TEST BANK Astronomy Database complete questions and answers all book chapters

TEST BANK 01 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1.

After a new moon, about how long is it until a 1st quarter moon?

A. A month B. Two weeks C. A week D. Six hours

2.

If there is a full moon visible from Paris one evening, twelve hours later in Australia there will be a _________ visible.

A. Full moon.

B. New moon.

C. First quarter moon.

D. Crescent moon.

3.

Directly above the Earth's equator lies the ______________ in the sky.

A. North celestial pole B. South celestial pole C. Celestial equator D. Ecliptic

4.

All celestial objects rise in the East and set in the West because A. The Earth is rotating from east to west B. The Earth is rotating from west to east C. The Earth is orbiting around the Sun from east to west D. The celestial sphere is rotating from east to west

5.

In which season is the Earth closest to the Sun? A. When it is winter in North America B. When it is summer in North America C. When it is autumn in North America D. When it is spring in North America

6.

The equinox is the time when A. Day is longest in the Northern hemisphere B. Day is shortest in the Northern hemisphere C. Day and night are equal everywhere on the Earth D. All the nights are equally long through out the month

7.

When the Moon and the Sun lie exactly in the same direction in the sky, what phase of the Moon would you see?

A. Full B. Half C. Gibbous D. Crescent E. New

8.

Full Moon rises at A. Sunrise B. Sunset C. Midnight D. Noon

9.

On what date/s does the Sun rise exactly due east and set exactly due west?

A. June 21 and December 21 B. March 21 and September 22 C. Only on Mach 21 D. Only on June 21

10. In the Northern Hemisphere, between what dates does the location of the Sun's rising and setting shift a little farther north each day?

A. From March 21 until June 21 B. From June 21 until September 22 C. From September 22 until December 21 D. From December 21 until March 21 11. Why do the constellations that are visible in the sky at night change with the seasons?

A. Because the celestial sphere revolves around the Earth B. Because the Earth is a sphere C. Because the Earth rotates about an axis D. Because the Earth revolves around the Sun 12. What is the ecliptic?

A. The line of the solar and lunar eclipses on the celestial sphere B. The extension of the Earth's path on the celestial sphere C. The elliptical shape of the Earth's orbit around the Sun D. All of the above 13. Which of the following statements describes the ecliptic?

A. The path of the Moon on the celestial sphere B. The extension of the Earth's equator on the celestial sphere C. The extension of the Earth's path on the celestial sphere D. The apparent path of the Sun across the celestial sphere E. Both C and D are correct 14. What causes the seasons?

A. The tilt of the celestial sphere with respect to the equator B. The fact that the Earth's path is elliptical, hence the Earth is closer to the Sun in the summer C. The fact that the ecliptic is tilted with respect to the celestial equator D. The motion of the equinoxes E. None of the above 15. What causes the seasons?

A. The changing distance between the Earth and the Sun B. The tilt of the Earth's spin axis relative to the Earth's orbit C. The Earth's spin axis is tilted from the poles of the celestial sphere D. The elliptical shape of the Earth's equator 16. Which of the following is true during the equinoxes?

A. The Sun is on the ecliptic B. The Sun is on the celestial equator C. The Sun rises due east and sets due west D. All of the above E. Only A and C are correct 17. Which phase of the Moon sets at sunset?

A. Full Moon B. Third quarter C. New Moon D. Waxing crescent

18. When does the full Moon phase occur?

A. When the Earth is between the Sun and the Moon B. When the Sun is between the Earth and the Moon C. When the Moon is between the Earth and the Sun D. When the Moon and the Sun are on the celestial equator 19. When does the new Moon phase occur?

A. When the Earth is between the Sun and the Moon B. When the Sun is between the Earth and the Moon C. When the Moon is between the Earth and the Sun D. When the Sun and the Moon are on the celestial equator 20. Which phase of the Moon do you expect to see high in the sky at midnight?

A. The first quarter B. The new Moon C. The full Moon D. The third quarter 21. Which phase of the Moon do you expect to see rising at dawn?

A. Full Moon B. First quarter C. Waning crescent D. Third quarter 22. If the Moon sets at 10 a.m. today, approximately what time did the Moon set yesterday?

A. 10:04 a.m.

B. 9:56 a.m.

C. 10:50 a.m.

D. 9:10 a.m.

23. During which phase of the Moon do you expect to observe a lunar eclipse?

A. Full Moon B. New Moon C. First quarter D. Third quarter E. Lunar eclipses can occur at any phase of the Moon 24. During which phase of the Moon do you expect to observe a solar eclipse?

A. Full Moon B. New Moon C. First quarter D. Third quarter E. Solar eclipses can occur at any phase of the Moon 25. Suppose that the Earth's spin would suddenly reverse direction, but the direction of the Earth's motion around the Sun was preserved. Which of the following changes would you expect to observe?

A. The Sun would rise in the West and set in the East B. The stars would rise in the West and set in the East C. The planets would rise in the West and set in the East D. All of the above would be observed E. Only A and B are correct 26. Solar eclipses can occur during ____ Moon.

A. The new B. The full C. The waning crescent D. The waxing crescent E. Any phase of the

27. Relative to the stars, the Moon moves from _____ to ______.

A. East, west B. West, east 28. The Sun's apparent path on the celestial sphere is on the _____.

A. Celestial equator B. Ecliptic C. Meridian 29. The motion of the Sun relative to the stars is from _____ to _____.

A. East, west B. West, east 30. During a solar eclipse, the _____ casts a small circular shadow on the ____.

A. Moon; Earth B. Sun; Moon 31. Lunar eclipses do not occur every full Moon, because the path of the ____ is tilted relative to the _____.

A. Earth; ecliptic B. Moon; ecliptic C. Sun; ecliptic D. Moon; equator 32. Which of the following statements about eclipses is true?

A. A total solar eclipse is visible from any location on the day-side of the Earth B. A partial solar eclipse happens every month, but not the total solar eclipse C. A lunar eclipse is visible from any location on the night-side of the Earth D. All of the above 33. Which of the following statements about eclipses is true?

A. A solar eclipse is visible only from within a narrow region on the Earth B. The solar corona is visible during a total solar eclipse C. A lunar eclipse is visible from any location on the night-side of the Earth D. The eclipse season is advanced by 20 days each year E. All of the above 34. At totality during the lunar eclipse, the Moon generally appears _______ in color.

A. Bluish B. Yellowish C. Greenish D. Reddish 35. What is the maximum number of eclipses that can occur in a year?

A. 2 (one solar and one lunar) B. 4 (two solar and two lunar) C. 7 (five solar and two lunar) D. 7 (four solar and three lunar) E. C or D. 36. Eclipses generally occur in pairs, with a solar eclipse about _________ before or after a lunar eclipse.

A. A day B. A week C. Two weeks D. A month E. Two months

37. An annular solar eclipse occurs A. When the Moon in its orbit is farthest from the Earth, and, so not able to cover the complete disk of the Sun B. When the Moon in its orbit is closest to the Earth, and, so not able to cover the complete disk of the Sun C. Every year when the Sun is highest in the sky D. None of the above 38. If there is a 1st quarter moon visible from Paris one evening, six hours later in New York there will be full moon visible.

True False 39. The third-quarter moon is at its highest point at about 6am.

True False 40. The zodiac is tilted by 23.5° relative to the celestial equator.

True False 41. The first quarter phase of the Moon in the northern hemisphere occurs at the time of the third quarter phase in the southern hemisphere.

True False 42. During the December solstice, the sun rises in the southeast horizon in the Earth's northern hemisphere.

True False 43. During the December solstice, the sun rises in the southeast horizon in the Earth's northern hemisphere and in the northeast horizon in the Earth's southern hemisphere.

True False 44. An annular solar eclipse occurs every year.

True False

01 Key 1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. E 8. B 9. B 10. A 11. D 12. B 13. E 14. C 15. B 16. D 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. C 21. C 22. D 23. A 24. B 25. D 26. A 27. B 28. B 29. B 30. A 31. B 32. C 33. E 34. D 35. E 36. C

37. A 38. FALSE 39. TRUE 40. TRUE 41. FALSE 42. TRUE 43. FALSE 44. FALSE

01 Summary Category Arny - Chapter 01

# of Questions 44

02 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1.

The moon appears larger when it rises than when it is high in the sky because A. You are closer to it when it rises (angular-size relation).

B. You are farther from it when it rises (angular-size relation).

C. It's an illusion from comparison to objects on the horizon.

D. It's brighter when it rises.

2.

Kepler's third, or harmonic, law states that the A. Period of an orbit cubed equals the semi-major axis squared.

B. Semi-major axis of an orbit cubed equals the period squared.

C. Planets move fastest when they are closest to the Sun. D. Semi-major axis of an orbit is inversely proportional to the period.

3.

The paths of the planets on the sky are tilted with respect to the celestial equator by about A. 5 degrees B. 23 degrees C. 45 degrees D. 90 degrees

4.

Copernicus' heliocentric model failed to work as well as it might to predict the positions of planets because Copernicus insisted the orbits were A. Circular.

B. Elliptical.

C. Circular, mounted on epicycles.

D. Hyperbolic.

5.

One of Tycho Brahe's major contributions to astronomy was to prove that _________ was _________.

A. A supernova (exploding star), much farther away than the planets.

B. A comet, outside the Earth's atmosphere.

C. The Sun, the center of the solar system.

D. Both A and B were accomplishments of Tycho Brahe.

E. A, B and C were accomplishments of Tycho Brahe.

6.

_________ was the first person to measure the circumference of the Earth.

A. Ptolemy B. Copernicus C. Eratsothenes D. Galileo E. Aristarchus

7.

One of the methods used to date supernova remnants (the remains of exploded stars) today is by using A. The notebooks of Galileo B. The records of ancient Chinese, Japanese, and Korean astronomers C. The works of Ptolemy D. Kepler's laws

8.

Which of the following objects passes through the zodiac?

A. Sun B. Planets C. Earth and Moon D. All of the above E. None of the above

9.

Which of the following statements regarding the motion of objects on the celestial sphere is true?

A. The Sun moves along the celestial equator B. The Moon moves along the celestial equator C. The planets move parallel to the celestial equator D. The stars move along the zodiac E. The stars move parallel to the celestial equator

10. What is retrograde motion?

A. East to west motion of the Sun B. East to west motion of the Moon relative to the stars C. Occasional east to west motion of the planets relative to the stars D. Occasional west to east motion of the planets relative to the stars 11. What is the size of an object located at a distance of 1 km and that has angular size A = 2°?

A. About 10 meters B. About 35 meters C. About 2 meters D. About 360 meters 12. Which of the following was a crucial contribution of Galileo in rejecting the geocentric system?

A. The observation of parallax B. The fact that Venus shows a gibbous phase C. The fact that Venus shows a crescent phase D. All of the above E. Only B and C above 13. In _________ models, the Sun is assumed as the center of the solar system.

A. Heliocentric B. Geocentric 14. During retrograde motion, a planet moves from ______ to ______ relative to the stars.

A. East, west (moves westward) B. West, east (moves eastward) 15. During retrograde motion, a planet moves from ______ to ______ relative to the horizon.

A. East, west (moves westward) B. West, east (moves eastward) 16. During retrograde motion, a planet rises in the ______ and sets in the ______.

A. East, west (moves westward) B. West, east (moves eastward) 17. Galileo was the first to observe the phases of _____.

A. The Moon B. Venus C. Earth 18. In Copernicus' model of the solar system, the planets orbited the _____ in ______ orbits.

A. Earth, circular B. Sun, elliptical C. Sun, circular

19. ______ major contribution to astronomy is his extensive series of measurements of planetary positions.

A. Tycho Brahe's B. Galileo's C. Kepler's 20. _______ used the extensive records of planetary positions measured by ______ to discover that the orbits of the planets are ________.

A. Tycho, Kepler, circular B. Kepler, Tycho, elliptical C. Kepler, Galileo, elliptical 21. Kepler's ____ law states that the orbits of planets are elliptical, with the Sun in one focus.

A. First B. Second C. Third 22. From Kepler's ____ law, we conclude that the planets do not move with constant speed.

A. First B. Second C. Third 23. From Kepler's ____ law, we conclude that Mars completes a full orbit much faster than Pluto.

A. First B. Second C. Third 24. The paths of the planets' orbits lie in all different directions on the sky.

True False 25. Copernicus' model was significantly better at predicting future positions of planets than Ptolemy's.

True False 26. Galileo deduced many empirical laws of motion before Newton was even born.

True False 27. The inability to observe parallax of stars led ancient Greek astronomers to reject the idea that the Earth revolves around the Sun. True False 28. The motion of the Sun with respect to the stars is retrograde, i.e., east to west relative to the stars.

True False 29. During the month of December, the Earth goes through the point of closest approach to the Sun. Using Kepler's Second law we can conclude that the Earth moves faster in December than in June.

True False 30. During retrograde motion, the planet Mars rises in the West and sets in the East.

True False 31. Parallax is the shift in a star's apparent position due to the Earth's motion around the Sun. True False 32. In geocentric theories, the Earth is assumed to be the center of the solar system.

True False 33. The Sun is located at the center of the Earth's elliptical orbit.

True False 34. The Sun is located at one of the foci of the Earth's orbit.

True False

35. The angular size of an object decreases as the distance to the observer increases.

True False 36. The angular size of the Sun as observed from Earth is about 0.5 degrees.

True False 37. The angular size of the Moon as observed from Earth is about 0.5 degrees.

True False 38. The concept of the epicycle was introduced in the heliocentric model to explain the retrograde motion of the planets.

True False 39. In the heliocentric model, the retrograde motion of the planets was explained as the consequence of the different orbital speeds of the planets, without the use of epicycles.

True False

02 Key 1. C 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. E 10. C 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. A 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. B 21. A 22. B 23. C 24. FALSE 25. FALSE 26. TRUE 27. TRUE 28. FALSE 29. TRUE 30. FALSE 31. TRUE 32. TRUE 33. FALSE 34. TRUE 35. TRUE 36. TRUE

37. TRUE 38. FALSE 39. TRUE

02 Summary Category Arny - Chapter 02

# of Questions 39

03 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1.

Due to what property does a body display the tendency to stay in the state of rest or motion?

A. Temperature B. Acceleration C. Pressure D. Inertia E. Volume

2.

Which statement is true about Newton's first law of motion?

A. A body at rest stays at rest unless a force is applied to it B. A body in motion stays in motion unless a force is applied to it C. A body in motion has the tendency to come to a stop eventually D. Both A and C E. Both A and B

3.

The recoil experienced when firing a shotgun is a consequence of _____ law.

A. Newton's 1st B. Kepler's 3rd C. Newton's 3rd

4.

In your office, you have a rolling chair and a rolling filing cabinet. The chair weighs 10 pounds, and the filing cabinet weighs 50 pounds (it's partly full). If you push both of them away with about the same strength, A. The chair will accelerate about 25 times as much as the cabinet B. The cabinet will accelerate about 25 times as much as the chair C. The chair will accelerate about 5 times as much as the cabinet D. The cabinet will accelerate about 5 times as much as the chair E. Both will accelerate about the same.

5.

The force that pulls an upward going ball back to the Earth and keeps the Moon in its orbit is called _______.

A. Inertia B. Gravity C. Pressure D. Escape speed

6.

If you double the distance between two bodies, the force of gravity between them would A. Double B. Drop to one half C. Drop to one fourth D. Increase four times

7.

An astronaut feels weightlessness in space. The astronaut's mass in space is A. Zero B. The same as on the Earth C. Double than on the Earth D. Becoming lesser and lesser as s/he is going higher

8.

At which place on the Earth will you weigh less?

A. At the equator B. At the North Pole C. At the South Pole D. You weigh the same at all of these places

9.

The Earth's radius at the equator is larger than that at the poles. Where is the Earth's surface gravity more?

A. At the equator B. At the North Pole C. At the South Pole D. Same everywhere E. Both B and C

10. If you are lucky enough to get a chance to visit different planets of our Solar System, which of the following statements will be true?

A. Your weight will change, but your mass will remain the same B. Your mass will change, but your weight will remain the same C. Both your weight and mass will remain the same D. Both your weight and mass will change 11. The speed an object needs to move away from the gravitational pull of the Earth is called A. Orbital velocity B. Escape velocity C. Rotational velocity D. Random velocity 12. If the forces that you and your friend are exerting on an object are balanced, then the object A. Will not move B. Will move with a constant velocity C. Will move but not accelerate D. None of the above 13. While riding a bicycle, if you stop pedaling you will still continue to move forward due to ______.

A. Gravity B. Inertia C. Acceleration D. Pressure 14. If a rope on which you are swinging a rock breaks, what will happen to the rock?

A. The rock will fall down immediately B. The rock will complete the circle before falling down C. The rock will go in a straight line before falling down D. The rock will fly upward 15. Which of the following objects is obeying Newton's laws of motion?

A. A sleeping cat B. A satellite orbiting the Earth C. A runner racing around a track D. A skydiver falling under the force of gravity E. All of the above 16. Which of the following objects is experiencing the Earth's gravitational force?

A. A boat floating in water B. An airplane taking-off C. A skydiver falling under the force of gravity D. All of the above E. Only B and C above 17. Consider an apple falling off a tree. Which of the following apply to this situation?

A. The apple is attracting the Earth B. The Earth is attracting the apple C. The Earth is attracting the apple; the apple is not attracting the Earth D. Only B and C apply E. Only A and B apply

18. Consider a large truck and a small car driving up a straight steep hill. The truck is moving at 60 miles per hour and the car at 30 miles per hour. Assuming that the speeds are constant, which of the two vehicles experiences a larger net force?

A. The truck B. The car C. The same: zero net force 19. A car is moving down a straight steep hill. By applying the brake, the driver is able to keep the speed of the car constant. Which of the following statements is true in this situation?

A. There is a net force on the car B. The net acceleration is negative C. There is no net force on the car 20. Suppose that a planet was discovered that has twice the mass and twice the diameter of the Earth. What would be the escape velocity for this planet? (Assume that for Earth the escape velocity is 11 km/s) A. 22 km/s B. 11 km/s C. 15.6 km/s D. 7.8 km/s 21. Suppose that the Sun started shrinking in size, without losing any mass. What would be the effect of the Sun's change on the orbits of the planets?

A. The orbits would become smaller in size B. The orbits would become larger C. The orbits would not be affected D. The planets would escape 22. The acceleration of gravity on the Earth's surface is 9.8 m/s2. What is the acceleration of gravity at a height of 6,400 km above the Earth's surface? (Hint: recall the 1/r2 dependence and note that the Earth's radius is 6,400 km) A. 4.9 m/s2 B. 2.45 m/s2 C. 19.6 m/s2 D. 9.8 m/s2 23. What is the average orbital speed of the Earth around the Sun? (Note: r = 1.5 × 1011 m and P = 3.16 × 107 s) A. About 30 km/s B. About 4.7 km/s C. About 9.8 m/s2 D. 365 days E. 1,000 km/s 24. Which of the following objects move according to Kepler's laws?

A. A satellite orbiting the Earth B. A planet orbiting the Sun C. Runners racing around a track D. All of the above E. Only A and B 25. Newton's modification of Kepler's 3rd law allows astronomers to determine the _____ of celestial objects.

A. Mass B. Period C. Distance D. Acceleration

26. If the net force acting on an object doubles, then the _____ doubles as well.

A. Mass B. Acceleration C. Speed D. Velocity 27. Mars completes one orbit around the Sun in approximately two Earth years. Mars orbits at an average distance to the Sun of about 1.5 AU, and Mars' mass is about 1/10 of the Earth's mass. Therefore Mars' orbital speed is _____ the orbital speed of the Earth.

A. About 0.8 times B. 1.5 times larger than C. About 1/10 of D. About 3 times 28. When a bus makes a sudden stop the passengers lurch forward as a consequence of ____ law.

A. Newton's 1st B. Kepler's 3rd C. Newton's 3rd 29. An object is moving in a straight line and at a constant speed of 60 kilometers per hour. We therefore conclude that the net force on this object is zero.

