Test bank for Analyzing American Democracy Politics & Political Science 4th Edition by Bond, Smith

7. According to the text, each of the following are among the “core principles” of American democracy, EXCEPT a. Unitary government b. Majority rule c. Political freedom d. Political equality 8. The framers of the Constitution believed that minority rights must be respected in order to achieve all the following goals EXCEPT a. Contribute to a political culture where the minority will respect majority decisions b. To prove that slavery was unjust c. Instill a sense that decisions have been arrived at fairly d. Promote government legitimacy and stability 9. Which of the following is an example of direct democracy? a. A ballot initiative b. Congress c. An opinion poll d. The presidential election 10. The term “pluralism” describes a governmental philosophy in which a. Power is divided between a single national government and several national subunits b. A handful of elites control the actions of government c. Groups of competing interests vie for the attention of government d. Power is divided between several branches of government 11. In Polisciland blue-eyed people are not allowed to vote, a policy approved by the majority brown-eyed people. What core democratic values are in conflict here? a. Majority rule against political equality b. Political equality against minority rights c. Majority rule against popular sovereignty d. Direct democracy versus representative democracy 12. State voters are asked to approve a ballot initiative legalizing beer sales in Flagship University Stadium. What is this an example of? a. Representative democracy b. Direct democracy c. Oligarchy d. Purposive benefits 13. What are the core principles of democracy? a. Majority rule, political equality, and popular sovereignty b. Popular sovereignty, elections, and political equality c. Majority rule, political equality, and political freedom d. Political equality and majority rule 14. Partisanship is a. Best exemplified in party structure b. The formal membership in political party c. Caused by rational deliberation and debate on many issues

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d. A psychological attachment to political party 15. A form of government in which the power to make decisions and allocate resources is given to a small number of persons is called a. Autocracy b. Oligarchy c. Direct democracy d. Representative democracy 16. Pluralists argue that in American government, power should be a. Fragmented among different branches b. Given to the majority because democracy requires majority rule c. Given to the most educated because they will make the right decisions d. Given to the richest because they have earned it 17. The pluralist model of democracy has been criticized for a. Its slowness and conservative bias b. Its over emphasis on restraining majorities c. Its failure to protect the rights of unpopular and unorganized minorities d. All of the above 18. Which of the following would pluralists probably agree with? a. Tyranny of the majority is to be feared more than tyranny of the minority b. Elections provide an adequate check on government c. Power should be concentrated in the hands of the majority d. All of these 19. Which of the following characteristics differentiates government from other organizations that resolve conflict? a. Using the power of admonitions b. Teaching certain beliefs c. Legitimate use of coercion d. Resolving conflicts over values 20. In which type of election do voters have an opportunity to make specific policy decisions? a. Recall elections b. Initiative and referendum c. Issue election d. Amending election 21. As a core democratic principle, majority rule is more important than a. Political freedom b. Political equality c. Both of the above d. None of the above 22. Political scientists who adopt science as the best means to gain useful knowledge about politics and government are most interested in a. Identifying which form of government is best b. Constructing empirical theories and testing explanation of why politics works the way it does

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c. Normative theory d. Using the scientific method to indoctrinate students 23. The idea that people believe their views are “normal” and “common sense” and therefore shared by most people is known as a. Null hypothesis b. False consensus c. Truth d. Normative 24. The idea that people should be free from discrimination and class or social barriers is called a. Social equality b. Democracy c. Political freedom d. Popular sovereignty 25. Which of the following is NOT considered a basic form of government? a. Oligarchy b. Constitutional monarchy c. Democracy d. Autocracy 26. A form of government in which the power to make decisions and allocate resources is vested in one person is called a. Oligarchy b. Autocracy c. Democracy d. None of these 27. In which form of government do all the citizens have the opportunity to participate in the process of making authoritative decisions and allocating resources? a. Oligarchy b. Direct democracy c. Representative democracy d. Autocracy 28. The largest percentage of a vote, when no one has a majority is known as 50% plus 1 of all members or all eligible voters is known as a. Absolute majority b. Plurality c. Simple majority d. minority 29. In a direct democracy, who is responsible for political decision making? a. Citizens b. Educated elites c. Economic elites d. Representatives 30. ________ means each individual should receive the same amount of material goods regardless of their contribution to society.

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a. b. c. d.

Equality of opportunity Equality under the law Social equality Economic equality

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31. Questions that can be answered by careful observation and measurement can be described as a. Empirical b. Normative c. Impossible d. Rare 32. All of the following are basic goals of science EXCEPT: a. Description b. Explanation c. Prescription d. Prediction 33. The idea that every individual has the right to develop to the fullest extent of his or her abilities is called a. Economic equality b. Social equality c. Equality under the law d. Equality of opportunity 34. The idea that the law is supposed to be applied impartially, without regard for the identity or status of the individual involved is called a. Equality before the law b. Economic equality c. Social equality d. Equality of opportunity 35. The institution that has the authority to make decisions that are binding on everyone is generally referred to as a. Religion b. Society c. Government d. Sovereignty 36. A consistent set of values, attitudes, and beliefs about the appropriate role of government in society can describe one's a. Party affiliation b. Ideology c. Partisanship d. Initiative 37. An election in which ordinary citizens circulate a petition to put a proposed law on the ballot for the voters to approve is known as a. Referendum b. Initiative c. Proposal d. All of these

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38. Which of the following does NOT describe a representative democracy? a. Ordinary citizens make all government decisions b. Citizens choose their representatives c. Elected representatives make decisions for the citizens d. The form of democracy practiced in the United States 39. The principal under which government follows the course of action preferred by most people is known as a. Majority rule b. Minority rule c. Minority rights d. None of these 40. ______ analysis seeks to prescribe how things should be valued, what should be, and what is good or just, better or worse. a. Normative b. Empirical c. Null hypothesis d. False consensus 41. The idea that individual preferences should be given equal weight describes ________. a. Political equality b. Economic equality c. Social equality d. Popular sovereignty 42. An election in which a state legislature refers a proposed law to the voters for their approval is defined as a. Initiative b. Referendum c. Proposal d. None of these 43. According to rational choice models of behavior, the principal motivation for individual choices is: a. Self-interest b. Cultural norms c. The public good d. Identification with social groups 44. Behavioral models of politics emphasize the role of ________________________ in shaping political attitudes and behavior. a. Biological factors b. Utility maximization c. Socialization and learning d. Identification with social groups 45. Research suggesting that Republicans and Democrats perceive the world very differently represents which of the following "models" of political behavior? a. Rational choice b. Evolutionary and biological

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c. Behavioral d. Sociological

True-False 1.

One problem with rational choice theory is that externalities resulting from individual choices may generate less than optimal outcomes for the greater group. a. True.

2. Although the heart of democracy is about process, substance counts too. a. True 3. Democracies do not necessarily produce the best policy outcomes. a. True 4. Americans like the idea of democracy, but don't necessarily like the process of democratic politics. a. True 5. Government is among many institutions that can legitimately use coercion on all individuals and organizations in deciding who gets what. a. False 6. Democracy always produces the best possible outcomes. a. False 7. Democracy can be direct or representative, and the U.S. has both, although it is a primarily representative democratic system. a. True 8. Any system of government in which people are allowed to cast votes is a democracy a. False 9. Political science can never be "scientific" because human behavior is too erratic to be explained by scientific theories. a. False 10. A "theory" is most accurately defined as a "hunch" or "guess" about something. a. False 11. When researchers find clear empirical evidence to support their theories, we say that the theory has been "proven." a. False

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Multiple Choice 1. Louis Marshal described the ________ as the “guiding principle of the freest Government on earth” a. Constitution b. Bill of Rights c. Magna Carta d. None of these 2. A constitution a. Can be a document or an unwritten set of rules b. Establishes a legal relationship between leaders and the led c. Guides the exercise of political authority d. All of the above 3. A constitution consists of ______ essential elements a. Four b. Three c. Five d. Two 4. The two major historical antecedents to the U.S. Constitution are a. The Declaration of Independence and the Articles of Confederation b. The Declaration of Independence and the Magna Carta c. The Articles of Confederation and the Bill of Rights d. The Bill of Rights and the Magna Carta 5. The primary author of the Declaration of Independence was a. Benjamin Franklin b. John Adams c. John Hancock d. Thomas Jefferson 6. The ____________ lays out the foundation of American constitutional theory a. Magna Carta b. Declaration of Independence c. Articles of Confederation d. Federalist Papers 7. The Articles of Confederation laid out a government with a _______ legislature. a. Unicameral b. Bicameral c. Nonexistent d. Divided 8. The following were principal features of the national government under the Articles of Confederation EXCEPT: a. A dominant legislature b. A weak executive c. A weak judiciary d. A dominant judiciary 9. Early state governments and the national governments focused on

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a. Strong centralized government b. Limited centralized government c. Increased tax revenue d. Strong political systems based on popular sovereignty 10. Following the Revolutionary War, the United States was a. Economically and politically vulnerable b. Economically but not politically vulnerable c. Politically but not economically vulnerable d. Not economically or politically vulnerable 11. The group of people who supported the adoption of the Constitution and favored a stronger national government were a. The Federalists b. The Anti-Federalists c. The Constitutionalists d. The Anti-Constitutionalists 12. The group of people who opposed the ratification of the Constitution and opposed stronger government were a. The Federalists b. The Anti-Federalists c. The Constitutionalists d. The Anti-Constitutionalists 13. One rational choice argument explaining the adoption of the Constitution is a. Equality was important to the Founders b. Patriotism was the key motivating factor for the Founders c. The Founders were motivated by economic gains d. The Founders were motivated by contemporary political theory and thought 14. As a group, the __________ were wealthier and better educated. a. The Federalists b. The Anti-Federalists c. The Constitutionalists d. The Anti-Constitutionalists 15. One event in 1786 that enabled the Federalists to act on their desires for a stronger national government were a. A meeting in Annapolis, MD that was meant to discuss problems of interstate trade b. Shays’ Rebellion c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 16. The original purpose of the Constitutional Convention was a. To create a new constitution b. To revise the Articles of Confederation c. To make the Declaration of Independence legally binding d. None of these 17. The Founders

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a. Were mostly Anti-Federalists b. Were not representative of most Americans c. Were mostly farmers d. None of these 18. James Madison wrote the __________ as a new proposal for the U.S. government a. Madisonian Plan b. Virginia Plan c. Massachusetts Plan d. New Jersey Plan 19. The ___________ called for a bicameral legislature with a popularly elected house and an upper house nominated by state legislatures. a. Connecticut Compromise b. Virginia Plan c. New Jersey Plan d. Massachusetts Plan 20. The Virginia Plan called for a __________ legislature a. Unicameral b. Bicameral c. Unitary d. Bilateral 21. The ____________ was presented at the Constitutional Convention that called for a unicameral legislature with equal representation for each state. a. The Madisonian Dilemma b. The Virginia Plan c. The New Jersey Plan d. The Connecticut Plan 22. The New Jersey Plan was similar to the ________________. a. Magna Carta b. The Bill of Rights c. Articles of Confederation d. None of these 23. The _____________ resolved the conflict between the Virginia Plan and the New Jersey Plan. a. Massachusetts Agreement b. Connecticut Compromise c. Georgia Compromise d. New York Plan 24. The ___________ were written by James Madison, Alexander Hamilton, and John Jay to support the ratification of the new constitution. a. Federalist Papers b. Publius Manifestos c. Anti-Federalist Papers d. Political Issues

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25. A _________ is a number of citizens who are united by some common passion or interest that is averse to the rights of other citizens or to the permanent interests of the community. a. Interest group b. Faction c. Political party d. None of these 26. The ______________ is the problem of limiting self-interested individuals who administer stronger governmental powers from using those powers to destroy the freedoms that government is supposed to protect. a. Jeffersonian Dilemma b. Hamiltonian Dilemma c. Madisonian Dilemma d. Washingtonian Dilemma 27. The Madisonian Dilemma, argued Madison, is best checked by a. Morality b. Religion c. Oligarchy d. A republican form of government 28. According to Madison, _________ would be achieved through representative form of government with limits on those who hold power. a. Popular sovereignty b. Democracy c. Majority rule d. Political freedom 29. The U.S. Constitution fragments power through a. The separation of powers b. Checks and balances c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 30. ______________ is the idea that each branch of the federal government should protect its own rights, but also cooperate with the other branches. a. Popular sovereignty b. Division of labor c. Check and balance d. Separation 31. A ___________ is the group of people served by an elected official or branch of government. a. Constituency b. Voting block c. Interest group d. Political party 32. The constitutional division of powers between the national government and the states is known as

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a. Confederalism b. Republicanism c. Democracy d. Federalism 33. Mixed government means government should represent a. Both property and number of people b. Rural and urban voters c. State and national interests d. All people equally 34. Formal amendments to the Constitution require _____ distinct stage(s). a. Three b. Four c. Two d. One 35. Amendments to the Constitution can be proposed by a. A two-thirds vote in both Congressional houses b. At the request of two-thirds of states c. At the request of 34 of the 50 states d. All of the above 36. ____________ are the freedoms and protections against arbitrary governmental actions given to the people in a democratic society. a. Civil rights b. Civil liberties c. Civil freedoms d. None of these 37. The Constitution is changed mostly through a. State-proposed amendments b. Custom and usage c. Legislated amendments d. Presidential power 38. The Constitution contains _________ types of powers. a. Two b. Four c. Five d. Three 39. The types of powers contained within the Constitution include all of the following EXCEPT a. Enumerated powers b. Inherent powers c. Implied powers d. Supplemental powers 40. One example of an inherent power is a. Executive privilege b. Printing money

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c. Raising an army d. All of these 41. The case establishing the precedent of judicial review is a. Marbury v Madison b. Tinker v Des Moines c. Baker v Carr d. Chisolm v Georgia True and False 1. There has only been one constitution for the government of the United States. a. False 2. The Declaration of Independence is not legally binding. a. True 3. Religion played a large role in influencing the delegates to the constitutional convention. a. False 4. The Federalist Papers were published under the pseudonym Publius. a. True 5. The U.S. Constitution as a written document was quite innovative at the time. a. True 6. The U.S. Constitution fragments power in three ways. a. False 7. The President has the authority to propose amendments to the Constitution. a. False 8. All proposed Constitutional Amendments have to be ratified within a certain period of time. a. False

Essay/Discussion 1. If scientific theories are neutral, objective explanations of some real-world phenomenon, why is popular reaction to them often normative?

2. Are normative reactions to scientific research the result of the values we associate with the phenomenon being studied, or do you think scientific theories have inherent biases?

3. What are the deficiencies of the current constitution (with amendments)? Why do you view them as deficiencies? How would you correct them? Could they be corrected with a few amendments, or would we need to write a whole new constitution?

