Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 6th Edition Sherer Test Bank

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 6th Edition Sherer Test Bank

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Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 6th Edition

Chapter 01: Introduction to Radiation Protection

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Some consequences of ionization in human cells include: 1. creation of unstable atoms 2. production of free electrons 3. creation of reactive free radicals capable of producing substances poisonous to the cell A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

D

REF:

2

2. When natural sources of ionizing radiation become increased because of accidental or deliberate human actions such as mining, they are referred to as _____ sources.

A.

artificial

B.

enhanced natural

C.

extraterrestrial

D.

manmade

ANS:

B

REF:

14

3. Electromagnetic radiation can travel through space in the form of a wave but can interact with matter as a particle of energy. This dual nature is referred to as: A.

wave attenuation capability

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B.

wave-particle interchange ability

C.

wave-particle duality

D.

wave-particle phenomena

ANS:

C

REF:

9

4. Which of the following statements concerning the 1979 nuclear reactor accident at TMI-2 is not true?

A.

Excess cancer deaths have been predicted to occur in the 2 million people living within 50 miles of the plant at the time of the accident.

B.

Excess cancer deaths have not been predicted to occur in the 2 million people living within 50 miles of the plant at the time of the accident.

C.

The equivalent dose (EqD) received by 2 million people living in the vicinity of the nuclear reactor at the time of the accident was 0.02 mSv (2 mrem).

D.

No melt-through of the reactor vessel occurred during the accident.

ANS:

A

REF:

19

5. Which of the following is a special form of radiation that is capable of creating electrically charged particles by removing orbital electrons from the atom of the material with which it interacts?

A.

Ionizing radiation

B.

Nonionizing radiation

C.

Subatomic radiation

D.

Ultrasonic radiation

ANS:

A

REF:

2

6. Patients who have an understanding of the medical benefits of an imaging procedure because they received factual information about the study before having the examination are more likely to: A.

assume a small risk of biologic damage but not overcome any radiation phobia they may have

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B.

cancel their scheduled procedure because they are not willing to assume a small risk of biologic damage

C.

overcome any radiation phobia but not be willing to assume a small risk of possible biologic damage

D.

overcome any radiation phobia and be willing to assume a small risk of possible biologic damage

ANS:

D

REF:

8

7. Terrestrial radiation includes which of the following sources?

A.

Long-lived radioactive elements, such as uranium-238, radium-226, and thorium-232 that are present in variable quantities in the crust of the earth

B.

Radioactive fallout from nuclear weapons tests in which detonation occurred above ground

C.

The sun and other stars

D.

Video display terminals and television receivers

ANS:

A

REF:

14

8. According to the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), radon levels in homes should not exceed what level?

A.

200 pCi/L

B.

135 pCi/L

C.

47 pCi/L

D.

4 pCi/L

ANS:

D

REF:

17

9. Cosmic radiation occurs in which two forms?

A.

Solar and manmade

B.

Artificial and galactic

C.

Natural background and artificial

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D.

Solar and galactic

ANS:

D

REF:

17

10. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) presently considers the risk of radiation exposure to the U.S. population from color television monitors to be: A.

substantial

B.

moderate

C.

very slight

D.

negligible

ANS:

D

REF:

18

11. Through which of the following routes can radon enter houses?

1. Crawl spaces under living areas 2. Floor drains and sump pumps 3. Porous cement block foundations A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

D

REF:

15

12. Acute melting of the uranium dioxide fuel of a nuclear reactor core requires how great a temperature?

A.

Less than 500 F

B.

At least 1000 F

C.

2000 F

D.

Greater than 5000 F

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ANS:

D

REF:

19

13. When exposed to high radon levels in the home, which of the following groups of people have the highest risk of developing lung cancer?

A.

Infants

B.

Toddlers

C.

Nonsmokers

D.

Smokers

ANS:

D

REF:

17

14. As of 1987, of the estimated 0.65 mSv (65 rem) that manmade radiation contributed to the average annual radiation exposure of the U.S. population, what portion of this resulted from the use of consumer products?

A.

0.01 mSv (1 mrem)

B.

0.11 mSv (11 mrem)

C.

0.21 mSv (21 mrem)

D.

0.31 mSv (31 mrem)

ANS:

B

REF:

18

15. Which of the following helps shield the global population from exposure to essentially all highenergy, bombarding cosmic rays?

A.

Clouds

B.

Fog

C.

Earth’s atmosphere and magnetic field

D.

Smog

ANS:

C

REF:

17

16. Which of the following is considered by the EPA to be the second leading cause of lung cancer in the United States?

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A.

Annual posteroanterior and lateral chest radiographs

B.

Cosmic ray exposure

C.

Radon exposure

D.

Fluoroscopic examination of the upper gastrointestinal tract

ANS:

C

REF:

17

17. Which of the following are forms of electromagnetic radiation?

1. Microwaves 2. Visible light 3. X-rays A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

D

REF:

9

18. The amount of energy transferred to electrons by ionizing radiation is the basis of the concept of: A.

electromagnetic radiation

B.

nuclear power

C.

radioactive decay

D.

radiation dose

ANS:

D

REF:

11

19. In the electromagnetic spectrum, higher frequencies are associated with _____ wavelengths and _____ energies.

A.

longer; lower

B.

longer; higher

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C.

shorter; lower

D.

shorter; higher

ANS:

D

REF:

11

20. Both occupational and nonoccupational dose limits may be stated in units of: 1. Coulomb per kilogram (roentgen) 2. Gray (rads) 3. Sievert (rem) A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

C

REF:

13

21. A flight on a typical commercial airliner results in an equivalent dose rate of _____ mSv/hr (_____ mrem/hr).

A.

0.001 to 0.005; 0.1 to 0.5

B.

0.005 to 0.01; 0.5 to 1

C.

0.02 to 0.04; 2 to 4

D.

0.05 to 0.09; 5 to 9

ANS:

B

REF:

18

22. The first decay product of radium is: A.

cesium

B.

radon

C.

strontium

D.

x-ray

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ANS:

B

REF:

15

23. The millisievert (mSv) is equal to _____ of 1 sievert.

A.

1/10

B.

1/100

C.

1/1000

D.

1/10,000

ANS:

C

REF:

9

24. The advantages of the BERT method are: 1. it does not imply radiation risk; it is simply a means for comparison 2. it emphasizes that radiation is an innate part of our environment 3. the answer given in terms of BERT is easy for the patient to comprehend A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

D

REF:

9

25. If a patient asks a radiographer a question about the potential risk of radiation exposure associated with a specific x-ray procedure, the radiographer should: A.

use his or her intelligence and knowledge to answer the question honestly and provide a suitable example that compares the amount of radiation received from the procedure in question with natural background radiation received over a given period of time

B.

avoid the patient’s question by changing the subject

C.

tell the patient that it is unethical to discuss such concerns

D.

refuse to answer the question and recommend that he or she speak with the referring physician

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ANS:

A

REF:

9

Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 6th Edition

Chapter 02: Interaction of X-Radiation with Matter

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Particles associated with electromagnetic radiation that have no mass or electric charge are: A.

ions

B.

negatrons

C.

positrons

D.

x-ray photons

ANS:

D

REF:

32

2. Coherent scattering is most likely to occur ____________, even though some of this unmodified scattering occurs throughout the diagnostic range and may result in small amounts of radiographic fog.

A.

below 10 keV

B.

between 30 keV and 60 keV

C.

between 60 keV and 90 keV

D.

above 100 keV

ANS:

A

REF:

37

3. Which of the following is not a type of interaction between x-radiation and biologic matter?

A.

Compton scattering

B.

Bremsstrahlung

C.

Pair production

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D.

Photoelectric absorption

ANS:

B

REF:

37

4. The symbol Z indicates the: A.

atomic number of an atom

B.

atomic weight of an atom

C.

fluorescent yield

D.

number of vacancies in an atomic shell

ANS:

A

REF:

42

5. In photoelectric absorption to dislodge an inner-shell electron from its atomic orbit, the incoming x-ray photon must be able to transfer a quantity of energy: A.

less than the energy that binds the atom together

B.

ten times as great as the energy that binds the atom together

C.

as large as or larger than the amount of energy that binds the electron in its orbit

D.

equal to or greater than 1.022 MeV, regardless of the energy that binds the electron in its orbit

ANS:

C

REF:

42

6. Which of the following interactions between photons and matter involves a matter-antimatter annihilation reaction?

A.

Compton scattering

B.

Coherent scattering

C.

Pair production

D.

Photoelectric absorption

ANS:

C

REF:

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7. The probability of occurrence of photoelectric absorption _________ as the energy of the incident photon decreases and the atomic number of the irradiated atoms _________.

A.

increases markedly, decreases

B.

decreases markedly, increases

C.

increases markedly, increases

D.

stays the same, increases

ANS:

C

REF:

42

8. Which of the following terms refers to the radiation that occurs when an electron drops down from an outer orbit to fill a vacancy in an inner orbit of the parent atom?

A.

Characteristic radiation

B.

Bremsstrahlung

C.

Photoelectric radiation

D.

Primary radiation

ANS:

A

REF:

41

9. Fluorescent radiation is also known as: A.

characteristic radiation

B.

coherent scattering

C.

Compton scattering

D.

unmodified scattering

ANS:

A

REF:

41

10. What is the effective atomic number of compact bone?

A.

5.9

B.

7.4

C.

7.6

D.

13.8

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ANS:

D

REF:

42

11. Which of the following is not another term for coherent scattering?

A.

Characteristic

B.

Classical

C.

Elastic

D.

Unmodified

ANS:

A

REF:

37

12. Which of the following are byproducts of photoelectric absorption?

A.

Photoelectron and Compton scattered electron

B.

Low-energy scattered x-ray photon and characteristic photon

C.

Low-energy scattered x-ray photon and Compton scattered electron

D.

Photoelectron and characteristic photon

ANS:

D

REF:

42

13. Which two interactions between x-radiation and matter may result in the production of smallangle scatter?

A.

Photoelectric absorption and Compton scattering

B.

Coherent scattering and Compton scattering

C.

Photoelectric absorption and pair production

D.

Coherent scattering and pair production

ANS:

B

REF:

33

14. Which of the following particles is considered to be a form of antimatter?

A.

Electron

B.

