Campbell Essential Biology With Physiology 4th Edition Simon Test Bank

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) In what way(s) is the science of biology influencing and changing our culture?

1) _______ A) by revolutionizing medicine and agriculture B) by reshaping our understanding of psychology and sociology C) by helping us evaluate environmental issues D) by providing new tools for solving crimes E) all of the above 2) What is biology?

A) the scientific study of life B) the scientific study of DNA C) the scientific study of ecosystems D) the scientific study of the environment E) the scientific study of organelles

2) _______

3) Which of the following is not a property of life?

A) Organisms respond to environmental stimuli.

B) Organisms take in energy and use it to perform all of life's activities.

C) Populations of organisms are unable to change over time.

D) Living things exhibit complex but ordered organization.

E) Organisms reproduce their own kind.

3) _______

4) What are the two main processes that ecosystems depend upon?

A) speciation and evolution B) photosynthesis and primary production C) sunlight and photosynthesis D) nutrient cycling and energy flow E) decomposition and nutrient recycling

4) _______

5) Which of the following is not recycled but is lost from ecosystems?

A) nitrogen B) carbon C) magnesium D) energy E) sodium

5) _______

6) Which of the following is a producer?

A) earthworm B) cat C) house plant D) dog E) sun

6) _______

7) Humans are ______.

A) ecosystems B) producers C) cells D) decomposers E) consumers

7) _______

8) Which of the following structures can perform all the activities required for life?

A) A, G, C, and T B) nuclei C) DNA molecules D) organelles E) cells

8) _______

9) Relative to prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells are usually ______.

A) larger and equally complex B) larger and more complex C) smaller and equally complex D) smaller and simpler E) smaller and more complex

9) _______

10) Humans are composed of ______ cells.

A) bacterial B) prokaryotic C) eukaryotic D) archaeal E) plant

10) ______

11) What name is given to the functional compartments of a cell?

A) bacteria B) nuclei C) genomes D) organelles

11) ______ E) genes

12) The DNA of a eukaryotic cell is found within the ______.

A) insulin B) nucleus C) prokaryotic cell D) archaea E) ecosystem 13) What are eukaryotic genes composed of?

A) DNA B) RNA C) G

12) ______

13) ______ D) A

E) C

14) What is a gene?

A) a unit of heredity B) a type of eukaryotic cell C) an organelle that houses DNA D) a type of animal cell E) a type of prokaryotic cell 15) The human genome consists of about ______ chemical letters.

A) 10,000 B) 300,000 C) 1 million D) 3 billion 16) More than half of all known species are ______.

A) fish B) insects C) bacteria D) vertebrates E) plants

14) ______

15) ______ E) 300 billion 16) ______

17) Taxonomy is the ______.

A) study of cells B) study of genes C) naming and classifying of species D) study of natural selection E) study of organisms and their interaction with the environment

17) ______

18) How does taxonomy assist biologists?

A) by categorizing diverse items into smaller and smaller numbers of groups B) by reducing life to its smallest common denominator, the cell C) by explaining why life exists D) by providing easily remembered scientific names for organisms E) all of the above

18) ______

19) Which domain(s) consist(s) of prokaryotic cells?

A) Eukarya only B) Bacteria and Archaea C) Archaea only D) Bacteria only E) Archaea and Eukarya

19) ______

20) Which kingdom of Eukarya consists primarily of unicellular organisms?

A) Protista B) Fungi C) Bacteria D) Plantae

20) ______ E) Animalia

21) A newly discovered multicellular organism obtains food by digesting dead organisms. Such an organism is most likely a member of the kingdom ______.

A) Protista B) Plantae C) Eukarya D) Fungi E) Animalia

21) ______

22) Members of the kingdom Plantae differ from members of the other kingdoms of Eukarya in that most members of the kingdom Plantae ______.

A) are consumers B) are decomposers C) are unicellular D) produce their own food E) obtain food by ingestion

22) ______

23) The branch of biology that explains both the diversity and the unity of life is ______.

A) microbiology B) evolution C) taxonomy D) physiology E) genetics

23) ______

24) Which of these is most closely associated with Darwin?

A) ecosystem structure B) organelles C) DNA D) natural selection E) the three domains of life

24) ______

25) Which of these is required for natural selection to occur?

A) individual variation

25) ______

B) overproduction C) unequal reproductive success D) inheritance E) all of the above 26) Unequal reproductive success ______.

A) always decreases the size of a population B) increases variation C) can lead to natural selection D) does not affect the frequency of expression of traits in succeeding generations of a population E) can lead to a population being less well adapted to its environment

26) ______

27) What does adaptation mean in a biological context?

A) the ability of organisms to alter their appearance under changing environmental conditions B) the accumulation of favorable variations in a population over time C) the changes that occur in individuals as they grow and develop D) the way an individual's body adjusts to its environment E) all of the above

27) ______

28) What accounts for the different breeds of domesticated dogs?

A) natural selection B) competition C) overproduction D) artificial selection E) variation

28) ______

29) Over a span of two decades, scientists measured changes in the beak size of a population of Galápagos ground finches. This ______.

A) led Darwin to his theory of evolution through natural selection B) provided evidence of natural selection in action C) is an example of artificial selection D) is an example of overproduction E) occurred because of selective predation

29) ______

30) Science is ______.

A) the inquiry-based effort to describe and explain nature B) the search for truth C) an organized set of principles for how to ethically and morally behave D) the explanation of phenomena based on supernatural causation E) all of the above

30) ______

31) What is the difference between discovery science and hypothesis-driven science?

A) Discovery science involves predictions about outcomes, whereas hypothesis-driven science involves tentative answers to specific questions.

B) Discovery science is based on deductive reasoning, whereas hypothesis-driven science is based on inductive reasoning.

C) Discovery science is mostly about describing nature, whereas hypothesis-driven science tries to explain nature.

D) Discovery science "discovers" new knowledge, whereas hypothesis-driven science does not.

E) There is no difference between them.

31) ______

32) Which of these statements is correct?

A) Science does not require observations that other people can confirm.

B) Only discovery science can lead to important conclusions about nature.

C) Science can be used to prove or disprove the idea that deities or spirits cause earthquakes and other natural disasters.

D) Scientific ideas are subjected to repeated testing.

E) In science, a hypotheses is an absolute truth.

32) ______

33) Discovery science is primarily based on ______.

A) theory B) observation C) hypothesis testing D) deduction E) experimentation

33) ______

34) How does inductive reasoning differ from deductive reasoning?

A) Discovery science utilizes deductive reasoning, not inductive reasoning, to establish conclusions.

B) Inductive reasoning is based on experimentation, and deductive reasoning is based on observation.

C) Inductive reasoning is based on hypotheses, and deductive reasoning is not.

D) Inductive reasoning involves going from the specific to the general, whereas deductive reasoning involves going from the general to the specific.

E) Deductive reasoning involves going from the specific to the general, whereas inductive reasoning involves going from the general to the specific.

34) ______

35) Which of these would be a valid hypothesis?

A) Humans should help in the conservation of other animal species.

B) Humans are controlled by forces beyond our understanding.

C) Humans and bacteria share a common genetic code.

D) Humans are responsible for the sustainable use of resources.

E) Human history is determined by a series of supernatural events.

35) ______

36) A hypothesis is a(n) ______.

A) fact B) observation C) guess D) tentative explanation E) theory

36) ______

37) You try to start your car, but it does not start. Which of these is a hypothesis?

A) My car's battery is dead.

B) What is wrong with my car?

C) My car will not start.

D) If I recharge the battery, then my car will start.

E) My car is too old to function properly.

37) ______

38) You try to start your car, but it does not start. Which of these is deductive testing?

A) My car's battery is dead.

B) If I recharge the battery, then my car will start.

C) What is wrong with my car?

38) ______

D) My car is too old to function properly.

E) My car will not start.

39) Which of the following are the proper components of the scientific method?

A) experiment, conclusion, application B) prediction, hypothesis, experiment, conclusion C) observation, question, hypothesis, prediction, experiment, results, conclusion D) question, observation, experiment, analysis, prediction E) observation, question, opinion, conclusion, hypothesis

39) ______

40) In a scientific experiment, the control group ______.

A) is subjected to the factor whose effect is being tested B) serves to increase the sample size of the experiment C) is required for the validity of discovery science D) allows for the simultaneous testing of multiple variables E) serves as a basis of comparison with the experimental group

40) ______

41) How do hypotheses differ from theories?

A) Theories are more comprehensive than hypotheses.

B) Hypotheses are educated guesses, and theories are tentative explanations.

C) Hypotheses are more generally stated than theories.

D) Theories must be testable; hypotheses do not need to be testable.

E) Hypotheses are derived from experimentation, whereas theories are derived from observation.

41) ______

42) Antibiotic resistance evolves in bacteria because ______.

A) the antibiotics create resistance genes in bacteria B) the presence of antibiotics favors bacteria that already have genes for resistance C) farmers do not use enough antibiotics in animal feed D) doctors do not prescribe antibiotics for diseases caused by viruses E) none of the above

42) ______

43) Using the branching tree of life for bears depicted in the accompanying figure, choose from among the following bear species the one that is most distantly related to the sun bear.

43)

___ ___

A) Asiatic black bear B) giant panda C) sloth bear D) brown bear E) spectacled bear 44) In the process of evolution by natural selection illustrated in the accompanying figure, which of the following is the mechanism or agent of natural selection?

A) artificial selection B) selective trees C) selective beetles D) selective breeding

44) ______

E) selective predation Please use the following information to answer the following question(s).

The collared lizard is a species found in the Desert Southwest. Male collared lizards show considerable color variation, ranging from brightly colored to a very dull pattern. Your goal is to determine the function, if any, of male color patterns in collared lizards, using the scientific method. Your tentative explanation is that male color plays a role in attracting females for mating purposes. You predict that females will preferentially choose brightly colored males over dull-colored ones. To test this prediction, you observed the interactions of female collared lizards with their male counterparts. You selected males that were the same age and size, and that differed only in their coloration pattern. You placed equal numbers of the two types of male lizards, bright and dull, in aquariums, along with one female lizard per aquarium. Out of 350 aquariums observed, the female chose to mate with the brightly colored male 277 times, and the dull-colored male 70 times. In 3 instances, the females did not mate with either type.

Create a bar graph of your data, plotting the type of male (dull or brightly colored) on the x-axis. On the y-axis, plot the frequency with which each type of male was chosen by females. Using this graph, answer the following question(s).

45) Is it reasonable to conclude (i.e., is it supported by the data) that female collared lizards prefer more brightly colored male lizards over dull-colored males?

A) Yes, this conclusion is supported by the data.

B) No, this conclusion is not supported by the data.

C) The data do not clearly indicate a preference one way or the other.

D) There is no way to conclude anything from this data.

E) None of the above choices are correct.

45) ______

46) Identify the experimental group of this case study.

A) brightly colored male lizards B) dull-colored male lizards C) dull-colored female lizards D) brightly colored female lizards E) all of the above

46) ______

47) Dull-colored males were part of the ______.

A) predicted group B) observation group C) hypothesized group D) control group E) experimental group

47) ______

48) Which of the following is the hypothesis of this case study?

A) Male collared lizards exhibit color variation.

B) A function of male coloration is to attract females.

C) Male lizards are brightly colored.

D) Males prefer brightly colored females.

E) Dull males are less likely to be eaten by predators.

48) ______

49) "Male collared lizards show considerable color variation." This is a(n) ______.

A) hypothesis B) result C) observation D) opinion E) conclusion

49) ______

1) E 2) A 3) C 4) D 5) D 6) C 7) E 8) E 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) D 16) B 17) C 18) A 19) B 20) A 21) D 22) D 23) B 24) D 25) E 26) C 27) B 28) D 29) B 30) A 31) C 32) D 33) B 34) D 35) C 36) D 37) A 38) B 39) C 40) E 41) A 42) B 43) B 44) E 45) A 46) A 47) D 48) B 49) C

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) ______ is an example of an element.

1) _______ A) Carbon B) Glucose C) Salt D) Water E) Methane 2) Which of the following elements is not one of the four most common elements in living things?

A) hydrogen B) carbon C) zinc D) oxygen E) nitrogen

2) _______

3) Which of the following elements, essential to life, is a trace element?

A) carbon B) phosphorus C) iodine D) hydrogen E) calcium

3) _______

4) An atom with a positive charge has ______.

A) more neutrons than protons B) equal numbers of protons, electrons, and neutrons C) more electrons than protons D) more protons than electrons E) more protons than neutrons

4) _______

5) All atoms of an element have the same number of ______.

A) electrons B) neutrons C) protons plus neutrons D) electrons plus neutrons E) protons

5) _______

6) An atom's protons are found in its ______.

A) molecule B) neutron C) electron cloud D) isotope E) nucleus

6) _______

7) Beryllium's atomic mass is 9 and its atomic number is 4. How many neutrons are found in a beryllium atom?

A) 9 B) 5 C) 4 D) 2 E) 13

7) _______

8) An uncharged atom of gold has an atomic number of 79 and an atomic mass of 197. This atom has ______ protons, ______ neutrons, and ______ electrons.

A) 79 . . . 118 . . . 79 B) 118 . . . 79 . . . 118 C) 118 . . . 276 . . . 118 D) 79 . . . 276 . . . 79 E) 276 . . . 118 . . . 79

8) _______

9) The way Earth moves about the sun is most like ______.

A) a proton and neutron moving around an electron

9) _______

B) an electron moving around the nucleus of an atom C) a proton moving about an electron D) a neutron moving about a proton E) a neutron and electron moving around a proton 10) Isotopes of an element have the same number of ______ and different numbers of ______.

A) protons . . . neutrons B) electrons . . . protons C) neutrons . . . electrons D) protons . . . electrons E) neutrons . . . protons

10) ______

11) How do radioactive isotopes differ from isotopes?

A) Radioactive isotopes are unstable; isotopes are stable.

B) Radioactive isotopes are stable; isotopes are unstable.

C) They are atoms of different elements.

D) Radioactive isotopes have more neutrons than do isotopes.

E) Radioactive isotopes have fewer neutrons than do isotopes.

11) ______

12) The second electron shell of an atom can hold a maximum of ______ electron(s).

A) 6 B) 1 C) 8 D) 2

12) ______ E) 3

13) Nitrogen has an atomic number of 7; therefore, it has ______ electrons in its outermost electron shell.

A) 18 B) 1 C) 2 D) 10 E) 5

13) ______

14) An atom with an electrical charge is a(n) ______.

A) radioisotope B) isotope C) compound D) molecule E) ion

14) ______

15) The bond between oppositely charged ions is a(n) ______ bond.

A) electronic B) polar C) covalent D) ionic

15) ______ E) hydrogen

16) In the following reaction, what type of bond is holding the two atoms together?

K + Cl → K+ + Cl— → KCl

16) ______

A) hydrophobic B) covalent C) ionic D) hydrophilic E) hypertonic 17) What name is given to bonds that involve the sharing of electrons?

A) covalent B) ionic C) polar D) electronic 18) Sulfur has an atomic number of 16. How many covalent bonds can sulfur form?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

17) ______ E) hydrogen 18) ______ E) 0

19) The hydrogens and oxygen of a water molecule are held together by ______ bonds.

A) electron B) hydrogen C) osmotic D) proton E) covalent

19) ______

20) Why is water considered a polar molecule?

A) It remains liquid even at very low temperatures.

B) Both hydrogens are at one end of the molecule, and oxygen is at the other end.

C) The oxygen atom attracts the hydrogen atoms.

D) The oxygen end of the molecule has a slight negative charge, and the hydrogen end has a slight positive charge.

E) The oxygen is found between the two hydrogens.

20) ______

21) Adjacent water molecules are joined by ______ bonds.

A) covalent only B) trivalent C) ionic D) polar and covalent E) hydrogen

21) ______

22) Adjacent water molecules are connected by the ______.

A) electrical attraction between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another water molecule B) sharing of electrons between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another water molecule C) sharing of electrons between hydrogens of adjacent water molecules D) electrical attraction between the hydrogens of adjacent water molecules E) sharing of electrons between adjacent oxygen molecules

22) ______

23) How many oxygen atoms are in the products of the following reaction?

C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 12 H2O

23) ______

A) 18

B) 6

C) 2

D) 24

E) 12

24) What are the reactant(s) in the following chemical reaction?

C6H12O6 + 6 H2O + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 12 H2O

24) ______

A) CO2 and H2O B) O2 only C) CO2 only D) C6H12O6, H2O, O2, CO2, and H2O E) C6H12O6, H2O, and O2 25) Human body cells are approximately ______ water.

A) 25 35% B) 50 55% C) 70 95%

25) ______ D) 10 25%

E) 95 99%

26) The tendency of molecules of the same kind to stick together is called ______.

A) interactivity B) bonding C) polarity D) adhesion E) cohesion

26) ______

27) Why (if you are careful) are you able to float a needle on the surface of water?

A) The surface tension that is a result of water's cohesive properties makes this possible.

B) Water has adhesive properties.

C) The covalent bonds that hold a water molecule together are responsible for this ability.

27) ______

D) A single needle is less dense than water.

E) The polarity of individual water molecules makes this happen.

28) Sweating cools your body by ______.

A) hydrogen bonding B) radiation C) adhesion D) evaporative cooling E) cohesion

28) ______

29) As water freezes ______.

A) it loses its polarity B) its molecules move farther apart C) its hydrogen bonds break apart D) it cools the surrounding environment E) it absorbs energy from the surrounding environment

29) ______

30) Sugar dissolves when stirred into water. The sugar is the ______, the water is the ______, and the sweetened water is the ______.

A) solvent . . . solute . . . solution B) solute . . . solvent . . . solution C) solution . . . solvent . . . solute D) solvent . . . solution . . . solute E) solution . . . solute . . . solvent

30) ______

31) Which of the following is an acid?

A) H2O B) NaOH

31) ______ C) NaCl

D) HCl

E) CH4

32) A base ______.

A) removes OH— ions from a solution

32) ______

B) decreases the pH of a solution C) removes H2O molecules from a solution D) adds HOH molecules to a solution E) removes H+ ions from a solution 33) The lower the pH of a solution, the ______.

A) more basic the solution B) greater the number of oxygen atoms C) higher the OH— concentration

33) ______

D) more acidic the solution E) less toxic the solution 34) Relative to a pH of 6, a pH of 4 has a ______.

A) 200 times higher H+ concentration B) 100 times higher H+ concentration C) 20 times higher H+ concentration D) 20 times lower H+ concentration E) 100 times lower H+ concentration 35) What name is given to substances that resist changes in pH? A) bases B) buffers C) salts

34) ______

35) ______ D) sugars

E) acids

36) When a base is added to a buffered solution, the buffer will ______.

A) donate H+ ions B) donate OH— ions

36) ______

C) form covalent bonds with the base D) accept H+ ions E) accept water molecules 37) People have long speculated about whether life exists on Mars. Scientists have evidence that on Mars, ______.

A) water is found only in the form of water vapor B) the only water present has always been frozen in the polar ice caps C) microbial life exists D) liquid water has existed in the past E) plant life exists

37) ______

38) Examine the drawing of an atom below. The art is technically incorrect in that ______.

38) ______

A) electrons do not orbit the nucleus B) protons are not located in the nucleus C) neutrons are not located in the nucleus D) the electrons should be much farther away from the nucleus E) electrons do not have a negative charge 39) Examine the following figure. Which of the representations of molecules does not reveal double bonds?

39)

___ ___

A) structural formula B) electron configuration C) ball-and-stick model D) space-filling model E) All of the representations of molecules reveal double bonds.

40) Examine the pH scale below. How does household bleach compare to household ammonia?

A) Household bleach is more acidic than household ammonia.

B) Household bleach has 10 times higher H+ concentration than household ammonia.

C) Household bleach has 100 times higher H+ concentration than household ammonia.

D) Household ammonia has 10 times higher H+ concentration.

40) ______

E) Household ammonia has 100 times higher H+ concentration.

Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

The last few miles of the marathon are the most difficult for Heather. Her hair is plastered to her head, sweat clings to her arms, and her legs feel as if they had nothing left. Heather grabs a cup of ice water. The ice cubes smash against her nose as she gulps some cool refreshment and keeps on running. Then a breeze kicks up and she finally feels some coolness against her skin. Drops of sweat, once clinging to her forehead, now spill down, and Heather feels a stinging as the sweat flows into her eyes.

41) Sweat on Heather’s forehead and arms formed drops because of the ______.

A) cohesive nature of water B) ability of water to act as a solvent C) ability of water to moderate heat D) high evaporative cooling effect of water E) high salt content of sweat

41) ______

42) Which of the following is the most likely reason why the ice struck Heather’s nose when she took a drink?

A) Water can function as a solvent.

B) Water can store large amounts of heat.

C) Water has a cohesive nature.

D) Water can moderate temperatures through evaporative cooling.

E) The density of water decreases when it freezes.

42) ______

1) A 2) C 3) C 4) D 5) E 6) E 7) B 8) A 9) B 10) A 11) A 12) C 13) E 14) E 15) D 16) C 17) A 18) B 19) E 20) D 21) E 22) A 23) D 24) E 25) C 26) E 27) A 28) D 29) B 30) B 31) D 32) E 33) D 34) B 35) B 36) A 37) D 38) D 39) D 40) D 41) A 42) E

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) People with lactose intolerance do not have enough ______.

1) _______ A) water B) lactose C) fructose D) glucose E) lactase 2) A single carbon atom can form a maximum of ______ covalent bond(s).

A) none; carbon only participates in ionic bonds B) 4 C) 2 D) 3 E) 1

2) _______

3) The following molecule is best described as a ______.

CH3—CH2—CH2—CH2

3) _______

A) protein B) lipid C) carbohydrate D) hydrocarbon E) nucleic acid 4) ______ is a hydroxyl group.

A) —OH B) —H

4) _______ C) COOH

D) —NH2

E) —SH

5) In the following reaction, galactose is a ______. galactose + glucose → lactose + water A) polymer B) monomer C) polysaccharide D) protein E) lipid

5) _______

6) What name is given to the following reaction? galactose + glucose → lactose + water A) hydrogenation B) dehydration reaction C) glycolysis D) hydrolysis E) gluconeogenesis

6) _______

7) What name is given to the following reaction? sucrose + water → glucose + fructose A) anabolism B) denaturation C) hydrolysis D) dehydration reaction E) glucogenesis

7) _______

8) Carbohydrates typically include ______.

A) a 5-carbon ring B) an NH2 group

8) _______

C) a hydrocarbon chain D) a PO4 group E) C, H, and O atoms 9) Which of the following are isomers?

A) sucrose and lactose B) sucrose and glucose C) glucose and sucrose D) glucose and fructose E) lactose and maltose

9) _______

10) Complete the equation: monosaccharide + monosaccharide → ______ + water A) polypeptide B) fat C) polysaccharide D) disaccharide E) nucleic acid

10) ______

11) In the following equation, lactose is a ______. galactose + glucose → lactose + water A) dipeptide B) nucleic acid C) polypeptide D) disaccharide E) fatty acid

11) ______

12) Table sugar is ______.

A) sucrose B) maltose

12) ______ C) fructose

D) glucose

E) lactose

13) The consumption of sugar is a major cause of ______.

A) rheumatoid arthritis B) tooth decay C) gout D) acne E) cancer

13) ______

14) Which of the following is an example of a polysaccharide?

A) starch B) maltose C) glucose

14) ______ D) sucrose

E) fructose

15) Animals store carbohydrates as ______.

A) glycogen B) maltose

D) cellulose

E) starch

15) ______ C) glucose

16) Cellulose is an example of ______.

A) a polypeptide B) a steroid C) a nucleic acid D) fat E) fiber

16) ______

17) Which of the following is hydrophilic?

A) butter

17) ______

B) cholesterol C) testosterone D) polyunsaturated fatty acids E) cellulose 18) Sometimes when I have my morning coffee, which I drink black with no sugar, I notice a thin film floating on top of the coffee. Since I have just read Chapter 3 of the text, I now realize the nature of this substance and so I run to my friend screaming, "Look at this ______ in my coffee!"

A) enzyme B) hydrophobic substance C) hydrophilic substance D) glucose E) nucleotide

18) ______

19) A glycerol with three fatty acids attached is referred to as a ______.

A) nucleic acid B) prostaglandin C) steroid D) fat E) protein

19) ______

20) What name is given to the following reaction? glycerol + 3 fatty acids → triglyceride + 3 water molecules A) hydrolysis B) denaturation C) hydrogenation D) dehydration reaction E) catabolism

20) ______

21) Saturated fats are saturated with ______.

A) nitrogen B) phosphorus C) oxygen D) carbon E) hydrogen

21) ______

22) By definition, what type of fatty acid has double bonds?

A) triglyceride B) unsaturated C) saturated D) steroid E) monoglyceride

22) ______

23) Which of the following is lowest in unsaturated fats?

A) beef B) salmon C) corn oil

23) ______

24) A fat that is hydrogenated is ______.

A) more solid B) likely to go bad faster C) less likely to cause strokes D) easier to digest E) more unsaturated

D) trout

E) canola oil 24) ______

25) Which of the following is a health effect of a diet high in saturated fats?

A) decreased risk of atherosclerosis B) increased risk of heart attack C) increased life span D) decreased risk of stroke E) increased blood flow

25) ______

26) ______ is a steroid.

A) Estrogen B) Unsaturated fat C) Sucrose D) Amino acid E) Butter

26) ______

27) A friend of yours appears to have put on a lot of muscle very quickly. At the same time, you notice that your friend seems to have a lot of mood swings and appears depressed. It is reasonable for you to suspect that your friend has begun to take ______.

A) lipids B) protein powder C) an anabolic steroid D) creatine E) amino acid supplements

27) ______

28) Enzymes are ______.

A) fats B) phospholipids C) steroids D) proteins E) monosaccharides

28) ______

29) Proteins are polymers constructed from ______ monomers.

A) fatty acid B) 5-carbon ring C) hydrocarbon D) amino acid E) nucleotide

29) ______

30) Amino acids include a side group as well as ______.

A) a central hydrogen, a nitrogen atom, a hydroxyl group, and a carbonyl group B) a central hydrogen, a nitrogen atom, an amino group, and a carboxyl group C) a central carbon, a hydrogen atom, a hydroxyl group, and a carbonyl group D) a central nitrogen, a carbon atom, an amino group, and a carbonyl group E) a central carbon, a hydrogen atom, an amino group, and a carboxyl group

30) ______

31) What is the name given to the reaction that breaks peptide bonds?

A) hydrolysis B) hydrogenation C) denaturation D) anabolism E) dehydration reaction

31) ______

32) The linear sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain is referred to as its ______ structure.

A) primary B) quaternary C) pentamerous D) tertiary E) secondary

32) ______

33) A protein's function is dependent on its ______.

A) temperature B) shape C) size D) pH E) weight

33) ______

34) Destruction of a protein's shape is called ______.

A) anabolism B) denaturation C) hydrolysis D) hydrogenation E) a dehydration reaction

34) ______

35) Nucleic acids are polymers of ______ monomers.

A) nucleotide B) monosaccharide C) fatty acid D) DNA E) hydrocarbon

35) ______

36) A specific stretch of DNA that programs the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide is a ______.

A) gene B) protein C) nucleotide D) enzyme E) nucleic acid

36) ______

37) DNA nucleotides include ______.

A) thymine, guanine, adenine, and cytosine B) thymine, uracil, adenine, and cytosine C) thymine, guanine, uracil, and cytosine D) thymine, guanine, adenine, and uracil E) uracil, guanine, adenine, and cytosine

37) ______

38) Which of the following is true with regard to a DNA molecule?

A) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of uracil.

B) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine.

C) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of guanine, and the amount of thymine is equal to the amount of uracil.

D) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of cytosine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of thymine.

E) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of guanine, and the amount of thymine is

38) ______

equal to the

amount of cytosine.

39) If one strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence AGTACTG, what will be the sequence of the other strand?

A) TCATGAC B) CTACAGT C) GTCATGA D) AGTACTG E) GACGTCA

39) ______

40) How does RNA differ from DNA? A) RNA is a polymer of amino acids; DNA is a polymer of nucleotides.

B) RNA contains one less —OH than does DNA. C) RNA is double-stranded; DNA is single-stranded.

D) In RNA G pairs with T; in DNA G pairs with C. E) RNA contains uracil; DNA contains thymine.

40) ______

41) The ability to tolerate lactose throughout life is most likely to be seen in ______.

A) Native Americans B) populations that live in cold climates C) populations that live in wet climates D) East Asian populations E) cultures that keep dairy herds

41) ______

42) Examine the two sugars in the following figure. How do these two sugars compare?

42) ______

A) Fructose has more hydrogen.

B) Glucose has more double bonds.

C) Glucose has more hydrogen.

D) They are structurally identical in every way.

E) They have the same formula but different structures.

43) The figure below shows

43)

A) hydrolysis B) DNA C) denaturation D) RNA E) protein secondary structure 44) The figure below shows ______.

___ ___

44)

___ ___

A) double-stranded RNA B) a single strand of DNA C) a single strand of RNA D) double-stranded DNA E) none of the above Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

While shopping, you settle on two types of cookies. The nutritional label for the chocolate mint cookies lists 5 grams of saturated fat, 0 grams of trans fat, 22 grams of carbohydrates, and 11 grams of protein per serving. The nutritional label for the peanut butter cookies lists 0 grams of saturated fat, 5 grams of trans fat, 26 grams of carbohydrates, and 4 grams of protein per serving.

45) Which cookies are less healthy?

A) The chocolate mint cookies because they contain more protein.

B) The peanut butter cookies because they contain more trans fat.

C) The chocolate mint cookies because they contain more saturated fat.

D) The peanut butter cookies because they contain more grams of carbohydrates.

E) The chocolate mint cookies because they contain more total grams of protein and carbohydrates.

45) ______

46) The manufacturer of the chocolate mint cookies changed the ingredients of its cookies. Each serving now has 1 gram of saturated fat (4 fewer grams), 4 grams of trans fat (4 more grams), 21 grams of carbohydrates (1 fewer gram), and 11 grams of protein (no change). Do you think that the manufacturer made these cookies healthier?

A) No, because they now have more grams of trans fat.

B) Yes, because they now have less saturated fat.

C) No, because they now have less saturated fat.

46) ______

D) Yes, because they now have fewer grams of carbohydrates.

E) No, because the number of proteins was not changed.

1) E 2) B 3) D 4) A 5) B 6) B 7) C 8) E 9) D 10) D 11) D 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) E 17) E 18) B 19) D 20) D 21) E 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) B 26) A 27) C 28) D 29) D 30) E 31) A 32) A 33) B 34) B 35) A 36) A 37) A 38) B 39) A 40) E 41) E 42) E 43) E 44) B 45) B 46) A

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) What theory states that all living things are composed of cells?

1) _______ A) evolutionary theory B) cell theory C) Hooke's rule D) Mendel's law E) law of thermodynamics 2) What type of microscope would be best for studying the detailed structure of the surface of a plasma membrane?

A) scanning electron microscope B) transmission electron microscope C) light microscope using living cells D) light microscope using dead whole cells E) both a light microscope and an electron microscope

2) _______

3) The two basic types of cells are ______ and ______.

A) prokaryotic . . . eukaryotic B) bacterial . . . animal C) plant . . . animal D) bacterial . . . protist E) nerve . . . muscle

3) _______

4) When using a light microscope to view a cell you obtained from scraping under your fingernails, you notice that the cell lacks a nucleus; therefore, you conclude that the cell must be a type of ______ cell.

A) eukaryotic B) prokaryotic C) animal D) plant E) fungal

4) _______

5) One difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is that eukaryotic cells ______ prokaryotic cells.

A) have a plasma membrane, which is lacking in B) have DNA, which is lacking in C) lack the complexity seen in D) have membrane-bound organelles, which are lacking in E) have a nucleoid region, which is lacking in

5) _______

6) In eukaryotic cells, what name is given to the region between the nucleus and the plasma membrane?

A) gene B) nucleoid C) phospholipid bilayer D) chloroplast E) cytoplasm

6) _______

7) You find a cell of a type you have never seen before. The cell has both a nucleus and a cell wall.

Th erefore,

you 7) conclude that it must be a ______ cell.

__ __ __ _

A) animal B) liver C) plant D) prokaryotic E) bacterial 8) Which of the following is a function of the plasma membrane?

A) regulation of the passage of material into and out of the cell B) control center of the cell C) lipid synthesis D) digestion of organic materials inside the cell E) protein synthesis

8) _______

9) ______ are the major lipids of plasma membranes.

A) Steroids B) Fatty acids C) Phospholipids D) Mosaics E) Membrane proteins

9) _______

10) When mixed with water, phospholipids spontaneously form membranes because they ______.

A) have hydrophilic fatty acid tails that are attracted to water and hydrophobic phosphate groups that avoid water B) are lipids C) are both fluid and mosaic D) have hydrophilic phosphate groups that are attracted to water and hydrophobic fatty acid tails that avoid water E) have hydrophilic heads that are attracted to their hydrophobic tails

10) ______

11) The concept of a membrane as a fluid mosaic reflects the ability of ______.

A) phospholipids and most proteins to drift about in the plane of the membrane B) carbohydrates to drift into and out of the membrane structure C) nucleotides to drift into and out of the membrane structure D) phospholipids but not proteins to drift about in the plane of the membrane E) most proteins but not phospholipids to drift about in the plane of the membrane

11) ______

12) The extracellular coats of cells ______.

A) are warehouses for the storage of extra lipids and carbohydrates B) provide avenues for the exchange of DNA C) protect and support cells D) are primarily sites of dead matter and waste materials E) none of the above

12) ______

13) ______ store the information necessary to produce proteins.

A) Genes B) Ribosomes

13) ______

C) Carbohydrates D) Phospholipids E) Lysosomes 14) The nuclear envelope is composed of ______.

A) chromatin B) genes C) carbohydrates D) DNA E) a double membrane

14) ______

15) The structural combination of DNA and protein forms ______.

A) nucleoli B) chromatin C) ribosomes D) nucleoplasm E) ATP

15) ______

16) Most human cells contain ______ chromosomes.

A) 36 B) 23 C) 2

16) ______ D) 46

E) 18

17) What name is given to the organelle that manufactures the components of ribosomes?

A) chromosome B) cytoplasm C) endoplasmic reticulum D) nucleus E) nucleolus

17) ______

18) Many antibiotic drugs are effective against bacteria without hurting humans because the antibiotics rely upon differences in the structure of human and bacterial ______.

A) chromosomes B) carbohydrates C) ribosomes D) mitochondria E) lysosomes

18) ______

19) Where does protein synthesis take place?

A) on smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) in the nucleus C) in the Golgi apparatus D) in the nucleolus E) on ribosomes

19) ______

20) Information is transferred from the nucleus to ribosomes via ______.

A) mRNA B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) phospholipids D) DNA E) rough endoplasmic reticulum

20) ______

21) The endomembrane system includes ______.

A) Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum

21) ______

B) Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, vacuoles, and ribosomes C) Golgi apparatus, ribosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum D) Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, ribosomes, and the endoplasmic reticulum E) ribosomes, lysosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum 22) A hormone that will be secreted from the cell is manufactured by ribosomes _____.

A) attached to the plasma membrane B) inside the nucleus C) attached to the endoplasmic reticulum D) attached to the Golgi apparatus E) none of the above

22) ______

23) Based on its function in detoxifying drugs, you would expect to find a large amount of smooth ER in ______ cells.

A) muscle B) lung C) intestinal D) liver E) brain

23) ______

24) Functions of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum include ______.

A) lipid synthesis, steroid synthesis, and protein synthesis B) lipid synthesis, steroid synthesis, protein synthesis, and drug detoxification C) steroid synthesis, protein synthesis, and drug detoxification D) lipid synthesis, steroid synthesis, and drug detoxification E) lipid synthesis, protein synthesis, and drug detoxification

24) ______

25) What structures move proteins from the ER to the Golgi apparatus?

A) ribosomes B) nucleosomes C) lysosomes D) nucleolus E) transport vesicles

25) ______

26) Which of the following is a function of the Golgi apparatus?

A) protein modification B) protection and support of the cell C) protein synthesis D) drug detoxification E) digestion of organic matter inside the cell

26) ______

27) Which of the following parts of a cell is (are) most like the shipping center of a company?

A) the Golgi apparatus B) mitochondria C) chloroplasts D) the endoplasmic reticulum E) the nucleolus

27) ______

28) Lysosomes are responsible for ______.

A) cellular respiration B) photosynthesis C) protein synthesis D) digestion of organic matter inside the cell E) lipid synthesis

28) ______

29) If a cell's lysosomes burst, the cell would ______.

29) ______

A) shrivel B) become flaccid C) digest itself D) need to manufacture more lysosomes E) divide into two cells 30) Tay-Sachs disease results from ______ lacking a specific type of lipid-digesting enzyme.

A) lysosomes B) the Golgi apparatus C) the plasma membrane D) mitochondria E) the endoplasmic reticulum

30) ______

31) Vacuoles are ______.

A) manufactured by ribosomes B) composed of microtubules C) found only in plant cells D) membranous sacs E) composed of protein

31) ______

32) A protist that contains contractile vacuoles most likely lives ______.

A) on land B) in fresh water C) in ice D) within the cells of another organism E) in a marine environment

32) ______

33) In plant cells, ______ may contain organic nutrients, pigments, and poisons.

A) lysosomes B) ribosomes C) mitochondria D) chloroplasts E) central vacuoles

33) ______

34) Plant cells, unlike animal cells, are characterized by the presence of a ______.

A) cell wall and contractile vacuole B) cell wall and ribosomes C) nucleus and contractile vacuole D) nucleus and cell wall E) cell wall and central vacuole

34) ______

35) Similar to the nucleus, chloroplasts and mitochondria are ______.

A) not surrounded by membrane B) able to synthesize lipids C) green D) manufactured by the nucleolus E) surrounded by two membranes

35) ______

36) Which organelle is responsible for photosynthesis?

A) chloroplast B) ribosome C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

36) ______

D) mitochondrion E) nucleolus 37) Cellular respiration can be described as the conversion of the energy ______.

A) stored in ATP to energy used to do work B) stored in food molecules to energy stored in ATP C) of sunlight to energy stored in inorganic compounds D) of sunlight to energy stored in organic compounds E) stored in ATP to energy stored in food molecules

37) ______

38) Which of the following is an adaptation to increase the surface area of a part of a cell that is involved in cellular respiration?

A) the grana of a chloroplast B) the endoplasmic reticulum C) the outer membrane of a chloroplast D) the stroma of a chloroplast E) the cristae of a mitochondrion

38) ______

39) Microtubules are associated with ______.

A) cilia B) flagella C) cell shape D) chromosome movement E) all of the above

39) ______

40) Tobacco smokers (and those exposed to tobacco smoke) are at greater risk of an ectopic (tubal) pregnancy. Based on your understanding of the structures of the cytoskeleton, what is the best explanation?

A) Tobacco interferes with the functioning of the flagella propelling sperm.

B) Tobacco interferes with the transfer of oxygen to the uterus, thereby forcing the zygote to implant in a fallopian tube.

C) Tobacco causes the cilia to grow to be very long and block movement through the fallopian tubes.

D) Tobacco interferes with the sweeping motion of cilia that aids in the movement of the egg toward the uterus.

E) Tobacco smokers tend to get pregnant when they are younger.

40) ______

41) Examine the following photographs. Which of the techniques reveal internal cellular detail?

