2026 COURSE PREP FOR PATH 1000 Pathophysiology for Health-Care Professions (MIDTERM 2 COMBINED) ever

2026 COURSE PREP FOR PATH 1000 Pathophysiology for Health-Care Professions (MIDTERM 2 COMBINED) every possible question and correct answer provided NorQuest College

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What occurs in the body to prevent the clinical appearance of type 2 diabetes for many years? a. Compensatory Hyperinsulinemia. b. Increase levels of ketones c. Enhanced lipolysis of fats d. Decrease glycogen production Unregulated release of thrombin with subsequent fibrin formation is defined in which of the ff. disorders? a. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) b. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) c. Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) d. Essential thrombocytopenia (ET) A 27 y.o female recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, with clinical manifestation would she most likely exhibit as the condition progess? a. Hyperactivity b. Spoon-shaped nails c. Gait problems d. Petechiae What would be an expected finding in patient with untreated Cushing’s disease? a. Bradycardia b. Bradypnea c. Hyperkalemia d. Hypertension Bobby is 22 years old and has type 1 diabetes. During his workout he experiences dizziness, confusion and headache. Which of the following is the most probable cause of these symptoms? a. Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration b. Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise c. Hyperglycemia caused by not eating breakfast d. Hyperglycemia caused by not enough insulin given at breakfast.

What is the clinical finding of multiple myeloma? a. Hypercalcemia b. Leukocytosis c. Painful lymph nodes

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d. Fever A patient autoimmune gastritis has developed symptoms of paresthesia and difficulty walking. Which type of anemia is presenting? a. Sickle cell b. Pernicious c. Aplastic d. Iron deficit A client who has complete unawareness of the self or surrounding and complete loss of fxn is the definition of which of the ff.? a. Persistent vegetative state b. Minimally conscious state c. Locked in syndrome d. Encephalopathy A patient diagnose with Hashimoto’s disease would exhibit which clinical manifestation? a. Weight loss b. Bradycardia c. Tradycardia d. Pretibial edema

10. A 35 years old female is diagnosed with pernicious anemia. The most likely cause is a decrease in? a. Ferritin b. Gastric enzymes c. Intrinsic factor d. Erythropoietin 11. Which of the following conditions is characterized by an increase in pressure in the anterior chamber of the eye? a. Detached retina b. Cataract c. Macular degeneration d. Glaucoma 12. Which of the following statement best describe multiple sclerosis? a. A disease involving the degeneration of central nervous system myelin b. A disease caused by a cell mediated immunological reaction. c. A disease that is characterized by a depletion of dopamine d. A disease caused by bacteria resulting in inflammation 13. A patient had surgery 2 days ago and had an assessment, his speech is incoherent, he is agitated and hallucinating. They have been diagnosed with delirium. What is the underlying pathophysiology? a. Automatic nervous system overactivity b. Neuron degeneration c. Brain trauma d. Formation of neurotic plagues 14. Which of the following bacteria is the most likely to cause an otitis externa infection? a. Hemophilus Influenzae b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Moraxella catarrhalis d. Escherichia Coli 15. Which of the ff. clinical manifestation is shared by diabetes insipidus and syndrome of innapropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)? a. Polyphagia b. Edema c. Vomiting d. Thirst 16. Why does meningitis and subarachnoid hemorrhage appear to have similar symptoms? a. Both are a result of viral infection b. Both are a result of a bacterial infection c. Both increase CSF reabsorption d. Both occur in the subarachnoid space 17. Which of the following disorders has clinical manifestations that include decreased consciousness for up to 6 hours as well as retrograde and posttraumatic amnesia? a. Mild concussion b. Moderate c. Cortical contusion d. Acute subdural hematoma 18. A 19-year-old female with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with the following lab values: serum glucose 27.7 mmol/L (high), urine glucose and ketones 4+ (high), and arterial ph. 7.20 (low). Her parents state that she has been sick with the flu for a week. Which of the following statement best explains the possible cause of her acidotic state? a. Increase insulin level promote protein breakdown and ketone formation. b. Her uncontrolled diabetes has led to renal failure c. Low serum insulin promotes lipid storage and a corresponding release of ketones.

