flow. c. unidirectional flow. d. Henry’s law.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 40.–43. Refer to the figure below.

40. What process(es) is(are) occurring in the figure? a. Diffusion b. Convection c. Active transport d. Both diffusion and convection Answer: d Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 41. Which of the following correctly matches the process with the numerical label? a. 1 = diffusion; 2 = diffusion; 3 = convection; 4 = diffusion b. 1 = convection; 2 = diffusion; 3 = diffusion; 4 = diffusion c. 1 = diffusion; 2 = convection; 3 = diffusion; 4 = convection d. 1 = convection; 2 = diffusion; 3 = convection; 4 = diffusion Answer: d Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 42. At what point(s) in the figure is the partial pressure of oxygen the lowest? a. 1 © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 43. Which of the following have the most similar O2 partial pressures? a. Ambient air and alveolar gas b. Alveolar gas and arterial blood c. Arterial blood and average systemic capillary blood d. Average systemic capillary blood and mitochondria Answer: b Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 44. Oxygen enters the mitochondria a. by diffusion, at a rate that is dependent on the flow of the oxygenated capillary blood. b. by diffusion, at a rate that is dependent on the difference in O2 partial pressure between the blood systemic capillaries and the mitochondria. c. by convection, at a rate that is dependent on the difference in O2 partial pressure between the blood systemic capillaries and the mitochondria. d. by convection, at a rate that is dependent on the flow of the oxygenated capillary blood.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Cascade Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 45. Which of the following is not a unit of pressure? a. Millimeters of mercury b. Pascals c. Pounds per square inch d. mL O2/L Answer: d Textbook Reference: Expressing the Amounts and Partial Pressures of Gases in Other Units Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 46. STP refers to a(n) a. temperature of 37°C. b. pressure of 1 atm. c. volume of 22.4 L. d. oxygen percent of 20.95.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Expressing the Amounts and Partial Pressures of Gases in Other Units

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 47. If 2 L of air at 0°C contains 420 mL of O2, how many mL of O2 does it contain if the air is warmed to 24°C? a. 210 mL b. 384 mL c. 420 mL d. about 600 mL Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Contrasting Physical Properties of Air and Water Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 48. If air at 0°C contains 210 mL O2 per L, how much O2 does it contain if it is heated to 24°C? a. 210 mL O2 per L b. 420 mL O2 per L c. 192 mL O2 per L d. 105 mL O2 per L Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Contrasting Physical Properties of Air and Water Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 49. Which environment has the lowest amount of O2 per L? a. Air at 120°C b. Air at –40°C c. Freshwater at 24°C d. Seawater at 40°C Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Contrasting Physical Properties of Air and Water Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 50. Which environment would have the lowest available oxygen? a. At night, a small summer pond filled with algae b. The summit of Mount Everest c. The burrow of a black-tailed prairie dog d. The burrow of a lemming beneath the arctic snow Answer: a Textbook Reference: Respiratory Environments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

Short Answer 1. Explain the two mechanisms by which oxygen and carbon dioxide move within organisms.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: Respiratory gases move from place to place principally by two mechanisms: simple diffusion and convection or bulk flow. These are the only known mechanisms by which oxygen moves, as there is no known active oxygen transporter. Carbon dioxide, however, can be actively transported across cell membranes in the form of HCO3–.

Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. Compare and contrast mole fractional concentration versus volume fractional concentration.

Answer: Both mole fractional concentration and volume fractional concentration are expressions of the proportions of gases found in a mixture. Mole fractional concentration is the fraction of the total moles of gas represented by the gas in question. Volume fractional concentration is the total volume represented by the gas in question. Equal molar quantities of different gases occupy essentially equal volumes. Thus the volume fractional concentration of a gas in a mixture is essentially the same as its mole fractional concentration.

Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. What are the three most important characteristics of gases dissolved in aqueous solutions? Give examples in your answer.

Answer: (1) The solubilities of different gases are different. For example, CO2 has a much higher solubility compared to O2 or N2. (2) The solubilities of gases in aqueous solutions decrease strongly with increasing water temperature; for example, the solubility of O2 at 40°C is less than half as great as it is at 0°C. (3) The solubilities of gases in aqueous solutions decrease with increasing salinity. For example, the solubility of O2 in seawater is much lower than its solubility in freshwater at the same temperature.

Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. How does diffusion work in allowing a water beetle to use an air bubble as a gill? Why does the bubble not collapse?

Answer: If a water beetle grabs a fresh bubble from the atmosphere, it will use the oxygen in the bubble during its natural respiratory processes. As the partial pressure of O2 in the bubble drops, it will eventually drop below that of the surrounding water. Once this occurs, the oxygen in the water will diffuse into the air bubble, allowing it to act like a gill. The bubble does not collapse because oxygen diffuses into it and because the principal gas in the bubble, N2, tends to remain.

Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 5. Why is it important for scuba divers to understand the concept of diffusion, especially as it pertains to N2?

Answer: As a diver dives, she is exposed to very high pressures, and the scuba equipment must match these pressures in order to inflate the lungs. If, for example, a diver remains at 3 atm for a long period of time, the N2 in her lungs eventually will equilibrate with the

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

body fluids at ~2.3 atm. This is not a problem unless the diver surfaces too rapidly. But if the diver surfaces too quickly, bubbles of N2 can form in the blood as N2 comes out of solution because the pressure at the surface is much lower (1 atm).This condition is called the “bends” and can be extremely dangerous.

Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 6. Gas transport in animals often occurs by alternation of convection and diffusion.

Explain.

Answer: Only in very small animals can diffusion be the sole mechanism for gas transport. With body sizes greater than about 2–3g, diffusion becomes inefficient because the distance between the gas exchange surfaces and the metabolizing cells is too great.

Animals then tend to employ convective transport (e.g., by means of a circulatory system) in order to transport oxygen in bulk form. Diffusion is often the mechanism that transports oxygen to the mitochondria from the blood at the level of the tissues.

Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. What is meant by the oxygen cascade?

Answer: The oxygen cascade is a concept that summarizes how oxygen is transported throughout the body based on drops in partial pressure. Since oxygen moves by diffusion from the blood into the mitochondria, the rate depends on the difference in oxygen partial pressure between the blood in the systemic capillaries and in the mitochondria themselves. This partial pressure drop can be seen at each diffusion step along the way, starting at the alveolar gas in the lungs.

Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Cascade Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. What is STP and why is it important when expressing volumes of gases? Include information about the relationship between STP and 1 mole of gas.

Answer: STP stands for Standard Conditions of Temperature and Pressure and refers to a temperature of 0°C and a pressure of 1 atm. For essentially all gases, for example, 1 mole of gas occupies 22.4 L at STP. This is an important measure because gas volume changes significantly with temperature and pressure. Therefore, it is important to have a standard measure so that comparisons are valid.

Textbook Reference: Expressing the Amounts and Partial Pressures of Gases in Other Units Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Compare and contrast air and water as respiratory media. Include some approximate quantitative data in your comparison.

Answer: Animals are typically either water-breathing or air-breathing, although some are capable of breathing in either medium. Water is about 800 times more dense than air, and its oxygen is also relatively lower in terms of amount and constancy. At its maximum, water contains only about 1/20th of the amount of oxygen that air has. Therefore,

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

compared to air breathers, water-breathers generally must expend more energy in order to obtain the same amount of oxygen.

Textbook Reference: The Contrasting Physical Properties of Air and Water Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 10. Compare and contrast the respiratory stresses of terrestrial versus aquatic environments.

Answer: Aquatic and terrestrial environments each have their own oxygen-limiting stresses. In aquatic environments, local areas may be more prone to hypoxia due to lack of mixing, as well as usage by local organisms such as algae. In open terrestrial environments, this is typically not a problem because of the great convective movement of air. But in microenvironments with minimal convective movement such as burrows, hypoxia can be a problem. Altitude also has a profound effect on the availability of oxygen. For example, at 4500 m, the oxygen content is only 60% that of sea level.

Textbook Reference: Respiratory Environments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. The respiratory gas(es) is(are) a. oxygen. b. carbon dioxide. c. nitrogen. d. both oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. In diffusion, materials tend to move in net fashion from regions of a. high solubility to regions of low solubility. b. high chemical potential to regions of low chemical potential. c. low chemical potential to regions of high chemical potential. d. low partial pressure to regions of high partial pressure.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. If the partial pressures of nitrogen, argon, and CO2 are 0.7808, 0.0093, and 0.0004 atm, respectively, in air at 1 atm, what is the partial pressure of the oxygen in this air? a. 0.2095% b. 20.95% c. 0.2095 atm d. 20.95 atm Answer: c

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 4. Consider two gas mixtures at the same temperature. If the concentration of CO2 in Mixture A is 10 mmol/L and the concentration of CO2 in Mixture B is 30 mmol/L, which statement is also true? a. The partial pressure of CO2 in Mixture B is 3 times as high as in Mixture A. b. The partial pressure of CO2 in Mixture B is 3 times lower compared to Mixture A. c. The percent of CO2 in Mixture B is 3 times as high as in Mixture A. d. The percent of CO2 is the same in both mixtures.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 5. _______ is the law that relates partial pressure and concentration in aqueous solutions. a. The universal gas law b. The partial pressure law c. Henry’s law d. Krogh’s law Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 6. What is the relationship between temperature and the solubility of gases in aqueous solutions? a. The solubility of gases in aqueous solution has an exponential relationship to temperature. b. As temperature increases, the solubility of gases in aqueous solutions increases. c. As temperature increases, the solubility of gases in aqueous solutions decreases. d. The solubility of a gas in an aqueous solution is directly proportional to temperature.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Properties of Gases in Gas Mixtures and Aqueous Solutions Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 7. Gases diffuse in net fashion from areas of relatively high partial pressure to areas of relatively low partial pressure a. within gas mixtures. b. within aqueous solutions. c. across gas–water interfaces. d. in all combinations of gas–aqueous phases.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 8. Which statement regarding the water beetle is true? a. As oxygen in the bubble is used up, oxygen diffuses from the water into the bubble.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. As CO2 in the bubble increases, it causes oxygen to enter the bubble more readily. c. As the beetle dives, the increase in pressure drives oxygen into the beetle. d. The nitrogen in the bubble is responsible for maintaining the oxygen concentration.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 9. During gas diffusion, as the distance between P1 and P2 increases, the a. rate of net movement decreases. b. rate of net movement increases. c. rate of net movement does not change. d. diffusion coefficient increases.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 10. Which statement regarding gas diffusion is true? a. Gases diffuse only slightly faster through the gas phase than through aqueous solutions. b. Gases diffuse many times faster through the gas phase than through aqueous solutions. c. Gases diffuse at equal rates through the gas phase and aqueous solutions. d. Gases diffuse only slightly slower through the gas phase than through aqueous solutions.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 11. Oxygen that is bound to hemoglobin a. does not contribute to the oxygen partial pressure. b. contributes the same amount to partial pressure as when it is dissolved in solution. c. contributes more to partial pressure than when it is dissolved in solution. d. increases the partial pressure of CO2.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Diffusion of Gases Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 12. As a gas mixture or an aqueous solution flows, gas molecules in the gas or liquid are carried from place to place by a. tidal flow. b. diffusion. c. evaporation. d. convection.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

13. Movement of air into and out of a human lung is an example of a. diffusion. b. Henry’s law. c. unidirectional flow. d. tidal flow.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 14. Oxygen transport in animals occurs by a. diffusion. b. convection. c. active transport. d. both convection and diffusion.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 15. In oxygen transport to the mitochondria, diffusion occurs from a. the mouth to the lungs. b. the lungs to the red blood cells. c. the red blood cells to the mitochondria. d. both the lungs to the red blood cells and the red blood cells to the mitochondria.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Convective Transport of Gases: Bulk Flow Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 16. Which O2 partial pressure value would you expect to find in the ambient air (AA), arterial blood (AB), and systemic capillary blood (SCB) of an animal? a. AA = 150 mm Hg; AB = 100 mm Hg; SCB = 70 mm Hg b. AA = 150 mm Hg; AB = 70 mm Hg; SCB = 100 mm Hg c. AA = 70 mm Hg; AB = 100 mm Hg; SCB = 70 mm Hg d. AA = 70 mm Hg; AB = 100 mm Hg; SCB = 150 mm Hg Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Cascade Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 17. At standard conditions of temperature and pressure (STP), a. 1 mg of gas occupies 22.4 L. b. 1 mole of gas occupies 22.4 L. c. 22.4 moles of gas occupies 1 L. d. 22.4 grams of gas occupies 1 L. Answer: b Textbook Reference: Expressing the Amounts and Partial Pressures of Gases in Other Units Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

18. Which statement regarding air and water is false? a. Water is more viscous than air. b. Air-breathing animals generally expend more energy ventilating than water-breathing animals. c. Per unit volume, water holds less oxygen than air. d. Temperature affects the oxygen solubility in water more than it does in air.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Contrasting Physical Properties of Air and Water Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 19. If the percentage of oxygen in air at sea level is 20.95%, what is the percentage of oxygen in air at the top of Mount Everest? a. Significantly higher than 20.95% b. The same—20.95% c. Significantly lower than 20.95% d. Negligible—close to 0% Answer: b Textbook Reference: Respiratory Environments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 20. Which organisms use CO2 during the day? a. Fungi b. Animals c. Plants d. Bacteria Answer: c Textbook Reference: Respiratory Environments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 16: Endocrine and Neuroendocrine Physiology TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1.‒3. Refer to the figure below.

1. Which diagram represents a neurosecretory system? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: c Textbook Reference: Introduction to Endocrine Principles Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 2. Which diagram represents the mechanism of oxytocin release from the initial signal in the hypothalamus? © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: c Textbook Reference: Introduction to Endocrine Principles Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 3. Which diagram(s) represent(s) the process of chemical signaling from the initial signal in the hypothalamus to the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone? a. I b. II and III c. II and IV d. I and II Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction to Endocrine Principles Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 4. Which compound functions as both a hormone and a neurotransmitter? a. Thyroid hormone b. Cholecystokinin c. Carbon dioxide d. Gastrin Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction to Endocrine Principles Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. Which hormone is categorized incorrectly? a. Testosterone—steroid b. Insulin—peptide c. Growth hormone—steroid d. Melatonin—amine Answer: c Textbook Reference: Introduction to Endocrine Principles Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 6. Which compound bypasses second messenger systems and alters gene expression? a. Peptides b. Steroids c. Thyroid hormones d. Melatonin Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction to Endocrine Principles Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 7. Which hormone has the longest half-life?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. Melatonin b. Insulin c. Testosterone d. Thyroid hormone Answer: d Textbook Reference: Introduction to Endocrine Principles Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 8.‒10. Refer to the figure below.

8. Arrow I in the diagram points to a. preproinsulin. b. proinsulin. c. the P segment. d. insulin.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Synthesis, Storage, and Release of Hormones Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 9. The _______ in the diagram reaches its final form through _______. a. insulin; ribosomal cleavage © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. glucagon; ribosomal cleavage c. insulin; posttranslational processing d. glucagon; posttranslational processing Answer: c Textbook Reference: Synthesis, Storage, and Release of Hormones Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 10. What process is represented at arrow II? a. Storage of insulin in vesicles b. Release of insulin into the blood c. Transporting of proinsulin to a different part of the cell, where it will mature into insulin d. Release of insulin and C-peptide into the blood Answer: d Textbook Reference: Synthesis, Storage, and Release of Hormones Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. Which statement about insulin is true? a. Insulin is synthesized at ribosomes, stored in vesicles, and secreted on demand. b. Insulin is synthesized in the nucleus and released into the blood by diffusion. c. Insulin is synthesized on demand, stored in vesicles, and secreted on demand. d. Insulin is synthesized on demand and released into the blood by diffusion.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Synthesis, Storage, and Release of Hormones Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 12. Testosterone is synthesized a. at ribosomes, stored in vesicles, and secreted on demand. b. in the nucleus and released into the blood by diffusion. c. on demand, stored in vesicles, and secreted on demand. d. on demand and released into the blood by diffusion.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Synthesis, Storage, and Release of Hormones Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 13. Neurosecretory cells a. are not connected to the nervous system. b. release neurotransmitters into the blood. c. transduce neural signals into endocrine signals. d. do not typically produce action potentials.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Types of Endocrine Cells and Glands Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 14. An anatomically distinct site for the release of neurohormones is called a(n) a. neurohemal organ.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. anastomosis. c. adenohypophysis. d. paraventricular nucleus.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Types of Endocrine Cells and Glands Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 15. Which hormones are released by the posterior pituitary gland? a. Vasopressin and oxytocin b. Antidiuretic hormone and prolactin c. Vasopressin and antidiuretic hormone d. Prolactin and vasopressin Answer: a Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. Which hormone is directly responsible for milk let-down (ejection)? a. Oxytocin b. Prolactin c. Follicle-stimulating hormone d. Luteinizing hormone Answer: a Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 17.‒18. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

17. Which statement about the figures is the most accurate? a. Only figure B contains a neurohemal organ. b. Figures A and B contain a neurohemal organ. c. Figures A and B contain a neurohemal organ, and figure B also contains a portal system. d. Figures A and B contain a neurohemal organ, and figure A also contains a portal system.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 18. Which statement regarding the arrows is true in both figures? a. I represents secretion of a neurotransmitter. b. II represents the neurohemal organ. c. III represents release of a neurohormone into the general circulation. d. IV represents venous outflow that includes the hormone.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 19. Which hormone is direct acting? a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone b. Prolactin c. Adrenocorticotropic hormone d. Follicle-stimulating hormone © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 20. Which hormone functions in skin darkening in amphibians and non-avian reptiles? a. Melanocyte stimulating hormones b. Thyroid hormones c. Glucocorticoids d. Adrenocorticotropin Answer: a Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 21. The most common posterior pituitary nonapeptide found in most bony fish is a. arginine vasotocin. b. oxytocin. c. mesotocin. d. isotocin.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 22. Which statement regarding the feedback mechanisms of the HPA axis is true? a. Glucocorticoids enhance the secretion of CRH. b. Glucocorticoids inhibit the secretion of ACTH. c. ACTH enhances the secretion of CRH. d. ACTH decreases the secretion of glucocorticoids.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 23. Injections of _______ would likely result in the highest blood glucose levels in a mammal when measured 1 hour postinjection. a. insulin and glucagon b. insulin and epinephrine c. glucagon and epinephrine d. insulin, glycogen, and epinephrine Answer: c Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 24.‒25. Refer to the graph below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

24. Which plot line on the graph likely represents an insulin-only treatment? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 25. Which plot line represents antagonism toward insulin? a. I b. II c. I, II, and III d. IV Answer: c Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 26. Which physiological reaction would occur in response to direct sympathetic activation? a. Muscle protein anabolism b. Release of glucose from muscle and liver c. Increase in digestive activity d. Decrease in ventilation Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 27. Which of the following is not part of the mammalian stress response? © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. Increased release of thyroid-stimulating hormone b. Vasoconstriction of specific regions such as the skin c. Increase in fat catabolism d. Release of glucocorticoids Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 28. Which statement about synergistic components of the mammalian stress response is true? a. Catecholamines amplify glucagon’s effect in opposing the actions of insulin. b. Epinephrine decreases an animal’s perception of pain. c. Epinephrine inhibits the secretion of ACTH. d. β-endorphin enhances the secretion of ACTH. Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 29. Which of the following occurs after a significant blood loss? a. Increase in aldosterone secretion to decrease Na+ reabsorption b. Increase in vasopressin secretion to increase water reabsorption c. Increase in atrial natriuretic peptide secretion to increase blood pressure d. Stimulation of the vessels by catecholamines to dilate the vessels and maintain blood pressure Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 30. Which statement about the mammalian stress response is true? a. Glucocorticoids enhance the release of CRH. b. Cytokines stimulate the release of CRH. c. ACTH inhibits the production of glucocorticoids. d. Glucocorticoids stimulate immune-system reactions, causing inflammation.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 31.‒33. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

31. Which box in the figure represents the action of ACTH? a. II b. IV c. I and II d. II and V Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 32. What would happen if levels of IV spiked? a. Actions that cause inflammation would be suppressed. b. Immune cells would be stimulated. c. CRH activity would be enhanced. d. The adrenal gland would be stimulated.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

33. Which box in the figure represents a substance that directly enhances the effects of the sympathetic nervous system? a. I and II b. II and III c. III and V d. I and IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 34. Which hormone related to mammalian nutrient metabolism is secreted continuously? a. Insulin b. Osteocalcin c. Thyroid hormone d. Glucocorticoids Answer: c Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Nutrient Metabolism in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 35. During a long period between meals, there is a rise in the blood concentration of a. insulin. b. glucagon. c. glycogen. d. epinephrine.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Nutrient Metabolism in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 36.‒37. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

36. If all of the panels in the figure represent data from one treatment, this treatment was most likely a. fasting. b. fasting and ingestion of a high-carbohydrate meal. c. fasting and ingestion of a high-protein meal. d. fasting and ingestion of a high-fat meal.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Nutrient Metabolism in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 37. Which statement best explains the increase in insulin levels seen in the figure? a. Insulin increases after a high-carbohydrate meal in order to enhance the removal of blood glucose. b. Insulin increases after a high-carbohydrate meal in order to stabilize blood glucose levels and store the excess as glycogen. c. Insulin increases after any meal in order to enhance the uptake of the broken-down biomolecules into the blood from the intestines. d. Insulin increases after a high-protein meal in order to promote the incorporation of absorbed amino acids into body proteins. © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Nutrient Metabolism in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 38. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) (vasopressin) upregulates the _______ of aquaporins into the _______ membrane of the collecting duct so that more water can be _______. a. insertion; apical; reabsorbed b. insertion; apical; excreted c. insertion; basal; reabsorbed d. removal; apical; excreted Answer: a Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 39.‒41. Refer to the figure below.

39. What is the structure labeled by arrow I in the diagram? a. Na+ channel b. Aquaporin c. K+ channel d. Ca2+ channel Answer: b Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 40. Which hormone is causing the mechanism represented in the diagram to occur? © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. Aldosterone b. Atrial natriuretic peptide c. Angiotensin d. Antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin) Answer: d Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 41. Which statement regarding the mechanism represented in the diagram is false? a. The hormone binds to a receptor b. A second messenger system acts to shuttle storage vesicles to the membrane. c. Storage vesicles fuse with the apical membrane. d. Water moves from the extracellular fluid into the collecting duct.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 42. The juxtaglomerular cells sense a. low blood pressure in the carotid body and activate renin–angiotensin–aldosterone. b. high blood pressure in the heart and increase urination. c. low blood pressure and secrete renin. d. low blood pressure and secrete angiotensin.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 43. Which molecule must be present for the direct production of angiotensin II? a. Renin b. Angiotensin I c. Angiotensin-converting enzyme d. Angiotensinogen Answer: c Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 44. Which of the following is responsible for secreting paracrines that inhibit renin during high blood pressure? a. Carotid bodies b. Macula dense cells c. Juxtaglomerular cells d. The atria of the heart Answer: b Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 45. Which statement regarding vitamin D is false?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. Inactive vitamin D is also called cholecalciferol. b. Vitamin D can be obtained only through diet and from vitamin supplements. c. Cholecalciferol is converted to 25-hydroxycholecalciferol in the liver. d. In the kidney, 25-hydroxycholecalciferol is converted to 1,25(OH)2D3, the active form of vitamin D. Answer: b Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Calcium Metabolism in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 46. Which statement about calcium metabolism is true? a. Chief cells secrete PTH when extracellular Ca2+ is high. b. C cells secrete calcitonin when extracellular Ca2+ is low. c. High extracellular Ca2+ stimulates C cells and inhibits chief cells. d. Vitamin D is converted to its active form when plasma Ca2+ is high.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Calcium Metabolism in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 47. Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in signaling mechanisms on adjacent cells? a. Hormones b. Gap junctions c. Paracrines d. Neurotransmitters Answer: a Textbook Reference: Chemical Signals along a Distance Continuum Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 48. Which term is not directly related to insect metamorphosis? a. Ecdysis b. Bombykol c. Instars d. Pupa Answer: b Textbook Reference: Insect Metamorphosis Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 49. The insect hormone that prevents metamorphosis is a. ecdysone. b. prothoracicotropic hormone. c. terpene. d. juvenile hormone.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Insect Metamorphosis Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

50. Which hormone is produced by neurosecretory cells? a. Ecdysis-triggering hormone b. Juvenile hormone c. Ecdysone d. Prothoracicotropic hormone Answer: d Textbook Reference: Insect Metamorphosis Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

Short Answer 1. Compare and contrast the synthesis, storage, and release of a peptide hormone such as insulin to those processes in a steroid hormone such as testosterone.

Answer: Peptide hormones such as insulin are synthesized at ribosomes, stored in vesicles, and secreted on demand. Steroid hormones, by contrast, are synthesized on demand prior to secretion and are released into the blood via diffusion.

Textbook Reference: Synthesis, Storage, and Release of Hormones Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. Describe the two major classes of endocrine cells and how they work.

Answer: Endocrine cells are divided into two classes: epithelial, or nonneural, endocrine cells and neurosecretory cells. The secretions of both types can be termed “hormones,” but secretions from neurosecretory cells can also be called “neurohormones.” Nonneural endocrine cells are stimulated by other hormones or neural input to secrete their hormones into the blood. Neurosecretory cells act very much like neurons, but their contents are secreted into the blood instead of into a synapse.

