Top Invalsi

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INVALSI T P

Preparazione alla prova nazionale di INGLESE Scuola Secondaria di Primo Grado

TRAINING TEST

5 TEST INVALSI con contenuti CLIL

ASCOLTI con QR-code

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INVALSI T P

Preparazione alla prova nazionale di INGLESE Scuola Secondaria di Primo Grado

CONTENTS 2 INTRO La prova INVALSI di lingua inglese 4 TRAINING TEST LISTENING Miss Elliot’s students 6 At the station 7 A season of changes 8 Holidays 9 A new cinema 10 READING Signs 11 A pub in Bath 12 What our visitors think 13 The Fitzwilliam Museum Cambridge 14 Vitamin D – quick facts CLIL 16 TEST 1 LISTENING Sophie’s family 18 Hobbies 19 The Shard of glass: a vertical city 20 The Apollo 11 CLIL 22 Trench warfare CLIL 23 READING Easter time 24 A water park 25 What some people think about Canterbury 26 Reporting a crime .............................................................................................................. 27 Banksy, the famous anonymous artist CLIL 28 TEST 2 LISTENING After-school activities 29 How do they get to school? 30 A radio programme 31 The Edinburgh International Festival 32 Learning Italian as a second language 33 READING Free time activities 34 An English summer school ......................................................................................... 35 On holiday 36 Volunteering CLIL 37 Some facts about solar power for electricity CLIL 38
CONTENTS 3 TEST 3 LISTENING The English holiday 39 Alice’s typical week 40 A school project ............................................................................................ CLIL 41 A trip to England 42 The lady of the stars CLIL 43 READING Notices 44 African and Asian elephants 45 First Man Festival CLIL 46 Solar energy CLIL 47 The Romantic Age in Britain: historical background CLIL 48 TEST 4 LISTENING How to make delicious pancakes ........................................................................... 50 Favourite works of art 51 A great New Year’s Eve party 52 Andrew's activities 53 2nd June 1946: Italian women voted for the first time CLIL 54 READING William Shakespeare 55 Arundel Castle 56 How to board a plane 57 Materials CLIL 58 Being active citizens means... CLIL 60 TEST 5 LISTENING Food 61 The cheetah 62 A group of volunteers CLIL 63 Cooking classes 64 A phone call from Spain 65 READING Endangered animals 66 Look at the notices 67 Types of energy CLIL 68 The European Green Award CLIL 69 The history of running ............................................................................. CLIL 70

La prova INVALSI di lingua inglese

IL TEST

La Prova Nazionale INVALSI per la lingua inglese testa la comprensione dell'ascolto (listening) e quella della lettura (reading).

LISTENING

La prova ha una durata di circa 40 minuti, con task di livello A1 e A2. I brani autentici che ascolterai riguarderanno argomenti a te familiari, legati al programma di studio. Essi saranno brevi e verranno ripetuti due volte. Quindi non ti preoccupare se non comprendi subito il messaggio, avrai modo di riascoltarlo e capire. In alcuni test ti sarà chiesto di ascoltare per comprendere il messaggio generale, in altri di ascoltare per capire le informazioni specifiche. Infine, altri mirano a farti comprendere le idee principali.

I format saranno:

- labelling, dove dovrai scrivere il nome corrispondente a una persona ra gurata;

- short open answers, dove dovrai scrivere delle risposte con un massimo di quattro parole;

- matching, dove dovrai collegare frasi, parole, immagini;

- multiple choice/scelta multipla, dove dovrai scegliere l’opzione corretta fra quattro possibilità.

Le istruzioni che riceverai avranno sempre la stessa formulazione e saranno in inglese. Anche in questo caso don’t panic!, perché saranno molto chiare e comprensibili.

READING

La prova ha una durata di 40 minuti e ti verranno sottoposti dei task cioè:

- dei testi di massimo 110 parole, con una serie di domande di livello A1 che variano dalle 3 alle 8;

- dei testi di di coltà maggiore (livello A2), con un massimo di 220 parole, anche in questo caso con delle domande a cui rispondere che oscillano da 3 a 8.

I brani riguarderanno argomenti legati al programma della Scuola Secondaria di I Grado, in particolare della classe terza. I format saranno di diverso tipo:

- potresti essere chiamato/a a scegliere la risposta fra quattro opzioni (scelta multipla/multiple choice);

- potresti essere chiamato/a a rispondere a delle domande utilizzando un massimo di quattro parole (short open answers);

- ti si potrebbe richiedere di decidere se le a ermazioni date sono vere, false o se l’informazione non è presente nel testo (true, false, not given);

- ultima opzione, ma per questo non meno importante, è il matching - dovrai collegare frasi, parole o immagini a parte di un testo.

INTRO 4

TOP INVALSI

Per aiutarti ad a rontare il test nel migliore dei modi e in tranquillità puoi esercitarti con questo testo.

Questo volume, infatti, ti mette a disposizione tanti esempi di test che puoi praticare sia in classe che a casa. È un ottimo strumento che ti accompagnerà, su carta e in formato digitale, nella preparazione alla prova INVALSI.

Il volume è composto da 5 simulazioni di test complete, con ascolti e brani di lettura (5 listening e 5 reading).

Ma prima dei test, hai a disposizione un training test (test di allenamento), che ti avvicina ai tipi di prove in maniera molto graduale e con indicazioni.

Questa sezione, infatti, o re una gamma completa di esercizi i cui tipi di prove e come a rontarle vengono spiegate con specchietti (tips) e indicazioni pratiche.

Le prove del training test sono estrapolate dal sito www.invalsi.it e sono le prove u ciali somministrate negli anni precedenti al tuo.

Ogni prova (della sezione training e dei test) è riconducibile a uno dei due livelli A1 o A2 del Quadro Comune Europero di Riferimento richiesti dalla prova INVALSI grado 8.

Tutte le prove di questo volume sono anche disponibili in modalità computer based.

Tutti gli audio, sia quelli della sezione Training, sia quelli dei test sono disponibili anche su smartphone o tablet inquadrando il QR code della pagina, oppure nel libro digitale accedendo all’app Ra aello Player.

INTRO 5

01 Miss Elliot’s students

Listen to Miss Elliot describing a picture. Write the people’s names in the boxes. The first one (0) is an example. You will hear the recording twice. You will have 20 seconds at the end of the second recording to complete your answers. You now have 20 seconds to look at the task.

Per svolgere questa attività devi ascoltare la descrizione di un’immagine e scrivere negli appositi spazi i nomi delle persone che vengono nominate. Come sempre la prima frase, contrassegnata con lo 0, è un esempio.

• Hai 20 secondi per osservare l’immagine, cerca di cogliere i particolari e le caratteristiche delle persone della foto, sicuramente verranno nominati nell’ascolto.

• Leggi il titolo, e da quello, cerca di capire di cosa tratterà l’ascolto.

• Durante il primo ascolto scrivi i nomi che hai compreso, non preoccuparti se non li scrivi tutti in questa fase. Hai sempre il secondo ascolto dove puoi confermare quello che hai scritto o modificarli e completare l’esercizio.

• Ricordati che alla fine del secondo ascolto hai 20 secondi per completare e controllare le risposte.

TRAINING TEST 6
(abbinamento multiplo)
TIPS Multiple matching
1. 2. 4. 3. 0. ................................... Miss Elliot
LISTENING TASK 1 A1 Tratto da www.invalsi.it

LISTENING TASK 2 A2

02 At the station

Listen to some train announcements. While listening, match the announcements (A-G) with the speakers (1-5). There is one announcement that you do not need. The first one (0) is an example. You will hear the recording twice. You will have 20 seconds at the end of the second recording to complete your answers. You now have 20 seconds to look at the task.

In questo tipo di attività devi ascoltare una serie di annunci e abbinare il loro significato alle persone che li pronunciano. Come sempre l’esempio è contrassegnato dallo 0.

• Hai 20 secondi per leggere le frasi. Cerca di comprendere dove e in che situazione possono essere pronunciate.

• Fai attenzione, c’è una frase in più che non ti servirà.

• Non preoccuparti se non comprendi tutto, individua le parole chiave.

• Anche il titolo può aiutarti a inquadrare il tema del brano.

• Durante il primo ascolto cerca di fare gli abbinamenti in base a quello che hai compreso, non ti preoccupare se non completi tutti gli abbinamenti: hai sempre il secondo ascolto dove puoi confermare quello che hai scritto o modificare per completare l’esercizio.

• Ricordati che alla fine del secondo ascolto hai 20 secondi per completare e controllare le risposte.

Announcements

A. Cars parked illegally will be taken away.

B. You must go to a di erent platform to catch the train.

C. Smoking is not permitted inside the station.

D. You must always keep your bags with you.

E. You must show your train ticket when asked.

F. You should ask for help if you see something wrong.

G. You can’t ride your bicycle inside the station.

0. Example G

Q1. Speaker 1

Q2. Speaker 2

Q3. Speaker 3

Q4. Speaker 4 .......