19. A patient was involved in an accident one week ago and obtained an injury to their spinal chord resulting in spinal shock. The patient is complaining of a severe headache and blurred vision. V/S were assessed and the BP is 200/125. What complication was occurred? a. Autonomic dysreflexia b. Acute anxiety attack c. Spinal cord lesion d. Parasympathetic areflexia 20. In diabetes insipidus, which classification is release to imsufficient secretion of ADH? a. Congenital b. Nephrogenic c. Neurogenic d. Gestational 21. A client has seizure activity that is continuous in nature. The seizure subsides and then immediately resumes and continues. What is the condition knows as? a. Anticonvulsant syndrome b. Status epilepticus c. Brain herniation d. Syphilitic posturing 22. Individuals vary in their ability to tolerate pain. Which factor can increase pain tolerance? a. Alcohol b. Boredom c. Lack of sleep d. Frequent painful experiences 23. Which of the following is a rare circulatory complication most likely to occur with long bone injuries? a. Fat embolism b. Bruising c. Infection d. Bacterial embolism 24. Which symptoms of Parkinson’s disease is related to autonomic neuro endocrine changes? a. Diaphoresis b. Tremor c. Rigidity d. Bradykinesia 25. Arousal is mediated by which of the following? a. Pons b. Medulla oblongata c. Reticular activating system d. Cerebellum 26. In Cushing disease what effect is related to increased mineralocorticoid levels? a. Decrease blood pressure b. Hypokalemia c. Weight loss d. Hyponatremia 27. What teaching should be provided regarding infections mononucleosis? a. Wear a mask at all times b. Isolate for 4 days c. Do not share drinks d. Increase vitamin c in diet

28. Case Study: Travon, a 24 year old male was using a nail gun and accidentally embedded a nail into the antecubital area of his left arm. Travon remove the nail and bright red blood began to spur from his arm.

Which type of shock is Travon most at risk for? a. Neurogenic (vasogenic) shock b. Anaphylactic shock c. Hypovolemic shock d. Septic shock 29. The pathophysiology of type 1 diabetes can be described as which of the following? a. Destruction of the pancreatic beta cells that produce insulin b. Destruction of the pancreatic alpha cell, which produce glycogen c. Decrease production of releasing hormones by the hypothalamus d. Increased insulin production by the pancreatic alpha cells.

30. What is the most common etiology of type 1 diabetes mellitus? a. Autoimmune b. Idiopathic c. Metabolic syndrome d. Obesity 31. What factors promotes venous thrombosis formation? a. Lower lobe pneumonia, acute delirium, brain injuries b. Venous stasis, endothelial damage, hyper- coagula table states. c. Endothelial damage, previous history of appendicitis, edema. d. Angina, poor bone density, use of St. John’s wort.

32. Which vitamin is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors? a. A b. D c. K d. B 33. Case study: Travon, a 25 year old male was using a nail gun and accidentally embedded a nail into the antecubital area of the left. Travon removed the nail and bright red blood began to spurt from his arm. What started his decreased oxygen deliver to the injured tissue? a. The release of the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. b. An inadequate number of red blood cells to deliver the oxygen c. Resulting vasoconstriction preventing adequate perfusion at the cellular level d. Impeded oxygen delivery due to the release of antidiuretic hormone 34. What terms describe an increase in platelet production? a. Pantocytopenia b. Lymphocytosis c. Thrombocytopenia d. Anemia 35. What is the most common condition associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? a. Hepatitis b. Thalassemia c. Sepsis d. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) 36. Which of the following occur in diabetic ketoacidosis? a. Decrease metabolism of fats and proteins b. Decreased levels of carbohydrates c. Increased metabolisms of fats and proteins d. Decreased levels of blood glucose