Textbook Reference: Types of Endocrine Cells and Glands Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. Compare and contrast the anterior and posterior pituitary glands.

Answer: Both the anterior and posterior pituitary glands are part of the pituitary gland, which lies immediately below the hypothalamus. They both consist of cell bodies as well as axons that originate in the hypothalamus. Both release hormones via neurosecretion, however, they secrete different hormones and have different mechanisms for doing so. In the posterior pituitary gland, action potentials originating in the hypothalamus result in the neurosecretory release of oxytocin and vasopressin (ADH) into the general circulation. In contrast, the anterior pituitary releases “releasing hormones” or “releaseinhibiting hormones” via neurosecretion. These hormones enter a hypothalamohypophyseal portal system and not the general circulation. These hormones then directly interact with the nonneural endocrine tissue in the anterior pituitary to increase or decrease the secretion of specific hormones (growth hormone, prolactin, melanocytestimulating hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone, luteinizing hormone, or follicle stimulating hormone). All of the hormones of the anterior pituitary are synthesized and secreted by the endocrine cells within its tissues.

Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. What is the physiological importance of the hypothalamo–hypophysial portal system?

Answer: The hypothalamo–hypophyseal portal system is a specific pathway of vessels that connects the anterior pituitary to the hypothalamus. The axons of neurosecretory cells in the hypothalamus terminate in this vessel system, which transports specific releasing or inhibiting hormones to the anterior pituitary but not into the general circulation.

Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. Describe the terms “antagonism” and “synergy” as they relate to hormones, and give examples of each.

Answer: Antagonism occurs when one hormone opposes the action of another. An example of antagonism is the interaction between insulin and glucagon. Insulin acts to remove blood glucose from circulation, whereas glucagon stimulates the release of glucose into the blood. Synergism refers to a hormone’s amplification of the effect of another hormone. An example of synergism is the way glucagon and epinephrine amplify each other’s efficacy in opposing the actions of insulin.

Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. Describe the two output branches as well as the two phases of the mammalian stress response.

Answer: The two output branches of the mammalian stress response are the HPA axis and the autonomic nervous system (specifically, the sympathetic nervous system). The physiological effects of the stress response also occur in two phases. In the first phase, the sympathetic nervous system plays an immediate role in initiating the stress response (within seconds). It triggers the release of catecholamines, which immediately increase heart rate and blood pressure. In the second phase of the stress response, the HPA axis controls the release of glucocorticoids, whose effects are measurable about 1 hour after the stress response has been initiated. Glucocorticoids reinforce the actions of the sympathetic nervous system and have additional effects involving the mobilization of energy stores.

Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. What is the mechanism by which chronic stress can negatively affect the immune system?

Answer: Glucocorticoids suppress the actions of the immune system and can be deleterious if exposure is prolonged.

Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. Describe how the kidney acts to conserve water when it senses low blood pressure.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: Juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney secrete renin when blood pressure is low.

Renin catalyzes the reaction forming angiotensin I from angiotensinogen, which then forms angiotensin II with the help of ACE. Angiotensin II stimulates the constriction of systemic arterioles, promotes thirst, stimulates vasopressin secretion, and stimulates aldosterone secretion. All of these actions promote the conservation of water as well as the increase in blood pressure.

Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. How is vitamin D involved in calcium metabolism in mammals?

Answer: Vitamin D is activated when blood Ca2+ levels or PTH levels are low. Once activated, vitamin D exerts action through gene transcription that leads to synthesis of calbindin. Calbindin facilitates absorption of Ca2+ from the intestinal lumen into the blood. Vitamin D also synergistically acts with PTH to release Ca2+ and phosphate from the bone. Finally, activated vitamin D stimulates the reabsorption of both Ca2+ and phosphate from the kidney nephron.

Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Calcium Metabolism in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Name, compare, and contrast the two major types of insect metamorphosis.

Answer: Both versions of metamorphosis result in the formation of a reproductively mature adult insect. Hemimetabolous metamorphosis occurs in insects such as the cockroach. The immature insects are called nymphs and resemble the adults, but they are smaller and lack complete wings and functional reproductive structures. These insects go through a series of molts in order to grow, with the final molt producing the adult. In holometabolous development, eggs hatch into larvae (grubs, caterpillars, or maggots).

After several molts, the larvae enter a stage called the pupa, in which most of the tissues are destroyed and replaced by adult tissues. The pupa then metamorphoses into the adult.

Textbook Reference: Insect Metamorphosis Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. A neuron that releases the contents of its vesicles into the bloodstream rather than a synapse is called a a. neurohemal cell. b. nonneural endocrine cell. c. paracrine cell. d. neurosecretory cell.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Introduction to Endocrine Principles Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. The cortex of the adrenal gland secretes primarily

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. nonneural peptides. b. catecholamines. c. steroid hormones. d. acetylcholine.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Introduction to Endocrine Principles Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. Steroid hormones a. pass through cell membranes and cause a delayed effect via alteration of gene expression. b. attach to cell surface receptors and cause a delayed effect via alteration of gene expression. c. pass through cell membranes and then exert rapid, non-genomic effects. d. are polar molecules that attach to cell surface receptors to exert rapid, non-genomic effects.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Introduction to Endocrine Principles Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Peptide hormones are synthesized by a. transcription of DNA. b. transcription of DNA and translation. c. transcription of DNA, translation, and posttranslational processing. d. transcription of DNA, translation, posttranslational processing, and exocytosis.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Synthesis, Storage, and Release of Hormones Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. Steroid hormones are synthesized from a. transcription of DNA and are stored in vesicles until neurosecretory release. b. transcription of DNA and are released into the blood via diffusion. c. cholesterol on demand and are released into the blood via diffusion. d. cholesterol and are stored in vesicles until neurosecretory release.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Synthesis, Storage, and Release of Hormones Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 6. Which hormones are produced by the posterior pituitary gland? a. Melanocyte-stimulating hormone and prolactin b. Oxytocin and prolactin c. Vasopressin and oxytocin d. Vasopressin and prolactin Answer: c Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

7. The specialized vascular system in the anterior pituitary, which transports releasing and inhibiting hormones from the neurosecretory cells in the hypothalamus, is called the _______ portal system. a. neuro–hypophysial b. hypophysial c. anterior hypophysial d. hypothalamo–hypophysial Answer: d Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 8. Which hormone is directly controlled by a hypothalamic releasing hormone? a. ACTH b. Epinephrine c. Vasopressin d. Parathyroid hormone Answer: a Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 9. Which hormone is direct acting? a. Growth hormone b. Thyroid-stimulating hormone c. Adrenocorticotropic hormone d. Luteinizing hormone Answer: a Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 10. Glucagon and epinephrine together amplify each other’s effectiveness in opposing the actions of insulin. This amplification is an example of a. permissiveness. b. synergism. c. antagonism. d. agonism.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Control of Endocrine Secretion: The Vertebrate Pituitary Gland Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 11. Which response is a result of sympathetic activation? a. Decreased heart rate b. Release of glucocorticoids c. Increased digestion d. Vasoconstriction Answer: d

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 12. Which of the following occurs during a stress response? a. An increase in insulin release b. Release of glucocorticoids c. Storage of glucose d. Decreased ventilation Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Mammalian Stress Response Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 13. Which behavior will stimulate mobilization of glucagon? a. Eating chocolate b. Not eating c. Injecting insulin d. Eating pasta Answer: b Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Nutrient Metabolism in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 14. Which statement best describes the mechanism of ADH? a. Aquaporins are added to the membrane of the collecting duct so that more water can be reabsorbed. b. Aquaporins are added to the membrane of the collecting duct so that more water can be excreted. c. Aquaporins are removed from the membrane of the collecting duct so that more water can be reabsorbed. d. Aquaporins are removed from the membrane of the collecting duct so that more water can be excreted.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 15. Aldosterone _______ reabsorption of _______ so that more water is _______. a. increases; Na+; reabsorbed b. increases; K+; excreted c. decreases; Na+; reabsorbed d. decreases; K+; excreted Answer: a Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 16. Which hormone acts to reduce plasma volume? a. ADH (vasopressin) b. Angiotensin II

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. Aldosterone d. Atrial natriuretic peptide Answer: d Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Salt and Water Balance in Vertebrates Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 17. Which hormone is not directly involved in regulating the extracellular concentration of calcium in mammals? a. Parathyroid stimulating hormone b. Active vitamin D c. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol d. Calcitonin Answer: a Textbook Reference: Endocrine Control of Calcium Metabolism in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 18. Which chemical signals are released into the environment to convey information to other animals of the same species? a. Neurotransmitters and pheromones b. Pheromones and synomones c. Kairomones and pheromones d. Allomones and synomones Answer: b Textbook Reference: Chemical Signals along a Distance Continuum Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 19. Which hormones directly control insect metamorphosis? a. Juvenile hormone and ecdysone b. Juvenile hormone and prothoracicotropic hormone c. Prothoracicotropic hormone, ecdysone, and juvenile hormone d. Prothoracicotropic hormone, ecdysone, juvenile hormone, and bursicon Answer: c Textbook Reference: Insect Metamorphosis Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 20. Which insect hormone is not directly involved in ecdysis? a. Juvenile hormone b. Pre-ecdysis triggering hormone c. Ecdysis triggering hormone d. Bursicon Answer: d Textbook Reference: Insect Metamorphosis Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 23: External Respiration: The Physiology of Breathing TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. During high speed swimming, many fish rely on a method of ventilation called a. ram ventilation. b. opercular pumping ventilation. c. the opercular suction pump. d. buccal pressure pumping ventilation.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Which statement is the most accurate definition of external respiration? a. Bulk flow (convection) of air or water to and from the gas-exchange membrane. b. The process by which O2 is transported to the gas-exchange membrane from the environmental medium and by which CO2 is transported away from the membrane into the environmental medium. c. The process by which CO2 is transported to the gas-exchange membrane from the environmental medium and O2 is transported away from the membrane into the environmental medium. d. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 across the gas exchange membrane.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Fundamental Concepts of External Respiration Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 3. Which animal is an example of a bimodal breather? a. Dog b. Frog c. Lizard d. Crocodile Answer: b Textbook Reference: Fundamental Concepts of External Respiration Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 4. The rate of O2 uptake by the breathing organ depends on the a. volume flow of air or water per unit of time. b. amount of O2 removed from each unit of volume. © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. amount of CO2 needing to be removed. d. volume flow of respiratory medium per unit time and the amount of O2 removed from each unit volume.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. Which morphology sets up the least efficient gas exchange? a. Cocurrent gas exchange b. Convex current gas exchange c. Cross-current gas exchange d. Countercurrent gas exchange Answer: a Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6.–8. Refer to the figure below.

6. The diagram is referring to what physiological process? a. Cocurrent gas exchange b. Countercurrent gas exchange c. Nondirectional ventilation and gas exchange d. Cross-current gas exchange Answer: d Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 7. At I in the diagram, O2 partial pressures are _______ the corresponding medium values and _______ from left to right. a. lower than; increase b. lower than; decrease c. higher than; increase d. higher than; decrease Answer: b Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

8. O2 partial pressures at II in the diagram are always _______ those at III. a. equal to b. lower than c. higher than d. half of Answer: c Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 9. CO2 is more easily transferred into water across respiratory membranes compared to O2 because CO2 a. is more soluble in water. b. moves faster. c. is a smaller molecule. d. has a higher cohesive force.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10.–11. Refer to the figure below.

10. Which of the shaded areas indicates the profile of a typical water breather? a. I b. II c. III d. IV

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 11. Which of the shaded areas best represents the profile of an adult bullfrog? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: b Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 12.–13. Refer to the figure below.

12. Which area indicates free HIF-1? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: c Textbook Reference: Low O2: Detection and Response Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 13. When O2 in a cell drops a. more of compound I is created via enzymatic reactions. b. more of compound II is created via enzymatic reactions. c. more of compound I is produced by inhibiting its breakdown. d. product III formation is catalyzed directly by low O2.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Low O2: Detection and Response Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

14. HIF-1 and HIF-2 can help increase the O2-carrying ability of the blood by a. increasing the secretion of erythropoietin. b. increasing ventilation rate. c. decreasing the diffusion distance at the lungs. d. increasing circulation rate.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Low O2: Detection and Response Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 15. Which animal is likely to have the highest O2 and CO2 exchange percentage via the skin? a. Goldfish b. Bullfrog larva c. Lungless salamander d. Adult bullfrog Answer: c Textbook Reference: Introduction to Vertebrate Breathing Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 16. In all vertebrates, the central pattern generators for breathing are located in the a. cerebellum. b. lungs. c. cortex. d. medulla.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Introduction to Vertebrate Breathing Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 17.–18. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

17. If the line near numeral I represents birds, what is a reasonable measurement for the y axis? a. surface area b. mass-specific metabolic rate c. gas exchange membrane thickness d. heart rate Answer: a Textbook Reference: Introduction to Vertebrate Breathing Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 18. Which numeral most closely fits the line for a tuna? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: C Textbook Reference: Introduction to Vertebrate Breathing Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 19. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Of the animals in the figure, which one represents a primarily aquatic animal using lungs as the primary source for O2 uptake? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction to Vertebrate Breathing Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 20. How does a typical teleost fish, such as a goldfish, maintain ventilation of its gills when stationary in the water column? a. With a buccal pressure pump b. With an opercular suction pump c. Via ram ventilation d. With both a buccal pressure pump and an opercular suction pump.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Breathing by Fish Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 21. Fish make use of _______ exchange in their gills. a. cross-current b. concurrent c. cocurrent d. countercurrent Answer: d Textbook Reference: Breathing by Fish Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

22. Which statement about air-breathing fish is false? a. In most air-breathing fish, some part or branch of the alimentary canal has become specialized as an air-breathing organ. b. Most air-breathing fish have lost gill function. c. Air-breathing fish typically void most of their CO2 into the water. d. Many air-breathing fish are able to shunt blood.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Breathing by Fish Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 23. An adult bullfrog excretes CO2 primarily through its a. skin. b. gills. c. lungs. d. cloaca.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Breathing by Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 24. During metamorphosis, a frog utilizes which gas-exchange organs? a. Gills only b. Lungs only c. Gills and lungs d. Gills, skin, and lungs Answer: d Textbook Reference: Breathing by Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 25. During the _______ developmental stage, the bullfrog splits oxygen uptake (roughly 50:50) between the gills and the skin. a. aquatic tadpole b. air-breathing tadpole c. postmetamorphic froglet d. adult Answer: a Textbook Reference: Breathing by Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 26.–27. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

26. Which pair of lines best represents the lungs of the bullfrog? a. I and IV b. II and IV c. I and VI d. III and V Answer: c Textbook Reference: Breathing by Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 27. Which line best represents the excretion of CO2 via the skin? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: Breathing by Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 28. Which is primarily responsible for moving air into the lungs of a lizard? a. The buccal pump b. The buccopharyngeal pump c. The intercostal muscles d. The diaphragm Answer: c © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Breathing by Reptiles Other than Birds Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 29. Which statement is a recently discovered similarity between alligator respiration and bird respiration? a. Cross-current gas exchange takes place. b. Air sacs are present. c. Ventilation is tidal. d. Ventilation is unidirectional.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Breathing by Reptiles Other than Birds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 30. Which animal group(s) ventilate(s) with the use of negative pressure? a. Reptiles b. Mammals c. Amphibians d. Both reptiles and mammals Answer: d Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 31. In which structure does diffusion of oxygen to capillaries not play a major role? a. Terminal bronchioles b. Respiratory bronchioles c. Alveolar ducts d. Alveolar sacs Answer: a Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 32. The volume of air in the lungs following a complete exhalation of the expiratory reserve volume is a. one-half the inspiratory reserve volume. b. called the tidal volume. c. very close to 0 mL. d. called the residual volume.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 33. If the inspiratory reserve volume is 3000 mL, the tidal volume is 500 mL, the expiratory reserve volume is 1000 mL, and the residual volume is 1000 mL, what is the vital capacity? a. 3500 mL b. 4500 mL

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. 5000 mL d. 5500 mL Answer: b Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 34. In the mammalian alveoli, the partial pressure of O2 is _______ that of atmospheric air and the CO2 partial pressure is _______ that of atmospheric air. a. higher than; lower than b. lower than; higher than c. lower than; lower than d. the same as; higher than Answer: b Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 35. Which animal group(s) has(have) a true diaphragm? a. Reptiles and mammals b. Birds and mammals c. Mammals d. Birds Answer: c Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 36. In mammals, ventilation is modulated by the chemosensation of a. CO2. b. CO2 and H+. c. CO2 and O2. d. CO2, H+, and O2.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 37. Hypoxia factors can respond to hypoxia (along with other possible cofactors or coactivators) with all of the following responses except a. increased erythropoiesis. b. increased synthesis of glucose transporters. c. increased synthesis of enzymes of aerobic metabolism. d. the promotion of angiogenesis.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 38. A rise in arterial blood CO2 partial pressure by 5 mm Hg would increase ventilation frequency in humans. This mechanism would likely trigger increased ventilation in

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. all vertebrates. b. just terrestrial vertebrates. c. just aquatic vertebrates. d. all animals.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 39. Which circumstance would increase ventilation frequency in humans? a. A reduction in arterial blood CO2 partial pressure by 15 mm Hg b. A rise in venous blood CO2 partial pressure by 15 mm Hg c. A reduction in arterial blood O2 partial pressure by 15 mm Hg d. A rise in venous blood O2 partial pressure by 15 mm Hg Answer: b Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 40. Suppose you are comparing blood samples and samples of alveolar gas from two native Peruvians resting in their dwellings—one at sea level and one at 4500 m altitude.

The O2 partial pressure would likely be the most similar in a. their alveolar gas. b. their arterial blood. c. their venous blood. d. the air in their tracheas.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 41. When lowlanders first ascend to high altitude, which of the following occurs? a. Hypoventilation b. Bradycardia c. Lowering of V̇O2max d. Hyperventilation Answer: d Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 42. The rate at which new air is brought into the alveoli and other respiratory pathways is called the a. alveolar minute volume. b. respiratory minute volume. c. tidal volume. d. ventilation rate.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

43. As mammals get smaller, lung volume _______ and breathing frequency _______. a. increases exponentially; increases exponentially b. decreases exponentially; increases exponentially c. decreases proportionally; increases exponentially d. increases proportionally; decreases proportionally Answer: c Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 44. Pulmonary surfactant a. keeps the alveoli from collapsing by reducing the surface tension. b. inflates the alveoli by increasing the surface tension. c. keeps the alveoli from collapsing by increasing the surface tension. d. increases the rate of gas exchange across the alveoli by the secretion of phospholipids.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 45. Which structure(s) is(are) primarily responsible for gas exchange in the bird respiratory system? a. Mesobronchus b. Secondary bronchi c. Parabronchi d. Air sacs Answer: c Textbook Reference: Breathing by Birds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 46.–47. Refer to the figure below.

46. The figure represents the respiratory system of which group of animals? a. Amphibians b. Reptiles c. Birds d. Fish © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Breathing by Birds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 47. Which of the arrows in the figure is showing air movement during inhalation incorrectly? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: a Textbook Reference: Breathing by Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 48. Bird respiration is characterized by _______ air flow and _______ gas exchange. a. nondirectional; countercurrent b. unidirectional; cross-current c. nondirectional; cross-current d. unidirectional; countercurrent Answer: b Textbook Reference: Breathing by Birds Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 49. Branchial papulae are essentially gill processes in which major animal group? a. Annelids b. Horseshoe crabs c. Aquatic snails d. Sea stars Answer: d Textbook Reference: Breathing by Aquatic Invertebrates and Allied Groups Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 50. The evolution of sheetlike gills occurred in which major animal group? a. Annelids b. Horseshoe crabs c. Echinoderms d. Molluscs Answer: d Textbook Reference: Breathing by Aquatic Invertebrates and Allied Groups Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 51. The evolution of the mantle cavity into a lung occurred in which major animal group? a. Annelids b. Horseshoe crabs c. Sea stars d. Snails

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Breathing by Aquatic Invertebrates and Allied Groups Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 52. An aquatic decapod crustacean moves water through the branchial chamber and ventilates the gills with its a. opercular pump. b. buccal pump. c. mouth. d. scaphognathite.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Breathing by Aquatic Invertebrates and Allied Groups Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 53. Which statement about land crab respiration is true? a. Most land crabs have evolved lungs. b. They allow their gills to go dry and ventilate them with air. c. Their gills are ventilated with water. d. O2 is taken up chiefly by their branchial-chamber epithelium.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Breathing by Aquatic Invertebrates and Allied Groups Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 54. The entrance to the gas exchange system of insects is via a. spiracles. b. the mouth. c. the scaphognathite. d. the branchial chamber.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Breathing by Insects and Other Tracheate Arthropods Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 55. Although tracheoles run between cells, they also very commonly penetrate _______ cells. a. flight muscle b. nervous system c. circulatory system d. heart muscle Answer: a Textbook Reference: Breathing by Insects and Other Tracheate Arthropods Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 56. A key mechanism of gas transport through the tracheal system is a. muscular contraction. b. the scaphognathite. c. diffusion.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. spiracle size.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Breathing by Insects and Other Tracheate Arthropods Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 57. What is the main vulnerability of the insect respiratory system? a. The release of accumulated CO2 is slow. b. It is susceptible to evaporative water loss. c. It must be continually ventilated. d. O2 uptake is very slow.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Breathing by Insects and Other Tracheate Arthropods Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 58. Aquatic insects sometimes have evaginations of the body surface called _______ that are densely supplied with trachea and covered with a thin cuticle. a. gills b. book lungs c. tracheal gills d. spiracles Answer: c Textbook Reference: Breathing by Insects and Other Tracheate Arthropods Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

Short Answer 1. Describe a bimodal breather and the advantages that bimodal breathing can offer an animal.

Answer: A bimodal breather is an animal that can exchange respiratory gas with either air or water. The obvious respiratory advantage is that the animal can take advantage of the high oxygen partial pressure in the air and avoid a possible respiratory trap in hypoxic water. At the same time, it can easily excrete CO2 into the water (water has a high CO2 solubility) so it will not build up in the blood.

Textbook Reference: Fundamental Concepts of External Respiration Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. The O2 partial pressure in the blood leaving a breathing organ is considered the best single measure of the breathing organ’s effectiveness. Why is the partial pressure of blood going toward the breathing organ not an effective measure?

Answer: Since the breathing organ is the point at which O2 will diffuse into the blood of the animal, the higher the O2 partial pressure in the blood leaving the breathing organ, the more O2 will potentially be available for use by the mitochondria. The O2 partial pressure in the blood going toward the breathing organ is an indication of how much was used by the mitochondria in the tissues. This is independent of the breathing organ.

Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. Compare and contrast cocurrent gas exchange with countercurrent gas exchange and indicate which is more efficient.

Answer: In cocurrent gas exchange, the medium flows parallel along the gas exchange membrane in the same direction as the blood, whereas with countercurrent gas exchange, the medium and blood flow parallel, but in opposite directions. With cocurrent gas exchange, the medium and the blood will reach equilibrium with each other. However, as the blood gains O2, the medium loses O2 and the final result is a blood O2 concentration that is considerably lower than the original O2 concentration of the incoming medium.

However, as blood flows in the opposite direction of the medium in countercurrent exchange, it steadily picks up O2 along the entire contact length. This significantly increases the efficiency, and often the blood O2 values exceed those in the free medium.

Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 4. Several morphological features of the bird respiratory system allow for more efficient gas exchange. Describe these features.

Answer: For their given mass, birds have gas-exchange membranes with a higher surface area compared to those of other major animal groups. Birds also have the thinnest gasexchange membrane of all major animal groups. Together, these features allow for more O2 to diffuse across the respiratory membrane (both on a mass-specific basis) , as well as at a faster rate compared to all other major animal groups.

Textbook Reference: Introduction to Vertebrate Breathing Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. What are the major stimuli for increasing ventilation in fish?

Answer: One of the major stimuli for increasing ventilation in fish is decreased O2 partial pressure in the environment or blood. Low oxygen is detected by chemoreceptor cells in the gills. Exercise is also a potent stimulus of ventilation in fish.

Textbook Reference: Breathing by Fish Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. Compare and contrast the uptake of O2 and the excretion of CO2 in bullfrog tadpoles and adults.

Answer: In bullfrog tadpoles, gills and skin play a fairly equal role in both O2 uptake and CO2 excretion. However, as adults, the lungs play the primary role in the uptake of O2, while the skin becomes the primary organ for excreting CO2.

Textbook Reference: Breathing by Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 7. Describe the quality of the gas within the alveoli of the mammalian lung and explain how it differs from atmospheric air.

Answer: Because mammals are tidal breathers, the air at the very end of the alvaeoli sacs (the blind end) is not moving at all. The gas movement at the level of the alveoli is based solely on diffusion. This means that the gas in the alveoli cannot be completely refreshed

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

with atmospheric air. Therefore, the composition of the gas in the alveoli will have a higher CO2 and lower O2 partial pressure than that of atmospheric air.

Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. How do both CO2 and H+ stimulate ventilation in mammals?

Answer: When the concentration of CO2 rises, the concentration of H+ typically increases in parallel. The blood concentrations of both CO2 and H+ are independently sensed by chemosensitive neural zones near the ventral surface of the medulla. For example, if CO2 increases, the neurons in the medulla will produce action potentials that increase the ventilation rate so as to reduce the CO2 levels.

Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Describe the physiological advantages of the bird respiratory system that make it more efficient than the mammalian system.