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Multiple Choice 1. Dual federalism may be seen at work in a. Responses to the Covid pandemic b. Responses to Black Lives Matter protests c. Federal taxes on state gambling proceeds d. All of the above 2. Under federalism, states ________ the national government. a. Are subordinate to b. Are partners of c. Share powers with d. Are more powerful than 3. Under confederalism, states __________ the national government. a. Are subordinate to b. Are partners of c. Share powers with d. Are more powerful than 4. In a confederation, power comes from a. The states b. The people c. The social contract d. The federal government 5. A current example of a confederal system is a. Zambia b. The United Nations c. The United Kingdom d. Yugoslavia 6. Under a unitary system, states a. Only have the power the national government grants them b. Are more powerful than the national government c. Are partners with the national government d. Have distinct powers from the national government 7. Most countries have _______ governments a. Confederal b. Unitary c. Federal d. Non-existent 8. In __________, central and regional governments share sovereignty. a. Unitary governments b. Confederal governments c. Cooperative governments d. Federal governments 9. An advantage of federalism is a. The experimentation of regional governments

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b. The tailoring of policies to local preferences c. The accommodation of diverse interests d. All of the above 10. The Constitution spells out a. Certain powers of states b. Certain rights and obligations of states c. The population of states d. The geography of states 11. Implied powers of Congress come from, Article I, Section a. 12 b. 10 c. 8 d. 6 12. All three types of government involve a. State-centric constitutions b. Strong central governments c. Specific shared obligations d. Some division of power 13. The primary feature of the U.S. Constitution is a. Confederalism b. Unitary government c. Federalism d. None of the above 14. All levels of government have ________ over time. a. Grown in size b. Decreased in size c. Stayed the same d. Fluctuated 15. There are ________ eras of federalism in the United States a. Four b. Six c. Three d. Seven 16. All of the following are eras of U.S. federalism EXCEPT a. Dual federalism b. Cooperative federalism c. New federalism d. Uncooperative federalism 17. State-federal power relationships in the U.S. are currently a. Fractious and unstable b. Stable but fractious c. Unstable but united d. Stable and united 18. The disadvantages of federalism include all of the following EXCEPT

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a. Complexity and inefficiency b. Bureaucracy c. Factions d. A lack of accountability 19. The U.S. Constitution spells out the powers given to ________ in Article I, Section 8. a. The executive b. Congress c. The judiciary d. The press 20. Under the Constitution, Congress could a. Levy taxes b. Borrow money c. Coin money d. All of these 21. In McCulloch v Maryland (1819), the Supreme Court ruled that a. Congress could establish a national bank b. Congress could not establish a national bank c. Congress could establish a military draft d. Congress could not establish a military draft 22. To limit the power of the federal government and to ensure the power of the states, the ______ Amendment was added to the Constitution. a. Fifth b. Second c. Tenth d. Eighth 23. __________ is the authority of states to pass laws for health, safety, and morals of their citizens. a. Welfare power b. Police power c. Popular sovereignty d. None of these 24. Concurrent powers belong to a. State and the national governments b. State and local governments c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 25. All of the following are guarantees from the federal government to the states EXCEPT a. A republican form of government b. The right to decide how or whether the Constitution is changed c. Equal representation in the House of Representative d. Every state has the same degree of sovereignty 26. The ___________ provision requires states to honor the civil obligations generated by other states. a. Interstate rendition

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b. Full faith and credit c. Emolument d. Enabling 27. A resolution passed by Congress authorizing residents of a territory to draft a state constitution as part of the process of adding new states to the Union is called a. An enabling act b. A statehood act c. A constitution act d. An espionage act 28. Dual federalism a. Views federal and state governments as independent sovereign powers b. Views federal and state governments to have separate and distinct jurisdictions c. Neither a nor b d. Both a and b 29. President ___________ set about resurrecting the Anti-Federalist states’ rights platform. a. Thomas Jefferson b. Andrew Jackson c. James Polk d. Abraham Lincoln 30. In the 1830s, states’ rights advocates argued for the doctrine of nullification, which would a. Allow states to declare a federal law null and void within their territory b. Allow states to declare another state’s laws null and void within their territory c. Allow states to declare a Supreme Court ruling null and void within their territory d. None of these 31. Contrasting dual federalism, __________ federalism recognizes an overlap in state and national responsibilities/ a. Uncooperative b. Cooperative c. Contractual d. Consensual 32. Grants-in-and include a. General revenue sharing b. Categorical grants c. Block grants d. All of the above 33. ________ federalism was a movement to take power from the federal government and return it to the states. a. Old b. New c. Returned d. States’ 34. The process of shifting the power from the national government to the states is called a. Evolution b. Recentering

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c. Devolution d. Revolution 35. New federalism picked up steam in the 1990s under President a. George W. Bush b. Bill Clinton c. George H. W. Bush d. Ronald Reagan 36. _________ federalism is the process of adopting a state- or nation-centered view of federalism on the basis of political convenience. a. Ad-hoc b. Practical c. Convenient d. Flip-flop 37. Independence from the federal government on policy issues slowed during the Great Recession, during the term of President __________. a. George W. Bush b. Donald Trump c. Barack Obama d. Bill Clinton 38. Most recently, state-federal relations has been characterized by __________ partisanship and polarization. a. Increasing b. Decreasing c. Stabilizing d. Fluctuating

True-False 1. Factions at work in state level government can operate in favor of or against minority rights. a. True 2. The US Constitution grants enumerated powers to the national government that are more important than implied powers. a. False 3. Federalism is a political system in which regional governments share power with the national government. a. True 4. A disadvantage of federalism is the creation of an often confusing patchwork of laws and regulations across a nation. a. True 5. Enumerated and implied powers have been narrowly interpreted and have restricted the constitutional expansion of the national government. a. False 6. The Constitution gives specific powers to the states.

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a. False 7. All state and federal laws are subordinate to the U.S. Constitution. a. True 8. Federations differ on the particular methods they use to divide political power. a. True 9. The Constitution focuses on states than on the national government. a. False 10. New states can be formed by dividing or combining existing states without their consent. a. False 11. The general source of political authority for states is their own constitutions. a. True

Discussion/Essay 1. If you were to redesign the U.S. Constitution today, what system of government would you use and why? If you would use federalism, which type of federalism would you try to use?

2. Is the balance of power between regional governments and the central government ideal at this point in time?

3. Should there be more than 50 states? Fewer? Why? What states should be added or combined?

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Multiple Choice 1. The right to privacy was upheld in a. The USA Freedom Act b. Whole Women’s Health v. Hellerstedt c. Utah v. Strieff d. None of the above 2. One of the central tensions in a democratic society highlighted by President Trump’s 2017 immigration ban is the need to a. Balance individual freedom with social order b. Balance the views of different factions c. Communicate the intent of legislation d. Ban harmful people from civil society 3. ___________ are the freedoms enjoyed by individuals in a democratic society. a. Civil rights b. Civil liberties c. Political rights d. Social rights 4. Civil liberties protect _________ from arbitrary governmental actions. a. Individuals b. Groups c. States d. None of these 5. Which Amendment has been used to apply the protections of the Bill of Rights to states? a. Fifth b. Twelfth c. Fourteenth d. Twentieth 6. The First Amendment contains _____ distinct guarantee(s) to protect religious freedom. a. One b. Two c. Four d. Three 7. Freedom of expression is built on First Amendment rights to a. Freedom of speech and press b. Right to peaceful assembly c. Right to petition government d. All of the above 8. Freedom of expression is a. Absolute in all circumstances b. Cannot be limited c. Can be limited in some circumstances d. None of these

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9. Which Amendment prohibits “cruel and unusual punishment”? a. Fifth b. Seventh c. Eighth d. Twelfth 10. The 1833 Supreme Court case that explicitly confirmed the Bill of Rights only applied to the national government is a. Barron v Baltimore b. McDonald v Chicago c. Gitlow v New York d. Roe v Wade 11. The _____________ doctrine is the notion that the Bill of Rights applies to state governments as well as the federal government through the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment. a. Incorporation b. Due process c. Inclusion d. Miranda 12. McDonald v Chicago (2010) incorporated the ___________. a. Third Amendment b. Second Amendment c. Fourth Amendment d. Sixth Amendment 13. The establishment clause prohibits government authorities from a. Showing a preference for one set of religious beliefs over others b. Establishing a state religion c. Prohibiting the free exercise of religion d. All of the above 14. Everson v Board of Education (1947) is the first articulation of the principle of __________ by the Supreme Court. a. Freedom of religion b. Separation of church and state c. Freedom of expression d. Right to privacy 15. The _________ approach to freedom of expression argues that the Founders wanted the First Amendment interpreted literally. a. Extremist b. Absolutist c. Literalist d. Rationalist 16. The _________ approach to freedom of expression argues that First Amendment rights are fundamental and need greater protection that other rights. a. Fundamentalist doctrine b. Preferred freedoms doctrine

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c. Freedom first doctrine d. Balancing test doctrine 17. The “clear and present danger” test was articulated in which court case? a. Pierce v United States b. Lawrence v Texas c. Schenck v United States d. Texas v Johnson 18. Schenck v United States (1919) was the first articulation of the a. Clear and present danger test b. Balancing test c. Bad tendency rule d. None of these 19. The __________ rule is an approach to determining whether an expression should be protected that considers whether the act would have a tendency to produce a negative consequence a. Bad tendency b. Negative tendency c. Clear and present danger d. General negativity 20. In Texas v Johnson (1989), the Supreme Court held that a. Speech promoting “imminent lawless action” was not protected speech b. Burning the American flag was symbolic and protected speech. c. Burning the American flag was not symbolic nor protected speech d. Speech inciting violence was not protected speech 21. In ___________, the court held that even if speech was offensive to many, it can be protected as long as it contains no incitement to commit and “imminent or specific” crime. a. Texas v Johnson b. Schenck v United States c. Tinker v Des Moines d. Brandenburg v Ohio 22. In Brandenburg v Ohio, the Supreme Court articulated the ___________ test to replace the old clear and present danger test. a. Symbolic speech b. Threatening speech c. Imminent lawless action d. Free speech 23. The imminent lawless action test protects ___________ speech than the clear and present danger test. a. A more fluctuating range b. Less range c. The same range d. A broader range

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24. In 2010, the Supreme Court struck down a provision of the McCain-Feingold Act that prohibited certain political activities of corporations and unions in which case? a. McConnell v Federal Election Commission b. Virginia v Black c. Snyder v Phelps d. Citizens United v Federal Election Commission 25. Which of the following is unprotected speech? a. Obscenity b. Libel c. Slander d. All of these 26. In Griswold v Connecticut (1965), the Supreme Court held that a. States cannot prohibit the use of contraceptives by married couples b. Marital privacy is a right c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 27. The 1973 decision in Roe v Wade is inherently a a. Free speech protection b. Privacy protection c. Unborn life protection d. None of these 28. In 2003, the Supreme Court decided _________, ruling that the government had no right to regulate or control consensual personal relationships. a. Lawrence v Texas b. Washington v Glucksberg c. United States v Jones d. Bowers v Hardwick 29. The Fourth Amendment a. Protects individuals from unreasonable searches and seizures b. Requires due process of law c. Prevents double jeopardy d. Lays down specific guidelines for a fair trial 30. The Sixth Amendment a. Protects individuals from unreasonable searches and seizures b. Requires due process of law c. Prevents double jeopardy d. Lays down specific guidelines for a fair trial 31. The Fifth Amendment guarantees a. The due process of law b. Protection from unreasonable search and seizure c. Trial by one’s peers d. The right to be represented by counsel

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32. The Eighth Amendment a. Protects individuals from unreasonable searches and seizures b. Requires due process of law c. Prohibits cruel and unusual punishment d. Lays down specific guidelines for a fair trial 33. The exclusionary rule was first articulated in a. Mapp v Ohio b. Weeks v United States c. Lawrence v Texas d. None of these 34. The exclusionary rule was extended to states in a. Mapp v Ohio b. Weeks v United States c. Lawrence v Texas d. None of these 35. The exclusionary rule is derived from ________________. a. The Fourth Amendment b. The Fourteenth Amendment c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 36. The ____________ states that evidence obtained from an unreasonable search or seizure cannot be used in federal trials. a. Inevitable discovery exception b. Good faith exception c. Exclusionary rule d. Fourth Amendment 37. According to the text, there are ________ exception(s) to the exclusionary rule a. No b. One c. Two d. Three 38. The right to counsel as a fundamental part of a fair trial was decided in a. Miranda v Arizona b. Mapp v Ohio c. Scott v Illinois d. Gideon v Wainwright 39. Possibly the most famous expansion of the Fifth Amendment right against self incrimination came in a. Miranda v Arizona b. Mapp v Ohio c. Scott v Illinois d. Gideon v Wainwright

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40. Miranda v Arizona (1966) established the right to a. Counsel during interrogation b. Privacy c. Libel and Slander d. None of these 41. One objection to the death penalty is a. It’s racially biased b. It may execute innocent people c. Both a and be d. Neither a nor b

True-False 1. The US Constitution upholds the right of organizations like Twitter to restrict free speech in cases of hate crimes or the incitation to violence. a. False 2. Civil liberties are absolute. a. False 3. The Constitution explicitly articulates a right to privacy. a. False 4. Few Supreme Court justices have taken the position that capital punishment is inherently unconstitutional. a. True 5. The most recent amendment to be incorporated is the Second Amendment right to keep and bear arms. a. True 6. The freedom from government interference in religious matters predates the founding of the republic. a. False

Discussion/Essay 1. What can or should the government do in terms of supporting parochial schools? Why? 2. How well does the government balance privacy and the protection of life? Should this precedent be adjusted?