Q5. Speaker 5 .......

TRAINING TEST 7
TIPS Multiple matching (abbinamento multiplo)
www.invalsi.it
Tratto da

03 A season of changes

Listen to someone talking about autumn. While listening, match the first part of the sentences (1-6) with the second part (A-I). There are two parts that you do not need. The first one (0) is an example. You will hear the recording twice. You will have 20 seconds at the end of the second recording to complete your answers. You now have 20 seconds to look at the task.

TIPS Multiple matching (abbinamento multiplo)

In questo tipo di attività devi ascoltare un breve passaggio e collegare la prima parte della frase alla seconda parte.

• Hai 20 secondi per leggere le frasi. Cerca di comprendere il significato di ciascuna frase facendo gli abbinamenti e aiutandoti con le parole chiave.

• L’esempio (0) ti può aiutare.

• Fai attenzione, nel secondo riquadro ci sono due parti in più che non ti servono.

• Anche il titolo può aiutarti a inquadrare il tema del brano.

• Durante il primo ascolto cerca di fare gli abbinamenti in base a quello che hai compreso, non ti preoccupare se non completi tutto: hai sempre il secondo ascolto dove puoi confermare quello che hai scritto o modificare per completare l’esercizio.

• Ricordati che alla fine del secondo ascolto hai 20 secondi per completare e controllare gli abbinamenti.

0. In autumn the weather I

Q1. All living things

Q2. Squirrels

Q3. Pumpkins

Q4. Deer

Q5. Days .......

Q6. Many countries .......

A. collect food.

B. grow thicker fur.

C. have four seasons.

D. prepare for the cold season.

E. have festivities.

F. change colour.

G. are shorter.

H. are beautiful.

I. becomes di erent.

TRAINING TEST 8
LISTENING TASK 3 A2 Tratto da www.invalsi.it

04 Holidays

Listen to a girl talking about her holidays. While listening answer the questions below. Use a maximum of 4 words. Write your answers in the boxes. The first one (0) is an example. You will hear the recording twice. You will have 20 seconds at the end of the second recording to complete your answers. You now have 20 seconds to look at the task.

In questo tipo di attività devi ascoltare un resoconto e rispondere brevemente alle domande.

• Fai attenzione, per ciascuna risposta puoi usare da una a quattro parole, ma non più di quattro.

• L’esempio (0) ti può aiutare.

• Hai 20 secondi per leggere le domande. Cerca di comprendere il significato di ciascuna domanda e cerca di farti un’idea sull’argomento dell’ascolto. Per questo aiutati anche con il titolo.

• Durante il primo ascolto cerca di rispondere in base a quello che hai compreso, non ti preoccupare se non completi tutte le risposte: hai sempre il secondo ascolto dove puoi confermare quello che hai scritto o modificare le risposte per completare l’esercizio.

• Accertati di scrivere le risposte correttamente e di rispondere a tutte le domande.

• Ricordati che alla fine del secondo ascolto hai 20 secondi per completare e controllare le risposte.

0. When did the girl go on holiday? In winter

1. Who went with her and her parents? ................................................................................................

2. How did the family get to Austria?

3. How long did the journey take?

4. What was the weather like? (Give two answers)

5. What sport did the girl do?

TRAINING TEST 9
www.invalsi.it
TIPS Short answer (risposta breve)
LISTENING TASK 4 A2 Tratto da

LISTENING TASK 5 A2

05 A new cinema

Tratto da www.invalsi.it

Listen to a boy and a girl talking about a new place in town. While listening, tick the correct sentence ending (A, B, C or D) for each of the sentences 1-5. Only one answer is correct. The first one (0) is an example. You will hear the recording twice. You will have 20 seconds at the end of the second recording to complete your answers. You now have 20 seconds to look at the task.

TIPS Multiple choice (scelta multipla)

In questo tipo di attività devi ascoltare una conversazione, rispondere a domande o completare frasi scegliendo tra 4 opzioni.

• Fai attenzione, solo una risposta è corretta.

• L’esempio (0) ti può aiutare.

• Hai 20 secondi per leggere le domande. Cerca di comprendere il significato di ciascuna domanda e cerca di farti un’idea sull’argomento dell’ascolto. Per questo aiutati anche con il titolo.

• L’ordine dei quesiti corrisponde all’ordine dell’ascolto.

• Durante il primo ascolto cerca di rispondere in base a quello che hai compreso, non ti preoccupare se non completi tutte le risposte: hai sempre il secondo ascolto dove puoi confermare quello che hai scritto o modificare la scelta.

• Non lasciare una frase senza completamento, accertati di aver risposto a tutte.

• Ricordati che alla fine del secondo ascolto hai 20 secondi per controllare tutto l’esercizio.

0. The new cinema is close to the

A. Odeon.

B. town centre.

C. swimming pool.

D. shopping area.

Q1. Robert really liked the

A. screen.

B. sound.

C. film.

D. building.

Q2. The cheapest films are

A. before 5 o’clock.

B. after 5 o’clock.

C. before 7 o’clock.

D. after 7 o’clock.

Q3. The ticket at the cinema costs

A. £6.50

B. £7.50

C. £8.50

D. £9.50

Q4. They decide to go to the cinema on

A. Monday.

B. Tuesday.

C. Wednesday.

D. Thursday.

Q5. They agree to get there

A. on foot.

B. by car.

C. by bike.

D. by bus.

TRAINING TEST 10

READING TASK 1 A1

Signs

Match the pictures (A-H) with the sentences (1-5). There are two pictures you do not need. Write your answers in the boxes. The first one (0) is an example.

TIPS Multiple matching (abbinamento multiplo)

In questo tipo di attività devi abbinare delle immagini a frasi che ne spiegano il significato.

• Fai attenzione. Ci sono due immagini in più rispetto alle frasi.

• Osserva le immagini e leggi le eventuali scritte. Cerca di capire cosa rappresentano. L’esempio (0) ti può aiutare.

• Concentrati sulle frasi, se non comprendi tutte le parole cerca di capire il significato generale.

• Se non sei sicuro dell’abbinamento di una frase, passa a quella successiva.

• Una volta terminati gli abbinamenti sicuri, ritorna a quelli in cui sei in dubbio e riprova.

• Non lasciare una frase senza abbinamento, scegli sempre quella più probabile.

• Infine, controlla tutti gli abbinamenti per essere sicuro di aver risposto a tutte le domande correttamente.

0. You can see lots of underwater creatures here. G

1. You can’t go along this road.

2. You can sit and wait here.

3. You can buy your tickets here.

4. You can borrow books here.

5. You can shop here day and night. .......

TRAINING TEST 11
A B C D E F G H

READING TASK 2 A1

A pub in Bath

Read the text about a pub in Bath. Answer the questions (1-5). Use a maximum of 4 words. Write your answers in the box. The first one (0) is an example.

TIPS Short answer (risposta breve)

In questo tipo di attività devi leggere un brano e rispondere brevemente alle domande.

• Fai attenzione, per ciascuna risposta puoi usare da una a quattro parole, ma non più di quattro.

• L’esempio (0) ti può aiutare.

• Cerca di comprendere il significato di ciascuna domanda, per andare poi a cercare le informazioni nel testo e nel titolo.

• Leggi bene il testo e vai alla ricerca delle informazioni richieste dalle domande.

• L’ordine delle domande corrisponde all’ordine delle informazioni nel testo.

• Accertati di scrivere le risposte correttamente e di rispondere a tutte le domande.

King William is just fifteen minutes' walk from Bath Abbey, and a destination for lovers of great food and proper pubs. Independently owned for over 1O years, it's a good idea to book, as this cosy little Georgian eatery is a favourite for locals and visitors alike.

OPENING TIMES

Monday to Thursday 12pm-3pm and 5pm-11.30pm

Friday 12pm-3pm and 5pm-12am

Saturday 12pm-12am

Sunday 12pm-10.30pm

0. What is the name of the pub?

Q1. How far is the pub from Bath Abbey?

Q2. Who goes to the pub? (Give one answer)

Q3. What time does the pub close on Tuesday evening?

Q4. What time does the pub open for lunch?

Q5. When is the pub open all afternoon? (Give one answer)

King William

TRAINING TEST 12
Tratto da www.invalsi.it

What our visitors think

Read some visitors’ opinions (1-5) about York Castle Museum and match them with the sentences (A-G). There is one sentence you do not need. Write your answers in the boxes. The first one (0) is an example.

TIPS

Matching opinions with sentences (abbinare opinioni a frasi )

In questo tipo di attività devi abbinare alcune opinioni a descrizioni che ne riassumono il significato.

• Leggi il titolo e il testo attentamente una prima volta, per capire di cosa si tratta.

• Sottolinea le parole chiave prima di abbinarle alle opinioni.

• Aiutati con l’esempio (0).