True False 30. Astronomers can determine the mass of the Sun by applying Newton's modification of Kepler's 3rd law.

True False 31. If the distance between two objects doubles, the gravitational attraction between them becomes half.

True False 32. An object moving on a circle at constant speed is an example of accelerated motion.

True False 33. Larger planets (higher mass) in the solar system have higher orbital speeds because they are attracted more strongly by the Sun. True False 34. Mars completes one orbit around the Sun in approximately two Earth years. Mars' average distance to the Sun is about 1.5 AU. Therefore the Mars' orbital speed is lower than the Earth's orbital speed.

True False 35. Newton's laws of motion apply only to objects experiencing the force of gravity. They do not apply to objects experiencing a magnetic force.

True False 36. By Newton's 3rd law, the Earth's pull on the Sun is equal to the Sun's pull on the Earth.

True False

03 Key 1. D 2. E 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. E 10. A 11. B 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. E 16. D 17. E 18. C 19. C 20. B 21. C 22. B 23. A 24. E 25. A 26. B 27. A 28. A 29. TRUE 30. TRUE 31. FALSE 32. TRUE 33. FALSE 34. TRUE 35. FALSE 36. TRUE

03 Summary Category Arny - Chapter 03

# of Questions 36

04 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1.

In materials like glass or water the speed of light is _________.

A. Reduced B. Increased C. The same as in vacuum D. Sometimes reduced and sometimes increased

2.

________ range in wavelength from millimeters to hundreds of meters.

A. X-rays B. Gamma rays C. Ultraviolet waves D. Visible light waves E. Radio waves

3.

Which of the following statements is true?

A. X-rays have higher energy, hence they move faster than visible light B. X-rays have higher energy, but still they move slower than visible light C. Even though X-rays have higher energy, they move with the same speed as that of visible light D. None of the above

4.

Which kinds of electromagnetic radiation have more energy?

A. Higher frequency B. Lower frequency C. Longer wavelength D. Shorter wavelength E. Both A and D

5.

Star A is blue, Star B is yellow, and Star C is red. Which one of these is the hottest star?

A. Star A B. Star B C. Star C D. From color, temperature cannot be predicted

6.

Adam's toy gun emits blue light, Sue's emits red light, Bonnie's emits infrared light, and James' emits ultraviolet light. Who has the most energetic toy gun?

A. Adam B. Sue C. Bonnie D. James E. All of the toy guns have same energy

7.

Which of the following emits a spectrum very close to a blackbody spectrum?

A. A Neon light B. An interstellar cloud C. The Sun D. The Earth E. Both C and D

8.

Which one of the following is an example of a blackbody that you see in everyday life?

A. A Neon light B. A stove burner C. A florescent light D. A Laser pointer

9.

The electrons are quantized in an atom. That means A. The electrons are in bulk B. The electrons can stay only in discrete orbits C. The quantity of electrons keep changing D. All of the above

10. An atom consists of A. Electrons in a nucleus orbited by protons B. Negatively charged protons in a nucleus orbited by positively charged electrons C. Positively charged protons in a nucleus orbited by negatively charged neutrons D. None of the above 11. ________ occurs when an electron in an atom jumps from a lower energy orbital to a higher energy orbital.

A. Ionization B. Acceleration C. Excitation D. A ground stage 12. You are heating a jar full of hydrogen and observing its spectrum. When you add more hydrogen to it, what happens to the spectral lines in the spectrum?

A. The positions of emission lines will change B. You will start seeing lots of absorption lines instead of emission lines C. The positions of emission lines will remain the same but the lines will get broader and brighter D. There will be no change in the spectrum 13. A(n) ___________ spectrum has dark lines on a continuous background.

A. Absorption B. Emission C. Continuous D. None of these 14. A(n) ___________ spectrum has bright lines on dark background.

A. Absorption B. Emission C. Continuous D. None of these 15. An object is moving very fast perpendicularly to your line of sight. What shift will you observe in its spectrum?

A. Blue shift B. Red shift C. Yellow shift D. No shift 16. Which of the following electromagnetic waves are completely blocked by the Earth's atmosphere?

A. Radio waves B. Visible light C. Infrared D. X-rays 17. A star's emission line of 400 nm appears shifted to 404 nm in the spectrum. What can you conclude from this shift?

A. The star is approaching you with the speed of 3000 km/s B. The star is receding from you with the speed of 3000 km/s C. The star is approaching you with the speed of 30300 km/s D. The star is receding from you with the speed of 30300 km/s

18. What is an atmospheric window?

A. A region in the atmosphere where light can get through B. A region in the atmosphere where infrared radiation can penetrate C. A range of wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation which transmit through the Earth's atmosphere D. A part of the upper atmosphere with depleted ozone E. Only A and D above 19. Which of the following can be determined from Wien's law?

A. The temperature of the surface of the Sun B. The chemical composition of the surface of the Sun C. The temperature of a hot tenuous gas D. All of the above E. Only A and C are correct 20. What determines the identity of a chemical element?

A. The number of protons in the nucleus B. The number of electrons orbiting the nucleus C. The number of neutrons in the nucleus D. All of the above E. Only A and B above 21. What conclusion can we draw about the motion of a star that does not show any Doppler shift in its spectrum?

A. The star is not moving B. The star is spinning fast C. The star does not have a magnetic field D. The star may be moving perpendicular to our line of sight E. We cannot draw any conclusions about the motion of this star 22. What happens when an electron in an atom absorbs a photon?

A. The electron moves to a higher energy level B. The electron moves to a lower energy level C. The electron moves to the nucleus D. Both B and C above 23. The Alpha star in the constellation of Orion shifts its position on the celestial sphere by 0.03 arc seconds per year and the Beta star shifts by 0.001 arc seconds per year. Based on this observation, which of the following conclusions is justifiable?

A. The spectral lines from the Beta star are more red-shifted B. The spectral lines from the Alpha star are more red-shifted C The shifts in direction do not provide information on the speed along the line of sight, therefore we . cannot draw any conclusion on the shift of the spectral lines 24. A gas emits a spectral line at 100 nm and another spectral line at 1000 nm. Which of the following statements regarding the origin of the two lines is correct?

A. The energy change producing the 100 nm line is 10 times larger than the change producing the 1000 nm line B. The energy change producing the 1000 nm line is 10 times larger than the change producing the 100 nm line C. The 100 nm line is produced by a colder atom D. The 1000 nm line is emitted by an atom moving away 10 times faster than the atom emitting the 100 nm line 25. Wien's law applies to a _______ spectrum.

A. Continuous emission B. Line absorption C. Line emission D. Continuous absorption

26. Spectral lines shifted toward higher frequencies are called _____.

A. Red-shifted B. Blue-shifted 27. A ____ is a particle of light.

A. Proton B. Photon C. Electron 28. The spectral lines of a star will appear ________ if the star is moving away from the Earth.

A. Red-shifted (i.e., shifted toward the longer wavelengths) B. Blue-shifted (i.e., shifted toward the shorter wavelengths) 29. ______ attraction holds the electron in orbit around the nucleus of the hydrogen atom.

A. Gravitational B. Electrical C. Centrifugal D. Nuclear 30. The helium atom has ____ in its nucleus.

A. Two electrons B. One proton C. Two protons D. Two protons and two electrons 31. A photon of blue light has ____ a photon of red light.

A. More energy than B. The same energy as C. Less energy than 32. The wavelength of the red-pink line emitted by a laboratory sample of excited hydrogen is 656 nm.

Taking a spectrum of a glowing nebula, you find that the same red-pink line of hydrogen appears at 662 nm. You conclude that the nebula A. Is 1% hotter than hydrogen in the laboratory sample.

B. Is moving towards us at about 1% the speed of light.

C. Is 1% cooler than hydrogen in the laboratory sample.

D. Is moving away from us at about 1% the speed of light.

33. An oxygen atom that loses 1 electron becomes A. A positively charged ion B. A negatively charged ion C. A carbon atom (the next lower element on the periodic table) D. A nitrogen atom (the next higher element on the periodic table) 34. A night vision camera A. Is just much more sensitive to visible light than your eyes.

B. Uses a detector sensitive to infrared light, so you can see objects that are warmer than their surroundings.

C. Can only detect green photons, which reflect well in the dark, but which our eyes have trouble seeing.

D. Uses a detector sensitive to X-ray light, so you can see through the dark.

35. Conservation of energy requires that if an atom absorbs a photon, A. An electron ends up with an energy equal to that of the photon.

B. The atom must emit an electron.

C. The atom must emit a photon.

D. An electron rises to a new orbital with an energy equal to that of the previous orbital plus the energy of the photon.

36. A temperature of 0 Kelvin means there is essentially no motion at the atomic level.

True False 37. A piece of iron heated to 200 degrees Celsius has twice as much internal energy as a piece of iron at 100 degrees Celsius.

True False 38. The Doppler shift is the same if the emitting object is moving towards you at some speed, or you (the observer) are moving towards it at that speed and it is still.

True False 39. An atom with 3 protons and 3 neutrons is a lithium atom, and an atom with 3 protons and 4 neutrons is also a lithium atom.

True False 40. Electrons orbit the nucleus in just the same way that planets orbit the Sun. True False 41. You are heating a jar full of hydrogen and observing its spectrum. If you add more hydrogen to the jar, the position of spectral lines will change.

True False 42. The Doppler shift applies only to the line spectrum. It does not apply to the continuous (blackbody) spectrum.

True False 43. A continuous blackbody emission spectrum provides information about the surface temperature of the object.

True False 44. The continuous blackbody emission spectrum provides a "signature" of the chemical composition of the object.

True False 45. In space, X-rays travel faster than radiowaves.

True False 46. Scientist use the term "blackbody" to indicate a surface that will not emit any color of visible light.

True False 47. The higher the frequency of the electromagnetic wave, the shorter its wavelength.

True False 48. According to Wien's law, the dominant wavelength in the continuous emission spectrum of a red apple is 700 nm. (Hint: use Wien's law) True False 49. Cooler stars (about 3000 K) emit most of their radiation at wavelengths shorter than 600 nm.

True False 50. The chemical composition of a gas can be determined by analysis of the spectral lines of the gas.

True False 51. When an atom absorbs energy it becomes excited.

True False 52. When an atom emits light, an electron in it moves from a higher to a lower energy level.

True False 53. The color of a yellow banana is a result of blackbody emission.

True False

54. The spectral lines from a star that is moving away from the Earth will appear redshifted.

True False

04 Key 1. A 2. E 3. C 4. E 5. A 6. D 7. E 8. B 9. B 10. D 11. C 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. D 16. D 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. A 21. D 22. A 23. C 24. A 25. A 26. B 27. B 28. A 29. B 30. C 31. A 32. D 33. A 34. B 35. D 36. TRUE

37. FALSE 38. TRUE 39. TRUE 40. FALSE 41. FALSE 42. FALSE 43. TRUE 44. FALSE 45. FALSE 46. FALSE 47. TRUE 48. FALSE 49. FALSE 50. TRUE 51. TRUE 52. TRUE 53. FALSE 54. TRUE

04 Summary Category Arny - Chapter 04

# of Questions 54

05 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1.

Using ___________, scientists can use a few smaller telescopes to take images with the same resolution as a much larger telescope.

A. Satellite telescopes B. Charge-coupled devices (CCDs) C. Interferometry D. Adaptive optics

2.

To triple the resolving power of a telescope, you must _________.

A. Increase the diameter by a factor of three.

B. Increase the collecting area by a factor of three.

C. Increase the diameter by a factor of nine.

3.

A warm dust cloud in which stars are forming would be best observed with a(n) _________ telescope.

A. Radio B. Gamma-Ray C. Infrared D. Optical (visible light)

4.

A galaxy with almost no starlight but plenty of cool clouds of hydrogen gas would be best observed with a(n) _________ telescope.

A. X-ray B. Radio C. Infrared D. Optical (visible light)

5.

In a false color image, A. Only one color is used.

B Color information from optical telescopes is combined with information from a non-visible wavelength . telescope to make the image.

C. Stars appear black and the background appears white.

D. Colors can represent photon energies or the intensity of electromagnetic radiation.

6.

Ignoring the effects of the atmosphere, what is the theoretical resolution of an 8 inch telescope (about 20 cm) if you are looking at visible light with a wavelength of about 500 nm?

A. About half an arcsecond B. About half a degree C. About 1/100 of an arcsecond D. About 25 arcseconds

7.

If your pupils have a diameter of about 5mm, about how many times more light gathering power does a telescope with a diameter of about 20 cm (8 inches) have than your pupils?

A. 4 times B. 16 times C. 40 times D. 160 times E. 1600 times

8.

The resolving power of a telescope is affected by the property of light called A. Refraction.

B. Diffraction.

C. Reflection.

D. Seeing.

E. Attenuation.

9.

One of the biggest problems for ground based astronomy today is A. All the best mountains already have telescopes on them.

B. Atmospheric pollution has significantly worsened the seeing.

C. Space-based observatories are making most of the observations.

D. Light pollution makes it difficult to observe faint objects.

10. The two most important properties of any telescope are A. The light gathering power and the length of the tube B. The length of the tube and the magnification C. The magnification and the light gathering power D. The resolving power and the magnification E. The light gathering power and the resolving power 11. A pencil inside a water glass appears to be bent because of A. Reflection of light B. Refraction of light C. Change in gravity D. None of the above 12. Why does the Sun look flattened near the horizon?

A. The Sun is made up of gases, so it keeps changing its shape and takes a flattened shape near the horizon B. The Earth's dense atmosphere compresses the gaseous Sun C.The larger refraction near the horizon lifts the lower edge of the Sun more than the upper edge and makes the Sun look flattened D. The Sun is cooler on the horizon, so it looks flattened 13. Why does the Moon appear bigger near the horizon?

A. Due to an optical illusion B. Due to refraction C. Due to reflection D. Due to the compression produced by the Earth's atmosphere 14. What is a disadvantage of using a lens in a large telescope?

A. Large lenses are expensive to fabricate B. A lens has to be supported only at its edges, so the lens can sag in the middle C. Different colors of white light on passing through a lens focus at different points and result in a blurred image D. Some lens materials completely absorb short wavelengths E. All of the above 15. The ability of a telescope to show two very close objects separately is called its ________.

A. Light gathering power B. Resolving power C. Magnification D. None of the above

16. Carl has a 5-inch refracting telescope and Jim has a 3-inch reflecting telescope. Whose telescope has a higher light-gathering power?

A. Carl's, because lenses gather more light B. Jim's, because mirrors gather more light C. Carl's, because the larger the diameter, the more light to be collected D. Jim's, because the smaller the diameter, the more light to be collected E. Both the telescopes have the ability to gather the same amount of light 17. Tom has a 4-inch refracting telescope and Steve has a 3-inch reflecting telescope. Whose telescope has a higher resolving power?

A. Tom's, because lenses are more efficient in showing the objects separately B. Steve's, because mirrors are more efficient in showing the objects separately C. Tom's, because the larger the diameter, the better the resolution D. Steve's, because the smaller the diameter, the better the resolution E. Both the telescopes have the same resolving power 18. What is "seeing"?

A. The ability of a telescope to show two very close objects separately B. The capacity of a telescope to gather more light C. The ability of a telescope to see in the night D. The distortion of an image due to an atmospheric turbulence 19. The best site for placing an X-ray telescope is _________.

A. A mountain top B. A valley C. Near an ocean D. A desert E. Outside the Earth's atmosphere 20. The best site for placing an optical telescope is _________.

A. A mountain top B. A valley C. Under the ocean D. A forest 21. An interstellar gas is emitting 10-centimeter wavelength radiation and a nearby star is emitting 10micrometer wavelength radiation. Which of these can you observe through an Earth-based telescope?

A. The interstellar gas B. The star C. Both of them D. None of them 22. X-rays are blocked by ________ and _________ present in the Earth's atmosphere.

A. Water molecules; carbon dioxide B. Ozone; oxygen C. Nitrogen; helium D. Electric charges; clouds 23. Why do stars twinkle?

A. Due to the change in their shape from expansion and contraction B. Due to their movement from one place to another C. Due to the refraction caused by atmospheric irregularities D. Due to the change in their distance from the Earth 24. Which is the most efficient detector?

A. Photographic films B. Photomultiplier tubes C. Charge-coupled device (CCD) D. Your eyes

25. Which space telescope is observing X-rays?

A. The Hubble Space Telescope (HST) B. The Chandra Observatory C. The Spitzer Space Telescope D. The Extreme Ultraviolet Explorer (EUVE) 26. Which of the following is an inherent disadvantage of radio telescopes?

A. Radio telescopes do not work with visible light B. Radio telescopes have low magnification C. Radio signals are very weak, and their photons do not penetrate the atmosphere easily D. The long wavelength of radio waves results in lower resolving power, compared to other telescopes of the same size E. All of the above 27. Which of the following telescopes is most suitable for observing cool gas clouds?

A. X-ray telescope B. Radio telescope C. Visible light telescope D. All of the above E. Cool gas clouds cannot be observed by telescopes 28. ______ is the most important quality of an astronomical telescope.

A. Magnification B. Resolving power C. Ability to see at night D. Rigidity 29. The secondary mirror in a reflecting telescope has the negative effect of creating a hole in center of the image.

True False 30. The Hubble Telescope gets much clearer images of astronomical objects than ground based telescopes because it has a much larger mirror than ground based telescopes.

True False 31. CCDs are widely used in astronomy because the images are easily manipulated in computers, but photographic film is actually more sensitive to photons.

True False 32. Radio telescopes on Earth can observe during the daytime.

True False 33. To triple the resolving power of a telescope, you must triple the diameter of the telescope.

True False 34. Most of the modern large optical telescopes are refractors.

True False 35. The Hubble telescope not only observes visible light, but also observes ultraviolet light.

True False 36. To double the light gathering power of a telescope, we need to double the diameter.

True False 37. The design of radio telescopes is very similar to the design of refracting telescopes.

True False 38. Gamma ray telescopes, such as the Fermi Gamma Ray Space Telescope, are launched into space because they are dangerous to operate on Earth.

True False

05 Key 1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. E 8. B 9. D 10. E 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. E 15. B 16. C 17. C 18. D 19. E 20. A 21. A 22. B 23. C 24. C 25. B 26. D 27. B 28. B 29. FALSE 30. FALSE 31. FALSE 32. TRUE 33. TRUE 34. FALSE 35. TRUE 36. FALSE

37. FALSE 38. FALSE

05 Summary Category Arny - Chapter 05

# of Questions 38

06 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1.

The outer core of the Earth extends out to a little over halfway to the surface of the Earth. The volume of the core is therefore about _________ the volume of the Earth.

A. 1/64 B. 1/8 C. 1/4 D. 1/2

2.

Carbon 13 is a radioactive isotope. About half of a sample decays in 6000 years. After how long would only 1/8 of the original carbon 13 be left?

A. 6,000 years B. 18,000 years C. 24,000 years D. 30,000 years E. 36,000 years

3.

From the center outward, the correct order of the zones of the Earth is A. Solid core, mantle, liquid core, crust, atmosphere B. Liquid core, solid core, crust, mantle, atmosphere C. Solid core, liquid core, mantle, crust, atmosphere D. Liquid core, solid core, mantle, crust, atmosphere

4.

_________ and _________ are common in regions where subduction occurs.

A. Rifts, polarity shifts B. Volcanoes, plate spreading C. Auroras, the Coriolis effect D. Mountains, earthquakes

5.

Analysis of volcanic emissions suggests that eruptions could be the source of all but which of the following gases in our atmosphere?

A. Oxygen B. Nitrogen C. Water D. Carbon dioxide

6.

Ozone A. Is an element.

B. Is a molecule consisting of two oxygen atoms and a hydrogen atom.

C. Is a molecule consisting of three oxygen atoms.

D. Is a molecule consisting of two oxygen atoms and a nitrogen atom.

7.