41) ______

A) transmission electron micrograph and scanning electron micrograph

B) light micrograph and transmission electron micrograph C) light micrograph and scanning electron micrograph D) all three micrographs E) none of the micrographs 42) Examine the structures of the plant and animal cells below. Which of the following organelles connect(s) to the nuclear envelope?

42) ______

A) mitochondria B) the Golgi apparatus C) lysosomes D) the endoplasmic reticulum E) the plasma membrane 43) The figure below shows a Paramecium, a single-celled freshwater protist. The hairlike structures visible on the Paramecium allow it to move. These structures are ______.

43)

______ A) membrane proteins B) microfilaments C) flagella D) intermediate filaments E) cilia 44) The child shown in the figure below is not feeling well. Why does the poster say "No Antibiotics Please"?

44) ______

A) His illness is caused by bacteria.

B) His illness is caused by penicillin.

C) Antibiotics should be taken only to promote growth.

D) Antibiotics will make him more sick.

E) His illness is caused by a virus.

Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

The earliest cells detectable in fossils were different from the cells in animals, plants, fungi, and protists living today.

These first prokaryotic cells gave rise to eukaryotic cells approximately 1.7 billion years ago. The structure of eukaryotic cells today suggests how they might have evolved from their prokaryotic ancestors. Scientists examining mitochondria and chloroplasts now think that these organelles were probably free-living prokaryotes before becoming a part of eukaryotic cells long ago.

45) What evidence suggests that mitochondria might have evolved before chloroplasts?

A) Mitochondria can sometimes divide to produce chloroplasts.

B) Some mitochondria have chloroplasts inside of them.

C) A double membrane surrounds mitochondria, and a single membrane surrounds chloroplasts.

D) Almost all eukaryotes have mitochondria but only some cells have chloroplasts.

E) Only mitochondria have their own DNA.

45) ______

46) Which of the following is a characteristic of chloroplasts that suggests that they might have evolved from free-living bacteria?

A) Chloroplasts do not produce ATP. B) A single, highly folded plasma membrane surrounds chloroplasts.

C) Chloroplasts have their own DNA. D) Chloroplasts contain pigments.

E) Chloroplasts have cell walls.

46) ______

47) Which of the following is a characteristic of mitochondria that suggests that they might have evolved from free-living bacteria?

A) Mitochondria produce sugars through the process of photosynthesis.

B) Mitochondria rely upon proteins as their source of energy.

C) The plasma membrane of a mitochondrion, forming the surface of this organelle, is the site of many important steps of cellular respiration.

D) Mitochondria have cell walls.

E) Mitochondria have their own DNA.

47) ______

1) B 2) A 3) A 4) B 5) D 6) E 7) C 8) A 9) C 10) D 11) A 12) C 13) A 14) E 15) B 16) D 17) E 18) C 19) E 20) A 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) D 25) E 26) A 27) A 28) D 29) C 30) A 31) D 32) B 33) E 34) E 35) E 36) A 37) B 38) E 39) E 40) D 41) B 42) D 43) E 44) E 45) D 46) C 47) E

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) What is energy?

1) _______ A) the capacity to cause movement B) metabolism C) the capacity to perform work D) a measure of calories E) a measure of disorder 2) The energy of motion is ______ energy.

A) kinetic B) created

2) _______ C) conserved

D) potential

E) stored

3) The principle that energy cannot be created or destroyed is known as ______.

A) conservation of energy B) interconversion C) entropy D) potential energy E) conservation of heat 4) A rock on the top of a mountain contains ______ energy.

A) kinetic B) potential C) conserved

3) _______

4) _______ D) motion

E) no

5) You are riding on your bike and stop pedaling, coasting along the road. Eventually, your bike slows down and stops. What happened to the energy of your motion when your bike stopped?

A) It was converted back to chemical energy.

B) It was returned to the bicycle.

C) It was used to chemically break down the tires.

D) It was released as heat.

E) It was stored as kinetic energy.

5) _______

6) Which of the following is a measure of disorder?

A) conservation of energy B) entropy C) kinetic energy D) potential energy E) respiration

6) _______

7) Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example, the sperm are changing ______.

A) kinetic energy into chemical energy B) chemical energy into potential energy C) kinetic energy into potential energy D) chemical energy into kinetic energy E) none of the above

7) _______

8) Humans convert approximately ______ of the energy stored in food to useful work.

A) 80% B) 99.9% C) 60% D) 40% E) 20%

8) _______

9) Ten kilocalories are equivalent to ______ calories.

A) 0.01 B) 0.1 C) 1,000

9) _______ D) 10,000

E) 100

10) You have a 2-liter bottle of liquid water at 0°C. About how many Calories are needed to heat up the water to 100°C? A) 100 Calories B) 2,000 Calories C) 200 Calories D) 2 Calories E) 10,000 Calories

10) ______

11) What compound directly provides energy for cellular work?

A) C6H12O6 B) fat C) ATP

11) ______ D) DNA

E) sucrose

12) Energy is transferred from ATP to other molecules by transferring a(n) ______.

A) adenosine B) photon C) heat unit D) phosphate group E) spring

12) ______

13) Anything that prevents ATP formation will most likely ______.

A) force the cell to rely on ADP for energy B) result in the conversion of kinetic energy to potential energy C) have no effect on the cell D) force the cell to rely on lipids for energy E) result in cell death

13) ______

14) Usually, enzymes are ______.

A) steroids B) phospholipids C) monosaccharides D) fats E) proteins

14) ______

15) The sum total of all the chemical reactions that occur in organisms is called ______.

A) metabolism B) replication C) inheritance D) summation E) cellular synthesis

15) ______

16) Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by ______.

A) contributing electrons to the reaction B) decreasing activation energy C) contributing water to the reaction D) increasing the temperature of the substrates E) changing the pH of the substrates

16) ______

17) Which one of the following is true?

A) Most enzymes are lipids.

B) Enzymes are the products in a chemical reaction.

C) Enzymes are the reactants in a chemical reaction.

D) An enzyme's function requires inhibitors.

17) ______

E) Enzymes catalyze specific reactions.

18) An enzyme's function is dependent on its ______.

A) pH B) shape C) weight D) temperature E) size

18) ______

19) Which component of the following reaction is the enzyme? sucrose + sucrase + water → sucrase + glucose + fructose A) sucrose B) fructose C) sucrase

19) ______ D) glucose

E) water

20) The region of an enzyme to which a substrate binds is called the ______ site.

A) substrate B) denatured C) conformational D) active E) enzymatic

20) ______

21) Which component of the following reaction is the substrate? sucrose + sucrase + water → sucrase + glucose + fructose A) fructose B) sucrose C) sucrase D) glucose E) There is no substrate in this reaction.

21) ______

22) Which one of the following is true?

A) Enzymes are used up in chemical reactions.

B) An enzyme's function depends on its three-dimensional shape.

C) Enzymes emerge changed from the reactions they catalyze.

D) An enzyme binds to its substrate at the enzyme's substrate site.

E) Enzymes work generally on a broad range of substrates.

22) ______

23) Substances that plug up an enzyme's active site are ______.

A) enzyme products B) enzyme substrates C) enzyme inhibitors D) induced fit factors E) reactants

23) ______

24) Which one of the following is most similar to the mechanism of an enzyme inhibitor?

A) keeping someone from parking by parking in their designated spot B) forgetting to put a cap back on a pen C) combining new ingredients in a new recipe D) changing the tires on a car E) driving the wrong way on a one-way street

24) ______

25) Diffusion is an example of ______.

A) active transport B) phagocytosis

25) ______

C) endocytosis D) exocytosis E) passive transport 26) Diffusion ______.

A) is the result of the potential energy of atoms B) occurs when particles spread from areas where they are less concentrated to areas where they are more concentrated C) requires an input of cellular energy D) is driven by an input of cellular energy E) proceeds until equilibrium is reached

26) ______

27) Facilitated diffusion across a biological membrane requires ______ and moves a substance ______ its concentration gradient.

A) energy and transport proteins . . . down B) transport proteins . . . against C) energy and transport proteins . . . against D) energy . . . down E) transport proteins . . . down

27) ______

28) Osmosis can be defined as ______.

A) the diffusion of nonpolar molecules B) the diffusion of a solute C) the diffusion of water D) active transport E) endocytosis

28) ______

29) A balloon permeable to water but not to glucose contains a 10% glucose solution. A beaker contains a 5% glucose solution. Which of the following is true?

A) When placed in the beaker, the balloon will lose water by osmosis.

B) The solution in the balloon is isotonic; the solution in the beaker is hypertonic.

C) The solution in the balloon is hypertonic relative to the solution in the beaker.

D) The solution in the beaker is hypertonic relative to the solution in the balloon.

E) When placed in the beaker, the balloon will experience neither a net gain nor a net loss of water.

29) ______

30) When two solutions that differ in solute concentration are placed on either side of a selectively permeable membrane, and osmosis is allowed to take place, the water will ______.

A) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower water concentration B) not cross the membrane C) exhibit an equal movement in both directions across the membrane D) exhibit a net movement to the side with higher water concentration E) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower solute concentration

30) ______

31) A cell that neither gains nor loses water when it is immersed in a solution is ______.

A) dead B) hypertonic to its environment C) hypotonic to its environment D) metabolically inactive E) isotonic to its environment

31) ______

32) Some protozoans have special organelles called contractile vacuoles that continually eliminate

exc ess

water 32) from the cell. The presence of these organelle s tells you that the environ ment ______.

A) is isotonic to the protozoan B) is hypertonic to the protozoan C) contains a higher concentration of solutes than the protozoan D) is hypotonic to the protozoan E) none of the above

___ ___

33) If placed in tap water, an animal cell will undergo lysis, whereas a plant cell will not. What accounts for this difference?

A) expulsion of water by the plant cell's central vacuole B) the fact that plant cells are isotonic to tap water C) the relative impermeability of the plant cell membrane to water D) the relative impermeability of the plant cell wall to water E) the relative inelasticity and strength of the plant cell wall

33) ______

34) In a hypotonic solution, a plant cell will ______.

A) pump out excess water B) burst C) become flaccid D) become turgid E) undergo plasmolysis

34) ______

35) Which of the following processes could result in the net movement of a substance into a cell, if the substance is more concentrated in the cell than in the surroundings?

A) osmosis B) diffusion C) plasmolysis D) facilitated diffusion E) active transport

35) ______

36) Active transport ______.

A) uses ATP as an energy source B) requires the cell to expend energy C) can move solutes against their concentration gradient D) can involve the transport of ions E) all of the above

36) ______

37) ______ is to eating as ______ is to drinking.

A) Endocytosis . . . exocytosis B) Cell pumping . . . endocytosis C) Phagocytosis . . . pinocytosis

37) ______

D) Diffusion . . . endocytosis E) Active transport . . . diffusion 38) Certain cells that line the stomach synthesize a digestive enzyme and secrete it into the stomach.

This enzyme is a protein. Which of the following processes could be responsible for its secretion?

A) passive transport B) pinocytosis C) endocytosis D) diffusion E) exocytosis

38) ______

39) The act of a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is ______.

A) pinocytosis B) receptor-mediated endocytosis C) phagocytosis D) diffusion E) osmosis

39) ______

40) Relaying a message from a receptor protein to a molecule that performs a specific function within a cell is called ______.

A) competition B) inhibition C) self-recognition D) selective permeability E) signal transduction

40) ______

41) Which of the following is most like a signal transduction pathway in a cell?

A) catching fish using a fishing pole B) a person parking a car in a parking space C) a person answering the door to their home after someone rings the doorbell D) a person mixing together water, milk, and cake mix to make a cake E) a physician removing a thorn from a person's foot

41) ______

42) The figure below shows that ______.

42) ______

A) ATP can be converted to ADP by adding a phosphate group B) energy is released from ATP during the process of cellular respiration C) ADP is a smooth molecule D) ADP can perform cellular work when it binds to an additional phosphate group

E) ATP can perform cellular work when it releases a phosphate group 43) Examine the cells below. Cells with a higher concentration of ions than the surrounding medium tend to ______.

A) merge with other cells B) stay about the same size and shape C) divide D) expand E) shrink 44) Examine the following figure. Imagine that cell signaling using a signal transduction pathway is like a person answering the door after hearing the doorbell ring. Which structure in this figure is like the button for the doorbell?

43) ______

44)

___ ___

A) proteins of the signal transduction pathway B) the receptor protein C) the hydrolysis of glycogen D) the plasma membrane E) epinephrine Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Cellular respiration converts the energy of fuel molecules to a form of energy that a cell can use to perform work. In an average day, most adult humans need to consume about 2,000 Calories to maintain their health. However, the exact amount of dietary Calories a person needs depends upon many factors, including the person’s age, physical activity, size, and health. Foods that we consume vary greatly in their nutritional content and quality. A large hard-boiled egg, for example, has about 75 dietary Calories and contains about 70% of our recommended daily intake of cholesterol.

45) Molecules that come from the food we eat provide energy for the amazing work that goes on inside of our cells. This energy, stored inside of our food, is a form of ______.

A) kinetic energy called heat B) kinetic energy called entropy C) electrical energy called heat D) potential energy called entropy E) potential energy called chemical energy

45) ______

46) If a person eats one hard-boiled egg and digests the egg fully, cellular respiration will convert most of this energy into ______.

A) heat B) carbon dioxide C) ATP D) water E) sugars

46) ______

47) The amount of dietary Calories in one hard-boiled egg could raise the temperature of ______.

A) 10 grams of water by 1 degree Celsius B) 1,000 grams of water by 75 degrees Celsius C) 7,500 grams of water by 50 degrees Celsius

47) ______

D) 75 grams of water by 1 degree Celsius E) 750 grams of water by 1 degree Celsius

1) C 2) A 3) A 4) B 5) D 6) B 7) D 8) D 9) D 10) C 11) C 12) D 13) E 14) E 15) A 16) B 17) E 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) B 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) E 26) E 27) E 28) C 29) C 30) A 31) E 32) D 33) E 34) D 35) E 36) E 37) C 38) E 39) C 40) E 41) C 42) E 43) D 44) B 45) E 46) A 47) B

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) A difference between marathon runners and sprinters is ______.

1) _______ A) sprinters have a high proportion of muscle fibers that require oxygen to make ATP B) sprinters perform better in activities that require slow, steady muscle activity C) marathon runners have more fast-twitch muscle fibers in their leg muscles D) marathon runners have more slow-twitch fibers in their leg muscles E) none of the above 2) Humans use the calories they obtain from ______ as their source of energy.

A) food B) water C) carbon dioxide D) minerals E) sunlight

2) _______

3) Photosynthetic organisms are ______.

A) consumers B) heterotrophs C) producers D) animals E) decomposers

3) _______

4) A horse eating some hay is an example of ______.

A) an autotroph eating a consumer B) a consumer eating a heterotroph C) a consumer eating a producer D) a producer eating a heterotroph E) an autotroph eating a producer

4) _______

5) Photosynthesis is carried out by ______.

A) chloroplasts B) the nucleus C) mitochondria D) ribosomes E) consumers

5) _______

6) The waste products of cellular respiration include ______.

A) water and glucose B) glucose only C) carbon dioxide only D) water only E) water and carbon dioxide

6) _______

7) Plant cells ______.

A) use carbon dioxide but do not use oxygen B) have chloroplasts and mitochondria C) do not need chloroplasts because their mitochondria meet their energy needs D) do not need mitochondria because their chloroplasts meet their energy needs E) do not use cellular respiration

7) _______

8) The ultimate source of the energy in food is ______.

A) plants B) the sun C) ATP D) producers E) consumers 9) What compound directly provides energy for cellular work?

A) C6H12O6 B) glucose C) fat

8) _______

9) _______ D) DNA

E) ATP

10) An aerobic process requires ______.

A) light B) carbohydrates C) ATP D) carbon dioxide E) oxygen

10) ______

11) Respiration describes the exchange of gases between your blood and the outside air. Cellular respiration ______.

A) produces oxygen B) uses carbon dioxide C) produces ATP D) produces glucose E) also describes the exchange of gases between your blood and the outside air

11) ______

12) Which of these equations describes aerobic cellular respiration?

A) glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water + energy B) energy + carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen + water C) glucose → ethyl alcohol + carbon dioxide + energy D) glucose → lactic acid + energy E) glucose + lactose → galactose + water

12) ______

13) Which of the following are produced during cellular respiration?

A) oxygen B) carbon dioxide, water, and ATP C) ATP and water D) carbon dioxide and ATP E) oxygen and glucose

13) ______

14) During redox reactions, ______.

A) the loss of electrons from one substance is called reduction B) protons from one molecule replace the electrons lost from another molecule C) electrons are lost from one substance and added to another substance D) a substance that gains electrons is said to be oxidized E) none of the above

14) ______

15) During cellular respiration, electrons move through a series of electron acceptor molecules.

Which of the following is a true statement about this process?

A) Glucose is eventually reduced by the electrons to form water.

B) The electrons release large amounts of energy each time they are transferred from one electron acceptor to another.

15) ______

C) The electrons gain energy as they move from one electron acceptor to another.

D) Oxygen is eventually reduced by the electrons to form water.

E) None of the statements are true.

16) Which of the following statements is true?

A) Oxidation is the gain of electrons; reduction is the loss of electrons.

B) Oxygen is a product of cellular respiration; carbon dioxide is a product of photosynthesis.

C) Lactic acid is a product of aerobic respiration; ethyl alcohol is a product of fermentation.

D) Glucose is a product of aerobic respiration; lactic acid is a product of anaerobic respiration.

E) Oxidation is the loss of electrons; reduction is the gain of electrons.

16) ______

17) The first electron acceptor of cellular respiration is ______.

A) H2O B) NAD+ C) CO2

17) ______ D) O2

E) ATP

18) The final electron acceptor of aerobic respiration is ______.

A) carbon dioxide B) oxygen C) ATP D) lactic acid E) NAD+

18) ______

19) Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?

A) within the fluid just inside the inner mitochondrial membrane B) along the outside of the outer mitochondrial membrane C) between the inner and outer mitochondrial membrane D) ER E) cytoplasm

19) ______

20) Which of the following is the correct sequence of stages in cellular respiration?

A) citric acid cycle, electron transport, glycolysis B) glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport C) citric acid cycle, glycolysis, electron transport D) electron transport, citric acid cycle, glycolysis E) electron transport, glycolysis, citric acid cycle

20) ______

21) A product of glycolysis is ______.

A) NAD+ B) lactic acid C) pyruvic acid D) ethyl alcohol E) O2

21) ______

22) Which of the following is a result of glycolysis?

A) a net loss of two ATPs per glucose molecule B) production of CO2

22) ______

C) reduction of FAD to FADH2 D) conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid E) conversion of NADH to NAD+ 23) The second stage of aerobic respiration is ______.

A) the electron transport chain B) glycolysis

23) ______

C) ATP production D) lactic acid fermentation E) the citric acid cycle 24) What must pyruvic acid be converted to before it can enter the citric acid cycle?

A) acetyl CoA B) ethyl alcohol C) lactic acid D) citric acid E) NADH

24) ______

25) In aerobic respiration, how many molecules of acetic acid are produced from six molecules of glucose?

A) 6 B) 12 C) 38 D) 1 E) 3

25) ______

26) Which part of cellular respiration produces the most NADH? A) glycolysis B) Calvin cycle C) citric acid cycle D) electron transport chain E) hydrogenation

26) ______

27) Electron transport takes place in the ______.

A) ribosomes B) chloroplasts C) mitochondria D) cytoplasm E) nucleus

27) ______

28) ATP synthase plays a role in ______.

A) breaking down ATP B) pulling electrons down the electron transport chain C) glycolysis D) pumping hydrogen ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane E) generating ATP

28) ______

29) Aerobic cellular respiration generates about ______ ATP from one glucose.

A) 2 B) The number generated depends on whether the end product of aerobic respiration is lactic acid or ethyl alcohol.

C) 6 D) 1 E) 38

29) ______

30) In cellular respiration, most ATP is produced directly as a result of ______.

A) the citric acid cycle B) the electron transport chain C) glycolysis D) fermentation E) the movement of hydrogen ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane

30) ______

31) The term anaerobic means ______.

31) ______

A) with O2 B) without CO2 C) without ATP D) without bacteria E) without O2 32) Anaerobic respiration produces a maximum of ______ ATP per glucose.

A) 4 B) 2 C) 38 D) 10

32) ______ E) 36

33) Which of the following metabolic pathways is common to both aerobic and anaerobic processes of sugar breakdown?

A) conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA B) the electron transport chain C) the citric acid cycle D) glycolysis E) conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid

33) ______

34) A child is born with a rare disease in which mitochondria are missing from certain skeletal muscle cells. Physicians find that the muscle cells function. Not surprisingly, they also find that ______.

A) the muscles contain large amounts of carbon dioxide following even mild physical exercise B) the muscles require extremely high levels of oxygen to function C) the muscle cells cannot split glucose to pyruvic acid D) the muscles contain large amounts of lactic acid following even mild physical exercise E) the muscles require extremely large amounts of carbon dioxide to function

34) ______

35) Some friends are trying to make wine in their basement. They've added yeast to a sweet grape juice mixture and have allowed the yeast to grow. After several days they find that sugar levels in the grape juice have dropped, but there's no alcohol in the mixture. The most likely explanation is that ______.

A) the mixture needs less sugar; high sugar concentrations stimulate cellular respiration, and alcohol is not a by-product of cellular respiration B) the mixture needs less oxygen; yeast only produce alcohol in the absence of oxygen C) the mixture needs more oxygen; yeast need oxygen to break down sugar to produce alcohol D) the mixture needs more sugar; yeast need a lot of energy before they can begin to produce alcohol E) none of the above

35) ______

36) What waste product do yeast produce under anaerobic conditions?

A) creatine B) ethyl alcohol C) lactic acid D) pyruvic acid E) glucosamine

36) ______

37) Large amounts of oxygen gas first appeared in Earth's atmosphere about ______ years ago.

A) 3.5 billion B) 500,000 C) 2.7 billion D) 10 million E) 3.5 million

37) ______

38) Examine the following figure. Which of the following reactants primarily come(s) from the air?

38)

___ ___

A) water B) oxygen C) oxygen and carbon dioxide D) glucose E) carbon dioxide 39) Examine the following figure. Which of these stages occur(s) in the cytoplasm?

A) glycolysis B) electron transport C) citric acid cycle D) glycolysis and citric acid cycle E) citric acid cycle and electron transport

39) ______

40) The figure below shows

40) ______

A) the formation of pyruvic acid during glycolysis B) the synthesis of ATP through the addition of a phosphate group C) the synthesis of ADP D) the removal of a phosphate group from ADP E) the breakdown of ATP to perform cellular work 41) The figure below shows that ______.

41)

______ A) our cells can produce ATP from sugars and glycerol, but not fatty acids B) sugars can move directly into the citric acid cycle C) our cells can produce ATP only from glucose D) our cells can use sugars, fatty acids, and amino acids to produce ATP E) amino acids can move directly into the electron transport chain Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

An abundant and continual supply of ATP is necessary for all living cells. Active muscle cells require an extraordinary amount of ATP to permit strenuous exercise for prolonged periods. Toxins, reduced blood flow, and a compromised respiratory system can interfere with the transport of oxygen to active cells. A runner in a marathon faces multiple obstacles to continue to produce sufficient ATP to remain competitive.

42) Breathing faster when we exercise is necessary to expel ______.

A) oxygen and bring in more carbon dioxide to support anaerobic metabolism B) carbon dioxide and bring in more oxygen to support anaerobic metabolism C) carbon dioxide and bring in more oxygen to support aerobic metabolism D) oxygen and bring in more carbon dioxide to support aerobic metabolism E) None of the above

42) ______

43) When oxygen delivery becomes insufficient to support a runner’s aerobic metabolism, cells switch to an emergency mode in which ______.

A) ATP is generated less efficiently by harvesting the heat energy in a cell B) ATP is inefficiently produced and lactic acid is generated as a by-product C) carbon dioxide is broken down to produce FADH, which is used instead of ATP D) carbon dioxide is joined with water to generate much smaller amounts of ATP E) lactic acid is broken down to produce smaller amounts of ATP

43) ______

1) D 2) A 3) C 4) C 5) A 6) E 7) B 8) B 9) E 10) E 11) C 12) A 13) B 14) C 15) D 16) E 17) B 18) B 19) E 20) B 21) C 22) D 23) E 24) A 25) B 26) C 27) C 28) E 29) E 30) E 31) E 32) B 33) D 34) D 35) B 36) B 37) C 38) C 39) A 40) B 41) D 42) C 43) B

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following is an autotroph?

1) _______ A) mushroom B) human C) pine tree D) fish E) porcupine 2) Photosynthesis contributes to plant growth by _____.

A) synthesizing carbon dioxide and making cellulose B) taking in carbon dioxide and making sugars (carbohydrates) C) releasing the energy in cellulose to make new leaves and roots D) converting sugar to oxygen and water E) taking in oxygen and making wood

2) _______

3) In which organelle does photosynthesis take place?

A) mitochondrion B) chloroplast C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) nucleus E) vacuole

3) _______

4) What is the function of stomata?

A) location of photosystems B) water absorption C) gas exchange D) fermentation E) Calvin cycle

4) _______

5) Through what structure(s) do plants obtain most of their water?

A) roots B) leaves C) stomata D) interior cells E) stems

5) _______

6) What name is given to the membranous sacs found within a chloroplast?

A) thylakoids B) cristae C) reaction centers D) stroma E) vesicles

6) _______

7) What are grana?

A) stacks of membranous sacs B) pigments found in choloroplasts C) sacs that surround the stroma D) thick fluids inside choloroplasts E) convolutions of the inner chloroplast membrane

7) _______

8) If you provided your shade-tolerant plants with their preferred wavelength of light, but only minimal amounts of water, which of the following would you expect to occur?

A) increased amounts of oxygen released by the plants B) increased plant growth C) decreased amounts of ATP being produced by the plants D) increased growth of the plants’ roots E) increased growth of the plants’ leaves

8) _______

9) Which of the following equations best summarizes photosynthesis?

A) 6 O2 + 6 H2O → C6H12O6 + 6 CO2

9) _______

B) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + 6 O2 → C6H12O6 C) C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O D) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O → C6H12O6 + 6 O2 E) 6 CO2 + 6 O2 → C6H12O6 + 6 H2O 10) In photosynthesis, redox reactions ultimately transfer electrons from ______ to ______.

A) CO2 . . . O2

10) ______

B) H2O . . . CO2 C) H2O . . . C6H12O6 D) O2 . . . CO2 E) C6H12O6 . . . O2 11) The light reactions of photosynthesis convert ______ energy to ______ energy.

A) solar . . . chemical B) proton gradient . . . chemical C) ATP . . . NADPH D) chemical . . . electrical E) electrical . . . solar

11) ______

12) The Calvin cycle requires ______ and ______ from the light-dependent reactions in order to operate.

A) glucose . . . carbon dioxide B) electrons . . . NADH C) ATP . . . NADPH D) RuBP . . . NADP+

12) ______

E) oxygen . . . carbon dioxide 13) The products of the light reactions of photosynthesis are ______.

A) RuBP and O2

13) ______

B) ATP and NADPH C) ATP and NADH D) ATP and NADP+ E) ATP and NAD+ 14) The color that we see when looking at a pigmented object is ______.

A) the wavelengths that are absorbed by the pigment B) the wavelengths that have been used and discarded by the pigmented object C) the wavelengths that have been raised to an excited state by the pigmented object D) the wavelengths that are reflected or transmitted by the pigmented object

14) ______

E) the wavelengths that the pigmented object created after interacting with sunlight 15) If a plant appears blue to us, what wavelength of light is being reflected?

A) orange B) blue C) green D) yellow

E) red

15) ______

16) The energy of wavelengths that appear ______ is least useful to photosynthesis.

A) blue B) green C) red D) orange

E) violet

16) ______

17) What is responsible for the yellow-orange coloration of leaves in the fall?

A) chlorophyll b B) RuBP C) phycoerythrin D) chlorophyll a E) carotenoids

17) ______

18) What is one reason why plants have accessory pigment molecules, like chlorophyll b and carotenoids?

A) because plants cannot make enough chlorophyll a for all of their energy needs B) to give them different colors C) to reflect more energy D) to absorb energy in parts of the electromagnetic spectrum that chlorophyll a cannot E) because chlorophyll a can get burnt out by intense sunlight during the summer

18) ______

19) What name is given to a discrete packet of light?

A) quantum B) phaser C) wavelength D) spectrum E) photon

19) ______

20) The shorter the wavelength of visible light, the ______.

A) less energy absorbed by photosynthetic pigments B) greener the color C) redder the color D) greater the energy E) more photons it contains

20) ______

21) When a molecule absorbs a photon, one of its electrons is raised to the ______ state.

A) ground B) higher C) excited D) energetic E) quantum

21) ______

22) Which of the following is a way that a molecule releases energy gained by absorption of a photon?

A) fluorescence B) heat C) light D) loss of an electron E) all of the above

22) ______

23) Where are photosystems located?

A) inner chloroplast membrane B) cristae C) thylakoid membrane

23) ______

D) chlorophyll E) stroma 24) What compound is found at the reaction center of a photosystem?

A) chlorophyll c B) carotenoids C) chlorophyll a D) phycobilins E) chlorophyll b

24) ______

25) The light reactions of photosynthesis take place ______.

A) in the stroma B) in the inner membrane C) in the cytosol D) in the thylakoid membrane E) on the cristae

25) ______

26) ______ is the source of the oxygen gas released by a photosystem.

A) Chlorophyll a B) H2O

26) ______

C) C6H12O6 D) CO2 E) NADPH 27) Which of the following is the source of electrons for the light reactions?

A) H2O B) C6H12O6 C) NADPH D) NADH

27) ______ E) CO2

28) Which of the following is found in both cellular respiration and in the light reactions of photosynthesis?

A) Calvin cycle B) citric acid cycle C) electron transport chain D) lactic acid fermentation E) glycolysis

28) ______

29) In photosynthesis, an H+ ion gradient forms across the ______.

A) outer chloroplast membrane B) thylakoid membrane C) inner chloroplast membrane D) endomembrane E) stromal membrane

29) ______

30) The Calvin cycle makes direct use of ______ to make ______.

A) light energy, CO2, and water . . . sugar and O2

30) ______

B) CO2, ATP, and NADPH . . . sugar C) CO2, ATP, and NADPH . . . sugar and O2 D) light energy and CO2 . . . sugar E) sugar and O2 . . . CO2, NADPH, and ATP 31) C4 plants conserve water by ______.

A) shuttling CO2 from the Calvin cycle to the water-splitting photosystem

31) ______

B) keeping their stomata closed when the weather is hot and dry C) incorporating CO2 into RuBP D) running the Calvin cycle at night E) growing very deep roots 32) CAM plants conserve water by ______.

A) keeping their stomata closed at night B) growing very deep roots C) opening their stomata only at night D) running the Calvin cycle at night E) incorporating CO2 into RuBP

32) ______

33) Refer to the accompanying figure. Plant cells that contain the organelle responsible for photosynthesis are concentrated in cells of the ______.

33) ______

A) grana B) stomata C) roots D) leaves E) chlorophyll 34) Refer to the accompanying figure. Which of the following is true regarding the behavior of a chlorophyll molecule as it absorbs a photon?

34)

___ ___

A) The energy of a photon raises an electron to the excited state.

B) Light is released.

C) Heat is released.

D) ATP is broken down.

E) An electron goes from the excited state to the ground state.

35) Refer to the accompanying figure. Which of the following best describes the direct mechanism of ATP production during photosynthesis?

A) use of the energy generated as hydrogen ions (H+) move up a proton gradient; this energy is used to make ATP B) use of the energy stored in hydrogen ion (H+) gradients; the potential energy of the proton gradient is released as the protons move down their gradient through special membrane protein channels; this energy is converted to chemical bond energy in the ATP molecule C) use of the energy released as excited electrons are passed from one molecule to another in

35) ______

the electron

transport system; the energy is converted to the chemical bond energy of ATP D) conversion of the energy of a photon to the chemical bond energy of ATP E) use of the energy stored in excited electrons; as the electrons move from the excited state to the ground state, the energy released is converted to the energy stored in the third phosphate bond in ATP

Please refer to the accompanying figure to answer the following question(s).

36) How many times must the Calvin cycle turn for the plant cell to be able to produce one molecule of glucose?

A) one B) four C) two D) six E) three

36) ______

37) One of the compounds that is a direct output of the Calvin cycle is ______.

A) NADPH B) C6H12O6 C) ATP D) G3P

37) ______

38) The first step of the Calvin cycle is the incorporation of ______ into ______.

A) G3P . . . RuBP B) O2 . . . G3P

E) O2 38) ______

C) RuBP . . . O2 D) CO2 . . . RuBP E) G3P . . . C6H12O6 39) The last stage of one complete turn of the Calvin cycle involves ______.

A) G3P production B) reduction of CO2 C) regeneration of RuBP D) oxidation of CO2

39) ______

E) sugar production 40) If an herbicide blocked the Calvin cycle before the generation of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P), which of the following statements would be true?

A) No oxygen would be released by the plant.

B) No sugar would be made by the plant.

C) The plant would still be able to make sugar, just a lot less.

D) Only RuBP would be recycled.

E) The plant would need more carbon dioxide.

40) ______

Please use the following information to answer the following question(s).

You work for a company selling tropical rain forest plants commonly found in the understory of the forest. These plants are shade tolerant and can be grown indoors because they require low light. Your employer wants you to find out what is the best type of light to maximize growth of these understory plants. Using a full spectrum of natural light would cause these plants to die because they are a shade-tolerant plant species.

From your biology class, you recall that the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis involve pigment molecules that absorb light of specific wavelengths. You also remember the experiments done by the German biologist Theodor Engelmann, in which he separated light using a prism into different wavelengths and then determined which wavelengths were best for promoting photosynthesis in the algae species he was examining. Your goal is to determine which wavelengths (colors) of light are best for promoting photosynthesis to enhance growth in your species of plant. To achieve this, you grew your plants under different wavelengths of light and measured their growth rates. The wavelengths were measured in nanometers (nm), and the growth rate was measured in millimeters per day (mm/day).

The data you collected are as follows:

Make a bar graph plotting growth rates on the y-axis and wavelengths of light on the x-axis. Referring to your graph, answer the following question(s): 41) Which wavelength is best for your plants’ growth?

A) 550nm B) 400nm C) 500nm

41) ______ D) 750nm

42) Of the following, which wavelength is least useful to your plants?

E) 650nm 42) ______

A) 500nm

B) 550nm

C) 450nm

D) 650nm

E) 400nm

43) Which wavelength of light is the least useful to your plant’s growth?

A) 750nm B) 550nm C) 650nm D) 400nm

E) 500nm

43) ______

44) Why do some plant species require shaded conditions while other plant species require bright sunlight?

A) Some species of plants are consumers and do not need sunlight.

B) Different species of plants have leaves that are shaped differently.

C) All of the above choices are correct.

D) Some species of plants are able to produce sugar without ever having been exposed to sunlight.

E) Different species of plants have different pigment molecules that utilize different wavelengths of light.

44) ______

1) C 2) B 3) B 4) C 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) C 9) D 10) B 11) A 12) C 13) B 14) D 15) B 16) B 17) E 18) D 19) E 20) D 21) C 22) E 23) C 24) C 25) D 26) B 27) A 28) C 29) B 30) B 31) B 32) C 33) D 34) A 35) B 36) D 37) D 38) D 39) C 40) B 41) C 42) B 43) A 44) E

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) DNA is found in structures called ______.

1) _______ A) centrosomes B) histones C) chiasma D) centromeres E) chromosomes 2) A(n) ______ is an example of an organism that can reproduce asexually.

A) cat B) amoeba C) dog D) human

2) _______ E) mouse

3) The chromosomes of eukaryotic cells are found in the ______.

A) Golgi apparatus B) basal body C) nucleus D) nucleolus E) centriole

3) _______

4) Chromatin consists of ______.

A) DNA and protein B) protein only C) RNA and protein D) RNA only E) DNA only

4) _______

5) A duplicated chromosome consists of two ______.

A) sister chromatids B) centromeres C) genomes D) centrosomes E) genes

5) _______

6) Sister chromatids are joined at the ______.

A) centrosome B) centromere C) chromatin D) centriole E) spindle

6) _______

7) Which of the following occurs during interphase?

A) Sister chromatids separate.

B) Chromosome duplication.

C) The mitotic spindle forms.

D) Cytokinesis occurs.

E) Chromatin becomes tightly coiled.

7) _______

8) The cell cycle results in the production of ______.

A) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information B) two cells with different amounts of genetic material

8) _______

C) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information D) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information E) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information 9) Which of the following occurs during prophase?

A) The nuclear envelope forms.

B) Cytokinesis occurs.

C) The mitotic spindle begins to form.

D) Chromosomes line up on the midline of the cell.

E) Sister chromatids separate.

9) _______

10) Which of the following is a stage of mitosis?

A) interphase B) telophase C) meiosis D) cytokinesis E) DNA synthesis

10) ______

11) The correct sequence of stages of mitosis is ______.

A) telophase, prophase, interphase, anaphase, metaphase B) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase C) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase D) anaphase, interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase E) metaphase, prophase, anaphase, telophase

11) ______

12) During metaphase ______.

A) centromeres divide B) cytokinesis occurs C) sister chromatids separate D) the nuclear envelope breaks up E) chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell

12) ______

13) Which of these events occurs during anaphase?

A) The nuclear envelope breaks up.

B) The nuclear envelope reappears.

C) Cytokinesis occurs.

D) Sister chromatids separate.

E) Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.

13) ______

14) During telophase ______.

A) the genetic material doubles B) sister chromatids separate C) the nuclear envelope breaks up D) chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell E) the events of prophase are reversed

14) ______

15) A cell that completed the cell cycle without undergoing cytokinesis would ______.

A) have its chromosomes lined up in the middle of the cell B) have two nuclei C) have less genetic material than it started with

15) ______

D) be a prokaryotic cell E) not have completed anaphase 16) Cytokinesis typically occurs during the ______ stage of mitosis.

A) interphase B) telophase C) prophase D) anaphase E) metaphase

16) ______

17) What is the difference between a benign and a malignant tumor?

A) Benign tumors are composed of cancer cells; malignant tumors are not.

B) Benign tumors do not metastasize; malignant tumors do.

C) Benign tumors do not form lumps; malignant tumors do form lumps.

D) Benign tumors cannot kill you; malignant tumors can.

E) Benign tumors are not the result of a failure of a cell cycle control system; malignant tumors are.

17) ______

18) Which of the following will help prevent cancer and increase survival?

A) Smoke only cigarettes.

B) Limit exercise.

C) Seek early detection of tumors.

D) Eat a low-fiber, low-fat diet.

E) Overexpose skin to the sun.

18) ______

19) Homologous chromosomes ______.

A) include only the autosomes B) include only the sex chromosomes C) carry the same genes D) separate during interphase E) are a set of chromosomes that the cell received from one parent

19) ______

20) What sex chromosomes belong to a normal human male?

A) XXY B) XY C) YO 21) How many autosomes do humans have?

A) 23 B) 46 C) 2

20) ______ D) XX

E) XO 21) ______

D) 44

E) 22

22) Chromosomes that do not determine the sex of an individual are called ______.

A) sister chromatids B) autosomes C) polysomes D) transposons E) centromeres

22) ______

23) Sexual intercourse in humans ______.