37. Which of the ff. statements is correct regarding transient ischemic attack (TIA)? a. TIA affect large areas of the brain b. TIA are a result of an embolus c. TIA last than one hour d. TIA are a result of heart failure 38. What is the most common cause of Addison disease? a. An autoimmune mechanism b. Hyperaldosteronism c. Adrenal medulla tumor d. Viral infection of the pituitary gland 39. An accidental hypothermia, what physiologic change shunts the blood away from the older skin to the body core in an effort to decrease heat loss? a. Hypotension and vasodilation b. Peripheral vasoconstriction c. Voluntary muscle movement d. Involuntary muscle movements 40. What clinical manifestation occurs in syndrome of inappropriate anti diuretic hormone (SIADH)? a. Peripheral edema b. Polyuria c. Glycosuria d. Concentrated urine 41. A patient was involved in an accident one week ago and obtained an injury to their spinal cord resulting spinal shock. The patient is complaining of a severe headache and blurred vision. V/S were assessed and the BP is 200/125. Why would these symptoms appear? a. Abnormal vagal response b. Toxic accumulation of free radicals c. Sudden decrease in glucose d. Distended bladder 42. A patient diagnose with a diffuse brain injury is at increase risk for which complication? a. Complete loss of vision b. Paralysis c. Acute brain swelling d. Meningitis infection 43. Match the ff. term to the example Radiation: heat loss from head on a cold day Convection: using a fan to cool body Evaporation: sweating on a hot day Conduction: sitting on cold chain 44. A 30 year old presents with hematuria, menorrhagia, and bleeding gums. And is diagnosed with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). What is the most likely cause? a. Allergy induced platelets lysis b. An immune response to hyperpleurism c. Antibody destruction of platelets d. T-cell injury to megakaryocytes 45. What is dyspraxia? a. An increase in mental awareness and function b. Mild memory loss that is intermittent in nature c. Difficulty executing coordinated motor movement d. A calming and slowing of all reflexes

46. Which of the ff. are typical signs of Grave’s disease? a. Goiter and decreased Base Metabolic Rate (BMR)? b. Hot intolerance and restlessness c. Facial puffiness and bradycardia d. Lethargy and loss of hair 47. What is the correlation between untreated hypertension and left sided heart failure? a. Hypertension caused by ventricle dilation and wall thinning b. Hypertension caused myocardial hypertrophy and remodelling c. Hypertension affected alpha and beta receptor function d. Hypertension inhibits release of renin and aldosterone 48. An individual with polycythemia vera is at increased risk for which condition? a. Thrombus b. Anemia c. Bradycardia d. Orthostatic hypotension 49. Cushing disease and Addison disease can manifest with elevated levels of which hormone? a. Antidiuretic b. Parathyroid c. Adrenocorticotropic d. Thyroxine 50. Which of the ff. clinical manifestations would a client with hyperthyroidism experience? a. Heat intolerance and increased tissue sensitivity b. Weight gain and cold intolerance c. Periorbital edema and puffy face d. Coarse brittle hair and muscle weakness 51. A child with sensory allergies to pollens is an increased risk for which condition? a. Keratitis b. Otitis externa c. Viral conjunctivitis d. Otitis media

PATHOPHYSIOLOGY MIDTERM REVIERW # 2

1. Pain Perception Nociception (perception of pain) depends on receptors & pathways.

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2. Aging and Temperature Regulation : Slowed blood circulation, structural & functional changes in skin, decrease heat producing activities and shivering response, slowed metabolic rate ANSWER

3. Focal brain injury Observable brain lesions, contusions, closed brain injury.

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4. Reticular Activating System attention center of brain, regulates attention/ information processing, maintains wakefulness and arousal, posture, and balance ANSWER:

5. Fixed, Dilated, Pinpoint, sluggish what do these identify?

Brainstem dysfunction, part of GCS and Neurological testing ANSWER:

6. Diabetes Type 1 Autoimmune destruction pancreatic islet cellsbeta cells = absent of insulin leads to blood glucose levels increase ANSWER:

7. Oculomotor Response Eye movements & reflexes change with brain dysfunction ANSWER:

8. Motor Response Dyspraxia- difficult coordinating movement, purposeful, inappropriate, or not present ANSWER:

9. Acute vs Chronic Pain Acute- protective mechanism, sudden onset, resolves after stimulus is removed/ healed. Chronicprolonged 3 months +, insidious onset ANSWER:

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Define Cerebral Death

Irreversible coma, no behavioral or environmental responses, continues to maintain normal respiratory, cardiac function, temp control and GI functioning ANSWER:

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What are clinical manifestations for Acute Confusional States Impaired/ lost detection, fluctuating symptoms, confusion/ restlessness, inability to focus, delusions, hallucinations, perseveration, impaired vigilance ANSWER:

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Define OPQRSTUV

O- onset, P- Perception, Q- Quality, R- Region, S- Severity, T- Time/Treatment, U- Understanding, VValue ANSWER:

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Primary injury: Traumatic brain injury?

Caused by impact, involves neural injury, primary glial injury, vascular responses and shearing/ rotational forces ANSWER:

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Coup injury, Contrecoup and Contusions

Coup- injury directly below impact, Contrecoupinjury to side opposite impact, Contusions- Epidural/ subdural/ intracerebral hematoma ANSWER:

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Primary Spinal Cord Injury

Initial mechanical trauma, tissue destruction, inadequate mobility ANSWER:

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Spinal Shock Clinical manifestations?

Loss of reflex function, flaccid paralysis, loss of bladder/rectal control, transient drop in BP, poor thermal regulation ANSWER:

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Etiology SIADH?

Ectopic secretion by tumor cells, CNS disorders, Pulmonary disorders (pneumonia), Medications (chemo) ANSWER:

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Increased levels ADH- Increase renal water retention- Increase ECF volume- Hyponatremia indication of?

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Pathology of SIADH Neurogenic Diabetes Insipidus

Most common type, Decrease ADH levels, abrupt onset, due to tumors, lesions, aneurysms, infection ANSWER:

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Type 2 Diabetes

Resistance to insulin in peripheral tissuesdecrease use of insulin, inadequate levels insulin and peripheral resistance to insulin = Beta cells poor response to circulating blood glucose/ increase insulin level ANSWER:

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Diabetic Ketoacidosis

Complication of Hyperglycemia, slow onset, triggered by increase demands for insulin, stressful situations, infections ANSWER:

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Neuropathic pain

Trauma/disease to PNS/CNS, Injured nerves/ hyperexcitable or due to lesion/ dysfunction of brain/ spinal cord ANSWER:

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Anaphylactic Shock

Widespread hypersensitivity to allergen, cause vasodilation, peripheral pooling and hypovolemia ANSWER:

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Define types of Cerebral edema?

Vasogenic- increased permeability of capillary endothelium of the brain after injury. Cytotoxic- toxins ANSWER:

impact brain parenchyma, failure of active transport systems. Interstitial- trans ependymal movement of CSF in ventricles – extracellular (brain tissue) 25.

Symptoms of Cushing's Disease

Weight gain, moon face, buffalo hump, truncal obesity, hyperglycemia, Hirsutism, weak skin (striae) ANSWER:

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Fatigue, weakness, dyspnea, elevated heart rate and pallor what do these indicate?

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Classic Anemia Symptoms

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Syncope, angina, compensatory tachycardia, organ dysfunction indicates what?

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Hypoxia

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Macrocytic- Normochromic Anemia: Pernicious anemia Highly injurious/ destructive, most common, due to vitamin B12 deficiency, lack intrinsic factor from gastric parietal cells ANSWER:

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Cardiogenic Shock

Inadequate/ ineffective cardiac pumping= decrease blood flow to tissues and organs, heart contractibility ineffective = decrease CO ANSWER:

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Identify the causes of Increased Intercranial pressure?