Positron

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C.

X-ray photon

D.

Scattered x-ray photon

ANS:

B

REF:

47

15. Which of the following interactions results in the conversion of matter into energy?

A.

Classical scattering

B.

Photoelectric absorption

C.

Modified scattering

D.

Annihilation reaction

ANS:

D

REF:

47

16. Compton scattering is synonymous with: A.

coherent scattering

B.

incoherent scattering

C.

photoelectric absorption

D.

photodisintegration

ANS:

B

REF:

38

17. During the process of coherent scattering, the incident x-ray photon interacts with a(n): A.

single inner shell electron, ejecting it from its orbit

B.

single outer shell electron, ejecting it from its orbit

C.

atom transferring its energy by causing some or all of the electrons of the atom to vibrate momentarily and radiate energy in the form of electromagnetic waves

D.

ANS:

scattered photon of lesser energy, annihilating it

C

REF:

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18. What is the term for the number of x-rays emitted per inner-shell vacancy during the process of photoelectric absorption?

A.

Characteristic absorption

B.

Classical gain

C.

Fluorescent yield

D.

Modified pair production

ANS:

C

REF:

41

19. Which of the following results in all-directional scatter?

A.

Classical interaction

B.

Coherent interaction

C.

Photoelectric interaction

D.

Compton interaction

ANS:

D

REF:

39

20. Annihilation radiation is used in which of the following modalities?

A.

Computed tomography (CT)

B.

Digital mammography

C.

Positron emission tomography (PET)

D.

Computed radiography (CR)

ANS:

C

REF:

47

21. The x-ray photon energy required to initiate pair production is: A.

0.511 keV

B.

1.022 keV

C.

0.511 MeV

D.

1.022 MeV

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ANS:

D

REF:

47

22. Differences in density level between radiographic images of adjacent structures as seen in a completed radiograph define: A.

image attenuation

B.

radiographic contrast

C.

radiographic density

D.

photodisintegration

ANS:

B

REF:

44

23. Radiographic density is: A.

caused by photodisintegration

B.

defined as the degree of overall blackening on a completed radiograph

C.

not affected by milliampere-seconds (mAs)

D.

not relevant in the production of a diagnostic radiograph

ANS:

B

REF:

44

24. When a vacancy exists in an inner electron shell of an atom (as a result of photoelectric effect, Compton scattering, or bombardment by other electrons), the energy liberated when this vacancy is filled, instead of emerging from the atom as fluorescent radiation, can be transferred to another electron of the atom, thereby ejecting the electron. Such an emitted electron is called a(n) _____ electron.

A.

Auger

B.

Compton

C.

Edison

D.

Sievert

ANS:

A

REF:

41

25. X-rays are carriers of:

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A.

disease

B.

electrons

C.

fluorescent properties that make them visible

D.

manmade, electromagnetic energy

ANS:

D

REF:

31

Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 6th Edition

Chapter 03: Radiation Quantities and Units

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Who was the first American radiation worker to die from radiation-induced cancer in October 1904?

A.

Thomas A. Edison

B.

Wilhelm C. Roentgen

C.

Clarence Madison Dally

D.

Marie Curie

ANS:

C

REF:

54

2. Which of the following effects must be measured to determine the total amount of radiation exposure in a specific volume of dry air under standard conditions of pressure and temperature (760 mm Hg or 1 atmosphere at sea level and 22o C)?

A.

Biologic damage

B.

Cellular activity

C.

Energy absorption

D.

Quantity of ionization

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ANS:

D

REF:

59

3. In the diagnostic radiology energy range (which includes mammography) from 23 to 150 kVp, which of the following tissues possesses the greatest ability to absorb radiant energy through the process of photoelectric absorption?

A.

Air

B.

Bone

C.

Fat

D.

Muscle

ANS:

B

REF:

62

4. If a patient receiving x-ray therapy treatment receives a total dosage of 6000 rads, the dosage may be recorded as _____if the SI system is used.

A.

12,000 Gy

B.

6000 cGy

C.

600 rads

D.

60 R

ANS:

B

REF:

63

5. One millirem equals ___________ rem.

A.

1/10

B.

1/100

C.

1/1000

D.

1/10,000

ANS:

C

REF:

67

6. Fifteen sievert equals __________ rem.

A.

15

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B.

150

C.

1500

D.

15,000

ANS:

C

REF:

67

7. As the intensity of x-ray exposure of the air volume increases, the number of electron-ion pairs produced: A.

also increases

B.

decreases considerably

C.

decreases slightly

D.

remains the same

ANS:

A

REF:

58

8. Which of the following equals 400 rem?

A.

4 mSv

B.

40 mSv

C.

400 mSv

D.

4000 mSv

ANS:

D

REF:

67

9. Ten C/kg equals __________ roentgen.

A.

2.58  10–4

B.

25.8  10–4

C.

3.9  104

D.

39  104

ANS:

C

REF:

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10. In the SI system, an energy absorption of 1 joule (J) per kilogram of matter in the irradiated object equals which of the following?

A.

10 Sv

B.

5 C/kg

C.

1 rad

D.

1 Gy

ANS:

D

REF:

62

11. Thirty-five mSv equals __________ rem.

A.

0.35

B.

3.5

C.

35

D.

350

ANS:

B

REF:

67

12. Which of the following are types of ionizing radiation that produce virtually the same biologic effect for equal absorbed doses in body tissue?

A.

X-rays, beta particles, and gamma rays

B.

Alpha particles, beta particles, and gamma rays

C.

X-rays, neutrons, and gamma rays

D.

X-rays, alpha particles, and fast neutrons

ANS:

A

REF:

63

13. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. B.

1 C/kg of dry air = 1 C/kg of dry air =

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C.

2.58  10–4 C/kg of dry air = 10 sievert

D.

2.58  10–4 C/kg of dry air = 50 roentgen

ANS:

B

REF:

61

REF:

67

14. 45 rem equals _________ mSv. A.

4.5

B.

45

C.

450

D.

4500

ANS:

C

15. For x-ray and gamma ray photons with energies up to 3 million electron volts (MeV), which of the following quantities may be defined as the measure of the total electrical charge of one sign, either all pluses or all minuses, per unit mass that these two kinds of radiation generate in air only?

A.

Absorbed dose

B.

Equivalent dose

C.

Exposure

D.

Collective effective dose

ANS:

C

REF:

58

16. Of the following equivalents, which equals 1 rad?

1.

100 erg/g

2.

1/100 J/kg

3.

0.01 Gy A. 1 only B.

2 only

C.

3 only

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D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

D

REF:

67

17. Alpha particles have a radiation weighting factor (WR) that is numerically equal to: A.

1

B.

5

C.

10

D.

20

ANS:

D

REF:

63

18. Which of the following units are not SI units?

1.

roentgen

2.

Coulomb per kilogram, gray, sievert

3.

rad and rem

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

3 only

D.

1 and 3 only

ANS:

D

REF:

57

19. Which of the following units is a unit of energy that may be defined as the work done or energy expended when a force of 1 newton (N) acts on an object along a distance of 1 meter (m)?

A.

Coulomb per kilogram

B.

erg

C.

gray

D.

joule

ANS:

D

REF:

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20. Which of the following statements is true?

A.

1 centisievert = 100 rem

B.

1 centisievert = 10 rem

C.

1 centisievert = 1 rem

D.

1 centisievert = 0.1 rem

ANS:

C

REF:

67

21. Which of the following is the SI unit of electrical current?

A.

ampere

B.

Coulomb per kilogram

C.

erg

D.

sievert

ANS:

A

REF:

61

22. Beta particles are actually: A.

gamma rays

B.

high-speed electrons

C.

protons

D.

x-rays

ANS:

B

REF:

63

23. Among physicians, cancer deaths attributed to x-ray exposure were reported as early as: A.

1910

B.

1930

C.

1937

D.

1945

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ANS:

A

REF:

59

24. The effective atomic number (Zeff) of soft tissue is: A.

15

B.

13.8

C.

7.4

D.

5.9

ANS:

C

REF:

62

25. Who discovered x-rays on November 8, 1895?

A.

Thomas A. Edison

B.

Clarence Madison Dally

C.

Louis Harold Gray

D.

Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen

ANS:

D

REF:

52

Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 6th Edition

Chapter 04: Radiation Monitoring

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The metal filters contained in a film badge are generally composed of which of the following materials?

A.

Aluminum or copper

B.

Aluminum or lead

C.

Zinc or copper

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D.

Lead or zinc

ANS:

A

REF:

74

2. What is the maximum period of time that a thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) may be worn as a personnel dosimeter?

A.

1 hour

B.

1 week

C.

1 month

D.

3 months

ANS:

D

REF:

83

3. What do film badges, optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeters, pocket ionization chambers, and TLDs have in common?

A.

These devices are all used for area monitoring.

B.

These devices all use the same sensing material to detect ionizing radiation.

C.

These devices are all used for personnel monitoring.

D.

Each of these devices can only be used for personnel monitoring for a maximum of 6 months.

ANS:

C

REF:

72

4. Which of the following instruments is called a cutie pie?

A.

Geiger-Muller detector

B.

Ionization chamber-type survey meter

C.

OSL dosimeter

D.

Proportional counter

ANS:

B

REF:

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5. Which of the following instruments generally has a check source of a weak, long-lived radioisotope located on one side of its external surface to verify its constancy daily?

A.

Pocket dosimeter

B.

Proportional counter

C.

Geiger-Muller detector

D.

Ionization chamber-type survey meter

ANS:

C

REF:

86

6. Which of the following devices contains an aluminum oxide detector?

A.

Film badge

B.

OSL dosimeter

C.

Pocket ionization chamber

D.

TLD

ANS:

B

REF:

78

7. When the sensing crystals contained in the TLD are exposed to ionizing radiation, which of the following occurs?

A.

The protons in the crystalline lattice structure of the lithium fluoride (LiF) molecule absorb energy and are excited to a higher energy level or band.

B.

The neutrons in the crystalline lattice structure of the LiF molecule absorb energy and are excited to a higher energy level or band.

C.

Some of the electrons in the crystalline lattice structure of the LiF molecule absorb energy are excited to a higher energy level or band.

D.

The electrons freed from the LiF molecule are trapped at a lower energy level or band.

