Test Bank for Fundamentals of Human Neuropsychology Eighth Edition

Test Bank for Fundamentals of Human Neuropsychology Eighth Edition

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Chapter 01: Multiple Choice Multiple Choice 1. Following damage to his frontal lobes, subject L.D. had lasting impairments in: a. visual perception. b. attention. c. motor-skill acquisition. d. balance.

ANSWER: b 2. Neuropsychology uses information from many disciplines. Which discipline is NOT one of those? a. ethology b. pharmacology c. biophysics d. mycology ANSWER: d 3. Communication between cerebral hemispheres occurs via the: a. somatic nerves. b. lateral fissure. c. arcuate fasciculus. d. corpus callosum.

ANSWER: d 4. Which brain structures create boundaries within the lobes of the brain? a. gyri and sulci b. sulci and fissures c. lobes d. forebrain and spinal cord ANSWER: a 5. The corpus callosum is the largest of the brain's: a. subcortical nuclei. b. commissures. c. cortical lobes. d. sensory nerves.

ANSWER: b 6. The brain and spinal cord together make up the _____ nervous system. a. autonomic b. peripheral c. central Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Multiple Choice d. somatic ANSWER: c 7. Which individual prompted such phrases as “put your heart into it” and “wore his heart on his sleeve” in regards to the relationship between the heart and behavior? a. Plato b. Galen c. Aristotle d. Hippocrates ANSWER: c 8. Descartes was an articulate proponent of: a. monism. b. dualism. c. the cardiac hypothesis. d. nonmaterialism.

ANSWER: b 9. If a person believes that brain function is the source of only some behaviors, it is accurate to refer to that person as a: a. mentalist. b. behaviorist. c. materialist. d. dualist.

ANSWER: d 10. With respect to the “mind–body” problem, followers of Wallace and Darwin would MOST likely consider themselves to be: a. mentalists. b. materialists. c. dualists. d. agnostics.

ANSWER: b 11. Two individuals developed similar theories of evolution at about the same time. Charles Darwin was one; the other was: a. William Osler. b. Pierre Flourens. c. Pierre Marie. d. Alfred Wallace.

ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Multiple Choice 12. Materialism is the philosophical position that all behavior can be explained by the: a. workings of the physical nervous system and body alone. b. interaction of the physical brain and nonphysical soul. c. motivated pursuit of material well-being. d. flow of cerebrospinal fluid between ventricles and muscles.

ANSWER: a 13. Darwin's principle that all animals' nervous systems evolved from that of a common ancestor predicted that: a. all living things can in theory be traced back to the same ancient unknown ancestor. b. over time, nervous systems have come to have increasingly more in common at the neural level. c. functionally different structures in different species share common ancestral genes and mechanisms. d. brain–behavior relationships have remained largely unchanged during the course of evolution.

ANSWER: d 14. Although the phrenologists were misguided in many respects, Gall actually did report, more or less accurately, the first case of _____ following left frontal damage. a. cortical blindness b. hysterical paralysis c. the loss of the ability to speak d. personality change ANSWER: c 15. Although all of the individuals listed made contributions to our knowledge of the lateralization of language functions in the brain, _____ is generally credited with the MOST important findings. a. Dax b. Bouillaud c. Marie d. Broca ANSWER: d 16. The cortical area MOST closely associated with speech comprehension is the _____ lobe. a. temporal b. frontal c. occipital d. parietal ANSWER: a 17. Apraxia is the inability to: a. learn a new motor skill. b. produce articulate speech.

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Chapter 01: Multiple Choice c. make sequences of movements. d. combine sensory stimuli into a coherent perception.

ANSWER: c 18. The currently used medical diagnosis persistent vegetative state MOST closely reflects the nervous system's: a. hierarchical organization. b. conduction aphasia. c. localization of function. d. Hebb synapse.

ANSWER: a 19. A person who cannot understand how the brain ties together past perceptions and actions in a unified memory is pondering: a. apraxia. b. the binding problem. c. aphasia. d. neuron theory.

ANSWER: b 20. The scientist who discovers how a unitary perception is made from multiple streams of sensory information will have solved the: a. mind–body problem. b. binding problem. c. problem of other minds. d. laterality conundrum.

ANSWER: b 21. Sherrington's studies of the reflex arc in dogs led him to conclude that: a. there are gaps between individual communicating neurons. b. communicating neurons are directly connected with one another. c. all neural communication is electrical in nature. d. reflexes are coordinated by the pineal body, even in dogs.

ANSWER: a 22. The scientific discipline BEST associated with the development of intelligence tests is: a. neurology. b. psychosurgery. c. psychometrics. d. neuropsychology.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Multiple Choice 23. Individuals with deficits in executive functioning would likely have difficulty with: a. critical thinking and multistep tasks. b. critical thinking and single-step tasks. c. basic reasoning and motor skills. d. basic reasoning and balance.

ANSWER: a 24. Considering functional development, why would the spinal cord develop prior to the forebrain? a. Cognitive abilities are not essential for survival. b. Higher order functioning precedes conducting information to and from the brain. c. Sensory information processing precedes the development of higher order functioning. d. Executive functioning tasks are secondary to regulatory functioning of the brainstem.

ANSWER: c 25. A set of siblings suffered neurological damage following a car accident. Sibling A has had a slow and incomplete recovery, while sibling B has fully recovered. Considering their recovery, what portion of their nervous system was likely damaged? a. sibling A – central nervous system, sibling B – peripheral nervous system b. sibling A – peripheral nervous system, sibling B – central nervous system c. sibling A – central nervous system, sibling B – central nervous system d. sibling A – peripheral nervous system, sibling B – peripheral nervous system ANSWER: a 26. How does examination of patients with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) further neurological knowledge? a. aids researchers in connecting damage to localization and lateralization of function b. provides an understanding of neuroplasticity c. provides an understanding of the mind–body connection d. aids researchers in understanding the material versus the nonmaterial mind ANSWER: a 27. Why was Wernicke's idea of disconnection revolutionary? a. It explained new language disorders. b. It built upon previous theories of brain functioning. c. It demonstrated not only lateral and localization of function but also interdependence of brain structures. d. It demonstrated the importance of studying brain lesions.

ANSWER: c 28. How can current technology, such as deep brain stimulation, CT scans, and MRIs, aid in understanding consciousness?

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Chapter 01: Multiple Choice a. aids in a better understanding of the connection between behavior and consciousness b. aids in a better understanding of the lack of consciousness c. helps restore consciousness in impaired patients d. helps determine differences between persistent vegetative state (PVS) and minimally conscious state (MCS) ANSWER: a 29. Extensive study of H.M. BEST demonstrates: a. support of two brain theory. b. effective treatment of epilepsy. c. that amnesia can be the result of brain damage. d. that memories are encoded and stored in multiple areas of the brain.

ANSWER: d 30. What is the reasoning as to why D.F. could see an object when performing an action but could not recognize the item being acted on? a. damage to the motor cortex b. damage to both visual and motor areas c. damage to the pathway from the visual cortex to the temporal lobe d. damage to the pathway from the visual cortex to the parietal lobe ANSWER: c 31. D.F. had damage to what brain structure? a. parietal lobe b. ventral stream c. frontal lobe d. dorsal stream ANSWER: b 32. Patients with brain damage like L.D., H.M., and D.F. BEST demonstrate: a. the importance of conscious behavior. b. the importance of studying and understanding brain lesions. c. examples of the binding problem. d. the connection of conscious and unconscious behavior for sensory information.

ANSWER: d 33. How do individuals experience memory and vision? a. as a single pathway of conscious behavior b. as multiple pathways of conscious behavior c. as a single pathway of both conscious and unconscious behavior d. as multiple pathways of both conscious and unconscious behavior Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 34. How would neural communication differ if each neuron had only one dendrite? a. slower communication between neurons b. increased transfer of information within the neuron c. increased communication between neurons d. no notable difference in transfer of information within the neuron ANSWER: a 35. How can stained images of a neuron support the theories that neurons are autonomous and interconnected? a. Neurons can work together and be the functional unit of the nervous system. b. Neurons can work as a neural net for learning while still being the basic unit of the nervous system. c. Neuron staining supports only Cajal's theory. d. Neuron staining supports only Golgi's theory.

ANSWER: b 36. Studies in electrical stimulation of the brain support the idea of: a. functional and lateral localization. b. neuroplasticity. c. phrenology. d. hierarchical organization.

ANSWER: a 37. Neuroplasticity is seen in patients with TBI, and it is also related to: a. taste. b. learning. c. vision. d. smell.

ANSWER: b 38. Neurosurgery and neuropsychology studies allow for a better understanding of: a. consciousness. b. brain lesions. c. both “typical” and “atypical” behavior. d. learning.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 01: Short Answer 1. Distinguish between sulci and gyri in the cerebral cortex.

ANSWER: Gyri are folds or bumps in the cortex, while sulci are creases or indentations in the cortex.

2. Distinguish between the functions of the spinal cord, brainstem, and forebrain.

ANSWER: The spinal cord conveys sensory information to the brain and sends information from the brain to the muscles about movement. The brainstem mediates regulatory functions like eating and drinking, and the forebrain mediates cognitive functions.

3. What was Descartes's view of the mind–body problem?

ANSWER: Descartes believed the mind and body were separate entities. He viewed the nonmaterial mind as controlling the material body through the pineal body in the brain.

4. For the study of nervous system functions, what are the implications of Darwin's theory that all animals had a common ancestor?

ANSWER: Darwin's theory inspired the study of nervous system functions in different species for comparison with one another. If all animals, including humans, have a common ancestor, then there will be similarities across species in brain structure and function.

5. Why is aphasia following a stroke usually associated with paralysis or difficulty with movement on the right side of the body?

ANSWER: Damage to the frontal lobe usually results in motor impairment of movements on the contralateral side of the body. Since damage to the left frontal lobe is associated with aphasia, it would also be associated with motor impairments on the right side of the body.

6. What was Broca's main contribution to the concept of lateralization of function in the human brain?

ANSWER: Broca's clinical studies established that speech was associated with damage to the third frontal convolution of the cortex in the left frontal lobe. This is probably the first documented lateralized function in the human brain.

7. What was Wernicke's main contribution to the concept of a modular functional organization of the human brain?

ANSWER: Wernicke created the first model of how the brain produces language, where damage to the left temporal lobe would result in an inability to understand language, even though speech movements from Broca's area were intact and hearing preserved. This introduced the idea that independent modules handle different aspects of language processing, even though they work together.

8. Describe how the concept of hierarchical organization, as stated by Hughlings-Jackson, is consistent with the apparently disparate research findings of localizationist and antilocalizationist theories of brain function.

ANSWER: The hierarchical organization model of Hughlings-Jackson suggests that behaviors are represented in each level of the hierarchy, such that damage at one level leaves a simpler form of the behavior from the lower parts of the hierarchy. This is consistent with both localizationist and antilocalizationist research results.

9. Briefly discuss what John Hughlings-Jackson meant by his concept of hierarchical organization and its connection with brain trauma.

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Chapter 01: Short Answer ANSWER: Hughlings-Jackson suggested that the spinal cord, brainstem, and forebrain developed successively, in that order, during evolution. Earlier-evolved animals and animals with injuries at higher levels would have simpler behaviors than those with the spinal cord, brainstem, and forebrain intact.

10. What contributions have been made by the study of split-brain subjects to our understanding of the organization of cognitive abilities?

ANSWER: Such studies have allowed for the study of the behavioral capacity of each hemisphere in isolation from the other, and these studies have revealed the relative lateralization of cognitive processes related to language in one hemisphere and spatial processing in the other hemisphere.

11. Sketch and label the main parts of a neuron.

ANSWER: See Figure 1.9, “Major Parts of a Neuron,” in the text.

12. Of what historical significance were the experiments of Fritsch and Hitzig?

ANSWER: Their studies demonstrated that the cerebral cortex is electrically excitable and that such electrical stimulation in different cortical areas produced movements in specific body regions contralateral to the stimulated hemisphere. This demonstrated topographical organization of the motor cortex.

13. What definitive evidence refutes the nerve net hypothesis of the nervous system?

ANSWER: Electron microscopy studies in the twentieth century showed that each neuron is a physically separate entity.

14. What does it mean for the cortex to be organized topographically?

ANSWER: It means that mapping specific areas of the cortex is possible for information coming from or being sent to a particular body region. Such a mapping on the cortex represents a specific spatial transformation of the topography of the body's surface.

15. What is a Hebb synapse?

ANSWER: A Hebb synapse is a synapse that has been altered to become more efficient on the basis of use, as in a synapse that takes part in a neural network that stores memory.

16. Describe the contributions of psychometrics to the field of neuropsychology.

ANSWER: The standardization of measures of various abilities developed for IQ testing has been employed to objectively evaluate the effects of dysfunction in specific brain regions. These data provided the first details of functional models of the human brain.

17. Discuss the ways statistics are useful in dealing with individual differences in neuropsychological experiments.

ANSWER: Statistics have allowed the ability to see patterns of abilities in large samples, as in the use of frequency distributions. Such summaries of data led to the discovery of the normal distributions of abilities and allow for more accurate quantification of individual differences in ability associated with brain dysfunction in various specific brain regions.

18. Compare Aristotle's and Descartes's view of the mind.

ANSWER: Aristotle was a proponent of mentalism, while Descartes followed the theory of dualism. Both Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Short Answer believed that a nonmaterial “psyche” or mind was separate from the body but worked through structures within the body to produce action.

19. Explain how studies in electrical stimulation of the brain in animals have impacted neurological research.

ANSWER: Studies in electrical stimulation in animals were the basis of understanding that the flow of electricity through the body causes muscle contraction. More broadly, electrical stimulation research has demonstrated the flow of information within the brain.

20. Describe the influence of neurosurgery on the field of neuropsychology.

ANSWER: Advancements in neurosurgery have allowed for the mapping of the brain during surgeries for removal of brain lesions. Stimulation of brain tissue during these surgeries demonstrated the extent of the damage. Correlations between the location of brain lesions and behavior changes gave rise to further neuropsychological knowledge.

Different theorists throughout the ages have placed mental processes in various parts of the body. Choose the appropriate body region for each theorist. a. pineal gland b. heart c. brain 21. Aristotle ANSWER: b 22. Descartes ANSWER: a 23. modern neuroscientists ANSWER: c The nineteenth century saw increased scientific interest in the functions of the brain. Match the scientist(s) with the MOST appropriate phrase. a. conduction aphasia b. recovery of function c. electrical excitability of the cortex d. left hemisphere localization for speech 24. Dax ANSWER: d 25. Wernicke ANSWER: a 26. Flourens ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Short Answer 27. Fritsch and Hitzig ANSWER: c Following Broca, several other investigators extended knowledge regarding the association of brain damage and language and movement disorders. For each individual, choose the MOST appropriate alternative from the list. a. Wernicke b. Dejerine c. Hughlings-Jackson d. Liepmann 28. fluent aphasia ANSWER: a 29. alexia ANSWER: b 30. hierarchical organization ANSWER: c 31. apraxia ANSWER: d The history of neuropsychology has been influenced by a variety of hypotheses regarding the functional organization of the human brain. For each hypothesis, choose the individual MOST closely associated with that idea. a. antilocalization b. hierarchical organization c. nerve net hypothesis d. neuron hypothesis 32. Goltz ANSWER: a 33. Hughlings-Jackson ANSWER: b 34. Golgi ANSWER: c 35. Ramón y Cajal ANSWER: d Match the individual(s) with the MOST appropriate term. a. Galvani Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 01: Short Answer b. Hodgkin and Huxley c. Sherrington d. Loewi 36. electrical stimulation of muscle contractions ANSWER: a 37. ionic conduction of nerve impulse ANSWER: b 38. synapse ANSWER: c 39. chemical neurotransmission ANSWER: d For each discipline, choose the MOST appropriate alternative. a. neurosurgery b. psychometrics c. brain imaging d. phrenology 40. stereotaxic device ANSWER: a 41. intelligence quotient ANSWER: b 42. positron emission tomography ANSWER: c 43. failed in developing a functional atlas of the human brain ANSWER: d

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Chapter 02: Multiple Choice Multiple Choice 1. All animals along a particular branch of a cladogram: a. share specific physical or behavioral traits. b. are genetically identical to one another. c. are genetically unrelated to one another. d. are behaviorally dissimilar.

ANSWER: a 2. The full set of a species' genes is known as its: a. genome. b. phenome. c. chromosome. d. nucleosome.

ANSWER: a 3. Modern chimpanzees and humans share about _____ of their genes. a. 75% b. 95% c. 87% d. 99% ANSWER: d 4. The fossil evidence suggests that _____ was the first hominid to walk upright. a. Australopithecus b. H. habilis c. H. erectus d. H. americanus ANSWER: a 5. Parkinson disease affects approximately 1% of the population. Currently there are treatments but no cure.

Which methodology illustrates how scientists investigate various aspects of the disease in pursuit of a cure? a. They develop models of the disease in the hope of mimicking manifestations of it in animals. b. They extract DNA from humans with the disease and attempt to produce a clone that can be studied further. c. They examine pathology reports from different species of animals for abnormalities in the alleles. d. They generate computer algorithms that can predict the incidence rate of disease.

ANSWER: a 6. I left footprints over 3 million years ago. Research has shown that I walked upright based on shape of the back, pelvic, knee and foot bones.

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Chapter 02: Multiple Choice a. Homo habilis. b. Bigfoot. c. Homo erectus. d. Australopithecus.

ANSWER: d 7. I made simple stone tools. I am about 2 million years old. Louis Leakey found me in the Olduvai Gorge. My name is: a. Australopithecus. b. Homo erectus. c. Homo habilis. d. Homo sapiens.

ANSWER: c 8. Which of these is MOST ancient? a. H. erectus b. A. africanus c. A. robustus d. H. habilis ANSWER: b 9. Mammals with EQs larger than 1.0 would most likely have a _____ brain than is expected for mammals of that particular body weight. a. smaller b. larger c. more complex d. less complex ANSWER: b 10. The average size of the human brain is between _____ cm3. a. 800 and 1000 b. 1300 and 1400 c. 5000 and 10,000 d. 500 and 600 ANSWER: b 11. Choose the correct ordering of encephalization quotients for the following list of species (from highest to lowest). a. chimpanzee, human, monkey, cat b. human, monkey, chimpanzee, cat c. human, chimpanzee, monkey, cat Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Multiple Choice d. human, cat, chimpanzee, monkey ANSWER: c 12. The encephalization quotient of modern humans is _____ that of chimpanzees. a. equal to b. two times c. three times d. five times ANSWER: c 13. Which of these has the highest EQ? a. dolphin b. elephant c. cat d. rat ANSWER: a 14. The encephalization quotient relates a mammalian species': a. number of gyri to number of sulci. b. actual brain size to the brain size of humans. c. actual brain size to its expected brain size. d. average brain weight to average body weight.

ANSWER: c 15. The evolutionary adaptation by which juvenile features of predecessor species become the adult features of descendent species is: a. phylogeny. b. monotony. c. neoteny. d. ontogeny.

ANSWER: c 16. Falk has suggested that the opportunity for brain expansion in the hominids is directly related to: a. bipedalism. b. development of more dispersed blood flow. c. tool making. d. language development.

ANSWER: b 17. The anatomical structures of rat and of monkey brains: a. are functionally, but not structurally, similar to those of the human brain.

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Chapter 02: Multiple Choice b. are structurally, but not functionally, similar to those of the human brain. c. are structurally and functionally similar to the human brain. d. cannot be compared to those of the human brain.

ANSWER: c 18. The MOST recent stage of hominid evolution has involved the development of: a. tool use. b. reading and writing. c. agriculture. d. artistic relics.

ANSWER: b 19. Homeobox genes dictate both _____ in fruit flies and _____ in the human nervous system. a. brain segmentation; cortical laminations b. body segmentation; central nervous system segmentation c. cortical segmentation; ocular development d. cortical laminations; increased parietal lobe development ANSWER: b 20. The study of nonhuman species is NOT useful in: a. understanding basic mechanisms of brain function. b. producing models of human neurological disorders. c. describing evolutionary adaptations. d. developing treatments for language disorders.

ANSWER: d 21. A phylogenetic lineage refers to a: a. known sequence of fossil records describing the evolution of a species. b. hypothetical sequence of animals representing consecutive stages in evolutionary history. c. sequence of living animals having identical neurobiological and cognitive abilities. d. listing of animals that have almost, but not quite, evolved.

ANSWER: b 22. Which evolutionary sequence is correct, based on the phylogenetic lineage described in the textbook? a. striate cortex, large temporal lobes, large parietal lobes, large frontal lobes b. large temporal lobes, large parietal lobes, large frontal lobes, striate cortex c. striate cortex, large temporal lobes, large frontal lobes, large parietal lobes d. large temporal lobes, striate cortex, large frontal lobes, large parietal lobes ANSWER: c 23. A patient arrived at the neurology department for an evaluation. Presenting symptoms included memory Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Multiple Choice loss, increased abnormal involuntary movements, and other diminished behaviors. Following a comprehensive exam that also included genetic testing, the diagnosis for this patient is MOST likely to be _____ disease. a. dystonia b. Parkinson c. Tay-Sachs d. Huntington ANSWER: d 24. According to the textbook, the brain region whose growth is MOST associated with the evolution of modern humans is the: a. cerebellum. b. limbic system. c. temporal lobe. d. parietal lobe.

ANSWER: d 25. The larger frontal lobes of primates have come to be associated with: a. emotional processing of facial expression. b. high-level visual pattern recognition. c. balance and coordination. d. executive functions such as complex social behaviors.

ANSWER: d 26. Relative to animals with poor vision, animals that have high-acuity color vision and good depth perception would be expected to have: a. a relative expansion of the occipital cortex. b. a relative expansion of the frontal cortex. c. a relative shrinkage of the occipital cortex. d. no differences in cortical structure.

ANSWER: a 27. The human genome is comprised of approximately _____ genes. a. 20,000 b. 200,000 c. 2 million d. 23 ANSWER: a 28. Variables that influence whether and how a gene is expressed do NOT include: a. nutrition. b. neglect.

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Chapter 02: Multiple Choice c. education. d. phrenological profile.

ANSWER: d 29. A variety of movement disorders result in an array of symptoms. Some disorders result in involuntary movements, while others result in poor muscle tone that may prohibit the individual from walking. One of these disorders was found to be responsive to increases in dopamine. Which methodology led to this treatment? a. genome sequencing b. functional magnetic resonance imaging c. neuropsychological assessment d. knockout technology that inactivates genes ANSWER: a 30. Genetic mutations are: a. usually disruptive. b. usually beneficial. c. sometimes both disruptive and beneficial. d. only known to be neutral.

ANSWER: c 31. Tay-Sachs disease is inherited through a _____ gene, and Huntington disease is inherited through a _____ gene. a. dominant; recessive b. recessive; dominant c. recessive; recessive d. dominant; dominant ANSWER: b 32. Down syndrome is an _____, while Tay-Sachs disease involves an _____. a. inherited dominant allele; abnormality in chromosome number b. inherited dominant allele; inherited dominant allele c. inherited recessive allele; inherited dominant allele d. abnormality in chromosome number; inherited recessive allele ANSWER: d 33. Phenotypic plasticity accounts for the way that: a. identical genotypes produce identical phenotypes. b. identical genotypes do not produce identical phenotypes. c. clones always look identical to the parent whose genotype is used. d. environmental differences don't alter the phenotype of identical twins.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Multiple Choice 34. Phenotypic plasticity is due in part to: a. changes in a genotype. b. a genome's capacity to express a large number of phenotypes. c. the variability of the Y chromosome. d. errors in chromosome number.

ANSWER: b 35. The epigenetic code is a second code governing protein production through environmental influences that: a. turn on all genes. b. turn off all genes. c. block (suppress) the expression of some genes and unlock the expression of others. d. alter some genetic sequences.

ANSWER: c 36. A common epigenetic mechanism that suppresses gene expression is: a. gene mutation. b. chromosomal trisomy. c. latent allele dominance. d. DNA methylation.

ANSWER: d 37. According to Mendelian genetics theory, experience _____, but it appears that through epigenetic mechanisms it _____. a. is often inherited; is never inherited b. cannot be inherited; can be inherited c. can be inherited in one subsequent generation; can be inherited across many generations d. is sometimes inherited; is only inherited ANSWER: b 38. An individual from a secluded town in Europe goes to visit his doctor for a physical examination. The physician relays to the man that he has diabetes and will require some medication and dietary modifications to control this disorder. According to research by Bygren (2007), what is a potential source of this man's health issues? a. During a critical period, the man's grandmother consumed a diet lacking nutritional food. b. During a critical period, the man's grandfather consumed a diet lacking nutritional food. c. During a critical period, the man's grandmother consumed a diet rich in nutrition. d. During a critical period, the man's grandfather consumed a diet rich in nutrition.

ANSWER: d 39. If you were tasked with devising an experimental protocol that would allow you to distinguish between an Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Multiple Choice animal and its clone, what would you need to do? a. following examination of the genome, examine the genotypic abnormalities b. following examination of the genome, examine for phenotypic plasticity c. investigate the epigenetic codes for abnormalities d. investigate the potential effects of chimeric-linked behaviors ANSWER: b 40. What is called a DNA copy disorder can sometimes have a tremendous effect on an individual's phenotype.

One such disorder is: a. Tay-Sachs. b. Huntington disease. c. trisomy 21. d. HexA deficiency.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 02: Short Answer 1. Identify the approximate dates of emergence of the following: H. habilis, H. erectus, H. sapiens, cave paintings, agriculture, reading and writing.

ANSWER: H. habilis: 2 million years ago; H. erectus: 1.6 million years ago; H. sapiens: 200,000 years ago; cave paintings: 30,000 years ago; agriculture: 15,000 years ago; reading and writing: 7,000 years ago 2. Provide the following in evolutionary order: H. sapiens, H. neanderthalensis, A. africanus, H. habilis, and H. erectus.

ANSWER: The evolutionary order is (1) A. africanus, (2) H. habilis, (3) H. erectus, (4) H. neanderthalensis, and (5) H. sapiens.

3. Discuss some of the drawbacks to the idea that a correlation between brain size and intelligence is all one really needs to consider when trying to determine differences in intelligence in different species.

ANSWER: Brain size is very hard to measure accurately; it increases greatly during development and decreases in advanced age and due to disease. In addition, if the neuron is the significant cell in the brain for information processing, then the number of neurons in a brain and the complexity of their functional connections would be expected to be more likely than simply the gross size of a brain to correlate with intelligence.

4. Why might IQ tests be considered superficial or narrow measures of intelligence?

ANSWER: Most IQ tests only measure performance in a small range of human abilities. Functional brainimaging studies have revealed individual and independent neural networks associated with different abilities measured by different intelligence tests. This implies that one intelligence test is not assessing all types of neural networks.

5. Describe the proposed evolutionary relationship between variations in cortical lobe structural developments and the complexity of behavior.

ANSWER: Correspondences between cortical lobe structural developments in the four cortical lobes and increased behavioral complexity have been pro-social. For example, phylogenic increases in the frontal lobes in the rhesus monkey are believed to be related to its more complex, group social lifestyle.

6. Distinguish between autosomes and chromosome 23.

ANSWER: Chromosomes 1 to 22 are autosomes whose genetic contributions are to physical appearance and behavior, while chromosome pair 23 contributes to the physical and behavioral sexual characteristics.

7. Name three genetic engineering techniques, and describe a unique benefit or feature about each.

ANSWER: Three such techniques include the following: (1) Selective breeding involves selectively breeding individuals with one specific trait with individuals with that same trait. Benefits of selective breeding include being able to create a breed that could carry out a desired function, such as dogs that can carry heavy loads or climb rocky terrain. (2) Cloning involves production of a second individual from the genotype of the first “parental” individual. A benefit of this technique is the development of new tissue that can be used for transplants, as well as studying the influence of the environment while holding heredity constant. (3) Transgenic techniques involve implanting or Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Short Answer removing specific genes from an embryo to modify its genotype. Benefits of transgenic methodology include being able to engage in research that could lead to treatment or potentially identifying a cure for diseases such as Huntington disease.

8. Explain the relationship between size of social groups and brain size.

ANSWER: It is widely accepted that the human prefrontal cortex is the largest and most advanced region compared to earlier nonhuman primates. Some functional aspects of this structure include language and executive functions. With respect to language, it can be inferred that having a means to communicate would be advantageous to a group as a means of fostering relationships. Executive function is an umbrella term that includes behaviors such as emotional regulation, impulsivity, planning, and abstract thinking. All of these “higher-level” actions may also be considered to underpin successful social interactions. When we socialize or work within a group setting to accomplish a task, it is helpful if we are also considerate in our approach and use of language.

9. Analyze the relationship between brain size and neurological disease.

ANSWER: Neurological damage occurring early in the neurodevelopmental trajectory can result in profound deficits in cortical volume. We know that diminished brain volume can occur from a variety of etiologies, whether it's the result of traumatic injury, or stress, or even behavioral neglect. Such was the case of children who were deprived of language during early childhood. When later examined, the left hemisphere was found to be severely underdeveloped. We also know from other studies involving maternal stress that drug use/abuse also results in decreased brain size.

10. Explain how memes can influence brain development.

ANSWER: Memes consist of cultural ideas and behaviors that are spread from person to person. The elements that become a means for survival can force evolutionary selection. For example, the development and use of tools will contribute to the survival of those that use tools over those that cannot.

Similarly, you could expect that those that could develop and use language have a great chance at surviving, being able to alert others of predators.

11. It has been said that studying the changes in the brain from an evolutionary perspective is comparable to the study of neurodevelopment in humans. Explain.

ANSWER: When evaluating the differences between the brains of earlier species and modern humans, one of the assessments is in the area of size. Scientists examine the differential cortical size across species with respect to functional abilities. Similarly, neurodevelopmental psychologists also examine differences in cortical size and related functions. For example, when an infant is born, the cortex is not yet the size of an adult's. Relatedly, many of their functional abilities are not mature, and they are unable to engage in certain activities such as language and executive functions.

12. Explain the differences between genotype and phenotype and how they contribute to disease incidence.

ANSWER: Our genotype is reflective of our chromosomal building blocks. However, that genomic structure, despite its complexity, does not account for the role of the environment. Phenotypic plasticity is what allows for the influence of our unique environment both at the cellular level and externally once we are born. Regarding disease, the fact that concordance rates of disease between identical twins is less than perfect—SZ, AD, and MS, among others, are around 30-60%—points to a very significant impact of environmental factors that allow for the phenotypic expression of some factors in certain individuals.

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Chapter 02: Short Answer 13. Design an experimental protocol that would investigate a particular allele expressed in a genetic disorder.

ANSWER: Knock-in technology would be a useful technique to investigate the role of specific genes in a disorder like Huntington disease. The first step is to add the human gene of interest, which in the case of Huntington's would require the Huntingtin allele, which is abnormal. Once the abnormal allele has been added to the animal (typically mice), you can examine the development of disease progression. You could also attempt behavioral interventions to determine whether various strategies are beneficial for motor control. You could also examine cognitive decline over a specified time frame. Additionally, you could explore whether a particular chemical would effectively act upon the abnormal allele and prevent cell death. This could lay the foundation for additional research.

Match each hominid with the appropriate alternative. a. A. africanus b. H. habilis c. H. erectus d. H. sapiens 14. smaller brain but probably used tools ANSWER: a 15. toolmakers ANSWER: b 16. larger brain and migrated to Europe and Asia ANSWER: c 17. appeared in the past 200,000 years ANSWER: d Place each of the milestones in an evolutionary context by matching the event with the appropriate time frame. a. toolmakers b. reading and writing c. agriculture d. cave paintings (art) 18. 2 million years ago ANSWER: a 19. 7,000 years ago ANSWER: b 20. 15,000 years ago ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 02: Short Answer 21. 30,000 years ago ANSWER: d Match each term with its definition. a. dominant allele b. recessive allele c. codominance d. X chromosome 22. routinely expressed as a trait ANSWER: a 23. routinely unexpressed as a trait ANSWER: b 24. both alleles' traits expressed completely ANSWER: c 25. contributes to female physical and behavioral characteristics ANSWER: d

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Chapter 03: Multiple Choice 1. Explain why ischemic stroke treatment would be ineffective and/or potentially more damaging for a hemorrhagic stroke. a. Anticlotting medication would increase blood flow in the brain, which would cause more damage in a hemorrhagic stroke. b. Anticlotting medication would ensure better blood flow, allowing for drainage of blood pooling in the brain. c. While reducing pressure in the brain, a craniotomy would not resolve damaged blood vessels. d. Treatment for both forms of stroke have negative long-term consequences.

ANSWER: a 2. The average human brain contains a combination of approximately _____ neurons and glial cells. a. 50 billion b. 170 billion c. 180 million d. 80 billion ANSWER: b 3. Moving from rostral to caudal in the central nervous system means moving from the: a. spinal cord toward the brain. b. occipital lobes toward the frontal lobes. c. brain toward the spinal cord. d. sensory receptors to the spinal cord.

ANSWER: c 4. A brain lesion on the right side of the motor cortex has led to impairment in motor function of the left arm and leg. This damage can be considered: a. ipsilateral and efferent. b. contralateral and afferent. c. ipsilateral and afferent. d. contralateral and efferent.

ANSWER: d 5. Muscle weakness, spasticity, and/or rigidity of the left side of the body as seen in R.S. would likely result in brain trauma of the: a. cerebellum. b. medullary pyramids. c. occipital lobe. d. precentral gyrus.

ANSWER: d 6. How does the autonomic nervous system function without conscious thought?

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Chapter 03: Multiple Choice a. The autonomic nervous system combines conscious and unconscious functioning to control sensory information processing. b. The autonomic nervous system works in tandem with the central nervous system to control motor functioning. c. The autonomic nervous system uses parallel pathways to bypass conscious control of breathing and blood flow. d. The autonomic nervous system uses parallel pathways to stimulate and depress the internal organs.

ANSWER: d 7. Compare the CNS's meninges to the PNS's myelin. a. Meninges protect the brain against injury, while the myelin sheath insulates the neuron's soma from other neurons. b. Both are fatty layers that can degenerate with age and disease. c. Both the meninges and myelin offer protection and insulation to their respective nervous system structures. d. Meninges have one layer for shock absorption, while the myelin around a neuron's axon is multilayered.

ANSWER: c 8. Individuals with underdeveloped lateral ventricles would likely have difficulty with: a. pooling of metabolic waste within the cerebrospinal fluid. b. producing new cerebrospinal fluid within the third and fourth ventricles. c. maintaining optimal levels of cerebrospinal fluid in the neurons. d. flow and drainage of cerebrospinal fluid out of the brain and spinal cord.

ANSWER: d 9. Beginning at the undersurface of the skull, which sequence of layers is correct? a. cortex, arachnoid, pia mater, dura mater b. cortex, pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater c. dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater, cortex d. dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid, cortex ANSWER: c 10. How does the brain's prenatal development support the theory of levels of functioning? a. The spinal cord develops prior to the brainstem and forebrain. b. The forebrain, brainstem, and spinal cord develop concurrently. c. Evolutionary research demonstrates that the spinal cord and forebrain develop after the brainstem. d. Functional research shows that the brainstem develops prior to the spinal cord due to its regulatory functions.

ANSWER: a 11. The stage at which neurons and glial cells are first differentiated from one another is the _____ stage.

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Chapter 03: Multiple Choice a. stem cell b. blast cell c. progenitor cell d. migrational ANSWER: b 12. An interneuron is defined as a neuron that: a. receives input from other neurons and projects in turn to other neurons. b. receives input from sensory receptors and projects in turn to other neurons. c. receives input from other neurons and projects in turn to muscles. d. is found only in the cerebral cortex.

ANSWER: a 13. Cells that support and insulate the nervous system are called: a. neuroblasts. b. germinal cells. c. glial cells. d. reticular matter.

ANSWER: c 14. Capillary blood vessels and neuronal cell bodies are characteristic of: a. gray matter. b. white matter. c. tracts. d. ventricles.

ANSWER: a 15. Tract is to nerve as: a. PNS is to CNS. b. CNS is to PNS. c. ANS is to PNS. d. cranial nerves are to spinal nerves.

ANSWER: b 16. Brain tissue characterized by an intermixing of cell bodies and axons is called _____ matter. a. reticular b. gray c. white d. nucleoid ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Multiple Choice 17. Your cerebral cortex is located in your: a. diencephalon. b. telencephalon. c. myelencephalon. d. metencephalon.

ANSWER: b 18. The MOST caudal division of the brain is the: a. prosencephalon. b. diencephalon. c. myelencephalon. d. metencephalon.

ANSWER: c 19. Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted into the ventricles by the: a. pineal body. b. ependymal cells. c. epithalamus. d. cerebral aqueduct.

ANSWER: b 20. There are _____ spinal cord segments. a. 31 b. 8 c. 12 d. 24 ANSWER: a 21. Damage to the posterior root fibers of the spinal cord would result in impaired: a. sensation. b. movement. c. sensation and movement. d. cognition.

ANSWER: a 22. The organizational principle of the spinal cord, whereby the posterior portion is sensory in function while the ventral portion is motor, is known as: a. parallel processing. b. a dermatomal arrangement. c. bilateral symmetry. d. the Bell–Magendie law.

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Chapter 03: Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 23. The thalamus, hypothalamus, and pineal body are components of the: a. metencephalon. b. telencephalon. c. diencephalon. d. myelencephalon.

ANSWER: c 24. Components of the basal ganglia have functions related to: a. somatosensation. b. maintaining cortical arousal. c. regulation of hormonal balance. d. movement and habit learning.

ANSWER: d 25. Which structure is NOT part of the limbic system? a. hippocampus b. septum c. amygdala d. putamen ANSWER: d 26. A cleft in the cerebral cortex deep enough to indent the ventricles is called a: a. meninges. b. sulcus. c. fissure. d. gyrus.

ANSWER: c 27. A cortical region with a relatively thick layer IV would MOST likely be associated with: a. motor processing. b. sensory processing. c. emotional processing. d. the frontal cortex.

ANSWER: b 28. Maps of the cortex based on the appearance of different cell types are termed _____ maps. a. projection b. cytoarchitectonic c. functional Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Multiple Choice d. anatomical ANSWER: b 29. Which of these is an interhemispheric fiber pathway? a. anterior commissure b. cingulum c. uncinate tract d. arcuate fasciculus ANSWER: a 30. Sensory and motor fibers that associate sensory and motor activity from one side of the body with the opposite side of the brain are called: a. ipsilateral connections. b. ventral spinal nerves. c. decussations. d. thalamocortical projections.

ANSWER: c 31. Why is it difficult to differentiate between ischemic and hemorrhagic strokes? a. Both are similar in symptoms and underlying cause. b. Both tend to be fatal, so the underlying cause can typically be determined through autopsy. c. They have similar symptoms with different underlying causes. d. There are differences in symptoms and causes due to the location of brain damage.

ANSWER: c 32. Which is the BEST reason a 1:1 ratio of neurons to glial cells is important to neurological research? a. ratio understanding can aid in neuroplasticity research b. understanding normal aging versus degenerative neural cell loss c. cross-species research on brain development d. understanding typical versus atypical prenatal development of the nervous system ANSWER: b 33. How are brains similar yet distinct from one another? a. same brain structures with individualistic differences due to neural connections b. same brain structures across humans with cross-species differences c. different brain structures that perform the same behavior across individuals d. different brain structure across humans and animals ANSWER: a 34. Research on genetic mutations causing neurological disorders, such as Huntington disease, focus on understanding the: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Multiple Choice a. interaction between genotype and phenotype. b. genotype of neural structures. c. phenotype of neural structures. d. symptoms of neural loss.

ANSWER: a 35. What is the utility in having multiple frames of reference to describe brain anatomy? a. ability to use differing frames of reference when conducting cross-species research b. specificity when discussing brain structure and location c. explaining directionality of nerve impulses in the brain d. allows for better understanding of the brain in comparison to other organs in the body ANSWER: b 36. If a brain structure is oriented both rostrally and laterally, while being proximal to the parietal lobe, where is it likely located? a. occipital lobe b. cerebellum c. brainstem d. temporal lobe ANSWER: d 37. What would be a potential result if the human brain and spinal cord were not encased in bone? a. evolutionary adaptations of the meninges to aid in protection of the brain b. increased brain growth due to lack of restriction from the skull c. increased neuroplasticity similar to the PNS d. insignificant functional differences due to protection by the meninges ANSWER: a 38. Neuroplasticity of the PNS is most likely connected to its: a. makeup of both neurons and glial cells. b. dependence on cerebrospinal fluid for protection. c. lack of protection and need for frequent repair of neural cells. d. ability to form new neural connections through learning.

ANSWER: c 39. How can individual differences in brain structures related to blood supply minimize potential stroke damage? a. Clots in distal branches automatically cause minimal damage to the brain. b. Further branching of the main artery can compensate for a clot, allowing for blood flow. c. Only the brain's venous system has individual differences. d. Differences in cerebral arteries will not impact both ischemic and hemorrhagic strokes.

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Chapter 03: Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 40. After differentiation, these cells offer support for the nervous system. Without their presence, there may be damage to the blood–brain barrier. a. interneurons b. astroglia c. ependymal cells d. bipolar neurons ANSWER: b

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Chapter 03: Short Answer 1. Diagram the functional divisions of the human nervous system.

ANSWER: See Figure 3.3B in the text for an illustration of the functional nervous system divisions.

2. Identify and describe four ways the brain and spinal cord are protected from injury and infection.

ANSWER: The central nervous system is encased in bone that is surrounded by the meninges that are surrounded by a cushion of flowing cerebrospinal fluid and mostly separated from direct contact with the body's blood supply by the astroglial cells of the blood–brain barrier.

3. Identify the lobes of the cortex supplied by each of the following: anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and posterior cerebral artery.

ANSWER: The anterior cerebral artery supplies the medial and dorsal parts of the frontal and parietal lobes, the middle cerebral artery supplies the lateral areas of all four lobes, and the posterior cerebral artery supplies the inferior and medial areas of the temporal and occipital lobes.

4. Describe the process by which a stem cell becomes a neuron or glial cell.

ANSWER: A neural stem cell gives rise to a progenitor cell that gives rise to blast cells that are either neuroblasts or glioblasts. Neuroblasts give rise to different types of neurons, and glioblasts give rise to different types of glial cells. Although the mechanisms are not specified in the text, the differentiation from each stage to the next is believed to involve selective suppression and expression of portions of the DNA within the cell nucleus.

5. Identify four types of glial cells and indicate their main function in the nervous system.

ANSWER: Ependymal cells secrete cerebrospinal fluid; astrocytes provide nutrition and support to neurons; microglia provide defense from pathogens; oligodendroglial cells form the myelin sheath on CNS axons; and Schwann cells form myelin sheath on PNS nerves.

6. Identify the five anatomical divisions of the mammalian brain, listing them in order from anterior to posterior.

ANSWER: The five divisions, in order from anterior to posterior, are: telencephalon, diencephalon, mesencephalon, metencephalon, and myelencephalon.

7. Compare and contrast the functions of the spinal nerves and cranial nerves.

ANSWER: Both sets of nerves provide efferent and afferent communication between the CNS and the body; however, the spinal nerves mainly innervate the skeletal muscles and the body surface below the neck and the dorsal scalp to the vertex of the skull, while the cranial nerves innervate the skin, muscles, and specialized sensory receptors in and around the ventral cranium and some parts of the internal viscera.

8. What are some of the difficulties in trying to get a severed human spinal cord to reestablish its original connections?

ANSWER: After injury to the spinal cord, degenerative processes continue to develop over hours to days, making it difficult to identify what has been interrupted by the injury, and scar tissue (gliosis) occurs in damaged axons, potentially blocking the regrowth of viable axons.

9. What is the organization of the spinal cord described by the Bell–Magendie law?

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Chapter 03: Short Answer ANSWER: The ventral roots of the spinal cord are efferent, and the dorsal roots are afferent.

10. Discuss briefly how flexion and extension reflexes help an organism adapt to its local environment.

ANSWER: Flexion reflexes result from pain and noxious temperature stimuli, and bring the stimulated limb toward the body and away from the noxious stimulus. Extension reflexes allow for movements away from the body, with limbs maintaining contact with a stimulus.

11. List 6 cranial nerves as well as their function and one typical symptom of dysfunction.

ANSWER: Six of the 12 pairs of cranial nerves are: (1) optic (vision); severing one causes monocular blindness.

(2) Auditory (hearing); severing one causes monaural deafness. (3) Abducens (lateral eye movements); severing one causes fixed gaze deviation of the affected eye. (4) Olfactory (smell); severing one produces anosmia in the affected nostril. (5) Spinal accessory (shoulder muscle innervation); severing one prevents shrugging with the ipsilateral shoulder. (6) Hypoglossal (tongue movement); severing one produces ipsilateral wasting of the tongue muscles and deviation of the tongue. Other cranial nerves include the following: (7) The trochlear (vertical eye movement); severing one can result in an ipsilateral defect of downward gaze. (8) Oculomotor (eyelid movements); severing one results in ipsilateral ptosis. (9) Facial (facial movements); severing one results in facial paralysis. (10) Trigeminal (masticatory movements); severing one results in asymmetrical chewing. (11) Glossopharyngeal (taste); severing one results in ageusia over the posterior third of the tongue. (12) Vagus (movement of larynx and pharynx); severing one results in lower pharyngeal paralysis.

12. List three components of the limbic system and a function ascribed to each one.

ANSWER: Three components of the limbic system are the amygdala, which is involved with emotion; the hippocampus, which is involved with personal memory; and the cingulate cortex, which is involved in sexual and other social behavior.

13. Identify the structures in the limbic lobe and discuss the history of theorizing regarding their functions.

ANSWER: The limbic lobe is comprised of the cingulate cortex, fornix, septum, olfactory bulb, amygdala, mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus, and hippocampus. Historically, the role of olfactory bulb inputs in the limbic lobe was emphasized, but the collective functions of these structures appear to be much more than processing the sense of smell. During the 1930s and 1940s, researchers emphasized the role of these structures in emotional expression and experience, and proposed a circuit of activity from the mammillary bodies to the anterior thalamus to the cingulate cortex and back to the mammillary bodies. Inputs to this circuit were proposed to be coded with an emotional valence related to the stimulus producing those inputs.

14. What is the relationship between primary, secondary, and tertiary regions of the cortex in information processing?

ANSWER: The primary sensory cortex receives inputs from sensory receptors via the thalamus; the secondary cortex has specific capabilities for analyzing and organizing those inputs; and the tertiary cortex receives polymodal inputs from secondary cortical areas, allowing for concept formation and perception related to sensory inputs. The tertiary motor cortex is involved in formulating plans and monitoring behavior; and the secondary motor cortex is involved in organizing plans into specific behaviors that can be carried out by movements initiated by the primary motor cortex and carried out through activating specific skeletal muscles.

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Chapter 03: Short Answer 15. Distinguish among projection maps, cytoarchitectonic maps, and summaries of findings about function using noncytoarchitectonic techniques.

ANSWER: Projection maps illustrate inputs and outputs of various brain regions associated with specific behaviors and experiences, whereas cytoarchitectonic maps illustrate the regions of the brain with similar cell organization, regardless of functional associations. Summaries of research findings about brain regions associated with specific types of behavioral or experiential functions, such as vision or movement, can be displayed over the other two types of maps regardless of cytoarchitecture or inputs and outputs of specific regions.

16. What is the cytoarchitectonic study of the brain?

ANSWER: The cytoarchitectonic study of the brain is the histological analysis of brain tissues to note cell types, distribution, and organization in different brain regions.

17. Explain why a hemorrhagic stroke is considered more severe and has a higher fatality rate than an ischemic stroke.

ANSWER: A hemorrhagic stroke has the potential for more widespread damage from the point of blood vessel rupture and the subsequent bleeding in the brain. Damage due to hemorrhagic strokes tends to be more severe due to the accumulation of blood in the brain and the compression of brain tissue surrounding the damaged blood vessel.

18. Compare the development of a retinal sensory receptor to an oligodendroglia.

ANSWER: Development begins when an undifferentiated neural stem cell divides and forms a progenitor cell.

Progenitor cells mature into blast cells. The neuroblast then differentiates into a neuron. For a retinal sensory receptor, the neuroblast develops into a bipolar neuron with only one dendrite and axon. For an oligodendroglia, development differs at the result of blast cell; instead of maturing from a neuroblast, the oligodendroglia develops from a glioblast. The glioblast forms a glial cell with branches that insulate axons of the brain and spinal cord.

19. What are the likely consequences of blockages in the third and fourth ventricles? How does potential impairment differ for infants in comparison to adults?

ANSWER: The third and fourth ventricles allow for the flow and drainage of cerebrospinal fluid from the brain into the brainstem and spinal cord. Blockages restrict movement of essential cerebrospinal fluid to the brainstem and spinal cord. Moreover, the levels of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain would increase, causing undue pressure on the brain tissue. Prenatal issues with increased pressure and CSF fluid typically cause developmental and intellectual impairment, and even distortion of the skull. In adults, increased CSF fluid in the brain typically presents as tissue loss and results in impairment similar to Alzheimer's or another denigrative disorder.

Match each term with the appropriate alternative phrasing. a. afferent b. ipsilateral c. efferent d. contralateral Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Short Answer 20. carries messages toward a given structure ANSWER: a 21. on the same side ANSWER: b 22. carries messages from a given structure ANSWER: c 23. on the opposite side ANSWER: d Anatomists use a somewhat specialized vocabulary, and it is necessary to learn some of this to understand neuropsychology. For each term, choose the correct anatomical term for directions around the brain. a. top b. bottom c. front d. back 24. dorsal ANSWER: a 25. ventral ANSWER: b 26. anterior ANSWER: c 27. posterior ANSWER: d Match each person or pair of people named to the appropriate discovery. a. Hughlings-Jackson b. Brodmann c. Bell and Magendie d. Moruzzi and Magoun 28. functional organization of the precentral gyrus ANSWER: a 29. cytoarchitectonic map of human cortex ANSWER: b 30. functional associations of dorsal and ventral roots Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Short Answer ANSWER: c 31. function of the reticular formation ANSWER: d Match each cell type with the correct function. a. astroglia b. oligodendroglia c. Schwann cells d. ependymal cells 32. structural and nutritive ANSWER: a 33. insulation within the brain and spinal cord ANSWER: b 34. insulation in the peripheral nervous system ANSWER: c 35. produce(s) cerebrospinal fluid ANSWER: d Match each term to the MOST appropriate structure. a. Purkinje cell b. nuclei c. reticular matter d. tract 36. cerebellum ANSWER: a 37. groups of cell bodies in the CNS ANSWER: b 38. netlike ANSWER: c 39. axon bundle in the CNS ANSWER: d Match each brain structure to its location. a. cortex b. thalamus Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Short Answer c. cerebellum d. pineal gland 40. telencephalon ANSWER: a 41. diencephalon ANSWER: b 42. hindbrain ANSWER: c 43. epithalamus ANSWER: d Match each brain structure to the MOST appropriate function. a. thalamus b. basal ganglia c. hippocampus d. corpus callosum 44. sensory relay ANSWER: a 45. controlling movements and associative learning ANSWER: b 46. personal memory formation ANSWER: c 47. interhemispheric connections ANSWER: d

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Chapter 04: Multiple Choice 1. The small protrusions found on the dendrites of neurons are called: a. spines. b. thorns. c. terminal buttons. d. receptors.

ANSWER: a 2. The information-processing units of the nervous system are: a. glial cells. b. ependymal cells. c. neurons. d. nuclei.

ANSWER: c 3. Neurotransmitters are chemicals responsible for: a. propagating the nerve impulse. b. transmitting signals between neurons. c. transmitting signals within neurons. d. providing energy to power cellular processes.

ANSWER: b 4. Newly synthesized proteins are integrated into a membrane and “addressed” by the: a. Nissl substance. b. Golgi apparatus. c. lipofuscin granules. d. mitochondria.

ANSWER: b 5. The chemical energy used to power a neuron's activities is synthesized by the: a. Golgi apparatus. b. nucleus. c. mitochondria. d. synaptic vesicles.

ANSWER: c 6. The basic structure of the cell membrane of a neuron consists of a double layer of phospholipid molecules in which are embedded: a. proteins. b. neurotransmitters. c. chromosomes. d. ions.

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Chapter 04: Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 7. The biochemical process by which the information encoded in RNA is used to make proteins is: a. translation. b. transcription. c. transduction. d. transliteration.

ANSWER: a 8. It is currently thought that humans have about _____ active genes. a. 20,000–25,000 b. 8,000–9,000 c. 100,000–200,000 d. 2,000–3,000 ANSWER: a 9. Exocytosis is the process by which: a. old neural cells are replaced with newly generated neurons. b. cellular constituents are transferred from dendrites to axons of neurons. c. proteins are taken up by neural cells from the extracellular environment. d. proteins are released by cells into the extracellular environment.

ANSWER: d 10. The process by which molecules move from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration is called: a. diffusion. b. osmosis. c. gating. d. exocytosis.

ANSWER: a 11. A characteristic resting potential in a neuron is about _____ mV. a. –30 b. 0 c. –70 d. 50 ANSWER: c 12. Which type of ion is LEAST likely to pass through the cell membrane when the neuron is at rest? a. organic anions b. sodium cations Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Multiple Choice c. potassium cations d. chloride anions ANSWER: a 13. Electrical excitability in neurons is maintained by a molecular pump that exchanges _____ across the plasma membrane. a. Na+ and Cl– b. K+ and A– c. K+ and Cl– d. Na+ and K+ ANSWER: d 14. A change in the membrane potential from –65 to –70 mV is an example of: a. hyperpolarization. b. depolarization. c. an action potential. d. saltatory conduction.

ANSWER: a 15. Under resting conditions, the opening of Na+ channels results in a(n) _____ of Na+ ions. a. efflux b. influx c. reflux d. discharge ANSWER: b 16. Depolarization is usually due to the movement of: a. K+. b. Cl–. c. Na+. d. An–.

ANSWER: c 17. For a neuron to reach the threshold for generating an action potential, it must be: a. hyperpolarized. b. unipolarized. c. depolarized. d. inhibited.

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Chapter 04: Multiple Choice 18. The main ion responsible for initiating the action potential at the axon hillock is: a. potassium. b. sodium. c. chlorine. d. calcium.

ANSWER: b 19. A brief but large reversal in membrane potential is characteristic of: a. the resting membrane potential. b. graded excitatory potentials. c. the action potential. d. a voltage gradient.

ANSWER: c 20. The main ion responsible for the restoration of the resting potential is: a. sodium. b. calcium. c. potassium. d. magnesium.

ANSWER: c 21. During _____, a neuron is incapable of generating an action potential. a. saltatory conduction b. neurotransmitter release c. the absolute refractory period d. the relative refractory period ANSWER: c 22. The movement of which ion is MOST likely to produce hyperpolarization following an action potential? a. potassium b. calcium c. sodium d. organic anion ANSWER: a 23. The Na+ channel-blocking poison found in puffer fish is: a. tetraethylammonium. b. tetrodotoxin. c. curare.

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Chapter 04: Multiple Choice d. ouabain.

ANSWER: b 24. Tetrodotoxin MOST specifically interferes with which component of neural transmission? a. neurotransmitter release b. neurotransmitter synthesis c. action potential propagation d. protein synthesis ANSWER: c 25. The movement of the action potential from axon hillock to axon terminal is known as: a. the graded potential. b. the refractory period. c. the nerve impulse. d. anterograde transport.

ANSWER: c 26. The two factors that determine nerve impulse speed in the axon are: a. axon diameter and myelination. b. axon length and myelination. c. nodes of Ranvier and myelination. d. axon diameter and the availability of Na+ ions.

ANSWER: a 27. A long myelinated axon lacking nodes of Ranvier would probably propagate: a. nerve impulses faster than one with nodes of Ranvier. b. impulses at the same rate as one with nodes of Ranvier. c. nerve impulses more slowly than one with nodes of Ranvier. d. nerve impulses backward.

ANSWER: c 28. Nerve impulses in mammals can travel at speeds up to about _____ meters per second. a. 10 b. 1000 c. 30 d. 150 ANSWER: d 29. Saltatory conduction occurs in neurons with: a. synaptic connections. b. voltage differentials.

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Chapter 04: Multiple Choice c. organic ions. d. myelin sheaths.

ANSWER: d 30. Multiple sclerosis results from the deterioration of: a. Na+ channels. b. myelin. c. axon hillocks. d. the blood–brain barrier.

ANSWER: b 31. Multiple sclerosis is a neurodegenerative disorder in which: a. myelin is damaged. b. dendrites lose their spines. c. neurotransmitter synthesis is blocked. d. there is excess electrical activity.

ANSWER: a 32. The closer a synapse is to the _____, the more influential it is going to be in determining the production of action potentials in that neuron. a. dendrites b. teleodendria c. nodes of Ranvier d. axon hillock ANSWER: d 33. Which neuroimaging tool has been key in the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis? a. MRI b. FMRI c. PET d. CT ANSWER: a 34. IPSPs increase the probability that an action potential will not occur and are associated with which action? a. closing of Cl– channels b. opening of Mg+ channels c. closing of Na++ channels d. opening of K+ channels ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Multiple Choice 35. Triggering an action potential requires: a. the arrival of IPSPs several seconds after the EPSPs to allow for neuronal summation. b. the integration of IPSPs and EPSPs where there is a change in the membrane potential to threshold. c. two influxes of sodium, arriving several minutes apart. d. two influxes of potassium, arriving 3–5 seconds apart.

ANSWER: b 36. Like electrical stimulation studies, optogenetic stimulation can also activate neurons. What is the difference between these two types of studies? a. Electrical stimulation is effective only when studying EPSPs. b. Optogenetic stimulation requires a red light to generate an excitatory neuronal response. c. Optogenetic stimulation generates a more selective stimulation, which allows for the examination of specific neuron(s). d. Electrical stimulation can be applied only to motor neurons, making it a less effective tool for studying neurological disease.

ANSWER: c 37. In some very specific instances, a neuron may activate an action potential at the axon hillock and then progresses outward to distal ends of dendrites. This process is termed: a. backward propagation. b. anterograde propagation. c. backward plasticity. d. neuroplasticity.

ANSWER: a 38. You are designing a study specifically examining the excitatory input from a particular brain region to determine the role of a region in a neurodegenerative disease. Your protocol uses the optogenetics methodology. What is one specific piece of equipment/material that you need? a. green-yellow light source that can depolarize the neuron b. green-yellow light source that can hyperpolarize the neuron c. blue light source that can hyperpolarize the neuron d. blue light source that can depolarize the neuron ANSWER: d 39. When an action potential propagates, the speed at which it travels depends on whether the axon is myelinated. Assuming you are testing the speed of a myelinated axon, what aspect of the axon facilitates the speed of propagation? a. nodes of Ranvier b. asynaptic cleft c. terminal buttons d. release zone Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 40. An action potential is triggered when changes in the membrane exceed the _____ potential. a. resting b. absolute refractory c. refractory d. threshold ANSWER: d

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Chapter 04: Short Answer 1. Draw a representative neuron and identify the following components: dendrites, cell body, nucleus, axon hillock, axon, axon collateral, telodendria, terminals, nodes of Ranvier, and myelin sheath.

ANSWER: See Figures 4.1A, 4.1C, and 4.26B in the text.

2. Explain how communication within the nervous system is electrochemical in nature.

ANSWER: Information travels through a neuron as a flow of current and through an axon as discrete impulses until reaching the terminal buttons, when a chemical message is released to influence other cells.

3. Identify the main function of each of the following: mitochondria, tubules, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi body, and lysosomes.

ANSWER: Major intracellular components and organelles and their functions include mitochondria that gather, store, and release energy; tubules that transport molecules and help give cells their shape; the endoplasmic reticulum, where proteins are assembled; the Golgi body, which packages protein molecules for transport; and the lysosomes, which contain enzymes that break down wastes.

4. Draw a simple diagram of a phospholipid bilayer, with “heads” and “tails” properly oriented.

ANSWER: See the lower panel of Figure 4.4A and 4.4B in the text.

5. Since ions are so small, why do they need special pores or channels to get through the neuronal membrane?

ANSWER: The phospholipid heads that are extracellular and intracellular repel even small ions electrostatically or bind to them to prevent their passage across the membrane.

6. Distinguish between transcription and translation in protein synthesis.

ANSWER: Transcription refers to the copying of base-pair sequences in a portion of the nuclear DNA molecule by mRNA, while in translation an RNA molecule acts with a ribosome to build a protein molecule using the base-pair sequences transcribed by RNA. 7. Distinguish between concentration gradient and voltage gradient.

ANSWER: When molecules are not evenly distributed in a medium, the term concentration gradient describes the relative differences in the number of molecules in different locations of the medium. When molecules are dissolved in a medium and ionized, the ions carry an electrostatic charge. The term voltage gradient refers to differences in charge in different areas of that medium due to the distribution of the ions. Both types of gradients lead to movement of the dissolved particles in predictable directions.

8. Discuss the role of the semipermeable membrane in the maintenance of the resting potential in the membrane.

ANSWER: The embedded channel, pump, and gating molecules in the cell membrane allow for selective passage of sodium, potassium, and chloride across the membrane, under particular physical circumstances, making the membrane semipermeable. While the negative intracellular charge is attributed to large anions that can't cross the membrane, the selective influx or efflux of the other ions allows for adjustments to the resting membrane potential as intracellular and extracellular events increase or decrease it from a specific resting voltage value that is ideal for the neuron to receive and send signals.

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Chapter 04: Short Answer 9. Describe the interaction between concentration and voltage gradients in the establishment of the membrane potential.

ANSWER: Fluctuations in the resting membrane potential can be caused by the movement of ions within the extracellular and intracellular fluids due to concentration and voltage gradients. The specific characteristics of the semipermeability mechanisms within the membrane allow for adjustments to the distributions of ions inside and outside the membrane to establish and maintain the membrane's resting potential.

10. Compare and contrast graded potentials and action potentials.

ANSWER: While both represent membrane voltages based upon the distribution of ions and anions on each side of the cell membrane, graded potentials are either temporary increases or decreases in the membrane potential within a range that can be compensated for by the active and passive channels within the membrane. The exception to this is when the graded potential reaches a degree of depolarization where the Na+ channel molecules all open up, allowing for a large influx of sodium that gives rise to the action potential in an “all-or-nothing” fashion. The magnitude of the action potential remains the same due to the degree of Na+ influx and then later of K+ channel molecules that result in an efflux of K+ such that the resting potential is reestablished. Finally, graded potentials can be due to chemical or electrical events, while action potentials are due solely to electrical events.

11. Discuss the contribution of each of the following ions in the production of an action potential: K+, Na+, and Cl–.

ANSWER: While Cl– influx is associated with hyperpolarization during IPSP occurrence, it doesn't contribute significantly to the action potential. The influx of Na+ causes the rising phase of the action potential as a positive hyperpolarization, while the efflux of K+ is associated with the falling phase of the action potential as depolarization and then negative hyperpolarization to and beyond the resting membrane potential voltage value.

12. Draw a diagram of an action potential, labeling each phase. Include the resting membrane potential, the threshold potential, and hyperpolarization.

ANSWER: See Figure 4.23 in the text.