Tumor growth, edema, excessive CSF, hemorrhage.

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Aplastic Anemia Clinical manifestations?

Hypoxemia, pallor, weakness with fever/dyspnea with rapid signs of hemorrhaging ANSWER:

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Chronic Venous insufficiency

Inadequate venous return, due to varicose veins/ valvular incompetence, venous stasis ulcer ANSWER:

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Left sided heart failure Clinical Manifestations?

Dyspnea, Orthopnea, Frothy sputum, pulmonary edema, cough.

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Hypertension is indicated by what?

Elevated BP greater than 140/90, increase cardiac output/ peripheral resistance ANSWER:

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Stable Angina

Called angina pectoris, gradual narrowing/ hardening of arterial walls, transient substernal painbuild up lactic acid, pain recurrent/ predictable, rest and nitrates alleviate ANSWER:

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Microvascular Chronic complications Diabetes

changes to circulation in small vessels, glycation = obstruction/ rupture of capillaries (retina, kidney, nerves) ANSWER:

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Myocardial Infarction Clinical manifestations?

Persistent chest pain, pallor, diaphoresis, nausea/vomiting, rapid pulse, no relieve from nitroglycerin or rest ANSWER:

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Pathophysiology of Aortic stenosis?

Aortic semilunar valve narrows- decrease blood flow from left ventricle to aorta- left ventricle hypertrophy develops- increase myocardial O2 demands ANSWER:

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Septic Shock

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome, triggered by gram +/- bacteria, inflammatory response = release of chemical mediators ANSWER:

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Right sided heart failure clinical manifestations?

Peripheral edema, Ascites, weight gain, hepatosplenomegaly, Jugular vein distension ANSWER:

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Deep Vein Thrombosis

Clot formation in large veins of lower extremities, untreated= increased risk thromboembolization, due to venous stasis, endothelial damage, hypercoagulable state ANSWER:

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Hypovolemic Shock

ANSWER: Loss of whole blood, plasma, interstitial fluid in large amounts, catecholamines= increase HR and SVR 43.

Delirium

ANSWER: Acute state of brain dysfunction, abrupt onset, ANS overactive. Common: ICU patients, Postsurgical, withdrawal CNS depressants 44.

Neurogenic Shock

ANSWER: Trauma to spinal cord= sudden loss of autonomic and motor reflexes, with out SNS stimulation = vessel walls relax = vasodilation, hypotension, and bradycardia 45.

Angina type

ANSWER: Printz metals Variant angina- vasospasm, Chronic stable angina- fixed stenosis, Unstable angina- thrombus 46.

Delirium Clinical manifestations

ANSWER: Difficulty concentrating, restlessness, irritability, Insomnia, Tremulousness, poor appetite 47.

Parkinson's disease Clinical Manifestations?

wide- eyed, unblinking, staring expression with immobile facial muscles, frequent drooling, slow gait, short/shuffling steps, flexed/ abducted arms stiff at sides, slightly forward trunk gait ANSWER:

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Lower motor neuron syndrome?

Impaired voluntary/ involuntary movements, degree paralysis/paresis proportional to number of impacted neurons, flaccid paresis/ paralysis, hyporeflexia/ areflexia, gamma neuropathies ANSWER:

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Heat stroke presents with what symptoms?

Irritability, confusion, stuporous, visual disturbances, rapid temperature increase, cerebral edema, more often in children ANSWER:

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Alzheimer's disease pathology?

No known call, Neurofibrillary tangles, Neurotic/senile plaques ANSWER:

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Fat Embolism

Trauma to long bones causing globules of fat to form in blood from bone marrow, platelets adhere to fat globules ANSWER:

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Define Seizure?

ANSWER: sudden, transient alteration of brain function due to abrupt explosive, disorderly discharge of cerebral neurons 53.