Why does plate tectonics continue to occur on Earth?

A. The Earth is still cooling from its formation.

B. The Earth contains radioactive elements.

C. The Earth is heated by the Sun. D. Both A and B. E. Both A and C.

8.

The Earth's atmosphere today is about 78% _____, 21% _____, and much less than 1% _____.

A. Oxygen, nitrogen, carbon dioxide and other gases B. Nitrogen, carbon dioxide, oxygen and other gases C. Oxygen, carbon dioxide, nitrogen and other gases D. Nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide and other gases

9.

A rock has a density of 3 g/cm3. If another rock has twice as much mass but the same volume, its density must be _____ g/cm3.

A. 6 B. 12 C. 24 D. 1.5

10. A spherical rock has a density of 3 g/cm3. If another rock has the same mass but is twice as wide, its density must be _____ g/cm3.

A. 3/8 B. 3/4 C. 3/2 D. 6 11. The radius of the Earth is A. Longer at the poles B. Longer at the equator C. The same everywhere D. Not known 12. The most abundant element in the Earth's core is ___________.

A. Nitrogen B. Oxygen C. Hydrogen D. Iron 13. Density is calculated as A. Mass × volume B. Mass/volume C. Volume/mass D. Mass × gravity 14. After an earthquake, an S-type seismic wave travels with a velocity of about 10 km/s and reaches another part of the Earth in about 10 minutes. How much distance has the S-type wave covered?

A. 6000 km B. 1000 km C. 600 km D. 100 km E. 60 km 15. The interior layer just below the crust of the Earth is called the _______.

A. Inner core B. Outer core C. Mantle D. Troposphere 16. The hotter inner core of the Earth is _______ and the relatively cooler outer core is ______.

A. Solid; also solid B. Liquid; also liquid C. Liquid; solid D. Solid; liquid 17. Why is the Earth's inner core solid?

A. Due to extremely high temperature B. Due to the tremendous pressure of overlying material C. Due to the spinning of the Earth D. Due to the orbital motion of the Earth

18. How is the age of a rock determined?

A. By determining the ratio of argon to potassium B. By counting the number of circles just like the circles on the trunk of a tree C. By measuring the temperature of the rock D. By measuring the volume of the rock 19. What is the approximate age of the Earth?

A. 3000 years B. 6000 years C. 1,000,000 years D. 4.6 million years E. 4.6 billion years 20. The process in which two tectonic plates meet and one slips beneath another is called _____.

A. Convection B. Pangea C. Subduction D. Rifting 21. Van Allen belts exist in the Earth's ___________.

A. Troposphere B. Core C. Mantle D. Magnetosphere 22. In about 14,000 A.D., the North Pole of the Earth will point at star ________.

A. Polaris B. Antares C. Vega D. Thuban 23. The ___-type seismic waves can travel through liquids and solids. The ___-type seismic waves can travel through solids only.

A. S; P B. S; S C. P; S D. P; P 24. The average density of the Earth is ____.

A. About 5.5 g/cm3 B. About 5.5 cm3/g C. About 1 g/cm3 D. About 1 cm3/g 25. Suppose that we have a sample of 20 atoms of radioactive potassium which decays by half every 1.3 billion years into calcium and argon at ratios of 9:1 respectively. How many atoms of calcium do you expect to find in this sample after 1.3 billion years?

A. 18 B. 1 C. 9 D. 2 26. The shift of the Earth's plates due to tectonic motion is typically of the order of ______.

A. A few hundred meters per year B. A few centimeters per year C. A few centimeters per century

27. Scientists refer to the Earth as a differentiated planet because ______.

A. The temperature in the core is higher than the temperature on the surface B. The material in the interior of the Earth is separated by density C. Iron is more dense than silicate material D. The Earth's structure is different from the other planets 28. The ______ are two doughnut-shaped rings of charged particles trapped by the Earth's magnetic field.

A. Aurora Borealis and the Aurora Australis B. Van Allen radiation belts C. Jet streams D. Convection cells 29. Some anthropological evidence for the precession of the Earth's tilt is that the passage into the Great Pyramid in Egypt points at the star Thuban, which was the pole star about 6000 years ago.

True False 30. Extinctions and even accelerated evolution might occur during periods when the Earth's magnetic field weakens and more charged particles and cosmic rays can penetrate it.

True False 31. The Earth's magnetic poles will eventually reverse. This shift will also cause the seasons to reverse.

True False 32. The Atlantic Ocean has existed for most of the time since the Earth's crust cooled.

True False 33. The atmospheric greenhouse effect heats the Earth in the same way that greenhouses heat the air inside.

True False 34. The jet stream is a result of the Coriolis effect.

True False 35. Silicates are minerals composed of silicon and oxygen.

True False 36. Oxygen is the most common element in minerals in the Earth's crust.

True False 37. Oxygen is the most common element in minerals in the Earth's crust, which is why the release of gases from the crust over time has produced an atmosphere rich in oxygen today.

True False 38. The Earth's magnetic axis is the same as its rotation axis.

True False 39. If Earth did not spin, the magnetic field around it would not exist.

True False 40. The Earth's spin creates the day and night cycle, but does not affect the weather pattern.

True False 41. Polaris is always the pole star.

True False 42. Greenhouse gases (water molecules and carbon dioxide) generate heat to make our Earth warm.

True False 43. The heavier elements like iron and nickel are abundant on the Earth's surface and the silicates dominate at the center of the Earth.

True False

44. Olivine is the most common mineral in the Earth's mantle.

True False 45. The Coriolis effect demonstrates that the Earth spins.

True False 46. The central part of the Earth's core consists of iron-rich liquid.

True False 47. Because of the precession of the Earth's rotation axis, the Earth's rotation axis does not always point in the direction of the celestial poles.

True False 48. The Coriolis effect arises from the Earth's rotation and causes the majority of large scale weather patterns and ocean currents.

True False 49. Precession is the slow change in direction of the Earth's rotation axis due to the gravitational interaction of the Sun and of the Moon with the Earth's equatorial bulge.

True False 50. A compass needle points to the North Star.

True False 51. Charged moving particles, such as electrons, create magnetic fields.

True False

06 Key 1. B 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. D 9. A 10. A 11. B 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. C 16. D 17. B 18. A 19. E 20. C 21. D 22. C 23. C 24. A 25. C 26. B 27. B 28. B 29. TRUE 30. TRUE 31. FALSE 32. FALSE 33. FALSE 34. TRUE 35. TRUE 36. TRUE

37. FALSE 38. FALSE 39. TRUE 40. FALSE 41. FALSE 42. FALSE 43. FALSE 44. TRUE 45. TRUE 46. FALSE 47. FALSE 48. TRUE 49. TRUE 50. FALSE 51. TRUE

06 Summary Category Arny - Chapter 06

# of Questions 51

07 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1.

The distance to the moon is closest to A. A parsec.

B. The distance light travels in 7200 seconds (2 hours).

C. An AU. D. 6400 km.

E. The distance light travels in 1 second.

2.

Which of the following is not a kind of geological feature found on the Moon?

A. Scarp B. Crater C. Maria D. Rille

3.

Basalt, a dense congealed lava rock rich in iron, is the primary material in the Moon's A. Highlands B. Crust C. Maria D. Far side's regolith

4.

One result of bombardment of the Moon's surface is a layer of broken, pulverized, and powdered rock called A. Maria B. Regolith C. Basalt D. Lunar rays

5.

The Earth and Moon were both extremely hot just after the collision that formed the Moon. Today, plate tectonics occur on the Earth but not the Moon primarily because the Moon A. Is made of the wrong kinds of materials.

B. Is smaller than the Earth.

C. Does not have life.

D. Does not have significant amounts of water.

6.

The primary reason the Moon lacks an atmosphere is because A. The Moon is made up of the wrong kinds of rocks to release atmospheric gases.

B. The Earth's gravity pulls away any atmosphere the Moon collects.

C. The Moon lacks sufficient gravity to retain an atmosphere.

D. There is no life on the Moon.

7.

Which statement about the Moon is true?

A. The Moon is in synchronous rotation as it orbits the Earth.

B. The Moon is in a geosynchronous orbit around the Earth.

C. The Moon's orbit is aligned with the Earth's orbit.

D. The Moon rotates in the opposite direction than it orbits the Earth.

8.

The Moon has almost no magnetic field, probably because of all of the following except: A. The diameter of its core is a small fraction of the total diameter than Earth's.

B. It rotates very slowly.

C. It doesn't have enough iron in its core.

D. It has large quantities of aluminum, which is not magnetic.

9.

If high tide is at noon, the next high tide will be at…

A. Midnight B. 6 pm C. 6 am D. Noon tomorrow

10. If the Moon were father from the Earth, compared to now, the tides would be A. About the same as now B. Neap tides would be shallower, and spring tides would be taller than now C. Less tall all the time D. Higher all the time 11. How many times does the Moon rotate on its axis in one orbital period?

A. Only once B. Twice C. Several times D. The Moon does not rotate 12. Why do we always see only one side of the Moon?

A. Because the Moon does not rotate B. Because the moon is tidally locked with the Earth C. The Moon spins so fast that we always miss its far (opposite) side D. From time to time we see all the sides of the Moon from the Earth 13. The Moon rotates exactly once each time it orbits the Earth. Because of this A. The Moon does not have any atmosphere B. The Moon's magnetic field has vanished C. We always see only one side of the Moon D. You will always see only one side of the Earth if you stand on the Moon 14. When our Earth becomes tidally locked with the Moon, which of the following statements will be true?

A. The Moon will always be visible only from one side of the Earth B. There will be no eclipses C. The Moon will not go through phases D. An astronaut on the Moon would see only one side of the Earth E. Both A and D 15. Planetary scientists believe that the Moon was most likely a nearby small planet gravitationally captured by the Earth.

True False 16. The Earth's rotation is being gradually slowed by the Moon's gravity.

True False 17. The Sun causes tides on the Earth.

True False 18. Solar tides are not as strong as lunar tides mostly because the Sun is much farther away than the Moon.

True False 19. Until we sent missions into space, no one on Earth had seen the far side of the Moon.

True False 20. The Moon's crust is essentially symmetric around the Moon, but is thinner near the poles.

True False

21. We can think of the high tide on the side of the Earth opposite the Moon as a result of the Moon pulling the Earth away from the water.

True False 22. The spectrum of sunlight reflected from the Moon's surface indicates the presence of various gases, such as nitrogen, oxygen, etc. in the Moon's atmosphere.

True False 23. The spring tides occur in spring seasons and the neap tides in autumn.

True False 24. Because of its distance, the Sun does not have any effect on Earth's ocean tides.

True False

07 Key 1. E 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. C 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. E 15. FALSE 16. TRUE 17. TRUE 18. TRUE 19. TRUE 20. FALSE 21. TRUE 22. FALSE 23. FALSE 24. FALSE

07 Summary Category Arny - Chapter 07

# of Questions 24

08 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1.

Based on our understanding of our own solar system, which of the following would be most surprising to observe in an extra-solar system of planets?

A. The planets nearest to the star have a lower density than the planets farther out B. Several planets show large tilts of their rotation axis compared to the plane of their orbits C. All the gas giants have moons D. Several planets have dense atmospheres containing carbon compounds

2.

All of the following are methods used by astronomers to detect and study exoplanets except…

A. Rotational mapping.

B. Gravitational lensing.

C. Doppler shift.

D. Transit detection.

E. Direct imaging.

3.

The Sun, the Earth, Jupiter, and Saturn's icy moons are all very different environments, A. The result of each type of object forming from different interstellar clouds.

B. But their differences are only because of where each currently is in the solar system.

C. But all formed from the same basic group of chemicals.

D. But their differences are because each contains very different chemicals.

4.

Evidence for significant differences in the relative amounts of silicates vs. icy compounds of volatile elements between the terrestrial planets and the moons of the gas giants comes from measuring the bodies' A. Temperatures.

B. Densities.

C. Diameters.

D. Mass.

5.

Given that Mercury, Mars, and some of the moons of the gas giants are covered with craters, why do we not see lots of impacts happening today?

A. All the planetesimals have collided with planets already.

B. We would, but the impacts have always happened at a very slow rate and built up over billions of years.

C. Most of the impacts happen on the far sides of these bodies.

D The Sun's heat drove the remaining dust and gas out of the part of the solar system with planets, and . gravitational interactions ejected most of the larger debris.

6.

Thinking about the formation of the solar system, what trend in composition would you expect to see from the inside to the outside of the asteroid belt?

A. Rockier asteroids progressing towards ones with more hydrogen and carbon compounds B. Iron asteroids progressing more towards one with silicates C. Essentially the same composition all the way through D. Asteroids with hydrogen and carbon compounds, progressing towards asteroids made primarily of ice E. Asteroids with hydrogen and carbon compounds, progressing towards asteroids made primarily of iron and silicates

7.

How many stars are there in our Solar System?

A. One B. A few hundred C. About ten million D. About 200 billion

8.

Counting out from the Sun, which planet occupies the position after Jupiter?

A. Neptune B. Mars C. Venus D. Earth E. Saturn

9.

When we see them in the night sky, which of the following objects are emitting their own light?

A. Mars B. Venus C. Earth D. The Sun E. All of the above

10. How many planets are there in our Solar System?

A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 E. 9 11. The farthest planet of our Solar System is ________.

A. Mars B. Venus C. Jupiter D. Neptune 12. Which planets have density similar to that of the Earth's?

A. Mars and Mercury B. Jupiter and Saturn C. Uranus and Neptune D. Both B and C 13. In our Solar System, an object is called a planet if A. It orbits the Sun B. It has the round shape C. It has cleared its neighborhood D. All of the above 14. Pluto is classified as a dwarf planet because A. It doesn't orbit the Sun B. It doesn't have the spherical shape C. It has not cleared its neighborhood D. All of the above 15. A spherical region that surrounds the Solar System and extends up to about 100,000 AU from the Sun is called the A. Asteroid belt.

B. Kuiper belt.

C. Interstellar matter region.

D. Oort cloud.

16. What is the name of the nebula from which our Solar System was formed?

A. Pseudo nebula B. Solar nebula C. Orion nebula D. Crab nebula

17. Which property of the solar nebula was the most influential in giving the planets their characteristics?

A. Mass B. Pressure C. Volume D. Temperature 18. The process in which a gas cools and its molecules stick together to form liquid particles is called A. Condensation B. Depression C. Evaporation 19. Which was the last part of the planet-forming process?

A. Formation of the atmosphere of the planets B. Formation of the planets C. Formation of the planetesimals D. Formation of the Sun 20. Exoplanets are A. Eris and Pluto B. Jupiter and Saturn C. Minor planets in the asteroid belt D. Planets around stars other than the Sun 21. How do scientists most commonly discover exoplanets?

A. By directly observing them through big research telescopes B. By observing the effect of the planets on the stars they orbit C. By launching a spacecraft to observe candidate stars D. All of the above 22. What is gravitational lensing?

A. The use of small telescopes to enhance the brightness of stars B The focusing and brightening of starlight by the gravitational field of the foreground star, when there is . a perfect alignment with the observer C. The temporary disappearance of a star as an object passes in front of it D. The use of Earth's gravity to shape lenses during grinding 23. Which of the following explains the rocky nature of the inner planets?

A. The lighter elements (hydrogen and helium) were sucked in by the Sun's gravity B. The Sun's gravity attracted the rocks to the inner part of the solar system C. Only the rocky material could condense at the higher temperatures of the inner part of the solar nebula D. As the solar nebula was spinning, the light gasses were tossed to the outer parts of the disk 24. According to the nebular hypothesis, which of the following sequences of events are chronologically correct?

A. Solar nebula, interstellar cloud, collisions between planetesimals, accretion, planets B. Interstellar cloud, solar nebula, accretion, collisions between planetesimals, planets C. Interstellar cloud, accretion, solar nebula, collisions between planetesimals, planets D. Accretion, solar nebula, interstellar cloud, collisions between planets, planetesimals 25. What conclusion can be drawn from the fact that some planets with solid surfaces and satellites have impact craters?

A. Planets and their satellites were showered by planetesimals B. The young planets had softer surfaces C. Volcanoes were very active in the early stages of planet formation D. The Sun went through several explosions, ejecting material that scarred the planets and satellites

26. Why was the recent discovery that planets more massive than Jupiter orbit nearby stars in small orbits surprising?

A. Because according to the nebular hypothesis, massive planets should only form away from their star B. The density of these planets is very high C. According to the nebular hypothesis, planets cannot be larger than Jupiter D. The orbits of these planets are very inclined 27. Which of the following is the strongest evidence in support of the hypothesis that the solar system was formed by the collapse of a gas and dust nebula?

A. Bode's law B. Images of stars with gas and dust disks surrounding them C. The existence of large clouds D. The discovery of extra-solar planets 28. Comets are _____ while asteroids are _____.

A. Icy; rocky B. Large; small C. Rocky; icy 29. Small planets do not have significant atmospheres because their _____ is weak.

A. Gravity B. Magnetic field C. Heating power 30. Astronomers estimate that the age of the solar system is about ____ years.

A. 4.6 million B. 4.6 billion C. 1.6 billion D. 4.6 trillion E. 10 million 31. The solar nebula is the disk of _____ from which the planets formed.

A. Gas B. Dust C. Gas and dust 32. Compared to the _____ planets the ______ planets have _____.

A. Jovian; terrestrial; low density B. Jovian; terrestrial; high escape velocity C. Terrestrial; Jovian; small diameter D. Terrestrial; Jovian; many satellites 33. Astronomers believe that the satellites of the Jovian planets were _____.

A. Formed by fission B. Formed by collisions with other objects C. Planetesimals orbiting the growing planet 34. The large number of extra-solar systems detected using the Doppler method in which Jupiter-sized or larger planets orbit at only 2 AU or less is best interpreted as evidence that our solar system, where such planets are only found at 5 AU or more, is very unusual.

True False 35. Asteroids are located in the Kuiper belt.

True False 36. All the planets orbit the Sun in the same direction.

True False

37. All the planets, asteroids, comets, and most of the moons in the solar system formed at more or less the same time.

True False 38. Most of the larger moons of gas giants were formed at the same time as the gas giants, but somewhere else in the solar system, and captured by the gas giants later.

True False 39. The fact that some satellites and planets have cratered surfaces supports the hypothesis that planets and satellites were bombarded by planetesimals.

True False 40. The discovery of extra-solar planetary systems supports the idea that over time, planets may migrate inward.

True False 41. As seen from the north celestial pole, the planets orbit the Sun in a clockwise direction.

True False 42. The discovery of extra-solar planets confirms Bode's law.

True False

08 Key 1. A 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. A 8. E 9. D 10. D 11. D 12. A 13. D 14. C 15. D 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. A 20. D 21. B 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. A 26. A 27. B 28. A 29. A 30. B 31. C 32. D 33. C 34. FALSE 35. FALSE 36. TRUE

37. TRUE 38. FALSE 39. TRUE 40. TRUE 41. FALSE 42. FALSE

08 Summary Category Arny - Chapter 08

# of Questions 42

09 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1.

The second largest terrestrial planet is _______.

A. Mercury B. Venus C. Earth D. Mars

2.

The second smallest terrestrial planet is _______.

A. Mercury B. Venus C. Earth D. Mars

3.

Which planet is about half the size of the Earth?

A. Mercury B. Venus C. Earth D. Mars

4.

Which terrestrial planet is about one third the size of the Earth?

A. Mercury B. Venus C. Earth D. Mars

5.

List the terrestrial planets in increasing order of their size.

A. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars B. Mercury, Mars, Venus, Earth C. Earth, Mars, Venus, Mercury D. Venus, Earth, Mars, Mercury

6.

On which planet does plate tectonics take place?

A. Mercury B. Venus C. Earth D. Mars

7.

The hottest terrestrial planet is A. Mercury B. Venus C. Earth D. Mars

8.

Which one is the hottest planet?

A. Mercury, because it is closest to the Sun B. Venus, because of the strong greenhouse effect C. Earth, because of the global warming D. Mars, because of the thin atmosphere and volcanoes in the past

9.