ANS:

C

REF:

82

8. In diagnostic imaging, the _____ sensitivity of the OSL dosimeter makes it ideal for monitoring employees working in low-radiation environments and for pregnant workers.

A.

decreased

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B.

increased

C.

lack of

D.

unaffected

ANS:

B

REF:

80

9. The effective atomic number (Zeff) of LiF is equal to: A.

5.9

B.

6.4

C.

7.0

D.

8.2

ANS:

D

REF:

83

10. Which of the following items is not a basic component of the film badge dosimeter?

A.

Radiographic film packet

B.

Durable plastic film holder

C.

Charged electrodes

D.

Assortment of metal filters

ANS:

C

REF:

74

11. Which of the following personnel dosimeters resembles an ordinary fountain pen externally?

A.

Film badge

B.

OSL dosimeter

C.

Pocket ionization chamber

D.

TLD

ANS:

C

REF:

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12. Of the following, which are disadvantages of using pocket ionization chambers as personnel dosimeters?

1. Mechanical shock causes pocket chambers to discharge.

2. A permanent legal record of personnel exposure cannot be obtained with a pocket dosimeter.

3. False high readings may be obtained if the pocket dosimeter is not read each day.

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

D

REF:

81

13. Which component(s) of the Geiger-Muller detector alert(s) the operator to the presence of ionizing radiation?

A.

The shield covering the probe’s sensitivity chamber

B.

An audio amplifier and speaker

C.

The metal that encloses the counter’s gas-filled tube

D.

The meter scale

ANS:

B

REF:

86

14. Which of the following is not true about field survey instruments?

A.

They are all equally sensitive in the detection of ionizing radiation.

B.

They detect the presence of radiation and, when properly calibrated, give a reasonable accurate measure of the exposure.

C.

They are durable enough to withstand normal use.

D.

They are reliable.

ANS:

A

REF:

richard@qwconsultancy.com

84

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15. Ionization chambers connected to electrometers are used by medical physicists to perform standard measurements required by state, federal, and health care accreditation organizations for radiographic and fluoroscopic devices. Some of these measurements include: 1. x-ray output in mR/mAs 2. reproducibility and linearity of output 3. timer accuracy A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

D

REF:

87

16. Which of the following should be part of the employment record of all radiation workers?

A.

A list of all fluoroscopic procedures performed daily

B.

A list of all radiographic procedures performed daily

C.

A record of exposure recorded by personnel dosimeters

D.

A report of all procedures performed when “on call” after regular hours

ANS:

C

REF:

72

17. What should be given to a radiation worker on termination of employment?

A.

A summary of an occupational exposure report

B.

His or her personnel dosimeter

C.

A pocket ionization chamber

D.

An ionization chamber-type survey meter

ANS:

A

REF:

75

18. The front of the white paper packet of the OSL dosimeter:

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A.

may be color-coded to facilitate correct usage and placement of the badge on the body of occupationally exposed personnel

B.

must not have any type of printing on it

C.

must be radiopaque

D.

must never be exposed to ionizing radiation

ANS:

A

REF:

79

19. Three different filters are incorporated into the detector packet of the OSL dosimeter. These filters are, respectively, made of: 1. aluminum 2. copper 3. molybdenum 4. rhenium tungsten 5. tin A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 2, and 5

D.

2, 4, and 5

ANS:

C

REF:

80

20. An electrometer is a device that measures: A.

current

B.

electrical charge

C.

potential difference

D.

voltage

ANS:

B

REF:

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80

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21. Of the following personnel monitoring devices, which device would be used to provide immediate exposure readout for a radiation worker working in a cardiac catheterization laboratory?

A.

Film badge

B.

OSL dosimeter

C.

Pocket ionization chamber

D.

TLD

ANS:

C

REF:

81

22. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the OSL dosimeter?

A.

Exposure not determinable on the day of occurrence

B.

Mechanical shock can cause false high reading

C.

No permanent, legal record of exposure

D.

Not cost-effective for large numbers of personnel

ANS:

A

REF:

84

23. Whenever the letter M appears under the current monitoring period or in the cumulative columns of a personnel monitoring report, it signifies that a(n): A.

mistake has been made in recording the equivalent dose

B.

equivalent dose above the minimum measurable radiation quantity was recorded during that time

C.

equivalent dose below the minimum measurable radiation quantity was recorded during that time

D.

maximal equivalent dose has been exceeded during that time

ANS:

C

REF:

75

24. The OSL dosimeter is “read out” by using: A.

a densitometer

B.

an ionization chamber

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C.

a thermoluminescent analyzer

D.

laser light at selected frequencies

ANS:

D

REF:

78

25. Which of the following are some of the advantages of the OSL dosimeter?

1. Can be used for up to 1 year 2. Lightweight, durable, easy to carry 3. Integrated, self-contained, preloaded packet A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

D

REF:

84

Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 6th Edition

Chapter 05: Overview of Cell Biology

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. In general, which of the following can human cells do?

1. Protect themselves 2. Regulate life processes 3. Reproduce A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

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D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

D

REF:

92

2. Inorganic materials are compounds that __________ carbon.

A.

contain only very small amounts of

B.

contain moderate amounts of

C.

contain large amounts of

D.

do not contain

ANS:

D

REF:

99

3. Antibodies are protein molecules produced by specialized cells in the bone marrow called: A.

B lymphocytes

B.

R lymphocytes

C.

megakaryocytes

D.

oocytes

ANS:

A

REF:

94

4. The steps or rungs of the DNA ladder-like structure consists of complementary chemicals that are: A.

acetic acids

B.

fatty acids

C.

pairs of nitrogenous bases

D.

sugar-phosphate compounds

ANS:

C

REF:

95

5. Compounds called purines include adenine and: 1. cytosine richard@qwconsultancy.com

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2. guanine 3. thymine A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

B

REF:

95

6. The much smaller structures that make up nucleic acids are called: A.

carbohydrates

B.

fatty acids

C.

nucleotides

D.

polysaccharides

ANS:

C

REF:

95

7. Which of the following serves as a prototype for messenger RNA (mRNA)?

A.

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)

B.

Nitric acid (HNO3)

C.

Potassium (K) and sodium (Na)

D.

Transfer RNA (tRNA)

ANS:

A

REF:

97

8. The cell components that contain the centrioles are the: A.

centrosomes

B.

Golgi apparatus and mitochondria

C.

lysosomes

D.

ribosomes

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ANS:

A

REF:

103

9. The number of mitochondria in cells varies from a few hundred to several thousand. The greatest number is found in cells exhibiting _____ activity.

A.

almost no

B.

moderate

C.

no

D.

the greatest

ANS:

D

REF:

103

10. During which of the following subphases of mitosis do the centrioles migrate to opposite sides of the cell and begin to regulate the formation of the mitotic spindle?

A.

Anaphase

B.

Metaphase

C.

Prophase

D.

Telophase

ANS:

C

REF:

107

11. In the human body, mineral salts are necessary for: 1. proper cell function 2. creation of energy 3. conduction of impulses along nerves A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

D

REF:

richard@qwconsultancy.com

92

35 | P a g e

12. Which of the following causes an increase in cellular activity that in turn causes biochemical reactions to occur more rapidly to meet the needs of the cell?

A.

Acetic acids

B.

Enzymes

C.

Hormones

D.

Nucleic acids

ANS:

B

REF:

94

13. How many different amino acids are involved in protein synthesis?

A.

7

B.

15

C.

22

D.

39

ANS:

C

REF:

98

14. A nucleotide is formed from a nitrogen-containing organic base, a _____-carbon sugar molecule, and a phosphate molecule.

A.

three

B.

five

C.

seven

D.

nine

ANS:

B

REF:

95

15. Cytosine bonds only with: A.

adenine

B.

guanine

C.

nitrogen

D.

thymine

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ANS:

B

REF:

95

Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 6th Edition

Chapter 06: Molecular and Cellular Radiation Biology

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A biologic reaction is produced by 4 Gy (400 rad) of a test radiation. It takes 16 Gy (1600 rad) of 250-kVp x-rays to produce the same biologic reaction. What is the relative biologic effectiveness (RBE) of the test radiation?

A.

2

B.

4

C.

8

D.

12

ANS:

B

REF:

116

2. Which of the following is (are) considered low-LET radiation(s)?

1. X-rays 2. Alpha particles 3. Gamma rays A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

2 and 3 only

ANS:

C

REF:

richard@qwconsultancy.com

117

37 | P a g e

3. The radiation dose required to produce mitotic death is: A.

less than the dose needed to produce apoptosis in slowly dividing cells or nondividing cells

B.

more than the dose needed to produce apoptosis in slowly dividing cells or nondividing cells

C.

the same as the dose needed to produce apoptosis in slowly dividing cells or nondividing cells

D.

nonexistent as mitotic death cannot be produced in slowly dividing cells or nondividing cells by ionizing radiation

ANS:

A

REF:

129

4. Which of the following means the loss or change of a nitrogenous base in the DNA chain?

A.

Aneuploidy

B.

Bleb

C.

Free radical

D.

Mutation

ANS:

D

REF:

121

5. While passing through a human cell, an x-ray photon interacts with and inactivates the cell’s master molecule. What is the consequence for the cell?

A.

Loss of all intracellular fluid

B.

Increased pressure on the cell membrane leading to immediate rupture

C.

Disruption of cell chemistry only

D.

Death

ANS:

D

REF:

128

6. Which of the following illustrates the radiation sensitivity of a particular type of cell?

A.

Epidemiologic data curve

B.

Extrapolation curve

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C.

Dose-response curve

D.

Survival curve

ANS:

D

REF:

129

7. Which of the following groups of cells is least radiosensitive?

A.

Adult nerve cells

B.

Nerve cells in the embryo-fetus

C.

Lymphocytes

D.

Immature spermatogonia

ANS:

A

REF:

134

REF:

119

8. OH* + OH* = __________.

A.

H2O

B.

HOH+

C.

HOH–

D.

H2O2

ANS:

D

9. Which of the following humans is most radiosensitive?

A.

A mature adult

B.

The embryo-fetus during the first trimester of pregnancy

C.

The fetus during the third trimester of gestation

D.

A 5-year-old child

ANS:

B

REF:

131

10. _____ of the effects of x-radiation and gamma in macromolecules of living systems (in vivo) occur as a result of indirect action. richard@qwconsultancy.com

39 | P a g e

A.