• Se un abbinamento non ti è chiaro passa al successivo. Dopo aver finito l’esercizio ritorna sulle frasi senza risposta per completare l’abbinamento.

• Rileggi più volte le frasi e assicurati di aver abbinato tutte le opinioni.

0. “… a really interesting trip back in time.” A. Lehmann – Bremen, Germany

1. “… beautiful city, wonderful museum, great value.” Mr & Mrs Ishikawa – California, USA

2. “… the kids really enjoyed the toy collection.” Mrs C. Hall – West Yorkshire, England

3. “… best museum we have ever visited, very good value.” the Biggin family – Norwich, England

4. “… so much to see, we’ll definitely come back.” Mr P. Stephens – Gloucester, England

5. “… we didn’t want to leave, had a great visit.” Z. Howes – Bundoora, Australia

A. They have never seen a better museum.

B. They enjoyed the museum and the city.

C. They visited the museum with their children.

D. They didn’t have to pay for their tickets.

E. They liked the historical things in the museum.

F. They wanted to stay in the museum.

G. They want to visit the museum again.

TRAINING TEST 13
E
www.invalsi.it
READING TASK 3 A2 Tratto da

READING TASK 4 A2

The Fitzwilliam Museum Cambridge

Read the text about a museum. Are the sentences (1-6) true, false or not given? Tick the correct option. The first one (0) is an example.

Opening Hours

Tuesday - Saturday: 10:00 - 17:00

Sundays and Bank Holiday Mondays: 12:00 - 17:00

CLOSED: Mondays, Good Friday, 24-26 & 31 December and 1 January

Free Admission to the Museum's collections and to exhibitions. Visitors' donations help keep the galleries open and are much appreciated.

The length of an average visit is approximately 2 to 3 hours, during which time it is possible to see a wide range of objects in the collection.

Shop and Café

Courtyard Café

Located in the covered courtyard area of the museum near the Courtyard Entrance and serves an all-day menu including morning coffee, afternoon tea, sandwiches and light lunches. It is a pleasant location to meet friends or take a break whilst visiting the Museum. The café opens when the museum opens and closes 30 minutes before museum closing time.

Shop

Located in the courtyard area and offers a wide range of books, cards, notecard packs, giftwrap and other merchandise inspired by the Fitzwilliam's collections, together with exciting and original gifts for adults and children. The shop opens when the museum opens and closes 15 minutes before museum closing time. A selection of merchandise from the shop is available for purchase online at the Fitzwilliam Museum Shop.

TRAINING TEST 14
Tratto da www.invalsi.it

TIPS True, False, Not given (vero, falso, non dato)

In questo tipo di attività devi leggere un brano e delle affermazioni a esso collegate. Per ciascuna affermazione devi indicare se è vera (true), falsa (false) o non data (not given), cioè non viene specificata nel testo.

• Leggi il titolo e il testo attentamente una prima volta, per capire di cosa si tratta.

• Sottolinea le parole chiave e cerca il loro significato nelle affermazioni.

• Leggi le affermazioni e aiutati con l’esempio: l’ordine delle affermazioni corrisponde all’ordine delle informazioni nel testo.

• Se un’affermazione non ti è chiara passa alla successiva. Dopo aver finito l’esercizio ritorna sulle frasi senza risposta per completarle.

• Rileggi più volte il testo e confronta ciascuna risposta data di nuovo con il testo.

• Non lasciare una domanda senza risposta, accertati di aver risposto a tutte.

0. The museum is open seven days a week.

Q1. You can enter the museum without buying a ticket.

Q2. You can support the museum by credit card.

Q3. You need a few hours to explore the museum.

Q4. You can make a lunch reservation at the café.

Q5. The café and the museum close at the same time.

Q6. You can buy great presents in the shop.

TRAINING TEST 15 True False Not given

READING TASK 5 A2

Vitamin D – quick facts

Read about Vitamin D. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) for questions 1-5. Put a cross (X) in the correct box. Only one answer is correct. The first one (0) is an example.

TIPS Multiple choice (scelta multipla)

In questo tipo di attività devi leggere un brano e rispondere a domande o completare frasi scegliendo tra 4 opzioni.

• Leggi il titolo e le domande e cerca di comprendere il significato generale del brano.

• Leggi le frasi e aiutati con l’esempio: l’ordine delle frasi corrisponde all’ordine delle informazioni nel testo.

• Leggi il brano e vai alla ricerca dell’informazione richiesta.

• Fai attenzione. Per ogni frase solo una risposta è corretta.

• Se non trovi la risposta per il completamento della frase passa alla successiva. Dopo aver finito l’esercizio ritorna sulle frasi senza risposta per completare la frase.

• Non lasciare una domanda senza completamento, nel dubbio scegli la più probabile.

What is vitamin D and what does it do?

Vitamin D is a nutrient, found in some foods, that is needed for health and to maintain strong bones. It does so by helping the body absorb calcium (one of the main building blocks of bones) from food and supplements. People who get too little vitamin D may develop thin, soft or brittle bones, a condition known as rickets in children and osteoporosis in adults.

Vitamin D is important to the body in many other ways as well. Muscles need it to move, nerves need it to carry messages between the brain and every part of our body. Moreover, the immune system needs vitamin D to fight off invading bacteria and viruses.

Vitamin D is found in cells throughout the body. Our body makes vitamin D when our skin is directly exposed to the UV sun rays: if we are indoors near a window and we expose our skin to sunshine vitamin D won’t be produced. Despite the importance of the sun for vitamin D production, it is prudent to limit the exposure of our skin to sunlight in order to lower the risk of skin cancer. When we are out in the sun for more than a few minutes, we should wear protective clothing and apply sunscreen with a high SPF (sun protection factor).

TRAINING TEST 16
CLIL SCIENCE

0. We get vitamin D

A. when we drink.

B. when we eat something.

C. when we sleep.

D. when we drink and eat.

1. Why do we need vitamin D?

A. To absorb magnesium

B. To absorb water

C. To absorb food

D. To absorb calcium

2. What’s the meaning of “brittle bones”(line 8)?

A. Strong bones

B. Fragile bones

C. Old bones

D. Long bones

3. What is NOT true about vitamin D?

A. It is unnecessary for the immune system.

B. It is necessary for our bones.

C. It is necessary for our muscles.

D. It helps protect from bacteria.

4. How is vitamin D made?

A. From sugar

B. From water

C. From sunlight

D. From blood

5. Which statement about vitamin D is TRUE?

A. Vitamin D is produced by the exposure of the skin to infrared light.

B. Vitamin D isn’t produced by the exposure of the skin to ultraviolet light.

C. Vitamin D is produced by the exposure of the skin to ultraviolet light.

D. Vitamin D is produced by the exposure of the skin to shade.

TRAINING TEST 17

LISTENING TASK 1 A1

06 Sophie’s family

Listen to a boy talking about his friend’s family. Write the names in the boxes. The first one (0) is an example. You will hear the recording twice.

18 TEST 1
1. 2. 0. Sophie 4. 3. 5.

LISTENING TASK 2 A1

07 Hobbies

Listen to Jacob talking about his hobbies. While listening, answer the questions (1-7). Use a maximum of 4 words. Write your answers in the boxes. The first one (0) is an example. You will hear the recording twice.

0. Is Jacob lazy? No, he isn't.

1. What does he do on Mondays and Wednesdays?

2. What does he do on Tuesdays?

3. Why does he play the piano?

4. What does he do with his cousin?

5. What’s his favourite subject at school?

6. Is he at home on Fridays?

7. Does he relax on Saturdays?

19 TEST 1

LISTENING TASK 3 A2

08 The Shard of glass: a vertical city

Listen to Marie talking to her friend Samuel about The Shard. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) for questions 1-5. Put a cross (X) in the correct box. Only one answer is correct. You will hear the recording twice. The first one (0) is an example.

0. Has Samuel ended his project?

A. Yes, he has.

B. No, he can’t finish it.

C. He wants more time.

1. At the beginning of the 21

D. He finished the project a month ago. there were a lot of skyscrapers in London. The Shard was the only skyscraper in London. they started building a lot of skyscrapers in London. the only skyscrapers were along the river Thames.

When was the Shard opened to the public?

TEST 1
A. B. C. D. 2. A. B. C. D.

3. In order to design The Shard, where did Mr Piano take his inspiration from?

A. From Italy.

B. From Christopher Wren.

C. From ships and churches.

D. From St. Paul’s Cathedral.

4. The Shard is a vertical city inside a skyscraper

A. where you can enjoy yourself.

B. where you can do a lot of activities.

C. with a museum for tourists.

D. where you can work.

5. The Shard is made of

both glass and steel. glass shaped like a pyramid.

TEST 1
A. B. C. D.