Which of the terrestrial planets does not have any craters?

A. Mercury B. Venus C. Earth D. Mars E. All of them have craters

10. Which planet has a greenhouse effect?

A. Mercury B. Venus C. Earth D. Mars E. Both B and C 11. List the terrestrial planets in decreasing order of their mass.

A. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars B. Mercury, Mars, Venus, Earth C. Earth, Venus, Mars, Mercury D. Venus, Earth, Mars, Mercury 12. What is the relation between the mass and surface activity of a terrestrial planet?

A. The least massive planet is the least active planet B. The least massive planet is the most active planet C. The least massive planet has the oldest surface D. There is no relation between a planet's mass and activity E. Both A and C 13. Which terrestrial planet does not have a moon?

A. Mercury B. Venus C. Earth D. Mars E. Both A and B 14. Which terrestrial planet does not have seasons?

A. Mercury B. Venus C. Earth D. Mars E. Both A and B 15. Which planet shows the largest variation of day and night temperatures?

A. Mercury B. Venus C. Earth D. Mars E. Both A and B 16. Which terrestrial planet is tilted upside down?

A. Mercury B. Venus C. Earth D. Mars E. Both A and B

17. Which of the terrestrial planets have the most similar atmospheric compositions?

A. Venus and Mars B. Earth and Venus C. Jupiter and Saturn D. Mercury and Mars E. Mercury and the Moon 18. Which of the terrestrial planets is closest in size to the Earth?

A. Mars B. Venus C. Mercury 19. Which of the following statements correctly compares the terrestrial planets?

A. Venus has the densest atmosphere and the highest average temperature B. Earth is the only planet that has active plate tectonics and surface water C. Mercury is the planet with the thinnest atmosphere and the smallest size D. All of the above E. A and C are correct 20. The surface of Mercury resembles the Moon's surface in that they are both ______.

A. Eroded by wind B. Newly resurfaced C. Heavily cratered D. Covered with volcanoes 21. ______ is the smallest of the terrestrial planets.

A. Venus B. Earth C. Pluto D. Mars E. Mercury 22. ______ is the largest of the terrestrial planets.

A. Jupiter B. Earth C. Venus D. Mars E. Mercury 23. The atmosphere of Venus consists mainly of ______.

A. Carbon dioxide B. Sulfuric acid C. Nitrogen and oxygen D. Carbon monoxide E. Hydrogen and helium 24. The clouds of Venus consist mainly of ______.

A. Carbon dioxide B. Water vapor C. Hydrogen and helium D. Sulfuric acid E. Carbon monoxide 25. The surface of Venus is dominated by _____.

A. Impact craters B. Recent lava flows C. Scarps D. Large canyons

26. The Valles Marineris is ______.

A. An old riverbed B. A 5000-km canyon C. A long scarp 27. The atmosphere of Mars consists mainly of ______.

A. Carbon dioxide B. Carbon monoxide C. Nitrogen 28. Mars' axial tilt and spin are most similar to _____.

A. The Earth's B. Mercury's C. Venus' 29. Mercury's ________ and, therefore, the planet does not have seasons.

A. Axial tilt is zero B. Orbit is too close to the Sun C. Atmosphere is very thick 30. Of all the terrestrial planets, ______ has the longest solar day.

A. Mercury B. Venus C. Earth D. Mars 31. Of all the terrestrial planets, ______ has the largest daily temperature variation.

A. Mercury B. Venus C. Earth D. Mars 32. Of all the terrestrial planets, ______ has the highest surface barometric pressure.

A. Mercury B. Venus C. Earth D. Mars 33. Which reason best explains why both Venus' and Mars' atmospheres are primarily carbon dioxide, but the Earth's is much less than 1% carbon dioxide?

A. Earth's rocks had much less carbon and oxygen in them.

B. Venus and Mars, being smaller than Earth, can't retain the same mixture of gases as Earth.

C. Each planet has a significantly different surface temperature.

D. Plant life has existed on Earth for billions of years.

34. Mercury's average density is about as high as the Earth's. This is most likely because A. It not compressed, but it contains a significantly higher fraction of iron than the Earth.

B. Unlike the Earth, it is highly compressed by gravity.

C. It is composed of material blasted off the Earth in a collision.

D. Unlike the Earth, it does not have a (light) atmosphere that lowers its average density.

35. Evidence that there is a considerable amount of water frozen under the surface of Mars is provided by all of the following except…

A. Squishy-looking flow patterns around crater impact sites.

B. Features resembling channels cut by floods C. Periodic eruptions of geysers when subsurface ice is melted by volcanic activity D. Discovery by the Mars rovers of chemicals in surface rocks formed in the presence of large amounts of water E. Satellite measurements of water in the polar caps

36. Mercury's crust A. Is molten because it is so close to the Sun. B. May have been mostly lost after a collision with a large planetesimal.

C. Is much thicker than Earth's or Venus'.

D. Has an unusually high concentration of silicate rocks.

37. Mercury features long, steep cliffs in its crust called "scarps" which probably formed A. After planetesimal or asteroid impacts.

B. From floods of running water left to evaporate after comet impacts.

C. As plates of crust shifted as a result of massive earthquakes at a fault.

D. Like giant wrinkles as the crust cooled and shrank.

E.As a result of earthquakes shaking sections of the crust after a particularly massive impact like the one that formed the Caloris Basin.

38. Maps of Venus have been made by A. Landing spacecraft on the surface to take pictures.

B. Bouncing radio waves off the planet from satellites and the Earth.

C. Optical telescopic observations from Earth when the clouds part.

D. Measuring seismic waves from earthquakes.

39. You would most likely find pancake-shaped lava domes on A. Mercury B. Venus C. Earth D. Mars 40. The primary reason that Mercury and the Moon lack atmospheres is because they are not volcanically active.

True False 41. Mars has almost no water.

True False 42. Venus' atmosphere lacks water because the Sun's ultraviolet rays tend to break up any water molecules at the top of the atmosphere.

True False 43. The atmospheric pressure at the surface of the terrestrial planets increases as their distance from the Sun increases.

True False 44. Venus' surface temperature is hotter than Mercury.

True False 45. Venus spins slower than any other terrestrial planet.

True False 46. The retrograde spin of Venus could be the result of a collision with a large planetesimal.

True False 47. One reason the Earth's atmosphere contains substantially less carbon dioxide than Venus because carbon dioxide dissolves in water and is carried by rain to the surface where it reacts with rocks and forms carbonates.

True False 48. Venus' retrograde spin is not unique among terrestrial planets.

True False 49. The clouds of Mars consist mainly of frozen carbon dioxide and frozen water.

True False

50. The axial tilt of Mars causes the polar ice caps to shrink and grow in cycles.

True False 51. Mars' moons are probably captured asteroids.

True False 52. Mars' moon Phobos completes one orbit around the planet in about 8 hours. As observed on Mars, Phobos would rise in the East and set in the West every 8 hours.

True False 53. The 2:3 resonance between the orbital and spin periods of Mercury implies that the planet completes 2 orbits around the Sun in 3 solar days (that is, 3 solar days on Mercury, not Earth).

True False 54. Mercury completes 2 orbits around the Sun in the time between two successive sunrises, i.e., one solar day on Mercury is about 2 Mercury years.

True False 55. Mars has the longest orbital period of all the terrestrial planets.

True False 56. The present atmospheres of the terrestrial planets probably originated from their internal activity.

True False 57. Earth and Venus have more substantial atmospheres because they are larger and had more volcanic activity.

True False 58. The highest mountain of our Solar System exists on Earth.

True False

09 Key 1. B 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. E 10. E 11. C 12. E 13. E 14. E 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. C 21. E 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. B 26. B 27. A 28. A 29. A 30. A 31. A 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. C 36. B

37. D 38. B 39. B 40. FALSE 41. FALSE 42. TRUE 43. FALSE 44. TRUE 45. TRUE 46. TRUE 47. TRUE 48. FALSE 49. TRUE 50. TRUE 51. TRUE 52. FALSE 53. FALSE 54. TRUE 55. TRUE 56. TRUE 57. TRUE 58. FALSE

09 Summary Category Arny - Chapter 09

# of Questions 58

10 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1.

Which of the following lists the outer planets in order of increasing mass?

A. Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, Uranus B. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune C. Saturn, Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune D. Uranus, Neptune, Saturn, Jupiter

2.

In 2005, the Cassini spacecraft landed the probe named Huygens into Titan's atmosphere and found A. Oceans B. Lakes near the polar regions C. Dunes of ice crystals D. An ice volcano E. B, C and D

3.

The surface structure of Saturn's largest satellite, Titan, is completely unknown because no spacecraft so far could take pictures through Titan's thick clouds.

A. True, because no probe can pass through Titan's methane and ethane clouds B. False. Recently in 2005, Cassini parachuted a probe into Titan's atmosphere and took the pictures of its surface

4.

What type of dunes exists on Titan?

A. Sand dunes B. Dust dunes C. Ice crystal dunes D. We have not discovered any dunes on Titan

5.

Of the outer planets, _________ has the smallest diameter.

A. Jupiter B. Saturn C. Uranus D. Neptune E. Pluto

6.

Of all the satellites (moons) in the Solar System, _____ comes closest in size to its parent body.

A. Ganymede B. Charon C. The Moon D. Titan

7.

Which is the smallest planet?

A. Saturn B. Jupiter C. Uranus D. Pluto E. Mercury

8.

Which is the largest planet?

A. Saturn B. Jupiter C. Uranus D. Earth E. Mercury

9.

Which planet's rotation axis is closest to its orbital plane?

A. Saturn B. Jupiter C. Uranus D. Earth E. Mercury

10. Which planet or dwarf planet has the most extreme seasons?

A. Saturn B. Jupiter C. Uranus D. Pluto E. Mercury 11. Which planet has the lowest density?

A. Saturn B. Jupiter C. Uranus D. Earth E. Mercury 12. Which planet has the largest satellite in the Solar System?

A. Saturn B. Jupiter C. Uranus D. Mars E. Mercury 13. Which satellite has lakes of liquid methane near its poles?

A. Ganymede B. Io C. Miranda D. Triton E. Titan 14. Which of the following is not an outer planet?

A. Saturn B. Jupiter C. Uranus D. Pluto E. Neptune 15. Which of the following are dwarf planets?

A. Uranus and Neptune B. Neptune and Pluto C. Pluto and Eris D. Eris and Uranus E. Mercury and Eris 16. Which Trans-Neptunian Object is largest in diameter?

A. Pluto B. Sedna C. Makemake D. Eris E. Orcus

17. Recent infrared observations of Uranus indicate A. An unusual dark spot in the atmosphere.

B. A storm system like the Great Red Spot on Jupiter.

C. It's dark spot has disappeared.

D. Nothing - Uranus was and remains featureless.

18. Scientists believe a liquid water ocean might exist on the moon A. Titan.

B. Europa.

C. Mimas.

D. Ganymede 19. What causes the blue appearance of the planet Uranus?

A. Uranus' atmosphere contains methane that strongly absorbs red colors from the sunlight B. The planet is covered by an ocean of water C. The planet is very hot D. The composition of Uranus' atmosphere is the same as the Earth's atmosphere that makes the sky blue 20. Uranus completes an orbit around the Sun every 84 years and spins once every 17 hours, approximately.

Which of the following could be observed from the planet Uranus?

A. Season cycle of 84 years near the poles B. One sunrise every 17 hours on the equator C. Days lasting several years near the pole tipped toward the Sun D. Nights lasting several years near the pole tipped away from the Sun E. All of the above 21. Compared to Uranus, Neptune has a smaller diameter and more mass. What can we conclude from this comparison?

A. Neptune has higher average density than Uranus B. Uranus has higher average density than Neptune C. Uranus spins faster and therefore has a larger diameter D. The statement of the question is incorrect. Uranus is larger and has more mass than Neptune 22. The clouds of Uranus lack the bands that are characteristic of the other jovian planets. What is the most probable cause for Uranus' featureless appearance?

A. Uranus is less massive than the other planets B. Uranus is colder than the other planets C. Uranus rotates slower than the other planets D. The surface of Uranus is heated very unevenly due to the extreme axial tilt 23. The discovery of Charon was significant because it allowed astronomers to determine A. The distance of Pluto B. The age of Pluto C. The mass of Pluto D. The radius of Pluto E. Both C and D 24. What is a useful result of the discovery that Charon occasionally eclipses Pluto?

A. It showed that eclipses occur in other parts of the solar system B. It allowed astronomers to determine the size of Pluto and Charon more accurately C. It allowed astronomers to image surface features of Pluto D. Both B and C 25. Which of the following is a common characteristic of the Jovian planets?

A. Mostly composed of hydrogen and helium B. Thick atmosphere C. Lack of solid surface D. Ring systems and satellites E. All of the above

26. Which of the following is a characteristic that Pluto shares with the Jovian planets?

A. It is mostly composed of hydrogen and helium B. It has a thick atmosphere C. It has a ring system D. All of the above E. None of the above 27. Why do astronomers believe that the Jovian planets are composed mainly of hydrogen and helium?

A. Because hydrogen and helium are the main constituents of the solar system B. Because the Jovian planets are very large C. Because the Jovian planets have low densities D. The Voyager missions measured the chemical compositions of the interiors of the Jovian planets 28. Why do astronomers believe that the Jovian planets must contain rocky material in their cores?

A. Because silicates and irons were part of the overall composition of the solar nebula B. Because the Jovian planets have large magnetic fields C. Because the Jovian planets have large gravity D The statement of the question is incorrect. Astronomers believe that the Jovian planets consist . exclusively of hydrogen and helium 29. Which of the following statements comparing Uranus and Neptune is correct?

A. Uranus has larger diameter and Neptune has more mass B. Uranus has larger diameter and more mass C. Neptune has larger diameter and smaller mass D. Neptune has larger diameter and more mass 30. Of all the Jovian planets ______ shows signs of tectonic plate motion.

A. Jupiter B. Saturn C. Uranus D. Neptune E. None of the above 31. The colors of Jupiter's clouds suggest the presence of ______.

A. Organic molecules B. Hydrogen and helium C. Carbon dioxide D. Red-shifted colors due to the fast motion E. Iron oxides 32. The energy that stirs the circulation in Jupiter's atmosphere comes from _____.

A. The Sun B. The planet's interior C. The tidal force of the Galilean moons D. The planet's magnetic field 33. The powerful _____ Jupiter is a result of the ______ and ______ in the interior of the planet.

A. Magnetic field of; Coriolis effect; heat generated B. Wind on; rotation; excess hydrogen C. Magnetic field; rapid rotation; heat generated D. Wind on; Coriolis effect; heat generated 34. ________ is the largest of the Galilean moons.

A. Callisto B. Europa C. Ganymede D. Io

35. The average density of the Galilean satellites of Jupiter _____ with increasing distance from the planet.

A. Increases B. Decreases C. Does not change 36. The rings of Jupiter consist primarily of ______.

A. Small particles B. Boulder-size rocks C. Solid rings D. Hydrogen and helium 37. The Great Red Spot on Jupiter is _____.

A. A large rising cloud of gas B. A giant vortex that has persisted for over 300 years C. A planetesimal impact site D. A largo tornado sweeping the planet from north to south 38. ______ has the lowest density of all the planets in the solar system.

A. Pluto B. Saturn C. Mercury D. Uranus E. Jupiter 39. The rings of Saturn consist primarily of _____.

A. Hydrogen and helium B. Silicate rocks C. Water ice 40. The Roche limit refers to a _____.

A. Distance B. Force C. Speed 41. Compared the Galilean satellites, the larger satellites of Saturn have ____ average density.

A. Lower B. Higher C. About the same (as the Galilean satellites) 42. Astronomers believe that the interior of Saturn's satellites is mostly ____.

A. Ice B. Rock C. Hydrogen and helium 43. Spectral analysis of Titan's atmosphere indicates that it consists mainly of _____.

A. Carbon dioxide B. Nitrogen C. Hydrogen and helium D. Oxygen 44. Astronomers can determine the mass of Jupiter by the gravitational pull Jupiter exerts on its moons.

True False 45. Hydrogen is the most abundant element in Jupiter's atmosphere.

True False 46. Jupiter is more massive than all the other planets put together.

True False

47. Jupiter's core is hotter than the Earth's core.

True False 48. The temperature of Jupiter's core is higher than the surface temperature of the Sun. True False 49. The existence of auroral activity and lightning on Jupiter proves that Jupiter's atmosphere has the same chemical composition as the Earth's atmosphere.

True False 50. Astronomers expect that due to friction and collisions, the particles in Jupiter's ring are slowing down and will eventually spiral into the planet.

True False 51. The Jovian planets are differentiated.

True False 52. Astronomers knew for some time that the rings of Saturn are thin, because they could see stars through the rings.

True False 53. Saturn's larger satellites have lower average density than the Galilean satellites of Jupiter, therefore, we can conclude that Saturn's satellites contain less rock and more ice than the Galilean satellites.

True False 54. Astronomers believe that Pluto was pulled into the solar system by Neptune. The hypothesis is supported by the fact that Pluto and Neptune have a 3:2 orbital period ratio.

True False 55. The highly inclined and backwards rotation of Triton supports the hypothesis that Triton is a Kuiper belt object captured by Neptune.

True False 56. Observers on Earth can never see Jupiter in the crescent phase.

True False 57. The dwarf planet Pluto and its moon Charon are unique in the Solar Systems in that the orbital period of Charon equals the rotation period of Pluto. The synchronous rotation is the result of tidal interaction between them.

True False 58. All four of the gas giant planets have ring systems.

True False 59. The geography of Uranus' moon Miranda suggests it may have been broken apart into pieces by an impact and then drawn back together out of order by gravity.

True False

10 Key 1. D 2. E 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. E 8. B 9. C 10. C 11. A 12. B 13. E 14. D 15. C 16. D 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. E 21. A 22. D 23. E 24. D 25. E 26. E 27. C 28. A 29. A 30. E 31. A 32. B 33. D 34. C 35. B 36. A

37. B 38. B 39. C 40. A 41. A 42. A 43. B 44. TRUE 45. TRUE 46. TRUE 47. TRUE 48. TRUE 49. FALSE 50. TRUE 51. TRUE 52. TRUE 53. TRUE 54. TRUE 55. TRUE 56. TRUE 57. TRUE 58. TRUE 59. TRUE

10 Summary Category Arny - Chapter 10

# of Questions 59

11 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1.

A comet that has a semi-major axis of 100 AU must have a period of about A. 10 years B. 20 years C. 100 years D. 1000 years

2.

At its closest approach, a particular comet is about half an AU away from the Sun, and it's about 40 AU away at it's farthest point. The semi-major axis of the comet's orbit is about A. 1/2 AU B. 20 AU C. 40 AU

3.

Astronomers believe chondrite meteorites are about 4.6 billion years old—formed when the solar system formed—because A. Their chemical composition suggests they are pieces broken off of Mars, which is believed to have formed at that time.

B. There is no other reasonable time period in the solar system's history when any meteoroids could have formed.

C. The chemicals they are made of were only common at the formation of the solar system.

D. Radioactive dating can be used to determine their age.

4.

All of the asteroids in the asteroid belt together have A. A tiny fraction of the Earth's mass.

B. About a quarter of the Earth's mass.

C. About the Earth's mass.

D. About ten times the Earth's mass.

5.

Asteroids need to have enough material to have an average diameter of about _________ for gravity to pull them into a spherical shape.

A. 100 km B. 1000 km C. 5000 km D. 10000 km

6.

Infrared observations are used to determine the mass of asteroids because A. Asteroids reflect too little visible light to use optical telescopes for the measurements.

B. The infrared radiation is the glow of heat from the asteroid, and proportionately more photons are emitted by larger objects.

C. The Hubble Space Telescope only has infrared cameras.

D. Most asteroids are made of dark minerals which are more efficient at reflecting infrared light than visible light.

7.