None

B.

Very few

C.

Some

D.

Most

ANS:

D

REF:

120

11. The normal white blood cell count for an adult ranges from _____ to _____/mm3 of blood.

A.

1000; 5000

B.

3000; 6000

C.

5000; 10,000

D.

7000; 15,000

ANS:

C

REF:

133

REF:

114

12. One micron (m) = _____ m.

A.

10–6

B.

10+6

C.

10–3

D.

10+3

ANS:

A

13. A periodic blood count is not recommended as a method for monitoring occupational radiation exposure because: 1. biologic damage from ionizing radiation cannot be determined from a blood test 2. biologic damage has already been sustained when an irregularity is seen in the blood count 3. a traditional blood count is a relatively insensitive test that is unable to indicate exposures of less than 10 cGy (10 rads) A.

1 only

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B.

2 only

C.

3 only

D.

2 and 3 only

ANS:

D

REF:

133

14. Based on current data, which of the following would be considered a safe radiation dose for the gonads of both males and females?

A.

5 Gy

B.

3 Gy

C.

1 Gy

D.

0 Gy

ANS:

D

REF:

135

15. Which of the following statements is true concerning patients who receive radiation exposure from a routine radiographic procedure such as a chest x-ray?

A.

Patients are expected to sustain appreciable damage to either the blood or the blood-forming organs as a consequence of the examination.

B.

Patients are not expected to sustain appreciable damage to either the blood or the blood-forming organs as a consequence of the examination.

C.

Patients are expected to sustain some damage to either the blood or the blood-forming organs as a consequence of the examination.

D.

Patients are expected to sustain total damage to either the blood or the blood-forming organs as a consequence of the examination resulting in fatality.

ANS:

B

REF:

133

16. The term “apoptosis” is synonymous with: A.

programmed cell death

B.

meiosis

C.

mitosis

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D.

ANS:

point mutation

A

REF:

128

17. Which of the following gonadal radiation doses may cause permanent sterility in a human male?

A.

0.01 Gy

B.

1.0 Gy

C.

2.0 Gy

D.

6.0 Gy

ANS:

D

REF:

135

18. Which of the following groups of cells is most radiosensitive?

A.

Lymphocytes

B.

Adult nerve cells

C.

Erythrocytes

D.

Muscle cells

ANS:

A

REF:

132

19. Direct action may occur after exposure to any type of radiation, but it is much more likely to happen after exposure to: A.

low-LET radiation such as x-rays

B.

low-LET radiation such as gamma rays

C.

high-LET radiation such as alpha particles

D.

nonionizing radiation such as microwaves

ANS:

C

REF:

117

20. As LET increases, the ability of ionizing radiation to cause biologic effects:

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42 | P a g e

A.

also generally increases until it reaches a maximal value

B.

decreases considerably

C.

decreases slightly

D.

remains constant, not increasing or decreasing

ANS:

A

REF:

130

21. Neutrophils play an important role in: A.

circulating blood through the human body

B.

clotting blood

C.

fighting infection

D.

preventing hemorrhage

ANS:

C

REF:

133

22. Radiosensitivity of ova: A.

remains constant throughout the lifetime of the germ cell

B.

varies considerably throughout the lifetime of the germ cell

C.

varies slightly throughout the lifetime of the germ cell

D.

is insignificant because the germ cell is not radiosensitive

ANS:

B

REF:

135

23. Which of the following tissues contain cells that do not divide?

1. Epithelial tissue 2. Muscle tissue 3. Nervous tissue in the adult A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

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D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

C

REF:

134

24. Which of the following is a scavenger-type of white blood cell that fights bacteria?

A.

Granulocytes

B.

Lymphocytes

C.

Neutrophils

D.

Thrombocytes

ANS:

A

REF:

133

25. If bone marrow cells have not been destroyed by exposure to ionizing radiation, they can: A.

become insensitive to future exposures from ionizing radiation

B.

overpopulate and become radioresistant

C.

remain in circulating blood indefinitely

D.

repopulate after a period of recovery

ANS:

D

REF:

132

Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 6th Edition

Chapter 07: Early Radiation Effects on Organ Systems

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Revised atomic bomb data for Hiroshima and Nagasaki suggest that radiation-induced leukemias and solid tumors occurring in the survivors may be attributed to exposure to which of the following?

A.

X-rays

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B.

Gamma radiation

C.

Neutrons

D.

Various nonionizing radiations

ANS:

B

REF:

144

2. For persons with hematopoietic syndrome, survival time shortens as the radiation dose: A.

decreases

B.

increases

C.

remains the same

D.

there is no survival time for persons with the hematopoietic syndrome

ANS:

B

REF:

144

3. _____ syndrome is not a form of acute radiation syndrome.

A.

Carcinogenic

B.

Hematopoietic

C.

Gastrointestinal

D.

Cerebrovascular

ANS:

A

REF:

144

4. The term LD 50/30 signifies the whole-body dose of radiation that can be lethal to ____% of the exposed population in _____ days.

A.

50; 30

B.

30; 50

C.

50; 50

D.

30; 30

ANS:

A

REF:

richard@qwconsultancy.com

146

45 | P a g e

5. Some local tissues suffer immediate consequences from high radiation doses. Examples of such tissues include: 1. bone marrow 2. male and female reproductive organs 3. skin A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

D

REF:

148

6. Atrophy refers to: A.

aging of the skin from radiation exposure

B.

shrinkage of organs and tissues after a high radiation dose is received

C.

necrosis of the hypodermis from radiation exposure

D.

wrinkling of the skin from radiation exposure

ANS:

B

REF:

148

7. As a result of numerous reported patient injuries that have been associated with the use of _______________, better management of the use of such procedures is essential.

A.

computed tomography

B.

high-level fluoroscopy

C.

routine chest radiography

D.

routine fluoroscopy

ANS:

B

REF:

150

8. In the female the oogonia, the ovarian stem cells: A.

divide and reduce in number only during fetal development

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B.

multiply to millions of cells only during fetal development

C.

are not present during fetal life

D.

are present only in very small numbers during fetal life

ANS:

B

REF:

150

9. The correct order of development for the female germ cell from the stem cell phase to the mature cell is: A.

ovum, mature follicle, corpus luteum, primordial follicle

B.

corpus luteum, primordial follicle, mature follicle, ovum

C.

primordial follicle, ovum, corpus luteum, mature follicle

D.

primordial follicle, mature follicle, corpus luteum, ovum

ANS:

D

REF:

151

10. Which of the following are classified as early (acute) deterministic somatic effects of ionizing radiation?

A.

Erythema, cataract formation, cancer

B.

Nausea, epilation, intestinal disorders

C.

Male and female sterility, embryologic defects, cancer

D.

Blood disorders, fever, genetic effects

ANS:

B

REF:

141

11. The prodromal stage of acute radiation syndrome is also referred to as the: A.

initial stage

B.

latent period

C.

manifest illness period

D.

recovery period

ANS:

A

REF:

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12. Research has shown that repeated radiation injuries have a _____ effect.

A.

cumulative

B.

quadratic

C.

sigmoidal

D.

threshold

ANS:

A

REF:

148

13. The hematopoietic form of acute radiation syndrome is also called the _____ syndrome.

A.

Auger

B.

bone marrow

C.

cerebrovascular

D.

mutational

ANS:

B

REF:

144

14. Genetic mutations have been produced in experimental female animals when their ovaries were irradiated with doses as low as _____ Gy (_____ rad).

A.

0.10; 10

B.

0.15; 15

C.

0.20; 20

D.

0.25; 25

ANS:

D

REF:

152

15. A term that is synonymous with epilation is: A.

alopecia

B.

atrophy

C.

desquamation

D.

radiodermatitis

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ANS:

A

REF:

149

16. A single absorbed dose of 2 Gy (200 rad) can cause a radiation-induced skin erythema within _____ hour(s) after irradiation.

A.

1

B.

6

C.

12

D.

24 to 48

ANS:

D

REF:

149

17. In 1898, after suffering severe burns attributed to radiation exposure, which Boston dentist began investigating the hazards of radiation exposure and became the first known advocate of radiation protection?

A.

Marie Curie

B.

Clarence Madison Dally

C.

Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen

D.

William Herbert Rollins

ANS:

D

REF:

148

18. The correct order of development of the male germ cell from the stem cell phase to the mature cell is: A.

spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid, sperm

B.

spermatocyte, spermatogonia, spermatid, sperm

C.

spermatid, spermatogonia, spermatocyte, sperm

D.

sperm, spermatid, spermatogonia, spermatocyte

ANS:

A

REF:

richard@qwconsultancy.com

151

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19. Attempts have been made to measure chromosome aberrations after diagnostic x-ray imaging procedures: A.

and these studies have been very successful in measuring the number of chromosome aberrations that occurred

B.

but successful results have not been achieved in these studies

C.

but these studies have only been moderately successful in measuring the number of chromosome aberrations that occurred

D.

but these studies have only been minimally successful in measuring the number of chromosome aberrations that occurred

ANS:

B

REF:

154

20. Studies of radiation therapy patients who received orthovoltage radiation therapy treatments provide _____ evidence of skin damage caused by radiation exposure.

A.

no

B.

minimal

C.

a moderate amount of

D.

significant

ANS:

D

REF:

150

21. Moist and dry desquamation can be caused by: A.

high radiation doses

B.

low radiation doses

C.

radiation doses received during routine diagnostic imaging procedures

D.

radiation doses received during routine mammography

ANS:

A

REF:

150

22. Which of the following is the reason why the ovaries should be shielded whenever possible during all imaging procedures?

A.

Gonadal irradiation of the ovaries can result in somatic damage that can be passed on to future generations.

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B.

Gonadal irradiation of the ovaries can result in somatic damage but it cannot be passed on to future generations.

C.

Gonadal irradiation of the ovaries can result in genetic mutations that can be passed on to future generations.

D.

There is no valid reason why the ovaries should be shielded whenever possible during all imaging procedures.

ANS:

C

REF:

152

23. A decrease in the number of neutrophils can be caused by a radiation dose of _____ Gy (_____ rad).

A.

0.1; 10

B.

0.2; 20

C.

0.3; 30

D.