Answer: Birds have two functional advantages in their respiratory system compared to mammals. First, the airflow in the lungs and air sacs of birds is unidirectional, which means that atmospheric air can completely refresh the entire lung and air sac system.

Second, the crosscurrent gas exchange system provides the blood with an extended diffusional contact time in which to load oxygen and excrete CO2.

Textbook Reference: Breathing by Birds Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 10. How do insects combat the evaporative water loss that is inherent in a tracheal system?

Answer: Insects commonly solve the problem of evaporative water loss by keeping their spiracles partially closed or by periodically opening and closing them, whenever this is compatible with their needs for O2 and CO2 exchange.

Textbook Reference: Breathing by Insects and Other Tracheate Arthropods Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. Which statement is the best definition of external respiration? a. The bulk flow of air or water to and from the gas-exchange membrane b. The thin layer of tissue, typically consisting of one or two epithelia, that separates the internal tissues of the animal from the environment c. The process by which O2 is transported from the environment to the gas-exchange membrane and CO2 is transported from the membrane to the environment d. The use of O2 at the mitochondria, along with the production of CO2, during aerobic metabolism Answer: c Textbook Reference: Fundamental Concepts of External Respiration

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. The partial pressure of O2 in the blood leaving the breathing organ depends on the a. amount of blood. b. flow of air or water at the interface. c. size of the respiratory organ. d. amount of blood and flow of air or water at the interface.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. Which morphology allows for the most efficient gas exchange? a. Cocurrent b. Countercurrent c. Cross-current d. Concurrent Answer: b Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. A blood sample that has an extremely low partial pressure of CO2 is most likely from a(n) a. fish. b. marine animal. c. terrestrial animal. d. animal exchanging respiratory gas with water.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Principles of Gas Exchange by Active Ventilation Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 5. Which animal group tends to have the thinnest gas-exchange membrane? a. Mammals b. Birds c. Nonavian reptiles d. Amphibians Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction to Vertebrate Breathing Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 6. The protective external flap that covers the gills on a fish’s head is called the a. operculum. b. secondary lamellae. c. gill arches. d. gill slits.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Breathing by Fish

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 7. The major stimulus for increased ventilation in fish is a. decreased O2. b. increased exercise. c. decreased temperature. d. both decreased O2 and increased exercise.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Breathing by Fish Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 8. Carbon dioxide excretion in the bullfrog is highest across the a. lungs only in the adult stage. b. skin at all stages. c. gills during the tadpole stage. d. gills during the adult stage only.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Breathing by Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 9. Which animals use positive pressure ventilation? a. Amphibians b. Birds c. Mammals d. Reptiles Answer: a Textbook Reference: Breathing by Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 10. Which statement regarding mammalian ventilation is false? a. Gas exchange occurs in the respiratory bronchioles. b. Inspiration always requires muscle contraction. c. Expiration always requires muscle contraction. d. There is no convective movement of gas in the alveoli.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 11. The maximal possible tidal volume is called the a. inspiratory reserve volume. b. vital capacity. c. expiratory reserve volume. d. tidal volume.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

12. In mammals, moving air into the lungs is achieved mainly by a. relaxing the abdominals. b. contracting the diaphragm. c. relaxing the diaphragm. d. contracting the abdominals.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 13. In mammals, ventilation is modulated by chemosensation of a. CO2. b. CO2 and H+. c. CO2 and O2. d. CO2, H+, and O2.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14. The substance responsible for the prevention of alveolar collapse is a. surfactant. b. mucous. c. water. d. anticohesive.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Breathing by Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 15. The bellows action used by birds in breathing is generated by a. contraction and relaxation of the diaphragm. b. contraction and relaxation of intercostals. c. expansion and compression of the air sacs. d. expansion and compression of the parabronchi.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Breathing by Birds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. The gas-exchange system in birds is a. concurrent. b. countercurrent. c. cross-current. d. anticurrent.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Breathing by Birds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

17. Within the molluscs, a lung modified from the mantle cavity to allow respiration of air on land is seen in which group? a. Snails b. Bivalves c. Cephalopods d. Decapod crustaceans Answer: a Textbook Reference: Breathing by Aquatic Invertebrates and Allied Groups Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 18. The entrance to the insect tracheal system is via a. modified lungs. b. modified gills. c. air sacs. d. spiracles.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Breathing by Insects and Other Tracheate Arthropods Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 19. In insects, oxygen moves through the tracheal system by a. diffusion. b. both diffusion and convection. c. rhythmic tracheal compression. d. diffusion, convection, and rhythmic tracheal compression.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Breathing by Insects and Other Tracheate Arthropods Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 20. Which animal uses a tracheal system? a. Sea star b. Mollusc c. Crayfish d. Flea Answer: d Textbook Reference: Breathing by Insects and Other Tracheate Arthropods Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 27: Water and Salt Physiology: Introduction and Mechanisms TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. Larger crustaceans, such as a blue crab, have an exoskeleton impregnated with a. cellulose. b. calcium. c. phospholipids. d. proteoglycans.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. The purpose of taking excess water into the body during the process of molting is to a. provide structural rigidity. b. increase the osmotic pressure. c. expand the body to make a larger exoskeleton. d. provide structural rigidity and expand the body to make a larger exoskeleton.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. Most mammals are _______ water. a. 40% b. 50% c. 60% d. 80% Answer: c Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. In the body, water is found in the largest quantity in the a. extracellular fluid. b. interstitial fluid. c. intracellular fluid. d. plasma.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Importance of Animal Body Fluids

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. In a person who weighs 70 kg, _______ of that is water. a. 30 Kg b. 42 Kg c. 52 Kg d. 62 Kg Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Importance of Animal Body Fluids Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 6. Which statement about the importance of ions in body fluids is false? a. Ionic concentrations can have a direct effect on the three-dimensional shape of proteins and thus their function. b. Ionic concentrations can change the pH, increasing it or decreasing, thus affecting the function of proteins. c. Ionic concentrations can affect synaptic transmission in neurons. d. Ionic concentrations have no effect on the rhythm of the heart.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Importance of Animal Body Fluids Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 7. Which process directly uses ATP to move ions to cross the cell membrane? a. Simple diffusion b. Facilitated diffusion c. Primary active transport d. Secondary active transport Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Relationships among Body fluids Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 8. Which of the following does not allow movement of water across a cell membrane? a. Carriers b. Endocytotic vesicles c. Channels d. The lipid portion of the membrane Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Relationships among Body fluids Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. _______ allow for water and ion movement across the blood–capillary endothelium. a. Pores b. Channels c. Carriers d. Transporters Answer: a

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: The Relationships among Body Fluids Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 10. Typically, if the blood osmolarity were 500 mOsm, then interstitial fluid osmolarity would be _______ mOsm. a. 300 b. 400 c. 500 d. 600 Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Relationships among Body Fluids Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 11. If you submerge a mussel in an environment in which the ambient osmotic pressure progressively increases, the blood osmotic pressure of the mussel will a. progressively increase. b. progressively decrease. c. increase first and then decrease. d. not change.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 12. If you submerge an animal in an environment in which the ambient osmotic pressure increases, but the animal’s blood osmotic pressure does not change, it can be concluded that this animal is a a. conformer. b. regulator. c. migrator. d. concentrator.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 13. The maintenance of a constant concentration of ions in the blood plasma is known as a. ionic conformity. b. ionic regulation. c. volume regulation. d. volume conformity.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 14. If you go to the movie theater and eat a large bag of salted popcorn, after few hours your plasma salt concentration will a. increase.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. decrease. c. be at the normal level. d. increase and then decrease.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 15. If you go to the movie theater and eat a large bag of popcorn with salt, after few minutes, your plasma salt concentration will a. increase. b. decrease. c. be at the normal level. d. increase and then decrease.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 16. If a freshwater fish takes in a quantity of water from its dilute environment by osmosis, the osmotic pressure in its plasma will tend to a. increase. b. decrease. c. remain the same. d. increase then decrease.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 17.–20. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

17. What does the dotted line represent? a. The isosmotic line b. The line of regulation c. Ambient osmotic pressure d. The ideal osmotic pressure Answer: a Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 18. Which animal is a regulator? a. Green crab b. Mussel c. Shrimp d. Green crab and shrimp Answer: d Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 19. Based on the data shown, which animal can survive the widest range of salinity? a. Green crab b. Mussel c. Shrimp d. Green crab and shrimp Answer: a Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

20. Which animal is a conformer? a. Green crab b. Mussel c. Shrimp d. Green crab and mussel Answer: d Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 21. Seawater in the open ocean has a uniform salinity of _______ g/kg. a. 32–48 b. 30–32 c. 32–34 d. 34–46 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Natural Aquatic Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 22. The mix of freshwater with ocean water along coastlines is termed a. freshwater mixing. b. salt water mixing. c. brackish water. d. pond water.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Natural Aquatic Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 23. Humidity refers to the _______ content in the atmosphere. a. oxygen b. water c. carbon dioxide d. nitrogen Answer: b Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 24. Evaporation occurs if the partial pressure in a solution a. is below the partial pressure in the plasma. b. is below the partial pressure in the atmosphere. c. exceeds the partial pressure in the plasma. d. exceeds the partial pressure in the atmosphere.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

25. If the partial pressure of a substance in the atmosphere is 2x and the partial pressure of the same substance in the body fluid is 4x, the evaporation rate will a. stay the same. b. decrease. c. increase. d. cease.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 26. If the partial pressure of a substance in the atmosphere is 10 mmHg and the evaporation rate increases, then we can assume that the partial pressure of the same substance in the body fluid is _______ mmHg. a. 1 b. 8 c. 10 d. 25 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 27. Animal A has a body temperature of 35°C and animal B has a body temperature of 40°C. Both of the animals are in an environment at 40°C and 25% relative humidity.

Which of the two animals would lose more water? a. Animal A because the air it exhales has more water vapor. b. Animal B because the air it exhales has more water vapor. c. Animal A because the air it inhales has more water vapor. d. Animal B because the air it inhales has more water vapor.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing

28.–30. Refer to the formula below.

28. With regard to terrestrial animals, the rate of evaporation, J, will increase if the distance of solution from air, X, a. increases. b. decreases. c. does not change in value. d. increases and then decreases.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

29. The rate of evaporation, J, will increase if a. WVPs increases and WVPa decreases. b. WVPs decreases and WVPa increases. c. WVPs remains the same and WVPa increases. d. WVPs decreases and WVPa remains the same.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 30. Which of the following will not increase the rate of evaporation, J? a. An increase in K b. An increase in WVPs c. A decrease in WVPa d. An increase in X Answer: d Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 31. Which animal has the lowest K value? a. Reindeer b. Lizard c. Mouse d. Frog Answer: b Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 32. Assuming humidity is the only factor that affects evaporation, which animal will have the highest rate of evaporation? a. A mammal in a hot desert where humidity is very low b. A mammal in a cold desert where humidity is very low c. A lizard in a hot desert where humidity is very high d. A lizard in a cold desert where humidity is very high Answer: a Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 33. At which temperature will an animal whose body surface temperature is 32°C have the highest rate of condensation? a. 28°C b. 30°C c. 31°C d. 35°C Answer: d Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 34. Which of the following will most likely accompany evaporation? a. The blood will become hypertonic. b. The blood will become hypotonic. c. The blood tonicity will not change. d. The blood will become isotonic.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 35. The most fundamental function of the _______ is to prevent an animal from reaching an isosmotic line. a. liver b. small intestine c. kidney d. spleen Answer: c Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 36. In most aquatic animals, the organ whose function is equivalent to the mammalian kidney is the a. kidney. b. gill. c. mantle. d. aorta.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 37. An animal whose blood osmolarity is 100 mOsm and urine osmolarity is 80 mOSm will have _______ that is _______ to the plasma. a. urine; hyperosmotic b. urine; isosmotic c. blood; hyperosmotic d. blood; hyposmotic Answer: c Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 38. An animal whose blood osmolarity is 70 mOsm and urine osmolarity is 90 mOsm will have _______ that is _______ to the plasma. a. urine; hyperosmotic b. urine; isosmotic c. blood; hyperosmotic

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. blood; hyposmotic Answer: c Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 39. The range of osmotic U/P ratio in humans is a. 0.1 to 2. b. 0.1 to 3. c. 0.1 to 4. d. 0.1 to 5.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 40. Urine that is hyposmotic to the blood plasma contains a a. large amount of water. b. normal amount of water. c. low amount of water. d. high amount of solutes and waste product.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 41. An ionic U/P ratio that is greater than 1 indicates that the urine contains a. more sodium compared to the plasma. b. less sodium compared to the plasma. c. the same amount of sodium as the plasma does. d. more sodium compared to the plasma, however, the concentration is equal.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 42. If a human drank sea water, ingestion of which ion would be most responsible for tissue dehydration? a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Chloride d. Magnesium Answer: c Textbook Reference: Food and Drinking Water Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 43. Plants that tolerate and assimilate high concentrations of salt are called a. bryophytes. b. ferns. c. halophytes.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. stipes.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Food and Drinking Water Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 44. Which substance results in water formation when consumed? a. Proteins b. Lipids c. Carbohydrates d. Both lipids and carbohydrates Answer: d Textbook Reference: Food and Drinking Water Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 45. Which substance would cause the greatest loss of water when consumed? a. Proteins, because they require urea for catabolism. b. Carbohydrates, because they generate carbon dioxide. c. Lipids, because they generate nitrogenous wastes. d. Proteins, because they generate urea.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Food and Drinking Water Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 46. Your friend is on a high-protein diet. As a result of the higher protein intake, your friend will most likely a. lose water because water is important for protein storage. b. gain water because water is produced by the breakdown of protein. c. lose water because water is needed to excrete the excess urea produced from protein catabolism. d. gain water because excess protein causes water storage.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Food and Drinking Water Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 47. Water produced by cellular respiration is called _______ water. a. catabolic b. cellular respiration c. preformed d. metabolic Answer: d Textbook Reference: Metabolic Water Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 48. The fluid that directly bathes the cells is called a. cytoplasm. b. plasma.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. extracellular fluid. d. interstitial fluid.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Cell-Volume Regulation Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 49. Kangaroo rats and laboratory rats differ in obligatory water loss via a. respiration. b. urine. c. feces. d. urine and feces.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Metabolic Water Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 50. If cells are submerged in hypertonic solution they will a. expand. b. burst. c. maintain the same volume. d. shrivel.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Cell-Volume Regulation Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 51. If the osmotic U/P ratio is greater than 1, and the plasma osmolarity is not adjusted to match the interstitial fluid osmolarity, there is an increased tendency for water to move a. into cells, causing them to expand and eventually lyse. b. out of cells, causing them to shrivel. c. into cells, causing them to expand but not lyse since water will move out immediately. d. out of cells, but the cells will not shrivel because water will move in immediately.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Cell-Volume Regulation Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 52. If the osmotic U/P ratio is less than 1, and the plasma osmolarity is not adjusted to match the interstitial fluid osmolarity, there is an increased tendency for water to move a. into cells, causing them to expand and eventually lyse. b. out of cells, causing them to shrivel. c. into cells, causing them to expand but not lyse since water will move out immediately. d. out of cells, but the cells will not shrivel because water will move in immediately.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Cell-Volume Regulation Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 53. Which collection of solutes, when dissolved in 100 ml of distilled water, exerts the highest osmotic pressure?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. 1 mmol NaCl; 1mmol Mg2+ b. 2 mmol sucrose; 1 mmol Na+ c. 2 mmol glycine; 1 mmol taurine d. 2 mmol arginine; 1 mmol NaCl Answer: d Textbook Reference: Cell-Volume Regulation Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 54. In terms of osmotic pressure exerted, which comparison of dissolved chemicals is true? a. 1 mmol taurine = 1 mmol Na+ b. 1mmol of glycine > 1 mmol NaCl c. 1 mmol trimethylamine oxide > 1 mmol Na+ d. 1 mmol Mg2+ > 1 mmol Na+ Answer: a Textbook Reference: Cell-Volume Regulation Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 55.–56. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

55. The shaded area on the graph represents the a. Rate of enzyme catalysis. b. normal enzyme substrate affinity. c. normal range of osmolarity. d. optimal metabolic rate.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: From Osmolytes to Compatible Solutes: Terms and Concepts Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 56. In this figure, the solute that acts as a counteracting solute for urea is represented by the a. middle line. b. top line. c. bottom line. d. shaded area.

Answer: c

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: From Osmolytes to Compatible Solutes: Terms and Concepts Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing

Short Answer 1. Describe, in detail, how molting occurs in blue crabs.

Answer: Prior to the actual time of molting, seams in the exoskeleton are weakened under hormonal control. Then the body takes on excess water from the environment and swells.

The swelling causes the old exoskeleton to crack along its seams so the animal can crawl out. Because of its swelling with water, a crab’s body is bigger as soon as the animal crawls out of its old exoskeleton. Synthesis of the new, bigger exoskeleton can therefore begin immediately. Later, the crab will grow into its new exoskeleton, voiding excess water as it does so. In this way, it is protected inside its new exoskeleton while most of its growth takes place.

Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. When blue crabs start the molting process, their bodies swell with water. Explain the significance of this swelling.

Answer: a) The purpose of the swelling is to crack the old exoskeleton so the animal can crawl out. b) It gives the animal’s body a degree of structural rigidity while the exoskeleton is gone.

Without the swelling, the crab’s muscles would have nothing to pull against. c) The swelling allows a crab to start very quickly to make a new, larger exoskeleton.

Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. Explain the importance of electrolytes in the body fluids.

Answer: The ionic composition of body fluids affects the crucial three-dimensional molecular conformations of enzymes and other proteins. The ionic composition can indirectly affect pH. Ion concentrations in the intracellular and interstitial fluids are also important in maintaining correct electrical gradients across cell membranes that allow nerve-impulse transmission and muscle excitation.

Textbook Reference: The Importance of Animal Body Fluids Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. The rate of evaporation (J) depends on multiple factors. Define each factor and state how they are mathematically related.

Answer: The rate of evaporation (J) depends on differences in water vapor pressure.

Specifically, WVPs is the water vapor pressure of the solution, and WVPa is the water vapor pressure in the air.

J = K (WVPs – WVPa)/X Where X is the distance separating WVPs and WVPa, and K is a proportionality factor that

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

depends on the integument’s permeability.

Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. Explain what the osmotic U/P ratio is and what is indicated by different values.

Answer: The osmotic U/P ratio is the osmotic pressure of the urine divided by the osmotic pressure of the blood plasma. Urine may be isosmotic, hyperosmotic, or hyposmotic to the blood plasma. The osmotic U/P ratio reflects the osmoticity of the urine relative to the osmoticity of the blood. If U/P = 1, the urine is isosmotic to the plasma. If U/P < 1, the urine is hyposmotic to the plasma. If U/P > 1, the urine is hyperosmotic to the plasma. The kidneys of an animal typically control the U/P ratio and maintain it within a species-specific range.

Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 6. Explain how the kidneys in teleosts participate in ionic regulation but not osmotic regulation.

Answer: The kidneys can play a role in ionic regulation even when not playing any direct role in osmotic regulation. Marine teleosts are hyposmotic to the seawater in which they live. Therefore, they lose water osmotically to their environment and simultaneously gain ions by diffusion from the seawater. If unchecked, both of these processes tend to raise the osmotic pressure and the ion concentrations of their blood plasma. Marine teleosts produce a urine that is isosmotic to their plasma; their urine, therefore, plays no direct role in solving their osmotic regulation problem. However, their urine differs dramatically from their blood plasma in its solute composition. The excretion of urine by these fish therefore serves the important ionic regulatory role of keeping down the internal concentrations of ions which the fish tend to gain from seawater.

Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. Define and briefly explain obligatory respiratory water loss.

Answer: Obligatory respiratory water loss is the loss of water in the process of acquiring the O2 necessary for catabolism. Aerobic catabolism requires O2, and when animals breathe to obtain O2, they lose water by evaporation. The aerobic catabolism of all types of food molecules causes obligatory respiratory water loss. The magnitude of the loss depends on a species’ physiology of breathing and on the humidity of the ambient air.

Textbook Reference: Metabolic Water Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. Define and briefly explain the differences between obligatory urinary water loss and obligatory fecal water loss.

Answer: Obligatory urinary water loss is the loss of urine water that is mandated by the ingestion or catabolism of food molecules. Protein catabolism is the usual cause of obligatory urinary water loss. Protein catabolism (not carbohydrates or lipids) produces nitrogenous wastes (urea in mammals) that demand urine excretion. The excretion of nitrogenous wastes requires water excretion.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Obligatory fecal water loss is the loss of water that must accompany feces for food catabolism to take place. Obligatory fecal water loss occurs only when ingested foods are catabolized. Ingested foods usually contain preformed water. If an animal loses more water in its feces than it took in as preformed water with its ingested food, it incurs a net fecal water loss for that food.

Textbook Reference: Metabolic Water Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. In an environment in which the temperature is 25C, the relative humidity is 33%, the food available is air-dried barley grain, and there is no drinking water, a kangaroo rat will thrive, but a laboratory rat will not. Why? Answer: The kangaroo rat will live largely on metabolic water but the laboratory rat will deteriorate and ultimately require drinking water to survive. Though they both can produce similar amounts of metabolic water, the effects of catabolism on water balance are different between the two species. Exceptional water conservation in kangaroo rats permits them to live on metabolic water. Kangaroo rats conserve water more effectively than laboratory rats; they have lower urinary water losses because they can produce more concentrated urine. They also produce drier feces. When the obligatory water losses of the two species are subtracted from the gross amount of metabolic water produced, the kangaroo rats, because they conserve water so well, enjoy a net gain of metabolic water.

Textbook Reference: Metabolic Water Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 10. What are the mechanisms by which invertebrates’ cells regulate the quantity of dissolved organic molecules in their intracellular fluid when they are transferred into ambient water with increased salinity?

Answer: Invertebrates employ multiple processes that raise intracellular quantities of free amino acids; they decelerate amino acid catabolism, accelerate synthesis of new amino acids, accelerate breakdown of intracellular proteins to release amino acids, and accelerate active transport of amino acids into the cells.