How would you explain the average density of an asteroid being about 2 g/cm3, if the density of rock is usually around 3 g/cm3?

A. The asteroid contains an unusually large quantity of helium.

B. The asteroid contains significant quantities of icy compounds.

C. The asteroid is made of fragments only loosely held together by gravity.

D. The asteroid is of the iron type, not the stony type.

8.

Asteroids A. Are differentiated bodies like the terrestrial planets.

B. Are rocky aggregates, like the crust of terrestrial planets.

C. Are rich in iron, like the planet Mercury.

D. Can only be b or c.

E. Can be any of a, b, or c.

9.

In the process of fluorescence, __________ is absorbed by an atom and the energy is emitted as __________.

A. An ultraviolet photon, at least one visible light and one or more lower energy photons.

B. A visible light and one or more lower energy photons, an ultraviolet photon.

C. An ultraviolet and one or more lower energy photons, a visible light photon.

D. A visible light photon, at least one ultraviolet and one or more lower energy photons.

10. A comet's tails stream out from the coma because A. The comet leaves the material behind it as it travels forward.

B. Explosive forces from the hot nucleus ejects the gas.

C. Radiation pressure and the particle wind from the Sun pushes them out.

D. The comet's magnetic field channels and ejects the particles of the tail.

11. Which of the following asteroids is now officially a dwarf planet?

A. Ceres B. Itokawa C. Ida D. Eros E. Methilde 12. Which probe smashed into Comet Tempel 1?

A. Stardust B. Deep Impact C. Hayabusa D. NEAR 13. Fragments that do not completely burn in the atmosphere and eventually fall on the Earth are called A. Meteoroids B. Meteorites C. Meteors D. Asteroids E. Shooting stars 14. A meteor shower occurs when the left over debris of a _______ intersects with our atmosphere to produce the beautiful streaks of light.

A. Star B. Asteroid belt C. Comet D. Planet 15. Comets belong to the A. Asteroid belt B. Kuiper belt C. Oort cloud D. Both A and B E. Both B and C

16. To which compositional group do asteroids mainly belong?

A. Carbonaceous B. Silicates C. Metallic iron-nickel D. Icy water E. A, B, and C are correct 17. Planet __________ creates the gaps in the asteroid belt called Kirkwood gaps.

A. Jupiter B. Mars C. Earth D. Saturn 18. The gaps created by the planet Jupiter in the asteroid belt are called _______.

A. Asteroid gaps B. Kepler gaps C. Kirkwood gaps D. Jupiter gaps 19. Comets are rich in __________.

A. Water B. Carbon monoxide (CO) C. Carbon dioxide (CO2) D. All of the above 20. The short-period comets belong to _______ and the long-period comets belong to _______.

A. Kuiper belt; Oort cloud B. Oort cloud; Kuiper belt C. Kuiper belt; asteroid belt D. Asteroid belt; Kuiper belt 21. The radiant is the common point from which __________ seem(s) to diverge.

A. Comets B. Asteroids C. A Meteor shower D. Meteorites 22. Meteor showers are generally named A. After the Greek Gods and Goddesses B. After the constellation from which they appear to diverge C. After the comet to which they belong D. After the planet from which they seem to come to the Earth 23. What proves the existence of the Kuiper belt?

A. The existence of short period comets B. The fact that many comets orbit on the ecliptic C. The fact that comets are icy objects D. Objects of the Kuiper belt were detected by the Hubble Space Telescope 24. What is the evidence for the existence of the Oort cloud?

A. Objects of the Oort cloud were detected by the Hubble Space Telescope B. The fact that new comets continue to appear indicates that a distant reservoir of icy bodies must exist C. The fact that many comets orbit on the ecliptic D. The fact that some comets have retrograde orbits

25. The Leonid meteor shower occurs in mid November. Which of the following statements regarding the Leonids is true?

A. The radiant of the meteor shower is in the constellation of Leo B. The shower occurs when the Earth crosses the path of an old comet C. The particles of the shower originate from the breakup of comet Leon R D. Both B and C E. Both A and B 26. Halley's comet orbits the Sun approximately every 76 years. The planet Uranus orbits the Sun every 84 years at an average distance of 19 AU. Which of the statements regarding the orbit of Halley's comet is correct?

A. According to Kepler's third law, the semi-major axis of Halley's comet is 18 AU B. Halley's comet remains within Uranus' orbit at all times C The orbit of Halley's comet is very elliptical, therefore it can travel much farther from the Sun than . Uranus, but on the average is closer to the Sun than Uranus D. Both A and C E. None of the above 27. What evidence supports the assumption that a large number of living species disappeared about 65 million years ago due to a catastrophic impact?

A. The existence of a thin iridium layer of comparable geological age B. The existence of a thin layer of soot of comparable geological age C. The Chicxulub crater D. All of the above 28. Chondritic meteorites provide important clues because they are believed to _______.

A. Contain grains from the first material that condensed out of the solar nebula B. Contain many rare metals C. Have come from the asteroids belt D. Have landed in the very distant past 29. _____ travel(s) the farthest from the Sun. A. Pluto B. Comets C. Asteroids D. Charon 30. The Trojan asteroids orbit the Sun at an average distance of ____.

A. 60° ahead B. 60° behind C. 5.2 AU D. 100,000,000 miles 31. The tail of a comet always points _____.

A. Forward B. Backward C. Away from the Sun D. Toward the Sun 32. The typical size of a comet's nucleus is _____.

A. 10 m B. 10 km C. 100 km D. 1000 km E. 1 AU 33. The coma around the nucleus of a comet can be 10 times the size of the Earth.

True False

34. The combined mass of thousands of asteroids is less than 1/1000 the mass of the Earth.

True False 35. The existence of amino acids in carbonaceous chondrites proves that life on Earth originated in space.

True False 36. Astronomers believe that most of the meteorites come from broken up asteroids and comets, but some of the meteorites are fragments from the Moon or Mars.

True False 37. Some asteroids have peculiar orbits that do not obey Kepler's laws.

True False 38. In the inner part of the asteroid belt one is more likely to find silicate-rich asteroids, while the carbon-rich asteroids are more abundant in the outer parts of the asteroid belt.

True False 39. Comets consist primarily of water, carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide.

True False 40. Halley's comet orbits the Sun approximately every 76 years, therefore it is a long-period comet.

True False 41. The Oort cloud was probably formed by planetesimals that were tossed to the outer parts of the solar system by the planets.

True False

11 Key 1. D 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. E 9. A 10. C 11. A 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. E 16. E 17. A 18. C 19. D 20. A 21. C 22. B 23. D 24. B 25. E 26. D 27. D 28. A 29. B 30. C 31. C 32. B 33. TRUE 34. TRUE 35. FALSE 36. TRUE

37. FALSE 38. TRUE 39. TRUE 40. FALSE 41. TRUE

11 Summary Category Arny - Chapter 11

# of Questions 41

12 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1.

Approximately how massive is the Sun as compared to the Earth?

A. 100 times B. 300 times C. 3000 times D. 300,000 times E. One million times

2.

Which one is more massive?

A. The Sun (a gaseous giant) B. The Earth (a solid object)

3.

Which one is denser?

A. The Sun, which is about 300,000 times more massive than the Earth B. The Earth (a solid object)

4.

If you could manage to stand on the Sun, you would weigh approximately ____ times more than your weight on the Earth.

A. 10 B. 30 C. 100 D. 300,000

5.

Which of the following parts of the Sun is the hottest one?

A. Core B. Convection zone C. Photosphere D. Chromosphere E. Corona

6.

Which of the following parts of the Sun is the hottest one?

A. Photosphere B. Chromosphere C. Corona D. Sunspots

7.

Approximately how long does energy take to travel from the core to the surface of the Sun? A. One minute B. One day C. A thousand years D. 16 million years E. 10 billion years

8.

The Sun's core is generating energy in the form of ________.

A. Gamma rays B. Ultraviolet C. X-rays D. Visible E. Radio

9.

Most of the energy in the Sun's ________ is in the form of gamma rays.

A. Corona B. Chromosphere C. Photosphere D. Convection zone E. Core

10. At which observatory listed below are scientists trying to capture neutrinos?

A. SOHO (Solar & Heliospheric Observatory) B. Super Kamiokande, Japan C. GONG (Global Oscillations network group) D. Hubble Space Telescope 11. Which part of the Sun is covered with granules and supergranules?

A. Corona B. Chromosphere C. Photosphere D. Core 12. Which part of the Sun is not in hydrostatic equilibrium?

A. Core B. Radiation zone C. Convection zone D. Corona 13. The solar wind is created in the Sun's _______.

A. Core B. Radiation zone C. Convection zone D. Corona 14. What is the name of a sudden, highly energetic, eruptive explosion on the surface of the Sun? A. Sunspot B. Supergranule C. Flare D. Coronal hole 15. The diameter of the Sun is determined by measuring its ____ and _____.

A. Volume; density B. Distance; volume C. Distance; angular size 16. The surface temperature of the Sun can be measured using ____.

A. Kepler's third law B. The Doppler shift C. Wien's law 17. The temperature at the Sun's core is about _____.

A. 15,000,000 K B. 1,500,000 K C. 150,000 K D. 15,000 K 18. The Sun's composition by the % of mass is 71% ____, 27% _____ and 2% _____.

A. Hydrogen; oxygen; helium B. Helium; hydrogen; other elements C. Hydrogen; helium; other elements

19. The energy in the Sun's core is produced by _____.

A. Chemical reaction of hydrogen and helium B. Fusion of hydrogen to helium C. Radioactive decay 20. Light travels for about _____ to reach the Sun's surface from the Sun's core, and about ____ to reach the Earth from the Sun's surface.

A. 16 million years; 8 minutes B. 100 years; 8 minutes C. 1 minute; 8 seconds D. 100 years; 8 seconds 21. The Sun's atmosphere consists of the _____ and the _____.

A. Photosphere; chromosphere B. Photosphere; corona C. Chromosphere; corona 22. The temperature at the ____ of the Sun's chromosphere is higher than the temperature ____.

A. Base; at the top of the chromosphere B. Top; at the base of the chromosphere C. Top; of the Sun's corona D. Base; of the Sun's corona 23. Astronomers believe that ____ and ____ are manifestations of the Sun's ______.

A. Sunspots; granules; magnetic field B. Flares; sunspots; corona C. Flares; prominences; magnetic field D. Solar wind; sunspots; neutrinos 24. ____ provides a way to measure the speed of seismic waves in the Sun. A. Newton's 3rd law B. Wien's law C. The Doppler effect D. Kepler's 3rd law 25. The Sun's ____ is about _____ at the equator and ____ at the poles.

A. Temperature; 6,000 K; 55,000 K B. Number of spots; one-tenth as abundant; ten times more abundant C. Rotation period; 25 days; 35 days 26. The _____ a period _______, that coincides with _______.

A. Sunspot cycle is; of 11 years; the Sun's rotation around its axis B. Maunder Minimum is; of low sunspot activity; the "little ice age" in the late 17th century C. Magnetic cycle is; of 22 years; a period of intense solar and earthquakes D. Solar cycle is; of high sunspot activity; the cycle of the planetary alignments 27. A solar prominence is essentially A. A cloud of hot gas lifting off the surface of the Sun. B. An eruption of gas heated by the sudden recombination of opposite polarity parts of the Sun's magnetic field.

C. A plasma confined to a magnetic tube sticking out of the surface of the Sun. D. An aurora occurring in the Sun's atmosphere instead of the Earth's.

28. One way to probe the rate of nuclear reactions in the center of the Sun is by studying the _________ produced because _________.

A. Positrons, they annihilate into gamma rays of very specific energies.

B. Neutrinos, they pass out of the Sun without undergoing a random walk.

C. Heavy hydrogen, it has different spectral lines than normal hydrogen.

D. Wave motions, they can be measured at the Sun's surface.

29. Since nuclear fusion in the Sun creates energy from matter, why doesn't it violate the law of conservation of energy?

A. Conservation of energy only applies to mechanical and electrical systems, not to nuclear physics.

B The energy actually comes from the motion of the four separate hydrogen atoms, which move less . bound together as one helium atom.

C. Matter and energy are equivalent, as expressed by Einstein's equation E = mc2.

D It does, but conservation of energy is only a law in Newtonian physics, which does not work under the . conditions at the center of the Sun. 30. If the Sun's rotation carries two sunspots around the side out of sight, you might see them again in about A. Twelve hours B. Two weeks C. A month D. Six months 31. Generally speaking, activity on the surface of the Sun is primarily driven by A. Gravity B. Thermodynamics C. Electromagnetism D. Nuclear reactions 32. Flares, mass ejections and activity in the solar corona is best studied using A. Optical (visible-light) telescopes B. X-ray telescopes C. Infrared telescopes D. Gamma-ray telescopes 33. From the center out, the correct order of the parts of the Sun is A. Core, convection zone, radiative zone, photosphere, chromosphere, corona B. Radiative zone, core, chromosphere, convection zone, photosphere, corona C. Core, convection zone, photosphere, chromosphere, corona, radiative zone D. Core, radiative zone, convection zone, photosphere, chromosphere, corona 34. The Zeeman effect, in which energy levels of electrons are shifted and produce a corresponding split in spectral lines observed, is used to measure _________ at the Sun's surface.

A. Magnetic field strength B. The intensity of gamma rays C. Gravitational field strength D. The velocity and oscillations of gas 35. The solar cycle is a result of the A. Nuclear fusion at the core of the Sun. B. Loss of energy in the Sun's magnetic field through flares, sunspots, and prominences.

C. Differential rotation of the Sun. D. Motion in the convection zone cycling material into the Sun's core.

36. In the Sun, nuclear fusion occurs A. In the core and the radiative zone B. Only in the core C. Throughout the entire star 37. Solar flares can increase the Sun's radio and X-ray emission by factors of a thousand in a few seconds.

True False 38. The Sun rotates faster near its poles than near its equator.

True False

39. The distance of the Sun from Earth is measured by bouncing radar waves of the Sun. True False 40. Astronomers use Wien's law to measure the temperature at the Sun's interior.

True False 41. Astronomers use theory to determine the temperature of the Sun's core, because they cannot measure the core temperature directly.

True False 42. The gases at the interior of the Sun are in a state of plasma, i.e., an ionized gas.

True False 43. Below the photosphere, the temperature and pressure of the Sun increase steadily with increasing depth.

True False 44. The Sun's surface is hotter than the solar corona.

True False 45. Coronal holes are cooler parts of the corona from which the solar wind escapes.

True False 46. The ideal gas law implies that raising the temperature and density of a gas increases the pressure of the gas.

True False 47. Seismic waves observed at the surface of the Sun provide clues about the temperature and the density of the solar interior.

True False 48. The energy produced in the Sun's interior results from the fact that the mass of helium is not equal to the mass of the 4 protons that produced the helium. The mass difference is largely converted into energy according to Einstein's formula: Energy = mc2 True False 49. The magnetic fields in sunspots can be detected by the fact that some lines in the spectrum of a gas split into two or more lines by the action of magnetic fields.

True False 50. According to the ideal gas law, the only way to have high pressure is by having a high density.

True False 51. Comparison of the number of sunspots and the surface temperature of the Earth shows a correspondence right up to the present day.

True False 52. The Sun converts mass to energy through the proton-proton chain.

True False 53. The convection zone constantly cycles fresh hydrogen into the Sun's core and moves created helium into the outer parts of the star.

True False 54. The mass of an entire hydrogen atom is converted into energy during the proton-proton chain.

True False

12 Key 1. D 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. A 9. E 10. B 11. C 12. D 13. D 14. C 15. C 16. C 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. A 21. C 22. B 23. C 24. C 25. C 26. B 27. C 28. B 29. C 30. B 31. C 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. C 36. B

37. TRUE 38. FALSE 39. TRUE 40. FALSE 41. TRUE 42. TRUE 43. TRUE 44. FALSE 45. TRUE 46. TRUE 47. TRUE 48. TRUE 49. TRUE 50. FALSE 51. FALSE 52. TRUE 53. FALSE 54. FALSE

12 Summary Category Arny - Chapter 12

# of Questions 54

13 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1.

What is parallax?

A. The distance to an object, measured in parsecs B. The difference between the apparent and absolute magnitude C. The apparent shift in position of an object caused by a change in the observer's position D. The shift in angular position of an object as the object actually moves in space

2.

Parallax measurements of the distances to the nearest stars use _____ as a baseline.

A. Earth's orbit B. Earth's diameter C. Earth-Moon distance D. About the length of a football field

3.

The relative brightness of the stars as we see them in our sky is represented by their A. Absolute magnitudes B. Apparent magnitude C. Surface temperature D. Luminosity

4.

Star A and Star B have same temperatures, but Star A is more luminous than Star B. Based on this information, which of the following must be the case?

A. Star A is smaller than Star B B. Star A is larger than Star B C. Star A and Star B have same size D. Star A is more massive than Star B

5.

Luminosity (absolute brightness) of a star depends on its ___________.

A. Temperature B. Radius C. Distance from us D. Both A and B E. Both A and C

6.

Star A and Star B have same size, but Star A is more luminous than Star B. Based on this information, which of the following must be the case?

A. Star A is cooler than Star B B. Star A is hotter than Star B C. Star A and Star B have same temperature D. Star A is more massive than Star B

7.

Which of the following stars has the hottest stellar surface temperature?

A. M6 B. A0 C. G5 D. B2 E. K9

8.

Which of the following stars is reddish in color?

A. F6 B. A0 C. G5 D. B2 E. K9

9.

In the HR diagram on the x-axis the temperature increases _____.

A. Toward right B. Toward left C. In both directions D. Arbitrarily

10. In the above HR diagram sketch, which star is a white dwarf?

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E 11. In the above HR diagram sketch, which star is a red dwarf?

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E 12. In the above HR diagram sketch, which star is a red giant?

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E 13. In the above HR diagram sketch, which star is a blue giant?

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E 14. In the above HR diagram, which main sequence star is bluish in color?

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

15. In the above HR diagram, which main sequence star is reddish in color?

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E 16. In the above HR diagram, which main sequence star is biggest in size?

A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E 17. A star has a parallax angle of 0.25 arcseconds. It is therefore at a distance of A. 16 parsecs B. 25 light years C. 4 parsecs D. 4 light years 18. 80% of ________ type stars have orbiting companions.

A. O and B B. B.A and F C. C.F and G D. D.K and M 19. In which binary system can we observe both the stars separately and follow their orbits around each other?

A. Visual binary system B. Spectroscopic binary system C. Eclipsing binary system 20. The H-R diagram is a diagram plotting the stars according to their A. Apparent brightness and temperature B. Spectral type and temperature C. Brightness and luminosity class D. Luminosity and temperature E. Mass and diameter 21. The star Aldebaran is a red giant, and is much more luminous than the Sun. What conclusions can be drawn from this fact?

A. Aldebaran is hotter and much more massive than the Sun B. Aldebaran is cooler than the Sun, but has larger diameter than the Sun C. In the HR diagram, Aldebaran is above and to the left of the Sun D. Aldebaran is a binary star E. None of the above 22. Which of the following is a main sequence star hotter than the Sun? (Note: the Sun is a G2V star) A. B2II B. G2II C. G2III D. G1V E. O2II

23. The star Aldebaran is cooler and much more luminous than the Sun. Where do you expect to find Aldebaran in the H-R diagram?

A. Top left B. Top right C. Center D. Bottom right E. Bottom left 24. Which of the following statements would explain the fact that larger molecules, such as amino acids, do not produce spectral lines in the OBAFGKM classification?

A. Larger molecules require higher temperatures to show absorption lines B. The spectra of hydrogen and helium are sufficient to classify stars C. The spectra of larger molecules are too complicated D. Larger molecules break apart at the high temperatures of stellar atmospheres E. All of the above 25. How can we explain the fact that hydrogen Balmer lines are essentially absent in the hot O type and the cool M stars?