Excessive movement, chorea, wandering, tremors at rest and postural tremors are signs of what?

ANSWER: Hyperkinesia 54.

Upper motor neuron syndromes?

ANSWER: Hemiparesis, diplegia, paraparesis/paraplegia, quadriparesis/quadriplegia, pyramidal motor syndrome, spinal shock 55.

Define Glaucoma

ANSWER: Disease of optic nerve, pressure in anterior chamber of eye, progressive visual loss, increased intraocular pressure, open/closed angle

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Embolic Stroke?

Formed outside brain, fragments thrombus breaks/ travels through circulation, involves obstruction in small vessels or bifurcation- ischemia ANSWER:

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Multiple Sclerosis clinical manifestations?

Paresthesia: (face, trunk, limbs), impaired vision, inflammation & swelling optic disc, nystagmus ANSWER:

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Hypothyroidism clinical manifestations?

Fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, severe constipation, bradycardia, goiter, myxedema ANSWER:

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Diabetic Neuropathy impacts the body how?

Thickening, sclerosis, ischemia of vessels, demyelination, delayed conduction ANSWER:

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Thrombocythemia is?

Thrombocytosis, increased platelet count, primary (reactive) or secondary, leads to increased risk of clotting ANSWER:

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Dementia is?

Progressive failure cerebral function, gradual onset, nerve cell degeneration & brain atrophy, impacts of gradual age changes ANSWER:

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Stages of non-REM Sleep?

Stage 1- light sleep, Stage 2- slow eye movements, Stage 3- sleep spindles & no eye movements, Stage 4- delta waves ANSWER:

1. In acute acidosis, which of the following electrolytes will shift intracellular to extracellular space to balance the charges across membrane a) Magnesium b) Potassium c) Calcium d) Sodium Answer: Potassium 2. Match the following types of necrosis with their descriptionsa) Liquefactive b) Coagulative c) Fatty d) Caseous Descriptionsa. Occurs as a result of hypoxia albumin denatured and becomes firm b. Results from tuberculosis infection, tissue soft and granular c. Ischemic Injury to nervous tissue, tissue becomes soft, liquefies forming cysts d. Caused the enzyme lipase, tissue appears to be opaque and chalk-white Answer: C, A, D, B 3. what secondary process can necrosis initiate in surrounding tissue that will increase a cell's injury?

Answer: find the answer (written response) 4. When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus what type of immune reaction occurs? a) Autoimmune b) Anaphylaxis c) Alloimmune

d) Allergic Answer: Alloimmune 5. Blood pressure is referred to as which type of Starling force a) interstitial oncotic pressure b) Capillary hydrostatic pressure c) Plasma oncotic pressure d) Interstitial hydrostatic pressure Answer: Capillary hydrostatic pressure 6. What common sign should be assessed in individuals with Immunodeficiency? a) Photosensivity b) Recurrent infection c) Hypersensivity d) Skin indurations Answer: Recurrent infection 7. Hyponatremia can cause hypo-oslmolality with movement of water between cell membrane. The water movement would result in which of the following changes? a) Equilibriums between extracellular and intracellular solutes b) Low intracellular solutes resulting in cell swelling c) High extracellular solutes resulting in cell swelling d) low extracellular solutes resulting in swelling Answer: low extracellular solutes resulting in swelling 8. In Southern Alberta there was a dramatic increase in measles cases. What term is used to define this statement? a) Morbidity b) Epidemic c) Prevalence

d) Endemic Answer: Epidemic.