Textbook Reference: Cell-Volume Regulation Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. A blue crab must molt about ______ times over the course of its life. a. 20 b. 25 c. 30 d. 35 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

2. Comparatively speaking, in what body compartment is water found in the lowest quantity? a. Interstitial fluid b. Extracellular fluid c. Cytoplasm d. Plasma Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Importance of Animal Body Fluids Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. A person who has 42 kg in water weight will have a total body weight of _______ kg. a. 42 b. 60 c. 70 d. 80 Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Importance of Animal Body Fluids Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 4. Typically, if the interstitial osmolarity is 400 mOsm, then blood osmolarity will be _______ mOsm. a. 200 b. 300 c. 400 d. 600 Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Relationships among Body Fluids Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 5. If ambient osmotic pressure increases, and an animal’s blood osmotic pressure increases at the same rate, the animal is a a. regulator. b. conformer. c. migrator. d. Insufficient information is provided to classify the animal.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 6. If you conduct an experiment in which you submerge shrimp in an environment where the ambient osmotic pressure keeps increasing, the blood osmotic pressure of the shrimp will a. increase. b. decrease. c. increase first and then decrease. d. not change.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. The matching of ionic concentration in the blood plasma to the ionic concentration of the external environment is known as a. ionic conformity. b. ionic regulation. c. volume regulation. d. volume conformity.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. The salinity of freshwater is less than _______ g/kg. a. 2 b. 1.5 c. 1 d. 0.5 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Types of Regulation and Conformity Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 9. As the difference in partial pressure increases across two solutions, the rate of evaporation a. stays the same. b. increases first slightly and then increases significantly. c. decreases. d. increases.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Consider two animals with different body temperatures: Animal A has a body temperature of 25°C and animal B has a body temperature of 30°C. Which of the two animals would exhale more water vapor? a. Animal A, because cooler air holds more water vapor. b. Animal B, because warmer air holds more water vapor. c. Both animals would exhale the same amount of water vapor. d. Animal B, because the air it inhales has more vapor pressure.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 11. Refer to the formula below. With regard to terrestrial animals, the rate of evaporation, J, will increase if the proportionality factor, K,

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. increases. b. decreases. c. does not change in value. d. There is no relationship between the distance of a solution from air and the rate of evaporation.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 12. Assuming humidity is the only factor that affects evaporation, which animal will have the highest rate of dehydration? a. A mammal in a hot desert with a core temperature of 37°C b. A mammal in a cold desert with a core temperature of 35°C c. A mammal in a hot desert with a core temperature of 40°C d. Mammals have the same rate of evaporation regardless of core temperature.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Natural Terrestrial Environments Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 13. When an animal loses water by evaporation, osmotic pressure in the blood a. decreases. b. does not change. c. increases. d. There is no correlation between evaporation and osmotic pressure.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 14. Which organ plays the most important role in regulating blood composition? a. Liver b. Spleen c. Small intestine d. Kidneys Answer: d Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 15. Urine that is hyperosmotic contains a a. large amount of water. b. normal amount of water. c. small amount of water. d. large amount of solutes and waste product.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. An ionic U/P ratio that is less than 1 indicates that the urine a. contains more sodium compared to the plasma. b. contains less sodium compared to the plasma. c. contains an equal amount of sodium relative to the plasma. d. appears to contain more sodium compared to the plasma; however, the concentrations are equal.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Organs of Blood Regulation Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 17. The amount of water formed per 1 gram of carbohydrates metabolized is _______ g. a. 0.40 b. 0.50 c. 0.56 d. 1.07 Answer: c Textbook Reference: Metabolic Water Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 18. When blood cells are submerged in a hypotonic solution they will a. expand. b. decrease in volume. c. maintain the same volume. d. shrivel.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Cell-Volume Regulation Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 19. Which ion is the principal solute used to regulate cell-volume in mammals? a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Calcium d. Protons Answer: b Textbook Reference: Cell-Volume Regulation Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 20. Which compound does not tend to stabilize enzymes in cells? a. Betaine b. Trimethylamine oxide c. Glycine d. Urea

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: From Osmolytes to Compatible Solutes: Terms and Concepts Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 28: Water and Salt Physiology of Animals in Their Environments TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. Marine teleosts that live in the ocean where the seawater has an osmotic pressure of 800 mOsm have an osmotic pressure of _______ mOsm. a. 900 b. 800 c. 600 d. 500 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 2. If the osmolarity of freshwater is 100 mOsm, the freshwater animals would regulate their blood to an osmolarity of about _______ mOsm. a. 80 b. 90 c. 100 d. 120 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 3. If the blood osmolarity of a freshwater animal is 100 mOsm, the freshwater osmolarity is about _______ mOsm. a. 90 b. 100 c. 110 d. 120 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 4. All freshwater animals regulate their blood osmotic pressures at levels ________ to fresh water. a. isosmotic b. hyperosmotic

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. hyposmotic d. isotonic Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. Freshwater animals are a. hyperosmotic regulators. b. hyposmotic regulators. c. isosmotic conformers. d. hyperosmotic conformers.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 6. Which organism has the highest concentration of sodium ions in its plasma? a. Freshwater mussels b. Crayfish c. Brown trout d. Frogs Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 7. Freshwater animals tend to a. lose water and gain ions. b. gain water and ions. c. gain water and lose ions. d. lose water and ions.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 8. If a crayfish’s antennal gland is damaged, which function is lost? a. Sensation b. Chemical detection c. Defenses d. Chemical consistency Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 9. The antennal gland opens at the base of the a. first antenna. b. second antenna. c. first limb.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. second limb.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 10. The integument of freshwater crayfish is no more than _______ as permeable to water and sodium as the integument of marine decapods of the same size. a. 10% b. 12% c. 15% d. 21% Answer: a Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 11. Fresh water animals’ integuments have low permeability so that a. ATP production is great enough to maintain normal blood composition. b. the rate of ion exchange is maximized without the expenditure of energy. c. the rate of water exchange is minimized without the expenditure of energy. d. ATP production is great enough to maintain normal intracellular fluid concentration.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 12. Gills in freshwater crayfish provide a(n) a. advantage for oxygen intake but a disadvantage for water intake. b. advantage for oxygen intake and an advantage for water intake. c. disadvantage for oxygen intake and a disadvantage for water intake. d. disadvantage for oxygen intake but an advantage for water intake.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 13. Which animal has the lowest osmotic U/P ratio? a. Clawed toad b. Goldfish c. Mosquito larva d. Crayfish Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14. Which organelle is the most important in moving sodium and chloride in freshwater animals? a. Nucleus b. Mitochondria

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. Rough endoplasmic reticulum d. Lysosomes Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 15. In frogs, if the sodium concentration in the ambient environment increased, sodium intake from the environment would a. continue to occur by diffusion. b. continue to occur by facilitated diffusion. c. continue to occur by primary active transport. d. cease to occur by diffusion.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 16. In frogs, if the chloride concentration in the ambient environment increased, chloride intake from the environment would a. continue to occur by diffusion. b. continue to occur by facilitated diffusion. c. continue to occur by active transport. d. cease to occur by diffusion.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 17. Due to chloride active transport in the gills of freshwater fish, the epithelial cells of the gills a. become increasingly negative because chloride ions are negative. b. become increasingly positive because chloride ions are positive. c. are neutral because each chloride ion is exchanged with a sodium ion. d. are neutral because each chloride ion is exchanged with a bicarbonate ion.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 18. Due to sodium active transport in gills of freshwater fish, the epithelial cells of the gills a. become increasingly negative because sodium ions are negative. b. become increasingly positive because sodium ions are positive. c. are neutral because each sodium ion is exchanged with a proton. d. are neutral because each sodium ion is exchanged with a chloride ion.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

19. The bicarbonate that is pumped out of the gills, from freshwater fish into the water, comes from a. carbon dioxide. b. consumption of food rich in sodium bicarbonate. c. protein metabolism. d. glycolysis.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 20. Which statement about sodium movement in frogs is true? a. Sodium moves across the skin by energy-requiring mechanisms. b. Sodium movement regulates acid–base levels. c. Sodium movement is directly associated with bicarbonate movement. d. Sodium moves across the skin by energy-requiring mechanisms, and its movement regulates acid–base levels.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 21. Which statement about chloride movement in frogs is false? a. Chloride moves across the skin by energy-requiring mechanisms. b. Chloride movement regulates to acid–base levels. c. Chloride movement is directly associated with bicarbonate movement. d. Chloride movement is directly associated with proton movement.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 22. In adult freshwater fish, the major site of sodium exchange is the a. kidney. b. gill. c. heart. d. skin.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 23. In early freshwater fish larvae, the major site of chloride exchange is the a. kidney. b. gill. c. skin. d. heart.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

24. In adult freshwater teleosts, ion exchange occurs in the a. gill lamellae. b. gill arches. c. gill filaments. d. skin.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 25. Based on the immunohistochemistry method used, the most common proteins found in the cells of gills in freshwater teleosts are a. Na+–K+-ATPases. b. Na+/Cl– cotransporters. c. Na+/Cl–/K+ cotransporters. d. Na+–K+-ATPases and Na+/Cl–/K+ cotransporters.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 26. Which statement about chloride cells is false? a. They produce a lot of carbon dioxide. b. They take up a lot of nutrients, such as glucose and fatty acids. c. They are surrounded by pavement cells. d. They are found in the gills of freshwater fish in greater quantities than pavement cells.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 27. If you were to apply an inhibitor that shuts down the mitochondria, what would occur in the gills of freshwater fish? a. Chloride cells would cease to function. b. Pavement cells would increase in function. c. Sodium uptake would be unaffected. d. Urination would cease.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 28. If a researcher applies BAPTA, a calcium chelator (binds calcium), to the environment of freshwater fish, the a. number of chloride cells in the fish will increase. b. number of chloride cells in the fish will decrease. c. number of chloride cells in the fish will remain the same. d. oxygen uptake ability in the fish will increase.

Answer: a

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 4. Applying 29. MRCs are abundant with Na+–K+-ATPases. In each cell, there are about _______ Na+–K+-ATPase molecules. a. 100,000 b. 1,000,000 c. 10,000,000 d. 100,000,000 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 30. You perform an immunocytochemistry technique on fish MRCs and you observe that the Cl–/HCO3– countertransport protein is expressed in greater quantities than normal.

The fish must have been living in a(n) _______ environment. a. acidic b. basic c. pure water d. neutral Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 31. You conduct an experiment in which you make the environment of freshwater fish highly basic. You then isolate the ionocytes and conduct an immunocytochemistry technique. Under these conditions, you would be most likely to observe _______ in Cl– /HCO3– protein expression. a. a drastic increase b. a drastic decrease c. a slight decrease d. no change in Answer: a Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 32. Which statement best describes the movement of sodium in freshwater fish? a. Sodium is lost by excretion in urine (2–3 µmole per day) and diffusion across the body (240 µmole per day). b. Sodium is lost by excretion in urine (240 µmole per day) and diffusion across the body (2–3 µmole per day). c. Sodium is lost by excretion in urine (2–3 µmole per day) and diffusion across the body (2–3 µmole per day). d. Sodium is lost by excretion in urine (100 µmole per day) and diffusion across the body (200 µmole per day).

Answer: a

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 33. Freshwater fish lose about _______ µmoles of sodium per day. a. 100 b. 200 c. 240 d. 260 Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 34. Squids’ inner body fluid is a. hyposmotic to seawater. b. hyperosmotic to seawater. c. isosmotic to seawater. d. sometimes hyperosmotic and sometimes hyposmotic to seawater.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 35. If an octopus has an osmolarity of 300 mOsm, the environment it lives in must have an osmolarity of ________ mOsm. a. 150 b. 200 c. 250 d. 300 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 36. If the sodium concentration in a squid’s body fluid is 456 mmol/kg of H2O, the intracellular sodium concentration is _______ mmol/kg of H2O. a. 5 b. 300 c. 456 d. 1056 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 37. If the potassium concentration in a squid’s body fluid is 22 mmol/kg of H2O, the intracellular potassium concentration is _______ mmol/kg of H2O a. 5 b. 12 c. 22

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. 400 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 38. The blood osmotic pressure of marine teleosts is about _____ mOsm _____ than the environmental osmotic pressure. a. 300; lower b. 300; higher c. 600; higher d. 600; lower Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 39. Which statement regarding ionic movement across the gills of marine animals is true? a. Sodium moves faster than chloride because of the overall positive charge inside the gill epithelium. b. Sodium moves faster than chloride because of the overall negative charge inside the gill epithelium. c. Sodium moves slower than chloride because of the overall positive charge inside the gill epithelium. d. Sodium moves slower than chloride because of the overall negative charge inside the gill epithelium.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 40. The chloride channels in the mitochondria-rich cells of marine teleosts are located on the _______ membrane(s). a. apical b. basolateral c. blood cell d. apical and basolateral Answer: a Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 41. In mitochondria-rich cells of marine teleosts, Cl– enters the cell through the a. apical membrane by simple diffusion and exits via the basolateral membrane by secondary active transport. b. basolateral membrane by simple diffusion and exits via the apical membrane by secondary active transport. c. basolateral membrane by secondary active transport and exits via the apical membrane by simple diffusion. d. apical membrane by secondary active transport and exits via the basolateral membrane

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

by simple diffusion.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 42. Which animal is not a hyposmotic regulator? a. Arthropod that lives in saline water b. Marine reptile c. Marine mammal d. Marine echinoderm Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 43. Species that are able to survive only within a narrow range of ambient salinities are called a. conformers. b. stenohaline. c. euryhaline. d. xeric.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals That Face Changes in Salinity Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 44. Animals that leave a saltwater environment to breed in a freshwater environment are known as a. anadromous. b. catadromous. c. anadromous and euryhaline. d. catadromous and stenohaline.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals That Face Changes in Salinity Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 45. Animals that leave a fresh water environment to breed in a salt water environment are known as a. anadromous. b. catadromous. c. anadromous and stenohaline. d. catadromous and stenohaline.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals That Face Changes in Salinity Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 46. If you take a freshwater animal and transfer it to seawater for 60 days, what do you expect to see when you perform immunocytochemistry?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. Increased aquaporin expression in the intestinal epithelia, and decreased NKCC expression in the gill lamellae b. Increased aquaporin expression in the intestinal epithelia, and increased NKCC expression in the gill lamellae c. Decreased aquaporin expression in the intestinal epithelia, and increased NKCC expression in the gill lamellae d. Decreased aquaporin expression in the intestinal epithelia, and decreased NKCC expression in the gill lamellae Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals That Face Changes in Salinity Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 47.–49. Refer to the figure below.

47. How would you categorize the blue crab? a. Hyperosmostic regulator b. Hyper-isosmotic regulator c. Hypo-isosmotic regulator d. Hyperosmotic conformer Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals That Face Changes in Salinity Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 48. Overall, which animal represented in the graph is the best osmotic regulator? a. Blue crab b. Lined shore crab c. Brine shrimp d. Carp Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals That Face Changes in Salinity Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

49. Taking into account both numerical scales and shape on both graphs, which line most closely represents that of a Pacific salmon? a. Blue crab b. Carp c. Fiddler crab d. Brine shrimp Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals That Face Changes in Salinity Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 50. Animals that can live in dry, water poor environments are called a. anadromous. b. xeric. c. catadromus. d. stenohaline.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Responses to Drying of the Habitat in Aquatic Animals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 51. Which substance produces nitrogen waste when catabolized? a. Lipids b. Carbohydrates c. Proteins d. Triglycerides Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Fundamental Physiological Principles Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 52. Which animal has the highest weight-specific total rate of evaporative water loss? a. Screech owl b. Zebra finch c. Budgerigar d. House wren Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Fundamental Physiological Principles Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 53.–54. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

53. The line represented by I represents a. total evaporative water loss. b. cutaneous water loss. c. respiratory water loss. d. metabolic water production.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Fundamental Physiological Principles Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 54. The line represented by II represents a. total evaporative water loss. b. cutaneous water loss. c. respiratory water loss. d. metabolic water production.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Fundamental Physiological Principles Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 55. In terrestrial amphibians, the hormone ADH (antidiuretic hormone) is released from the a. anterior pituitary. b. hypothalamus. c. neurohypophysis. d. thyroid.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Case Studies Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 56.–58. Refer to the figure below.

56. What is the greatest contributor to total water loss in this animal? a. Humidity b. Feces c. Urine d. Evaporation Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Case Studies Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 57. Why is preformed water in food not a consistent value? a. Humidity affects the amount of water in the food. b. Increased metabolic rate affects the water absorbed from the food. c. Metabolic water is decreased in deceased humidity. d. Evaporative water loss increases in decreasing humidity.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Case Studies © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 58. Based on the figure, is there a point where this animal is out of water balance? a. No, this animal is constantly in water balance. b. Yes, but only at high humidity. c. Yes, this animal is constantly out of water balance. d. Yes, but only at very low humidity.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Case Studies Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

Short Answer 1. List and briefly explain three factors that determine the rate of passive exchange of water and ions.

Answer: 1) The magnitudes of the osmotic and ionic gradients between the blood and ambient water; 2) the permeability of an animal’s outer body covering to water and ions; 3) the surface area across which exchange is occurring.

Any change (increase or decrease) in these factors, will have an effect on the rate of passive exchange.

Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Why is the permeability of a freshwater animal’s integument to water and ions relatively low?

Answer: In freshwater animals, evolution selected for this low permeability because it reduces the rates of passive water and ion exchange and thus reduces the energy costs of maintaining a normal blood composition. Low permeability slows the processes that tend to bring the blood and ambient water to equilibrium.

Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. Describe the structure of the gills and explain another role they serve, in addition to being respiratory organs.

Answer: The gills of teleost fish carry out two major functions that serve homeostasis. In both freshwater and seawater, the gills function both as ion-regulatory organs and as gasexchange organs. The gills are the principle sites where Na+ and Cl– are taken up from freshwater. The microscopic structure of the filament consists of a thin, principal lamellar element bearing many folds called the secondary lamellae. The secondary lamellae are highly vascularized, increasing the surface area across which O2 and ions can move inward from the ambient water to the blood.

Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

4. Explain, in detail, the structure of gills in freshwater fish, from the largest structure to the smallest. Include the function of each structure.

Answer: Within the feather of the gill, the microscopic structure of the filament consists of a thin, principal lamellar element supporting many folds known as the secondary lamellae. The secondary lamellae greatly increase the surface area across which O2 can diffuse from the ambient water into the blood. Within the cells of the lamellae there are abundant membrane proteins that are instrumental in ion transport between the blood and ambient water. Ion transport proteins, such as Na+–K+-ATPase and Na+, K+, Cl– cotransporters, are instrumental in maintaining chemical consistency of the blood.

Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. Explain how immunocytochemistry is used to study ion transport in animals.

Answer: Immunocytochemistry, applied to transport proteins, is the principal method currently used to study gill ion-transport functions. Two fluor-labeled antibodies are used: one to bind Na+–K+-ATPase and another to bind the cotransporter protein NKCC-1.

A gill filament is exposed to these antibodies, and then the filament is scanned with lasers that excite the fluors. The antibody against Na+–K+-ATPase glows one color, whereas that against NKCC-1 glows another color. An image of the fluorescing gill filament is taken and evaluated. One color indicates where Na+–K+-ATPase is located, and the other indicates where NKCC-1 is located. When both membrane proteins occur in approximately the same location, a third color, resulting from the combination of the two colors, appears.

Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. What conditions lead to an increase in the number of MRCs in the gills of fish?

Answer: The number of MRCs in the gill epithelium of a fish increase in alkalosis (excess blood bicarbonate) conditions and the countertransport protein, Cl– /HCO3–, which exports HCO3– from the body fluids in exchange for Cl–, is upregulated. Low or decreased ambient Ca2+ concentrations also are associated with an increase in the number of MRCs in the gills.

Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. Why do freshwater fish make dilute urine?

Answer: To save energy. When producing dilute urine, the kidneys start with a fluid that is as concentrated as blood plasma and actively extract Na+ and Cl– from it, lowering its ion concentrations. In contrast, the concentrations of Na+ and Cl– in the ambient water are always relatively low. Active uptake of Na+ or Cl– from a relatively concentrated source requires less energy per ion than uptake from a dilute source. Thus, removing ions from urine prior to excretion is less costly than replacing the same ions from the ambient water.

Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

8. Explain how teleosts can drink hyperosmotic seawater to replenish water loss by diffusion and excretion.

Answer: In several species studied, ingested seawater travels through the esophagus, stomach, and anterior intestine, and Na+, Cl–, and H2O diffuse into the blood across the gut wall. Gradually, the ingested seawater in the gut expands in volume, becoming diluted. Na+ and Cl– are actively transported out of the gut into the blood. This active uptake of Na+ and Cl– into the blood creates conditions that favor the osmotic uptake of water.

In other species, a process called near-isosmotic fluid transport occurs, in which the gut fluids and blood plasma remain approximately isosmotic as water moves briskly by osmosis into the blood; in this case, highly localized osmotic gradients within the intestinal epithelium are involved in translating ion uptake into water uptake. Aquaporins in the intestinal epithelia are instrumental in facilitating water uptake from the gut.

Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Explain how rate of water loss is correlated with oxygen consumption.

Answer: Rate of water loss is correlated with oxygen consumption because of respiratory evaporative water loss. This rate depends on an animal’s rate of O2 consumption and the amount of water lost per unit of O2 the animal consumes.

Rate of water loss (mg H2O/hour) = rate of O2 consumption (mL O2/hour)  water loss per unit of O2 consumed (mg H2O/mL O2) An animal’s rate of metabolism is thus a major determinant of its rate of evaporative water loss. The amount of water lost per unit of O2 consumed is affected by the temperature of the exhaled air (lower exhalant temperatures mean lower water loss) and the efficiency of the breathing organs at removing O2 from inhaled air.

Textbook Reference: Responses to Drying of the Habitat in Aquatic Animals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Explain how amphibians compensate for water loss.

Answer: Amphibians have an integument that poses little barrier to evaporative water loss. They incorporate waste nitrogen (from their high-protein diet) mostly into urea, a highly soluble compound that requires considerable amounts of water for its excretion.

Although amphibians are notably adept at shutting off urine outflow when faced with dehydration, they are unable, when they do excrete urine, to produce urine that is more concentrated than their blood plasma. Most amphibians compensate for this by absorbing water across their skin. Many species can gain water at substantial rates by pressing their pelvic patch against moist soil. The water permeability of the pelvic patch is modulated by upregulating and downregulating aquaporins in the cell membranes.

Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Case Studies Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

1. Which organism has the highest concentration of potassium ions in their plasma? a. Freshwater mussels b. Brown trout c. Crayfish d. Frogs Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Which structure in crayfish is analogous to the kidney? a. Carapace b. Antennal gland c. Antenna d. Heart Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. Which animal has the highest osmotic U/P ratio? a. Clawed toad b. Goldfish c. Crayfish d. Snail Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. Freshwater animals transport sodium into their body from the environment via a. simple diffusion. b. facilitated diffusion. c. passive transport. d. active transport.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. If the sodium concentration in a frog’s environment were to decrease to 0.01 mM, sodium intake from the environment would a. continue to occur by diffusion. b. continue to occur by facilitated diffusion. c. continue to occur by active transport. d. cease to occur by diffusion.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

6. If the chloride concentration in a frog’s environment were to decrease to 0.01 mM, chloride intake from the environment would a. continue to occur by diffusion. b. continue to occur by facilitated diffusion. c. continue to occur by active transport. d. cease to occur by diffusion.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 7. The excess protons that fish gills pump into the environment are the product of a. carbon dioxide reacting with water. b. protein metabolism. c. catabolism. d. glycolysis.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 8. In adult freshwater fish, chloride exchange with the environment occurs primarily in the a. kidneys. b. heart. c. gills. d. skin.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 9. In adult freshwater teleosts, gas exchange occurs in the a. skin. b. gill arches. c. gill filaments. d. lamellae.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 10. Which organelle is most abundant in chloride cells? a. Golgi apparatus b. Mitochondria c. Rough endoplasmic reticulum d. Ribosomes Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

11. If you were to decrease the calcium concentration in a freshwater fish’s environment, a. the number of its chloride cells would increase. b. the number of its chloride cells would decrease. c. the number of its chloride cells would remain the same. d. its oxygen uptake ability would increase.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Animals in Freshwater Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 12. Which organism is most hyposmotic to seawater? a. Mussel b. Sea urchin c. Hagfish d. Teleost Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 13. In freshwater teleosts, blood osmotic pressure is _______ mOsm _______ than the osmotic pressure of freshwater. a. 300; lower b. 300; higher c. 600; higher d. 600; lower Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14. In fish, movement of sodium across the gills depends on a. permeability and concentration gradient. b. permeability, concentration gradient, and electrical gradient. c. concentration gradient and electrical gradient. d. permeability and electrical gradient.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 15. NKCCs in the mitochondria-rich cells of marine teleost are located a. on the apical membrane. b. on the basolateral membrane. c. on the apical and basal membranes. d. in the cytoplasm and on the apical and basolateral membranes.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

16. In mitochondria-rich cells of marine teleosts, chloride moves by a. primary active transport, using ATP directly. b. secondary active transport, using ATP directly. c. secondary active transport, using ATP indirectly. d. simple diffusion—no need for ATP. Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals in the Ocean Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 17. Species that are able to survive within a broad range of ambient salinity are called a. conformers. b. stenohaline. c. euryhaline. d. xeric.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals That Face Changes in Salinity Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 18. Animals that ascend rivers from the ocean to breed are a. anadromous. b. catadromus. c. stenohaline. d. osmoconformers.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Animals That Face Changes in Salinity Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 19. Which animal has the lowest weight-specific total rate of evaporative water loss? a. White-crowned sparrow b. Zebra finch c. Gambel’s quail d. Ostrich Answer: d Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Fundamental Physiological Principles Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 20.–21. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

20. What is this figure measuring? a. Total evaporative water loss b. Mass-specific metabolic rate c. Urine osmotic pressure d. Metabolic water production Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Fundamental Physiological Principles Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 21. Where would you plot a goose on this figure? a. Far below the black line, at the average weight of a goose b. On the black line directly above the beaver c. Close to the Kirk’s dik-dik d. On the black line directly below Kirk’s dik-dik Answer: a Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Fundamental Physiological Principles Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 22. In an experiment in which additional aquaporins are inserted onto the pelvic patch membrane of a frog, what is most likely to occur? a. Water permeability will remain the same. b. Water permeability will decrease.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. Water permeability will increase. d. Salt permeability will increase.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Animals on Land: Case Studies Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 29: Kidneys and Excretion (with Notes on Nitrogen Excretion) TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. Which statement about the kidneys is false? a. They produce and eliminate aqueous solutions derived from the blood plasma. b. They produce and eliminate watery solutions derived from the extracellular fluid. c. They excrete solutes dissolved in water. d. They produce urine that contains high levels of creatinine, which is a direct product of lipid metabolism.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. Which substance is typically found in urine at the highest concentration? a. Sodium originated from plasma b. Sodium generated from extracellular fluid c. Urea generated from protein metabolism d. Phosphate generated from energy production Answer: c Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 3. Which of the following would not be found in urine produced by healthy kidneys? a. Potassium b. Proteins c. Phosphate d. Creatinine Answer: b Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. After the kidneys, the _______ contribute(s) most to filtration. a. lungs b. liver c. heart d. spleen Answer: c

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 5. Podocytes are found in the a. glomerulus. b. Bowman’s capsule. c. renal corpuscle. d. glomerulus and the renal corpuscle.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. A molecule greater than _______ kilodaltons cannot pass through the nephrons. a. 6.5 b. 9 c. 9.5 d. 12.5 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 7. Which statement about amphibian nephrons is false? a. Nephrons start at Bowman’s capsule. b. Filtration occurs in the nephrons. c. Nephron walls consist of a single layer of epithelia. d. The loops of Henle are a few mm in length.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. Filtration slits are found in a. the glomerulus. b. Bowman’s capsule. c. the renal corpuscle. d. both the glomerulus and the renal corpuscle.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Glomerular filtration rate in vertebrates is defined as the rate of _______ of an animal’s kidney tubules. a. secondary urine formation by all b. secondary urine formation by one c. primary urine formation by all d. primary urine formation by one Answer: c