A) produces an individual with 23 chromosomes B) allows a haploid sperm cell to fertilize a haploid egg cell C) produces a haploid individual D) combines two diploid gametes, producing a zygote E) prevents genetic disorders

23) ______

24) In meiosis, how does prophase I differ from prophase II? A) In prophase I the sister chromatids are attached; in prophase II the sister chromatids are separated.

B) During prophase I chromosomes line up single file in the middle of the cell; during prophase II the chromosomes line up in double file in the middle of the cell.

C) During prophase I the chromosomes coil up; the chromosomes are not coiled up during prophase II. D) During prophase I there is one diploid cell; during prophase II there are two haploid cells.

E) During prophase I the nuclear envelope breaks up; during prophase II the nuclear envelope remains intact.

24) ______

25) How much genetic material is present in a cell during prophase I compared to a cell that has completed meiosis II? A) twice as much B) one-quarter as much C) four times as much D) one-half as much E) the same amount

25) ______

26) During metaphase I, ______.

A) centrosomes migrate to opposite poles B) the nuclear envelope breaks up C) homologous chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell D) sister chromatids separate and migrate to opposite poles E) crossing over occurs

26) ______

27) Upon completion of telophase I and cytokinesis, there is(are) ______ cell(s).

A) one diploid B) four diploid C) two diploid D) two haploid E) four haploid

27) ______

28) Which of the following is a characteristic seen in prophase I that does not occur in prophase II? A) Chromosomes move to the middle of the cell.

B) Spindle formation occurs.

C) Crossing over occurs.

D) Cytokinesis occurs.

E) Chromosomes have been duplicated.

28) ______

29) Anaphase II is essentially the same as mitotic anaphase except that in anaphase II ______ and in mitotic anaphase ______.

A) the cells are diploid . . . the cells are haploid B) crossing over occurs . . . crossing over does not occur C) cytokinesis occurs . . . cytokinesis does not occur D) chromosomes line up double file in the middle of the cell . . . chromosomes line up single file in the middle of the cell E) the cells are haploid and sister chromatids separate . . . the cells are diploid and sister chromatids separate

29) ______

30) One difference between mitosis and meiosis is ______.

A) mitosis requires only one parent cell, but meiosis requires two parent cells

30) ______

B) mitosis produces haploid cells, but meiosis produces diploid cells C) meiosis is needed for growth and tissue repair, but mitosis is not D) mitosis produces cells genetically identical to the parent cell, but meiosis does not E) mitosis produces more daughter cells than meiosis 31) Genetic variation is accomplished by all but one of the following. Which is it?

A) crossing over B) independent assortment C) random fertilization D) the events of meiosis II E) the events of meiosis I

31) ______

32) Which of the following is the best description of the events of anaphase I? A) Sister chromatids separate; those inherited from the mother migrate to one pole, and those inherited from the father go to the opposite pole.

B) Sister chromatids separate and the daughter chromosomes migrate to opposite poles.

C) Half of the chromosomes inherited from the mother go to one pole along with half of the chromosomes inherited from the father.

D) Homologous chromosomes randomly separate and migrate to opposite poles.

E) All of the chromosomes inherited from the mother go to one pole of the cell, and all of the chromosomes inherited from the father go to the other pole.

32) ______

33) For a species with four pairs of chromosomes, ________ gametic combinations are possible.

A) 2 B) 8 C) 16 D) 4 E) 20

33) ______

34) A ______ describes a site of crossing over.

A) chromatid B) centromeres C) synapse D) histone E) chiasma

34) ______

35) Crossing over during prophase I results in ______.

A) translocation B) nondisjunction C) reciprocal translocation D) genetic recombination E) duplication

35) ______

36) A karyotype (a chromosome display) would be unable to determine ______.

A) Turner syndrome B) eye color C) sex D) Down syndrome E) polyploidy

36) ______

37) How many chromosomes can a gamete possess as a result of nondisjunction?

A) 2n + 1 or 2n - 1 B) n + 1 only C) n + 1 or n - 1 D) 2n - 1 only E) 2n + 1 or n - 1

37) ______

38) How many chromosomes does an individual with Turner syndrome have?

A) n - 1 B) 4n C) 2n - 1 D) n + 1

38) ______ E) 2n + 1

39) Examine the figure below. Nucleosomes are made of ______.

39) ______

A) RNA and protein B) intertwined RNA and DNA C) DNA and nonhistone proteins D) DNA and RNA polymerase E) DNA wrapped around histone proteins 40) As shown in the following figure, plant cell cytokinesis differs from animal cell cytokinesis because ______.

A) animal cells produce more daughter cells B) animal cells form a cell plate and plant cells do not C) plant cells form a cell plate and animal cells do not D) plant cells produce more daughter cells

40) ______

E) plant cells lack the telophase of mitosis 41) This diagram of the human life cycle shows that ______.

A) adult humans are haploid B) a diploid zygote undergoes meiosis to produce an adult human C) meiosis produces haploid sperm and egg cells D) meiosis produces a diploid zygote E) fertilization produces a haploid zygote 42) The following figure shows that ______.

41) ______

42)

A) meiosis forms diploid gametes B) fertilization results in four haploid daughter cells C) the human 2n number is 4 D) meiosis results in the formation of four haploid daughter cells E) telophase I follows cytokinesis 43) The karyotype below shows ______.

___ ___

43)

______ A) abnormal sex chromosomes B) trisomy 21, a cause of Klinefelter syndrome C) Turner syndrome D) nondisjunction E) trisomy 21, a cause of Down syndrome

Please read the following paragraph and answer the following question(s).

Amanda's parents realized that her body was not developing properly about the time she was 12 years old. She was shorter than most of her friends and was not going through changes normally associated with female puberty. They took her to a doctor who initially diagnosed Amanda with Turner Syndrome because of her physical features. He ordered a karyotype that confirmed his diagnosis. Amanda was born with only one X chromosome. Although there is no specific cure, the doctor was able to treat her and correct some of the problems associated with the condition. For example, she received growth hormone to improve her growth and estrogen to help her develop the physical changes of puberty.

44) Amanda's abnormal number of sex chromosomes resulted from ______.

A) nondisjunction B) crossing over C) random fertilization D) independent assortment of chromosomes E) cytokinesis 45) With respect to her sex chromosomes, Amanda would be designated as ______.

A) XO B) XY C) XX D) XYY

44) ______

45) ______ E) XOY

1) E 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) A 6) B 7) B 8) C 9) C 10) B 11) B 12) E 13) D 14) E 15) B 16) B 17) B 18) C 19) C 20) B 21) D 22) B 23) B 24) D 25) C 26) C 27) D 28) C 29) E 30) D 31) D 32) D 33) C 34) E 35) D 36) B 37) C 38) C 39) E 40) C 41) C 42) D 43) E 44) A 45) A

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The best definition of a true-breeding plant is one that ______.

1) _______ A) cannot be cross-fertilized B) becomes sterile after three generations C) self-fertilizes to produce offspring identical to the parent D) produces sterile offspring when cross-fertilized E) self-fertilizes to produce hybrid offspring 2) A mating between a true-breeding purple-flowered pea plant and a true-breeding white-flowered pea plant would produce a(n) ______.

A) inbred organism B) F2 generation

2) _______

C) true-breeding variety D) P generation E) hybrid 3) Alleles are described as ______.

A) Punnett squares B) homologous chromosomes C) environmental factors that affect gene expression D) alternate versions of a gene E) alternate phenotypes

3) _______

4) A true-breeding plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a true-breeding plant that produces green seeds. The seeds of all of the offspring are yellow. Why? A) Yellow is an easier color to produce.

B) The yellow allele is recessive to the green allele.

C) The alleles are codominant.

D) The yellow allele is dominant to the green allele.

E) All of the offspring are homozygous yellow.

4) _______

5) A true-breeding plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a true-breeding plant that produces green seeds. The F1 plants have yellow seeds. What is the expected phenotypic ratio

5) _______

of seed color of the offspring of an F1 × F1 cross?

A) 9:3:3:1

B) 3:1

C) 1:2:1

D) 1:1

E) 2:1

6) According to Mendel's law of segregation, ______.

A) homologous chromosomes move to the same gamete B) two alleles segregate into each gamete C) gametes have one copy of each allele D) more gametes carrying the dominant allele are produced than gametes carrying the recessive allele E) gametes are diploid

6) _______

7) Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What genotypic ratio is expected when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes?

A) 3:1 B) 1:1 C) 2:1 D) 9:3:3:1 E) 1:2:1

7) _______

8) Mendel crossed true-breeding purple-flowered plants with true-breeding white-flowered plants,

an d all of

the 8) resulting offspring produce d purple flowers.

The allele for purple flowers is ______.

__ __ __ _

A) dominant B) independent C) recessive D) segregated E) monohybrid 9) Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What is the probability of having a child with attached earlobes when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes?

A) 50% B) 75% C) 25% D) 0% E) 100%

9) _______

10) In humans, the presence or absence of dimples is a trait controlled by a single gene. What is the genotype of an individual who is heterozygous for dimples?

A) dimples B) Dd C) DI D) dd E) DD

10) ______

11) An individual who is homozygous ______.

A) expresses the dominant trait B) carries two different alleles for a gene C) expresses the recessive trait D) is a carrier of a genetic disorder E) carries two copies of the same allele for a gene

11) ______

12) Which of these crosses will only produce heterozygous offspring?

A) AA × B) AA × aa C) aa × aa D) Aa × Aa Aa

12) ______ E) Aa × aa

13) What name is given to the specific location of a gene on a chromosome?

A) chromaddress B) phenotype C) locus D) allele E) genotype

13) ______

14) Round seeds (R) are dominant to wrinkled seeds (r), and yellow seeds (Y) are dominant to green seeds (y). What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a cross between an RrYy and an rryy individual?

A) 1:2:1 B) 6:5:4:1 C) 9:3:3:1 D) 1:1:1:1 E) 3:1

14) ______

15) An individual with the genotype AaBb produces four different gametes in equal proportions.

This is a demonstration of ______.

15) ______

A) Mendel's law of independent assortment B) crossing over C) linkage D) the chromosomal theory of inheritance E) Mendel's principle of segregation 16) To determine the phenotype of an individual who expresses a dominant trait, you would cross that individual with an individual who ______.

A) has the genotype Aa B) is homozygous recessive for that trait C) is homozygous dominant for that trait D) expresses the dominant trait E) is heterozygous for that trait

16) ______

17) A couple has two female children. What is the probability that their next child will be male?

A) 25% B) 33% C) 75% D) 50% E) 67%

17) ______

18) In humans, free earlobes (E) are dominant to attached earlobes (e) and the presence of freckles (F) is dominant to the absence of freckles (f). If an individual heterozygous for both of these traits were to mate with an individual with attached earlobes and no freckles, what is the probability of having a child with attached earlobes and freckles?

A) 25% B) 75% C) 0% D) 50% E) 100%

18) ______

19) The ______ is most commonly found in nature.

A) wild-type trait B) F1

19) ______

C) parental D) dominant trait E) recessive trait 20) An individual heterozygous for cystic fibrosis ______.

A) cannot have children with cystic fibrosis B) will have children who are all carriers of cystic fibrosis C) is a carrier D) has cystic fibrosis E) cannot reproduce

20) ______

21) Achondroplasia is a form of dwarfism caused by a dominant allele. The homozygous dominant genotype causes death, so individuals who have this condition are all heterozygotes. If a person with achondroplasia mates with a person who does not have achondroplasia, what percentage of their children would be expected to have achondroplasia?

A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% E) 100%

21) ______

22) Which of the following techniques is used to collect fetal cells during pregnancy for genetic testing?

A) testcross B) amniocentesis C) pedigree analysis D) dihybrid cross E) monohybrid cross

22) ______

23) What is the key to the recognition of incomplete dominance?

23) ______

A) The alleles affect more than one trait.

B) The trait exhibits a continuous distribution.

C) The phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the homozygotes.

D) The heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.

E) The dominant allele is always expressed.

24) An individual with (naturally) curly hair and an individual with (naturally) straight hair mate; all of their offspring have (naturally) wavy hair. What is the relationship between the alleles for hair texture?

A) incomplete dominance B) codominance C) straight hair and curly hair are sex-linked, but wavy hair is not D) pleiotropy E) wavy hair is dominant to both straight and curly hair

24) ______

25) An individual with (naturally) curly hair and an individual with (naturally) straight hair mate; all of their offspring have (naturally) wavy hair. If an individual with wavy hair mates with an individual with straight hair, what is the probability that their child will have curly hair?

A) 50% B) 0% C) 75% D) 25% E) 100%

25) ______

26) What is the key to the recognition of codominance?

A) The phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the homozygotes.

B) The alleles affect more than one trait.

C) The dominant allele is not always expressed.

D) The heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.

E) The trait exhibits a continuous distribution.

26) ______

27) An individual with the blood group genotype LMLN has the phenotype MN. What is the relationship between the LM and LN alleles?

27) ______

A) LN is dominant B) pleiotropy C) incomplete dominance D) codominance E) LM is dominant 28) Marfan syndrome is the result of inheriting a single allele. Individuals with Marfan syndrome are tall and long-limbed, and have both cardiovascular and eye defects. The inheritance of Marfan syndrome is an example of ______.

A) incomplete dominance B) pleiotropy C) codominance D) a recessive disorder E) gene linkage

28) ______

29) What is the key to the recognition of a trait whose expression is determined by the effects of two or more genes (polygenic inheritance)?

A) The trait varies along a continuum in the population.

B) A mating between a homozygous and a heterozygous individual produces more than the expected number of offspring expressing the dominant trait.

C) A mating between a homozygous recessive and a heterozygous individual produces offspring who all have the same phenotype.

D) Pleiotropy occurs.

29) ______

E) All of the alleles of the gene for that trait are equally expressed.

30) In humans, the inheritance of ______ is best explained as being polygenic.

A) height B) sickle-cell disease C) Huntington's disease D) cystic fibrosis E) blood type

30) ______

31) Many human traits, such as our performance on intelligence tests or our susceptibility to heart disease, are ______.

A) determined by genes in some people and by the environment in other people B) not affected by our genes C) influenced by both genes and the environment D) determined only by our genes E) determined only by our environment

31) ______

32) What is the basis of Mendel's laws?

A) the behavior of chromosomes during mitotic prophase B) the behavior of chromosomes during mitotic anaphase C) the behavior of chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis only D) the behavior of chromosomes during prophase I and prophase II of meiosis E) the behavior of chromosomes during metaphase I and anaphase I of meiosis

32) ______

33) ______ genes violate Mendel's principle of independent assortment.

A) Codominant B) Dominant C) Linked D) Pleiotropic E) Recessive

33) ______

34) What is the best explanation for a BbCc × bbcc cross producing offspring in a 5:5:1:1 phenotypic ratio?

A) linked genes B) polygenic inheritance C) Mendel's principles of segregation and independent assortment D) codominance E) incomplete dominance

34) ______

35) A dihybrid cross produces 30 recombinant offspring out of a total of 1,000 offspring. What is the recombination frequency of the two gene pairs?

A) 1.5% B) 3% C) 0.5% D) 6% E) 30%

35) ______

36) The recombination frequency between gene B and gene C is 11%. The recombination frequency between gene B and gene D is 5%. The recombination frequency between gene C and gene D is 15%. What would be the arrangement of these genes on a linkage map?

A) CDB B) DBC C) DCB D) BCD E) More information is needed.

36) ______

37) Chromosomes that are not sex chromosomes are called ______.

A) dominant B) allosomes C) autosomes D) centrosomes E) nonsexosomes

37) ______

38) Assume that having three nostrils is inherited as a sex-linked trait on the Y chromosome. A man with three nostrils has a daughter who has a son with a man who has only two nostrils. What is the probability that the three-nostriled man's grandson has three nostrils?

A) 0% B) 25% C) 100% D) 75% E) 50%

38) ______

39) Red-green color blindness is inherited as a sex-linked recessive trait. The gene is found on the X chromosome. How can a man with normal color vision father a daughter who is red-green color-blind?

A) The woman with whom he mates is red-green color-blind.

B) He can't (unless there is a mutation).

C) The man's mother carries an allele for red-green color blindness, and the expression of the trait skipped a generation.

D) Though he has normal color vision, the man is actually homozygous for red-green color blindness.

E) The man is heterozygous for red-green color blindness.

39) ______

40) Hypophosphatemia (vitamin D-resistant rickets) is inherited as an sex-linked dominant trait.

The relevant gene is found on the X chromosome. What is the expected outcome of a cross between a homozygous recessive woman and a man with hypophosphatemia?

A) Seventy-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.

B) All of their sons and none of their daughters exhibit hypophosphatemia.

C) All of their daughters and none of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.

D) Fifty percent of their daughters and fifty percent of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.

E) Twenty-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.

40) ______

Please refer to the following art to answer the following question(s).

41) In the accompanying art you see a table with the actual number of offspring that resulted from a dihybrid cross. The numbers do not show the 9:3:3:1 ratio predicted. One phenotype occurred more than predicted; another occurred less. The reason could be because ______.

A) some of the alleles were sex-linked B) of heritable variation C) some of the alleles were linked D) of errors in mitosis E) of polygenic inheritance

41) ______

42) Recombinant offspring were produced by the mating shown in the accompanying art. What is the recombination frequency of purple round and red long offspring?

A) 11% B) 3:1 C) 21 + 21 D) 21% E) 381

42) ______

Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Widow's peak, a pointed hairline on the forehead, is a genetic trait caused by a dominant allele. It can be traced back through a family's history using pedigree analysis. The pedigree shown here shows three generations of a family. Notice that some individuals (shown in gray) have a widow's peak (W = dominant allele and w = recessive allele).

43) Mary has the genotype ______.

A) WW B) WWW C) Ww D) ww E) more information is needed.

43) ______

44) Janice's genotype is _______.

A) ww B) WW C) Ww or ww D) WW or Ww E) Ww

44) ______

45) This pedigree supports the fact that widow's peak is due to a dominant allele, because if it were due to a recessive allele and both parents show the recessive phenotype, then ______.

A) all of the sons and none of the daughters would have a widow's peak B) all of the offspring would have a widow's peak C) none of the sons would have a widow's peak D) all of the daughters and none of the sons would have a widow's peak E) none of the daughters would have a widow's peak

45) ______

Please read the following scenario to answer the following question.

The parents of a child with unusual disease symptoms take the child to a doctor for help. The doctor suspects that the condition might have a genetic basis. She recommends that the child be taken to a specialty clinic where physicians and staff members are trained to diagnose genetic diseases and counsel parents. Ultimately, the child is diagnosed with a rare recessively inherited disease. The parents are tested for the gene, and both are found to be heterozygous. The parents want to have another child but are afraid this child will also be affected.

46) What would genetic counselors say is the probability that the second child will have the disease?

A) 1/32 B) 1/2 C) 1/16 D) 1/4 E) 1/8

46) ______

1) C 2) E 3) D 4) D 5) B 6) C 7) B 8) A 9) A 10) B 11) E 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) A 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) C 21) C 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) D 27) D 28) B 29) A 30) A 31) C 32) E 33) C 34) A 35) B 36) B 37) C 38) A 39) B 40) C 41) C 42) A 43) C 44) C 45) B 46) D

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) DNA and RNA are polymers composed of ______ monomers.

1) _______ A) amino acid B) carbohydrate C) fatty acid D) protein E) nucleotide 2) The backbone of DNA consists of ______.

A) a repeating ACTGACTG pattern B) a repeating sugar-nucleotide-sugar-nucleotide pattern C) a repeating sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate pattern D) paired nucleotides E) nitrogenous bases

2) _______

3) The DNA double helix is ______.

A) a puzzle to geneticists B) composed of adenine and guanine C) composed of adenine and thymine D) made up of two polynucleotide strands E) composed of two chromosomes

3) _______

4) RNA contains the nitrogenous base ______ instead of ______, which is only found in DNA. A) adenine . . . guanine B) uracil . . . thymine C) cytosine . . . guanine D) nucleotides . . . nucleic acids E) a deoxyribose sugar . . . a ribose sugar

4) _______

5) If adenine makes up 20% of the bases in a DNA double helix, what percent of the bases are guanine?

A) 30% B) 40% C) 80% D) 60% E) 20%

5) _______

6) In a DNA double helix, adenine pairs with ______ and guanine pairs with ______.

A) thymine . . . cytosine B) uracil . . . cytosine C) cytosine . . . thymine D) cytosine . . . uracil E) guanine . . . adenine

6) _______

7) If one strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence GTCCAT, what is the sequence of the other strand?

A) CAGGTA B) CAGGUA C) CUGGTU D) TGAACG E) ACTTGC

7) _______

8) Who discovered the structure of DNA? A) Franklin B) Hershey and Chase C) Watson and Crick D) Pauling

8) _______

E) Chase 9) Evidence for the spiral nature of DNA came from ______.

A) X-ray crystallography studies B) studies of disease-causing bacteria C) bacteriophage studies D) base rule studies E) transforming studies

9) _______

10) What type of chemical bond joins the bases of complementary DNA strands?

A) ionic B) hydrophilic C) hydrogen D) covalent E) hydrophobic

10) ______

11) After replication, ______.

A) each new DNA double helix consists of two old strands B) each new DNA double helix consists of two new strands C) each new DNA double helix consists of one old strand and one new strand D) each new DNA double helix contains 25% of the old DNA double helix E) one new DNA double helix consists of two old strands and the other new DNA double helix consists of two new strands

11) ______

12) During replication, ______ are the enzymes responsible for joining the nucleotides of a new DNA strand together.

A) DNA ligases B) DNA helicases C) DNases D) DNA gyrases E) DNA polymerases

12) ______

13) The modern phrasing of Beadle and Tatum's hypothesis about relationships between genes and their products is "one gene-one ______."

A) polypeptide B) enzyme C) RNA D) protein E) nucleotide

13) ______

14) What name is given to the collection of traits exhibited by an organism?

A) genotype B) phenotype C) holotype D) morphology E) typology

14) ______

15) How many amino acids are common to all living systems?

A) 10 B) 20 C) 30

D) 100

E) 1000

15) ______

16) How many nucleotides make up a codon?

A) one B) two C) three

D) four

E) five

16) ______

17) The shared genetic code of all life on Earth is evidence that ______.

A) life was created by a deity B) the genetic code arose relatively late in the history of life on Earth C) bacterial cells arose earlier than eukaryotic cells D) all life shares a common ancestry E) DNA replication is error-free

17) ______

18) Transcription is the ______.

A) manufacture of a new strand of DNA complementary to an old strand of DNA B) manufacture of a strand of RNA complementary to a strand of DNA C) manufacture of two new DNA double helices that are identical to an old DNA double helix D) modification of a strand of RNA prior to the manufacture of a protein E) manufacture of a protein based on information carried by RNA

18) ______

19) If a strand of DNA has the sequence AAGCTC, transcription will result in a(n) ______.

A) single DNA strand with the sequence TTCGAG B) single RNA strand with the sequence TTCGAG C) RNA double helix with the sequence UUCGAG for one strand and AAGCUC for the complimentary strand D) DNA double helix with the sequence AAGCTC for one strand and TTCGAG for the complementary strand E) single RNA strand with the sequence UUCGAG

19) ______

20) Which of the following enzymes is responsible for RNA synthesis?

A) RNA polymerase B) RNA ligase C) RNA gyrase D) RNA helicase E) RNase

20) ______

21) The region of DNA where RNA synthesis begins is the ______.

A) terminator B) start codon C) processor D) initiator E) promoter

21) ______

22) The correct sequence of events occurring during transcription is ______.

A) elongation, initiation, termination B) capping, tailing, splicing C) initiation, elongation, termination D) tailing, capping, splicing E) splicing, capping, tailing

22) ______

23) The absence of a terminator in transcription will result in ______.

A) the production of a shorter RNA molecule B) a strand of mRNA that lacks its cap and tail C) the production of a longer RNA molecule D) the creation of a virus E) the production of a more efficient protein

23) ______

24) What protects mRNA from attack by cellular enzymes?

A) a cap and tail B) RNA splicing C) the removal of exons D) the lack of RNA-digesting enzymes in the cytoplasm E) the removal of introns 25) The expressed (coding) regions of eukaryotic genes are called ______.

A) introns B) exons C) tails D) caps

24) ______

25) ______ E) promoters

26) Translation converts the information stored in ______ to ______.

A) DNA . . . RNA B) DNA . . . a polypeptide C) RNA . . . DNA D) RNA . . . a polypeptide E) protein . . . DNA

26) ______

27) The RNA that is translated into a polypeptide is ______ RNA. A) nuclear B) ribosomal C) nucleolar D) messenger

27) ______ E) transfer

28) The DNA codon AGT codes for an amino acid carried by a tRNA with the anticodon ______.

A) UCA B) AGT C) TCU D) TCA E) AGU

28) ______

29) Where is translation accomplished?

A) nucleoli B) ribosomes C) lysosomes D) peroxisomes E) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

29) ______

30) What is the correct order of the stages of translation?

A) initiation, codon recognition, translocation, peptide bond formation, termination B) initiation, peptide bond formation, translocation, codon recognition, termination C) initiation, peptide bond formation, codon recognition, translocation, termination D) initiation, codon recognition, peptide bond formation, translocation, termination E) initiation, translocation, codon recognition, peptide bond formation, termination

30) ______

31) Peptide bonds form between ______.

A) a tRNA and the amino acid it is carrying B) the small ribosomal subunit and the large ribosomal subunit C) amino acids D) an mRNA codon and a tRNA anticodon E) an mRNA transcript and the small ribosomal subunit

31) ______

32) A mutation within a gene that will insert a premature stop codon in mRNA would ______.

A) result in a missense mutation B) have the same effect as deleting a single nucleotide in the gene C) result in a polypeptide that is one amino acid shorter than the one produced prior to the mutation D) result in a shortened polypeptide chain E) change the location at which transcription of the next gene begins

32) ______

33) What is the smallest number of nucleotides that must be added or subtracted to change the triplet grouping of the genetic message?

A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five

33) ______

34) What is the ultimate source of all diversity?

A) natural selection B) sexual recombination C) meiosis D) crossing over E) mutation

34) ______

35) Viruses that infect bacteria are ______.

A) retroviruses B) bacteriophages C) proviruses D) emerging viruses E) enveloped viruses

35) ______

36) How can bacteriophage DNA be spread from cell to cell without causing cell death?

A) by altering its DNA B) by altering the way a cell splices its RNA C) via a lytic cycle D) via a lysogenic cycle E) via a Calvin cycle

36) ______

37) Plant viruses ______.

A) primarily target healthy plants B) do not exist–viruses only attack animals C) benefit plants, rather than causing disease D) often use RNA, rather than DNA, as their genetic material E) cause diseases that can be easily cured

37) ______

38) A(n) ______ is to bacteria as a ______ is to animal cells.

A) provirus . . . phage B) retrovirus . . . virus C) phage . . . prophage D) RNA virus . . . DNA virus E) prophage . . . provirus

38) ______

39) HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) must use its own ______ to reproduce.

A) tRNA B) RIBOSOMES C) reverse transcriptase D) RNA polymerase E) DNA polymerase

39) ______

40) The figure below shows the flow of genetic information in a eukaryotic cell. The transfer of information from DNA into an RNA molecule is known as ______.

40)

A) polypeptide B) translation C) a gene D) transcription E) DNA replication 41) Examine the genetic code table, shown below. The codon AGC codes for the amino acid ______.

___ ___

41)

A) serine

___ ___

B) alanine

C) glycine

D) arginine

E) threonine

42) Consider the following figure. It indicates that a single amino acid substitution ______.

42) ______

A) may alter a protein so that it no longer functions properly B) causes a nonsense mutation C) prevents codon recognition D) is a silent mutation E) always involves adenine and uracil Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

If you were asked to study the pattern of bacterial growth (increase in numbers over time) during an infection, you would find that numbers of bacteria increase exponentially up to a certain point. Assume that you have been asked to interpret

the growth of bacteriophages. You infect the host bacteria and measure the increase of phages over a defined period of time. You plot the results and get the graph shown here.

43) The first thing you notice is that there is no immediate increase in viruses following infection.

This is because ______.

A) the virus is in a lysogenic cycle throughout the experiment B) although the virus has infected the host, it takes time to complete the lytic cycle C) the virus cannot infect the host D) the host is immune to the virus E) it takes the virus time to adapt to the host

43) ______

44) Once viruses are detected, the number of viruses increases rapidly. This is because ______.

A) the viruses lyse the hosts to release mature viruses all at once B) lysogeny produces large numbers of bacteriophages C) DNA viruses reproduce more rapidly than RNA viruses D) the host cell speeds the release process E) bacterial viruses are released slowly from the host cells

44) ______

Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

While working with cultured mouse cells, a researcher unknowingly treated the cells with a mutagen that causes the deletion or insertion of individual nucleotides in DNA. Subsequently, she isolated and cultured a single cell from this group. She noticed that the progeny of this cell were not producing a certain protein and that this affected their survival.

45) The mutation that resulted from her accident was probably ______.

A) caused by a protein-RNA complex B) an amino acid substitution C) a loss in regulation of gene expression D) one that changed the triplet grouping of the genetic message

45) ______

E) an error in translation 46) The mutation would be most harmful to the cells if it resulted in ______.

A) substitution of a base pair B) a single nucleotide deletion near the end of the coding sequence C) a single nucleotide insertion near the start of the coding sequence D) a single nucleotide in the middle of an intron E) deletion of a triplet near the middle of the gene

46) ______

1) E 2) C 3) D 4) B 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) C 9) A 10) C 11) C 12) E 13) A 14) B 15) B 16) C 17) D 18) B 19) E 20) A 21) E 22) C 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) D 27) D 28) E 29) B 30) D 31) C 32) D 33) A 34) E 35) B 36) D 37) D 38) E 39) C 40) D 41) A 42) A 43) B 44) A 45) D 46) C

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) At one point, you were just an undifferentiated, single cell. You are now made of many cells; 1) _______ some of these cells function as liver cells, some as muscle cells, some as red blood cells, while others play different roles. What name is given to the process that is responsible for this?

A) morphology B) regeneration C) carcinogenesis D) cleavage E) cellular differentiation 2) The process by which genotype becomes expressed as phenotype is ______.

A) phenogenesis B) transcription C) gene expression D) cleavage E) recombination

2) _______

3) In bacteria, what name is given to a cluster of genes with related functions, along with their control sequences?

A) operon B) promoter C) exon D) regulatory gene E) activator

3) _______

4) Bacterial RNA polymerase binds to the ______.

A) proto-oncogene B) promoter C) regulatory gene D) operator E) exon

4) _______

5) In prokaryotes, the production of a single RNA transcript for a group of related genes is under the control of the ______.

A) master control gene B) allele C) signal transduction pathway D) operon E) homeobox

5) _______

6) In an operon, the ______ acts as an on/off switch.

A) operator B) repressor C) regulatory gene D) promoter E) activator

6) _______

7) Which of the following turns off transcription by binding to the operator?

A) lactose

7) _______

B) repressors C) promoters D) enzymes E) RNA polymerase 8) Repressors act by blocking the binding of _____ to the operator.

A) promoters B) DNA polymerase C) the operon D) RNA polymerase E) regulatory genes

8) _______

9) What would you assume if you found RNA transcripts of lactose-utilizing genes within E. coli?

A) the binding of lactose to the lac operon activator B) the absence of amino acids C) the presence of lactose D) the absence of lac operon repressor protein E) the presence of lac operon activator protein

9) _______

10) While examining a human cell that functions normally, you determine that it has 45 functional chromosomes and one chromosome that is almost completely inactive. You immediately decide that it is very likely that this cell ______.

A) came from a normal human female B) is a red blood cell C) will become cancerous if one or two more genes are mutated D) is a gamete E) is lacking a chromosome

10) ______

11) What is the first level of control of eukaryotic gene transcription?

A) attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter B) DNA packing and unpacking C) the binding and unbinding of transcription factors to silencer sequences D) RNA splicing E) the binding and unbinding of transcription factors to enhancer sequences

11) ______

12) Male tortoiseshell cats ______.

A) have orange and black patches of fur that reflect the pattern of X chromosome inactivation B) can only be produced by the mating of a female tortoiseshell cat with another male tortoiseshell cat C) are likely to be exceedingly rare and very likely to be sterile since normal male cats are XY D) do not have an X chromosome E) are usually XYY individuals

12) ______

13) Which of these plays a role in the regulation of transcription in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

A) gene operons B) transcription factors C) enhancer sequences D) RNA splicing E) attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter

13) ______

14) In eukaryotic cells, repressor proteins inhibit transcription by binding to ______.

14) ______

A) silencers

B) operons

C) enhancers

D) operators

E) regulators

15) Introns are ______.

A) the product of RNA splicing B) DNA sequences to which activators bind C) expressed DNA sequences D) noncoding DNA sequences E) DNA sequences to which silencers bind

15) ______

16) Which of these is a type of post-transcriptional regulation of gene expression?

A) alteration of DNA nucleotide sequences B) binding of transcription factors to enhancers C) disassociation of ribosomal components D) alteration of proteins E) inactivation of tRNA

16) ______

17) How can a single RNA transcript be translated into different polypeptides?

A) It does so by varying the rate at which it is broken down in the cytoplasm.

B) There is more than one way to modify the coded polypeptide.

C) It does so by varying the length of its tail.

D) Two different genes can produce the same RNA transcript, which will then be translated differently.

E) There is more than one way to splice an RNA transcript.

17) ______

18) Cells communicate with one another via ______.

A) RNA splicing B) signal transduction pathways C) the diffusion of RNA transcripts through adhesion junctions D) cascades of gene activation E) sound

18) ______

19) Which of these techniques could tell you how gene expression differs between individuals with and without cystic fibrosis?

A) X-ray crystallography B) DNA microarray C) karyotyping D) CVS E) amniocentesis

19) ______

20) How is it that the cells in different body tissues are able to perform different functions?

A) The nutrient preferences of particular tissues play a role.

B) The cells contain different genes.

C) The cells exhibit different patterns of gene expression.

D) The mutations that have accumulated in the cells of the different tissues control functions.

E) The age of the cells making up the tissues plays a role.

20) ______

21) To make a clone a genetically identical organism from a mammalian cell, the cell must ______.

A) be dedifferentiated B) come from an early stage of embryonic development C) be enucleated D) be implanted in the egg of an organism that is capable of regenerating lost body parts E) reacquire the genes it lost during the course of development

21) ______

22) Possible uses of reproductive cloning include ______.

A) the production of genetically identical animals for experimentation B) the production of potentially valuable drugs C) restocking populations of endangered animals D) the production of organs in pigs for transplant into humans E) all of the above.

22) ______

23) What is a difference between embryonic and adult stem cells?

A) Embryonic stem cells are harder to isolate than are adult stem cells.

B) The use of embryonic stem cells raises fewer ethical issues than the use of adult stem cells.

C) Embryonic stem cells are undifferentiated; adult stem cells are partially differentiated.

D) Adult stem cells are easier to grow in culture.

E) It is easier to enucleate embryonic stem cells.

23) ______

24) What name is given to a gene that causes cancer?

A) pathogene B) regulatory gene C) homeotic gene D) oncogene E) cancogene

24) ______

25) Many proto-oncogenes regulate ______.

A) cell suicide B) transcription of RNA polymerase C) cell division D) cell repair E) cell growth

25) ______

26) Inheritance of certain genes increases the risk of getting certain cancers; thus, it can be said that ______.

A) (for these individuals) lifestyle will have little impact on cancer risk B) mutations that occur in somatic cells can be passed from parent to offspring C) these cancers are inherited as a dominant trait D) predisposition to these cancers is inherited E) most cancers are inherited

26) ______

27) Data suggest that the normal version of BRCA1 functions as a(n) ______.

A) enhancer B) silencer C) tumor-suppressor gene D) proto-oncogene E) oncogene

27) ______

28) One of the most potent environmental carcinogens is ______.

A) viruses B) UV radiation C) alcohol D) table salt E) dietary fat

28) ______

29) ______ is(are) responsible for more cancers than any other carcinogen.

29) ______

A) Inheritance of a mutated ras gene B) X-rays C) Asbestos D) UV radiation E) Tobacco 30) More people die of ______ cancer than of any other cancer.

A) breast B) pancreatic C) cervical

30) ______ D) skin

E) lung

31) Which of these lifestyle choices will increase cancer risk?

A) jogging B) a diet high in plant fiber C) eating more foods such as cabbage and cauliflower D) a diet high in animal fat E) quitting smoking

31) ______

32) The "master control genes" that regulate other genes, which determine what body parts will develop in which locations, are called ______.

A) tumor suppressor genes B) enhancers C) oncogenes D) homeotic genes E) operons

32) ______

33) Which of these is most likely to cause the development of a six-legged frog?

A) artificial selection B) mutation of homeotic genes C) dietary supplementation D) conversion of a proto-oncogene to an oncogene E) mutation of tumor-suppressor genes

33) ______

34) Developmental similarities among very different animals, such as fruit flies and mice, can be attributed to ______.

A) similar anatomical structures B) similar nutritional needs C) similar gene operons D) shared homeoboxes E) similar prenatal environments

34) ______

35) Homeoboxes ______.

A) are an example of convergent evolution B) have very different sequences in plant cells as compared to animal cells C) regulate gene expression in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells D) are evidence of the common ancestry of eukaryotic organisms E) play a role in fine-tuning anatomical development

35) ______

36) Examine the figure below. The initiation of transcription requires that enhancers bind to _____.

36)

___ ___

A) the promoter B) RNA polymerase C) transcription factors D) bends in DNA E) DNA 37) The figure below illustrates ______.

A) microRNAs B) alternative RNA splicing C) protein activation D) activators E) transcription factors

37) ______

38) The lac operon is shown in the accompanying figure. Answer the following question after reviewing the figure. The lac operon is usually in the ______ position and is activated by ______.

38) ______

A) on . . . the promoter B) off . . . the repressor C) off . . . lactose D) on . . . the repressor E) on . . . the repressor 39) Consider the following figure, which outlines cloning by nuclear transplantation. Why does the clone not resemble the surrogate mother?

A) The clone would exhibit characteristics of the genetic donor, not the surrogate.

39) ______

B) The sperm came from a male donor, which would influence the clone.

C) The embryonic cells are adversely influenced by the surrogate.

D) The technique does not work in sheep.

E) The nuclear material from the egg would influence the clone.

40) Examine the figure below. In a typical colon cancer, the first step is ______.

40) ______

A) the conversion of an oncogene to a tumor-suppressor gene B) the inactivation of a tumor-suppressor gene C) the activation of a tumor-suppressor gene D) the mutation of a tumor-suppressor gene, producing an oncogene E) the mutation of a proto-oncogene, producing an oncogene Please read the paragraph below to answer the following question(s).

Jim has become particularly interested in the genetic basis of cancer and has spent considerable time reading published papers about oncogenes. He learned that as early as 1972 researchers suggested that mutations in proto-oncogenes caused by carcinogens can convert them to oncogenes. He asked you to answer a couple of questions about this because he did not have the biology background to totally understand.

41) Jim learned that some cancer cells produce more growth-stimultaing proteins than others. What would you give him as a plausible explanation?

A) Mutations in homeotic genes may be responsible.

B) These cells may contain multiple copies of the oncogene, resulting in overproduction of the growth-stimulating protein.

C) This may result from vitamin C and vitamin E deficiencies.

D) The oncogene may be nonfunctional.

E) Tumor suppresor genes may have been activated in these cells.