9. Which cell is responsible for maintaining genomic integrity thereby protecting against the development of cancer? a) Oncogenes b) Caretaker genes c) Oncomir genes d) Tumor suppressor genes Answer: Caretaker genes 10. A 10-year-old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He begins itching and develops pain, swelling redness, and respiratory difficulties. What is occurring? a) IgG mediated response b) IgM mediated response c) IgE mediated response d) IgA mediated response Answer: IgE mediated response 11. An ill patient has been experiencing chronic diarrhea. Which acid base inbalance would most likely to occur? Which electrolyte would be affected? a) Respiratory acidosis, hyponatremia b) Metabolic acidosis, hypokalemia c) Metabolic alkalosis, hypernatremia d) Respiratory alkalosis, hyperkalemia Answer: Metabolic alkalosis, hypernatremia 12. which of the following best describes the effect of cortisol during a stress response?

Select onea) cortisol exerts a beneficial effect by inhibiting initial inflammatory effects

b) cortisol exerts a negative effect by inhibiting initial inflammatory effects c) cortisol promotes activity of TH1 cells which increase innate immunity d) cortisol stimulates activity of TH2 cells which decrease adaptive immunity Answer: cortisol exerts a beneficial effect by inhibiting initial inflammatory effects 13. match the following terms a) communicability b) virulence c) portal of entry d) pathogencity e) toxigenicity

DescriptionsA. influenza virus from one individual to another B. infectious virus multiplying in a host C. influenza virus causing severe acute respiratory syndrome D. influenza virus causing damage to lung tissue E. Influenza virus producing endotoxins Answer: A, C, B, D, E 14. What type of immunity is produced after a person experiences natural exposure to an antigen? a) Passive-acquired immunity b) Active-Acquired immunity c) Passive innate immunity d) Active innate Immunity Answer: Active-Acquired immunity

15. A 25-year-old male develops a tumour of the breast glandular tissue. What type of tumour will be documented on the chair? a) Carcinoma b) Adenocarcinoma c) Sarcoma d) Lymphoma Answer: Adenocarcinoma 16. A patient that has had recent operation has developed pneumonia. What term is used to describe this outcome? a) Complication b) Nosocomial c) Diagnosis d) Exacerbation Answer: Complication 17. Which of the following is true regarding Cell-mediated immunity? a) It is mediated by B cells b) It is from cells matured in the bone marrow c) It is the direct attack of activated T cell lymphocytes d) It is characterized by antigen-specific immunoglobulin Answer: It is the direct attack of activated T cell lymphocytes 18. An individual was exposed to a virus during a party. Almost everyone who attended the party become ill with the virus What is the best term to describe this? a) Immunogenicity b) Virulence c) Toxigenicity d) Opportunistic infection

Answer: Virulence 19. The buffer system's main function is to regulate which ions? a) Phosphates b) Sodium c) Hydrogen d) Potassium Answer: Hydrogen 20. What is the defining characteristic of a secondary immune response? a) There is a rapid production of antibodies b) It involves a latent period c) it sensitizes the immune system d) The predominant antibody is IgM Answer: There is a rapid production of antibodies 21. Which of the following statements is true about pH and acidosis? a) Alkaline solutions have hydrogen ion concentration higher than in acidic solutions b) High hydrogen ion concentration results in low pH value c) Acidic solution have hydrogen ion concentration lower than in alkaline solutions d) High hydrogen ion concentration results in high the pH value Answer: High hydrogen ion concentration results in low pH value 22. Isovolemic hyponatremia would be most commonly found with which individual? a) 80 year old on low sodium diet b) 45 year old who eats high fat, high salt diet c) 25 year old vegetarian d) 60 year old with severe diarrhea and vomiting Answer: 60 year old with severe diarrhea and vomiting

23. Hereditary and genetic factors can play role in increasing risk of the following types of cancer? a) Ovarian b) Bone c) Pancreatic d) Lung Answer: Ovarian 24. A 30-year-old female is diagnosed with cancer. Testing reveals that the cancer cells have spread to lymph nodes near the primary site. This cancer would be documented asa) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: 3 25. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of a type 1 hypersensitivity response to an ingested substance? a) Urticaria b) Psoriasis c) Contact dermatitis d) Discoid rash Answer: Urticaria 26. Which protein plays a major role in plasma buffer system? a) Fibrinogen b) Hemoglobin c) Prothrombin d) Albumin