13. You are working with a squid giant axon with a resting potential of –70 mV. What would the voltage change look like if (a) the axon is bathed in tetrodotoxin and (b) the axon is bathed in TEA? In both cases, suprathreshold current is applied to the axon, enough to cause an action potential in a sea water–only bath.

ANSWER: (a) Since tetrodotoxin blocks Na+ channels and leaves K+ channels unaffected and K+ efflux is due to electrostatic and concentration gradients, the exterior of the membrane would have a larger than usual positive charge, resulting in a hyperpolarization or subthreshold EPSP when the current stimulus is applied. (b) TEA blocks K+ efflux and leaves Na+ channels unaltered, resulting in a larger depolarization of the membrane potential when the current stimulus is applied to the axon.

14. How is the action potential propagated along the axon in unmyelinated axons? How is it propagated in myelinated axons?

ANSWER: As an action potential occurs at a location in the axon, the voltage change of 100 mV is adequate to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Short Answer electrically open adjacent Na+ channels in the axon's membrane and cause another action potential.

Starting at the beginning of the axon (area of the axon hillock), the action potential will propagate along the axon away from the cell body due to the hyperpolarization at the end of each action potential (refractory period). Since sodium channels along an unmyelinated axon can be closely packed and each action potential takes a finite amount of time to occur, one after another, it can take more time for the action potential to propagate along an unmyelinated axon than a myelinated axon of the same length, as the action potentials in the latter case would occur only at the nodes of Ranvier rather than in each adjacent segment of the axon. The number of action potentials, where each takes the same time to occur, determines propagation velocity.

15. Describe the phenomena of temporal and spatial summation of postsynaptic potentials.

ANSWER: Two or more postsynaptic potentials that occur simultaneously or closely in time will sum together, as will two or more postsynaptic potentials that occur in close proximity to one another. If both or all postsynaptic potentials are excitatory or if they are inhibitory, they produce respectively larger EPSPs or larger IPSPs. If the temporal or spatial separations are larger, no summation will occur as the membrane mechanisms to adjust ion distributions across the membrane do their jobs and the resting potential is reestablished in that region of the membrane at that point in time.

Match the neuron function with the appropriate part of the neuron. a. terminal buttons b. axon hillock c. dendrites d. axon 16. sends information to another neuron ANSWER: a 17. integrates information ANSWER: b 18. collects information ANSWER: c 19. carries information to terminal buttons ANSWER: d Match each characteristic to the MOST appropriate substance. a. endoplasmic reticulum b. lysosomes c. DNA d. ribosomal mRNA 20. protein molecule assembly site ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Short Answer 21. contains degrading enzymes; stores and moves wastes ANSWER: b 22. contains genetic code for proteins ANSWER: c 23. builds proteins ANSWER: d Subcellular constituents have specific jobs to perform. For each item, choose the MOST appropriate alternative function. a. mitochondria b. lysosomes c. messenger RNA d. microtubules 24. degrades foreign substances ANSWER: b 25. protein formation ANSWER: c 26. protein transport ANSWER: d 27. energy source ANSWER: a Match each characteristic to the MOST appropriate ion. a. A– b. NA+–K+ pump c. Cl– influx d. Na+ 28. protein anions (molecules) ANSWER: a 29. maintains resting potential ANSWER: b 30. hyperpolarization ANSWER: c 31. depolarization Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Short Answer ANSWER: d Neurons have a complex structure not only to house our genetic codes as generally occurs in all cells but also other functions to support the nervous system in particular. Choose the term that corresponds to the described function. a. The structure responsible for protein synthesis b. The structure that plays a key role in the transport of proteins within the neuron c. This structure plays a key role in neuronal complexity because of the creation of more potential synapses by increasing the surface area of the neuron d. The structure that separates the extracellular fluid from the intracellular fluid 32. endoplasmic reticulum ANSWER: a 33. Golgi bodies ANSWER: b 34. spines ANSWER: c 35. phospholipid ANSWER: d

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Chapter 05: Multiple Choice 1. The substance that Otto Loewi found slowed the heart is now called: a. epinephrine. b. acetylcholine. c. glutamate. d. norepinephrine.

ANSWER: b 2. The first two chemicals to be identified as neurotransmitters were: a. acetylcholine and epinephrine. b. dopamine and serotonin. c. glutamate and glycine. d. GABA and NMDA. ANSWER: a 3. The excitatory effect of a neurotransmitter is caused by the: a. chemical structure of the neurotransmitter. b. nature of the receptor with which it interacts. c. part of the brain where it is released. d. amount of neurotransmitter that is released.

ANSWER: b 4. Reuptake of a neurotransmitter is accomplished by: a. the postsynaptic neuron. b. surrounding glial cells. c. nearby capillaries. d. the presynaptic neuron.

ANSWER: d 5. The ion that triggers the release of neurotransmitters into the cleft is: a. Na+. b. K+. c. Ca2+. d. Cl–.

ANSWER: c 6. Neurotransmitter release depends on an influx of _____ ions into the presynaptic terminal. a. Na+ b. Mg2+ c. Ca2+ Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Multiple Choice d. Cl– ANSWER: c 7. Blockage of voltage-sensitive Ca2+ channels would be expected to: a. stimulate neurotransmitter release. b. inhibit neurotransmitter release. c. inhibit the generation of nerve impulses. d. stimulate the generation of nerve impulses.

ANSWER: b 8. The amount of neurotransmitter released from the presynaptic terminal in response to a single action potential depends, in part, on the: a. amount of Ca2+ that enters the presynaptic terminal. b. amount of Na+ that enters the presynaptic terminal. c. size of the synaptic vesicles. d. length of the axon.

ANSWER: a 9. A neurotransmitter released at the axon terminal must _____ to affect the postsynaptic cell. a. diffuse across the synaptic cleft b. be transported across the synaptic cleft c. be taken up by the postsynaptic cell d. be metabolized by the postsynaptic cell ANSWER: a 10. An increase in the activity at a particular synapse is likely to be associated with: a. increased synthesis and storage of neurotransmitters. b. decreased synthesis and storage of neurotransmitters. c. decreased energy consumption. d. increased action potential speed.

ANSWER: a 11. Whether a particular neurotransmitter is excitatory or inhibitory is associated with: a. the chemical structure of the neurotransmitter. b. whether the neurotransmitter molecules had been in flat or round vesicles. c. the type of postsynaptic neuron. d. the brain region in which it is released.

ANSWER: b 12. Synapses characterized by wide clefts, large active zones, and round secretory vesicles are thought to be: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Multiple Choice a. neuroendocrine. b. modulatory. c. excitatory. d. inhibitory.

ANSWER: c 13. Type II synapses are most often found on: a. muscle fibers. b. dendritic spines. c. astrocytes. d. neuronal cell bodies.

ANSWER: d 14. At glutamate (excitatory) synapses, the postsynaptic membranes are _____ compared with a GABA (inhibitory) synapse. a. thinner b. absent c. denser d. narrower ANSWER: c 15. To be identified as a neurotransmitter, a substance must meet several tests. Which of these is NOT a relevant test? a. It must be present in the terminals. b. Its structure must be known. c. It must be released when a neuron fires an action potential. d. There must be an inactivating mechanism in the cleft.

ANSWER: b 16. Which of these is NOT a class of neurotransmitter? a. gases b. peptides c. small molecules d. lipids ANSWER: d 17. Which class of neurotransmitter is synthesized and packaged in the axon terminal itself? a. peptides b. small molecules c. gases d. neurosteroids Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 18. Which neurotransmitter does NOT share a common precursor with the others named? a. dopamine b. epinephrine c. norepinephrine d. acetylcholine ANSWER: d 19. Some peptide neurotransmitters are made in the: a. axon terminals. b. mitochondria. c. endoplasmic reticulum. d. nucleus.

ANSWER: a 20. Oxytocin, vasopressin, and beta-endorphin are all examples of: a. neuroactive hormones. b. small-molecule neurotransmitters. c. peptide neurotransmitters. d. gases.

ANSWER: c 21. Activation of ionotropic receptors is MOST closely associated with: a. rapid changes in membrane voltage. b. G-protein activation. c. synaptic remodeling. d. changes in gene expression.

ANSWER: a 22. Which statement MOST accurately represents current theory regarding the localization of neurotransmitters within a neuron? a. A given neuron contains only one particular neurotransmitter. b. A given neuron contains only one class of neurotransmitter. c. A given neuron can contain more than one type of neurotransmitter. d. A given neuron can produce only one type of postsynaptic effect.

ANSWER: c 23. The cell bodies of the neurons of the major activating systems are located in the: a. basal ganglia. b. diencephalon.

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Chapter 05: Multiple Choice c. frontal cortex. d. brainstem.

ANSWER: d 24. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) has been associated with abnormalities in brainstem neurons that release: a. dopamine. b. glutamate. c. serotonin. d. vasopressin.

ANSWER: c 25. Researchers replicating Lowei's electrical stimulation experiment using multiple animal subjects would expect: a. similar results, reinforcing the idea of action potentials leading to release of neurotransmitters. b. dissimilar results due to cross-species differences. c. similar results due to electrical stimuli conduction through the second saline solution. d. dissimilar results, as the electric stimulation and the resulting neurotransmitter release is only seen in frogs.

ANSWER: a 26. If neurotransmitters were nonspecific in their structure, what would likely occur? a. The neurotransmitters would interact with all postsynaptic dendrites. b. Action potentials would impact those neurotransmitters indirectly. c. The neurotransmitters would not interact with a specific corresponding receptor. d. The release of the neurotransmitters would cause both inhibitory and excitatory reactions.

ANSWER: c 27. How can a single neurotransmitter have both excitatory and inhibitory action? a. The excitatory or inhibitory action of a neurotransmitter is dependent on the quantity of the neurotransmitter within the synaptic cleft. b. The action is dependent on the specific receptor and portion of the nervous system being acted upon. c. The neurotransmitter will have opposing action depending on the organ being stimulated. d. The neurotransmitter will have excitatory action when interacting with the parasympathetic neurons.

ANSWER: b 28. Neurons can be densely packed. Considering that many cells surround a synapse, how does the neurotransmitter impact the dendrite of the postsynaptic neuron rather than a nearby cell? a. The neurotransmitter leaves the presynaptic axon and binds to the nearby receptor and glial cells. b. The action potential stimulates and directs the neurotransmitter release to only the next neuron. c. The neurotransmitter's specific structure forces it to bind only to the corresponding presynaptic axon.

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Chapter 05: Multiple Choice d. The neurotransmitter impacts a specific receptor found on the postsynaptic dendrite.

ANSWER: d 29. What form of neural communication is MOST related to the crayfish tail flick? a. excessive neurotransmitter release along the synaptic cleft b. action potentials along electrical synapses c. excitation of the somatic nervous system d. action potentials along chemical synapses ANSWER: b 30. Reduced synaptic vesicles within a neuron would likely result in: a. reduced neurotransmitter storage in the neuron. b. increased exocytosis within the postsynaptic neuron. c. increased neurotransmitter production and storage. d. slower production and transmission of the neurotransmitter to the postsynaptic neuron.

ANSWER: a 31. Through what mechanism does a neurotransmitter impact the presynaptic neuron? a. autoreceptors on the axon root being impacted by the release of the neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft b. excitation ion channels within the presynaptic neuron c. rebounding action potential after the release of the neurotransmitter d. autoreceptors on the presynaptic dendrite inhibiting the continual release of the neurotransmitter ANSWER: a 32. If the presynaptic membrane did not have a ready supply of neurotransmitter, what could occur? a. increased reliance on electric synapses b. reduced neural communication between the pre- and postsynaptic neurons c. increased production of the neurotransmitter in the neuron's soma d. reduced use of synaptic vesicles ANSWER: b 33. Frequent neurotransmitter use can impact learning through which mechanism? a. increased neurotransmitter reuptake b. reduced neural connection with synapses that are not connected to the learning pathway c. increased neurotransmitter production, and release and adaptation of synaptic structure d. creation of new neurons to produce the required neurotransmitters ANSWER: c 34. What is a potential limitation of an axoextracellular synapse? a. nonspecific neural communication through the extracellular fluid and speed of transmission Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Multiple Choice b. nonspecific excitation of the nearby neurons and ease of transmission c. speed and frequency of transmission, as the neurotransmitter must traverse the bloodstream d. frequency of transmission, as neurotransmitter deactivation is specific to glial storage ANSWER: a 35. Which form of synapse would most likely NOT be related to a reflex? a. electric synapse b. axoextracellular synapse c. chemical synapse d. axosecretory synapse ANSWER: b 36. What limits neurotransmitter identification in the CNS? a. Neurotransmitter identification is hampered by the bone encasing the CNS. b. ANS neurons are larger, allowing for ease of visual inspection. c. Neuron density within the CNS inhibits researchers from having visibility to clearly examine neural synapses. d. Neurons within the CNS have excessive chemical molecules stored within each cell, so it is difficult to differentiate neurotransmitters from other chemicals.

ANSWER: c 37. Compare and contrast the mode of transmission of transmitter gases and small-molecule neurotransmitters. a. Both forms of neurotransmitters rely on electric synapses. b. Transmitter gases are released via dendrodendritic synapses, while the small-molecule neurotransmitters use axodendritic synaptic connections. c. Both transmitter gases and small-molecule neurotransmitters are moved down the neuron's axon. d. Transmitter gases are nonspecific in their location of production and release, while small-molecule neurotransmitters are stored in synaptic vesicles and released across the presynaptic membrane.

ANSWER: d 38. A deficiency in anandamide would likely cause: a. depression. b. mania. c. eating disorders. d. memory loss.

ANSWER: d 39. Patients with increased frequency and strength of muscle contractions may have: a. impairment in their motor cortex. b. overstimulation of NE. c. deactivation of ACh and CGRP in motor neurons.

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Chapter 05: Multiple Choice d. activation of ACh within the CNS. ANSWER: c 40. Patients who have difficulties with attention may have deficiencies in the production of: a. dopamine and acetylcholine. b. serotonin and dopamine. c. dopamine and norepinephrine. d. serotonin and norepinephrine.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 05: Short Answer 1. How did Loewi's 1921 experiment demonstrate the existence of a diffusible chemical messenger?

ANSWER: The experiment showed that shared fluid from a stimulated heart resulted in the second heart assuming the same heart rate.

2. Identify, in the correct order, the four steps in synaptic transmission.

ANSWER: Calcium enters the synaptic terminals when an action potential arrives from the axon. Incoming calcium then binds with calmodulin to form a complex; the complex binds to vesicles and induces their binding to the presynaptic membrane and subsequent exocytosis.

3. What are the three known ways that neurotransmitters are stored by presynaptic neurons?

ANSWER: Neurotransmitters can be stored in synaptic vesicles and storage granules that are attached to microfilaments or to the presynaptic membrane.

4. What are four ways neurotransmitters can be removed from the synaptic cleft?

ANSWER: Neurotransmitters can be removed by diffusion, enzymatic degradation, reuptake by presynaptic neurons, and uptake by glial cells.

5. What are some important differences in appearance between inhibitory and excitatory synapses?

ANSWER: Excitatory and inhibitory synapses differ in appearance in terms of vesicle shapes, density of material on the presynaptic membrane, cleft size, and size of postsynaptic active zone.

6. Draw a representative neuron in the central nervous system and identify the possible types of synapses that could occur on it.

ANSWER: See Figure 5.8 in the text, and identify dendrodendritic, axodendritic, axoextracellular, axosomatic, axosynaptic, axoaxonic, and axosecretory synapses.

7. What is the functional result of the relative positioning of inhibitory and excitatory inputs to a neuron?

ANSWER: Type II activity can more efficiently inhibit Type I activity close to the axon hillock to prevent generation of an action potential at this location where temporal–spatial integration of EPSPs would usually initiate the event.

8. What are the four criteria for identifying a substance as a neurotransmitter?

ANSWER: The chemical must be synthesized or present in a neuron, produce a response in a target cell when released, produce the same receptor action when the chemical is experimentally placed on target, and have a mechanism to remove the chemical from a synapse after the signal has been delivered.

9. Describe the organization and function of the Renshaw loop.

ANSWER: A Renshaw loop exists between a Renshaw interneuron and a motor neuron where the motor neuron sends excitatory signals (ACh) simultaneously to muscle fibers and the Renshaw cell. In turn, the Renshaw cell sends inhibitory signals to that same motor neuron to modulate (e.g., limit the duration of) its excitatory signals.

10. Discuss the differences between classical neurotransmitters and neuropeptides. Give two examples of each.

ANSWER: Neuropeptides are relatively slower to be synthesized and transported than are classical neurotransmitters, and they are not resynthesized quickly. Examples of neuropeptides are insulins Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Short Answer and gastrins. Two examples of classical neurotransmitters are 5-HT and ACh. 11. List the key differences between ionotropic and metabotropic receptors.

ANSWER: An ionotropic receptor has a pore, brings about rapid changes in membrane voltage, changes shape when the appropriate neurotransmitter binds to it, and is usually excitatory but can be inhibitory. A metabotropic receptor has no pore, takes longer because an intracellular event must occur before a channel molecule is affected, releases G protein inside a neuron when the appropriate neurotransmitter binds to it, and is mainly inhibitory.

12. Diagram the process by which the activation of a metabotropic receptor by a neurotransmitter molecule results in the modification of postsynaptic function.

ANSWER: A neurotransmitter must bind to an appropriate site on the metabotropic receptor. The neurotransmitter binding triggers the release of a G protein intracellularly, and that protein can travel to the intracellular end of a channel protein molecule to alter its shape such that the channel is opened to allow ions into the cell. Such changes can induce EPSPs when an extracellular neurotransmitter has bound with the channel molecule.

13. Identify the four dominant neurotransmitters in the four major activating systems.

ANSWER: The four neurotransmitters are ACh (cholinergic), DA (dopaminergic), NE (noradrenergic), and 5HT (serotonergic).

14. Characterize the anatomy and hypothesized functions of the nigrostriatal and mesolimbic dopamine pathways.

ANSWER: The nigrostriatal pathway is a dopamine projection from the substantia nigra to the caudate nucleus that is involved in maintaining normal motor behavior, while the mesolimbic pathway is a dopamine projection from the ventral tegmentum to the nucleus accumbens that is involved in feelings of reward and pleasure.

15. What is the role of the serotonin neurotransmitter system in the regulation of bodily function?

ANSWER: Serotonin's role in regulating bodily function is indirect through its influences on sleep, waking, and mood, which affect energy, appetite, exercise, and many factors related to bodily health.

16. Compare and contrast chemical and electrical synapses.

ANSWER: Both chemical and electrical synapses use action potentials to impact the postsynaptic neuron. In a chemical synapse, the action potential is converted in the release of a neurotransmitter. In an electrical synapse, the action potential moves to the postsynaptic neuron through ion channels. As the action potential does not need to be converted and the electrical synapse has no synaptic cleft, the movement of the action potential is faster in electrical synapses.

17. Explain how an action potential can result in a lack of neurotransmitter release across the synaptic cleft.

ANSWER: The action potential did not reach the threshold to excite the calcium ion channels, which are necessary for further chemical reactions in the chain of the neurotransmitter release.

18. Explain how neurotransmission can be bidirectional.

ANSWER: Release of a neurotransmitter from the presynaptic cell can induce the postsynaptic response. The Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Short Answer postsynaptic cell can send a chemical response back to the presynaptic cell. Moreover, electrical synapses are bidirectional.

19. Explain why many neurological medications are formulated to mimic small-molecule transmitters.

ANSWER: Small-molecule transmitters are derived from food and are quick-acting. Because many neurological medications are taken orally, they need to be synthesized to be most effective after ingestion and transmission through the bloodstream.

20. Explain why Type II synapses are located on the soma and contain a sparse number of synaptic vesicles.

ANSWER: Because the Type II synapse is inhibitory in nature, it stops the action potential if it is located close to the origin of the action potential within the neuron. Structural differences in the Type II synapse are related to its inhibitory function.

For each structure, choose the MOST appropriate alternative. a. storage granules b. synaptic vesicles c. presynaptic membrane d. receptors 21. vesicle clusters ANSWER: a 22. neurotransmitter molecule containers ANSWER: b 23. neurotransmitter release ANSWER: c 24. postsynaptic potentials ANSWER: d For each transmitter, choose the correct precursor substance from which it is made. a. acetylcholine b. dopamine c. serotonin d. GABA 25. dietary choline ANSWER: a 26. tyrosine ANSWER: b 27. tryptophan Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Short Answer ANSWER: c 28. glutamate ANSWER: d For each of the following, answer if the substance is a classical neurotransmitter or if it is a neuroactive peptide. a. histamine b. glycine c. insulin d. somatostatin 29. classical neurotransmitter ANSWER: a 30. classical neurotransmitter ANSWER: b 31. neuroactive peptide ANSWER: c 32. neuroactive peptide ANSWER: d Match each substance to the MOST appropriate alternative. a. met-enkephalin b. NO c. acetylcholine d. dopamine 33. opium ANSWER: a 34. Viagra ANSWER: b 35. Alzheimer's disease ANSWER: c 36. Parkinson's disease ANSWER: d Match each brain region with the major neurotransmitter found there. a. substantia nigra b. locus coeruleus Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 05: Short Answer c. raphe nucleus 37. dopamine ANSWER: a 38. norepinephrine ANSWER: b 39. serotonin ANSWER: c

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Chapter 06: Multiple Choice 1. The study of the effects of drugs on the function of the nervous system is: a. psychopharmacology. b. neuroendocrinology. c. pharmacokinetics. d. biopsychology.

ANSWER: a 2. A drug that is _____ is more readily absorbed from the stomach than one that is _____. a. weakly basic; weakly acidic b. weakly acidic; weakly basic c. insoluble; soluble d. digestible; indigestible ANSWER: b 3. The blood–brain barrier is established by: a. neurons and astrocytes. b. neurons and smooth muscle cells. c. endothelial cells and neurons. d. endothelial cells and astrocytes.

ANSWER: d 4. The brain's capillary network is largely isolated from that of the body's general circulation by the: a. peripheral nervous system. b. meninges. c. blood–brain barrier. d. circle of Willis.

ANSWER: c 5. Most psychoactive drugs affect the functioning of the: a. synapse. b. astrocytes. c. dendrites. d. axon hillock.

ANSWER: a 6. A drug that increases the effectiveness of neurotransmission is called a(n): a. antagonist. b. agonist. c. neuromodulator. d. stimulant.

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Chapter 06: Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 7. Nicotine acts primarily on _____ receptors. a. dopamine b. acetylcholine c. GABA d. histamine ANSWER: b 8. The need to take increasing amounts of a drug to experience the same physical effect is called: a. sensitization. b. tolerance. c. addiction. d. dependence.

ANSWER: b 9. Isbell and colleagues reported that research participants who drank alcohol steadily for 20 days showed _____ degrees of intoxication _____ blood alcohol levels due to _____. a. increasing; but not; sensitization b. increasing; and; sensitization c. decreasing; and; tolerance d. decreasing; but not; sensitization ANSWER: c 10. Which factor is more associated with the development of sensitization than with the development of tolerance for a particular drug? a. fatigue during task performance b. neuroplastic brain changes only at the drug's site of action c. regular use d. occasional use ANSWER: d 11. A GABA antagonist would be likely to produce: a. decreased anxiety and activity. b. increased anxiety and activity. c. respiratory depression. d. visual hallucinations.

ANSWER: b 12. Antipsychotic drugs are thought to exert their effects, at least in part, by blocking one type of: a. glutamate receptor.

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Chapter 06: Multiple Choice b. thought process. c. dopamine receptor. d. action potential.

ANSWER: c 13. Which of these is NOT likely to interact at endorphin synapses? a. morphine b. heroin c. naloxone d. lithium carbonate ANSWER: d 14. Which of these is NOT a stimulant? a. morphine b. caffeine c. cocaine d. amphetamine ANSWER: a 15. Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) is an agonist of which endogenous neurotransmitter? a. GABA b. glutamate c. dopamine d. anandamide ANSWER: d 16. According to the incentive-sensitization theory of drug addiction, wanting a drug may depend on _____ neurons, whereas liking a drug may depend on _____ neurons. a. dopamine; glutamate b. GABA; opioid c. dopamine; opioid d. opioid; dopamine ANSWER: d 17. Diverse drugs of abuse may act through a common neurotransmitter system that releases: a. endorphins. b. serotonin. c. dopamine. d. GABA. ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Multiple Choice 18. A typical function of homeostatic hormones is: a. activating sexual behaviors. b. dealing with stressful psychological events. c. controlling blood-sugar levels. d. instructing the body to develop as a male or female.

ANSWER: c 19. The organizational effect of gonadal hormones is exerted during: a. early neurodevelopment. b. adolescence. c. adulthood. d. learning.

ANSWER: a 20. The literature on cross-tolerance suggests that tolerance for one drug can be transferred to another drug.

This would indicate that: a. drugs with cross-tolerance likely have a common neurochemical target. b. it's not really a matter of cross-tolerance but more that they are chemically the same drug. c. the drugs are so widely distributed throughout the brain that target is unimportant. d. neurotransmitter receptors are not as highly specialized as we once believed.

ANSWER: a 21. A drug that blocks acetylcholinesterase in the brain will MOST likely have what type of effect? a. irreversible damage to cholinergic neurons b. diminished amount of acetylcholine in the synapse c. reduced effectiveness of the acetylcholine receptors d. increased amount of acetylcholine in the synapse ANSWER: d 22. All of these belong to the group of antidepressants and mood stabilizing drugs EXCEPT: a. Prozac. b. lithium. c. imipramine. d. Valium.

ANSWER: d 23. The primary difference between first-generation antipsychotic drugs and second-generation antipsychotics is that: a. second-generation drugs block both dopamine D2 and serotonin-5-HT2 receptors. b. second-generation drugs block dopamine D2 and D4 receptors.

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Chapter 06: Multiple Choice c. first-generation antipsychotics were completely ineffective, which is why the next generation of drug development was necessary. d. the first generation of drugs is more effective in controlling symptoms, but they have more adverse effects.

ANSWER: a 24. The class of drugs that provide analgesic effects are called opioids. They have not only pain-relieving but also sleep-inducing properties. In addition to these medications, we also have natural opioids produced in our brains called: a. natural antidepressants. b. naloxone. c. endorphins. d. synthetic morphine.

ANSWER: c 25. Research has identified three specific classes of endorphin receptors in the brain, all with different actions.

Which of these is NOT one of those receptors? a. delta b. beta c. mu d. kappa ANSWER: b 26. There are several types of psychedelic drugs, sometimes referred to as hallucinatory drugs. Which of these has an influence on serotonin receptors? a. PCP b. ketamine c. THC d. ecstasy ANSWER: d 27. Cognitive enhancement drugs are used for various disorders, including attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. These drugs share mechanism of action commonalities with which drug? a. cocaine b. morphine c. LSD d. heroin ANSWER: a 28. Treatment interventions for bipolar disorder have been extremely difficult due to the nature of the range of symptoms. Medications that have been effective at treating bipolar disorder are also effective at treating epilepsy. Which statement provides the BEST explanation?

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Chapter 06: Multiple Choice a. The mechanism of action for these drugs produces an excitatory effect that leads to mood stability. b. Medications created for epilepsy are best for alleviating the psychotic features associated with bipolar disorder c. Epilepsy medications' mechanism of action alleviates the mania associated with bipolar disorder. d. The mechanism of action for these drugs produces an inhibitory effect that leads to mood stability.

ANSWER: d 29. Evidence for the dopamine hypothesis, with respect to schizophrenia, stems from which of these explanations? a. Individuals who use cocaine can exhibit hallucinatory symptoms that mimic schizophrenia. b. Medications that are dopamine agonists reduce the psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia. c. Individuals who consume heroin often exhibit symptoms that mimic cognitive symptoms associated with schizophrenia. d. Medications that are dopamine agonists reduce the delusional symptoms of schizophrenia.

ANSWER: a 30. The use of medical marijuana has increased as legal restrictions have been lessened in several states. Which of these is a therapeutic use for this drug? a. chronic pain b. anesthesia c. cognitive enhancement d. delirium ANSWER: a 31. Caffeine consumption is a daily routine for many throughout the world. Excessive intake can lead to: a. headaches. b. irritability. c. jitters. d. hypersomnia.

ANSWER: c 32. Which pair of substances are a known agonist and antagonist, respectively, to the release of acetylcholine? a. black widow spider venom, botulinum toxin b. black widow spider venom, muscarine c. botulinum toxin, physostigmine d. botulinum toxin, nicotine ANSWER: a 33. Botox injections smooth the face by: a. dissolving excessive fatty facial deposits. b. blocking ACh activity and relaxing facial muscles.

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Chapter 06: Multiple Choice c. producing increased blood flow to the face. d. increasing the release of ACh at the neuromuscular junction.

ANSWER: b 34. Following the synthesis of a neurotransmitter, what is the next step toward synaptic transmission? a. release into the synapse b. deactivation c. storage in vesicles d. reuptake ANSWER: c 35. Which drug is an agonist for the cholinergic receptor? a. physostigmine b. nicotine c. botulinum toxin d. hemicholium ANSWER: b 36. What substance is an antagonist for the cholinergic receptor? a. hemicholium b. nicotine c. curare d. black widow spider venom ANSWER: c 37. _____ refers to a reduced behavioral effect of a drug with repeated administration. a. Tolerance b. Sensitization c. Binding d. Desensitization ANSWER: a 38. Some drugs have neurotoxic effects not because of their direct impact on the nervous system but because they can trigger cell death, a process known as: a. genetic vulnerability. b. apoptosis. c. necrosis. d. antagonism.

ANSWER: b 39. The MOST common presentation in cases of depression includes feelings of worthlessness, sleep Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Multiple Choice abnormalities, and cognitive complaints. Because the disorder is so multifaceted, any evaluation should be comprehensive enough to develop a treatment plan. If you were evaluating a new patient, which of these might you include in your assessment? a. an emotional intelligence test b. an exam to evaluate muscle integrity c. language fluency, especially with respect to naming d. a thorough examination of nutrient intake and efficiency ANSWER: d 40. Drugs such as SSRIs have an immediate effect at the synapse, but in terms of having an effect on diminishing the symptoms of depression, they take: a. 1–7 days. b. more than 6 months. c. weeks. d. months.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 06: Short Answer 1. What characterizes drugs that can easily reach the brain?

ANSWER: Drugs that can easily reach the brain are orally ingested and are small in molecule size, weakly acidic in pH, and hydrophilic.

2. Identify the barriers an injected drug must cross to reach the brain.

ANSWER: There are no barriers if the drug is injected directly into the brain. If the drug is injected into a blood vessel, the molecules must cross the blood–brain barrier. If a drug is injected into a muscle, it must cross many unspecified barriers that probably include absorption into blood vessels and then the blood–brain barrier.

3. What is the blood–brain barrier?

ANSWER: The blood–brain barrier is an arrangement of astrocyte feet and endothelial cells that filter blood products from the circulatory system's cerebral capillaries.

4. Certain chemicals are transported to neurons within the brain. How is this accomplished?

ANSWER: The feet of astrocytes meet the endothelial cells of the cerebral blood capillaries to form tight junctions that filter most molecules from reaching neurons, unless active transport molecules are embedded within the membranes of the tight junctions.

5. What is the functional significance of brain regions that lack a blood–brain barrier? Give an example.

ANSWER: These brain regions can allow substances that are toxic or molecularly more complex to affect neurons if the result of these molecules within the brain is an adaptive behavior. For example, the area postrema induces vomiting when toxic substances are received at its neurons, which clears the toxin from the organism's body.

6. What are the seven major events in synaptic transmission?

ANSWER: The seven steps in neural transmission are neurotransmitter synthesis, storage, release, receptor activation, neurotransmitter inactivation (extracellular enzymatic degradation), reuptake, and intracellular enzymatic degradation.

7. Why does curare produce paralysis but not affect consciousness?

ANSWER: Curare acts more on skeletal muscles than on respiratory muscles, so it paralyzes but still allows for breathing and consciousness.

8. Discuss some of the reasons the same dose of a drug in the same person can have different effects at different times.

ANSWER: Learned tolerance and sensitization can alter the growth of dendrites and spine density as a function of the drug's effect and specific behaviors performed while exposed to the drug. This is believed to lead to increased or decreased responses to the drug based upon experience with it, independent of the dose of the drug.

9. Identify and describe the three kinds of drug tolerance.

ANSWER: In all cases, these reactions to the drug follow repeated exposure to it: (1) metabolic tolerance, where the decreased response to a specific dosage of the drug is due to increased metabolism of the drug before it reaches its neural sites of action; (2) cellular tolerance, where the decreased response Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Short Answer to a specific dosage of the drug is due to decreased cellular sensitivity to the drug; and (3) leaned tolerance, where the decreased response to a specific dosage of the drug is due to learning to cope with life demands while under the influence of the drug.

10. What brain effects did Robinson see during amphetamine sensitization?

ANSWER: Robinson saw increased dendritic growth and spine density in neurons associated with amphetamine when compared with control rats treated with saline instead of amphetamines under parallel experimental contingencies.

11. What are the mechanisms by which excessive glutamate release is thought to injure neurons?

ANSWER: Glutamate receptor activation results in an influx of Ca2+. If excessive Ca2+ from large doses of glutamate activates second messengers that initiate apoptosis (programmed cell death) through an epigenetic mechanism, many neurons can be eliminated.

12. Explain how activation of GABA receptors can cause sedation.

ANSWER: Excitation of GABA receptors produces an influx of Cl– ions into postsynaptic neurons, which hyperpolarizes their membranes and produces inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs). Drugs like barbiturates prolong this hyperpolarization, making it less likely that the neurons will produce action potentials to maintain cortical tone and breathing.

13. Why is it potentially dangerous to simultaneously take benzodiazepines and barbiturates?

ANSWER: When taken together, these drugs increase the frequency and duration of inhibition of neurons firing, which can cause coma or death if breathing reflexes are suppressed.

14. How do drugs such as Prozac affect serotonin levels at brain synapses?

ANSWER: Such drugs prolong the availability of serotonin in synapses by blocking its reuptake by the presynaptic neuron.

15. Distinguish between general stimulants and behavioral stimulants.

ANSWER: Behavioral stimulants increase motor behaviors and elevate mood and alertness, while general stimulants increase metabolic activity in all cells (excitatory and inhibitory).

16. What is the evidence that the dopamine system is involved in drug addiction?

ANSWER: Many kinds of abused and addictive drugs have the common property of producing psychomotor activation by stimulating dopamine activity within the usual dosage range, especially within the mesolimbic dopamine pathway from the ventral tegmental nucleus to the nucleus accumbens.

17. What are the stages in the wanting-and-liking theory (incentive-sensitization theory) of drug addiction?

ANSWER: With repeated use of a particular drug, the “liking” decreases due to tolerance, and the “wanting” increases due to sensitization.

18. Compare and contrast the actions of neurotransmitters and hormones.

ANSWER: Hormones act more slowly and by changing neural function through second messenger systems, and they tend to signal between different endocrine glands, as well as between endocrine glands and the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Short Answer body and vice versa. Neurotransmitters tend to signal between neurons, neurons and muscle cells, and neurons and endocrine glands through very fast, short-term neural activity.

19. How do hormones such as insulin and cortisol act in opposition to maintain physiological functions at an optimal level?

ANSWER: Insulin instructs the liver to store glucose, which decreases blood-sugar levels, while cortisol turns off insulin from the pancreas so that the liver releases glucose into the blood, thus increasing bloodsugar levels.

20. Compare the chemical messengers and target organs of the fast and slow pathways that contribute to the stress response.

ANSWER: The body's stress response is mediated by slow and fast systems. The main chemical messenger in the fast system is epinephrine from the adrenal medulla, and in the slow system, chemical messengers include cortisol from the adrenal cortex and CRF and ACTH from the pituitary and hypothalamus, respectively, to initiate cortisol's release. The fast system is activated from the hypothalamus through the autonomic nervous system to the adrenal medulla, and the slow system is activated through the hypothalamus and pituitary gland to the adrenal cortex. Both systems signal the brain, body cells, and other endocrine glands.

Match each item to the MOST appropriate alternative. a. MPTP b. tight junctions c. area postrema d. Valium 21. Parkinson's disease ANSWER: a 22. blood–brain barrier ANSWER: b 23. vomit response ANSWER: c 24. benzodiazepine ANSWER: d Match each drug with the correct alternative. a. physostigmine b. Valium c. Prozac d. chlorpromazine 25. acetylcholine Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Short Answer ANSWER: a 26. GABA ANSWER: b 27. serotonin ANSWER: c 28. dopamine ANSWER: d Match each drug to the correct alternative. a. opioid agonist b. opioid antagonist c. dopamine agonist d. adenosine antagonist 29. heroin ANSWER: a 30. naloxone ANSWER: b 31. cocaine ANSWER: c 32. caffine ANSWER: d Match each item to the correct alternative. a. liver enzymes b. heroin antagonist c. NMDA receptor d. anandamide 33. metabolic tolerance ANSWER: a 34. nalorphine ANSWER: b 35. PCP ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 06: Short Answer 36. CB1 and CB2 ANSWER: d Match each route of drug administration with the appropriate choice. a. Innovative chemotherapeutic agents that attack aggressive brain tumors can be administered this way to allow for quick action in low doses b. Absorbed through the lungs and encounters fewer barriers to reach the brain c. While this route of administration is the most convenient, it can also be the most ineffective due to the lengthy process before the drug reaches its intended target d. There are some newer medications made into patches that can be absorbed through the skin 37. intracerebrally ANSWER: a 38. inhalation ANSWER: b 39. orally ANSWER: c 40. topically ANSWER: d

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Chapter 07: Multiple Choice 1. A decrease in the firing rate of a visual cortex neuron in response to a change in stimulus color can be viewed as: a. a neuronal code for the new color. b. always indicating a lack of neural processing of that new color. c. a da Vinci code for color. d. a typical code for impending sleep.

ANSWER: a 2. The firing frequency of human cortical neurons is within the range of _____ discharges per minute. a. 300–400 b. 75–100 c. 150–200 d. 3–10 ANSWER: d 3. MOST neurons respond to: a. a wide range of sensory stimuli or behaviors. b. a limited range of sensory stimuli or behaviors. c. sensory stimuli but not behaviors. d. behaviors but not sensory stimuli.

ANSWER: b 4. Electroencephalography measures changes in: a. blood oxygenation levels generated by large numbers of neurons. b. glucose metabolism generated by large groups of neurons. c. voltage generated by large groups of neurons. d. voltage generated by single neurons.

ANSWER: c 5. Your brain is probably producing _____ waves as you read this sentence. a. delta b. alpha c. theta d. beta ANSWER: d 6. Epilepsy is characterized by: a. the absence of electrical activity within the brain. b. abnormally slow electrical discharges in the brain. c. abnormal electrical discharges in the brain. d. hyperexcitability of muscle tissue, resulting in seizures.

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Chapter 07: Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 7. The readiness potential is associated with activity in the _____, indicating _____. a. motor cortex; an impending movement b. visual cortex; an impending movement c. somatosensory cortex; stimulus expectancy d. frontal cortex; stimulus expectancy ANSWER: a 8. Which technique is currently used in the treatment of the tremors and rigidity associated with Parkinson disease? a. superficial brain stimulation b. deep brain stimulation c. temporal brain stimulation d. psychotherapy ANSWER: b 9. Conventional radiography, angiography, and computed tomography all measure differences in: a. blood flow. b. high-contrast dyes. c. tissue density. d. fat content.

ANSWER: c 10. The basis for many dynamic imaging systems is that active brain regions _____ than less active brain regions. a. are warmer b. consume more glucose c. have more dendrites d. move slightly more ANSWER: b 11. Dynamic imaging technology can record changes in: a. intelligence. b. cell structure. c. skull integrity. d. brain activity.

ANSWER: d 12. The signal measured in a PET scan is generated by: a. blood oxygen levels.

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Chapter 07: Multiple Choice b. magnetic fields. c. radioactive decay. d. transmembrane ion flux.

ANSWER: c 13. The three-dimensional units used in the analysis of PET and MRI scans are known as: a. voxels. b. pixels. c. integrals. d. morphemes.

ANSWER: a 14. PET experiments distinguish brain regions associated with a specific cognitive function from regions active during more elementary processing through use of the _____ method. a. addition b. subtraction c. control d. exclusion ANSWER: b 15. Which imaging technique has a spatial resolution of 1 cubic millimeter? a. PET b. MRI c. EEG d. ERP ANSWER: b 16. The imaging technique that provides the greatest contrast between brain tissues of different densities is: a. electroencephalography. b. transcranial magnetic stimulation. c. positron emission tomography. d. magnetic resonance imaging.

ANSWER: d 17. In MRI, a _____ is used to align _____ along their axis of spin. a. radioactive pulse; protons b. radioactive pulse; neutrons c. magnetic field; protons d. magnetic field; neutrons ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: Multiple Choice 18. The fMRI technique makes use of activity-dependent changes in: a. blood-oxygen levels. b. radioactive decay. c. glucose accumulation. d. myelin density.

ANSWER: a 19. Which technique provides the MOST specific spatial and temporal information about the relationship between neural function and behavior? a. positron emission tomography b. functional magnetic resonance imaging c. computed tomography d. single-cell recording ANSWER: d 20. Mosso's research demonstrated that mental activity can be represented through: a. increased blood flow in the brain. b. increased diastolic blood pressure. c. decreased action potentials in cortical neurons. d. slowing of the pulse rate.

ANSWER: a 21. Using current technology, what are potential limitations of brain-imaging techniques? a. Brain imaging is focused on conscious behavior. b. Imaging techniques are dependent on the attention of the participant. c. Nonspecific recordings cannot provide information about the brain activity of individual cells. d. Brain imaging has negative effects on the aging brain.

ANSWER: c 22. Why is the term single-cell recording misleading? a. CNS neural cells cannot be examined on an individual basis. b. Multiple electrodes can be used at once to examine the activity of individual neurons. c. The activity of an individual neuron can be recorded if it is sensory in nature. d. Examination of an individual neuron's activity is focused not on the neuron but its multiple connections to the surrounding neurons.

ANSWER: b 23. What form of impairment would NOT benefit from investigation using an EEG? a. stroke b. narcolepsy c. muscle weakness Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: Multiple Choice d. encephalitis ANSWER: c 24. EEG measures what form of neural activity? a. collective grade potentials of multiple neurons b. individual action potentials of single neurons c. excitatory neural activity within the PNS d. absence of action potentials within the PNS ANSWER: a 25. How can single-cell recording support the idea of learning? a. finding decreased neural firing rates with learning new behavior b. finding increased neural firing rates associated with learning new skills c. examining action potentials to demonstrate new neural connections d. reinforcing the idea that learning strengthens neural connections through the inhibition of action potentials ANSWER: b 26. What is a potential reason brain-wave amplitude varies in size? a. The method of examination, intracranial stimulation, will produce smaller waves. b. Examination of brain waves demonstrates amplitude variation specific to arousal. c. Brain-wave amplitude is related to development, with smaller waves found in infants. d. Brain-wave amplitude is associated with placement of the electrodes recording the neural activity in relation to the location of the signal generator.

ANSWER: d 27. What is the utility of an EEG in recording brain waves? a. ease of use and ability to focus on the firing of one neuron b. ability to examine cortical inhibition during wakefulness c. mapping distinct brain waves to allow for understanding states of consciousness d. ability to locate the root cause of misfiring during a partial seizure ANSWER: c 28. Widespread misfiring or abnormal increased neural activity recorded via an EEG can help diagnose: a. generalized seizures. b. narcolepsy. c. partial seizures. d. a coma.

ANSWER: a 29. An ERP is a specialized EEG. By which function does an ERP demonstrate neural activity?

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Chapter 07: Multiple Choice a. by focusing on a single EEG signal following stimuli presentation b. by averaging multiple EEG signals following the presentation of stimuli c. by focusing on how a single EEG signal relates to a neural pathway d. by averaging a series of EEG signals related to a neural pathway ANSWER: b 30. Why is using MEG to examine a single neuron ineffective? a. Examination of a single neuron is not cost effective. b. A single neuron's magnetic field cannot be distinguished from action potentials in nearby neurons. c. The MEG probes cannot differentiate between individual neurons. d. A single neuron would not produce a magnetic field strong enough to be recorded by brain-imaging technology.

ANSWER: d 31. Which statement BEST explains why MRIs have taken the place of pneumoencephalography? a. Pneumoencephalography is invasive and painful as air is injected into the spinal cord. b. Pneumoencephalography was found to be useful in identifying specific brain lesions. c. MRIs are invasive and allow visual representations of brain structures. d. MRIs are a newer and more advanced version of pneumoencephalography.

ANSWER: a 32. Which of these is a potential advantage of dynamic brain imaging over static imaging? a. higher resolution of brain structures b. the ability to examine brain activity during the imaging c. cost-effective and easy to use d. more research conducted using dynamic imaging, so it is more established ANSWER: b 33. Which of these is a list of brain-imaging techniques based on their resolution from least to most? a. X-ray, CT, single-cell, MRI b. X-ray, CT, PET, MRI c. single-cell, CT, PET, MRI d. CT, MRI, PET, single-cell ANSWER: b 34. Which brain-imaging technique would likely be used to confirm the presence of a patient's brain tumor? a. X-ray b. single-cell recording c. PET scan d. EEG ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: Multiple Choice 35. Which brain-imaging technique would be MOST useful and cost-effective in examining brain activity? a. EEG b. MEG c. MRI d. EKG ANSWER: a 36. Which statement does NOT present a disadvantage of MRI in comparison to other imaging techniques? a. MRI is expensive. b. MRI is cost-effective, but invasive. c. MRI is time consuming and can be uncomfortable for the patient. d. MRI does not utilize radioactivity to create the image.

ANSWER: b 37. How does magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS) differ from magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)? a. MRS measures neurotransmitters, while MRI examines hydrogen atoms. b. MRS measures action potentials, while MRI measures radioactive glucose. c. MRS and MRI both use magnetic fields, but MRS requires higher magnetic strength. d. MRI has open and closed scanning machines, while MRS uses closed scanners.

ANSWER: a 38. What is a likely reason the Human Connectome Project is using DTI tractography to map brain connectivity? a. DTI tractography examines blood-oxygen content after excitation of neurons. b. DTI tractography allows for noninvasive examination of the directionality of nerve pathways. c. DTI tractography is useful in visualizing brain connectivity through intracranial electrode placement. d. DTI tractography examines the nerve pathways that are interwoven through the brain via repeated pulsations of electricity.

ANSWER: b 39. Examination of motifs and brain connectivity is most associated with: a. resting-state fMRI. b. MRS. c. PET. d. EEG. ANSWER: a 40. A brain-imaging technique that may be considered the MOST useful for examining infant understanding of language is: a. resting-state fMRI. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: Multiple Choice b. fNIRS. c. X-ray. d. angiography.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 07: Short Answer 1. What are some theoretical limitations to data gathered via single-cell recording?

ANSWER: One theoretical limitation is that although a large amount of information is detected by sensory receptors, very few neurons carry this information to the cerebral cortex, where larger numbers of neurons process and integrate this information. Another theoretical limitation is that some neurons code information by decreasing their firing rates.

2. What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of single-cell and electroencephalographic recording techniques?

ANSWER: For single-cell recording techniques, the advantages are excellent temporal and spatial resolution, along with functional specificity. The disadvantage is that only a small number of neurosurgical or psychosurgical patients can be used in the sample. For electroencephalographic recording techniques, the advantages are that it is noninvasive; has excellent temporal resolution; can be recorded during a wide range of behaviors and sensory, perceptual, and cognitive tasks; and is cost effective. The disadvantage is that it has poor spatial resolution.

3. What brain activity does the EEG recorded from the scalp actually monitor?

ANSWER: It monitors rhythmical graded potentials from pyramidal neurons in layers V and VI of the cortex.

4. What distinguishes the ERP technique from standard EEG techniques?

ANSWER: EEG techniques are real-time, rhythmical, graded potentials from cortical neurons. ERP technique is the average of EEG segments that each follow a specific stimulus event.

5. What are the frequency characteristics of alpha, beta, and delta rhythms?

ANSWER: Beta rhythm is faster than alpha rhythm (the beta rhythm frequency is not given in the text; it is 15– 30 Hz). For alpha rhythm, the average is 11 cycles per second. For theta rhythm, the average is 4–7 cycles per second. For delta rhythm, the average is 1–3 cycles per second.

6. What are some of the experimental uses to which ERP technology can be put?

ANSWER: ERP technology can be used with brain regions involved in decoding pictures or preparing for movements.

7. Describe how transcranial magnetic stimulation can affect neuronal function.

ANSWER: Transcranial magnetic stimulation can activate or inactivate specific brain regions.

8. Describe one static and one dynamic imaging method.

ANSWER: A static imaging method is cerebral angiography, an X-ray of radio-opaque die within cerebral blood vessels. Other static imaging methods include conventional radiography, pneumoencephalography, and computed tomography (CT), all of which employ X-rays to image tissue density. A dynamic imaging method is fMRI, a recording of blood-oxygen levels in the tissues of the head. Other dynamic imaging techniques include magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS), diffusion tensor imaging (DTI), and resting state functional magnetic resonance imaging (rsfMRI), all of which employ MRI technology to monitor hydrogen or other chemical activity in the brain. Positron emission tomography (PET), which monitors molecular binding within the brain's tissues of molecules that carry a radioactive isotope is another method. A final dynamic imaging technique is optical imaging (fNIRS) that employs light signals projected through the skull and into Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: Short Answer the brain tissues and analysis of spectral absorption of the portion of that light reflected back to monitor blood oxygenation in different brain regions.

9. Briefly describe the general method used to create an image like that in a CT scan.

ANSWER: The images are created by passing narrow X-ray beams through the same object from many different angles and combining the resulting X-ray images mathematically to create a threedimensional image of the object.

10. How does diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) produce images of axon fibers?

ANSWER: The diffusion tensor imaging detects the movement of water molecules along axons in the brain; these data are used to produce a virtual image of the axons in the brain.

11. What has been found with using fNIRS to monitor the brain activity of newborns while they are listening to familiar and unfamiliar languages?

ANSWER: Newborns listening to a familiar language showed an increase in oxygenated hemoglobin, and this did not happen when newborns were listening to unfamiliar languages.

12. Describe disadvantages of ERP and fMRI techniques compared to fNIRS when studying brain function in young subjects.

ANSWER: The fNIRS technique is a relatively inexpensive functional brain-imaging technique that can be applied with a broader range of subject ages, including newborns. Unlike fMRI, fNIRS doesn't require that subjects remain motionless for long periods of time during recordings, and unlike ERP studies, stimuli don't have to be presented many times to produce an average response indicative of the brain's activities.

13. What are the most desired characteristics of a dynamic imaging system? Which existing technology comes closest to meeting these characteristics?

ANSWER: For research, the most desired characteristic is the understanding of brain–behavior relationships.

For clinical applications, the most desired characteristics are the detection of diseases and brain dysfunction, as well as the monitoring of treatment and recovery. No one method is best for meeting all these criteria. Cost effectiveness is a benefit with EEG and ERPs, spatial resolution is a benefit with fMRI, and chemical specificity is a benefit with PET. 14. Describe the relative advantages of CT, PET, and MRI scans for medical applications.

ANSWER: The X-ray–based CT scan is less expensive than the others and provides adequate spatial resolution to locate skull fractures, intracranial bleeding, tumors, and blood vessel malformations. PET scans allow for imaging brain chemistry associated with specific behaviors and disease states that alter brain chemistry. MRI images are more expensive but have the highest spatial resolution, allowing for images of small groups of neurons and the nerve fibers that connect them.

15. How have noninvasive imaging techniques made possible the compilation of multimodal brain atlases?

ANSWER: Compared with earlier maps from autopsied humans, current noninvasive imaging techniques employ living subjects and have larger sample sizes in which both sexes are represented and developmental changes are measured, as are individual differences in neural structures, their pathways, neurochemistry, active genes, and so on.

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Chapter 07: Short Answer 16. Explain why the number of neurons vary along the visual relay.

ANSWER: The number of neurons is correlated to the level of information processing necessary. The visual information is received through numerous light-receptor cells within the retina, and the information is projected to fewer cells at each relay point until reaching the cortical visual association areas where the neurons impacted increase.

17. As brain activity results from action potentials, how can neural activity imaging distinguish between cognitive function and states of consciousness?

ANSWER: EEGs demonstrate states of consciousness through examination of brain waves, while cognitive function is shown through examination of excitation of different brain regions.

18. Describe what researchers would map using an ERP following the repeated presentation of a visual stimuli of a tree.

ANSWER: Implementing an ERP, researchers would be able to graph the average of multiple EEG signals following the display of the picture of the tree. The graph would demonstrate the “noise” at the start of the ERP showing the action potentials prior to the presentation of the visual stimulus. The graph then would demonstrate action potentials' path through the nervous system as the visual stimuli is processed.

19. Explain why deep brain stimulation would be considered a treatment for neurological disorders like Parkinson disease or psychological disorders such as obsessive-compulsive disorder.

ANSWER: Deep brain stimulation allows for consistent regulation of action potentials within the brain related to neurological and psychological disorders. DBS is not the first form of treatment, as it is invasive and has potential risks to the patient. It is considered for patients where medication and other forms of treatment have been ineffective.

20. Explain the future direction of deep brain stimulation.

ANSWER: The utility of deep brain stimulation has been demonstrated in investigation of brain functioning and the application of DBS for treatment of various neurological and psychological disorders. Future development of DBS is moving away from invasive measures to find methods to stimulate the brain without brain surgery or minimal surgery.

21. Explain how TMS can be utilized in neurological research.

ANSWER: Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) allows for multiple electrical pulses to penetrate the skull for brain stimulation without brain surgery or tissue damage related to the exposure of both electrical pulses and the subsequent magnetic field that are produced. Extended pulses can temporarily inactivate brain regions, creating a pseudo brain lesion. This discovery allows for research on brain damage, without having to restrict the sample to patients with brain damage or causing damage to participants.

22. Compare the utility of a pneumoencephalography and an angiography in the examination of blood vessels within the brain.

ANSWER: The two imaging techniques are static. Both pneumoencephalography and angiography use injection of either air or a radioactive substance to the bloodstream to examine blood vessels and vesicles.

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Chapter 07: Short Answer These methods would appear to be useful for examination of blood vessels within the brain.

However, they have limitations that do not make them an ideal choice. They are invasive and painful. Therefore, more dynamic imaging techniques have a higher utility than these static and painful imaging methods.

Match each item with the MOST appropriate alternative. a. single-cell recording b. electroencephalography c. P3 d. magnetoencephalography 23. individual action potentials ANSWER: a 24. sum of graded potentials of cortical neurons ANSWER: b 25. stimulus-linked brainwave ANSWER: c 26. SQUID ANSWER: d Match each person(s) with the correct scientific contribution. a. Human Connectome Project b. developed CT scan c. proposed coherence theory d. developer of EEG technique 27. Hans Berger ANSWER: d 28. Harris and Thiele ANSWER: c 29. Cormack and Hounsfield ANSWER: b Match each rhythm with the correct state. a. alpha rhythm b. beta rhythm c. delta rhythm d. theta rhythm Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 07: Short Answer 30. relaxed state ANSWER: a 31. aroused state ANSWER: b 32. deep sleep ANSWER: c 33. drowsy state ANSWER: d Match each method with its purpose. a. MEG b. PET c. MRI d. MRS 34. detects induced magnetic fields from neural activity ANSWER: a 35. detects subatomic particle annihilation events ANSWER: b 36. detects energy emitted by spinning hydrogen ions ANSWER: c 37. detects neurotransmitter molecules ANSWER: d

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Chapter 08: Multiple Choice 1. The property that sets sensory receptors apart from other cells is their ability to: a. transmit messages to other cells. b. receive input from other cells. c. produce specialized chemicals. d. convert energy into nerve impulses.

ANSWER: d 2. The ability to discriminate individual stimuli is highest from surfaces with _____ spaced receptive fields. a. large, widely b. large, closely c. small, widely d. small, closely ANSWER: d 3. Groups of intervening synapses between a sensory receptor and sensory cortex are known as: a. sensory ganglia. b. neural relays. c. sensory switches. d. relay ganglia.

ANSWER: b 4. The common output of sensory transduction in all sensory systems is: a. an action potential. b. dopamine release. c. occipital cortex activation. d. consciousness.

ANSWER: a 5. Each sensory system employs multiple cortical regions, each consisting of _____ map(s) of the sensory world. a. a single, exact b. multiple identical c. multiple specialized d. a single, abstract ANSWER: c 6. The axons of the _____ cells form the optic nerve. a. bipolar b. lateral geniculate c. amacrine d. retinal ganglion Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 7. The output fibers forming the optic nerve from the retina are axons of: a. bipolar neurons. b. retinal ganglion cells. c. rods. d. cones.

ANSWER: b 8. Where would an investigator MOST likely find neurons that are most capable of dealing with information from the whole binocular visual field? a. superior colliculus b. visual cortex c. lateral geniculate nucleus d. pulvinar nucleus ANSWER: b 9. In the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN), layers _____ receive input from the contralateral eye. a. 2, 3, and 5 b. 1, 4, and 6 c. 1, 3, and 5 d. 2, 4, and 6 ANSWER: b 10. The axon terminal from LGN neurons projects primarily to layer(s) _____ of area 17. a. IV b. II, III c. V d. VI ANSWER: a 11. The eardrum marks the boundary between the: a. outer and middle ear. b. middle and inner ear. c. semicircular canals and cochlea. d. outer ear and stirrup.

ANSWER: a 12. The appreciation of _____ is MOST closely related to the frequency of the sound stimulus. a. loudness b. pitch Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Multiple Choice c. harmonics d. location ANSWER: b 13. The _____ is to hearing as the retina is to seeing. a. organ of Corti b. round window c. oval window d. cochlea ANSWER: a 14. The peak of the traveling wave in the basilar membrane varies with the _____ of the sound. a. intensity b. location c. frequency d. duration ANSWER: c 15. According to tonotopic theory: a. each hair cell responds to a different pitch. b. different points on the basilar membrane represent different intensities of sound. c. the basilar membrane is uniform in its response to different sound frequencies. d. different points on the basilar membrane represent different sound frequencies.

ANSWER: d 16. Which relay in the auditory system is the MOST peripheral (closest to the ear)? a. primary auditory cortex b. inferior colliculus c. medial geniculate d. cochlear nucleus ANSWER: d 17. Ian Waterman's infection left him with a loss of all _____ due to a disorder of his peripheral nerves. a. hearing b. vision c. proprioception d. sensory input ANSWER: c 18. A patient who cannot locate the position of his limbs in space unless he is looking at them is suffering from a loss of: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Multiple Choice a. enteroception. b. hapsis. c. nociception. d. proprioception.

ANSWER: d 19. Damage to the posterior column somatosensory pathway would be expected to disrupt perception of: a. pain and temperature. b. fine touch and pain. c. temperature and pressure. d. fine touch and pressure.

ANSWER: d 20. The sensory homunculus is a cortical representation of: a. the body proportional to body surface area. b. the body proportional to body surface sensitivity. c. the body proportional to muscle number. d. conscious bodily sensations.

ANSWER: b 21. The area of the somatosensory cortex devoted to an area of the body surface is proportional to the: a. density of sensory receptors on the area. b. size of the area relative to the rest of the body. c. number of somatotopic maps for that region of the body. d. the number of relay nuclei between the body surface and cortex.

ANSWER: a 22. The primary deficit following damage to the semicircular canals would MOST probably be a disturbance of: a. voluntary actions. b. sense of balance. c. pitch discrimination. d. sense of smell.

ANSWER: b 23. Olfaction and gustation are known as the _____ senses. a. papillary b. affective c. chemical d. solitary ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Multiple Choice 24. Brain-imaging studies suggest that the perception of flavor depends on activity in the: a. lingual gyrus. b. amygdala. c. orbitofrontal cortex. d. temporal cortex.

ANSWER: c 25. The integration of taste and smell stimuli results in the perception of: a. flavor. b. saltiness. c. odorants. d. body posture.

ANSWER: a 26. The subjective experience that results from sensory processing is referred to as: a. sensation. b. perception. c. introspection. d. intellection.

ANSWER: b 27. The Müller–Lyer illusion shows the importance of _____ in perception. a. concentration b. sensation c. contextual cues d. accommodation ANSWER: c 28. When a blind individual uses auditory information such as shaking keys or snapping fingers to locate objects, we refer to this as: a. echolocation. b. auditory inferences. c. synesthesia. d. perceptual cueing.

ANSWER: a 29. Animals are often guided by information provided by pheromones to influence all sorts of behavior in other animals. While it's unclear whether humans have pheromones, if you were developing a perfume that you hoped would capitalize on this potential, what would be a key decision before your launch? a. plan for a winter launch so that you can capitalize on Valentine's Day b. develop a marketing plan that highlights the biology of love Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Multiple Choice c. solidify that your packaging is appealing to both men and women d. determine a launch date in the summer/fall for maximum effect ANSWER: d 30. The vomeronasal organ likely plays a key role in social behavior due to its connections with the: a. hippocampus. b. hypothalamus. c. orbitofrontal cortex. d. thalamus.

ANSWER: b 31. When you initially enter a dark movie theater, you can't see where the empty seats are located. However, after a couple of minutes, your eyes have adjusted to the darkness and you can easily determine where you can sit. Why does this occur? a. Rods are slowly adapting receptors. b. Cones are rapidly adapting receptors. c. Rods are rapidly adapting receptors. d. Cones are slowly adapting receptors.

ANSWER: c 32. Identify the correct progression of visual information from retina to geniculostriate pathway. a. photoreceptors, bipolar cells, retinal ganglion cells, optic nerve, LGN, visual cortex b. retinal ganglion cells, bipolar cells, photoreceptors, optic nerve, visual cortex, LGN c. bipolar cells, photoreceptors, retinal ganglion cells, optic nerve LGN, visual cortex d. photoreceptors, retinal ganglion cells, bipolar cells, optic nerve, LGN, thalamus ANSWER: a 33. The middle ear contains a series of bones that lead to the inner ear. Identify the correct order to the inner ear, from distal to proximal. a. anvil, hammer, stirrup b. hammer, stirrup, anvil c. stirrup, hammer, anvil d. hammer, anvil, stirrup ANSWER: d 34. An individual complains about not being able to hear people speaking. Given that different frequencies reach their peaks at different aspects of the cochlea, which statement is correct? a. Damage is likely located in the cochlea near the base, distally from the oval window. b. Damage is more likely located in the cochlea near the apex, proximal to the oval window. c. Damage is likely to involve only the ossicles. d. Damage is more likely to involve the auditory nerve projections.