41) ______

42) Jim learned that viruses can sometimes cause cancer and wants to know why. You tell him that ______.

A) a human cell can acquire a proto-oncogene from a virus B) viruses can secrete hyperactive growth-stimulating proteins C) a human cell can acquire a tumor-suppressor gene from a virus D) some viruses are passed from mother to child and cause "inherited" cancers E) a human cell can acquire an oncogene from a virus.

42) ______

1) E 2) C 3) A 4) B 5) D 6) A 7) B 8) D 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) C 13) E 14) A 15) D 16) D 17) E 18) B 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) E 23) C 24) D 25) C 26) D 27) C 28) B 29) E 30) E 31) D 32) D 33) B 34) D 35) D 36) C 37) B 38) C 39) A 40) E 41) B 42) E

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following is the best definition for recombinant DNA? 1) _______ A) DNA that carries genes from two different sources B) an alternate form of DNA that is the product of a mutation C) DNA that is produced as a result of crossing over D) DNA that carries a translocation E) DNA that results from bacterial conjugation 2) Which of these is a genetically modified organism?

A) a cloned organism carrying two different alleles B) an organism carrying a gene that was acquired by artificial means C) the first organism in which a particular mutation has appeared D) an organism that gestated in an artificial womb E) an organism carrying genes from two different parents

2) _______

3) Which of the following best defines the term transgenic animal?

A) an animal containing genes from three or more species B) an animal in which a genetic defect has been corrected using recombinant DNA therapy C) an animal containing a gene from a another species D) an animal containing genes from both its parents E) an animal that is the first of its kind to bear a particular allele

3) _______

4) The world's first genetically engineered pharmaceutical product was ______.

A) humulin B) SCID C) HGH D) CF

4) _______ E) RFLP

5) A vaccine works by ______.

A) inhibiting bacterial reproduction B) stimulating the immune system to develop lasting defenses C) killing cells infected with a virus D) preventing translation of mRNA molecules that code for disease-causing proteins E) providing a temporary immunity to a pathogen

5) _______

6) Transgenic animals are currently used ______.

A) to obtain plasmids B) as vectors for use in cloning human DNA C) as food D) to produce potentially useful proteins E) all of the above

6) _______

7) Which of these can act as a vector to introduce new genes into a cell?

A) GM B) plasmids C) clones D) humulin 8) Of these steps, which occurs first in the production of a recombinant plasmid?

A) isolation of a plasmid from a bacterium B) application of a restriction enzyme to a plasmid C) construction of a genomic library D) cloning E) recombination

7) _______ E) PCR 8) _______

9) Of these steps, which one occurs earliest in the process of producing recombinant DNA? A) Human DNA fragments are mixed with the cut plasmids.

B) The same restriction enzyme is used to isolate the gene of interest and to cut the plasmid DNA. C) The recombinant plasmids are mixed with bacteria.

D) Bacteria bearing the plasmid of interest are treated with antibiotics.

E) Bacteria carrying recombinant plasmids are cloned.

9) _______

10) When plasmids are used to produce a desired protein, the ______.

A) plasmids are inserted into the main bacterial chromosome B) bacterial chromosome is genetically engineered and the plasmid is used to help the bacterium replicate C) bacterial genome and plasmid are inserted into the genome of the cell containing the desired gene (perhaps the cell of a plant or animal) D) plasmids multiply and produce the protein outside of the bacterium E) desired gene is inserted into the plasmid and the plasmid is taken up by the bacterium

10) ______

11) The process of making multiple copies of a gene by inserting it into a host genome and culturing the host is an example of ______.

A) gene magnification B) gene pharming C) gene cloning D) gene amplification E) industrial genetic engineering

11) ______

12) A collection of cloned recombinant plasmids that includes fragments from the entire genome of a cell is called a ______.

A) clone collection B) genomic library C) shotgun D) gene repository E) phenotypic library

12) ______

13) Nucleic acid probes are used to ______.

A) find a specific nucleotide sequence B) destroy clones that do not carry the recombinant plasmid of interest C) create sticky ends D) synthesize a DNA strand complementary to a sticky end E) isolate bacterial genes

13) ______

14) Restriction enzymes are obtained from ______.

A) eukaryotes B) bacteria C) retroviruses D) archaea E) DNA viruses

14) ______

15) "Sticky ends" are produced as a result of the action of ______.

A) humulin B) a clone C) DNA ligase D) genomics

15) ______

E) a restriction enzyme 16) "Sticky ends" are ______.

A) the site on chromosomes where the centromere is found B) single-stranded ends of fragments of double-stranded DNA C) telomeres D) regions of double-stranded DNA that can be cut by a restriction enzyme E) the only regions of chromosomes where homeotic genes are found

16) ______

17) A DNA fragment with a sticky end that reads -ATTCG will bind with another DNA fragment with a sticky end that reads ______.

A) TAAGCB) CGGATC) UAAGCD) ATTGCE) GCCTA-

17) ______

18) Which enzyme is used to bind DNA fragments together?

A) telomerase B) DNA polymerase C) humulin D) DNA ligase E) restriction enzyme

18) ______

19) Of the following, which is the last step in the production of a recombinant DNA plasmid?

A) cloning B) allowing the reproduction of the bacterium bearing the recombinant plasmid C) transduction D) isolating the gene of interest E) using DNA ligase to join DNA fragments

19) ______

20) You are attempting to link an individual to a crime. The only evidence you have is a tiny drop of blood. How can you use this drop of blood to make the association?

A) You can use PCR to increase the amount of DNA available for restriction fragment analysis.

B) You can use the sample to determine the individual's ABO blood group.

C) You can use gel electrophoresis to determine the length of the DNA found in the sample.

D) You can use the sample to check for the presence of the Rhesus factor.

E) There is insufficient material to identify the criminal.

20) ______

21) What name is given to a region of DNA that varies from person to person?

A) genetic marker B) monoDNA C) codon D) restriction fragment E) genetic probe

21) ______

22) Cutting DNA with a particular restriction enzyme produces DNA fragments that can be separated by ______.

A) plasmids B) a genomic library C) recombinant DNA D) enzymes E) gel electrophoresis

22) ______

23) To make restriction fragments, a DNA sample is treated with ______.

A) DNA polymerase

23) ______

B) gel electrophoresis C) PCR D) restriction enzymes E) DNA ligase 24) Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments on the basis of differences in their ______.

A) A:C ratio B) pH C) length D) G:T ratio E) degree of hydration

24) ______

25) The scientific field that studies whole genomes is called ______.

A) proteomics B) genomics C) molecular biology D) recombinant DNA E) genetic engineering

25) ______

26) The human genome contains approximately ______ genes.

A) 2,000-3,000 B) 50,000-60,000 C) 21,000 D) 500 E) 1,000-2,000

26) ______

27) Approximately what percentage of the human genome consists of noncoding DNA? A) 67% B) 98% C) 77% D) 57% E) 87%

27) ______

28) The Human Genome Project has the potential to ______.

A) lead to treatments for contagious diseases B) aid in solving crimes C) lead to treatments for inherited diseases D) increase our understanding of the historical relationships among species E) play a role in all of the choices listed here

28) ______

29) In the future, scientists hope to be able to compare whole genomes of individuals, a new field called ______.

A) ultra-comparison B) RCLP C) comparative genomics D) workup genetics E) DNA sequencing

29) ______

30) Which of these statements can be logically inferred from the amount of DNA shared by chimpanzees and humans?

A) Humans and chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor.

B) Humans are unique and different from all other life forms.

C) Humans have many more genes than chimpanzees do.

D) Humans evolved from chimpanzees.

E) Humans are a more complex life form than chimpanzees.

30) ______

31) To find the nucleotide sequence of human chromosomes, chromosomes had to be digested into small fragments and then ______.

A) fingerprinted B) cloned and sequenced C) restricted D) centrifuged and electrophoresed E) attached end to end

31) ______

32) What technique is most commonly used to sequence entire genomes?

A) the plasmid approach B) the genetic marker approach C) the nucleic acid probe approach D) the whole-genome shotgun approach E) linkage mapping

32) ______

33) The study of the full protein sets that genomes encode is _____.

A) gene therapy B) genomics C) gene cloning D) transgenics E) proteomics

33) ______

34) Genetically modifying human ______ cells may directly affect future generations.

A) pancreatic B) somatic C) gametic D) immune

34) ______ E) intestinal

35) Ethical dilemmas raised by DNA technology and knowledge of the human genome include ______.

A) the safety of GM foods B) the potential discrimination against people predisposed to certain diseases C) the potential for interfering in evolution D) the appropriateness of creating new plants, animals, and microorganisms E) all of the above

35) ______

36) The possibility that Mongolian ruler Genghis Khan spread an unusual chromosome to nearly 16 million men living today resulted from studies of _____.

A) the Y chromosome B) proteomics C) cDNA D) the X chromosome E) gene therapy

36) ______

37) The following figure provides you with an overview of recombinant technology. The end result is a transgenic bacterium with a human gene that codes for marketable quantities of a human gene product. However, molecular biologists frequently have problems with the product. One problem might be ______.

37)

___ ___

A) production of a human protein that is unable to function properly.

B) formation of mutants C) formation of a product that is not sensitive to proteolytic enzymes D) a bacterium with DNA that is resistant to restriction enzymes E) formation of a bacterium that cannot synthesize the product 38) The following figure shows that gel electrophoresis can be used to separate repetitive DNA sequences. Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments because ______.

A) double stranded moves slower than single stranded DNA B) the DNA fragments have different lengths C) of ratios of guanine to cytosine D) of the consistency of the gel E) of the salt concentration in the gel matrix 39) The diagram below summarizes _____.

38) ______

39)

___ ___

A) how a human could be cloned B) how viruses can cause disease C) how a vaccine is made D) human gene therapy E) how a gene is cloned Please read the following scenario then answer the following question(s).

Molecular biologists have perfected DNA fingerprinting so that it is possible to use the technique to provide evidence to solve crimes and even identify a child's parents. Recently, a U.S. immigrant asked the U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services for permission to have her young daughter who was living with grandparents in their homeland join her. Her request was denied because there was an apparent mix-up with the child's birth certificate and it could not be used as proof of maternity. Proof is required in cases such as this. The mother requested DNA fingerprinting to make her case.

Samples of DNA were taken from the mother (Mom) and daughter (D1) as well as from another daughter (D2) and a son (S) living in the United States with her. Tandem repeat analysis was run on the four samples, and the results are shown here.

40) The results indicate that ______.

A) daughter D1 and daughter D2 are identical twins B) she is not the mother of daughter D1 C) she is not the mother of the son D) she is the mother of daughter D1 E) the mother could not be the mother of both daughter D1 and daughter D2

40) ______

41) You can use this DNA fingerprinting information to make a judgment about maternity because ______.

A) the shade of DNA bands will differ B) of molecular weight variations C) of the size of the bands D) of the position of the bands in the gel E) both mother and daughter contain only X chromosomes

41) ______

42) The short tandem repeat analysis ______.

A) separates the DNA double helix into its complementary strands B) compares markers on the sex chromosomes C) checks for purine and pyrimidine ratios D) does not require DNA amplification E) compares repetitive DNA sequences from different individuals

42) ______

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) B 6) D 7) B 8) A 9) B 10) E 11) C 12) B 13) A 14) B 15) E 16) B 17) A 18) D 19) E 20) A 21) A 22) E 23) D 24) C 25) B 26) C 27) B 28) E 29) C 30) A 31) B 32) D 33) E 34) C 35) E 36) A 37) A 38) B 39) D 40) D 41) D 42) E

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Natural selection can be defined as ______.

1) _______ A) the accumulation of random mutations B) the relationships among all organisms C) the production of more offspring than can survive in a given environment D) changes in gene frequencies attributable to chance E) a process in which organisms with certain inherited traits are more likely to survive and reproduce than other individuals 2) Natural selection ______.

A) is the result of sampling error B) prepares organisms for future changes in the environment C) results in evolutionary adaptation D) does not affect allelic frequencies E) is a very rare phenomenon

2) _______

3) The first basic idea of evolutionary adaptation can be traced back to _____.

A) Buffon B) Darwin C) ancient Greeks about 2,500 years ago D) Aristotle E) Lamarck

3) _______

4) Which of the following statements about the voyage of the Beagle ______ is true?

A) It ended sadly with the sinking of the ship off of the coast of Australia, almost four years into its journey B) It turned into a tremendous opportunity for Darwin to collect fossils, plants, and animals C) It lasted almost two years D) Its purpose was to identify the fastest route from the Atlantic to the Pacific Ocean.

E) none of the above

4) _______

5) During his trip on the Beagle, Darwin found that ______.

A) fossils found on a particular continent were clearly not related to the plants and animals living on that continent today B) plants and animals were similar on every continent and in every type of region C) plants and animals living in temperate regions were most similar to each other, regardless of the continent on which they were found D) plants and animals living on a continent seemed more closely related to each other than to plants and animals living in similar regions on other continents E) none of the above

5) _______

6) While on the Beagle, Darwin was influenced by a book by Charles Lyell that suggested that Earth was ______ and sculpted by geologic processes that ______ today.

A) old . . . continue B) young . . . continue C) old . . . no longer occur D) young . . . no longer occur E) none of the above

6) _______

7) What did Darwin find in South America that suggested that the Andes mountains had been gradually lifted up over millions of years?

A) dinosaur bones in the Amazon basin B) bird fossils at the top of mountains in Argentina C) impressions of ocean waves at the top of a mountain D) sea snail fossils high up in the Andes mountains E) none of the above

7) _______

8) In The Origin of Species, Darwin argued that the mechanism of descent with modification was _____.

A) uniformitarianism B) natural selection C) inheritance of acquired characteristics D) artificial selection E) none of the above

8) _______

9) Which of the following is a component of the fossil record?

A) the distribution of murid rodents in Australia and Asia B) bones of extinct whales C) molecular sequences D) the similarity of the forelimbs of cats and bats E) the similarity of the forelimbs of sharks and penguins

9) _______

10) The oldest known fossils are from about ______ years ago.

A) 6,000 B) 1.0 billion C) 4.0 million

10) ______ D) 3.5 billion

E) 3.0 trillion

11) ______ is the study of fossils.

A) Paleontology B) Gerontology C) Morphology D) Biogeography E) Geology

11) ______

12) Your family is taking a long driving vacation across the midwestern and western United States.

As you travel, you notice that the flowers, birds, and trees of the Midwest and the Rocky Mountains are very different. As you ponder why, you remember that such differences in the distribution of species are part of the field of ______.

A) paleontology B) anthropology C) biogeography D) morphology E) geology

12) ______

13) Homology is evidence of ______.

A) directional selection B) genetic drift C) common ancestry D) diversifying selection E) convergent evolution

13) ______

14) Which of the following are homologous?

A) wings of a butterfly and wings of a sparrow

14) ______

B) the forelimb of a dog and the hindlimb of a cat C) the mouth of a mosquito and the beak of a hummingbird D) the wings of a dragonfly and the wings of a hawk E) the forelimb of a dog and the forelimb of a cat 15) The similarity of the embryos of fish, frogs, birds, and humans is evidence of ______.

A) convergent evolution B) diversifying selection C) genetic drift D) common ancestry E) analogy

15) ______

16) Natural selection results in ______.

A) increased genetic variation B) offspring better adapted to a future environment C) an increase in the size of a population D) offspring adapted to their current environment E) a decrease in the size of a population

16) ______

17) Which of the following is not a requirement of natural selection?

A) inheritance B) genetic variation C) catastrophic events D) differential reproductive success E) overproduction of offspring

17) ______

18) Which one of the following statements is true?

A) Natural selection works on variation already present in a population.

B) Natural selection works on non-heritable traits.

C) Organisms evolve structures that they need.

D) Individuals evolve through natural selection.

E) None of the statements are true.

18) ______

19) Research on flat-tailed horned lizards demonstrated that natural selection favored lizards that ______.

A) buried themselves the quickest when startled B) had the longest horns on the rear of the skull C) searched for ants hidden under logs D) ran the fastest when exposed to bright sunlight E) none of the above

19) ______

20) The modern synthesis was a fusion of ______.

A) the fossil record and genetics B) genetics and evolutionary biology C) population ecology and genetics D) molecular biology and comparative anatomy E) biogeography and comparative embryology

20) ______

21) Which of the following is a population?

A) the termites infesting your house along with the microorganisms living in their guts B) all organisms living in your house C) you and all of the termites infesting your house

21) ______

D) the termites infesting your house E) all of the termites that have ever lived 22) The smallest unit of evolution is the ______.

A) phylum B) class C) population D) species E) order

22) ______

23) Which of the following is likely to be the result of polygenic inheritance?

A) hemophilia (an X-linked recessive trait) B) freckles C) an extra finger D) human height E) ABO blood type

23) ______

24) Which one of the following can create new alleles?

A) mutation B) natural selection C) sexual reproduction D) sexual recombination E) genetic drift

24) ______

25) All of the alleles of all of the genes within a population make up that population's ______.

A) polymorphism B) genotype C) gene flow D) heterozygosity E) gene pool

25) ______

26) If the frequency of one allele in a population is 0.7, what is the frequency of the alternate allele?

A) 0.42 B) 0.30 C) 0.49 D) 0.21 E) 0.09

26) ______

27) In the Hardy-Weinberg formula, what does p2 represent?

27) ______

A) frequency of the homozygous dominants B) frequency of the recessive allele C) frequency of the dominant allele D) frequency of heterozygotes E) frequency of the heterozygous recessives 28) In the Hardy-Weinberg formula, what does 2pq represent?

A) frequency of heterozygotes B) frequency of the heterozygous recessives C) frequency of the recessive allele D) frequency of the homozygous dominants E) frequency of the dominant allele

28) ______

29) The presence of freckles is due to a dominant allele. Four percent of the individuals in a particular population lack freckles. Use the Hardy-Weinberg formula to calculate the percentage of individuals in this population who are homozygous dominant for freckles.

A) 80% B) 20% C) 32% D) 64% E) 4%

29) ______

30) The original source of genetic variation that serves as the raw material for natural selection is ______.

A) random fertilization B) genetic drift C) sexual recombination D) gene flow E) mutation

30) ______

31) Which of the following is a characteristic of a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

A) Genetic drift is occurring.

B) Gene flow in and out of the population occurs.

C) The population is subject to natural selection.

D) The population is not evolving.

E) None of the choices are correct.

31) ______

32) Genetic drift is the result of ______.

A) a large gene pool B) differential reproductive success C) natural selection D) chance E) environmental variation

32) ______

33) Which one of the following will prevent significant genetic drift?

A) The population size is large.

B) Variation in a particular trait is heritable.

C) Gene flow is absent.

D) There is genetic variation.

E) There is mutation.

33) ______

34) After surviving a bottleneck, a population recovers to the point where it consists of as many individuals as it did prior to the bottleneck. Which of the following statements is most likely to apply to this population?

A) The postbottleneck population exhibits less genetic variation than the prebottleneck population.

B) The postbottleneck population has less of a chance of going extinct than did the prebottleneck population.

C) The bottleneck subjected the population to stabilizing selection.

D) The postbottleneck population exhibits more genetic variation than the prebottleneck population.

E) The postbottleneck population has the same probability of going extinct as did the prebottleneck population.

34) ______

35) The founder effect differs from a population bottleneck in that the founder effect ______.

A) involves the isolation of a small colony of individuals from a larger population B) requires a small population C) affects an entire population D) can only occur on an oceanic island colony E) is a type of natural selection

35) ______

36) Which of the following is the most likely explanation for a particular human population with a higher incidence of polydactyly (extra fingers/toes) than the human population as a whole?

36) ______

A) founder effect B) diversifying selection C) stabilizing selection D) directional selection E) bottleneck effect 37) Gene flow is accomplished by ______.

A) mutation B) sexual recombination C) genetic drift D) migration E) natural selection

37) ______

38) What does Darwinian fitness measure?

A) physical strength B) longevity C) physical health D) reproductive success E) population size

38) ______

39) Which of the following is an example of directional selection?

A) There is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.

B) There is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog.

C) Garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.

D) The birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same.

E) A catastrophe wipes out nearly 99% of a population.

39) ______

40) Which of the following is an example of disruptive selection?

A) There is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog.

B) A catastrophe wipes out nearly 99% of a population.

C) There is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.

D) Garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.

E) The birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same.

40) ______

41) Which of the following is most likely to decrease genetic variation?

A) stabilizing selection B) sexual recombination C) mutation D) directional selection E) diversifying selection

41) ______

42) Which of the following is an example of stabilizing selection?

A) A catastrophe wipes out nearly 99% of a population.

B) Garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.

C) There is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.

D) There is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog.

E) The birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same.

42) ______

43) Which of the following is an example of sexual selection?

43) ______

A) Cheetahs experienced a population bottleneck.

B) Butterflies migrate from one population to a different population.

C) Peahens choose to mate with peacocks that have the most beautiful tails.

D) Bacteria evolve resistance to antibiotics.

E) Sexual recombination occurs during meiosis.

44) Examine the relationships between the elephants in the figure below. Which one of the following pairs is most closely related?

A) Loxodonta cyclotis and Elephas maximus B) Deinotherium and Platybelodon C) Loxodonta africana and Loxodonta cyclotis D) Mammut and Stegodon E) Barytherium and Stegodon 45) Examine the evolutionary tree below. This tree tells us that the amnion is found in ______.

44) ______

45)

A) mammals, lizards, snakes, crocodiles, and birds B) mammals, lizards, and snakes only C) lungfishes and amphibians D) birds only E) amphibians only 46) The figure below shows the percent of selected DNA sequences that match between a chimpanzee and other primates. This data support the hypothesis that the chimpanzee's closest living relative is ______.

___ ___

46)

A) gorillas B) orangutans C) gibbons D) Old World monkeys E) humans 47) The figure below shows what happens in insect populations when crops are sprayed with insecticides. This is an example of ______.

___ ___

47)

___ ___

A) genetic drift B) gene flow C) founder effect D) natural selection E) none of the above Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Over the past 60 years, many amphibian species have experienced significant population declines and some species have become extinct. Scientists suspected that local human activities such as the destruction of wetlands, regional pollution, and deforestation were the main reasons for these losses. However, research over the past 20 years reveals significant

amphibian population declines in protected areas of the world, such as nature preserves and parks. These global declines suggest widespread problems including increased ultraviolet radiation, acid rain, and disease. In Switzerland, for example, 14 of the 20 native amphibian species are threatened with extinction.

48) Some biologists urge the collection of the few remaining individuals of some of the most threatened amphibian species, to preserve them if they become extinct in the wild. If such captive breeding programs could produce thousands of individuals from just a few of the remaining survivors, the species will still be threatened because of ______.

A) mutations B) artificial selection C) a bottleneck effect D) natural selection E) the founder effect

48) ______

49) When most populations of a wide-ranging amphibian species are lost and the few remaining populations are widely separated, we expect to see that ______.

A) microevolution no longer occurs B) gene flow between populations is reduced C) the founder effect becomes increasingly important D) mutations become less important in the evolution of the species E) artificial selection becomes a greater factor in microevolution

49) ______

50) Chytridiomycosis is a fungal disease first identified in 1998 as a cause of massive amphibian deaths. In some severely impacted populations, a few individuals have survived, perhaps because of some natural resistance. If these resistant individuals continue to survive and prosper, new resistant populations might emerge. This would be an example of ______.

A) genetic drift B) natural selection C) the founder effect D) sexual selection E) artificial selection

50) ______

1) E 2) C 3) E 4) B 5) D 6) A 7) D 8) B 9) B 10) D 11) A 12) C 13) C 14) E 15) D 16) D 17) C 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) D 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) E 26) B 27) A 28) A 29) D 30) E 31) D 32) D 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) A 37) D 38) D 39) A 40) D 41) A 42) E 43) C 44) C 45) A 46) E 47) D 48) C 49) B 50) B

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Macroevolution includes ______.

1) _______ A) the origin of new species B) mass extinctions C) explosive diversification following some evolutionary breakthrough D) the origin of evolutionary novelty E) all of the above 2) Nonbranching evolution ______.

A) increases biological diversity B) results in speciation C) is also called linear evolution D) occurs only in plants E) often results in mass extinctions

2) _______

3) Biological species consist of groups of ______.

A) families B) genera C) domains D) populations E) phyla

3) _______

4) On what basis are populations assigned to the same biological species?

A) relating to the environment in the same way B) being able to interbreed and produce fertile offspring C) sharing a common ancestor D) having 99% of their genes in common E) a very similar appearance

4) _______

5) When brought together in a zoo, two species are capable of mating and producing fertile offspring. Why may they still be considered two distinct species?

A) Wild populations of the two species have different geographic distributions.

B) The two species look very different.

C) In the wild, members of one species prey upon members of the other species.

D) The species are normally found in different habitats.

E) Zoos are not natural environments.

5) _______

6) The biological species concept cannot be applied to ______.

A) bacteria that only reproduce asexually B) fungi that live on land C) simple plants that reproduce sexually D) complex plants that have flowers E) animals that use asexual and sexual reproduction

6) _______

7) A fossil species is distinguished mainly by ______.

A) its unique genetic history B) the number of body parts C) its molecular biology D) its ecological niche

7) _______

E) its appearance 8) A reproductive barrier that prevents species from mating is an example of ______.

A) zygote mortality B) a pre-zygotic barrier C) reduced hybrid viability D) a post-zygotic barrier E) reduced hybrid fertility

8) _______

9) What type of reproductive isolating mechanism is described by a situation in which female fireflies only mate with males who emit light in a particular pattern?

A) reduced hybrid viability B) mechanical isolation C) habitat isolation D) behavioral isolation E) temporal isolation

9) _______

10) The type of reproductive barrier that occurs when two species mate but produce sterile hybrids is referred to as ______.

A) temporal isolation B) habitat isolation C) behavioral isolation D) mechanical isolation E) a post-zygotic barrier

10) ______

11) When two frog species, Rana pipiens and Rana sylvatica, mate, the offspring die early in embryonic development. This is an example of ______.

A) reduced hybrid viability B) hybrid sterility C) reduced hybrid fertility D) behavioral isolation E) mechanical isolation

11) ______

12) Speciation requires ______.

A) a mass extinction so that new environmental opportunities will be available to the survivors B) long periods of time C) geographic isolation D) genetic isolation E) periods of rapid evolutionary change

12) ______

13) Which of the following describes allopatric speciation?

A) A population of squirrels is separated by the Grand Canyon. Through time the two subpopulations evolve into two distinct species.

B) One population breeds in the fall; another population breeds in the spring.

C) A tetraploid plant species evolves from a diploid ancestor. Both the tetraploid and diploid species are found in the same habitat.

D) Two populations of fruit flies are unable to mate because their reproductive organs do not properly fit together.

E) A male horse and a female donkey mate, producing a sterile hinny.

13) ______

14) Sympatric speciation specifically excludes ______.

14) ______

A) behavioral isolation B) post-zygotic barriers C) temporal isolation D) geographic isolation E) mechanical isolation 15) Graphically, the graduated model of speciation can be described as appearing as a ______.

A) Y B) horizontal line with vertical branches C) W D) V E) vertical line with horizontal branches

15) ______

16) A pattern of evolution in which most change in appearance takes place during a relatively short period of time fits the ______ model of speciation.

A) phyletic gradualism B) gradualistic C) homeostatic D) punctuated gradualism E) punctuated equilibrium

16) ______

17) You are examining the fossil record and notice that through time a series of fossils exhibits very little change. During the period of time you are studying, this fossil lineage can be described as exhibiting ______.

A) equilibrium B) paedomorphosis C) punctuation D) gradualism E) genetic drift

17) ______

18) Some fish have bony fins. If the body of water they are in dries out, these fins can be used to help the fish "walk" to another body of water. In this context, bony fins are an example of ______.

A) paedomorphosis B) neoteny C) punctuated evolution D) an evolutionary novelty E) an exaptation

18) ______

19) Feathers in birds appear to have first evolved for insulation but later conveyed a new advantage in helping create light aerodynamic surfaces. This switch in function is an example of ______.

A) an exaptation B) punctuated equilibrium C) linear evolution D) convergent evolution E) phyletic gradualism

19) ______

20) Which of the following would be an example of paedomorphosis?

A) rapid evolution in a small, isolated population B) speciation as a result of a change in the number of sets of chromosomes C) two species evolving a similar appearance D) starfish regenerating severed limbs E) the ability to reproduce evolving in caterpillars

20) ______

21) The current geological era is the ______.

A) Cenozoic B) Precambrian C) Paleozoic D) Cambrian E) Mesozoic

21) ______

22) Uranium-235, with a half-life of 713,000,000 years, decays to lead-207. If a rock sample is determined to have one-quarter of the uranium-235 content it had when it formed, the age of the rock sample can be estimated to be approximately ______ years old.

A) 178 million B) 713 million C) 28.5 billion D) 178 billion E) 1.4 billion

22) ______

23) Earthquakes are the result of ______.

A) large buildings destabilizing Earth's surface B) global warming C) the movement of continental plates against one another D) massive explosions occurring beneath Earth's surface E) the sun's pull on Earth

23) ______

24) What name is given to the single supercontinent that formed near the end of the Paleozoic?

A) Gondwana B) Gondwanaland C) Omniland D) Laurasia E) Pangaea

24) ______

25) Characid fishes only found naturally only in South America and Africa. Fossils of these fish are not found on any other continents. What is the most likely explanation of this distribution pattern?

A) Convergent evolution is the mechanism for this occurrence.

B) Characid fishes arose in the South Atlantic Ocean and migrated to Africa and South America.

C) Characid fishes first evolved where the fossils are found but were carried to South America and Africa by birds.

D) These fishes arose in either Africa or South America and migrated across the South Atlantic Ocean to the other continent.

E) Characid fishes arose prior to the separation of the African and South American continents.

25) ______

26) Dinosaurs (aside from the lineage that produced birds) were extinct by the end of the ______.

A) Permian B) Silurian C) Eocene D) Cretaceous E) Devonian

26) ______

27) A period of mass extinction is often followed by ______.

A) nonbranching evolution

27) ______

B) explosive diversification C) equilibrium D) an asteroid impact E) global cooling 28) ______ is the study of the evolutionary relationships of organisms, past and present.

A) Tautology B) Biogeography C) Epistemology D) Taxonomy E) Systematics

28) ______

29) The science of naming, identifying, and classifying organisms is called ______.

A) zoography B) biogeography C) specification D) phylogeny E) taxonomy

29) ______

30) Which of the following is a species name?

A) Rhizosolenia B) sapiens C) Sam D) diatom E) Nitzschia jouseae

30) ______

31) Which of the following taxonomic levels is most inclusive?

A) class B) species C) family

31) ______ D) order

E) genus

32) Of the following taxonomic levels, species found within the same ______ are the most closely related.

A) family B) domain C) phylum D) class E) order

32) ______

33) The wing of a bald eagle is ______ the wing of a penguin.

A) convergent with B) identical to C) analogous to D) unrelated to E) homologous to

33) ______

34) The wing of a penguin is ______ the flipper of a dolphin.

A) paedomorphically similar to B) structurally identical to C) analogous to D) superior to E) divergent from

34) ______

35) Homology is evidence of ______.

A) stasis B) common ancestry C) punctuated evolution D) convergent evolution

35) ______

E) paedomorphosis 36) Analogous structures are evidence of ______.

A) common ancestry B) stabilizing selection C) paedomorphosis D) divergent evolution E) convergent evolution

36) ______

37) Molecular systematics might include all of the following except ______.

A) amino acid sequences B) DNA sequences C) nucleotide sequences D) anatomical similarities E) proteins

37) ______

38) Cladistic analysis identifies clades on the basis of ______.

A) first appearance in the fossil record B) last appearance in the fossil record C) the ability to interbreed and produce fertile offspring D) homologous structures unique to each group E) analogous structures unique to each group

38) ______

39) Which one of the following is the only domain that contains eukaryotes?

A) Bacteria B) Archaea C) Eukarya D) Animalia

39) ______ E) Plantae

40) Examine the two animals in the photographs in the following figure. Use all of the clues in this figure. These two organisms belong to ______.

A) the same species B) the same genus C) different orders D) different phyla E) different families 41) Examine the evolutionary relationships represented in the following figure. Based upon this diagram, the two most closely related species are ______.

40) ______

41)

A) the domestic dog and the domestic cat B) the domestic dog and the wolf C) the European otter and the wolf D) the domestic cat and the European otter E) the domestic cat and the striped skunk 42) Examine the figure below. Cladistic analysis indicates that crocodiles are more closely related to ______ than to ______.

___ ___

42)

___ ___

A) birds . . . lizards B) lizards . . . birds C) birds . . . alligators D) turtles . . . birds E) snakes . . . birds Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

In some zoos, rare crosses between a male lion and a female tiger have produced hybrid offspring called ligers. Male ligers are sterile but some female ligers are fertile. In the wild, lion and tiger ranges do not naturally overlap, making such a cross unlikely. Furthermore, the solitary behavior of tigers and the social organizations of lions create behavioral differences.

43) Applying the biological species concept, the production of ligers reveals that ______.

A) lions and tigers do not share any common ancestors B) lions are probably a subspecies of tigers C) a new species called ligers is forming D) tigers and lions are actually the same species E) tigers and lions are separate species

43) ______

44) The natural differences in the ranges of wild tigers and lions is an example of ______.

A) the impact of mutations B) a post-zygotic barrier C) the bottleneck effect D) a pre-zygotic barrier E) sympatric speciation

44) ______

45) The production of sterile male ligers is an example of ______.

A) neutral evolution

45) ______

B) sympatric speciation C) the founder effect D) a pre-zygotic barrier E) a post-zygotic barrier

1) E 2) C 3) D 4) B 5) E 6) A 7) E 8) B 9) D 10) E 11) A 12) D 13) A 14) D 15) A 16) E 17) A 18) E 19) A 20) E 21) A 22) E 23) C 24) E 25) E 26) D 27) B 28) E 29) E 30) B 31) A 32) A 33) E 34) C 35) B 36) E 37) D 38) D 39) C 40) B 41) B 42) A 43) E 44) D 45) E

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Eukaryotes arose about ______ years after the first prokaryotes.

1) _______ A) 3.0 million B) 1.5 billion C) 3.5 billion D) 4.0 billion E) 5.5 billion 2) Large amounts of oxygen gas appeared in Earth's atmosphere about ______ years ago.

A) 200 million B) 1.7 billion C) 2.0 billion D) 2.7 billion E) 4.5 billion

2) _______

3) Animal life underwent its greatest diversification during the ______, which began about ______ million years ago.

A) Cenozoic . . . 65 B) Cambrian . . . 540 C) Mesozoic . . . 245 D) Carboniferous . . . 363 E) Permian . . . 290

3) _______

4) Which kingdom(s) was(were) the first to colonize land?

A) Monera B) Monera and Protista C) Protista and Fungi D) Plantae and Fungi E) Archaea

4) _______

5) Land was first colonized about ______ years ago.

A) 100 million B) 500 million C) 570 billion D) 1.7 billion E) 2.0 billion

5) _______

6) The idea that life regularly arises from nonliving matter is referred to as ______.

A) diversification B) endosymbiosis C) polymerization D) spontaneous generation E) biogenesis

6) _______

7) The absence of ______ in the primitive atmosphere was essential to the origin of life on Earth.

A) CO2 B) O2 C) NH3 D) CH4 E) N2

7) _______

8) What was the first stage of the process that led to the abiotic origin of life?

A) abiotic synthesis of polymers B) abiotic synthesis of monomers, such as amino acids and nucleotides C) origin of self-replicating molecules D) abiotic synthesis of ribozymes E) abiotic formation of pre-cells

8) _______

9) Whose experiments demonstrated that, given the conditions on the primitive Earth, biological monomers could arise spontaneously?

A) Darwin B) Margulis C) Pauling D) Miller and Urey E) Watson

9) _______

10) Under what abiotic conditions can monomers spontaneously form polymers?

A) by biogenesis B) in the presence of oxygen gas C) with the addition of water D) when ribozymes are present to catalyze the reaction E) when water evaporates from a hot surface

10) ______

11) Why is RNA thought to have been the first genetic material?

A) RNA has been found on meteorites; DNA has not.

B) RNA codes for fewer amino acids than does DNA. C) RNA is structurally simpler than DNA. D) Primitive organisms, such as some viruses, have RNA as their genetic material.

E) RNA is capable of self-replication; DNA is not.

11) ______

12) RNAs that can act as enzymes are called ______.

A) prokaryotes B) ribozymes C) ATPs D) lysosomes E) chromosomes

12) ______

13) Variation among pre-cells was due to ______.

A) the bottleneck effect B) natural selection C) mutation D) genetic drift E) artificial selection

13) ______

14) Which prokaryotic group is most closely related to eukaryotes?

A) kingdom Monera B) domain Monera C) domain Bacteria D) domain Archaea E) kingdom Protista

14) ______

15) The prokaryotic group that tends to inhabit extreme environments belongs to the ______.

A) kingdom Monera B) kingdom Protista C) domain Archaea D) domain Bacteria E) domain Monera

15) ______

16) Which of the following are primarily responsible for an unfortunate side effect of eating beans?

16) ______

A) halophiles B) dinoflagellates C) exotoxins D) methanogens E) forams 17) Spherical bacteria that occur in clusters are ______.

A) bacilli B) spirilla C) spirochetes D) streptococci E) staphylococci

17) ______

18) Bacilli are ______ prokaryotes.

A) rod-shaped B) spherical C) spiral D) cone-shaped E) comma-shaped

18) ______

19) Which of the following would likely be the most difficult to kill were you to can your own food?

A) microspores B) sporophylls C) endospores D) megaspores E) sporophytes

19) ______

20) Prokaryotes reproduce by means of ______.

A) meiosis B) binary fission C) the cell cycle D) budding E) mitosis

20) ______

21) Under ideal conditions, prokaryotes are capable of reproducing at a(n) ______ rate.

A) inverse B) arithmetic C) hypergeometric D) exponential E) infinite

21) ______

22) You discover a prokaryote that can make its own food in the absence of light. Nutritionally, you would classify this prokaryote as a ______.

A) chemoheterotroph B) chemoautotroph C) photoautotroph D) decomposotroph E) photoheterotroph

22) ______

23) All prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms that photosynthesize fit into which nutritional category?

A) chemoheterotrophs

23) ______

B) photoautotrophs C) chemoautotrophs D) heteroautotrophs E) photoheterotrophs 24) Which of the following include the two classes of poisons produced by pathogenic bacteria?

A) chemoautotrophs and chemoheterotrophs B) prokaryotes and eukaryotes C) exotoxins and endotoxins D) protozoans and fungi E) bacilli and cocci

24) ______

25) You and a friend recently ate out together. Later, you both developed fevers and body aches.

Which of the following is the likely cause of your misery?

A) archaea B) a red tide C) an exotoxin D) an endotoxin E) an extremophile

25) ______

26) In the soil, some ______ convert nitrogen to a form that can be used by plants.

A) fungi B) animals C) protozoans D) protists E) prokaryotes

26) ______

27) ______ is an example of bioremediation.

A) The use of an autoclave to kill endospores B) A dinoflagellate bloom causing massive fish kills C) The use of prokaryotes to treat sewage D) An immune response to a typhus infection E) Cyanobacteria converting atmospheric nitrogen to a form that plants can use

27) ______

28) Eukaryotes that are not fungi, animals, or plants are classified in a "catch-all" category called ______.

