Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 3rd Edition Bruce J Colbert Test Bank

Anatomy & Physiology for Health Professions, 3rd Edition By Bruce J. Colbert

Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Gross Anatomy is also known as ________.

1) _______ A) Macroscopic Anatomy B) Pathologic Anatomy C) Microscopic Anatomy D) Diagnostic Anatomy 2) _______

2) An example of Gross Anatomy would be ________.

A) Performing a complete cellular blood count B) Determining the etiology of a disease C) Using a microscope D) Viewing an x-ray 3) The study of Physiology deals with ________.

A) Genetics B) Functions

3) _______ C) Disease

4) The potential outcome of a disease is the ________.

A) Diagnosis B) Etiology C) Prognosis 5) The study of disease is known as ________.

A) Pathophysiology C) Cytology

D) Structures 4) _______ D) Treatment 5) _______

B) Microbiology D) Neurology

6) The three basic parts of a medical term include ________.

A) Prefix, word root, suffix B) Prefix, stem, ending C) Suffix, base, meaning D) Base, word root, stem

6) _______

7) What system is known as the mathematical language of Anatomy and Physiology?

A) Metric system B) English system C) Abbreviation system D) Customary system

7) _______

8) Which of the following is not a vital sign?

A) Odor C) Temperature

8) _______ B) Respiratory rate D) Heart Rate

9) When the physician has documented several signs and symptoms, he will be able to make a(n) ________.

A) Etiology

B) Cytology

C) Prognosis

9) _______

D) Diagnosis

10) A recording of the electrical activity of a skeletal muscle is a(n) ________.

A) Pictogram B) Mammogram C) Electrocardiogram D) Electromyogram

10) ______

11) The adjustments that maintain a stable environment within the body are known as ________.

A) Metabolism B) Pathology C) Syndrome D) Homeostasis

11) ______

12) Taking an MRI of the knee is considered gross anatomy because it ________.

A) Is large scale B) Is difficult Is visually unpleasant C) D) Has 144 steps

12) ______

13) The body uses feedback loops to maintain homeostasis. The response that opposes an action is known as a(n) ________.

A) Positive feedback loop C) Affirmative feedback loop

13) ______

B) Negative feedback loop D) Depressing feedback loop

14) A positive feedback loop is necessary in which of the following situations?

A) Blood B) Bleeding C) Childbirth

14) ______ D) Coughing

pressure

15) Vital signs include all of the following except ________.

A) Heart rate B) Temperature C) Coloring 16) RBC is the abbreviation for ________.

A) Red blood cells C) Ruptured blood clot

15) ______ D) Respirations 16) ______

B) Really bad cut D) Red and blue circulation

17) A nurse found the pre-operative patient out of bed, barefoot, and watching TV while eating

17) ______

breakfast. "We have to cancel your surgery, because you're not NPO," the nurse said. What did the patient do wrong?

A) The patient walked barefoot.

B) The patient ate food.

C) The patient left his or her hospital bed.

D) The patient watched TV.

18) A patient rang the call bell because he was in great pain. "I want my PRN medication now," he

18) ______

said. Which medication timing is the nurse going to follow?

A) Medications given at noontime B) Medications given in the morning C) Medications In the evening D) Medications given when needed

19) A lab technician finished the test. "The CBC results are in the computer," she told her supervisor. What body fluid did she examine?

A) Saliva C) Urine

B) Blood D) Cerebrospinal fluid

20) All members of the Code Team have to take ACLS training annually. Which organs will they practice to reviving?

A) Stomach and colon C) Heart and lungs

19) ______

20) ______

B) Nose and throat D) Eyes and ears

21) If a patient complains of SOB, which body system is having a problem?

A) Neurological B) Reproductive C) Respiratory

21) ______ D) Urinary

22) The indicators that are essential for human life include all of the following except ________.

A) Temperature B) Coloring C) Respirations D) Heart rate

22) ______

23) Which is not a definition for disease?

A) Not at ease B) Anything that upsets normal structure or function C) A condition in which the body fails to function normally D) Anything that is a normal structure or function

23) ______

24) The term "tachycardia" means ________.

24) ______

A) Slow heart rate C) Fast heart rate 25) Which is not a symptom of metabolic syndrome?