3. Do you think race continues to be a factor in death penalty decisions? Why or why not?

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Multiple Choice 1. Examples of state level challenges to the Voting Rights Act of 1965 include a. Limits on early voting b. Reducing the number of polling places c. The splitting of black precincts d. All of the above 2. Anti-immigration impulses may be seen in relation to a. Sanctuary cities b. Dreamers c. Puerto Rican statehood d. All of the above 3. Social movement activity has increased on behalf of a. Black Lives Matter b. #MeToo c. Back the Blue d. All of the above 4. Affirmative action is a. Actions designed to help minorities over the effects of past discrimination b. Actions designed to help minorities compete on an equal basis with the majority c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 5. Civil rights are a. The rights of all citizens to legal equality b. The rights of all citizens to social equality c. The rights of all citizens to economic equality d. All of these 6. Civil rights place a burden on the government to a. Protect the freedom of all people b. Protect just the rights of minorities c. Protect just the rights of the majority d. Protect the rights of disadvantaged 7. The metaphor of the _____________ clarifies the distinction between civil liberties and civil rights. a. Horse and cart b. Apples and oranges c. Cake and pie d. Shield and sword 8. Historically, both federal and state governments have tolerated unequal treatment of citizens based on characteristics such as a. Race b. Gender c. Religion d. All of the above

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9. One driving force behind the Twenty-Sixth Amendment was a. World War I b. World War II c. The Korean War d. The Vietnam War 10. The _________ Amendment specifically prohibited states from denying any adult male the right to vote. a. Sixteenth b. Twelfth c. Fifteenth d. Seventeenth 11. The misapplication of evolutionary and biological theories is demonstrated through the ___________ movement. a. Social Darwinism b. Eugenics c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 12. The systematic denial of African Americans’ right to vote is exemplified by a. Poll taxes and few voting locations b. Few voting locations and literacy tests c. Literacy tests and poll taxes d. None of these 13. The policy of “separate but equal” was upheld by the Supreme Court in which case? a. Lawrence v Texas b. Plessy v Ferguson c. Missouri ex rel. Gaines v Canada d. Brown v Board of Education 14. The policy of “separate but equal” was overturned in which Supreme Court case? a. Lawrence v Texas b. Plessy v Ferguson c. Missouri ex rel. Gaines v Canada d. Brown v Board of Education 15. The first steps for racial equality were taken shortly after World War II, under the presidency of a. Dwight D. Eisenhower b. Harry S. Truman c. Franklin D. Roosevelt d. John F. Kennedy 16. _________is the deliberate disobedience of laws viewed as morally repugnant. a. Civil disobedience b. Social disobedience c. Moral Disobedience d. Selective disobedience

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17. A nonviolent technique of protesting unjust laws or practices is known as a. Open resistance b. Passive resistance c. Quiet resistance d. None of these.

18. The _____________ Act of 1964 outlawed racial segregation in public places and barred discrimination in employment of the basis of sex. a. Voting Rights b. Civil Rights c. Civil Liberties d. Jim Crow 19. The Voting Rights Act of 1965 targeted ___________ laws primarily used in the southern states to disenfranchise African American voters. a. Robert Douglas b. James Monroe c. Jim Crow d. Sam Smith 20. The 1965 ____________ Act authorized the federal government to ensure that eligible voters were not denied access to the ballot. a. Civil Rights b. Civil Liberties c. Voting Rights d. None of these 21. ___________ discrimination is discrimination by the law. a. De facto b. De jure c. Ipso facto d. Sui generis 22. _____________ discrimination is discrimination that exists in fact, real life, or in practice. a. De facto b. De jure c. Ipso facto d. Sui generis 23. One modern civil rights movement protesting police brutality toward and killing of African Americans is a. Black Lives Matter b. All Lives Matter c. Black Liberation Movement d. None of these 24. The fasted growing ethnic minority in the United States is a. Native Americans b. African Americans c. Asian Americans d. Latino Americans

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25. The Dream Movement led to the creation of the ____________ immigration policy. a. Deferred Action for Childhood Arrivals b. Defending Children from Deportation c. Deferred Action for Child Immigrants d. None of these 26. According to the text, some scholars equate the treatment of Native Americans by the U.S. government as ________. a. Ethnic cleansing b. Genocide c. Nothing wrong d. Civilization 27. The best-known incident to focus national attention on the plight of ____________ was the 71-day occupation of Wounded Knee, South Dakota in 1973. a. African Americans b. Latino Americans c. Native Americans d. Asian Americans 28. __________ are not a true minority in terms of numbers, despite being treated like one. a. African Americans b. Asian Americans c. Women d. Men 29. Suffrage is a. Suffering for a political cause b. The right to vote c. Disenfranchisement d. A political movement 30. The _______ Amendment granted women the right to vote. a. Eighteenth b. Nineteenth c. Twentieth d. Twenty-Third 31. The representation level of Latinos in Congress is only _______ as large as the Latino voting-age population. a. One-quarter b. One-half c. One-third d. One-fifth 32. Women’s rights advocates score all of the following victories EXCEPT a. Legally barring discrimination in employment based on sex b. The prohibition of discrimination based on sex in federally aided education programs c. The extension of the U.S, Commission on Civil Rights to study sex discrimination d. Legal obligation to equal pay for equal work

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33. Women who have served as Secretary of State include all of the following EXCEPT a. Hillary Rodham Clinton b. Sandra Day O’Connor c. Condoleezza Rice d. Madeleine Albright 34. The ___________ Movement uses social media to de-stigmatize survivors of sexual violence and highlight the prevalence of sexual harassment and assault in society. a. #MeToo b. #NotAllMen c. #BlackLivesMatter d. #ItHappens 35. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) was passed in a. 1970 b. 1980 c. 1990 d. 2000 36. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) was passed to extend _________ to disabled citizens. a. Civil rights b. Civil liberties c. Civic education d. None of these 37. The Supreme Court Case stating that marriage is a fundamental right protected by the Constitution is a. Obergefell v Hodges b. Lawrence v Texas c. Board of Trustees v Garrett d. None of these 38. After gaining the right to vote, women still had to fight for all of the following EXCEPT a. Equality in employment b. Equality in education c. Equality in marriage d. Equality in the political process True-False 1. According to the US Supreme Court, the use of race as a factor in allocating resources or granting favored status is never permissible. a. False 2. The gender gap is no longer an issue since the election of Kamala Harris as Vice President. a. False 3. Rosa Parks was arrested in 1955 for refusing to move seats on a segregated bus. a. True

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4. The National Association for the Advancement of Colored Peoples was formed in 1909. a. True 5. Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. advocated for active resistance to unjust government laws. a. False 6. The basic argument for affirmative action policies is that inequality cannot be wiped out by removing just legal discrimination. a. True 7. Quality before the law is enough to end discrimination against minorities. a. False 8. “Dreamers” came to the United States as children. a. True 9. Government policy toward Native Americans has stayed relatively the same over time. a. False 10. A movement to fight the negative stereotyping of Native Americans has been largely successful. a. False 11. Before the Nineteenth Amendment, no states allowed women to vote. a. False 12. Ethnicity, gender, and disability are the only classifications that face discrimination. a. False 13. Minorities have faced long struggles in fighting for civil rights. a. True

Discussion/Essay 1. Does studying how biology influences social traits inevitably lead to concerns about civil liberties and civil rights? Why or why not?

2. Given the history of Social Darwinism and the eugenics movement, do you think political scientists should continue to investigate how biology influences attitudes and behavior?

Why or why not?

3. What is the best way to measure racial attitudes? What difference does it make in the outcomes of political science studies?

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Multiple Choice 1. The greatest increase in the amount of money spent by interest groups since 2010 has occurred in which sector? a. Corporate b. Trade c. Labor d. Single-issue ideologically driven arenas 2. An interest group is a. A group organized around a set of views or preferences b. A group that engages in collective action c. A group that tries to influence others d. All of the above 3. Interest groups exclude all of the following EXCEPT a. Non-political groups b. Categorical groups c. Individuals d. Collective action groups 4. Political interest groups pursue ______ general objectives. a. Three b. Four c. Two d. Six 5. Political interest groups pursue a. New positive benefits to promote the group’s interest b. Defense of current benefits to protect the group’s interest c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 6. About _________ of Americans belong to interest groups. a. 80% b. 20% c. 60% d. 40% 7. One of the largest and most powerful interest groups in America is a. The American Labor Union b. The American Teacher’s Union c. The American Association of Retired Persons d. The American Bar Association 8. Political scientist generally explain interest group membership through the a. Rational choice model b. Behavioral model c. Biological and Evolutionary model d. None of these 9. According to the textbook, the benefits of interest group membership include all of the following EXCEPT

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a. b. c. d.

Material benefits Private benefits Solidary benefits Purposive benefits

10. Solidary benefits are a. The satisfaction gained from membership such as friendship and a sense of belonging b. The satisfaction of knowing you’re part of something bigger c. The satisfaction that you are excluding others d. The satisfaction gained from financial relationships 11. Examples of material benefits of interest group membership include all of the following EXCEPT a. Discounts at motels and restaurants b. Safety provisions c. Tangible rewards d. Friendship with other members 12. Purposive benefits are those that members derive from a. Feeling socially better than others b. Feeling more powerful than others c. Feeling good about making a worthwhile cause d. Feeling like they advance themselves personally 13. According to the textbook, Mancur Olson (1965) pointed out a fundamental problem with interest group membership. This is a. Rationality of personal cost for a public good b. The tragedy of the commons c. The free rider problem d. Both a and c 14. A public good a. Cannot be withheld from anyone within society b. Is provided to everyone c. Encourages free riding d. All of the above 15. All of the following are ways to discourage free riders EXCEPT a. Offering selective benefits b. Forced group membership c. A general welfare safety net d. Ostracization of non-members 16. The pluralist explanation of interest groups is a. It is a natural extension of personal benefits b. It is a natural extension of the democratic system as a result of specific social or economic events c. It is a natural extension of the American Dream d. None of these

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17. The theory that most people will not engage in collective action for collective goods, but they will for selective goods is a. The exchange theory b. The pluralist theory c. The by-product theory d. The group entrepreneur theory 18. The biological and evolutionary approach to interest group membership is a. Exchange theory b. Niche theory c. By-product theory d. Collective action theory 19. Overall, membership in interest groups has __________ over time. a. Increased dramatically b. Increased slowly c. Decreased dramatically d. Decreased slowly 20. One matter of concern in terms of interest groups is the _________ in number of singleissue interest groups. a. Slow decline b. Rapid decline c. Rapid rise d. Slow rise 21. There is concern over the rise of so-called thinks tanks because a. They blur the line between research and advocacy b. They provide more information that people can consume c. They provide no material benefits to members d. They balance partisan concerns on issues 22. The political resources of an interest group are a. Membership b. Money c. Leadership d. All of the above 23. The most basic political resource of an interest group is a. Money b. Membership c. Leadership d. Expertise 24. The important components of membership include all of the following EXCEPT a. Size b. Geographic distribution c. Status d. Money

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25. The most popularly recognized resource of an interest group is a. Money b. Membership c. Leadership d. Expertise 26. The most important sources of political clout for an interest group are a. Leadership and expertise b. Leadership and money c. Money and expertise d. Membership and leadership 27. When a group or person attempts to influence public policy making it is called a. Influencing b. Lobbying c. Coercion d. None of these 28. The two forms of lobbying are a. Large scale and small scale b. Direct and indirect c. Publications and word of mouth d. Liberal and conservative 29. Coalition building can be with a. Other competing interest groups b. The public c. Other similar interest groups d. All of these 30. Interest groups do all of the following EXCEPT a. Support political campaigns b. Lobby courts c. Shape public opinion d. None of these 31. Political action committees (PACs) a. Raise money for political contributions to campaigns b. Ally with organizations that cannot donate directly to campaigns c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 32. Super PACs can a. Raise unlimited funds from organizations that cannot donate directly to campaigns b. Not contribute directly to or coordinate with campaigns c. Promote strongly ideological, single issue groups d. All of the above

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33. Hard money is a. Direct contributions to campaigns b. Regulated by law c. Not part of a candidate’s own monetary contribution d. All of the above 34. The McCain-Feingold Act is also known as the a. Hard Money Limiting Act b. Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act c. Limiting Interest Group Influence Act d. Soft Money Ban Act 35. The Supreme Court Case ruling that corporations, labor unions, and mega-wealthy individuals have a First Amendment right to spend unlimited amounts of money from their general treasuries to convince people to vote for or against some candidate is a. Federal Election Commission v Wisconsin Right to Life b. Schenck v United States c. Citizens United v Federal Election Commission d. Gideon v Wainwright 36. Laws regulating interest groups seek to a. Formally regulate action and behavior b. Make interest group activity a matter of public record c. Limit financial resources of interest groups d. Ban the use of misleading information

True-False 1. Interest groups always align closely along party (Democrat vs. Republican) lines. a. False 2. Fair Fight Action, created by Stacey Abrams, focused exclusively on Georgia politics during the 2020 elections. a. False 3. Political activity in the U.S. has always been shaped by organized group activity. a. True 4. Political interest groups are closely related to what James Madison called factions. a. True 5. Few Americans belong to interest groups a. False 6. Material, solidary, and purposive benefits of interest group membership are mutually exclusive. a. False 7. One way of overcoming the free rider problem is through mandatory membership in groups. a. True

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8. Exchange theory depends on a group entrepreneur who seeks to increase membership in the group. a. True 9. All interest groups have the same amount of prominence. a. False 10. In theory, interest groups add to the democratic process by condensing public opinion. a. True 11. Corporations have long been banned from making campaign contributions directly to political campaigns. a. True 12. Most issues of interest groups attract attention and controversy from opposing interests. a. False Discussion/Essay 1. If you were to design an interest group, what would be your central issue? How would you gain members? How would you get Congress to notice your group?

2. An important insight from niche theory is that political elites can manipulate proposals on the agenda to mobilize organized interests to support what the agenda setter wants.

Does this mean that elected representatives are looking out for our interests?

3. Have interest groups become too powerful? Do a handful of groups exercise undue influence? Is the result a political process that is elitist rather than pluralist?