0.5; 50

ANS:

D

REF:

153

24. Grenz rays were once used to treat and cure: A.

acute radiation syndrome

B.

cancer

C.

lupus disease

D.

skin diseases, such as ringworm

ANS:

D

REF:

150

25. During the major response stages of acute radiation syndrome after the initial stage, the period when symptoms that affect the hematopoietic, gastrointestinal, and cerebrovascular systems become visible is called: A.

latent period

B.

manifest illness

C.

prodromal syndrome

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D.

recovery

ANS:

B

REF:

142

Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 6th Edition

Chapter 08: Late Radiation Effects on Organ Systems

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Radiation-induced cataracts in humans follow a __________ dose-response relationship.

A.

nonlinear, nonthreshold

B.

linear, nonthreshold

C.

linear, threshold

D.

nonlinear, threshold

ANS:

D

REF:

174

2. Studies of Japanese atomic bomb survivors demonstrate that the incidence of leukemia has _________ since the late 1940s and early 1950s and the incidence of solid tumors has continued to __________ since the late 1950s and early 1960s.

A.

slowly declined, escalate

B.

increased rapidly, decrease

C.

increased slowly, decrease

D.

rapidly declined, decrease

ANS:

A

REF:

169

3. For an accurate estimate of the number of radiation-induced leukemias and other malignancies that may occur in some of the 135,000 evacuees from the 1986 nuclear power station accident in Chernobyl, Ukraine, the exposed population must: richard@qwconsultancy.com

52 | P a g e

A.

not be permitted to receive any additional medical radiation exposure for at least 20 years from the date of the accident

B.

not be permitted to intermingle with the unexposed population

C.

remain living in the same geographic area for the remainder of their lives

D.

have long-term monitoring

ANS:

D

REF:

170

4. Of the following late somatic effects caused by exposure to ionizing radiation, which effect is considered to be most important?

A.

Cataract formation

B.

Embryologic or birth defects

C.

Cancer

D.

None; all are considered to be of equal importance

ANS:

C

REF:

163

5. The human body can incorporate radium into bone because it is chemically similar to: A.

calcium

B.

potassium

C.

phosphorus

D.

sodium

ANS:

A

REF:

166

6. Uranium miners in the Colorado plateau who developed lung cancer years after exposure provide an example of which of the following?

A.

Early deterministic somatic effects

B.

Late stochastic somatic effects

C.

Early genetic effects

D.

Late genetic effects

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ANS:

B

REF:

163

7. Laboratory experiments with mice prove that cataracts may be induced with doses of ionizing radiation as low as _____ Gy (_____ rads).

A.

0.10; 10

B.

0.01; 1

C.

0.50; 50

D.

0.05; 5

ANS:

A

REF:

174

8. In which of the following human populations is the risk for causing a radiation-induced cancer not directly measurable?

1. All patients in diagnostic radiology subjected to a radiation dose below 0.1 sievert (less than 10 rem) 2. Chernobyl radiation accident victims living in contaminated villages 3. Japanese atomic bomb survivors A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

3 only

D.

2 and 3 only

ANS:

A

REF:

164

9. Mutations in genes and DNA that occur at random as natural phenomena are called _____ mutations.

A.

deterministic

B.

sporadic

C.

spontaneous

D.

stochastic

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ANS:

C

REF:

177

10. Existing data on radiation-induced genetic effects in humans: A.

prove conclusively that radiation causes major genetic effects

B.

prove conclusively that radiation causes only minor genetic effects

C.

are still inconclusive

D.

prove conclusively that radiation does not cause genetic effects

ANS:

C

REF:

178

11. When a prediction is made that the number of excess cancers in a given population will increase as the natural incidence of cancer increases in that population with age, the risk is described by which of the following terms?

A.

Absolute

B.

Excess

C.

Quadratic

D.

Relative

ANS:

D

REF:

164

12. What is the mean value of the radiation doubling equivalent dose for humans, as determined from the offspring of the atomic bomb survivors of Hiroshima and Nagasaki?

A.

1.00 Sv (100 rem)

B.

1.56 Sv (156 rem)

C.

3.00 Sv (300 rem)

D.

5.67 Sv (567 rem)

ANS:

B

REF:

179

13. Genetic effects from exposure to ionizing radiation occur as a result of radiation-induced damage to the DNA molecule in which of the following?

1. Sperm of an adult male richard@qwconsultancy.com

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2. Ova of an adult female 3. Somatic cells of male and female adults A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

3 only

D.

1 and 2 only

ANS:

D

REF:

177

14. What do agents such as chemicals, elevated temperatures, ionizing radiation, and viruses have in common?

A.

They have nothing in common.

B.

They can increase the frequency of mutations in only those members of the population who are already genetically impaired.

C.

They are all mutagens that may increase the frequency of occurrence of mutations.

D.

They always cause spontaneous abortions during the first trimester of pregnancy.

ANS:

C

REF:

177

15. Which of the following groups of people exposed to ionizing radiation provide proof that lowlevel radiation exposure produces late effects?

A.

135,000 evacuees from the 1986 nuclear power plant accident at Chernobyl, Ukraine

B. C.

Japanese atomic bomb survivors Children of the Marshall Islanders who were inadvertently subjected to fallout during the atomic bomb test in 1954

D.

ANS:

None of the above

D

REF:

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170

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16. A radiation dose of 0.05 Gy to 0.15 Gy (5 to 15 rads) delivered to a human embryo during the preimplantation stage of development results in which of the following?

A.

Congenital abnormalities

B.

Delayed bone growth

C.

Embryonic death

D.

Microcephaly

ANS:

C

REF:

175

17. After the 1986 nuclear power station accident in Chernobyl, Ukraine, an attempt was made to prevent thyroid cancer in children in Poland and some other countries as a consequence of accidental overdose of iodine-131, __________ was administered as a substitute for take-up of iodine-131.

A.

potassium bromide

B.

sodium chloride

C.

sodium bicarbonate

D.

potassium iodide

ANS:

D

REF:

171

18. Radiation dose-response curves can be used to predict the risk of _________ in human populations that have been exposed to low levels of ionizing radiation.

A.

cataract formation

B.

genetic effects

C.

malignancy

D.

spontaneous abortions

ANS:

C

REF:

159

19. Radiation-induced abnormalities are caused by unrepaired damage to: A.

all stem cells in the body

B.

DNA within ova or sperm

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C.

epithelial cells

D.

somatic cells

ANS:

B

REF:

177

20. Normally, mutations in genetic material occur spontaneously, without a known cause. A genetic disorder is present in approximately ____% of all live births in the United States.

A.

10

B.

20

C.

25

D.

30

ANS:

A

REF:

177

21. Today, as a result of programs stressing radiation safety education and protective devices, radiation workers employed in medical imaging: A.

may only experience a moderate degree of adverse health effects as a consequence of their work

B.

may only experience a small amount of adverse health effects as a consequence of their work

C.

need not experience any adverse health effects as a consequence of their work

D.

programs stressing radiation safety education and the use of protective devices have no impact on adverse health effects that radiation workers sustain.

ANS:

C

REF:

167

22. Radium decays with a half-life of: A.

8 days

B.

50 year

C.

500 years

D.

1622 years

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ANS:

D

REF:

166

23. The term “linear nonthreshold curve” implies that the biologic response to ionizing radiation is _____ the dose.

A.

directly proportional to

B.

inversely proportional to

C.

directly proportional to the square of

D.

inversely proportional to the square of

ANS:

A

REF:

161

24. Genetic mutations at the molecular level are called _____ mutations.

A.

chromatid

B.

chromosome

C.

molecular

D.

point

ANS:

D

REF:

177

25. Studies of postpartum patients treated with ionizing radiation for relief of mastitis indicate that in this group of individuals, radiation exposure to healthy breast tissue: A.

can cause breast cancer

B.

cannot cause breast cancer

C.

can cause breast enlargement

D.

can cause breast shrinkage

ANS:

A

REF:

167

Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 6th Edition

Chapter 09: Dose Limits for Exposure to Ionizing Radiation

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Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following terms means “random in nature”?

A.

Deterministic

B.

Epidemiologic

C.

Nonstochastic

D.

Stochastic

ANS:

D

REF:

194

2. When whole-body occupational exposure is controlled by keeping the effective dose (EfD) well below the upper boundary limit, the possibility of inducing stochastic effects of radiation is: A.

increased considerably

B.

increased slightly

C.

maintained at an acceptable level

D.

minimized

ANS:

D

REF:

196

3. Which of the following agencies was previously known as the Atomic Energy Commission?

A.

FDA

B.

ICRP

C.

NCRP

D.

NRC

ANS:

D

REF:

188

4. Which of the following are functions and/or responsibilities of the U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)? richard@qwconsultancy.com

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1. Functions as a monitoring agency in places of employment, predominantly in industry 2. Regulates occupational exposure to radiation through Part 1910 of Title 29 of the U.S. Code of Federal Regulations (29 CFR 1910) 3. Responsible for regulations concerning the “right to know” of employees with regard to hazards that may be present in the workplace A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

D

REF:

190

5. Which of the following groups is run by the government of Japan, primarily to study Japanese atomic bomb survivors?

A.

National Research Council Committee on the Biological Effects of Ionizing Radiation

B.

International Commission on Radiological Protection

C.

Radiation Effects Research Foundation

D.

Nuclear Regulatory Commission

ANS:

C

REF:

187

6. Epidemiologic studies of atomic bomb survivors exposed in utero have provided conclusive evidence of a dose-dependent increase in the incidence of severe mental retardation for fetal doses greater than approximately _____ Sv (_____ rem).

A.

0.1; 10

B.

0.2; 20

C.

0.3; 30

D.

0.4; 40

ANS:

D

REF:

richard@qwconsultancy.com

197

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7. What is the collective effective dose (ColEfD) limit to the whole body of an occupationally exposed person who is 46 years old?

A.

4.6 mSv

B.

46 mSv

C.

460 mSv

D.

4600 mSv

ANS:

C

REF:

199

8. ____________ conclusive proof exists that low-level ionizing radiation causes a statistically significant increase in the threat of malignancy.

A.

A substantial amount of

B.

A moderate amount of

C.

A small amount of

D.