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. If the blood pressure in the glomerular capillary is +5 kPa, the colloid osmotic pressure is –2.5 kPa, and the capsular fluid hydrostatic pressure is –2 kPa, then the filtration pressure is _______ kPa. a. 0.5 b. 4.5 c. 5.0 d. 5.5 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 11. If the filtration pressure is +7 kPa, the colloid osmotic pressure is –3 kPa, and the capsular fluid hydrostatic pressure is –2 kPa, then the blood pressure in the glomerular capillaries is _______ kPa. a. 2 b. 3 c. 8 d. 12 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 12. If the blood pressure in the glomerular capillary is +10 kPa, the filtration pressure is +6 kPa, and the capsular fluid hydrostatic pressure is –2 kPa, then the colloid osmotic pressure is _______ kPa. a. –2 b. –4 c. 2 d. 4 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 13. If the blood pressure in the glomerular capillary is +14 kPa, the filtration pressure is +8 kPa, and the colloid osmotic pressure is –4 kPa, then the capsular fluid hydrostatic pressure is _______ kPa. a. –2 b. –4 c. 4 d. 10 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

14. The _______ system(s) effect(s) the change in flow resistance in the glomerular blood pressure. a. nervous b. endocrine c. digestive d. nervous and endocrine Answer: d Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 15. In amphibians, the first part of the nephron is a. the proximal convoluted tubule. b. Bowman’s capsule. c. the Loop of Henle. d. the collecting duct.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. The last part of the nephron in amphibians is a. Bowman’s capsule. b. the Loop of Henle. c. the distal convoluted tubule. d. the collecting duct.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 17. The filtered fluid that forms in the nephrons will first empty into the a. urethra. b. bladder. c. ureter. d. distal convoluted tubule.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 18. In the proximal convoluted tubules of the nephrons of amphibians, sodium is reabsorbed via a. passive transport. b. active transport. c. simple diffusion. d. active transport and passive transport.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 19. Which substance(s) may be found in the proximal convoluted tubule in the nephrons of amphibians? a. Sodium b. Sodium and chloride c. Glucose d. Sodium, glucose, and chloride Answer: d Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 20. In the nephrons of amphibians, glucose in the proximal convoluted tubule returns to the blood by a. simple diffusion. b. facilitated diffusion. c. primary active transport. d. secondary active transport.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 21. Which values reflect the expected glucose concentrations (in mM) in micropuncture samples collected from the nephron in the following order: Bowman’s capsule, beginning of proximal convoluted tubule, intermediate segment, middle of distal convoluted tubule, and beginning of collecting duct? a. 0; 1; 2; 3; 2 b. 2; 2; 0; 0; 0 c. 0; 0; 0; 0; 0 d. 2; 2; 2; 0; 0 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 22. Which values reflect the expected amino acid concentrations (in mM) in micropuncture samples collected from the nephron in the following order: Bowman’s capsule, beginning of proximal convoluted tubule, intermediate segment, middle of distal convoluted tubule, and beginning of collecting duct? a. 0; 1; 2; 4; 2 b. 0; 0; 0; 0; 0 c. 1; 1; 0; 0; 0 d. 2; 2; 1; 0; 0 Answer: c Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

23. Which values reflect the expected albumen concentrations (in mM) in micropuncture samples collected from the nephron in the following order: Bowman’s capsule, beginning of proximal convoluted tubule, intermediate segment, middle of distal convoluted tubule, and beginning of collecting duct? a. 0; 0; 0; 0; 0 b. 0; 1; 2; 4; 2 c. 1; 1; 0; 0; 0 d. 2; 2; 1; 0; 0 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 24. ADH is released from the a. anterior pituitary. b. posterior pituitary. c. kidneys. d. hypothalamus.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 25. If you inject a known diuretic into a frog, the volume of its a. urine will increase. b. urine will decrease. c. plasma will increase. d. plasma will remain the same.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 26. In amphibians, ADH acts on which segment of the nephron to increase reabsorption? a. Proximal convoluted tubule b. Distal convoluted tubule c. Ascending loop of Henle d. Descending loop of Henle Answer: b Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 27. Injection of an ADH inhibitor into a frog causes _______ at the distal convoluted tubule than would occur without such an injection. a. reabsorption of more waste b. secretion of more sodium c. reabsorption of less water d. secretion of less water Answer: c

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 28. If an ADH blocker is administered to an amphibian, the volume of the urine will _______ and the volume of the blood will _______. a. increase; increase b. decrease; increase c. increase; decrease d. remain the same; increase Answer: c Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 29. Administering a substance that enhances the release of ADH to a frog will cause the distal convoluted tubule to a. reabsorb more water than normal. b. reabsorb less water than normal. c. secrete less water than normal. d. secrete more sodium than normal.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 30. In mammals, the length of the loop of Henle in nephrons is correlated with the a. size of the kidney. b. thickness of the renal medulla. c. thickness of the renal pelvis. d. length of the renal cortex.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 31. In mammals, the nonurea solutes are trapped in the collecting duct because the collecting duct is a. permeable to both water and nonurea solutes. b. impermeable to both water and nonurea solutes. c. impermeable to nonurea solutes but permeable to water. d. permeable to nonurea solutes but impermeable to water.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 32. In mammals, the medullary interstitial fluid is _______ to the fluid in the collecting duct. a. hyperosmotic b. isosmotic

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. hyposmotic d. isoionic and hyposmotic Answer: a Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 33. The wall of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to a. sodium. b. potassium. c. chloride. d. water.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 34. A direct effect of the active transport of NaCl in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is that the fluid in the _______ becomes _______. a. lumen; hyposmotic b. lumen; hyperosmotic c. interstitial fluid; hyperosmotic d. interstitial fluid; isosmotic Answer: a Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 35. During active transport of NaCl in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, the concentration of NaCl in the lumen a. increases. b. decreases. c. stays the same. d. decreases at first and then increases.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 36. During active transport of NaCl in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, the concentration of NaCl in the interstitial fluid a. increases. b. decreases. c. stays the same. d. decreases at first and then increases.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 37. In the collecting duct, urea reabsorption is mediated by

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. the lipid portion of the plasma membrane. b. antiport proteins. c. symport proteins that are regulated by aldosterone. d. protein transporters.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 38. Do ATP blockers directly affect urea reabsorption in the collecting duct? a. Yes, urea reabsorption depends on active transport via protein pumps. b. Yes, urea reabsorption depends on active transport via protein transporters. c. No, urea reabsorption is facilitated by protein pumps. d. No, urea reabsorption is facilitated by protein channels.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 39. If the urea concentration in the interstitial fluid around the collecting duct is increased, urea reabsorption will a. continue because it depends on active transport. b. continue because it depends on passive transport. c. cease because it depends on active transport. d. cease, because reabsorption depends on passive transport. Instead, urea secretion will occur.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 40. Which statement about urea processing in the nephron is true? a. More urea is excreted than filtered, and some of the urea that gets reabsorbed accumulates in the medulla. b. More urea is reabsorbed than excreted, and some of the urea gets filtered. c. More urea is filtered than reabsorbed, and all of the urea gets excreted. d. More urea is filtered than excreted, and some of the urea that gets reabsorbed accumulates in the medulla.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 41. If a drug that blocks Na–K–2Cl cotransporters is administered, blood pressure will _______ and plasma sodium concentration will _______. a. increase; increase b. decrease; increase c. decrease; decrease d. increase; decrease Answer: c

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 42. If a person in antidiuresis produces urine with a concentration of 1200 mOsm, his plasma osmolarity is about _______ mOsm. a. 1200 b. 600 c. 300 d. 2400 Answer: c Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 43. If a person in diuresis produces urine with a concentration of 50 mOsm, her plasma osmolarity is about _______ mOsm. a. 250 b. 500 c. 600 d. 50 Answer: a Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 44. ADH acts specifically on the _______ by _______. a. collecting duct; removing aquaporin channels from the membrane. b. collecting duct; inserting aquaporin channels into the membrane. c. loop of Henle; removing aquaporin channels from the membrane. d. loop of Henle; inserting aquaporin channels into the membrane.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 45. The Na–K–2Cl cotransporter in the nephron is located on the a. apical side and is electroneutral. b. apical side and has a net charge of +1. c. basolateral side and is electroneutral. d. basolateral side and has a net charge of +1.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 46. If a new protein, aptly named Na–2K–Cl cotransporter, is introduced to the apical side of the nephron in mammals, which of the following statements about this protein would be true? a. The protein has a net charge of +1. b. The protein has a net charge of +2.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. The protein has a net charge of –1. d. The protein has a net charge of –2.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 47.–51. Refer to the figure below.

47. Where is K+ most likely to be secreted into the tubular fluid? a. II b. III c. IV d. V Answer: c Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 48. Where is most of the glucose reabsorbed from the tubular fluid? a. I

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. II c. III d. IV Answer: a Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 49. During moderate diuresis, what is the most likely osmotic pressure in the tubular fluid at V? a. 300 mOsm b. 600 mOsm c. 75 mOsm d. 5 mOsm Answer: c Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 50. Where would amino acids be found in the tubular fluid? a. I b. I and II c. I, II, and III d. At all areas in the tubule Answer: a Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 51. Where would sodium be moving across the apical membranes of the cells lining the tubules? a. I b. I and II c. I, II, and III d. At all areas in the tubule Answer: d Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 52.–56. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

52. What portion of the kidney tubule does the diagram represent? a. Proximal convoluted tubule b. Descending loop of Henle c. Ascending loop of Henle d. Collecting duct Answer: a Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 53. At which numeral is sodium moving across the membrane? a. I b. I and II c. I, II, and III d. I, II, and IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 54. Which process or processes are using the sodium gradient to bring substances into the cell? a. I b. I and II c. I, II, and III d. I, II, and IV Answer: a Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

55. Where is secondary active transport of glucose represented? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: a Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 56. Which numeral represents a transporter that could change the pH of the inside of the cell? a. I b. I and II c. II and III d. II and IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 57. Which organisms have loopless nephrons? a. Some birds b. Nonavian reptiles c. Some birds and all amphibians d. Some birds and all nonavian reptiles Answer: d Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Other Vertebrates Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 58. Coelomosacs are found in a. birds. b. crustaceans. c. marine fish. d. amphibians.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Decapod Crustaceans Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 59. In insects, KCl is a. secreted passively. b. secreted actively. c. absorbed passively. d. absorbed actively.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Insects Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

60. The principal waste product in ureotelic animals is a. uric acid. b. urea. c. ammonia. d. ammonium.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Nitrogen Disposition and Excretion Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

Short Answer 1. Kidney structure may vary from one species to another; however, all kidneys serve the same purpose. What are the common elements and functions of the kidney?

Answer: All kidneys consist of tubular elements that discharge directly or indirectly to the outside world. They maintain water balance by producing and eliminating aqueous solutions derived from the blood plasma or other extracellular body fluids. Kidneys maintain the homeostasis of various solute concentrations in the plasma and interstitial fluid. Kidneys control the volume of the blood plasma and other extracellular body fluids by controlling excretion of solutes and water.

Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Regulating the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is very important in animals. Explain how animals adjust their GFR. Answer: The principal way GFR is adjusted is via the regulation of the function of each individual nephron, ultimately influencing the entire kidney average GFR. Regulation is achieved by modulating vasomotor changes in the diameter (and hence flow resistance) of the glomerular afferent capillary. Vasomotor changes of this sort are controlled by the autonomic nervous system and specific circulating hormones. Regulation of GFR in the nephron also occurs by changes in the permeability of the nephron to water or certain solutes.

Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. Which solutes are reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubules in the nephrons of amphibians and how is each reabsorbed?

Answer: Sodium (Na+) and chloride (Cl–) reabsorption occur at the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT). Na+ is actively reabsorbed across the walls of the proximal tubule, whereas Cl– is passively reabsorbed. The epithelial walls of the PCT are permeable to water to facilitate osmosis. Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed into the cells of the PCT by secondary active transport, driven by the primary active transport of Na+.

Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

4. Using sodium as an example, discuss the differences between concentration and quantity.

Answer: Quantity is an absolute measure, whereas concentration is a relative measure (quantity of solute relative to quantity of water). As a general principle, measures of quantity provide the most direct insight into questions of salt and water balance. The concentrations of Na+, Cl–, and water in the tubular fluid remain, on average, unchanged.

Yet, the quantities of these substances exiting the proximal tubule are much lower than those entering. Measures of quantity and concentration are informative, although in different ways. For instance, to determine whether an animal is in Na+ balance, you would measure the quantity of Na+ gained per day and the quantity lost per day and compare the values. Concentration is a measure of the proportion of one substance in relation to another.

Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. Explain how the micropuncture technique is used to study the physiology of the kidney.

Answer: The purpose of micropuncture is to monitor the filtrate solute concentration as it travels through the nephron. In micropuncture, fine micropipettes are inserted into individual nephrons at specific points from the Bowman’s capsule to the collecting duct to sample the fluid. Researchers can look at various solutes (e.g., glucose or amino acid concentrations) to assess whether they increase or decrease as they travel along the nephron.

Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. Explain, in detail, the functions of ADH in amphibians.

Answer: In amphibians, ADH increases the water permeability of parts of the distal convoluted tubule and decreases the glomerular filtration rate. ADH reduces the glomerulus filtration rate by reducing the numbers of actively filtering nephrons, an effect mediated by inducing vasoconstriction in afferent glomerular blood vessels. The decrease in GFR reduces urine production and promotes water retention in the body, thereby complementing the increase in water reabsorption induced by ADH in the distal tubules. ADH has the potential to increase the rate of active NaCl reabsorption from the renal tubules. Overall, ADH promotes water retention because it enhances solute-driven water reabsorption and decreases the solute load of the urine.

Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. What are the differences between the countercurrent multiplier and countercurrent exchanger systems?

Answer: The countercurrent multiplier is an active system exemplified by sodium reabsorption in the loops of Henle. In this system, metabolic energy is used to transport NaCl out of the ascending limb and induce fluxes of solutes into or out of the fluid streams. The countercurrent exchange is a passive system exemplified by the heat exchangers in the appendages of mammals. In this system, heat follows a temperature

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

gradient, moving from a warmer to a cooler region. This transfer may occur because the expenditure of metabolic energy has caused a temperature gradient, but the transfer of heat, itself, does not require expenditure of more energy.

Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. Describe the role of ADH in mammalian nephrons.

Answer: In mammals, ADH affects the permeability of the collecting-duct epithelium to water. The effect is mediated by aquaporin-2 (AQP-2), a membrane protein that is inserted into and retrieved from the apical cell membranes of the collecting-duct epithelial cells. The presence of ADH stimulates the insertion of AQP-2 molecules into the apical cell membranes, leading to an increase in collecting-duct epithelial permeability. This osmotic exit of water leads to a more concentrated urine. When ADH levels fall, AQP-2 molecules are retrieved from the apical cell membranes, and epithelial permeability to water decreases, leading to a more dilute urine.

Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Describe how urine formation differs between freshwater teleosts and marine teleosts.

Answer: In freshwater fish, the walls of the distal convoluted tubule are nearly impermeable to water. Thus, as NaCl is reabsorbed and returned to the body fluids, water remains behind in the tubule, and a dilute urine is produced. This is consistent with their need to remove water from their plasma as they are hyperosmotic to their (freshwater) environment. Marine teleost fish commonly lack the distal convoluted tubule; the loss of water via the dilute urine that commonly occurs in distal convoluted tubules would be disadvantageous to marine teleosts because they are hyposmotic to their (seawater) environment. In addition, freshwater teleosts have relatively large numbers of nephrons and well-developed glomeruli; their GFRs are relatively high. In contrast, marine teleosts tend to have relatively few nephrons and small glomeruli; they have low GFRs. Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Other Vertebrates Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Explain how potassium chloride is secreted in insects.

Answer: Potassium chloride (KCl) is secreted by the epithelium of a Malpighian tubule from the blood (hemolymph) bathing the tubule into the lumen of the tubule. The K+ secretion occurs by secondary active transport: an H+-ATPase uses ATP to create electrochemical gradients that drive the secondary active transport of K+. The secretion of K+ into a Malpighian tubule is electrogenic, and Cl– accompanies the K+ passively by following the electrical gradient set up by K+ secretion. Thus, KCl requires the use of ATP for secretion. The movement of KCl into the lumen of a Malpighian tubule drives osmotic entry of water, forming primary-urine.

Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Insects Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. What is the largest molecule that can pass through a nephron? a. A molecule that has a molecular weight of 9.5 kilodaltons b. A molecule that has a molecular weight of 12.5 kilodaltons c. A molecule that has a molecular weight of 13.5 kilodaltons d. A molecule that has a molecular weight of 14.5 kilodaltons Answer: a Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. The colloid osmotic pressure is best defined as the a. pressure generated by the contraction of skeletal muscles pushing on the blood vessels. b. osmotic pressure exerted by plasma proteins in the blood vessels. c. pressure generated by the contraction of smooth muscles around the blood vessels. d. pressure difference between the osmotic pressure of the blood plasma and the osmotic pressure of the capsular fluid.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. If the blood pressure in the glomerular capillary is +7 kPa, the colloid osmotic pressure is –3 kPa, and the capsular fluid hydrostatic pressure is –2 kPa, then the filtration pressure is _______ kPa. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 8 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 4. If the filtration pressure is +8 kPa, the colloid osmotic pressure is –2 kPa, and the capsular fluid hydrostatic pressure is –1 kPa, then the pressure in the glomerular capillaries is _______ kPa. a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 11 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 5. Which of the following will not have an effect on the glomerular blood pressure? a. Nervous system innervation of the smooth muscles that surround blood vessels b. Endocrine system hormones acting on skeletal muscles

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. An increase in heart rate d. A change in the diameter of the efferent blood vessel Answer: b Textbook Reference: Basic Mechanisms of Kidney Function Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. In amphibians, sodium reabsorption begins in a. the loop of Henle. b. the proximal convoluted tubule. c. Bowman’s capsule. d. the distal convoluted to tubule.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 7. In amphibians, chloride reabsorption begins in a. the proximal convoluted tubule. b. Bowman’s capsule. c. the loop of Henle. d. the distal convoluted to tubule.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. Which substance(s) can be present in the proximal convoluted tubule in amphibians’ nephrons? a. Sodium b. Amino acids c. Sodium and chloride d. Sodium, chloride, and amino acids Answer: d Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 9. Which hormone controls water regulation in the kidney? a. Cortisol b. ADH c. Oxytocin d. Epinephrine Answer: b Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 10. In amphibians, when ADH is released, the number of aquaporins in the bladder a. increases. b. decreases.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. and the distal convoluted tubule increases. d. and the distal convoluted tubule decreases.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Amphibians Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. Which sequence demonstrates the correct order of the structures of a mammalian nephron from blood to ureter? a. Proximal convoluted tubule; Bowman’s capsule; loop of Henle; distal convoluted tubule b. Bowman’s capsule; loop of Henle; distal convoluted tubule; proximal convoluted tubule c. Bowman’s capsule; proximal convoluted tubule; loop of Henle; distal convoluted tubule d. Distal convoluted tubule; loop of Henle; Proximal convoluted tubule; Bowman’s capsule Answer: c Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 12. The macula densa in mammalian nephrons secrete a. renin. b. aldosterone. c. ADH. d. sodium.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 13. The active transport of NaCl in the ascending limb of loop of Henle leads to a. hyperosmotic fluid in the lumen. b. hyperosmotic fluid in the interstitial region. c. isosmotic fluid in the lumen. d. hyposmotic fluid in the interstitial region.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 14. Urea is reabsorbed in the collecting duct by a. simple diffusion. b. facilitated diffusion. c. primary active transport. d. secondary active transport.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

15. The vasa recta are a. cells in the collecting ducts. b. substances released from the afferent arteriole. c. blood capillaries around loop of Henle in mammals. d. blood capillaries around the proximal convoluted tubules in mammals.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 16. Some medications to treat hypertension act on the a. sodium–potassium pumps. b. sodium channels. c. Na–K–2Cl cotransporter. d. Na–Cl cotransporters.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 17. In the mammalian proximal convoluted tubule, sodium reabsorption is coupled with a. sodium. b. glucose. c. protons. d. glucose and protons.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 18.–20. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

18. Which number corresponds to the lowest osmolarity? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 19. Which number signifies the area that will not reabsorb water? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: c Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 20. Which area shows the highest variation in osmolarily? a. I b. II c. III

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. V Answer: d Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Mammals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 21. Which structure is usually not found in marine teleosts? a. Distal convoluted tubule b. Glomerular capsule c. Proximal convoluted tubule d. Loop of Henle Answer: a Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Other Vertebrates Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 22. Which statement about marine teleosts is true? a. Some species lack glomeruli. b. They are hyperosmotic to seawater. c. They have more nephrons compared to freshwater teleosts. d. They live in a hyposmotic environment.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Other Vertebrates Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 23. Insects have excretory tubules known as a. Malpighian tubules. b. nephridia. c. loopless nephrons. d. coelomosac.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Urine Formation in Insects Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 26: Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide, and Internal Transport AT WORK: Diving by Marine Mammals TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. Most dives by Weddell seals are a. short and shallow. b. long and shallow. c. very evenly distributed between short and shallow and long and deep dives. d. long and deep.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Which statement is not supported by the data in the figure?

a. Dives are either very long or very short. b. Some dives can last longer than 1 hour. c. Over 60% of all dives last for 10 minutes or less. d. Very few dives are over 40 minutes long.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 3. Which statement is supported by the data in the figure?

a. Most dives tend to be between 200–400 m. b. Half of all dives are under 100 m. c. The shallowest dives are under 10 m. d. Over 90% of all dives are under 200 m.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 4. The figure best represents which behavior?

a. Diving behavior of male and female northern elephant seals © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. Foraging behavior of male and female sperm whales c. Migration movements of male and female northern elephant seals d. Foraging movements of bottlenose dolphins Answer: c Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 5. Which animal is typically the shallowest diver? a. Elephant seal b. Cuvier’s beaked whale c. Weddell seal d. Northern fur seal Answer: d Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 6. Which animal does not belong to the true (phocid) seal group? a. Northern fur seal b. Weddell seal c. Ribbon seal d. Harbor seal Answer: a Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 7.–8. Refer to the figure below.

7. Which of the following is shown by the data in the figure? a. Individual dive depths from one seal over many days b. Dive depths for many seals of one species over many days c. Dive depths for one seal during one day

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. Dive depths for many seals of one species during one day Answer: a Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 8. The data in the figure would not likely apply to which species? a. Northern fur seal b. Ribbon seal c. Elephant seal d. Harbor seal Answer: a Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 9. If you were collecting diving data, which comparison would you expect to reveal the greatest physiological differences? a. A voluntary versus a forced dive b. A morning versus an evening dive c. A foraging-related versus a defense-related dive d. A short versus a long dive (relative to the maximum duration for the species) Answer: a Textbook Reference: Types of Dives and the Importance of Method Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Which statement describes an early piece of evidence showing that circulatory function is sometimes radically altered during a dive? a. A significant bradycardia occurs during a forced dive. b. A significant bradycardia occurs during a voluntary dive. c. Lactic acid increases primarily after a forced dive. d. Lactic acid increases primarily after a voluntary dive.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Physiology: The Big Picture Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. Which statement regarding the diving reflex is true? a. It is absent during a forced dive. b. It represents an adjustment to the pattern of blood flow that allows the dive to be extended. c. It exists in all diving mammals. d. It is strongly present during a voluntary dive.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Physiology: The Big Picture Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 12. The amount of O2 stored in blood depends on the a. oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. total volume of the blood. c. circulatory rate. d. oxygen-carrying capacity and the total volume of the blood.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 13. Seals such as the Weddell seal, which are capable of long and deep dives, typically have blood-oxygen carrying capacities (per unit volume) that are _______ those of seals such as the stellar sea lion, whose dives are short and shallow. a. four times greater than b. 1.5 times greater than c. similar to d. 1.5 times less than Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 14. Mass-specific myoglobin levels in the most accomplished divers such as the Weddell seal are _______ those of humans. a. 10 times greater than b. 2 times greater than c. similar to d. 2 times less than Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 15. A large O2 store in the lungs is an advantage to a diver for which reason? a. Large amounts of air in the lungs affect buoyancy. b. Alveoli are typically the first components of the respiratory system to collapse. c. A large store of O2 also means a large store of N2. d. In compression-resistant thoraxes, it increases shallow dive time.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 16. In general, diving mammals have lung volumes (per unit mass) that are _______ those of terrestrial mammals. a. 4 times greater than b. 2 times greater than c. similar to d. 2 times less than Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

17. Which oxygen storage compartment tends to be the smallest in diving mammals? a. Lungs b. Blood c. Myoglobin d. Interstitial fluids Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 18.–20. Refer to the figure below.

18. What data is represented in the figure? a. Oxygen-carrying capacity b. Total oxygen stores c. Mass-specific oxygen stores d. Mass-specific metabolic rates

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 19. Which data in the figure represents the lungs? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 20. Of the components shown in the figure, the one with the greatest effect on dive length in true (phocid) seals is a. the lungs. b. the blood. c. myoglobin. d. dissolved O2 in fluids other than blood.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 21. A decrease in heart rate specifically in response to diving is referred to as a. chronic tachycardia. b. sinus bradycardia. c. diving bradycardia. d. diving tachycardia.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 22. During a landmark study by Bron (1966), regional vasoconstriction during a seal’s dive was indicated by a measured lack of blood flow to the a. kidneys. b. brain. c. lungs. d. skeletal muscle.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 23. Which structure receives little or no blood during a prolonged forced dive? a. Brain b. Limbs c. Lungs

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. Heart Answer: b Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 24. During a prolonged forced dive, vasoconstriction causes which cardiovascular parameter(s) to drop? a. Heart rate b. Stroke volume c. Cardiac output d. Heart rate and cardiac output Answer: d Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 25. During a prolonged forced dive, vasoconstriction allows which cardiovascular parameter(s) to remain unchanged? a. Stroke volume b. Blood pressure c. Overall resistance to blood flow d. Stroke volume and blood pressure Answer: d Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 26.–27. Refer to the figure below.