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Multiple Choice 1. A political party is mainly different from an interest group in that a. Parties run candidates for office b. Parties raise money c. Parties rely on leadership d. Parties rely on membership 2. Each of the following is an overlapping element of political parties according to V. O. Key EXCEPT a. The party in government b. The party division between state and national levels c. The party in the electorate d. The party organization 3. The most important activity of the political party is facilitating participation through a. Aggregating individual policy preferences b. Structuring and simplifying alternatives for voters c. Stimulating interest in politics and government d. All of the above 4. Parties directly contribute to the democratic process by all of the following EXCEPT a. Promoting government responsiveness b. Promoting accountability by scrutinizing the party in power c. Promoting dissent and conflict over issues d. Promoting stability and peaceful resolution of conflict 5. The United States is known for the its ___________ party system. a. One b. Two c. Three d. Multi 6. Democrats and Republicans have dominated political competition in the United States since a. 1856 b. 1976 c. 1776 d. 1926 7. One reason that perpetuates a two party system in the United States is a. Electoral rules b. Political divides c. Social divisions d. Economic divisions 8. Power of the political party has ________ over time. a. Declined b. Increased c. Fluctuated d. Stayed the same

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9. Partisanship in the electorate and in government has been increasing since the a. 1980s b. 1990s c. 1950s d. 1960s 10. Political parties have _________ to maintain their relevance to the political system. a. Struggled b. Adapted c. Grown d. Shrunk 11. A political party a. Is an organization that nominates and runs candidates for office under its own label b. Pursues the goal of winning governmental offices c. Pursues the goal of enacting policies that the party favors d. All of the above 12. Anthony Downs (1957) a. Viewed parties as teams competing for governmental power b. Observed that parties formulate policies to win elections c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 13. Each of the following is a difference between parties and interest groups EXCEPT a. They use different methods to influence the political process b. Parties incorporate more issues than interest groups c. Parties are private organizations d. Interest groups are private organizations 14. According to a 2016 Gallup poll, _____ percent of Americans want a viable third party. a. 20 b. 40 c. 60 d. 80 15. Why do political parties persist? a. They have the money to do so b. They adapt to the changes of the political system c. They are inherently necessary d. They are constitutionally guaranteed 16. Which state currently has a non-partisan legislature? a. Minnesota b. Nebraska c. Massachusetts d. Oregon

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17. The party __________ consists of ordinary citizens who identify with the party and who usually support the party’s candidates with votes and occasionally with campaign contributions. a. In the electorate b. In power c. In government d. Organization 18. The party __________ is the elected and appointed officeholders a. In the electorate b. In government c. In power d. Organization 19. There are ______ primary motivations for participating in party activities. a. Three b. Two c. Four d. No 20. The motivation of party participation changes one’s view of a. Compromise b. Internal governance of the party c. Political patronage d. All of these 21. A political machine a. Is a party organization headed by a party boss b. Is normatively better than a regular party c. Has not existed in the U.S. d. All of the above 22. Within a political machine, power and control is held a. By a party boss b. Through patronage, graft, and bribery c. Through vote rigging d. All of the above 23. Role theory states that parties perform each of the following roles EXCEPT a. Recruiting candidates b. Mobilizing and influencing voters c. Coordinating officeholders d. Creating conflict with interest groups 24. Aldrich (2011) identified the following party systems EXCEPT a. Federalists vs Jeffersonian Democratic-Republicans b. Mass electoral parties c. No parties d. Candidate-centered

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25. Policy motivated activists want to use parties to help others, and are known as a. Amateurs b. Purists c. Intense policy demanders d. All of these 26. A one party system is generally a. More democratic that a two party system b. Not democratic c. More democratic than a two party system or a multiparty system d. None of these 27. Most contemporary democracies have _________ party systems a. One b. Two c. Bipartisan d. Multi 28. Examples of multiparty political systems are all of the following EXCEPT a. Germany b. Japan c. Jamaica d. Israel 29. Generally, in a two party system a. There are only two parties b. There are only two viable parties c. Neither party can capture a true majority d. Neither party incorporates the will of the people 30. The U.S. has a two party system because of a. Historical factors b. Electoral rules c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 31. The tendency for single-member district plurality systems to favor a two party system is known as a. Key’s Law b. Duverger’s Law c. Downs’ Law d. Murphy’s Law 32. Proportional representation yields itself to a. Multiparty systems b. One party systems c. Two party systems d. None of these

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33. The single-member district plurality system a. Hinders the development of third parties b. Encourages the development of third parties c. Makes for the most democratic system d. None of these 34. Third parties in the United States have included all of the following EXCEPT a. The Socialist Party b. The Populists c. The Progressives d. The Conservative Communists 35. One primary significance of third parties is a. Giving voters another option to the “lesser of two evils” problem b. Mobilizing citizens who were already going to vote c. Swaying elections away from candidates that may have otherwise won the election d. All of these 36. A divided government is a. The separation of church and state b. When one party controls the presidency and another controls Congress c. The separation into three branches of government d. One that has no party discipline 37. Conditional party government a. Was developed by Rohde and Aldrich b. Explains the polarization of Congress c. States “party government” is conditional on high levels of ideological agreement within the party. d. All of the above

True-False 1. Unified government ensures that the party in control of the presidency and both houses of Congress can dominate the policy agenda. a. False 2. The role of political parties and strong partisanship in creating stability in government was called into question by the Capitol riots of 2021. a. True 3. The increasing number of independent voters ensures more opportunity for third party candidates in elections. a. False 4. Parties have been readily accepted since the founding of the country. a. False 5. Political scientists view parties as essential organizations in promoting the long-term health and stability of the democratic process. a. True

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6. Minor parties never influence who wins an election. a. False 7. The major purpose of a political party is to win elections. a. True 8. Political parties are nothing like interest groups. a. False 9. Factions and parties are essentially the same in today’s political system. a. False 10. As long as representative democracy exists, there are always going to be coalitions of like concerns with the interest and resources to seek influence over who gets nominated to office. a. True 11. Republicans have won fewer presidential elections than Democrats. a. False 12. The method of choosing the chief executive does not affect the number of parties. a. False 13. Third parties can help shape the political platforms of the two major parties. a. True

Essay/Discussion 1. Why are there political parties? Why does the United States only have two major parties? What could be done to change this?

2. Most Americans favor the creation of a third major party. Assuming this is possible, what are the advantages and disadvantages of having a competitive third party? Would this make politics more or less partisan? Why or why not?

3. How would you identify the policy demanders in your state or congressional district?

Who is recruiting and providing major support for candidates? How much influence do they have over nominations?

4. Does role theory or rational choice theory better explain the formation of parties? Why? Can role theory and rational choice theory be complementary? In other words, is it rational to create roles?

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Multiple Choice 1. Social media a. Became more prominent during the pandemic b. Contributed to the January 2021 riots at the Capitol c. Often convey misinformation d. All of the above 2. The election campaigns of 2020 were dramatically affected by a. Media indifference b. Public ignorance c. The pandemic d. Poor voter turnout 3. The pandemic altered the 2020 campaign a. Fundraising strategies b. Debate formats c. Voting methods d. All of the above 4. The mass media consists of all of the following EXCEPT a. Print media b. Electronic media c. Social media d. All of these are part of mass media 5. The mass media performs a vital role in supporting political freedom by a. Helping to create a public sphere where information can be freely accessed and exchanged b. Providing support to political parties c. Supporting an individual’s existing beliefs d. None of these 6. Citizens who rely on __________ tend to be more knowledgeable than those who rely on other media. a. Television b. Social media c. Newspapers d. Radio 7. The media’s role in a democratic society is a. Providing information and education b. Acting as advocate of people c. Setting agendas d. All of these are roles of the media 8. The media are a(n) _________ connection between government and citizens. a. Reliable b. Primary c. Unstable d. Terrible

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9. A basic threat to a free press is a. Government control b. Private control c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 10. The media support political freedom by helping to create what Habermas called a(n) a. Open dialog b. Public sphere c. Public media d. Free market 11. The press facilitates elections by all of the following EXCEPT a. Informing voters of elected officials’ actions b. Informing voters of the issues c. Informing voters of candidates running for office d. Informing voters of the weather on election day 12. The traditional news media sees its primary purpose as a. Agenda setting b. Educating c. Advocating d. All of these 13. From a social-psychological perspective we would expect a. Psychological attachment to a candidate or cause b. Immunity to rational arguments that disagree with their preexisting beliefs c. Emotional attachment rather than a conventional cost-benefit analysis d. All of these 14. Iyengar (1997) argues that the political party has been replaced by _________ as intermediary between voters and candidates. a. All mass media b. Social media c. Television d. Print media 15. The rise of the media as a direct conduit between citizens and candidates has a. Changed the nominating procedure of political parties b. Eliminated any real need for political parties in the nominating process c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 16. The dominant mass medium in the United States is a. Word of mouth b. Television c. Newspapers d. The internet 17. Roughly _______ percent of Americans aged 18-33 get their news from Facebook. a. 35 b. 70

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c. 20 d. 60 18. Roughly _________ percent of Americans over 50 get their news from Facebook. a. 20 b. 40 c. 50 d. 75 19. Which media is most likely to produce misinformation? a. Political talk radio b. Cable television news c. Social media news d. None of these 20. The “Daily Show effect” generally describes a. An increase in young Americans becoming informed about politics b. An increase in the cynicism of young Americans c. A decrease in cynicism of young Americans d. An increase in older Americans becoming informed about politics 21. The rise of ___________ is a source of great concern to the erosion of quality civic debate. a. Alternative facts b. Biased news c. Fake news d. Spun news 22. About __________ of Americans believe news organizations often print or broadcast stories that are factually inaccurate. a. One-half b. One-third c. Two-thirds d. Three-fifths 23. The partisan feelings towards the media are as such a. Republicans tend to view the media as performing an important role in keeping politicians honest. b. Democrats increasingly view the media as an obstacle that prevents politicians from getting things done c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 24. Bernard Cohen famously observed a. The press is no good at telling people what to think, but is good at telling them what to think about b. The mainstream media has a liberal bias c. The press usually predicts the winner of the presidential election d. The press is good at telling Congress what to focus on 25. ___________ is emphasizing certain aspects of a story to make them more important. a. Highlighting

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b. Spinning c. Framing d. None of these 26. By acting as __________, the press allows citizens to pay more attention to what government is doing. a. Mongoose b. Watchdog c. Raptor d. Honey badger 27. Journalists see themselves as advocates because a. They go where no other citizens go b. They ask questions on behalf of the public c. They believe they are more educated d. None of these 28. There are _______ major threat(s) to a free press in the United States. a. One b. No c. Two d. Three 29. Government control is best exemplified in which Supreme Court case? a. New York Times v United States b. Washington Post v United States c. Bernstein v New York d. Johnson v New Jersey 30. The best known case of ____________ deals with the Pentagon Papers. a. Private control of media b. Television censorship c. Prior restraint d. None of these 31. Private control of the media is a threat in that it a. Limits the free flow of information b. Can tailor information to only that which sells the news c. Concentrates ownership, and therefore perspective, of the news d. All of these 32. ___________ bias is the tendency to present an unbalanced perspective so that information is conveyed in a way that consistently favors one set of interests over another. a. Political b. Media c. Personal d. Government 33. Journalism that seeks to report facts rather than promote a partisan point of view is a. Objective

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b. Subjective c. Normative d. Subversive 34. One recent change in the news media is a. Less infotainment b. More hard news and less soft news c. A shift from appealing to the median voter to political favorites d. None of these 35. Partisan bias in the media is less of a problem than a. Racial and gender bias b. Racial bias and ageism c. Ageism and gender bias d. Socioeconomic bias

36. In the mass media, journalists, editors, and producers serve as a. Investigators b. Gate keepers c. Spin doctors d. Bias promoters

True-False 1. Democrats and Republicans agree that the media do a good job of keeping politicians honest during election campaigns. a. False 2. Both Republicans and Democrats seek out a wide variety of media sources in daily life. a. False 3. The mass media is also known as the press. a. True 4. A biased press is a threat to democracy. a. False 5. Most people believe the media is not biased. a. False 6. Our partisan and ideological viewpoints help determine what information and news sources we consider credible. a. True 7. Psychological experiments have repeatedly found that people readily accept information that confirms their own views but are much quicker to find fault with information that conflicts with their own views. a. True 8. Hard news is more dangerous to democracy than soft news. a. False 9. Prior to the advent of electronic media, most print media were openly partisan.

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a. True Discussion/Essay 1. Are alternative facts bad for democracy? If the press is irresponsible and politically biased, does that threaten democracy threatened? Doesn’t pushing a particular ideological or partisan point of view -- especially if it is demonstrably false -- represent at least some sort of ethical lapse? Isn’t the media supposed to be neutral and unbiased?

2. How do you rationally choose news in a democratic system? What does it depend on?

3. Has modern media replaced the role of the political party in campaigning? How so, or how not?

4. How well does the modern media do the four tasks it hopes to achieve? Where are its failures? Its strengths?

5. Social networking sites, Internet chat rooms, e-mail, media and the like dramatically lower the cost of exchanging information. Will lowering the barriers and costs of exchanging information expand the public sphere in a positive way?

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Multiple Choice 1. Opinion polls for the 2020 presidential election were affected by a. Voter dishonesty b. Late decisionmaking by voters c. Pollster incompetence d. a and b 2. What are the four dimensions of public opinion? a. Direction, stability, salience, intensity b. Direction salience, margin of error, sampling frame c. Sampling frame, stability, salience, direction d. Salience, direction, intensity, sampling frame 3. Rituals such as the pledge of allegiance are an example of what? a. Public opinion b. Salience c. Socioeconomic indoctrination d. Political socialization 4. __________ is the sum of individual attitudes or beliefs about an issue or question. a. Political opinion b. Public opinion c. Directional opinion d. None of these 5. Elected officials who view their job as becoming experts on the issues and making decisions that they believe are in the public’s best interest regardless of what their constituents believe are called a. Push pollers b. Trustees c. Delegates d. Logrollers 6. The ________ of public opinion refers to whether public opinion is positive or negative. a. Stability b. Intensity c. Salience d. Direction 7. __________ refers to the prominence and visibility of an issue. a. Stability b. Intensity c. Salience d. Direction 8. The majority of people who participate in politics are a. Older, better educated, and more prosperous b. Less confident their views will be taken into account by policy makers c. Racially and ethnically diverse d. Less trustful of the government and more moderate 9. Opinions are typically based on all of the following EXCEPT

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a. Rational analysis b. Ideology c. Socialization d. Political culture 10. All of the following are good questions to ask to measure the reliability and validity of a poll EXCEPT a. What is the margin of error? b. What was the question? c. Did the poll ask the right people? d. All of these are good questions.

11. __________, or people with a strong interest in a particular issue, tend to be well informed about that particular policy area and capable of making sophisticated choices. a. Political parties b. Issue publics c. Political elites d. None of these 12. A ________ deliberately feeds respondents misleading information or leading questions in an effort to push them into favoring a particular candidate or issue. a. Biased poll b. Push poll c. Sway poll d. Straw poll 13. The _________ is the amount by which the sample responses are likely to differ from those of the population. a. Sampling error b. Margin of error c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 14. The influence of family as an agent of political socialization tends to ______________ as one gets older. a. Decline b. Increase c. Stay relatively constant d. Disappear altogether 15. Reference groups are groups that influence the attitudes of people who a. Work in the reference section of the library b. Are members of the group c. Are not members of the group, but identify with the group anyway d. Are opposed to the group’s mission 16. The “rally round the flag” response occurs after a. International and military crises b. Economic downturn c. Social upheaval d. None of these

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17. Reversals of opinion on social issues are a. Rare b. Common c. Of no interest to scholars d. Receive no attention from the news media 18. Individual attitudes on the issue of abortion are relatively a. Unstable b. Stable c. Uncertain d. Directionless 19. In a ___________, public officials are to make decisions based on their own expertise and judgment, and not just make decision based on the wishes and preferences of their constituents. a. Delegate model of democracy b. Political culture c. Hyperdemocracy d. Trustee model of democracy 20. Polls based on nonrandom samples are often referred to as a. Biased samples b. Straw polls c. Push polls d. None of the above 21. The element of ________ is the likelihood of changes in the direction of public opinion a. Stability b. Ideology c. Intensity d. Confidence level 22. There is mounting evidence that mass political attitudes and behaviors are a. Genetically influenced b. Products of rational and reasoned thought c. Largely independent of ideology d. All of the above 23. Why does government often seem so unresponsive to public opinion? a. Public opinion is uniformed b. Public opinion lacks stability and/or salience c. Public opinion is divided d. All of the above 24. Which of the following is more likely to produce a reliable measure of public opinion? a. Straw poll b. Random sample c. Non-random sample d. Push poll 25. A consistent set of values, attitudes, and beliefs about the appropriate role of government in society is called

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a. Ideology b. Political culture c. Public opinion d. Straw poll 26. Major agents of political socialization include all of the following EXCEPT a. Family b. Labor unions c. School d. Peers 27. Political participation may not be an accurate reflection of the will of the people because a. not all people participate equally, so some interests are disproportionately represented in the political process. b. poor people are so much more numerous than rich people that the interests of the wealthy get outvoted. c. elected officials lie in order to get elected and do not respond to the will of the people once they are in office. d. an increase in cynicism makes people more likely to vote.