A) monerans B) protists C) seaweeds D) bacteria E) archaea

28) ______

29) According to the theory of endosymbiosis, which organelles evolved from small prokaryotes that established residence within other, larger prokaryotes?

A) Golgi apparatus and endoplasmic reticulum B) mitochondria and chloroplasts C) vacuoles and lysosomes D) centrioles and ribosomes E) nucleoli and chromosomes

29) ______

30) Flagellates, amoebas, apicomplexans, and ciliates are all what type of protist?

A) protozoans B) dinoflagellates C) slime molds D) diatoms E) seaweeds

30) ______

31) You discover a unicellular organism that moves by what appear to be pseudopodia. You conclude that this organism is ______.

A) a type of bacterium B) either a type of ciliate, or a type of amoeba, or a type of flagellate, or a type of apicomplexan C) a type of pathogen D) either a type of amoeba or a type of slime mold E) a type of alga

31) ______

32) Which protozoan group consists solely of parasitic forms?

A) ciliates B) apicomplexans C) cellular slime molds D) flagellates E) amoebas

32) ______

33) ______ include cells that can function either independently or as a single unit.

A) Amoebas B) Cellular slime molds C) Seaweeds D) Dinoflagellates E) Forams

33) ______

34) Which of the following are most closely related to plants?

A) green algae B) cellular slime molds C) diatoms D) amoebas E) forams

34) ______

35) ______ are responsible for toxic red tides.

A) Diatoms B) Apicomplexans C) Plasmodial slime molds D) Dinoflagellates E) Red algae

35) ______

36) A photoautotrophic unicellular organism with a shell made of silica is most likely a(n) ______.

A) foram B) amoeba C) apicomplexan D) diatom E) dinoflagellate

36) ______

37) Which of the following is a colonial form of green algae?

A) Thiobacillus B) Volvox C) Paramecium D) Plasmodium E) Giardia

37) ______

38) What accounts for the similarity between seaweeds and plants?

A) Plants are the ancestors of seaweeds.

B) Seaweeds are the ancestors of plants.

C) Both evolved from brown algae.

D) Convergent evolution caused their similarity.

E) Seaweeds are aquatic plants.

38) ______

39) Which of the following has an organization that may be similar to an evolutionary stage between unicellularity and multicellularity?

A) Volvox B) Thiobacillus C) Giardia D) Plasmodium E) Amoeba

39) ______

40) According to this evolutionary tree, the archaea and eukaryotes last shared a common ancestor ______.

40) ______

A) 1.0 billion years ago B) 1.75 billion years ago C) 2.5 billion years ago D) 3.5 billion years ago E) 4.5 billion years ago 41) What kind of prokaryotes are these?

41)

___ ___

A) spirochetes B) ciliates C) diatoms D) bacilli E) cocci Use the following graph to answer the following question(s).

42) According to the graph, which year had the highest number of reported cases of Lyme disease in the United States?

A) 1995 B) 1996 C) 1999 D) 2000 E) 2002

42) ______

43) According to the graph, approximately how many cases of Lyme disease were reported in the

Uni ted

States in 43) 1997?

A) 5,500

___ ___ B) 9,000

C) 13,000

D) 15,500

E) 19,000

44) Based on the graph, which of the following can be interpreted to be true?

A) Cases of Lyme disease are decreasing in the United States.

B) The spread of Lyme disease has stopped in the United States.

C) People in the United States do not get Lyme disease.

D) Cases of Lyme disease are not changing in the United States.

E) Cases of Lyme disease are increasing in the United States.

44) ______

45) This organism transmits the disease ______, which is ______.

45) ______

A) toxic shock syndrome . . . exotoxin B) dysentery . . . flagellate C) malaria . . . apicomplexan D) food poisoning . . . endotoxin E) red tide . . . dinoflagellate Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Malaria is a disease caused by parasitic protists in the genus Plasmodium. The parasite is transmitted to humans by female Anopheles mosquitoes. The Plasmodium parasite feeds on human red blood cells, eventually destroying them. Humans infected with malaria can exhibit many symptoms. Depending on the severity of the infection, these can range from fever, chills, sweating, and headaches to anemia and kidney failure. Ultimately, malaria can result in death. However, if time and money permit, once a person is infected, they can be treated with different antimalarial drugs. The two most commonly used drugs are artemisinin and quinine. In addition, one way to prevent the spread of malaria is to treat areas with Anopheles mosquitoes with pesticides. The National Malaria Eradication Program began work in 1947 with the goal of eliminating malaria from the southern United States. In 1947, 15,000 cases of malaria were reported nationwide. By 1950, only 2,000 cases were reported, and by 1951, malaria was considered eradicated from the United States. Today, the disease is most common in Africa and South America. It is estimated that 700,000 to 2.7 million people die from malaria every year, many of them children in developing countries. In 2002, malaria was the fourth leading cause of death in children in developing countries.

46) Which of the following statements is true?

A) Malaria is the leading cause of death among children in developing countries.

B) Malaria is common in the United States today.

C) Malaria has never been a problem in the United States.

D) There may be environmental impacts from trying to prevent the spread of malaria.

E) There is no cure for malaria.

46) ______

47) What type of protist is Plasmodium?

47) ______

A) dinoflagellate B) apicomplexan C) slime mold D) amoeba E) diatom 48) Why do so many children in developing countries die of malaria?

A) Anopheles mosquitoes are only found in developing countries.

B) They are more susceptible to the disease.

C) Malaria is only found in developing countries today.

D) The costs of treatment and prevention are too high.

E) There is no cure for malaria.

48) ______

49) A vector is an organism that transfers a pathogen to a host. In the case of malaria, the vector(s) is(are) ______.

A) Anopheles mosquitoes only B) humans, Plasmodium, and Anopheles mosquitoes C) humans and Anopheles mosquitoes D) humans only E) Plasmodium only

49) ______

1) B 2) D 3) B 4) D 5) B 6) D 7) B 8) B 9) D 10) E 11) E 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) C 16) D 17) E 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) D 22) B 23) B 24) C 25) D 26) E 27) C 28) B 29) B 30) A 31) D 32) B 33) B 34) A 35) D 36) D 37) B 38) D 39) A 40) C 41) D 42) E 43) C 44) E 45) C 46) D 47) B 48) D 49) A

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Mutualistic associations of plant roots and fungi are called ______.

1) _______ A) mycorrhizae B) myrmecochores C) mycophyta D) mycelia E) pneumatophores 2) The ______ helps plants retain water.

A) lignin B) cuticle C) hypha D) mycorrhiza E) skin

2) _______

3) ______ is a chemical that hardens cell walls and supports the physical structure of terrestrial plants.

A) Parenchyma B) Lignin C) RuBP D) Mesophyll E) Calcium carbonate

3) _______

4) Which of the following is the lineage of green algae believed to most resemble early plant ancestors?

A) Volvox B) Dinoflagellates C) Charophytes D) Ulva E) Apicomplexans

4) _______

5) Plants first moved onto land at least ______ years ago.

A) 65 million B) 475 million C) 1.2 billion D) 3.5 billion E) 4.5 billion

5) _______

6) Which of the following correctly illustrates the sequence of the origin of modern groups of plants?

A) bryophytes, ferns, gymnosperms, angiosperms B) ferns, gymnosperms, bryophytes, angiosperms C) bryophytes, ferns, angiosperms, gymnosperms D) gymnosperms, ferns, bryophytes, angiosperms E) ferns, gymnosperms, angiosperms, bryophytes

6) _______

7) Which of the following lack vascular tissue?

A) grasses B) mosses

7) _______

C) flowering plants D) cone-bearing plants E) ferns 8) Why are bryophytes considered incompletely adapted to the terrestrial environment, when compared with other plants?

A) The gametophyte generation is dominant.

B) They lack flowers.

C) Their embryos do not develop within gametangia.

D) They lack a cuticle.

E) Their sperm are flagellated.

8) _______

9) In ______ the gametophyte is more obvious than the sporophyte.

A) conifers B) angiosperms C) mosses D) grasses E) ferns

9) _______

10) Gametophytes are ______; sporophytes are ______.

A) not a component of the angiosperm life cycle . . . a component of the angiosperm life cycle B) the dominant stage of the conifer life cycle . . . the less obvious stage of the conifer life cycle C) male . . . female D) haploid . . . diploid E) an adaptation to an aquatic existence . . . an adaptation to a terrestrial existence

10) ______

11) Gametophytes reproduce ______.

A) by budding B) by producing sperm and eggs C) by alternation of generations D) by fission E) by undergoing the cell cycle

11) ______

12) ______ are seedless vascular plants.

A) Bryophytes B) Angiosperms C) Grasses D) Gymnosperms E) Ferns

12) ______

13) Why are ferns considered incompletely adapted to the terrestrial environment, when compared with other plants?

A) They lack vascular tissue.

B) They lack gametangia.

C) The gametophyte generation is dominant.

D) They lack flowers.

E) Their sperm are flagellated.

13) ______

14) Seedless plants were most diverse during the ______ period.

A) Jurassic B) Triassic C) Mesozoic

14) ______

D) Carboniferous E) Cretaceous 15) Of the following, which is the earliest step in the formation of fossil fuels?

A) incomplete decomposition of organic matter B) removal of water from organic matter by freezing C) fungi and bacteria converting the remains of organisms to inorganic nutrients D) subjecting organic matter to extreme pressure E) subjecting organic matter to extreme heat

15) ______

16) What global climatic change gave gymnosperms an advantage over ferns?

A) the climate becoming hotter and drier B) the climate becoming cooler and wetter C) the climate becoming cooler and drier D) increased fluctuations in global climate E) the climate becoming hotter and wetter

16) ______

17) Which of these adaptations to a terrestrial existence evolved most recently?

A) seeds B) cuticle C) vascular tissue D) stomata E) gametangia

17) ______

18) A pollen grain is a ______.

A) male gametophyte B) type of seed C) female gametophyte D) sporophyte E) megaspore

18) ______

19) ______ were the first plants that did not require water for transferring sperm to eggs.

A) Mosses B) Angiosperms C) Ferns D) Gymnosperms E) Bryophytes

19) ______

20) Seeds develop from ______.

A) fruit B) carpels

20) ______ C) ovaries

D) ovules

E) anthers

21) Why are gymnosperms "naked seed" plants?

A) Their seeds lack vascular tissue.

B) Their seeds develop on the surface of sporophytes.

C) They do not have ovaries.

D) Their seeds are not protected.

E) They do not produce seeds; they only produce spores.

22) The parts of a flower include all of the following except ______.

A) stamens B) petals C) sepals D) carpels 23) In angiosperms, the male gametophyte develops within ______.

21) ______

22) ______ E) cones 23) ______

A) mycelia B) male cones C) archegonia D) filaments E) anthers 24) Which of the following is a component of the female structure of a flowering plant?

A) stamen B) petal C) filament D) anther E) stigma

24) ______

25) Which structure of a flowers traps pollen?

A) filament B) stigma C) style

25) ______ D) ovary

E) anther

26) The pollen grain is to gymnosperms as the ______ is to angiosperms.

A) flower B) pollen grain C) stamen D) anther E) ovule

26) ______

27) In angiosperms, what structures house female gametophytes?

A) stigma B) anthers C) petals D) sepals

27) ______

28) The edible portion of a(n) ______ is a ripened ovary.

A) potato B) onion C) radish

E) ovules 28) ______

D) cucumber

E) carrot

29) From the point of view of an angiosperm, what is the function of fruit?

A) It is a mechanism for the dispersal of seeds.

B) It provides nutrients to germinating seeds.

C) It provides structural support for the plant.

D) It attracts pollinators.

E) It is where the male gametophyte develops.

29) ______

30) Why does it make sense that many fruits are green when their seeds are immature?

A) They are harder to see and thus less likely to be eaten than other fruits.

B) They are green because fruits with immature seeds are still capable of photosynthesis.

C) Green signifies less nutritive value.

D) Insects, which see the color green better than mammals do, can only carry seeds when they are small (immature).

E) Animals know that green fruits are tasty, and are more likely to eat them.

30) ______

31) Nearly all food plants are classified as ______.

A) angiosperms B) bryophytes C) gymnosperms D) ferns E) mycorrhizae

31) ______

32) Exploring in the tropics, you discover a nonvascular plant that produces pollen. What type of plant have you discovered?

A) a fern B) a bryophyte C) an angiosperm

32) ______

D) a gymnosperm E) an entirely new type that you will get to name 33) At current rates of destruction, all of Earth's tropical forests will be gone within ______ years.

A) 10 B) 25 C) 50 D) 100 E) 1,000

33) ______

34) Which of the following statements is true?

A) Hundreds of plant species are going extinct each year.

B) Humans depend on plants for food, wood, and medicines.

C) Rainforests regenerate slowly and cannot sustain slash-and-burn clearing.

D) Fewer than 5,000 plant species have been tested as potential medicine sources.

E) All of the above statements are true.

34) ______

35) Nutritionally, all fungi are ______.

A) pathogens B) parasites C) chemoautotrophs D) autotrophs E) heterotrophs

35) ______

36) What are hyphae?

A) spores produced by bryophytes B) male gametophytes C) threadlike filaments that make up fungal bodies D) symbiotic associations between plant roots and fungi E) mature ovaries of angiosperms

36) ______

37) Like plants, fungi have ______; however, in plants they are composed of ______, whereas in fungi they are composed of ______.

A) cell walls . . . cellulose . . . peptidoglycan B) cell walls . . . phospholipids . . . cellulose C) cell membranes . . . phospholipids . . . peptidoglycan D) cell membranes . . . cellulose . . . phospholipids E) cell walls . . . cellulose . . . chitin

37) ______

38) The function of a mushroom is to _____.

A) absorb food B) store nutrients C) produce spores D) produce hyphae E) produce seeds

38) ______

39) What important role do fungi play in many ecosystems?

A) They disperse the fruits of angiosperms.

B) They perform photosynthesis.

C) They pollinate plants.

D) They decompose organic material.

E) They produce fossil fuels.

39) ______

40) What is this organism?

40)

A) charophycean B) angiosperm C) gymnosperm D) bryophyte E) fern 41) This diagram shows what process?

___ ___

41)

A) angiosperm life cycle B) gymnosperm life cycle C) origin of plants from green algae D) evolutionary adaptation E) alternation of generations Use the following data table to answer the following question(s).

___ ___

42) Which country has the third highest percent of endangered plant species?

A) United States B) Turkey C) Japan D) Jamaica E) Spain

42) ______

43) Which country has the most imperiled species?

A) United States B) Turkey C) Australia D) Spain E) Brazil

43) ______

44) The photo below shows ______.

44)

___ ___

A) a spore-producing structure in a fungus B) mycorrhizae, a mutually beneficial symbiosis C) a lichen, a mutually beneficial symbiosis D) the fungal production of antibiotics E) a parasitic fungus attacking an algal cell Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

People utilize plants to meet many everyday needs, including food, fiber, and building materials. However, not many of the over 300,000 known species of plants are used by people. One species with a lot of future promise is the jatropha tree. This species is native to Central America and is now found throughout the tropics. Many people believe the jatropha could help alleviate poverty in many areas of the world, as the seeds produce an oil that can be used for cooking, lighting, or generating electricity. This oil can also be mixed with diesel fuel or petrol to produce a biofuel. Mature trees produce between 5 and 15 kg of seeds per year and can live more than 30 years. However, critics argue that planting the jatropha tree will take land needed for food production, which will in turn harm the poor.

45) What could be an advantage of using oil from jatropha seeds?

A) The oil has many different uses.

B) The oil is considered a renewable resource.

C) The oil can be used as a biofuel.

D) Users will be less dependent on fossil fuels.

E) All of these answers are correct.

45) ______

46) Which of the following statements concerning the jatropha tree is true?

A) Jatropha trees are found all over the world.

B) Currently, the most valuable part of the jatropha tree is the seed.

C) Everyone believes planting jatropha trees will be beneficial.

D) Jatropha trees live for over 100 years.

E) Humans use over half of the known species of plants for everyday uses.

46) ______

1) A 2) B 3) B 4) C 5) B 6) A 7) B 8) E 9) C 10) D 11) B 12) E 13) E 14) D 15) A 16) C 17) A 18) A 19) D 20) D 21) C 22) E 23) E 24) E 25) B 26) B 27) E 28) D 29) A 30) A 31) A 32) E 33) B 34) E 35) E 36) C 37) E 38) C 39) D 40) D 41) E 42) B 43) A 44) C 45) E 46) B

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) What is the name given to the process by which a larva develops into an adult?

1) _______ A) metamorphosis B) gastrulation C) neurulation D) morphogenesis E) organogenesis 2) The common ancestor of all animals is likely to have been a(n) ______.

A) virus B) colonial, ciliated protist C) sponge D) colonial, flagellated bacterium E) colonial, flagellated protist

2) _______

3) Which of these exhibits radial symmetry?

A) automobile B) shoe box C) Ferris wheel D) spoon E) butterfly

3) _______

4) A true coelom is ______.

A) completely lined with tissue derived from mesoderm B) completely lined with tissue derived from ectoderm C) formed when a larva undergoes metamorphosis D) formed when a zygote develops into a blastula E) completely lined with tissue derived from endoderm

4) _______

5) Flatworms are similar to cnidarians in that both ______.

A) include many parasitic species B) have true tissues C) lack a gastrovascular cavity D) have pseudocoeloms E) exhibit bilateral symmetry

5) _______

6) Humans are chordates. Which animal group is most closely related to chordates?

A) echinoderms B) arthropods C) annelids D) molluscs E) cnidarians

6) _______

7) How do sponges differ from all other animals?

A) Sponges lack true tissues.

B) Sponges are autotrophs.

C) Sponges lack a true body cavity.

D) Sponges exhibit radial symmetry.

E) Sponges have a true coelom.

7) _______

8) What name is given to the food-trapping cells of sponges?

A) phagocytes B) cnidocytes C) choanocytes D) flame cells E) amoebocytes 9) The mobile stage of the cnidarian life cycle is the ______ stage.

A) tadpole B) medusa C) polyp D) radula

8) _______

9) _______ E) instar

10) ______ have radial symmetry.

A) Sponges B) Roundworms C) Annelids D) Cnidarians E) Flatworms 11) A(n) ______ is an example of a mollusc that does not have a shell.

A) squid B) oyster C) clam D) snail

10) ______

11) ______ E) octopus

12) Which animals have a cylindrical body that is tapered at both ends?

A) Platyhelminthes B) Annelids C) Molluscs D) Roundworms E) Cnidarians

12) ______

13) There are more species of ______ than of any other type of animal.

A) molluscs B) nematodes C) chordates D) arthropods E) annelids

13) ______

14) A characteristic of arthropods that has allowed for their great success is the presence of ______.

A) a brain B) bilateral symmetry C) an endoskeleton D) a coelom E) specialized segments

14) ______

15) The arthropod skeleton is composed of ______.

A) chitin B) peptidoglycan C) cellulose D) salicylic acid E) glycogen

15) ______

16) Nearly all ______ are aquatic.

A) crustaceans B) arachnids

16) ______

C) centipedes D) millipedes E) insects 17) ______ are the most diverse group of arthropods.

A) Arachnids B) Insects C) Centipedes D) Crustaceans E) Millipedes

17) ______

18) What characteristic is unique to echinoderms?

A) a water vascular system B) a lack of segmentation C) larvae with bilateral symmetry D) suction-cup-like feet E) a true coelom that forms from the digestive tube

18) ______

19) Unique features of vertebrates include the presence of a(n) ______.

A) pharyngeal slit B) notochord C) endoskeleton D) true coelom E) skull and backbone

19) ______

20) Which of the following is a characteristic of all chordates?

A) They all have a pseudocoelom.

B) They all have an exoskeleton sometime during the life cycle.

C) They all have vertebral columns.

D) They all exhibit radial symmetry.

E) They all have a notochord sometime during the life cycle.

20) ______

21) A(n) ______ is an example of an invertebrate chordate.

A) bird B) lancelet C) snake D) fish E) echinoderm

21) ______

22) Among vertebrates, the unique feature of lampreys and hagfish is the ______.

A) presence of a cranium B) absence of jaws C) presence of a cartilaginous skeleton D) absence of a post-anal tail E) absence of a backbone

22) ______

23) Sharks are a type of ______.

A) lungfish B) cartilaginous fish C) bony fish D) jawless fish E) tunicate

23) ______

24) Swim bladders ______.

A) help bony fish maintain buoyancy B) are a component of the lateral line system C) are required for fish to exchange gases with the surrounding water D) contain the gills E) are present in both bony and cartilaginous fishes

24) ______

25) Which group of fishes includes a lineage that migrated out of fresh water and adapted to life on land?

A) lobe-finned fishes B) starfishes C) jawless fishes D) ray-finned fishes E) cartilaginous fishes

25) ______

26) What does the term tetrapod mean?

A) living a double life B) having four feet C) descended from fish D) egg-laying E) apelike

26) ______

27) The feature present in reptiles and absent in amphibians that freed reptiles from dependence on water for reproduction is ______.

A) the amniotic egg B) parental care of eggs C) the lateral line system D) metamorphosis E) ectothermy

27) ______

28) Characteristics shared by both snakes and birds include ______.

A) the amniotic egg B) feathers C) the presence of only a single ovary in females D) being endothermic E) being ectothermic

28) ______

29) Almost every element of bird anatomy is modified for what?

A) eating seeds B) singing unique songs C) laying eggs D) enhancement of flight E) being brightly colored

29) ______

30) Features unique to mammals include ______.

A) having no egg-laying members B) being endotherms C) the presence of hair D) the absence of flying forms E) extended parental care of the young

30) ______

31) ______ are the mammalian group that lay eggs.

A) Marsupials B) Tunicates C) Eutherians D) Monotremes E) Primates

31) ______

32) How do New World monkeys differ from Old World monkeys?

A) Old World monkeys are arboreal.

B) New World monkeys have a prehensile tail.

C) New World monkeys have enhanced depth perception.

D) New World monkeys are classified as anthropoids, and Old World monkeys are classified as lorises.

E) New World monkeys have nails; Old World monkeys have claws.

32) ______

33) Which anthropoids are most closely related to humans?

A) chimpanzees B) Old World monkeys C) gorillas D) orangutans E) gibbons

33) ______

34) Which of these human characteristics evolved first?

A) language B) development of culture C) upright posture D) loss of body hair E) enlarged brain

34) ______

35) The first hominid to spread beyond Africa was ______.

A) "Lucy" B) Australopithecus afarensis C) Homo sapiens D) Homo neanderthalensis E) Homo erectus

35) ______

36) Where did humans first appear?

A) Africa B) South America C) Asia D) Europe E) Australia

36) ______

37) Annelids are most closely related to ______.

37)

A) arthropods B) chordates C) molluscs D) echinoderms E) roundworms 38) What type of symmetry does this organism exhibit?

___ ___

38)

___ ___

A) radial B) binomial C) asymmetrical D) bilateral E) terrestrial 39) The figure below shows a planarian. Bilateral symmetry, the leaflike shape, and the highly branched gastrovascular cavity all suggest that the planarian is a(n) ______.

A) mollusk B) annelid C) chordate D) flatworm E) roundworm 40) The legless, segmented body of the animal below suggests that it is a(n) ______.

39) ______

40)

___ ___

A) mollusk B) arthropod C) annelid D) roundworm E) snake 41) Insects, such as the grasshopper shown below, have ______.

A) eyes, but no mouth B) no wings

41) ______

C) a two-part body: head and abdomen D) a three-part body: head, thorax, and abdomen E) eight legs Use the following graph to answer the following question(s).

42) What can be said about the population of bald eagles in the lower 48 United States?

A) It has been increasing since 1986.

B) It has been steady since 1986.

C) It has been decreasing since 1986.

D) No trend can be seen.

E) More information is needed to answer the question.

42) ______

43) In what year were there approximately 4,000 pairs of bald eagles in the lower 48 United States?

A) 1986 B) 1989 C) 1991 D) 1993 E) 1996

43) ______

44) Approximately how many pairs of bald eagles were in the lower 48 United States in 1999?

A) 4,200 B) 5,500 C) 6,100 D) 6,800 E) 7,300

44) ______

45) According to this evolutionary tree, approximately how many years ago did humans and orangutans share a common ancestor?

45)

___ ___

A) 1 million years ago B) 7 million years ago C) 12 million years ago D) 20 million years ago E) 56 million years ago Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Birds are a widespread group of animals, with approximately 10,000 different species found throughout the world today.

Because they are relatively easy to find and so visually appealing, they have been studied more thoroughly than many other groups of animals. They are also valuable biological indicators, because many species live in different habitats during different times of the year and cover long migration routes. According to the World Conservation Union, extinction threatens over 1,200 bird species today and at least 179 are critically endangered. Some of the most endangered species include the Tahiti monarch, with only 10 pairs remaining, and the Bali starling, with only 12 wild individuals left.

In Hawaii, the last captive po’ouli died in 2005 and the last two known to be alive in the wild have not been seen in many months. Common birds are also disappearing. In North America, red-winged blackbird populations declined by at least 1 percent each year between 1980 and 1999. These examples can serve as a warning. Habitat destruction, degradation, and fragmentation is the most serious problem and affects 86% of threatened birds. Unsustainable forestry and intensifying agriculture exacerbate this problem of habitat loss. All of this shows that conservation of habitats is critical if many of the world’s bird species are going to be saved from extinction in the near future.

46) What is a feature of birds that makes them valuable as biological indicators?

A) Many are brightly colored.

B) Many migrate long distances.

C) Many sing beautiful songs.

D) There are over 10,000 different species of birds.

E) Birdwatching is a popular hobby.

46) ______

47) What is the greatest threat to birds today?

47) ______

A) the illegal pet trade B) poaching C) cellular phone towers D) habitat loss E) pollution 48) Approximately what percent of bird species are threatened with extinction today?

A) 5% B) 12% C) 19% D) 25% E) 45%

48) ______

1) A 2) E 3) C 4) A 5) B 6) A 7) A 8) C 9) B 10) D 11) E 12) D 13) D 14) E 15) A 16) A 17) B 18) A 19) E 20) E 21) B 22) B 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) B 27) A 28) A 29) D 30) C 31) D 32) B 33) A 34) C 35) E 36) A 37) C 38) A 39) D 40) C 41) D 42) A 43) D 44) C 45) C 46) B 47) D 48) B

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Ecology is the study of ______.

1) _______ A) human effects on the environment B) interactions between humans and other species C) interactions between organisms and their environments D) relationships among different species E) life 2) Which of the following is abiotic?

A) a rock B) an animal

2) _______ C) a fungus

D) a protist

E) a plant

3) Which of these represents the correct hierarchical order?

A) organism, community, ecosystem, population B) ecosystem, population, organism, community C) community, population, organism, ecosystem D) organism, population, community, ecosystem E) organism, ecosystem, population, community

3) _______

4) What level of ecology is concerned with the adaptations of individuals?

A) tissue B) organismal C) community D) ecosystem E) population

4) _______

5) What level of ecology is concerned with groups of individuals of the same species?

A) ecosystem B) population C) tissue D) organism E) community

5) _______

6) What level of ecology is concerned with groups of individuals of different species?

A) ecosystem B) population C) organism D) community E) tissue

6) _______

7) What is a population?

A) all of the organisms of a species existing at a particular time B) a group of organisms of the same species living in a particular geographic area C) a community living in a particular geographic area D) a group of organisms living in a particular geographic area E) a community as well as all the abiotic factors in a particular geographic area

7) _______

8) Which of these is a community?

A) all of the Staphlococcus aureus (a species of bacteria) living on your skin B) all of the students in your class

8) _______

C) all of the organisms living in your home D) all of the nut grass (considered a weed) in my backyard E) all of the people living in your neighborhood 9) What level of ecology is concerned with both the biotic and abiotic aspects of an environment?

A) population B) tissue C) organism D) community E) ecosystem

9) _______

10) What is the primary source of energy for nearly all of Earth's ecosystems?

A) geothermal vents B) sunlight C) rocks and soil D) wind E) water

10) ______

11) Aquatic organisms ______.

A) have a waxy coating to prevent water loss B) in freshwater lakes excrete highly concentrated urine C) that are photosynthetic never find light to be in short supply D) may experience problems with the solute concentration of the surrounding fluid E) have no concerns with regard to water

11) ______

12) Which nutrients often limit the distribution and abundance of photosynthetic organisms?

A) water and oxygen B) nitrogen and phosphorus C) oxygen only D) water and carbon dioxide E) carbon dioxide and nitrogen

12) ______

13) What term applies to the physical and physiological changes experienced by astronauts who spend months in space?

A) cosmosation B) accreditation C) acclimation D) astroization E) adaptation

13) ______

14) Which of the following is a behavioral response to environmental variability?

A) growing to a larger size B) migrating to a different location C) acclimation D) growing a heavier coat of fur E) evolutionary adaptation

14) ______

15) The temperate zones ______.

A) are the zones closest to the equator B) have the coolest climates on Earth C) generally have a climate warmer than the tropics D) are relatively wet

15) ______

E) are relatively dry 16) Which of the following can moderate climate by absorbing heat when the air is warm and releasing heat when the air is cold?

A) oceans B) clouds C) glaciers D) mountain E) ponds s

16) ______

17) Water-storing plants and deeply-rooted shrubs are plants that characterize ______.

A) deserts B) chaparral C) temperate grasslands D) savanna E) tropical forests

17) ______

18) The Sahara Desert and the Negev Desert belong to the same ______.

A) biota B) abiota C) community D) population E) biome

18) ______

19) Long, snowy winters as well as evergreen trees such as pine and fir are found in ______.

A) temperate broadleaf forest B) coniferous forest C) tropical forest D) temperate grasslands E) chaparral

19) ______

20) ______ are the dominant herbivores of savanna ecosystems.

A) Buffalo B) Zebras C) Gnus

20) ______ D) Antelopes

E) Insects

21) What is one important difference between savannas and temperate grasslands?

A) Savannas are cooler in the winter B) Savannas are inhabited by grazing mammals C) Savannas only rarely experience fires D) Savannas have trees E) Savannas have very fertile soil

21) ______

22) Which of these biomes is maintained by fire?

A) chaparral B) temperate deciduous forest C) desert D) tropical forest E) tundra

22) ______

23) Permafrost, or permanently frozen subsoil, characterizes _____.

A) coniferous forest B) temperate deciduous forest C) chaparral D) desert E) tundra

23) ______

24) Most of the temperate grassland in North America has been converted to ______.

A) farmland B) national parks C) suburbs D) cities E) shopping malls

24) ______

25) In an aquatic ecosystem, what name is given to the region where photosynthesis can occur?

A) benthic zone B) aphotic zone C) pelagic zone D) thermocline E) photic zone

25) ______

26) With regard to the environment as a whole, when is the worst time to apply pesticide to your lawn?

A) when it is raining, or is about to rain B) at night C) at the same time you apply fertilizer D) during the day E) when it is cold, or is about to get cold

26) ______

27) Wetlands ______.

A) are an example of a marine biome B) include rivers, streams, ponds, and lakes C) are found in the aphotic zone D) are found in the intertidal zone E) are among the richest of biomes in terms of species diversity

27) ______

28) What are estuaries?

A) regions where fresh water and salt water mix B) the start of a river C) regions where ocean water meets land D) regions where two rivers join E) a freshwater biome

28) ______

29) Which of these biomes is one of the most biologically productive of all biomes?

A) estuaries B) coniferous forests C) open oceans D) temperate grasslands E) desert

29) ______

30) What name is given to the region where sea meets land?

A) thermocline B) intertidal zone C) aphotic zone D) pelagic realm E) benthic realm

30) ______

31) What name is given to the open ocean?

A) benthic realm

31) ______

B) aphotic zone C) pelagic realm D) thermocline E) intertidal zone 32) In what part of the ocean are phytoplankton found?

A) aphotic zone B) pelagic realm C) benthic realm D) thermocline E) intertidal zone

32) ______

33) What name is given to the seafloor?

A) thermocline B) intertidal zone C) benthic realm D) pelagic realm E) aphotic zone

33) ______

34) Water moves from land to the atmosphere through _____.

A) transpiration only B) evaporation only C) precipitation only D) transpiration and evaporation E) evaporation and precipitation

34) ______

35) What fraction of Earth's surface has been altered by human use?

A) 10% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75%

35) ______ E) 95%

36) The greenhouse effect causes an increase in global temperatures. This increase is primarily due to ______.

A) C and other greenhouse gases allowing more solar radiation to penetrate Earth's surface

36) ______

B) the loss of ozone that trapped cooling UV radiation in the atmosphere C) C and other greenhouse gases slowing the escape of UV radiation from Earth D) C

and other greenhouse gases slowing the escape of heat from Earth E) none of the above

37) Temperature increases due to global warming are expected to be greatest _____.

A) close to the poles B) in deserts C) in the tropics D) in the sea E) none of the above

37) ______

38) The effect of deforestation is to ______.

A) increase the rate at which carbon dioxide is incorporated into organic material B) increase the rate of carbon dioxide production through cellular respiration C) increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere D) decrease the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere E) none of the above

38) ______

39) In the oceans, global warming is expected to ______.

A) benefit corals B) increase the amount of oxygen available C) decrease the amount of oxygen available D) make the water more acidic E) make the water more basic

39) ______

40) Which of the following is not an expected result of global warming?

A) changes in the timing of flowering in certain plants.

B) melting permafrost.

C) shifts in the ranges of some species.

D) changes in the breeding seasons of some species.

E) decreasing sea levels.

40) ______

41) Which of the following actions would increase your carbon footprint?

A) reusing or recycling items B) eating more beef and less chicken C) walking instead of driving D) eating more vegetables and less meat E) turning off lights

41) ______

42) Examine the figure below. Which part of Earth receives the greatest intensity of solar radiation?

42) ______

A) equator B) North and South Poles C) Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn D) Tropic of Cancer E) all parts of Earth receive the same intensity of solar radiation.

43) Examine the figure below. Phytoplankton live in the _____.

43) ______

A) aphotic zone B) benthic zone C) photic zone and aphotic zone D) photic zone E) aphotic zone and benthic zone 44) Examine the figure below. Globally, the largest amount of water moves from ______.

A) the atmosphere to land by precipitation

44) ______

B) land to the oceans by surface and groundwater runoff C) land to the atmosphere by evaporation and transpiration D) the oceans to the atmosphere by evaporation E) the atmosphere to the oceans by precipitation The following information refers to question(s) below.

Salmon eggs hatch in freshwater streams and, during the first year of their life, the young salmon migrate up to 1,000 km to the ocean. They spend varying amounts of time in the ocean (ranging up to five years), where they feed and grow, rapidly acquiring more than 95% of their biomass during this period. During the summer of their maturing year, they begin the long journey back to their home streams where they spawn. Although it is still uncertain how salmon navigate back to their spawning grounds, current hypotheses suggest that they have a highly developed sense of smell. At the spawning grounds, females use their tails to form a hollow cavity where they lay up to 8,000 eggs. The male fertilizes the eggs, and both adults typically die soon thereafter.

45) The physiological response that allows salmon to survive in fresh water, then in salt water, and then fresh water again is an example of ______.

A) evolution B) a behavioral response C) an anatomical response D) acclimation E) none of the above

45) ______

46) At different times in their lives, salmon can be found in all of the following except ______.

A) a freshwater biome B) a chaparral C) a marine biome D) an estuary E) the pelagic realm

46) ______

1) C 2) A 3) D 4) B 5) B 6) D 7) B 8) C 9) E 10) B 11) D 12) B 13) C 14) B 15) D 16) A 17) A 18) E 19) B 20) E 21) D 22) A 23) E 24) A 25) E 26) A 27) E 28) A 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) B 33) C 34) D 35) D 36) D 37) A 38) C 39) D 40) E 41) B 42) A 43) D 44) D 45) D 46) B

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) What is a population?

1) _______ A) a group of individuals of the same species that occupy the same general area and all the abiotic factors that affect them B) a group of organisms that occupy the same general area and all the abiotic factors that affect them C) a group of organisms that occupy the same general area D) a group of individuals of the same species that occupy the same general area E) all of the organisms of a single species existing at a particular time 2) Which of these best describes Type I survivorship?

A) relatively constant death rate throughout life B) low death rate early in life, high death rate in the middle of life, low death rate late in life C) high death rate early in life, low death rate in the middle of life, high death rate late in life D) low death rate early in life, high death rate late in life E) very high death rate very early in life followed by a decline in death rate

2) _______

3) Type I survivorship curves are typical of species that exhibit ______.

A) few offspring and poor parental care B) few offspring and good parental care C) many offspring and poor parental care D) an intermediate number of offspring and an intermediate level of parental care E) many offspring and good parental care

3) _______

4) Which of these best describes Type II survivorship?

A) low death rate early in life, high death rate in the middle of life, low death rate late in life B) relatively constant death rate throughout life C) low death rate early in life, high death rate late in life D) very high death rate very early in life followed by a decline in death rate E) high death rate early in life, low death rate in the middle of life, high death rate late in life

4) _______

5) Which of these best describes Type III survivorship?

A) high death rate early in life, low death rate in the middle of life, high death rate late in life B) low death rate early in life, high death rate in the middle of life, low death rate late in life C) very high death rate very early in life followed by a decline in death rate D) relatively constant death rate throughout life E) low death rate early in life, high death rate late in life

5) _______

6) Opportunistic species typically ______.

A) exhibit a Type I survivorship curve B) have a large number of offspring C) are very long-living D) reach sexual maturity slowly E) are large-bodied

6) _______

7) Species that exhibit an equilibrial life history typically ______.

A) exhibit a Type III survivorship curve B) are small-bodied C) exhibit a Type II survivorship curve

7) _______

D) have a large number of offspring E) have long lives 8) The number of individuals of a population per unit area is the ______.

A) population age structure B) population size C) population dispersion pattern D) population's intrinsic rate of increase E) population density

8) _______

9) In the absence of limiting factors, a population's growth follows a(n) ______ model.

A) mathematical B) hypergeometric C) geometric D) exponential E) logistic

9) _______

10) In the absence of limiting factors, what shape does a population's growth curve most closely resemble?

A) ∩ B) J C) ∧ D) S E) ∪

10) ______

11) If a population's growth rate decreases as the population size approaches carrying capacity, the population's growth follows a(n) ______ model.

A) hypergeometric B) logistic C) mathematical D) geometric E) exponential

11) ______

12) In a population that is following a logistic growth pattern, what shape does the population's growth curve most closely resemble?

A) ∩ B) ∧ C) J D) ∪ E) S

12) ______

13) ______ is the maximum population size that a particular habitat can support.

A) Survivorship curve B) Intrinsic rate of increase C) Population size D) Population growth rate E) Carrying capacity

13) ______

14) According to the logistic growth model, what happens to a population when the size of the population reaches carrying capacity?

A) The population stops increasing in size.

B) The growth rate remains unchanged.

C) The population crashes.

D) The growth rate increases.

E) The population begins to decrease in size.

14) ______

15) Competition among individuals of the same species is ______ competition.

A) extraspecific B) endospecific C) exospecific

15) ______

D) intraspecific E) interspecific 16) Which of these factors operates in a density-dependent manner?

A) flood B) food supply C) hurricane D) volcanic eruption E) blizzard

16) ______

17) Over time, the populations of most species ______.

A) exhibit boom-and-bust cycles B) continuously decline C) fluctuate D) increase rapidly, crash, and never recover E) continuously increase

17) ______

18) An unexpected freeze that kills a population of chipmunks is an example of ______.