LISTENING TASK 4 A2

09 The Apollo 11

Listen to a person talking about the Apollo 11 mission. While listening, choose the correct answer (A, B, C, D) for questions 1-4. Put a cross (X) in the correct box. Only one answer is correct. You will hear the recording twice. The first one (0) is an example.

0. Apollo 11 mission was organised by:

1. How many astronauts were there inside Apollo 11?

2. Who walked on the Moon?

3. Where did people from all over the world watch this event?

4. What was the Moon landing like? They used parachutes.

The astronauts landed on the Moon without any problems.

The whole rocket landed safely.

There was a big explosion.

TEST 1 22
A
B
C
D
3
4
2
1
Armstrong A Collins B Armstrong and Aldrin C Collins and Aldrin D
A B C D
A
B
C
D CLIL
SCIENCE
A B C D

LISTENING TASK 5 A2

10 Trench warfare

Listen to Mr Mitchell talking about trench warfare. While listening, match the pictures (A-G) with the information linked to them (1-4). There are two pictures you do not need. You will hear the recording twice. The first one (0) is an example.

0.

During the First World War trenches were dug. They were long narrow ditches.

1. Soldiers built the trenches. .......

2. After building them, they fought the war in the trenches. .......

3. Soldiers lived in terrible conditions with the trenches always full of mud and water.

4. They spent their time inside the trenches, even when they didn’t fight the enemy.

23 TEST 1
HISTORY A B C D E F G
CLIL
D

READING TASK 1 A1

Easter time

Read the text. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Put a cross (X) in the correct box. The first one (0) is an example.

Hi Marco!

It’s Easter and I’m on holiday for two weeks. At school we usually have an Easter bonnet competition, we make beautiful colourful hats and wear them. My favourite activity is the Easter egg hunt.

Teachers hide small chocolate eggs around the school and we try to fi nd them. At Easter we eat traditional food: on Easter Sunday, mum cooks roast lamb and vegetables for lunch and a cake for after. My brother and I usually get big chocolate eggs with sweets inside: this is also a tradition.

On Good Friday my grandfather usually bakes hot cross buns, I love them with butter!

They are typical Easter small cakes in the UK. They are made with fruit and spices. They are delicious! What are the Easter traditions in your country? Bye for now,

0. Easter holidays last

A. two weeks.

B. one week.

C. three weeks.

D. six weeks.

1. An Easter bonnet is

A. a chocolate egg.

B. a cake.

C. a hat.

D. a shirt.

2. In the Easter egg hunt children

A. try to find eggs.

B. hide chocolate eggs.

C. try to find chocolate eggs.

D. try to find small presents.

3. On Easter Sunday people eat

A. roast chicken.

B. roast lamb.

C. fried eggs.

D. fish and vegetables.

4. Traditionally children receive

A. boiled eggs with sweets.

B. small chocolate eggs.

C. big chocolate eggs with sweets.

D. chocolates and sweets.

5 Hot cross buns are spiced

A. biscuits with fruit.

B. cakes with chocolate.

C. buns with chocolate.

D. buns with fruit.

TEST 1 24

READING TASK 2 A1

A water park

Read the flyer about a water park. Answer the questions (1-6). Use a maximum of 4 words. Write your answers in the boxes. The first one (0) is an example.

0. What’s the name of the water park? Blue Wave

1. Are there any water slides?

2. How much is an adult ticket?

3. Is the water park open in May?

4. Which day is the park closed?

5. Where can you buy food?

6. Where can you book?

25 TEST 1

READING TASK 3 A2

What some people think about Canterbury

Read what some people (1-5) say about Canterbury and match them with the sentences (A-G). There is one sentence you do not need. Write your answers in the boxes. The first one (0) is an example.

0.

“The Canterbury Tales is an attraction you can’t miss. You can have a fantastic time and meet ancient pilgrims.”

Mary - Dublin B

1.

”There are a lot of good restaurants, where the food is excellent and you can taste typical British dishes like roast beef, cottage pie and shepherd’s pie.”

Sue - Auckland

2.

”Tea rooms are great in Canterbury! My favourite is Tiny Tim’s, the only traditional English tearoom in Canterbury with the best afternoon tea in Kent!”

Jasmine - London

”In Canterbury, we have the famous University of Kent. My mum studied here. The campus is huge with open green spaces and woods. There’s a library, a sports centre, a theatre and a medical centre.”

Kathy - Brighton

”I love going shopping on Saturdays. Canterbury’s Whitefriars is the perfect place if you want to buy something from clothes to jewellery, from books to mobile phones. You can find everything here.”

Jill - Canterbury

”Every Wednesday and Friday I go to the market in St. George’s Street. I always buy fresh fruit and vegetables, local meat and bread. Last Friday, I bought a very interesting book too.”

May - Canterbury

A. She bought a dress and a ring last Saturday.

B. She met people from the past.

C. She found a novel and bought apples, carrots and sausages.

D. She had dinner in a great place, where she ordered local meat.

E. Her mother was there when she was younger. This place is big with a lot of places to study and have fun.

F. She wanted to visit the cathedral but there was a long queue.

G. She is keen on spending a pleasant afternoon here. She can eat and drink something really special.

TEST 1 26
3. 4. 5.

Reporting a crime

Complete the conversation between David and a police o cer. Match the sentences (A-I) to the spaces (1-5). There are three sentences you do not need. Write your answers in the boxes. The first one (0) is an example.

Police o cer: Good morning, how can I help you?

David: 0. D

Police o cer: What’s happened?

David: 1.

Police o cer: When did it happen?

David: 2.

Police o cer: Can you describe the boy?

David: 3.

Police o cer: What did you have inside the bag?

David: 4.

Police o cer: OK! That’s all for now. Could you sign the report?

David: 5.

A. Yes, of course.

B. I think he was 18 and came from Germany.

C. It was two o’clock. Now, it’s three, so an hour ago.

D. I’m here to report a crime.

E. It happened last year.

F. Sure! He was tall and slim. He was wearing a pair of jeans and a yellow T-shirt.

G. Well... there was my mobile phone and my wallet.

H. Well... I was walking along Bridge Street when a boy ran towards me and stole my bag.

I. I don't remember exactly.

27 TEST 1
READING TASK 4 A2

READING TASK 5 A2

Banksy, the famous anonymous artist

Read some facts about Banksy. Are the sentences (1-7) true, false or not given?

Put a cross (X) in the correct box. The first one (0) is an example.

Banksy is a street and graffiti artist from the UK. We don’t know who he is but we can see his work in public places like buildings or railway stations. His paintings are mainly about war and politics. His art is satirical, and for his graffiti he uses the stencilling technique. Banksy started his art in the underground in Bristol. We can admire Banksy’s art on public surfaces He doesn’t sell anything linked to his work, for example photos of his graffiti. Talking about his identity, we can say that according to Tristan Manco, a graphic designer, Banksy was born in 1974 in Bristol. He began working as a butcher but then became interested in graffiti in the late ‘80s. Simon Hattenstone, a journalist from The Guardian, interviewed him face to face. He is one of the very few people who has met him. Hattenstone described him as “a 28-year-old male who wore jeans and a T-shirt with a silver tooth, silver chain, and one silver earring.” On his website, Banksy said: “I am unable to comment on who may or may not be Banksy, but anyone described as being ‘good at drawing’ doesn’t sound like Banksy to me.”

0. Banksy is British.

1. We know his true identity.

2. His art can be seen in public places.

3. His art isn’t ironic.

4. The stencilling technique isn’t used very much in his gra ti.

5. Banksy has a twin brother.

6. A journalist interviewed him in a hotel.

7. Banksy has got his own website.

TEST 1 28
CLIL ART
True False Not given

LISTENING TASK 1 A1

11 After-school activities

Listen to David talking about his after-school activities. While listening, match the days (1-4) with the subjects (A-G). Write your answers in the boxes. There are two subjects you do not need. The first one (0) is an example. You will hear the recording twice.

Days

0. Monday A 1. Tuesday 2. Wednesday

3. Thursday .......

4. Friday .......

After-school activities

A. chess club

B. drama

C. guitar

D. Chinese

E. painting

F. fishing

G. swimming

29 TEST 2

LISTENING TASK 2 A1

12 How do they get to school?

Listen to what some students say about the means of transport they take to get to school and match them to the pictures (A-G). There are two pictures you do not need. The first one (0) is an example. You will hear the recording twice.

TEST 2 30
A B E F C D G 0. F 1. 2. 3. 4.

13 A radio programme

Listen to a radio programme. While listening, choose the experiences the people interviewed had (A-H). Write your answers in the boxes (1-5). There are two experiences you do not need. You will hear the recording twice. The first one (0) is an example.

31 TEST 2
0 3 1 4 2 5
LISTENING TASK 3 A2 A. Sleep in a tent B. Hold an exotic animal C. Act in a film D. Go on a safari E. Be in the news F. Do a bungee jump G. Go to a premiere
0. F 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
H. Go on a plane

LISTENING TASK 4 A2

The Edinburgh International Festival

Listen. While listening, answer the questions below. Use a maximum of 4 words. Write your answers in the boxes. You will hear the recording twice. The first one (0) is an example.