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Chapter 08: Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 35. Brown–Séquard syndrome occurs following unilateral injury to the spinal cord and results in a particular pattern of symptoms. Which of these depicts this syndrome? a. unilateral loss of nociception, relative to the site of damage, and contralateral proprioceptive loss b. contralateral loss of nociception, and contralateral loss of fine touch and pressure c. unilateral loss of pressure and fine touch, and unilateral loss of nociception d. loss of fine touch, pressure, and proprioceptive unilateral to the injury, and loss of nociception contralateral to site of injury ANSWER: d 36. Which Brodmann area(s) would you find located immediately posterior to the central sulcus? a. 4 b. 7a c. 3a/b d. 5 ANSWER: c 37. An 80-year-old woman presents at the emergency department complaining of not feeling well and numbness of her face. The exam shows a loss of pain and temperature on the left side of her body. What would likely account for this? a. medial lemniscus system on the right b. anterolateral system on the right c. anterolateral system on the left d. medial lemniscus system on the left ANSWER: b 38. Mitral cells ultimately project to all of these EXCEPT the: a. thalamus. b. hypothalamus. c. amygdala. d. entorhinal cortex.

ANSWER: a 39. Pheromones are released from the: a. orbitofrontal cortex. b. hypothalamus. c. vomeronasal organ. d. pyriform cortex.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Multiple Choice 40. Following a traumatic brain injury (TBI), a patient was unable to perceive the flavors in food. This issue was likely due to damage to the: a. olfactory bulbs. b. taste buds. c. gustatory cortex. d. orbitofrontal cortex.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 08: Short Answer 1. Discuss the relationship between receptive field size, sensory receptor density, cortical representation, and perceptual sensitivity.

ANSWER: Receptive field size and receptor density determine the level of detail in a sensory stimulus that can be collected and relayed to the sensory cortex. Cortical representations are discrete for each sense and represent the higher and lower receptive field sizes and receptor densities along with the organization of the sensory organ in the cases of vision, hearing, and somatosensation. Perception is most accurate for the sensory cortical areas with the highest levels of detail (smallest receptive fields, highest receptor density, largest area of sensory cortex), even though the association cortex contains multiple representations of each stimulus.

2. Why are sensory receptors also termed transducers?

ANSWER: They are termed transducers because they convert energy to neural activity.

3. Define the term receptive field and give examples showing how such fields vary in different sensory modalities.

ANSWER: A receptive field is a specific part of the world to which specific receptors or cells respond. One example is the part of the visual world seen by one eye. Another example is pressure waves in the air traveling at 20,000 Hz, maximally activating the cochlear hair cells at the basal end of the basilar membrane.

4. What two kinds of events can take place at the neuronal synapses between one relay and the next in a sensory system?

ANSWER: Signals can be amplified, or they can be inhibited (gated).

5. Identify four subsystems in the visual system and describe their postulated functions.

ANSWER: Four visual subsystems and their postulated functions are: (1) a projection from the retina to the superchiasmic nucleus of the hypothalamus that coordinates daily rhythms like sleeping and feeding with daylight and night, (2) a projection from the retina to the pretectum that adjusts pupil size relative to ambient illumination, (3) a projection from the retina to the visual cortex (via LGN) that allows for pattern and color perception, and (4) a projection from the retina to the pineal gland that governs long-term biological rhythms such as migration or hibernation behaviors.

6. What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of the rod system and the cone system?

ANSWER: Rods are more sensitive to light than cones but don't allow for chromatic contrast processing because they only have one photopigment. Cones aren't as sensitive to light as rods are, but they have three different photopigments and allow for seeing spatial patterns based upon chromatic contrast as well as achromatic contrast. Cones don't adapt as quickly as rods, so the former allow for vision in photopic environments.

7. Compare stimulus frequency and intensity as used by the visual and auditory systems to create perceptions.

ANSWER: In auditory stimulation, differences in stimulus frequency are perceived as “pitch” differences, and the stimulus intensity differences are perceived as “loudness” differences. In visual systems, differences in light frequency (inverse of wavelength of light) are perceived as color differences, and differences in intensity are perceived as brightness differences.

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Chapter 08: Short Answer 8. Differentiate between the geniculostriate and tectopulvinar visual systems, functionally and anatomically.

ANSWER: The geniculostriate pathway differs anatomically because it goes from the retina to the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus to Brodmann's area 17 cortex (“striate cortex”). Functionally, the geniculostriate pathway allows for spatial pattern perception. The tectopulvinar pathway goes from the retina to the superior colliculus (of the tectum) to the pulvinar nucleus of the thalamus to the extrastriate cortex of the occipital lobe. Functionally, the tectopulvinar pathway allows for visually detecting and orienting to objects.

9. Identify, in the correct order, the major connections of the geniculostriate system from the eye to the cortex.

ANSWER: The major connections of the geniculostriate system from the eye to the cortex are from the retina to the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus to layer 4 in Brodmann's area 17 cortex.

10. Why doesn't complete destruction of the geniculostriate pathway in humans leave the person completely blind?

ANSWER: The tectopulvinar pathway still allows for detection of and orientation to visual stimuli, even though conscious spatial pattern vision is not possible without the geniculostriate pathway.

11. Identify, in the correct order, the major neural connections of the auditory system from the inner ear to the cortex.

ANSWER: The major neural connections of the auditory system from the inner ear to the cortex are (1) from hair cells resting on the basilar membrane of the inner ear to spiral ganglion cells whose axons form the eighth cranial nerve projecting to the ventral and dorsal cochlear nuclei at the medulla, (2) from the cochlear nuclei to the olivary complex, (3) from the olivary complex to the trapezoid body, (4) from the trapezoid body to the inferior colliculus, (5) from the inferior colliculus to the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus, and (6) from the medial geniculate nucleus to Brodmann's area 41 in Heschl's gyrus of the temporal lobe.

12. Identify, in the correct order, the major connections of the pathway underlying fine touch, pressure, and proprioception from the spinal cord to the cortex.

ANSWER: Axons of the dorsal root ganglia project as the posterior (dorsal) column relay nuclei in the ipsilateral medulla and then decussate to form the medial lemniscus that projects to the contralateral ventral lateral nucleus of the thalamus, which projects to layer 4 neurons in Brodmann's areas 1, 2, and 3 of the parietal lobe.

13. What is a homunculus?

ANSWER: A homunculus is a map that represents the body surface projected upon the somatosensory cortex (postcentral gyrus).

14. Identify, in the correct order, the major connections of the olfactory system from nose to cortex.

ANSWER: Receptors within the olfactory epithelium in the nasal cavity project to the glomeruli, which project to the mitral cells, which project as cranial nerve one to the pyriform and the entorhinal cortex located in the anterior and medial temporal lobe.

15. What role does context play in sensory perception?

ANSWER: Contextual cues, such as the arrowheads in the Müller–Lyer illusion, interact with the purely Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Short Answer sensory registration of two equal-length horizontal lines to lead to the perception of these two lines as being of different lengths.

16. How might synesthesia occur? (Hint: there is no definitive answer to this one.)

ANSWER: Synesthesia could be due to brain organization involving inputs from more than one sense being projected to the same sensory region of the cortex, or it could be due to brain organization within the association cortex and memory after modality-specific sensory cortical areas have completed initial processing of the stimulus.

17. Describe why a person might experience some relief of the pain from a blow to her right arm by rubbing it briskly with her left hand.

ANSWER: The pathway for pain and temperature and that for fine touch and pressure from the body surface interact at the spinal cord by activating the same spinal neurons. Pain signals travel on slower conducting axons than do fine-touch and pressure signals from the body surface to the spinal cord to the extent that the fine-touch signals arrive at the spinal cord earlier. These two types of inputs (fine touch and pain from the same body region) compete to activate the same spinal cord neurons and to send signals to the brain from the spinal cord, and each sends inhibitory collaterals to block the input of the other. In view of this, briskly rubbing the injured right arm immediately after the injury occurs would result in fine-touch signals that arrive at the spinal cord first and inhibit the input of the pain stimulus at the spinal cord; therefore, they allow the person to avoid sensing pain from that body region at that time.

18. What is the McGurk effect, and how does it illustrate interactions between different sensory modalities?

ANSWER: The McGurk effect is a modification of a speech sound perceived when the listener sees the speaker's lips articulating a different speech sound. This illustrates an interaction between hearing and vision because what is heard is altered by what is seen.

19. What functional properties are shared by all sensory systems?

ANSWER: The anatomical organization for each sense has many receptors and sends transduced information in neural codes to the cerebral cortex through a sequence of three or four neural relays. This input diverges to more than one pathway in the brain. Although each sense has a discrete cortical target for input, each has several brain regions as targets. For each sense, the primary cortical sensory area projects to a number of secondary and association cortical areas where sensory information is encoded in more complex ways based upon the receptive field characteristics of the initial receptors that detected a stimulus and those of all the other cells bringing the neural code into the brain.

20. Describe place theory and how it relates to cortical representation.

ANSWER: Place theory denotes the pattern of activation of the basilar membrane (within the cochlea) with respect to differential sound waves. The key aspect of the theory relates to the frequency of the sound waves that are located at specific points on the basilar membrane, with higher frequencies located near the base (proximal to the oval window) and lower frequencies located near the apex (farthest from the oval window). The theory suggests that each hair cell responds to a particular frequency and at a specific point along the membrane. This representation is maintained in the primary auditory cortex, where there is a tonotopic map that corresponds to the placement/relationship of the frequencies in the basilar membrane. The higher frequencies are positioned more posteriorly. We could expect that damage to a specific aspect of the auditory cortex Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Short Answer would result in a failure to perceive particular frequencies.

21. Explain why it is that men experience pain stemming from the heart as pain in the shoulder or upper extremity.

ANSWER: The experience of characterizing pain from heart, perhaps during a heart attack, as stemming from the arm or shoulder is termed referred pain. This occurs because the ganglion cells that carry information from the pain receptors of internal organs don't actually project to the brain. Instead, they mix with other spinal cord projections that are carrying ascending somatosensory information; thus, heart pain is perceived of as shoulder pain.

22. Describe the projection pathway of the posterior columns.

ANSWER: Somatosensory receptors related to pressure, temperature, and proprioceptive information ascend ipsilaterally until they descussate in the brainstem. These projections continue to synapse in the ventrolateral nucleus of the thalamus. Subsequently, this pathway terminates in the primary somatosensory cortex (Brodmann's areas 312) and primary motor cortex (Brodmann's area 4).

23. Perception is the brain's interpretation of the physical sensory experience. There are times when the sensory systems comingle. Define and describe this experience.

ANSWER: The experience of, for example, “feeling” sound is called synesthesia and refers to the act of perceiving the stimulus of one sense (such as sound) as the sensory stimulus from another sense such as somatosensory. There are two main categories: projectors and associators. Projectors experience synesthesia as reality—actually seeing colors in written text—while associators experience the sensory mixing in their mind's eye. For example, associators associate a color with a specific number. Neuroimaging studies have shown some differential patterns of activation in projectors versus associators where the projectors have increased activation in visual and auditory regions while the associators exhibit increased activation in sensory association and memory-related areas.

The visual system consists of many subsystems. For each subsystem listed here, choose the MOST appropriate alternative. a. pretectum b. superior colliculus c. visual cortex d. frontal eye fields 24. pupil size ANSWER: a 25. orientation of head ANSWER: b 26. pattern perception ANSWER: c 27. voluntary eye movements Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Short Answer ANSWER: d Match each Brodmann cortical area with the sensory modality with which it is most closely associated. a. area 17 b. area 41 c. area 3 d. insular cortex 28. vision ANSWER: a 29. audition ANSWER: b 30. somatosensation ANSWER: c 31. taste ANSWER: d Each sensory system has its own thalamic nucleus. Match each sensory system with the appropriate thalamic nucleus. a. vision b. olfaction c. taste d. nociception and proprioception 32. lateral geniculate nucleus ANSWER: a 33. dorsomedial nucleus ANSWER: b 34. ventral posteromedial nucleus ANSWER: c 35. ventrolateral nucleus ANSWER: d Match each receptor with the appropriate sensory system. a. Meissner's corpuscles b. Golgi tendon organs c. otolith organs d. free nerve endings Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 08: Short Answer 36. hapsis ANSWER: a 37. proprioception ANSWER: b 38. balance ANSWER: c 39. nociception ANSWER: d

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Chapter 09: Multiple Choice 1. Evidence suggests that the primary motor cortex is organized on the basis of: a. intelligent design. b. environmental experience. c. specific movements. d. movement goals.

ANSWER: c 2. Movement sequences are organized by neurons in the: a. premotor cortex. b. primary motor cortex. c. prefrontal cortex. d. cerebellum.

ANSWER: a 3. The multiple motor homunculi have been suggested to correspond to different: a. classes of sensory information. b. levels of motivation. c. classes of movement. d. speeds of movement.

ANSWER: c 4. Defensive facial expressions are an example of a(n) _____ category. a. ethological movement b. ethical movement c. ethological sensory d. voluntary movement ANSWER: a 5. Karl and Whishaw (2013) concluded that reaching for an object involves _____ pathway(s) from _____ to _____. a. a single; M1; the spinal cord b. several; the basal ganglia; V1 c. two; V1; the parietal cortex and M1 d. a single; V1; M1 ANSWER: c 6. Disruption of movement sequences, in the absence of muscle weakness, would follow lesions on the: a. prefrontal cortex. b. premotor cortex. c. primary motor cortex. d. reticular activating system.

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Chapter 09: Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 7. Research by Evarts found that the firing rate of neurons in the monkey motor cortex: a. increased as the amount of force required to make a wrist movement increased. b. decreased as the amount of force required to make a wrist movement increased. c. was not related to the amount of force required to generate wrist movement. d. varied with the monkey's emotional state.

ANSWER: a 8. Neurons that respond both when the subject performs an action and when the subject observes the action being performed are called _____ neurons. a. Renshaw b. bipolar c. mirror d. copycat ANSWER: c 9. Mirror neurons may provide a neurobiological basis for: a. motor memory. b. social awareness. c. reflexive behavior. d. brain symmetry.

ANSWER: b 10. There are about _____ pathways that originate in the brainstem and project to the spinal cord. a. 4 b. 16 c. 26 d. 62 ANSWER: c 11. A patient who has difficulty with balance, posture, and coordination would MOST likely have a lesion in the: a. brainstem motor areas. b. orbitofrontal cortex. c. posterior parietal cortex. d. primary motor areas.

ANSWER: a 12. Huntington disease is a genetic disorder resulting from degeneration of: a. dorsal columns of the spinal cord.

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Chapter 09: Multiple Choice b. ventral columns of the spinal cord. c. the spinocerebellar tract. d. caudate putamen cells.

ANSWER: d 13. The basal ganglia receive neural inputs from two main sources. These sources are the: a. cerebellum and thalamus. b. neocortex and substantia nigra. c. neocortex and cerebellum. d. limbic cortex and thalamus.

ANSWER: b 14. One role of the basal ganglia in producing effective movements is the: a. planning of discrete voluntary movements. b. activation of spinal motor neurons. c. fine-tuning of lateral accuracy. d. generation of the appropriate amount of force.

ANSWER: d 15. Parkinson disease is caused by a loss of neurons that release the neurotransmitter: a. dopamine. b. acetylcholine. c. norepinephrine. d. glutamate.

ANSWER: a 16. Exaggerated, excessive movements are characteristic of degeneration of the: a. temporal cortex. b. substantia nigra. c. caudate putamen. d. nucleus accumbens.

ANSWER: c 17. The flocculus is part of the: a. basal ganglia. b. brainstem. c. cerebellum. d. thalamus.

ANSWER: c 18. An inability to generate the appropriate amount of force when executing a movement might be seen Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Multiple Choice following damage to the: a. prefrontal cortex. b. basal ganglia. c. amygdala. d. cerebellum.

ANSWER: b 19. When learning to throw darts, the basal ganglia contribute to the _____ of the throw, whereas the cerebellum contributes to the _____ of the throw. a. force; movement accuracy b. lateral accuracy; force c. force; motivation d. horizontal accuracy; score ANSWER: a 20. The contribution of the cerebellum to the control of movement is: a. idea generation and planning. b. initiation of voluntary actions. c. fine-tuning of timing and accuracy. d. coordination of ethological behaviors.

ANSWER: c 21. Corticobulbar tracts project from the motor cortex to the: a. temporal lobe. b. olfactory bulb. c. parietal lobule. d. brainstem.

ANSWER: d 22. Difficulty holding a pen to write would MOST likely result from damage to the _____ tract. a. lateral corticospinal b. ventral corticospinal c. corticobulbar d. rubrospinal ANSWER: a 23. Difficulty maintaining proper posture and balance would MOST likely result from damage to the _____ tract. a. lateral corticospinal b. anterior corticospinal c. corticobulbar Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Multiple Choice d. rubrospinal ANSWER: b 24. Researchers examining how to interface computer technology with neural activity can help those with a disability or loss of functioning due to a stroke by using: a. the blood–brain barrier. b. neuroprosthetics. c. electrodes. d. EEG. ANSWER: b 25. What is the utility of homuncular maps in relation to movement? a. They are a visual representation of the body within the cortex. b. They demonstrate areas in the brain related to movement. c. They demonstrate a disproportionate area for fine motor control. d. They are a visual representation of the motor control of the hands.

ANSWER: c 26. A mime pantomiming drinking coffee would use the _____, while a person lifting a coffee cup to drink would use the _____ to create movement. a. ventral stream; dorsal stream b. premotor cortex; basal ganglia c. dorsal stream; ventral stream d. cerebellum; premotor cortex ANSWER: a 27. Research examining neural activity in track and field athletes would expect _____ blood flow to the _____ cortex when an athlete is running along a track. a. decreased; prefrontal b. increased; parietal c. decreased; motor d. increased; premotor ANSWER: d 28. Using Graziano's topography, a monkey who has difficulty climbing likely has damage to the _____ cortex. a. prefrontal b. parietal c. premotor d. primary motor ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Multiple Choice 29. Research by Karl and Whishaw (2013) has shown that to reach and grasp an object, multiple systems work in tandem to carry out the action, specifically the: a. parietal cortex, sensory system, and prefrontal cortex. b. visual system, parietal cortex, and motor cortex. c. primary motor cortex, parietal cortex, and brainstem. d. visual system, sensory system, and motor cortex.

ANSWER: b 30. Production of movement is related to neural activity in the _____ for movement to the mouth and the _____ for whole-body movement. a. prefrontal cortex; parietal cortex b. parietal cortex: premotor cortex c. brainstem; spinal cord d. spinal cord; brainstem ANSWER: c 31. The ability to retain motor functioning after a lesion to the motor cortex demonstrates the: a. higher importance of the brainstem to the production of movement. b. functioning of mirror neurons. c. lexicon of movement. d. plasticity and redundancy of the cortical connections.

ANSWER: d 32. Lesions to the dorsal parietal cortex may cause impairment in _____ movement. a. coordinating eye b. producing stepping c. producing directionality of d. the force of ANSWER: b 33. Research on prewired movements demonstrates that movements are: a. encoded and fixed. b. flexible after injury. c. learned and modified as needed. d. fixed after learning new skills.

ANSWER: c 34. After a stroke, a patient has lost the fine motor ability to grasp small objects. What new movement would likely take its place? a. grasp with both hands b. pincer grip Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Multiple Choice c. one-hand grip with tools d. whole-hand grip ANSWER: d 35. A traumatic brain injury that led to impairment in coordinated and skilled movements would likely result from trauma to the: a. brainstem. b. basal ganglia. c. premotor cortex. d. parietal cortex.

ANSWER: c 36. Changes in motor neuron firing demonstrate their involvement in the: a. production of movement. b. planning, execution, and force behind the movement. c. intention and execution of movement. d. execution and strength of the movement.

ANSWER: b 37. Research on motor neuron firing would expect _____ rates depending on force and directionality. a. differing b. equal c. high d. low ANSWER: a 38. Dysfunction of the basal ganglia can lead to difficulty in managing or producing movement due to the basal ganglia _____ movement. a. controlling the direction of b. working with the brainstem to produce c. controlling the force of d. sending messages through an indirect pathway to produce ANSWER: c 39. Both excessive, exaggerated movement and rigid, stiff movement are related to dysfunction of the: a. brainstem. b. basal ganglia. c. premotor cortex. d. parietal cortex.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Multiple Choice 40. Spinal cord injuries that lead to a disruption in messages being conveyed to lateral spinal cord neurons would lead to dysfunction of: a. movement of the trunk. b. sensation of the midline of the body. c. movement of the hands and/or feet. d. movement of the head.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 09: Short Answer 1. Identify the four general regions of the neocortex thought to produce most voluntary movement.

ANSWER: The four regions are posterior (parietal lobe), prefrontal, premotor, and primary motor (Brodmann's area 4).

2. Describe the homunculus as mapped by Penfield. What changes have been made subsequently?

ANSWER: Penfield summarized the homunculus as a map of body parts that move through the activity of neurons in specific regions of the motor cortex. Distortions of body regions in this map compared with actual body-part size reveal the degree of motor control over those body parts (enlarged homuncular regions indicate more motor control of that part). Subsequent research has revealed up to 10 homunculi within motor and premotor cortices, and it's thought that some regions of motor cortex can initiate movements in more than one body part.

3. What are ethological categories of movement, as defined by Graziano? How are they represented in the brain?

ANSWER: Ethological categories of movement are movements used by a member of a species in its everyday activities in its natural environment. Specific regions of premotor and motor cortex are associated with specific movements in three components: the body part moved, the spatial location to which the movement is directed, and the movement's function. Each movement is like an independent homunculus in action.

4. Describe how motor cortex and corresponding parietal cortex topographical regions produce movement.

ANSWER: For a reaching movement and to grasp an object, visual, somatosensory, and/or auditory cortices provide information about the target to the motor cortex to guide reaching for the target. A visual cortex identifies the object and its location (intrinsic and extrinsic properties). This information is sent to the parietal cortex regions for arm extension and hand position to grasp the object. The parietal regions that represent the arm and hand sensory receptors in turn connect to the corresponding motor cortex regions that can then move the arm and finger muscles appropriately.

5. What is meant by the term movement lexicon?

ANSWER: A movement lexicon is a repertoire of movement categories in a cortex—for example, the pincer grasp. The cortical circuits are believed to be prewired/genetically inherited rather than organized on the basis of learning.

6. In what ways do motor neurons encode different characteristics of movements, as suggested by the studies of Evarts and Georgopoulos?

ANSWER: Motor neurons were found to encode force of a movement, direction of movement, and type of movement as flexion or extension by virtue of their relative discharge rates. Increased discharge rates in specific neurons that corresponded with the specific characteristic of the movement being performed by the monkey were interpreted as encoding by that neuron of that movement characteristic.

7. What patterns of ventral premotor cortical neuron activity were observed by Umilta and colleagues during the study of monkeys observing goal-directed movements by another monkey or human?

ANSWER: Umilta and colleagues found that these neurons discharged in patterns similar to those recorded from the same sites as when the monkey actually performed the movements itself.

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Chapter 09: Short Answer 8. In which lobes of human cerebral cortex have mirror neurons been found?

ANSWER: They have been found in the frontal, parietal, and temporal lobes.

9. What conclusions can be drawn from Hess's research on electrical stimulation of the brain?

ANSWER: The brainstem neurons, rather than the cortical neurons, are responsible for innate whole-body movements in the animals tested in Hess's research.

10. Compare and contrast Huntington disease and Parkinson disease.

ANSWER: Neuropathology in Huntington disease involves caudate putamen damage, while that in Parkinson disease involves substantia nigra degeneration. Symptoms in Huntington disease include hyperkinetic dyskinesias, while in Parkinson disease symptoms include hypokinetic motor deficits.

11. Differentiate between the “direct” and “indirect” pathways in the basal ganglia.

ANSWER: The indirect pathway is an excitation of the internal globus pallidus via the putamen, external globus pallidus, and subthalamic nucleus. The direct pathway is an inhibition of the internal globus pallidus via the subthalamic nucleus.

12. From medial to lateral locations in the cerebellar hemispheres, how do cerebellar neurons encode movements for different body regions?

ANSWER: Medial neurons encode for face and body trunk movements, more lateral neurons encode for limb movements, and the most lateral neurons encode for digit movements.

13. Describe the feedback circuit that allows the cerebellum to correct movements.

ANSWER: The feedback circuit goes from proprioceptors in muscles to the cerebellum via the spinocerebellar tract and from the cerebellum to the cortex. This output from the cerebellum indicates the amount of correction needed to compensate for error in the next movement initiated by the cortex. The correction is based upon a comparison in the cerebellum of input about the initial motor signals from the cortex to the spinal cord to perform the movement and simultaneously to the cerebellum through the inferior olive.

14. In terms of body topography, describe how spinal cord motor neurons activated by the lateral corticospinal tract differ from those activated by the anterior corticospinal tract. How do these two differ from motor neurons innervated by the corticobulbar tract?

ANSWER: The lateral corticospinal innervated neurons activate muscles in the limbs and digits on the contralateral body side, while those innervated by the anterior corticospinal tract activate trunk muscles on the ipsilateral body side. Corticobulbar tract–innervated motor neurons activate facial muscles.

15. Describe the process involved in grasping a ball.

ANSWER: Visual information targets the ball. Then the frontal lobe motor areas plan the movement. The spinal cord carries information to the hand, and the motor neurons inform the muscles within the hand and arm. Sensory receptors within the fingers inform the sensory cortex that the ball has been grasped.

The sensory information goes from the spinal cord back to the brain. The basal ganglia analyze force, and the cerebellum adjusts force as necessary. Lastly, the sensory cortex gains the message that the ball has been grasped.

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Chapter 09: Short Answer 16. Explain the ratio of the size of motor cortex comparing tongue to leg movements.

ANSWER: While in the body the legs take more physical space than the tongue, within the motor cortex more area is devoted to the tongue than the legs. The tongue takes up more space within the motor cortex because it has more fine motor control.

17. Explain how cortical maps can be both fixed and flexible.

ANSWER: Graziano's cortical map research demonstrates through electrical stimulation relative cortical locations for different movements. Yet those cortical maps can be modified due to past experience, recent learning, and recent movement.

18. Explain the different firing rates of motor neurons when making a fist.

ANSWER: Lower levels of firing demonstrate the intention (planning) of movement, the firing rate increases through the execution of the movement, and the firing rate is even higher with the increased force used in making the movement.

19. How do motor neurons impact directionality of movement?

ANSWER: Research has shown that motor neuron firing changes for preferred direction. The motor neurons increase firing when moving in the preferred direction, while there is a decrease in activity when moving from the preferred direction.

20. Compare and contrast research on the connection between mirror neurons and social awareness.

ANSWER: Research has suggested that mirror neurons are connected to understanding our own movements and those of others through the ability to replicate those actions internally. On the other hand, Hickok suggests that mirror neurons are not related to social awareness; rather, they are related to learning how to perform the task.

21. Explain the impact of the basal ganglia on motor movement dysfunction.

ANSWER: Research has demonstrated the basal ganglia are related to the force or strength of movement.

Hypokinetic and hyperkinetic symptoms result from damage to different portions of the basal ganglia. Damage to the caudate putamen leads to excessive and involuntary movements seen in disorders like Huntington disease and Tourette syndrome. Damage to the inputs to the basal ganglia may lead to rigidity and difficulty in producing movement, as seen in Parkinson disease.

22. Explain how individuals with complete loss of the cerebellum can walk.

ANSWER: Individuals with total loss of the cerebellum can walk with difficulty, demonstrating the multiple areas of the body—including the cortex, brainstem, and motor neurons—that are integrated to produce movement. Research has shown that the cerebellum is related to the timing and accuracy of movement. Therefore, the ability to walk is still present without the coupling of movements to appear as seamless.

23. What is the potential future for research in nanotechnology for treatment of spinal cord injuries?

ANSWER: Answers will vary. Further research in the use of nanotechnology would lead to implementation of treatments that would aid in combating the acute issues that come with spinal injuries, such as scar tissue, inflammation, and further degeneration of the tissue surrounding the injury site.

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Chapter 09: Short Answer Match the cortical region with its function. a. prefrontal cortex b. premotor cortex c. primary motor cortex d. parietal cortex 24. planning of movement ANSWER: a 25. sequencing of movement ANSWER: b 26. generation of specific movements ANSWER: c 27. source of sensory information ANSWER: d Match the research contribution with the correct individual(s). a. ethological categories of movement b. cerebellum and timing of movements c. movement direction–sensitive motor neurons d. electrical mapping of motor cortex 28. Michael Graziano ANSWER: a 29. Keele and Ivry ANSWER: b 30. Apostolos Georgopoulos ANSWER: c 31. Wilder Penfield ANSWER: d Match each motor pathway with the correct alternative. a. corticobulbar tract b. lateral corticospinal tract c. spinal motor neurons d. anterior corticospinal tract 32. control of facial muscles ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 09: Short Answer 33. control of limbs and digits ANSWER: b 34. synapse directly on muscles ANSWER: c 35. control of body midline muscles ANSWER: d

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Chapter 10: Multiple Choice 1. The ability of the brain to be changed by experience and to recover from damage is due to the quality known as: a. plasticity. b. mutability. c. pliability malleability. d. stringency resilience.

ANSWER: a 2. An animal in which only the hindbrain and spinal cord remain is said to be: a. decorticate. b. low decerebrate. c. high decerebrate. d. diencephalic.

ANSWER: b 3. Stepping behavior is coordinated by circuits at the level of the: a. prefrontal cortex. b. basal ganglia. c. cerebellum. d. spinal cord.

ANSWER: d 4. Which behavior or physiological ability is NOT observed in low-decerebrate animals? a. tail lashing b. swallowing c. thermoregulation d. sleep walking behavior ANSWER: c 5. Excessive tone in the antigravity muscles is characteristic of: a. decerebrate rigidity. b. decorticate rigidity. c. narcolepsy. d. a homeostasis.

ANSWER: a 6. A person in a persistent vegetative state MOST resembles an animal with experimental lesions to the: a. midbrain premotor cortex. b. spinal cord. c. hindbrain. d. diencephalic basal ganglia.

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Chapter 10: Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 7. The lowest level at which voluntary movements can be coordinated is the: a. diencephalon. b. spinal cord. c. neocortex. d. midbrain.

ANSWER: d 8. Animals exhibiting hyperactivity and sham rage but retaining thermoregulatory ability are/have: a. diencephalic. b. high decerebrate. c. low decerebrate. d. a spinal cord disconnected from the medulla.

ANSWER: a 9. Bard found that to see sham rage it was necessary to leave intact the posterior portion of the: a. superior colliculus. b. hypothalamus. c. spinal cord. d. neocortex.

ANSWER: b 10. Uncontrolled rage or laughter would signal a possible lesion in the area of the: a. amygdala. b. cerebellum. c. hypothalamus. d. medulla.

ANSWER: c 11. The coordination of automatic and voluntary movements occurs at the level of the: a. cerebral cortex. b. basal ganglia. c. diencephalon. d. hindbrain.

ANSWER: b 12. Which of these is beyond the capacity of a decorticate rat? a. regulating temperature b. finding food and water in simple environments c. showing normal sleep–wake cycles Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Multiple Choice d. hoarding food ANSWER: d 13. Based upon his studies of myelin development in the cortex, Paul Flechsig suggested that myelin forms earliest in _____ cortical zones and latest in _____ cortical zones. a. secondary; primary b. tertiary; secondary c. tertiary; primary d. primary; tertiary ANSWER: d 14. Neurons that have dendritic spines are typically: a. excitatory. b. inhibitory. c. modulatory. d. excitatory, inhibitory, and modulatory.

ANSWER: a 15. The principal output neurons of the cerebral cortex are _____ cells. a. stellate b. Purkinje c. pyramidal d. Schwann ANSWER: c 16. All aspiny neurons are thought to release _____ as one of their neurotransmitters. a. glutamate b. GABA c. histamine d. dopamine ANSWER: b 17. Maintenance of cortical arousal is one of the putative functions of: a. nonspecific afferents. b. nonspecific efferents. c. specific afferents. d. specific efferents.

ANSWER: a 18. Specific thalamic afferents in the mammalian brain terminate primarily in layer _____ of the neocortex. a. III Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Multiple Choice b. II c. IV d. V ANSWER: c 19. The simplest functional unit of the cortex is hypothesized to be the: a. circuit. b. layer. c. column. d. blob.

ANSWER: c 20. In monkeys, multimodal or polymodal cortex is found in: a. all cortical lobes. b. frontal, parietal, and temporal lobes only. c. frontal, parietal, and occipital lobes only. d. parietal, temporal, and occipital lobes only.

ANSWER: a 21. Jerison has suggested that there exists a positive correlation between the number of cortical maps and: a. an organism's ability to navigate new spatial environments. b. an animal's capacity for voluntary movements. c. the complexity of emotional perception. d. the complexity of sensorimotor perception.

ANSWER: d 22. The _____ is located immediately above the corpus callosum. a. prefrontal cortex b. cingulate cortex c. amygdala d. hippocampus ANSWER: b 23. The ability of one cortical area to influence another from which it receives input is referred to as: a. binding. b. hierarchical communication. c. multiple representations. d. reentry.

ANSWER: d 24. It is through _____ that cortical areas influence the activity of the regions from which they receive input.

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Chapter 10: Multiple Choice a. disinhibition b. reentry c. parallel processing d. hierarchical processing ANSWER: b 25. According to Luria's theory of cortical function, the motor unit corresponds to the _____ lobe. a. temporal b. parietal c. frontal d. occipital ANSWER: c 26. As information moves from the primary to secondary to association cortex in the sensory unit, it becomes: a. increasingly elaborated and integrated. b. decreasingly complex and segregated. c. decreasingly accessible to conscious awareness. d. increasingly elemental and reflexive.

ANSWER: a 27. On the basis of patterns of neural connectivity, Felleman and van Essen have proposed that brain function is: a. vertically integrated. b. hierarchical and reflexive. c. distributed and hierarchical. d. reflexive and distributed.

ANSWER: c 28. In contemporary models of cortical function, complex cognitive operations involve: a. only hierarchical processing from primary to secondary to tertiary cortex. b. just junctions of adjacent independent cortical processors of specific information. c. cortical areas acting conjointly through large-scale neural networks. d. discrete specialized functional units in the prefrontal cortex.

ANSWER: c 29. The development of von Economo neurons in humans and great apes has been suggested to be associated with the emergence of: a. working memory. b. fine motor control. c. gross motor skills. d. theory of mind.

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Chapter 10: Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 30. Studies indicate that decorticate animals are capable of all but _____ types of learning. a. classical conditioning b. cue learning c. operant conditioning d. complex pattern discrimination ANSWER: d 31. _____ cells are aspiny neurons with horizontal axonal projections. a. Basket b. Pyramidal c. Purkinje d. Double-bouquet ANSWER: a 32. A cat that is able to walk into a room full of monkeys would be exhibiting a diminished _____ response due to having its amygdala removed. a. behavioral b. affective c. cognitive d. biological ANSWER: b 33. Which region is NOT a target of proprioceptive fibers? a. premotor cortex b. prefrontal cortex c. paralimbic cortex d. primary motor cortex ANSWER: c 34. According to research conducted by Paul Flechsig, which region was determined to be an early myelinating zone? a. supramarginal cortex b. prefrontal cortex c. association cortex d. motor cortex ANSWER: d 35. Cytochrome oxidase illuminates patterns in area 17 by selectively staining what? a. mitochondria Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Multiple Choice b. Golgi apparatus c. ribosomes d. myelin ANSWER: a 36. Humans have no difficulty identifying an object they have previously interacted with only through touch.

How might the brain accomplish this feat? a. Sensory and motor systems are essentially the same thing as far as the cortex is concerned. b. Polymodal cortex provides a mechanism to combine information from varying sensory sources. c. Sensory processing is more important to our perception and thus requires increased neuronal activity. d. Tactile information is much more complex than what is required for object recognition.

ANSWER: b 37. A patient with a brain tumor is undergoing a neuropsychological assessment. Given that the tumor has compromised the amygdala, which impairment might you expect the assessment to reveal? a. The patient may have difficulty with long-term memory of previous events. b. The patient may have difficulty recognizing the emotional importance of events. c. The patient may be unable to articulate the sequence of events leading to his diagnosis. d. The patient may exhibit difficulty with word selection necessary to explain his understanding of events.

ANSWER: b 38. Individuals who have been diagnosed with autism often have difficulty with social interactions such as interpreting social cues and emotional expressions. Some research points to abnormal development in which cell type? a. von Economo neurons b. Brodmann neurons c. Korbinian neurons d. du Verney neurons ANSWER: a 39. Jaiden is sitting on a park bench talking (facing) with his friend Gabriel. Suddenly, Gabriel's eyes widen and his body becomes very stiff. Jaiden is able to infer that something is frightening his friend, and they both get up and quickly move to leave. This scenario is an example of the theory of: a. cognition. b. hierarchical intuition. c. shared emotion. d. mind.

ANSWER: d 40. The hyperactivity exhibited by diencephalic animals might be viewed as sham: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Multiple Choice a. anxiety. b. motivation. c. rage. d. reactivity.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 10: Short Answer 1. Distinguish between decortication and low decerebration, in terms of the brain level of disconnection and typical behavioral differences.

ANSWER: Decortication is when the cerebral cortex is disconnected from the rest of the brain. Low decerebration is when the brainstem is disconnected from the brain between the pons and midbrain.

Decorticate animals can make voluntary and automatic movements well enough for selfmaintenance (e.g., eating, drinking) in simple environments. Low-decerebrate animals perform units of movement (e.g., hissing, biting, growling) only when stimulated.

2. What evidence suggests that the basic neural circuitry for walking includes spinal cord reflexes?

ANSWER: If the body weight of a spinal animal is supported over a moving treadmill that the animal's paws touch, the animal will make stepping movements automatically. A spinal animal will still withdraw its limb if it contacts a noxious stimulus.

3. What is the anatomical basis for the observation that spinal animals are alert but decerebrate animals are not?

ANSWER: In a low decerebrate animal, inputs from the hindbrain to the cortex that are necessary for maintaining consciousness and alertness are disconnected; however, they are intact in a spinal animal.

4. Compare the behavioral capacities of high- and low-decerebrate animals.

ANSWER: Low-decerebrate animals, if undisturbed, are mainly inactive and can swallow if food is placed on their tongues. High-decerebrate animals can walk, stand, climb, and so on; respond (orient to or away from) to distinct auditory and visual stimuli; and produce voluntary and automatic movements.

5. Distinguish between voluntary and automatic behaviors in terms of the level of the brain necessary for their production. Give two examples of each.

ANSWER: Voluntary behaviors can take an animal from one place to another (e.g., walking, climbing) and are subserved by nuclei in the midbrain. Automatic behaviors are sequences of stereotyped movements (e.g., grooming, chewing food) and are present at the midbrain.

6. What are the behavioral similarities and differences between normal infants and mesencephalic children, such as those examined by Gamper and Brackbill?

ANSWER: Mesencephalic children show little spontaneous movement and if left undisturbed, remain mostly in a drowsy state. Otherwise, their behaviors remain like those of normal infants (yawning, sleeping, waking, sucking, etc.).

7. According to the results of studies of decorticate animals, what behavioral advantages appear to be conferred by the neocortex?

ANSWER: The cortex allows for nest building and hoarding food, and it allows for skilled movements with the tongue and limbs (e.g., reaching for food) and pattern discrimination in different sensory modalities in complex tasks. In general, the cortex extends the usefulness of all behaviors and is helpful in adapting to new situations.

8. List the major differences between pyramidal cells and aspiny neurons.

ANSWER: Aspiny neurons have very few or no dendritic spines and are usually inhibitory (receiving GABA signals), while pyramidal cells are spiny with many dendritic spines and associated receptors for Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Short Answer excitation by neurotransmitters like aspartate and glutamate.

9. Name the functional characteristics of the inputs to each of the six neocortical layers.

ANSWER: The inputs to each of the six neocortical layers are as follows: I – nonspecific afferents; II – nonspecific afferents (motor cortex); III – specific and nonspecific afferents; IV – specific and nonspecific afferents (sensory cortex); V – specific and nonspecific afferents; and VI – nonspecific afferents (little).

10. Name the general anatomical targets of the outputs from each of the six neocortical layers.

ANSWER: The outputs from each of the six neocortical layers are as follows: I – none; II – cortico–cortico efferents; III – cortico–cortico efferents; IV – none; V – cortico–subcortical efferents; and VI – cortico–thalamic efferents.

11. Distinguish between specific and nonspecific cortical afferents.

ANSWER: Specific afferents are projections of specific sensory inputs from the thalamus or amygdala to discrete cortical areas, mainly to layer IV as conventional synapses. Nonspecific afferents are projections from the brainstem, basal forebrain, or certain thalamic nuclei to broad regions of the cortex releasing neurotransmitters into the extracellular space. Nonspecific afferents are involved in arousing or maintaining activity in the cortex.

12. What are cortical blobs? What are cortical barrels?

ANSWER: Cortical blobs are regions of V1 cortex, defined as modules or minicircuits on the basis of common increased cellular metabolism during color vision processing. Cortical barrels are regions of S1 cortex in rats, defined as modules or minicircuits, where each represents one vibrissa on the rat's face.

13. Describe a cortical column or module.

ANSWER: A cortical column or module is a vertical column of cells across the layers of cortex that participate together as a minicircuit for processing a particular stimulus feature. For example, columns of cells in V1 have been found where all the cells are tuned to respond to a line stimulus at a particular orientation, falling on a specific part of the visual field.

14. What is meant by the binding problem? What is a proposed solution?

ANSWER: The binding problem asks how sensations in specific channels (touch, vision, hearing, etc.) combine into perceptions that represent a unified experience that we can call reality. One proposed solution is that intracortical networks of connections among subsets of cortical regions are these unified perceptions when they all act together simultaneously.

15. Describe Luria's model dividing the cerebral cortex into two functional units, each with three hierarchical units.

ANSWER: In Luria's model, a posterior unit in the cerebral cortex—comprised of parietal, occipital, and temporal lobes—receives, processes, and stores information while an anterior unit comprised of the frontal lobes formulates intentions, organizes them into programs of action, and executes those plans as behaviors. Processing in the posterior unit is hierarchical from the primary to secondary to tertiary cortices, while in the anterior unit, information flows hierarchically from the tertiary to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Short Answer secondary to primary cortices. These units work together in concert.

16. Contrast Luria's model of cortical function with that of Felleman and van Essen.

ANSWER: Felleman and van Essen maintain a hierarchical structure in their model but allow for both ascending and descending communication between levels of the hierarchy (input and feedback).

They also suggested that more than one area of a cortical lobe could occupy a given hierarchical level. They also allow for columnar processing of specific stimulus features defined by distributed modules to represent locations in the hierarchy. Luria's model only describes serial (one-way) processing between the primary, secondary, and tertiary cortices, and it associates each of these three levels with specific anatomical locations within a cortical lobe, with the highest levels of processing (planning and perceiving objects) occurring in the tertiary cortex, not distributed throughout the cortex as in Felleman and van Essen's model.

17. Explain the importance of Asif Ghazanfar's study of multimodal cortex.

ANSWER: Given the integration of sensory modalities such as auditory and visual stimuli, the study illustrated that auditory neurons increased their firing when the monkey could both hear and see the other monkey. This is important for humans, as demonstrated by our perception that we experience enhanced understanding of someone if we can both hear them and see their face moving simultaneously.

18. Three aspects of the human brain are deemed unique relative to other species. Describe two of these.

ANSWER: Humans have an increased density of cortical neurons, leading to a much greater level of processing.

The presence of a special type of bipolar neurons called von Economo neurons is associated with the development of theory of mind/social cognition. The human brain has significantly increased development of the association areas of the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes 19. Give examples of the type of sensory information that would be processed in each level of Luria's hierarchical model.

ANSWER: At the primary level, the basic sensory input would be processed; for example, visual input leads to recognizing children are moving, and a ball is present. At the secondary level, further processing identifies they are playing a specific game. At the tertiary level, further elaboration leads you to know that one team just scored a key point.

20. BigBrain is a three-dimensional brain atlas that allows for visualization at the microscopic level. What does the gray level index (GLI) indicate, and how should we interpret the data?

ANSWER: The GLI calculates differences between cell bodies and the neuropil (brightness variations, synaptic density) and allows us to distinguish borders between brain regions, connectivity patterns, and so on—similar to the old Brodmann maps. We must remain cautious not to generalize data from one brain to the population. The data illustrate that the differences between brains are too dissimilar.

Combining several brain maps (>10) might lead to an estimate of “an average brain.”

21. What is a “plastic” neural system?

ANSWER: This is a neural system that can change in response to experience, drugs, hormones, or injury.

Many neuroscientists have contributed to our understanding of the principles of neocortical function. Match the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Short Answer neuroscientist(s) with the term most representative of his/their work. a. Bard and Macht b. Gamper c. Luria d. Felleman and van Essen 22. decerebrate animals ANSWER: a 23. behavior of the mesencephalic child ANSWER: b 24. sensory and motor unit theory ANSWER: c 25. distributed hierarchy theory ANSWER: d Match the scientific contribution with the appropriate individual. a. cortical stimulation b. hierarchical model c. cortical maps d. cortical modules 26. Penfield ANSWER: a 27. Luria ANSWER: b 28. Brodmann ANSWER: c 29. Zeki ANSWER: d Various experiments have shown that in addition to the horizontal layered organization of the cortex, there are also vertical organizations, as described by investigators using various experimental techniques. For each type of organization, select the most appropriate alternative. a. columns b. blobs c. stripes d. barrels Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10: Short Answer 30. ocular dominance ANSWER: a 31. color perception in V1 ANSWER: b 32. visual perception in V2 ANSWER: c 33. whisker (vibrissa) perception ANSWER: d For each cortical area of the monkey, select the appropriate multisensory function. (One of the functions below is used twice.) a. caudomedial auditory belt area b. ventral premotor cortex c. superior temporal sulcus d. occipital lobe 34. auditory and somatosensory ANSWER: a 35. auditory, visual, and somatosensory ANSWER: b 36. auditory, visual, and somatosensory ANSWER: c 37. auditory and visual ANSWER: d

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Chapter 11: Multiple Choice 1. Which factor does NOT usually influence the laterality of function in humans? a. genetics b. gender c. handedness d. height ANSWER: d 2. When neuropsychologists refer to a function as being lateralized, they mean that the function: a. is performed most efficiently by a lateral region of the brain. b. is performed most efficiently by one hemisphere of the brain. c. can be performed equally well by either hemisphere of the brain. d. is performed most efficiently in a lateral motion.

ANSWER: b 3. The largest functional differences are found between _____ rather than _____. a. cerebral sites; cerebral sides b. cerebral sides; cerebral sites c. cortical layers; cortical columns d. genders; age groups ANSWER: a 4. Which statement is generally true of the left hemisphere in humans, relative to the right hemisphere? a. It has a larger size and weight overall. b. It has a larger Heschl's gyrus. c. It has a smaller visible frontal operculum. d. It has a larger planum temporale.

ANSWER: d 5. The MOST pronounced anatomical asymmetries are found in the areas associated with: a. vision. b. hearing. c. language. d. emotion.

ANSWER: c 6. The MOST convincing experimental design for demonstrating the localization of a particular function to a brain region is the: a. single dissociation. b. double dissociation. c. double association. d. case study.

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Chapter 11: Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 7. Following damage to the left hemisphere, the MOST likely outcome would be a decline in: a. mental rotation ability. b. verbal ability. c. pitch recognition. d. emotional memory.

ANSWER: b 8. You are an examining psychologist at a neurological clinic. After administering an IQ test, you find the main deficits are in nonverbal recall and the copying of drawings. You suspect damage to the _____ lobe. a. left frontal b. right frontal c. right temporal d. left temporal ANSWER: c 9. Surgical disconnection of the two cerebral hemispheres by cutting the corpus callosum (and other commissures) is a “last resort” treatment for: a. schizophrenia. b. epilepsy. c. aphasia. d. multiple sclerosis.

ANSWER: b 10. The term commissurotomy typically refers to the severing of the: a. arcuate fasciculus. b. medial forebrain bundle. c. fornix. d. corpus callosum.

ANSWER: d 11. If you placed a common object such as a key out of sight in the left hand of a typical commissurotomy patient, she would: a. neither recognize it by shape nor name it. b. recognize it by shape and verbally name it. c. identify the object verbally but not describe its shape. d. recognize the object by its shape but not identify it verbally.

ANSWER: d 12. When viewing chimeric stimuli, the commissurotomy patients studied by Levy and coworkers tended to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Multiple Choice recognize: a. both faces, as do normal subjects. b. the face flashed to the right visual field only. c. the face flashed to the left visual field only. d. neither face.

ANSWER: c 13. Electric stimulation of the right temporal lobe cortex of a conscious patient can: a. produce localized movements. b. initiate déjà vu experiences. c. accelerate production of speech. d. increase the patient's IQ score.

ANSWER: b 14. Studies by Milner and colleagues place the percentage of right-handed individuals with speech functions lateralized to the right hemisphere at about: a. 2%. b. 15%. c. 50%. d. 95%.

ANSWER: a 15. If the right carotid artery is injected with an anesthetic drug, within a few seconds: a. the ipsilateral arm will exhibit flaccid paralysis. b. speech will probably be interrupted. c. speech will always be interrupted. d. the contralateral arm will exhibit flaccid paralysis.

ANSWER: d 16. In intact individuals, hemispheric differences in cognitive ability can be detected by measuring: a. differences in processing efficiency. b. self-reports of cognitive strategies. c. galvanic skin response. d. differences in processing efficiency, self-reports of cognitive strategies, and galvanic skin response.

ANSWER: a 17. Visual images can be presented individually to each hemisphere using a device known as a(n): a. oscilloscope. b. dichotoscope. c. tachistoscope. d. periscope.

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Chapter 11: Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 18. The identification of melodies shows _____ in a dichotic listening task. a. a frontal lobe advantage b. a right-ear advantage c. a left-ear advantage d. no advantage due to either ear ANSWER: c 19. Which test shows a left-ear advantage? a. backward speech b. environmental sounds c. difficult rhythms d. vowels ANSWER: b 20. Blindfolded subjects using only the sense of touch perform better with the left hand at: a. Braille reading. b. object recognition. c. both Braille reading and object recognition. d. neither Braille reading nor object recognition.

ANSWER: c 21. Imaging studies have shown that, contrary to expectation, activity in Broca's area does not increase during _____ speech. a. effortful b. articulate c. automatic d. emotional ANSWER: c 22. A task requiring a subject to analyze the configuration of multiple simultaneously presented geometric patterns would be expected to lead to increased blood flow: a. preferentially in the left hemisphere. b. preferentially in the right hemisphere. c. equally in both hemispheres. d. only in the basal ganglia.

ANSWER: b 23. According to Kimura and others, the production and analysis of rapidly occurring sequences of stimuli is believed to be a(n): Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Multiple Choice a. specialized function of the right hemisphere. b. ability equally distributed between both hemispheres. c. specialized function of the left hemisphere. d. ability relying primarily on subcortical structures.

ANSWER: c 24. Specialization models of hemispheric function posit: a. overlapping information-processing roles for each hemisphere. b. identical information-processing roles for each hemisphere. c. nonoverlapping information-processing roles for each hemisphere. d. shifting information-processing roles for the two hemispheres.

ANSWER: c 25. The ability of the right hemisphere to support language abilities after damage to the left hemisphere supports: a. isolationist models. b. supermodels. c. specialization models. d. interaction models.

ANSWER: d 26. The results of tests of lateralization of function must be interpreted with care because they: a. can be affected by cognitive strategies. b. are politically sensitive. c. are qualitative, not quantitative. d. always come from individuals with brain-damage.

ANSWER: a 27. Further research on neural asymmetry in the left and right frontal operculum should likely focus on: a. increased sample size to increase generalizability. b. handedness to better understand its impact on asymmetry. c. expanding areas within the brain to observe for potential neural asymmetry. d. age to better understand its impact on asymmetry.

ANSWER: a 28. The asymmetry found in the temporal lobes is mimicked in the _____, demonstrating the localization of language. a. parietal lobes b. thalamus c. frontal lobe d. cerebellum Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 29. Stimulation of the _____ demonstrates cerebral symmetry of localized movements in contrast to stimulation of the _____, which exhibits cerebral asymmetry of perceptual functions. a. right temporal lobe; left temporal lobe b. auditory cortex; primary motor cortex c. primary motor cortex; right hemisphere d. left hemisphere; right hemisphere ANSWER: c 30. Researchers use brain stimulation of conscious patients to: a. treat manageable epilepsy. b. treat spinal tumors. c. identify pain response. d. identify localization of function within the cortex.

ANSWER: d 31. When would it be difficult to observe inhibitory functioning of brain stimulation? a. while the patient is actively speaking b. while the patient is passive and quiet c. while the patient is moving her limbs d. while the patient is reading ANSWER: b 32. Following neurosurgery, if a patient saw a marked difference in verbal comprehension, damage would likely be localized to: a. the planum temporale. b. the frontal operculum. c. Heschl's gyrus. d. the thalamus.

ANSWER: a 33. Split-brain patients clearly demonstrate cerebral asymmetry when asked to: a. identify facial expressions in the center of their visual field. b. identify images presented in the both the left and right visual fields. c. remember sounds presented in surround sound. d. touch and identify objects.

ANSWER: b 34. Following removal of a tumor in the left temporal lobe, the patient should expect postsurgery deficits in: a. musical ability and tonal expression.

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Chapter 11: Multiple Choice b. motor timing and force of movement. c. speech production. d. interpretation of facial expressions.

ANSWER: c 35. A recent controversy in research related to split-brain patients focuses on consciousness. What type of further research would aid in clearing up these questions? a. replication studies verifying or refuting a split awareness of the world b. replication studies showing individual differences c. new research on cross-species similarities demonstrating split consciousness d. new research demonstrating neither a split nor a unitary consciousness ANSWER: a 36. Injection of sodium amobarbital to anesthetize specific areas during brain surgery demonstrated localization of language in the right hemisphere. How can this be explained? a. effects of epilepsy b. left-handedness c. split-brain after-effects d. brain lesion to the left temporal lobe ANSWER: b 37. Why would it be difficult for a neuropsychologist to determine all the functioning of a patient's right hemisphere following damage to the left hemisphere? a. The patient no longer understands the purpose of psychological testing. b. The patient has difficulty with both speech and perception equally. c. The patient likely has difficulty acting as an informant due to damage to speech production. d. The patient's mood and temperament no longer allow for the validity of psychological tests.

ANSWER: c 38. What is the purpose of the “dry run” of the Wada test? a. ability to determine a baseline of functioning for comparison b. ability to determine bilateral speech localization c. determine the utility of a commissurotomy d. determine where epileptic damage is located ANSWER: a 39. For a split-brain patient to verbally identify an image, the image should be presented to the: a. left eye. b. right visual field. c. left visual field. d. right eye.

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Chapter 11: Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 40. What are the likely advantages of noninvasive investigation of typical brains? a. ability to replicate split-brain research b. painless and efficient exploration of the brain c. allow for inferences that are not influenced by brain damage d. research across age and gender ANSWER: c

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Chapter 11: Short Answer 1. Explain how cerebral functions differ more by “site” than by “side.”

ANSWER: Although specific sites in the brain, like the frontal lobes, have functions that are relatively asymmetrical (comparing the two sides), the left and right frontal lobes are more similar to one another in function than when either is compared with one occipital lobe or with both occipital lobes.

2. At least 18 anatomical differences between the two cerebral hemispheres have been reported. List 5.

ANSWER: Five differences are (1) the left has greater specific gravity, (2) the left has a longer sylvian fissure, (3) the left has larger insula, (4) the left has a doubled cingulate gyrus, and (5) the left has a higher proportion of grey matter. Other differences include a thicker cortex on the left, a larger planum temporale on the left, a larger posterior nucleus on the left, a larger inferior parietal lobule on the left, a larger area TpT of temporoparietal cortex on the left, a wider occipital lobe on the left, a larger total area of frontal operculum on the left, a larger medial temporal lobe on the left, a heavier right hemisphere, a longer internal skull size on the right, a doubling of Heschl's gyrus on the right, a larger medial geniculate nucleus on the right, a larger area of convexity of the right frontal operculum, and a wider frontal lobe on the right.

3. What might be the functional significance of the increased dendritic branching observed in the left hemisphere language areas relative to analogous areas in the right hemisphere?

ANSWER: The increased degree and pattern of dendritic branching in the left hemisphere language areas is important for enhancing or suppressing graded potentials in the dendritic tree. Such increased connectivity allows the cell more degrees of freedom with regard to its complex functions in language processing.

4. Discuss how damage to Broca's area in a typical right-handed individual could differentially affect reading aloud and singing “Happy Birthday.”

ANSWER: Since left-hemisphere (language-dominant) damage disrupts language-related functions and Broca's area is specifically associated with oral speech, it's expected that the patient will be unable to read aloud if there is damage to that area. Since the right frontal region is associated with singing, this patient with an intact right frontal neocortex should still be able to sing.

5. Using an example from the text or lecture, describe a double dissociation of function.

ANSWER: A double dissociation of function is when left hemisphere damage disrupts language function but not spatial, tonal, or music pattern discrimination and when right hemisphere damage disrupts spatial, musical, and tonal pattern discrimination but not language function.

6. Your patient has a left temporal lobectomy as a result of an operation for cancer. On what IQ and other tests do you expect to see a deterioration in postoperative scores?

ANSWER: A deterioration will be seen in verbal IQ; memory quotient; and verbal recall memory, which will show the most deterioration.

7. Why has it been so difficult for neuropsychologists to discover the functions of the right hemisphere?

ANSWER: In commissurotomized patients and patients with left-hemisphere damage, the processing of the right hemisphere can't be communicated to the neuropsychologist without language.

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Chapter 11: Short Answer 8. Describe the response of a commissurotomy patient to the picture of a fork flashed into the left hemisphere, and also into the right hemisphere. Assume language is localized to the left hemisphere.

ANSWER: If asked to name the object presented, the patient will name it correctly when it's presented to the right visual field, but the patient will not name it or report seeing it when it's presented to the left visual field.

9. What are some of the effects observed with electrical stimulation of the brain in conscious patients?

ANSWER: Some of the effects observed are: (1) the brain has symmetrical and asymmetrical facets, (2) the right hemisphere has perceptual functions not shared by the left hemisphere, (3) stimulating left frontal or temporal regions accelerates the patient's speech, and (4) stimulation blocks function.

10. Describe the effects of the amobarbital test administered to the left carotid artery in a right-handed patient with no history of brain damage.

ANSWER: The patient cannot speak, move the right arm, or see within the right visual field.

11. What is the relationship between handedness and lateralization of speech representation?

ANSWER: On the basis of a Wada test, approximately 98% of right-handed people and 70% of left-handed people appear to be left-hemisphere dominant for speech.

12. What techniques permit the study of cerebral asymmetries in neurologically intact, or normal, individuals?

ANSWER: The following techniques permit the study of cerebral asymmetries: for vision, tachistoscopic presentation of stimuli to each visual field; for audition, dichotic listening tests; for somatosensation, blindfolding and dichaptic tests; and for motor systems, direct observation of movements and interference tasks (multitasking tasks).

13. Why might studies of neurological patients with lesions in one of the cerebral hemispheres or with the corpus callosum bisected not be the best sources of information about lateralized functions?

ANSWER: Although studies of such neurological patients demonstrate clear differences in the effects of lesions in each hemisphere or differences in the processing of each hemisphere when it has been disconnected from the other, the reasons for the functional differences between the two hemispheres are not clear. Just because a lesion in one brain area is associated with a particular behavioral symptom, it cannot be concluded that the damaged brain region once controlled the behavior that has been altered. Nor can it be concluded that a brain region isolated through commissurotomy from the other hemisphere never participated in the altered behavior when connected by the corpus callosum. It could be the case that the lateralized brain region of interest executed instructions for the behavior in question and that other brain regions carried out the processing tasks. In view of the neural network systems and looped associations among different brain regions described earlier in Chapter 10, at best one could conclude that a particular brain injury has broken a loop or network that supported a particular behavior. Such networks can have elements in both hemispheres, so the lateralized brain damage might just be disrupting a bilateral network.

14. Describe the dichotic-listening task and at least two stimulus categories that tend to show a right-ear advantage in this task and two stimulus categories that tend to show a left-ear advantage in this task.

ANSWER: In the dichotic-listening task, pairs of spoken syllables are played over headphones where a different syllable, word, or tone is played to each ear simultaneously. Participants are asked to “shadow” Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Short Answer (repeat) what's being heard in one ear while ignoring the syllables, words, or tones played to the other ear, or the participants are asked to identify what was heard in one ear or what was heard in the other ear. There is a right-ear advantage in this task for spoken word stimuli that are digits and words and a left-ear advantage for sound stimuli that are melodies and musical chords.

15. What is the basis for Robert Efron's skepticism on the usefulness of laterality research?

ANSWER: The basis for Efron's skepticism is the observation that the left hemisphere has a higher capacity for making fine perceptual discriminations in time, whether or not the stimuli are verbal (e.g., Morse code).

16. What are some of the complications facing researchers on the laterality of function?

ANSWER: The measures of behavior and laterality have been criticized as not being objective enough to draw firm conclusions or to replicate the studies conducted by others. Studies of functional laterality involve assumptions that are such that many variables besides putative asymmetry can influence results.

17. Explain how M.S. was able to maintain musical ability, including singing, with her global aphasia.

ANSWER: M.S.'s postoperative damage was extensive but localized to her left hemisphere. Her damage led to her inability to use or understand words, talk, and read. Yet she could still sing lyrics to familiar songs. Following introduction to new music, M.S. was able to hum along to the music. This demonstrates the laterality of function of speech because both her production and understanding of language were absent following the damage to her left hemisphere. The right hemisphere was undamaged; therefore, her perception of melody and rhythm was unchanged.

18. In the creation of new research on neural asymmetry, what previous studies should researchers consider?

ANSWER: Replication studies of Scheibel's research should consider first and foremost sample size because Scheibel's n = 6. Further research should also consider demographics such as gender, age, and handedness. With a larger sample size, researchers can tease out whether any demographics as discussed above impact neural asymmetry.

19. Explain the utility of brain stimulation of conscious patients.

ANSWER: Doctors and/or researchers can explore lateralization and localization of function within the brain.

Conscious patients can also answer questions during stimulation to better allow for more precise surgery and location of damaged tissue.

20. Deep brain stimulation demonstrates localization and lateralization of function. Explain the impact of individual differences.

ANSWER: Research has shown localization and lateralization of brain functions. Stimulation of different cortical areas consistently demonstrates multiple excitatory effects and one inhibitory effect. Yet individual differences and the extent of the patient response can be seen when stimulating the same location. These individual differences demonstrate cortical areas devoted to individual skills and learning.

21. Explain Gazzaniga's label of the interpreter for the left hemisphere.

ANSWER: Research on split-brain patients has shown that the left hemisphere attempts to make sense of the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Short Answer information presented to it. Therefore, when nonrelated images are presented to both visual fields, split-brain patients tend to produce a reason for the images to be connected to one another.