No

ANS:

D

REF:

196

9. The main function of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is to: 1. inspect imaging facilities 2. oversee the nuclear energy industry 3. regulate imaging facilities A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

B

REF:

188

10. The effective dose (EfD) limiting system supersedes: A.

all Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations

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B.

all Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) regulations

C.

the maximum permissible dose (MPD) system

D.

the Consumer-Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act of 1981

ANS:

C

REF:

197

11. The as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA) concept presents an extremely conservative model with respect to the relationship between: A.

health care education and radiation research

B.

ionizing and nonionizing radiation

C.

ionizing radiation and potential risk

D.

radiation dose and biologic response

ANS:

C

REF:

192

12. In general, nonstochastic effects occur: A.

after all diagnostic imaging procedures

B.

only after some diagnostic imaging procedures

C.

only after routine fluoroscopic procedures

D.

only after large doses of radiation are received

ANS:

D

REF:

193

13. If a cancer induced by 2 Gy (200 rads) of ionizing radiation is compared with a cancer induced by 0.2 Gy (20 rads) of ionizing radiation, the cancer induced by the larger absorbed dose is no worse than the cancer induced by the smaller absorbed dose but the chance of cancer induction from the larger dose is: A.

greater

B.

lesser

C.

the same as the chance of induction from the smaller dose

D.

none of these; ionizing radiation cannot cause cancer

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ANS:

A

REF:

194

14. Which of the following are responsibilities of a health care facility’s radiation safety committee (RSC)?

1. Assist in the development of the radiation safety program.

2. Provide guidance for the radiation safety program.

3. Facilitate the ongoing operation of the radiation safety program.

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

D

REF:

190

15. The essential concept underlying radiation protection is that: A.

any organ in the human body is vulnerable to damage from exposure to ionizing radiation

B.

only critical organs in the human body are vulnerable to damage from exposure to ionizing radiation

C.

only the reproductive organs in the human male and female are vulnerable to damage from exposure to ionizing radiation

D.

no organ in the human body is vulnerable to damage from exposure to ionizing radiation

ANS:

A

REF:

197

16. The annual occupational effective dose (EfD) limit does not include: 1. personal medical radiation exposure from an imaging procedure 2. natural background radiation exposure 3. radiation exposure received on the job A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

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C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

A

REF:

198

17. Which of the following statements is true?

A.

Medical imaging personnel almost always receive equivalent doses that are close to the annual effective dose limit.

B.

Medical imaging personnel always receive equivalent doses that are close to the annual effective dose limit.

C.

Medical imaging personnel almost never receive equivalent doses that are close to the annual effective dose limit.

D.

Medical imaging personnel absolutely never receive equivalent doses that are close to the annual effective dose limit.

ANS:

C

REF:

199

18. Occasional exposure for the purpose of education and training is permitted, provided that special care is taken to ensure that the annual effective dose limit of _____ mSv (_____ rem) is not exceeded.

A.

0.5; 0.05

B.

1; 0.1

C.

2; 0.2

D.

3; 0.3

ANS:

B

REF:

200

19. What is the collective effective dose (ColEfD) limit to the whole body of an occupationally exposed person who is 52 years old?

A.

5.2 rem

B.

52 rem

C.

520 rem

D.

5200 rem

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ANS:

B

REF:

199

20. The responsibility for maintaining radiation monitoring records for all personnel and for providing counseling for individuals who receive monitor readings in excess of allowable limits belongs to the: A.

director of human resources of a health care facility

B.

designated radiation safety officer of a health care facility

C.

hospital administrator

D.

radiologic technologist in charge of quality control

ANS:

B

REF:

190

21. What is the cumulative effective dose (CumEfD) to the whole body of an occupationally exposed person who is 34 years old?

A.

3400 mSv

B.

340 mSv

C.

34 mSv

D.

3.4 mSv

ANS:

B

REF:

198

22. A radiation safety officer in a health care facility must have sufficient authority, organizational freedom, and management prerogative to: 1. identify radiation safety problems 2. initiate, recommend, or provide corrective action 3. stop unsafe operations involving byproduct material A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

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ANS:

D

REF:

190

23. To define ALARA, health care facilities usually adopt investigation levels, defined as Level I and Level II. In the United States, these levels are traditionally _______ to ______ the applicable regulatory standards.

A.

1/20; 1/10

B.

1/10; 3/10

C.

3/10; 1/2

D.

1/2; 7/10

ANS:

B

REF:

192

24. Damage to the reproductive cells of the human male and female that is caused by irradiation of sperm and ova before conception is termed: A.

mutagenesis

B.

optimization

C.

spermatogenesis

D.

teratogenesis

ANS:

A

REF:

194

25. Effective dose (EfD) limits may be expressed for: 1. whole-body exposure 2. partial-body exposure 3. exposure of individual organs A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

D

REF:

richard@qwconsultancy.com

196

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Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 6th Edition

Chapter 10: Equipment Design for Radiation Protection

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following is not an x-ray beam limitation device?

A.

Aperture diaphragm

B.

Collimator

C.

Filter

D.

Extension cylinder

ANS:

C

REF:

209

2. When the speed of screen-film systems doubles, for example, when changing from a 200-speed to a 400-speed system, patient radiation exposure is _____ by approximately _____%.

A.

increased; 25

B.

increased; 50

C.

reduced; 25

D.

reduced; 50

ANS:

D

REF:

219

3. Sharper size restriction of the radiographic beam is achieved when the cone or cylinder is: A.

longer

B.

shorter

C.

made of aluminum

D.

made of durable plastic

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ANS:

A

REF:

214

4. When using digital fluoroscopy systems, making use of the last-image-hold feature can: A.

be an effective dose reduction technique

B.

eliminate the need to collimate the primary beam

C.

eliminate increased involuntary patient motion

D.

eliminate increased voluntary patient motion

ANS:

A

REF:

235

5. What is the purpose of radiographic beam filtration?

A.

To decrease beam hardness, thereby reducing patient skin dose and the dose to superficial tissues

B.

To increase beam hardness, thereby reducing patient skin dose and the dose to superficial tissues

C.

To eliminate short wavelength radiation to reduce the radiation received by the patient’s skin and superficial tissues

D.

To increase beam hardness, thereby increasing patient skin dose with only a slight increase to superficial tissues

ANS:

B

REF:

214

6. Depending on the area of the body being examined with a fluoroscopic image intensification system, for adult patients a range of ______ kVp is generally used.

A.

30 to 60

B.

60 to 75

C.

75 to 110

D.

110 to 140

ANS:

C

REF:

231

7. When performing a mobile fluoroscopic procedure, to reduce the radiation exposure to the patient, the radiographer must use a minimal source-skin distance of ____ cm (____ inches). richard@qwconsultancy.com

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A.

15; 6

B.

30; 12

C.

38; 15

D.

45; 18

ANS:

B

REF:

231

8. When a fluoroscopic image is electronically amplified by an image intensification system, which of the following benefits result?

1. Increased image brightness 2. Saving of time for the radiologist 3. Patient dose reduction A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

D

REF:

229

9. Current federal standards limit entrance skin exposure rates of general-purpose intensified fluoroscopic units to a maximum of _____ R/min (_____  2.58  10–4 C/kg/min).

A.

5; 5

B.

10; 10

C.

20; 20

D.

25; 25

ANS:

B

REF:

232

10. During a fluoroscopic examination a resettable cumulative timing device times the x-ray beamon time and sounds an audible alarm or temporarily interrupts the exposure after the fluoroscope has been activated for what length of time?

A.

1 minute

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B.

3 minutes

C.

5 minutes

D.

10 minutes

ANS:

C

REF:

231

11. To visualize smaller and lower-contrast objects during interventional procedures, high-levelcontrol fluoroscopy uses exposure rates that are _______ those normally used in routine fluoroscopy.

A.

higher than

B.

lower than

C.

the same as

D.

none of these; smaller and lower-contrast objects cannot be visualized by fluoroscopy during interventional procedures

ANS:

A

REF:

235

12. Which of the following types of filters should be used to provide uniform density when radiographing a foot in the dorsoplantar projection?

A.

Bilateral wedge filter

B.

Trough filter

C.

Thoraeus filter

D.

Wedge filter

ANS:

D

REF:

218

13. A radiographer uses a high-speed, rare-earth screen-film system with optimal technical exposure factors to obtain posteroanterior and lateral radiographs of a 2-year-old child’s chest.

To maximize reduction of radiation exposure to the patient following adequate immobilization, the radiographer should collimate the x-ray beam so that it is _______ shield the child’s reproductive organs.

A.

only slightly larger than the margins of the image receptor and

B.

no larger than the margins of the image receptor and

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C.

smaller than the margins of the image receptor and

D.

smaller than the margins of the image receptor and not

ANS:

C

REF:

211

14. Federal government specifications recommend a minimum total filtration of _____-mm aluminum equivalent for stationary (fixed) fluoroscopic x-ray units operating above 70 kVp. A.

1.0

B.

1.5

C.

2.0

D.

2.5

ANS:

D

REF:

215

15. When compared with the traditional material in the front of a cassette (aluminum or cardboard), the cassette front containing the carbon fiber absorbs approximately _____ as much radiation, resulting in a _____ dose for the patient because _____ radiographic techniques are required to produce the recorded image.

A.

four times; higher; higher

B.

three times; higher; higher

C.

twice; higher; higher

D.

half; lower; lower

ANS:

D

REF:

220

16. In standard image intensification fluoroscopy, an x-ray beam half-value-layer (HVL) of 3- to 4mm aluminum is considered acceptable when peak kilovoltage ranges from: A.

50 to 60

B.

60 to 70

C.

70 to 80

D.

80 to 100

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ANS:

D

REF:

231

17. Digital radiography images can be accessed: A.

at only one workstation at a time, thereby decreasing the convenience for physicians providing patient care

B.

at no more than two workstations at a time, thereby decreasing the convenience for physicians providing patent care

C.

at several workstations at the same time, making image viewing very convenient for physicians providing patient care

D.

none of these; digital images cannot be accessed at any workstations by physicians

ANS:

C

REF:

223

18. When an exposed computed radiography imaging plate is ready to be processed, an imaging reading unit is used to scan the photostimulable phosphor imaging plate with a helium-neon laser beam. This results in the emission of violet light that is changed into an electronic signal by a device called a: A.

charge-coupled-device array

B.

photodiode

C.

photomultiplier tube

D.

scintillator

ANS:

C

REF:

224

19. Computed radiography, because of its higher exposure latitude, makes grid use on the pediatric population: A.

absolutely necessary for all radiographic examinations

B.

less necessary than was previously believed

C.

necessary only for extremity examinations

D.

unnecessary for any examination

ANS:

B

REF:

richard@qwconsultancy.com

227

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20. CR imaging has greater _______ flexibility than does conventional screen-film radiography.