A. O type stars do not contain hydrogen B. In cool stars hydrogen combines to form large molecules C. In O stars hydrogen is ionized and in M stars the electrons of hydrogen are in level 1, not level 2 D. All of the above E. Only A and B above account for the absence of hydrogen lines 26. The spectrum of a star shows the 656 nm absorption line shifted to 658 nm. Which of the following can we conclude about this star?

A. The star is approaching us with an approximate speed of 1,800 km/sec B. The star is receding with an approximate speed of 1,800 km/sec C. The star is approaching us with an approximate speed of 900 km/sec D. The star is receding with an approximate speed of 900 km/sec E. The star is spinning rapidly 27. Binary star systems are very important because they allow A. Measurement of star masses B. Measurement of the speed of stars C. More precise measurement of the distance of stars D. More precise measurement of the temperature of stars E. More precise measurement of the spectral type of stars 28. What is the difference between spectroscopic and visual binaries?

A. Spectroscopic binaries have double spectral lines but do not move B. Visual binaries are pairs of stars in the same region in the sky but are not gravitationally interacting C. A visual binary does not show changes in the spectral lines D. In a visual binary we can see two distinct stars; in spectroscopic binaries, the images of the two stars can not be resolved 29. A visual binary star system has rotation period P = 10 years. The semi-major axis of the orbit of one of the stars is 10 AU. What is the combined mass of the binary star system?

A. 10 solar masses B. 100 solar masses C. 1,000 solar masses D. 10,000 solar masses 30. The study of eclipsing binary stars is very important because it allows astronomers to determine A. The distance between two stars B. The speed of stars from the Doppler shift of their spectral lines C. The diameters of stars D. The luminosity of each star E. The brightness of each star

31. Stars on the main sequence have different luminosities because A. They have different chemical compositions B. They have different ages C. They are at different distances from the Sun D. They have different masses E. They have different apparent magnitudes 32. Which of the following statements about the mass-luminosity relation is correct?

A. It relates the luminosity to the mass for main sequence stars only B. It shows that more massive stars are dimmer C. It relates the luminosity to the mass for any star D. It shows that red giant stars have less mass than main sequence stars E. It shows that the more massive stars are cooler 33. Which of the following is not true for a pulsating star?

A. The surface temperature of a pulsating star changes periodically B. The outer layers of a pulsating star expand and contract periodically C. The luminosity changes periodically D. They are usually members of an eclipsing binary star system E. They show periodic shifts in their spectral lines 34. What can we conclude about a star because its luminosity varies in an irregular pattern?

A. The star is very young B. The star is very old C. The star is rotating D. A or B 35. The parallax method for determining distances is ____ that uses the ____ as the baseline.

A. An angle; radius of the Earth B. An angle; radius of the Earth's orbit C. A triangulation; astronomical unit D. A triangulation; radius of the Earth 36. _____ can be used to measure the _____ of nearby stars.

A. Parallax measurements; radius B. The method of standard candles; brightness C. Interferometry; radius 37. The parallax of a star is ____ usually measured in ____.

A. A distance; arcseconds B. An angle; arcseconds C. An angle; parsecs D. A distance; AUs 38. A near-by star is more likely to have _____.

A. Large parallax B. High Doppler shift C. Small parallax D. High temperature 39. The amount of energy emitted by a star each second is the ____ and is measured in ____.

A. Apparent brightness; degrees K B. Temperature; degrees K C. Apparent brightness; Watts D. Luminosity; Watts

40. A light source at a distance of 1 meter that emits 100 Watts of visible radiation has the same ____ as a source emitting 400 Watts and is located ____.

A. Luminosity; 2 meters away B. Luminosity; 4 meters away C. Apparent brightness; 2 meters away D. Apparent brightness; 4 meters away 41. The luminosity of a star is determined by the star's ___ and ____.

A. Brightness; temperature B. Apparent brightness; surface temperature C. Diameter; surface temperature D. Distance; surface temperature E. Diameter; distance 42. A star of apparent magnitude 1 appears ______ times brighter than a star of apparent magnitude 2.

A. 2 B. 1 C. 2.51 D. ½ 43. A star of apparent magnitude ____ appears 2.51 times brighter than a star of apparent magnitude 4.

A. 1 B. 1.49 C. 3 D. 2.5 E. 5 44. Analysis of stellar spectra shows that most stars consist of 71% ___, 27% ___ and a 2% mix of the other elements.

A. Hydrogen; oxygen B. Hydrogen; helium C. Helium; hydrogen D. Oxygen; nitrogen 45. The Balmer lines correspond to wavelengths in the ____ part of the spectrum of a ____ atom.

A. Ultraviolet; helium B. Visible; hydrogen C. Infrared; hydrogen D. X-ray; helium 46. The H-R diagram usually graphs the stars according to their luminosity and temperature. An equally valid H-R diagram could be done by plotting the ____ and the ____ of the stars.

A. Absolute magnitude; temperature B. Apparent brightness; temperature C. Diameter; distance D. Color; temperature 47. An M type star 1000 times more luminous than the Sun will be located near the ___ part of the H-R diagram.

A. Top left B. Top right C. Center D. Bottom right E. Bottom left

48. The hydrogen absorption lines are the strongest in ___ type stars.

A. A B. B C. O D. G 49. Lines from molecules are strongest in the cool ___ type stars.

A. A B. F C. M D. K E. O 50. In ___ stars most of the electrons in the hydrogen atom are above level 2 and in ___ stars most of the electrons are below level 2, therefore the _____ are essentially absent in both types.

A. Type M; type O; Balmer lines B. Type O; type M; Balmer lines C. Type A; type M; emission lines D. Type M; type A; absorption lines E. Type O; type A; emission lines 51. ____ binary star systems are important because they allow astronomers to determine the mass and the ____ of the stars in the system.

A. Eclipsing; temperature B. Spectroscopic; diameter C. Spectroscopic; temperature D. Eclipsing; diameter E. Visual; temperature 52. Analysis of ___ stars has shown that star masses are in the range of ___ to ____ solar masses.

A. Binary; 1; 10 B. Spinning; 1000; 0.1 C. Binary; 100; 1 D. Spinning; 1; 100 E. Binary; 30; 0.1 53. A main sequence star has 2 times the mass of the Sun. Using ____ we find that the star is ___ times more luminous than the Sun. A. The mass-luminosity relation; 8 B. The Stefan-Boltzmann law; 2 C. Wien's law; 2 D. The mass-luminosity relation; 2 E. The inverse-square law; 4 54. White dwarfs have ____ spectral lines than red giants.

A. Narrower B. Stronger C. Weaker D. Wider 55. In the H-R diagram, a star of luminosity class ___ will be located ____.

A. II; below the main-sequence B. III; above the Sun C. II; in the bottom left of the diagram D. II; above the luminosity class I stars

56. A star with a spectrum that peaks at a wavelength of 1 micron (1 × 10-6) would have a surface temperature of _________ and be an _________ star.

A. 2900 K, O B. 2900 K, M C. 29,000 K, O D. 29,000 K, M 57. The hottest (O and B type) stars are usually binary stars, while the coolest (M type) stars are usually single stars.

True False 58. Nearby stars have smaller parallax angles, therefore their distance in parsecs is smaller.

True False 59. Wien's law implies that a yellow star is hotter than a red star.

True False 60. Wien's law can only tell us about the surface temperature of a star, not the temperatures of the invisible interior of a star.

True False 61. The luminosity of a star allows astronomers to determine the radius and distance of the star.

True False 62. The absolute magnitude of a star tells us how bright the star would appear if placed at a distance of 10 pc from the Sun. True False 63. A star of absolute magnitude 1 is about 2.51 times more luminous than a star of absolute magnitude 2.

True False 64. A star with an apparent magnitude of 10 is visible by the naked eye.

True False 65. One parsec is equal to 3.26 light years.

True False 66. The Sun is a G2V type star.

True False 67. The sequence OBAFGKM orders the stars in decreasing temperature and decreasing mass.

True False 68. Hydrogen Balmer lines are essentially absent in the O and M type stars.

True False 69. A star approaching the Earth will show spectral lines that are shifted to shorter wavelengths.

True False 70. Measuring stellar masses using binary stars is difficult because binary stars are rare.

True False 71. The masses of stars are generally in the range of 30 to 0.1 solar masses.

True False 72. The study of eclipsing binary star systems provides information about the radii of stars.

True False 73. The mass-luminosity relation applies to main-sequence stars only.

True False

74. The H-R diagram shows that stars begin their life as red giants, contract and heat-up with age and progress from right to left along the main sequence.

True False 75. The luminosity class of a star can be determined from the width of the spectral lines of the star.

True False 76. In the H-R diagram, stars of luminosity class Ia are located near the center.

True False

13 Key 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. D 8. E 9. B 10. E 11. C 12. D 13. A 14. A 15. C 16. A 17. C 18. A 19. A 20. D 21. B 22. D 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. D 27. A 28. D 29. A 30. C 31. D 32. A 33. D 34. D 35. C 36. C

37. B 38. A 39. D 40. C 41. C 42. C 43. C 44. B 45. B 46. A 47. B 48. A 49. C 50. B 51. D 52. E 53. A 54. D 55. B 56. B 57. TRUE 58. FALSE 59. TRUE 60. TRUE 61. TRUE 62. TRUE 63. TRUE 64. FALSE 65. TRUE 66. TRUE 67. FALSE 68. TRUE 69. TRUE 70. FALSE 71. TRUE 72. TRUE 73. TRUE 74. FALSE

75. TRUE 76. FALSE

13 Summary Category Arny - Chapter 13

# of Questions 77

14 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1.

The space between the stars is known to contain A. A large quantity of dust but no gas at all B. A variable amount of gas but no dust at all C. A perfect vacuum D. Both gas (atomic or molecular) and dust

2.

What factor determines the kind of life a star is going to lead?

A. Temperature of star B. Size of star C. Mass of star D. Speed of light

3.

When do we say that a star is born?

A. When the interstellar cloud collapses B. When the interstellar matter achieves the Jeans instability C. When fusion of hydrogen atoms into helium atoms start D. When star leaves the main sequence

4.

The lifetime of a star is dependent on its ______.

A. Mass B. Volume C. Luminosity D. Temperature

5.

What stars form the slowest?

A. O and B B. A and F C. G and A D. K and M

6.

A star can be a supernova A. Many times B. At various times, depending on the mass of the star C. Only once D. Before it reaches the main sequence in some cases

7.

The period-luminosity law of pulsating variable stars indicates that A. The more slowly a star pulsates, the more luminous it is B. The faster a star pulsates, the more luminous it is C. Period of pulsation is independent of luminosity D. None of the above

8.

Which of the following elements in your body is formed in stars?

A. Carbon B. Oxygen C. Calcium D. Iron E. All of the above

9.

The Sun will leave the main sequence in about ______ years from now.

A. 5 million B. 100 billion C. 100 million D. 5 billion

10. If a star is in hydrostatic equilibrium A. It is in a stable binary orbit B. It is generating energy at the same rate everywhere C. It is near the end of its life D. It must be losing mass E. Its radiation pressure outwards and gravitational forces inwards are in balance 11. Of all the stages below describing the evolution of a star, the star spends the longest time in A. The pre-main sequence B. The main sequence C. The post-main sequence 12. The process in which two or more lighter elements combine to form a single heavier element is called A. Nucleosynthesis B. Photodisintegration C. Neutronization D. Nova 13. When the outer envelope of a red giant is ejected, the remaining core of a low mass star is called a A. Black hole B. Neutron star C. White dwarf D. Red super giant 14. Which of the following statements about the "helium flash" is correct?

A. It does not occur in high-mass stars B. It does not occur in stars smaller than 0.5 solar masses C. It marks the end of the red giant stage for a star like the Sun D. It releases enough energy to change the degenerate gas in the core to normal gas E. All of the above 15. Which of the following statements about degenerate gas is not correct?

A. The degenerate gas exists at very high densities B. A degenerate star core obeys the ideal gas law C. Increasing the temperature of the degenerate gas does not significantly increase the pressure D. It is a consequence of the laws of subatomic physics 16. Which of the following statements correctly describes pulsating stars?

A. The core of pulsating stars expands and shrinks rhythmically B. They lie between the blue giants and the red giants in the H-R diagrams C. Their temperature and radius change rhythmically D. All of the above E. Both B and C 17. What makes variable stars useful in determining star distances?

A. Their exact location in the H-R diagram is known B. They are brighter than other stars C. Their luminosity can be determined from their pulsation period D. They are easier to spot than ordinary stars

18. Which of the following statements about planetary nebulas is correct?

A. They are shells of glowing gas and dust ejected by dying Sun-like stars B. They contain flakes of carbon and silicon material C. They expand at a typical rate of 20 kilometers per second D. Their shape can be very irregular E. All of the above 19. Which of the following statements apply in the final moments of the life of high-mass stars?

A. Their outer layer is mainly hydrogen and helium B. Below the surface there is a series of nested shells each made of a lighter element than the one below it C. They have iron cores D. The core temperature is about 2 billion degrees E. All of the above 20. Which of the following statements about the evolution of high-mass stars is not correct?

A. High-mass stars evolve much faster than low-mass stars B. High-mass stars can fuse elements heavier than helium in their core C. High-mass stars have an intense helium flash D. High-mass stars do not have a helium flash E. The life of a high-mass stars ends with a supernova explosion 21. How do most of the heavier elements up to iron form in the Universe?

A. In supernova explosions B. By nucleosynthesis in the cores of massive stars C. In the original interstellar clouds D. In the cores of protostars 22. Where do most of the elements heavier than iron form?

A. In the interior of stars B. In the interior of high-mass stars C. In supernova explosions D. In the interstellar clouds 23. How do astronomers test models of stellar evolution?

A. By comparing the paths in the H-R diagram predicted by models with the H-R diagrams of star clusters B. By measuring the number of stars in a cluster and comparing with the number predicted by the models C. By recording the properties of a star over an extended period of time D. By assuming that all the stars in our galaxy formed at the same time, and comparing with predictions of the models 24. Which of the following statements regarding the H-R diagrams of star clusters is not correct?

A. A very young cluster will have stars that lie in the right hand side and a little above the main-sequence B. A very old cluster will show a turn-off point and will have many red and yellow giant stars C. A very young cluster will not show a turn-off point D. A very old cluster will have many stars in the upper left corner of the H-R diagram E. A very young cluster will not have all its stars on the main sequence 25. The Sun formed from the gravitational collapse of a cold ___.

A. Red giant B. Galaxy C. Planetary nebula D. Interstellar cloud

26. For a star like the Sun, the gravitational collapse of the interstellar cloud lasted for about ____ and stopped with the ignition of the fusion reaction.

A. 50-100 billion years B. 5-10 billion years C. 1 billion years D. 100 million years E. 1-10 million years 27. ____ is the most significant force that determines the evolution of stars.

A. Temperature B. Luminosity C. Energy D. Gravity 28. The main source of energy in main-sequence stars is ____.

A. Fusion of hydrogen to helium B. Gravity C. The triple alpha process D. Chemical reaction between hydrogen and helium 29. A protostar becomes a main-sequence star when it _____.

A. Starts burning helium B. Starts fusing hydrogen to helium C. Starts fusing heavier elements D. Depletes its gravitational energy 30. The typical temperature of an interstellar cloud that could collapse to a protostar is about ___.

A. 1500 K B. 1000 K C. 300 K D. 10 K 31. Protostars are observable by radio telescopes but hard to detect in visible light because they have _____ and are ____.

A. Low surface temperature; very distant B. Small size; very hot C. Low surface temperature; surrounded by dust D. Small size; very distant 32. The protostar stage is ___ for ___ stars.

A. Longer; high-mass B. Shorter; high-mass C. 10 million years; all D. 10 million years; high-mass 33. A ____ is a region where jets of gas from young stars impact and heat the gas surrounding the young star.

A. Planetary nebula B. Bok globule C. Bipolar outflow D. T Tauri star 34. In the H-R diagram a T Tauri star will be located ____.

A. Near the upper right corner B. Near the upper left corner C. Near the bottom left corner D. Below the main sequence E. On the right hand side and a little above the main sequence

35. Hydrostatic equilibrium is the balance between _____ of a star and _____.

A. The internal pressure; energy production B. Hydrogen fusion; temperature C. The size of the star; energy production D. The internal pressure; gravity 36. A protostar is not _____.

A. Producing energy B. Collapsing C. In hydrostatic equilibrium D. Heating up 37. The CNO cycle produces energy by fusing _____ into ____.

A. Oxygen; nitrogen B. Hydrogen; helium C. Carbon; helium D. Helium; carbon, nitrogen and oxygen 38. The triple alpha process produces energy by fusing ____ into ____.

A. Helium; carbon B. Hydrogen; helium C. Oxygen; carbon D. Oxygen and carbon; carbon dioxide E. Carbon and nitrogen; cyanogen 39. After the hydrogen in the star's core is depleted the core ____ and ____.

A. Cools down; shrinks B. Shrinks; heats up C. Heats up; expands 40. High-mass stars become ____ variables when they cross the instability strip, while low-mass stars become ____ variables.

A. Cepheid; RR Lyrae B. RR Lyrae; Cepheid C. ZZ Ceti; RR Lyrae D. Cepheid; T Tauri E. T Tauri; Cepheid 41. The light curve of a large Cepheid variable would typically show pulsations in luminosity ____.

A. Every 6 minutes B. Every 6 hours C. Every 60 days D. Every 6 months E. Every 6 years 42. The _____ of planetary nebulas is _____.

A. Origin; an extinct planet the size of the Earth B. Gas and dust; spherical in shape C. Shape; usually conical and irregular 43. The last fusion product possible in stars is _________ because _________.

A. Lead, fusing lead nuclei absorbs energy, it does not liberate it.

B. Iron, fusing iron nuclei absorbs energy, it does not liberate it.

C. Iron, no stars are hot enough in their cores to fuse iron nuclei.

D. Carbon, no stars are hot enough in their cores to fuse carbon nuclei.

44. Supernova remnants A. Initially expand at thousands of km/s.

B. May contain up to 10 solar masses of material ejected from the star.

C. Are important for mixing material into the interstellar medium.

D. Both A and C. E. A, B and C. 45. Massive stars burn their fuel more rapidly than low-mass stars.

True False 46. The gravitational collapse of an interstellar cloud can be triggered by a collision with another cloud.

True False 47. When a star like the Sun exhausts its nuclear fuels, it ultimately leaves behind a white dwarf and an expanding planetary nebula.

True False 48. Before turning into a white dwarf, a star like the Sun will spend most of its life as a main sequence star.

True False 49. Before turning into a white dwarf, a star with mass 10 times the mass of the Sun will spend most of its life as a main sequence star.

True False 50. Convection in the outer layers of a star like the Sun helps mixing and makes more hydrogen available for burning.

True False 51. The temperature of a protostar can reach 1500 K but they are very hard to detect in visible wavelengths because of their low luminosity and because they are surrounded by dust.

True False 52. Large interstellar clouds can collapse to form several stars approximately at the same time.

True False 53. Interstellar clouds usually form groups of protostars that reach the main sequence at the same time.

True False 54. Interstellar clouds usually form groups of stars that leave the main sequence at the same time.

True False 55. T Tauri stars are never seen in old star clusters.

True False 56. Main sequence stars are in hydrostatic equilibrium.

True False 57. The proton-proton chain and the CNO cycle produce energy by fusing hydrogen into helium.

True False 58. In the core of high mass stars the energy is transported by convection currents.

True False 59. As stars evolve their temperature and luminosity change, therefore their spectral type (OBAF…, etc.) changes as well.

True False 60. The triple alpha process requires higher temperatures to start and produces less energy for a given mass than the proton-proton chain.

True False

61. Red giants are huge because their outer layers have expanded to a very low density tenuous atmosphere.

True False 62. The larger pulsating stars have longer pulsation period and higher luminosity.

True False 63. The pulsation in the luminosity of variable stars is driven by the changing opacity of their atmosphere.