For each of the following, answer if the concept refers to an asymmetry characteristic of the left hemisphere or if the concept refers to an asymmetry characteristic of the right hemisphere. a. relatively less gray matter b. gentler slope of sylvian fissure c. extends farther anteriorly d. doubling of Heschl's gyrus 22. right hemisphere ANSWER: a 23. left hemisphere ANSWER: b 24. right hemisphere ANSWER: c 25. right hemisphere ANSWER: d Over the past 100 or so years, certain individuals have made significant discoveries regarding the function of the human brain. Match the individual(s) with the correct discovery or area of study. a. Norman Geschwind b. Roger Sperry c. Wilder Penfield and George Ojemann d. Doreen Kimura 26. planum temporale asymmetry ANSWER: a 27. behavior of commissurotomy patients ANSWER: b 28. brain stimulation of conscious patients ANSWER: c 29. auditory system asymmetry ANSWER: d For each experimental procedure, choose the correct alternative. a. sodium amobarbital test b. tachistoscopic presentations Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Short Answer c. dichaptic test d. interference tasks 30. speech production ANSWER: a 31. visual system ANSWER: b 32. somatosensory system ANSWER: c 33. motor system ANSWER: d For each test, answer if there is typically a right-ear advantage, a left-ear advantage, or no ear advantage. a. rhythm perception b. complex pitch perception c. Morse code perception d. understanding backward speech 34. no ear advantage ANSWER: a 35. left-ear advantage ANSWER: b 36. right-ear advantage ANSWER: c 37. right-ear advantage ANSWER: d Match the researchers with the appropriate type of lateralization model. a. Lenneberg and Kimura b. Kinsbourne and Moscovitch c. Webster and Thurber 38. specialization model ANSWER: a 39. interaction model ANSWER: b 40. preferred cognitive mode model Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11: Short Answer ANSWER: c

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Chapter 12: Multiple Choice 1. Interhemispheric differences in the angle of the lateral (Sylvian) fissure are greatest in individuals who: a. have bilateral language localization. b. have left-hemisphere language localization. c. are left-handed. d. are right-handed.

ANSWER: b 2. Which statement is true for right-handed persons? a. The corpus callosum is larger in the cross-sectional area. b. They have less asymmetry. c. They have more pyramidal tract fibers descending to the right side of the body. d. They have larger blood volume in left hemisphere.

ANSWER: c 3. According to Ratcliffe and colleagues, anatomical asymmetries show a stronger correlation with _____ than with _____. a. language; handedness b. handedness; language c. cognitive mode; handedness d. language; cognitive mode ANSWER: a 4. Explanations of handedness that emphasize usefulness or conditioning fall into the category of _____ theories. a. evolutionary b. developmental c. hormonal d. environmental ANSWER: d 5. Using writing as the criterion, approximately _____ of the population appears to be left-handed. a. 6% b. 16% c. 2% d. 10% ANSWER: d 6. One theory on the origin of handedness suggests that _____ inhibits the development of the _____ hemisphere in males. a. fetal testosterone; left b. early experience; left Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Multiple Choice c. fetal testosterone; right d. early brain damage; right ANSWER: a 7. Imaging studies have shown that monozygotic (identical) twins show the greatest degree of anatomical similarity in the _____ areas. a. right-hemisphere language b. left-hemisphere language c. right-hemisphere visual d. left-hemisphere visual ANSWER: b 8. Annett's genetic theory of handedness proposes _____ among individuals homozygous for the recessive form of the rs gene. a. a left-hemisphere bias b. a right-hemisphere bias c. no bias for either hemisphere d. ambidexterity ANSWER: c 9. When studying children, a sex difference in aggressive social play observed in boys and girls has been associated with: a. high levels of in utero anti-androgenic progestins. b. low levels of in utero anti-androgenic progestins. c. high levels of in utero testosterone. d. low levels of in utero testosterone.

ANSWER: c 10. Although males are better at _____, females are better at _____. a. spatial memory; spatial navigation b. spatial navigation; spatial memory c. verbal memory; spatial memory d. spatial navigation; throwing and catching ANSWER: b 11. Sarah would be expected to have a higher score than Steve on which neuropsychological test? a. Chicago Word Fluency b. Rey Complex Figure c. Draw-a-Bicycle d. Rotor Pursuit ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Multiple Choice 12. Females show greater sensitivity to sensory stimuli, with the exception of: a. smell. b. taste. c. vision. d. pain.

ANSWER: c 13. On average, women demonstrate a level of verbal fluency that is: a. equivalent to that of men. b. worse than that of men. c. better than that of men. d. slower to develop than that of men.

ANSWER: c 14. Compared with females, males: a. have more cortical gyri. b. have greater cerebral blood flow rates. c. are better at most verbal skills d. have more neurons.

ANSWER: d 15. Adjusted for body weight, male brains have _____ than female brains. a. more cortical gyri b. larger language areas c. a smaller cerebral ventricle d. more neurons ANSWER: d 16. MRI signal intensity distribution in the cortex of males is _____ than that of females. a. less uniform b. more uniform c. less intense d. more intense ANSWER: b 17. According to studies by Goldstein and colleagues, sex-dependent differences in human brain structures are greatest in: a. the primary visual cortex. b. the ability to demonstrate theory of mind. c. a high ratio of gray matter to white matter.

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Chapter 12: Multiple Choice d. paralimbic regions.

ANSWER: d 18. The horizontal component of the Sylvian fissure is _____ in _____. a. smaller; males b. the same size; males and females c. larger; females d. larger; males ANSWER: d 19. Regarding tests of perception, which of the following is true? a. men are more sensitive than women to body posture. b. women perform better on drawing tasks such as bikes c. men perform better on Chicago Verbal Fluency test d. women are more sensitive to facial expressions than men ANSWER: d 20. According to the study by Inglis and Lawson mentioned in the text, right-hemisphere lesions: a. impair verbal IQ in men more than in women. b. impair performance IQ more in men than in women. c. impair performance IQ more in women than in men. d. produce the same pattern of impairments on verbal and performance IQ in men and in women.

ANSWER: b 21. Kimura has reported that apraxia is primarily associated with left: a. frontal damage in women and left posterior damage in men. b. frontal damage in men and left posterior damage in women. c. frontal damage in both men and women (equally). d. posterior damage in both men and women (equally).

ANSWER: a 22. In female rats, high levels of estrogen are associated with decreased: a. sensory abilities. b. spatial ability c. motor capabilities. d. hippocampal spine density.

ANSWER: d 23. Map-reading abilities in men would be expected to be BEST in the _____ when testosterone levels are _____. a. evening; high Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Multiple Choice b. morning; high c. evening; low d. morning; low ANSWER: c 24. Older males and females may benefit cognitively from the administration of: a. glutamate receptor antagonists. b. gonadal hormones. c. stress hormones. d. placebos.

ANSWER: b 25. In humans, there are _____ pairs of chromosomes in body cells. a. 22 b. 46 c. 23 d. 24 ANSWER: c 26. According to Waber, relative to late-maturing adolescents, adolescents who mature early perform better on: a. tests of verbal abilities than on tests of spatial abilities. b. tests of spatial abilities than on tests of verbal abilities. c. the Rey complex figure test. d. all tests administered.

ANSWER: a 27. According to Juraska, gender-specific experience-dependent cortical plasticity in adulthood is differentially affected by: a. perinatal exposure to gonadal hormones. b. perinatal exposure to stress hormones. c. early brain damage. d. hormone replacement therapy.

ANSWER: a 28. There are several recognized differences between the brains of females vs males. All of the following favor the brains of females with the exception of: a. larger medial paralimbic areas. b. larger lateral frontal areas. c. larger overall white matter volume. d. greater relative gray matter.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Multiple Choice 29. In the case of early (after 1 year of age), left hemisphere brain injury, which of the following is a likely outcome? a. boys are more likely to have a language shift to the right hemisphere b. girls are more likely to have a language shift to the right hemisphere c. girls are more likely to experience a shift from traditional language regions to the cerebellum d. There is no difference between boys and girls following left hemisphere injury.

ANSWER: d 30. As expected, there is diminished white matter in the auditory cortex of those individuals who experience early deafness. What other region has been shown to have changes in cerebral organization? a. reduced gray matter volume in Wernicke's area b. increased gray matter volume in the cerebellum c. increased white matter volume in cingulate cortex d. decreased in callosal connections between hemispheres ANSWER: b 31. Preferences for handedness have been shown to develop: a. as early as 8 weeks post conception. b. in early childhood prior to entering school. c. soon after birth. d. after entering school as a function of developing writing skills.

ANSWER: a 32. The literature has shown there are a number of sex differences in the brain. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) studies have revealed that: a. females have a greater degree of interhemispheric connectivity relative to males. b. females have a greater anterior to posterior connectivity relative to males. c. males have a greater degree of interhemispheric connectivity relative to females. d. while there are anatomical differences between males and females, DTI results are not significantly meaningful.

ANSWER: a 33. Research has supported the view that males perform significantly better on tests of spatial analysis than do females. However, the findings from the Map Route Learning test demonstrates that females outperformed males with respect to locating landmarks in specific locations along the map route. Together these findings illustrate that: a. performance on these tests depends on life experience reading maps. b. males don't have significantly better skills, but mental rotation tasks highlight subtle differences. c. spatial navigation is a more complex task to perform, which explains why males outperform females. d. spatial memory relies on different abilities than those involved in mental rotation.

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Chapter 12: Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 34. Due to the fluctuations in the level of testosterone in males, outcomes of test performance have shown that _____ testosterone levels have been correlated with _____ scores on tests of spatial cognition. a. average; higher b. high; higher c. average; low d. low; higher ANSWER: a 35. The literature demonstrates greater gray and white matter density in Heschl's gyrus in individuals who speak Chinese. This is thought to be related to: a. variation in timbre. b. variation in auditory control. c. pitch perception. d. amplitude discrimination.

ANSWER: c 36. Early childhood neglect has been associated with neurodevelopmental changes such as diminished prefrontal gray matter volume. An MRI study of adopted 12- to 14-year-olds showed that these changes occur even if they were adopted at roughly _____ of age. a. 36 months b. 12 months c. 24 months d. 6 months ANSWER: b 37. Postmortem studies have shown a correlation between neuronal complexity in _____ and the level of education the individual attained. a. Broca's area b. DLPFC c. Wernicke's area d. Heschl's gyrus ANSWER: c 38. The literature suggests that, similar to auditory processing, early deafness impacts several cortical regions, including Heschl's gyrus and the planum temporale. Which structure is also affected? a. prefrontal cortex b. angular gyrus c. Wernicke's area d. cerebellum Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 39. Variations in testosterone levels have been associated with various aspects of neuronal development. Which of these has NOT been associated with this hormone? a. immune system integrity b. enhanced cognitive abilities c. inhibitory control of the left hemisphere d. cerebral organization ANSWER: b 40. The literature demonstrates that there are variations in the degree of cortical similarities among individuals who are unrelated as compared to those who are related, especially when the individuals are twins. Which statement presents an accurate depiction of gray matter quantity? a. MZ twins have the greatest similarities in the left-hemisphere language areas. b. DZ twins have a higher degree of similarity in the right frontal cortical regions. c. MZ and DZ twins show patterns of asymmetry that are no different from each other but are different from unrelated individuals. d. MZ twins' brains are no more similar than those of DZ twins, suggesting that genetics doesn't play a role in asymmetry.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 12: Short Answer 1. What is the relationship between anatomical asymmetry, handedness, and language lateralization?

ANSWER: No studies are reported that measure all three of these variables on the same sample of subjects, but in studies of one or two of these variables in one sample, 70% to 90% of participants preferred their right hand. In studies of handedness and anatomical asymmetry, blood volume was greater in the right hemisphere in most right-handed people and the opposite in most left-handed people. The parietal operculum was also larger on the right in most right-handed people but showed no difference in left-handed people. Left-handed people show more variation in speech lateralization (70% left-hemisphere dominant; 15% right-hemisphere dominant; 15% bilateral), whereas most right-handed people are left-hemisphere dominant for language.

2. What explanations may account for the larger cross-sectional areas of the corpus callosum in left-handed individuals?

ANSWER: The larger cross-sectional areas of the corpus callosum in left-handed people can be attributed to there being more axons, thicker axons, or more myelin on the axons in these areas.

3. What is the significance of a larger corpus callosum for cerebral asymmetry?

ANSWER: Having a larger corpus callosum could imply greater interaction between the two hemispheres and fundamentally different cerebral organization in left-handed people with this anatomical trait.

4. What are the basic ideas in the Geschwind–Galaburda theory concerning the development of cerebral asymmetry?

ANSWER: Gonadal hormones like testosterone can alter male cerebral organization early in life, including cerebral asymmetry, if the hormone's receptors are distributed asymmetrically in the two cerebral hemispheres. Testosterone's action is suggested to be inhibitory in the left hemisphere, allowing the right hemisphere to develop earlier and leading to asymmetrical competence in the two hemispheres for some behaviors and possibly left-handedness in some boys.

5. What factors may account for the greater incidence of left-handedness in children with intellectual disabilities?

ANSWER: In a nonfamilial left-handed person, there might have been an interruption of left-hemisphere development during embryogenesis due to a neurological developmental disorder that led to a shift from right-handedness to left-handedness. There are so few left-handed people compared with righthanded people that comparisons between the two are not probabilistically equivalent.

6. Identify three environmental theories of hand preference. Discuss one in detail.

ANSWER: Three environmental theories of hand preference are (1) utility, (2) reinforcement, and (3) genetically determined bias. The utility theory suggests that it is adaptive for a mother to hold a baby in her left arm next to her heart. This leaves her right hand available to perform all tasks while holding the baby. Whether there is a causal relationship between these two factors cannot be determined. The reinforcement theory suggests that a right-hand bias exists in the environment, in that many tools and operations are designed to favor right-handed people. Also, in many cultures, left-handedness has been strongly discouraged in children, and left-handed children have been forced to use their right hand to write. The genetically determined bias theory suggests that lefthandedness is associated with a cerebral deficit due to stressful gestation during fetal development or stressful birth and that right-handedness is genetically the norm. Although correlations between Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Short Answer the incidence of left-handedness and stressful births are suggestive, the authors don't believe this evidence as support for this theory is compelling.

7. Explain how Annett's theory of handedness predicts that the population consists of 12.5% left-handed people.

ANSWER: Annett's prediction is based upon the proposal that left-hemisphere language dominance is genetically determined (rs+) and the assumption that recessive forms of this gene (rs–) occur in half the population. The probabilities of the mixtures and outcomes of these genetic factors in terms of handedness would be 50% (rs++), 25% (rs+–), and 25% (rs– –). This would result in 75% of people being right-handed and left-hemisphere dominant for speech, and the remaining 25% being equally divided between those who are left-handed (12.5%) and those having no hand preference (12.5%).

8. At least five cognitive abilities show sex-related differences. Name four.

ANSWER: Females performed better than males on calculations, precision in fine motor skills, and verbal fluency, and males performed better on mental rotation of objects, target-directed throwing, and mathematical reasoning.

9. Briefly describe some behavioral tests that reliably distinguish between males and females.

ANSWER: Examples of such tests include mentally rotating solid objects; using precision on fine motor tasks; recalling stories, paragraphs, or unrelated words; remembering displaced objects; rapidly matching items in visual perceptual tests; taking tests of mathematical reasoning; mentally finding a geometric form in a complex picture; using target-directed motor skills; visualizing where holes punched in a folded paper will be located when the paper is unfolded; and performing mathematical (arithmetic) calculations.

10. What are some male–female differences in human brain asymmetries?

ANSWER: Some differences in brain asymmetries between men and women include a larger left than right planum temporale in more men than in women; a larger horizontal component of the left sylvian fissure than the right in more men than in women; and a greater difference in the right–left difference in the planum parietale in more men than in women.

11. What does Luders's gray matter concentration measure indicate? What differences exist in this measure between males and females?

ANSWER: Luders and colleagues found that MRI signals from denser tissues had higher intensities. They suggest this indicates regions of relatively greater gray matter concentration over the cortex.

Whereas males have more uniform gray matter concentration, females have a patchwork of high and low concentrations over different regions of the cortex.

12. How may hormonal effects during the fetal period contribute to the later development of male–female differences in cognitive performance?

ANSWER: Regions of the brain that have higher concentrations of estradiol receptors in developing animals, though not adults, are the same ones that show male–female differences in tissue volume postnatally. Gonadal hormones like typical male androgens are converted to estradiol in the brain.

The binding of this estradiol to receptors is believed to masculinize the brain. Such organizational effects on brain anatomy are believed to result in functional and behavioral differences in males compared with females. Examples of male–female cognitive performance differences that are Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Short Answer believed to correspond with brain regions of higher estradiol-receptor concentrations are spatial behavior and mathematical reasoning.

13. Describe the laterality of nonhearing people.

ANSWER: Left-hemisphere damage produces aphasia for sign language in nonhearing persons, as it does in hearing individuals, but language symbol perception in nonhearing persons might be more complex in terms of laterality. Nonauditory language (written words) might not be processed in the left hemisphere of nonhearing persons, as they have been reported to not show right-visual-field superiority in linguistic processing tasks. It has also been reported that in visual evoked-potential studies with line stimuli, larger responses were recorded over the left hemisphere of nonhearing children who used sign language compared with a right hemisphere advantage in hearing persons and no asymmetry in the responses of children who didn't use sign language. It was suggested that the underlying neural processing might be the same as that accompanying the spatial perceptual properties associated with perceiving sign language. It was concluded that deaf sign language users acquire their signing symbols using their left hemisphere, as do hearing children when acquiring their auditory symbols, even though the signing symbols are visual–spatial. Some of the variations in this pattern of laterality in nonhearing people are attributed to experience with hearing language before losing hearing and experience with learning to use a sign language.

14. Early environmental deprivation such as that experienced by Romanian orphans has been shown to have a profound effect on neurodevelopment. Describe some of these effects.

ANSWER: In those children adopted after the age of 2, studies found the brain was diminished by 20% relative to children reared in typical environments. There were also reductions in both white and gray matter, as well as cognitive and behavioral problems.

15. Describe the proposed developmental progression of cerebral asymmetry from the embryonic state through adulthood.

ANSWER: Anatomical asymmetries are present before birth. Left hemisphere ERP (event-related potential) studies indicate that the left hemisphere has greater responses for speech sounds one week postnatal.

Besides these results, there is considerable overlap of functions between the two hemispheres until 5 years of age. As more specialized processing in both language and nonlanguage domains develops, each hemisphere participates in language or nonlanguage (e.g., spatial) processes more independently until adult levels of functional asymmetry are reached at approximately 13 years of age.

16. How does the brain of someone with visual impairment differ from a sighted individual?

ANSWER: Individuals who experience early blindness have been shown to have cross modal compensatory plasticity which enables their visual cortices to function in non-visual tasks such as auditory, tactile even language tasks.

17. Explain the difference between familial and nonfamilial left-handers with respect to neuropsychological assessment.

ANSWER: Left-handedness can occur either spontaneously (with no history of other left-handers in the family) or within a family where there is a history of left-handedness—which would denote a genetic linkage. Within the realm of neuropsych assessment, nonfamily-linked left-handers who sustain unilateral damage perform similar to right-handed patients who sustain similar injury. Those with Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Short Answer familial-linked left-handedness demonstrated a different pattern of results. Taken together, these results would seem to point to some genetics-based asymmetries with regard to cerebral organization.

18. Research by Hines has suggested that there are sex differences in toy preferences. Explain as to what she attributes these differences and how they might be measured.

ANSWER: Literature suggests that preferences in toy selection, such as boys being partial to trucks and cars whiles girls favor dolls, has been linked to prenatal testosterone. You could use a case study design to examine those female children who were exposed prenatally to high levels of testosterone (related to maternal medication). After recording levels of testosterone, you could then observe child play, including choice of playmate, type of toy, level of physicality (boys tend to play roughly, jumping and so on, while girls exhibit less of these behaviors traditionally). Another avenue of research would be to measure naturally occurring levels of testosterone from the amniotic fluid for both male and female fetuses. During childhood, measure the male-typical play and sexually dimorphic play, and correlate with the levels of testosterone.

19. Describe the difference between males and females on motor performance.

ANSWER: Males perform better than females at tasks involving distance throwing, such as throwing darts or balls. They also excel at catching. These motor skills emphasize gross motoric behavior, meaning that while they still require accuracy, they engage the limbs and maybe axial rotation. On the other hand, females outperform males on task requiring fine motor skills, things that rely on dexterity, and intricate sequencing.

20. One study indicated that there was a sex difference in the anterior commissure. What might this mean with respect to function?

ANSWER: The anterior commissure in females has an increased number of fibers (larger relative to males).

Given that this fiber tract connects the anterior temporal lobes, it's likely that from a functional perspective it leads to greater connectivity/integration in the amygdala, hippocampus, and other temporal lobe cortices that give rise to processing emotion, various aspects of memory, and potentially object recognition. Taken together, this sex difference may be suggestive of increased performance on certain memory tests, including recognition or those that are emotionally salient.

For each question, answer if the item is truer for males than for females; if the item is truer for females than for males; or if there is no reliable sex difference. a. truer for males than for females b. truer for females than for males c. no reliable sex difference 21. greater verbal fluency ANSWER: b 22. superior mental rotation ANSWER: a 23. better target-throwing and catching ability Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12: Short Answer ANSWER: a 24. better computational ability ANSWER: b 25. larger splenium of corpus callosum ANSWER: b 26. verbal impairment following left-hemisphere lesions ANSWER: c 27. susceptibility to apraxia following left frontal lesions ANSWER: b 28. larger right planum parietale ANSWER: a

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Chapter 13: Multiple Choice 1. Which brain region is primarily dedicated to visual processing? a. occipital lobes b. parietal lobes c. temporal lobes d. frontal lobes ANSWER: a 2. The primary visual cortex is associated with which anatomical landmark? a. lingual gyrus b. central sulcus c. calcarine sulcus d. occipital fissure ANSWER: c 3. Cytochrome oxidase–rich areas of V1 are called: a. stripes. b. holes. c. blobs. d. barrels.

ANSWER: c 4. The role of the dorsal stream is: a. the visual guidance of movement. b. the visual recognition of objects. c. color perception. d. the recognition of a species' typical behaviors.

ANSWER: a 5. There are specialized regions of the visual cortex for processing all of these stimuli EXCEPT: a. color. b. form. c. motion. d. emotion.

ANSWER: d 6. Visual processing in humans continues beyond the occipital lobes to the: a. frontal and parietal lobes. b. frontal and temporal lobes. c. temporal, parietal, and frontal lobes. d. insular and entorhinal cortices.

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Chapter 13: Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 7. Neurons in the _____ sulcus are active during the perception of biologically relevant motion. a. rhinal b. posterolateral c. inferior temporal d. superior temporal ANSWER: d 8. Visual object recognition is MOST specifically a function of processing in the _____ stream. a. dorsal b. ventral c. lateral d. middle ANSWER: b 9. When analyzing facial features, visual attention is directed more toward the: a. medial visual field. b. right visual field. c. left visual field. d. outlines of the face.

ANSWER: c 10. Milner and Goodale base some of their model of vision beyond the occipital lobe on the finding in monkeys that many neurons in the posterior parietal lobe respond to visual stimuli only if the: a. monkey reaches for the stimulus. b. stimulus is moving. c. stimulus is meaningful to the monkey. d. stimulus is brightly colored.

ANSWER: a 11. The role of the visual pathway in the monkey brain that goes from V1 to the temporal lobe is visual: a. guidance of action. b. identification of location. c. object recognition. d. motion detection.

ANSWER: c 12. In the Milner–Goodale model, which visual area projects directly to the parietal visual areas? a. V1 b. V5 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13: Multiple Choice c. V2 d. V4 ANSWER: b 13. The superior temporal sulcus is characterized by significant numbers of _____ neurons. a. polysensory b. color-coding c. movement-sensitive d. depth-perception ANSWER: a 14. Blindness of one entire binocular visual field is termed: a. homonymous hemianopia. b. bitemporal hemianopia. c. quadratic anopia. d. monocular blindness.

ANSWER: a 15. Patients with a left homonymous hemianopia often show sparing of left-field vision from the _____ in both eyes. a. superior parafovea b. inferior parafovea c. fovea d. periphery ANSWER: c 16. Complete unilateral destruction of the left occipital lobe would result in: a. left visual field hemianopia. b. right visual field hemianopia. c. right monocular blindness. d. left monocular blindness.

ANSWER: b 17. As seen in subject B.K., preceding his stroke and development of a lasting scotoma, he had a history of _____ in which the aura was usually a(n) _____. a. epilepsy; olfactory hallucination b. classic migraine; auditory hallucination c. epilepsy; olfactory hallucination d. classic migraine; left visual field defect ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13: Multiple Choice 18. A patient who reports no conscious awareness of a visual stimulus, and yet can accurately report its location, is likely exhibiting: a. macular sparing. b. anosognosia. c. apperceptive agnosia. d. blindsight.

ANSWER: d 19. A patient who reports that moving objects suddenly freeze in one location, only to suddenly reappear at another location, is likely to have a lesion in the area of: a. V1. b. V2. c. V4. d. V5.

ANSWER: d 20. The condition in which there is an inability to use visual information to guide voluntary movement is called: a. optic ataxia. b. vestibular ataxia. c. ideational apraxia. d. optic alexia.

ANSWER: a 21. Associative agnosia is characterized by the ability to: a. describe the shape of an object but not its color. b. describe the physical characteristics of an object but not its identity. c. describe the identity of an object but not its physical characteristics. d. recognize objects in motion but not objects at rest.

ANSWER: b 22. Widespread, bilateral damage to the lateral regions of the occipital cortex is MOST likely to result in: a. apperceptive agnosia. b. prosopagnosia. c. quadrantanopia. d. associative agnosia.

ANSWER: a 23. A person suffering from prosopagnosia would have difficulty _____ of his mother. a. recognizing a portrait b. recognizing the voice c. remembering the name Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13: Multiple Choice d. recognizing a portrait, the voice, and the name ANSWER: a 24. Alexia can be considered to be due to: a. object agnosia for living things. b. object agnosia for human faces. c. object agnosia for letters and words. d. synesthesia for letters and words.

ANSWER: c 25. The fMRI data gathered by Wilson and Farah support the idea that object identification and mental rotation mainly involve activity in the: a. right hemisphere. b. left hemisphere. c. left and right hemispheres. d. left frontal lobe.

ANSWER: a 26. The V1 area of the occipital cortex is comprised of multiple layers. What is a likely reason for the anatomical structure of the V1? a. its multiple functions of color, form, and motion perception b. its function as the secondary visual cortex c. its ability to perceive color and emotion d. its larger neurons that need more surface area ANSWER: a 27. Compare the anatomy of the V1 and V2 areas. Blobs are to _____ perception, while thick stripes are to _____ perception. a. form; motion b. color; form c. motion; color d. form; color ANSWER: b 28. A patient presents at his physician's office after a traumatic brain injury. The patient describes difficulty distinguishing colors. Explain why the physician cannot easily identify where the brain damage is located. a. Color processing is in multiple locations, including the V1 and V2. b. Color perception is in multiple locations, including the V2 and V4. c. Color perception is in multiple locations, including the V1, V2, V4, and ventral stream. d. Color processing is in multiple locations, including the V2 and dorsal stream.

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Chapter 13: Multiple Choice 29. Patients with lesions in V1 may still be able to _____ but may not be able to _____. a. “see”; comprehend what higher visual areas are processing b. hear; understand complex speech c. see movement; visualize the world around them d. see color; remember differentiations between shades of color ANSWER: a 30. What is an advantage of further research on the visual networks outside of the occipital lobe? a. increased knowledge of how lesions in the occipital lobe impact blindness b. better understanding of the form and function of the second ventral stream c. further knowledge of how humans differ from primates in relation to color processing d. ability to connect visual processing to musical ability ANSWER: b 31. Investigation of a patient's brain after a car accident indicates a lesion within the dorsal stream, yet the patient has no deficit in movement. How is this possible? a. Action is found within the ventral stream. b. The damage is to the lateral occipital. c. The lesion is too small to cause impairment. d. The damage is to an area that converts visual information for movement rather than controlling movement directly.

ANSWER: d 32. Researchers examining participants' ability to identify objects in the dark would expect the most successful trials when the eyes are: a. moving to the left of the scene. b. closed, and the visual field is not engaged. c. moving to the right of the scene. d. rapidly moving and scanning the entire scene.

ANSWER: b 33. How was D.F. in Milner and Goodale's research able to move her hand appropriately to grasp for objects but was blind? a. D.F. was only color-blind. b. D.F.'s damage was to the ventral stream. c. D.F.'s damage was to the dorsal stream. d. D.F.'s damage was to the occipital lobe rather than the visual pathways to the cortex.

ANSWER: b 34. Following an accident, a patient was found to have a lesion in the dorsal stream, specifically in the lateral Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13: Multiple Choice intraparietal sulcus. What would likely result from the lesion? a. difficulty in processing shape and color due to rapid eye movements b. difficulty in processing form and color due to involuntary eye movements c. difficulty in processing movement due to trouble controlling voluntary eye movements d. difficulty in processing sound and color due to rapid eye movements ANSWER: c 35. It is understood that vision is not housed solely in the occipital lobe. What is the likely impact of damage to the prefrontal cortex to vision? a. deficits in visual processing speed b. difficulty in processing visual information related to past emotional experiences c. deficits in connecting working memory to object recognition d. negligible visual difficulties; vision focuses within the parietal lobe when not processed in the occipital ANSWER: a 36. A patient presents to the doctor with visual impairment. In describing the issue, the patient states difficulty distinguishing colors. What would be essential for the doctor to know before proceeding to further tests? a. age and general health of the patient b. other new sensory impairments that occur concurrently c. whether the impairment is limited to one eye d. whether the impairment is specific to times of day ANSWER: c 37. Why do patients with quadrantanopia have a distinct demarcation between their blindness and intact visual field? a. due to anatomical separation between the quadrants of the visual field b. blindness as a result of impairment of one eye c. blindness as a result of damage to the optic nerve d. due to the separation of dorsal and ventral stream pathways ANSWER: a 38. Following a traumatic brain injury, a patient complained of headaches but no accompanying problems. The physician completed a battery of neurological tests and found small lesions in the occipital lobe. Explain why it was likely that the patient did not have any noticeable impairments. a. The patient's lesions were widespread so as to not cause damage to a specific visual pathway. b. The patient's lesions were temporary. c. The patient's lesions corrected previous deficits. d. The patient's lesions resulted in small blind spots that the brain could “fill in” using the visual system.

ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13: Multiple Choice 39. Understanding and diagnosing visual disorders due to cortical impairment results in part from case study research. What confounding variables make it difficult to understand visual disorders solely from case studies? a. The patients may not be truthful about pre- and postaccident functioning. b. The patients' age and gender may impact overall visual functioning. c. The patients' lesions may not be localized to one visual area. d. The patients' lesions may heal before the research is concluded.

ANSWER: c 40. Explain how a patient can “see” and yet not perceive what he is seeing. a. The patient likely has impairment in both the ventral and dorsal streams, so he has difficulty with visual perception. b. The patient likely has blindsight, so he is able to recognize form and shape, but only in his clear visual field. c. The patient likely has multiple scotomas in V2. d. The patient likely has blindsight, so he has cortical blindness and is consciously unaware of seeing.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 13: Short Answer 1. Describe examples of how the human brain is organized around vision.

ANSWER: Kolb and Whishaw suggest that human perceptions are visual: our movements are guided by visual information, our social and sexual behaviors are highly visual, our entertainment is largely visual, and our nights are enriched by visual dreams.

2. Describe the organization of the representation of the visual world in the visual cortex, with respect to the calcarine sulcus.

ANSWER: The calcarine sulcus divides the upper and lower halves of the visual world as it is projected upon the primary visual cortex.

3. Describe the functional aspects associated with the structural organization of the primary visual cortex according to cortical layers, blobs, and interblobs.

ANSWER: The functional organization of the primary visual cortex (V1) includes the following components: within V1, cortical layer IV has four distinct layers of cells that appear as a stripe in dissection across the cortical layers to define V1; afferents from the LGN of the thalamus arrive in cortical layer IV; blobs and interblobs are regions of V1 that are either rich in cytochrome oxidase (blobs) or relatively lacking in it (interblobs); and cells within blobs are involved in color perception, while those in interblobs are involved in form and motion perception.

4. Briefly list the main functional role of each of the following: V1, V2, V3, V4, and V5.

ANSWER: The main functional roles of human visual areas V1 through V5 are as follows: V1 receives visually evoked inputs from the LGN of the thalamus, and the V1 cells respond to color, form, and movement; V2 maintains segregation of the V1 inputs; V3 cells are involved in perceiving the shapes of objects in motion; V4 cells are involved in the perception of colors of objects; and V5 cells are involved in the perception of objects in motion.

5. List four of the five general categories of visual processing, and give an example of each.

ANSWER: The five general categories of visual processing are (1) vision for action, such as vision used to direct limb movements; (2) action for vision, as in searching for objects of interest visually; (3) visual recognition, as in recognizing objects such as faces; (4) visual space, as in directing movement toward various objects in egocentric space; and (5) visual attention, as in selecting portions of the visual world for input and processing by the visual system.

6. Distinguish between vision for action and action for vision.

ANSWER: Vision for action refers to using vision to direct specific movements of the body toward objects in the environment, whereas action for vision refers to visually scanning the environment for specific objects.

7. Distinguish between allocentric space and egocentric space.

ANSWER: Egocentric space refers to locations relative to the observer, whereas allocentric space refers to the locations of objects relative to one another.

8. Characterize the dorsal stream and the ventral stream in the Milner–Goodale model of cortical organization.

ANSWER: The dorsal stream, from occipital cortex to parietal lobe, is functionally associated with guiding Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13: Short Answer movements toward objects in the environment, while the ventral stream, from occipital cortex to inferior temporal lobe, is associated with identifying objects in the environment.

9. How could PET scanning contribute to our knowledge of different visual areas in the occipital lobe?

ANSWER: PET scans can reveal specific areas of the occipital lobe with increased blood flow as observers perform visual tasks. For example, Haxby and colleagues recorded PET data while subjects evaluated pictures of human faces relative to previously shown faces and reported significant blood flow increases in the inferior temporal cortex.

10. What is a scotoma? What do such phenomena tell us about the organization of the visual system?

ANSWER: A scotoma is a small blind spot in the visual field that is revealed when the eyes are stationary and a small visual target is presented within the blind spot region but not detected by the observer. The location of the blind spot, relative to the observer's whole visual field, can be associated with the occipital lobe region of the cortical lesion underlying the scotoma. To associate a location in the visual field with a specific region of the occipital lobe cortex where visual information from that location in space would be represented is the basis of understanding the mapping of the retinae and visual fields onto the occipital lobe cortex.

11. Why are small scotomas often unnoticed by persons who have them?

ANSWER: Due to nystagmus and our own eye movements, our visual experience is “built” from overall visual inputs over several views. This allows us to fill in any blind spot due to a scotoma with previously acquired information from other views.

12. How do neurologists measure the size and location of a possible field defect?

ANSWER: Neurologists use perimetry to assess the completeness of visual fields. Perimetry involves having the patient fixate on a black dot in the center of a large white hemisphere while small stimuli are presented briefly in different locations within the white hemisphere. Small stimuli that are not detected by the patient are taken as evidence that the patient cannot see in that region of her visual field.

13. What is meant by the term blindsight? Give an example from one or more of the case studies presented in the text.

ANSWER: Blindsight is a condition where a patient can describe where a moving visual stimulus is located but cannot describe the stimulus. Case B.K. could not perceive such a stimulus during perimetry but could accurately describe where the stimulus entered a particular visual field quadrant. Also, case D.B., who usually reported seeing nothing in his left visual field, occasionally reported that a visual stimulus was approaching him in this field or that there was a jagged or smooth stimulus there.

During perimetry, D.B. was able to accurately point to the locations of brief light stimuli in his left visual field, in spite of reporting that he saw nothing.

14. What brain pathways may underlie blindsight?

ANSWER: It is suggested that although V1 is probably destroyed in cases of blindsight, V2 remains intact to project to the occipital–parietal areas involved in spatial aspects of the environment.

15. Account for the curious case in which a patient could draw a simple object more accurately from memory Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13: Short Answer than when the object was actually present.

ANSWER: The patient retained memories of the shapes of common objects well enough to use a pencil and draw them, but she could not perceive the line-drawing models she was asked to copy. The bilateral destruction of the lateral occipital lobes did not allow her to perceive line drawings, so she could not code new models to guide her movements and copy the stimuli.

16. Describe how the behavioral deficits particular to subjects V.K. and D.F. exemplify a double dissociation of visual system function.

ANSWER: D.F. had visual form agnosia but could locate moving objects in space. V.K. had optic ataxia and could not use vision to guide her movements toward objects in space, but she had intact form and color perception for stationary objects.

17. Distinguish between apperceptive agnosia and associative agnosia.

ANSWER: Apperceptive agnosia involves an inability to form a percept of an object well enough to recognize, copy, or match shapes, whereas in associative agnosia patients retain the ability to copy images of objects, even though they cannot identify them by sight. Associative agnosia involves disconnection of perception from memory.

18. Why may faces be “special” in terms of brain processing? Hint: you may wish to consider the evolution of brain and behavior in social primates.

ANSWER: Although distinct visual agnosias involving the three streams of the Milner–Goodale model are dissociable, the only category for which visual agnosia is described is that of faces. One might speculate that faces and communication between primates through facial expression for socialization and reproductive behaviors have been important enough through evolution that they have been favored or selected for in a Darwinian sense as part of fitness.

19. Explain the importance of animal studies to the development of visual-systems research.

ANSWER: Research using animals, especially research with monkeys, allowed for understanding visual cortex anatomy and function in primates. The ability to do these invasive studies was essential to gaining an understanding of visual systems within humans. Animal studies allow for research that would not be possible with human participants.

20. How did the discovery that color plays a role in the perception of form and/or movement change visual research?

ANSWER: For much of the twentieth century, visual research focusing on perceiving form or movement was color-blind. Yet, more recent research has shown that long-held belief to be in error. Color and its perception are essential to observing and investigating the position, form, motion, and structure of objects.

21. What are the potential evolutionary advantages of color processing?

ANSWER: The ability to differentiate different colors is advantageous for animals in their ability to distinguish edible versus poisonous food. Moreover, the ability to differentiate between different colors is essential for being able to identify dangerous predators in the wild, such as snakes. For survival and passing genes down to the next generation, animals need to be able to identify safe foods. Color perception and processing enable animals to recognize edible foods from their surroundings.

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Chapter 13: Short Answer In the visual cortex of the occipital lobes, neuropsychologists refer to areas in terms of function and with anatomical designations. For each function, select the MOST appropriate anatomical designation. a. calcarine fissure b. lingual gyrus c. fusiform gyrus d. V1 22. divides upper and lower halves of visual world ANSWER: a 23. includes V2, VP ANSWER: b 24. contains V4 ANSWER: c 25. first cortical relay for visual input ANSWER: d Match each visual cortical area with its function. a. V1 b. V3 c. V4 d. V5 26. required for conscious vision ANSWER: a 27. required for "dynamic form" perception ANSWER: b 28. required for color perception ANSWER: c 29. required for motion perception ANSWER: d Neuropsychologists can infer from visual testing where in the visual system damage has occurred. Show your neuropsychological acumen by matching each condition with the correct site of damage. a. bitemporal hemianopia b. homonymous hemianopia c. monocular blindness d. small scotoma Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13: Short Answer 30. optic chiasm ANSWER: a 31. one optic tract ANSWER: b 32. one optic nerve ANSWER: c 33. medial visual cortex ANSWER: d For each definition, select the MOST appropriate neuropsychological term. a. blind spot b. apperceptive agnosia c. prosopagnosia d. simultagnosia 34. inability to see due to naturally occurring lack of photoreceptors ANSWER: a 35. inability to see more than one object at a time ANSWER: b 36. inability to recognize faces ANSWER: c 37. inability to recognize objects ANSWER: d Match each form of agnosia with the correct site of damage. a. apperceptive agnosia b. associative agnosia c. prosopagnosia d. visuospatial agnosia 38. bilateral lateral occipital lobe damage ANSWER: a 39. anterior temporal lobe damage ANSWER: b 40. bilateral damage below the calcarine fissure at the temporal junction ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13: Short Answer 41. right medial occipitotemporal damage, including at the fusiform and lingual gyri ANSWER: d

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Chapter 14: Multiple Choice 1. The lateral parietal lobe is demarcated ventrally by the: a. cingulate gyrus. b. central fissure. c. Sylvian fissure. d. parietal–occipital fissure.

ANSWER: c 2. The MOST posterior Brodmann area in the parietal lobe is area: a. 39. b. 11. c. 43. d. 5.

ANSWER: a 3. The supramarginal gyrus and angular gyrus make up the: a. superior parietal lobe. b. inferior parietal lobe. c. primary somatosensory cortex. d. postcentral gyrus.

ANSWER: b 4. The parietal reach region (PRR) is involved in: a. visual guidance of grasping motions. b. control of saccadic eye movements. c. tactile guidance of grasping movements. d. object-directed grasping motions.

ANSWER: a 5. Area PE in von Economo's mapping system MOST closely corresponds to Brodmann area(s): a. 1, 2, and 3. b. 5 and 7. c. 39. d. 40 and 43.

ANSWER: b 6. Which structure does NOT appear to receive significant cortical input from the parietal lobe? a. frontal lobe b. occipital lobe c. temporal lobe d. hippocampus Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14: Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 7. There is a close functional relationship between the parietal cortex and the _____, which probably has an important role in the control of spatially guided behavior. a. hippocampus b. temporal lobe c. corpus callosum d. prefrontal cortex ANSWER: d 8. One characteristic common to MOST posterior parietal neurons in the monkey brain is that they are responsive to: a. movements of the animal's eyes or arms toward a stimulus. b. the shape of visual stimulus. c. being touched on the upper lip by a stimulus. d. changes in the color of a visual stimulus.

ANSWER: a 9. The ability to voluntarily direct one's gaze to select environmental stimuli depends on connections between the _____ and the _____. a. posterior parietal cortex; fusiform gyrus b. primary motor cortex; anterior parietal cortex c. frontal eye fields; anterior parietal cortex d. frontal eye fields; posterior parietal cortex ANSWER: d 10. Damage to the posterior parietal cortex would MOST interfere with: a. distal movements of fingers. b. identification of a clock as being a clock. c. reaching toward a briefly presented visual target. d. the ability to walk normally.

ANSWER: c 11. Polysensory neurons in a monkey's posterior parietal cortex have been shown to increase their firing rate when: a. a loud noise is sounded near the animal. b. the ambient lighting is changed. c. the animal attends to a target object or moves toward it. d. the animal recognizes the object.

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Chapter 14: Multiple Choice 12. Sensory feedback that indicates the actual outcome of intended movements is known as the _____ copy. a. afference b. efference c. effervescent d. reentrant ANSWER: b 13. The study by Andersen and colleagues mentioned in the text found that neuronal activity in the monkey PRR could predict: a. an intended move to a spatial target. b. a motor response to an auditory cue. c. reward preference. d. somatosensory thresholds.

ANSWER: a 14. Activity within the human medial parietal region is important for: a. spatial navigation ability. b. discriminative touch. c. object recognition. d. guided reaching.

ANSWER: a 15. If you were to ask a patient to copy specific motoric behaviors such as brushing your teeth, you are most likely trying to make a diagnosis of _____ apraxia. a. ideomotor b. ipsilateral c. contralateral d. constructional ANSWER: a 16. The ability to do arithmetic, mentally rotate and manipulate an object, and accurately reach for a moving object all depend on the representation of _____ parietal cortex. a. object categories in the anterior b. object categories in the posterior c. mental space in the anterior d. mental space in the posterior ANSWER: d 17. Cortical regions immediately posterior to the central fissure are largely involved in: a. controlling the level of cognitive arousal. b. integrating visual perceptions with motion.

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Chapter 14: Multiple Choice c. processing motor commands. d. processing somatosensory information.

ANSWER: d 18. A person suffering from anosognosia: a. cannot perceive objects moving through space. b. cannot localize or name body parts. c. may deny even obvious signs of illness. d. cannot do mental arithmetic.

ANSWER: c 19. Which of these is a behavioral phenomenon BEST associated with parietal lobe damage? a. achromatopsia b. anosmia c. prosopagnosia d. asomatognosia ANSWER: d 20. A patient who is only able to pay attention to one object at a time and misreaches for things nearby is MOST likely suffering from: a. Bálint syndrome. b. amorphosynthesis. c. allesthesia. d. Gerstmann syndrome.

ANSWER: a 21. Which of these is more likely to be seen in subjects with right-parietal-lobe lesions? a. contralateral neglect b. dyslexia c. dyscalculia d. ideomotor apraxia ANSWER: a 22. The first stage in recovery from contralateral neglect is termed: a. extinction. b. reintegration. c. morphosynthesis. d. allesthesia.

ANSWER: d 23. A person who, after a parietal lobe stroke, reports being touched on the right arm even though the touch was Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14: Multiple Choice to the left arm is exhibiting: a. allesthesia. b. amorphosynthesis. c. simultaneous extinction. d. contralateral neglect.

ANSWER: a 24. According to Heilman and colleagues (1993), contralateral neglect is MOST likely a result of impaired: a. working memory. b. object recognition. c. attention or orientation to one side of space. d. behavioral inhibition.

ANSWER: c 25. A patient who can neither identify her fingers nor complete arithmetic problems is MOST likely to be diagnosed with: a. Bálint syndrome. b. Kluver–Bucy syndrome. c. the Gerstmann syndrome. d. allesthesia.

ANSWER: c 26. A person with damage to the right parietal lobe would have the MOST difficulty recognizing a: a. human face in a photograph. b. human face seen in person. c. house seen from the front yard. d. house from an aerial view.

ANSWER: d 27. Patients with left-parietal lesions typically have difficulty distinguishing between: a. up and down. b. right and wrong. c. red and green. d. left and right.

ANSWER: d 28. According to Posner, an important contribution of the parietal lobes to attentional processes is disengagement, which is the ability to: a. end long-term relationships. b. focus attention on a specific stimulus. c. shift attention from one stimulus to another.

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Chapter 14: Multiple Choice d. avoid paying attention to environmental stimuli.

ANSWER: c 29. Which of these is more likely to be seen in subjects with left-parietal-lobe lesions? a. paper cutting disability b. more mistakes in Weigl's sorting test c. unilateral neglect d. cube counting errors ANSWER: b 30. The two-point discrimination test would be MOST sensitive to damage to the: a. anterior parietal lobe. b. posterior parietal lobe. c. parieto-occipital junction. d. temporo-occipital junction.

ANSWER: a 31. The line bisection task is considered a sensitive test for diagnosing: a. unimodal neglect. b. contralateral neglect. c. psychomotor poverty. d. object agnosia.

ANSWER: b 32. Performance on the _____ would be expected to be below average in a patient with damage to the left parietal lobe. a. line bisection test b. Mooney Closure Faces test c. Token Test d. bicycle drawing task ANSWER: c 33. You are running through the park. Along the way, you have to navigate several paths, remembering to veer left at the boathouse due to some uneven concrete that caused you to stumble last time. That the brain is able to integrate all this information points to a strong functional link between the parietal lobe and: a. Brodmann's area 46. b. Brodmann's area 39. c. Brodmann's area 40. d. Brodmann's area 7.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14: Multiple Choice 34. The dorsal stream as it was originally conceived as involving projections from the occipital lobe to the superior parietal cortex was viewed as the _____ pathway. a. “when” b. “how” c. “what” d. “where” ANSWER: d 35. The ability to identify an object is a complex endeavor. Grasping the difference between identifying an object as something you know how to use, such as a hammer, and one that you intend to use immediately requires: a. internal representation of the actual object. b. a large mental array of object properties. c. use of a person-centered perspective. d. reliance on object-centered information.

ANSWER: d 36. A group of students are studying abroad in Rome. In their first days of exploring, they believed they were quite a distance from the center of the city (perhaps due to getting lost several times). However, after a few more days, they discover that they are actually a fairly close walk to St. Peter's Square and are able to traverse the region quite effectively. What is the BEST explanation for the change in their perspective? a. They have gotten used to walking greater distances. b. They engage in sensorimotor transformation. c. They started writing down directions or using Google maps. d. They have developed enhanced route knowledge.

ANSWER: d 37. Being able to manipulate objects mentally or envision objects from a different vantage point is part of a broad category of abilities referred to as: a. route knowledge. b. object transformation. c. imagery. d. spatial cognition.

ANSWER: d 38. Lesions involving the postcentral gyrus can result in abnormal kinesthetic responses. This symptom is termed: a. afferent paresis. b. tactile perception. c. anosognosia. d. autopagnosia.

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Chapter 14: Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 39. You are a neuropsychologist in the midst of a patient evaluation. You have just administered line bisection and clock drawing tasks while awaiting MRI results. Given these assessments, it's MOST like that you suspect this patient is suffering from: a. visual agnosia. b. contralateral neglect. c. tactile agnosia. d. contralateral apraxia.

ANSWER: b 40. During the course of an assessment, you hold up your two index fingers. You ask your patient to identify how many fingers you are displaying. Despite having normal visual acuity, the patient states you are holding up only one figure. The BEST explanation for this behavior is that the patient is: a. exhibiting unilateral ataxia. b. experiencing simultagnosia. c. experiencing optic ataxia. d. displaying astereognosis.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 14: Short Answer 1. Discuss the significance of the expansion of the polymodal areas of PG and STS in humans.

ANSWER: These expanded areas are asymmetrical, more so in the human brain, and are functionally associated with polymodal processing. The authors suggest that damage to these expanded regions is associated with visual symptoms that are unique to humans and probably related to lateralized functions such as reading language.

2. How would you describe the functions of the posterior zone of the parietal lobe in humans? Give an example from everyday life.

ANSWER: This zone specializes in integrating sensory input from somatic and visual brain regions and to some extent other sensory regions, mostly for controlling movements of the limbs and the whole body in space. The posterior parietal zone is also involved in mental imagery as well as attending to different regions of space and coordinating sequences of movements to complete specific tasks within space. An example given in the text is having dinner in a restaurant with a friend where several complex tasks related to eating behaviors, such as using utensils and communicating with the friend by attending to objects, must be carried out simultaneously. Moving within the space in a specific fashion is required to choose and manipulate the eating utensils skillfully while attending socially and conversing in a meaningful way.

3. Compare and contrast the roles of the parietal cortex in recognizing objects and guiding movement.

ANSWER: While both of these behaviors involve determining relations between objects in space, the guidance of movements must be from the viewer's perspective, whereas object recognition can be objectcentered, where visual details, such as the color of the object, are more important than they would be for guiding movements. Also, since we are in constant motion, guiding movement requires frequent updates of visuospatial information, while for object recognition such updates would be excessive.

4. How could having “too much” information be counterproductive in the efficient functioning of a given brain system?

ANSWER: In the case of object recognition, an object's specific properties—such as size, shape, color, and location—relative to other objects are necessary, whereas for guiding movements toward an object, the viewer-centered movements do not require such property details and would delay such movements unnecessarily if they were attended to and processed while moving.

5. Describe the activity of neurons in the posterior parietal lobe of monkeys in response to stationary visual stimuli with and without reaching and with and without attentional focus on the stimulus.

ANSWER: These neurons respond weakly to stationary objects until the monkey makes active eye or limb movements toward the object or shifts its attention toward the object when the neurons respond more strongly.

6. Describe two important characteristics that all posterior-parietal-lobe neurons have in common with one another based upon studies of monkeys noted by Stein in 1992.

ANSWER: Posterior parietal lobe neurons all receive sensory, motivational, and related motor inputs, and their discharge rates and intensities are enhanced when the animal attends to the target stimulus or moves toward it.

7. How did the experiments by Andersen and colleagues suggest a role for the posterior parietal cortex in Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14: Short Answer thought and intention?

ANSWER: Andersen and colleagues identified posterior parietal lobe neurons that responded when a monkey intended to move a limb toward a target object rather than when the monkey guided movement of the limb toward a target object. This was considered to be equivalent to the monkey thinking about reaching for the target object.

8. What symptoms of parietal-lobe damage do NOT fit neatly into the view of the parietal lobe as a visuomotor control center?

ANSWER: Such symptoms include difficulty performing arithmetic calculations (acalculia), errors in grammar when speaking (dysphasia), and difficulty learning sequences of novel limb movements (apraxia).

9. The general view is that left and right hemisphere damage results in different types of impairment of spatial cognition. Explain the difference.

ANSWER: It’s been suggested that mental rotation consists of two distinct mental operations 1) to imagine the stimulus and 2) to manipulate the image. Research by Newcombe and Ratliff (1990) suggests that lesions of the left hemisphere results in an inability to generate a mental image. Right hemisphere deficits involved inability to perform operations on the mental image.

10. Your patient has had a stroke involving the left parietal cortex, particularly areas 1, 2, and 3 and the adjacent cortex (parts of PE and PF). What is your expectation regarding possible sensory and perceptual defects, and how would you test for this?

ANSWER: This patient might be expected to have abnormal somatosensory thresholds in the contralateral limbs corresponding to the region of cortex damaged. Also, the patient might exhibit impaired position sense, right-side afferent paresis, and right-side astereognosis. The test for tactile dysfunction would be to measure the patient's somatosensory thresholds on a two-point discrimination task on both body sides for comparison to one other. Astereognosis can be tested by having the blindfolded patient identify objects by touch alone.

11. What is the difference between astereognosis and simultaneous extinction?

ANSWER: Astereognosis is an inability to recognize objects by touch alone, while simultaneous extinction is a failure to detect or acknowledge one of two objects that touch the two sides of the patient's body simultaneously.

12. What are the three main symptoms originally described by Balint in 1909 that led to the concept of Balint syndrome?

ANSWER: The three original symptoms were the ability to move the eyes but not fixate on a specific visual stimulus, simultagnosia, and optic ataxia.

13. Describe the two stages of recovery of contralateral neglect.

ANSWER: The two stages of recovery from contralateral neglect are allesthesia, where the patient begins to respond to stimuli on the neglected side as if they were presented on the attended side, and simultaneous extinction, where the patient responds to one stimulus presented to either side of the body but does not acknowledge or detect a stimulus presented on the neglected side when it is presented simultaneously with a stimulus presented on the attended side of the body.

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Chapter 14: Short Answer 14. How does Elizabeth Warrington account for the inability of patients with right parietal lesions to recognize common objects viewed from unfamiliar angles?

ANSWER: Warrington suggested that this symptom is due to a problem with perceptual classification rather than a deficit in forming a gestalt for a visual stimulus. It was suggested that an object presented in alternate views had to be mentally rotated to match a more common view of that object before that object could be classified.

15. What are the symptoms that constitute Gerstmann syndrome? Why, do you suppose, these symptoms appear together following parietal damage?

ANSWER: Currently, Gerstmann syndrome includes the symptoms of finger agnosia, right–left confusion, agraphia, and acalculia. These symptoms are all associated with the left angular gyrus (PG), which is polymodal and could be a site for intermodal mixing as well as the dorsal stream that guides behavior based upon visual and tactile information. It is feasible that each symptom depends upon the polymodal cortex, the dorsal stream, or both.

16. Describe the proposed hemispheric asymmetry of function in the performance of spatial cognition tasks.

ANSWER: The left cerebral hemisphere has been proposed to underlie generation of appropriate mental images, and the right cerebral hemisphere underlies manipulation of images within a topographical context.

17. Describe at least four cognitive deficits that are more likely to occur with right-parietal damage than with left-parietal damage.

ANSWER: Symptoms that are more likely to occur with right than with left parietal-lobe damage include difficulty with paper cutting, difficulty with cube counting, disability with dressing, topographical loss, and unilateral neglect.

18. Simultaneous extinction is a striking but subtle disorder that can be revealed only under specific testing conditions. If you were assessing for potential damage to parietal areas PE and PF, what would be a key aspect of the testing protocol?

ANSWER: To assess simultaneous extinction, you must conduct at least three presentations of objects to both visual fields. First, using two identical objects, present to the patient at the same time to each visual field, asking him to identify object(s) he sees. On the next trial, present two different objects, one to each visual field at the same time. Again, ask the patient to report what he sees. Lastly, present similar objects that differ in some way, perhaps large and small balls. If you are in the field without multiple objects, you can use your fingers, wiggling one and then both, and asking the patient which is moving.

19. A lot of what we know regarding the functions of the parietal cortex has been learned from patients with various injuries. Neuroimaging studies have afforded us the opportunity to further explore this region. Describe some additional findings with respect to this region.

ANSWER: Literature supports the idea that the mechanisms of attention reside in the parietal lobe, more specifically the right superior parietal cortex. Behaviors such as orienting to an object and attending to an object are a key aspect of spatial cognition. Additionally, the primary memory network has been identified as another network, which is comprised of different gyri: precuneus and angular gyrus. This region likely plays a role in learning and memory, including memory for words.

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Chapter 14: Short Answer 20. Think about designing a battery of tests that one could use to make a differential diagnosis in the case of a patient who has sustained parietal-lobe damage. You don't have access to neuroimaging at this point in the evaluation, so don't include any in your answer.

ANSWER: The first step is to determine the damaged hemisphere. Assessment of the somatosensory cortex could be conducted using two-point discrimination. While it's possible—depending on the type of injury—that both hemispheres could be involved, it's key to test both and determine if one side is differentially affected. Drawing pictures such as flowers or houses as well as line bisection could help rule out contralateral neglect. Given the asymmetries of language, you could conduct some language assessments such as the Token test. Also, the Weigl Sorting Test would be useful to help confirm left-hemisphere involvement irrespective of any language deficits.

21. Define selective attention and describe a scenario involving its use.

ANSWER: Selective attention refers to the ability to choose or direct one's focus to a specific stimulus while excluding other irrelevant information. Imagine attending a conference: you are currently in a lecture but there are people talking behind you. Additionally, there is a food cart delivering coffee in the back, yet you remain focused on the speaker's results because her research dovetails very nicely with yours. This is the essence of selective attention.

Match each brain area with the correct alternative. a. areas PE and PF b. PG polymodal area c. Brodmann's areas 1, 2, 3, 43 d. lateral fissure 22. secondary somatosensory cortex ANSWER: a 23. greatly expanded in the human brain ANSWER: b 24. anterior zone of parietal lobe ANSWER: c 25. ventral border of the lateral parietal lobe ANSWER: d Match each term with its definition. a. astereognosis b. anosognosia c. dyscalculia d. autopagnosia 26. inability to recognize objects by touch ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14: Short Answer 27. lack of awareness of one's own illness ANSWER: b 28. inability to do arithmetic ANSWER: c 29. inability to name and locate body parts ANSWER: d Match each condition with the MOST appropriate description. a. afferent paresis b. simultaneous extinction c. anosodiaphoria d. blind touch 30. finger clumsiness due to lost sensory feedback ANSWER: a 31. failure to perceive one of two similar stimuli presented simultaneously ANSWER: b 32. indifference to illness ANSWER: c 33. ability to point to touched area despite lack of conscious perception of the touch ANSWER: d For each disorder, choose the MOST appropriate description. a. agraphia b. dysphasia c. apraxia 34. inability to write ANSWER: a 35. impaired speech ANSWER: b 36. inability to learn serial novel movements ANSWER: c For each symptom, identify if the percentage of subjects showing the symptom is greater following left-parietallobe damage or following right-parietal-lobe damage. a. unilateral neglect Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14: Short Answer b. right–left discrimination c. dressing disability d. Weigl's sorting test 37. right-parietal-lobe damage ANSWER: a 38. left-parietal-lobe damage ANSWER: b 39. right-parietal-lobe damage ANSWER: c 40. left-parietal-lobe damage ANSWER: d Match each symptom with the MOST probable lesion site. a. tactile agnosia b. apraxia c. increased somatosensory thresholds d. contralateral neglect 41. area PE ANSWER: a 42. areas PF and PG of the left hemisphere ANSWER: b 43. contralateral areas 1, 2, and 3 ANSWER: c 44. area PG of the right hemisphere ANSWER: d

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Chapter 15: Multiple Choice 1. The auditory association cortex is located in the: a. superior temporal sulcus. b. middle temporal gyrus. c. insula. d. fusiform gyrus.

ANSWER: c 2. Brodmann's area 21 is most closely congruent with which of these in the human brain? a. inferior temporal gyrus b. middle temporal gyrus c. superior temporal gyrus d. Heschl's gyrus ANSWER: a 3. The gustatory cortex and auditory association cortex are both located in the area of cortex known as the: a. temporal insula. b. superior temporal sulcus. c. frontal operculum. d. inferotemporal region.

ANSWER: a 4. A temporal lobe structure found in humans but NOT in rhesus monkeys is the: a. middle temporal gyrus. b. hippocampal formation. c. amygdala. d. superior temporal gyrus.

ANSWER: a 5. When performing a visual object recognition task, increased neural activity would be expected, particularly in the: a. superior temporal gyrus. b. middle temporal gyrus. c. superior temporal sulcus. d. inferior temporal gyrus.

ANSWER: d 6. The anterior commissure connects the _____ areas of the right and left hemispheres. a. lateral temporal b. medial temporal c. occipital d. cingulate Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15: Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 7. Neurons in the middle temporal gyrus project to neurons in the opposite hemisphere by way of the: a. corpus callosum. b. anterior commissure. c. perforant pathway. d. inferior temporal gyrus.

ANSWER: a 8. The hippocampus gets input from auditory and visual association areas in the ipsilateral hemisphere via the: a. corpus callosum. b. hippocampal commissure. c. arcuate fasciculus. d. perforant pathway.

ANSWER: d 9. Which of these is NOT thought to be a function of the temporal lobes? a. processing of auditory input b. control of visual tracking c. visual object recognition d. long-term memory formation ANSWER: b 10. Neural projections from the temporal lobe to the frontal lobe are hypothesized to be necessary for: a. stimulus recognition and categorization. b. long-term memory encoding and storage. c. short-term memory and affect. d. use of auditory cues to guide movement.

ANSWER: c 11. Medial temporal lobe structures are BEST associated with: a. visual attention. b. long-term memory storage. c. long-term memory formation. d. pitch perception.

ANSWER: c 12. The temporal lobe structure essential for associating sensory information and affective (emotional) state is: a. the insula. b. the amygdala. c. the inferior temporal gyrus.

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Chapter 15: Multiple Choice d. Heschl's gyrus.

ANSWER: b 13. Which of these is an example of temporal lobe cross-modal matching? a. perceiving both the form and color of an object simultaneously b. using the left hemisphere and right hemisphere simultaneously to perceive a voice c. making an association between the vocal characteristics and the face of a well-known pop singer d. distinguishing among melodies played in the Lydian, Aeolian, and Locrian scales ANSWER: c 14. Neurons in the posterior superior temporal sulcus (STS) are likely to be active when a person: a. readies a response to be performed in the near future. b. interacts with a computer touch screen. c. falls asleep in class and then wakes up suddenly. d. watches and anticipates the actions of a classmate.

ANSWER: d 15. Various investigators have found that neurons in the monkey STS are particularly sensitive to: a. movements of inanimate environmental stimuli. b. movements of other monkeys. c. distinguishing ripe from unripe fruit. d. movements involving facial expressions.

ANSWER: b 16. The ability to understand the intentions of others from their movements and expressions is known as: a. theory of personality. b. intuition. c. extrasensory perception. d. theory of mind.

ANSWER: d 17. Brain scans of subjects watching a section of a movie suggest that neurons within the temporal lobe: a. respond in a stereotypical manner to naturalistic audiovisual stimuli. b. respond in a highly individualistic manner to naturalistic audiovisual stimuli. c. are insensitive to naturalistic audiovisual stimuli. d. distinguish between the good, the bad, and the ugly among us.