A.

kilovoltage

B.

milliamperage

C.

time of exposure

D.

x-ray beam collimation

ANS:

A

REF:

226

21. Of the following procedures, which involve extended fluoroscopic time?

1. Biliary drainage 2. Stent and filter placement 3. Urinary or biliary stone removal A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

D

REF:

236

22. Luminance is determined by measuring the concentration of light: A.

at only one particular point of the field of view

B.

over a particular field of view

C.

at only one particular point of the field of view and then squaring the number

D.

over a particular field of view and then squaring the number

ANS:

B

REF:

209

23. When settings are changed from one mA to a neighboring mA station, the most that linearity can vary is _____%.

A.

0

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B.

10

C.

20

D.

50

ANS:

B

REF:

219

24. The control panel, where technical exposure factors are selected and seen on indicators by the equipment operator, must be located: A.

at the foot end of the radiographic examining table

B.

at the head end of the radiographic examining table

C.

behind a suitable protective barrier that has a radiation-absorbent window that permits observation of the patient during any procedure

D.

behind any regular wall that has a regular glass window that permits observation of the patient during any procedure

ANS:

C

REF:

208

25. Which of the following materials is commonly used in the tabletop of a radiographic examination table to make the tabletop as radiolucent as possible so that it will absorb only a minimal amount of radiation, thereby reducing the patient’s radiation dose?

A.

Carbon fiber material

B.

Formica

C.

Granite

D.

Slate

ANS:

A

Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 6th Edition

Chapter 11: Management of Patient Radiation Dose during Diagnostic X-Ray Procedures

Test Bank

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MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Any image that must be performed more than once because of human or mechanical error during the production of the initial image is known as repeat image. What effect does repeat images have on the radiation dose received by the patient?

A.

The patient receives no additional radiation dose.

B.

The patient’s skin and possibly the gonads receive a double radiation dose.

C.

The patient’s critical organs receive a radiation dose that is 10 times greater than the initial radiation dose.

D.

The patient’s superficial tissues only receive a radiation dose that is 4 times as great as that of the original radiation dose.

ANS:

B

REF:

255

2. Which of the following combinations of technical exposure factors and filtration reduces patient radiation dose during a radiographic examination?

A.

Lower kVp, higher mAs, decreased filtration

B.

Higher kVp, lower mAs, increased filtration

C.

Higher kVp, higher mAs, decreased filtration

D.

Lower kVp, lower mAs, increased filtration

ANS:

B

REF:

272

3. When a pregnant patient must undergo a radiographic procedure, which of the following practices will minimize radiation exposure?

A.

Selecting technical exposure factors that are appropriate for the part of the body to undergo radiography

B.

Opening the x-ray beam collimator shutters as wide as possible to ensure complete coverage of the image receptor

C.

Precisely collimating the radiographic beam to include only the anatomic area of interest and shielding the lower abdomen and pelvis when this area does not need to be included in the area to be irradiated

D.

Both A and C

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ANS:

D

REF:

260

4. According to the American College of Radiology (ACR), abdominal radiologic examinations that have been requested after full consideration of the clinical status of a patient, including the possibility of pregnancy, need: A.

not to be postponed or selectively scheduled

B.

to be postponed or selectively scheduled

C.

to be postponed and scheduled at least 10 days after the start of the next menstrual period

D.

to be postponed and scheduled 10 days before the end of the next menstrual period

ANS:

A

REF:

273

5. Which of the following types of gonadal shielding provide the best protection for a male patient when anteroposterior, oblique, and lateral projections are obtained?

A.

Flat contact shield containing 1 mm of lead

B.

Shadow shield

C.

Shaped contact shield containing 1 mm of lead

D.

None of the above; gonadal shielding is unnecessary for male patients of any age

ANS:

C

REF:

251

6. Specific area shielding may be selectively used during some x-ray procedures to protect which of the following?

1. Lens of the eye 2. Breast 3. Extremities A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

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D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

A

REF:

252

7. _________ are the sensing devices most often used to measure skin dose directly.

A.

Thermoluminescent dosimeters

B.

A sequence of aluminum equivalent filters of varying thicknesses

C.

Lead-impregnated filters

D.

Molybdenum and rhodium filters

ANS:

A

REF:

258

8. Which of the following are considered to be benefits of a repeat analysis program?

1. There is increased awareness among staff and student radiographers of the need to produce optimal quality recorded images.

2. Radiographers generally become more careful in producing their images because they are aware that the images are being reviewed.

3. When the repeat analysis program identifies problems or concerns, in-service education programs covering these specific topics may be designed for imaging personnel.

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

D

REF:

256

9. The genetically significant dose (GSD) for the population of the United States is about _____ mSv (_____ mrem).

A.

1.00; 100

B.

0.80; 80

C.

0.40; 40

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D.

0.20; 20

ANS:

D

REF:

259

10. Which of the following must always be the first step in protection of the reproductive organs?

A.

Adequate and precise collimation of the radiographic beam to include only the anatomy of interest

B.

Use of gonadal shielding

C.

Use of a mobile protective shielding device

D.

Use of digital imaging equipment rather than conventional equipment

ANS:

A

REF:

248

11. In a remote control fluoroscopic room where the x-ray tube is located above the patient, protective shielding should: A.

be placed over the patient

B.

be placed under the patient

C.

be placed along side of the patient

D.

not be used

ANS:

A

REF:

250

12. When automatic exposure control (AEC) is not used, then to ensure uniform selection of technical x-ray exposure factors, efficient imaging departments: A.

have estimated technical exposure factors for all radiographic examinations

B.

have the radiologist determine and set up all technical exposure factor charts

C.

use technique charts borrowed from another imaging facility

D.

use standardized technique charts for each x-ray unit

ANS:

D

REF:

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13. Poorly processed images on radiographic film will: A.

continue to have archival quality

B.

deteriorate over time

C.

lose only a minimal amount of archival quality over a 10-year period

D.

remain in their original condition

ANS:

B

REF:

254

14. In fluoroscopy, the amount of radiation that a patient receives is usually estimated by measuring the radiation exposure rate at tabletop and multiplying this by the: A.

fluoroscopy time

B.

distance between the fluoroscope and the patient

C.

square of the distance between the fluoroscope and the patient

D.

radiographic exposure factors

ANS:

A

REF:

258

15. The radiation dose absorbed by an organ such as bone marrow: A.

can be accurately measured by a direct method

B.

cannot be measured by a direct method; it can only be estimated

C.

is negligible for all diagnostic radiography examinations

D.

can only be measured to a small degree by a direct method

ANS:

B

REF:

259

16. Digital mammography units with the ability to enhance contrast with image gray-level manipulation offer: A.

improvement for patients with small breasts

B.

improvement for patients with microcalcifications in small breasts

C.

improvement for patients with dense breasts

D.

poor quality images for patients with dense breasts and microcalcifications

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ANS:

C

REF:

265

17. During mammography, axillary projections should be done only on request of the: A.

ordering physician

B.

patient

C.

radiologist

D.

technologist performing the examination

ANS:

C

REF:

266

18. If a child is placed in a CT scanner and adult protocols are used, the child will receive: A.

the same dose as an adult

B.

a lower dose than an adult

C.

a higher dose than an adult

D.

no radiation dose

ANS:

C

REF:

270

19. The goal of the Alliance for Radiation Safety in Pediatric Imaging is to: A.

increase awareness of the need to reduce patient dose for pediatric patients

B.

completely eliminate the use of CT imaging for all pediatric patients

C.

completely eliminate the use of CT imaging for pediatric patients under 1 year of age

D.

completely eliminate the use of CT imaging for pediatric patients between the ages of 3 and 4 years old

ANS:

A

REF:

270

20. Which of the following is frequently a problem in diagnostic pediatric radiography?

A.

Lack of availability of appropriate pediatric immobilization devices

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B. C.

Lack of cooperation of parents or guardian Lack of appropriate individuals to assist in holding a pediatric patient during an exposure

D.

Patient motion

ANS:

D

REF:

272

21. In the event that a pregnant patient is inadvertently irradiated, the _____ should perform the calculations necessary to determine fetal dose.

A.

radiographer performing the examination

B.

imaging department manager

C.

radiologic physicist

D.

radiologist

ANS:

C

REF:

273

22. Studies of groups such as the atomic bomb survivors of Hiroshima have shown that damage to the newborn is unlikely for doses below _____ rads.

A.

100

B.

60

C.

30

D.

20

ANS:

D

REF:

274

23. Because most medical procedures result in fetal exposures: A.

greater than 100 rads, the risk of abnormality is large

B.

greater than 50 rads, the risk of abnormality is large

C.

less than 25 rads, the risk of abnormality is small

D.

less than 1 rad, the risk of abnormality is small

ANS:

D

REF:

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24. Of the following radiologic procedures, which is (are) considered nonessential?

A.

A chest x-ray on scheduled admission to the hospital

B.

Lumbar spine x-rays as part of a preemployment physical examination

C.

Whole-body multislice computed tomography (CT) screening

D.

All of the above

ANS:

D

REF:

258

25. Which of the following are some of the factors that should be considered when technical exposure factors are to be selected?

1. Mass per unit volume of tissue of the area of clinical interest 2. Effective atomic numbers and electron densities of the tissue involved 3. Type and quantity of filtration used A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

D

REF:

253

Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 6th Edition

Chapter 12: Management of Imaging Personnel Radiation Dose during Diagnostic XRay Procedures

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following x-ray procedures increases the radiographer’s risk of exposure to ionizing radiation?

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1. Mobile C-arm fluoroscopy 2. Interventional procedures that use high-level-control fluoroscopy 3. Mobile radiographic examinations A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

D

REF:

282

2. Because occupational exposure of the radiographer can be kept as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA) through individual monitoring and other protective measures and the use of protective devices and because exposure from radiation-related jobs will not alter the ____________, radiation workers may receive a larger equivalent dose than members of the general population.