28. Using data based on twin studies, researchers found that some political beliefs and opinions could be attributed to a. Environment b. Genetics c. Schools d. Religion 29. Translating public opinion into public policy is complicated because a. Public opinion is often based on ignorance rather than knowledge of an issue. b. Public opinion can change quickly c. The process of arriving at policy decisions as well as the decisions themselves must meet public expectations d. All of the above 30. Which of the following would be a random sample in which we could determine the sampling error? a. People shopping at a mall are chosen at random to be interviewed b. People mail in their opinions on a form in a magazine c. We take a sample in which every person in the nation has an equal chance of being selected to be interviewed. d. All of the above would qualify as random samples 31. The size of the margin of error in a random sample is determined by a. The size of the population from which the sample is taken b. The size of the random sample c. The number of questions asked in the survey d. All of the above 32. A poll finds 52% of voters supporting candidate A, and 48% supporting candidate B, with a 3 percent margin of error. Given this information, we can say that a. More voters support candidate A than candidate B.

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b. More voters support candidate B than candidate A. c. Candidate A is more likely to win the race than candidate B. d. The range of opinion makes it difficult to assess who has more support.

33. All of the following can potentially undermine the validity of poll EXCEPT a. A non-random sample b. A large sample size c. Question wording d. The ordering of the questions 34. With respect to public opinion, intensity refers to a. The like or dislike of the issue b. The strength of feeling about an issue c. How lasting the public’s opinion is on an issue d. The number of people who support the issue 35. “Political socialization” refers to a. The deterministic influence of socioeconomic status in shaping one’s political views b. The charisma of some candidates for public office c. The process by which one develops opinions and attitudes about politics d. Mind control techniques used by totalitarian regimes 36. The term “ideology” refers to a. The study of political ideas b. The prevailing opinion regarding an issue c. An artificial distinction between the two major parties d. A coherent set of attitudes about politics and government 37. The ________ is the chance , measured in percent, that the results of a survey will fall within the boundaries set by the margin of error. a. Salience b. Intensity c. Direction d. Confidence level 38. _______ refers to the attitudes of people with large measures of political influence or expertise. a. Public opinion b. Elite opinion c. Issue public d. None of the above

True-False 1. The same problems with political polling occurred in both the 2016 and 2020 elections. a. False 2. Polling problems are a new phenomenon related to the rise of social media. a. False

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3. Public opinion on controversial issues tends to fluctuate according to who occupies the office of the Presidency. a. False 4. Public opinion is one measure of the will of the people. a. True 5. Most people believe public opinion should play no role in guiding government decision making. a. False 6. Opinions are typically the product of rational and knowledgeable analysis. a. False 7. Recent research suggests that there is a biological component to opinions, with people inheriting predispositions toward certain political beliefs. a. True 8. There is general agreement about the appropriate role of public opinion. a. False 9. Members of the National Rifle Association would be considered an "issue public." a. True 10. "Political culture" refers to societies in which interest in politics is high and most citizens participate in politics. a. False

Essay/Discussion 1. Does public opinion really reflect the will of the people?

2. Are there any political opinions you would be reluctant to share on a survey? Are you more likely to accurately share those opinions with a live interviewer over the telephone or through a more impersonal medium like an internet survey or a robo-call? Given your answers, what do you think is the best survey method to use if the objective is to get an accurate, representative sample?

3. If issue attitudes are at least partially biologically influenced, does this make it harder to persuade someone to change their political opinion? Why or why not?

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Multiple Choice 1. Multiple candidate challenges are inspired by a. Open elections in which no incumbents are on the ballot b. Polarizing incumbents c. The desire for third party opportunity d. a and b 2. Electoral College voting results may be overridden by a. The popular vote b. The sitting Vice President c. Claims of election fraud d. None of the above 3. Faithless electors in the Electoral College a. Are always dedicated to changing the election outcome b. Have successfully overturned close elections c. Are sometimes motivated by causes that transcend the election outcome d. All of the above 4. The National Popular Vote Plan a. Was inspired by elections in which the Electoral College winner was different from the winner of the popular vote b. Would require states to give their Electoral College votes to the winner of the national popular vote c. Circumvents the need for a Constitutional amendment to eliminate the Electoral College d. All of the above 5. The national census occurs every ten years and a. Always results in changes to the distribution of representation among the states b. Contributes to partisan gerrymandering c. Provides a consistent portrait of the national head count over time d. None of the above 6. The race for the White House is a race for a. The electoral votes of states b. The national popular vote c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 7. A collective decision-making process in which citizens choose an individual to hold and exercise the powers of public office is called a. Public opinion b. An election c. Politics d. None of these 8. Elections are the primary mechanism that representative democracies use to achieve a. Popular support b. Popular sovereignty

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c. Popular opinion d. Governments 9. Parties are important for elections because a. They nominate candidates for the general election b. They winnow the field of candidates for the general election c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 10. Parties select national convention delegates in _____ basic ways a. Two b. Three c. Four d. They aren’t basic 11. Frontloading has which of the following undesirable consequences? a. Candidates have to put in work early and have expertise on all 50 state procedures b. Candidates need a lot of money early in the campaign c. The shortened time “degrades campaign quality” d. All of the above 12. There are _______ filter points that weed out weaker candidates. a. Two b. Four c. Three d. Five 13. The ______ primary takes place largely behind the scenes with few, if any, formal rules. a. Special b. First c. Invisible d. Deciding 14. The initial contests is/are a. The second phase of the nomination campaign b. The Iowa caucuses c. The New Hampshire primary d. All of the above 15. The third phase begins after the two initial contests and is referred to as a. The mist-clearing phase b. The sifting phase c. The sorting phase d. None of these 16. _____ remain(s) a significant predictor of vote choice and shape(s) how voters perceive candidates and issues. a. Interest group activity b. Polarization c. Partisan identification d. Divided government

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17. In national party caucuses, who make the key decisions regarding candidate selection? a. Previously elected officials b. Party bosses c. Rank-and-file members d. Delegates 18. ______ has/have decreased the time for candidates to raise money and obtain a nationally recognized name. a. National party conventions b. Caucuses c. Frontloading d. Primaries 19. Specifically, what institution is used to decide who becomes president? a. The popular vote b. The partisan vote c. The electoral college d. Adding the votes from state parties 20. Frontloading refers to a. states moving their caucuses and primaries to an earlier date in order to influence choice of presidential nominees. b. electing nation convention delegates at state presidential primaries. c. the shift in power over the nomination process and professional to amateurs. d. The ability to successfully fundraise early in the campaign 21. The process of adjusting the number of House seats among the states based on population shifts Is known as a. Reapportionment b. Redistricting c. Gerrymandering d. Frontloading 22. ______, or perks, are benefits and support services that members of Congress receive in order to help them perform their job. a. Incumbency advantages b. Advertising c. Pork-barrel benefits d. Perquisites 23. The day in early March, called _____ is when several states hold their primaries. These states choose a significant portion of delegates to the national convention. a. Magic Day b. Super Thursday c. Super Tuesday d. Make-it Monday 24. Some states hold _____ in which independents-and in some cases voters from other parties-participate in a party's primary. a. Closed primaries b. Open primaries

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c. Invisible primaries d. Caucuses 25. ______ is the process through with political parties winnow down a field of candidates to a single one who will be the party's standard-bearer in the general election. a. The nomination b. The general election c. A runoff election d. Primary elections 26. ______ is a type of election in which candidates from all political parties run in the same primary, and the candidate who receives the majority obtains the office. a. Louisiana primary b. Open primary c. Nonpartisan primary d. A state presidential primary 27. The _____________ is a plan to revise the electoral college that would distribute a state's electoral college votes by giving one vote to the candidate who wins a plurality in each House district and two votes to the winner statewide. a. Direct popular election plan b. District plan c. Proportional plan d. None of the above 28. _____ is a collective decision-making process in which citizens choose an individual to hold and exercise the powers of public office. a. An election b. A nomination c. The proportional plan d. Reapportionment 29. Which of the following determines the number of electoral votes a state will receive? a. State law b. The number of delegates it sends to the national party conventions c. The size of it representation in Congress d. The Federal Election Campaign Act (FECA) 30. The electoral contest in which the largest number of Americans participate is a. The midterm congressional election b. The presidential election c. The off-year congressional elections d. They are all about the same 31. Congressional candidates are typically nominated by what method? a. A direct primary b. A caucus c. A general election d. A convention 32. The “legislative caucus” method of presidential nominations violated the “separation of powers” principle because

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a. It delegated presidential nominations to a panel of retired judges b. It stipulated that the Speaker of the House would be head of the executive branch c. It allowed state legislatures to determine presidential nominees d. It gave members of Congress too much influence over presidential elections 33. ___________ are the congressional and gubernatorial contests that occur in the middle of a presidential term. a. Mist clearing elections b. Direct primaries c. Midterm elections d. None of the above 34. The Electoral College is a. The institution that nominates the parties’ candidates for President b. The method by which we elect our President c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 35. The elimination of the Electoral College is unlikely because a. Most voters prefer the current system. b. Changing it would require an act of Congress. c. Changing it would require a constitutional amendment. d. It would violate the parties right of association.

36. ____________ calls for the racial and ethnic makeup of Congress to reflect that of the nation. a. Substantive representation b. Majority-minority districts c. True representation d. Descriptive representation 37. In ____________ the Supreme Court invalidated unequal congressional districts, saying that all legislative districts must contain about equal numbers of people. a. Baker v. Carr b. Shaw v. Reno c. Wesberry v. Sanders d. Reynolds v. Sims 38. What happens during the “mist clearing” phase of the presidential nominating process? a. Weaker candidates drop out b. Super Tuesday c. Delegate counts become the major criterion for determining who is ahead d. All of the above 39. The absolute majority of delegates a candidate needs to secure a party's presidential nomination is called b a. the keynote proportion. b. The magic number. c. the roll-call tipping point.

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d. the platform faction.

40. The drawing of district boundaries to benefit one interest and hinder another is known as a. redistricting. b. gerrymandering. c. reapportionment. d. frontloading.

41. To be elected president, a candidate must receive a. A plurality of the electoral votes b. Electoral votes from over half of the states. c. A majority of electoral votes. d. A majority of popular votes.

42. As the electoral college currently operates, a candidate can be elected President without plurality of popular votes if a. S/he wins plurality in the 11 most populous states. b. S/he wins by at least 75% in any 26 states. c. S/he wins by more than 55% in any 35 states. d. All of the above guarantee victory.

True-False 1. The winner of the “money primary” almost always ultimately wins the nomination of the party. a. False 2. Super Tuesday is an example of election “frontloading” and contributes significantly to “mist clearing” among multiple candidates. a. True 3. Ticket “balancing” is no longer an issue between presidential and vice presidential candidate selection. a. False 4. A sure way of influencing a general election is to determine what choices are available to voters. a. True 5. Iowa and New Hampshire are good signals for the presidential election because they are representative of most of the country. a. False 6. California is a good example of a "swing state" because it has 55 electoral votes, more than any other state, and can therefore "swing" the election one way or the other. a. False 7. Congressional districts are traditionally redrawn every 10 years, following the Census. a. True 8. In order to win the presidential election, a candidate needs to win 538 electoral votes. a. False 9. In the presidential election, the candidate who wins the most votes can still lose the election. a. True

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10. In states with a nonpartisan blanket primary, voters might be asked to choose between two members of the same party in the general election. a. True

Discussion/Essay 1. What are the problems with the electoral college? Should the electoral college be abolished?

2. What system will lead to the best representation of Americans in Congress?

3. How would a candidate overcome the incumbency advantage?

4. Should “perks” be taken away from members of Congress? Why or why not?

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Multiple Choice 1. Examples of voter suppression measures stimulated by the 2020 election results include a. Limiting voting by mail b. Increasing voter ID requirements c. Initiating more aggressive voter roll purges d. All of the above 2. Vote fraud in 2020 manifested itself in a. Dead people voting b. Absentee ballot “misplacement” c. Recount errors d. None of the above 3. Election security is a. A nonpartisan issue supported by both parties equally b. Constantly at risk in a democracy c. A “code word” that can provide cover for undemocratic election reforms d. Enforced by the Capitol police 4. Record youth voter turnout in 2020 was stirred by a. The pandemic b. Racial injustice c. Partisan polarization d. All of the above 5. Representative democracy rests of the notion that _________ have the right to influence decisions about who gets what a. Political elites b. Ordinary people c. Economic elites d. None of these 6. Forms of political participation include a. Voting b. Campaign activities c. Local community activities d. All of the above 7. Voter turnout in America is _______ than in other Western representative democracies, but participation in other forms of political activity is ______. a. Higher, lower b. Lower, higher c. Lower, the same d. Higher, the same 8. Voter turnout has ________ over time. a. Declined b. Increased c. Stayed the same d. Fluctuated

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9. Elements of the American political system that might cause low voter turnout are all of the following EXCEPT a. Voter registration practices b. Voting laws c. The scheduling and frequency of elections d. The time it takes to vote 10. The _____________ model uses group-level variables to explain voter behavior a. Sociological b. Social-psychological c. Rational choice d. Biological 11. The __________ model focuses on individual attitudes to explain voter behavior a. Sociological b. Social-psychological c. Rational choice d. Biological 12. The ___________ model views the decision to vote and the decision of whom to vote for as the product of individual cost-benefit analysis. a. Sociological b. Social-psychological c. Rational choice d. Biological 13. __________ is the translation of personal preference into a voluntary action designed to influence public policy. a. Political boycotting b. Political sidelining c. Political participation d. Political tailgating 14. There are _______ general categories of ways to participate in politics. a. Two b. Four c. Five d. Six 15. The most common form of participation is a. Campaign activities b. Voting c. Citizen-initiated contact with officials d. Cooperative social and political action 16. To explain the rationality of voting, Verba uses cost broadly to mean a. Monetary cost b. Difficulty of participating c. Physical cost d. Mental cost

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17. Voting participation has _________ over time while other forms of participation have ________. a. Increased; increased b. Increased; stayed the same c. Decreased; increased d. Decreased; stayed the same 18. The constitutional or statutory right to vote is known as the a. Suffrage b. Franchise c. Disenfranchise d. Dissuffrage 19. Disenfranchising convicted felons, while constitutional, is increasingly controversial because of the disproportionate effect on a. African Americans b. Native Americans c. Men d. Latino Americans 20. Voter turnout is a. The percentage of voters who cast votes in an election. b. The percentage of eligible voters who casts votes in an election. c. The percentage of all Americans who casts votes in an election. d. None of these.