Answer: Hemoglobin 27. Which patient is at a higher risk of hypomagnesium? a) A 50 year old with long-term use of laxative b) A 50 year old who just had a bone fracture c) A 50 year old with excessive intake of antapds d) A 50 year old chronic alcoholic Answer: A 50 year old chronic alcoholic 28. In the later stages of inflammatory response, which type of phagocytic cell is predominant? a) Neutrophils b) Monocytes c) Chemokines d) Eosinophils Answer: Neutrophils 29. What term is used to describe when a cancer is only in the epithelium and has not penetrated the basement membrane?

Answer: find the answer (written response) 30. The most common route of metastasis is through the blood vessels and _. a) Lung tissue b) Body cavities c) Lymphatic system d) Connective tissues Answer: Lymphatic system 31. A female student is driving to school when another driver nearly hits her. Her heart begins beating harder and faster. Which of the following stages of the general adaptation syndrome is she experiencing? a) Alarm stage

b) Stage of resistance c) Adaptation stage d) Exhaustion stage Answer: Alarm stage 32. Which of the following best describes the main differences between necrosis and apoptosis? a) Necrosis is a form of cellular adaptation whereas apoptosis is a form of cell differentiation. b) Necrosis is a type of cancer and apoptosis is a type of reversible cellular change. c) Necrosis refers to un-programmed cellular death and apoptosis is programmed cellular death. d) Necrosis only occurs in epithelial tissue and apoptosis only occurs in nervous tissue.

Answer: Necrosis refers to un-programmed cellular death and apoptosis is programmed cellular death.

33. Joe, 57 years old, is a local fisherman. He cut his hand with a knife while cleaning the fish. Which blood cell would be elevated as a result of the acute inflammatory response? a) Thrombocytes b) Eosinophils c) Leukocytes d) Platelet Answer: Leukocytes 34. Which of the following starling force would favor filtration of fluids into interstitial space? a) Capillary oncotic pressure b) Interstitial oncotic pressure c) Interstitial hydrostatic pressure

d) Plasma onçotic pressure Answer: Interstitial oncotic pressure 35. 3. Which of the following increase the likelihood to develop an infection in a person with cancer? a) Thrombocytosis b) Paraneoplastic syndrome c) Cachexia d) Granulocytopenia Answer: Granulocytopenia 36. What term is used to describe the respiratory process to compensate for metabolic acidosis? a) Dysphee b) Kussmaul c) Cheyne-Stokes d) Bradypnea Answer: Kussmaul 37. Which of the following statements best describes metabolic and respiratory acidosis? a) Metabolic and respiratory acidosis are both a result of hyperventilation b) Metabolic and respiratory acidosis occurs when bicarbonate concentration increases. c) Metabolic acidosis is a result of reduced carbonic acid concentration, respiratory acidosis is a result of reduced in carbon dioxide. d) Metabolic acidosis is a result of a reduced concentration of bicarbonate, respiratory acidosis is a result of hypoventilation.

Answer: Metabolic acidosis is a result of a reduced concentration of bicarbonate, respiratory acidosis is a result of hypoventilation 38. In a patient with hypernatremia, which clinical manifestation will be present?

a) Muscle weakness b) Bounding Pulse c) Hypotension d) Weight loss Answer: Bounding Pulse 39. Which of the following is characteristic of a benign tumour? a) A tumour that is un-encapsulated with prolific invasive cells b) A tumour that exerts systemic effects on all surrounding cells c) A tumour with non-functional cells that spread to other sites d) A tumour that remains localized and over proliferates Answer: A tumour that remains localized and over proliferates 40. Which of the following best describes an antigen? a) It is an enlarged growth of body tissue b) It is a chemical released by helper T cells c) It is produced by lymphocytes to respond to infection d) It is a foreign substance that evokes an immune response Answer: It is a foreign substance that evokes an immune response