A) a population cycle B) a natal effect C) a density-independent factor D) an intrinsic factor E) a density-dependent factor

18) ______

19) The Endangered Species Act aims to help protect species that ______.

A) are economically valuable B) compete with invasive species C) are in danger of extinction D) are non-native E) have suffered significant habitat destruction

19) ______

20) The red-cockaded woodpecker, an endangered species, is dependent upon ______ for maintenance of its source habitat.

A) open water B) floods C) corn snakes D) thick vegetation at least 15 feet in height E) fire

20) ______

21) You arrive back in the United States after having visited a foreign country located on another continent. The customs agent stops the person in front of you and confiscates the fruit basket this person is bringing home. Being the knowledgeable person you are, you calmly explain to your enraged fellow traveler that the reason for the detainment is that the fruit basket may be ______.

A) carrying a non-native species that could damage North American ecosystems B) contaminated with sufficient DDT to cause serious harm to anyone who eats the fruit C) carrying endangered fruit D) contaminated with CFCs that will damage the ozone layer above North America E) all of the above

21) ______

22) Introduced species can have important effects on biological communities by ______.

A) competing with native species for resources B) preying upon native species

22) ______

C) displacing native species D) reducing biodiversity E) doing all of the above 23) Examples of invasive species include ______.

A) kudzu and red-cockaded woodpeckers B) cod and Chilean sea bass C) snowshoe hares and kudzu D) European starlings and cactus finches E) cheatgrass and European starlings

23) ______

24) The intentional release of a natural enemy to attack a pest population is called _____.

A) biological control B) sustainable resource management C) coevolution D) integrated pest management E) conservation

24) ______

25) Using a virus to control rabbit populations in Australia did not work because the rabbits became more resistant to the virus, and the virus became less lethal. This is an example of ______.

A) how an invasive species can harm a native species B) sustainable resource management C) how effective biological control can be D) coevolution E) why integrated pest management does not work

25) ______

26) Most crop pests ______.

A) have an equilibrial life history B) consist of long-lived individuals C) exhibit type I survivorship D) produce few, well cared-for offspring E) have an opportunistic life history

26) ______

27) Integrated pest management ______.

A) aims to keep pest populations on an exponential growth curve B) favors the use of monocultures C) advocates mixed-species plantings and rotating crops D) advocates total eradication of pest species E) favors overwhelming a pest with chemical pesticides

27) ______

28) Throughout most of human history, human population size _____.

A) was at carrying capacity B) was decreasing C) showed boom and bust cycles D) skyrocketed E) grew very slowly

28) ______

29) In most developed countries, overall population growth rates ______.

A) are near zero, so the population size is fairly stable B) are high, so the population is growing rapidly C) are near zero, so the population is declining D) are low, so the population is declining

29) ______

E) are high, so the population size is fairly stable 30) In most developing countries ______.

A) birth rates are lower than death rates, so the population is declining B) birth rates equal death rates, so population size is fairly stable C) birth rates are lower than death rates, so the population is growing rapidly D) birth rates are much higher than death rates, so the population is declining E) birth rates are much higher than death rates, so the population is growing rapidly

30) ______

31) What will be the approximate shape of the age-structure diagram of a rapidly increasing population?

A) a pyramid B) an inverted pyramid C) a rectangle D) an hourglass E) a circle

31) ______

32) A study of the human ecological footprint shows that ______.

A) human population size will soon crash B) Earth can sustain a population about double the current population C) we have already overshot the planet's capacity to sustain us D) Earth can sustain the current population, but not much more E) Earth can sustain an exponentially growing population indefinitely

32) ______

33) The ecological footprint of the United States ______.

A) is about the same as the global average B) is lower than the global average a sign of overconsumption C) cannot be calculated D) shows that its population size is increasing slowly E) shows that Americans consume a disproportionate amount of food and fuel

33) ______

34) The figure below shows population cycles of snowshoe hare and lynx. Recent field studies suggest that the most likely explanation for these cycles is ______.

34)

______ A) nearly unlimited food for hares during the summers B) boom and bust cycles in lemming populations C) periodic winter storms D) predation of snowshoe hares by a combination of lynxes, foxes, and owls E) excessive predation of snowshoe hares by lynxes 35) Based on this graph, what is the carrying capacity of male fur seals?

A) 1,000,000

B) 1,000

C) 10

35) ______

D) 100,000

E) 10,000

This graph represents three different populations. Use it to answer the following questions.

36) Which population is growing at the fastest rate?

A) Population A B) Population B

36) ______ C) Population C

37) If all populations occupy different areas that are approximately the same size, which population

will have

the lowest density after three years?

37)

A) Population A

___ ___

B) Population B

C) Population C

38) Which of the following choices matches this figure?

A) Crab spiders produce hundreds of tiny offspring, most of which do not survive.

B) The century plant grows for many years and reproduces and releases hundreds of seeds just once before it withers and dies. Because of the dry desert environment in which it lives, many of the seeds do not survive or are eaten.

C) During "mating frenzies," male and female squid aggregate and release hundreds of eggs and sperm into the water column. The fertilized eggs are often quickly preyed on by fish.

D) In some species of lizards and rodents, survivorship is constant over the life span.

E) Dolphins produce only single offspring at a time and provide parental care for many months.

39) Observe the life tables for two populations of different organisms. Which species exhibits a Type I survivorship curve?

38) ______

39)

A) Species in Population A

___ ___

B) Species in Population B

Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Michigan's Isle Royale is located in Lake Superior and is 45 miles long and 9 miles wide. Ecologists estimate that the moose population has been on the island since around 1900. The wolf population, on the other hand, has only been there since the winter of 1949. The conditions had to be just right for the lake to freeze and the weather to be calm enough for the first wolves to make the passage over to the island. When the wolves arrived, they were greeted with a large moose population that had no predators. The moose population was at a dangerously high level, but was kept in check by the arrival of the wolves. This "harmonious" pattern continued for at least 20 years.

In 1982, the wolf population suddenly crashed. The problem was a new canine virus. This virus surfaced around the world in 1978 and spread rapidly in about six months. Infected animals can survive, but they have to be treated immediately. Ecologists hypothesized that the virus arrived on the island carried on the shoe of a human traveler. The wolf population decreased from 50 to 14 individuals in a year. While the wolf population dropped, the moose population increased. However, the winter of 1996 was extremely harsh and the moose population experienced a major crash. More than 500 animals died during the winter months, reducing the population to less than 800 animals.

40) What most likely happened when the wolves first arrived on the island?

A) The moose population increased exponentially.

B) The wolf population decreased because of the introduction of a virus.

C) The wolf population increased exponentially.

40) ______

D) The moose population crashed because of the introduction of a predator.

E) The wolf population was at its carrying capacity.

41) The virus introduced to the island in 1982 that reduced the wolf population is an example of a(n) ______.

A) density-dependent factor B) intraspecific competition C) acclimation D) equilibrial life history E) density-independent factor

41) ______

42) The harsh winter that led to the death of many moose in 1996 is an example of a(n) ______.

A) acclimation B) population that has exceeded its carrying capacity C) density-independent factor D) density-dependent factor E) trigger for logistic growth

42) ______

43) During a one-year study, a graduate student attempted to count the wolves and moose on the island. He estimated that there were 950 moose and 120 wolves. How many organisms, populations, and species were included in this study?

A) organisms = 2; populations = 2; species = 1,070 B) organisms = 2; populations = 1; species = 2 C) organisms = 1,070; populations = 1; species = 2 D) organisms = 1,070; populations = 2; species = 2 E) none of the above

43) ______

1) D 2) D 3) B 4) B 5) C 6) B 7) E 8) E 9) D 10) B 11) B 12) E 13) E 14) A 15) D 16) B 17) C 18) C 19) C 20) E 21) A 22) E 23) E 24) A 25) D 26) E 27) C 28) E 29) A 30) E 31) A 32) C 33) E 34) E 35) E 36) A 37) C 38) E 39) A 40) C 41) A 42) C 43) D

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The present rate of species loss ______.

1) _______ A) is slower than in recent years because of conservation efforts B) is about the same as it has been during the last 100,000 years C) is as much as 1,000 times higher than at any time in the last 100,000 years D) suggests that about 25% of all plant and animal species may be extinct by the end of the century E) suggests that about 90% of all plant and animal species may be extinct by the end of the century 2) The single greatest threat to biodiversity comes from ______.

A) human predation B) habitat destruction and fragmentation C) invasive species D) overexploitation E) pollution

2) _______

3) Several years ago I was crossing the border from Canada to the United States and I had a bag of Washington State apples with me. The customs officer at the border would not let me take the apples with me into the United States (and I really hated the idea of getting rid of a bag of perfectly good apples). Why did the customs officer refuse to allow me to cross the border with my apples?

A) Apples grown in the United States for export may be contaminated with DDT. B) There may have been CFCs on the surface of the apples that would damage the ozone layer in the atmosphere over the United States.

C) There may have been a species that was not native to the United States hitching a ride on my apples.

D) Economics: If I couldn't bring the apples in with me, I would have to buy my apples from a store in the United States.

E) Washington State apples are considered an endangered fruit.

3) _______

4) An example of a mutualism, or +/+ relationship, is ______.

A) the relationship between Virginia's warblers and orange-crowned warblers, which use some of the same resources B) the relationship between corals and unicellular algae C) biological magnification of toxins D) herbivory E) cryptic coloration in frogs

4) _______

5) Populations of two coexisting species are both tertiary consumers in a community. What relationship may exist between these two organisms?

A) parasitism B) competition C) mutualism D) commensalism E) predation

5) _______

6) As a result of a disturbance, a community will ______.

A) not be recolonized

6) _______

B) be replaced by a community that is completely different from the previous community C) undergo succession D) not recover for thousands of years E) not be repopulated 7) Organisms at the first trophic level are ______.

A) decomposers B) producers C) detritivores D) primary consumers E) predators

7) _______

8) In the food chain grass → antelope → human → lion, the antelope is A) both a predator and a secondary consumer.

B) both a producer and a primary consumer.

C) a secondary consumer only.

D) both an herbivore and a secondary consumer.

E) both an herbivore and a primary consumer.

8) _______

9) In the food chain grass → antelope → human → lion, the human is a(n) ______.

A) primary consumer B) producer C) tertiary consumer D) herbivore E) secondary consumer

9) _______

10) Which of these organisms are ultimately responsible for making energy available to the other organisms listed here?

A) primary consumers B) producers C) herbivores D) secondary consumers E) carnivores

10) ______

11) Which of these convert organic matter to inorganic matter by breaking down dead organisms?

A) primary consumers B) secondary consumers C) producers D) detritivores E) decomposers

11) ______

12) Which of these could be a decomposer?

A) human B) lion

12) ______ C) dolphin

D) fungus

E) vulture

13) Bears eat berries, humans, and large fish; large fish eat smaller fish and insects; humans eat bears, large fish, and berries; Venus flytraps eat insects. The scenario described here is an example of ______.

A) a food web B) a population histogram C) an ecosystem D) parasitism E) a food chain

13) ______

14) Humans are ______.

A) omnivores B) producers C) herbivores D) carnivores E) detritivores

14) ______

15) In order to assess the species diversity of a community, you would need to know the number of different species present as well as ______.

A) the number of trophic levels in the community B) the fraction of these species that are plants C) the intensity of interspecific competition in the community D) the relative abundance of the different species E) which is the keystone species

15) ______

16) What is one way in which energy flow differs from chemical cycling?

A) Energy flow is unidirectional; chemical elements can be recycled.

B) Energy flows from lower to higher trophic levels; chemicals cycle from higher to lower trophic levels.

C) Energy can enter but cannot leave an ecosystem; chemical elements can leave but cannot enter an ecosystem.

D) Energy can both enter and leave an ecosystem; chemical elements always remain within a single ecosystem.

E) Energy cannot be created or destroyed; chemical elements can be created and destroyed.

16) ______

17) Approximately what percentage of the visible light that reaches Earth's producers is converted to chemical energy?

A) 1% B) 10% C) 0.001% D) 0.1% E) 0.01%

17) ______

18) Biomass is the total amount of ______ an ecosystem.

A) solar energy in B) organic material in C) chemical elements recycled by the detritivores of D) organic matter tied up in the consumers of E) organic matter tied up in the producers of

18) ______

19) The rate at which organic matter is produced in an ecosystem is its ______.

A) biomass B) trophic structure C) primary productivity D) chemical cycle E) energy flow

19) ______

20) On average, what percentage of the energy in the form of organic matter at one trophic level is not available as biomass at the next highest trophic level?

A) 50% B) 10% C) 100% D) 30% E) 90%

20) ______

21) In general, you would expect an energy pyramid to have roughly the same shape as a diagram illustrating changes in ______ with increasing trophic level.

A) the sizes of organisms B) the life spans of organisms

21) ______

C) primary productivity D) the brain mass of organisms E) biomass 22) Why are most energy pyramids limited to three to five levels?

A) Energy pyramids, which are limited to no more than five levels, do not accurately represent the energy dynamics of a food web, in which there often are more than five trophic levels.

B) The nutritional quality of existing biomass decreases with increasing trophic level.

C) The higher the trophic level, the larger the organism; the larger the organism, the less likely it will be prey.

D) Most ecosystems have insufficient space to support the increased number of organisms that more trophic levels would require.

E) There is insufficient energy to support more trophic levels.

22) ______

23) What form of carbon is incorporated into organic matter by producers?

A) CO2 B) COOH C) CFC D) CH4

23) ______

24) The atmosphere is approximately 80% ______ gas.

A) N2 B) CH4 C) CFC

E) C6H12O6 24) ______

D) H2O

E) CO2

25) Plants can utilize the ______ form of nitrogen.

A) thiol B) atmospheric C) amino D) nitrate E) N2

25) ______

26) Which of these organisms convert atmospheric nitrogen gas to a form that can be utilized by plants?

A) animals B) fungi C) consumers D) bacteria E) protists

26) ______

27) ______ convert nitrogen from a form that can be assimilated by plants to N 2.

27) ______

A) Denitrifiers B) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria living in the root nodules of legumes C) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria living in the soil D) Nitrifying bacteria E) E. coli 28) The major abiotic reservoir for phosphorus is ______.

A) the oceans B) fossil fuels C) the atmosphere D) dead organic matter E) rock

28) ______

29) With regard to nutrient pollution in aquatic ecosystems, when is the worst time to apply fertilizer to your lawn?

29) ______

A) at night B) when it is raining, or is about to rain C) at the same time you apply pesticides D) during the day E) when it is cold, or is about to get cold 30) The primary goal of conservation biology is to ______.

A) catalog species B) counter the loss of biodiversity C) maximize the land set aside for wildlife D) estimate the total number of species that exist E) integrate human culture back into nature

30) ______

31) Modern conservation science increasingly aims at ______.

A) sustain entire ecosystems B) maintenance of all genetic diversity within all species C) protection of federally listed endangered species D) lobbying for strict enforcement of the Endangered Species Act E) accomplishing both protection of federally listed endangered species and lobbying for strict enforcement of the Endangered Species Act

31) ______

32) Species found in only one place on Earth are called ______ species.

A) keystone B) exotic C) native D) hot spot

32) ______ E) endemic

33) Small areas that have a large number of endangered and threatened species are referred to as ______.

A) biodiverse environments B) biologically magnified C) exotic hot spots D) biodiversity hot spots E) endemic environments

33) ______

34) An assemblage of interacting ecosystems is a ______.

A) biome B) movement corridor C) landscape D) gap E) hot spot

34) ______

35) Landscape ecology ______.

A) is the application of ecological principles to the study of land-use patterns B) is the application of ecological principles to the design and construction of sustainable lawns and gardens C) deals primarily with ecosystems in urban settings D) deals with the study of the ranges of various animals E) focuses primarily on human-altered ecological systems

35) ______

36) A movement corridor ______.

A) is always beneficial to a species B) is the path most commonly used by an animal within its home range C) is a path used by migratory animals when they move to their winter habitats D) is always a natural component of the environment

36) ______

E) unites otherwise isolated patches of quality habitat for a species 37) Movement corridors are ______.

A) not beneficial, but they are harmful because they allow for the spread of disease B) always created by humans C) harmful because they allow for the spread of disease and beneficial because they allow for dispersal D) only found along stream sides E) beneficial because they allow for dispersal, but not harmful

37) ______

38) Sustainable development ______.

A) will require global, multinational cooperation B) must be achieved if the human species is to survive C) will require making difficult decisions regarding the environment and lifestyle D) will require many humans to change their value systems E) involves all of the above

38) ______

39) E. O. Wilson coined the term ______ for our innate appreciation of wild environments and living organisms.

A) biophobia B) landscape ecology C) bioethics D) bioremediation E) biophilia

39) ______

40) Refer to the following figure. This photo represents ______ community(ies).

40)

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) more than 2 E) you cannot tell from the photo 41) The figure below shows the growth curves of two populations of Paramecium, P. aurelia and P. caudatum. From the data, we can conclude that ______.

___ ___

41)

___ ___

A) P. aurelia is the superior competitor in this habitat B) P. aurelia is a predator of P. caudatum C) P. caudatum is a parasite of P. aurelia D) the ecological niches of the two species are very different E) P. aurelia and P. caudatum have a mutualistic relationship 42) Refer to the following figure. If there were an additional trophic level that consisted of organisms that prey on snakes, how much energy would be available to organisms at that trophic level?

42) ______

A) 100 kcal

B) 90%

C) 10 kcal

D) 5,000 kcal

E) 1 kcal

43) In this ecosystem, a toxin that accumulates in body tissues would have the largest effect on ______.

43) ______

A) corals that obtain their food from photosynthesizing dinoflagellates B) photosynthetic plants C) fish that eat shrimp and other invertebrates D) herbivorous shrimp E) the toxin would affect all of these equally Use the following information to answer the following question(s).

Malaria is an infectious disease caused by a unicellular eukaryotic organism belonging to the genus Plasmodium. These eukaryotic organisms are transmitted from one person to another by the female Anopheles mosquito when it feeds on human blood. Within humans, the Plasmodium spp. destroy red blood cells and, without effective treatment, serious infections can lead to death. Currently, more than 400 million people are afflicted with malaria and between 1 to 3 million people die from it each year. Historically, a chemical compound called quinine has been used in developing effective drugs against malaria. In its natural environment, quinine is produced by certain trees native to South America.

This chemical is synthesized in the outer layer of tree trunks and acts as an herbivore deterrent.

44) Based on the relationship between Plasmodium spp. and humans, these organisms would be considered ______.

A) decomposers B) hosts C) carnivores D) parasites E) producers

44) ______

45) Humans, mosquitoes, and Plasmodium together would be considered a(n) ______.

A) ecosystem B) biosphere C) population

45) ______

D) community E) population and community 46) Despite being used for many years, quinine-based drugs have not led to the eradication of malaria and currently there are mosquitoes that are resistant to the compound. Which of the following were likely important in the development of this resistance to quinine?

A) natural selection B) biological magnification C) mutualism D) predation E) interspecific competition

46) ______

1) C 2) B 3) C 4) B 5) B 6) C 7) B 8) E 9) E 10) B 11) E 12) D 13) A 14) A 15) D 16) A 17) A 18) B 19) C 20) E 21) E 22) E 23) A 24) A 25) D 26) D 27) A 28) E 29) B 30) B 31) A 32) E 33) D 34) C 35) A 36) E 37) C 38) E 39) E 40) B 41) A 42) E 43) C 44) D 45) D 46) A

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Structure in the living world is organized at hierarchical levels. Which of the following choices 1) _______ lists several of these, from least inclusive to most inclusive?

A) tissue, cell, organ system, organ, organism B) cell, organism, organ, organ system, tissue C) cell, organ system, tissue, organ, organism D) cell, organ, organ system, tissue, organism E) cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism 2) The connection between structure and ______ is a basic concept of biology.

A) function B) species C) sex D) adaptation E) strength

2) _______

3) A physiologist is a biologist who studies the ______.

A) structure of living things B) evolution of animals C) physics of living things D) structure of body parts E) function of body parts

3) _______

4) Which of the following is a major category of animal tissue?

A) cardiac B) plasma C) skin

4) _______ D) bone

E) epithelial

5) A main function of most types of epithelial tissue is ______.

A) support B) contraction C) sensation D) absorption E) covering surfaces

5) _______

6) Connective tissue is different from the other major tissue types in that ______.

A) the cells are sparsely scattered through an extracellular matrix B) it is not made up of cells C) it is found only in humans D) it has no essential function in an animal's body E) it is made up of cells

6) _______

7) Which one of the following types of tissue stores fat in the body?

A) blood B) bone C) fibrous connective tissue D) adipose tissue E) cartilage

7) _______

8) What kind of connective tissue has a liquid matrix?

A) adipose tissue

8) _______

B) nervous tissue C) cartilage D) loose connective tissue E) blood 9) Which of the following is the most common type of connective tissue in the typical human body?

A) loose connective tissue B) adipose tissue C) fibrous connective tissue D) bone E) adipose tissue

9) _______

10) Which is the most abundant kind of tissue in an animal such as a zebra?

A) epithelial B) nervous C) blood D) connectiv e

10) ______ E) muscle

11) Which of the following is true of a typical skeletal muscle?

A) It can be enlarged by exercise.

B) It is only found in heart tissue.

C) It is found in the walls of organs such as the digestive tract.

D) Its fibers do not have a striped appearance under the microscope.

E) Contraction is involuntary.

11) ______

12) Which of the following distinguishes cardiac muscle from both smooth and skeletal muscle?

A) Its cells are branched.

B) Its cells are striped.

C) Its cells contract.

D) It generally cannot be contracted at will.

E) It generally can be contracted at will.

12) ______

13) The main function of muscle tissue is ______.

A) contraction B) absorption C) sensation D) support E) covering surfaces

13) ______

14) Which type of tissue forms a communication and coordination system within the body?

A) muscle B) connectiv C) epithelial D) blood E) nervous e

14) ______

15) The basic unit of nervous tissue is the ______.

A) cell body B) nerve C) neuron

15) ______ D) dendrite

E) axon

16) Which of the following is NOT a true statement about organs?

A) An organ represents a higher level of structure than the tissues composing it.

B) Organs play a role in homeostasis.

C) An organ can only carry out the functions of its component tissues.

D) An organ consists of several tissues.

E) An organ consists of many cells.

16) ______

17) The fact that every organism continuously exchanges chemicals and energy with its

surroundin

gs 17) indicates that organism s ______.

A) maintain homeostasis B) are closed systems C) thermoregulate D) are open systems E) osmoregulate

___ ___

18) Imagine an invertebrate that lives in an estuary where salinity varies cyclically with the tides. If this animal practices homeostasis with respect to the salt concentration of its body fluids, its salt concentration will show ______.

A) a cyclic variation similar to that of the surrounding water but more intense B) a cyclic variation identical to that of the surrounding water C) slight, continuous fluctuations D) slight variations, but only when the external salinity is changing rapidly E) no variations

18) ______

19) Homeostasis ______.

A) is a pathological condition B) is the maintenance of a constant internal state C) is the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment D) is the way the internal environment influences the external environment E) only comes into play when you are ill

19) ______

20) The vertebrate kidney helps to keep the acidity of the body fluids constant by varying the

20) ______

amount of hydrogen ions ( ) it secretes into the urine. You can confidently predict that this aspect of kidney function will be controlled by ______.

A) a hormone produced in the brain B) a hormone produced in the kidney itself C) a positive feedback mechanism D) a negative feedback mechanism E) nerve impulses from the brain 21) Which of the following is most likely to be responsible if, when your blood sugar level rose, the level went back down?

A) the use of the sugar for energy by your cells B) a homeostatic mechanism based on positive feedback C) diabetes insipidus D) a homeostatic mechanism based on negative feedback E) type 2 diabetes

21) ______

22) Most homeostatic mechanisms depend on ______.

A) positive feedback B) negative feedback C) predictable internal conditions D) predictable environmental conditions E) positive and negative feedback

22) ______

23) Which of the following animals is an ectotherm?

23) ______

A) spiny lobster B) field mouse C) human D) parrot E) elephant 24) Which of the following animals is generating body heat to warm itself?

A) a turtle that moves to a warm, shallow part of a pond B) a lizard that lies on a warm rock C) an insect that positions its body for maximal exposure to sunlight D) a beetle that absorbs solar radiation E) a moth that shivers its wings before flight

24) ______

25) When body temperature is too low, which of the following occurs?

A) Muscles relax.

B) The thermostatic control center of the brain is deactivated.

C) Sweat glands are activated.

D) Blood vessels at the body surface dilate and fill with warm blood.

E) Blood vessels in the skin constrict.

25) ______

26) Which of the following is a physiological response that takes place in many animals when they get too hot?

A) increased blood flow to the skin B) contraction of muscles C) constriction of blood vessels in the skin D) retention of water E) slowing of the heart rate

26) ______

27) Which of the following statements apply to saltwater fish?

A) They pump out ions via the gills.

B) The concentration of solutes in their internal fluids is lower than in the surrounding water.

C) They produce small amounts of highly concentrated urine.

D) They lose water by osmosis.

E) All of the above statements are true about saltwater fish.

27) ______

28) Marine animals that have body fluids with a solute concentration equal to that of the surrounding seawater are said to be ______.

A) osmoinformers B) osmoconformers C) osmoregulators D) hypotonic E) hypertonic

28) ______

29) Which of the following is a source of water loss in humans?

A) breathing B) perspiration C) urination D) defecation E) all of the above

29) ______

30) Which of the following is a function of the kidneys?

A) reabsorbing water

30) ______

B) production of urine C) reabsorption of valuable solutes D) elimination of urea E) all of the above 31) What is the name of the functional unit of the kidney?

A) renal unit B) urinary bladder C) dialysis D) filtrate E) nephron

31) ______

32) Reabsorption is the movement of substances from the ______ to the ______.

A) kidney . . . urinary bladder B) urinary bladder . . . outside C) blood . . . filtrate D) blood . . . nephron E) filtrate . . . blood

32) ______

33) Secretion is the movement of substances from the ______ to the ______.

A) blood . . . filtrate B) nephron . . . blood C) kidney . . . urinary bladder D) urinary bladder . . . outside E) filtrate . . . blood

33) ______

34) Excretion is the movement of substances from the ______ to the ______.

A) blood . . . filtrate B) filtrate . . . blood C) kidneys . . . outside D) nephron . . . blood E) kidney . . . urinary bladder

34) ______

35) Through which of these structures does urine leave the bladder?

A) nephron B) renal artery C) ADH D) ureter E) urethra

35) ______

36) A diuretic is a substance that ______.

A) regulates the contraction of cardiac muscle B) promotes sweating C) inhibits sweating D) promotes urinary water loss E) inhibits urinary water loss

36) ______

37) Fur, feathers, and blubber function in ______.

A) dialysis B) thermoregulation C) positive feedback D) water conservation

37) ______

E) osmoregulation 38) The structures shown below are part of the _____.

A) respiratory system B) digestive system C) skeletal system D) muscular system E) circulatory system 39) The structures shown below are part of the _____.

38) ______

39)

A) lymphatic system B) reproductive system C) urinary system D) nervous system E) endocrine system 40) The figure below shows that ______.

___ ___

40)

A) homeostatic mechanisms allow cats to maintain relatively constant internal conditions even when the external environment changes B) cats experience no variations in their internal conditions C) cats are the only animals with homeostatic mechanisms D) homeostatic mechanisms allow cats to use their internal conditions to affect their external environments E) homeostatic mechanisms allow cats to sense their external environments 41) Examine the figure below, which shows negative feedback in a thermostat. If the room becomes too warm, ______.

___ ___

41)

___ ___

A) the heater is turned off B) the set point increases C) the set point decreases D) the heater is turned on E) heat is produced Use the following information to answer the following question(s).

The dune-burrowing spider Seothyra sp. lives in the Namib desert on the southwestern coast of Africa. These spiders build silk-lined burrows with a sticky silk mat at the entrance to trap insect prey. While foraging during the day, the spider remains concealed in its burrow and shielded from direct sunlight when prey are not present.

During the day, environmental temperatures vary from 17 to 73°C (63-164°F). If a spider is prevented from retreating into its burrow, it shows signs of thermal stress at 49°C, whereas unrestrained spiders continue to forage at temperatures above 65°C. In addition, spiders respond more quickly to prey stimuli during the hottest times of the day and capture prey in significantly less time when temperatures are above 49°C. The captured arthropods (prey) tend to succumb more quickly to hot surface temperatures; they are more lethargic and struggle less when captured at the high temperature ranges.

42) Based on the information in the paragraphs, spiders are likely ______.

A) not well adapted B) feverish C) ectotherms

42) ______

D) endotherms E) sometimes ectotherms and sometimes endotherms 43) When foraging spiders are too hot, they retreat into the cooler confines of their burrows. When temperatures are cooler, they move closer to the surface of the burrow to increase their body temperatures. What type of feedback system does this indicate?

A) positive and negative feedback B) neuronal feedback C) positive feedback D) hormonal feedback E) negative feedback

43) ______

44) When spiders show signs of thermal stress, this is an indication that they are unable to ______.

A) move B) thermoregulate C) osmoregulate D) reabsorb valuable ions E) excrete wastes

44) ______

1) E 2) A 3) E 4) E 5) E 6) A 7) D 8) E 9) A 10) E 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) E 15) C 16) C 17) D 18) C 19) C 20) D 21) D 22) B 23) A 24) E 25) E 26) A 27) E 28) B 29) E 30) E 31) E 32) E 33) A 34) C 35) E 36) D 37) B 38) A 39) C 40) A 41) A 42) C 43) E 44) B

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Lions are ______.

1) _______ A) filter feeders B) both herbivores and carnivores C) omnivores D) herbivores E) carnivores 2) Digestion is the ______.

A) breakdown of food into small nutrient molecules that the body can absorb B) absorption of nutrients C) conversion of glucose to ATP D) conversion of glycogen to glucose E) churning of food in the stomach and intestine

2) _______

3) The four stages of food processing are, in order: A) elimination, absorption, digestion, ingestion B) digestion, absorption, ingestion, elimination C) ingestion, digestion, absorption, elimination D) ingestion, elimination, digestion, absorption E) ingestion, absorption, elimination, digestion

3) _______

4) Which of the following is an example of mechanical digestion?

A) chewing B) peristalsis C) the breakdown of starch into glucose monomers D) the breakdown of proteins into amino acids E) the digestion of fats by lipases

4) _______

5) The digestive sac of a jellyfish has ______ openings.

A) one B) two C) three

5) _______ D) four

E) five

6) An digestive tube is best defined as ______.

A) a tube-shaped digestive compartment that has two openings and through which food moves in one direction B) a tubelike digestive compartment that has two openings and consists, at minimum, of a mouth, esophagus, stomach, intestine, and anus C) a tube-shaped digestive compartment with either one or two openings D) the compartment in which an animal digests its food E) a digestive cavity in which food is churned and mixed

6) _______

7) The main function of salivary amylase is to ______.

A) store food B) digest food C) moisten food D) catalyze the formation of vitamins E) absorb nutrients

7) _______

8) Which of the following choices lists the organs of the alimentary canal in the correct order?

8) _______

A) esophagus, pharynx, stomach, small intestine, large intestine B) esophagus, pharynx, stomach, large intestine, small intestine C) oral cavity, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine D) oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine E) pharynx, oral cavity, esophagus, stomach, large intestine 9) Digestion begins in the ______.

A) esophagus B) stomach

9) _______ C) tongue

D) oral cavity

E) pharynx

10) The tongue does all of the following except ______.

A) push food into the pharynx B) shape food into a ball C) manipulate food D) taste food E) secrete saliva

10) ______

11) Muscular action propels food through the alimentary canal by a process called ______.

A) diffusion B) peristalsis C) progurgitation D) circular contractions E) active transport

11) ______

12) What is the epiglottis?

A) a muscular sphincter that closes off the entry to the trachea during swallowing B) a muscle that moves the trachea out of line with the pharynx during swallowing C) a flap of skin that covers the entry to the trachea except during breathing D) a flap that flips down to cover the entry to the trachea during swallowing E) a muscle that moves the esophagus into line with the pharynx during swallowing

12) ______

13) The esophagus and trachea are both open to the ______.

A) posterior oral cavity B) epiglottis C) posterior nasal cavity D) larynx E) pharynx

13) ______

14) A food ball moves through the esophagus by ______.

A) peristalsis B) hydrolysis C) regurgitation D) segmentation E) mastication

14) ______

15) The stomach's gastric glands secrete ______.

A) mucus, digestive enzymes, and hydrochloric acid B) mucus only C) hydrochloric acid only D) digestive enzymes and hydrochloric acid E) digestive enzymes only

15) ______

16) Movement of chyme from the stomach to the small intestine is regulated by ______.

16) ______

A) the epiglottis B) a sphincter C) peristalsis D) the pharynx E) reverse peristalsis 17) Which of the following is the usual cause of heartburn?

A) secretion of acid by the lining of the lower esophagus B) irritation of the lower esophagus by substances in spicy food C) retention of food at the bottom of the esophagus by a sphincter that is reluctant to open D) backflow of chyme from the stomach into the esophagus E) compression of the lower esophagus by an overfilled stomach

17) ______

18) Which of the following mechanisms helps prevent gastric juice from digesting the stomach lining?

A) mucus coating the inside surface of the stomach B) pepsin breaking down proteins C) the inactivation of pepsin by hydrochloric acid D) mitosis generating enough new cells to replace the stomach lining every few days E) the continuous secretion of gastric juice

18) ______

19) The stomach mixes the food with the secretions of the stomach wall to form ______.

A) acid gastrin B) a food ball C) gastrin D) gastric juice E) chyme

19) ______

20) When the wall of the stomach fails to protect itself from erosion by gastric juice, the result is ______.

A) a duodenal ulcer B) heartburn C) nausea D) reverse peristalsis E) a gastric ulcer

20) ______

21) How does Helicobacter pylori cause gastric ulcers in humans?

A) It neutralizes the acids of the stomach.

B) It damages the stomach's mucus coat.

C) It causes the production of excess acid in the stomach.

D) H. pylori does not cause gastric ulcers.

E) None of the choices are correct.

21) ______

22) Most nutrient absorption occurs in which part of the digestive system?

A) small intestine B) large intestine C) stomach D) liver E) pancreas

22) ______

23) Bile from the liver is stored in the ______ before entering the intestine.

A) bile duct

23) ______

B) pancreas C) blood D) intestinal wall E) gallbladder 24) What is the main digestive function of the pancreas?

A) It secretes mucus into the small intestine.

B) It produces digestive enzymes and bile.

C) It aids in the control of cholesterol.

D) It produces digestive enzymes and neutralizes stomach acids.

E) It produces bile.

24) ______

25) Someone with liver failure will, in particular, have problems with the digestion and absorption of ______.

A) vitamins B) minerals C) fats D) proteins E) carbohydrates

25) ______

26) Which of the following nutrients begins undergoing digestion only when it reaches the small intestine?

A) polypeptide B) complex carbohydrate C) fat D) starch E) protein

26) ______

27) The epithelial cells lining the intestine have surface projections that increase the area for absorption. These projections are called ______.

A) flagella B) rugae C) microvilli D) cilia E) villi

27) ______

28) Absorption of water is one major function of which of the following structures?

A) appendix B) cecum C) esophagus D) rectum

28) ______ E) colon

29) Altogether, the body secretes about 7 liters of water into the alimentary canal each day. About what percentage of this water gets reabsorbed?

A) 30% B) 40% C) 50% D) 60% E) 90%

29) ______

30) Which structure stores feces until they can be eliminated?

A) anus B) rectum C) small intestine D) appendix E) none of the above

30) ______

31) ______ the direct source of energy for cells.

A) Vitamins are B) Fats are C) ATP is D) Glucose is E) Amino acids are

31) ______

32) Most human need about ______ kcal per day.

A) 500-700 B) 1,300-1,800 C) 2,500-3,000 D) 10,000-20,000 E) 20,000-30,000

32) ______

33) Your metabolic rate depends on ______.

A) your activity levels B) your stress level C) your age D) genetics E) all of these

33) ______

34) You must obtain ______.

A) organic raw materials to make your own molecules B) essential nutrients C) fuel to power all body activities D) all of the above E) none of the above

34) ______

35) Vitamins are ______.

A) organic molecules that are required in the diet in very small amounts B) required to synthesize most amino acids C) nutrients that we can synthesize from simpler molecules D) only required by children E) none of the above

35) ______

36) Certain amino acids are called essential because they ______.

A) are required for making nucleic acids B) are essential as an energy source C) are required for making protein D) store energy E) cannot be made by the body from other compounds

36) ______

37) Which mineral is needed as building material for our bones and teeth?

A) sodium B) calcium C) carbon D) phosphorus E) salt

37) ______

38) On a global scale, the most significant type of malnutrition is _____.

A) protein deficiency B) iron deficiency C) calcium deficiency D) vitamin A deficiency E) vitamin C deficiency

38) ______

39) Anorexia and bulimia ______.

A) occur when a person does not obtain all the essential amino acids

39) ______

B) occur mainly in countries where malnutrition is widespread C) occur mainly in affluent countries where thinness is idealized D) occur when the body does not receive enough vitamin C E) occur when there is a protein-deficient diet 40) The figure below shows ______.

40) ______

A) the addition of a water molecule to add an amino acid to a protein B) the building of a protein by the enzyme pepsin C) the chemical digestion of a protein D) the mechanical digestion of a protein E) none of the above 41) The figure below shows that ______.

A) when the epiglottis closes the trachea, air cannot get into the trachea B) the epiglottis squeezes food down the esophagus C) the trachea is open when you are not swallowing D) peristalsis moves food down the esophagus E) the trachea is closed when you are not swallowing

41) ______

42) The function of the structure shown below is ______.

A) to neutralize stomach acids B) to digest proteins C) to aid in mechanical digestion of food D) to absorb nutrients into the body E) to break fats into smaller droplets 43) Examine the graph below. A person with a BMI of 27 would be described as _____.

42) ______

43)

___ ___

A) it depends on the person's height B) obese C) underweight D) normal weight E) overweight Please use the following information to answer the following question(s).

Several years ago, scientists discovered a mutation in zebrafish larvae that prevented the absorption of lipids from dietary fat. Larvae carrying this mutation died shortly after they hatched because all cells need fat to carry out their normal functions. More recent studies have determined that the mutation leading to this disorder occurs in a single gene on chromosome 10. When a normal gene is inserted into embryos carrying the mutation, these fish are able to process fats normally when they hatch. To discover more about the gene’s function, researchers examined and compared cells from normal and mutant fish larvae under a microscope. A major difference was noticed in the intestinal cells. The Golgi apparatus in the intestinal cells of mutant larvae are much larger than those of normal larvae. As the Golgi apparatus processes fats and proteins, the lipids become trapped, resulting in the abnormally large size of the organelle.

44) Before fats can be digested by enzymes, what substance is needed?

A) chyme B) bile C) pepsin D) lipase E) no substance is needed

44) ______

45) Which portion of the digestive tract is specialized for absorption of the nutrients?

45) ______

A) small intestine B) mouth C) stomach D) large intestine E) pharynx

1) E 2) A 3) C 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) B 8) D 9) D 10) E 11) B 12) D 13) E 14) A 15) A 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) E 20) E 21) B 22) A 23) E 24) D 25) C 26) C 27) C 28) E 29) E 30) B 31) C 32) B 33) E 34) D 35) A 36) E 37) B 38) A 39) C 40) C 41) C 42) D 43) E 44) B 45) A

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Simple animals can exchange gases directly with the environment by ______.