21. Turnout in countries with compulsory voting laws typically exceeds ________ percent. a. 50 b. 60 c. 65 d. 70 22. In the United States, registering to vote is a. An individual responsibility b. A community effort c. The government’s job d. None of these 23. Downs (1957) famously argued that a. The two party system gives voters the best options for candidates. b. The two party system does not give voters a meaningful choice of candidates. c. Candidates appeal to the extremes in the party, providing clear choices d. None of these.

24. Presidential elections are held on a a. Monday b. Saturday c. Thursday d. Tuesday

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25. The day of the presidential election was deliberately chosen due to the following historical conditions EXCEPT a. Most Americans were agrarians at the time of the decision and election day did not interfere with harvest b. Many Americans wanted to prevent lower socioeconomic classes from voting. c. Most Americans took Sunday as a day of rest, making Tuesday the easiest day to commute d. Many Americans had to commute some distance to vote, sometimes taking a day of travel to arrive.

26. All of the following contribute to an individual’s desire to participate EXCEPT a. An individual’s psychological engagement with politics b. An individual’s access to the resources needed to vote c. Group characteristics d. All of these contribute 27. The social background and economic position of a person may be the ________ determinant of any form of political participation. a. Least important b. Most important c. Easiest measured d. None of these 28. People who believe that their opinions are important and that government will respect and respond to their views are said to believe in a. Political responsibility b. Political activity c. Political efficacy d. Political determination 29. The opposite of a politically alienated individual is an a. Allegiant individual b. Unalienated individual c. Politically loyal individual d. All of these 30. The ___________ hypothesis posits that “participation is a response to contextual cues and political opportunities” a. Voter b. Mobilization c. Get out the vote d. Context 31. All of the following are participation resources EXCEPT a. Free time b. Money c. Post-secondary education d. Civic skills 32. The sociological model of voting behavior is also known as the

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a. Columbia model b. Michigan model c. California model d. Florida model 33. The social-psychological model is also known as the a. Columbia model b. Michigan model c. California model d. Florida model 34. The Michigan model argues that ________ is the most important determination of vote choice. a. Party identification b. Socioeconomic status c. Ideology d. None of these 35. Candidate image is a. Voter perception of a candidate’s qualities b. The physical image of a candidate c. A candidate’s image of him/herself d. None of these 36. According to Campbell et al., issues influence vote decisions only if ______ conditions are met. a. Two b. Four c. Three d. Six 37. Fiorina (1981) suggests there are two basic types of issue voting: a. Retrospective and prospective b. Retrospective and forward-looking c. Prospective and forward-looking d. Forward-looking and disassociated 38. All of the following are types of elections EXCEPT a. A maintaining election b. A deviating election c. An abnormal election d. A reinstating election True-False 1. Early voting, vote by mail, and absentee voting are exercised equally by Democrats and Republicans. a. False 2. An individual’s desire and ability to participate politically are affected by socioeconomic status among other things. a. True

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3. Elections turn on both short term and long term forces a. True 4. Significant electoral changes over the last 25 years have frayed the Democrats’ New Deal coalition and aided Republicans, but there has been no long-term realignment to the GOP. a. True 5. Voting is the least widespread form of participation. a. False 6. In terms of majority rule, voter turnout appears high. a. False 7. Although Americans may vote less, participation in activities other than voting is higher than in most other democracies. a. True 8. Women and Native Americans gained the right to vote in the same year. a. False 9. Voter ID laws are potentially disenfranchising. a. True 10. Low voter primary elections are decided by middle-of-the-road voters. a. False Discussion/Essay 1. Identify a recent election at any level of government and subtract the total number of votes of the losing candidate from those of the winning candidate. That number represents the “swing” needed to change the outcome of the election. How widespread would voter fraud have to be to generate such a swing? How could it be identified and prevented? Given the size of the swing, does it seem likely voter fraud played any role in the outcome of the election?

2. In spite of the available evidence, there is no doubt that many people believe voter fraud is widespread. Do such beliefs represent a problem for the integrity and legitimacy of the electoral process even if there is little empirical support for them? Why or why not?

3. Is compulsory voting democratic?

4. Are voter ID laws necessary?

5. Think of different forms of political participation, e.g. voting, attending a rally, having a political discussion. Are some of these more likely to be socially stressful than others?

Which are most socially stressful and why?

6. Besides a tendency toward getting stressed out by social conflict, might political participation be driven by other traits not traditionally considered causes of political engagement? How about personality? Risk tolerance or impulsiveness?

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Multiple Choice 1. Impeachment is a. Restricted to illegal actions by government officials b. Always ensues from illegal activity by government officials c. More common than acknowledged by conventional wisdom d. None of the above 2. The Vice President of the United States a. Is an essential participant in the day-to-day workings of the US Senate b. Exercises greatest power when issuing a tie-breaking vote in the Senate c. Is considered a valued Senate “insider” d. None of the above 3. The filibuster in the Senate a. Is exercised exclusively by marathon debate on the Senate floor b. Is regularly challenged by out-party members of Congress c. Can be overridden by exercising the “nuclear option” d. Is a long-standing Senate tradition that will never be overturned 4. Congress’s primary responsibilities include a. Passing laws b. Overseeing government agencies c. Responding to constituent needs d. All of these 5. Congressional representation is about a. Responding to constituents’ needs b. Informing the public about the major issues facing the country c. Both a and b d. Neither a not b 6. Secondary functions of Congress include all of the following EXCEPT a. Increasing their own visibility through perks b. Seating and disciplining members c. Helping select leaders in the executive branch d. Impeaching and trying executive and judicial officials 7. Serving in Congress shifted to being a career in the a. Late 1900s b. Mid 1900s c. Early 1900s d. Early 2000s 8. Members of Congress a. Have heavy workloads b. Have to balance competing interests c. Have staff to do all their work d. Both a and b 9. The U.S. Congress has _____ chamber(s) a. One b. Two

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c. Three d. Four 10. Congress’s major purposes include a. Representing different interests b. Fostering deliberative, careful lawmaking c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 11. __________ are the core organizational feature of Congress a. Arguments b. Debates c. Committees d. Conferences 12. Standing committees a. Are permanent panels b. Research proposed legislation c. Revise proposed legislation for debate on the floor d. All of the above 13. Senate committees with more prestige include all of the following EXCEPT a. Finance b. Appropriations c. Foreign Relations d. Rules 14. House committees with more prestige are all of the following EXCEPT a. Ways and Means b. Armed Services c. Energy and Commerce d. Appropriations 15. A _________ can be defined as a deliberative council that has the authority to make and repeal laws a. Congress b. Legislature c. Senate d. None of these 16. Congress is a a. Representative and policymaking institution b. Policymaking and functional institution c. Functional and representative institution d. Dysfunctional but representative institution 17. Lawmaking includes a. Passing laws b. Overseeing government administration of the law c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 18. The policymaking process includes which of the following steps

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a. Agenda setting b. Policy implementation c. Policy evaluation d. All of these 19. Legislative oversight tools include all of the following EXCEPT a. Creating or abolishing executive branch agencies b. Confirm or not confirm low level employees in the bureaucracy c. Provide or withhold funding for government programs d. Confirm or not confirm presidential appointments 20. All of the following are types of responsiveness in representation EXCEPT a. Allocation b. Service c. Spending d. Policy 21. Service responsiveness is exemplified in a. Distributive benefits b. Casework c. Pork-barrel benefits d. None of these 22. Fenno (1978) refers to the style of activities Members of Congress engage in while signaling that they are still representative of their community values as a. Class style b. Home style c. Behavioral style d. Social style 23. _________ responsiveness is the use of political symbols to generate trust and support among voters. a. Allocation b. Symbolic c. Sensational d. Patriotic 24. Fenno (1978) found _____ concentric circles of constituencies with varying needs. a. Three b. Four c. Five d. No 25. The following are models of representation EXCEPT a. Politico b. Responsive c. Trustee d. Delegate 26. According to Fenno (1966), there are certain norms that Congressional members must follow. These include a. Apprenticeship

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b. Deference c. Reciprocity d. All of these 27. Rational choice theory provides all the following models for understanding congressional behavior EXCEPT a. The distributive model b. The partisan model c. The informational model d. The patriotic model 28. Impeachment means a. To kick out of office b. To charge or accuse c. To indict for a crime d. All of these 29. Congress can do all of the following to other members of Congress EXCEPT a. Expulsion b. Censure and reprisal c. Exclude d. Congress can do all of these things 30. About what percentage of members of Congress are lawyers? a. 20% b. 40% c. 50% d. 75% 31. Why are so many legislators lawyers? a. They have strong argumentation skills b. The have the time to become members of Congress c. They seek the power of being in Congress d. All of these 32. The main competitors to lawyers for congressional seats are a. Agriculturalists b. Business persons c. Educators d. Scientists 33. According to Hibbing (1991), the longer a legislator is in Congress, the _______ attention s/he pays to constituent needs and demands. a. Less b. More c. Same d. It depends 34. The best word to describe the daily life of a legislator is a. Boring b. Brutal c. Busy

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d. Amusing 35. Members of Congress can hire up to ______ staff. a. 12 b. 18 c. 24 d. 8 36. Franking is a. Sending mail that involves official business without postage b. Eating hot dogs on a regular basis c. Using taxpayer dollars to send out reelection materials d. None of the above 37. There are ________ major differences between the Senate and the House. a. Four b. Two c. Three d. Five 38. Passing legislation is like a. Baking a cake b. Running an obstacle course c. Peeling onions d. None of these.

True-False 1. The “nuclear option” is a parliamentary procedure to end filibusters on nominations with a simple majority vote. a. True 2. Since the 1970s, filibuster activity in the Senate has been increasing. a. True 3. Congressional committee assignments and leadership positions cannot be revoked without impeachment. a. False 4. Although there are more minorities and women in Congress today than in earlier decades, membership does not reflect the diversity of today’s American citizens. a. True 5. In the nineteenth century it was common for Representatives to serve more than 10 years. a. False 6. Passing a law is complex and the process favors those who want to pass the law. a. False 7. Americans generally don’t like Congress, but they like their representatives. a. True 8. The president is expected to take the lead in initiating policy proposals. a. True

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9. Representation is a complex relationship that involves responding to constituent need and demands. a. True 10. All forms of representational responsiveness provide tangible goods. a. False 11. Edmund Burke argued that representatives should be delegates and follow the will of their constituents. a. False 12. According the Alexis de Tocqueville, the U.S. Congress is vulgar in that it focuses on what is popular, rather than what has significant merit. a. True

Discussion/Essay 1. In discussing home style and constituency, how would you describe your representatives and yourself in reference to them?

2. Consider a controversial issue Congress has recently grappled with. Which theoretical model do you think does a better job of explaining the choices made by members of Congress?

3. Are members of Congress paid too much? What would be the consequences of paying them too little or not at all?

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Multiple Choice 1. Following an election, the presidential transition team a. Has full run of the White House in setting up new staff and processes b. Is exclusively composed of loyal campaign staffers c. Can be impeded in its work by the outgoing administration d. Is the strongest indicator of a president’s future success 2. One of the most important factors in highly rated presidencies is a. Prior experience in business b. Prior experience in politics c. High GPA performance in school d. Re-electability 3. The role of Vice President of the United States a. Is largely symbolic b. Is invested with great power c. Is dependent on the assignment of responsibility by the President d. Is to keep a death watch on the presidency 4. First Ladies a. Are primarily arm candy for the President b. Are expected to relinquish professional responsibilities c. Are rarely effective advisors to the president d. None of the above 5. Executive orders and presidential signing statements a. Are the prerogative of all presidents to exercise at will b. Are noncontroversial instruments of presidential power c. Cannot be challenged in court or overturned by Congress d. None of the above 6. The power of the presidency has grown for ______ main reasons a. One b. Three c. Four d. Six 7. Presidential character is measured along which dimension? a. Active-passive b. Positive-negative c. Candid-Fake d. Both a and b 8. All of the following are part of the presidency as an institution EXCEPT a. Vice president b. The armoire c. Executive Office of the President d. The cabinet 9. The president’s primary constitutional responsibilities are defined in a. Article I b. Article II

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c. Article III d. Article IV 10. “Going public” is a strategy presidents use to a. Shape public opinion’ b. Place pressure on Congress c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 11. The most important determinant of a president’s approval rating is a. The economy b. International crises c. Scandal d. All of these 12. “Going public” _________ the president’s approval rating. a. Improves b. Decreases c. Does nothing for d. Fluctuates 13. The president plays an important role a. In challenging the Supreme Court b. In influencing legislation c. In creating new constituencies d. None of these 14. Unilateral powers of the president include a. Executive orders b. National security directives c. Executive agreements d. All of these 15. A(n) ________ is a person or group that has administrative and supervisory responsibilities in an organization. a. President b. Chief c. Executive d. None of these 16. The Articles of Confederation followed the model of the states in having a a. Strong-executive model b. Weak-executive model c. Passionate-executive model d. No-executive model 17. The Constitutional Convention created a a. Strong executive with strong checks b. Weak executive with strong checks c. Strong executive with weak checks d. Weak executive with weak checks

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18. Alexander Hamilton described _______ as a desirable characteristic of good government in Federalist Number 70. a. Positivity b. Energy c. Enthusiasm d. Loyalty 19. Alexander Hamilton saw _________ as important qualities for a good executive. a. Decisiveness and friendliness b. Dispatch and decisiveness c. Enthusiasm and friendliness d. Enthusiasm and dispatch 20. All of the following are views of presidential power EXCEPT a. The stewardship doctrine b. A restrictive view c. A prerogative view d. A sweeping view 21. The ____________ changed the government’s role towards regulating the economy. a. Dust Bowl b. Roaring Twenties c. Era of Good Feelings d. Great Depression 22. The expansion of executive authority during the New Deal reflected an increasing demand by the American people for a. negative government. b. positive government. c. neutral competence. d. reactive government.