26. Which statement is supported by the data in the figure? a. In freely diving seals, diving heart rate varies with dive duration in a graded manner. b. In freely diving seals, the degree of bradycardia is proportional to dive duration. c. In forcibly submerged seals, the degree of bradycardia is proportional to dive duration.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. In forcibly submerged seals, the degree of bradycardia is inversely proportional to dive duration.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 27. Which value was most likely the resting pre-dive heart rate for the animals represented in figure? a. 60 beats/min b. 50 beats/min c. 10 beats/min d. The answer is not shown on the y axis scale.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 28.–29. Refer to the figure below.

28. The data in the figure represent _______ in fish removed from water. a. ventilation rates b. heart rates c. metabolic rates d. oxygen consumption Answer: b Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 29. Suppose that the same parameter represented in the figure is measured in aquatic animals that are moved from water to air and terrestrial animals that are moved from air to water. In which animal would the change in the measured parameter be the smallest? a. Weddell seal b. Fish that regularly emerge into the air briefly, such as grunion and flying fish

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. Teleost fish d. Humans Answer: d Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 30.–31. Refer to the figure below.

30. Measurements of which body component(s) are shown in the figure? a. Blood

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. Muscle c. Brain d. Blood and muscle Answer: d Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 31. Which statement regarding the data presented in the figure is true? a. Blood circulation to muscle was significantly increased during the dives. b. Oxygen supplies for the brain and myocardium remained low during the dives. c. Muscles switch to anaerobic metabolism at some point during the dives. d. Circulating blood oxygen continued to be made available from oxygen in muscle.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 32.–33. Refer to the figure below.

32. What would be the best label for the x-axis in the graph? a. Length of dive b. Time after animal resurfaces c. Duration of anaerobic tolerance d. Time Answer: b Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 33. Which statement regarding the data presented in the figure is the most accurate? a. Blood concentration of lactic acid rises following a dive. b. During a dive, lactic acid in the muscles increases dramatically. c. During a dive, lactic acid is metabolized and eventually reaches undetectable levels. d. Blood lactic acid and muscle lactic acid concentrations are typically mismatched during and after dives.

Answer: a

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 34. Metabolic limits on dive duration depend on which factor(s)? a. O2 supplies b. O2 supplies and O2 consumption c. O2 consumption and tissue tolerance to lactic acid d. O2 supplies, O2 consumption, and tissue tolerance to lactic acid Answer: d Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 35. Refer to the figure below.

The data in the figure show that compared to nondiving mammals, diving mammals have a. hearts that function more efficiently. b. brains that tolerate hypoxia better. c. muscles that remain active in the absence of oxygen longer. d. a more functional nervous system.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 36. The metabolic rate in freely diving free-ranging Weddell seals is _______ the metabolic rate of resting nondiving seals. a. greater than b. lower than c. lower than or equal to d. greater than or equal to Answer: c Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 37. What is the primary stimulus for ventilation in diving mammals? a. Low blood O2 © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. High blood CO2 c. Low blood pH d. High blood CO2 and low blood pH Answer: d Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 38. Following an extended dive, diving mammals require a. a significant amount of time to fully metabolize the lactic acid. b. access to air at the water’s surface and a significant amount of time to fully metabolize the lactic acid. c. an immediate shallow dive to metabolize accumulated lactic acid. d. access to land in order to metabolize accumulated lactic acid.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for Understanding Diving Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 39.–41. Refer to the figure below.

39. In the landmark 1980 study by Kooyman et al. that produced the data in this figure, blood was collected from seals a. via an implanted catheter during voluntary dives in the lab.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. via an implanted catheter during free diving in the wild. c. following free diving in the wild. d. following voluntary dives in the lab.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for Understanding Diving Behavior Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 40. According to the figure, approximately how long would it take an adult Weddell seal to metabolize the lactic acid accumulated from a 1-hour dive? a. 20 minutes b. 60 minutes c. A little over 2 hours d. Close to 6 hours Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for Understanding Diving Behavior Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 41. The data shown in the figure do not plot dives with durations longer than 80 minutes.

What is a possible explanation for this? a. Sensors are not able to measure dives longer than 80 minutes. b. Extremely long dives are rare because they require an extremely long recovery period. c. Dives longer than 80 minutes would have skewed the data. d. The species measured does not dive longer than 80 minutes.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for Understanding Diving Behavior Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 42. The aerobic dive limit (ADL) is the _______ dive that can be undertaken without a(n) _______. a. longest; net accumulation of lactic acid above resting level. b. longest; accumulation of lactic acid. c. deepest; accumulation of lactic acid. d. longest; alteration of metabolic rate.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for Understanding Diving Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 43. According to a central hypothesis of diving physiology, it is adaptive for diving mammals to keep their dives shorter than their species-specific aerobic dive limit (ADL) because doing so maximizes _______ and minimizes _______. a. time spent underwater; the time available for foraging b. recovery time at the surface; the time spent underwater

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. the time available for foraging; exposure to predation d. exposure to predation; the time available for foraging Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for Understanding Diving Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 44. In diving mammals, more than a. 90% of dives are shorter than the ADL. b. 75% of dives are shorter than the ADL. c. 75% of dives are longer than the ADL. d. 90% of dives are longer than the ADL. Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for Understanding Diving Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 45. Diving mammals cannot reduce their metabolic rates while underwater by a. allowing their tissue to cool. b. postponing the digestion of food while diving. c. developing a tolerance for lactic acid. d. gliding instead of swimming continuously.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for Understanding Diving Behavior Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 46. Weddell seals employ which behavior(s) in order to reduce metabolic costs during a dive? a. Gliding alone b. Alternation of stroking and gliding c. Continuous stroking d. Gliding and alternation of stroking and gliding Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for Understanding Diving Behavior Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 47. Decompression sickness occurs a. in scuba divers who dive very deep. b. when N2 is absorbed from a high pressure source. c. when N2 comes out of solution in the blood. d. when N2 is absent in the plasma.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Decompression Sickness Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

48. Decompression sickness may result in a. bubbles of gas forming in the blood. b. joint pain. c. bubbles of gas forming in the blood and joint pain. d. bubbles of gas forming in the blood, joint pain, and paralysis.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Decompression Sickness Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 49. Diving mammals avoid decompression sickness a. through increased solubility of N2 in blood plasma. b. via alveolar collapse. c. by binding excess N2 to hemoglobin. d. by sequestering excess N2 in the spleen.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Decompression Sickness Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 50. Which are advantages of alveolar compression during a deep dive?

I) Prevention of N2 transfer into blood II) Reserve of O2 for use on ascent III) Prevention of CO2 transfer to lungs a. II b. I and II c. II and III d. I, II, and III Answer: b Textbook Reference: A Possible Advantage for Pulmonary O2 Sequestration in Deep Dives Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating

Short Answer 1. Discuss how technology has advanced our knowledge of marine mammal diving behavior. Provide an example.

Answer: Early studies of diving mammals were either observations of dive time of freeliving animals or observations carried out in giant pools. As technology advanced, instruments could be attached to the animals to measure both duration and depth, but these instruments were fairly primitive and had to be retrieved in order to collect the data.

Now, data can be radioed directly from free-living animals to satellite receivers and retrieved from anywhere on the globe. For example, large amounts of data have been collected about the migration routes of 30 northern elephant seals across the northern Pacific Ocean.

Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. In any given diving study, what are three important variables that one must know before interpreting the data?

Answer: First, it is important to know whether the dives were voluntary or forced. It is also important to know whether the dives were long or short relative to the speciesspecific maximum dive length, since we know now that qualitatively different suites of responses are often used in long versus short dives. Finally, it is important to know the pre-dive metabolic state of the animal–whether the animal was quiet or active.

Textbook Reference: Types of Dives and the Importance of Method Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. How was the original information on the diving reflex updated in studies performed after the 1970s?

Answer: When animals were forcibly submerged (a routine procedure in diving experiments before 1970), the adjustments in the pattern of blood flow and buildup of lactic acid were predictable and thus labeled a diving reflex. However, as more and more diving experiments were performed on voluntarily diving animals, researchers recognized that the responses of the circulatory system were not as inflexible as once thought.

Animals can adjust their circulatory needs based on the length of the dive.

Textbook Reference: Physiology: The Big Picture Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. What are the main O2 stores used during a dive? Are they similar across marine mammal species?

Answer: The three main oxygen stores in diving mammals are blood oxygen in hemoglobin, muscle myoglobin, and oxygen in air in the lungs. Not all species of diving mammals use these oxygen stores similarly. Fur seals and sea lions tend to have much smaller oxygen stores per unit of body mass, and this is perhaps reflected in the relatively short durations of their dives. Species that dive deep and for long periods tend to have more oxygen stores per unit of body mass, as well as a very large blood oxygen component per unit of body mass.

Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 5. How does vasoconstriction prolong a dive?

Answer: Vasoconstriction, if performed selectively, enables an animal to prolong a dive.

Blood must continue to flow (and thus deliver oxygen) to the brain, lungs, and myocardium in order for the animal to continue to function. However, if vasoconstriction reduces blood flow to limbs, skeletal muscles of the trunk, pectoral muscles, skin, and visceral organs, then oxygen usage by those areas can be reduced and more oxygen is available to the brain, lungs, and myocardium. The more oxygen that can be rerouted this way, the longer the dive can be.

Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

6. Is there a relationship between dive duration and bradycardia? If so, does it depend on the type of dive performed?

Answer: In early studies of forced diving, the animals typically exhibited a massive bradycardia that was almost immediate. There was no significant relationship between any dive characteristic and the extent of the bradycardia. However, as more data about voluntary dives was collected, it became clear that many species will adjust their bradycardia depending on the length of the dive: the longer the dive, the more extensive the bradycardia.

Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 7. What are the factors that determine dive duration? Place them in order of significance.

Answer: The limits on dive duration have to do with metabolism. The most significant requirement for a long dive is a very large oxygen supply. No matter what other metabolic adjustments are employed, an animal without a significant supply of oxygen will dive for only a relatively short period of time. In order to remain in an aerobic state during a prolonged dive, some animals will reduce their metabolic demands, either regionally or globally. However, while this prolongs the dive, it can affect the animal’s ability to remain active while submerged. If all efforts to remain aerobic are exhausted, lactic acid will be produced by anaerobic metabolism. If this situation occurs, the dive may be prolonged further, depending on the animal’s ability to both produce lactic acid (a signal that ATP is still being generated) and tolerate it.

Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 8. Discuss the aerobic dive limit (ADL) and the adaptive significance of keeping dives under this limit.

Answer: The aerobic dive limit (ADL) is the longest dive that can be undertaken without a net accumulation of lactic acid above the resting level. Most diving physiologists agree that it is advantageous for diving mammals to keep their dives under the ADL for their species. By keeping their dives fully aerobic, they avoid lengthy recovery times to metabolize lactic acid. Also, they can minimize their time at the surface and maximize their time under water for foraging and to avoid predation.

Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for Understanding Diving Behavior Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. What is decompression sickness and how do marine mammals avoid it?

Answer: Decompression sickness is a condition discovered in humans who scuba dive.

At great depths, the underwater pressure is significantly higher than the pressure at sea level. The scuba tank and regulator must deliver air at a pressure that matches the high pressure at a particular depth. This arrangement allows continued breathing, but it also means that an unusually high N2 partial pressure is maintained in the lungs and also in the body tissues, which gradually come to equilibrium with the lungs. If ascent to the surface takes place too rapidly, nitrogen can come out of solution in the blood and form bubbles,

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a condition known as “the bends.” It is thought that diving mammals avoid this condition by means of alveolar collapse, but this is an area that requires further research.

Textbook Reference: Decompression Sickness Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Discuss advantages and disadvantages of sequestering O2 in the lungs during a deep dive.

Answer: The disadvantage of an animal’s sequestering O2 in the lungs during a deep dive is that it cannot be used as an O2 source during the dive. However, researchers have postulated two possible advantages for sequestration. First, the physiological mechanism of alveolar collapse causes the diffusion of nitrogen to be slowed or stopped, preventing the possibility of decompression sickness upon the animal’s ascent. Second, deep dives require a long period of ascent, which requires the use of oxygen. During the ascent, the alveoli open and can slowly resume diffusion. This pulmonary O2 can be used as an O2 source during the long ascent.

Textbook Reference: A Possible Advantage for Pulmonary O2 Sequestration in Deep Dives Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. Dives by Weddell seals are mostly a. short and shallow. b. long and deep. c. short and deep. d. long and shallow.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. The deepest dives of Weddell seals are at a depth of about _______ m. a. 300 b. 600 c. 900 d. 1,500 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. Which animal is the deepest diver? a. Weddell seal b. Fur seal c. Elephant seal d. Crabeater seal

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Diving Feats and Behavior Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 4. An animal’s maximum possible blood store of O2 is calculated by a. multiplying the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood by blood volume and then dividing by oxygen solubility. b. dividing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood by blood volume. c. multiplying the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood by blood volume. d. multiplying the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood by blood volume and multiplying that product by animal mass.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 5. One the most consistent features of diving species of mammals is that, relative to terrestrial species, they have a. very high myoglobin concentration in their skeletal muscle. b. very high myoglobin concentrations in their visceral organs. c. very high hemoglobin concentrations. d. high blood volumes.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. In diving mammals, the thorax a. is rigid in order to prevent compression during dives. b. can be either rigid or compressible during dives, depending on the species. c. only compresses at depths beyond 1500 m. d. is freely compressible during dives.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. Which oxygen store (per kg) is significantly larger in true (phocid) seals, such as the Weddell seal, compared to a human? a. O2 bound to myoglobin b. O2 bound to hemoglobin c. O2 in the lungs d. O2 bound to myoglobin and O2 bound to hemoglobin Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 8. Which oxygen storage compartment tends to be the largest in diving mammals? a. Lungs

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. Myoglobin c. Blood d. Interstitial fluids Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 9. The predicted dive time of a Weddell seal based on calculations of its oxygen stores is likely to be _______ the actual maximal dive times measured in the field. a. shorter than b. longer than c. about the same length as d. exactly half Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Oxygen Stores of Divers Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Which statement regarding circulation and diving is false? a. Regional vasoconstriction occurs during a forced dive. b. During an episode of regional vasoconstriction, flow to parts of the brain is cut off or severely restricted. c. Regional vasoconstriction occurs during a prolonged dive. d. During an episode of regional vasoconstriction, flow to parts of the body posterior to the heart is cut off or severely restricted.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 11. Because of a regional vasoconstriction during a prolonged dive, the heart responds with a reduction in a. pressure. b. cardiac output. c. heart rate. d. cardiac output and heart rate.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. In freely diving marine mammals, heart rate a. does not change with dive duration. b. increases in a graded manner with dive duration. c. decreases immediately after a dive and then becomes independent of dive duration. d. decreases in a graded manner with dive duration.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

13. Fish removed from water are likely to exhibit a. slight bradycardia. b. profound bradycardia. c. slight tachycardia. d. profound tachycardia.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Circulatory Adjustments during Dives Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14. During forced submergence, harbor seals deplete O2 in their _______, while O2 levels in their _______ remain high. a. lungs; blood b. blood; muscles c. muscles; blood d. lungs; muscles Answer: c Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 15. Following a 45-minute dive by a Weddell seal, circulating levels of lactic acid would likely fall to pre-dive levels after about a. 20 minutes. b. 70 minutes. c. 2 hours. d. 4 hours.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. Metabolic limits on dive duration are determined by all of the following except a. O2 stores. b. rates of O2 use. c. lactic acid production. d. lactic acid clearance.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 17. During a voluntary dive, a Weddell seal’s metabolic rate is _______ that of a resting seal on land. a. higher than b. lower than c. similar to d. extremely variable compared to Answer: b

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 18. During a dive, blood pH tends to _______ due to an increase in _______. a. increase; lactic acid b. increase; CO2 and lactic acid c. decrease; CO2 and lactic acid d. decrease; lactic acid Answer: c Textbook Reference: Metabolism during Dives Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 19. The longest dive that can be undertaken without a net accumulation of lactic acid above resting level is called the a. aerobic dive limit. b. anaerobic threshold. c. anaerobic diving limit. d. aerobic dive scope.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Aerobic Dive Limit: One of Physiology’s Key Benchmarks for Understanding Diving Behavior Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 20. What is the primary cause of decompression sickness? a. An imbalance of CO2 caused by surfacing too quickly b. Distention of lung tissue from rapid loss of pressure c. Formation of O2 bubbles in the blood d. Formation of N2 bubbles in the blood Answer: d Textbook Reference: Decompression Sickness Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 30: Water, Salts, and Excretion AT WORK: Mammals of Deserts and Dry Savannas TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. Oryxes are a. small herbivores. b. small omnivores. c. large omnivores. d. large herbivores.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Introduction Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Deserts and semi-deserts cover about _______ of the land on Earth. a. one-sixth b. a quarter c. a third d. half Answer: c Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. Deserts receive less than _______ cm of precipitation per year. a. 15 b. 20 c. 25 d. 30 Answer: c Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. Deserts and savannas affect biological life by a. presenting challenges for animals, but not plants. b. presenting challenges for plants, but not animals. c. presenting challenges for plants and animals. d. creating an environment that does not support life.

Answer: c

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. The dominant controlling factor of biological processes in dry savannas is a. the air. b. water. c. the sun. d. the sand.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 6. Which of the following does not occur in the Serengeti plains of East Africa? a. Lack of rainfall for 4–6 months at a time b. The drying of streams c. Prolonged period during which soils are extremely wet d. Dry, brown grass Answer: c Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 7. The principal reason deserts and savannas exist is a. to balance out wetter areas of Earth. b. because of the global pattern of air movements. c. because of evaporation of water, which forms rain. d. because of rain-shadowing caused by rivers.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. Near Los Angeles, the coastal mountains force the prevailing winds blowing _______ from the Pacific Ocean to _______, causing mountain rain. a. west; fall b. east; rise c. south; rise d. north; fall Answer: b Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 9. Scientists predict that the southern regions of Europe are likely to become _______ in the future. a. less dry b. drier c. colder d. more temperate

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 10. In dry savannas and deserts, animals that weigh _______ have the most behavioral advantages. a. 500 g b. 100 kg c. 200 kg d. 300 kg Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 11. In dry savannas and deserts, animals that weigh _______ have the fewest behavioral advantages. a. 200 g b. 400 g c. 500 g d. 2 kg Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 12. In dry savannas and deserts, animals that weigh _______ face the heat most directly, thereby generating high heat stress. a. 200 g b. 250 g c. 300 g d. 40 kg Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 13. In the desert heat, animals that are _______ have the best chance at survival (assuming no shelter is available). a. small with relatively high surface area for their size b. small with relatively low surface area for their size c. large with relatively high surface area for their size d. large with relatively low surface area for their size Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 14. Which animal has the most body-surface area per unit of weight? a. Squirrel

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. Mouse c. Dog d. Horse Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 15. Environmental heat enters an animal’s body when a. the air temperature is lower than the body temperature. b. the air temperature is higher than the body temperature. c. the air temperature is equal to the body temperature. d. there is enough water available in the environment.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 16. A large desert mammal regulates its temperature to maintain a constant body temperature. When the air temperature is higher than the body temperature, the animal’s evaporation rate will a. create an unfavorable physiological condition. b. be lower per unit of weight than for a smaller mammal. c. decrease. d. decrease first and then remain constant.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 17. Which animal has the lowest weight-specific metabolic rate? a. Horse b. Mouse c. Kangaroo rat d. Dog Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 18. Which animal’s core temperature will be affected most by an exogenous heat load? a. Small with relatively high surface area for their size b. Small with relatively low surface area for their size c. Large with relatively high surface area for their size d. Large with relatively low surface area for their size Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 19. Which animal has the highest rate of endogenous heat production per unit of body

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

weight? a. Horse b. Human c. Kangaroo rat d. Dog Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 20. Which animal has the greatest capacity to void both exogenous and endogenous heat from its body through evaporation? a. Mouse b. Rat c. Horse d. Dog Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 21. In small desert mammals, the water cost of being active in the daytime soars due to a. the fact that they often hide in burrows to escape the heat rather than seek water. b. the percentage of body weight lost per hour via evaporative thermoregulation. c. their relatively small body-surface area per unit of weight. d. their low metabolic rate.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 22. Which animal has the highest mass-specific evaporative water loss? a. Monkey b. Squirrel c. Lion d. Elephant Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 23. Which animal has the highest weight-specific water costs to void endogenously produced heat? a. Squirrel b. Monkey c. Lion d. Elephant Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

24. For most animals, dehydration becomes lethal under hot conditions when _______ or more of total body weight has been lost. a. 5% b. 7% c. 8% d. 12% Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 25. If a dog, a human, a kangaroo rat, and a horse set out walking in a hot desert during the hottest part of the day, which animal would die first? a. Dog b. Human c. Kangaroo rat d. Horse Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 26. Which animal would have the least chance of finding food sources in distant locations? a. Grant’s gazelle b. Zebra c. Common eland d. Dwarf antelope Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 27. The species that can travel furthest from standing water because they are drinkingwater-independent is the a. dwarf antelope. b. wildebeest. c. zebra. d. kangaroo rat.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 28. An organism meets 30% of its water needs from metabolic water; the rest of its water needs are met a. from preformed water. b. by drinking. c. by eating plants.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. from preformed water and by drinking.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 29. Why does water in deserts and dry savannas often become salty? a. Salt dissolves from the soil. b. The rain carries a trace of salt. c. Salt collects from dead organisms. d. Salt dissolves from the soil and is collect from rain.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 30. To maximize water intake, an animal living in dry savannas should eat leaves a. just before dawn. b. at noon. c. in the afternoon. d. in the evening.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 31. The ambient humidity in deserts is highest a. at pre-dawn. b. in the morning. c. in the afternoon. d. at night.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 32. Which species is considered a drinking-water- dependent herbivore? a. Wildebeest b. Eland c. Zebra d. Wildebeest and Zebra Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 33. Which species does not migrate? a. Grant’s gazelle b. Wildbeest c. Thompson’s gazelle d. Zebra

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 34. Which species is not drinking-water-independent? a. Oryx b. Eland c. Wildebeest d. Grant’s gazelle Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 35.–37. Refer to the figure below.

35. Which would be the most accurate y axis label for both figures? a. Water loss (L/kg·day) b. Water gain (L/kg·day) c. Water flux (L/kg·day) d. Metabolic water (L/kg·day) Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 36. Which panel shows evaporative water loss under near-desert temperatures? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: b

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 37. In which panel does the Wildebeest appear to be most dependent on preformed water? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 38.–39. Refer to the figure below.

38. What do the two lines in this figure represent? a. Species of perennial grasses b. Species of drinking-water- dependent herbivores c. Species of drinking-water- independent herbivores d. Species of desert insects Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 39. Which statement about Arabian Oryxes is false? a. The more they acclimate, the lower their respiratory surface area. b. The more they acclimate, the more water they conserve.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. The more they acclimate, the less their total rate of evaporative water loss. d. They turnover water at a rate one-quarter to that of other free living mammals their size.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 40. If an Arabian oryx’s urine osmolarity is 240 mOsm and the U/P ratio is 8, its plasma osmolarity would be _______ mOsm. a. 30 b. 60 c. 240 d. 1920 Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 41. If an Arabian oryx’s plasma osmolarity is 200 mOsm, its maximum urine osmolarity would be _______ mOsm. a. 200 b. 800 c. 1600 d. 3200 Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 42. The osmotic U/P ratio for a dik-dik is about a. 5. b. 8. c. 10. d. 12.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 43. Among the animals listed, the species with the lowest peak urine osmotic pressure is the a. African buffalo. b. Somali donkey. c. Arabian oryx. d. dromedary camel.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

44. On a summer day, oryxes exhibit the highest average body temperature at a. midnight. b. 6:00 AM. c. noon. d. 6:00 PM. Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 45. Oryxes living in deserts or savannas raise their body temperature to a. release heat. b. absorb heat. c. store heat. d. evaporate excess heat.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 46. In an oryx living in a dry savanna, the amount of water saved per day as a result of a cycling body temperature as opposed to a constant one is a. 0.1 L. b. 0.2 L. c. 0.3 L. d. 1.0 L. Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 47. It has been shown that oryxes can survive without drinking water for a. days. b. weeks. c. months. d. years.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 48. The highest recorded rectal temperature in a vertebrate is a. 38.5°C. b. 43°C. c. 46.5°C. d. 49°C. Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

49. Based on studies of recently dead animals, oryxes exposed to severe drought in their natural habitat seem to die mostly of a. predation. b. dehydration. c. hyponatremia. d. severe nutritional deficiency.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 50. Which characteristic is unique to the sand gazelle, compared to other desert-dwelling herbivores? a. Its very low evaporative water loss b. It never drinks c. It uses its bladder for water storage d. It has the highest variation in body core temperature cycling Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 51. The strategy that conserves the most water in large herbivores is a. cessation of urination. b. cycling body core temperature. c. shedding fur. d. lowering brain energy consumption.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 52.–53. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

52. The y axis is most likely measuring a. urine concentration. b. body temperature. c. insulation thickness. d. metabolic rate.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 53. The most accurate description of the results in the figures is a. gazelles cycle their metabolic rate more in summer than in winter. b. oryxes have less consistent body water content in winter than in summer. c. gazelles have more variable urine concentrations in winter than in summer. d. oryxes have more variable body temperatures in summer than in winter.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

Short Answer 1. According to most biologists, what is the proper definition of a desert?