0. How many people go to the Arts and culture festivals? 4 million people

1. How many festivals take place in Edinburgh in summer?

2. When are the Edinburgh International and The Fringe festivals? .................................................................................................

3. When was the Edinburgh International Festival organised for the first time?

4. Who was Sir Rudolf Bing?

5. What’s the Fringe Festival?

TEST 2 32 14

LISTENING TASK 5 A2

15 Learning Italian as a second language

Listen to the conversation between two friends: Michela and George. While listening, choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) for questions 1-5. Only one answer is correct. You will hear the recording twice. The first one (0) is an example.

0. Michela knows that among the most studied languages there’s

A. Japanese.

B. Italian.

C. French.

D. Spanish.

1. In the UK Italian is

A. the most widely spoken language.

B. the least widely spoken language.

C. the fourth most studied foreign language.

D. the fourth widely spoken language.

2. One of the reasons people study Italian is because in the past Italy was

A. the most populated country in Europe.

B. the richest country in Europe.

C. the smallest country in Europe.

D. a huge country.

3. One of the reasons people study Italian is to better understand

A. Italian Literature.

B. Italian scientific experiments.

C. Italian banks.

D. Italian explorers.

4. Jacob is studying Italian at University because

A. he wants to visit some of the UNESCO sites.

B. he wants to know some of the Italian traditions.

C. Italy has 40% of the cultural riches of the world.

D. he wants to live in Italy.

5. Why is George studying Italian at University?

A. He wants to move to Italy.

B. He has Italian origins.

C. He can learn how to cook Italian recipes.

D. He can visit all the UNESCO World Heritage sites in Italy.

TEST 2
33

READING TASK 1 A1

Free time activities

Read the sentences about some people and match what they do in their free time (1-4) with the photos (A-F). There is one picture you do not need. The first one (0) is an example.

0. Tina loves jogging and music. C

1. Sam usually travels a lot so at the weekend he prefers staying at home and reading.

2. Vicky loves plants and flowers. She spends a lot of time in her garden.

3. Sean never sees his grandmother during the week so he visits her on Sundays.

4. Cooking is his passion. Mark spends a lot of time making delicious food.

TEST 2 34
E F C D
A B

An English summer school

Read the flyer about an English school. Answer the questions (1-6). Use a maximum of 4 words. Write your answers in the boxes. The first one (0) is an example.

0. Where are the courses? At the International school

1. What nationality are the teachers?

2. What age are the courses for?

3. What time do the lessons start?

4. What sport is organised in the swimming pool? ................................................................................

5. What kind of activity is origami?

6. How much does a course cost a week?

35 TEST 2
TASK 2 A1
READING

READING TASK 3 A2

On holiday

Complete the five conversations. Choose the correct answer (A-B-C-D) for questions 1-5. Only one answer is correct. The first one (0) is an example.

0. Hello! Can I help you?

A. Yes, please. I’d like to book a single bedroom.

B. Yes, please but not now.

C. No, thanks. I want to go home.

D. I don’t know.

1. Could I have your passport, please?

A. No, I can’t give it to you.

B. Why do you want it?

C. Here you are.

D. I have lost it.

2. What’s the fastest way to the National Gallery?

A. No idea.

B. The fastest way is by tube.

C. You can walk. It’s a few kilometres.

D. Don’t go there.

3. How much are these London souvenirs?

A. You can’t buy them.

B. They are a lot.

C. They are very nice.

D. They aren't expensive, only three pounds.

4. How far is the Science Museum from the hotel?

A. We are leaving now.

B. It’s about two miles away.

C. I forgot.

D. Ask the tourist information o ce.

5. How long does it take you to get to Camden Town Market?

A. It only takes about 15 minutes.

B. I take a taxi.

C. I don’t know how to get there.

D. My sister always drives there.

TEST 2 36

Volunteering

Read the text. Are the sentences (1-5) true, false or not given? Put a cross (X) in the correct box. The first one (0) is an example.

Volunteering can be a good way to show an exercise of democracy. There are a lot of organisations where we can start a process which can be defi ned as participatory and society-oriented citizenship. Today a lot of students, especially secondary and university ones, are engaged in citizenship learning through volunteering and community involvement. In Italy we have a wide range of associations whose activities are vital to help people and animals in danger. Being a member of one of these can lead us to be active citizens.

Let’s analyse the Association of Voluntary Italian Blood Donors (AVIS), the major Italian non-profit and charitable organization for blood donation. When you are 18, you can start giving a part of you to help people in need, who could die without our blood. This means being active! This also means we want to be anonymous, responsible and we want to give something to someone else we don’t know for the pleasure of donating. It’s also important that we give blood regularly, not just once. So let’s became blood donors to save lives!

0. Active citizens can be people who are green.

1. Teaching languages is another way to be active citizens.

2. Volunteering is a way to show active citizenship.

3. In few organisations we can start a participatory process.

4. Many teens and young adults are engaged in volunteering.

5. Only rich people can take part in charitable activities.

37 TEST 2
CLIL CIVICS
True False Not given
READING TASK 4 A2

Some facts about solar power for electricity

Read the following text on solar power for electricity. Answer the questions (1-7). Use a maximum of 4 words. Write your answers in the boxes. The first one (0) is an example.

When we think about solar power, we think about the solar cells that turn the sun rays into electricity. Solar cells are also called photovoltaic cells. “Photovoltaic” derives from the words “photons”, the parts that make up sunlight, and “volts”, the measurement of electricity.

Solar cells are used in small devices like calculators and wrist watches. They are also used for buildings and homes because they are a more efficient way to get electricity. In fact, if we place solar cells on the roof of a building or a house we can have green electricity: the solar cells convert the energy of photons from the sun into electricity. We need a lot of solar cells to power a house, so a lot of them are connected together producing a large amount of energy.

The photovoltaic cells were invented in 1954 and mainly used in small objects like calculators.

Then, they were used for spaceships and satellites. In the 1990s people received incentives to buy them because they were considered a clean and renewable source of energy for their houses.

0. Can the sun transform its energy into electricity? Yes, it can.

1. What’s another name for solar cells?

2. What are volts?

3. Are they used for big devices?

4. Are they used for houses?

5. Where are they in a house?

6. When were solar cells invented?

7. When did people get incentives to buy photovoltaic cells?

TEST 2 38
CLIL TECHNOLOGY READING TASK 5 A2

LISTENING TASK 1 A1

16 The English holiday

Listen to Simon describing some of his friends. Write their names in the boxes. The first one (0) is an example. You will hear the recording twice.

39 TEST 3
1. 2. 0. Simon 3. 4.

LISTENING TASK 2 A1

17 Alice’s typical week

Listen to Alice talking to her friend Matt about her typical week. While listening, match the days (1-5) with the activities (A-H). Write your answers in the boxes. There are two activities you do not need. The first one (0) is an example. You will hear the recording twice.

Days

0. Monday A

1. Tuesday

2. Wednesday

3. Thursday

4. Friday

5. Saturday and Sunday .......

Activities

A. Art and English projects

B. drama class

C. oral presentations

D. library

E. dinner at Nicole’s

G.

H.

F. music club cinema visit to her grandparents

TEST 3

LISTENING TASK 3 A2

18 A school project

Listen to Mark and Miranda talking about a school project on recycling. Answer the questions (1-5). Use a maximum of 4 words. Write your answers in the boxes. You will hear the recording twice. The first one (0) is an example.

0. What is Mark and Miranda’s project about? It’s about recycling.

1. What can we protect if we recycle? .................................................................................................

2. What does Mrs Long do when she enters the classroom? .................................................................................................

3. Apart from reducing the use of raw materials, what else does recycling reduce?

4. Does recycling decrease the quality of air and water?

5. What does recycling fight? .................................................................................................

41 TEST 3
CLIL CIVICS

LISTENING TASK 4 A2

19 A trip to England

Listen to Paul talking to his English friend John. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) for questions 1-3. Put a cross (X) in the correct box. Only one answer is correct. You will hear the recording twice. The first one (0) is an example.

TEST 3 42
B C D
0. What does Paul like eating?
A
A B C D
1. Where does Luisa live?
A B C D
2. What is there in the bedroom?
A B C D
3. What else is there in the bedroom?

20 The lady of the stars

Listen to Peter and his dad talking about the Italian astrophysicist Margherita Hack, also known as “The Lady of the Stars”. While listening, choose the correct answer (A, B, C, D) for questions 1-6. You will hear the recording twice. The first one (0) is an example.