A) Low HDL level C) Vomiting and diarrhea

B) Rhythmic heart rate D) Study of the heart rate 25) ______ B) High triglycerides D) High blood pressure

26) A sign that could be an indication of diabetes is breath that smells like ________.

A) Sweat B) Maple C) Clay or starchy paste D) Fruity flavored chewing gum

26) ______

27) The prefix hyper means ________.

A) Above normal B) Below normal

27) ______

28) The suffix oma means ________.

A) Surgically forming an opening C) Tumor 29) The suffix algia means ________.

A) Cell B) Pain

C) Within

D) Small 28) ______

B) Cutting into D) Enlargement of 29) ______ C) Pertaining to

D) Inflammation

30) Most fevers are the body's way of ________.

A) Breaking up the cells of the pathogens B) Preventing pathogens from reproducing C) Killing all pathogens D) Making an inhospitable environment for pathogens to survive

30) ______

31) Sweating at night may indicate ________.

A) Skin cancer C) Hodgkin's disease

31) ______ B) Riboflavin deficiency D) Tuberculosis

32) According to the rules of medical terminology, hepatitis is defined as ________.

A) Blood clotting B) Inflammation of the liver C) Liver failure D) Cirrhosis

32) ______

33) The abbreviation used for twice a day is ________.

A) BID B) TID C) PRN

33) ______ D) TAD

34) Volumes expressed as ounces, pints, quarts, gallons, pecks, bushels, or cubic feet are examples of the ________.

A) Scientific notation C) English system

B) Metric system D) International system

35) A nurse found the vital sign he measured in metric units of mercury to be highly elevated.

What condition does his patient have?

A) Hyperalgia B) Hypertension

34) ______

C) Heart attack

D) Fever

36) A student concentrates on moving decimal points in the correct direction while completing her Pharmacology homework. Which system of measurement is she using?

A) Metric B) British Imperial C) English D) National

35) ______

36) ______

37) Normal adult cardiac output is six thousand milliliters every sixty seconds. How is this amount of blood being measured?

A) Volume in English units C) Length in metric units

B) Length in English units D) Volume in metric units

38) "I always have to use a conversion table," a student complained. Which system of measurement is the student most likely using?

A) English C) Metric

38) ______

B) American Imperial D) National

39) Which system would most likely be used to calculate the amount of medication to give by weight to a premature infant?

A) English C) National

37) ______

39) ______

B) American Imperial D) Metric

40) The coroner measures the size of the brain in a patient who died of Alzheimer's Disease. Which unit dimension is she likely to use to record the diameter?

A) Kilograms B) Milliliters C) Ounces

40) ______

D) Centimeters

41) The diagnostic procedure is begun by first determining the ________.

A) Laboratory tests B) Syndrome Prognosis C) D) Chief complaint

41) ______

42) ________ is the branch of medicine that studies the characteristics, causes, and effects of disease.

A) Physiology B) Ornithology C) Pathology D) Anatomy

42) ______

43) The term "osteoma" can be defined as ________.

A) Tumor of the eye C) Tumor of the bone

43) ______ B) Cutting of the skin D) Cutting into the eye

44) The normal heart rate for an adult is ________ beats per minute.

A) 10-30 B) 70-120 C) 60-100

44) ______ D) 90-170

45) The ________ is the prediction of the outcome of a disease.

A) Syndrome B) Prognosis C) Acute determination D) Diagnosis

45) ______

46) Disease-producing microorganisms that invade the body are known as ________.

A) Cytophrenic B) Pathogenic C) Neogenic D) Aerobic

46) ______

47) A condition in which the body fails to function normally is ________.

A) Epidemiology B) Disease C) Nosocomial

47) ______

48) The cause of a disease is called its ________.

A) Prognosis B) Nosocomial

D) Physiology 48) ______

C) Pathology

D) Etiology

49) A specific group of signs and symptoms that are related to a specific disease is known by which of the following names?

A) Relapse C) Syndrome

B) Diagnosis D) Chief complaint

49) ______

50) A patient with Syndrome X can exhibit which of the following common conditions?