1) _______ A) solute pumping B) osmosis C) bulk transport D) diffusion E) active transport 2) In humans, oxygen is delivered to the cells of the body by the ______ system.

A) endocrine

2) _______

B) circulatory C) lymphatic D) reproductive E) digestive 3) Which one of the following is a characteristic of open circulatory systems but not closed circulatory systems?

A) a vascular system

3) _______

B) open-ended blood vessels C) blood D) a heart E) All of the above are found in both open and closed circulatory systems.

4) In animals with a closed circulatory system, gas exchange occurs across the thin walls of ______.

A) arterioles B) arteries C) capillaries D) venules E) veins

4) _______

5) All veins carry ______.

A) blood away from the heart

5) _______

B) interstitial fluid C) oxygen-poor blood D) blood toward the heart E) oxygen-rich blood 6) Trace the path of a red blood cell in a circuit that takes it from the capillary bed of the right kidney to the capillary bed of the left kidney. Assume that you are doing this for an animal with a double circulation system.

A) capillary bed of right kidney → venules → veins → left atrium → left ventricle → pulmonary veins → capillaries of lungs → pulmonary arteries → right atrium → right ventricle → aorta → arteries → arterioles→ capillary bed of left kidney B) capillary bed of right kidney → venules → veins → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary arteries → capillaries of lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta → arteries → arterioles → capillary bed of left kidney C) capillary bed of right kidney → venules → veins → left atrium → left ventricle → pulmonary arteries → capillaries of lungs → pulmonary veins → right atrium → right ventricle → aorta → arteries → arterioles → capillary bed of left kidney D) capillary bed of right kidney → venules → veins → right atrium → right ventricle →

6) _______

pulmonary veins →

capillaries of lungs → pulmonary arteries → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta → arteries → arterioles → capillary bed of left kidney E) capillary bed of right kidney → arterioles → arteries → aorta → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary arteries → capillaries of lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium → left ventricle → veins → venules → capillary bed of left kidney

7) Which of these animals has a double circulatory system?

A) earthworm

7) _______

B) hydra C) dog D) grasshopper E) fish 8) Which of these carry(ies) oxygen-poor blood?

A) left ventricle

8) _______

B) left atrium C) aorta D) pulmonary veins E) pulmonary arteries 9) A heart murmur occurs when there is a defect in _____.

A) the SA node B) the timing of the cardiac cycle C) a heart valve D) the AV node E) the aorta

9) _______

10) Why is blood pressure higher during systole than during diastole?

A) More blood flows into the heart during systole than during diastole.

10) ______

B) The contraction of the heart during systole increases the blood pressure against the valves separating the atria from the ventricles.

C) The contraction of the heart during diastole decreases the blood pressure against arterial walls.

D) The relaxation of the heart during systole increases the blood pressure against arterial walls.

E) The contraction of the heart during systole increases the blood pressure against arterial walls.

11) The basic rhythm of the heartbeat is set by the ______.

A) "fight-or-flight" hormone

11) ______

B) AV node C) ventricles D) atria E) SA node 12) If your blood pressure were 120/70, it would mean that ______.

A) when your ventricles relax, the pressure against your arterial walls is 120 and when your ventricles contract, the pressure against your arterial walls is 70 B) your blood pressure during diastole is 120 and your blood pressure during systole is 70

12) ______

C) your blood pressure during systole is 120 and your heart rate is 70 D) your blood pressure during systole is 120 and your blood pressure during diastole is 70 E) you have high blood pressure 13) Blood pressure that is consistently ______ or higher would indicate that you have hypertension.

A) 100/75 B) 130/80 C) 110/85 D) 140/90 E) 120/80

13) ______

14) When you examine fluid that you have drawn from a blood vessel, you find that it is relatively high in carbon dioxide and waste products. Assuming that the fluid comes from a healthy individual, you conclude that the blood vessel from which you have drawn blood could have been ______.

A) an artery

14) ______

B) either an artery or an arteriole C) a venule D) the aorta E) an arteriole 15) Blood pressure is lowest in ______.

A) capillaries B) venules

15) ______ C) arteries

D) arterioles

E) veins

16) Plasma is primarily ______.

A) fibrinogen B) red blood cells C) water D) white blood cells E) platelets

16) ______

17) As a consequence of red blood cells' lack of nuclei and other organelles, they ______.

A) can carry more calcium

17) ______

B) contain less hemoglobin than they might otherwise be able to carry C) have more surface area available for gas exchange D) are spherical E) have a small surface area 18) Which of the following can cause anemia?

A) mineral deficiencies B) all of the above C) excessive blood loss D) vitamin deficiencies E) sickle-cell disease

18) ______

19) Which of these blood components are responsible for initiating the clotting process?

A) white blood cells

19) ______

B) leukocytes C) red blood cells D) platelets E) erythrocytes 20) White blood cells play a particularly important role in ______.

20) ______

A) fighting infections B) blood clotting C) carrying carbon dioxide D) carrying oxygen E) hemoglobin transport 21) Leukemia ______.

A) decreases the production of white blood cells

21) ______

B) increases the production of red blood cells C) is a cancer of the white blood cells D) is a cancer that arises in the lungs E) increases the formation of platelets 22) You increase your risk of cardiovascular disease by reducing your consumption of ______.

A) products that are high in cholesterol

22) ______

B) products containing trans fats C) fruits and vegetables D) red meats E) tobacco products 23) The buildup of plaque in the walls of arteries and the narrowing of the passages through which blood can flow results in ______.

A) leukemia

23) ______

B) cancer C) anemia D) low blood pressure E) atherosclerosis 24) Gas exchange requires a surface that is both ______.

A) protected within the body and connected to the circulatory system

24) ______

B) permeable to oxygen and avascular C) permeable to oxygen and impermeable to carbon dioxide D) ciliated and flagellated E) thin and moist 25) Earthworms use ______ as their respiratory surface.

A) tracheae

25) ______

B) their skin C) lungs D) gills E) all of the above 26) What structure do lobster use for gas exchange?

A) gills B) skin C) shell 27) Insects breathe using ______.

A) lungs B) tracheae

26) ______ D) tracheae

E) lungs 27) ______

C) their entire outer skin D) gills E) book lungs 28) Animals need O2 because it ______.

28) ______

A) is necessary to make CO2 B) counterbalances the CO2 in the atmosphere C) helps animals synthesize proteins D) plays a role in obtaining energy from food E) is needed to deliver hemoglobin to the cells of an animal's body 29) The ______ provide(s) a common passageway for both food and air.

A) bronchioles

29) ______

B) pharynx C) bronchi D) trachea E) alveoli 30) What path does a molecule of O2 take from the nose to the respiratory surface?

30) ______

A) pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchus → bronchiole → alveolus B) pharynx → larynx → bronchus → bronchiole → alveolus → trachea C) larynx → pharynx → trachea → bronchus → bronchiole → alveolus D) pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchiole → bronchus → alveolus E) bronchiole → alveolus → pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchus 31) In the human respiratory system, gas exchange occurs across the cells of the ______.

A) alveoli

31) ______

B) pharynx C) diaphragm D) bronchi E) trachea 32) Together, inhalation and exhalation are referred to as ______.

A) breathing

32) ______

B) atherosclerosis C) diffusion D) active transport E) negative pressure 33) Breathing is regulated by ______.

A) the spinal cord

33) ______

B) energy intake C) control centers in the brain stem D) the circulatory system E) the diaphragm and chest muscles 34) When you hold your breath, which of the following blood gas changes leads initially to the urge

to

breathe

again?

34)

___ ___

A) falling oxygen level B) rising carbon dioxide level C) rising oxygen level D) falling carbon dioxide level E) rising carbon dioxide level and falling oxygen level 35) Oxygen is mostly transported through the body ______.

A) bound to carbon

35) ______

B) dissolved in red blood cells C) bound to hemoglobin D) dissolved in the blood E) bound to dissolved iron 36) Cigarette smoking ______.

A) kills about 440,000 Americans every year

36) ______

B) irritates the cells lining the bronchi and trachea C) accounts for 90% of all cases of lung cancer D) can affect the health of nonsmokers through secondhand smoke E) all of the above 37) Why do cigarette smokers cough more than most people do?

A) By raising the pressure in the lungs, coughing forces more oxygen into the blood.

B) Cigarette smoking partially paralyzes the lungs; coughing exchanges the resultant "dead air."

C) Coughing stimulates blood flow to the lungs.

D) The tar in cigarette smoke tends to make alveoli stick closed. Coughing opens them.

E) Coughing is the respiratory system's attempt to clear itself of the toxins found in smoke.

38) The following figure illustrates ______.

37) ______

38)

A) systolic blood pressure B) the systemic circuit C) an open circulatory system D) the pulmonary circuit E) diastolic blood pressure 39) Examine the figure below. The one-way flow of blood in veins is maintained by ______.

___ ___

39)

A) their thick walls B) blood pressure C) valves D) muscles pressing against the veins E) positive pressure from the chest cavity 40) Examine the structure of blood vessels in the following figure. Which one of the following has the structure best suited to chemical exchange between the blood and tissues?

___ ___

40)

A) arteriole

___ ___

B) venule

C) capillary

D) artery

E) vein

41) Examine the figure shown. During negative pressure breathing, ______.

A) the diaphragm moves downward and the rib muscles contract, increasing the size of the chest cavity and decreasing the air pressure within the chest cavity B) an increase in air pressure within the lungs draws air in C) the nasal cavities expand and the diaphragm relaxes D) the diaphragm moves downward and the rib muscles relax, increasing the size of the chest

41) ______

cavity and

decreasing the air pressure within the chest cavity E) the diaphragm and rib muscles contract, decreasing the size of the chest cavity and increasing the pressure within the chest cavity

42) The figure below shows that ______.

42) ______

A) each iron atom can bind four oxygen molecules B) hemoglobin can bind to either oxygen or carbon dioxide C) capillaries have a structure that resembles a net D) a red blood cell contains four hemoglobin molecules E) a hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four molecules of oxygen Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Blood flowing away from the heart is under tremendous pressure, able to travel to just about any portion of the body.

However, blood pressure drops considerably as it moves away from the heart. When blood finally reaches capillaries, the blood pressure drops to nearly zero. Therefore, when a person is standing, blood returning from the feet is not moved back towards the heart by heart contractions.

43) Blood is propelled back to the heart by ______.

A) the negative pressure of the heart pulling blood into the empty chambers

43) ______

B) contractions of the walls of capillaries C) skeletal muscle contractions around veins and the action of one-way valves D) the natural flow of blood into ever larger blood vessels leading to the heart E) rhythmic contractions of muscles in the walls of veins and the action of one-way valves 44) A scientist claimed that students might get better scores on written exams if they wiggle their legs frequently while taking an exam. This could work (but it is not better than studying) because wiggling legs might ______.

A) propel more blood from the legs back to the heart, increasing oxygen flow to the brain B) shake out more of the carbon dioxide that lingers in the blood returning to the heart C) help open valves in the veins that carry blood back to the heart D) break up blood clots in the legs, which slow the movement of blood back to the heart E) add more oxygen to the blood that is returning to the heart

44) ______

45) Because of the changes in blood pressure through the circulatory system, the best way to feel a pulse is by pressing a finger against ______.

A) an artery B) a vein C) either an artery or a vein D) a capillary E) a venule

45) ______

1) D 2) B 3) B 4) C 5) D 6) B 7) C 8) E 9) C 10) E 11) E 12) D 13) D 14) C 15) E 16) C 17) C 18) B 19) D 20) A 21) C 22) C 23) E 24) E 25) B 26) A 27) B 28) D 29) B 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) C 34) B 35) C 36) E 37) E 38) D 39) C 40) C 41) A 42) E 43) C 44) A 45) A

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following is one of the body's first lines of defense against infection?

1) _______ A) several amino acid toxins B) several antibodies C) increased production of certain hormones and changes in the blood circulation D) obstacles such as skin and mucous membranes E) none of the above 2) What kinds of cells eat whatever foreign cells and molecules they encounter and recognize?

A) platelets B) phagocytic cells C) interferons D) red blood cells E) natural killer cells

2) _______

3) Which of the following kinds of protein circulates in the blood and coats the surfaces of microbes to make them more susceptible to engulfment by phagocytic cells?

A) pyrogen B) antigen C) interferon D) complement E) prostaglandin

3) _______

4) A major function of natural killer cells is to ______.

A) phagocytize microorganisms that have been tagged with antibodies B) attack and kill pathogenic microorganisms in a nonspecific way C) attack virus-infected cells in an antigen-specific way D) attack virus-infected cells in a nonspecific way E) tag pathogenic microorganisms with antibodies

4) _______

5) Complement proteins assist the immune response by ______.

A) coating the surface of microbes, making it easier for other defense cells to phagocytize them B) reducing inflammation C) enhancing the effects of antibiotics D) all of the above E) none of the above

5) _______

6) A researcher detects interferon in a laboratory rat and concludes that ______.

A) cancerous cells are present in the rat B) the rat has, or recently had, a viral infection C) the complement system is activated by exposure to an antigen D) the rat's diet is deficient in calcium E) none of the above

6) _______

7) Which of the following is a response of our innate defense system?

A) inflammation B) passive immunity C) movement of red blood cells to the affected site D) active immunity

7) _______

E) cell-mediated immunity 8) When you cut yourself, the damaged cells immediately release which of the following chemical alarm signals?

A) anti-interferon B) complement C) pyrogens D) interferon E) histamine

8) _______

9) Histamine ______.

A) causes local swelling of the affected area B) causes local blood vessels to restrict fluid loss C) decreases blood flow to the affected area D) causes local blood vessels to constrict E) all of the above

9) _______

10) The major result of the inflammatory response is to ______.

A) initiate the release of interferons B) promote the division of white blood cells C) initiate the production of natural killer cells D) disinfect and clean damaged tissues E) initiate the production of antibodies

10) ______

11) Why do diseases involving widespread infection often result in a fever?

A) The inflammatory and immune responses result in extra heat production.

B) The microorganisms trick the brain's temperature control center into creating a hot environment that favors their growth.

C) The rapid multiplication of the invading microorganisms results in extra heat production.

D) The brain's temperature control center responds to inflammation by creating a hot environment unfavorable to the growth of microorganisms.

E) None of the choices is correct.

11) ______

12) The two main functions of the lymphatic system are ______.

A) coagulating blood and fighting infections B) producing hormones that regulate the immune system and fighting infections C) producing hormones that regulate the immune system and coagulating blood D) returning tissue fluid to the circulatory system and fighting infections E) returning tissue fluid to the circulatory system and coagulating blood

12) ______

13) Antibodies are ______.

A) amino acids B) carbohydrates C) lipids D) nucleic acids E) proteins

13) ______

14) A substance that can elicit an immune response from a lymphocyte is called a(n) ______.

A) interferon B) complement C) antigen D) antibody

14) ______

E) histamine 15) One kind of vaccine consists of a solution containing ______.

A) horse serum B) a harmless variant of a disease-causing microbe C) antibodies D) B cells E) antibiotics

15) ______

16) Which of the following cell types are specifically responsible for humoral immunity?

A) natural killer cells B) B cells C) interferons D) phagocytic cells E) T cells

16) ______

17) Which of the following cell types are specifically responsible for cell-mediated immunity?

A) B cells B) natural killer cells C) phagocytic cells D) interferons E) T cells

17) ______

18) The immune system is capable of mounting specific responses to particular microorganisms because ______.

A) the body is able to make different antigen receptors depending on the invading microorganism B) lymphocytes are able to change their antigen specificity as required to fight infection C) the body contains an enormous diversity of lymphocytes, each with a specific kind of antigen receptor D) the body is able to determine which type of B and T cells to make E) body cells are able to change their antigen specificity as required to fight infection

18) ______

19) Antibodies ______.

A) assist in destroying particular antigens B) consist of three polypeptide chains C) are shaped like the letter B D) are generalists in that any antibody can bind to any antigen E) all of the above

19) ______

20) The functions of antibodies include ______.

A) the phagocytosis of invading bacteria B) stimulating the production of antigens C) the clumping of invader cells D) the deactivation of complement proteins E) stimulating invaders to divide and multiply

20) ______

21) When in its life cycle does a B cell first exhibit its particular surface antibody?

A) after it encounters several antigens B) before it ever encounters an antigen C) after it encounters a single antigen D) before the stem cell giving rise to it divides

21) ______

E) after the memory cell giving rise to it divides 22) When a B or T cell is primed by an interaction with its particular antigen, the cell ______.

A) engulfs the antigen and destroys it B) dies, killing the antigen C) grows, divides, and differentiates further D) converts the antigen to a nonharmful form E) sticks to other cells with attached antigens to form a large clot

22) ______

23) Monoclonal antibodies are produced ______.

A) by cancerous tumors B) by cells that are formed when a B cell is fused to a T cell C) when a female is pregnant D) during clonal selection E) when a person is infected by a single type of pathogen

23) ______

24) A primary immune response is the ______.

A) immune response elicited by the first exposure of memory cells to a particular antigen B) immune response elicited by the primary antigen of a disease-causing microorganism C) production of primary-type antibodies in the first day of exposure to a microorganism D) immune response elicited by the primary antibody of a disease-causing microorganism E) immune response elicited by the first exposure of lymphocytes to a particular antigen

24) ______

25) Which of the following cell types initiates a secondary immune response?

A) effector cells B) memory cells C) immature leukocytes D) plasma cells E) natural killer cells

25) ______

26) The secondary response in humoral immunity occurs when memory cells bind to ______.

A) particular antibodies B) particular hormones C) plasma cells D) particular clones E) antigens

26) ______

27) A humoral-type secondary immune response differs from the corresponding primary immune response in that the secondary response ______.

A) results in fewer antibodies in the blood B) is slower C) is less effective D) is able to target microorganisms even if they have altered their surface antigens E) none of the above

27) ______

28) The basic function of T cells is to identify and destroy invaders in our ______.

A) interstitial fluid B) brain C) cells D) blood or lymph E) immune system

28) ______

29) Which of the following substances does a cytotoxic T cell secrete to destroy a target cell?

A) pyrogen B) complement C) antibodies D) perforin E) interferon

29) ______

30) ______ may destroy infected cells.

A) Allergens B) Phagocytic cells C) Cytotoxic T cells D) B cells E) Helper T cells

30) ______

31) Which of the following compounds do mast cells produce?

A) interferon B) perforin C) histamine D) allergens E) complement

31) ______

32) Anaphylactic shock is an example of an ______.

A) acquired autoimmune disease B) allergic response C) acquired immunodeficiency disease D) autoimmune disease E) immunodeficiency disease

32) ______

33) It is best to receive an organ transplant from a donor who ______.

A) is a sibling B) rarely consumes alcohol C) looks like you D) best matches your self proteins E) does not have any allergies

33) ______

34) Which type of immune response is always disadvantageous to a person?

A) inflammatory B) humoral-mediated C) cell-mediated D) autoimmune diseases E) All immune responses are advantageous.

34) ______

35) Which of the following statements best explains why people with Hodgkin's disease often show signs of immunodeficiency?

A) Hodgkin's disease occurs when an immune response elicited by streptococcal bacteria kills normal heart cells as well.

B) The Hodgkin's disease virus infects and destroys B cells.

C) Hodgkin's disease consists of a cancerous proliferation of one kind of lymphocyte.

D) Hodgkin's disease involves the deposition of immune complexes in the kidneys.

E) Both Hodgkin's disease itself and the radiation and chemotherapy used to treat it tend to depress the immune system.

35) ______

36) Which of the following types of cells does HIV preferentially infect?

A) helper T cells B) natural killer cells C) cytotoxic T cells D) phagocytic cells E) memory cells

36) ______

37) What has caused the evolution of drug-resistant strains of HIV? A) the joining of antibodies to HIV B) the radiation of HIV from the sun C) the merger of different AIDS viruses into one new virus D) anti-AIDS drugs E) genetic engineering of the virus in research laboratories

37) ______

38) Examine the numerous long structures extending from the surface of some of the cells in the following figure. Cells with these long structures could be found lining ______.

38) ______

A) the trachea B) the mouth C) the digestive tract D) veins E) arteries 39) The figure below shows a Y-shaped antibody molecule. How many antigens can a single antibody molecule bind?

39)

A) 0

___ ___

B) 1

C) 2

D) 3

E) 4

40) Three B cells are shown in the figure. Which of these B cells will begin to grow, divide, and differentiate further?

A) only the B cell on the left B) only the B cell in the middle

40) ______

C) only the B cell on the right D) all three B cells E) you cannot tell from the information provided 41) Examine the photograph of the hand in the following figure. The person’s joints are severely damaged because ______.

41) ______

A) the immune system has damaged the cartilage and bone of the joints B) cytotoxic T cells have destroyed the bone in the fingers C) T cells have reacted against the myelin in the hand D) a viral infection has attacked the cartilage of the fingers E) B cells have destroyed the blood vessels in the hand Read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Avian influenza is a viral infection that naturally occurs in wild birds with few damaging effects. However, avian influenza is highly contagious and can quickly kill domesticated birds. Some human influenza viruses are similar to the avian influenza. People infected with avian influenza develop typical flu symptoms (fever, cough, muscle aches).

However, symptoms may become more severe and life-threatening. If avian influenza evolves into a form that is easily transmissible from person to person, a global pandemic of widespread human death might occur.

42) One way to prevent a global pandemic of avian influenza would be to ______.

A) develop a vaccine against the avian influenza virus B) provide most people with drugs that stimulate the production of pyrogens C) keep large doses of histamine available to treat anyone who shows signs of infection D) develop drugs that could effectively block anaphylactic shock E) treat any infected birds with large doses of antibiotics

42) ______

43) Which of the following cells would be active during an immune response to a viral infection?

A) natural killer cells B) all of the above C) phagocytic cells D) T cells E) B cells

43) ______

44) Humans that are infected with avian influenza are likely to have elevated levels of ______.

44) ______

A) histamine B) lysozyme C) interferons D) allergens E) pyrogens

1) D 2) B 3) D 4) D 5) A 6) B 7) A 8) E 9) A 10) D 11) D 12) D 13) E 14) C 15) B 16) B 17) E 18) C 19) A 20) C 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) E 25) B 26) E 27) E 28) C 29) D 30) C 31) C 32) B 33) D 34) D 35) E 36) A 37) D 38) A 39) C 40) B 41) A 42) A 43) B 44) C

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Hormones are usually transported through ______ and affect only cells with ______.

1) _______ A) microtubules . . . microvilli B) ducts . . . cilia C) lymph vessels . . . cell membranes D) blood vessels . . . specific receptors E) intercellular junctions . . . cell junctions 2) If a cell is like a house, which one of the following is most similar to the way that a steroid hormone works?

A) Radio signals are received by a stereo in your bedroom.

B) You meet some friends at a restaurant and share stories.

C) A visitor to your home knocks on your front door.

D) A postal worker leaves mail for you at your front door.

E) You walk outside of your home to get a better signal on your cell phone.

2) _______

3) Hormones regulate ______.

A) growth B) reproduction C) metabolism D) maturation E) all of the above

3) _______

4) Hormones that bind to plasma membrane receptors ______.

A) cannot pass through cell membranes B) are produced in the interstitial fluid C) bind to DNA and cause changes in transcription D) are steroid hormones E) are small hydrophilic molecules

4) _______

5) Nonsteroid hormones are derived from ______.

A) nucleic acids B) long-chain fatty acids C) amino acids D) carbohydrates E) cholesterol

5) _______

6) Hormones are made from all of the following classes of compounds except ______.

A) steroids B) proteins C) peptides D) carbohydrates E) amines

6) _______

7) A cell that is affected by a particular steroid hormone would be expected to have ______.

A) enzymes that are activated or inactivated by the hormone's second messenger B) DNA sites that interact with the hormone C) a receptor inside the cell that binds the hormone D) a cell-surface receptor that binds the hormone

7) _______

E) enzymes that are activated or inactivated by the hormone-receptor complex 8) From what kind of molecules are steroid hormones derived?

A) nucleic acids B) amino acids C) carbohydrates and amino acids D) cholesterol E) carbohydrates

8) _______

9) Steroid hormones ______.

A) bind to receptors in the cytoplasm or nucleus B) trigger a signal transduction pathway when they bind to a receptor C) bind to mRNA in the cytoplasm to initiate transcription D) consist of large glycoprotein molecules E) all of the above

9) _______

10) Hormones derived from amino acids can cause different effects in different cells depending on the type of cell and ______.

A) the particular organelle that is targeted B) its signal transduction pathway C) the binding of the hormone to either DNA or RNA D) the nature of the hormone’s interaction with different parts of the cytoskeleton E) all of the above

10) ______

11) Which of the following has both endocrine and nonendocrine functions?

A) thyroid gland B) salivary gland C) pancreas D) skeletal muscle E) pituitary gland

11) ______

12) Which of the following is a nonsteroid hormone?

A) a glucocorticoid B) glucagon C) estrogen D) androgen E) a progestin

12) ______

13) Which of the following is part of the brain?

A) parathyroid B) hypothalamus C) thymus D) adrenal cortex E) thyroid

13) ______

14) Which one of the following statements is true?

A) Inhibiting hormones make the anterior pituitary secrete hormones.

B) The pituitary secretes hormones that influence numerous body functions.

C) The pituitary is the master control center of the entire endocrine system.

D) The posterior pituitary is composed of endocrine cells.

E) The anterior pituitary is composed of nervous tissue.

14) ______

15) FSH is a hormone that ______.

A) stimulates growth B) raises blood glucose levels C) lowers blood glucose levels D) increases blood pressure E) helps to regulate the female menstrual cycle

15) ______

16) Which of the following hormones is made by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary?

A) estrogen B) ADH C) calcitonin D) growth hormone E) insulin

16) ______

17) Which of these hormones is countered by diuretics such as alcohol?

A) GH B) PTH C) ADH D) FSH

17) ______ E) glucagon

18) Which of the following choices does NOT pair an endocrine gland or hormone with an aspect of metabolism that it regulates?

A) ovary female sexual characteristics B) prolactin blood potassium levels C) pancreas blood glucose levels D) insulin blood glucose levels E) parathyroid blood calcium levels

18) ______

19) Which of the following hormones affects the greatest variety of cell types?

A) growth hormone B) calcitonin C) insulin D) endorphin E) prolactin

19) ______

20) Eating very spicy food stimulates the release of ______.

A) glucagon B) endorphins C) insulin D) ADH E) calcitonin

20) ______

21) One of your best friends loves to run long distances. You ask her what she enjoys about running.

In addition to good physical fitness, she tells you that after a run she feels extra happy. You suspect that her joy might be related to increased production of ______ by the anterior pituitary gland.

A) ibuprofen B) inhibiting hormones C) prolactin D) endorphins E) releasing hormones

21) ______

22) Which gland requires the element iodine to produce its hormones?

A) adrenal medulla

22) ______

B) thyroid C) pituitary D) pineal E) ovary 23) ______ can be a symptom of hypothyroidism.

A) Graves' disease B) Goiter C) A low sperm count D) Hot flashes E) Hyperactivity 24) Calcitonin is antagonistic to ______.

A) FSH B) PTH

23) ______

24) ______ C) PRL

D) GH

E) LH

25) Which of the following may be a consequence of excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone?

A) loss of calcium from the blood B) loss of calcium from the bone C) giantism D) exhaustion of the immune system E) convulsive contractions of skeletal muscles

25) ______

26) Which of the following best describes the relationship of insulin to glucagon?

A) High levels of insulin inhibit pancreatic secretion of glucagon.

B) Insulin is a steroid hormone; glucagon is a protein hormone.

C) Insulin stimulates the pancreas to secrete glucagon.

D) They are antagonistic hormones.

E) They work together to prepare the body to deal with stress.

26) ______

27) Which structure exerts primary control over the concentration of sugar in the blood?

A) pineal B) parathyroid C) pituitary D) liver E) pancreas

27) ______

28) When the concentration of glucose in the blood rises following the digestion of a meal, what is the hormonal response?

A) Insulin is released, but not glucagon.

B) The total amount of insulin in the blood decreases.

C) Neither glucagon nor insulin is released.

D) Both glucagon and insulin are released.

E) Glucagon is released, but not insulin.

28) ______

29) Which of the following hormones causes a rise in the concentration of sugar in the blood?

A) melatonin B) oxytocin C) calcitonin D) glucagon E) insulin

29) ______

30) What is the metabolic abnormality that underlies the characteristic symptoms of diabetes mellitus, such as frequent urination?

A) an inability of the body's cells to retain glucose they have absorbed from the blood B) an inability of the body's cells to absorb enough glucose from the blood C) a failure of the gastrointestinal epithelium to absorb enough glucose from food

30) ______

D) a failure of the kidney tubules to reabsorb enough glucose from the urine E) an inability of the body's cells to switch from glucose metabolism to fat metabolism between meals 31) Which of the following is almost always associated with being overweight and underactive?

A) type 1 diabetes B) type 2 diabetes C) type 3 diabetes D) hyperthermia E) hypoglycemia

31) ______

32) Which of the following glands is located nearest the kidneys?

A) adrenal glands B) ovaries C) pineal glands D) parathyroid glands E) pancreas

32) ______

33) Which of the following glands secretes hormones that enable the body to respond to stress?

A) pineal B) salivary C) pancreas D) adrenal E) parathyroid

33) ______

34) Epinephrine ______.

A) increases breathing rate B) decreases metabolic rate C) decreases heart rate D) decreases blood pressure E) increases absorption of glucose by the digestive tract

34) ______

35) Which of the following is(are) mostly involved in a long-lasting response to stress?

A) androgens B) mineralocorticoids C) melatonin D) oxytocin E) glucocorticoids

35) ______

36) Which of the following hormones can make a person susceptible to infection when administered for too long as a drug?

A) glucocorticoids B) glucagon C) androgens D) antidiuretic hormone E) growth hormone

36) ______

37) Hyposecretion of ______ may inhibit your response to stress.

A) insulin B) ACTH C) PRL D) PTH

37) ______

38) Estrogens stimulate the development of ______.

A) sperm production

E) GH 38) ______

B) breasts C) facial hair D) larger skeletal muscles E) a low-pitched voice 39) Which of the following are sex hormones?

A) progestins B) androgens C) estrogens D) all of the above E) none of the above

39) ______

40) Which of the following is secreted by a sexually mature, premenopausal woman?

A) progesterone B) testosterone C) estrogen D) progestins E) all of the above

40) ______

41) Examine the following figure. What is special about the target cells that allows them to respond to the hormone? Only the target cell ______.

41) ______

A) have blood vessels going to them B) located in organs next to the kidneys can respond C) are close enough to the blood vessels to respond D) have specific receptors to the hormone E) touch the blood vessels 42) Examine the figure below. If blood glucose levels decline, ______.

42)

___ ___

A) liver cells convert glucose to glycogen B) you must have just eaten a carbohydrate-rich meal C) the pancreas releases insulin, which causes glucose to be released into the blood D) body cells take up more glucose E) the pancreas releases glucagon, which causes glucose to be released into the blood 43) Examine the figure below. The behavior exhibited by these elephant seals is promoted by _____.

43) ______

A) calcitonin B) growth hormone C) estrogen D) testosterone E) antagonistic hormones Please read the following scenario to answer the following question(s).

Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by loss of bone mass and an increased susceptibility to bone fractures. It threatens more than half of all Americans over the age of 50. Women are about four times more likely to suffer from the disease than men. Osteoporosis may progress undetected until bones become so weak that they break during common activities.

Prevention of osteoporosis includes regular weight-bearing exercise, recommended intake of calcium and vitamin D, and

avoidance of smoking and excessive alcohol.

44) In the human body, calcium levels are regulated by the ______.

A) interactions of glucocorticoids and androgens B) antagonistic actions of insulin and glucagon C) combined effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine D) antagonistic actions of calcitonin and parathyroid hormone E) interactions of follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone

44) ______

45) Osteoporosis could be caused by overactivity of ______.

A) glucocorticoids B) the adrenal cortex C) the adrenal medulla D) the parathyroid gland E) the thyroid gland

45) ______

46) Soon after eating a calcium-rich breakfast of yogurt and fortified cereal, your blood levels of calcium increase, stimulating the release of ______.

A) parathyroid hormone B) glucagon C) calcitonin D) glucocorticoids E) insulin

46) ______

1) D 2) A 3) E 4) A 5) C 6) D 7) C 8) D 9) A 10) B 11) C 12) B 13) B 14) B 15) E 16) B 17) C 18) B 19) A 20) B 21) D 22) B 23) B 24) B 25) B 26) D 27) E 28) A 29) D 30) B 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) A 35) E 36) A 37) B 38) B 39) D 40) E 41) D 42) E 43) D 44) D 45) D 46) C

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Why has there been a dramatic increase in the number of multiple births in the United States 1) _______ since 1980?

A) Women have increasingly used fertility drugs.

B) The switch to birth control pills that use testosterone has increased ovulation frequency.

C) Hormones from the nation's food supply have caused women to release extra eggs.

D) The increased use of thyroid hormones has caused both ovaries to ovulate extra eggs.

E) Nobody knows. It is a big mystery.

2) Which of the following is an aspect of asexual reproduction that is sometimes disadvantageous?

A) It allows animals that do not move around to produce offspring without finding mates.

B) It saves the time and energy of gamete production.

C) It produces genetically uniform populations.

D) It allows a population to expand quickly to exploit available resources.

E) It allows an animal to produce many offspring quickly.

2) _______

3) Asexual reproduction A) generates enormous genetic variation.

B) creates individuals with unique combinations of genes.

C) is an effective way for animals to expand their population quickly and exploit an available environment.

D) provides greater adaptability to changing environments.

E) none of the above

3) _______

4) Which of the following is associated with sexual reproduction?

A) fragmentation B) fission C) regeneration D) budding E) none of the above

4) _______

5) Hermaphrodites are animals that ______.

A) have the gonads of one sex but the external appearance of the other B) usually fertilize themselves C) possess both male and female reproductive systems D) develop from unfertilized eggs E) have abnormal reproductive systems

5) _______

6) Reproductive systems with external fertilization are most common in ______.

A) populations with many more males than females B) terrestrial animals C) populations with many more females than males D) animals that are widely dispersed E) aquatic animals

6) _______

7) Where in a woman's reproductive tract does fertilization most often take place?

A) in the lower part of the oviduct B) in the upper part of the oviduct C) in the uterus

7) _______

D) in the vagina E) in the ovary 8) What moves the human egg through the oviduct?

A) rhythmic contractions of the oviduct B) the beating of cilia in the oviduct C) rhythmic contractions of the uterus D) the beating of the egg's flagella E) the beating of the egg's cilia

8) _______

9) Into which layer of the uterus does the embryo implant?

A) exometrium B) myometrium C) epimetrium D) endometrium E) perimetrium

9) _______

10) In a human female reproductive system, the ______.

A) outer features are collectively called the vulva B) vagina secretes hormones that help maintain the uterine lining C) labia minora are a pair of thick, fatty ridges that protect the entire genital region D) hymen partly covers the cervical opening E) cervix develops into a corpus luteum after ovulation

10) ______

11) Why are human testes located in an external sac rather than in the abdominal cavity?

A) so the testes can be kept at a constant temperature B) to shorten the distance that semen must travel during ejaculation C) so the testes can be kept cooler than the body's interior D) to shorten the distance that sperm must swim during insemination E) so the testes can enlarge at sexual maturity

11) ______

12) Which one of the following statements is true?

A) Oogenesis in humans is completed after stimulation by sperm.

B) Spermatogenesis begins before birth.

C) Meiosis in oogenesis produces four mature eggs from one primary oocyte.

D) Oogenesis begins during puberty.

E) Meiosis in spermatogenesis produces two cells from one primary spermatocyte.

12) ______

13) Menstruation ______.

A) is stimulated by HCG B) occurs after ovulation but prior to degeneration of the follicle C) is triggered by an LH surge D) is triggered by an increase in the levels of estrogen and progesterone.

E) involves the breakdown of the endometrium

13) ______

14) In human females, the ovarian cycle begins when the ______.

A) level of progesterone drops precipitously B) hypothalamus increases its release of FSH and LH C) levels of estrogen reach their maximum D) hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to increase its output of FSH and LH E) levels of FSH and LH drop precipitously

14) ______

15) What would happen if the embryo failed to secrete HCG? A) Neural tube formation would not occur, and the embryo would not have a brain.

B) The fetal elements of the placenta would fail to develop.

C) The embryo would be aborted.

D) The yolk sac would not produce blood.

E) The maternal elements of the placenta would fail to develop.

15) ______

16) Which one of the following statements is true?

A) A vasectomy involves removing a section of each vas deferens.

B) Natural family planning is one of the most reliable forms of birth control.

C) Tubal ligation prevents ovulation.

D) Morning-after pills are about 25% effective at preventing pregnancy.

E) The most widely used birth control pills consist primarily of testosterone.

16) ______

17) Which of the following types of pathogens cause sexually transmitted diseases that are generally not curable?

A) spirochetes B) HIV but not other viruses C) bacteria D) viruses E) fungi

17) ______

18) Which one of the following STDs is not caused by a virus?

A) genital warts B) AIDS C) chlamydia D) genital herpes E) All of the choices are caused by viruses.

18) ______

19) A sperm cell's acrosome ______.

A) contains the fuel that powers the sperm B) contains enzymes that are released when the sperm encounters an egg and dissolves a hole in the jellylike matrix that surrounds the egg C) contains the sperm's mitochondria D) contains the sperm's nucleus and is the part of the sperm that enters the egg during fertilization E) fuses with the plasma membrane of the egg cell

19) ______

20) Which one of the following is the first event of fertilization?

A) The sperm nucleus enters the cytoplasm of the egg.

B) The sperm head plasma membrane fuses with the egg plasma membrane.

C) The nuclei of the sperm and egg fuse.

D) Sperm contact the jelly coat around the egg.

E) Enzymes from the acrosome are released.

20) ______

21) Which of these events occurs first?

A) cleavage B) gastrulation C) implantation D) labor E) formation of the placenta

21) ______

22) Which of the following results from cleavage?

A) segmentation B) formation of the nervous system C) more cells D) formation of the notochord E) formation of the digestive system

22) ______

23) The liver, pancreas, and lining of the digestive tract come from ______.

A) noctoderm B) endoderm C) mesoderm D) ectoderm E) neural crest cells

23) ______

24) Gastrulation ______.

A) stimulates labor B) changes the hollow blastocyst into a hollow embryo that has three tissue layers C) changes a hollow embryo into a solid gastrula D) changes the solid blastocyst into a hollow embryo that has three tissue layers E) changes a gastrula into a blastocyst

24) ______

25) Mesoderm gives rise to the ______.

A) kidneys B) heart C) muscles D) all of the above E) none of the above

25) ______

26) Which one of the following is a result of programmed cell death?

A) gastrulation B) formation of fingers in humans C) formation of the brain D) formation of the notochord E) cleavage

26) ______

27) When a chemical signal from a group of embryonic cells causes a different, nearby group of cells to embark on a particular developmental course (say, differentiating into a leg), the interaction between the two groups of cells is called ______.

A) potentiation B) coordinated differentiation C) induction D) entrainment E) programmed cell death

27) ______

28) What is gestation?

A) ovulation B) development C) conception D) pregnancy E) fertilization

28) ______

29) The yolk sac of humans ______.

29) ______

A) secretes HCG B) produces blood cells and gamete-forming cells C) stores nutrients to support the developing embryo D) absorbs nutrients from, and releases waste to, the mother's blood E) envelops the developing fetus 30) The lifeline between the embryo and the placenta ______.