0. How old was Margherita Hack when she died?

A. 91 B. 92

1. When did she die?

A. 2014 B. 2013

2. What was her nickname?

A. The Astronomer

93

94

2015

2016

B. The Lady of Astronomy

C. The Astrophysicist

D. The Lady of the Stars

3. What was special about her?

A. She studied stars.

B. She was an astronomer.

C. Asteroid 8558 was named after her.

D. She wrote a lot.

4. What happened to her in 1964?

A. She became the first Italian woman to be the director of an observatory.

B. She moved to Trieste.

C. She became a writer.

D. She bought an observatory.

5. Where was the observatory?

A. In Rome

B. In Venice

C. In Florence

D. In Trieste

6. What was she able to do?

A. She was able to talk about astrophysics to people in a simplified way.

B. She was able to talk about astrophysics to people in scientific terms.

C. She couldn’t talk about astrophysics using simple terms.

D. She never talked about astrophysics to people.

43 TEST 3
CLIL
SCIENCE LISTENING TASK 5 A2
C.
D.
C.
D.

READING TASK 1 A1

Notices

Match the notices (A-H) with the sentences (1-6). There is one notice you do not need. Write your answers in the boxes. The first one (0) is an example.

FUN RUN

Saturday, 15th May Under 13s only

A

TIM’S RESTAURANT

REGENT TOYSHOP

FEEL LIKE A CHEF!

International cooking classes

Ask for our special children’ s menu.

Soft toys half price

Every Wednesday from 7th July

B C D

Free toy with every child’s meal

Sorry we’ re temporarily closed. we ’ll be back next month.

Open six days a week

Closed on Mondays

Meet the writers! Come with your children 7th June 4:00-6:30 p.m.

0. John can buy a cheap teddy bear here. C

1. Linda is 12 years old. She can do it.

2. Children can get a present when they eat here.

3. Jane and her parents can choose di erent meals here.

4. Sue and Rick can’t play there this month.

5. Lisa is planning to go there with her children, they like reading.

6. Zoe wants to learn how to make food.

TEST 3 44
E
F G H
SPORTS CENTRE BLUE LAKE RESTAURANT GREEN GOLF CLUB PARK LIBRARY

READING TASK 2 A1

African and Asian elephants

Read the article about Asian and African elephants. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Put a cross (X) in the correct box. The first one (0) is an example.

Elephants are the biggest land animals. They come from Asia and Africa. How do they differ from each other? Easy! Look at their ears and you can fi nd the difference. African elephants have got larger ears than Asian elephants. They are also bigger. A male elephant is over 3,5 metres tall and weighs six thousand kilos. An Asian elephant is smaller, it’s about 2,5 metres tall. Elephants have got a very long nose that is called a “trunk” and two long, white tusks. They eat a lot, more than 150 kilos of food a day and they drink about 180 litres of water. They are herbivores, they eat leaves, grass, trees and fruit. They love water and they are very good swimmers.

0. Elephants are

A. the shortest land animals.

B. the tallest land animals.

C. the smallest land animals.

D. the biggest land animals

1. They live in

A. Africa and Europe.

B. Asia and Africa.

C. Asia and America.

D. Africa and Finland.

2. African elephants have got

A. larger noses than Asian elephants.

B. larger paws than Asian elephants.

C. larger eyes than Asian elephants.

D. larger ears than Asian elephants.

3. Asian elephants are

A. taller than African elephants.

B. smaller than African elephants.

C. bigger than African elephants.

D. older than African elephants.

4. Elephants have got

A. two trunks.

B. a short trunk.

C. a long trunk.

D. a white trunk.

5. They eat

A. trees and meat.

B. meat and fish.

C. fish and plants.

D. grass, plants and fruit.

6. They are good at

A. swimming.

B. jumping.

C. climbing.

D. flying.

45 TEST 3

READING TASK 3 A2

First Man Festival

Read the text about the celebrations of the 50th anniversary of the historic Apollo 11 landing. Answer the questions (1-8). Use a maximum of 4 words. Write your answers in the boxes. The first one (0) is an example.

0. What’s the name of the event?

1. When is the event?

2. What kind of show is there?

3. Can you experience a rocket launch?

4. What planets can you see?

5. What else can you enjoy?

6. Is there a competition?

7. Where does the event take place?

8. Where can you get more information?

First Man Festival

TEST 3 46
CLIL SCIENCE

READING TASK 4 A2

Solar energy

Read the text about solar energy. Are the sentences (1-7) true, false, not given? Put a cross (X) in the correct box. The first one (0) is an example.

The sun produces energy in the form of light which comes as ultraviolet, visible and infrared rays. When we see the spectrum of colours, we see visible sun rays. Ultraviolet and infrared ones cannot be seen. Solar energy is a renewable source of energy which does not damage the environment. As long as there is sunlight, we will be able to get power from it. This kind of energy doesn’t release carbon dioxide and pollution into the air, so it can be defi ned as a clean source of energy which reaches the Earth with its solar radiation

Solar radiation gives also power to all living things through photosynthesis. Photosynthesis takes place when plants use the sun's energy to make its own food, and then of course, all other living organisms eat the plants receiving that energy indirectly from the sun.

Collecting solar power to create electricity and heat is not as easy as photosynthesis. One way is to use sunlight that hits solar thermal panels. In this way solar energy can be converted and used efficiently to heat and light things like buildings, swimming pools, hospitals, schools.

and swimming

0. The light produced by the sun is invisible.

1. We can see visible sun rays at midday.

2. Solar energy is dangerous.

3. We can have power from sunlight.

4. Sunlight releases carbon dioxide.

5. Photosynthesis is important for all the living organisms.

6. The process used to get electricity is more complex than photosynthesis.

7. Buildings can be heated thanks to solar panels.

47 TEST 3
CLIL TECHNOLOGY
True False Not given
own

The Romantic Age in Britain: historical background

Read the text and match the sentences (1-4) with the events which took place during the Romantic Age (A-F). There is one event you do not need. Write your answers in the boxes. The first one (0) is an example.

During the Romantic Age (1760-1837) three revolutions involved Britain: the American Revolution (1775), the French Revolution (1789) and the Industrial Revolution. King George III (1760-1815) wanted to control the Country, choosing conservative policies both at home and abroad. America’s War of Independence is a clear example: the conflict started in 1775, the 13 British colonies declared their independence from Great Britain on 4th July 1776. The conflict ended in 1783 with the king who officially recognised the independence of the USA, signing the Treaty of Paris.

In 1789, the French Revolution began and, at the start British poets like Blake, Wordsworth and Coleridge supported until it became a fierce conflict.

From 1792 to 1815 the Napoleonic Wars took place. Britain won the Battle of Trafalgar in 1805 and the Battle of Waterloo in 1815.

In this context the Industrial Revolution developed more and more, transforming Britain from an agricultural to an industrial nation. Two new social classes emerged: entrepreneurs, who owned factories, and workers. Under William IV three reforms passed:

- in 1832 the First Reform Bill extended the right to vote to the new middle classes;

- in 1833 the Factory Act made the employment of children under 9 illegal;

- in 1834 the Poor Law Amendment Act established terrible workhouses: places for poor people who didn’t have anything.

TEST 3 48 READING TASK 5 A2
CLIL HISTORY

0. Some British poets supported this rebellion but then they understood it was too cruel.

1. This document about freedom and independence announced a significant separation.

2. In 1805 Britain won an important conflict.

3. Thanks to this, two social classes appeared.

4. From that moment children under 9 couldn’t work. .......

A. The Battle of Waterloo

B. The Industrial Revolution

C. The Factory Act

D. The French Revolution

E. The Battle of Trafalgar

F. The Treaty of Paris

TEST 3
E

LISTENING TASK 1 A1

21 How to make delicious pancakes

Listen to a cook explaining how to make pancakes. While listening, choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) for questions 1-7. Put a cross (X) in the correct box. The first one (0) is an example. You will hear the recording twice.

0. The recipe is for

A. pizza.

B. pancakes.

C. bread.

D. pasta.

1. To make pancakes you need

A. ham.

B. cake.

C. oranges.

D. eggs.

2. You also need

A. milk and co ee.

B. milk and chocolate.

C. milk and flour.

D. milk and toast.

3. Mix everything in a

A. bowl.

B. pan.

C. plate.

D. glass.

4. Pour the pancake mix into

A. a tray.

B. a plate.

C. a bowl.

D. a pan.

5. Cook it for a few

A. hours.

B. days.

C. minutes.

D. seconds.

6. Put some… on the pancake.

A. salt and lemon juice

B. sugar and lemon juice

C. sugar and fruit juice

D. salt and orange juice

7. Roll the pancake up and

A. eat it.

B. cut it.

C. serve it.

D. freeze it.

50 TEST 4

LISTENING TASK 2 A1

22 Favourite works of art

Listen to Caroline talking about some paintings. While listening, match the paintings (1-5) with the artists who painted them (A-H). Write your answers in the boxes. There are two artists you do not need. The first one (0) is an example. You will hear the recording twice.