ANSWER: a 18. According to the results of research by Hasson and colleagues, the brain regions that would show the LEAST amount of intersubject coherence in the members of a cinema audience watching a movie would be the: a. frontal and parietal cortices.

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Chapter 15: Multiple Choice b. frontal and inferior temporal cortices. c. parietal and inferior temporal cortices. d. superior temporal sulcus and cingulate cortex.

ANSWER: a 19. Imaging studies suggest that the fusiform face area may activate more generally during tasks that involve: a. using experience to discriminate between complex stimuli within the same tactile category. b. viewing faces in close proximity. c. accurately identifying the location of faces flashed briefly on a screen. d. using experience to generate rapid, accurate motor responses.

ANSWER: b 20. Temporal cortex neurons activated by complex combinations of stimuli, such as those studied by Tanaka, are thought to play an important role in: a. pitch discrimination. b. category formation. c. implicit memory. d. color identification.

ANSWER: b 21. Analyses of the Thatcher illusion suggest that when recognizing faces, we pay particular attention to the: a. upright configuration of the eyes and nose. b. chin and hairline. c. inverted configuration of the eyes and mouth. d. upright configuration of the eyes and mouth.

ANSWER: d 22. Individual speech sounds are composed of characteristic groups of frequencies known as: a. phonemes. b. spectrograms. c. formants. d. morphemes.

ANSWER: c 23. MOST speech is in the range of _____ segments/second. a. 2–4 b. 30–35 c. 14–16 d. 8–10 ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15: Multiple Choice 24. The ability to perceive both the fundamental frequency and the harmonics of a given pitch is known as _____ pitch. a. spectral b. harmonic c. periodicity d. perfect ANSWER: a 25. The scientific term for what is commonly called tone of voice is: a. prosody. b. musicality. c. harmonics. d. probity.

ANSWER: a 26. Based on the studies of Schneider and colleagues, you would expect to observe _____ in musicians than in nonmusicians. a. larger gray-matter volumes in Wernicke's area b. smaller gray-matter volumes in Wernicke's area c. larger gray-matter volumes in Heschl's gyrus d. smaller gray-matter volumes in Heschl's gyrus ANSWER: c 27. During a test of pitch discrimination, subjects with greater gray-matter volume in the left primary auditory areas would be predicted to rely primarily on: a. meter and rhythm. b. periodicity pitch. c. spectral pitch. d. fundamental pitch.

ANSWER: d 28. Liegeois-Chauval has reported that rhythm discrimination is MOST disrupted following lesions of the _____ temporal lobe. a. right anterior b. right posterior c. left anterior d. left posterior ANSWER: b 29. To perform well on the McGill Picture Anomaly Test, the subject must make use of: a. visual discrimination.

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Chapter 15: Multiple Choice b. stimulus categorization. c. contextual cues. d. cross-modal matching.

ANSWER: c 30. Loss of memory for events occurring after the time of surgery or trauma is termed _____ amnesia. a. retrograde b. redundant c. contextual d. anterograde ANSWER: d 31. A constellation of behaviors make up the temporal-lobe personality. Which of these is NOT one of these behaviors? a. anterograde amnesia b. egocentricity c. pedantic speech d. perseveration in talking ANSWER: a 32. A potential confounding factor in the performance of subjects on tests of nonverbal cognitive ability is: a. a lack of motivation on the part of the subject. b. damage to the right hemisphere. c. damage to the left hemisphere. d. the fact that few good tests of nonverbal abilities exist.

ANSWER: a 33. Following a stroke, a patient was found to have damage localized to both the temporal and parietal lobes.

After treatment, there was improvement but long-lasting damage to the TPJ. What is the likely result? a. disruption in decision making in social situations b. flat affect and lack of desire for social interactions c. inability to recognize faces d. increased inattention during social interactions ANSWER: a 34. Explain how the dorsal auditory stream is analogous to the dorsal ventral stream. a. Both connect to multiple cortical areas and the brainstem. b. Both are related to movement. c. Both are related to object recognition. d. Both have efferent connections with the brainstem and spine.

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Chapter 15: Multiple Choice 35. Through which mechanism is the smell of a fir tree related to the memory of a childhood Christmas? a. pathway from the temporal lobe to frontal lobe b. polymodal pathway c. olfactory pathway to the temporal pyriform cortex d. dorsal auditory and visual pathways ANSWER: c 36. Researchers are examining the impact of watching an award-winning “tear-jerker” on a series of participants. Considering that the participants have no cortical damage, in which temporal lobe pathways would they expect to see activity? a. olfactory pathway and dorsal visual pathway b. pathway from TE to amygdala and pathway from TE to the ventral striatum c. medial temporal pathway and ventrolateral prefrontal pathway d. ventral stream pathway and dorsal stream pathway ANSWER: b 37. You attend an outdoor concert with various bands playing in different locations within a park. In deciding where you and your friends will go to listen first, you see and hear various singers. Which areas of your temporal lobe aid you in matching what you hear with what you see occurring around you? a. medial temporal region b. lateral temporal cortex c. pyriform cortex d. cortex of the superior temporal sulcus ANSWER: d 38. What is the most relevant evolutionary function of affective responses? a. The creation of emotions related to social situations allows for survival. b. Connecting emotion to memory allows for a richer experience. c. Tying emotions to stimuli allows for classification of safe versus dangerous stimuli. d. Learning is tied to cognition, memory, and emotion.

ANSWER: c 39. Research has shown there are two pathways for facial processing. How do those two pathways potentially work in conjunction for facial perception? a. The ventral face system identifies and processes unchanging features (gender, general facial form), while the dorsal face system identifies and processes changeable features (expression, gaze, movement). b. The ventral face system is connected to form, while the dorsal face system is related to gender. c. The ventral face system is related to facial expression and emotion, while the dorsal face system is related to shape and form of the face. d. The ventral face system is related to memory of faces, while the dorsal face system is related to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15: Multiple Choice perception of the shape of eyes and mouths.

ANSWER: a 40. Researchers examining patients with temporal-lobe damage have observed a reduction in understanding of social movements, social cues, and biological motion. What is likely to be the location of the damage and the potential impact of said injury? a. hippocampus and deficit in creation of social memories b. superior temporal sulcus (STS) and deficit in social awareness c. amygdala and inability to tie emotion to social events d. inferotemporal cortex (TE) and inability to connect visual and social information ANSWER: b

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Chapter 15: Short Answer 1. Identify the five projection pathways of neuronal connections in the temporal lobe of the monkey.

ANSWER: The hierarchical sensory pathway subserves stimulus recognition; the dorsal auditory pathway directs movements regarding auditory information; the polymodal pathway is involved with stimulus categorization; the medial temporal projection is critical for LTM; and the frontal lobe projection is necessary for movement, STM, and affect.

2. What are three basic functions of the temporal lobe?

ANSWER: The three basic functions are (1) auditory input processing, (2) visual object recognition, and (3) long-term storage of sensory input (memory).

3. What is the relationship between the stimuli that most strongly activate neurons in the STS and the construct of social cognition?

ANSWER: Activation of the STS region is most strongly associated with species' relevant movements, including movements of the eyes, mouth, hands, and body. Social cognition allows us (and other species) to evaluate and/or infer the intentions of others by using these cues, such as gaze direction.

Impairment in aspects of social cognition have been shown in disorders such as autism.

4. Describe Perrett's experiment concerning superior temporal sulcus (STS) neurons in the monkey brain.

ANSWER: Perrett and colleagues demonstrated that neurons in the STS fired in response to faces, whether the face was viewed straight on or in profile, as well as facial expressions. These neurons also responded to auditory sounds that matched the faces. Together, their results indicate the importance of the STS in biological motion.

5. Consider a group of friends who have gathered to watch a movie. Which cortical regions would you expect to show the most similar patterns of activity across the different individuals, and which regions are likely to show the most divergent patterns of activity? What might be the implications of these activity patterns for perceptual experiences?

ANSWER: PPA and FFA would be active across subjects, and other frontal and parietal regions would show the most variability, given that scenes from the movie could activate differential memory associations for the group. Additionally, other thought processes having nothing to do with the movie could be active. The activity of PPA and FFA regions would be the result of watching the actors and scenes on screen.

6. What evidence is there that the response of inferotemporal lobe neurons in the monkey brain can be modified by experience?

ANSWER: Tanaka's study demonstrated that experience will alter the neurons' firing patterns with respect to stimulus specificity. They were able to train monkeys on a larger set of stimuli, and the neurons gave a maximum response on the trained items. Fuster and Jervey extended the firing of neurons during a memory phase of a study, which they believed provided the basis for working memory.

Taken together, these results point to memory formation for new items and brain regions that would be responsive to that training and lead to later identification of new stimuli.

7. What are three ways in which speech differs from other auditory input?

ANSWER: Three ways in which speech differs are: (1) speech sounds stem from three restricted frequency Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15: Short Answer ranges, (2) the same speech sounds can vary based on context, and (3) speech sounds change very rapidly in relation to one another.

8. Distinguish between loudness and timbre.

ANSWER: Loudness is the amplitude of the sound and is subjectively described as loud or very loud, soft or very soft, and so on. The timbre of a sound refers to the distinct aspect of a particular sound—for instance, the distinct quality of a saxophone versus a clarinet when both may be at the same loudness and pitch.

9. Distinguish between spectral pitch and fundamental pitch, functionally and anatomically.

ANSWER: Spectral pitch is the more complex overtones and harmonics. Fundamental pitch is the lowest component of a note. While both are associated with the primary auditory cortex (Heschl's gyrus), spectral pitch has a rightward asymmetry, and fundamental pitch has a leftward asymmetry.

10. What are the relationships between temporal-lobe anatomy and musicality? What do these relationships imply about the innateness of musical ability?

ANSWER: Both lobes contribute to aspects of musical memory (such as learning melodies), but melody retention is associated with the right temporal lobe. The left temporal lobe plays a greater role in rhythm. Musicians have a larger volume of both gray and white matter in Heschl's gyri of both hemispheres, and this difference has been correlated with musical aptitude. Some of the innate differences may contribute to the perception of pitch.

11. Describe the effects of right temporal lobe lesions, including on the primary auditory cortex, on pitch perception.

ANSWER: Spectral pitch has been shown to have a rightward asymmetry (Heschl's gyrus); therefore, any damage to this region would result in impairment of this aspect of pitch perception.

12. List five principal symptoms associated with temporal-lobe dysfunction and the hemisphere with which each symptom is specifically associated.

ANSWER: Five principal symptoms are: (1) changes in sexual activity in the bilateral medial temporal lobes; (2) memory impairment and anterograde amnesia in the hippocampal structures, including the parahippocampal gyri bilaterally; (3) poor contextual use in the right inferotemporal cortex; (4) language impairment in the left STG (area 22); and (5) auditory deficits in the bilateral Heschl's gyrus.

13. Your patient has a lesion of the left temporal lobe and complains that people “talk too fast.” What is your best explanation of this situation?

ANSWER: Speech perception requires rapid analysis of the temporal order (timing) of individual speech sounds that typically occur in the range of 50 to 60 milliseconds. Patients with lesions of the left temporal lobe require much more time to make these distinctions—maybe 500 milliseconds—so it feels to them that people are speaking very quickly.

14. Argue the case that the temporal lobe participates in the appreciation of contextual information.

ANSWER: Patients with right-hemisphere lobectomies demonstrate impairment on the McGill Picture Anomaly Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15: Short Answer Test. They have no difficulty in accurately describing the scenes they are viewing but are unable to identify those items that would be out of context.

15. How would you know a person with a temporal lobe personality if you met one?

ANSWER: These individuals exhibit a variety of symptoms, including egocentricity, speech perseveration, paranoia, preoccupation with religion, and aggressive outbursts. It should be noted that most patients will not exhibit this entire constellation of symptoms but most likely a subset.

16. Identify five standard clinical neuropsychological tests for temporal-lobe damage and the cognitive functions they are intended to evaluate.

ANSWER: The standard clinical neuropsychological tests are dichotic listening for auditory processing; the Wechsler Memory Scale–IV for general memory (it can include subtests: paired associates and logical stories); the Rey Complex Figure for nonverbal memory; the Token Test for language comprehension; and the Visual Object and Space Perception Battery for visual-processing ability.

17. Choose one standard clinical neuropsychological test used to assess temporal lobe function and describe it in some detail. Identify the specific cognitive function it is intended to evaluate.

ANSWER: A possible answer involves the Rey Complex Figure Test, which uses a geometric figure with multiple components. Patients initially are instructed to copy the figure. After a 45-minute delay (where intervening assessments are usually administered), patients are then reminded of the figure and instructed to draw it from memory as best they can. This test has been useful in the assessment of nonverbal memory as well as hemispatial neglect (attention). Additionally, patients with differing clinical pathologies have been shown to make specific types of spatial errors.

18. Emotion is intrinsically tied to learning. Explain the amygdala's function in learning.

ANSWER: The amygdala functions to give an affective response to a stimulus. Connecting sensory information with emotion, which is associated with the amygdala, is essential for learning. As a stimulus is connected with consequences—whether positive, negative, or neutral—the individual will learn through successive trials to associate the stimuli with that positive, negative, or neutral emotion. If the connection is positive, the participant would likely engage in the behavior with the stimuli more than if it were negative.

19. Explain how an individual with damage to the hippocampus would appear to make typical movements in a novel setting.

ANSWER: The individual would be able to rely on his dorsal visual system to make visually guided movement around the space. In an individual without temporal damage, the hippocampus would be functioning to aid spatial navigation.

20. Explain how the TE neurons learn how to categorize visual stimuli.

ANSWER: Within the inferotemporal region, neurons are clustered in columns that attend to shapes or forms that are like one another. Within the column, the cells are attuned to shapes that are not the same but are similar in nature. When presented with visual stimuli, the TE neurons work within the cluster to identify and categorize said stimuli.

21. Why is it evolutionarily important for the visual system within the temporal lobe to change in response to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15: Short Answer experience?

ANSWER: From an evolutionary perspective, animals and humans must adapt to their ever-changing environments. Therefore, to better process and understand environments that have changed over time, the brain has experience-dependent visual neurons that allow for the identification and categorization of new stimuli that may not have been encountered before.

22. In a world of social media and selfies, explain the dissatisfaction many feel with photographs of themselves.

ANSWER: An individual's perception of her face comes from her own view of herself—usually through a mirror—so in fact, she is viewing a reversed image of her face. Resulting from this perception, individuals do not see themselves the way others do. So when taking a selfie, an individual may attempt to take multiple photos with differing angles to appease the feeling that the photograph is not right.

Match the brain area with the correct option. a. insula b. amygdala c. superior temporal sulcus d. inferotemporal cortex (TE) 23. taste perception ANSWER: a 24. fearful states ANSWER: b 25. social cognition ANSWER: c 26. visual input ANSWER: d Match each function or disability with the most appropriate anatomical region. a. perception of facial features b. perception of environmental scenes c. pitch discrimination d. periodicity pitch discrimination 27. fusiform gyrus ANSWER: a 28. parahippocampal place area ANSWER: b 29. Heschl's gyrus Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15: Short Answer ANSWER: c 30. Heschl's gyrus ANSWER: d Match the symptoms with the most appropriate temporal lobe region. a. impaired pitch perception b. impaired visual perception c. impaired long-term memory d. impaired language perception 31. Brodmann's area 41, right hemisphere ANSWER: a 32. Brodmann's area 37, both hemispheres ANSWER: b 33. hippocampus, both hemispheres ANSWER: c 34. Brodmann's area 42, left hemisphere ANSWER: d Match each neuropsychological test with the function it is designed to assess. a. dichotic words or melodies b. Wechsler Memory Scale c. Token Test d. Rey Complex Figure Test 35. auditory processing ANSWER: a 36. verbal memory ANSWER: b 37. language comprehension ANSWER: c 38. nonverbal memory ANSWER: d

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Chapter 16: Multiple Choice 1. Broca's area MOST closely corresponds to Brodmann's area: a. 47. b. 44. c. 16. d. 9.

ANSWER: b 2. The prefrontal cortex is defined as the region that receives projections from the: a. ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus. b. lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus. c. dorsomedial nucleus of the thalamus. d. occipitoparietal association cortex.

ANSWER: c 3. Which region of the frontal cortex is characterized by the presence of multimodal neurons? a. area 46 b. area 4 c. area 11 d. area 10 ANSWER: a 4. Which of these is a subdivision of the prefrontal cortex? a. frontal eye fields b. the supplementary motor cortex c. Broca's area d. orbitofrontal cortex ANSWER: d 5. Impaired olfactory discrimination is typically found with damage to the _____ area of the frontal lobes. a. dorsolateral b. prefrontal c. premotor d. orbital ANSWER: d 6. With which region of the frontal cortex are the anterior temporal lobes MOST closely connected? a. orbitofrontal b. frontal eye fields c. primary motor cortex d. supplementary motor area Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16: Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 7. Regions of the orbitofrontal cortex that are active in response to unpleasant environmental stimuli are MOST strongly connected to the: a. amygdala and thalamus. b. amygdala and hypothalamus. c. hippocampus and thalamus. d. hippocampus and insula.

ANSWER: b 8. For which of these are you MOST likely to engage your prefrontal cortex? a. auditory processing of words b. successfully hitting a pitched fastball c. plotting a chess move d. moving a chess pawn forward ANSWER: c 9. The broad ability to implement appropriate behavioral strategies in response to internal and external cues is known as: a. supervisory function. b. working memory. c. executive function. d. reasoning ability.

ANSWER: c 10. A subject who is asked to learn an arbitrary stimulus–response association would exhibit relatively more activity in the: a. premotor cortex. b. supplementary motor cortex. c. prefrontal cortex. d. frontal eye fields.

ANSWER: a 11. Which activity BEST exemplifies temporal memory? a. recognizing your best friend from high school after having been away at college for a year b. recalling which of your assignments you most recently worked on c. riding a bicycle for the first time since last summer d. All of these activities best exemplify temporal memory.

ANSWER: b 12. The tendency of patients with frontal lesions to engage in inappropriate behaviors may be attributed to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16: Multiple Choice difficulties in guiding behavior using: a. working memory. b. social context. c. visual perception. d. somatosensory maps.

ANSWER: b 13. A subject who, after sustaining a closed-head injury, has difficulty remembering significant personal details and feeling emotional connections to formerly close friends is likely suffering from a problem with: a. subjective awareness. b. implicit memory. c. impulse control. d. autonoetic awareness.

ANSWER: d 14. Assume you are a research participant and are going to undergo an fMRI. The task you are given to perform involves viewing some highly provocative, intensely arousing images and then making some judgements. Given the emotional content of the pictures, your best guess regarding the region the researchers are studying is the: a. posterior zone of the ACC. b. middle zone of the ACC. c. anterior zone of the MFC. d. middle zone of the MFC. ANSWER: d 15. Which statement presents an explanation for why it's so difficult to study the orbitofrontal cortex? a. An injury there typically results in diffuse, not focal, lesions. b. Researchers have a difficult time designing a sensitive test to assess related lesions. c. The orbitofrontal cortex doesn't serve a significant function. d. It is rare for this region to be damaged, so research funding is limited.

ANSWER: a 16. The sensory system MOST affected by an orbital lesion appears to be that of: a. vision. b. touch. c. olfaction. d. hearing.

ANSWER: c 17. The area that has been proposed as crucial for the programming of movement sequences is the: a. premotor cortex. b. orbital cortex.

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Chapter 16: Multiple Choice c. primary motor cortex. d. red nucleus.

ANSWER: a 18. Patients with frontal-lobe lesions make a significant number of errors on facial movement tasks.

Specifically, they exhibit problems with: a. involuntary movement. b. learning new semantic information. c. sequencing the correct order of movements d. involuntary eye gaze.

ANSWER: c 19. Teuber (1964) proposed that the reason the world does not appear to move when we voluntarily move our eyes is because of a(n) _____ that is produced along with the signal that actually produces the eye movement. a. intentional saccade b. inhibitory impulse c. involuntary nystagmus d. corollary discharge ANSWER: d 20. There are significant differences in the nature of cognitive deficits exhibited between patients with frontal lesions versus those with posterior damage, such that those with frontal damage have difficulty with all of these EXCEPT: a. divergent thinking. b. verbal output. c. rule following. d. convergent thinking.

ANSWER: d 21. Following damage to the left supplementary speech area and medial frontal cortex, subjects would have great problems: a. producing grammatically correct speech. b. speaking with normal prosody. c. speaking spontaneously. d. speaking when prompted.

ANSWER: c 22. A subject's inability to produce more than a few minor variations on an initial design, after being asked to make as many novel designs as possible, would lead you to suspect _____ damage. a. left frontal-lobe b. right frontal-lobe Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16: Multiple Choice c. left parietal-lobe d. right parietal-lobe ANSWER: b 23. Patients with damage to the prefrontal cortex are likely to: a. be distracted by external cues. b. have impaired declarative memory. c. have difficulty sequencing finger movements. d. depend on internal cues to guide behavior.

ANSWER: a 24. The principal location of frontal-lobe damage that results in perseveration on the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test appears to be: a. area 11. b. area 9. c. area 47. d. the frontal eye fields.

ANSWER: b 25. If you wished to evaluate your patient for response inhibition, which test would be MOST useful? a. the Token Test b. the Thurstone Word Fluency Test c. standard IQ tests d. the Stroop Test ANSWER: d 26. According to a study by Hsu and colleagues (2005), decision-making tasks that are high in ambiguity activate the: a. orbitofrontal cortex and amygdala. b. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex and amygdala. c. superior temporal sulcus and hypothalamus. d. orbitofrontal cortex and hippocampus.

ANSWER: a 27. In experiments with nonhuman primates, damage to the _____ has been found to produce a deficit in spatial working memory. a. principal sulcus b. orbital cortex c. primary motor cortex d. superior temporal sulcus ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16: Multiple Choice 28. Poor temporal memory is a common symptom of damage to the _____ cortex. a. supplementary motor b. ventrolateral prefrontal c. orbitofrontal d. dorsolateral prefrontal ANSWER: d 29. On the basis of electrophysiological studies of monkeys, the ability of humans to judge which of two objects was seen most recently would be expected to be associated with selective activation of: a. frontal eye fields. b. the orbitofrontal cortex. c. the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex. d. No such conclusions can be drawn from these monkey studies.

ANSWER: c 30. Dominant (alpha) male monkeys subjected to prefrontal cortical damage _____ when returned to their social group. a. maintained their previously dominant role b. were unable to maintain their previously dominant role c. engaged in more coalition-building behavior than usual d. engaged in more frequent sexual behavior than usual ANSWER: b 31. Difficulty in solving the Tower of London task after frontal-lobe damage suggests impairment in: a. fine motor movements. b. response inhibition. c. planning. d. peripheral vision.

ANSWER: c 32. Tests measuring finger-tapping speed and grip strength BEST measure the function of the _____ gyrus. a. superior frontal b. premotor c. postcentral d. precentral ANSWER: d 33. Abnormalities in the dopamine-containing projection from the brainstem to the frontal cortex are believed by many scientists to be involved in: a. epilepsy.

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Chapter 16: Multiple Choice b. major depressive disorder. c. anterograde amnesia. d. schizophrenia.

ANSWER: d 34. If you were assessing a patient, to arrive at a differential diagnosis of frontal lobe injury, you would want to include tests that tap into which of these? a. fluid thinking b. divergent thinking c. parallel thinking d. convergent thinking ANSWER: b 35. You and a group of students are in the process of planning a major fundraising event for a local charity. To ensure success, one of you is in charge of monitoring the progress of the individual subcommittees and responding to planning needs requests. Given that this requires keen focus on the details as well as overarching goals, it can be said that your task requires a cool executive function such as: a. covert attention. b. sensory memory. c. iconic memory. d. sustained attention.

ANSWER: d 36. The superior diagnostic abilities of Dr. Gregory House were due in part to his vast experience acquired while engaged in the practice of medicine. You could say that he has a very high level of _____ intelligence. a. crystallized b. fluid c. divergent d. artificial ANSWER: a 37. From an evolutionary perspective, what do researchers believe contributed to our enhanced problem-solving abilities? a. superior fighting skills b. foraging skills associated with acquiring food c. diplomacy skills to make peace with others d. increased reproductive activity ANSWER: b 38. A woman comes to your office to discuss a family member she hopes you will be able to evaluate. Her uncle recently sustained a traumatic brain injury, and she has noticed significant changes in his behavior that Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16: Multiple Choice have become concerning. Whereas he was always very outgoing, chatting up friends and strangers alike, now he barely engages in conversation. He was very aware of how his clothing represented how others would view him. But currently, he seems apathetic in all areas of his appearance; some days, he can't even summon the energy to take a shower. Based on the woman's depiction, what might you suspect is going on with this patient? a. unilateral depression b. dysthymia c. pseudodepression d. manic depression ANSWER: c 39. The Design Fluency Test is very sensitive to elucidating specific symptoms of frontal-lobe damage. When discerning whether there is left versus right frontal-lobe involvement, what pattern of results is expected? a. Those with left frontal-lobe lesions will produce an increased number of drawings relative to those with right frontal-lobe lesions. b. Those with right-frontal lobe lesions will produce an increased number of drawings relative to those with right frontal-lobe lesions. c. There is no statistical difference in the number of drawings produced by patients with left or right frontal-lobe lesions. d. There is a statistical difference—but no clinical difference—between patients with left versus right frontal-lobe injury.

ANSWER: a 40. Research suggests that environmental stimuli activate the _____ network when stimuli are important to the individual and require a behavioral response. a. recognition b. salience c. default mode d. spatial ANSWER: b

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Chapter 16: Short Answer 1. How would you answer someone who asked, “Are the frontal lobes in primates the site of advanced mammalian behavior?”

ANSWER: Yes, the frontal lobes govern many complex behaviors performed by primates, including various forms of memory, analyses of context cues, speech production (in the case of human primates), inhibition of responses that may be reflexive but inappropriate in specific situations, and selfawareness. As the text states, all roads lead to the frontal cortices.

2. Define the following terms: prefrontal cortex, frontal eye fields, corollary discharge. How are the last two related?

ANSWER: The prefrontal cortex is located at the most anterior portion of the brain and is engaged in several functions, including executive function, response inhibition, and memory. Corollary discharge refers to the ability of your environment to remain stable as you move through it—the eyes adjustment to a dynamic field. The frontal eye fields contain cells that fire simultaneously with eye movements. It appears they are monitoring movements, and this is the most likely source of corollary discharge.

3. Differentiate between the roles of premotor and supplementary motor cortices in the sequencing of motor movements.

ANSWER: The premotor region selects appropriate motoric behavior based primarily on external/environmental cues, while the supplementary motor regions respond to internal cues in the absence of external cues. Additionally, the supplementary motor region is more active in the sequencing of motor responses as opposed to repetitive movements (again, in relation to internally directed cues).

4. What are the effects of left or right unilateral frontal lesions on verbal fluency, design copying, and understanding the meaning of proverbs?

ANSWER: The left hemisphere governs verbal behaviors, and lesions would impair performance on verbal fluency more so than design copying, which is more of a right-hemisphere domain. However, understanding proverbs requires both hemispheres to be intact.

5. What is the “problem” for which the concept of corollary discharge is the “answer”?

ANSWER: The problem is what can be described as the difference between voluntary eye movements and those movements generated externally, as when you press upon the eye. When you move your eyes, there is both the actual movement and a signal that there will be a movement. For the external world to remain stable as the eyes move, both types of activation are necessary. The frontal areas (such as frontal eye fields) sending signals to other visual spatial regions allows for this interpretation.

6. What are the general effects of frontal lesions on divergent thinking? On convergent thinking?

ANSWER: Frontal-lesion effects on divergent thinking are manifest by deficits in fluency (low output) and decreased spontaneity. Additionally, patients with frontal-lobe lesions have difficulty following rules despite acknowledging they know the rules (of a test). They also have problems with strategy formation and/or generating alternative solutions to problems. These patients have less of a problem with tasks requiring convergent thinking.

7. Just as you are about to complain to a friend about the unjustly bad grade you received on a recent exam, you recognize your professor approaching. You manage to smile and withhold your angry comments until he passes Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16: Short Answer out of earshot. Describe the brain regions and their respective functions likely to have been particularly involved in helping you to avoid this potentially embarrassing social situation.

ANSWER: This behavior could be described as emotional regulation or response inhibition. Instead of lashing out with an angry comment that could be overheard (a behavior that would be socially inappropriate), your prefrontal cortices—and more specifically your ventral medial prefrontal cortex—mediate the more socially acceptable smile. The amygdala projections to frontal regions are also likely to contribute.

8. Describe the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test and the Stroop Test. What aspect of cognition appears to be responsible for performance on these tasks?

ANSWER: The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test consists of four stimulus cards that have four different shapes and four different colors, as well as varying numbers of items. With minimal instruction (only whether the action taken was correct or incorrect), the patient has to determine the rule for matching a card to one of the stimulus cards—for example, matching based on the color blue, the triangle shape, or the number of stars. The examiner changes the rule once the patient has achieved 10 successes. The Stroop Test has three trials. The first is reading the names of colors written in black ink; the second requires naming the ink colors depicted in X’s; the last trial requires the patient to name the color of the ink while inhibiting the response to read the name of a different color. Because the proponent response is to read, this task requires strong response inhibition to override. Both tasks require executive functions; mental flexibility is especially important for the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test and shifting strategies.

9. Relate the effects of frontal-lobe lesions on the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST) to the effects of such lesions on social behavior.

ANSWER: Frontal-lobe lesions have consistently produced impaired performance on tests where responses require mental flexibility, such as the WCST. Patients often have problems inhibiting responses once they start with a course of action (such as matching cards based on color) they cannot learn from experience, and they continue to make the same mistakes repeatedly. As to how these types of lesions would affect social behavior, these patients tend to engage in risky behavior (evidence from gambling tasks demonstrates this behavior). They also have problems with self-regulation, which undoubtedly leads to diminished social interactions (acting socially inappropriately will result in fewer social encounters). Depending upon whether the damage is bilateral, left hemisphere, or right hemisphere, the patient may have flat affect or no facial expressions, or she could exhibit increased behaviors, such as talking excessively and impulsive actions.

10. Discuss the relationship between prefrontal cortex anatomy, performance on a gambling task, and addictive behaviors.

ANSWER: Orbitofrontal lesions produce impaired ability on gambling tasks with increased risk taking and difficulty making good decisions. The neuronal changes that occur in the orbitofrontal cortex in response to drug abuse are also associated with increased risk taking, impulsive behavior, and poor decision making.

11. Describe the neural networks that support successful performance of Bechara and Damasio's gambling task.

ANSWER: The orbitofrontal cortex and amygdala are involved in evaluation of risk—that is, high versus low payouts and penalties.

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Chapter 16: Short Answer 12. Describe some data that suggest the frontal cortex is important in short-term memory.

ANSWER: Delayed-response tasks in monkeys and delayed nonmatching to sample tasks have been used to measure short-term memory. Lesions to area 10 and area 32 impair performance. Also, studies show area 46 guides responses to remembered locations.

13. What are two possible interpretations of Passingham's findings concerning area 46 lesions in monkeys?

ANSWER: Area 46 provides internal information on spatial locations. Also, area 46 actively holds onto the information to act on it later.

14. Compare and contrast the effects of temporal and frontal lobe lesions on tests of recency memory.

ANSWER: Frontal-lobe damage results in a deficit in the ability to recognize the recency of stimuli. There is an asymmetrical component such that the right frontal lobe mediates nonverbal/pictorial recency memory, and the left frontal lobe is key for verbal aspects. Neither lobe has a problem with recognition memory tasks. Temporal-lobe lesions result in impaired performance on recognition tasks but not recency-based tasks.

15. Distinguish between pseudopsychopathy and pseudodepression, functionally and anatomically.

ANSWER: Pseudopsychopathy involves right orbitofrontal lesions and is characterized by the following: lack of restraint; promiscuous sexual behavior; and brash, tactless interactions with others.

Pseudodepression involves left orbitofrontal damage and is characterized by decreased verbal output, apathy, loss of initiative, little affect, decreased interest in sex, and indifference.

16. Name four cognitive skills impaired by dorsolateral frontal-cortex damage.

ANSWER: Impaired cognitive skills are temporal memory, strategy formation, associate learning (the ability to learn from experience), response inhibition, and the ability to override the proponent response.

17. Explain why it is that two patients who have sustained a traumatic brain injury may present with an entirely different constellation of symptoms.

ANSWER: The overarching explanation for these patients exhibiting varying symptom profiles is the incredible level of heterogeneity of the frontal lobe. There are many functions ascribed to the frontal lobes, with some differences even manifesting as a result of hemisphere asymmetries. Added to the complexity of functional networks of this region is the diffuse nature of traumatic brain injury (TBI). It is unlikely that a TBI would result in focal damage. In the majority of cases, these type of injuries affect both frontal lobe and associated networks through connections with parietal and temporal lobes. Therefore, not all patients will exhibit the same symptoms or even all potential symptoms associated with damage to the frontal lobes. Lastly, the extent to which lesions to regions underlying a particular function vary in size also contributes to these differences.

18. Compare and contrast the functions DLPFC and vmPFC/OFC. How might you assess functionality in these regions?

ANSWER: The dorsolateral prefrontal cortex underlies a large set of cognitive abilities. Under the umbrella term of executive functions, the DLPFC contributes to planning, problem solving, strategy formation, temporal memory, and attentional control. These have also been referred to as cool cognitions. The ventromedial prefrontal cortex and relatedly the orbitofrontal cortex contribute more to affective behaviors such as motivation, emotional regulation, and gambling.

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Chapter 16: Short Answer Assessments for DLPFC include the Wisconsin Card Sorting Task; assessments for the vmPFC, include the gambling task.

19. Animal research has indicated that frontal-lobe lesions result in diminished performance on a delayedresponse task. Describe the delayed non-match-to sample task. How might results from this study impact patients with frontal lobe damage?

ANSWER: The animal first encounters an unfamiliar object, which it learns to associate with a food reward.

After a delay, the animal is then confronted with the old object and a new object. It must remember the old object to find the reward under the new object. Researchers state that this type of task requires short-term memory for objects; thus, it's likely that patients with damage to these areas may fail at the execution of short-term strategies that rely on the ability to retain memory of relevant objects.

20. Literature supports the theory that the vmPFC has several connections with subcortical structures. Name three and discuss how these connections impact function.

ANSWER: Amygdala, hypothalamus, and periaqueductal gray (PAG). The amygdala plays a role in monitoring the environment for threats; connections with the hypothalamus can initiate a flight-or-fight response in the face of threatening stimuli, which could be in the form of either physical or emotional threats (i.e., panic or anxiety disorders). The PAG contributes to species-specific behaviors (as well as pain response) and thus through connections with vmPFC, when an individual encounters an emotionally charged situation, it will likely respond in a manner that would be predictable based on the species, such as dogs showing their teeth, or rats freezing in fear.

For each symptom, match the corresponding behavioral deficit. a. loss of fluent speech b. altered sexual behavior c. poor voluntary control of gaze d. loss of fine movements 21. Broca's area ANSWER: a 22. the orbital cortex ANSWER: b 23. frontal eye fields ANSWER: c 24. the primary motor cortex ANSWER: d Match each test with the item it is designed to test for. a. Wisconsin Card Sorting Test b. standard IQ test Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 16: Short Answer c. Word Fluency Test d. delayed nonmatching to sample 25. response inhibition ANSWER: a 26. convergent thinking ANSWER: b 27. behavioral spontaneity ANSWER: c 28. temporal memory ANSWER: d

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Chapter 17: Multiple Choice 1. Damage to the body (middle region) of the corpus callosum would MOST likely impair a subject's ability to: a. match left and right limb position with eyes closed. b. use external cues to control impulsive behavior. c. read aloud words presented selectively to the right hemisphere. d. name an odor presented to the right nostril.

ANSWER: a 2. The term disconnection syndrome is used to describe the behavioral effects of: a. an interruption of communication between two cerebral regions. b. the destruction of one or more cortical regions contributing to a neural network. c. the disruption of communication between the brainstem and cerebrum. d. psychiatric disorders characterized by out-of-body experiences.

ANSWER: a 3. If Downer had sectioned all commissures but left the optic chiasm intact: a. he would have found exactly the same results as if the optic chiasm had also been sectioned. b. the animal would have appeared wild regardless of which side the stimulus was presented on. c. the animal would have appeared tame regardless of which side the stimulus was presented on. d. the animal would have reacted with aggression but not appeared wild.

ANSWER: b 4. The single region of the rhesus monkey brain that does NOT have many interhemispheric connections is: a. the insular cortex. b. the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex. c. the primary visual cortex. d. Wernicke's area.

ANSWER: c 5. Those areas of the monkey neocortex that receive the densest interhemispheric connections are those that: a. are phylogenetically oldest. b. are most commonly damaged by trauma, stroke, and so on. c. represent the lateral portions of the body. d. represent the midline portions of the body.

ANSWER: d 6. The MOST posterior portion of the corpus callosum is called the: a. splenium. b. genu. c. uncinate. d. rostrum.

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Chapter 17: Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 7. Most projections of the corpus callosum are: a. organized topographically and project ipsilaterally. b. diffusely distributed and project contralaterally. c. organized topographically and project contralaterally. d. organized homotopically and project subcortically.

ANSWER: c 8. In cases of agenesis of the corpus callosum, which structure would you expect to be larger than normal? a. hippocampal commissure b. visual cortex (area 17) c. anterior commissure d. fornix ANSWER: c 9. Similar to the function of the corpus callosum, the anterior commissure connects parts of various brain regions, including all of these EXCEPT the: a. amygdala. b. hippocampus. c. anterior temporal lobe. d. paralimbic cortex.

ANSWER: b 10. Analysis of cerebral “hub networks” shows a differential pattern of connectivity among brain regions such that the: a. posterior cingulate exhibits among the highest level of connectivity. b. anterior cingulate exhibits among the highest level of connectivity. c. middle temporal gyrus exhibits among the highest level of connectivity. d. insular cortex exhibits among the highest level of connectivity.

ANSWER: a 11. A study by Steele and colleagues used DTI to examine white-matter organization in early-trained versus late-trained musicians. Results indicated which pattern of connectivity? a. The size of the posterior corpus callosum increased in early-trained musicians. b. The size of the anterior corpus callosum increased in late-trained musicians. c. The size of the posterior corpus callosum decreased in early-trained musicians. d. The size of the anterior and posterior corpus callosum was equivalent in both groups of musicians.

ANSWER: a 12. In Liepmann's theory of left-hand apraxia, the MOST likely location of the lesion would be: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: Multiple Choice a. the posterior corpus callosum. b. the anterior corpus callosum. c. Broca's area. d. the anterior commissure.

ANSWER: b 13. Mishkin and his colleagues have extended the study of cortical disconnection to: a. animal models using monkeys. b. human split-brain subjects. c. animal models using rats and mice. d. computer simulations of behavior.

ANSWER: a 14. Commissurotomy is performed in humans primarily as a treatment for: a. schizophrenia. b. severe migraine headaches. c. Parkinson disease. d. epilepsy.

ANSWER: d 15. The surgical severing of interhemispheric fiber pathways is called: a. hemispherectomy. b. commissurotomy. c. leukotomy. d. colostomy.

ANSWER: b 16. Compared with individuals commissurotomized in adulthood, subjects with agenesis of the corpus callosum: a. show virtually the same behavioral patterns. b. have difficulty with interhemispheric transfer of complex stimuli. c. show no differences from normal, intact subjects. d. have more right-hemisphere language localization than the general population.

ANSWER: b 17. In those individuals who undergo a callosal transection, which statement is true? a. Ipsilateral pathways may become stronger in younger patients. b. Ipsilateral pathways are enhanced regardless of the age at transection. c. New contralateral pathways are formed in younger patients. d. New contralateral pathways can be generated at any age.

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Chapter 17: Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 18. The only sensory system with afferent fibers that do NOT cross is the _____ system. a. olfactory b. auditory c. somatosensory d. vestibular ANSWER: a 19. Olfactory information crosses from one hemisphere to the other via the: a. corpus callosum. b. olfactory commissure. c. anterior commissure. d. hippocampal commissure.

ANSWER: c 20. A subject with damage to the anterior commissure would be impaired on a task examining interhemispheric transfer of _____ stimuli. a. visual b. tactile c. vestibular d. olfactory ANSWER: d 21. Functionally, the visual system is entirely crossed, such that stimuli in the left-visual field are initially processed by the right-visual cortical areas and vice versa. Which system is MOST similar to vision in this regard? a. audition b. somatosensory c. olfaction d. taste ANSWER: b 22. If a familiar object were placed out of sight in the left hand of a commissurotomy patient, that person: a. would fail to recognize the object. b. could identify it verbally, if prompted. c. could point to a matching object only with his right hand. d. could point to a matching object only with his left hand.

ANSWER: d 23. On which task would you expect to see the LEAST impairment following hemispheric disconnection?

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Chapter 17: Multiple Choice a. puzzle assembly b. dichotic listening c. tactile apperception d. chimeric face perception ANSWER: b 24. A patient with a complete transection of the corpus callosum would have particular difficulty proficiently: a. writing a letter using a pencil or pen. b. using a canoe paddle. c. using a gaming console. d. pouring coffee into a cup.

ANSWER: c 25. Impairments in bimanual coordination following hemispheric disconnection appeared to be reduced when subjects performed actions that required: a. a high degree of conscious control. b. a minimal degree of conscious control. c. manipulation of household objects. d. new stimulus–response learning.

ANSWER: b 26. Damage to the splenium of the corpus callosum would MOST probably result in: a. loss of bimanual coordination. b. nonfluent aphasia. c. visual agnosia. d. acopia.

ANSWER: c 27. Imaging studies of subject M.C. have shown that following callosotomy, there is _____ to the site of sensory stimulation. a. increased neural activity ipsilateral b. increased neural activity contralateral c. decreased neural activity ipsilateral d. decreased neural activity contralateral ANSWER: c 28. According to Geschwind's disconnection theory, bilateral apraxia occurs when there is a disconnection of: a. auditory and speech areas in the left hemisphere. b. motor and speech areas in the left hemisphere. c. motor and auditory areas in the right hemisphere. d. motor and speech areas in the right hemisphere.

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Chapter 17: Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 29. The 1965 monograph “Disconnexion Syndromes in Animals and Man” reintroduces a concept introduced many years earlier by: a. Geschwind. b. Sperry and Gazzaniga. c. Kimura and Hampson. d. Dejerine and Liepmann.

ANSWER: d 30. Visual agnosia and alexia are each probably due to damage to white matter in the _____ hemisphere. a. anterior left b. posterior left c. anterior right d. posterior right ANSWER: b 31. Hub disconnection provides a possible explanation for severe chronic deficits exhibited by which patient population? a. contralateral neglect b. Huntington disease c. epilepsy d. traumatic brain injury ANSWER: d 32. The lesion MOST associated with hemispatial neglect is the: a. gray matter of the right posterior parietal cortex. b. gray matter of the left posterior parietal cortex. c. white matter of the right posterior parietal cortex d. white matter of the left posterior parietal cortex.

ANSWER: c 33. Mapping of the fiber projections within the corpus callosum has been MOST useful in: a. understanding the functions of the hippocampus. b. understanding the function and location of intercortical connections. c. treating traumatic brain injuries. d. understanding the potential loss of function following transection of the anterior commissure.

ANSWER: b 34. What is the functional reasoning of denser interconnections in the corpus callosum? a. due to localization and laterization of sensory processing Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: Multiple Choice b. due to the contralateral processing of motor function c. due to behaviors within the central area of the body requiring the action and cooperation of both hemispheres d. due to sensory function, except tactile and pressure, requiring interhemispheric communication ANSWER: c 35. What is a potential cause of changes in structure of the anterior commissure in individuals born without a corpus callosum? a. Brain plasticity allows for the growth and further extensions of the anterior commissure to compensate for the lack of corpus callosum. b. Without the corpus callosum, the anterior commissure can grow unimpeded. c. Abnormalities causing the lack of corpus callosum would also reduce the size of the anterior commissure. d. The lack of corpus callosum would stunt the growth of fiber projections from the anterior commissure.

ANSWER: a 36. Why would disconnection between the corpus callosum not be the first diagnostic consideration with a patient presenting with apraxia without weakness of the left hand? a. Weakness of the hand would be necessary for indicating disruption of corpus callosum functioning. b. Natural disconnection of the corpus callosum is rare. c. Without brain trauma, a full callosal disconnection is unlikely. d. Disconnection of the anterior commissure would be considered prior to that of the corpus callosum.

ANSWER: b 37. Which of these would MOST likely cause bilateral apraxia? a. lesion of the splenium within the corpus callosum b. lesion disconnecting the anterior speech zone from the corpus callosum c. lesion disconnecting the anterior and posterior speech zones d. lesion disconnecting the posterior speech zone from the left-hemisphere motor cortex ANSWER: d 38. Parents were concerned about their child's lack of expressive and receptive language. Following a series of tests, including an MRI, the parents learned that their child did not have autism spectrum disorder; rather, he had a(n): a. agenesis of the corpus callosum. b. lesion in the amygdala. c. malformed anterior commissure. d. increased amount of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain.

ANSWER: a 39. A patient presented to his primary care physician with intermittent difficulties with olfaction. The patient Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: Multiple Choice informed the doctor that the inability to smell appeared to be specific to the right nostril. Following further examination, the patient learned that there was no physical problem of the nose. What could be a likely cause of the anosmia? a. disconnection between the corpus callosum and motor cortex b. lesion of the primary visual cortex c. lesion of the anterior commissure d. disconnection between the ventral hippocampal commissure and the amygdala ANSWER: c 40. Split-brain patients who are presented with visual information will appear aphasic if asked to give a verbal response when the information is presented _____, and they will appear similar to the general population when the information is presented to _____. a. only to the left hemisphere; both hemispheres b. only to the right hemisphere; left hemisphere c. to both hemispheres; the left hemisphere d. to both hemispheres; the right hemisphere ANSWER: b

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Chapter 17: Short Answer 1. Could one reproduce Downer's experiment with commissurotomy patients? If no, why not?

ANSWER: No, you could not reproduce this experiment with commissurotomy patients because a key element of Downer's design also included removal of the amygdala. His results indicated that if there was an intact amygdala, the species' typical behaviors to visual stimuli would be exhibited—as would be the case with commissurotomy patients.

2. What do discussions regarding disconnecting cognitive functions conclude about the concept of localization of function within the brain?

ANSWER: Although it is clear there are some localized regions of functioning, there is considerable overlap. It is likely that several neural networks work in concert to carry out most functions—at least to a large degree.

3. Identify and provide a brief description of the three major types of fiber pathways found in the neocortex.

ANSWER: The three major types are association pathways, connecting distal areas or subcortical areas with the neocortex; projection pathways, with ascending and descending fibers; and commissural pathways, connecting the two hemispheres.

4. Speculate in an informed manner as to why the corpus callosum evolved. (Not all mammals have one, by the way—for example, marsupials do not have a corpus callosum.)

ANSWER: It could be that the corpus callosum evolved as primates' cognitive abilities became more sophisticated. It is noted in the text that distal limbs don't share any connections because by design they can function independently and don't require connection. Higher-level cognitive abilities can benefit from communication, whether it's language or solving an elaborate computational problem.

5. What is meant by the term topographic with respect to callosal organization?

ANSWER: Topographic organization means that the projections of the corpus callosum (in this case, but other regions also have topographic organization) connect to homotopic areas, meaning identical points in the two hemispheres. This type of organization means that regions of each hemisphere are knitted together at the midline so that they are functionally connected (zipper hypothesis).

6. What is the zipper hypothesis?

ANSWER: The zipper hypothesis states that the corpus callosum “knits” together representations of the body's midpoints and central space that are divided by the longitudinal fissure.

7. Describe the three general classes of projections of corpus callosal fibers.

ANSWER: Topographic connections that are homotopic connect identical points in the two hemispheres that relate to the body's midline. Projection zones within each hemisphere maintain connections with the contralateral hemisphere. The last group of projections has diffuse distribution, possibly to alert appropriate zones in one hemisphere that the other is active.

8. Explain the effects of early musical training on brain connectivity.

ANSWER: Research by Steele and colleagues used DTI methodology to examine the differences between musicians with early (before 7 years of age) training compared with those trained later in life.

Results indicated that posterior regions of the corpus callosum that connect the somatosensory cortical regions were significantly increased for those musicians trained early. The authors believe Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: Short Answer this increase was the result of early experience.

9. How would Liepmann account for apraxia of the left hand only? (Hint: a diagram may prove useful.)

ANSWER: When given a verbal command, the left-hemisphere language regions would comprehend the command and then need to “send” the information to the right-hemisphere motor region. If the corpus callosum were severed, this message would not be sent to the right hemisphere and subsequently would not be able to initiate the motor behavior.

10. What is the therapeutic value of the severing of commissures in the treatment of epilepsy?

ANSWER: Surgically cutting the cerebral commissures for intractable epilepsy (cases in which medication no longer effectively controls seizure activity) is performed to reduce the spread of seizure activity.

Following a couple years of recovery, the patient can return to work/school and appear basically normal.

11. Compare the verbal naming responses of commissurotomy patients with visual stimuli flashed to the left and right visual fields.

ANSWER: The surgery will isolate speech, such that the patient seeing visual stimuli flashed to the dominant (typically left) hemisphere will be able to speak, while patient seeing visual stimuli flashed to the nondominant hemisphere cannot. Following the recovery period, however, each hemisphere will be able to function independently, each with their own sensory and language function.

12. Discuss the ability of a blindfolded commissurotomy patient to verbally identify three-dimensional objects placed into either the left or right hand.

ANSWER: In this situation, the patient would be able to verbally identify objects in the right hand but not those held in the left hand.

13. Why do individuals with agenesis of the corpus callosum show fewer and milder cognitive deficits than do commissurotomy or “split brain” surgery patients?

ANSWER: Individuals with agenesis of the corpus callosum present with fewer deficits, possibly due to enhanced conduction in the remaining commissures, and because the damage was congenital, their brains likely developed a compensatory ability to use their uncrossed fibers.

14. How would an individual with agenesis of the corpus callosum respond to requests to verbally name odors presented to the left and to the right nostril? Justify your answer.

ANSWER: Individuals with corpus callosum agenesis could verbally identify odors presented to the left nostril, but they would not likely be able to identify those presented to the right. Olfaction is the only uncrossed sensory system, meaning smells presented to the left nostril will be projected to left hemisphere. If we assume that the anterior commissure is also underdeveloped, there will be no way for the left hemisphere to identify smells presented to the right nostril.

15. Explain why a split-brain patient will have difficulty copying a geometric design with his right hand.

ANSWER: This type of patient will have trouble with this task because the right hand would be disconnected from the right hemisphere, which would normally govern this type of task.

16. What is the proposed relationship between disconnection syndromes and the phenomenon of contralateral Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: Short Answer neglect?

ANSWER: The right parietotemporal junction is typically associated with neglect, and recent MRI analysis shows that white-matter damage (rather than gray-matter damage) is most closely associated with the symptoms.

17. Why do the authors suggest that disconnection hypotheses are applicable in brain dysfunction?

ANSWER: Developmental studies have found abnormalities in hub-region function and connectivity in cases of autism spectrum disorder. It also follows what we know about myelination being the last processes to develop. Earlier chapters indicated the corpus callosum doesn't complete the process of myelination until age 5.

18. Explain why a disconnection between two cerebral regions would produce consequences that are dissimilar to a lesion in one of the disconnected regions.

ANSWER: Due to the overlap of cortical functions across hemispheres of the brain, a disconnection would not necessarily equate with a loss of function between the disconnected regions.

19. Explain why the primary visual cortex lacks interhemispheric connections outside of those for the visual meridian.

ANSWER: Area V1 represents the visual experience topographically. Therefore, visual information entering the eye will map onto adjacent areas within the visual field and follow the same pattern within brain pathways, leading to no need for interconnections between half of the visual representation.

20. Explain the importance of modern animal disconnection studies.

ANSWER: Prior to the late 1950s, animal studies examining severed cortical connections did not demonstrate significant behavioral effects. Without the modern animal studies, using advanced behavioral testing, the impact of disconnection of the corpus callosum would not have been clearly demonstrated. These modern studies spurred further interest in potential deficits caused to other cortical disconnections in animals and then later in humans.

21. Explain how the behavior of split-brain patients can be similar to that of a typical patient.

ANSWER: Following commissurotomy surgery, the patient's cortical interconnections are severed. The patient's everyday behavior and abilities on standardized testing would not clearly delineate the individual as a split-brain patient. It is only through specialized neurological tests presenting information to one hemisphere while asking for a response from the other hemisphere that deficits can be demonstrated.

22. Explain how agenesis of the corpus callosum has supported the idea of localization and laterality of language.

ANSWER: In comparison to the general population, individuals with callosal agenesis demonstrate a consistent lateralization of language. These findings support the idea that the brain asymmetries occur outside of the presence of cortical interconnections.

23. Explain why a callosotomy patient may see marked improvement of apraxic symptoms months after the disconnection.

ANSWER: Following surgery, improvement may be seen due to the left hemisphere's ipsilateral control of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 17: Short Answer movement. Moreover, age may play a role in the rate of improvement. Individuals who underwent disconnection surgery at a younger age typically have less severe deficits.

For each researcher, choose the MOST appropriate contribution to neuropsychology. a. Wernicke b. Sperry c. Mishkin d. Geschwind 24. hypothesized conduction aphasia ANSWER: a 25. studied split-brain patients ANSWER: b 26. constructed animal models of disconnection syndromes ANSWER: c 27. defined disconnection syndromes ANSWER: d Technical vocabulary is important in understanding neuropsychology articles. Show your skill by matching each technical term with the correct definition. a. apraxia b. acopia c. anosmia d. alexia 28. inability to make coordinated voluntary movements ANSWER: a 29. difficulty copying geometric designs ANSWER: b 30. lack of sense of smell ANSWER: c 31. inability to read ANSWER: d

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Chapter 18: Multiple Choice 1. H.M. became amnesic as a result of: a. surgery for epilepsy. b. a brain infection. c. an automobile accident. d. bilateral ischemic strokes.

ANSWER: a 2. H.M. suffered from damage to the medial _____ lobes. a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital ANSWER: c 3. Falsely reporting a memory for words that are novel but semantically related to previously encountered words is: a. more common for patients with amnesia than for normal subjects. b. more common for normal subjects than for patients with amnesia. c. equally common for normal subjects and patients with amnesia. d. more common for people with epilepsy than for normal subjects.

ANSWER: b 4. The anatomical region that was surgically removed from H.M., resulting in his amnesia, is the: a. hippocampus. b. insula. c. middle temporal gyrus. d. mammillary bodies.

ANSWER: a 5. Memory impairment involving loss of one's personal history, termed fugue state, has been associated with temporary disruption to which structure? a. DLPFC b. medial temporal lobe structures c. posterior parietal cortex d. insula ANSWER: b 6. H.M. would have the greatest difficulty answering questions about: a. his name and childhood home address. b. what he ate for breakfast this morning. c. the number of days in the month of June.

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Chapter 18: Multiple Choice d. the name of his first-grade teacher.

ANSWER: b 7. Memory impairments associated with retrograde amnesia following traumatic brain injury are: a. more pronounced for older memories than for newer memories. b. more pronounced for newer memories than for older memories. c. the same regardless of the age of the memory. d. greatest for information learned after the point of injury.

ANSWER: b 8. The process by which newly acquired information becomes a stable, permanent memory is known as: a. consolidation. b. stabilization. c. reconsolidation. d. plastification.

ANSWER: a 9. The literature suggests our long-term memories become subject to modification when we recall them through the process of: a. fabrication. b. consolidation. c. reconsolidation. d. reconfiguration.

ANSWER: c 10. One of the proposed differences between implicit and explicit memory is that explicit memory depends on _____ processing to a greater extent than does implicit memory. a. “top-down” b. “bottom-up” c. neural d. temporal lobe ANSWER: a 11. Recalling the names of the friends who attended your 16th birthday party is an example of: a. implicit memory. b. episodic memory. c. semantic memory. d. semantic priming.

ANSWER: b 12. Your knowledge that George Washington was the first president of the United States is an example of: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18: Multiple Choice a. semantic memory. b. episodic memory. c. implicit memory. d. priming.

ANSWER: a 13. The results of cases such as that of M.L. indicate that autobiographic memory may depend on networks of structures in the _____ lobes. a. temporal and parietal b. frontal and parietal c. occipital and temporal d. frontal and temporal ANSWER: d 14. A patient who can recall the names of past presidents but cannot recall any specific memories from his own childhood would MOST probably be suffering from a disconnection syndrome involving the: a. uncinate fasciculus. b. corpus callosum. c. arcuate fasciculus. d. medial forebrain bundle.

ANSWER: a 15. In the explicit memory model proposed by the authors, the medial thalamus is reciprocally connected to the: a. brainstem monoaminergic cell groups. b. temporal-lobe structures. c. posterior parietal cortex. d. primary motor cortex.

ANSWER: b 16. Which ascending system in the brainstem do the regions that make up the explicit-memory circuit NOT receive input from? a. acetylcholine b. dopamine c. norepinephrine d. serotonin ANSWER: b 17. The weight of evidence now suggests that memory processes: a. require only temporal-lobe structures. b. depend on cortical and subcortical structures. c. require only neocortical networks.

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Chapter 18: Multiple Choice d. depend on a single anatomical system.

ANSWER: b 18. The efferents from the hippocampus that appear to be involved in temporal-lobe amnesia are found in the: a. fimbria fornix. b. hippocampal–amygdala bundle. c. uncinate fasciculus. d. corpus callosum.

ANSWER: a 19. Which brain structure is proposed by the authors to be involved in explicit memory processes? a. entorhinal cortex b. ventral thalamus c. basal ganglia d. cerebellum ANSWER: a 20. According to the HERA model, the right prefrontal cortex is particularly involved in _____, whereas of the left prefrontal cortex is primarily involved in _____. a. episodic memory encoding; episodic memory retrieval b. semantic memory encoding; semantic memory retrieval c. implicit memory encoding; explicit memory encoding d. episodic memory retrieval; episodic memory encoding ANSWER: d 21. Memory impairments observed in individuals with amnesia are MOST commonly observed in the domain of: a. classical conditioning. b. perceptual priming. c. skills memory. d. declarative memory.

ANSWER: d 22. The fact that H.M. showed improvement in the mirror-drawing task, despite having no conscious recollection of the task, demonstrated that he was still capable of forming _____ memories. a. implicit b. anterograde c. explicit d. retrograde ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18: Multiple Choice 23. Your memory of how to ride a bicycle is an example of a(n) _____ memory. a. retrograde b. explicit c. implicit d. episodic ANSWER: c 24. The finding that patients with amnesia show normal priming effects is evidence for: a. the independence of explicit and implicit memory. b. confabulation. c. the unreliability of findings with patients with amnesia. d. the lack of retrograde amnesia.

ANSWER: a 25. The Gollin incomplete-figures test is used to assess _____, a category of _____ memory. a. motor skills; implicit b. priming; explicit c. priming; implicit d. avoidance; emotional ANSWER: c 26. The anatomical model of implicit memory proposed by the authors supports a central role for the: a. premotor cortex. b. ventral thalamus. c. substantia nigra. d. basal ganglia.

ANSWER: d 27. Impaired implicit memory would MOST likely result from damage to the ascending modulatory neurotransmitter system, which releases: a. dopamine. b. acetylcholine. c. serotonin. d. norepinephrine.

ANSWER: a 28. Degeneration of the cells of the basal ganglia is responsible for: a. Parkinson disease. b. Huntington chorea. c. Korsakoff syndrome. d. Asperger syndrome.

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Chapter 18: Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 29. Evidence from individuals with Huntington disease suggests that the basal ganglia are particularly important for: a. explicit memory. b. implicit memory. c. conditioned response learning. d. episodic memory.

ANSWER: b 30. The acquisition of an associative memory for the pairing of a tone stimulus and an air puff to the eye depends on circuits in the: a. basal ganglia. b. cerebellum. c. amygdala. d. insula.

ANSWER: b 31. Fear conditioning is hypothesized to depend on connections between the: a. amygdala and hypothalamus. b. amygdala and cerebellum. c. hippocampus and cerebellum. d. amygdala and thalamus.

ANSWER: a 32. According to Harris, short-term memory for somatosensory stimuli was disrupted by transcranial magnetic stimulation only if the TMS was applied: a. within 600 seconds of stimulus presentation. b. within 600 milliseconds of stimulus presentation. c. after 900 milliseconds following stimulus presentation. d. in conjunction with electroconvulsive therapy.

ANSWER: b 33. “Delay cells” in the prefrontal cortex described by Fuster (1989) and Goldman-Rakic (1992) are active during: a. fear conditioning. b. mirror-tracing tasks. c. tactile working memory tasks. d. visuospatial working memory tasks.

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Chapter 18: Multiple Choice 34. Enhanced neural activity during the delay phase of a task requiring short-term memory for the location of a stimulus in space would MOST likely be observed in the: a. primary visual cortex. b. orbitofrontal cortex. c. frontal eye fields. d. superior temporal cortex.

ANSWER: c 35. In general, most individuals experience an inability to remember events from the first four years of life. This lack of memory is called: a. anterograde amnesia. b. infantile amnesia. c. retrograde amnesia. d. fugue amnesia.

ANSWER: b 36. Based on findings with patients who have herpes encephalitis, it appears that the ability to access previously acquired memories depends in part on the: a. substantia nigra. b. right parietal cortex. c. insula. d. anterior cingulate.

ANSWER: c 37. H.M.'s amnesia condition differed from that of Korsakoff syndrome in patients with amnesia because H.M. did NOT show: a. anterograde amnesia. b. retrograde amnesia. c. confabulation. d. emotional dulling.

ANSWER: c 38. A subject with amnesia who earnestly tells stories about his past that are demonstrably untrue is showing the symptom known as: a. fugue state. b. anterograde amnesia. c. confabulation. d. reconsolidation.

ANSWER: c 39. Korsakoff syndrome is a disorder leading to amnesia and MOST commonly results from: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18: Multiple Choice a. psychological trauma. b. chronic alcoholism. c. thiamine overdose. d. traumatic brain injury.

ANSWER: b 40. The symptoms of Korsakoff syndrome can sometimes be arrested by massive doses of: a. anticholinesterase drugs. b. thiamine. c. vitamin A. d. L-dopa.

ANSWER: b 41. Alzheimer's disease is a neurodegenerative disease that involves the loss of which neurotransmitter? a. dopamine b. serotonin c. acetylcholine d. epinephrine ANSWER: c 42. Researchers were able to demonstrate that there are distinct memory systems for explicit and implicit memory. Which of these is an illustration of implicit memory? a. H.M. demonstrated standard improvement on the mirror-drawing task. b. K.C. completed the Corsi blocks with minimal errors. c. S. performed as well as neurologically healthy individuals on the Hebb recurring-digits test. d. H.M. could not perform the mirror-drawing task at all.

ANSWER: a 43. Researchers have demonstrated that there are distinct memory systems for explicit and implicit memory.