A) is called the umbilical cord B) develops from the uterus C) develops after the 12 weeks of gestation D) is derived from the amnion E) is derived from the yolk sac

30) ______

31) The human embryo's first blood cells arise in the ______.

A) developing liver B) amnion C) developing bone marrow D) yolk sac E) allantois

31) ______

32) When does the human embryo implant in the wall of the uterus?

A) about an hour after gastrulation B) within a few hours of fertilization C) about a day after gastrulation D) about a week after conception E) about a day after conception

32) ______

33) At which of the following gestational ages does a developing human first look obviously human and not like other vertebrate embryos?

A) 9 weeks B) 4 months C) 7 months D) 4 weeks E) 2 weeks

33) ______

34) At about what point in gestation does the fetal heartbeat become audible by stethoscope and the fetus's movements easily felt by the mother?

A) 25 weeks B) 20 weeks C) 30 weeks D) 10 weeks E) 15 weeks

34) ______

35) Which of the following processes dominates the third trimester of human development?

A) formation of internal organs B) formation of external features such as arms and legs C) organ formation D) growth E) formation of hair and fingernails

35) ______

36) Which of the following substances stimulates contractions in uterine smooth muscle during labor?

A) progesterone B) oxytocin C) prolactin D) epinephrine E) estrogen

36) ______

37) Which of the following correctly lists the three stages of labor, in the proper order?

A) contractions, dilation, expulsion

37) ______

B) dilation, expulsion, delivery of the placenta C) contractions, dilation, crowning D) dilation, crowning, expulsion E) dilation, crowning, delivery of the placenta 38) Bill suffers from a low sperm count. After meeting with his physician, he tells his wife that there might be a simple solution. Bill's physician suggests that he might raise his sperm count by ______.

A) drinking a few alcoholic beverages each day B) drinking more orange juice C) riding a bicycle D) wearing boxer shorts E) having sex more often

38) ______

39) The "grandmother hypothesis" suggests that a woman can increase her reproductive fitness by ______.

A) focusing her energy on caring for the children she has, instead of on producing more B) moving away from her children and grandchildren C) raising the children of her sisters instead of producing more children D) helping her sisters produce more children E) focusing her energy on the production of as many children as possible before reaching menopause

39) ______

40) The animal in the accompanying figure illustrates ______.

40) ______

A) regeneration B) budding

C) fragmentation D) fission E) none of the above 41) The figure shows male reproductive anatomy. In a human male reproductive system ______.

A) sperm mature in the prostate gland B) the vas deferens conducts sperm between the testis and epididymis C) the sperm travel through the urethra during ejaculation D) sperm mature in the urethra E) none of the above 42) The figure shows oogenesis. What is the function of the polar bodies that are produced during oogenesis? They are a mechanism that allows for ______.

41) ______

42)

A) the shedding of excess nutrients during the production of a haploid ovum B) the shedding of excess mitochondria during the production of a haploid ovum C) streamlining of the ovum so as to facilitate the penetration of an ovum by a sperm D) the shedding of excess cytoplasm during the production of a haploid ovum E) the shedding of excess genetic material during the production of a haploid ovum 43) The figure shows a human embryo 31 days after conception. Which of the following structures is part of the placenta?

___ ___

43)

A) corpus luteum B) chorion C) yolk sac D) follicle E) amnion 44) Examine the embryo in the following figure. The hands and feet of this embryo appear paddle-like, with no distinct toes or fingers. What process is needed to define each of the toes and fingers?

___ ___

44)

___ ___

A) gastrulation B) implantation C) neurulation D) induction E) programmed cell death Please read the following paragraph and then answer the following question(s).

Birth control methods act at many points in the reproductive cycle. Some options, such as birth control pills, are highly effective at preventing pregnancy. However, only a few commonly available methods are effective at preventing the transmission of sexually transmitted disease. The Center for Disease Control estimates that each year about 10 million new STD infections strike people ages 15 to 24.

45) Which of the following birth control methods provides the most effective protection against pregnancy and sexually transmitted disease for sexually active people?

A) the pill B) latex condoms C) spermicides D) a diaphragm E) the rhythm method

45) ______

46) A diaphragm functions as a birth control device by ______.

A) preventing implantation of an embryo B) preventing ovulation C) preventing the movement of sperm into the uterus D) preventing the movement of sperm into the vagina E) stimulating the production of sperm-killing antibodies

46) ______

47) A vasectomy ______.

47) ______

A) prevents the production of semen B) prevents the production of sperm in the testes C) prevents the movement of sperm into the urethra D) is an effective method to prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted disease E) prevents a man from having an erection

1) A 2) C 3) C 4) E 5) C 6) E 7) B 8) B 9) D 10) A 11) C 12) A 13) E 14) D 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) C 19) B 20) D 21) A 22) C 23) B 24) B 25) D 26) B 27) C 28) D 29) B 30) A 31) D 32) D 33) A 34) B 35) D 36) B 37) B 38) D 39) A 40) B 41) C 42) E 43) B 44) E 45) B 46) C 47) C

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The two major divisions of the nervous system are the ______.

1) _______ A) voluntary and involuntary B) sympathetic and parasympathetic C) ANS and SNS D) sensory and motor E) CNS and PNS 2) The cells that carry electric signals from one part of the body to another in the nervous system are _____.

A) synapses B) dendrites C) cell bodies D) effectors E) neurons

2) _______

3) Integration ______.

A) occurs only at sensory neurons B) is the assimilation of memories by the limbic system C) inevitably results in the attainment of a threshold potential D) occurs at the axon E) is the interpretation of sensory signals and the formulation of responses

3) _______

4) As you prepare to head off to class, you reach up to grab a pencil, but poke the tip of your finger.

Quickly, and without thinking, you pull your hand back. Which of the following is the correct sequence of neuronal action involved in this reflexive response?

A) motor neuron, sensory neuron, interneuron B) sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron C) interneuron, sensory neuron, motor neuron D) sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron E) motor neuron, interneuron, sensory neuron

4) _______

5) Which of the following neurons are part of the peripheral nervous system?

A) interneuron neuron and motor neuron B) interneuron neuron and sensory neuron C) sensory neuron and motor neuron D) only interneurons E) only sensory neurons

5) _______

6) Multiple sclerosis primarily involves ______.

A) destruction of the medulla oblongata B) destruction of the myelin sheath C) destruction of regions of the cerebral cortex D) deterioration of the corpus callosum E) deterioration of parts of the spinal cord

6) _______

7) Which of the following carry incoming messages toward the cell body of a neuron?

A) axons B) myosin filaments C) supporting cells D) dendrites E) actin filaments

7) _______

8) Outnumbering neurons by up to 50 to 1, which cells protect, insulate, and reinforce neurons?

A) supporting cells B) axon cells C) sensory cells D) satellite cells E) motor cells

8) _______

9) The minimum change in a membrane's voltage that must occur to trigger an action potential is the _____.

A) triggering charge B) minimum voltage C) voltage potential D) threshold E) triggering voltage

9) _______

10) What causes the inside of a membrane to become positively charged during an action potential?

A) Negatively charged ions rush out.

B) Negatively charged ions switch to become positively charged.

C) Positively charged ions rush in.

D) Positively charged ions are created.

E) Negatively charged ions are destroyed.

10) ______

11) The movement of an action potential along a neuron is most like ______.

A) the ripples created by dropping a pebble into a pond, gradually decreasing in size as the waves spread apart B) a crowd at a sporting event doing the wave around a stadium C) the sound of your voice spreading out as you yell loudly to your friend while at a park D) a radio tower emitting a signal that reaches only a small region E) the siren of an ambulance spreading out as the vehicle travels quickly down a highway

11) ______

12) Action potentials relay different intensities of information by changing in ______.

A) shape relative to the strength of the stimulus B) strength relative to the strength of the stimulus C) frequency relative to the strength of the stimulus D) duration relative to the strength of the stimulus E) speed of travel relative to the strength of the stimulus

12) ______

13) In a chemical synapse, what is the name of the gap between the transmitting and receiving neurons?

A) synaptic knob B) gap junction C) synaptic cleft D) gap myelin E) synaptic node

13) ______

14) Which of the following neurotransmitters is associated with sleep, mood, attention, and learning?

A) GABA B) epinephrine C) serotonin D) endorphins E) acetylcholine

14) ______

15) Which of the following statements is true?

A) Heroin binds to endorphin receptors.

B) Valium blocks the receptors for inhibitory neurotransmitters.

C) Alcohol decreases the inhibitory effect of GABA. D) Amphetamines and cocaine decrease the release and availability of norepinephrine and dopamine at synapses.

E) Caffeine promotes the inhibitory neurotransmitters.

15) ______

16) Where would we expect to find electrical synapses?

A) within the spinal cord B) within skeletal muscles C) within the heart D) within the brain E) all of the above

16) ______

17) Which of the following is(are) part of the central nervous system?

A) nerves B) ganglia C) brain and spinal cord D) brain only E) spinal cord only

17) ______

18) What part of the nervous system cushions the CNS and helps supply it with nutrients, hormones, and white blood cells?

A) the bones of the skull B) cerebrospinal fluid C) interneurons D) sensory neurons E) ganglia

18) ______

19) Which of the following effects could result from activation of the sympathetic nervous system?

A) increased saliva production B) decreased heart rate C) decreased rate of digestion D) constriction of the bronchi E) decreased rate of breathing

19) ______

20) Realizing that you did not study as much as you needed to for this exam, you start to take the test. However, it is difficult to concentrate because your heart is racing, your stomach seems tied in a knot, you are breathing too quickly, and your mouth is dry. Most likely, you are experiencing the effects of the ______.

A) parasympathetic nervous system B) spinal cord reflexes C) central nervous system D) sympathetic nervous system E) somatic nervous system

20) ______

21) You start to trip, but you keep your balance and don't fall. Which of the following brain regions is responsible for the rapid coordination of muscle activity that kept you from falling?

A) hypothalamus B) cerebral cortex

21) ______

C) cerebrum D) cerebellum E) thalamus 22) Which, if any, of the following types of personal characteristics are not based in the cerebral cortex?

A) mathematical abilities B) reasoning abilities C) artistic talents D) personality traits E) All of the choices are based in the cerebral cortex.

22) ______

23) Which one of the following correctly pairs the structure with its major function(s)?

A) thalamus coordinates balance B) cerebellum regulates memory, learning, and speech C) hypothalamus regulates body temperature, blood pressure, and hunger D) brainstem input center for sensory data going to the cerebrum E) all of the above are correct

23) ______

24) The cerebral cortex is highly folded. Why might this be an advantage for the functions of the cerebrum?

A) The folds form grooves that let the bones of the skull reach deeply down between brain regions.

B) The greater surface area strengthens the attachment of the brain to the skull.

C) The increased surface area permits greater contact between the cerebrum and the cerebellum.

D) The folds increase the areas where sensory receptors can reach the brain's surface.

E) The increased surface area increases the area for higher-level thinking.

24) ______

25) Which one of the following is a component of the forebrain?

A) spinal cord B) pons C) thalamus D) cerebellum E) medulla oblongata

25) ______

26) Which of the following was supported by the terrible accident that happened to Phineas Gage?

A) The frontal lobes are associated with personality.

B) The cerebrum plays a major role in the sense of balance.

C) The two lobes of the cerebrum do not communicate with each other.

D) The pons plays a crucial role in hearing.

E) You cannot live without your hypothalamus.

26) ______

27) Alzheimer's disease is characterized by ______.

A) loss of energy and suicidal thoughts B) increased energy and extreme talkativeness C) low levels of serotonin D) extreme mood swings E) mental deterioration, memory loss, and personality changes

27) ______

28) The receptor potential is the ______.

A) membrane potential produced in the receptor cell by sensory transduction

28) ______

B) membrane potential produced at a muscle cell C) electrical signal produced by perception D) membrane potential produced by sensation E) membrane potential produced when a neurotransmitter molecule binds to its receptor 29) Which of the following is an example of sensory adaptation of receptors?

A) detecting sound and light simultaneously B) distinguishing between different colors C) ignoring a boring lecture D) ignoring the shoes on your feet E) going into deep sleep

29) ______

30) In contrast to action potentials, receptor potentials ______.

A) vary in intensity B) rely on vibrations and not ions to send signals C) are all-or-none phenomena D) do not require a stimulus E) do not rely on changes in the membrane potential

30) ______

31) In all types of chemoreceptors, receptor cells develop receptor potentials in response to ______.

A) changes in the movement of the surrounding molecules B) the electrical properties of the surrounding cells C) chemicals dissolved in a fluid D) the addition of positively charged proteins E) vibrations

31) ______

32) Standing out in center field, the baseball player watches the hitter's bat strike the ball and then, slightly later, hears the sound of the impact. What types of sensory receptors did the player just use?

A) thermoreceptors and chemoreceptors B) motion receptors and chemoreceptors C) pain receptors and thermoreceptors D) chemoreceptors and pain receptors E) photoreceptors and mechanoreceptors

32) ______

33) Thermoreceptors detect ______.

A) sound B) temperature C) pressure D) light E) motion

33) ______

34) If aqueous humor is not drained, the likely result will be the development of ______.

A) strabismus B) astigmatism C) glaucoma D) myopia E) hyperopia

34) ______

35) Which one of the following statements is true?

A) Cones are more sensitive to light than rods.

B) The best way to see stars is to look straight at them.

35) ______

C) There are three different types of cones in the human eye.

D) Rods are most concentrated at the center of the retina.

E) Rods can distinguish color.

36) A person who cannot focus well on distant objects has ______.

A) hyperopia B) presbyopia C) astigmatism D) reduced visual acuity E) myopia

36) ______

37) A person who has blurred vision caused by a misshapen lens or cornea has ______.

A) astigmatism B) visual acuity C) myopia D) presbyopia E) hyperopia

37) ______

38) A person whose eyeball is shorter than normal suffers from ______.

A) hyperopia B) astigmatism C) visual acuity D) myopia E) presbyopia

38) ______

39) The organ of Corti is in the ______.

A) Eustachian tube B) middle ear C) outer ear D) inner ear E) pinna

39) ______

40) As your jet takes off, you are pushed back in your seat and watch as the ground moves farther and farther away. Suddenly, your ears "pop," a result of air pressure changes in your ear permitted by the ______.

A) outer ear chamber B) auditory canal C) basilar membrane D) organ of Corti E) Eustachian tube

40) ______

41) When you hear, the ______ vibrates.

A) eardrum B) stirrup C) hammer D) anvil E) all of the above

41) ______

42) Which of the following structures constitute(s) part of the appendicular skeleton?

A) rib cage B) backbone C) skull

42) ______

D) leg bones E) neck bones 43) If you lay your forearm along the table, you can rotate it so that your hand changes from a palm-down to a palm-up position. This is possible because your radius and ulna join at a ______ joint.

A) twist B) pivot C) hinge D) ball-and-socket E) suture

43) ______

44) Which one of the following helps combat osteoporosis?

A) lack of exercise B) diabetes C) smoking D) insufficient calcium in the diet before the age of 35 E) hormone replacement therapy

44) ______

45) What best helps a broken bone heal?

A) Exercise the area with the broken bone.

B) Graft new bone to the region.

C) Immobilize the broken bone.

D) Return the broken bone parts back to their natural shape and then immobilize the bone.

E) Return the broken bone parts back to their natural shape.

45) ______

46) Arthritis is a common result of aging, affecting a person's ability to ______.

A) heal broken bones B) think clearly C) produce red blood cells D) move their joints E) catch their breath after exercise

46) ______

47) Muscles are connected to bones by ______.

A) thick filaments B) tendons C) ligaments D) other muscles E) myofibrils

47) ______

48) Functionally, what is the muscle fiber's fundamental unit of contraction?

A) thin filament B) myofibril C) tendon D) thick filament E) sarcomere

48) ______

49) A thick filament consists of ______.

A) actin B) myosin C) actin and regulatory proteins D) actin and myosin

49) ______

E) myosin and regulatory filaments 50) According to the sliding-filament model of muscle contraction, a sarcomere contracts when its ______.

A) thin filaments slide across the ends of the sarcomere B) thick filaments slide toward each other across its thin filaments C) thick filaments shorten, pulling the opposed sets of thin filaments past each other D) thin filaments slide toward each other across its thick filaments E) thick filaments slide across the ends of the sarcomere

50) ______

51) Would you expect motor units to vary in size? If so, which of these structures would probably have the largest ones?

A) Yes; a muscle controlling eye movements.

B) Yes; a muscle controlling hand movements.

C) Yes; the spinal cord.

D) No; all motor units are the same size.

E) Yes; a large thigh muscle.

51) ______

52) A baseball player leaping for a baseball and a cricket jumping away from a frog are both using all of the following except their ______.

A) sensory receptors B) muscle system C) digestive system D) central nervous system E) skeletal system

52) ______

53) Examine the figure below. Once an action potential is triggered, ______.

53) ______

A) the interior of the cell becomes positively charged relative to the outside B) the interior of the cell becomes negatively charged relative to the outside C) there is no charge on either side of the cell membrane D) all ion channels close E) the cell soon reaches threshold 54) Examine the neurotransmitters in the synapse in the accompanying figure. What might happen to these neurotransmitters after they have carried the signal to the receiving neuron? The neurotransmitters are ______.

A) transported back to the sending neuron B) absorbed by the receiving neuron C) chemically converted to ions D) incorporated into the membrane structure of the receiving neuron E) incorporated into the membrane structure of the sending neuron

54) ______

55) The figure shows the human eye. Which part of the eye gives the eye its color?

A) sclera B) retina C) pupil D) vitreous humor E) iris 56) The figure below shows the structure of an arm bone. Which part of a bone contains stored fat?

55) ______

56)

A) cartilage B) yellow bone marrow C) fibrous connective tissue D) red bone marrow E) the ends 57) Examine the structure of a muscle cell in the accompanying figure. Which one of the following statements about muscle structure is true?

___ ___

57)

___ ___

A) Each muscle cell has one nucleus.

B) Each muscle cell has two to three sarcomeres.

C) A sarcomere contains thick and thin filaments.

D) Each myofibril consists of many muscle cells.

E) Muscle cells have either thick or thin filaments, but not both types.

Please read the following paragraph and then answer the following question(s).

The human eye is an incredible organ, capable of gathering light to focus on images near and far, in bright light or dim, and with quick adjustments between these extremes. However, as eyes age, the ability to focus closely gradually declines as the flexibility of the eye's lens decreases. Some eye problems, such as cataracts, are more likely to develop in people who are more exposed to natural sunlight.

58) Bloodshot eyes reflect increased blood flow to the eye surface because of irritants such as dust and smoke. These swollen blood vessels are located on the ______.

A) pupil B) iris C) lens D) cornea E) sclera

58) ______

59) Floaters are small particles that interfere with the transmission of light between the lens and the retina. As people age, more floaters accumulate in this space where we find the ______.

A) aqueous humor B) lens C) vitreous humor D) conjunctiva E) pupil

59) ______

60) When light levels suddenly increase, our eyes adjust quickly by reducing the size of the ______.

A) iris B) cornea C) lens D) retina E) pupil

60) ______

1) E 2) E 3) E 4) D 5) C 6) B 7) D 8) A 9) D 10) C 11) B 12) C 13) C 14) C 15) A 16) C 17) C 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) D 22) E 23) C 24) E 25) C 26) A 27) E 28) A 29) D 30) A 31) C 32) E 33) B 34) C 35) C 36) E 37) A 38) A 39) D 40) E 41) E 42) D 43) B 44) E 45) D 46) D 47) B 48) E 49) B 50) D 51) E

52) C 53) A 54) A 55) E 56) B 57) C 58) E 59) C 60) E

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following products used by humans sometimes comes from plants?

1) _______ A) lumber B) medicine C) paper D) food E) all of the above 2) Most domesticated food crops come from which of the following plant groups?

A) angiosperms B) cycads C) mosses D) gymnosperms E) ferns

2) _______

3) Which of the following best characterizes the monocots?

A) embryo with one seed leaf, leaves with parallel veins, stems with a ring of vascular tissue, and flower parts in threes B) embryo with one seed leaf, leaves with parallel veins, stems with vascular bundles scattered, and flower parts in threes C) embryo with one seed leaf, leaves with parallel veins, stems with a ring of vascular tissue, and flower parts in fives D) embryo with two seed leaves, leaf veins not parallel, stems with vascular bundles scattered, and flower parts in threes E) embryo with two seed leaves, leaf veins not parallel, stems with ring of vascular tissue, and flower parts in fives

3) _______

4) Which of the following best characterizes the dicots?

A) an embryo with two seed leaves B) leaves with parallel veins C) flower parts in threes D) stems with scattered vascular bundles E) all of the above

4) _______

5) Which of the following is a function of roots?

A) stores food B) absorbs water C) absorbs nutrients from the soil D) anchors the plant E) all of the above

5) _______

6) Which of the following are the epidermal cell projections found on roots that increase the surface area?

A) internodes B) mesophyll C) cotyledons D) nodes E) root hairs

6) _______

7) Which of the following constitute the shoot system of a plant?

A) stems B) leaves C) flowers D) all of the above E) none of the above

7) _______

8) Which of the following describes the sites of leaf attachment in a stem?

A) cotyledons B) runners C) internodes D) joints E) nodes

8) _______

9) Which of the following is a stem modification for storage?

A) cladophyll B) rhizome C) tuber

9) _______ D) petiole

E) runner

10) Which of the following best describes the function of typical leaves?

A) shade B) storage of the sugars produced C) anchoring D) water uptake E) photosynthesis

10) ______

11) Which of the following is the major component of plant cell walls?

A) starch B) chloroplasts C) lignin D) chlorophyll E) cellulose

11) ______

12) Which of the following cell types provide support in growing parts of a plant?

A) sclerenchyma cells B) water-conducting cells C) parenchyma cells D) collenchyma cells E) food-conducting cells

12) ______

13) Which of the following have rigid cell walls that support plants like steel beams and are usually found in older parts of the plant?

A) food-conducting cells B) parenchyma cells C) sclerenchyma cells D) collenchyma cells E) water-conducting cells

13) ______

14) Which of the following are the most abundant cell type found in most plants?

A) food-conducting cells B) parenchyma cells C) water-conducting cells D) sclerenchyma cells E) collenchyma cells

14) ______

15) Which of the following form chains with overlapping ends and are dead when mature?

A) collenchyma cells B) sclerenchyma cells C) water-conducting cells D) food-conducting cells E) parenchyma cells

15) ______

16) Which of the following form tubes and are alive when mature?

A) water-conducting cells B) collenchyma cells C) parenchyma cells D) food-conducting cells E) sclerenchyma cells

16) ______

17) Which of the following is the protective cell layer covering leaves, young stems, and young roots?

A) xylem B) epidermis C) endodermis D) phloem E) root hairs

17) ______

18) Which of the following describes the vascular system of a typical plant?

A) it does all of the above B) it is made up of xylem and phloem C) it transports water throughout the plant D) it provides support E) it transports nutrients throughout the plant

18) ______

19) Which of the following is the waxy coating secreted on leaves and most stems?

A) epidermis B) endodermis C) lignin D) suberin E) cuticle

19) ______

20) Which of the following is the selective barrier of a root that determines which substances pass between the cortex and vascular tissue?

A) pith B) xylem C) endodermis D) epidermis E) cuticle

20) ______

21) Which of the following do guard cells act to regulate?

A) epidermis B) stomata C) cuticle

21) ______ D) mesophyll

22) Which of the following is the main site of photosynthesis in a typical leaf?

A) xylem B) epidermis C) pith

E) root hairs 22) ______

D) mesophyll E) endodermis 23) Which of the following is a function of parenchyma cells?

A) nutrient transport B) support C) hormone production D) food storage E) all of the above

23) ______

24) Which of the following best describes the condition in which the terminal bud of many plants produces hormones that inhibit growth of axillary buds?

A) foliage determination B) apical dominance C) cortical influence D) internodal persistence E) axial dominance

24) ______

25) You trim two different houseplants. The first houseplant becomes bushier, but the pruning does not affect the growth of the second plant. A possible explanation is ______.

A) you removed the terminal bud on the first plant but not the second B) you removed the axillary bud on the first plant but not the second C) the second plant forms tubers, but the first plant does not D) you removed the rhizomes on the second plant but not the first E) the first plant has compound leaves and the second plant has simple leaves

25) ______

26) A plant grows taller through ______, which involves cell division in the ______.

A) secondary growth . . . cork cambium B) primary growth . . . apical meristem C) secondary growth . . . vascular cambium D) primary growth . . . vascular cambium E) secondary growth . . . root cap

26) ______

27) Which of the following is responsible for the increase in girth (width) of trees?

A) secondary growth B) an increase in the width of vessel elements C) primary growth D) growth in apical meristems E) sexual reproduction

27) ______

28) Which of the following plant types complete their life cycle in two years?

A) annuals B) triennials C) semiannuals D) perennials E) biennials

28) ______

29) Flowering plants reproduce through ______.

A) asexual reproduction only B) mitosis C) sexual reproduction only D) budding

29) ______

E) asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction 30) Which of the following is the part of a flower that contains the female reproductive structures?

A) stamen B) sepal C) stigma D) carpel E) anther

30) ______

31) In which structure do pollen grains develop?

A) stamen B) carpel C) anther

31) ______ D) filament

E) sepal

32) The ______ enclose and protect the flower bud, while the ______ advertise the flower to insects and other pollinators.

A) sepals . . . stamens B) anthers . . . stamens C) carpels . . . stigmata D) sepals . . . petals E) anthers . . . petals

32) ______

33) The main parts of a flower are modified versions of which of the following?

A) rhizomes B) roots C) stems D) leaves

33) ______ E) internodes

34) Which of the following contains the developing egg and cells that support it?

A) stigma B) anther C) endosperm D) ovule E) embryo sac

34) ______

35) A plant's diploid form is called the ______; the haploid form is called the ______.

A) anther . . . ovule B) gametophyte . . . sporophyte C) gametophyte . . . fruit D) sporophyte . . . pollen E) sporophyte . . . gametophyte

35) ______

36) Which of the following describes the delivery of pollen to the stigma of a carpel?

A) pollination B) germination C) maturation D) fertilization E) double fertilization

36) ______

37) The formation of a zygote and a cell with a triploid nucleus is unique to flowering plants. What is this process called?

A) maturation B) pollination C) fertilization D) double fertilization E) germination

37) ______

38) Which of the following is a multicellular mass that nourishes the embryo until it becomes a self-supporting seedling?

A) the endosperm B) a cotyledon

38) ______

C) a pod D) a fruit E) a seed coat 39) What typically has to happen before a fruit develops?

A) pollination B) flowering C) double fertilization D) all of the above E) None of the above; these events are only seen in seed production.

39) ______

40) While on a hike, you notice that several burrs have become attached to your socks. You quickly pull them off. Burrs are produced by certain plants and frequently catch on animal fur (or people's clothing). After thinking about it, you decide that the burr is a type of _____ that is an adaptation for _____.

A) pollen grain...successful pollination B) meristem...plant growth C) leaf...protecting plants from herbivores D) cambium...seed protection E) fruit...seed dispersal

40) ______

41) Which of the following is the usual trigger for seed germination?

A) sunlight B) water C) warm temperatures D) carbon dioxide E) oxygen

41) ______

42) Which of the following is an example of flowering plant/animal interdependence?

A) All of the above are examples of such interdependencies.

B) Most land animals depend on angiosperms for food.

C) Most angiosperms depend on insects, birds, or mammals for seed dispersal.

D) Most angiosperms depend on insects, birds, or mammals for pollination.

E) None of the above show interdependence.

42) ______

43) What is the likely effect of pruning a plant?

43)

______ A) the plant will grow taller B) the plant will produce rhizomes C) the plant will produce flowers D) the plant will grow more roots E) the plant will grow bushier 44) The figure below illustrates ______.

A) primary growth B) lateral dominance C) tubers D) determinate growth E) secondary growth

44) ______

45) Examine the figure below. Secondary growth involves cell division in the ______.

45) ______

A) apical meristem, vascular cambium, and cork cambium B) vascular cambium and apical meristem C) vascular cambium and cork cambium D) secondary xylem, secondary phloem, and cork cambium E) primary xylem, primary phloem, and cork cambium 46) Examine the figure below. What process has to occur to produce a haploid embryo sac?

46) ______

A) meiosis B) meiosis followed by mitosis C) meiosis followed by another meiosis to reduce the chromosome number D) mitosis E) mitosis followed by meiosis In late 2006, bee workers in the United States started to notice a disturbing phenomenon: the sudden disappearance of honeybees from commercial hives. This mysterious condition was called "colony collapse disorder," and it has caused a drastic reduction in commercial honeybee populations all over the country. It is estimated that one-third of our food supply relies on bees and is in danger. Crops that rely most heavily on honeybees include apples, almonds, blueberries,

and pumpkins. If colony collapse disorder cannot be cured or treated effectively, farmers may have to turn to other insects, perhaps other bee species or even moths.

47) Without honeybees, which process in the life cycle of plants such as apples, almonds, 47) ______ blueberries, and pumpkins is most affected?

A) secondary growth B) seed germination C) primary growth D) pollination E) seed dispersal 48) Which plant structure is adapted for attracting beneficial insects such as honeybees?

A) leaf B) petiole C) terminal bud D) axillary bud E) flower

48) ______

1) E 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) E 6) E 7) D 8) E 9) C 10) E 11) E 12) D 13) C 14) B 15) C 16) D 17) B 18) A 19) E 20) C 21) B 22) D 23) D 24) B 25) A 26) B 27) A 28) E 29) E 30) D 31) C 32) D 33) D 34) D 35) E 36) A 37) D 38) A 39) D 40) E 41) B 42) A 43) E 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) D 48) E

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following best describes the essential difference between plant and animal 1) _______ nutrition?

A) Plants use organic substances to produce their own food.

B) Plant and animal nutrition are essentially the same.

C) Plants use inorganic substances and energy from the sun to produce their own food.

D) Animals ingest their food.

E) Plants use sunlight to produce their own food.

2) For a plant, carbon and nitrogen are _____.

A) macronutrients B) vitamins C) micronutrients D) minerals E) none of the above

2) _______

3) Which of the following describes a chemical element that a plant must obtain from its environment in order to complete its life cycle?

A) mineral B) essential element C) vitamin D) micronutrient E) macronutrient

3) _______

4) Which one of the following is a plant micronutrient?

A) sulfur B) phosphorus C) iron D) oxygen E) carbon

4) _______

5) The three most important nutrients contained in fertilizers are ______.

A) zinc, iron, and potassium.

B) zinc, sulfur, and phosphorus.

C) nitrogen, iron, and phosphorus.

D) nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium.

E) carbon, iron, and potassium.

5) _______

6) Which of the following best describes substances that enter a plant through the root system?

A) They are brought in through plasmodesmata.

B) They are brought in through stomata.

C) They are attached to a carbon chain.

D) They are dissolved in water.

E) They are negatively charged molecules.

6) _______

7) Which of the following supplies water and absorbed nutrients to a typical plant?

A) the air B) sunlight C) the soil

7) _______

D) its sap E) macronutrient 8) Which of the following terms best describes a mycorrhizal association?

A) commensal B) competitive C) neutral D) mutualistic E) parasitic

8) _______

9) What does a plant gain from a mycorrhizal relationship?

A) helps roots absorb water and solutes much more rapidly B) increases the exchange rate of carbon dioxide and oxygen C) breaks down decaying organic matter into essential plant nutrients D) breaks down complex molecules in the soil to release micronutrients E) increases the surface area for photosynthesis

9) _______

10) Which of the following convert atmospheric nitrogen to ammonium?

A) nitrogen-fixing bacteria B) E. coli bacteria C) amino acidifying bacteria D) nitrifying bacteria E) ammonifying bacteria

10) ______

11) Which of the following convert soil ammonium to nitrate?

A) ammonifying bacteria B) nitrogen-fixing bacteria C) E. coli bacteria D) amino acidifying bacteria E) nitrifying bacteria

11) ______

12) Which of the following best describes the role of plant root nodules in plants such as peas and beans?

A) help absorb nutrients from the soil B) house nitrogen-fixing bacteria C) are plant adaptations to kill harmful soil bacteria that destroy root hairs D) decrease the fertility of the soil E) secrete excess nitrogen gas into the soil

12) ______

13) Most plants rely on bacteria to supply them with a usable form of which of the following substances?

A) nitrogen B) carbon dioxide C) oxygen D) amino acids E) water

13) ______

14) Which of the following best describes the conversion that occurs during nitrogen fixation?

A) nitrogen to ammonium or nitrate B) nitrogen to ammonium C) ammonium to nitrate D) decomposing organic matter to ammonium

14) ______

E) nitrate to ammonium 15) Which of the following best describes transpiration?

A) another term for evaporation B) produces a positive gradient for water flow C) another term for bulk flow movement of water in a plant D) the loss of water from plant leaves through evaporation E) the loss of oxygen from a plant

15) ______

16) Which of the following mechanisms best explains how xylem sap moves up against the downward pull of gravity?

A) rapid diffusion of glucose-transpiration B) adhesion-tension-diffusion of oxygen C) reverse osmosis-adhesion-transpiration D) glucose pumping-adhesion-tension mechanism E) transpiration-cohesion-tension mechanism

16) ______

17) Which of the following weather conditions would cause transpiration to be most rapid?

A) hot, dry weather B) rainy weather C) hot, humid weather D) cold, humid weather E) windy, wet weather

17) ______

18) Which of the following best describes the opening of stomata in most plants?

A) open at night and closed during the day B) open during the day and closed at night C) closed all the time except if a plant is not healthy D) closed except for brief periods of time at night when oxygen is vented out of the leaves E) open all the time in most plants

18) ______

19) Which of the following best describes the mechanism that causes stomata to open?

A) A hinged flap covering the stoma is triggered to open when the plant needs air.

B) Two guard cells flanking each stoma control its opening by changing shape.

C) A large bubble of oxygen accumulates below the stoma and eventually forces it open.

D) The internal pressure of xylem sap expands the leaf, stretching the stoma open.

E) Water accumulates below the opening and eventually forces the stoma open.

19) ______

20) Transpiration pulls water up a plant because of two mechanisms: _____ describes water molecules sticking together and _____ describes water molecules sticking to the walls of the xylem?

A) cohesion...adhesion B) adhesion...gravity C) gravity...cohesion D) cohesion...gravity E) adhesion...cohesion

20) ______

21) Which of the following describes sugar movement within the plant body?

A) sink-to-source mechanism B) pressure-flow mechanism C) bulk-flow mechanism D) sugar-flow mechanism

21) ______

E) transpirational-pull mechanism 22) An example of a sugar sink is a _____.

A) leaf B) stem C) flower D) fruit E) all of the above

22) ______

23) A farmer decides he wants to grow certified organic corn and sets out to meet all USDA standards to do so. His crop grows well for the first three years; however, he notices during the fourth and fifth years that his plants are getting smaller and producing much less corn. He has not altered his farming practices and begins to wonder what is happening. He remembers someone mentioning planting peanuts every third year in place of their corn crop, which leads to much healthier corn. Why would a farmer want to change to a different crop, especially something like peanuts?

A) Planting a legume like peanuts increases the available carbon in the soil.

B) Planting a legume like peanuts increases water retention in the soil, allowing the following year's corn crop to thrive.

C) Crop rotation with a legume like peanuts will increase nitrogen in the soil.

D) Changing from corn to peanuts, a legume, allows the soil to "rest" for a year.

E) It will not change anything; the farmer just liked peanuts.

23) ______

24) Which of the following statements is true?

A) A given hormone has a very specific effect on a plant.

B) Hormones do not interact with other hormones.

C) Plants and animals use hormones in very different ways.

D) Hormones are needed in large amounts to have any effect on target cells.

E) A single hormone may have different effects depending on concentration and presence of other hormones.

24) ______

25) Which of the following plant hormones affect(s) development in the plant body?

A) auxin B) gibberellin C) ethylene D) cytokinin E) all of the above

25) ______

26) Which of the following hormones promotes cell elongation in stems?

A) auxin B) ethylene C) cytokinin D) gibberellin E) abscisic acid

26) ______

27) Which of the following best describes the condition of a twig if the auxin produced by its apical meristem is conveyed equally down all sides?

A) It will shorten.

B) It will be bent to one side.

C) It will branch near its tip.

D) It will produce a flower.

E) It will elongate.

27) ______

28) Which of the following hormones promotes fruit ripening and dropping of leaves?

A) cytokinin B) ethylene C) auxin D) abscisic acid E) gibberellin

28) ______

29) Which of the following hormones promotes cell division?

A) gibberellin B) cytokinin C) ethylene D) abscisic acid E) auxin

29) ______

30) Which of the following hormones promotes seed germination?

A) auxin B) gibberellin C) abscisic acid D) cytokinin E) ethylene

30) ______

31) Which of the following hormones promotes seed dormancy?

A) abscisic acid B) gibberellin C) cytokinin D) auxin E) ethylene

31) ______

32) Which of the following is exemplified by a pea tendril contacting a string or wire and coiling around it for support?

A) thigmotropism B) gravitropism C) geotropism D) phototropism E) hypertropism

32) ______

33) Experimental plants that were sent up in space shuttle missions did not exhibit all of their normal tropisms. Which of the following responses would you most expect to be lacking from these plants?

A) geotropism B) thigmotropism C) hypertropism D) gravitropism E) phototropism

33) ______

34) Which of the following best describes a night-neutral plant?

A) Plants tend to flower in longer photoperiod conditions.

B) The plants flower at night.

C) Plants tend to flower in shorter photoperiod conditions.

D) The plants flower both during the day and at night.

E) The flowering in these plants is not affected by photoperiod.

34) ______

35) Which of the following triggers flowering and other responses to photoperiod in plants?

A) day length B) night length C) temperature D) gravity E) intensity of sunlight

35) ______

36) Which of the following best describe(s) the dependencies of most flowering plants?

A) insects or other animals for pollination B) the fungi of mycorrhizae C) insects or other animals for seed dispersal D) nitrogen-fixing bacteria E) all of the above

36) ______

37) Which of the following is the site of carbon dioxide uptake by a plant?

37) ______

A) leaves B) root hairs C) internodes D) rhizomes E) all of the above 38) Examine the figure below. Which of the following add ammonium to the soil by decomposing organic matter?

38)

___ ___

A) ammonifying bacteria B) nitrifying bacteria C) E. coli bacteria D) nitrogen-fixing bacteria E) amino acidifying bacteria 39) When considering the shadowed side of a grass shoot, which of the following best describes why it bends toward the light?

A) Reduction in auxin levels represses automatic cell elongation.

B) Reduction in auxin levels allows gibberellins to promote cell elongation.

C) Reduction in gibberellin levels allows auxin to promote cell elongation.

39) ______

D) Increase in auxin levels promotes cell proliferation.

E) Increase in auxin levels promotes cell elongation.

40) The figure below illustrates ______ in plants.

A) thigmotropism B) photoperiod C) gravitropism D) phototropism E) both thigmotropism and phototropism

40) ______

1) C 2) A 3) B 4) C 5) D 6) D 7) C 8) D 9) A 10) A 11) E 12) B 13) A 14) B 15) D 16) E 17) A 18) B 19) B 20) A 21) B 22) D 23) C 24) E 25) E 26) A 27) E 28) B 29) B 30) B 31) A 32) A 33) D 34) E 35) B 36) E 37) A 38) A 39) E 40) C