Paintings

0. landscapes E

1. flowers

2. people

3. pets

4. cars

5. buildings

Artists

A. Julie’s grandfather

B. Peter

C. John

D. Julie’s sister

E. Mrs Long

F. mum

G. Laura

H. Keith

51 TEST 4

LISTENING TASK 3 A2

23 A great New Year’s Eve party

Listen to Fiona describing a picture of some of her friends at a New Year’s Eve party. Write their names in the boxes. You will hear the recording twice. The first one (0) is an example.

TEST 4 52
...................................
0.
...................................
2.
...................................
1. Fiona 3. 4.

LISTENING TASK 4 A2

24 Andrew's activities

Listen to Andrew talking about his weekly activities. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) for questions 1-3. Put a cross (X) in the correct box. Only one answer is correct. You will hear the recording twice. The first one (0) is an example.

0. What does

do twice a week?

3. What does

do on rainy Sunday mornings?

53 TEST 4
A B C D
Andrew
A B C D
1. What does Andrew do with his friends on Friday?
A B C D
2. On Thursday Andrew and his friends…
A B C D
Andrew

LISTENING TASK 5 A2

25 2nd June 1946: Italian women voted for the first time

Listen to Louise talking about the important Italian referendum held on 2nd June 1946. Answer the questions (1-8). Use a maximum of 4 words. Write your answers in the boxes. You will hear the recording twice. The first one (0) is an example.

0. When was the female right to vote recognised in Italy? In 1945.

1. Who recognised this right to Italian women?

2. Was Italy a republic at that time?

3. Who ruled Italy at that time?

4. When did Italian women vote?

5. Could women be elected too?

6. Who was Teresa Mattei?

7. Was she elected in 1946?

8. How old was she when she died? .................................................................................................

TEST 4 54
CLIL CIVICS

READING TASK 1 A1

William Shakespeare

Read the text about William Shakespeare. Are the sentences (1-7) true, false or not given? Put a cross (X) in the correct box. The first one (0) is an example.

William Shakespeare is the most famous English writer. “Romeo and Juliet” is his most famous play. It’s set in Verona and it’s the story of a young couple. Shakespeare was from Stratford-upon-Avon, in England.

You can still visit the house where he was born. He was also a poet and a great actor. He appeared in his plays at the Globe and other London theatres.

It was very popular to go to the theatre in Shakespeare’s time.

It wasn’t just for rich people, even poor people went regularly.

You can go and see Shakespeare’s plays at the new Globe Theatre now. The theatre is just like the old one.

0. Shakespeare isn’t the most famous English writer.

1. His most famous play is “Romeo and Juliet”.

2. Romeo and Juliet were 16 years old.

3. Shakespeare was born in Scotland.

4. Shakespeare’s birthplace was a big house.

5. He was also an actor at the Globe Theatre.

6. Theatre was only for rich people in Shakespeare’s time.

7. The new Globe Theatre is similar to the old one.

55 TEST 4
True False Not given

READING TASK 2 A1

Arundel Castle

Read the text about Arundel Castle. Answer the questions (1-6). Use a maximum of 4 words. Write your answers in the boxes. The first one (0) is an example.

AND Normans Crusaders

Normans Crusaders

0. Where does the “Normans and Crusaders” event take place? At Arundel Castle.

1. What time does it start?

2. What do the demonstrations include?

3. How old do you have to be to try “Have-a-go Archery?”

4. How long do the morning “Activities for all ages” last?

5. What time does the encampment end?

6. Where is Arundel Castle?

TEST 4 56
.................................................................................................
.................................................................................................
ANCIENT CASTLE STATELY HOME & GARDENS Arundel Castle, West Sussex. Friday 30th March to Sunday 28th October 2018, www.arundelcastle.org
AND SAT 31ST MARCH TO MON 2ND APRIL A 12th Century encampment is the wonderful
for demonstrations of
archery and falconry. Crafts include chain
leather working, scribing and cooking 10 am Living History Encampment Opens 10 am - 1 pm Have-a-go Archery 2 - 4 pm Over 8's only and height restrictions apply 10 am - 1 pm Activities for all ages 2 - 4 pm (Chapel and Upper American Ground) 11 am Armour Display (American Ground) 12 am Falconry Display 12.30 pm Combat and Archery Display 2.00 pm Falconry Display 2.30 pm Costume Display 3.00 pm Combat and Archery Display 4.30 pm Encampment Closes SAT 31ST MARCH TO MON 2ND APRIL
setting
armour, combat,
mail making.

READING TASK 3 A1

How to board a plane

What does a passenger have to do before flying? Read the instructions (A-H). Put the events into the order in which they take place (1-6). The first one (0) is an example. There is an event you do not need.

A. Then place your hand luggage, keys, belt etc. in the trays on the conveyor belt to go through the X-ray machine.

B. The check-in attendant will issue your boarding pass, then you can go to the security checkpoint.

C. Arrive at the airport in advance and go to the check-in desk.

D. When your flight number is called, queue to show your boarding pass to the agent. Walk through the “jetway” to reach the plane and find your seat.

E. A security agent will check your identity card or passport and boarding pass.

F. Book your flight online or at a travel agent’s.

G. After that, collect your things and go to your gate area, where you will wait before boarding.

H. Leave your suitcase unattended.

57 TEST 4
0. F 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

READING TASK 4 A2

Materials

Read the text about materials. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) for questions 1-5. Put a cross (X) in the correct box. Only one answer is correct. The first one (0) is an example.

Objects are made of a material. Some are made of glass, others of metal or wood. We can also find items made of cloth or plastic. These are basic materials. Metal is really heavy, hard and strong. If we touch it, it’s cold. There are a lot of objects made of metal. Think about our keys or when we eat. Don’t we use knives, forks and spoons?

If we analyse glass , we immediately see that it’s smooth. If we touch it, it’s cold. It’s hard but not as heavy as metal. It’s really fragile. Sometimes we use it for its transparency. An example of an object made of glass? Well... a glass!

In our daily life, we have objects made of wood too. Wood is not as heavy or strong as metal. But it’s stronger than glass. Chairs, tables and even our pencils are made of wood. They are light, hard and strong.

Cloth is another important material. It’s really light and soft. We can make clothing and blankets with it.

Last but not least, plastic. It is very light, it can be soft but it can also be hard. Today there are a lot of plastic objects like bags, bike helmets... our list could be very long!

TEST 4 58
CLIL TECHNOLOGY

0. Basic materials are

A. glass, cloth and wood.

B. glass only.

C. glass, wood, metal, plastic.

D. glass, wood, metal, cloth and plastic.

1. Metal is

A. heavy.

B. brittle.

C. clear.

D. soft.

2. Glass is

A. heavy.

B. brittle.

C. transparent.

D. soft.

3. Cloth is used to make

A. tables.

B. glasses.

C. forks.

D. shirts.

4. Plastic can be

A. fragile.

B. soft.

C. hard.

D. both soft and hard.

5. In our daily life

A. we have a lot of plastic items.

B. we have just few plastic items.

C. we haven’t got any plastic items.

D. plastic items are dangerous to use.

59 TEST 4

Being active citizens means...

Read what some students do to be active citizens (1-5) and match them with the activities (A-G). There is one sentence you do not need. Write your answers in the boxes. The first one (0) is an example.

0. “I always read and check what our mayor and councillors do for our local community.”

1. “I went to Rome with my classmates to participate in the Climate Strike last Friday.”

2. “My neighbourhood is a melting pot full of people, coming from all over the world. I like talking to them.”

3. “I want to protect the environment, so I reduce, reuse and recycle.”

4. “With other neighbours we like organizing parties so that the older people can stay with us and have fun.”

5. “As we have new neighbours who come from Morocco, Poland and Argentina, we want to have a multicultural party with food specialities.”

A. He wants to build a multicultural community also through food.

B. He organises a social event for the elderly.

C. He likes going on holiday with his foreign friends.

D. He likes talking with his neighbours.

E. He follows what his municipality does.

F. He is green.

G. He follows the movement called Fridays for Future.

TEST 4 60
READING TASK 5 A2
E
CLIL CIVICS

LISTENING TASK 1 A1

26 Food

Listen to Mark talking about his favourite food. While listening, answer the questions (1-6). Use a maximum of 4 words. Write your answers in the boxes. The first one (0) is an example. You will hear the recording twice.

0. What does Mark like doing? Cooking

1. What’s the name of the cakes Mark likes? ..........................................................................................

2. Do people around the world know scones?

3. Do people eat scones during the traditional afternoon tea?

4. How are the warm scones served?

5. Where was Mark yesterday?

6. Who was with him? ..........................................................................................

61 TEST 5

LISTENING TASK 2 A1

27 The cheetah

Listen to a Science teacher talking about the cheetah. Are the sentences true or false? While listening, put a cross in the correct box. The first one (0) is an example. You will hear the recording twice.