A) Low blood sugar levels, high blood pressure, low blood level of HDL B) Low blood sugar levels, low blood pressure, high triglycerides C) High blood sugar levels, low blood pressure, high blood level of HDL D) High blood sugar levels, high blood pressure, high triglycerides

50) ______

51) A patient who has metabolic syndrome is at an increased risk for all of the following except

51) ______

________.

A) Diabetes C) Heart attack

B) Stroke D) Horner's Syndrome

52) ________ is the physiological process that monitors and maintains a stable internal environment or equilibrium.

A) Homeostasis C) Positive feedback loop

52) ______

B) Negative feedback loop D) Metabolism

53) ________ is a mechanism in our body that continually senses the internal and external

53) ______

environment and the body makes adjustments to maintain homeostasis.

A) Homeostasis B) Negative feedback loop C) Positive feedback loop D) Metabolism

54) ________ is known as a "vicious cycle." In most cases, this is harmful if the vicious cycle cannot

54) ______

be broken; sometimes it is necessary for a process to run to completion.

A) Homeostasis B) Negative feedback loop C) Positive feedback loop D) Metabolism

55) Which of the following are examples of a sign?

A) Pulse B) Temperature

55) ______ C) Pain

D) A and B

56) All of the following are symptoms except ________.

A) Pain B) Respiratory rate C) Itchiness D) Dizziness

56) ______

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

57) Anatomy in Greek means to cut apart.

57) ______

58) Anatomy focuses on the function and vital processes of the human body.

58) ______

59) Macro means small.

59) ______

60) A bacterial infection is the prognosis for a Staph infection.

60) ______

61) Negative feedback is bad for the body because it increases a change away from normal.

61) ______

62) Tachycardia means a slow heart rate.

62) ______

63) Glyc/o is the combining form for sugar.

63) ______

64) Leuk/o is the combining form for cell.

64) ______

65) Hyp/o means above normal.

65) ______

66) An appendectomy means the surgical removal of the appendix.

66) ______

67) Stat means right away or immediately.

67) ______

68) A telescope views small objects.

68) ______

69) Cutting into a vein is called phlebotomy.

69) ______

70) Disease is a condition in which the body fails to function normally.

70) ______

71) Pain is a vital sign.

71) ______

1) A 2) D 3) B 4) C 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) D 10) D 11) D 12) A 13) B 14) C 15) C 16) A 17) B 18) D 19) B 20) C 21) C 22) B 23) D 24) C 25) C 26) D 27) A 28) C 29) B 30) D 31) D 32) B 33) A 34) C 35) B 36) A 37) D 38) A 39) D 40) D 41) D 42) C 43) C 44) C 45) B 46) B 47) B 48) D 49) C 50) D

51) D 52) A 53) B 54) C 55) D 56) B 57) TRUE 58) FALSE 59) FALSE 60) FALSE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) FALSE 66) TRUE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Knowing the exact body region of a sign or symptom can help a health-care worker determine 1) _______ the ________.

A) Extent of injury C) Patient's size

B) Proper medication D) Proper diagnosis

2) A body in the prone position is ________.

A) On left side B) Face down

2) _______ C) Face up

3) A plane is an imaginary line dividing the body into ________.

A) Squares B) Tissues C) Sections

D) On right side 3) _______ D) Organs

4) Directional terms are used as ________ within the body.

A) Reference points B) Lateral points C) Vertical points D) Horizontal points

4) _______

5) The midsagittal plane divides the body into which parts?

A) Right and left B) Anterior and posterior C) Internal and external D) Superior and inferior

5) _______

6) If -emia means "blood" then this term means high blood glucose.

A) Hypercholesterolemia B) Hyperbacteremia C) Hyperlipidemia D) Hyperglycemia

6) _______

7) What directional term would you use to indicate the ankle if the knee is your point of

7) _______

reference?

A) Internal

B) Proximal

C) Distal

D) External

8) A young girl falls while riding her bicycle. Initially she seems fine, but later she is complaining of severe femoral pain. Where is her pain?

A) Her lower leg B) Her foot

C) Her knee

D) Her thigh

9) The heart and lungs are located in the ________ cavity.

A) Pelvic B) Thoracic C) Posterior

D) Abdominal

10) Which organ is located in a dorsal cavity?

A) Pancreas B) Stomach

8) _______

9) _______

10) ______ C) Diaphragm

11) The hypochondrial region is located beneath the ________.