A.

mean glandular dose

B.

genetically significant dose

C.

bone marrow dose

D.

tissue tolerance dose

ANS:

B

REF:

283

3. In terms of occupational risk, radiography may be compared with the occupational risk associated with: A.

extremely hazardous industries

B.

other industries considered reasonably safe, such as government or trade

C.

a nuclear war

D.

a radiation accident, such as the Chernobyl nuclear power plant disaster

ANS:

B

REF:

283

4. Whenever scattered radiation decreases, the radiographer’s exposure:

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A.

decreases

B.

increases slightly

C.

increases considerably

D.

remains the same

ANS:

A

REF:

284

5. Which of the following adjustments in technical exposure factors decreases the production of scattered radiation?

A.

Decrease kVp and increase mAs in compensation

B.

Decrease kVp and decrease mAs

C.

Increase kVp and decrease mAs in compensation

D.

Increase kVp and increase mAs

ANS:

C

REF:

284

6. During which of the following x-ray examinations should a radiographer always wear a thyroid shield?

A.

Fluoroscopy and special procedures

B.

Routine mobile radiographic procedures

C.

General diagnostic radiographic procedures performed in an x-ray room

D.

Digital radiography procedures and computed radiography procedures

ANS:

A

REF:

292

7. While standing behind the control-booth barrier, a radiographer makes a radiographic exposure.

The x-rays scattered from the patient’s body should ________ behind the control-booth barrier.

A.

not have enough energy remaining that will reach

B.

scatter only once before reaching any area

C.

scatter a minimum of two times before reaching any area

D.

scatter a minimum of ten times before reaching any area

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ANS:

C

REF:

289

8. Which of the following is another term for use factor (U)?

A.

Workload factor

B.

Occupancy factor in controlled and uncontrolled areas

C.

Beam direction factor

D.

Protective barrier thickness consideration factor

ANS:

C

REF:

300

9. The annual effective dose limit for individual members of the general population not occupationally exposed is ___________ for continuous or frequent exposures from artificial sources other than medical irradiation and natural background and ____________ for infrequent annual exposure.

A.

1 mSv (0.1 rem), 5 mSv (0.5 rem)

B.

3 mSv (0.3 rem), 7 mSv (0.7 rem)

C.

5 mSv (0.5 rem), 9 mSv (0.9 rem)

D.

50 mSv (5 rem), 25 mSv (2.5 rem)

ANS:

A

REF:

283

10. A spot film device protective curtain or sliding panel of a minimum thickness of 0.25-mm lead equivalent should normally be positioned between the fluoroscopist and the patient to intercept which of the following types of radiation?

A.

Primary radiation

B.

Scattered radiation above the tabletop

C.

Exit or image formation radiation

D.

Direct radiation

ANS:

B

REF:

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11. If the intensity of the x-ray beam is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source, how does the intensity of the x-ray beam change when the distance from the source of radiation and a measurement point is tripled?

A.

It increases by a factor of 3 at the new distance.

B.

It increases by a factor of 9 at the new distance.

C.

It decreases by a factor of 9 at the new distance.

D.

It decreases by a factor of 3 at the new distance.

ANS:

C

REF:

288

12. What is the term for the proportional amount of time during which the x-ray beam is energized or directed toward a particular barrier?

A.

Occupancy factor

B.

Workload factor

C.

Distance factor

D.

Use factor

ANS:

D

REF:

300

13. The maximum weekly permitted equivalent dose for a controlled area must not exceed _____ microsievert (_____ mrem).

A.

1000; 100

B.

100; 10

C.

20; 2

D.

2; 0.2

ANS:

A

REF:

302

14. When a radiologic technologist declares her pregnancy to her employer, which of the following is appropriate?

A.

Her employer terminates her employment until after her child is born.

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B.

She is able to continue her employment but is not permitted to perform any radiologic procedures during the remainder of her pregnancy.

C.

Her employer requires her to take a leave of absence until after the completion of the first trimester of the pregnancy and then return to her normal duties.

D.

She continues to perform her duties without interruption of employment, provided that she has received radiation safety counseling and follows established radiation safety practices.

ANS:

D

REF:

285

15. Which part(s) of a diagnostic x-ray unit should a radiographer avoid touching while a radiographic exposure is in progress?

A.

Control panel

B.

Exposure switch

C.

Kilovoltage control on the control panel

D.

Tube housing, collimator, and high-tension cables

ANS:

D

REF:

292

16. When doors to radiographic and fluoroscopic rooms are closed during radiation exposures, a substantial degree of protection is provided for persons in areas adjacent to the room door. This is because in most facilities room doors have attenuation for diagnostic energy x-ray equivalent to that provided by a _____ inch of lead.

A.

1/2

B.

1/4

C.

1/16

D.

1/32

ANS:

D

REF:

298

17. When the time spent in a higher-radiation area is reduced or limited, occupational exposure: A.

is also reduced

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B.

is increased slightly

C.

remains the same

D.

is increased considerably

ANS:

A

REF:

294

18. Diagnostic imaging personnel receive the highest occupational exposure during which of the following procedures?

1. Fluoroscopy 2. Mobile radiography 3. Special procedures A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

D

REF:

294

19. If the peak energy of the x-ray beam is 100 kVp, a protective lead apron must be the equivalent of which of the following measures?

A.

0.25-mm thickness of lead

B.

0.5-mm thickness of lead

C.

1.0-mm thickness of lead

D.

1.5-mm thickness of lead

ANS:

A

REF:

291

20. For C-arm devices with similar fields of view, the dose rate to personnel located within a meter of the patient is _______ fluoroscopy.

A.

comparable to that of routine

B.

far greater than the dose rate of routine

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C.

significantly less than the dose rate of routine

D.

comparable to that of high-level-control

ANS:

A

REF:

295

21. Protective eyeglasses with optically clear lenses should contain a minimal lead equivalent protection of _____ mm.

A.

0.15

B.

0.25

C.

0.35

D.

0.50

ANS:

C

REF:

291

22. ______ is the radiation output weighted time that the unit is actually delivering radiation during the week.

A.

Control designation

B.

Occupancy

C.

Use factor

D.

Workload

ANS:

D

REF:

299

23. To ensure that the lifetime risk of occupationally exposed persons remains acceptable, the lifetime effective dose in mSv should not exceed _____ occupationally exposed person’s age in years.

A.

the

B.

5 times

C.

10 times

D.

20 times

ANS:

C

REF:

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24. Secondary radiation includes _____ radiation.

1. leakage 2. primary 3. scatter A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

ANS:

B

REF:

299

25. Who should determine the exact shielding requirements for a particular imaging facility?

A.

Administrator of the facility

B.

Medical physicist

C.

Radiologist

D.

Radiographer

ANS:

B

REF:

288

Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 6th Edition

Chapter 13: Radioisotopes and Radiation Protection

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Therapeutic radioisotopes are characterized by: A.

very short half-lives

B.

half-lives that are exactly the same

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C.

relatively long half-lives

D.

half-lives that remain constant for all eternity

ANS:

C

REF:

310

2. Iodine-125 (I-125) in the form of titanium-encapsulated cylindrical seeds has been used quite extensively within the past decade to give a tumoricidal radiation equivalent dose to: A.

malignant brain tumors

B.

malignant breast tumors

C.

malignant lung tumors

D.

prostate cancers that are confined within the prostate gland

ANS:

D

REF:

311

3. Tellurium-125 (Te-125) has _____ protons and _____ neutrons.

A.

125; 125

B.

75; 63

C.

52; 73

D.

45; 58

ANS:

C

REF:

311

4. Strontium is a member of the same family of elements in the periodic table as is: A.

calcium

B.

carbon

C.

sodium

D.

potassium

ANS:

A

REF:

311

5. In ______, a neutron transforms itself into a combination of a proton and an energetic electron. richard@qwconsultancy.com

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A.

alpha decay

B.

beta decay

C.

gamma decay

D.

x-ray absorption

ANS:

B

REF:

311

6. Strontium-89 is a pure __________ emitter.

A.

alpha

B.

beta

C.

gamma

D.

x-ray

ANS:

B

REF:

313

7. While a patient receiving iodine-131 (I-131) therapy is hospitalized, a large, ____-inch-thick rolling lead shield can be positioned between the patient and any attending personnel for protection.

A.

up to 1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

6

ANS:

A

REF:

313

8. Diagnostic techniques in nuclear medicine typically make use of ______ radioisotopes as radioactive tracers.

A.

long-lived

B.

short-lived

C.

very weak

D.

potentially lethal

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ANS:

B

REF:

313

9. Each fluorine-18 nuclear transformation by positron decay yields two highly penetrating ____keV photons.

A.

250

B.

472

C.

511

D.

777

ANS:

C

REF:

314

10. The design of a ______ imaging suite involves significant radiation safety concerns.

A.

diagnostic x-ray

B.

computed radiography

C.

computed tomography

D.

positron emission tomography/computed tomography

ANS:

D

REF:

316

11. Radioactive material that is attached to or associated with dust particles or in liquid form on various surfaces defines the term radioactive: A.

contamination

B.

dispersal device

C.

fallout

D.

syndrome

ANS:

A

REF:

320

12. The actual long-term health effects of a “dirty bomb” are likely to be: A.

catastrophic

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B.

maximal

C.

minimal

D.

nonexistent

ANS:

C

REF:

320

13. During a radiation emergency, the dose limit for individuals engaging in lifesaving activities is _____ mSv (_____ rem) per event.

A.

50; 5

B.

100; 10

C.

250; 25

D.

500; 50

ANS:

C

REF:

321

14. During a radiation emergency, at a dose rate of _____ Sv/hr (_____ rem/hr), emergency personnel should await specific instructions from radiation experts on how to proceed.

A.

0.1; 10

B.

0.5; 50

C.

1.0; 100

D.

5.0; 500

ANS:

A

REF:

321

15. If enough explosives are used to spread radioactive material over a broad area, then radioactivity is ______ higher than background levels.

A.

extremely hazardous and may be much

B.

moderately hazardous and may be

C.

slightly hazardous and may be only slightly

D.

diluted and may not be much

ANS:

D

REF:

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