True False

14 Key 1. D 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. A 8. E 9. D 10. E 11. B 12. A 13. C 14. E 15. B 16. E 17. C 18. E 19. E 20. C 21. B 22. C 23. A 24. D 25. D 26. E 27. D 28. A 29. B 30. D 31. C 32. B 33. C 34. E 35. D 36. C

37. B 38. A 39. B 40. A 41. C 42. C 43. B 44. E 45. TRUE 46. TRUE 47. TRUE 48. TRUE 49. FALSE 50. FALSE 51. TRUE 52. TRUE 53. FALSE 54. FALSE 55. TRUE 56. TRUE 57. TRUE 58. TRUE 59. TRUE 60. TRUE 61. TRUE 62. TRUE 63. TRUE

14 Summary Category Arny - Chapter 14

# of Questions 63

15 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1.

___________ are hot, compact stars whose mass is comparable to the Sun's and size to the Earth's.

A. White dwarfs B. Neutron stars C. Pulsars D. Black holes

2.

Which of the following objects do you expect to find at the center of a planetary nebula?

A. Planet B. Neutron star C. White dwarf D. Black hole

3.

A __________ happens when a single high mass star explodes.

A. Nova B. Type Ia supernova C. Type II supernova D. Pulsar E. None of the above

4.

A __________ happens when a white dwarf in a binary system accumulates more mass than Chandrasekhar limit.

A. Nova B. Type Ia supernova C. Type II supernova D. Pulsar E. None of the above

5.

This event recurs and happens when one of the companions in the binary system is a white dwarf.

A. Nova B. Type I supernova C. Type II supernova D. Pulsar E. None of the above

6.

___________ are hot, compact remnant stars whose mass is typically between one and several times that of the Sun, but their size is only 10 km or less.

A. White dwarfs B. Neutron stars C. Pulsars D. Black dwarfs

7.

This recurring event happens in the case of a binary system in which one of the companions is a neutron star.

A. Novae B. Type I supernovae C. Type II supernovae D. X-ray bursts E. None of the above

8.

Which of the following is a remnant of a dying star?

A. White dwarf B. Neutron star C. Black hole D. All of the above

9.

If stars rotate with periods of tens of days, why does a neutron star rotate several to thousands of times a second?

A. When a neutron star collapses, the intensified magnetic field causes it to rotate much more quickly.

B. When a neutron star collapses, its rotation is kicked up by the ejected material from the supernova.

C. When a neutron star collapses, its rotation rate speeds up because of conservation of angular momentum.

D. The collapsing neutron star becomes hot and the fast rotation is the result of thermal energy.

10. Two important properties of young pulsars are A. Rapid rotation and no magnetic field B. No rotation and strong magnetic field C. Extremely rapid rotation and a weak magnetic field D. Extremely rapid rotation and a strong magnetic field E. No rotation and no magnetic field 11. A method for identifying a black hole is to A. Observe them directly through the space-based telescopes B. Look for voids (holes) in the star fields C. Look for its effect on nearby companions D. Search for radio waves from the accretion disk 12. The escape velocity inside a black hole is A. Zero B. Infinity C. Unknown D. Half the speed of light E. Greater than the speed of light 13. What is the escape velocity at the event horizon of a black hole?

A. Speed of sound B. Supersonic speed C. Speed of light D. Half the speed of light 14. Which of the following can actually escape a black hole?

A. Electrons B. Very high energy gamma-rays C. Visible light D. Very low energy radio waves E. None of the above 15. The Chandrasekhar limit is the largest ______ a white dwarf can have.

A. Speed B. Mass C. Temperature D. Wavelength 16. _______ are remnants of low mass stars.

A. Neutron stars B. Pulsars C. White dwarfs D. Black holes

17. The mass of a black hole can be determined by _____.

A. Measuring its volume and density B. Measuring its Schwarzschild radius C. Measuring its Doppler shift D. Applying the modified version of Kepler's 3rd law, if the blackhole is in a binary system 18. The temperature of black holes is estimated to be ____.

A. Hotter than the Sun B. Less than 1 millionth of a degree C. Hotter than 1 million degrees D. Hotter than a white dwarf E. Black holes do not have temperature 19. Millisecond pulsars rotate about ______ times per second.

A. 10 B. 100 C. 1000 D. 1 million 20. When pulsars were discovered, scientists initially thought the pulsations might be caused in the same way as variable stars pulsate. When good models of neutron stars based on Baade and Zwicky's ideas were calculated, the expected periods for these extremely dense objects, if they were in fact like variable stars, were A. Far too slow compared to observations.

B. Much faster than any observed pulsars.

C. Exactly the same range as observed pulsars.

21. Black holes emit radiation in the form of ______ waves known as Hawking radiation.

A. X-ray B. Electromagnetic C. Ultraviolet D. Microwave E. Nuclear 22. The first pulsars were observed using _______ telescopes.

A. Optical B. X-ray C. Infrared D. Radio E. Gamma ray 23. The fast rotation of neutron stars is a consequence of _____.

A. Wien's law B. The Doppler effect C. Their high temperature D. The law of conservation of angular momentum 24. Type Ia supernovas involve a ____.

A. White dwarf B. Neutron star C. Black hole D. Planetary nebula 25. Compared to the Sun, white dwarfs have higher _____ and lower _____.

A. Mass; surface temperature B. Volume; surface temperature C. Surface temperature; luminosity D. Luminosity; surface temperature

26. White dwarfs have a surface composed of a thin layer of ____.

A. Hydrogen and oxygen B. Hydrogen and helium C. Carbon and oxygen D. Carbon and helium 27. Astronomers use _____ to determine the magnetic field of white dwarfs.

A. The Doppler effect B. Wien's law C. Conservation of angular momentum D. The Zeeman splitting of spectral lines 28. A _________ happens when a single high mass star explodes.

A. Nova B. Type Ia, or white dwarf, supernova C. Type II, or core-collapse, supernova D. Pulsar E. None of the above.

29. Gravitational waves A. Are how pulsars pulse.

B. Carry material into black holes.

C. Are traveling distortions of space and time.

D. Do not carry energy.

30. The laws of presently known physics break down inside an event horizon.

True False 31. The surface temperature of a white dwarf is higher than the surface temperature of the Sun. True False 32. White dwarfs with a larger radius have more mass than white dwarfs of smaller radius.

True False 33. A chunk of material from the interior of a white dwarf would weigh about 100 times more than an Earth rock of the same size.

True False 34. White dwarfs have magnetic fields as much as 100 million times larger than the Earth's magnetic field.

True False 35. The interior of a white dwarf behaves like a degenerate gas, i.e., the temperature has little effect on the pressure.

True False 36. Typically, if the mass of a white dwarf increases, the white dwarf shrinks and then explodes if the mass exceeds 1.4 solar masses.

True False 37. The fast rotation of neutron stars is a consequence of the law of conservation of angular momentum.

True False 38. Neutron stars must have mass smaller than the Chandrasekhar limit.

True False 39. The spectral lines of white dwarf stars are redshifted, because their high gravity reduces the energy carried by light escaping from the white dwarf.

True False

40. Nova explosions involve a binary system of a white dwarf and a companion star and can occur in the same system repeatedly.

True False 41. A type Ia supernova will most likely leave no remnant star.

True False 42. Pulsars are rotating neutron stars.

True False 43. The strong gravitational field of white dwarf slows down the speed of escaping light, and results in the gravitational redshift.

True False 44. A black hole is an object with escape velocity about half the speed of light.

True False 45. A gravitational wave can carry energy away from two very dense objects if they are orbiting each other or collide.

True False

15 Key 1. A 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. C 10. D 11. C 12. E 13. C 14. E 15. B 16. C 17. D 18. B 19. C 20. B 21. B 22. D 23. D 24. A 25. C 26. B 27. D 28. C 29. C 30. TRUE 31. TRUE 32. FALSE 33. FALSE 34. TRUE 35. TRUE 36. TRUE

37. TRUE 38. FALSE 39. TRUE 40. TRUE 41. TRUE 42. TRUE 43. FALSE 44. FALSE 45. TRUE

15 Summary Category Arny - Chapter 15

# of Questions 45

16 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1.

The Milky Way Galaxy A. Is unique in the universe in showing definite elliptical structure B. Contains the whole universe; everything observable is within its volume C. Is our neighboring galaxy D. Is one of the many billions of galaxies in the universe

2.

What is the approximate diameter of the Milky Way Galaxy in light years?

A. 10 B. 100 C. 1000 D. 100,000 E. 1000,000

3.

What fraction of the mass of our Galaxy is in a form that we have been able to see in all wavelengths?

A. About 90% B. About 10% C. About 50% D. 100%—who has ever heard of matter that can't be seen?

4.

What fraction of the mass of our Galaxy is in a form that we have not been able to see in any of the wavelengths?

A. About 90% B. About 10% C. About 50% D. 0%—who have ever heard of matter that can't be seen?

5.

Stars of globular clusters belong to Population ________.

A. I B. II C. III D. Zero

6.

Rotational velocity outside the visible boundary of our Galaxy is _____ than would be expected on the basis of observed stars and gas, indicating the presence of _____.

A. Zero; vacuum B. Lower; gas C. Smaller; white dwarfs D. Higher; dark matter

7.

The Sun lies _______ the disk of our Milky Way Galaxy.

A. At the center of B. About two-thirds of the way out in C. About one-third of the way out in D. In the halo above

8.

What happens when the electron in a hydrogen atom flips its direction of spin, from parallel to antiparallel to that of the proton?

A. Nothing--this transition never occurs B. The atom emits 656 nm radiation that gives red color C. The atom emits high energy ultra-violet rays D. The atom emits 21-cm radio radiation

9.

Which radiation is the most useful to map the structure of our Galaxy?

A. Far ultra-violet B. 21 cm radio radiation C. X-rays D. Gamma rays

10. Astronomers measured the location of the Sun in the Milky Way Galaxy by A. By counting the number of stars B. By plotting the position of globular star clusters C. By plotting distribution of water molecules D. None of the above 11. Who was the first to measure the structure of Milky Way using globular clusters?

A. Kapteyn B. Edwin Hubble C. Harlow Shapley D. William Hershel 12. What is the characteristic color of a reflection nebula?

A. Blue B. Red C. Green D. Yellow E. Black 13. What is the characteristic color of an emission nebula?

A. Blue B. Red C. Green D. Yellow E. Lack 14. What is an emission nebula?

A. A region of yellow gas around cool K or M type stars B. A region of red ionized gas around hot O or B type stars C. A region of blue disk around black holes D. A gas cloud in globular clusters 15. Which of the following may explain the failure to observe population III stars?

A. We do not expect to observe Population III stars, because pure hydrogen and helium stars never formed B. Population III stars had their surfaces contaminated by remnants of massive stars C. The first stars to be formed in the young Milky Way were very massive and therefore short-lived D. All of the above E. Only B and C above 16. One of the reasons that Kapteyn underestimated the size of the Milky Way and Shapley overestimated it is that they did not recognize the ____.

A. Effects of the motion of the Sun from the center B. Dimming effect of interstellar dust C. Age of the globular clusters D. Existence of dark matter 17. The radius of the disk of Milky Way is approximately ____.

A. 50,000 light years B. 10 light years C. 100 AU D. 1 million light years

18. The solar system is located about ___ from the center of the Milky Way. A. 8.5 kiloparsecs B. 8.5 light years C. 8.5 AU 19. The solar system is about 5 billion years old and completes one orbit around the center of the Milky Way in 240 million years. Therefore, we conclude that the solar system has completed a total of about ___ orbits around the galactic center.

A. 20 B. 10 C. 4 20. The gas and dust in the disk of the Milky Way account for approximately ____ of the disk's mass.

A. 15% B. 30% C. 50% 21. The estimated age of the Milky Way galaxy is about ___.

A. 40 kiloparsecs B. 13 billion light years C. 13 billion years D. 4.6 billion years 22. The average distance between stars in the neighborhood of the solar system is about ___.

A. 4 AU B. 4 light years C. 4 kiloparsecs D. 4 arcseconds 23. The Milky Way galaxy contains about _____ stars. Most of theses stars are probably _____.

A. 100 billion; red giants B. 100 billion; O and B type stars C. 10 billion; white dwarfs D. 100 billion; cool dwarfs 24. The majority of stars in the Milky Way appear to be in the _______.

A. O and B spectral type B. Mass range of 0.1 to 0.5 solar masses C. 6,000K to 10,000 K temperature range D. Sagittarius A* region 25. The typical size of the interstellar dust particles is ____ and they consist of _____.

A. 1 cm; silicates and carbon compounds B. 1 mm; hydrogen and helium C. About a micrometer or less; hydrogen and helium D. About a micrometer or less; silicates and carbon compounds 26. ___ radiation is emitted from ___ when the electron ___.

A. 21 cm; a hydrogen atom; flips its spin B. 21 cm; CO; emits a red photon C. 21 cm; a hydrogen atom; emits a red photon 27. Dust and gas in the Milky Way A. Are spread evenly throughout the halo and disk.

B. Are concentrated in a thin layer in the disk.

C. Are found in different places: dust primarily in the disk and gas primarily in the halo.

D. Are found in different places: gas primarily in the disk and dust primarily in the halo.

28. Sir William Herschel counted the number of stars in different directions, and getting similar numbers in each direction along the disk, concluded the Sun was near the center of a disk-like collection of stars.

Herschel came to the wrong conclusion about the Sun's location because…

A He was predisposed to believe the Sun was in the center of the Milky Way, and ignored data which . disagreed with that conclusion.

B. He did not know that interstellar dust made it hard for him to see a large part of the Milky Way's disk.

C. He only counted globular clusters, and not regular stars.

D. The Sun's position in the Milky Way at that particular time was very unusual and skewed his results.

29. The Milky Way is tilted on the sky because A. It's appearance depends entirely on where you are on the Earth.

B. The solar system is tilted compared to the disk of the galaxy.

C. The Sun's gravity deflects incoming starlight.

D. The disk of the galaxy is warped.

30. Most of the stars visible to the naked eye at night are _________, which are _________. This result is a _________.

A. Massive, luminous stars or evolved giants; some of the least common by number but brightest stars; selection effect B. Cool yellow and red population I stars; dwarfs like or smaller than the Sun; stellar census C. Yellow dwarf stars; the most common stars in the galaxy; mass distribution D. Population II; extremely luminous; selection effect 31. One difference between Population I and Population II stars in the Milky Way is A. That Pop I stars produce energy by fusion and Pop II by fission.

B. That Pop I stars have very few metals and Pop II stars are metal rich.

C. That Pop I stars have orbits in the disk and Pop II stars have orbits that pass through the disk.

D. That Pop I stars produce energy by fusion and Pop II stars through gravitational contraction.

32. In general, Population I stars are _________ than Population II stars.

A. Older B. Younger C. The same age.

33. In general, Population I stars are _________ and Population II stars are _________.

A. Massive, dwarfs B. Dwarfs, massive C. Blue, red D. Red, blue 34. If you made a plot of open clusters on a star map, they would be A. Evenly scattered on the page B. Concentrated along the Galaxy's disk C. Clustered away from the Galactic bulge D. Spherically arranged in a halo 35. Which statement is not true about open clusters?

A.After a molecular cloud has collapsed and formed many stars, the cloud dissipates and the stars spread out into an open cluster.

B. Open clusters usually contain many blue stars.

C. Open clusters are gravitationally bound and therefore have a spherical shape.

D. Open clusters typically contain dozens to hundreds of stars.

36. In a telescopic observation of a field of stars, you see an irregular dark patch. This is most likely A. An area where there are no stars.

B. A black hole.

C. The dusty center of a globular cluster.

D. A dark nebula.

37. A bright red nebula is called an HII region when it contains A. Molecular hydrogen gas, H2.

B. Hot hydrogen gas thermally glowing.

C. Hydrogen atoms which have been ionized by ultraviolet radiation.

D. Hydrogen which is generating 21 cm radio waves.

38. Compared to a cold molecular cloud at 10 K, an HII region has a temperature about A. 1,000,000 times hotter B. 1000 times hotter C. 10 times hotter D. The same 39. According to the density-wave theory, spiral arms are blue because they A. Contain many reflection nebulae from sites of young star formation.

B. Contain only young stars, whose formation was triggered by the explosion of older red stars just in front of the spiral arm.

C. Contain a lot of young stars formed from clouds compressed by the density wave.

D. Have too much metal content to form red stars.

40. Astronomers believe that the massive object at the center of the Milky Way is a black hole because A. Images show an accretion disk surrounding an empty spot.

B. Gravitational wave measurements indicate a black hole is there.

C. Observations at X-ray, infrared and radio limit the size of the object to smaller than 10 AU. D. It is necessary to explain the galaxy's rotation curve.

41. Astronomers have found the black hole at the center of the Milky Way has a mass of about _________ solar masses.

A. 50 B. 5 hundred thousand C. 5 million D. 5 billion 42. The ______ theory offers a likely explanation for the formation of _____.

A. High rotation speed; spiral arms B. Density wave; galactic bulge C. Density wave; spiral arms D. High rotation speed; dark matter 43. The Milky Way has no sharply defined outer edge.

True False 44. New surveys suggest brown dwarfs, stars under the critical mass for stable fusion, probably outnumber normal stars in our galaxy.

True False 45. Of the normal matter in the Milky Way, the vast majority of the mass is in the form of gas and dust.

True False 46. The Milky Way shows evidence that over its history it has merged with and "cannibalized" smaller galaxies.

True False 47. Astronomers can measure the diameter of our Milky Way Galaxy by plotting the position of globular star clusters.

True False 48. The solar system is located about 8.5 kiloparsecs away from the galactic center.

True False

49. The estimated age of the Milky Way galaxy is about 13 billion years.

True False 50. The main parts of the Milky Way galaxy are the disk, the bulge and the halo.

True False 51. Associations are loose groups of young stars in the spiral arms usually mingled with large clouds of gas and dust.

True False 52. Dust accounts for about 1% of the total mass of interstellar matter.

True False 53. The zone of avoidance is caused by dust in the galactic disk that hides stars and galaxies behind it.

True False 54. We know that galaxies exist in the zone of avoidance because we can detect them using radio telescopes.

True False 55. 21 cm emission is radiated by hydrogen atoms when electrons drop from the n = 2 energy level to the n = 1 energy level.

True False 56. Astronomers believe that the intense radio wavelength energy observed in Sagittarius A* is emitted by a massive black hole at the center of the Milky Way galaxy.

True False

16 Key 1. D 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. B 8. D 9. B 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. E 16. B 17. A 18. A 19. A 20. A 21. C 22. B 23. D 24. B 25. D 26. A 27. B 28. B 29. B 30. A 31. C 32. B 33. C 34. B 35. C 36. D

37. C 38. B 39. C 40. C 41. C 42. C 43. TRUE 44. TRUE 45. FALSE 46. TRUE 47. TRUE 48. TRUE 49. TRUE 50. TRUE 51. TRUE 52. TRUE 53. TRUE 54. TRUE 55. FALSE 56. TRUE

16 Summary Category Arny - Chapter 16

# of Questions 56

17 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1.

The most elongated of the elliptical galaxies are class: A. Ea B. Sb C. E0 D. E7 E. Irr 1

2.

The most circular of the elliptical galaxies are class: A. Ea B. Sb C. E0 D. E7 E. Irr 1

3.

Most of the Seyfert galaxies are __________.

A. Elliptical B. Spiral C. Irregular

4.

A supercluster is a A. Group of globular star clusters B. Group of open star clusters C. Cluster of several dozen galaxy clusters D. All of the above

5.

A/an _______ galaxy is the result of the collision and merger of galaxies that leave little gas remaining in the system.

A. Elliptical B. Spiral C. Irregular D. Barred spiral

6.

The Local Group is A. The name of the spiral arm of our Galaxy in which the Sun is located B. The group of planets around the Sun C. A star cluster to which the Sun belongs D. A cluster of galaxies in which the Milky Way is located

7.