Which of these is an illustration of implicit memory? a. H.M. was able to perform as well as a neurologically intact individual on short-term memory tasks. b. Patients with hippocampal lesions are still able to learn information about world events. c. Patients with panic disorder are able to articulate the source of their fears. d. Patients with Huntington disease exhibit impairment on the mirror-drawing task.

ANSWER: d 44. Individuals who suddenly appear in a new city with retrograde amnesia but perfectly intact language and other cognitive abilities may be diagnosed with: a. dementia. b. fugue state. c. Korsakoff syndrome.

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Chapter 18: Multiple Choice d. Alzheimer's disease.

ANSWER: b 45. Traumatic brain injury (TBI) may result in a loss of episodic memory as a result of damage to the ventral prefrontal cortex as well as which white matter fibers? a. corpus callosum b. uncinate fasciculus c. anterior commissure d. arcuate fasciculus ANSWER: b 46. You have been asked to evaluate a patient with memory impairments. The patient's medical history reveals relatively mild anoxia. Which brain region is likely to be the etiology of the patient's memory deficits? a. CA4 b. fimbria fornix c. CA1 d. perforant pathway ANSWER: c

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Chapter 18: Short Answer 1. What is the reasoning behind the recommendation that students can improve their exam scores if they study by writing out the material to be learned?

ANSWER: Recall is dependent upon the learning–encoding phase. Remembering the gist won't help with learning the details (which can be enhanced by writing out notes). This involves top-down processing.

2. In what ways is H.M.'s amnesic condition similar to that of a patient with Korsakoff syndrome? In what ways is it different?

ANSWER: Anterograde amnesia occurs in both disorders. H.M. also had retrograde amnesia that was minimal, only extending a short time back. He could remember a lot of information prior to the surgery. In Korsakoff syndrome, there's extensive retrograde amnesia.

3. What is system consolidation? What is its relation to memory reconsolidation?

ANSWER: Memory consolidation refers to the process by which information becomes a permanent part of the memory store. The hippocampus has been implicated as being critical for consolidation.

Reconsolidation refers to the multiple memory traces that are generated when we recall events.

When previous events are recalled, they are often elaborated upon by ourselves and with those with whom we discuss the events. Each time we use and “resave,” a new memory trace is created.

4. Distinguish between implicit and explicit memory, giving examples of neuropsychological tests for each type of memory.

ANSWER: Explicit memory is memory involving conscious recollection; it includes semantic memory for various facts and can also include autobiographical information. This type of memory can be assessed using Corsi blocks and the Hebb recurring-digits test. Implicit memory is memory that is unconscious and procedural in nature, such as brushing your teeth. It can be assessed using priming tests and a mirror-drawing task.

5. Distinguish between episodic and semantic memory, and give an example of each.

ANSWER: Episodic memory is the memory for autobiographical information. An example would be your memory for a special birthday party. Semantic memory is memory for facts and acquired knowledge. An example would be your knowledge of neuroanatomical structures, such as the location of the hippocampus on the medial aspect of the temporal lobe.

6. What characterizes Tulving's concept of autonoetic memory?

ANSWER: Tulving's concept of autonoetic memory is characterized by self-knowledge or awareness through time, past, present, or future. This form of memory allows us to imagine what we will do later in the day or next month.

7. Within the proposed anatomical model for explicit memory, different components may have different roles.

Comment on the possible roles in explicit memory for each of the following: the amygdala, hippocampus, and perirhinal cortex.

ANSWER: Hippocampal and perirhinal cortices have long been implicated in explicit memory formation. The hippocampus, located on the medial surface of the temporal lobe, is required for retaining memory after learning, as exhibited by H.M.'s anterograde amnesia for semantic information (as opposed to procedural-based memory). Case studies (e.g., Vargha-Khadem et al.) of children with similar Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18: Short Answer damage occurring early in life exhibited “everyday” memory loss, wherein they could not recount the day's activities or where familiar objects were located in their homes, and they could not be left alone. However, they fared okay in educational environments learning to read, write, and spell. The hippocampus is further divided into anterior and posterior regions that differentially govern abbreviated or elaborated memory details. The hippocampus also appears critical for autobiographical memory and “time travel.” The perirhinal cortex (as well as the entorhinal cortex) provides major input to the hippocampal formation from the neocortex. Animal studies point to these cortical regions as necessary for object recognition (i.e., semantic information). The amygdala subserves emotional memory that could be both explicit and implicit in nature.

8. Identify three theories on the role of the hippocampus in memory, and list objections to each.

ANSWER: Case studies demonstrate differential effects of hippocampal lesions on memories. Early hippocampal damage leads to severe impairment of learning. However, we know from H.M. that not all forms of learning are compromised by hippocampal damage. Episodic memory is impaired (sometimes severely so) in Alzheimer’s disease. Some of the first areas showing histological change are in the hippocampus. However, it is difficult to establish that damage is restricted to the hippocampus. Gaffan and Gaffan studied a group of patients with damage to the fimbria–fornix pathway, with preserved hippocampi, and they demonstrated similar anterograde and retrograde amnesia. The ability to recall personal life experiences is diminished in patients with Alzheimer's. In H.M., however, because both cases involved adjacent medial temporal lobe structures, it's possible that you need both hippocampal and cortical structures for intact/functional autobiographical memories.

9. Characterize the differences between left- and right-temporal-lobe damage with respect to amnesic symptoms.

ANSWER: Following right-hemisphere damage, patients have impaired facial-recognition, spatial-navigation, and maze-learning tests. Following left-hemisphere damage, patients exhibit verbal memory impairment in recalling word lists, for example, or on nonspatial associations.

10. What neural structures are thought to be involved in implicit memory? What is the evidence for or against including the motor cortex in this system?

ANSWER: The basal ganglia and substantia nigra are thought to govern implicit/procedural memory processes.

Evidence from both Huntington and Parkinson disease supports this theory. Patients with Huntington's sustain damage to their basal ganglia and are subsequently impaired on implicitmemory tasks (mirror drawing) but unimpaired on explicit-memory tasks (verbal recognition).

Patients with Parkinson disease also exhibit impaired implicit-memory performance that is alleviated when given l-dopa. These findings suggest that the motor cortex is not involved in performing tasks that require implicit memory.

11. What are the neural pathways that differentiate fear conditioning and classical conditioning?

ANSWER: The neural structure involved in fear conditioning is the amygdala, while the cerebellum is thought to underlie classical conditioning. Lesion studies show that cerebellar lesions abolish classical conditioning.

12. Discuss the relationship between emotional memories, and explicit and implicit memories.

ANSWER: Emotional memory has been characterized as a system that is separate from both explicit and Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18: Short Answer implicit memory processes and is subserved by distinct neuroanatomical structures. The amygdala and medial temporal cortex have both been implicated as structures underlying emotional memories.

Damage to the amygdala has little effect on either explicit or implicit memory processes but abolishes emotional memory. However, through projections to the PAG, hypothalamus, and basal ganglia, there are links to both of those other memory processes.

13. What is the evidence to support the concept of short-term memory as distinct from other forms of memory?

ANSWER: Short-term memory (STM) is used to hold information online for a short duration. Lesion case studies are a good example of spared short-term memory ability despite severe impairment in longterm memory. H.M. could perform neuropsychological tests of STM despite his long-term memory impairment. Warrington and Weiskrantz found patients with deficits in STM could perform tasks when information was presented aurally but not when it was presented visually.

14. What is the evidence for a neural mechanism for working memory in the frontal cortex?

ANSWER: The frontal cortices receive projections from systems involved in both semantic information and movement (from temporal-lobe structures and the diencephalon). Damage to the frontal lobe results in memory impairment. Both animals and patients with frontal-lobe damage exhibit an inability to perform even simple memory tasks in which they are required to temporarily remember locations of stimuli or make a response after a short delay. Additionally, neuropsychology testing has demonstrated that patients with frontal-lobe damage have impaired performance on tests of recency (both left and right frontal). Research from Patricia Goldman-Rakic demonstrated in a test of STM (in monkeys) that neurons in areas 9 and 46 in the DLPFC encode object recognition.

15. Comment on the hypothesis that damage to the diencephalon is simply a deconnection of the hippocampal circuitry and that explains diencephalic amnesia.

ANSWER: Korsakoff syndrome provides a model of diencephalon functioning due to its destruction as the disease progresses and neurons in both the thalamus and posterior hypothalamus are lost.

16. Describe the general course of Alzheimer's disease in terms of memory difficulties and related affected brain regions.

ANSWER: Alzheimer’s disease is one of progressive cell loss that leads to widespread cortical thinning and atrophy in frontal and temporal cortices. Memory impairment includes explicit memory and autobiographical memory, though implicit memory may suffer eventually.

17. Luria published a case study (1968) detailing the incredible memory of a reporter. The individual known as S. used different strategies to encode information. Describe them.

ANSWER: S. used imagery—that is, visualizing the stimuli in order to recall information from this internal image. He also experienced synesthesia, which involves a mixing of sensory experiences— for example, perceiving a visual stimulus as a sound. Lastly, S. used a pegboard technique, a method where he created associations between stimuli, such as associating numbers with various aspects of people—for example, the number 8 represented a fat woman, or the number 3 represented a shy individual.

18. Describe how individuals with highly superior autobiographical memory (HSAM) are different from those of the individual S. who also exhibited extraordinary memory ability.

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Chapter 18: Short Answer ANSWER: Individuals who exhibit HSAM do not employ any particular strategies to recall information. Unlike S., these individuals don’t have issues in understanding metaphors or dealing with daily life.

Neuroimaging indicates increased volume of both white-matter projections and brain regions that contribute to memory performance and when damaged result in autobiographical memory impairment.

19. There are several neuroanatomical structures that underlie explicit memory, including medial-temporal-lobe regions (hippocampus, perirhinal cortex) and the prefrontal cortex. Which neurotransmitter systems are involved? Provide an example of how a transmitter can affect explicit memory.

ANSWER: Serotonin, acetylcholine, and norepinephrine/noradrenaline are all neurotransmitters that are active in memory, as they involve brainstem structures that project to cortical area. We know largely from the Alzheimer's literature that cholinergic neurons are compromised in AD. The related memory impairment exhibited in these patients indicates that ACh plays a large role in explicit memory formation.

20. Compare the differences and similarities of both symptomology and neuropathology in patients H.M. and K.C. ANSWER: H.M. was subjected to a medial temporal lobectomy, which—given its surgical precision—resulted in a very clean lesion. K.C. experienced a very diffuse injury as a result of a TBI that involved several cortical and subcortical lesions. Both K.C. and H.M. exhibited anterograde and retrograde amnesia. However, H.M.'s retrograde amnesia was less severe. Additionally, K.C.'s semantic memories were not impaired, and H.M.'s semantic memories were impaired.

Match each hippocampal structure with the correct option. a. Ammon's horn b. dentate gyrus c. perforant path d. fimbria fornix 21. location of pyramidal cells ANSWER: a 22. location of granule cells ANSWER: b 23. neocortex–hippocampus pathway ANSWER: c 24. hippocampus–thalamus pathway ANSWER: d The explicit memory model proposed by the authors suggests that various components of this system may be specialized for different aspects of memory processing. Show your memory retrieval skills by matching each structure with the most appropriate alternative. a. hippocampus Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 18: Short Answer b. perirhinal cortex c. amygdala d. medial temporal lobe systems 25. episodic memory ANSWER: a 26. recognition memory ANSWER: b 27. emotional coloring ANSWER: c 28. fugue state ANSWER: d For each task, answer if it is more disrupted by left-hemisphere lesions, right-hemisphere lesions, or if there is no discernible difference between left- and right-hemisphere lesions on task performance. a. Corsi block-tapping b. face recognition c. Hebb recurring-digits d. recurring nonsense syllables 29. right-hemisphere lesions ANSWER: a 30. right-hemisphere lesions ANSWER: b 31. left-hemisphere lesions ANSWER: c 32. left-hemisphere lesions ANSWER: d

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Chapter 19: Multiple Choice 1. The fundamental sounds in a language are called: a. morphemes. b. lexicals. c. phonemes. d. vowels.

ANSWER: c 2. The vocal intonation that helps us understand the literal meaning of what people say is termed: a. prosody. b. semantics. c. syntax. d. discourse.

ANSWER: a 3. What we call “grammar” is referred to by linguists as: a. syntax. b. semantic. c. discourse. d. lexicon.

ANSWER: a 4. Changes that have occurred to the human vocal tract through the course of evolution allow humans to produce a wide range of speech sounds known as: a. formants. b. phonemes. c. morphemes. d. morphants.

ANSWER: a 5. Language is a combination of the following four abilities: a. categorization, mimicry, sequencing behavior, and theory of mind. b. sequencing behavior, categorization, mimicry, and category labeling. c. prosody, sequencing behavior, mimicry, and object recognition. d. object recognition, mimicry, sequencing behavior, and self-awareness.

ANSWER: b 6. Which ability proposed to be necessary for language is MOST likely to depend on the mirror neuron system? a. categorization b. category labeling c. sequencing of behaviors d. mimicry Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19: Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 7. Several lines of evidence suggest that humans developed spoken language in the past: a. 20 million years. b. 200,000 years. c. 2 million years. d. 30,000 years.

ANSWER: b 8. Studies of the KE family strongly implicate the gene known as _____ in human language ability. a. FOXP2 b. LOXP2 c. FOXL2 d. FROGP2 ANSWER: a 9. Members of the KE family with the mutated form of FOXP2 show impaired performance on tests: a. of only verbal IQ. b. of only nonverbal IQ. c. of verbal and nonverbal IQ. d. measuring orofacial movements.

ANSWER: c 10. In the view of Kimura and others, much of the cortex devoted to language production in the left hemisphere probably evolved as elaborations of: a. parietal-lobe circuits involved with the location of visual stimuli. b. premotor cortex circuits involved in face and hand gestures. c. orbital cortex circuits involved with categorization. d. memory circuits in the temporal lobe.

ANSWER: b 11. Cases of brain damage in deaf individuals who use sign language suggest that the organization of gestural language: a. has its focus in the right parietal cortex, along with other spatial functions. b. is inconclusive, as no particular pattern has emerged. c. is very similar to that for spoken language, with the left hemisphere dominant for both. d. Actually, no such cases exist, but it would be interesting if they did.

ANSWER: c 12. According to MacNeilage, the critical ability associated with the development of language in humans involved changes in the: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19: Multiple Choice a. brain, leading to greater visuospatial abilities. b. vocal tract, allowing a greater range of formants. c. brain, leading to a greater range of emotional vocalizations. d. brain, leading to fine motor control and greater articulation.

ANSWER: d 13. The Gardners have used _____ in their research with Washoe, the chimp. a. keyboard communication b. American sign language c. Pidgin sign language d. keyboard communication, American sign language, and Pidgin sign language ANSWER: b 14. Although nonhuman primates most certainly can communicate orally with each other and with humans (if trained), these utterances seem to lack any significant: a. syntax. b. semantic aspects. c. emotional overtones. d. reliability from one time to another.

ANSWER: a 15. Results from electrical stimulation and imaging studies of conscious patients suggest that: a. localizationist theories that posit strict separation of speech comprehension and production are incorrect. b. localizationist theories that posit strict separation of speech comprehension and production are largely correct. c. speech areas occupy a smaller proportion of cortical areas than originally thought on the basis of lesion studies. d. there is surprisingly little variation in the organization of cortical language areas among subjects.

ANSWER: a 16. The effects on language functions of direct electrical stimulation of the cortex have been confirmed using the noninvasive technique of: a. transcranial magnetic stimulation. b. functional MRI. c. positron emission tomography. d. electroconvulsive therapy.

ANSWER: a 17. Studies using transcranial magnetic stimulation have suggested a close relationship between areas responsible for: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19: Multiple Choice a. language and eye movements. b. language and mouth movements. c. hand movements and mouth movements. d. language and consciousness.

ANSWER: b 18. A patient who can comprehend speech, produce meaningful speech, and repeat speech but has great difficulty in finding the names of objects likely has sustained damage to the _____ lobe. a. posterior parietal b. inferior frontal c. inferior temporal d. superior temporal ANSWER: c 19. Results of imaging studies have led to the conclusion that verb generation is: a. solely a function of Broca's area. b. solely a function of the temporal cortex. c. associated with activity in both the frontal and temporal cortices. d. mediated by networks in the right hemisphere.

ANSWER: c 20. A patient who has difficulty finding words and has laborious, slow, halting speech is showing signs of: a. nonfluent aphasia. b. fluent aphasia. c. transcortical syndrome. d. word deafness.

ANSWER: a 21. One fact emerging from the study of brain and language is that grammar is intimately connected with: a. proper tagging of categories with phonemic tags. b. automatic cognitive processes in the temporal lobe. c. the use of verbs. d. noun storage in the frontal lobe.

ANSWER: c 22. Dronkers and colleagues conclude that apraxia of speech is caused by damage to: a. Broca's area. b. the insula. c. the cerebellum. d. the frontal lobe.

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Chapter 19: Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 23. Aphasias are most commonly seen following blockage of the _____ cerebral artery. a. right-posterior b. left-anterior c. left-middle d. right-middle ANSWER: c 24. An alternative hypothesis for fluent aphasia posited by Dronkers and colleagues suggests that the role of the cortex of Wernicke's area is: a. long-term memory for semantic categories. b. identical to that of Broca's area. c. short-term memory for mouth movements. d. short-term memory for speech sounds.

ANSWER: d 25. Speech arrest has been observed in conjunction with electrical stimulation of which subcortical structure? a. pulvinar nucleus of the thalamus b. lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus c. basolateral nucleus of the amygdala d. mammillary bodies ANSWER: a 26. Tests of language abilities in split-brain subjects show that the right hemisphere has: a. good language production but poor comprehension abilities. b. good language comprehension but poor production abilities. c. good language production and comprehension capabilities. d. all the elements required for fluent American sign language use.

ANSWER: b 27. Reduced verbal fluency and difficulties in comprehension and production of prosody have been reported following damage to the _____ cortex. a. right orbitofrontal b. left orbitofrontal c. right insular d. left insular ANSWER: a 28. Damage to the right hemisphere affects aspects of language, including: a. sequencing of speech.

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Chapter 19: Multiple Choice b. speech rhythm perception. c. generation and perception of prosody. d. syntactic organization.

ANSWER: c 29. According to analyses of language lateralization, the only language function found to be localized strictly in the left hemisphere is: a. prosody. b. speech perception. c. syntax. d. semantic representations.

ANSWER: c 30. A neuropsychologist might choose to administer the Token Test to: a. comprehensively define the extent of a language deficit. b. screen for problems with motivation and emotion. c. quickly assess whether a language deficit is present. d. screen for the genetic bases of a language disorder.

ANSWER: c 31. The model-building approach to understanding the reasons for dyslexia proposes the existence of: a. a fundamental deficit in attentional processes. b. multiple interacting subsystems. c. a single hierarchical language pathway for reading. d. multiple independent subsystems.

ANSWER: d 32. The MOST appropriate diagnosis for a 10-year-old child who continually makes mistakes in reading aloud, such that semantically related words are substituted for the printed word (e.g., puppy is read as dog and woman is read as mother), would be: a. attentional dyslexia. b. word aphasia. c. phonological dyslexia. d. deep dyslexia.

ANSWER: d 33. According to the dual-route theory of reading, a person who can read all familiar words without difficulty but cannot read novel words is using the _____ route. a. phonological b. lexical c. letter naming Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19: Multiple Choice d. prosodic ANSWER: b 34. How can the same sequence of words have a different meaning when spoken by two different individuals? a. due to prosody of speech b. due to the differing native language of the speakers c. due to the age and gender of the speakers d. due to the lack of body language accompanying the words ANSWER: a 35. Researchers have distinguished human language production from the sounds or vocalizations from animals by the: a. lack of feedback between nonsocial animals after vocalizations. b. presence of a lexicon in human language. c. human ability to produce syllables and syntax. d. differing ability to both understand and produce meaningful morphemes.

ANSWER: c 36. Following a traumatic brain injury, damage was found in the motor areas of the left hemisphere, and there was impairment in the neural connections of the mirror neurons. Damage to these areas may disrupt a young child's ability to: a. create sounds and mimic language presented to them. b. categorize and sequence words into meaningful patterns. c. label sounds as words. d. learn ASL and read lips.

ANSWER: a 37. A researcher interested in understanding the role of gestures and visual cues in assigning meaning to speech conducted an experiment where actors were tasked with carrying out a conversation with exaggerated mouth movements and hand gestures. When compared to the control condition, participants viewing the conversation were expected to show: a. nonsignificant differences in listening to and understanding the speakers across both conditions. b. significant difficulty in listening to and understanding the conversation in the experimental condition in comparison to the control. c. complete understanding of the words in both conditions, but difficulty in assigning meaning in the control condition. d. significant impairment in understanding the prosody of the words in both control and experimental conditions due to the hand gestures.

ANSWER: b 38. A student posits that the origin of language could have had a sudden onset in modern humans, while it developed over time in animals and early hominin species. What evidence could support this dual-tract idea?

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Chapter 19: Multiple Choice a. Discontinuity theories support this idea due to physical and neurological changes across animals, hominin, and human species over time. b. Vocalizations of chimpanzees are a form of language, as they have the same physical placement of the larynx as modern humans do. c. The physical difference between the oral cavity of modern humans and animals demonstrates the possibility of verbal communication across both modern humans and animals. d. The appearance of modern humans is linked with the rise of human language, while evolutionary theories suggest adaptation of animal vocalization and gestures for language over time.

ANSWER: d 39. Following a traumatic brain injury, a patient was found to have difficulty articulating words but could still read and understand meaning. Months following the injury, the patient was found to have substantial improvement in the ability to produce phonemes and words. What was potentially damaged in the brain? a. sensory and motor areas of the face b. ventral language pathway c. arcuate gyrus d. dorsal region of Broca's area ANSWER: a 40. Mapping the neural basis of language can aid in understanding the organization of language within the brain. What are potential drawbacks of research on patients with brain lesions in comparison to studying healthy individuals? a. Patients with brain lesions may have adapted to their condition, so their neural connections may differ following the removal of the lesion. b. Healthy individuals would not likely participate in mapping studies—because they are expensive and painful—so researchers must rely on patients. c. Patients with brain lesions may have additional confounding variables and individual differences that can make generalization difficult. d. Patients with brain lesions tend to be older, so their age may impact the ability to generalize language organization in comparison to a sample of healthy individuals.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 19: Short Answer 1. Identify three examples of phonemes and three examples of morphemes in this sentence.

ANSWER: Three phonemes are ex, ex, and i. Three morphemes are of, in, and and.

2. Describe how the evolution of the vocal tract has resulted in a much greater ability on the part of humans, compared with apes, to produce speech sounds.

ANSWER: The vocal tract includes the larynx, which produces sounds. In humans, it is positioned lower in the throat than in nonhuman primates. This positioning allows for independent movement of the pharyngeal and oral tubes, adding to the variety of sounds we can produce.

3. Discuss theories of language evolution that emphasize changes to the vocal tract compared with those that focus on the brain.

ANSWER: Theories that focus on the vocal tract as being instrumental for language point to the importance of the position of the larynx and its role in allowing us to physically produce a wider range of sounds than can nonhuman primates. Theories that highlight neural development and the role of the frontal and temporal cortices point to the brain's capacity to articulate speech through motor cortices as well as ascribe semantic meaning to our words and phrases. Language evolution undoubtedly required both these elements.

4. What four separate abilities are necessary for language?

ANSWER: The four separate abilities are (1) categorizing: being able to separate objects—some are animals, others are plants; (2) category labeling: the means to identify and organize; (3) sequencing behaviors: movements to make syllables; and (4) mimicry: listening to speech sounds and reproducing them.

5. About how long ago did human language develop? Provide evidence for your answer.

ANSWER: There was language more than 200,000 years ago, though not likely in our current conceptualization. Changes in the larynx in conjunction with advances in writing ability point to this possibility.

6. What is Yerkish? Is it really a language? If so, why? If not, why not?

ANSWER: Yerkish is a computer-based system that was used to teach Lana the chimp to communicate. The keyboard was composed of nine stimuli and nine colors that could be combined into 1800 lexigrams. I believe it was a language in that it allowed for communication between the chimp and her caregivers. Additionally, Lana's offspring learned Yerkish by watching his mother much in the way children acquire language.

7. How would you answer a beginning psychology student who asks, “Where in the brain is language localized?”

ANSWER: There are at least a dozen regions involved in language. In fact, some research coming out of intraoperative cortical stimulation shows that an immense amount of the brain is involved. However, we tend to simplify by focusing on two primary regions: Broca's area in the inferior frontal cortex that subserves speech production and Wernicke's located in the superior temporal gyrus that underlies language comprehension. Additionally, we know that a large majority of individuals have language processes lateralized to the left hemisphere.

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Chapter 19: Short Answer 8. Explain the simplicity of the Wernicke–Geschwind model.

ANSWER: Broca's area is the anterior speech zone; Wernicke's area is the posterior speech zone; and the arcuate fasciculus is the fiber bundle that connects these two regions.

9. With regards to the dual language model, compare and contrast the roles of the dorsal and ventral language pathways.

ANSWER: The two language pathways are viewed as extensions of the dorsal and ventral visual streams and traverse both frontal and temporal lobes. The dorsal pathway is proposed to transform phonological information into articulation. This pathway is a bottom-up process, but no meaning is assigned to the sounds at this point. The ventral pathway is proposed to transform sound into meaning or semantic information. Ventral-pathway processing is considered a more top-down process, where semantic meaning is attached to words/phrases.

10. How do PET scan studies on word generation differ from the Wernicke–Geschwind model of language production?

ANSWER: The newer imaging studies provide additional detail on the various aspects of the language process.

The Wernicke–Geschwind model is a three-part model highlighting Broca's and Wernicke's areas and the connection pathway of the arcuate fasciculus. Steve Petersen's group was able to identify regions that underlie verb generation or object naming. They were able to expand our notion of language areas such that it isn't solely the classic areas involved in mediating this ability but motor and sensory regions as well.

11. List four major findings based on experiments involving electrical stimulation of the human brain. Which one do you think had the MOST influence on neuropsychology?

ANSWER: Penfield conducted intracortical stimulation during surgery and identified several speech zones.

Data from these patients revealed that in addition to the classic Broca's and Wernicke's areas, additional areas contribute to language processing. Ojemann found that during stimulation of Broca's area, patients were unable to make voluntary facial movements and the stimulation disrupted phonemic discrimination and hand movements associated with speech. Another major finding is that speech zones vary widely among individuals. This is an extremely important finding for neuropsychology assessment and presurgical evaluation.

12. The fMRI studies of Binder and coworkers found four lobes or brain regions activated by words. What are they?

ANSWER: All four lobes—frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital—plus the thalamus and cerebellum are indicated in various aspects of language.

13. Distinguish, on the basis of the type of language errors produced, among fluent aphasia, nonfluent aphasia, and word deafness.

ANSWER: Fluent (Wernicke's) aphasia leads to difficulty in comprehending the speech of others and poor repetition, as well as speech that is incoherent. Nonfluent (Broca's) aphasia results in articulation errors; speech is effortful. Word deafness results in poor comprehension and repetition.

14. Your patient has undergone a left hemispherectomy to remove cancerous tissue. What symptoms should the patient and the family expect?

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Chapter 19: Short Answer ANSWER: Assuming the patient's language is lateralized to the left hemisphere, he will have impaired language function in both production and comprehension. However, following intensive speech therapy, he may regain some function. Basal ganglia and thalamic areas could aid in this recovery. He should be able to interpret emotional responses in others.

15. Your patient has undergone a right hemispherectomy to remove cancerous tissue. What symptoms should the patient and the family expect?

ANSWER: The right hemisphere has some language functions, particularly auditory comprehension of both nouns and verbs. Given the surgery, it may now be difficult for the patient to follow conversations.

16. Describe the model-building approach to understanding reading deficits and how it differs from more typical neurological approaches.

ANSWER: The model-building approach views reading as multiple subsystems in which any specific subsystem could be damaged and produce reading impairment. It differs from neurological approaches to the evaluation of reading deficits in that the neurological approach seeks to localize the regions of brain damage. Additionally, model-building approaches don't define dyslexia in conjunction with other disorders such as dysgraphia and dysphasia.

17. How does the dual-route theory account for deep and surface dyslexia subtypes?

ANSWER: The dual-route theory postulates that two interacting systems are used when reading. The lexical or phonological system is whole-word reading. The nonlexical system relies on spelling and sound rules, so it underlies nonwords and regular words. It would not work for irregular words. It has no anatomical indications. With respect to deep versus surface dyslexia, surface dyslexia is related to the nonlexical route. In deep dyslexia, individuals cannot read for sound; they read for sense (they tend to make errors by word substitution).

18. Explain how an infant can be born with the capacity to produce all types of languages yet develop into a child that speaks and understands only one language.

ANSWER: Through exposure and mimicry, infants show a preference for the language sounds that are spoken by those around them. Over time, the ability to distinguish all language sounds diminishes as the infants mimics the sounds and overall language that they are consistently presented.

19. How are discontinuity theories of language connected to the evolutionary theories of humans?

ANSWER: Evolutionary theories suggest the appearance of Homo sapiens approximately 200,000 years ago.

These modern humans were physiologically different from older hominin species. Modern humans developed with a lower larynx and a mouth that had finer motor control. These evolutionary changes likely developed with changes in the human diet and the neural connections needed to create the motor movements of the mouth. Discontinuity theories support the sudden development of language and its correlation with the appearance of modern humans.

20. How could further research into gene mutation of genes similar to FOXP be useful for patients with language and/or speech disorders?

ANSWER: Further research into mutation of genes like FOXP could lead to a better understanding of gene expression and its link to language disorders. A better knowledge of a potential cause of a language disorder can lead to better and more comprehensive treatments. Moreover, gene therapies could be Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19: Short Answer created to help mitigate the damage caused by such genes. Additionally, those with known disorders that have a genetic basis would have the ability to undergo genetic counseling to see the potential for passing on those genes to future offspring.

21. Upon arriving home, you hear your two children debating whether nonhuman animals can communicate and have language skills. Compare both views and provide evidence.

ANSWER: There is not universal agreement on what constitutes language. Animals do have the ability to communicate and/or create vocalizations toward one another. They do not have the ability to use language in the complex manner that humans do. Linguists do not support the proposition that animals have the ability to use language, as they require the use of syllables to construct language, which animals cannot produce. Yet when considering the continuity theories of the origin of language, animal vocalization and movement appear to be rudimentary forms of language.

22. Explain the expression “we speak with our hands.”

ANSWER: Research has demonstrated that movement of the hands and body accompany approximately 90% of verbal communication. Moreover, examination of hand gestures has shown a higher incidence of movement of the right hand while speaking. As the right hand is controlled by the left hemisphere, where much of language is located, hand gestures appear to be linked to speech.

23. Explain how language can be both localized and distributed within the brain.

ANSWER: Research through lesion studies and brain imaging supports the idea that language can be both localized and distributed through pathways within the brain. Lesion research demonstrated localization of comprehension of sounds and creation of speech within the left hemisphere in Wernicke's area and Broca's area, respectively. Recent research has demonstrated that language may not be housed so neatly in these locations within the left hemisphere. Brain-imaging research has shown that other brain areas—including the temporal and parietal cortex, and dorsal and ventral streams—have functions related to language.

Recent studies using PET scanning have changed the view of language localization in the human brain.

Demonstrate that your brain has been appropriately reorganized by matching each aspect of word generation with the related anatomical location. a. passive viewing of words b. verb generalization c. noun recognition d. retrieval of meaningful cue-related information 24. left visual cortex ANSWER: a 25. Broca's area ANSWER: b 26. left inferotemporal cortex ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 19: Short Answer 27. left inferofrontal cortex ANSWER: d Neuropsychologists and others concerned with language disorders have a specialized vocabulary that facilitates communication concerning these disorders. Match each term with the appropriate alternative. a. anarthria b. paraphasia c. alexia d. anomia 28. muscular incoordination ANSWER: a 29. unintended word production ANSWER: b 30. reading deficit ANSWER: c 31. word-finding deficit ANSWER: d

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Chapter 20: Multiple Choice 1. Our ability to use information that is outside awareness to guide our behaviors is known as: a. selective attention. b. gist. c. unconscious inference. d. unconscious deduction.

ANSWER: c 2. The psychological construct that describes our conscious, subjective feelings about a situation is: a. cognition. b. mood. c. effect. d. affect.

ANSWER: d 3. The important book The Expression of Emotions in Man and Animals was written by: a. Walter Cannon. b. Charles Darwin. c. Philip Bard. d. Paul Bucy.

ANSWER: b 4. The first major theory in the neurology of emotions was that of: a. Klüver and Bucy. b. Hess. c. Papez. d. Olds.

ANSWER: c 5. Attaching affective (emotional) qualities to experiences and memories is the role of the: a. basal ganglia. b. limbic system. c. dopamine system. d. prefrontal cortex.

ANSWER: b 6. Results from the earliest experiments studying the neural bases of emotion supported an important role for the: a. thalamus and hypothalamus in the expression of emotion. b. idea that emotional expression is subject to evolution just like other traits. c. existence of a limbic lobe where emotion is experienced. d. idea that the frontal lobes participate in emotional control.

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Chapter 20: Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 7. Which of these was NOT part of the original Klüver–Bucy syndrome? a. sham rage b. hypermetamorphosis c. visual agnosia d. increased sexual behavior ANSWER: a 8. The Klüver–Bucy syndrome appears only following bilateral damage to the: a. inferior temporal cortex, excluding the amygdala. b. inferior temporal cortex, including the amygdala. c. hypothalamus, including the rage-suppression centers. d. medial temporal lobes.

ANSWER: b 9. Which symptom was observed in the person suffering from Klüver–Bucy syndrome who was studied by Marlowe and colleagues? a. flat affect b. hyperexcitability c. aphasia d. alexia ANSWER: a 10. The person who first performed frontal lobotomies in humans was: a. Carlyle Jacobsen. b. Paul Bucy. c. Egas Moniz. d. Philip Bard.

ANSWER: c 11. The flehmen response seen in some species is associated with forcing stimuli into contact with: a. Jacobson's organ. b. the taste buds. c. the amygdala. d. pheromones.

ANSWER: a 12. The sight of a scowling human face would be MOST likely to lead to the greatest immediate increase in neural activity in the: a. left amygdala.

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Chapter 20: Multiple Choice b. right amygdala. c. left caudate nucleus. d. right caudate nucleus.

ANSWER: b 13. A normal subject would show a left-ear advantage when listening to: a. the sounds of a crying baby. b. a narrated fairy tale. c. Morse code. d. the sounds of a crying baby, a narrated fairy tale, and Morse code.

ANSWER: a 14. A key component of the emotion-processing pathway connecting the sensory-association cortex with the hypothalamus is the: a. hippocampus. b. insula. c. amygdala. d. dorsomedial thalamic nucleus.

ANSWER: c 15. The observation that people with spinal injuries report reduced experiences of emotion has been taken to support the: a. Cannon–Bard theory. b. cognitive–emotional interaction theory. c. left-hemisphere interpreter theory. d. somatic marker hypothesis.

ANSWER: d 16. The somatic marker hypothesis stresses the importance of emotional expression in: a. reasoning processes. b. habit learning. c. fear conditioning. d. reflex formation.

ANSWER: a 17. Learning responses that minimize the possibility of regrettable actions is associated with increased activity in the: a. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex and cingulate gyrus. b. orbitofrontal cortex and cingulate gyrus. c. amygdala and dorsolateral prefrontal cortex. d. orbitofrontal cortex and amygdala.

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Chapter 20: Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 18. A key aspect of LeDoux's theory of emotions is that over the course of evolution, emotional and cognitive processes have become increasingly: a. segregated. b. identical. c. interrelated. d. irrelevant to each other.

ANSWER: c 19. The observation that laboratory-bred and -reared rats show fear responses when exposed to the odor of fox urine is evidence of: a. the high emotionality of laboratory rats. b. a heritable genetic component to emotional behavior. c. the ability of rats to rapidly learn stimulus–response associations. d. the need to keep foxes out of research laboratories.

ANSWER: b 20. When evaluating a patient who expresses catastrophic reactions to situations, you would expect to find damage to the: a. right hemisphere. b. left hemisphere. c. basal ganglia. d. reticular formation.

ANSWER: b 21. Based on Gainotti's study of the effects of unilateral cortical lesions on emotionality, a patient who shows pronounced indifference to emotional situations would be MOST likely also to show deficits on: a. the paragraph recall test. b. a verbal IQ test. c. the line bisection test. d. tests of right–left discrimination.

ANSWER: c 22. Damage to Broca's area in the right hemisphere has been proposed by Ross to produce _____ aprosodia. a. sensory b. global c. conduction d. motor ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20: Multiple Choice 23. Affective states have been evaluated by neuropsychologists in which aspect? a. judgment of mood b. comprehension of humor c. judgment of facial expression d. judgment of mood, comprehension of humor, and judgment of facial expression ANSWER: d 24. What have studies of social cognition revealed with respect to amygdala function? a. Bilateral amygdala lesions lead to deficits in processing negative emotions. b. Right-hemisphere unilateral amygdala lesions lead to deficits in processing positive emotions. c. Left-hemisphere unilateral amygdala lesions lead to deficits in processing positive emotions. d. Bilateral amygdala lesions lead to deficits in processing positive emotions.

ANSWER: a 25. Your patient has suffered a stroke and now exhibits altered sexuality, unusually strong religiosity, and the production of very long letters to you. You suspect the damage has affected the: a. frontal lobe. b. temporal lobe. c. parietal lobe. d. ventromedial prefrontal cortex.

ANSWER: b 26. Reduced social interaction, loss of social dominance, and inappropriate social interactions are all a result of damage to the rhesus monkey's: a. frontal cortex. b. cerebellar cortex. c. parietal cortex. d. hippocampus.

ANSWER: a 27. Lesions to which brain region are likely to impair a person's ability to use social context to guide behavior and to lead to inappropriate social interactions? a. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex b. ventromedial prefrontal cortex c. posterior parietal cortex d. premotor and supplementary motor cortices ANSWER: b 28. Findings from primate studies that demonstrate changes in emotional processing stemming from frontallobe damage also lend support to frontal dysfunction in which disorder? a. depression Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20: Multiple Choice b. Korsakoff syndrome c. schizophrenia d. Alzheimer's disease ANSWER: c 29. Social cognition includes the human ability to be aware of who we are (self-awareness). Imaging and patient data provide evidence that the _____ network mediates this function. a. right temporal–occipital network b. left temporal–occipital network c. left frontoparietal network d. right frontoparietal network ANSWER: d 30. The frontoparietal mirror neuron network has been suggested to play an important role in the: a. ability to distinguish between animate and inanimate objects. b. ability to understand the intentions of others in terms of one's own sense of self. c. tendency to see faces in nonliving objects such as cloud formations. d. synchronization, or mirroring, of neural activity between the left and right hemispheres.

ANSWER: b 31. Conceptually, emotions can be very complicated to define. Which of these refers to instances in which we make decisions based on instinct? a. unconscious behavior b. physiological behavior c. implicit memory d. facial feedback ANSWER: a 32. You run into your friend on campus and you ask how she's doing. Although she tells you that she is fine, she seems on the verge of tears. This encounter reflects: a. the physiological response associated with emotions. b. the significance of self-report when expressing emotions. c. the role of hormones in the manner in which emotions are displayed. d. the importance of motor behavior in evaluating someone's emotions.

ANSWER: d 33. When stimulating specific regions of the hypothalamus, animals often demonstrate aggressive behaviors.

Which of these would NOT be considered a characteristic response? a. baring of teeth b. piloerection c. backward ear Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20: Multiple Choice d. hissing ANSWER: c 34. Ekman's studies (1984) demonstrated that humans in all types of cultures equally identify basic facial expressions, including all of these EXCEPT: a. surprise. b. love. c. anger. d. fear.

ANSWER: b 35. A patient who has sustained damage to the right-hemisphere Wernicke's area equivalent may experience _____ aprosodia. a. motor b. semantic c. fluent d. sensory ANSWER: d 36. Some research suggests that not all facial expressions are processed by a single anatomical structure. Which line of evidence supports this position? a. Patients with bilateral amygdala damage exhibit deficits to negative but not positive facial expressions. b. Patients with insular lesions exhibit deficits to negative facial expressions. c. Patients with damage to the amygdala exhibit deficits to positive but not negative facial expressions. d. Patients with ventromedial prefrontal cortex lesions exhibit impairment in some—but not all— negative facial expressions.

ANSWER: a 37. The HPA axis becomes activated during stressful events. Individuals who are under chronic stress are likely to develop: a. homeostasis. b. homeostatic load. c. allostatic load. d. pituitary stress.

ANSWER: c 38. Following a stroke, a middle-aged man started to exhibit some behaviors that his family perceived as out of character. Once a very restrained individual, he began engaging in increasingly adventurous activities, including bungie jumping. It is likely that the stroke affected which brain region? a. amygdaloprefrontal circuits Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 20: Multiple Choice b. mammilothalamic circuits c. inferiotemporal circuits d. hypothalamic–pituitary circuits ANSWER: a 39. Traumatic brain injury (TBI) can result in damage to the orbitofrontal cortex (OFC). If you were evaluating a patient suspected of having lesions in the OFC, what behaviors would alert you to that possibility? a. labored, nonfluent speech b. visual-spatial impairments c. difficulty conveying prosody d. attenuated social interactions/responses ANSWER: d 40. The Iowa Gambling Task is a measure of decision making that incorporates an assessment of a person's preferences for risky decisions. Patients with ventromedial PFC lesions are more likely to make which decision? a. They will initially select cards from the risky decks but then switch strategies after incurring losses. b. They will continue to select cards from the risky decks, which results in larger financial losses. c. They will select cards from the decks with smaller rewards because they ultimately make the safer play. d. They will alternate between the risky and safer decks because they are unable to understand the rules of the wins and losses.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 20: Short Answer 1. How might social and emotional behaviors differ between a person whose prefrontal cortex had been damaged early in childhood and one who had sustained similar damage in adulthood?

ANSWER: Those individuals who sustain early childhood damage fail to develop the normal complement of emotions and do not have cognitive control over behaviors deemed socially inappropriate. They are unable to develop relationships, cannot maintain school attendance or employment, and often engage in criminal behavior. Adults who sustain damage have more difficulty in interpretation of emotional behavior and facial expressions in others. Amygdala lesions impair fear recognition in others, while insular damage results in an inability to recognize pain in others.

2. You are giving a lecture to an introductory class in neuropsychology. How do you define emotion for your students?

ANSWER: Emotion is an inferred behavioral state and a conscious, internal, and subjective feeling about a stimulus. Typically, we rate emotion on two dimensions: (1) pleasant versus unpleasant and (2) arousing versus nonarousing.

3. Describe the four behavioral components of emotion, as described in the text.

ANSWER: The four behavioral components are: (1) psychophysiology, which incorporates the autonomic nervous system response and various changes in visceral activity, including heart rate, blood pressure, perspiration, and neurohormones; (2) distinct motor behavior, such as facial expressions, tone of voice, and posture; (3) self-reported cognition, which is the expression of plans, ideas, and subjective feelings of love or hate; and (4) unconscious behavior, which is our ability to engage in decision making based on intuition.

4. Identify the major contribution to the study of emotion by the following: Papez, Klüver and Bucy, and Gainotti.

ANSWER: Papez developed the first major theory of emotion and defined the anatomical structures he believed subserved these functions/behaviors. Klüver and Bucy's work demonstrated the importance of the anterior temporal lobe and specifically the amygdala in mediating emotional responsiveness—for example, exhibiting appropriate fear. Gainotti developed the lateralization theory of emotion, highlighting the asymmetries in emotional expression—for example, the left hemisphere is active in depression, while the right hemisphere mediates indifference.

5. What are the key neural structures in the original (1937) Papez circuit? What structures have been added in the more current limbic circuit of emotion?

ANSWER: Papez's original circuitry included the cingulate, septum, hypothalamus, hippocampus, olfactory bulb, and amygdala. The modern view adds to those structures the thalamus, sensory regions, and medial PFC. 6. What are the major symptoms of Klüver–Bucy syndrome?

ANSWER: The major symptoms are tameness or loss of fear response, indiscriminate dietary behavior (eating previously rejected food), increased autoerotic and other sexual behaviors, excessive oral exploration, visual agnosia, and attention and reaction to all visual stimuli.

7. Describe the changes in social behaviors in monkeys with frontal cortex lesions.

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Chapter 20: Short Answer ANSWER: The changes are reduced social interactions, meaning social withdrawal and lack of social grooming; loss of social dominance or previous position within the troop; inappropriate social interaction that fails to maintain the social rules of the group; and reduced affect and vocalizations.

8. Support or attack the following statement: the emotional complexity of mammals is due to evolutionary changes in the frontal lobes.

ANSWER: The literature suggests that as the frontal cortex expanded, so did the abilities of primates. The ability to engage socially with other animals in appropriate ways—that is, respecting the dominance hierarchy of the troop—fosters acceptance and continued relationships with family members. Lesion studies have demonstrated that frontal—and in particular orbitofrontal—damage results in a reduction of social interaction, vocalizations, and affect. Often, the monkey ends up leaving the troop and becoming completely solitary.

9. Discuss the evidence for and against the idea that emotion enhances the ability to think rationally or logically rather than impairs it.

ANSWER: Studies of memory have demonstrated that emotion helps to strengthen our memories for events.

Cognitive–emotional interactions allow us to use emotional reactivity to guide decision making. In some cases, these actions are critical for survival.

10. Contrast Damasio's somatic marker hypothesis with LeDoux's cognitive–emotional interaction theory.

ANSWER: Both have evolutionary beginnings, but LeDoux's theory focuses on one emotion (fear) rather than incorporating the range of emotions.

11. If you were a neuropsychologist studying emotion in rats, what behaviors or responses would you measure?

(Or answer the same question using monkeys, humans, or any other plausible species.)

ANSWER: I would conduct research using human subjects and functional imaging. I would try to examine both patients with some type of brain injury and neurologically healthy subjects, not necessarily for direct comparison but just as a means to flesh out the details in the affective networks. I would also use neuropsychological assessments to investigate various affective behaviors, such as the ability to accurately select facial expressions in particular situations. In conjunction with imaging methodologies, I would be able to identify which networks are active during various tasks.

12. Present evidence that in humans, the right hemisphere is differently involved in emotional processes than is the left.

ANSWER: The ability to judge emotion and to recognize humor has been attributed to the right hemisphere.

Ross and Monnot (2008, 2011) used the Aprosodia Battery to assess stroke patients and found that damage to frontal lobes affect prosody; specifically, the right hemisphere is dominant and lateralized for affective prosody. Additionally, research by Shammi and Stuss (1999) reported that patients with right-frontal lesions were impaired in their ability to interpret humor, as measured by failure to grasp punch lines, less smiling, and diminished laughter relative to other patient populations. Kolb and Taylor (1981) reported right-hemisphere lesions compromised performance on a matching emotional expressions task.

13. What is sensory aprosodia? What is motor aprosodia?

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Chapter 20: Short Answer ANSWER: Aprosodia refers to a lack of tone in speech. Sensory aprosodia is the decreased ability to interpret emotional language. Motor aprosodia is the diminished ability to produce affect in language.

14. A patient has suffered a stroke involving the frontal lobes. You, as the attending neuropsychologist, have been asked to evaluate his emotional status. What do you do?

ANSWER: Use the cartoon test to assess the ability to generate the appropriate facial expression. You could also use a test that gauges the interpretation of humor.

15. Identify five (or more) characteristics of temporal-lobe personality.

ANSWER: Characteristics of temporal-lobe personality are anger, hypermoralism, viscosity, paranoia, obsessiveness, and emotionality.

16. Describe the evidence supporting a role for the orbitofrontal cortex, insula, and amygdala in understanding the intentions of other people.

ANSWER: Patients with damage to these regions display an increase in pain threshold, an impaired perception of facial expressions in specific social contexts, and a reduced ability to recognize fear in others.

17. Explain the subsequent symptomology associated with bilateral lesions of the amygdala. Describe how these symptoms might impact daily life.

ANSWER: Bilateral lesions that are limited to the amygdala produce an attenuated fear response. However, individuals who have this condition (Urback-Wiethe disease is a genetic disorder that affects the amygdala) are able to perform within normal limits on other neuropsychological tests. In daily life, these symptoms manifest in poor decision making in social situations. Interestingly, the regions that are associated with social decision making remain intact (e.g., the vmPFC). This suggests that the amygdala is playing a large role in a range of emotion-related behaviors, not just the fear response.

18. While a lot of the literature is focused on the amygdala with respect to emotional processing, discuss other structures that have also been implicated in emotion and how they may communicate with the amygdala.

ANSWER: The hypothalamus is one structure that contributes immensely to emotional behaviors. The hypothalamus receives afferent projections from the amygdala that could give rise to fight or flight.

The hypothalamus has also been implicated in rage and aggression. Other limbic structures, such as the anterior cingulate, have been shown to play a role in emotions, particularly those that involve cognitive evaluation such as empathy or social rejection. The OFC also plays a role in emotional experiences.

19. Evidence from case studies indicates there are differences in the experience of emotion. Explain.

ANSWER: One theory of right-hemisphere involvement in emotional reactivity suggests that negative emotions such as fear or anger are mediated via the right hemisphere, whereas the left hemisphere's role in emotion is to provide regulatory action—inhibition over those negative right-hemisphere emotions.

Viewed another way, it could be that there is a complete separation of positive and negative emotions such that the left hemisphere is dominant with regards to positive emotions and the right hemisphere dominates for negative emotions. Individuals with damage to either hemisphere may experience difficulty with the ability to convey emotion as well as their ability to recognize emotion in others.

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Chapter 20: Short Answer 20. Explain the difference between affect and emotion.

ANSWER: Affect refers to our subjective and conscious feelings about a particular stimulus, be that an interpersonal encounter with another individual or an item that evokes fear response, such as a spider. Emotion, from a neuropsychological perspective, refers to the internal state, unconscious, physiological response —for example, an increase in heart rate in response to an object or situation.

Match each the area of study with the investigator it is BEST associated. a. Damasio b. Goltz c. Klüver and Bucy d. Bard 21. emotions relation to logical thinking ANSWER: a 22. rage responses in decorticate dogs ANSWER: b 23. behavioral effects of temporal lobe lesions in monkeys ANSWER: c 24. behavioral effects of hypothalamic stimulation in cats ANSWER: d Match each theory with the scientist it is BEST associated. a. Antonio Damasio b. Guido Gainotti c. Joseph LeDoux d. Michael Gazzaniga 25. somatic marker hypothesis ANSWER: a 26. cognitive asymmetry of emotion ANSWER: b 27. cognitive–emotional interaction theory ANSWER: c 28. left-hemisphere cognitive interpreter ANSWER: d For each question, answer if the behavior listed is more likely to be impaired by left-hemisphere lesions or by right-hemisphere lesions.

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Chapter 20: Short Answer a. left-hemisphere lesions b. right-hemisphere lesions 29. “catastrophic” reaction ANSWER: a 30. decrease in frequency of spontaneous talking ANSWER: a 31. frequency of aprosodia ANSWER: b 32. comprehension of humor ANSWER: b

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Chapter 21: Multiple Choice 1. Our capacity to successfully navigate from one place in our environment to another depends on the ability known as: a. topographic memory. b. topographic agnosia. c. egocentric memory. d. cognitive cartography.

ANSWER: a 2. O'Keefe and Nadel have proposed that the ability to form cognitive maps is dependent upon the: a. hippocampus. b. parietal lobes. c. frontal lobes. d. amygdala.

ANSWER: a 3. The mental representation of the parts of the environment beyond one's outstretched fingers is referred to as a cognitive map of _____ space. a. body b. grasping c. distal d. time ANSWER: c 4. Gross disability in finding one's way about is termed topographic: a. amnesia. b. agnosia. c. disorientation. d. alexia.

ANSWER: c 5. In the context of spatial behavior, the term egocentric refers to the localization of environmental stimuli with reference to: a. prominent, unchanging landmarks. b. one's own body. c. one's sense of self-importance. d. imagined landmarks.

ANSWER: b 6. The ability to replace objects on a table in their previous position is impaired by damage to the: a. left parietal cortex. b. left hippocampus.

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Chapter 21: Multiple Choice c. right hippocampus. d. right parietal cortex.

ANSWER: c 7. The failure to identify individual landmarks while retaining the ability to identify the classes of objects to which the landmarks belong is an example of: a. Bálint syndrome. b. landmark agnosia. c. topographic amnesia. d. egocentric disorientation.

ANSWER: b 8. A patient who experiences no difficulties finding her way around the home where she lived for most of her adult life but becomes spatially disoriented in her most recent home can be said to be suffering from _____ disorientation. a. retrograde b. egocentric c. anterograde d. allocentric ANSWER: c 9. Patients lacking the ability to navigate using environmental cues to orient themselves are said to suffer from: a. landmark agnosia. b. anterograde disorientation. c. spatial neglect. d. spatial amnesia.

ANSWER: a 10. The patient examined by Bálint could not: a. direct his gaze to the contralateral field. b. attend to more than one object at a time. c. identify common objects by sight alone. d. direct attention to ipsilateral field.

ANSWER: b 11. Most cases of Bálint syndrome involve _____ lobe damage. a. bilateral temporal b. bilateral occipital c. bilateral parietal d. right unilateral parietal ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21: Multiple Choice 12. Patients with damage to the parietal cortex of the right hemisphere have been reported to have difficulty: a. making sense of cues indicating the apparent direction of moving dots. b. making sense of clues needed for solving crossword puzzles. c. focusing their eyes on stimuli that are moving through the environment. d. making sense of illusory contours indicating depth of visual field.

ANSWER: d 13. Damage to a monkey's dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (principal sulcus) region impairs behavior requiring _____ stimuli. a. short-term memory for the spatial location of visual b. long-term memory for the spatial location of visual c. object recognition using cross-modal matching of visual and tactile d. evaluation of the relative reward magnitudes for visually presented ANSWER: a 14. In the study by Maguire and colleagues, increases in the volume of gray matter in the right posterior hippocampus were positively correlated with the: a. topographical memory ability of taxi drivers. b. autobiographical memory ability of taxi drivers. c. semantic memory of taxi drivers. d. degree of autonomic arousal while watching Taxi Driver.

ANSWER: a 15. When the brain activity of London taxi drivers was recorded using PET while they described driving specific routes, a selective activation was observed in the: a. right dorsolateral prefrontal cortex. b. left and right hippocampi. c. left hippocampus. d. right hippocampus.

ANSWER: d 16. A rat that finds its way around a radial arm maze by following odor trails left by other rats is engaging in: a. piloting. b. dead reckoning. c. route following. d. olfactory discrimination.

ANSWER: c 17. When tested in the Morris water task, rats with hippocampal damage are MOST impaired when navigation requires the use of: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21: Multiple Choice a. piloting ability. b. visible landmarks. c. food rewards. d. dead reckoning.

ANSWER: a 18. The Morris water task is commonly used to test the ability of rats and other small mammals to navigate using either: a. egocentric maps or a stimulus gradient. b. emotional memory or visible landmarks. c. dead reckoning or piloting ability. d. piloting ability or visible landmarks.

ANSWER: d 19. The hippocampus appears to be somewhat larger in those species of birds that: a. defend territory. b. mate for life. c. cache food. d. develop elaborate songs.

ANSWER: c 20. The ability to use self-movement cues to judge speed, time, and travel direction is essential for the form of navigation known as: a. route following. b. place learning. c. piloting. d. dead reckoning.

ANSWER: d 21. To use dead reckoning, nonhuman animals use _____ cues. a. heading b. landmark c. self-movement d. olfactory ANSWER: c 22. Changes in hippocampal volume related to spatial memory abilities in humans and birds alike may depend on: a. increases in blood vessel density. b. the birth of new neurons. c. the birth of new astrocytes.

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Chapter 21: Multiple Choice d. the death of old neurons.

ANSWER: b 23. A neuron that reliably reacts with a burst of activity whenever a rat is near the response lever in its test cage would be classified as a _____ cell. a. place b. head-direction c. reward-location d. grid ANSWER: a 24. A common attribute of place, grid, and head-direction cells is: a. stability in the face of changing environmental cues. b. location only in the hippocampus. c. sensitivity to changes in environmental cues. d. location in rats, mice, and monkeys.

ANSWER: c 25. Activity of head-direction cells is likely to contribute significantly to: a. path-following ability. b. directional tuning. c. landmark localization. d. food-hoarding behavior.

ANSWER: b 26. Which characteristic is true of head-direction cells but NOT of place cells? a. Head-direction cells cease their activity when the animal ceases moving. b. Head-direction cells continue to be active even when the animal is restrained. c. The activity of head-direction cells is sensitive to changes in environmental cues. d. The activity of head-direction cells is insensitive to changes in environmental cues.

ANSWER: b 27. A neuron that reliably reacts with a burst of activity at regular intervals as an animal moves through the environment would BEST be classified as a _____ cell. a. grid b. place c. response d. head-direction ANSWER: a 28. Research on sex-related differences in spatial ability suggests that when traveling, men are likely to use Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21: Multiple Choice _____, whereas women preferentially use _____. a. distal cues; proximal cues b. spatial maps; landmarks c. proximal cues; distal cues d. landmarks; spatial maps ANSWER: b 29. Females with Turner's syndrome do NOT produce _____ hormones and have _____ spatial abilities. a. gonadal; impaired b. stress; impaired c. gonadal; enhanced d. stress; enhanced ANSWER: a 30. A researcher created a visual stimulation where the participants were tasked to follow a trail of virtual breadcrumbs like the fairy-tale characters Hansel and Gretel. A set of participants demonstrated an inability to follow the trail, while others had difficulty orienting to cues along the trail. What kinds of difficulties with spatial abilities were noted? a. deficits in taxon navigation and landmark navigation b. deficits in piloting and cue learning c. deficits in cognitive mapping and distal space d. deficits in spatial memory and locale navigation ANSWER: a 31. Researchers examining spatial memory asked participants to describe navigating around their home, then taught them a path around a new building. Participants with damage to the parahippocampal gyrus would have difficulty with _____. Those with damage to hippocampus would have trouble with _____. a. navigation of their home; learning the new path b. learning the new path; remembering how to navigate to their home c. learning the new path; learning the new path d. navigating their home; navigating their home ANSWER: b 32. Individuals were tasked to use familiar landmarks to create a path to a destination. How would an individual with a lesion in the lingual gyrus compare to someone with damage to the posterior parietal cortex in performing the task? a. Individuals with damage in the posterior parietal cortex would have difficulty in understanding environmental cues. b. Individuals with damage to the posterior parietal cortex would be proficient in using the landmarks to create a route. c. Damage to the posterior parietal cortex would impact learning and remembering the new route even though they could identify familiar landmarks.

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Chapter 21: Multiple Choice d. Individuals with damage to the lingual gyrus would be unable to utilize the landmarks to orient themselves.

ANSWER: d 33. Following a stroke, a patient displayed difficulty locating objects within the visual field, with no visual impairment. Where would the damage caused by the stroke be found? a. hippocampus b. motor cortex c. superior colliculus d. temporal lobe ANSWER: c 34. A patient presented to a primary care physician with difficulties with depth perception. What would cause the physician to send the patient to a neurologist rather than an ophthalmologist for further testing? a. There were no known visual changes, damage, or impairment prior to the changes in depth perception. b. Neurologists and ophthalmologists are both always considered for a differential diagnosis. c. Ophthalmologists are considered first when brain trauma has been reported. d. Brain trauma would suggest visiting both the neurologist and the ophthalmologist when visual and auditory deficits are reported.

ANSWER: a 35. Following a car accident, an individual was found to have deficits orienting and directing the hands toward specific stimuli. What was likely damaged? a. parahippocampal gyrus b. parietal cortex c. hippocampus d. superior colliculus ANSWER: b 36. Research with London taxi drivers indicated the repeated learning of topographical maps was found to associated with: a. decreased size of the right hippocampus and increased size of the anterior hippocampus. b. increased size of both the left hippocampus and the anterior hippocampus. c. increased size of the right hippocampus and decreased size of the anterior hippocampus. d. decreased size of both the right hippocampus and the anterior hippocampus.

ANSWER: c 37. When do hippocampal place cells in rats display disruption in firing? a. when the rats are restricted from movement b. when the rats have to rely solely on visual cues Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21: Multiple Choice c. when the rats have lesions in the anterior hippocampus d. when the rats have multiple cues tapping three or more senses ANSWER: a 38. Explain how evolutionary theories propose the purpose of gender differences in spatial abilities. a. Hunting requires spatial memory; therefore, males with greater spatial memory and perception would be successful in providing food and have a higher chance of passing their genes to the next generation. b. The ability to rotate objects and perceive location is found to be linked to female foraging. c. Hunting requires spatial abilities; therefore, males with greater spatial abilities would be successful in providing food and have a higher chance of passing their genes to the next generation. d. The ability to discern landmarks and orient objects in relation to the self is greater in males and consequently is linked to hunting and foraging.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 21: Short Answer 1. What are the four ways in which animals may represent space relative to themselves?

ANSWER: The four ways are body space, grasping space, distal space, and time space.

2. Distinguish between the two types of topographic disorientation.

ANSWER: Topographic disorientation can occur in either retrograde or anterograde directions. Topographic retrograde disorientation is the inability to navigate environments that were familiar prior to the injury. Topographic anterograde disorientation is the inability to navigate in novel environments.

3. Distinguish between egocentric disorientation and heading orientation.

ANSWER: Egocentric disorientation refers to the inability to perceive the location of an object with respect to the self—for example, pointing out the location of furniture around you. Heading orientation is the ability to establish a course or direction of where you intend to go. Patients with heading disorientation have no sense of direction; they can describe where they want to go but cannot set a course.

4. Marshall the evidence to support or attack the idea that the hippocampus serves as a “cognitive map.”

ANSWER: Taube presented information indicating that hippocampal neurons contain head-direction cells that fire when the animal points its head in a direction. Additionally, the hippocampus also contains place cells that discharge when an animal is in a particular location. Patients with damage to the hippocampus have spatial mapping and memory deficits. Taken together, it seems that the hippocampus has the neural machinery to produce a cognitive map that allows individuals to know where they are and to guide future movements. Without this structure, this ability is impaired.

5. What is landmark agnosia?

ANSWER: Landmark agnosia refers to the inability to use prominent landmarks/environmental features to navigate the world. Those with the disorder can identify landmarks, but they cannot make use of them to guide their movements.

6. What are the main symptoms of Bálint syndrome?

ANSWER: Bálint syndrome is the result of bilateral damage to the occipital and parietal cortices. The main symptoms involve deficits in visuospatial exploration, such as an inability to perceive more than one stimulus, an inability to directly gaze at targets voluntarily, and abnormal visual search.

7. Discuss the role of the parietal lobe in spatial discriminations.

ANSWER: Ungerleider and Mishkin identified that the parietal lobe is the formative aspect of the “where” pathway that is used to guide spatial navigation. Evidence from both patients with neglect and those with Bálint syndrome demonstrated that the parietal lobe is necessary for effective exploration of space and one's ability to navigate through the world.