Answer: A desert is a place where precipitation is so low that the availability of water exerts a dominant controlling effect on biological processes. In deserts, rain comes infrequently.

Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Deserts and savannas have extreme conditions. Explain why these conditions exist.

Answer: One of the most important causes of desert conditions on a planetary scale is the global pattern of air movements. Air warmed at the equator rises to high altitudes, displacing air at those altitudes which then descends somewhere else. Air at high altitudes contains little moisture, even when saturated with water vapor. Thus, in regions where high-altitude air consistently tends to fall to low altitude, the land can become parched.

Another cause of desert or savanna conditions is rain-shadowing caused by highlands, which push the winds up so that moisture condenses and falls before it can reach the leeward side of the highlands, leaving a dry savanna “shadow.” Thus, water that is put into the system is regularly lost to evaporation and only replenished in an unpredictable fashion.

Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. Describe the advantages and disadvantages that large mammals living in hot deserts and dry savannas have over small mammals in the same environment.

Answer: Most apparent disadvantages of large size are behavioral. Large mammals cannot take shelter underground by digging burrows. In hot environments, large mammals confront the heat more directly, and the heat stress they experience can place demands on their water resources. In contrast to the behavioral limitations they face, large mammals are often in a distinctly more favorable physiological position because of their ability to regulate body temperature. In addition, because large mammals have relatively little body-surface area per unit of weight, they tend to experience less heat entry per unit of weight over a period of time than small mammals do. Thus their water costs to void the incoming heat are lower per unit of weight.

Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. Describe the advantages and disadvantages that small mammals living in hot deserts and dry savannas have over large mammals in the same environment.

Answer: Many of the most apparent advantages of small size are behavioral. Small mammals can take shelter underground by digging burrows, and they are more likely to

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

find adequate shade or other protective microhabitats on the surface of the ground.

Therefore, small mammals confront the heat less directly, and the heat stress they experience may not place much demand on their water resources. However, small mammals are often in a distinctly less favorable physiological position because their rate of endogenous heat production is relatively high and their weight-specific water costs to void this heat are also high. Small mammals also have a larger body-surface area per unit of weight, so they gain heat at a higher rate per unit of weight than larger mammals.

Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. Endothermic animals that live in hot climates regulate their body heat. Where is the heat coming from and how do they regulate it? Does the size of the animal play a role in thermoregulation?

Answer: Endothermic animals in hot climates use evaporative cooling when confronted with stressfully hot conditions. For an animal to thermoregulate, it must evaporate water from its body not only to void the exogenous heat that enters its body from the hot environment but also the endogenous heat produced by its own metabolism. Large body size is an advantage for evaporative cooling since large animals lose less water per unit mass due to evaporation. Large animals also gain heat much more slowly in direct sunlight compared to smaller animals. In addition, large animals that are able to increase their body temperature during the day and reduce it at night (temporal heterothermy) are able to save substantial amounts of water normally lost in cooling the body.

Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. D. B. Dill was a pioneer in the study of exercise and heat. Describe his experiments and explain the results.

Answer: D. B. Dill studied the physiological advantages of large size. In the 1930s, he undertook the famous “walks in the desert” that provided the very first quantitative information on the water costs of mammalian exercise under hot conditions. Acting as one of the subjects, he took dogs and burros along with him in the Nevada desert, sweating or panting to thermoregulate. As they walked, Dill measured their rates of dehydration. Later, Dill and collaborators gathered more data of a similar sort on burros and high-school students. He showed an inverse relationship between body size and rate of evaporative water loss (grams of water lost per 100 g of body weight per hour).

Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. In an experiment to study water budgets, the drinking-water-dependent common wildebeest and the drinking-water-independent beisa oryx were studied under two sets of conditions. Explain the results of this experiment.

Answer: Physiologically, the two species are dramatically different. The results reveal that the drinking-water-dependent wildebeest has a far greater total water need, and a far greater need for preformed water, than the drinking-water-independent oryx when both species are studied side by side under identical conditions.

A second major insight revealed by the results is that the oryx requires considerable

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

quantities of preformed water (it takes in water that is found in food) to stay in water balance. Metabolic water met only about 20% of the oryx’s total water need under both sets of conditions. Preformed water, therefore, had to meet about 80% of its need.

Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. All species of large herbivores obtain a considerable amount of preformed water but some require more than others. Explain how different groups of these mammals maintain their water budget.

Answer: Drinking-water-dependent species cannot get all the preformed water they need from their foods, either because they need more preformed water than available foods can provide or because they are ineffective in selecting and processing foods to maximize their acquisition of preformed water. Therefore, they have to drink each day for their total intake of preformed water to be adequate.

Drinking-water-independent species can get from their foods all the preformed water they need to stay healthy for many days in a row. They do not require drinking water very often.

Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. What are the mechanisms by which oryxes achieve exceptional water conservation and low water turnover rates?

Answer: The kidneys of Arabian oryxes can concentrate urine to an osmotic urine-toplasma (U/P) ratio of about 8—a high value for mammals of their size. Free-living Arabian oryxes lower their metabolic rates in summer to be only half as high as in winter.

They modify their behavior, remaining inactive and in the shade during the heat of the day when under water stress. Reproduction is curtailed during drought. They modulate body temperature in ways that minimize the use of water for thermoregulation (e.g., via evaporative cooling).

Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. List the strategies dromedary camels employ to conserve water.

Answer: They produce dry feces and concentrated urine.

They curtail their urine production rapidly when faced with dehydration.

They have thick fur that shields heat.

They minimize heat influx behaviorally by facing into the sun when resting in order to narrow their body profile to the sun’s direct rays.

Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. Dry savannas are

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. forests. b. deserts. c. similar to deserts but not identical. d. similar to forests but not identical.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Which is a characteristic of the Serengeti plains of East Africa? a. A one-month dry season b. Four to six months without rain c. The grass turns crisp and green d. The absence of streams Answer: b Textbook Reference: Desert and Dry-Savanna Environments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 3. A mammal living in dry savannas and deserts that weighs _______ would have the least weight-specific water cost to void endogenously produced heat. a. 20 g b. 200 g c. 300 g d. 350 kg Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 4. Which animal has the least body-surface area per unit of weight? a. Mouse b. Rat c. Dog d. Horse Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 5. Which mammal has the highest weight-specific metabolic rate? a. Horse b. Kangaroo rat c. Human d. Dog Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 6. A mammal living in dry savannas and deserts that weighs _______ has the least

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

physiological advantage. a. 100 g b. 20 kg c. 50 kg d. 100 kg Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 7. Which animal has the greatest rate of evaporation relative to its body size? a. Squirrel b. Dog c. Mouse d. Horse Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 8. In the Serengeti, there is a gradient of _______ moisture and _______ aridity from the northwest to the _______. a. increasing; increasing; southeast b. decreasing; increasing; southeast c. decreasing; decreasing; southwest d. decreasing; increasing; southwest Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Some scientists believe that one of the reasons herds of wildebeest migrate, leaving the southeast Serengeti ecosystem at the end of the rainy season, is the change in a. heat. b. water pH. c. drinking water salinity. d. food resources.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 10. At 25°C, about _______% of a kangaroo rat’s water needs are met by _______. a. 70; water intake b. 90; metabolic water c. 80; metabolic water d. 80; water intake Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

11. Oryxes are _______; they get their preformed water _______. a. water independent; by drinking b. water independent; in food c. water dependent; by drinking d. water dependent; in food Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. Which statement regarding large, drinking-water dependent herbivores is true? a. The majority of their water needs are met from metabolic processes. b. They sometimes transition to drinking-water independent. c. Most exhibit extreme fluctuations in body core temperature. d. Some migrate to places where rain is falling.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 13. The best time to feed on leaves is a. predawn. b. morning. c. evening. d. midnight.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14. In the Kalahari ecosystem, which month is the best to find grass with high protein content? a. January b. April c. August d. November Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Relations of Animals to Water Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 15. Which statement about the Arabian oryx is true? a. They have a U/P ratio of 12. b. They are extinct. c. They can store heat during hot days. d. They have abundant water available throughout the year.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

16. In winter, at what time do Arabian oryxes exhibit the highest average body temperature? a. Midnight b. 6:00 AM c. Noon d. 6:00 PM Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 17. On a summer day, the Arabian oryx’s body temperature at 6:00 PM could be as high as _______°C. a. 38 b. 40 c. 45 d. 49 Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 18. Oryxes eat leaves that are firm but not juicy; they contain about _______% water. a. 20 b. 40 c. 60 d. 75 Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 19. Which statement about camels is false? a. Their rumen contains more water than other any other ruminants’ rumen. b. Their hump fat costs water to oxidize. c. They drink only to make up for prior water loss. d. They have an extraordinary ability to survive in deserts for long periods without drinking.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 20. Which of the following is not employed as a water conservation strategy in dromedaries? a. They produce dry feces. b. They produce concentrated urine. c. They minimize heat influx behaviorally. d. They metabolize their fat stores.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Dramatic Adaptations of Particular Species Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 25: Circulation TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. Which is the correct sequence of blood movement through the human heart? a. Vena cavae → left atrium → left ventricle → pulmonary artery → pulmonary vein → right atrium → right ventricle → aorta b. Vena cavae → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery → pulmonary vein → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta c. Vena cavae → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary vein → pulmonary artery → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta d. Aorta → left atrium → left ventricle → pulmonary artery → pulmonary vein → right atrium → right ventricle → vena cavae Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hearts Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 2.‒5. Refer to the figure below:

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

2. Which area(s) contain oxygenated blood? a. I, II, and III b. IV and V c. IV only d. III only Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hearts Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 3. Which area refers to the pulmonary artery? a. II b. III c. IV d. V Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hearts Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 4. How many labeled areas refer to arteries? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. 5 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hearts Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 5. What is the order of blood flow? a. I → II → III → IV → V b. I → V → IV → III → II c. I → III → IV → V → II d. IV → V → I → III → II Answer: c Textbook Reference: Hearts Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 6. Which statement regarding cardiac output is true? a. It is independent of stroke volume. b. It is the product of heart rate and stroke volume. c. It is the heart rate divided by stroke volume. d. It is the product of heart rate and blood pressure.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hearts Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 7.‒8. Refer to the figure below.

7. Which region represents the isovolumetric contraction portion of the heart cycle? a. I b. II © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. III d. IV Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hearts Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 8. Which region represents the ventricular filling portion of the heart cycle? a. II b. III c. IV d. V Answer: d Textbook Reference: Hearts Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 9. The myocardium of tunas is a. composed of an outer compact layer with coronary vessels and an inner spongy layer. b. spongy, with little or no development of coronary vessels. c. compact, with coronary arteries and veins. d. a mixed structure, with blood flowing from lumen into coronary veins.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Hearts Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Most crustaceans have _______ hearts. a. myogenic b. neurogenic c. hemogenic d. noninnervated Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hearts Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 11. The ________ prevents the initial depolarization at the S-A node from spreading across the heart from the atria through the ventricles and ending at the tip of the septum. a. S-A node b. connective tissue between the atria and ventricles c. interventricular septum d. bundle of Purkinje fibers Answer: b Textbook Reference: Hearts Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. The pacemaker of a lobster heart is composed of a. specialized myocardium that functions in a manner similar to the S-A node. b. specialized myocardium that functions as a central pattern generator.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. a series of neurons connected to and controlled by the brain. d. a posterior cardiac neuron that functions as a cellular oscillator and central pattern generator.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Hearts Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 13. The P wave of the EKG is produced by the a. contraction of the atria. b. contraction of the ventricles. c. depolarization of the atria. d. repolarization of the atria.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Hearts Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 14. Which statement describes the Frank-Starling mechanism? a. An increase in the filling time of the ventricles increases the contraction pressure. b. Increasing flow from the heart increases arterial pressure. c. Increasing pressure in the heart increases outflow. d. Stretching of the cardiac muscle increases the force of its contraction at the cellular level.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Hearts Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 15. The mean pressure in the systemic aorta in a healthy human is about _______ mm Hg. a. 120 b. 95 c. 75 d. 50 Answer: b Textbook Reference: Principles of Pressure, Resistance, and Flow in Vascular Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 16. A tall human with normal blood pressure standing upright would be expected to have a pressure of about_________ mm Hg in the leg artery, measured 130 cm below the heart. a. 95 b. 120 c. 150 d. 195 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Principles of Pressure, Resistance, and Flow in Vascular Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

17. According to the Poiseuille equation, which of the following does not directly affect flow rate? a. Temperature of the tube b. Viscosity of the fluid c. Radius of the lumen of the tube d. Pressure at the entry of the tube Answer: a Textbook Reference: Principles of Pressure, Resistance, and Flow in Vascular Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 18. Halving the radius of a vessel _______ the resistance to flow through the vessel by a factor of _______. a. decreases; 4 b. decreases; 16 c. increases; 4 d. increases; 16 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Principles of Pressure, Resistance, and Flow in Vascular Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 19. The most important factor modifying flow in blood vessels is the a. pressure in the vessel. b. diameter of the vessel. c. viscosity of fluid in the vessel. d. length of the vessel.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Principles of Pressure, Resistance, and Flow in Vascular Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 20. The reason why blood capillaries can be exceedingly thin-walled and yet resist substantial pressures can be explained by a. Laplace’s law. b. Poiseuille’s equation. c. Hagen’s equation. d. Fick’s law.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 21. Which statement regarding microcirculatory beds is true? a. Smooth muscles in the walls of arterioles are responsible for vasoconstriction and vasodilation. b. Anastomoses are the one possible path from an arteriole to a venule. c. The walls of capillaries consist of vascular endothelium and a smooth muscle layer. d. Venules and arterioles are the preeminent sites of O2 and water exchange.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 22.–24. Refer to the figure below.

22. Which vertical section denotes the vascular portion with the highest pressure? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: a Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 23. Which vertical section denotes the vascular portion with the lowest mean blood velocity? a. I b. II c. III d. IV © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 24. Which vertical section denotes the vascular portion with the highest vascular resistance? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: c Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 25.–26. Refer to the figure below.

25. In section I, fluid is _______ the capillary due to _______. a. leaking out of; hydrostatic pressure b. leaking out of; colloid osmotic pressure c. moving into; hydrostatic pressure d. moving into; colloid osmotic pressure Answer: d Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

26. The figure depicts the _______ hypothesis: the initial loss and then regaining of fluid in the capillaries that results, overall, in a net _______ of fluid. a. Frank‒Starling; loss b. Starling‒Landis; loss c. Frank‒Landis; gain d. Poiseuille; gain Answer: b Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 27. The main difference between the pulmonary circuit and the systemic circuit is that the pulmonary circuit a. has a higher resistance. b. produces lower pressures. c. produces lower flows. d. has a lower cardiac output.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 28. Which of the following best describes the contractile properties of the heart of the elasmobranch fish? a. There are four chambers, however only the atria and ventricle contract. b. There are only two chambers, an atria and a ventricle, and they both contract. c. There are four chambers, and three contract. d. There are four chambers, and all four contract.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Circulation in Fish Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 29. Which characteristic is typical of teleost cardiovascular systems? a. The heart receives oxygenated blood flowing from the gills. b. Cardiac outputs are lower than those of similar-sized mammals. c. Blood pressure increases significantly as blood passes through the gills. d. Arterial pressures are higher than those of similar-sized mammals.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Circulation in Fish Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 30.‒31. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

30. From where do vessels branch off to supply the head and gut with oxygenated blood? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: b Textbook Reference: Circulation in Fish Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 31. When an air-breathing organ at the mouth is integrated into the circulation depicted in the figure, a new circulation loop is created connecting a. I to III. b. II to III. c. I to IV. d. III to IV. Answer: c Textbook Reference: Circulation in Fish Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 32. In fish that have an air-breathing organ (ABO), the blood a. leaving the ABO mixes with systemic and venous blood. b. leaving the ABO mixes with blood leaving the gills. c. enters the ABO following the exit from the gills. d. leaving the ABO enters the gills.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Circulation in Fish Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 33. Which statement describes a characteristic not found in the African lungfish Protopterus? a. The ventral aorta is extremely long and branched. b. The atrium and the ventricles are partially divided into left and right halves by septa. c. The conus arteriosis has longitudinal ridges that divide the lumen into two channels. d. The four pairs of branchial arteries arise immediately from the conus arteriosus.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Circulation in Fish Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

34.–36. Refer to the figure below.

34. Which plan represents the mammalian circulatory system? a. II b. III c. IV d. V Answer: a Textbook Reference: Circulation in Amphibians and in Reptiles Other than Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 35. Of the six circulatory plans above, how many partially or completely separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the heart? a. two b. three c. four d. five Answer: d Textbook Reference: Circulation in Amphibians and in Reptiles Other than Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 36. Which circulatory plan allows the animals to modulate blood flow to the lungs independently of blood flow to the rest of the body? © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. II and V b. II, IV, and V c. I, III, and IV d. I, IV, and V Answer: c Textbook Reference: Circulation in Amphibians and in Reptiles Other than Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 37. Which animal does not modulate blood flow to the lungs independently of blood flow to the rest of the body? a. Lungfish b. Amphibians c. Crocodilians d. Birds Answer: d Textbook Reference: Circulation in Amphibians and in Reptiles Other than Birds Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 38. Which structure aids crocodilians in diverting blood flow during diving? a. Foramen ovale b. Foramen of Panizza c. Ductus arteriosus d. Pulmonary artery Answer: b Textbook Reference: Circulation in Amphibians and in Reptiles Other than Birds Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 39. The _______ circulatory system of squids and octopuses consist of two _______. a. open; branchial hearts and one systemic heart b. open; systemic hearts and one branchial heart c. closed; systemic hearts and one branchial heart d. closed; branchial hearts and one systemic heart Answer: d Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Closed Circulatory Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 40.‒42. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

40. This circulatory plan belongs to which group of animals? a. Decapod crustaceans b. Invertebrates c. Fish d. Cephalopod molluscs Answer: d Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Closed Circulatory Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 41. The most oxygenated blood would be found just exiting the structure(s) at a. I. b. II. c. III. d. IV. Answer: b Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Closed Circulatory Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 42. According to the diagram, the highest blood pressure would be found just exiting the structure(s) at a. I. b. II. c. III. d. IV. Answer: c Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Closed Circulatory Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 43. A squid meets the increased demand for O2 at the tissues during intense exercise by a. increasing its circulation rate. b. pulling more O2 from the blood. c. both increasing circulation rate and pulling more O2 from the blood. d. making use of anaerobic metabolism only.

Answer: a © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Closed Circulatory Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 44. If a squid and a fish both double cardiac output during exercise, circulatory oxygen delivery to the tissues in _______ will _______. a. both animals; remain the same b. both animals; double c. the fish; be higher than in the squid d. the squid; be higher than in the fish Answer: c Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Closed Circulatory Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 45. Small spaces among cells of nonvascular organs and tissues are called a. lacunae. b. sinuses. c. ostia. d. interstitia.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Open Circulatory Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 46. Which statement regarding the lobster circulatory system is false? a. Hemolymph returns through holes in the heart called ostia. b. All vessels connected to the heart are arteries. c. The primary force that refills the heart is elastic rebound. d. There is a clear distinction between blood and interstitial fluid.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Open Circulatory Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 47.‒49. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

47. This circulatory plan belongs to which group of animals? a. Cephalopod molluscs b. Invertebrates c. Fish d. Decapod crustaceans Answer: d Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Open Circulatory Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 48. The most oxygenated blood would be found a. at I. b. just exiting the structure at II. c. at III. d. just exiting the structure at V. Answer: d Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Open Circulatory Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 49. The wavy boundaries at I and III represent the a. lack of vessels in the systemic tissues. b. gills. c. venous system. d. branchio-pericardial sinuses.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Open Circulatory Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 50. The blood circulation of crustaceans is _______ than that of fish primarily because of _______. a. faster; lower resistance b. faster; higher pressure c. slower; lower pressure d. slower; higher resistance Answer: a Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Open Circulatory Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

Short Answer 1. Describe the four systems that have evolved in animals to supply O2 to the myocardium and name the main animal groups that use each one.

Answer: The myocardium is sometimes supplied with O2 by blood flowing through a coronary circulation system, and sometimes it is supplied by blood flowing through the heart lumen. The compact myocardium of mammals and birds is supplied by coronary

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

arteries and veins. The fully spongy myocardium characteristic of most teleost fish is oxygenated mostly by luminal blood. In salmonids, tunas, and sharks, the ventricular myocardium consists of an outer compact layer with a coronary circulation and an inner spongy layer. In some octopuses, blood flows from the lumen through the myocardium and into the coronary veins.

Textbook Reference: Hearts Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. Compare and contrast the myogenic and neurogenic heart.

Answer: In the myogenic heart the initial electrical impulse originates in modified muscle cells, whereas in the neurogenic heart each impulse to contract originates in neurons. This difference is independent of the fact that most hearts are innervated to modulate heart rate.

Textbook Reference: Hearts Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. Why does the depolarization wave not travel across the mammalian heart from anterior to posterior (atria to ventricles) in a linear wave?

Answer: The depolarization wave emanating from the S-A node in the mammalian heart does not travel in a linear fashion from anterior to posterior because of the presence of connective tissue insulation as well as specialized muscle cells forming a conducting system. The fibrous connective tissue separating the atria from the ventricles prevents the depolarization wave from spreading immediately across to the ventricles. Instead, the atrioventricular bundle transmits the depolarization down the bundle branches and to the Purkinje fibers. This allows the depolarization to travel from the tip of the ventricles up to the base so the contraction can effectively propel the blood through the main arteries.

Textbook Reference: Hearts Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Explain, according to the physics of fluid-column effects, why a vascular foot injury needs to be elevated as much and as long as possible.

Answer: Because the vessels in the mammalian circulatory system follow the physics of fluid column effects, the pressure of the fluid at the bottom of the column will increase as the height of the column increases. Therefore, a standing person will have a much higher mean arterial pressure in the lower leg compared to at the heart. For a foot injury that may be bleeding, the pressure must be lowered to reduce the damage. Direct pressure helps, but elevating the foot above the heart will substantially lower the internal pressure and reduce bleeding.

Textbook Reference: Principles of Pressure, Resistance, and Flow in Vascular Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 5. How is vascular resistance related to the Poiseuille equation?

Answer: Although there is no direct value for resistance in the Poiseuille equation, it is separated out in this equation. Since flow rate equals the pressure difference divided by the resistance, and the Poiseuille equation also calculates flow rate, the resistance can be calculated to equal 8ηl/πr4.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: Principles of Pressure, Resistance, and Flow in Vascular Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 6. Describe and explain the linear velocity profile of red blood cells as they travel from the heart through the systemic tissues and back.

Answer: As red blood cells leave the heart, their velocity is at the highest in the circulatory cycle. As the blood proceeds through the arterioles, the velocity drops off dramatically because the resistance to flow increases. At the capillaries, the resistance is at its highest, and therefore the velocity is at its lowest. Interestingly, as the resistance decreases in the venous vessels, the velocity increases as the blood returns to the heart.

Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. Describe how an air-breathing organ is integrated into the circulatory plan of fish and how this physiology relates to the oxygenation of the fish myocardium.

Answer: One of the limitations of the fish circulatory plan is that the blood returning to the heart from the systemic tissues may be fairly deoxygenated, especially during exercise or in hypoxic water. Air-breathing organs likely evolved to enhance the oxygenation of the blood to the myocardium. Therefore, both common variations of parallel ABO circulation (whether the originating split-off is before or after the gills) merge back into the main circulation before returning to the heart. Although this welloxygenated blood will mix with postsystemic deoxygenated blood, the extra oxygen will maintain the function of the myocardium under exercise or hypoxic conditions.

Textbook Reference: Circulation in Fish Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. Explain how some animals modulate blood flow to their lungs independently of flow to the rest of the body and what the advantages are to this arrangement.

Answer: When animals have an incomplete separation between the pulmonary and systemic circulatory loops in the area of the heart, they are able (through changes in resistance) to alter flow at the lungs independently of flow to the rest of the body. This is important during extended breath-holding or diving in these animals, which include lungfish, amphibians, lizards, snakes, and turtles. If air in the lungs is depleted of oxygen, there is little change to oxygenate blood, so flow is reduced. In contrast, after a long bout of apnea, blood flow to the lungs can be increased as fresh air circulates in the lungs.

Therefore, this modulation can achieve, to some degree, a ventilation-perfusion match.

Textbook Reference: Circulation in Amphibians and in Reptiles other than Birds Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Compare and contrast the mammalian and cephalopod circulatory systems.

Answer: The mammalian and cephalopod circulatory systems are both closed and therefore generate a significant amount of pressure. The pulmonary and systemic systems of mammals and cephalopods are both in series, but they are separated anatomically in the cephalopods by the existence of two branchial hearts located just before the gills. The systemic heart of the cephalopods and the mammalian heart are both myogenic.

Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Closed Circulatory Systems

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Defend or refute this statement: “Blood flow through open systems is sluggish because of the relatively low-pressure gradients in open circulatory systems.”

Answer: Many descriptions of open circulatory systems focus on the low pressure nature of the system. When we think of low pressure, we often associate this with low flow.

While this is true in many cases, it is not true for many open circulatory systems, including those of the crustaceans. By lowering the resistance to flow dramatically, the low-pressure open circulatory system can generate incredibly rapid flow rates. The blood circulation of crustaceans, in fact, is three times faster than that of fish!

Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Open Circulatory Systems Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. In the human heart, oxygenated blood is carried from the lungs to the heart by the a. vena cava. b. aorta. c. pulmonary veins. d. pulmonary arteries.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Hearts Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. Cardiac output is directly proportional to a. heart rate. b. stroke volume. c. blood pressure. d. both heart rate and stroke volume.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Hearts Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 3. The hearts of vertebrates are myogenic, meaning that a. neurons control the inherent pace of the heart. b. the myocardium is compact and therefore has a coronary circulation. c. the impulse to contract originates within the muscle tissue. d. there is a cardiac conduction system.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Hearts Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. The QRS complex arises from ventricular a. depolarization.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. contraction. c. repolarization. d. diastole.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Hearts Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 5. Mean blood pressure in the brain of a standing person is _______ the blood pressure at the heart. a. higher than b. lower than c. exactly the same as d. approximately the same as Answer: b Textbook Reference: Principles of Pressure, Resistance, and Flow in Vascular Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 6. Which property has the greatest effect on the flow of liquid through a tube? a. Pressure difference b. Viscosity of the liquid c. Length of the tube d. Radius of the tube Answer: d Textbook Reference: Principles of Pressure, Resistance, and Flow in Vascular Systems Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 7. Flow rate equals the difference in blood pressure between the entry of the vascular system and the exit vessels, divided by a. the viscosity. b. vascular resistance. c. the viscosity multiplied by radius4. d. radius4.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Principles of Pressure, Resistance, and Flow in Vascular Systems Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 8. Which statement comparing the circulatory systems in mammals and birds is true? a. Birds have far smaller hearts per gram. b. Mammals have, on average, higher systolic blood pressures. c. Mammals have a higher pressure systemic circuit. d. Birds and mammals have essentially identical circulatory systems.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 9. In which vessel(s) is there a lack of pressure pulse?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. Large arteries, terminal arteries, and arterioles b. Terminal arteries, arterioles, capillaries, and venules c. Capillaries, venules, and veins d. Venules and veins Answer: c Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 10. Which vessels of the systemic vascular system have the highest total cross-sectional area? a. Arterial vessels b. Capillary beds c. Venous vessels d. Both arteries and veins have equal areas.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. In a mammal, blood pressure is lowest in the a. arterioles. b. capillaries. c. venules. d. veins.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 12. Excessive protein in the blood plasma will _______ the loss of fluid through the capillaries. a. increase b. decrease c. have no effect on d. increase, and then decrease Answer: b Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 13. When a mammal exercises, oxygen delivery is increased by a. increased blood flow. b. the extraction of more O2 per unit volume. c. increased blood flow and the extraction of more O2 per unit volume. d. increased blood flow, the extraction of more O2 per unit volume, and a lowering of resistance in the systemic vasculature.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Circulation in Mammals and Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

14. In _______, there is no separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood at the heart. a. a teleost fish b. a lungfish c. amphibians d. reptiles Answer: a Textbook Reference: Circulation in Fish Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 15. The chambers of the teleost fish heart are the a. atria and the ventricles. b. atria, ventricles, and bulbus arteriosus. c. sinus venosus, atrium, and ventricles. d. sinus venosus, atrium, ventricle, and bulbus arteriosus.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Circulation in Fish Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 16. In a fish that has an air-breathing organ, a. there are not likely to be functioning gills. b. the blood leaving the air-breathing organ mixes with blood leaving the gills. c. the blood leaving the air-breathing organ mixes with systemic venous blood. d. the blood enters the air-breathing organ following its exit from the gills.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Circulation in Fish Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 17. Among nonavian reptiles, crocodilians are unique because they a. have birdlike blood pressures. b. have hearts that are large relative to their mass. c. can shunt blood. d. have a complete ventricular septum.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Circulation in Amphibians and in Reptiles Other than Birds Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 18. Which statement about squid is false? a. Their systemic heart receives largely deoxygenated blood. b. Their systemic heart is myogenic. c. Blood enters the systemic heart from the gills. d. Branchial hearts pump blood through the gills.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Closed Circulatory Systems Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

19. In crustacean circulatory systems, deoxygenated blood from the tissues enters the heart via a. ostia. b. the cardinal veins. c. the dorsal abdominal artery. d. the dorsal abdominal vein.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Open Circulatory Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 20. Which statement about the insect circulatory system is true? a. Insects have a closed circulatory system and a tracheal system for delivering O2. b. Insects have an open circulatory system and a tracheal system for delivering O2. c. Insects have an open circulatory system and a derived lung for delivering O2. d. Insects have a closed circulatory system and solely a diffusion-based system for delivering O2.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Invertebrates with Open Circulatory Systems Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Animal Physiology, Fourth Edition Hill • Wyse • Anderson

Chapter 24: Transport of Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide in Body Fluids (with an Introduction to Acid–Base Physiology) TEST BANK QUESTIONS Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following is not a chemical category of respiratory pigment? a. Hemocyanins b. Hemerythrins c. Chlorocruorins d. Myoglobins Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 2. Which statement about hemoglobin is false? a. It plays a role in CO2 transport. b. It plays a role as a pH buffer. c. It plays a role in N2 transport. d. It is affected by temperature.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 3. Which statement comparing human adult and fetal hemoglobin is true? a. Fetal hemoglobin contains one particular subunit that lowers its P50. b. Fetal hemoglobin contains one particular subunit that raises its P50. c. All subunits of fetal hemoglobin are different and result in a lower P50. d. All subunits of fetal hemoglobin are different and result in a higher P50.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 4. Which statement about myoglobin is true? a. It is a respiratory pigment found in the red blood cell. b. It is exactly like hemoglobin but is found in a different location in the body. © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. It is a type of fetal hemoglobin. d. It is a respiratory pigment found in muscle cytoplasm.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 5. Hemocyanins occur in which animal groups? a. Molluscs b. Arthropods c. Echinoderms and molluscs d. Molluscs and arthropods Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. When the body detects _______, _______ is secreted to increase the production of red blood cells. a. high CO2 levels; erythropoeitin b. high CO2 levels; myoglobin c. low O2 levels; erythropoeitin d. low O2 levels; myoglobin Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. The image on a graph showing the functional relationship between the percentage of oxygenated binding sites and the O2 partial pressure is best known as a. the saturation curve. b. the affinity curve. c. the P50 curve. d. the oxygen dissociation curve.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 8. A respiratory pigment that requires a relatively low O2 partial pressure for loading has _______ affinity for O2. a. a low b. a high c. no d. a variable Answer: b Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 9. In a healthy human at rest, what is the approximate O2 saturation of venous blood as it is leaving the tissues? a. 75% b. 50% c. 25% d. 0% Answer: a Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10.‒12. Refer to the figure below.

10. The curve on the graph a. represents oxygen delivery by human blood at rest and during vigorous exercise. b. is a vertebrate oxygen dissociation curve. c. is a mammalian oxygen dissociation curve. d. represents the increase in oxygen concentration as blood travels to the lungs.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 11. Region I in the figure represents the a. amount of oxygen used by the tissues at rest. © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. oxygen concentration of blood in the tissues during exercise. c. oxygen concentration of blood in the tissues at rest. d. amount of oxygen used by the tissues during exercise.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 12. According to the figure, approximately how much more oxygen is used by the tissues during exercise compared to at rest? a. 15 mL O2/100 ml of blood b. 10 mL O2/100 ml of blood c. 15 mL O2/g d. 10 mL O2/g Answer: b Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 13. The venous O2 partial pressure below which aerobic catabolism becomes impaired is known as the a. minimal venous O2 partial pressure. b. critical venous reserve. c. venous threshold. d. critical venous O2 partial pressure.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 14. Which statement regarding the figure below is false?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. The dotted line depicts a pigment showing cooperativity. b. The solid line depicts a pigment displaying no cooperativity. c. The solid line could represent human hemoglobin. d. The solid line displays a generally higher O2 affinity compared to the gray line.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 15.–17. Refer to the figure below.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

15. Which oxygen dissociation curve in the figure below would represent a diving mammal such as a Weddell seal? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: a Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 16 Which oxygen dissociation curve in the figure would represent a hypoxia-adapted species such as a carp? a. I b. II c. IV © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. V Answer: d Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 17. Which oxygen dissociation curve in the figure carries the least amount of oxygen per unit volume of blood? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: a Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 18.‒20. Refer to the figure below.

18. On the graph, which oxygen dissociation curve represents a very high blood pH (e.g., 7.6)? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: a Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

19. On the graph, which oxygen dissociation curve represents blood with a high CO2 partial pressure (e.g., 80 mm Hg)? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: d Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 20. On the graph, which oxygen dissociation curve represents a P50 of about 4 kPa? a. I b. II c. III d. IV Answer: c Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 21. A respiratory pigment that requires a relatively low O2 partial pressure for loading and has a high affinity for O2 would also have a. a relatively low P50. b. a relatively high P50. c. no P50 at all. d. a variable P50.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 22. The effect of acid in reducing the affinity of hemoglobin for O2 is called the _______ effect. a. Haldane b. dissociation c. Root d. Bohr Answer: d Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 23. Which statement is not directly related to the Bohr effect? a. The Hb‒O2 affinity increases as pH increases. b. The Hb‒O2 affinity decreases as temperature increases. c. The Hb‒O2 affinity decreases as CO2 partial pressure increases. d. The Hb‒O2 affinity decreases as H+ concentration increases.

Answer: b

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 24. The affinity of hemoglobin for O2 increases with a. decreasing temperature. b. decreasing blood pH. c. an increase in CO2 partial pressure. d. increasing [H+].

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 25. The venous blood displays a reduced O2 affinity compared to arterial blood because its a. CO2 partial pressure is higher. b. H+ concentration is higher. c. hemoglobin concentration is lower. d. CO2 partial pressure is higher and its H+ concentration is higher.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 26.‒27. Refer to the figure below.

26. The pattern of the curves in the figure demonstrates the a. Root effect. b. Haldane effect. © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

c. fixed-acid Bohr effect. d. CO2 Bohr effect.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 27. As shown in the figure, the P50 _______ declining pH. a. increases with b. decreases with c. remains constant with d. is unrelated to Answer: d Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 28. The Root effect applies to which physiological mechanism? a. The unloading of O2 in muscle tissue b. The inflating of the swim bladder of many fish c. The loading of O2 at the gills d. The unloading of O2 in low pH regions of the stomach Answer: b Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 29. During chronic exposure to high altitude, increasing 2,3-DPG a. increases Hb‒O2 affinity. b. increases the unloading of O2 at tissues. c. increases the loading of O2 at the lungs. d. decreases the P50 of hemoglobin.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 30. The figure below shows that a reduction in O2 affinity

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. impairs O2 unloading less than it enhances loading. b. impairs O2 unloading more than it enhances loading. c. enhances O2 unloading more than it impairs loading. d. enhances O2 unloading less than it impairs loading.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 31. Which statement about respiratory pigments is false? a. They serve as major buffers of blood pH. b. They play critical roles in CO2 transport. c. They play critical roles in the transport of nutrients. d. They can function as O2 stores in invertebrates.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 32. According to the figure below, which statement is the most accurate?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. O2 concentrations of arterial blood are inversely proportional to swimming speed. b. As O2 concentrations of blood drop in venous blood, swimming speed increases. c. Cold-acclimated fish have a much lower saturation level during exercise than other fish do. d. As swimming speed increases, the arterial blood remains nearly saturated while the venous blood decreases in saturation.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 33. In octopuses, venous saturation is about _______% at rest and about _______% during exercise. a. 75; 25 b. 30; 30 c. 30; 10 d. 10; 10 Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 34. An octopus meets the increased demand for O2 at the tissues during intense exercise by a. increasing its circulation rate. b. pulling more O2 from the blood (from its venous reserve). c. switching to another form of hemoglobin. d. increasing its circulation rate and pulling more O2 from the blood (from its venous reserve).

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 35. The P50 in a fish species adapted to a low oxygen aquatic environment would likely be _______ the P50 of a fish species adapted to a well-oxygenated aquatic environment. a. higher than b. equal to c. lower than d. extremely variable compared to Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 36. The figure below shows that

a. larger primates have fewer red blood cells than smaller primates do. b. the whole blood of smaller primates has lower O2 affinity than that of larger primates. c. the whole blood of smaller primates has greater O2 affinity than that of larger primates. d. larger primates have more red blood cells than smaller primates do.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 37. The exposure of Daphnia to O2-poor water for days would result in a. an increase in hemoglobin concentration. b. a change in the globin subunits produced. c. an increase in hemoglobin concentration and a decrease in the P50 of the blood. d. an increase in hemoglobin concentration, a decrease in the P50 of the blood, and a change in the globin subunits produced.

Answer: d © 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 38. Antarctic icefish compensate for the lack of circulating red blood cells with a. an increase in the amount of hemoglobin in their plasma. b. the use of another type of respiratory pigment. c. an increased circulation rate. d. a lowering of their metabolic rate, along with general inactivity.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 39. In many cases, lowland people who travel to an area of high altitude for an extended period of time will develop a condition known as a. polycythemia. b. anemia. c. bradycardia. d. hypotension.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 40. The extent of bicarbonate formation in the blood depends primarily on the a. solubility of bicarbonate in the plasma. b. temperature. c. blood buffers. d. solubility of carbonic acid.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 41. The buffering effectiveness of any given buffer reaction is greatest when the prevailing pH _______ the pK´ of the reaction. a. is much greater than b. matches c. is much lower than d. is as far away as possible from Answer: b Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 42. What determines the shape of the CO2 equilibrium curve? a. The kinetics of HCO3– formation b. The amount of dissolved CO2 c. The number of carbamate groups and the amount of dissolved CO2

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

d. The kinetics of HCO3– formation, the number of carbamate groups, and the amount of dissolved CO2 Answer: d Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 43. The deoxygenation of hemoglobin promotes CO2 uptake and the oxygenation of hemoglobin promotes the unloading of CO2. This phenomenon is called the _______ effect. a. Root b. fixed-acid Bohr c. Haldane d. CO2 Bohr Answer: c Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 44. Which species would have the highest total blood CO2 concentration? a. Human b. Turtle c. Lungfish d. Trout Answer: b Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 45. The key enzyme involved in the formation of bicarbonate from CO2 is a. lactate dehydrogenase. b. alcohol dehydrogenase. c. carbonic anhydrase. d. bicarbonate dehydrogenase.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 46. The chloride shift refers to a. rapid anion exchange proteins. b. carbonic anhydrase. c. carbamate formation. d. the dissolving of CO2 in plasma.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 47. In mammals, the bulk of the CO2 is transported from the tissue to the lungs as a. bicarbonate dissolved in the plasma.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

b. CO2 dissolved in the plasma. c. CO2 bound to hemoglobin. d. bicarbonate bound to hemoglobin.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 48. The alphastat hypothesis attempts to explain why _______ as temperature falls. a. blood pH of ectotherms decreases b. blood pH of ectotherms increases c. muscle pH of ectotherms decreases d. blood pH of endotherms decreases Answer: b Textbook Reference: Acid‒Base Physiology Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 49. Which of the following is(are) the main organ(s) responsible for adjusting blood pH in terrestrial animals? a. Lungs b. Kidneys c. Lungs and kidneys d. Lungs, kidneys, and liver Answer: c Textbook Reference: Acid‒Base Physiology Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 50. If exhalation of CO2 is abnormally increased relative to production, the likely result will be a. respiratory acidosis. b. metabolic acidosis. c. metabolic alkalosis. d. respiratory alkalosis.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: Acid‒Base Physiology Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying

Short Answer 1. In what way can hemoglobin be considered an “honorary enzyme”?

Answer: Respiratory pigments have been dubbed “honorary enzymes” because many important properties of the respiratory pigments resemble those of enzyme proteins. In terms of their main respiratory functions, they are not enzymes. However, sometimes respiratory pigments can act as enzymes. In mammals, deoxymyoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin can catalyze the local formation of nitric oxide, a critically important signaling compound.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 2. What do the main respiratory pigments have in common?

Answer: The main respiratory pigments discussed in the text are hemoglobins, hemocyanins, hemerythrins, and chlorocruorins. While not all of these groups contain heme, they all contain at least one metal ion per molecule (either copper or iron) to which oxygen attaches.

Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. Explain the significance of measurements of mixed venous O2 partial pressure.

Answer: Mixed venous O2 partial pressure represents the average of the O2 partial pressures of blood leaving all of the systemic tissues. It allows one to gauge the body’s use of O2, provided there is flow data. It also allows one to calculate the venous reserve, or the amount of O2 circulating back to the lungs. This reserve is the amount of O2 that could be used if the tissues needed more O2—for example, during exercise.

Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 4. Why is human hemoglobin a good example of evolutionary molecular design?

Answer: The human hemoglobin molecule is a good example of evolutionary molecular design for three primary reasons. 1) Human hemoglobin is nearly saturated at the O2 partial pressures that are maintained in the lungs by breathing. 2) The oxygen equilibrium curve of hemoglobin is nearly flat at pulmonary O2 pressures, so high oxygenation is ensured regardless of variation in function. 3) The oxygen equilibrium curve is shaped in such a way that 90% of the O2 bound to hemoglobin can be released for use at blood partial pressures that are compatible with full mitochondrial function.

Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 5. Compare and contrast oxygen affinity with P50.

Answer: Oxygen affinity and P50 are both ways of describing how saturated hemoglobin may be at a given partial pressure of O2. The higher the oxygen affinity, the lower the partial pressure of O2 can be for 100% loading of O2 onto hemoglobin. The P50, however, is a more accurate representation of oxygen loading dynamics. The P50 is defined as the partial pressure of O2 at which a pigment is 50% saturated. Therefore, the lower the P50, the higher the oxygen affinity.

Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 6. Compare and contrast the CO2 Bohr effect and the Haldane effect.

Answer: Both the CO2 Bohr effect and the Haldane effect have to do with CO2 and hemoglobin, but the focus of each effect is different. The CO2 Bohr effect concerns how

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

CO2 concentration affects O2 loading on hemoglobin. Higher CO2 concentrations cause the O2 affinity for hemoglobin to decrease. The Haldane effect concerns the effect of O2 partial pressure on CO2 loading and unloading. When the tissues use O2, the lower the local partial pressure of O2 and promote the deoxygenation of hemoglobin. This changes the conformation of hemoglobin such that it promotes the CO2 binding to hemoglobin.

Conversely, when the partial pressure of O2 is high, such as at the lungs, this favors O2 binding to hemoglobin, which changes hemoglobin’s conformation to favor the unloading of CO2.

Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. What is unique about the respiratory pigments and circulatory O2 transport of the octopus?

Answer: The respiratory pigment of the octopus is hemocyanin. The main O2 circulation anomaly is that, compared to mammals, octopuses have virtually no venous reserve, even while at rest. This means that during exercise, oxygen delivery to the tissues can be increased only by an increase in circulation.

Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 8. What determines the shape of the CO2 dissociation curve?

Answer: All three kinds of CO2 being transported—CO2 dissolved in plasma, CO2 bound to Hemoglobin, and HCO3‒ —affect the shape of the CO2 dissociation curve. However, the shape is largely determined by HCO3‒ formation dynamics. This means that the shape depends on blood buffer systems: the concentrations of the buffer groups, their pK´ values, and the extent to which they are loaded with H+ from acids other than CO2.

Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 9. Why are carbonic anhydrase and anion transporters important in vertebrate CO2 transport?

Answer: Vertebrate CO2 is transported mainly as HCO3‒ dissolved in plasma. In order to form this ion species from CO2, carbonic anhydrase is needed. Carbonic anhydrase is the enzyme that greatly accelerates the conversion of CO2 into HCO3‒. However, this occurs primarily in the red blood cell. The anion transporters, primarily the band 3 protein, exchange HCO3‒ in the cell for Cl‒ outside the cell in a process known as the chloride shift. The entire process is reversed at the lung so that CO2 can be re-formed for exhalation.

Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Why does temperature alter blood pH in ectotherms?

Answer: The current hypothesis for the increase in pH as blood temperature decreases in ectotherms is known as the alphastat hypothesis. This hypothesis states that the changes in pH are a means of maintaining a constant state of electrical charge on protein

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

molecules. Changes in temperature alter the chemical behavior of buffer groups on protein molecules, and the change in pH maintains this buffering behavior.

Textbook Reference: Acid‒Base Physiology Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding

ONLINE QUIZ QUESTIONS 1. Which statement regarding hemoglobin is false? a. Its affinity for O2 can change. b. It is primarily an enzyme. c. It binds to O2 via weak, noncovalent bonds. d. It is a buffer.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 2. How many molecules of O2 does a molecule of vertebrate blood hemoglobin normally bind? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 Answer: c Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 3. Which respiratory pigment contains copper at the O2 binding site? a. Myoglobin b. Chlorocruorin c. Hemerythrin d. Hemocyanin Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 4. Which statement about the four chemical classes of respiratory pigments is true? a. All are metalloproteins. b. All bind reversibly with O2 at specific O2-binding sites associated with metal ions. c. All share the same heme structure. d. All are metalloproteins and bind reversibly with O2 at specific O2-binding sites associated with metal ions.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Chemical Properties and Distributions of the Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 5. In people at rest, the approximate O2 saturation of venous blood leaving the tissues is a. 75%. b. 5 ml O2/100 ml blood. c. 10 ml O2/100 ml blood. d. 5%.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 6. During exercise, the body supplies O2 to the muscles by a. increasing muscle fiber declination. b. increasing blood flow. c. increasing blood flow and unloading more O2 to tissues from hemoglobin. d. increasing muscle fiber declination, increasing blood flow, and unloading more O2 to tissues from hemoglobin.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 7. The extent of O2-binding site cooperativity is expressed using a mathematical index called the a. Bohr effect. b. Root index. c. Haldane constant. d. Hill coefficient.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering 8. Which word best describes the mechanism for the steep portion of the oxygen dissociation curve? a. Cooperativity b. Loading c. Unloading d. Coefficient Answer: a Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 9. The process by which low pH aids in the decreasing affinity of hemoglobin for O2 is called the _______ effect.

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. Bohr b. Root c. Haldane d. hemoglobin-shift Answer: a Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 10. Which statement about the Bohr effect is true? a. A higher temperature decreases the Hb‒O2 affinity. b. A lower pH increases the Hb‒O2 affinity. c. A higher partial pressure of CO2 decreases the Hb‒O2 affinity. d. A higher H+ concentration increases the Hb‒O2 affinity.

Answer: c Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 4. Analyzing 11. Which variable does not affect the properties of the O2 dissociation curve? a. Temperature b. Partial pressure of CO2 c. 2,3-DPG concentration d. Cardiac output Answer: d Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 12. Which hemoglobin has the highest P50? a. Hemoglobin at a lower-than-normal temperature, such as 35°C b. Fetal hemoglobin c. Hemoglobin in a human residing at a high altitude for three weeks d. Hemoglobin at a higher-than-normal pH, such as 7.6 Answer: c Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 13. A reduction in the amount of O2 bound to hemoglobin at saturation could be the result of the _______ effect. a. Bohr b. fixed-acid Bohr c. Root d. Haldane Answer: c Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 14. During chronic exposure to high altitude, increased 2,3-DPG

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. increases hemoglobin‒O2 affinity. b. increases the unloading of O2 at tissues. c. permits increased physical exercise. d. increases the loading of O2 at the lungs.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The O2-Binding Characteristics of Respiratory Pigments Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 15. During exercise, squids and octopuses meet their O2 demand by a. drawing additional O2 from venous reserve. b. increasing their circulation rate. c. increasing the affinity of hemoglobin for O2. d. decreasing the affinity of hemoglobin for O2.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 16. In general, what is the relationship between primate size and Hb‒O2 affinity? a. Larger primates tend to have a lower Hb‒O2 affinity. b. Smaller primates tend to have a lower P50. c. Larger primates tend to have a higher P50. d. Smaller primates tend to have a lower Hb‒O2 affinity.

Answer: d Textbook Reference: The Functions of Respiratory Pigments in Animals Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 17. Compared to oxygenated blood, fully deoxygenated blood has a a. higher affinity for CO2. b. lower affinity for CO2. c. higher affinity for bicarbonate. d. lower affinity for O2.

Answer: a Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport Bloom’s Category: 3. Applying 18. Bicarbonate created from CO2 in the red blood cell gets into the plasma a. through exclusive bicarbonate channels. b. via chloride exchange. c. with the assistance of carbonic anhydrase, which shuttles it into the plasma. d. via active transport in exchange for Na+.

Answer: b Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport Bloom’s Category: 2. Understanding 19. Which of the following is(are) involved in the transport of CO2 from the tissues to the lungs?

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.

a. Bicarbonate b. Bicarbonate and CO2 bound to hemoglobin c. CO2 bound to hemoglobin and CO2 dissolved in plasma d. Bicarbonate, CO2 bound to hemoglobin, and CO2 dissolved in plasma Answer: d Textbook Reference: Carbon Dioxide Transport Bloom’s Category: 5. Evaluating 20. According to the _______, changes in pH are a means by which ectotherms maintain a constant state of electrical charge on protein molecules. a. Root effect b. Bohr shift c. alphastat hypothesis d. law of buffered reactions Answer: c Textbook Reference: Acid–Base Physiology Bloom’s Category: 1. Remembering

© 2016 Sinauer Associates, Inc.