The Hubble Law does not work for nearby galaxies because A. It is difficult to take the spectrum of nearby galaxies as compared to distant galaxies B. The speed of nearby galaxies is affected by their gravitational interaction with one another C. Nearby galaxies are contracting rather than expanding D. The Hubble Law works for all galaxies; distance doesn't matter

8.

An encounter in which a large galaxy absorbs a smaller galaxy is referred to as A. A "splash encounter" B. A "big merger" C. "Galactic cannibalism" D. An "unbalanced merger"

9.

What makes the nucleus of an active galaxy so powerful?

A. The Sun B. A large amount of gas and dust C. A massive black hole D. Globular clusters

10. ______ are the quasars seen directly down the axis of their powerful jets.

A. Seyfert galaxies B. Radio galaxies C. Peculiar Galaxies D. Blazars 11. What is a rich cluster of galaxies?

A. A cluster (like our Local Group) that contains at least two large galaxies B. A cluster of galaxies which is rich in colors C. A metal-rich cluster of galaxies D. A cluster containing thousands of galaxies 12. Voids are A. Spaces between planets B. Holes in the Venusian cloud deck C. Huge regions of space with few or no galaxies D. Regions in the centers of galaxies containing many black holes 13. What is the "rotation curve" of a galaxy?

A. It is a graph of the orbital velocities at various distances from the center of the galaxy B. It is a graph of the speed at the center of the galaxy C. It is the recession speed of galaxies at various distances from the Milky Way D. It is the speed of the globular clusters in a galaxy 14. What is one piece of evidence for dark matter?

A. The presence of neutrinos B. The fact that the rotation curves of most galaxies become flat at large distances from the center C. The existence of many planetary systems D. The existence of many dark cool dust clouds that do not emit radiation 15. In attempting to find the missing matter that seems to be required to explain observed properties of galaxies and clusters, astronomers have been able to rule out which populations?

A. Black holes B. Hot and cold gas C. Weakly interacting massive particles D. Dead white dwarfs 16. Which of the following are active galaxies?

A. Radio Galaxies B. Quasars C. Seyfert Galaxies D. All of the above E. Both A and C 17. Seyfert Galaxies are A. Bright elliptical galaxies B. Small irregular galaxies C. Spiral galaxies whose nucleus is abnormally luminous D. Isolated black holes emitting radio waves E. None of the above

18. Which of the following statements about quasars is not correct?

A. Their spectra have the largest red shifts observed B. They are probably the most distant observable objects C. They have abnormally high luminosities D. Their cores are extremely large, probably several thousand light years across E. Sometimes they appear in pairs, due to gravitational lenses formed by intervening galaxies 19. What observational evidence suggests that the centers of quasars are small, about a fraction of a light year?

A. The fact that quasars emit long wavelength radiation B. Photographs of quasars C. They emit radiation over a very wide range of wavelengths D. The intensity of their radiation fluctuates over periods of months E. All of the above 20. What is the origin of synchrotron radiation in radio galaxies?

A. High speed electrons spiraling around the magnetic field lines B. Supernova explosions C. Neutron stars at the center of the radio galaxy D. Hydrogen gas E. Radiation from a massive black hole at the center of the galaxy 21. What is the origin of the lobes often observed on opposite sides of radio galaxies?

A. Gas ejected from the core of the galaxy B. High speed electrons colliding with gas surrounding the galaxy C. Hot planetary nebulas surrounding the galaxy D. Black holes orbiting the center E. Material pulled in by gravity 22. Astronomers speculate that most galaxies have a massive black hole at their center. What could be the origin of the suspected black hole?

A. First, a supernova explosion formed a black hole, which in time became more massive by accretion B. The collision of galaxies C. The gravitational attraction drew in stars from the disk D. The rapid rotation of the galaxy that compressed material to high densities E. Dark matter at the galactic center 23. Which of the following provides evidence for the existence of dark matter?

A. The orbital speeds of stars in galaxies are higher than what can be accounted for by the detectable mass in the galaxy B. The orbital speeds of galaxies in clusters are higher than what can be accounted for by the detectable mass of the cluster C. The ability of rich galaxy clusters to prevent their hot gases from expanding D. All of the above E. Both B and C 24. What is the most likely outcome after the collision between two spiral galaxies?

A. The destruction of most of their stars B. Enhanced formation of new stars C. Formation of a larger galaxy D. All of the above E. Both B and C 25. A(n) ___ type galaxy is ___ with elongated central regions.

A. Sa; a spiral galaxy B. E0; an elliptical galaxy C. E7; a spiral galaxy D. SB; a spiral galaxy

26. _____ galaxies contain mostly Population II stars; while _____ galaxies contain both Population I and Population II stars.

A. Irregular; elliptical B. Elliptical; spiral C. Irregular; spiral D. Spiral; elliptical 27. _____ type galaxies contain ____ because they have not used up their gas and dust in making _____.

A. Irregular; large amounts of gas and dust; stars B. Elliptical; large amounts of gas and dust; a disk C. Spherical; small amounts of gas and dust; stars D. Spiral; small amounts of gas and dust; dark clouds 28. Which of the following objects are difficult to model as existing in large enough numbers to significantly explain the effects of "dark matter"?

A. Black holes B. Planetesimal sized objects C. Cold white dwarfs D. All of the above E. Only A and C. 29. ____ galaxies have smaller nuclei and loosely wound arms compared to ____ galaxies.

A. Sd; Sc B. Sa; Sb C. Sa; S0 D. E0; S0 30. _____ form when galaxies collide and _____.

A. S0 galaxies; all their stars are destroyed B. Starburst galaxies; star formation is triggered, making them very bright C. Quasars; emit large amounts of heat and radiowaves D. Starburst galaxies; all their stars are destroyed 31. The accurate determination of star distances by the method of standard candles requires accurate knowledge of the _____ of the standard candle.

A. Speed B. Luminosity C. Temperature D. Size 32. Cepheid variables can be used as _____ because measurement of their _____ period allows astronomers to determine the ____ of the Cepheid.

A. Standard candles; rotation; distance B. Intergalactic probes; rotation; luminosity C. Intergalactic probes; pulsation; distance D. Standard candles; pulsation; luminosity 33. Hubble's law implies that the _____ galaxies have larger _____ in their spectral lines.

A. More distant; red shift B. More distant; blue shift C. Nearby; blue shift D. Nearby; red shift 34. Hubble's law is not applicable to ____ because the motion of these galaxies is affected by ______.

A. Elliptical galaxies; their rotation B. Spiral galaxies; their spiral arms C. Distant galaxies; intervening dust D. Galaxies in the Local Group; gravitational interaction with the Milky Way

35. _______ galaxies may contain a few million to few trillion solar masses.

A. Spiral B. Elliptical C. Irregular D. Independent of their type 36. The observation that outer parts of galaxies rotate faster than the observable mass within their orbit can pull them implies that ____.

A. Galaxies are unstable B. All galaxies will eventually develop a bulge C. In time, galaxies will develop spiral arms D. The masses of galaxies are larger than their luminous mass E. None of the above 37. In their search for dark matter, astronomers can exclude the possibility that cold gas clouds account for dark matter because cold gas clouds ____.

A. Have very low mass B. Would be detectable by radio telescopes C. Do not produce gravitational force D. Would emit visible spectral lines E. Would slow down the rotation of the galaxy 38. Suppose that an astronomer discovers an active galaxy, and that the intensity of the radiation from the galactic nucleus fluctuates in intervals of 8 minutes. Based on her observations, the astronomer should infer that the active nucleus of this galaxy is about ___ in diameter. (Hint: It takes light about 8 minutes to reach the Earth from the Sun) A. 1 AU B. 1 Mpc C. 8 AU D. 8 light years 39. Astronomers believe that the X-ray radiation from the nuclei of active galaxies comes from _____.

A. A black hole B. From the accretion disk around a massive black hole C. From gravity waves D. From magnetic fields 40. The majority of galaxies in rich clusters are ____ while poor clusters contain high proportion of ____ galaxies.

A. Elliptical and S0 type; spiral and irregular B. Elliptical and spiral; irregular C. Spiral; irregular D. Elliptical and irregular; spiral and S0 type E. Spiral and irregular; elliptical and S0 type 41. The _____ that is affecting the motion of the Local Group is believed to be a yet unseen _____.

A. Great Wall; super-massive black hole B. Great Wall; Great Attractor C. Great Attractor; super-massive black hole D. Great Attractor; cluster of superclusters 42. You measure Cepheid variables in galaxy A and galaxy B. Both Cepheids have the same period, but the one in Galaxy B appears 16 times brighter than the other. You conclude A. Galaxy B is 4 times more distant than galaxy A. B. Galaxy B is 16 times more distant than galaxy A. C. Galaxy B is 16 × 16 = 256 times more distant that galaxy A. D. Galaxy A is 16 × 16 = 256 times more distant that galaxy B. E. Galaxy A is 4 times more distant than galaxy B.

43. Most galaxies have remained the same type and size since they formed.

True False 44. All spiral and elliptical galaxies are believed to have at least one massive black hole at their center.

True False 45. The Hubble Law does not work for nearby galaxies.

True False 46. Although dark matter is invisible, its location can be mapped by its gravitational lensing effect on background objects.

True False 47. A spiral galaxy is the result of the collision and merger of galaxies that leave moderate to large amounts of gas in the system.

True False 48. Irregular galaxies, although small in size, have lots of star formation taking place in them.

True False 49. When viewed through a small telescope, galaxies have a fuzzy appearance.

True False 50. The NGC (New General Catalog) is a compilation started by Herschel, and lists galaxies and other astronomical objects.

True False 51. Hubble was the first to classify galaxies in three main types: Spirals, Ellipticals and Irregulars.

True False 52. Hubble's tuning fork diagram represents the evolution path of galaxies from elliptical to spiral.

True False 53. The majority of galaxies in the local group are irregulars and small ellipticals. This fact proves that the majority of galaxies in the Universe are of the irregular or the small elliptical type.

True False 54. The disks of spiral galaxies generally rotate with higher speed than elliptical galaxies of the same size.

True False 55. Galactic cannibalism is the capture of the stars in a smaller galaxy by a larger galaxy during collision between the two.

True False 56. Hubble's law can be applied to measure the distance of the constellation of Orion.

True False 57. The mass of a galaxy can be estimated using Newton's modification of Kepler's 3rd law.

True False 58. Active Galactic Nuclei is a term used to indicate the centers of quasars, radio-galaxies and Seyfert galaxies.

True False 59. Active galaxies are believed to have massive black holes at their centers.

True False 60. The only evidence that astronomers have supporting the hypothesis that quasars are very distant objects is the fact that spectral lines of quasars have huge red shifts.

True False

61. Astronomers believe that the reason some quasars seem to have nearby companions with very similar properties is that quasars are often binary systems.

True False 62. Gravitational lenses formed by galaxy clusters can cause the images of some quasars to appear double.

True False 63. A quasar is a strong X-ray pulsar that emits radiation at set time intervals.

True False 64. The Local Group contains over two dozen galaxies, and therefore it is a rich cluster.

True False 65. A galaxy supercluster typically contains a few thousand clusters of galaxies.

True False 66. Quasars are rotating black holes resulting from the collapse of massive stars.

True False 67. The source of energy in quasars comes probably from hot gas in an accretion disk of a massive black hole.

True False

17 Key 1. D 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. D 11. D 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. B 16. D 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. A 21. B 22. A 23. D 24. E 25. D 26. B 27. A 28. D 29. A 30. B 31. B 32. D 33. A 34. D 35. B 36. D

37. B 38. A 39. B 40. A 41. D 42. E 43. FALSE 44. TRUE 45. TRUE 46. TRUE 47. TRUE 48. TRUE 49. TRUE 50. TRUE 51. TRUE 52. FALSE 53. FALSE 54. TRUE 55. TRUE 56. FALSE 57. TRUE 58. TRUE 59. TRUE 60. FALSE 61. FALSE 62. TRUE 63. FALSE 64. FALSE 65. FALSE 66. FALSE 67. TRUE

17 Summary Category Arny - Chapter 17

# of Questions 67

18 Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1.

Which sequence of events is in the correct chronological order?

A. Protons form, helium is produced, protons and electrons recombine into atoms, quarks form B. Protons form, quarks form, protons and electrons recombine into atoms, helium is produced C. Quarks form, protons form, protons and electrons recombine into atoms, helium is produced D. Quarks form, protons form, helium is produced, protons and electrons recombine into atoms

2.

The light travel time distance to the cosmic horizon is about _________.

A. 14 × 105 light years B. 14 × 107 light years C. 14 × 109 light years D. 14 × 1011 light years

3.

If the universe had _________, that would resolve Olber's paradox.

A. A finite age B. An edge in space C. Either A or B or both D. Only both A and B together

4.

In a positively curved Universe (the surface of the Earth has positive curvature), the angles of a triangle add up to A. Exactly 180 degrees B. More than 180 degrees C. Less than 180 degrees

5.

In a negatively curved Universe (like the surface of a saddle), the angles of a triangle add up to A. Exactly 180 degrees B. More than 180 degrees C. Less than 180 degrees

6.

The curvature of space can be measured by A. Drawing triangles on the surface of the Earth and adding up the angles.

B. By studying the redshift of light from distant galaxies.

C. By studying the ratio of Helium and Lithium produced in the big bang to Hydrogen.

D. Studying the fluctuations in the cosmic microwave background radiation.

7.

If Hubble's constant is actually twice the value we believe it to be (70 km/(s Mpc)), the universe would be A. Twice as old as we think it is.

B. Half as old as we think it is.

C. Four times as old as we think it is.

D. The same age.

8.

The discovery that the universe is expanding faster today than in the past was possible because of observations of A. Cepheid variable stars B. Type Ia (white-dwarf) supernovae C. Type II (core-collapse) supernovae D. Galaxy rotation curves

9.

The observational evidence in favor of the existence of dark energy involves using _________ to calculate _________.

A. The method of inflation, the distance to distant galaxies B. The method of standard candles, the distance to distant galaxies C. Hubble's law, the distance to distant galaxies D. Hubble's law, the age of the universe

10. Olber's paradox asks A. Why isn't the night sky bright as day?

B. Which is the simplest cosmological model?

C. If dark matter is dark, how can we ever see it?

D. How the universe can be younger than some of the stars in it?

11. The "light travel time distance" measures A. The distance light travels in one year B. How far the light from a galaxy would have traveled if the universe was not expanding C. The amount of time the Sun light takes to reach the Earth D. All of the above 12. The Big Bang refers to A. The creation of the solar system B. The creation of the moon C. The origin of the Universe D. The origin of the heavy elements in a supernova E. None of the above 13. If the density of the universe is less than the critical density, then A. The universe will expand forever B. The universal expansion must stop within about 20 billion years C. The universe will begin contracting immediately into the "Big Crunch" D. All of the above 14. The cosmic microwave background (CMB) radiation is A. Light from distant stars B. Radiation from pulsars C. Light from gravitational lenses D. Radiation from the birth of the Universe E. Energy emitted by black holes at the centers of the nearby galaxies 15. When the Universe was young, it was A. Bigger and colder B. Smaller and hotter C. Denser D. Both A and C E. Both B and C 16. The cosmic background radiation has a low temperature today because A. It is rich in heavy elements that absorb radiation very strongly B. The Universe has expanded and expansion causes cooling C. It was created with a low temperature D. It has gotten so far from the Sun E. All the stars that were heating it have burnt out 17. The age of the Universe can be deduced from A. Hubble's law B. Kepler's third law C. the Doppler shift law D. the Inverse square law E. Shapley's law

18. The study of the structure and evolution of the Universe is called _________.

A. Anthropology B. Cosmology C. Astrology D. Archaeology 19. Astronomers have found that the expansion of the Universe is _________.

A. Speeding up B. Slowing down C. Changing randomly D. Constant 20. Dark energy appears to make up approximately ______ of the Universe.

A. 90% B. 70% C. 10% D. 1% 21. Which of the following are predictions of inflation theories?

A. The Universe expanded rapidly over a short period of time B. The smaller initial size of the Universe allowed thorough mixing C. The cosmic microwave background must be uniform D. All of the above E. Both A and B 22. _____ provides experimental evidence that the Universe is expanding.

A. The Big Bang model B. The cosmological constant C. Hubble's law D. Dark matter 23. The inverse of Hubble's constant (1/H) gives the approximate _____.

A. Size of the Universe B. Age of the Universe C. Magnitude of the cosmic horizon D. Density of the Universe 24. According to the present estimates, the Universe is about ______ years old.

A. 14 × 105 B. 14 × 107 C. 14 × 109 D. 14 × 1011 25. The ____ is determined by the distance that ____ can travel in a time span equal to the age of the Universe.

A. Cosmic horizon; light B. Recession velocity; galaxies C. Event horizon; light 26. According to ______ the Universe appears ______ for any observer in the Universe.

A. Newton's laws; to expand uniformly B. The cosmological principle; to expand in the same way C. Olbers' paradox; uniform

27. The _____ and the ______ are difficulties for the Big Bang model that can be easily explained by _________.

A. Cosmic microwave background radiation; cosmological constant; the steady state model B. Cosmic microwave background radiation; critical density; the cosmological constant C. Flatness problem; horizon problem; inflationary models D. Dark energy; horizon problem; inflationary models 28. Recent measurement of the variations of the cosmic background radiation suggest that the curvature of the Universe is ______.

A. Positive B. Negative C. Flat (i.e., no curvature) 29. If the _____ of the Universe is _____ then the Universe will ____.

A. Density; larger than the critical density; expand forever B. Dark matter; more than the observed mass; expand forever C. Temperature; larger than the microwave background; re-collapse in a "Big Crunch" D. Density; larger than the critical density; re-collapse in a "Big Crunch" 30. In a flat Universe the angles of a triangle add up to ___.

A. Exactly 180 degrees B. Exactly 360 degrees C. Less than 180 degrees 31. According to the Big Bang model, most of the _____ in the Universe were formed ____.

A. Hydrogen and helium; during the first 3 minutes B. Hydrogen and helium; during supernova explosions C. Hydrogen and helium; in the interior of massive stars D. Heavy elements; during the first 3 minutes 32. According to the Big Bang model, in the earlier state of the Universe gamma rays converted into ____.

A. Pairs of matter and anti-matter B. Pairs of protons and neutrons C. Hydrogen and helium D. X-rays 33. It is difficult to use light from distant galaxies to compute the true physical distance to those galaxies today because the universe has expanded since it was emitted.

True False 34. One limit on the age of the universe is that it must be older than the oldest stars.

True False 35. Dark energy can exist in completely empty space.

True False 36. As space expands, everything in it is also getting bigger.

True False 37. At the time of recombination, all of the universe was about as hot as the surface of a red giant.

True False 38. Dark energy is speeding up the expansion of the Universe.

True False 39. We are at the center of the Universe, and hence, everything is expanding away from us.

True False

40. Hubble's law proves that the Universe started in a hot dense state.

True False 41. The Steady State model for the Universe is inconsistent with Hubble's law.

True False 42. The cosmic horizon is the distance beyond which there are no more stars or galaxies.

True False 43. An astronomer claims to have measured the spectrum of a nearby galaxy, and finds that the spectral lines are slightly blue-shifted. This result is unreliable because it violates Hubble's law.

True False 44. The cosmic microwave background radiation argues in favor of the Big Bang model.

True False 45. If the density of the Universe is less than the critical density, then the expansion of the Universe will continue indefinitely.

True False 46. The inflation theories of the Universe allow for the existence of other unobservable Universes that may be expanding or collapsing.

True False

18 Key 1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. B 8. B 9. B 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. D 15. E 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. B 21. D 22. C 23. B 24. C 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. C 29. D 30. A 31. A 32. A 33. TRUE 34. TRUE 35. TRUE 36. FALSE

37. TRUE 38. TRUE 39. FALSE 40. FALSE 41. FALSE 42. FALSE 43. FALSE 44. TRUE 45. TRUE 46. TRUE

18 Summary Category Arny - Chapter 18

# of Questions 46