8. Discuss the role of the frontal lobe in spatial discriminations.

ANSWER: Lesion studies of frontal lobes including the frontal eye fields showed that monkeys were unable to orient effectively. Other studies, where the entire frontal lobes in monkeys were removed but the visual cortices were spared, demonstrated that the monkeys were unable to navigate, even though the visual system neurons were firing and functioning normally. Taken together, it appears that the frontal lobes are critical for operating on spatial information and allowing for appropriate action.

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Chapter 21: Short Answer 9. Discuss the role of temporal lobe structures in spatial behavior.

ANSWER: Temporal lobes certainly have a role in spatial behavior, given the various form of specialized neurons located in the hippocampus (place and head-direction cells). Additionally, there are projections via the ventral (“what”) stream that mediate object perception as well as dorsal stream (“where”) projections.

10. What evidence exists that neurogenesis may play an important role in spatial memory ability?

ANSWER: There is evidence from a couple different types of studies that indicate the possibility of neurogenesis in the hippocampi of both humans and birds. Woollett and Maguire conducted a neuroimaging study using a sample of taxi drivers in London. The drivers were required to use topographic memory. Results indicated increases in gray-matter volume in both right and left hippocampi relative to bus drivers who drive specific predetermined routes. The expansion of these regions is thought to reflect neurogenesis. Another study examined the effect of caching behavior on hippocampal growth. Researchers studied birds that cache food and compared them with those that don't engage in caching of food. They found that birds that cache had significantly larger hippocampal structures than noncaching birds. Researchers believe that the increase in the number of cells is related to the food-storing behavior.

11. Describe how you could use the Morris water task to test both cue and place responses in rats.

ANSWER: Given that the animal must use clues in the environment to learn where the hidden platform is located, you could move various objects around in the environment. Using various cell-recording techniques, you could obtain cellular response in hippocampal place cells.

12. Why is the Morris water maze so useful in studying spatial behavior?

ANSWER: The Morris water maze takes advantage of the rat's motivation to get out of the water. Researchers can manipulate the various cue objects in the room. They can get measures of piloting behavior and the amount of time to learn new platform placements.

13. What evidence exists that the role of the hippocampus in spatial navigation should be interpreted in the broader context of its role in memory?

ANSWER: Results from studies of food-storing birds demonstrate that the animals have an enormous capacity to remember all the locations visited. Results from various maze studies indicate that animals can retrain memory for specific arms to locate food in the most efficient manner.

14. What is the relationship between hippocampal size and food storing in birds?

ANSWER: Researchers studied birds that cache food and compared them with those who don't engage in caching food. They found that birds that cache had significantly larger hippocampal structures than noncaching birds. Researchers believe that the increase in the number of cells is related to the foodstoring behavior.

15. Explain how head-direction, place, and grid cells might work together as a rat forages for food in the environment near its burrow.

ANSWER: Head-direction cells are active when the rat's head is pointing in a specific direction; place cells discharge when the rat is in a particular location and able to move about the environment freely; grid Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21: Short Answer cells fire at regularly spaced intervals. As the rat moves about its local environment searching for food, its grid cells fire as it systematically explores the region; head-direction and place cells fire as it makes turns and moves about the grid.

16. Distinguish between place cells and head-direction cells.

ANSWER: Head-direction cells are active when an animal's head is pointing in a specific direction. These cells can fire both when the animal is moving and when restrained. Additionally, head-direction cells are constantly active depending on the head position. Place cells discharge when the rat is in a particular location and able to move about the environment freely. Place cells fire in one environment and not in another (location-specific firing). Lastly, if the animal is moving in a straight line, both the headdirection and place cells would fire.

17. In what ways do the spatial abilities of males and females differ?

ANSWER: Males have been shown to perform better on particular spatial tests. Males use spatial mapping procedures to navigate, while females are more likely to use landmarks to navigate. Males are more likely to spend time engaged in activities that involve spatial navigation, which means that environmental experience may play a role in their superior spatial ability.

18. Describe the reported interaction between reasoning skills and sex on the performance of tasks requiring spatial skills.

ANSWER: Males have better performance on spatial ability, while females have advantage in language ability, fine motor movements, and perceptual speed. From an evolutionary perspective, males' enhanced spatial performance may stem from their role as hunters and ties to the literature on neural development of enhanced environmental experience.

19. How do individuals with Turner syndrome perform on spatial tasks (on average)? What may account for their performance?

ANSWER: Individuals with Turner syndrome have impaired performance on tasks of spatial ability, including mental rotation, block design, and road and map direction sense. Brains show abnormality in the parietal lobe. Additionally, there is some suggestion that the balance of hormones influences the development of neural connections, as well as cell growth and death. Given that Turner's results in only one X, the balance of estrogen is disrupted.

20. A researcher interested in spatial abilities devised a video game simulation where the participants must find the exit to a fun house using visual cues along their route. The route to the exit is not clearly marked, and the various room doors appear similar to one another. What results would the researcher expect to find in individuals with temporal-lobe damage compared to healthy controls?

ANSWER: Individuals with temporal-lobe damage would find the task challenging due to the need to use spatial abilities, specifically piloting skills.

21. Animal studies are often used to examine potential human equivalents for the connection between brain regions and behavior. Why must researchers be cautious when making direct comparisons between animal and human brains?

ANSWER: The structure and function, while similar, is not a 1-to-1 correlation between animals and humans.

Comparing the human brain to the nonprimate animal brain needs to be done with caution due to the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21: Short Answer differing structure and composition. For example, the text discusses the avian hippocampus being linked to caching behaviors. The structure of the avian hippocampus and its regeneration of cells differs from that of humans. Therefore, definitively stating that similar behaviors are solely housed within the human hippocampus cannot be stated as fact without examination of the human brain.

22. How can advancements in smart devices aid individuals with temporal-lobe damage in carrying out spatial tasks?

ANSWER: Smartwatches, -phones, and GPS devices can aid individuals in navigating a route when their deficits in spatial abilities do not allow them to understand or implement spatial cues.

23. How can impairment in spatial perception mimic symptoms of dissociation or depersonalization?

ANSWER: Damage that is causing spatial distortion can lead to out-of-body experiences. These individuals may perceive their sense of self as ill-fitting for their environment, either too large or too small.

Match each disorder of spatial perception with the most appropriate description. a. egocentric disorientation b. topographic disorientation c. heading disorientation d. landmark agnosia 24. difficulty perceiving the relative location of objects with respect to self ANSWER: a 25. inability to remember topographic relations among landmarks ANSWER: b 26. inability to determine a direction of movement ANSWER: c 27. inability to use prominent environmental features for orientation ANSWER: d Match each scientist with the most appropriate alternative. a. Bálint b. Goldman-Rakic c. O'Keefe d. Taube 28. parietal-lobe role in spatial memory ANSWER: a 29. frontal-lobe role in spatial memory ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 21: Short Answer 30. hippocampal place cells ANSWER: c 31. head-direction cells ANSWER: d

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Chapter 22: Multiple Choice 1. It appears that complex brains need “organizing” processes to help govern behavior. The authors suggest that in the human brain, the most evolved organizer is: a. language. b. consciousness. c. memory. d. auditory.

ANSWER: a 2. As the human brain evolved an increased sensory capacity, it also required a mechanism for selective awareness and stimulus response. This mechanism is called: a. plasticity. b. memory. c. attention. d. change blindness.

ANSWER: c 3. Searching for a street sign in order to make a turn is an example of a(n) _____ process. a. bottom-up b. top-down c. conscious d. unconscious ANSWER: b 4. Who said, “Everyone knows what attention is. It is the taking possession by the mind, in clear and vivid form, of one out of what seems several simultaneously possible objects or trains of thought”? a. Ann Treisman b. Kolb and Whishaw c. Roger Sperry d. William James ANSWER: d 5. Stimuli that “pop out” in a visual array illustrate the concept of: a. top-down processing. b. attention-dependent processing. c. bottom-up processing. d. stereotopographic insolence.

ANSWER: c 6. In Treisman's theory, automaticity is MOST closely associated with the concept of: a. attention. b. memory.

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Chapter 22: Multiple Choice c. bottom-up processing. d. top-down processing.

ANSWER: c 7. “Pop-out” stimuli are associated with _____ searching by the visual system. a. feature b. conjunction c. top-down d. memorial ANSWER: a 8. In conjunction searches, it is as if a mental spotlight scans from one location to another, searching for a particular combination of sensory information. This is an example of: a. parallel processing. b. serial processing. c. contralateral neglect. d. remedial processing.

ANSWER: b 9. The proposal that there are several different feature maps implies that there must be _____ in the visual system of the brain. a. top-down processing b. parallel processing c. stereopsis d. bottom-up processing ANSWER: b 10. In Treisman's theory, a stimulus is broken down into separate feature maps after it is initially registered in area: a. V1. b. V3. c. V4. d. V5.

ANSWER: a 11. Posner and Raichle suggest that _____ provides the “glue” that integrates features into a unitary object. a. memory b. the amygdala c. attention d. consciousness ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 22: Multiple Choice 12. Moran and Desimone showed that monkey neurons responded selectively to specific stimuli in their visual fields: a. after reward training. b. when the stimulus was presented to the right hemifield. c. when the stimulus was presented to the left hemifield. d. when the stimulus was green.

ANSWER: a 13. In Moran and Desimone's experiment, they found attentional effects in the monkey brain cells in areas: a. V4. b. V1. c. V1 and V4. d. V4 and TE. ANSWER: d 14. Moran and Desimone showed that cells showing constraints related to spatial attention were found in area: a. V1. b. T1. c. T4. d. V3.

ANSWER: a 15. Petersen and colleagues propose that the collicular–pulvinar spotlight is part of a _____ process in attention. a. bottom-up b. top-down c. filtering d. redundancy ANSWER: b 16. Kolb and Whishaw suggest that when we multitask, we recruit additional resources from which brain region? a. parietal cortex b. prefrontal cortex c. hippocampus d. occipital lobe ANSWER: b 17. Work by Corbetta and colleagues suggests that the _____ is activated during attention-shifting studies, regardless of which visual field contains the stimulus. a. left parietal cortex Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 22: Multiple Choice b. left hippocampus c. right parietal cortex d. cortical area V4 ANSWER: c 18. Taken together, the experiments of Corbetta and colleagues suggest that _____ cortex/cortices is/are activated during tasks that call for attention to location. a. the parietal b. the occipitotemporal c. both the parietal and occipitotemporal d. neither the parietal nor the occipitotemporal ANSWER: a 19. If a monkey is required to pay attention to the color and form of a stimulus in particular, Corbetta and colleagues found that _____ cortex/cortices is/are activated. a. the parietal b. the occipitotemporal c. both the parietal and occipitotemporal d. neither the parietal nor the occipitotemporal ANSWER: b 20. Posner and Petersen suggest that the dual executive network is located in the: a. left parietal cortex. b. bilateral temporal cortex. c. hippocampus. d. frontal lobes, particularly the anterior cingulate.

ANSWER: d 21. Neglect syndrome has been associated with deficits in which attention network? a. ventral orienting network b. executive attention network c. dorsal orienting network d. lateral attention network ANSWER: c 22. Chronic stress has been shown to alter the structure of the prefrontal cortex in all of these disorders EXCEPT: a. schizophrenia. b. depression. c. anxiety disorders. d. seizure disorders.

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Chapter 22: Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 23. Attentional blink is a phenomenon characterized by the individual failing to detect a second visual stimulus that is presented _____ milliseconds after the first stimulus. a. 250 b. 500 c. 750 d. 100 ANSWER: b 24. Simons and Chabris asked subjects to count the number of passes in a video of basketball players. Most subjects were surprised that they had failed to spot: a. several passes. b. a gorilla. c. a cheerleader. d. Superman.

ANSWER: b 25. Frontal-lobe neglect differs from parietal-lobe neglect because it is directed only to the region of the perception of _____ space. a. distant b. virtual c. grasping d. adaptive ANSWER: c 26. What is the definition of the “pop-out” effect? a. When engaged in visual search, it does not matter if the target stimuli consist of an extra feature or the absence of a feature—the time to complete is the same. b. Items appear to jump out at you if the target involves the addition of a feature, thus requiring less search time. c. We have to attend to every aspect of a stimulus for at least 1 minute for the relevant feature to pop out. d. Conjunction search relies on parallel searching to reduce the time to identify the target.

ANSWER: b 27. During a football game, the quarterback throws a ball halfway down the field. While several players are in or close to the endzone, he manages to connect with his target, a player on his team wearing number 11. The reason for this is that: a. his motor skills far surpass his visual search ability. b. he has an exceptional ability to engage in a serial search. c. his teammate was equally engaged in a serial search that allowed him to be in position.

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Chapter 22: Multiple Choice d. his teammate's jersey provided a pop-out effect so that he could easily direct the ball his way.

ANSWER: d 28. The limited ability to perceive all the environmental stimuli in any particular time frame is referred to as a(n): a. bottleneck. b. attentional blink. c. attentional insufficiency. d. selection bias.

ANSWER: a 29. Research on divided attention indicates that attempting to spread attention across several tasks leads to performance deficits. In a majority of states it is illegal to for a driver to use a cell phone while actively on the road, yet we routinely talk to people in our vehicles without issue. Which statement provides an explanation? a. It's difficult to conceptualize how divided attention impacts driving, so it's a law without support. b. When engaging in conversation with a person in your vehicle, she can also attend to the changing environmental demands and refrain from continuing conversation. c. Divided attention does not account for the superior language ability most drivers possess. d. The auditory frequency is different on the phone relative to in person, and it requires a different level of attentional focus.

ANSWER: b 30. Which structure is likely to be engaged when we are actively dividing our attention, not only across tasks but also between sensory modalities? a. ventromedial PFC b. anterior cingulate cortex c. dorsolateral PFC d. orbitofrontal PFC ANSWER: c 31. The neurotransmitter associated with the orienting network is: a. dopamine. b. acetylcholine. c. norepinephrine. d. epinephrine.

ANSWER: b 32. Liston and colleagues conducted an fMRI study (2009) illustrating that chronic stress can greatly impact the ability to perform an attention shifting task. Which of the following denotes the pattern of brain activity during this task by stressed individuals? a. decreased activation in anterior cingulate cortex Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 22: Multiple Choice b. increased activation in posterior parietal cortex c. increased activation in DLPFC d. decreased activation in striate cortex ANSWER: a 33. Individuals who have difficulty disconnecting from fearful environmental stimuli such that they may relive experiences or have disturbing dreams may be dealing with: a. PTSD. b. OCD. c. ASD. d. ADHD. ANSWER: a 34. Individuals who conduct hours of film editing sometimes fail to recognize changes in the scene that may have occurred over various takes such as objects being moved or added in later shots. This failure is an example of: a. neglect. b. inattention blindness. c. attentional malfunction. d. change blindness.

ANSWER: d 35. Following a right temporoparietal stroke, some individuals experience sensory neglect. At times, the symptoms are subtle and require presenting: a. identical stimuli one at a time to assess for object-recognition deficits. b. two stimuli simultaneously to each visual field to determine if they experience extinction. c. two stimuli to the right visual field only to assess for hemineglect. d. two stimuli to the left visual field only to assess for hemineglect.

ANSWER: b 36. Patients in a persistent vegetative state (PVS) provide insight into our understanding of consciousness. The research suggests the possibility that multiple brain regions underlie our state of consciousness, including the: a. pons. b. midbrain. c. dlPFC. d. amygdala.

ANSWER: c 37. According to the literature on consciousness, which of these is necessary to take part in conscious behaviors? a. detection of sensory stimuli Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 22: Multiple Choice b. generation of complex language structures c. active long-term memory retrieval d. motor skills in all extremities ANSWER: a 38. A functional neuroimaging study used a technique that produced selective suppression of a face (from conscious awareness). Which result was obtained when comparing the visible and the invisible faces? a. The fusiform face area (FFA) responded equally as strongly for both visible and invisible faces. b. There were no differences in responses in the superior temporal sulcus viewing fearful faces. c. There was a correlation between amygdala and FFA in the invisible face condition. d. While the amygdala responded to visible faces, the response was enhanced for fearful faces.

ANSWER: d 39. According to Daniel Kahneman, who expanded on the study of conscious versus unconscious decision making: a. system 1 is slow, effortful, logical thinking. b. system 1 is fast, instinctive, and unconscious. c. system 2 is fast, instinctive, and unconscious. d. system 2 does most our mental work on decision making.

ANSWER: b 40. Symptoms associated with hemispatial neglect are more pronounced following right-hemisphere damage relative to left-hemisphere damage. This suggests that: a. regarding visuospatial awareness, the right hemisphere is dominant. b. lesions to the left hemisphere result in increased sensory deficits. c. selective attention is a process that engages only for left-hemisphere stimuli. d. regarding visuospatial awareness, the left hemisphere is dominant.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 22: Short Answer 1. Define bottom-up processing and top-down processing. Give an example of each.

ANSWER: Bottom-up processing refers to unconscious, automatic behavior that can occur without intentional awareness. An example is brushing your teeth. Top-down processing involves controlled, effortful, conscious processing. An example is actively searching for street signs.

2. Why does finding a target with an extra feature take less time than finding one that lacks a common feature?

ANSWER: This search phenomenon describes what is called the pop-out effect. We don't have to engage in a thorough, effortful visual search because the target with the extra feature is dramatically different from its neighbors.

3. Define parallel processing and serial processing. Explain how they work together in feature searches.

ANSWER: Serial processing refers to the manner in which the visual system scans stimuli for specific features or a combination of features, moving from one location to the next. Parallel processing is the evaluation that occurs when scanning a complex scene with neurons in another visual system region, say V4, for colors of stimuli. Serial processing allows for visual scanning of locations for a particular item, while parallel processing examines the conjunction of features.

4. What constitutes a feature?

ANSWER: A feature is simply an element of an object that the visual system neuron can detect. It could be a line segment, or it could be a color, size, and so on.

5. What evolutionary advantage might there be for faster detection of sad versus happy faces?

ANSWER: The advantage would be one related to safety. Negative (sad or angry) faces would likely signal some type of threat, and therefore to allow for escape, it would be beneficial if such signals were processed in less time.

6. Identify the different attentional mechanisms suggested by electrophysiological evidence from monkeys.

ANSWER: V4 neurons are selective to color and form; ventral TE demonstrates selectivity to objects. Neurons in both regions can adapt to respond to targets in a more specific region of the receptive field of the neuron based on task demands.

7. Describe the role of selective attention in the neural responses of the monkey in the experiment by Moran and Desimone.

ANSWER: Selective attention contributes to increased neuronal firing in TE, which corresponds to the level of effort the task demands.

8. What is the evidence that the response characteristics of neurons in the monkey brain change with task demands?

ANSWER: Some neurons have an innate selectivity preference for particular stimuli. However, this preference has some variability range, such that if a stimulus is close to the preferred stimulus, the neurons could fire. Varying the task difficulty could result in increased firing in neurons that may not otherwise respond. For example, the task demands for a task of fixed attention are much less than one requiring shifts of attention.

9. How do the results of the Corbetta and colleagues study shed light on the finding that patients with rightCopyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 22: Short Answer posterior-parietotemporal lesions show more pronounced contralateral neglect than do patients with lefthemisphere lesions?

ANSWER: The Corbetta study investigated shifts of attention and the regions that could potentially serve this demanding task. It was compared with a fixed-attention task. Results from this study highlight the superior role of the right parietal cortex in governing attentional processing, regardless of the visual field presentation (left or right visual field).

10. Cite evidence that attention is not a “thing in a place” in the brain.

ANSWER: Research on networks of attention from Posner and Petersen describes attention as a distributed network subserved by distributed anatomical areas. They present different processes for alerting, orienting, and executive control attention. The neuroanatomical structures associated with these networks are the reticular activating system (alerting); frontal eye fields and the intraparietal sulcus, as well as the temporoparietal junction (orienting); and the dorsolateral-PFC–parietal network and the anterior cingulate/medial frontal–anterior insular network (executive).

11. What is different about Posner and Petersen's dual executive network in the frontal lobes?

ANSWER: Posner and Petersen's dual executive model is somewhat controversial, given that many researchers prefer a single, unified executive network theory. The current Posner and Peterson model suggests a top-down dorsolateral-PFC–parietal network for transient attention, and a separate anterior/cingulate medial frontal–anterior insular network for mediating sustained attentional activity.

12. What is the evidence that stress might have a detrimental effect on attention?

ANSWER: Liston and colleagues compared the performance of healthy adults on an attention-shifting task. Half the subjects were medical students who were in the process of studying for a major exam, and the other half were demographically matched but unstressed. All engaged in the task while being scanned (using fMRI). Results indicated impaired performance by the medical students relative to the matched group. Additionally, the students' brains showed attenuated brain activation in the DLPFC, anterior cingulate, and posterior parietal cortices.

13. What is attentional blink?

ANSWER: Individuals experience attentional blink when they fail to detect a second visual stimulus when it's presented within 500 milliseconds of the first stimulus.

14. What are the paradigms of inattention?

ANSWER: The paradigms are inattentional blindness, change blindness, and attentional blink. Inattentional blindness happens when people fail to notice an event that occurs as they are performing another task. Change blindness occurs when a person fails to detect changes in the presence, identity, or location of objects in scenes. Attentional blink occurs when a person fails to detect a second visual target presented within 500 milliseconds of the first one.

15. Why do patients with left-parietal lesions generally not experience neglect while patients with right-parietal lesions do?

ANSWER: The right hemisphere (parietal cortex) mediates attention for both visual fields (right and left); however, the left hemisphere subserves attention only to stimuli presented to the right visual field.

This means that when the left hemisphere is damaged, there is a backup to process attention, Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 22: Short Answer whereas when the right parietal is damaged, there is no backup in place.

16. Distinguish between frontal-lobe neglect and parietal-lobe neglect.

ANSWER: Frontal-lobe damage can result in neglect, though it is less common. The brain region typically involved is area 6 or the premotor cortex. Symptoms tend to be directed only to the region related to grasping space, whereas parietal-lobe neglect extends to distant space.

17. What brain regions would you expect to be particularly active in a PET scan during a task in which the attended stimulus is presented in the left visual field only?

ANSWER: You would expect that the right-hemisphere brain regions would be particularly active.

18. Which processes are critical for consciousness?

ANSWER: The processes are arousal (waking the brain), perception (detection of sensory features), attention (selection of a restricted sample of available information), and working memory (short-term storage of ongoing events).

19. What evidence did Jeannerod and colleagues find regarding the dissociation between behavior and awareness?

ANSWER: The Jeannerod study was an experimental manipulation similar to how athletes time hitting a baseball before they are consciously aware of it. Participants were required to make adjustments in a grasping movement to acquire the target. This time of action relies on the dorsal stream (unconscious behavior). If we are making adjustments consciously, the ventral stream is at work.

20. Regarding the cerebral source of consciousness, discuss which brain regions have been identified as crucial to conscious behavior.

ANSWER: When a patient is under general anesthesia or in a coma, the following regions have been shown to be inactive: the dlPFC, medial frontal cortex, posterior parietal cortex, and posterior cingulate cortex. Given the role of these structures in actions such as memory, problem solving, language, and attention, it stands to reason that they would be inactive under such conditions. Conversely, the claustrum has been implicated in mediating unconscious states, perhaps by coordinating diffuse regions.

21. Compare automatic and conscious processing.

ANSWER: Automatic processing refers to unconscious, effortless behavior. Conversely, controlled processing requires active attentional focus. It can be viewed as a top-down process. Some actions can start out as a controlled process and transition to an automatic process with training. For example, learning to drive a car with a manual transmission requires intense focus on every facet of driving. However, following practice, eventually this task can become so automatic that you don't have to allocate any attentional resources to shifting or balancing the accelerator and clutch.

22. Discuss the functional-imaging literature that identified structures involved in attention and the potential clinical implications if damage is sustained.

ANSWER: Corbetta (1993) conducted studies that measured shifting attention versus fixed attention. The results indicated that the right parietal cortex exhibited increased activity when stimuli were Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 22: Short Answer presented to either visual field, but the left parietal cortex was active only when objects were presented to the right (contralateral) visual field. These findings may explain why the deficits of hemispatial neglect are so great following right-parietal damage. Because the right parietal cortex is processing stimuli from the entire visual field, the deficits are markedly more significant.

23. Identify which structures and neurotransmitters subserve the attention networks.

ANSWER: The alerting network, which can be thought of as engaging our focused, vigilant aspect of attention, relies on the frontal and parietal cortices and the locus coeruleus using norepinephrine. The orienting network uses acetylcholine and engages the superior parietal lobe, frontal eye fields, superior colliculus, and pulvinar—all of which play a role in directing our attention toward sensory stimuli. Lastly, the executive network activates the anterior cingulate, anterior insula, and basal ganglia with dopaminergic projections.

24. Contrast the dorsal visual stream and ventral visual stream with regards to consciousness.

ANSWER: The dorsal stream is an unconscious process that responds rapidly and without awareness, whereas the ventral stream is a conscious system.

A number of interesting theoretical ideas have been suggested regarding attention, consciousness, and related concepts. Match each person(s) the appropriate concept. a. feature maps b. divided attention c. attention in area TE d. dual executive networks 25. Treisman ANSWER: a 26. Kahneman ANSWER: b 27. Moran and Desimone ANSWER: c 28. Posner and Petersen ANSWER: d Based on work by Maurizio Corbetta, match each region of brain activation with the corresponding process. a. attention to location b. attention to color c. attention to shape d. both selective and divided attention 29. parietal cortex ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 22: Short Answer 30. area V4 ANSWER: b 31. areas V3 and TE ANSWER: c 32. anterior cingulate ANSWER: d

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Chapter 23: Multiple Choice 1. The major language areas in the brain are located in the: a. right hemisphere. b. left hemisphere. c. cerebellum. d. hippocampus.

ANSWER: b 2. Which of these would appear earliest in the developmental sequence? a. synaptogenesis b. migration c. differentiation d. functional validation ANSWER: b 3. Migrating neuroblasts are guided by: a. electrical gradients. b. radial glial cells. c. internal maps. d. neurogenesis.

ANSWER: b 4. Dendrite growth differs from axonal growth in that: a. axons grow much more quickly than dendrites in order to play a role in shaping dendritic growth. b. axons grow much more quickly than dendrites in order to reach a larger maximum size. c. dendrites grow much more quickly than axons in order to play a role in shaping axonal growth. d. dendrites grow much more quickly than axons in order to reach a larger maximum size.

ANSWER: a 5. The two events that take place in the development of a dendrite are _____ and the growth of dendritic spines. a. synaptic pruning b. athetosis c. arborization d. myelogenesis ANSWER: c 6. The number of synapses in the human cerebral cortex is approximately: a. 108. b. 1010. c. 1012. d. 1014.

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Chapter 23: Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 7. Some behavioral abilities do not emerge until adolescence because: a. society restricts what adolescents can do. b. the fully developed brain is acted upon by sex hormones. c. the human brain continues to develop well past adolescence. d. adolescence culminates with the development of the neural tube.

ANSWER: c 8. Myelination of the human cortex continues until about _____ years of age. a. 6 b. 10 c. 12 d. 18 ANSWER: d 9. Some cortical areas are myelinated as early as age: a. 3 months. b. 18 months. c. 3 years. d. 6 years.

ANSWER: c 10. Neuroimaging studies of children with childhood-onset schizophrenia show a _____ in cortical gray volume. a. 10% decrease b. 30% decrease c. 10% increase d. 30% increase ANSWER: a 11. According to Epstein, the human brain exhibits several growth spurts. The last of these occurs at about age: a. 2 to 4 years. b. 10 to 12 years. c. 14 to 16 years. d. 18 to 20 years.

ANSWER: c 12. A study of Romanian orphans showed that infants adopted at 18 months or older tended to have IQs that were _____ or more points lower than average. a. 2 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 23: Multiple Choice b. 5 c. 15 d. 25 ANSWER: c 13. Exposure to an enriched environment increases brain size. This size increase is related to each of these EXCEPT: a. the density of glial cells. b. the density of dendritic spines. c. the size of synapses. d. decreases in the length of pyramidal-cell dendrites.

ANSWER: d 14. The main changes in the visual system following monocular deprivation in kittens are seen at the level of the: a. visual cortex. b. lateral geniculate. c. retina. d. synapses.

ANSWER: a 15. Hubel and Wiesel sewed a kitten's eye shut for a time. After the eye was allowed to open again, it: a. was essentially blind. b. had improved visual acuity. c. showed no change. d. led to abnormal cell activation.

ANSWER: a 16. The concept that sparing of function follows infant brain lesions is known as the: a. Hubel and Wiesel law. b. Kennard principle. c. Basser hypothesis. d. Flechsig concept.

ANSWER: b 17. In terms of escaping with minimal effects of brain damage on language, the BEST age to incur the damage would be _____ year(s) of age. a. before 1 b. between 1 and 5 c. between 6 and 10 d. after 10 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 23: Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 18. In humans, synaptic density is greatest at about age: a. 2 months. b. 12 months. c. 6 years. d. 16 years.

ANSWER: b 19. Early damage to the medial temporal area is MOST likely to be noticed in: a. math abilities. b. social behaviors. c. visual agnosias. d. language deficits.

ANSWER: b 20. Kolb and colleagues demonstrated that tactile stimulation following lesions of the frontal cortex resulted in which of these? a. increased synaptogenesis b. decreased synaptogenesis c. increased synaptic pruning d. decreased synaptic pruning ANSWER: a 21. The human brain develops in a fixed sequence. What could be a potential consequence of a lack of cell migration and differentiation? a. brain lesions b. inappropriate growth of brain matter and less distinct cells types c. excessive apoptosis d. increased neural stem cell generation ANSWER: b 22. Injury to the nervous system may NOT lead to permanent injury due to the presence of: a. the neural tube. b. neuroblasts. c. neural stem cells. d. glioblasts.

ANSWER: c 23. How can studying the rat brain contribute to understanding the human brain? a. understanding age-related neurogenesis Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 23: Multiple Choice b. understanding the development of language c. learning how to create new stem cells d. understanding how apoptosis is associated with spatial abilities ANSWER: a 24. Due to a car accident, a pregnant mother was injured, as was her unborn child. Considering fetal development and examination of the mother, the physician indicated that the unborn child would likely be able to withstand the injury. During what stage of fetal development did the accident likely occur? a. 3 months b. 5 months c. 6 months d. 8 months ANSWER: a 25. What is a potential result of a disruption of cell differentiation while in utero? a. limited impact due to adolescent cell growth and differentiation b. Huntington disease c. increased presence of neuroblasts d. holoprosencephaly ANSWER: d 26. The brain can adapt following an injury or disturbance in maturation. Therefore, how can abnormal axonal growth be observed? a. Damaged axonal growth can be observed solely postmortem. b. Depending on the extent of the disruption, axonal growth can be altered and impact neural connections. c. Disrupted axonal connections can be found through genetic testing. d. Extensive damage to axonal growth is needed to observe a behavioral effect.

ANSWER: b 27. Learning has been shown to be related to synaptic changes within the brain. Which form of synaptic growth would be impacted by the lack of exposure to stimuli and absence of experiences? a. experience expectant b. neither experience expectant nor experience dependent c. both experience expectant and experience dependent d. experience dependent ANSWER: c 28. After maturation of the human brain, its size and density do not dramatically change. So how is new synaptic formation due to learning across the life span explained? a. Experience-expectant synapses rapidly decrease as experience-dependent synapses form.

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Chapter 23: Multiple Choice b. Increased synaptic connections increase cortical mass, so less cerebrospinal fluid is produced. c. As new synapses form, dendritic pruning is activated. d. The rate of new synaptic formation is balanced with loss of old neural connections.

ANSWER: d 29. The loss of brain tissue is often considered maladaptive. When are changes in brain tissue seen as appropriate and necessary? a. loss of gray matter in conjunction with an increase of white matter through the life span b. increase in gray matter balanced with the loss of white matter during fetal development c. loss of both gray and white matter during adolescence d. increase of both gray and white matter during adulthood ANSWER: a 30. What changes in neural maturation support the idea of the development of judgement and reasoning skills continuing into adulthood? a. Gray-matter connections within the occipital lobe mature during late adolescence. b. White-matter pathways within the frontal lobe reach full development after age 18. c. Cortical connections projecting from the corpus callosum reach maturity around age 30. d. Dendritic branching halts in early adolescence.

ANSWER: b 31. What are potential benefits to further research on the connection between ADHD and cortical development? a. development of more sophisticated technology to identify increased cortical development to better diagnose ADHD b. better understanding of the connection between increased cortical development and the behavioral symptoms of ADHD c. targeted treatments to slow cortical development to relieve ADHD symptoms d. better understanding of the impact of the delay of cortical development and targeted treatment options ANSWER: d 32. Children and adolescents demonstrating a significant permanent decrease in gray matter, as seen via imaging studies, would likely have: a. learning disorders. b. ADHD. c. childhood-onset schizophrenia. d. increased IQ. ANSWER: c 33. Compare the utility of fNIRS imaging to an fMRI imaging technique in studying brain activity. a. fNIRS can be conducted on young children, as they do not have to remain still during the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 23: Multiple Choice examination. b. fMRI can be used throughout the life span, while fNIRS is limited to childhood. c. fMRI and fNIRS can be used interchangeably for children, but fMRI is better suited to adult patients because they can move freely during the examination. d. fNIRS can be used throughout the life span, while fMRI is limited to adult patients.

ANSWER: a 34. Research has shown what kind of relationship between brain development, learning/experience, and behavior? a. Brain development is more important for behavior expression than learning. b. Growth of brain structures and learning allow for the development of behavior. c. Only learning is essential for the presence of behavior. d. Behavior is correlated to brain growth during childhood, while learning is significantly correlated to behavior during adulthood.

ANSWER: b 35. Explain how brain growth spurts can be connected to increased cognitive development without an increase of neurons. a. increased synaptic and glial growth b. loss of neurons to allow for greater dendritic branching c. neurons increase only in the peripheral nervous system during brain growth spurts d. neurons double in size to allow for cognitive development ANSWER: a 36. When would changes in an individual's internal environment (hormones and nutrients) have a higher impact on how the brain reacts to experiences? a. internal factors have equal impact across the lifespan b. internal factors only have impact late in life c. internal factors impact only prenatal development d. internal factors impact individual's early in life ANSWER: d 37. Explain the impact of enriching stimuli on cognitive development. a. Cognitive development has a higher connection to enrichment during adolescence. b. Enrichment during both gestation and childhood can improve cognitive development. c. Lack of stimuli during prenatal development has a higher impact than it does in childhood. d. Enrichment later in life has a significant impact on cognitive development.

ANSWER: b 38. What is a potential benefit of continued research on prenatal drug exposure? a. learning how to increase prenatal drug exposure Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 23: Multiple Choice b. understanding the positive results of prenatal drug exposure c. better understanding the amount of drug exposure when adverse reactions in brain development can be found d. learning how prenatal drug exposure is related to increased cognitive abilities in adolescence ANSWER: c 39. A child that comes from a low-SES home with prenatal nutrient deficiencies, like iron, would have what likely result? a. deficits in language abilities and emotional regulation b. increased reading abilities with deficits in emotional regulation c. increased probability of motor dysfunction d. decrease in both spatial abilities and visual acuity ANSWER: a

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Chapter 23: Short Answer 1. What are three ways to examine the relationship between neural function and behavioral changes in development? Make sure to mention potential advantages and/or disadvantages of each.

ANSWER: The first way is to relate CNS maturation to the development of specific behaviors; the disadvantage to this approach is the inability to account for confounding variables. The second way is to examine behavior and infer the neural processes that could be underlying these behaviors, but this is also an indirect evaluation of neural development. The third way is to identify factors that influence both behavioral maturation and neural development, such as hormone development/expression or environmental stimulation. The advantage here is thoroughly evaluating the confounds, but the disadvantage is still a lack of a causal direction.

2. Why is cell death such an important part of the development of the brain?

ANSWER: Apoptosis is programmed cell death that is critical for pruning the initial excess neurons. Deficits in pruning have been associated with learning disabilities and/or behavioral problems.

3. Describe two types of abnormal brain development.

ANSWER: Table 23.2 outlines different types of abnormal brain development. One is called cerebellar agenesis, where parts of the cerebellum, basal ganglia, or spinal cord are absent or malformed. A second is called lissencephaly, where the brain fails to form sulci and gyri and corresponds to that of a 12-week embryo.

4. What is the role of radial glial cells in neuron cell migration?

ANSWER: Radial glial cells provide a road map for neurons during the migration process, allowing them to arrive in the right location.

5. Identify the five phases of synapse formation in the cerebral cortex of primates as proposed by Bourgeois.

ANSWER: Phases 1 and 2 are synapse formation; phase 3 is synapse growth (begins prebirth); phase 4 is a plateau in growth that is followed by reductions; and phase 5 is a slow decline in synaptic density (experience dependent).

6. How might the developmental course of myelination be related to the maturation of motor skills?

ANSWER: For the child to engage in motoric behavior, such as crawling or walking, these targets must be reached—meaning both synapses formed and myelination complete for those skills.

7. How is the adolescent brain different from that of a child and that of an adult?

ANSWER: The adolescent brain is characterized by rapid synaptic pruning and the growth of connections, particularly those related to the prefrontal cortex, and by differences in the volume of gray and white matter and levels of transmitters, such as dopamine and GABA. 8. What brain abnormalities have been found in children with ADHD? ANSWER: A decreased volume of the prefrontal cortex, which has been delayed by approximately two and a half years, has been found. A delay in pruning has also been found.

9. What brain abnormalities have been found in children with schizophrenia?

ANSWER: A 10% decrease in cortical gray volume and progressive loss in both frontal and temporal brain regions that also correlate with symptom severity have been found.

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Chapter 23: Short Answer 10. What are Piaget's four stages of cognitive development? Briefly characterize each stage.

ANSWER: The four stages are (1) sensorimotor: the child learns object permanence; (2) preoperational: highlighted by pretend play, egocentrism, and language; (3) concrete operational: the development of logical thinking and the concept of conservation; and (4) formal operational: characterized by abstract thinking and moral reasoning.

11. Studies examining the outcome of Romanian orphans who were adopted into families after the fall of communism in the 1980s provided what information?

ANSWER: Studies examining the outcome of Romanian orphans who were adopted into families after the fall of communism in the 1980s found that early experience has profound effects on brain development and that the age at adoption is critical. Generally, infants adopted prior to 6 months of age had average IQs, whereas those adopted at 18 months of age or older had lower IQs, smaller brains, and chronic cognitive and social deficits.

12. What evidence from rats indicates that pregnant mothers should have access to stimulating environments?

ANSWER: The study by Robbin Gibb demonstrated a modified environment led to offspring with larger brains that also showed superior cognitive ability and motor skills. The researchers could not determine the source of the increase in brain size, as it could have been due to increased numbers of neurons, glia, or synapses.

13. What are the effects on visual cortical neurons of monocular deprivation during the early life of kittens?

ANSWER: The effects of monocular deprivation on the visual cortical neurons include a diminishing of the target connections for the deprived eye and expanded target connections for those in the open eye.

Once the deprived eye is opened, it appears to still be “blind” initially but improves in time. Early sensory deprivation is the most damaging.

14. What is the Kennard principle? Explain why it is good news for infants who suffer early damage.

ANSWER: Early cortical lesions (as opposed to lesions in adulthood) lead to better outcomes. However, they are largely dependent on factors such as the region of injury, the developmental stage at injury, the age of assessment, the behavior being measured, and hormones. For infants, it is indicative of a greater chance for functional recovery.

15. What are the effects on language of early-onset lesions (e.g. childhood and/or adolescence) to the left hemisphere, compared with similar lesions in adults?

ANSWER: Children sustaining these types of brain injuries almost always recover speech/language compared with adults.

16. What are the three critical age divisions related to the effects of brain lesions on cognitive abilities, and how do they differ?

ANSWER: The three age divisions are before 1 year of age, between 1 and 5 years of age, and older than 5 years of age. Lesions incurred before 1 year of age tend to produce disproportionately greater impairments than do those incurred later. Lesions incurred between 1 and 5 years of age are followed by some reorganization of brain function, including the rescue of language functions.

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Chapter 23: Short Answer Lesions incurred later than 5 years of age permit little or no sparing of function.

17. What is one proposal about why some kinds of visuospatial orientation are impaired following early lefthemisphere injury?

ANSWER: The general working theory is that the right-hemisphere regions take over the language functions following injury. As a result, visuospatial abilities become compromised.

18. Discuss the areas of early brain damage most likely to result in (a) no shift in language functions, (b) complete shift of language to the right hemisphere, and (c) shift of posterior speech functions.

ANSWER: The anterior aspect of the frontal cortex would result in no shift of language; the lateral aspect of the inferior frontal cortex combined with the superior temporal parietal cortex would result in a complete shift of language; and the lateral occipital cortex would result in a shift of posterior speech functions.

19. What are the effects of area TE lesions in monkeys on performance in the delayed nonmatching-to-sample task? What are the effects of medial temporal lobe lesions? Discuss the difference.

ANSWER: TE lesions resulted in impaired performance on the delayed nonmatching-to-sample task, while medial temporal lesions produced social impairments similar to those exhibited by individuals with autism. Additionally, TE produced hyperactivity similar to ADHD in the monkeys.

20. Why would it be beneficial to provide regular tactile stimulation to an infant who had suffered a cortical lesion?

ANSWER: Research has shown dendritic growth, an increase in neurotrophic factors, and an increase in ACh release as a result of tactile stimulation. This stimulation has also been correlated with recovery by expanding cortical maps subsequent to lesions.

21. Explain the value of researching individuals like Alex, who have major brain surgeries and have demonstrated new cognitive skills.

ANSWER: These individuals demonstrate the plasticity of the brain. Alex is a great example that skills like language that are understood to be developed early in life can be developed later through new neural connections. The brain can be more flexible after injury than expected.

22. What is a potential practical application of future research on neurogenesis throughout life?

ANSWER: Further research into how neurogenesis is activated could lead to developments in the treatment of injury or disease due to cellular death.

23. How efficient and/or effective would cell migration be without the presence of radial glial cells?

ANSWER: Some cells have been shown to follow chemical signals for migration. However, most cells migrate to their intended location via radial glial cells. Therefore, cells may move to incorrect locations.

There are numerous types of abnormal development of the human brain. For each development issue, select the appropriate term. a. anencephaly b. lissencephaly Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 23: Short Answer c. holoprosencephaly d. heterotopia 24. absence of cerebral hemispheres, diencephalon, and midbrain ANSWER: a 25. failure to form sulci and gyri ANSWER: b 26. single undifferentiated hemisphere ANSWER: c 27. aborted cell migration of gray matter ANSWER: d Match each research area with the researcher MOST associated with it. a. Flechsig b. Piaget c. Hubel and Wiesel d. Rasmussen and Milner 28. myelination index ANSWER: a 29. cognitive development ANSWER: b 30. ocular dominance columns ANSWER: c 31. speech lateralization ANSWER: d

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Chapter 24: Multiple Choice 1. Because reading is central to success in school, _____ is central to the study of neurodevelopmental disorders. a. strephosymbolia b. dyslexia c. learning disabilities d. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder ANSWER: b 2. According to Orton, dyslexia results from: a. early brain trauma. b. anatomical absence. c. delayed function. d. environmental deprivation.

ANSWER: c 3. The dictionary-like store of words in the brain is referred to as: a. a grapheme store. b. Wernicke's area. c. a lexicon. d. long-term memory.

ANSWER: c 4. Reading by sounding out phonemes is termed _____ reading. a. graphemic b. lexical c. look-and-see d. phonological ANSWER: d 5. Which of these is NOT considered to be a primary cause of reading disabilities? a. auditory deficiency b. phonological deficiency c. attentional deficiency d. sensory deficiency ANSWER: a 6. In Tallal's study, normal individuals required interstimulus intervals of _____ milliseconds to tell if one or two tones had been presented. a. between 300 and 450 b. between 100 and 150 c. between 10 and 40 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 24: Multiple Choice d. at least 650 ANSWER: c 7. Individuals with developmental dyslexia do particularly poorly on the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children test of: a. comprehension. b. digit span. c. similarities. d. vocabulary.

ANSWER: b 8. The ACID profile is characteristic of which learning disorder? a. hyperactive-child syndrome b. cerebral palsy c. fragile-X syndrome d. dyslexia ANSWER: d 9. Many more boys than girls are diagnosed as having: a. cerebral palsy. b. ADHD. c. hydrocephalus. d. acquired dyslexia.

ANSWER: b 10. By adolescence, _____ to _____ of children with hyperactivity have begun to have problems with the law. a. 5%; 10% b. 15%; 30% c. 25%; 50% d. 50%; 75% ANSWER: c 11. Although controversial, the stimulant Ritalin is widely used in the treatment of: a. dyslexia. b. autism. c. cerebral palsy. d. hyperactivity.

ANSWER: d 12. It is the result of early brain trauma. It is probably most useful as an “administrative term.” It is not curable.

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Chapter 24: Multiple Choice a. Asperger syndrome. b. hydrocephalus. c. cerebral palsy. d. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.

ANSWER: c 13. The MOST likely cause(s) of cerebral palsy is/are: a. febrile convulsions. b. birth or developmental injury. c. toxins in the water or air. d. herpes simplex.

ANSWER: b 14. Stimulants may be effective for some cases of children with learning disabilities because cerebral activation increases: a. motivation. b. attention. c. visual acuity. d. reading skills.

ANSWER: b 15. The MOST typical cause of hydrocephalus is: a. too much CSF production. b. an absence of lateral ventricles. c. bad parenting. d. obstructed CSF flow.

ANSWER: d 16. CSF is made by the: a. choroid plexus. b. foramina of Magendie. c. fourth ventricle. d. ventral hypothalamus.

ANSWER: a 17. The male-to-female ratio in autism is about: a. 2 to 1. b. 3 to 1. c. 4 to 1. d. 6 to 1.

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Chapter 24: Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 18. A less severe form of autism is termed: a. savant syndrome. b. Down syndrome. c. Asperger syndrome. d. hyperlexia.

ANSWER: c 19. Impairments seen in children with autism in learning various motor skills and conditioned responses may be related MOST closely to abnormalities in the _____ of these individuals. a. cerebellum b. hippocampus c. frontal lobe d. temporal cortex ANSWER: a 20. Females with fragile-X syndrome have _____ severe symptoms than males because they have _____ X chromosome(s). a. less; one b. less; two c. more; one d. more; two ANSWER: b 21. _____ percent of the offspring of mothers who have alcohol use disorders have pronounced fetal alcohol syndrome. a. Two b. Six c. Twelve d. Twenty ANSWER: b 22. The Geschwind–Galaburda hypothesis suggests that _____ is/are responsible for asymmetric development of the cerebral hemispheres in males. a. abnormal CSF flow patterns b. early brain trauma c. fetal testosterone d. left-handedness ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 24: Multiple Choice 23. The Geschwind–Galaburda hypothesis proposes to account for all of these EXCEPT the: a. increased incidence of cerebral palsy in males. b. increased incidence of left-handedness in males. c. high incidence of precocity in males. d. higher incidence of autoimmune disorders in precocious males.

ANSWER: a 24. Children who enter school at a younger age tend to _____ their classmates. a. perform at a lower level than b. perform at a higher level than c. perform at an equal level with d. have fewer emotional problems than ANSWER: a 25. The ability to decompose a word into its individual speech sounds is termed: a. graphemic reading. b. phonemic awareness. c. disarticulation. d. lexical awareness.

ANSWER: b 26. While the majority of research on ADHD has focused on children and adolescents, these individuals may manifest some behaviors into adulthood. Which of these might be a manifestation of ADHD in an adult? a. poor sleep hygiene b. increased aggression c. difficulty completing activities of daily living d. inability maintaining steady employment ANSWER: d 27. There are a myriad of etiologies underlying cerebral palsy (CP). Which of these is a congenital basis for development of CP? a. toxins b. trauma c. respiratory block d. oversedation ANSWER: a 28. While much of the earlier research on fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD) targeted maternal consumption of alcohol, more recent work has examined the role of paternal drinking. How might paternal consumption be a contributing factor to FASD? a. Male consumption of alcohol will lead to decreased protein production.

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Chapter 24: Multiple Choice b. Male alcohol intake is likely to be higher due to increased body mass index. c. Alcohol may produce changes in the sperm that affect fetal development. d. Male alcohol intake has a negative effect on neurotransmitter receptors, leading to aberrant neurotransmission.

ANSWER: c 29. In addition to intellectual impairments, children with trisomy 21 often have several physical characteristics as well. Which characteristic is NOT associated with this disorder? a. flattened face b. increased muscle tone c. small hands and feet d. short stature ANSWER: b 30. Should there be an increase in the volume of cerebrospinal fluid in an infant, it produces an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP). If the increase in ICP is gradual as opposed to rapid, the cause can likely be attributed to which of the following? a. congenital obstruction b. anoxia c. stroke d. tumor ANSWER: d 31. Problems with the diagnosis and treatment of language impairment in children include all of these EXCEPT: a. It is nearly impossible to adequately assess children with language disorders because of their limited vocabulary. b. In some cases, the language impairment does not become obvious until adulthood, when more sophisticated language skills are necessary. c. Early childhood language acquisition is variable and not predictive of language disorder until 4 years of age. d. Children with language impairment may be introverted and thus not engage in conversation with many people.

ANSWER: a 32. A child has been referred to you for evaluation of language deficit. Over the course of the session, you notice that he seems to have difficulty producing sounds that make up specific words, sometimes even substituting an incorrect sound. It is likely that this child has: a. lexical sound disorder. b. phonemic insufficiency. c. speech sound disorder. d. graphemic insufficiency.

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Chapter 24: Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 33. Childhood-onset fluency disorder is not uncommon, and it does not always persist into adulthood. Which factor has been shown to be predictive of an ongoing adult fluency problem? a. age at the time of intelligible words b. poor nonverbal skills c. two languages spoken in the home d. older siblings with speech sound disorder ANSWER: b 34. At what age can a child be diagnosed with social communication disorder? a. 2 years b. between 2 and 4 years c. after 4 to 5 years d. younger than 2 years (babbling sound) ANSWER: c 35. You are evaluating a 2-year-old child for a suspected neurodevelopmental disability. The child is exhibiting difficulty with initiating peer play and engaging in conversation. Your initial hypothesis regarding a diagnosis is which of the following? a. autism spectrum disorder b. social communication disorder c. childhood fluency disorder d. fetal alcohol spectrum disorder ANSWER: a 36. Down syndrome is a congenital disorder resulting from: a. abnormality of the FMR1 gene. b. FMR protein abnormalities. c. the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. d. mutation of the HOSA1 gene.

ANSWER: c 37. The estimates for the incidence of developmental disorders in children varies because the deficits may present gradually over time. When standardized testing is used, what is the best estimate? a. 1% of 6-year-olds have a learning disability b. 17% of 7-year-olds have a learning disability c. 10% 10-year-olds have a learning disability d. 25% of 6-year-olds have a learning disability ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 24: Multiple Choice 38. While the exact etiology of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is still unknown, research has provided some insight into various aspects of the disorder. Which neurotransmitter that impacts neurodevelopment has been implicated? a. histamine b. serotonin c. dopamine d. glutamate ANSWER: d 39. While it's typical that children with ADHD are not diagnosed until they reach school age, there are some characteristic behaviors that these children exhibit. Which behavior may be displayed in early childhood? a. Children may acquire language skills earlier. b. Children may exhibit poor sleep hygiene. c. Children may have poor motor skills, walking later than typical children. d. Children may exhibit extraordinary appetite, overeating in many cases.

ANSWER: b 40. Neuroimaging research has implicated several aberrant structures and connection irregularities as contributing to the development of ADHD. Which of these has been associated with ADHD etiology? a. diminished ventral frontal white matter b. increased frontotemporal gray matter c. increased default mode connectivity d. decreased orbitofrontal gray matter ANSWER: d

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Chapter 24: Short Answer 1. Distinguish between graphemic and phonological reading. Give an example of each.

ANSWER: Phonological reading converts letter representations to phonemes. An example is phonetic reading.

Graphemic reading (also called lexical reading) is whole-word reading.

2. What does the research of Tallal suggest is a leading contributor of learning disabilities?

ANSWER: Tallal's research indicates a sensory deficit in the detection of sounds in a rapid rate of presentation.

Participants showed improvement in sound detection if presentation rates slowed and provided greater separation between tones.

3. What is the ACID profile? What does it show regarding children with learning disabilities?

ANSWER: ACID stands for arithmetic, coding, information, and digit span. These are subtests on which children with learning disabilities show the most impairment.

4. How is attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder distinguished from other types of learning disabilities?

ANSWER: Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)—characterized by the core behavioral symptoms of impulsivity, hyperactivity, and/or inattention—is distinguished from other types of learning disabilities in that an affected child displays behavioral problems in school. All aspects of school performance are usually disrupted. In addition to hyperactivity, children with ADHD may have specific learning disabilities, which possibly contribute to the ADHD. 5. According to the DSM-5, what are the main diagnostic criteria of ADHD? ANSWER: Inattention is comprised of six or more symptoms, including avoiding tasks, distractibility, decreased listening, decreased organization, and difficulty finishing assignments. Hyperactivity and impulsivity consist of six or more symptoms, including fidgeting, running about, talking excessively, and decreased ability in taking turns.

6. Why do stimulants such as amphetamines sometimes improve the performance of cognitive skills in children with learning disabilities?

ANSWER: The stimulants allow for increased concentration and the ability to stay on task.

7. Distinguish between cerebral palsy and hydrocephalus.

ANSWER: Hydrocephalus is specifically related to an increase in CSF volume, typically due to obstruction.

Conversely, cerebral palsy is an administrative term that is used to cover a variety of brain injuries (with no specific etiology) that typically occur during fetal development or birth.

8. What are some categories of potential causes of cerebral palsy? Give an example of each.

ANSWER: The categories are heredity (e.g., familial); congenital (e.g., anoxia, toxin); perinatal (e.g., birth complications, trauma); and postnatal (e.g., trauma, infections), intrauterine growth restriction (e.g. failure of fetus to attain predetermined growth potential).

9. What are some early signs that a child may have autism spectrum disorder?

ANSWER: Early signs include avoiding physical contact with parents or caregivers (they may arch their backs when touched), narrow peer play, and insisting on sameness.

10. Why do the authors of the text recommend that pregnant people not drink any alcohol during pregnancy?

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Chapter 24: Short Answer ANSWER: Fetal alcohol syndrome is not an all-or-none disorder; we don't know how much alcohol exposure leads to the disorder. Therefore, it's better to not drink at all for the duration of the pregnancy.

11. What is the basic premise of the Geschwind–Galaburda hypothesis? Do you find any flaws in this premise?

ANSWER: This theory proposes that embryonic testosterone delays left-hemisphere development. In males, this accounts for the dominance of the development of right-hemisphere-related abilities such as spatial navigation. Because all embryos start off female and only later differentiate to become male, this premise may not hold up, depending on the timing of neural development.

12. What is the birthday effect?

ANSWER: The birthday effect is the influence of one's birth date on subsequent success at sports or school.

Neuropsychologists need to be aware of the phases of cognitive development and their relationship to chronological age. Literature indicates students who start school early perform significantly more poorly in school. Moreover, they have more emotional problems, thus demonstrating that maturational age is critical to learning.

13. How would you counsel the parents of a child with mild learning disabilities, which are—in all likelihood— due to some genetic cause?

ANSWER: Parents should try to enhance learning by providing opportunities for personalized instruction, attention, and strategy formation. Additionally, parents can place the child in situations where they can learn skills that lead to employment rather than course work, where it is likely they will fail.

Lastly, parents should spend time understanding the challenges the child may face rather than the negative academic experience they may face, in order to prepare the child better and arm them with coping skills.

14. Overall, how do the feelings of people with learning disabilities toward school differ from the feelings of people who do not have learning disabilities? Why do you think that may be?

ANSWER: Students with learning disabilities often have negative experiences at school and, as a result, associated negative attitudes toward school. They often have decreased social interactions, suffer through school, and/or drop out early. Perhaps frustration at the difficulty to succeed and be accepted by their peers is a source of distress.

15. Describe the concept of a sensory impairment with respect to reading disabilities.

ANSWER: Some children with reading difficulties lack the ability to distinguish between specific phonemes.

Research using stop consonants has revealed that there could be a problem with the timing of the sounds such that readers may require additional time (relative to typical readers) to be able to discern the difference between “da” versus “de,” for example.

16. Explain why relative age can influence educational success.

ANSWER: In some areas of the United States, students are required to be a specific age at the beginning of their kindergarten school year. This may result in some children entering school at an older maturation level. They will have had more exposure to language and reading. Additionally, their brains will have had increased time to develop.

17. Explain the potential relationship between Down syndrome and Alzheimer disease.

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Chapter 24: Short Answer ANSWER: Individuals with Down syndrome previously had a life expectancy of 10 years of age. With advances in care, they now have a life expectancy of 47 to 60 years of age. With this increased longevity, research has started to indicate that individuals with Down syndrome have an increased risk of Alzheimer disease and other forms of dementia. Additionally, because of the extensive work that has been conducted thus far on the sequencing of the 21st chromosome, there is a possibility that this research could shed additional light on AD. 18. Discuss some of the neuropathology that has been implicated in the development and/or manifestation of autism spectrum disorder (ASD).

ANSWER: Some research suggests that aspects of the brainstem—in particular the caudal pons—have several nuclei that are significantly smaller or absent in individuals with ASD. The facial nucleus, superior olive, and trapezoid body are all diminished, and some individuals with ASD exhibit facial abnormalities that correspond to this pathology. Additionally, the cerebellum has been linked to the behavior of habituation, something that has been demonstrated to be impaired in individuals with ASD and may be the result of cerebellar pathology.

Match the research focus with researcher(s) it is most associated with. a. sluggish attention shifting b. deficiency in phonemic use and recognition c. too rapid presentation of sounds d. cerebral palsy 19. Ruffino ANSWER: a 20. DeWitt and Rauschecker ANSWER: b 21. Tallal ANSWER: c 22. Little ANSWER: d Match each symptom or profile to the corresponding diagnosis. a. autism b. hyperlexia c. savant d. dyslexia 23. extreme social withdrawal ANSWER: a 24. precocious reading Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 24: Short Answer ANSWER: b 25. isolated cognitive skills ANSWER: c 26. ACID ANSWER: d

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Chapter 25: Multiple Choice 1. In musicians, the size of the brain area representing the musical scale correlates with: a. the number of hours they practice per week. b. the number of instruments they can play. c. the age at which they began to practice. d. their skill level.

ANSWER: c 2. Ramachandran and Hirstein found that following hand amputations, the cortical map of the hand could be detected by stroking the: a. opposite hand. b. face. c. ear lobes. d. arm.

ANSWER: b 3. Long-term potentiation (LTP) was first found in the: a. hippocampus. b. cerebellum. c. pulvinar nucleus. d. amygdala.

ANSWER: a 4. After a series of higher-than-normal stimulations followed by a rest period, a baseline stimulation to a neuron elicits a greater excitatory postsynaptic potential from another neuron that receives its projections. This phenomenon is known as: a. long-term potentiation. b. kindling. c. ischemia. d. synaptogenesis.

ANSWER: a 5. Kindling has been demonstrated to occur in the: a. hippocampus. b. cerebellum. c. pulvinar nucleus. d. forebrain.

ANSWER: d 6. Based on the predictions from the work of Jacobs and colleagues, which occupation would you NOT expect to correlate with an increase in the size of the associated brain region? a. typist – finger representation Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 25: Multiple Choice b. tap dancer – foot representation c. clarinet player – musical scale representation d. singer – language representation ANSWER: d 7. Which factor does NOT increase cell proliferation of hippocampal granule neurons? a. adrenalectomy b. reduced daylight c. Prozac d. exposure to stress ANSWER: d 8. Which factor(s) increase(s) cell survival of hippocampal granule neurons? a. aging b. stress c. adrenal steroids d. Prozac ANSWER: d 9. _____ reflects brain changes that are necessary to modify neuronal ensembles that are already present. a. Long-term potentiation b. Experience-dependent plasticity c. Kindling d. Experience-expectant plasticity ANSWER: b 10. Ischemia often results in a sequence of events that include the entry of toxic levels of _____ into the affected neurons. a. sodium b. blood c. calcium d. glutamate ANSWER: c 11. Which is NOT part of the sequence of recovery from motor-cortex damage over a period of days or weeks? a. return of reflexes b. development of rigidity c. functional improvement of the primary sensorimotor cortex d. development of voluntary grasping ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 25: Multiple Choice 12. Twitchell describes recovery from hemiplegia (inability to move the contralateral limbs) as following an orderly sequence, the first step of which is: a. grasping facilitated by other movements. b. development of rigidity. c. development of voluntary grasping. d. return of reflexes.

ANSWER: d 13. After completing an evaluation of a patient who experienced a stroke in the left hemisphere and has possible aphasia, you have determined that some aspects of language have been spared. To what would you attribute this finding? a. There was some language function recovery within 24 hours of injury. b. Some language functions may be mediated by the right hemisphere. c. Some language functions are controlled by brainstem structures. d. Some language functions may be mediated by the left hemisphere.

ANSWER: b 14. In his study of veterans with brain damage, Teuber found that the poorest recovery rates were in those soldiers who suffered: a. motor deficits. b. visual-field deficits. c. dysphasia. d. somatosensory deficits.

ANSWER: c 15. Teuber's study on the long-term improvement of soldiers with brain wounds from the Korean War suggests that recovery is greatest in those soldiers who were _____ at the time of injury. a. youngest b. oldest c. more motivated to recover d. better educated ANSWER: a 16. In the amnesic H.M., his basic IQ scores _____ in long-term follow-up exams, and his amnesia _____. a. remained constant; also remained constant b. improved; also improved c. improved; remained unchanged d. deteriorated; remained unchanged ANSWER: c 17. Left temporal–lobe patients showed improvements in memory after they were taught to use a strategy Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 25: Multiple Choice involving: a. imagery. b. vocabulary. c. logical reasoning. d. motor reflexes.

ANSWER: a 18. The work of Nudo and colleagues underscores the importance of _____ in recovery from brain damage. a. the use of affected body parts b. edema-reducing drugs c. equipotentiality d. preventing spinal shock ANSWER: a 19. Nudo and colleagues found that the size of the area regulating the hand near where patients had lesions _____ in the absence of rehabilitation. a. increased b. decreased c. decreased and then increased d. remained the same ANSWER: b 20. Research suggests that for rehabilitation of patients with brain damage, practice in the use of the affected body parts should be: a. gentle and in small amounts. b. extensive. c. avoided, with emphasis on using nonaffected limbs. d. supervised by trained professionals.

ANSWER: b 21. The variable that does NOT influence recovery from brain damage is: a. handedness. b. intelligence. c. attitude. d. stress.

ANSWER: d 22. A vitally important additional treatment for a patient with aphasia receiving daily speech therapy is: a. movement therapy. b. social interaction. c. pharmacological therapy.

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Chapter 25: Multiple Choice d. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: b 23. Brain implants of fetal tissue are currently in experimental use for the treatment of: a. diffuse brain damage. b. postencephalitic amnesia. c. cerebral palsy. d. Parkinson disease.