0. The cheetah is a member of the “Big Five” cat family.

1. It is the fastest animal on Earth.

2. It has the biggest head.

3. It has white fur with black spots.

4. Its stomach is white.

5. Cheetahs live in Europe.

6. They usually eat smaller animals like gazelles.

TEST 5 62
True False

LISTENING TASK 3 A1

28 A group of volunteers

Listen to Joseph describing some of his friends. Write their names in the boxes. You will hear the recording twice. The first one (0) is an example.

63 TEST 5
1. 0. Natalie 3. 2. CLIL CIVICS

LISTENING TASK 4 A2

29 Cooking classes

Listen to Claire talking to her mother about the cooking classes she and her friends are attending. While listening, choose the activity (A-H) for each friend (1-5). There are two activities you do not need. You will hear the recording twice. The first one (0) is an example.

People

0. Claire G

Cooking classes

A. Baking

B. Pastry and sweet things

C. Fresh pasta

D. Vegetarian

E. Street food

F. Healthy eating

G. Bread making

H. Burger making

TEST 5 64
1. Daniel 2. John 3. Monica 4. Emily ....... 5. Ian .......

LISTENING TASK 5 A2

30 A phone call from Spain

Listen to a telephone conversation between Mark and Sue. While listening, choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) for questions 1-6. Only one answer is correct. You will hear the recording twice. The first one (0) is an example.

0. Where is Sue?

A. In England.

B. At the airport.

C. In Spain.

D. At the restaurant.

1. When did she leave England?

A. Last Sunday.

B. Last Saturday.

C. Last Friday.

D. Last Thursday.

2. How did she get to the airport?

A. By car.

B. By taxi.

C. By bus.

D. On foot.

3. What happened when Sue’s mum found out the tickets weren’t in her bag?

A. They went to the airport without tickets.

B. They bought tickets again.

C. They phoned their German neighbours.

D. They drove back home.

4. When they arrived at the airport

A. their plane was taking o .

B. their plane wasn’t on time.

C. their plane was waiting for them.

D. the pilot shouted at them.

5. How old are Klaus and Werner?

A. They are as old as Sue and Ted.

B. They aren’t as old as Sue and Ted.

C. They are younger than Sue and Ted.

D. They are older than Sue and Ted.

6. What is Sue going to order at “La Locanda”?

A. Fish and chips.

B. International food.

C. Typical food.

D. Only rice.

65 TEST 5

Endangered animals

Read the text about animals in peril. Are the sentences (1-5) true, false or not given? Put a cross (X) in the correct box. The first one (0) is an example.

Around the world there are wild animals that are in danger of becoming extinct. They live in rainforests or the mountains, deserts, polar lands or even in the ocean. Some animals are so rare that they will die out forever. This can happen for many reasons, for example because of the large amount of predators or because of climate change. However, the main problem is that people are causing serious damage to the natural world and they are destroying the places where wild animals live. A lot of countries save animals at risk of extinction by protecting them in parks and reserves.

0. The text is about wild animals in danger of extinction.

1. Endangered animals don’t live in the mountains or in the ocean.

2. Some of the endangered animals are tigers and lions.

3. Some animals are very rare because of climate change.

4. People don’t destroy the places where they live.

5. A lot of countries protect endangered animals in reserves.

TEST 5 66 True False Not given
READING TASK 1 A1

Look at the notices

Match the sentences (1-5) with the notices (A-H). Write your answers in the boxes. There are two notices you do not need. The first one (0) is an example.

SALE! SALE! SALE!

LONDON SOUVENIRS 50% discount on EVERYTHING!

ON 2nd JUNE

The museum will be closed BECAUSE OF ROOF WORK

BELLA NAPOLI RESTAURANT OPEN EVERY DAY EXCEPT THURSDAYS

NOTICE TO RESIDENTS AND TOURISTS: footpath repair work will start next week. It will last three weeks

LONDON SIGHTSEEING TOUR

DAILY AT 9AM – 11AM

24-HOUR TOURIST INFORMATION LINE 07723657820

ALL CALLS ARE FREE

GUEST NOTICE

TOWELS LEFT ON THE RAIL MEANS

“I’ll use them again”.

TOWELS IN THE BATH OR SHOWER MEANS

“please change them”.

Thank you for your cooperation

CAR PARK

The management can’t accept responsibility for loss or damage of property or vehicles in this car park

0. You can visit this city every day. C

1. You can buy cheap items here.

2. If you phone this number, you don’t have to pay anything.

3. Don’t leave anything valuable in your vehicle.

4. If you want to have a meal there, check the day.

5. On this day, this building isn’t open.

67 TEST 5
READING TASK 2 A1
A B C D E F G H

READING TASK 3 A2

Types of energy

Read the text about energy. Match the missing words with the gaps (1-5). There is one word you do not need. The first one (0) is an example.

If we want to study (0) , we must know that there are two kinds: kinetic energy and potential energy. The first one is energy (1) . The other is (2) energy, also called latent. So, if there is something in motion, we know kinetic energy is used. Think about a ball, when we throw it, it moves. The energy.

(4) is kinetic energy because it involves electrons moving in a conductor.

Potential energy is latent energy which can be transformed into kinetic energy.

(5) is an example of stored energy because, if we burn it, it releases latent energy. Coal, wood and gas are other examples of stored energy.

TEST 5 68
0. A 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
energy
Electricity
stored
“moving”
water
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Oil
in motion CLIL TECHNOLOGY
F.
G.

READING

The European Green Award

Read and answer the questions (1-5). Use a maximum of 4 words. Write your answers in the boxes. The first one (0) is an example.

At a time when many of the world’s great cities are facing chronic environmental problems, we need inspirational examples showing what cities can do to deal with them. Most of the environmental challenges facing our society happen in urban areas: and it is these areas that have the potential and the resources to bring together the commitment and generate the innovation needed to solve them. We have to think beyond traditional problems. Caring for the urban environment doesn’t just mean cutting CO2 emissions. It also means thinking about the air we breathe, the water we drink and the noise that affects us. The European Green Capital Award promotes ideas such as sustainable mobility, modern waste management, sustainable land use, eco-innovation and other green technologies which drive towards sustainable development and more resourceefficient life.

0. Where do most of the environmental challenges take place? In urban areas

1. Can these places develop innovation?

2. Is cutting C02 emissions the solution to protect the environment?

3. What else do we have to think about to protect the environment?

(Give two options)

4. What kind of technologies does the European Green Award promote?

5. What kind of life can people have if there is sustainable development? .................................................................................................

69 TEST 5
TASK 4 A2
CLIL CIVICS

READING TASK 5 A2

The history of running

Read the the text and choose an answer (A, B, C, or D) for questions 1-6. Put a cross (X) in the correct box. Only one answer is correct. The first one (0) is an example.

Running has always been present in our society. It was already present in Ancient Greece more than 2,700 years ago, thanks to the Olympic Games.

But it’s in the 16th century that something happened. During this period, in fact, the term “jogging” appeared, meaning the activity of running at a slow regular speed.

The upper classes started to run and jog. Swordsmen used these physical activities for their training. At the end of the 19th century and during the 20th , running and jogging were really popular, in particular when Athletics became a professional sport. This discipline appeared in 1896 during the first Modern Olympic Games in Athens, organised by a committee created by Pierre de Coubertin.

There, the first modern marathon race was held. The race followed the legendary route of Pheidippides in 490 BC. A group of gentlemen, who saw the race, decided to organise the first edition of the Boston Marathon the following year, both for professional sportsmen and normal people. Eighteen athletes participated. Now over 20,000 people participate in this event in Boston every year!

Another important event is the London Marathon, an annual appointment for people who love running. On 2nd October 2022, more than 40.000 athletes participated.

TEST 5 70
CLIL P.E.

0. When did the term “jogging” appear?

A. 2,700 years ago

B. In 1800 BC

C. In the 1500s

D. In 1896

1. What does jogging mean?

A. Barefoot running

B. Endurance running

C. High speed running

D. Running at a steady, gentle pace

2. What discipline did become a professional sport at the end of the 19th century?

A. Badminton

B. Baseball

C. Taekwondo

D. Athletics

3. Where was the first modern marathon edition held?

A. In Ancient Greece

B. In London

C. In Boston

D. In Athens

5. Who used running and jogging for training?

A. Men who usually fought with a gun.

B. Men who usually fought with a sword.

C. Men who usually fought with bombs.

D. Men who usually fought with a rifle.

6. Why was the end of the 19th century and the beginning of the 20th important for running?

A. Because of the Olympic Games.

B. Because athletics became a professional sport.

C. Because the upper class wanted to organise a lot of running events.

D. Because swordsmen used to run.

4. When was the first modern marathon held?

A. In 490 BC

B. In 1896

C. In 1897

D. In 2022

71 TEST 5

Redazione: Francesca Ceppi, Clarissa Coppari

Coordinamento digitale: Paolo Giuliani

Redazione digitale: Silvia Di Loreto

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