23. The idea of a positive government means that a. Government should always look for the bright side b. Government should be quick to react to crises c. Government should play a major role in preventing or dealing with crises d. None of these 24. The president is expected to be representative of a. Those who voted for her/him b. All voters c. All Americans d. No one but him/herself 25. One reason the presidency is harder to study than Congress or the judiciary is a. The small N problem b. The elusivity of presidents c. Congress and the judiciary are more open to being studied d. The large N problem 26. The most important organization in the Executive Office of the President is a. The Council of Economic Advisors

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b. The Office of Management and Budget c. The National Security Council d. All of these 27. The __________ houses the president’s most influential advisors a. The Council of Economic Advisors b. The White House Office c. The Office of Management and Budget d. The National Security Council 28. Most presidents use the ___________ model of organization. a. Spokes-of-the-wheel b. Hierarchical c. Conical d. Equality 29. A bill may become a law without the president's signature in which of the following circumstances? a. The president does not send the unsigned bill back to Congress with written objections. b. Only if a 2/3 majority of Congress has voted in support of the bill. c. If Congress has ended its session during the 10 days that the president has to review the bill. d. None of the above.

30. When Abraham Lincoln suspended the right of habeas corpus during the Civil War, he was following a _______________ view of presidential power. a. Prerogative b. Restrictive c. Stewardship d. Weak-executive 31. The period in which presidents enjoy their highest approval ratings is b a. The final year of their term. b. the first-year "honeymoon" period. c. their second term in office. d. the mid-term elections.

32. Presidents who make direct appeals to the public in order to put pressure on Congress to support presidential initiatives are engaging in which of the following strategies? a. Direct lobbying b. Logrolling c. Going public d. Campaigning 33. Which of the following presidential responsibilities does NOT have an explicit foundation in the Constitution? a. Chief Executive b. Chief of State c. Chief Diplomat d. Party Leader

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34. The 1973 law that attempted to limit the power of the executive to send troops into combat without congressional approval is the a. War Powers Act. b. Commander-in-Chief Reform Act. c. Gulf of Tonkin Resolution. d. PATRIOT Act. 35. If the president takes no action within 10 days of a bill being passed by Congress, and Congress has adjourned, the bill a. has been "pocket-vetoed". b. becomes a law. c. remains in limbo until Congress readjourns, at which point the 10-day clock resumes. d. has been vetoed.

36. Agreements between the United States and other nations, negotiated by the president, that have the same weight as a treaty but do not require Senate approval are called a. executive orders. b. executive agreements. c. treaties. d. continuing resolutions.

37. In his formal constitutional role as the head of government, responsible for overseeing the executive branch and administering the laws of the land, the president is regarded as a. chief of state. b. chief executive. c. commander-in-chief. d. chief diplomat.

38. At the Constitutional Convention, supporters of the strong-executive model were helped by a. the examples of strong governors in New York and Massachusetts. b. the assumption that George Washington would be the first president. c. the historical legacy of legislative limitations on the monarchy. d. all of these choices.

39. The argument that the oath of office requires a president to preserve the Constitution, even if it means taking unconstitutional actions to do so, is a. the oath paradox view of presidential power. b. the restrictive view of presidential power. c. the stewardship doctrine. d. the prerogative view of presidential power.

40. How does party polarization affect presidential success in winning roll call votes in Congress? a. Party polarization has made it more difficult to get votes from opposition party members. b. In the House, party polarization increases the success rates of majority party presidents and decreases the success rates of minority party presidents.

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c. In the Senate, party polarization decreases the success rates of both majority and minority party presidents. d. All of the above.

41. In his symbolic role as the ceremonial leader of the American people, the president is regarded as the a. chief of state. b. chief executive. c. commander-in-chief. d. chief legislator.

True-False 1. The “new NAFTA” is called the United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement (USMCA). a. True 2. Even though he was not re-elected, President Donald J. Trump was one of the most popular presidents in US history. a. False 3. The psychological perspective has proven effective in explaining and predicting how presidents handle the job. a. False 4. Historically, the vice president has played a large role in policymaking. a. False 5. The president is his/her party’s most visible leader. a. True 6. The strongest determinant of presidential success in Congress is whether Congress is controlled by the president’s party. a. True 7. Congress has increased the power of the presidency a. True 8. Expectations on the president have grown slower than the power given to the president. a. False 9. The various individuals who serve in the executive branch often compete and struggle for access to the president, and some are more influential than others. a. True 10. The first lady has no role in politics. a. False Discussion/Essay 1. Why do presidents veto bills? Which models provide the best answer to this question?

2. Which first ladies have left a lasting impact on politics?

3. Does the president have too much power? Not enough power?

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Multiple Choice 1. The GS system a. Establishes a meritocracy for government workers b. Operates fairly and efficiently c. Ensures step-wise salary increases on a regular basis d. Shows how bloated the bureaucracy has become 2. Government corporations a. Occupy a middle ground between the public and private sectors b. Shift responsibility for a government task to a nonpartisan arena in hopes of keeping it insulated from politics c. Make sure essential services are provided to all citizens or at very low cost d. All of the above 3. ____ occurs when work is assigned according to a task specialization. a. Organization centralization b. Inefficiency c. Profitability d. Division of labor 4. According to the notion of neutral competence, what function does the bureaucracy perform? a. Decide public policy b. Implement public policy c. Take sides d. Appropriate funds for public policies 5. Which of the following was the most recently created agency in the Executive Office of the President? a. Department of Homeland Security b. National Security Council c. Council of Economic Advisers d. Drug Enforcement Agency 6. “The single most important function performed by agencies of government” is a. amending laws. b. adjudication. c. rule making. d. lobbying.

7. Through implementation decisions, _______ are active in the initiation of new policies and actively participate in the broader political process. a. congressional committees b. lobbyists c. interest groups d. bureaucracies 8. The problem with fire alarm oversight is a. there is too much bureaucratic incompetence and corruption for any single legislator to keep up with.

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b. bureaucracies rarely exercise their rulemaking authority , making it difficult for a legislator to assess bureaucratic intent. c. the costs outweigh the benefits because most of the times bureaucracies do what that are supposed to do . d. it is reactive instead of proactive.

9. Public bureaucracies derive their policymaking authority from a. delegated legislative authority. b. quasi-judicial authority. c. The Civil Service Commission. d. implied powers.

10. Congressional willingness to grant policy making authority to agencies stems partly from their a. neutral competence. b. expertise. c. presidential appointment. d. representativeness.

11. The Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) a. requires agencies to hold open meetings. b. was vetoed by Nixon, who claimed it violated “executive privilege”. c. allows people to obtain information from agencies, provided it is not classified or concerned with matters of national security. d. preserves and extends free speech rights for all internet use.

12. Court-like proceedings in which agencies enforce laws and regulations are an example of a. executive orders. b. regulations. c. adjudication. d. administration.

13. The advantages or organizing public agencies along bureaucratic lines include a. stability. b. impartiality. c. predictability. d. all of these.

14. _______ established the first merit system for the federal bureaucracy. a. Andrew Jackson b. The Pendleton Act c. Franklin Roosevelt d. The Garfield Rule 15. Which of the following is at the top of the executive branch hierarchy? a. Cabinet departments b. Independent agencies c. Advisory committees d. The Executive Office of the President 16. The merit system is based on

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a. political loyalty. b. patronage. c. demonstrated ability or expertise. d. all of these choices.

17. A public agency that makes decisions based solely on its technical expertise is an example of a. patronage. b. neutral competence. c. technical policy. d. neutral politics.

18. The federal bureaucracy a. is centralized under the Executive Office of the President. b. is government by centralized boards of control in each branch of government. c. is overseen by Congress. d. consists of numerous departments, independent agencies, and advisory committees.

19. Public and private bureaucracies differ mainly in a. their underlying goals. b. their organizational characteristics. c. their general approach to the division of labor. d. All of the above.

20. The practice of staffing government bureaucracies on the basis of political connections and political loyalty is known as a. the merit system. b. the good old boy network. c. the spoils system. d. the bureaucratic system.

21. Overhead democracy requires elected officials to a. engage in rulemaking. b. adjudicate. c. exercise their oversight responsibilities. d. occasionally monitor elected officials.

22. The stereotype that the federal bureaucracy is ineffective and incompetent a. is generally supported by systematic research. b. is true for agencies that administer welfare programs, but not true for the Foreign Service and the military. c. is largely inaccurate. d. was accurate until President George W. Bush reformed the federal government to run like a business.

23. One source of bureaucratic power is a. party politics. b. bureaucratic expertise. c. political alliance with the president. d. budget control.

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24. Organizing public agencies along bureaucratic lines helps ensure a. efficiency. b. equal treatment. c. profitability. d. all of these.

25. The principal-agent model is a. based on the notion that the primary role of the bureaucracy is to implement the mandates issued to it by its political principals (e.g., Congress, the president). b. a way for the president to control the bureaucracy by selecting the people who will head its agencies. c. a way to make government bureaucracies more efficient. d. a way to ensure fair treatment and protect constitutional rights similar to the way school principals are supposed to enforce rules fairly.

26. An agency that is seeking to ascertain whether an organization violated a rule is engaged in the process of a. lawmaking. b. adjudication. c. legislating. d. rulemaking.

27. Systematically monitoring bureaucracy to ensure that it is acting in accordance with democratically expressed preferences is a. fire alarm oversight. b. Police patrol oversight. c. adjudication. d. none of the above.

28. A Congressional hearing called in response to evidence of bureaucratic wrongdoing is an example of a. police patrol oversight. b. adjudication. c. barn door oversight. d. fire alarm oversight.

29. Executive branch agencies tasked with the responsibility of implementing public policy are collectively known as a. the bureaucracy. b. the Executive Office of the President. c. the Congressional Budget Office. d. the General Accounting Office 30. Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) exemplify which of the following characteristics of bureaucracy? a. Division of labor b. Professionalization c. Formal rules d. Hierarchy

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31. Bureaucratic appointments made based on political connections rather than skills and qualifications exemplify which of the following? a. The spoils system b. The civil service system c. The merit system d. Neutral competence 32. Bureaucratic appointments made based on technical expertise and skills rather than political allegiances are an example of a. the spoils system. b. the merit system. c. patronage. d. nepotism.

33. The president's most influential advisors and agencies comprise the a. Executive Office of the President (EOP). b. Office of Management and Budget (OMB). c. White House Office. d. State Department.

34. Federally established businesses that are at least partly self-supporting are known as a. independent agencies. b. government corporations. c. regulatory agencies. d. cabinet departments.

35. The process by which regulatory agencies decide what the laws passed by Congress mean and how they should be carried out is called a a. rulemaking. b. adjudication. c. judicial review. d. fire alarm oversight.

36. The term used to refer to the interdependent relationship among the bureaucracy, interest groups, and congressional committees is a. clientele groups. b. issue networks. c. iron triangles. d. political action committees (PACs).

37. Herbert Simon's theory that humans are not "utility maximizers" is known as a. rational choice . b. the collective action problem. c. game theory. d. bounded rationality.

38. If a bureaucratic agency decides to adopt a policy approach that is merely acceptable, rather than optimal, then it is a. maximizing utility. b. minimizing utility. c. adopting a "mini-max" strategy.

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d. satisficing.

39. When elected officials, who are chosen by the people, conduct bureaucratic oversight, they are engaging in a. overhead democracy. b. stealth democracy. c. interbranch meddling. d. pluralism.

40. The active oversight of the bureaucracy by elected officials to make sure that agency performance is meeting public expectations is known as a. fire alarm oversight. b. Police patrol oversight. c. ambulance chaser oversight. d. the public advocate role.

41. Reactive oversight of the bureaucracy, in which elected officials only check up on agency performance when there is evidence of wrongdoing, is known as a. fire alarm oversight. b. Police patrol oversight. c. ambulance chaser oversight. d. the public advocate role.

42. When a regulatory agency seems to identify more closely with the industry it is regulating than with the interests of the people, it is an example of a. iron triangles. b. policy subsystems. c. agency capture. d. overhead democracy.

43. A ___________________ is a measure that gives Congress the ability to reject an action or decision of the bureaucracy. a. legislative mandate b. legislative veto c. rule d. cloture vote 44. All of the following are problems identified within the principal-agent model EXCEPT: a. Transparency. b. Adverse selection. c. Multiple principals. d. Moral hazard.

True-False 1. In general, the bureaucracy does a good job at a relatively low cost to the American taxpayer. a. TRUE 2. Government bureaucracies are largely responsible for the performance of the governing/political system. a. TRUE

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3. Federal bureaucracies are political institutions. a. TRUE 4. The term "street level bureaucrat" reflects the power of lower-level bureaucrats to informally define policy through their enforcement decisions. a. TRUE 5. The bureaucracy cannot reasonably be considered a "fourth branch of government" because it is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution. a. FALSE 6. The five characteristics of bureaucracy developed by Weber apply only to public (i.e., government) bureaucracies. a. FALSE 7. The assassination of President Garfield was a major political factor in the passage of the Pendleton Act, which formally ended the "spoils system." a. TRUE 8. Unlike the elected branches of government, American bureaucracy is remarkable for its racial and gender diversity, which is an almost perfect reflection of the U.S. population a. FALSE 9. NASA is a federal agency under the authority of the Department of Defense, reflecting its mission of developing military superiority in space. a. FALSE 10. Unelected bureaucrats working in regulatory agencies have the power to issue rules that carry the force of law and to enforce those rules in court-like proceedings that determine guilt and impose punishments. a. TRUE 11. Because members of Congress have powerful electoral incentives to ensure that their laws are being implemented as intended, "police patrol" oversight is the most common approach to oversight of the bureaucracy. a. FALSE

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Multiple Choice 1. New judgeships are a. Necessary because of growing caseloads b. Insulated from partisan politics c. Regularly approved by the President d. Not subject to Congressional action 2. The Supreme Court nomination process a. Operates independently of partisan politics b. Is firmly established to last no longer than two months c. Is subject to votes in both the House and Senate d. None of the above 3. Courts of original jurisdiction a. are trial courts that hear cases for the first time. b. review decisions of the lower courts. c. have jurisdiction in cases involving ambassadors. d. review case that have been appealed.

4. Courts of appellate jurisdiction a. hear cases for the first time. b. review the decisions of lower courts. c. have original jurisdiction in cases involving ambassadors. d. are trial courts.