ANSWER: d 24. Brain plasticity tends to be seen as useful, especially after trauma. When is plasticity maladaptive? a. excessive motor connection between individual fingers after years of piano training b. increased memory functioning following brain trauma c. reduced blood flow following a stroke d. excessive new learning replacing old connections ANSWER: a 25. Similar to learning, _____ demonstrate(s) changes to neural structures like dendrite growth and increases in dendrite spines. a. brain stimulation b. LTP and kindling c. neurogenesis d. genetic screening ANSWER: b 26. How can future research combat current limitations on studying changes in human synaptic organization? a. comparing the intact brain to brains with trauma b. focusing on animal research c. expanding beyond postmortem Golgi-type staining research d. concentrating research on wounded veterans ANSWER: c 27. Research on synaptic changes due to learning has been demonstrated. Researchers would expect what changes based on career? a. changes in somatosensory cells of the finger in bass players b. changes in auditory cells for court reporters c. reduced cells in V1 for pianists d. increased cortical connections in the motor cortex for singers ANSWER: a 28. Following a severe case of food poisoning, an individual now cannot look at chicken without feeling Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 25: Multiple Choice nauseous. What likely occurred at the neural level? a. food allergy due to multiple trial learning b. food allergy due to single exposure c. taste aversion due to multiple trial learning d. taste aversion due to single trial learning ANSWER: d 29. Following a stroke, a patient lost the ability to move his left arm. After extensive rehabilitation, the patient was able to gain some motor control of the arm. What could be a potential maladaptive result of those new neural changes? a. disruption of motor control of the legs b. loss of motor control of the right arm c. disruption of existing cortical maps d. inability to have full control of both hands ANSWER: c 30. A patient suffered from a stroke, causing lack of blood flow to the occipital lobe. In addition to difficulty processing visual information, the patient was found to have a mild form of dyscalculia. What is the most likely cause of the multiple areas of dysfunction? a. The events following the stroke at the cellular level can have widespread impact on the brain. b. The patient had a lesion in addition to the stroke. c. The stroke was not treated. d. The patient was noncompliant in treatment.

ANSWER: a 31. Researchers and physicians are continually searching to improve treatments following a stroke. If a stroke could be identified within moments of the damage, medications targeting _____ would potentially have the ability to mitigate the sequence of events following the initial ischemia. a. brain inflammation b. second messengers c. glucose use d. ionic balance with the neurons ANSWER: a 32. Following a stroke, two patients were found to suffer from hemiplegia. After extensive treatment, patient A was able to regain use the right arm, while patient B was able to have partial control of motor movement with difficulty in fine motor control of the hand. What are the likely reasons for the difference in recovery? a. intelligence and education level b. sex and age c. SES and drug use d. handedness and spatial abilities Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 25: Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 33. Examination of individuals with brain trauma can aid researchers in understanding neural connections in the intact brain and plastic changes in those with brain trauma. Which subject would be likely to give the most information pre- and posttrauma? a. elderly female b. college athlete c. wounded veteran d. adolescent male ANSWER: c 34. Research has shown little to no recovery in memory following bilateral medial-temporal-lobe surgery.

When recovery of memory function has been found, what was the likely cause? a. using alternative memory strategies to compensate for loss of function rather than restoration of function within the damaged tissue b. functional restitution c. stimulant medication d. compensation of function in addition to full function restitution ANSWER: a 35. What are potential causes for the variability seen with recovery across stroke victims receiving the same treatment? a. severity of injury and handedness b. age when injured and SES c. extent of injury and age at injury d. intelligence, handedness, and treatment compliance ANSWER: c 36. How can future research on stroke recovery be extended to aid stroke victims in increasing their chances for improved recovery? a. Detailed longitudinal research on treatment results for various levels of recovery can aid in analysis of treatment options. b. Research can focus on adolescent stroke victims to compare their recovery to elderly stroke patients. c. Cross-sectional research can help investigators understand how intelligence impacts recovery. d. Postmortem stroke patients can be examined and their damage can be compared to the levels of their previous observable recovery.

ANSWER: a 37. Considering the variables impacting recovery, which patient would likely have a higher chance of recovery? a. a right-handed 55-year-old with multiple concussions and a brain lesion b. an 80-year-old stroke victim with an IQ of 80 c. a left-handed 40-year-old male stroke victim with a brain lesion Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 25: Multiple Choice d. a 20-year-old female stroke victim with an IQ of 125 ANSWER: d

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Chapter 25: Short Answer 1. What evidence is there that motor maps can be modified by experience?

ANSWER: Studies in rats, monkeys, and humans show an increase in motor maps in response to experience.

For example, violinists have larger motor regions than do nonviolinists.

2. What evidence is there that sensory maps can be modified by experience?

ANSWER: Evidence for sensory map modification stems from studies of early blindness. Early blindness leads to the expansion of auditory behavior into regions (parietal and occipital) that would otherwise not have that function.

3. What is LTP? ANSWER: LTP, or long-term potentiation, is a phenomenon that results in long-term change in synapses, which is activated by high-frequency stimulation. Under optimal conditions, the increased activity can persist indefinitely and has been associated with changes in dendritic length and spine density in the postsynaptic neuron.

4. What is kindling in the brain?

ANSWER: Kindling is persistent seizure activity after repeated exposure to subconvulsant stimulation. It also creates a change in synaptic organization and an increase in nerve growth factor.

5. What is the relationship between the complexity of behavioral function and the complexity of dendritic arborization associated with that function? Give an example.

ANSWER: Research indicates that the more complex the system/function, the greater the degree of dendritic branching. Language function requires very complex interactions, and those neurons have dense arborizations.

6. What is the relationship between neuronal cell complexity and the computational demands on the cell?

ANSWER: Neurons that mediate fine motor finger movements rely on neurons with dense dendritic branching that are capable of high-level computations, whereas those representing the body's trunk perform less complex actions and subsequently have neurons with less complex structures. At the other end of the spectrum, those neurons subserving high-level cognitive behaviors, such as language, have even more computational complexity.

7. Why do the authors of the textbook call compensation the “problem of the three-legged cat”?

ANSWER: People with injury to brain function are often able to develop new strategies and new ways to accomplish tasks. They don't recover brain function per se, but they can use alternative regions to accomplish those functions previously compromised by the injury. This is similar to how cats compensate for loss. For instance, when cats are struck by automobiles, they commonly suffer severe injury to a back leg. The usual veterinary treatment is to remove the affected leg. At first the cats have a great deal of difficulty getting around. However, within a few weeks, they seem as agile as before the amputation. This restoration of mobility is often so complete that an observer may not even realize that a leg is missing. The cat has regained lost functions but has not recovered its lost leg. Rather, the cat has compensated for its difficulties and developed new behavioral strategies for locomoting through the world.

8. What is the sequence of recovery (four stages) seen by Twitchell in patients with brain damage?

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Chapter 25: Short Answer ANSWER: The sequence of recovery is as follows: (1) return of reflexes, (2) development of rigidity, (3) grasping facilitated by or in conjunction with other motoric movement, and (4) development of voluntary grasping.

9. What is the relationship between age at time of brain injury and recovery? What is disheartening about Teuber's analysis of this relationship?

ANSWER: The younger individuals are at the time of injury, the more likely they are to obtain substantial recovery. Teuber's data showed that 50% of patients experienced no recovery at all (even at a young age). This is bad news for the aging population who may sustain injury later in life.

10. What is the relationship between high intelligence and recovery from brain injury? Why might highly intelligent people complain more about the negative residual effects of brain injury?

ANSWER: Those with higher intelligence appear to achieve better recovery. This outcome may be associated with neural advantages they had from educational experience. Further, they may be better equipped to generate more compensatory strategies. However, this population has been known to complain more because they are used to performing at a higher level; they have enjoyed increased quality of life and have difficulty adjusting.

11. The authors list seven major experimental therapeutic approaches to brain damage. What are they?

ANSWER: The seven major experimental therapeutic approaches are as follows: drug therapies, growth factors, cell-based therapies, activity-based therapies, brain stimulation, cognitive rehabilitation, and tactile stimulation.

12. Your patient is a well-educated woman of 45. She experienced a left-hemisphere stroke 3 weeks ago that has caused moderate aphasia. What is your counsel for your patient and her family?

ANSWER: Rehabilitation services on a dedicated stroke unit provide the best chance for improvement of this patient's aphasia. Not only will she be able to engage in speech therapy, but other services provide increased stimulation and opportunities for social interaction, which have also been shown to be beneficial.

13. Why did a motorcycle racer with a brain injury show drastic improvement in both attitude and recovery after he was given a large tricycle on which to ride around?

ANSWER: Tactile stimulation has been showed to correlate with dendritic length and spine density.

Additionally, the cognitive and emotional factors associated with brain injury are key to the recovery process and should not be minimized. In this case, getting exercise and being able to be mobile likely lifted the racer's depression and paved the way for more effort in therapy.

14. How can researching stroke patients years after the stroke be useful for understanding brain damage and plasticity?

ANSWER: Research can aid in understanding the recovery process and the potential for recovery after year 1 poststroke. Research can give stroke patients practical tools to aid in recovery long after the brain trauma.

15. How does a change in behavior following a brain injury indicate changes in the brain?

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Chapter 25: Short Answer ANSWER: Changes in behavior or recovery of function following a brain injury demonstrate the potential for structural changes within the brain. New neural connections following injury allow for signs of recovery or behavioral change.

16. Explain the idea that blind people may have higher musical abilities than sighted individuals.

ANSWER: Examination of cortical maps demonstrates that blind individuals have more neural connections in the auditory areas within the parietal and occipital lobes. These connections are not observed in sighted individuals. These connections are believed to lead to higher musical abilities.

17. Following years of training, a pianist notices a loss of control of some of his fingers. Considering plasticity, what could be a cause of his motor dysfunction? How can his doctors use the plasticity to their advantage during treatment?

ANSWER: Increased muscle tone after years of practice can lead to loss of individual muscle control, since the cortical maps between the fingers are smaller. Plasticity can be used to modify the existing maps with training of the fingers to make independent movement.

18. Following a car accident, a patient suffered from an amputation of the left arm. Explain how changes within the brain allow for phantom sensations of the amputated limb.

ANSWER: Rearrangements of cortical maps allow for sensation of the amputated limb when stroking the side of the face of the amputated limb. Research has shown expansion of the cortical map of the face into the area originally housing the affected limb.

19. Research is unclear on the production of new neurons. What is the utility of further research in understanding the production of new neurons in the intact brain?

ANSWER: Understanding the production of new neurons can lead to further research in how to activate their production in the intact brain and increase neurogenesis in the damaged brain.

20. How are genotype and phenotype connected to brain plasticity?

ANSWER: Changes in plasticity can occur due to changes in genes or their expression. Moreover, through experience and learning, basic phenotypes can be modified.

21. How can future research on gene expression aid in understanding the stability of the plasticity of the brain?

ANSWER: Future research can help link transient versus stable synaptic growth to changes in gene expression.

Understanding how gene expression is connected to synaptic growth can aid in both research and practical applications of potentially inducing neural connections.

22. Compare the ideas of compensation versus functional restitution following a brain injury.

ANSWER: Following a brain injury, an individual will more likely see a compensation of function, whereby undamaged areas—through new neural connections—take over the function of the damaged tissue.

Function restitution is believed to occur when functions lost due to injury are regained, at least partially, without compromising the function of the undamaged brain.

23. Explain why a treatment plan for a patient following a stroke would have a combination of antiinflammatory medication and stimulants.

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Chapter 25: Short Answer ANSWER: The combination of medication is targeting different aspects of the damage following the stroke.

The anti-inflammatory medication would be used to relieve inflammation of brain tissue following the stroke. This would enable both intact and damaged tissue to have a reduction of swelling and decrease stress on the recovering tissue. The stimulant medication can work to help activate plastic recovery of dendritic growth.

Match the most appropriate research focus with each group of researchers. a. Nudo et al. b. Pantev et al. c. Elbert et al. d. Jacobs et al.

24. grasp techniques ANSWER: a 25. musical scale in musicians ANSWER: b 26. human synapse ANSWER: d 27. focal hand dystonia ANSWER: c

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Chapter 26: Multiple Choice 1. Your patient is a 5-year-old child. His mother reports that the child frequently collapses suddenly and without warning. The first diagnostic tool you should probably use is: a. the Glasgow coma scale. b. an EEG. c. a complete body CT scan. d. a drug scan for narcotics in the child's bloodstream.

ANSWER: b 2. Cerebral vascular accident is another term for: a. stroke. b. ischemia. c. cerebral hemorrhage. d. aneurysm.

ANSWER: a 3. Thrombosis and embolism are both types of: a. angioma. b. ischemia. c. aneurysm. d. cerebral hemorrhage.

ANSWER: b 4. The MOST frequent cause(s) of cerebral hemorrhage is/are: a. migraine attacks. b. hypertension. c. arteriosclerosis. d. leukemia.

ANSWER: b 5. The incidence of traumatic brain injury is highest among: a. older females. b. younger females. c. older males. d. younger males.

ANSWER: d 6. Contrecoup damage is the result of: a. closed-head injuries. b. open-head injuries. c. infections. d. aneurysms.

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Chapter 26: Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 7. The corpus callosum is particularly vulnerable to damage following: a. migraine stroke. b. open-head trauma. c. closed-head trauma. d. embolism.

ANSWER: c 8. Not all the problems with closed-head trauma occur at the time of the accident. Which of these is a delayed effect? a. contrecoup contusion b. stretching of nerve fibers c. hydrocephalus d. microscopic lesions ANSWER: c 9. Which event is NOT a secondary consequence of closed-head brain trauma? a. ischemic brain damage b. intracranial hemorrhage c. diffuse brain swelling d. vomiting ANSWER: d 10. About _____ of the population is likely to experience at least one seizure during their lifetime. a. 1% b. 2% c. 10% d. 5% ANSWER: d 11. A feeling or sensation that a seizure is about to take place is called a(n): a. symptomatic seizure. b. idiopathic seizure. c. aura. d. automatism.

ANSWER: c 12. What is a general term for about 45% of brain tumors that result from glial cells and infiltrate the brain substance? a. meningioma Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 26: Multiple Choice b. metastatic tumor c. automatism d. glioma ANSWER: d 13. The MOST benign type of brain tumor is: a. meningioma. b. metastatic tumor. c. medulloblastoma. d. glioblastoma.

ANSWER: a 14. Headaches that begin with an aura lasting 20 to 40 minutes are usually classified as _____ headaches. a. muscle-contraction b. common migraine c. classic migraine d. cluster ANSWER: c 15. Rabies is an example of a(n): a. pantropic virus. b. neurotropic virus. c. infectious bacterium. d. mycotic infection.

ANSWER: b 16. Meningitis is a type of: a. bacterial infection. b. mycotic infection. c. parasitic infestation. d. pantropic viral infection.

ANSWER: a 17. Myasthenia gravis is due to an insufficiency of: a. acetylcholine receptors. b. cholinesterase. c. immune system cells. d. dopamine.

ANSWER: a 18. The polio virus seems to have a special affinity for: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 26: Multiple Choice a. cholinergic receptors. b. sensory neurons. c. motor neurons. d. myelin.

ANSWER: c 19. Multiple sclerosis has its MOST devastating effects on: a. cholinergic synapses. b. myelin. c. immature neurons. d. the substantia nigra.

ANSWER: b 20. Several types of damage may accompany traumatic brain injury. The damage that produces lesions as the result of brain movement and twisting is called: a. axonal shearing. b. hematoma. c. edema. d. ischemia.

ANSWER: a 21. While the Glasgow Coma Scale is most frequently used in assessing the severity of a TBI, _____ is an alternative measure of injury severity. a. the degree of midline brain shift b. the length of stay in the hospital c. a patient endorsing nausea or vomiting as a symptom d. the length of posttraumatic amnesia ANSWER: d 22. Your friend experiences chronic headaches that consist of unilateral head pain, though no associated aura.

You have noticed that at times, they have headaches for weeks on end, but other times, no headaches whatsoever. Your best guess regarding the particular type of headache is: a. classic migraine. b. tension headache. c. cluster headache. d. common migraine.

ANSWER: c 23. In the case of seizures that do not self-terminate, the typical intervention involves which of these? a. dopamine agonists b. GABA agonists Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 26: Multiple Choice c. glutamate agonists d. cholinergic agonists ANSWER: b 24. Which of these has NOT been found to be a precipitating factor in seizure onset in cases of idiopathic seizures? a. exercise b. drugs c. hyperventilation d. sensory stimuli ANSWER: a 25. Taylor has been diagnosed with a brain tumor located in the medulla. The physician warns that until this tumor can be treated, it could likely produce which condition? a. short-term memory loss b. insomnia c. papilledema d. bradycardia ANSWER: d 26. Following a traumatic brain injury, evaluating the integrity of the cranial nerves is a routine aspect of the neuro exam. Cranial nerve assessment provides what type of information? a. information regarding the location of the damage b. information regarding the mass effect of the damage c. information regarding recovery trajectory d. information regarding the risk for second impact syndrome ANSWER: a 27. Bruises caused by the mechanical force of a traumatic brain injury sometimes result in cerebral bleeds. The term for this is: a. meningitis. b. hematoma. c. encephalitis. d. shearing.

ANSWER: b 28. In addition to direct damage to the brain, what is another means of producing brain dysfunction following traumatic brain injury? a. reduced blood pressure b. decreased intracranial pressure c. diminished glutamate transmission Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 26: Multiple Choice d. increased intracranial pressure ANSWER: d 29. There are several ways to prevent head injury. Which of these is NOT one of the currently established ways to reduce incidence? a. educating coaches on safer playing techniques b. providing fall education in the workplace c. showing youth sports participants movies of people who sustained a head injury d. developing protective head gear ANSWER: c 30. A patient is admitted to the neurology floor for evaluation. This patient was recently diagnosed with a glioblastoma, though a surgical plan has not been developed. Today, the patient experienced a seizure. It is MOST likely that this type of seizure would be characterized as: a. symptomatic. b. idiopathic. c. asymptomatic. d. recurrent.

ANSWER: a 31. Carlson was sitting at his desk studying and his finger began to twitch, which then seemed to spread to the other fingers, then the wrist until the entire extremity was jerking involuntarily. This type of seizure is known as _____ seizures. a. generalized b. focal c. akinetic d. dissociative ANSWER: b 32. The initial phase of a generalized seizure is called the _____ stage and is denoted by _____. a. clonic; rhythmic shaking and jerking movements in the body b. tonic; loss of consciousness c. postictal; loss of consciousness d. tonic; forceful contraction of muscles and stopped breathing ANSWER: d 33. Death due to status epilepticus occurs in approximately _____ cases. a. 26% of child b. 26% of adult c. 3% of adult d. 5% of adult Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 26: Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 34. An individual presents to their general practitioner following a period of generally feeling unwell, fatigue, and shortness of breath that is unmitigated by rest. Recently, there has been a progressive headache and nausea.

Following the examination and imaging, it is likely that the physician will make which diagnosis? a. cardio disease, but no discernable neurological involvement b. meningioma with lung metastasis c. lung cancer with a metastatic brain tumor d. glioma with related pulmonary distress ANSWER: c 35. Avery has been working on an important project for graduate school applications, spending the majority of the day hunched over the laptop. Now, Avery is experiencing a headache that she describes as a tight squeeze.

It's likely that Avery is suffering from _____ headache. a. muscle contraction b. classic migraine c. vascular d. common migraine ANSWER: a 36. Identify a method by which neuronal function can become compromised by a virus or parasite. a. It can destroy myelin and therefore slow motoric speed. b. It can compromise astrocyte function. c. It can destroy the dendritic spines. d. It can compromise the composition of the extracellular fluid, leading to aberrant neuronal functioning.

ANSWER: d 37. Neuronal death following an ischemic stroke appears to involve which factor? a. excessive influx of calcium b. attenuated influx of sodium c. diminished influx of calcium d. excessive efflux of potassium ANSWER: a 38. An individual is brought to her physician by her daughter. The daughter reports that it seems as if her mother is suffering from some type of motor impairment, as she is unable to initiate voluntary movements.

During the course of the examination, which included tests of the motor system, it was determined that she does not have any type of paralysis or other sensory impairment. What disorder could account for this inability to make movements in the absence of paralysis? a. ataxia b. agnosia Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 26: Multiple Choice c. apraxia d. aphasia ANSWER: c 39. Individuals who are diagnosed with Tourette syndrome experience a constellation of symptoms that include motoric tics, such as facial twitches, and inarticulate vocal expressions. As the disorder progresses they also develop _____, which involves repeating what others have said. a. alexia b. echolalia c. coprolalia d. akinesia ANSWER: b 40. While most of the focus on the symptomology of individuals diagnosed with Parkinson disease has been directed toward the positive symptoms (resting tremor, muscular rigidity), other symptoms impact daily functioning. Which of these has been identified as problematic for these patients? a. dementia b. emotional regulation c. delirium d. executive function ANSWER: d

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Chapter 26: Short Answer 1. Name at least five tools a neurologist uses in the course of a physical examination.

ANSWER: Tools used are a measuring tape, stethoscope, coffee beans, coins, keys, cotton, sugar, and salt.

2. Describe the major types of vascular disorders that a practicing clinical neuropsychologist must know about.

ANSWER: The major types of vascular disorders are ischemia, hemorrhage, angioma, aneurysm, and migraine stroke.

3. What is the difference between an angioma and an aneurysm?

ANSWER: An angioma (AVM) is characterized by abnormal vessels. With an aneurysm, there is a ballooning elasticity that results in an expanded vessel, which could be prone to rupture.

4. How much time can pass after a vascular emergency before supportive therapies are no longer effective?

Why do you think time is of the essence in these cases?

ANSWER: Three hours can pass. The timing is critical because these medications could result in excessive bleeding if given outside the 3-hour window, leading to increased neurological impairment.

5. The authors of the text list six ways in which cerebral trauma can affect brain function. Identify five of these (or all six).

ANSWER: The ways in which cerebral trauma can affect brain function are by blows to the head, which can result in coup or contusions at the site of impact; contrecoup or bruising to the area of the brain opposite the point of impact; shearing of nerve fibers; hematomas from the blood mass; and edema.

6. What does the term contrecoup mean?

ANSWER: A contrecoup is a contusion that occurs opposite from the site of impact of the initial injury.

7. Identify the types of primary brain injury that can occur with closed-head injuries.

ANSWER: The types are coup and contrecoup injuries, axonal fiber shearing, macroscopic and microscopic lesions, and laceration or depression from skull penetration or fracture.

8. Identify the types of secondary brain injury that can occur with closed-head injuries.

ANSWER: The types are intracranial hemorrhage and edema, ischemic damage, increased intracranial pressure, and hypoxia.

9. How is the length of posttraumatic amnesia used to measure the severity of brain injury? What method might be used if the patient remained unconscious?

ANSWER: The duration of posttraumatic amnesia is thought to correlate with later memory dysfunction. By using a measure of the amnesic period, patients can be ranked accordingly. For example, less than 10 minutes corresponds to very mild injury. If a patient does not regain consciousness, the Glasgow Coma Scale can be used.

10. Define the following: glioma, meningioma, and glioblastoma. Discuss them in terms of malignancy.

ANSWER: Glioma is the general term for tumors that are generated from glial cells and infiltrate brain tissue.

Meningiomas arise from the meninges. They have a distinct border, and given that they don't invade brain tissue, they are the most benign tumors. However, they can still pose a problem due to mass Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 26: Short Answer effects, compression on cranial nerves, or the potential to initiate seizure activity. Glioblastomas are the most malignant tumors, growing aggressively and invading healthy brain tissue.

11. How does caffeine, in conjunction with ergotamine compounds, alleviate headaches? What explanation do the authors give for the fact that caffeine can also exacerbate some headaches?

ANSWER: Both of these compounds aid in constricting cerebral arteries, which reduces the pain. Because caffeine is a general stimulant, in the case of tension-related headaches, caffeine may increase symptoms.

12. What is myasthenia gravis? What causes it, and what can be done about it?

ANSWER: This is a disorder of the muscle receptors and is characterized by rapid muscle fatigue despite very little exercise. The cause is decreased neurotransmission at the neuromuscular junction. However, the etiology of this decrease is unknown; it is thought to be related to an autoimmune attack.

Treatment includes both acetylcholine therapy (to increase cholinergic activity) and immunosuppressive drug therapy.

13. Describe multiple sclerosis in terms of symptoms, course of the disease, and causes (if known).

ANSWER: MS involves the demyelination of primarily motor fibers but also some sensory tracts (optic nerves are a common target). The symptoms are related to the location of myelin loss. Initially, the disease can involve blurred vision or other sensory loss to the limbs or face. Symptoms may remit and reappear years later, but in some cases, it can progress rapidly until the person is nonambulatory.

The specific etiology is not known, but autoimmune dysfunction, bacterial infection, and environmental factors have all been considered.

14. What is the difference, in terms of both causes and symptoms, between paraplegia and Brown–Séquard syndrome?

ANSWER: Paraplegia involves a complete transection of the spinal cord. Both lower limbs are paralyzed.

Conversely, in Brown–Séquard syndrome, there is a unilateral transection through half the spinal cord and symptoms are more complex. Contralateral to the side of the lesion is a loss of pain and temperature sensation. Fine touch and pressure sensation are lost ipsilateral to the section, and voluntary movements of distal musculature are lost.

15. Describe the normal and abnormal Babinski sign. What does an abnormal adult sign indicate?

ANSWER: In neurologically healthy people, there should be downward flexion in response to a dull object. An abnormal adult sign would be upward flexion (as in hemiplegia).

16. Describe the progression of the course of symptoms in Parkinson's disease.

ANSWER: The onset of symptoms in Parkinson's disease is slow initially, typically beginning with unilateral tremor in the hand and stiffness in distal extremities. As the disease progresses, there is an absence of emotional expression in the face (masklike appearance) and loss of eye blinks. Posture can become stooped, and the gait becomes abnormal. The gait becomes more of a shuffle motion, and some patients may have difficulty initiating movements and become “stuck” when walking.

Difficulty in swallowing is also associated with this disease, as is slow speech in some patients.

17. There are multiple etiologies for Parkinson disease. Compare three of these.

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Chapter 26: Short Answer ANSWER: Most people age 50 and older with Parkinson disease are diagnosed with idiopathic Parkinson's, which has no clear origin. This type may be familial, viral, or simply part of normal aging. The postencephalitic form is accompanied by neuronal death in the substantia nigra. It was first identified following an encephalitis lethargica pandemic, so it is believed to be viral in nature. The drug-induced type has been associated with various drugs, but most prevalently with MPTP or environmental toxins that mechanistically work in the same manner.

18. Describe some options by which cerebral vascular disorders can be treated to minimize negative outcomes.

ANSWER: Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) can be used within a limited time frame to dissolve a clot in the case of an ischemic stroke. Neuroprotectant drugs such as calcium channel blockers are also used to minimize cell death, vasodilators reduce blood pressure, and steroids can reduce cerebral edema.

Surgical intervention can be used, particularly in the case of aneurysms. The procedure could be conducted by the use of coils or other substances, with the goal of preventing hemorrhaging.

19. Compare and contrast open- versus closed-head injury with respect to symptomology and recovery.

ANSWER: Traumatic brain injury (TBI) can be divided into two subtypes: open-head injury and closed-head injury. An open-head injury is the result of some type of projectile like a bullet or missile that penetrates the skull, and fragments of bone may penetrate the brain. A closed-head injury stems from a blow to the head or body that produces movement of the brain within the skull. Open-head injuries frequently result in more specific symptoms, that is, focal neurological signs that resemble surgical excision of a small region of cortex. Closed-head injuries, on the other hand, more often result in diffuse damage stemming from coup or contrecoup mechanical force or axonal shearing.

Match each definition with the correct term. a. angioma b. migraine stroke c. edema d. hematoma 20. abnormal blood vessels ANSWER: a 21. transient ischemia ANSWER: b 22. accumulation of fluid ANSWER: c 23. blood trapped under skull ANSWER: d Match each symptom with the movement disorder it indicates. a. catalepsy b. cataplexy Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 26: Short Answer c. tardive dyskinesia d. chorea 24. muscular rigidity ANSWER: a 25. absent muscle tone ANSWER: b 26. slow, persistent movements ANSWER: c 27. involuntary jerky movements ANSWER: d Match each term with the correct alternative. a. Brown–Séquard syndrome b. Babinski sign c. cataplexy d. CTE 28. unilateral section of spinal cord ANSWER: a 29. extensor plantar response ANSWER: b 30. emotional excitement ANSWER: c 31. accumulation of tau protein ANSWER: d

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Chapter 27: Multiple Choice 1. The symptoms of schizophrenia suggest that underlying brain abnormalities are likely to be: a. restricted to areas concerned with language. b. heterogeneous. c. in the temporal/parietal area. d. the same in every patient.

ANSWER: b 2. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of schizophrenia? a. hallucinations b. delusions c. bizarre behaviors d. mania ANSWER: d 3. Diminished activity in the _____ during neurocognitive tests has been observed in people with schizophrenia. a. prefrontal cortex b. hippocampus c. parahippocampal gyri d. tegmental area ANSWER: a 4. The main neurotransmitter system implicated in schizophrenia is: a. acetylcholine. b. dopamine. c. norepinephrine. d. serotonin.

ANSWER: b 5. Evidence regarding disorganization of the brain in people with schizophrenia lends support to the concept of schizophrenia as a(n) _____ disorder. a. incurable b. childhood c. mental d. developmental ANSWER: d 6. Which disorder is NOT classified as a mood disorder? a. depression b. bipolar disorder c. mania d. obsessive-compulsive disorder Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 27: Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 7. ACTH is released from the: a. hypothalamus. b. pituitary gland. c. adrenal cortex. d. adrenal medulla.

ANSWER: b 8. The hormone that appears to be oversecreted in depression is: a. BDNF. b. cortisol. c. testosterone. d. thyroxine.

ANSWER: b 9. Prozac acts rather specifically on the _____ neurotransmitter system. a. serotonin b. dopamine c. norepinephrine d. glutamate ANSWER: a 10. PET studies indicate that over the course of antidepressant treatment, activity in the amygdala: a. always decreases. b. decreases only when treatment is effective. c. always increases. d. increases only when treatment is effective.

ANSWER: b 11. A positive correlation between the number of bipolar episodes and loss of _____ supports the theory that bipolar disorder has a progressive neurodegenerative aspect. a. gray matter b. white matter c. motor skills d. dopamine neurons ANSWER: a 12. Over the past 60 years, surgeons have removed or damaged the brain in (often misguided) attempts to relieve symptoms of psychiatric disorders. Which brain structure(s) has/have NOT been targets for “psychosurgery”?

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Chapter 27: Multiple Choice a. frontal lobes b. amygdala c. cingulate gyrus d. parietal lobe ANSWER: d 13. The drug L-dopa is used as a treatment for Parkinson disease because it increases the levels of _____ in the brain. a. norepinephrine b. cortisol c. dopamine d. acetylcholine ANSWER: c 14. On a variety of grounds, it is suspected that the memory loss that marks the earlier stages of Alzheimer disease is associated with degenerative changes in the: a. entorhinal cortex. b. frontal lobes. c. pyramidal cells of the neocortex. d. substantia nigra.

ANSWER: a 15. On the basis of genetics and neural changes, Alzheimer disease appears to be MOST closely related to: a. schizophrenia. b. Huntington disease. c. Down syndrome. d. Tourette syndrome.

ANSWER: c 16. If you were giving a series of neuropsychological tests to a person suffering from Alzheimer disease, on which would you expect to see particularly severe effects? a. object assembly b. digit span c. backward digits d. digit symbol ANSWER: d 17. Which future virtual-reality (VR) exposure therapy research would be MOST useful for PTSD researchers? a. research focusing on multiple age groups and both genders b. research focusing on all anxiety disorders c. research focusing on female trauma victims Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 27: Multiple Choice d. research focusing on adolescents with comorbid depression and PTSD ANSWER: a 18. Patients with a cluster of positive, negative, and cognitive deficits related to schizophrenia would benefit MOST from which form of treatment? a. neuroleptic medication combined with TMS b. combination of antipsychotic medication and cognitive-behavioral therapy c. neuroleptic medication combined with exposure therapy d. combination of mood stabilizing medication and cortical stimulation ANSWER: b 19. Schizophrenia has been shown to cause biochemical changes within the brain. Current pharmacological interventions focus on specific neurotransmitters such as dopamine and serotonin. How can future research aid in the creation of targeted treatment options for individuals with schizophrenia? a. Research can aid in understanding the biochemical changes that occur in adolescence versus adulthood so that patients can be given targeted medications for different stages of life. b. Research can aid clinicians in determining whether pharmacological treatment is warranted. c. Research can help demonstrate the importance of epinephrine to patients with schizophrenia. d. Research can help distinguish the individual differences in neurotransmitter disruption, leading to awareness of which treatments would be better suited for an individual patient with schizophrenia.

ANSWER: d 20. Pharmacological intervention is often seen as the main component of schizophrenia treatment. What future advancements in medication could be the MOST useful for the constellation of symptoms seen in schizophrenia? a. medication impacting norepinephrine and dopamine b. medication treating deficits in dopamine and serotonin c. medication impacting glutamate to treat negative symptoms and cognitive deficits d. medication treating excessive glutamate and norepinephrine ANSWER: c 21. How can clinicians use current knowledge from clinical work and postmortem neurochemical studies to inform treatment of depression? a. Treatment can focus on early intervention of stress relief to reduce the depletion of glutamate due to cortisol exposure. b. Creation of a treatment plan could include antidepressant medication and stress reduction techniques. c. Clinicians can focus treatment on increasing serotonin, glutamate, and norepinephrine. d. A treatment plan could include antidepressants, antipsychotics, and cognitive-behavioral therapy.

ANSWER: b 22. How can research on stress aid in understanding the neurochemical factors related to depression? a. Stress causes a cascade of neurochemical reaction within the body, leading to impaired cerebral Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 27: Multiple Choice functioning. b. Stress leads to reduced treatment compliance for patients with depression. c. The link between stress and depression is weaker than the relationship between stress and schizophrenia. d. Depression leads to the reduction of multiple neurotransmitters, and stress can be adaptive by increasing the presence of the neurotransmitters.

ANSWER: a 23. What are the practical implications of understanding stress in relation to depression? a. Clinicians can focus on increasing stress to reduce the maladaptive production of neurotransmitters. b. Clinicians can integrate stress-relieving techniques within a treatment plan of medication and CBT. c. CBT can focus on stress reduction so that patients no longer have to take antidepressant medications. d. Stress-inducing techniques, like exposure therapy, can train patients with bipolar disorder to manage stress levels.

ANSWER: b 24. Explain why the introduction of Prozac to patients with depression and high stress levels could improve their depressive symptoms. a. Within the hippocampus, Prozac stimulates BDNF and neural growth, which are negatively impacted by stress. b. Prozac stimulates the production of serotonin and dopamine, which are reduced with ongoing stress. c. Prozac reduces serotonin, which is excessive in individuals with high levels of stress. d. Prozac reduces ACTH, which is excessive in individuals with high levels of stress.

ANSWER: a 25. A patient presents to the doctor with feelings of apathy, disinterest in social situations, and instances of disorganized behavior. After injury to the brain, the patient was found to have abnormalities in both the hippocampus and prefrontal cortex. What should be the clinician's next steps to help the patient? a. diagnosis of schizophrenia b. further neurological testing to determine if the patient has an anxiety or mood disorder c. further testing, both neurological and psychological, to determine the appropriate diagnosis d. diagnosis of depression ANSWER: c 26. Explain the potential interaction between glucose metabolism and cortisol in patients with depression. a. Abnormal glucose metabolism within the amygdala may trigger an increase in the release of cortisol, which activates the HPA axis. b. Reduced levels of glucose increase cortisol production in the amygdala, leading to depression of the HPA axis. c. Abnormal glucose metabolism reduces cortisol production, triggering the HPA axis. d. Increased glucose metabolism increases serotonin and cortisol production, leading to increased stress response.

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Chapter 27: Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 27. Explain how neuropathological abnormalities play a role in treatment modalities for depression. a. Neuropathology in depression is homogeneous, so antidepressant medication is the most effective treatment. b. Neuropathology in depression is heterogeneous, so one form of treatment would not be effective for all patients with depression. c. Neuropathology in depression is homogeneous, so CBT is the most effective treatment. d. Neuropathology in depression is heterogeneous, so treatment should focus on the psychological symptoms.

ANSWER: b 28. After repeated prodding by family, a patient presented to his primary care physician for depressive symptoms. He suffered from feelings of worthlessness and general apathy about life. The patient's only enjoyment appeared to be playing games on his phone. How should the physician address treatment? a. treatment plan with a combination of health apps, antidepressant medication, and exposure therapy b. treatment plan with tranquilizers, antidepressant medication, and CBT c. treatment plan with antipsychotics, tranquilizers, and exposure therapy d. treatment plan with a combination of antidepressant medication, CBT and telehealth apps to connect with a therapist and track symptoms ANSWER: d 29. Why would it be ineffective to tell individuals with generalized anxiety that their overall sense of worry and fear for the future has no basis? a. It would impede exposure therapy treatment compliance. b. Patients will not believe that the fears and anxieties have no basis. c. Treatment needs to focus on both brain abnormalities and the patient's corresponding fear response to be effective in reducing anxiety symptoms. d. Treatment needs to focus on reducing neurochemical abnormalities rather than attempting to explain that the fears are not real.

ANSWER: c 30. Why would psychosurgery NOT be the first option for treatment of severe depressive symptoms? a. Clinicians avoid psychosurgery because new research has shown antipsychotics have higher efficacy than surgical treatment. b. Psychosurgery can remove abnormal activity within the brain but cannot create normal activity. c. Psychosurgery is contraindicated now for depression, as research has demonstrated an increase in severity of symptoms. d. Clinicians avoid psychosurgery because it is effective only for adults.

ANSWER: b 31. An elderly patient was found to have neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles. The patient had difficulty Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 27: Multiple Choice with memory and motor control. Can the patient be given a diagnosis? a. No, only postmortem examination can lead to diagnosis. b. Yes, the diagnosis is Parkinson disease. c. No, further testing is needed because abnormalities in tau proteins are seen in multiple disorders. d. Yes, the diagnosis is Alzheimer disease.

ANSWER: c 32. An _____ records eye movements. a. EEG b. EMG c. EOG d. EMDR ANSWER: c 33. The _____ is/are defined by a frequency of 15 to 30 Hz and reflect(s) the W-state on an EEG. a. beta rhythm b. theta wave c. K-complexes d. delta rhythms ANSWER: a 34. The _____ is/are reflective of the N1 sleep stage and present(s) with a lower amplitude of more mixed frequency, including 4- to 7-Hz frequencies. a. beta rhythm b. theta wave c. K-complexes d. delta rhythms ANSWER: b

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Chapter 27: Short Answer 1. Name two abnormalities of cellular structure found in the brains of patients with schizophrenia.

ANSWER: Two abnormalities are reduced number of synapses in the DLPFC and reduced GABA synthesis.

2. Distinguish between type I and type II schizophrenia, according to the text.

ANSWER: Type I refers to positive symptoms, including delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized or bizarre behavior. Type II refers to negative symptoms, such as flat affect, social withdrawal, and poverty of speech.

3. Cite the pharmacological evidence in support of a dopamine theory of schizophrenia.

ANSWER: Research shows decreased D2 and D3 mRNA in cortical regions; decreased dopamine agonist (DA) metabolites in CSF correlates with animal studies on cognitive tasks. More evidence stems from the effect of antipsychotic medications that act on DA synapses, coupled with the action of DA agonists to induce psychotic symptoms that mirror people with paranoid schizophrenia.

4. Since both schizophrenia and Tourette syndrome respond to dopamine blockers to some degree, how would you, as a neuropsychologist, make the differential diagnosis on a 14-year-old child showing bizarre behavioral symptoms?

ANSWER: Administer neuropsychological tests, such as the Rey Complex Figure Test. Patients with schizophrenia make very different errors than those with Tourette syndrome. Those with Tourette's perform significantly worse.

5. What is the HPA axis? Describe any possible abnormalities in its functioning related to depression.

ANSWER: The HPA axis, or hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal circuit, governs the stress response and release of stress hormones. Regarding depression, it is suggested that the levels of stress hormones are out of balance and lead to some of the cognitive dysfunction exhibited by those diagnosed with clinical depression.

6. According to the textbook, what three factors make the sensitization model of bipolar disorder intriguing for understanding bipolar disorder?

ANSWER: There are large individual differences in the degree of sensitization such that persons genetically predisposed may be more sensitive to stressors, and their brains may produce larger neuronal changes as a result of this higher level of sensitivity. Additionally, there may be abuse of stimulant drugs, and those diagnosed with bipolar disorder tend to be at high risk for substance abuse.

7. Name the three psychiatric disorders that can result from stroke, as given in the textbook.

ANSWER: The disorders are generalized anxiety disorder, catastrophic reaction, and pathological affect.

8. Under what conditions would you favor psychosurgery for someone with agitated schizophrenia?

ANSWER: It would be favored in those cases where the patient is experiencing severe pathology that is intractable to medication and the disease has become dangerous to the patient and/or others.

9. What are the main anatomical correlates of Alzheimer disease?

ANSWER: The main anatomical correlates include neuritic (amyloid) plaques and neurofibrillary tangles.

Eventually there is cortical shrinking, widespread cell loss, and decreased dendritic branching.

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Chapter 27: Short Answer 10. Describe the sequence of changes in dendritic structure in normal aging and in advancing Alzheimer disease.

ANSWER: Decreased dendritic arborization is most likely the source of the cortical atrophy. Hippocampal neurons also show decreased branching in Alzheimer disease that is not characteristic of healthy aging. In healthy aging, there is an increase in arborization between 50 to 70 years of age.

11. What are the five putative causes of Alzheimer disease, based on the text?

ANSWER: They are genetic susceptibility, protein abnormalities, trace metals (aluminum salts), immune reactions (antibodies develop that kill neurons), and blood flow (this decreases the brain's ability to compensate for the natural decline in blood flow in the elderly).

12. Examine the utility of virtual reality exposure therapy for PTSD. ANSWER: Virtual reality allows for the simulation of traumatic events in a safe and controlled environment to aid in lowering the severity of PTSD symptoms. Repeated exposure therapy has shown to lower the severity and incidence of symptoms in male war veterans.

13. How can research like the RDoC work in conjunction with the DSM to further understanding and treatment of psychological disorders?

ANSWER: Large-scale research studies can aid further exploration of potential causes of psychological disorders and assist in refining diagnostic criteria for neurological and psychological professionals.

14. Explain why it is easier to observe and diagnose schizophrenic behavior rather than the disorder of schizophrenia.

ANSWER: Due to comorbidities and/or mental illnesses that have similar observable behaviors, it is difficult to tease out whether the behaviors are specific to schizophrenia rather than another disorder.

15. Current genetic research has not found a specific “schizophrenia gene.” How can further genetic research on schizophrenia be useful?

ANSWER: Exploring schizophrenia has shown a potential genetic component through identical twin research.

Further testing can lead to identification of genetic factors and a better understanding of how those factors may be activated due to environmental and life experiences.

16. Schizophrenia is heterogeneous in nature. How can further examination of the symptoms and structural abnormalities aid in understanding this disorder?

ANSWER: A better understanding of the various components of the disorder, both various symptoms and physical changes noted within the brain, can help in the diagnosis of the disorder. Moreover, a deeper understanding of the differences seen within individuals with schizophrenia can aid researchers in distinguishing potential subtypes of the disorder.

17. How can a clinician's viewpoint of the cognitive impairments observed in schizophrenia impact treatment?

ANSWER: Researchers have examined the cognitive impairments associated with schizophrenia and determined that they can be classified in at least two ways—neurobiological and psychological. If a clinician has a neurobiological outlook on schizophrenia, the clinician may believe that the structural abnormalities lead directly to the cognitive deficits. The neurobiological viewpoint would focus on pharmacological interventions for patient treatment. The psychological viewpoint Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 27: Short Answer determines that biological abnormalities impair psychological functioning or proactive control that leads to cognitive deficits. The clinician with a psychological outlook would focus treatment on cognitive–behavioral therapies.

A variety of hypotheses have been proposed regarding various psychiatric disorders. Match each person with the MOST relevant area of study. a. cognitive–behavioral therapy b. biploar disorder c. Parkinson disease d. modern psychosurgery 18. Morrison ANSWER: a 19. Moorehead ANSWER: b 20. Sacks ANSWER: c 21. Moniz ANSWER: d Match each disorder with the appropriate item. a. autosomal dominant allele b. Synucleinopathies c. L-dopa d. amyloid plaques 22. Huntington disease ANSWER: a 23. Lewy Body dementia ANSWER: b 24. Parkinson disease ANSWER: c 25. Alzheimer disease ANSWER: d

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Chapter 28: Multiple Choice 1. Prior to the development of brain-imaging tests such as MRI and PET, the role of neuropsychologists was to provide assessment regarding cerebral damage. Present day they are more involved in which of the following? a. Autism behavioral support b. Rehabilitation in conjunction with medical issues such as TBI c. Bipolar Disorder intervention d. Cognitive Behavioral Therapy ANSWER: b 2. A patient with closed-head brain injury goes to see a neuropsychologist. To assess the nature and extent of disability, the doctor has the patient undergo: a. functional imaging. b. the Wechsler Memory Scale. c. a thorough neuropsychological assessment. d. composite test batteries.

ANSWER: c 3. The Halstead–Reitan Battery was designed primarily for the purpose of: a. identifying psychiatric disorders. b. assessing brain damage. c. testing for specific cognitive disabilities. d. finding a definitive test of intellectual disabilities.

ANSWER: b 4. The development of neuropsychological test batteries was reinvigorated with the advent of: a. managed care. b. cognitive neuroscience. c. the Rey Complex Figure Test. d. the WAIS-III. ANSWER: b 5. The combination of neuropsychological test development and imaging techniques has led to an understanding of the role of the right frontal lobe in: a. social cognition. b. visual acuity. c. verbal memory. d. spatial memory.

ANSWER: a 6. Each of the following is an example of a composite neuropsychological test battery with the exception of: a. Benton's Neuropsychological Investigation b. Montreal Neurological Institute Approach Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 28: Multiple Choice c. Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery d. Oxford Neuropsychological Procedures ANSWER: c 7. Which of these is a computerized neuropsychological test battery? a. Boston Process b. Halstead–Reitan c. CANTAB d. Luria–Nebraska ANSWER: c 8. What is one of the advantages of using a Composite Test Battery? a. The test is administered in a formalized way, but also considers qualitative information b. There are very rigid criteria that provides for most accurate data c. They don't require experienced neurologists/neuropsychologists to administer d. They are computerized ANSWER: a 9. Which of these is NOT a goal of assessment in clinical neuropsychology? a. diagnosing the presence or absence of brain damage b. facilitating patient care c. identifying unusual brain organization d. classifying disorders ANSWER: d 10. The FSIQ has a standard deviation of: a. 5. b. 10. c. 15. d. 20.

ANSWER: c 11. The mean IQ score on the FSIQ is: a. 50. b. 80. c. 100. d. 120.

ANSWER: c 12. Brain damage restricted to the _____ hemisphere is characterized by low scores on the performance scale of the WAIS-R, except for damage to the _____ lobes.

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Chapter 28: Multiple Choice a. right; temporal b. left; occipital c. right; frontal d. right; occipital ANSWER: d 13. A difference of _____ points or more between verbal scale and performance scale scores on the WAIS-III is usually thought to be clinically significant. a. 15 b. 5 c. 10 d. 25 ANSWER: c 14. A study by Waber and colleagues showed that household income predicted children's scores on a measure of: a. language skills. b. IQ. c. memory. d. athleticism.

ANSWER: b 15. A 33-year-old man with a frontal lesion (case 1 in the text) would probably show improvement on follow-up tests given a year after surgery, with the exception of scores on: a. the WAIS-III verbal scale. b. the WAIS-III performance scale. c. memory tests. d. the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test.

ANSWER: d 16. A 26-year-old man with seizures related to an episode of meningitis (case 2 in the text) had prolonged difficulty with the Rey Complex Figure Test. This suggests: a. the likelihood of right cortical damage. b. the likelihood of right-frontal- and temporal-lobe damage. c. that he needs a thorough eye exam. d. nothing much, as this test is useless in isolation.

ANSWER: b 17. A 37-year-old man with secondary injury from brain infection (case 3 in the text) had severe motor and speech deficits. Neuropsychological assessment revealed that he: a. had severe intellectual disabilities.

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Chapter 28: Multiple Choice b. had mild intellectual disabilities. c. had average verbal intelligence. d. had superior verbal intelligence.

ANSWER: d 18. Rabin and colleagues (2016) conducted a study to determine the most frequently administered neuropsychological tests. Which of these is NOT one of the most common? a. California Verbal Learning Test b. Boston Naming Task c. Trail Making Test d. Wechsler Memory Scales ANSWER: b 19. What is considered a disadvantage to individualized test batteries? a. They are extremely straightforward from an administration perspective. b. Scoring is very easy. c. Theoretical knowledge is not required to adequately administer them. d. They require more specific knowledge both to administer and interpret.

ANSWER: d 20. Which of these is NOT typically a goal or objective of neuropsychological assessment? a. determining a person's level of cerebral functioning b. facilitating a patient's rehabilitation c. diagnosing a disorder d. documenting a patient's recovery following a traumatic brain injury ANSWER: c 21. Which of these is the MOST frequently administered test used to assess general intelligence? a. DSM-V b. WAIS-IV c. NART d. WTAR ANSWER: b 22. A marine returned from active duty in a war abroad and has been complaining to her family about memory problems. Additionally, some family members have discussed noticing some changes in her behavior. It has been suggested that she seek a neuropsychological evaluation to determine if she sustained any brain damage during some of the blast activity she experienced. Which assessment is she likely to undergo? a. Automated Neuropsychological Assessment Metrics b. Halstead–Reitan Battery c. Luria–Nebraska Battery Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 28: Multiple Choice d. Wechsler Scale Memory Inventory ANSWER: a 23. We know that early intervention is critical in autism spectrum disorder (ASD) in that early diagnosis has been correlated with better social functioning and academic performance later on. However, there are barriers to early diagnosis, one of which is that the tools used for assessment are not particularly predictive of later disability. This points to the fact that: a. we still are unaware of the utility of early assessment in very young children. b. the specific assessment for ASD isn't as important as the individual Wechsler subtest. c. there is an essential role for parental assessment in the diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder in young children (9 to 18 months), given parental daily observation. d. there are no reliable neuropsychological assessments currently in use to evaluate children under the age of 2, as they all rely on verbal ability.

ANSWER: c 24. A child has been referred to you for evaluation. The teacher indicated that the child has been less than engaged in class activities and has not performed well on class exams, and they are concerned that this may be reflective of a developmental issue. What is a potential outcome from your assessment? a. The results may indicate the need for academic supports for the child. b. The results could reveal genetic anomalies. c. The child may be experiencing bullying by a peer. d. There may be a need to move the child back a grade level.

ANSWER: a 25. In addition to brain lesions, other issues could contribute to neuropsychological functioning. Which of these has typically NOT been considered to be a factor? a. socioeconomic status b. exposure to extreme stress as a child c. history of depression d. family dynamics related to birth order ANSWER: d 26. You recently administered a rather extensive battery of neuropsychological tests to a new patient.

Completing your assessment results, you don't see any evidence of neuropsychological deficits. The patient insists that “something isn't right with my memory.” Why might this be the case? a. The patient is malingering to obtain a financial gain. b. The testing may not be sensitive enough to capture decrements in subjective performance. c. The patient is not actually impaired. d. The patient's illness is more psychological than neurological.

ANSWER: b 27. If the goal of a neuropsychological assessment is to track cognitive decline, what is a general time interval Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 28: Multiple Choice between assessments to rule out practice effects? a. 2 weeks b. 6 months c. 9 months d. a year or more ANSWER: d 28. In a biopsychosocial assessment, what are some sociological factors that should be considered? a. recent deaths in the family b. stable employment c. surgical history d. mental illness ANSWER: b 29. If you were conducting a biopsychosocial assessment, which of these would NOT be part of the biological aspect of the evaluation? a. current life stressors b. history of personal disease c. history of addiction d. family history of disease ANSWER: a 30. The advances made in cognitive neuroscience, whereby neuroimaging and neuropsychological testing are combined, has led to an increased understanding of the role of the right frontal lobe in the domain of: a. spatial navigation. b. sustained attention. c. social cognition. d. spatial memory.

ANSWER: c 31. Over the years, the role of neuropsychologists has gone through some changes with respect to where they spend the majority of their time working with patients. What was one driving factor that created the shift from diagnostician to participating in rehabilitation? a. changes in health insurance reimbursement policies b. revisions to the Diagnostic Statistical Manual (i.e., DSM-5) c. a decreased incidence of traumatic brain injury d. advances in functional neuroimaging ANSWER: d 32. Functional neuroimaging has developed into a valuable tool in the evaluation of patients with a variety of brain disorders. However, regardless of improvements in the methodology, it is still NOT able to reliably Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 28: Multiple Choice predict the: a. extent of behavioral disturbance following head trauma. b. rate of rehabilitation in patients with ALS. c. degree to which cortical regions atrophy. d. degree of volume change in ADHD. ANSWER: a 33. The Houston guidelines for research in clinical neuropsychology include all of these EXCEPT: a. research design. b. evaluation of outcomes. c. report writing. d. communication of results.

ANSWER: c 34. One benefit of administering a standardized test battery for neuropsychological assessment is that they: a. draw on the theoretical underpinnings of neuropsychology. b. don't require in-depth knowledge of cerebral organization. c. are more qualitative than quantitative in nature. d. are tailored to the patient's etiology.

ANSWER: b 35. You are evaluating a client who has a self-reported cognitive impairment. However, you suspect that there is motivation for the client to malinger. What test should you incorporate into your assessment battery to account for this possibility? a. Wisconsin Card Sorting Task b. Wechsler Memory Test c. Boston Naming Task d. Forced Choice Digit Memory ANSWER: d 36. You've been asked to consult on a case by a law firm that believes the plaintiff is exaggerating their brain impairment following a diagnosis of mild traumatic brain injury. As you develop the exact battery you will administer, which result from the literature would you want to take into consideration? a. The mild TBI group is twice as likely to fail the test relative to the group with more severe TBI. b. Ceiling effects are more important to evaluate than are floor effects. c. People who are suffering from amnesia are impossible to evaluate. d. Individuals with TBI experience immense language difficulty that you must account for.

ANSWER: a 37. It has been suggested by researchers that clinical neuropsychological assessment has not made the advances that have occurred in neuroscience and psychometrics. What is an approach that could contribute to more Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 28: Multiple Choice accurate assessment by linking different measures on similar scales? a. leveraging differences in response alternatives b. trait-level statistics c. item response theory d. differential item functions ANSWER: c 38. What was the first computerized neuropsychological battery? a. WISC b. CANTAB c. ANAM d. ASMB ANSWER: b 39. Sociological questions are important to consider following a brain injury because: a. patients with brain injury often get evicted from their homes due to the stigma associated with brain injury. b. patients diagnosed with mental illness are often discriminated against. c. of previous medical history that the person is unstable. d. interpersonal relationships can become strained due to problems with impulsivity and aggression by the patient.

ANSWER: d 40. An advantage of composite test batteries is that they: a. involve straightforward administration. b. give the benefits of standardized norms and take qualitative information into account. c. don't require an investment in learning the theoretical underpinnings. d. take much less time to administer.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 28: Short Answer 1. Which three factors have enhanced the rate of change in clinical neuropsychology in the past 15 to 20 years?

ANSWER: Functional neuroimaging, cognitive neuroscience, and managed health care have enhanced the rate of change. Each of these areas has led to changing the role of neuropsychologists in patient management.

2. Why is neuropsychological testing particularly useful in cases of closed-head injuries?

ANSWER: When a patient sustains a closed-head injury or TBI, neuropsychological assessment is often the only way to document deficits, be they cognitive, emotional, or behavioral in scope. In many cases, there are no structural deficits that would be revealed via brain imaging, and most clinical brain imaging addresses only structure, not function, thus making neuropsychological assessment the primary tool of examination.

3. Name three difficulties with cutoff scores in neuropsychological test batteries.

ANSWER: Individual variation in cerebral organization can be attributed to a myriad of factors, such as sex, handedness, age, education, culture, and life experiences, and cutoff scores cannot account for these differences. Additionally, test-taking strategy is a variable that could lead to different brain regions being recruited to solve these problems. Lastly, premorbid intelligence plays a role in problemsolving ability.

4. What are the particular challenges to neuropsychological testing that managed health care poses?

ANSWER: Due the current economic climate, clinicians are often asked to reduce the number of tests administered during a neuropsychological evaluation, to save on both time (to increase billing for more patients) and the cost of the assessments. Additionally, neuroimaging has become a very useful clinical tool, and some institutions may turn to that modality in an attempt to obtain faster results.

5. Describe some of the ways in which the discipline of cognitive neuroscience has contributed to our understanding of the brain and cognition.

ANSWER: Cognitive neuroscience made use of different statistical approaches such as structural equation modeling to examine how neural networks are disrupted by injury. Additionally, the use of functional imaging has been used to investigate the functions of the right frontal lobe such as social cognition.

6. Identify four of the tests for language functions in the Boston Process Approach.

ANSWER: The tests are a narrative writing sample; tests of verbal fluency; a visual–perceptual functions test; the cow-and-circle experimental test; the automobile puzzle; the parietal-lobe batter; and the Hooper Visual Organization Test.

7. Identify four of the tests for memory functions in the Boston Process Approach.

ANSWER: The tests are the Rey Auditory Verbal Learning Test, the Rey Complex Figure Test, the Wechsler Memory Scale IV, the Benton Visual Recognition Test, the Cowboy Story Reading Memory Test, and the consonant trigrams test.

8. Identify two of the tests for intellectual and conceptual functions in the Boston Process Approach.

ANSWER: The tests are the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test, the proverbs test, the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 28: Short Answer Scale IV, Raven's Standard of Progressive Matrices, and the Shipley Institute of Living Scale.

9. In the Boston Process Approach to neuropsychological testing, what tests are used to evaluate self-control and motor functions?

ANSWER: The tests are finger tapping, the Stroop Color Word Interference Test, the Proteus Maze Test, and the Luria Three-Step Motor Program.

10. Identify some factors that can make interpretation of neuropsychological tests difficult.

ANSWER: Several factors that contribute to the difficulty of interpretation include age, ethnicity and cultural background, sex, and handedness, as well as other demographic variables. Additionally, premorbid intelligence poses a particular challenge because higher intelligence changes the examiner’s expectations. Neuropsychological assessments have to be more flexible in determining impairment,” but that flexibility could lead to misinterpretation.

11. What are some of the difficulties in creating “norms” for any test of brain damage?

ANSWER: The most difficult issues facing anyone attempting to create a normative standard for brain damage are the wide distribution of performance as a result of the type of lesion (e.g., diffuse versus small), the hemisphere of damage, and etiology (e.g., rapid degeneration). Research that is conducted to develop these norms would likely involve selecting patients of particular types based on the aforementioned categories. The results of that research may not be generalizable across patient populations with different etiologies. Moreover, the sensitivity of the test can also lead to very different results.

12. Discuss how right- versus left-hemisphere damage would likely affect performance and verbal scores on the Weschler Scales.

ANSWER: Left-hemisphere damage produces performance deficits on the four verbal tests. Right-hemisphere damage results in poor block design (nonverbal) performance.

13. Why is postinjury intelligence testing not necessarily useful?

ANSWER: You cannot ascribe any low IQ score to brain damage without knowing the premorbid level of functioning. There are ways to generate estimates based on socioeconomic status and education/occupation, but this is an informal method.

14. Name six frequently used categories of neuropsychological testing, as identified by Zillmer and Spiers.

ANSWER: The categories are abstract reasoning and conceptualization, attention, language, memory, emotional or psychological distress, motor, orientation, sensation and perception, visuospatial, and daily activities.

15. What is the problem of effort? Why does it pose a difficulty for neuropsychologists?

ANSWER: Sometimes individuals wish to exaggerate their cognitive deficits and will not put forth sufficient effort during the assessment. This poses a problem because suboptimal effort has been shown to produce a greater impact on performance than does actual brain damage. Therefore, neuropsychologists have to somehow be able to account for any malingering in order to know they are assessing a real deficit.

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Chapter 28: Short Answer 16. Neuropsychologists undoubtedly administer exhaustive batteries to examine the nature and extent of impairment. What are some of the key issues that neuropsychologists need to contend with when developing their assessment strategy and interpreting the resultant data?

ANSWER: Individuals with brain injury may have other comorbidities that contribute to their performance on any number of neuropsychological measures. These issues must be taken into account when drawing conclusions. Relatedly, an individual’s history has to be taken into account. Were they subjected to childhood trauma that may have affected neurodevelopmental processes and therefore contribute to the recovery trajectory? Moreover, even if an individual performs within normal limits on neuropsychological tests, the subjective complaints of the patient and close family and friends need to be appropriately explored. Sometimes, the tests are not sensitive enough to capture all deficits; but this does not mean the individual isn't struggling in areas of their daily lives, occupation, or interpersonal relationships.

17. Describe the biopsychosocial model for neuropsychological assessment.

ANSWER: The biopsychosocial model addresses the fact that individuals who have sustained a brain injury or have a neurogenerative disease do not experience the symptoms of these injuries in a vacuum. In addition to the regions of the brain that have been compromised, several factors must receive attention during the assessment process. Aspects of daily living, social and emotional support, family dynamics (if any . . . are they alone in the world?), financial resources, and health care that would provide for extended cognitive and physical rehab services are all critical aspects of the individual's recovery that could influence assessment.

18. While there has been a trend toward more individualized test batteries that are more flexible, what are some reasons for administering a computerized battery?

ANSWER: One advantage for using a computerized battery is the ease of administration. Additionally, it's easier to perform statistical analyses of large datasets. Relatedly, from a research perspective, computerized batteries facilitate administration across different sites, thus ensuring methodological fidelity.

19. You are preparing to administer a neuropsychological battery for a patient who recently sustained a traumatic brain injury (TBI). At the time of the initial evaluation, the patient scored a 12 on the Glasgow Coma Scale, suggesting a moderate (albeit the milder side of moderate) TBI. Currently, the patient is experiencing (self-report) some cognitive issues but is anxiously awaiting the start of a new semester of college. What would be the goal of this assessment, and how would the results be utilized?

ANSWER: In this case, the goal of the assessment is to identify milder impairment that other less sensitive measures failed to capture. This is important because the individual will need this documentation to apply for accommodations at college to support their academic endeavors, which will ultimately lead to securing employment and living independently.

Match each test with the function it tests. a. memory functions b. language functions c. conceptual functions d. motor functions Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 28: Short Answer 20. Rey Complex Figure Test ANSWER: a 21. automobile puzzle ANSWER: b 22. Wisconsin Card Sorting Test ANSWER: c 23. Proteus Maze Test ANSWER: d Match each test with the appropriate item. a. academic skills b. self-control c. language d. memory 24. Wide Range Achievement Test ANSWER: a 25. finger tapping ANSWER: b 26. cow-and-circle test ANSWER: c 27. consonant trigrams test ANSWER: d

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