5. The Supreme Court asserted its power of judicial review in which of the following court cases? a. Roe v. Wade b. Marbury v. Madison c. Brown v. Board of Education d. Plessy v. Ferguson 6. _________ has the power to establish lower courts, determine what cases courts can hear, and regulates which matters decided in lower courts the Supreme Court can review. a. The Senate b. A panel of three judges c. The president d. Congress 7. Which court represents the highest level to which a case involving a question of state law can be carried? a. The U.S. Supreme Court b. A state court of last resort or state Supreme Court c. The Judicial Conference d. A U.S. circuit court 8. Federal judges a. are appointed by the president and must be confirmed by the Senate. b. are nominated by the president and confirmed by the House of Representatives. c. are elected using a majority rule in special elections.

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d. are nominated by the Senate and must have the full approval of the Congress.

9. The attitudinal model suggest that judicial decision making is driven by a. legal criteria. b. a judge's personal preferences. c. public opinion. d. public ideology.

10. The authority of a criminal or appeals court to hear and decide cases is called a. standing. b. judicial discretion. c. jurisdiction. d. a mandate.

11. Presidential nominations to the federal courts must be approved by a. both chambers of Congress. b. the House of Representatives. c. the Senate. d. the Executive Office of the President (EOP).

12. Judges who believe that the making of public policy should be left to the more democratic branches of government exercise a(n) ______ approach to jurisprudence. a. activist b. partisan c. restrained d. independent 13. What is the most important consideration in the selection of Supreme Court justices? a. Party affiliation and political philosophy b. Age c. Judicial experience d. Geography 14. The power of judicial review a. was established by an act of Congress. b. is explicitly provided for in Article III of the Constitution. c. was established by the supreme court in Marbury v Madison (1803). d. was implied in the 19th Amendment.

15. The number of Supreme Court justices is: a. set at 9 by the Article III of the Constitution. b. determined by Congress. c. limited to not more than 9 by the 24th Amendment. d. determined by the formula found in the 11th Amendment.

16. Who sets the jurisdictional boundaries of the federal courts? a. Congress b. The president c. The Supreme Court d. The states 17. Which of the following federal courts can hear appeals made from the state supreme courts?

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a. Federal district courts b. Federal circuit courts of appeals c. The U.S. Supreme Court d. All of the above 18. The Supreme Court formally exercises it discretionary power to hear a case by a. issuing a writ of certiorari. b. claiming the right of stare decisis. c. issuing a writ of mandamus. d. none of the above.

19. The power of judicial review conflicts with which of the following basic democratic values? a. Economic equality and majority rule b. Political equality and popular sovereignty c. Economic equality and popular sovereignty d. Majority rule and popular sovereignty 20. Cases in U.S. Courts of Appeal are usually decided by a. juries. b. a panel of three judges. c. the solicitor general . d. the Judicial Conference.

21. The qualifications set by the Constitution to serve as a Supreme Court justice include a. being at least 35 years old. b. being a member of the bar. c. being a qualified trial lawyer. d. there are no qualifications set by the Constitution.

22. The Supreme Court's exercise of judicial review is a. very infrequent. b. more common when the judge is liberal . c. mainly preoccupied with issues of business-government relations. d. mainly concerned with civil rights.

23. A justice who interprets the Constitution by weighing the original concerns of the Founders is using a. the slot machine theory. b. a legal realist view. c. judicial restraint. d. none of these choices.

24. Based on evidence presented in class, which of the following is true regarding judicial activism? a. Liberals are much more activist in overturning laws than conservatives. b. Conservatives are much more activist in overturning laws than liberals. c. Strongly ideological Justices more activist than moderates. d. None of the above.

25. Trial courts that hear cases for the first time and determine issues of fact and law are a. courts of appellate jurisdiction.

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b. courts of original jurisdiction. c. civil courts. d. the Supreme Court.

26. Courts that review the decisions of lower courts are a. courts of appellate jurisdiction. b. courts of original jurisdiction. c. civil courts. d. the Supreme Court.

27. The 1803 case in which the Court asserted the power of judicial review was a. McCulloch v. Maryland. b. Plessy v. Ferguson. c. Baker v. Carr. d. Marbury v. Madison.

28. Courts in which groups of judges decide cases based on a review of the record of the lower-court trial are a. civil courts. b. courts of original jurisdiction. c. collegial courts. d. intramural courts.

29. An opinion written by a Supreme Court justice who agrees with the ruling of the Court but not the reason behind it is a a. majority opinion. b. concurring opinion. c. plurality opinion. d. dissenting opinion.

30. A decision of the Supreme Court in which a majority of the Court agrees on the decision, but there is no majority agreement on the decision is a a. majority opinion. b. concurring opinion. c. plurality opinion. d. dissenting opinion.

31. An opinion written by a Supreme Court justice who is in the minority that presents the logic and thinking of the justices who opposed the majority opinion is a a. majority opinion. b. concurring opinion. c. plurality opinion. d. dissenting opinion.

32. The practice that allows senators from states with federal district courts to recommend individuals for the president to nominate is known as a. senatorial courtesy. b. presidential courtesy. c. the "nuclear option". d. "home cooking".

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33. The view of judicial decision making in which judges set aside their own values and make decisions based solely on legal criteria is called a. neutral competence. b. the legal model. c. active liberty. d. the sociological model.

34. An approach to judicial decision making in which a judge sets a constitutional provision alongside a statute in order to "decide whether the latter squares with the former" is known as a. the roulette theory. b. the square deal theory. c. the slot machine theory. d. the inter-ocular theory.

35. Scholars who argue that the decision making of judges is influenced by personal values and ideology favor which of the following models? a. The legal model b. The legal realist model c. The strategic model d. The originalist model 36. The theory of judicial decision making that suggests judges sometimes vote against their own personal preferences in order to reach a compromise acceptable to other institutional actors is a. the attitudinal model. b. the legal realist model. c. the institutionalist model. d. the strategic model.

37. The idea that Supreme Court justices should interpret the Constitution in terms of the original intentions of the framers is a. originalism. b. active liberty. c. textualism. d. libertarianism.

38. A Supreme Court justice who believes that the Court should defer policy making decisions to elected branches of government is a proponent of a. judicial activism. b. judicial restraint. c. judicial incrementalism. d. judicial apathy.

39. A Supreme Court justice who believes that the Court has a responsibility to use its rulings to articulate new policy when other branches fail to do so is practicing a. judicial activism. b. judicial restraint. c. judicial incrementalism. d. judicial apathy.

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40. All of the following are potential constraints on judicial power EXCEPT: a. constitutional amendments. b. impeachment. c. re-election concerns. d. the Court's inability to initiate policy making.

True-False 1. By law, the Supreme Court must always include at least one woman, one African American, and one Jewish person. a. FALSE 2. There is no court in the federal courts system that possesses both original and appellate jurisdiction. a. FALSE 3. Roughly 50% of district court verdicts end up being appealed to the circuit courts. a. FALSE 4. Federal appeals are typically heard "en banc," meaning that all of the judges in the circuit hear the case. a. FALSE 5. The Supreme Court is the only federal court that can hear appeals from state courts. a. TRUE 6. Like the elected branches of government, partisan polarization seems to have grown on the Supreme Court as well, with a marked increase in cases decided by one vote. a. TRUE 7. A "plurality opinion" is written when there is majority agreement on the outcome of a case, but disagreement regarding the reasons for that outcome. a. TRUE 8. The Constitution prohibits elected politicians from being nominated as Supreme Court justices. a. FALSE 9. The "legal model" of judicial decision making is based on sociological theories of the different professional roles played by lawyers and judges. a. TRUE 10. "Legal realism" is a model of judicial decision making that requires a rigid adherence to the letter of the law. a. FALSE 11. Probably the most common form of judicial restraint is the self-restraint of the judges themselves, who follow well-established professional norms of objectivity. a. TRUE

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Multiple Choice 1. A public policy focusing event a. Grabs attention immediately and puts an issue on the public agenda b. Is exemplified by the murder of George Floyd c. Can emerge from the left or right, Democrat or Republican, or nonpartisan sources d. All of the above 2. The first stage of the policymaking process, which produces the list of issues and problems the government will pay attention to, is a. policy formulation and adoption. b. policy implementation. c. policy evaluation. d. agenda setting.

3. The second stage of the policymaking process, wherein government considers the various alternatives to the issue at hand and formally approves a particular alternative, is a. policy formulation and adoption. b. policy implementation. c. policy evaluation. d. agenda setting.

4. The third stage of the policymaking process, in which the government translates approved policy alternatives into action, is a. policy formulation and adoption. b. policy implementation. c. policy evaluation. d. agenda setting.

5. The final stage of the policymaking process, wherein government and nongovernment actors assess the successes and problems of public policies, is a. policy formulation and adoption. b. policy implementation. c. policy evaluation. d. agenda setting.

6. Which of the following is a formal proof that no decision-making system can guarantee that the rank-ordered preferences of a group will reflect the rank-ordered preferences of the set of rational individuals who make up that group? a. Duverger's law b. Arrow’s impossibility theorem c. Nash equilibrium d. The "garbage can" model of decision making 7. The theory of policy making that seeks to explain why decision making in large, complex institutions (such as universities) often seems irrational is known as a. the "garbage can" model. b. the "recycle bin". c. the "policy windows" theory. d. the "satisficing" theory.

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8. All of the following are forces that can move a policy problem onto the public agenda EXCEPT: a. Indicators. b. Focusing events. c. Realignment. d. Feedback.

9. The rational-comprehensive decision-making approach involves considering all possible alternatives to a problem or issue and choosing the one with a. the highest costs and the least benefit. b. the lowest cost and the lowest benefit. c. the most benefit and the highest cost. d. the most benefits at the least cost.

10. The decision making approach characterized by current decisions that are small adjustments to past decisions is known as a. zero-based budgeting. b. incrementalism. c. five year plans. d. satisficing.

11. The decision making approach in which policy makers ignore last year's spending levels and begin current year budgeting from scratch, justifying every single dollar of proposed spending is called a. zero-based budgeting. b. incrementalism. c. five year plans. d. satisficing.

12. Herbert Simon's concept of "bounded rationality" asserts that decision making will never be perfectly rational because decision makers never have a. common sense. b. freedom from political pressure. c. complete information. d. the courage to put national goals ahead of re-election goals.

13. Process evaluations are intended to assess whether a program or policy is a. being implemented according to its stated guidelines. b. satisfying the interest groups who lobbied for the program. c. achieving its overall objectives. d. resulting in a high rate of re-election for members of Congress.

14. Impact evaluations assess whether a program or policy is a. being implemented according to its stated guidelines. b. satisfying the interest groups who lobbied for the program. c. achieving its overall objectives. d. resulting in a high rate of re-election for members of Congress.

15. Which of the following is an example of a bad public policy that resulted from majority rule? a. The League of Nations

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b. Jim Crow laws c. The Equal Rights Amendment d. Roe v. Wade 16. The political influence of wealthy lobbying groups is most detrimental to which of the following core values of democracy? a. Political freedom b. Majority rule c. Popular sovereignty d. Political equality 17. The list of issues that government is actually paying attention to is a. the public agenda. b. the Federal Register. c. the news cycle. d. the State of the Union Address.

18. Which of the following non-governmental actors plays the most significant role in agenda setting? c a. public opinion. b. the media. c. interest groups. d. none of the above.

19. Which of the following is the most powerful agenda setter for government? a. Congress. b. The President. c. The courts. d. Regulatory agencies.

20. The "garbage can model" of policy decision making suggests that a. solutions are trying to "find" a problem. b. problems are trying to "find" solutions. c. neither a nor b. d. both a and b.

21. The failure of South Carolina to lower the Confederate Flag to half-mast after the mass shooting at the Emanual African Methodist Episcopal Church in 2015 is an example of a. a focusing event. b. feedback. c. an indicator. d. a policy punctuation.

22. The phrase "the science of muddling through" has been used to describe which approach to policy making? a. Rational-comprehensive decision making b. Zero-based budgeting. c. Incrementalism. d. Punctuated equilibrium.

23. The type of policy making most closely associated with an incrementalist approach is a. environmental policy.

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b. budgeting. c. civil rights. d. education policy.

24. All of the following are things that can complicate policy implementation EXCEPT: a. multiple levels of government involved in decision making. b. conflicting preferences expressed by constituencies and clientele groups. c. the level of resources provided for implementation. d. clear and realistic objectives.

25. Policy evaluations can take which of the following forms? a. Process evaluations b. Impact evaluations c. both a and b d. neither a nor b 26. Groups of people who either receive benefits or bear costs as a result of a policy decision are known as a. "target populations." b. "issue publics." c. "pressure groups." d. "free riders."

27. The role played by "target populations" in the formulation of public policy alternatives can often undermine the core democratic principle of a. majority rule. b. political equality. c. popular sovereignty. d. rational self-interest.

28. Some research suggests that citizens can be manipulated into greater compliance with tax policy through a a. social pressure. b. threats of a fine. c. appeals to patriotism. d. a personal letter from your representative.

29. The success of the Behavior Insight Team (or "Nudge Unit") in the United Kingdom in increasing citizen compliance with government policies reflects the influence of _________________ on policy development. a. rational choice models b. behavioral models c. evolutionary frameworks d. bounded rationality 30. The goal of a policy analyst is a. to decide which policies are politically feasible. b. to decide which possible response to a policy problem is best. c. to decide which policy response is most efficient. d. to decide which policy response is most equitable.

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31. Which of the following groups is most likely to successfully gain agenda access in the United States? a. A non-profit group seeking free housing for homeless people. b. A civil liberties group seeking increased funding for public defenders. c. A public health group seeking to expand needle exchange programs for drug addicts. d. A coalition of investment banks pushing to lower the capital gains tax.

32. The surest way to ensure that a policy will not be adopted is to a. use the mass media to frame the issue negatively. b. spark a protest movement that raises awareness of the negative aspects of the policy. c. prevent the issue from ever reaching the agenda of government. d. link the policy to a particularly unpopular public official.

True-False 1. Compared to other democracies, America generally has a worse record on the core principle of political equality, a better record on political freedom, and a roughly similar record on majority rule. a. TRUE 2. Public policy is a relatively stable, purposive course of action pursued by government officials or agencies. a. TRUE 3. "Police Patrol" oversight is an example of the policy evaluation stage of public policymaking. a. TRUE 4. Congress is primarily responsible for the policy implementation stage of public policymaking. a. FALSE 5. Rational-comprehensive decision making is the most realistic approach to explaining public policy development. a. FALSE 6. Public education is a good example of an "intractable" problem. a. TRUE 7. Public policy should always be guided by majority preferences, even when it means denying a minority group a right to which they feel they are entitled. a. FALSE 8. The evaluations of policy analysts can never be truly objective. a. TRUE 9. Public policy making frequently brings our core principles of democracy into conflict with one another. a. TRUE 10. As a purely reactive branch of government, the courts play no role in agenda setting. a. FALSE

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Information Classification: General