A) Heart B) Ribs C) Stomach

D) Brain 11) ______ D) Liver

12) A woman involved in a high speed car accident initially seems fine, but soon develops

12) ______

difficulty breathing. You suspect she is bleeding into one of her body cavities. Given her symptoms, which one?

A) Spinal B) Cranial C) Thoracic D) Abdominal

13) The space within the mouth is known as the ________ cavity

13) ______

A) Orbital

B) Nasal

14) The belly button is located in which region?

A) Hypogastric B) Epigastric

C) Cranial

D) Oral

C) Umbilical

D) Iliac

14) ______

15) Pain in the ________ quadrant can be a sign of appendicitis.

A) LUQ B) RLQ C) LLQ 16) The cervical spine contains how many vertebrae?

A) 3 B) 12

19) The Fowlers' position facilitates ________.

A) Sleeping B) All treatments

D) RUQ 16) ______

C) 5

17) By placing your fingers at the T5 vertebra, you can locate which organ?

A) Kidney B) Brain C) Spleen 18) Blood is most commonly drawn from ________.

A) Superficial veins C) Central veins

15) ______

D) 7 17) ______ D) Lung 18) ______

B) Deep veins D) Deep arteries 19) ______ C) Breathing

20) An injury to the abdominopelvic cavity could include injury to ________.

A) The heart B) The sternum C) Spleen

D) Dizziness 20) ______ D) The brain

21) The supine position ________.

A) Describes the body lying face upward B) Is also called the anatomical position C) Describes the body lying face downward D) Both A and B

21) ______

22) Because humans stand and move upright, the term "dorsal" can be used in place of the term

22) ______

________.

A) Distal

B) Inferior

C) Anterior

23) A ________ section would divide the eyes from the back of the head.

A) Sagittal B) Midsagittal C) Transverse

D) Posterior 23) ______ D) Frontal

24) The prone position ________.

A) Describes the body lying face upward B) Is also called the anatomical position C) Describes the body lying face downward D) Both B and C

24) ______

25) The ________ contains the heart, lungs, and large blood vessels.

A) Cranial cavity B) Spinal cavity C) Thoracic cavity D) Abdominopelvic cavity

25) ______

26) The skin is ________ to the bones.

A) Inferior B) Superficial

26) ______

27) The opposite of superficial is ________.

C) Deep

D) Medial 27) ______

A) Deep

B) Medial

C) Inferior

D) Posterior

28) A section that would divide the body into mirror images would be ________.

A) A transverse section B) A midsagittal section C) A cross section D) A frontal section

28) ______

29) The liver can be found ________.

A) In the epigastric region C) In the hypogastric region

29) ______

30) The ankle is a ________ structure.

A) Peripheral B) Central

B) In the right upper quadrant (RUQ) D) Both A and B 30) ______ C) Superior

D) Thoracic

31) If you like to sleep on your stomach, you prefer sleeping in the ________ position.

A) Orthoptic B) Abdominal C) Prone D) Supine

31) ______

32) The ________ vertebrae are located in the neck.

A) Sacral B) Cervical

32) ______

33) The lungs are ________ to the heart.

A) Lateral B) Infraorbital

C) Cranial

D) Thoracic 33) ______

C) Superficial

D) Medial

34) A plane dividing a body into upper and lower portions is a ________ plane.

A) Sagittal B) Transverse C) Midsagittal D) Coronal

34) ______

35) Trendelenburg position may be contraindicated in patients with ________.

A) Hypertension B) Skin disease C) Cerebral injury D) None of the above

35) ______

36) The thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities are separated by the ________.

A) Sternum B) Ribs C) Diaphragm

36) ______ D) Spinal cord

37) The large, dome-shaped muscle called the diaphragm is used for ________.

A) Breathing B) Reproduction C) Digestion D) Circulation

37) ______

38) A patient is complaining of pain and the doctor suspects appendicitis. In which quadrant is the

38) ______

pain located?

A) LUQ

B) LLQ

C) RUQ

D) RLQ

39) Your patient complains of pain in the area of the liver. In which quadrant is the pain located?

A) RUQ B) LLQ C) RLQ D) LUQ TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

40) The anatomical position is a human being standing erect facing forward with feet parallel and

39) ______

40) ______

arms hanging at the side with palms facing backward.

41) The Fowler's position is the best position for patients having trouble breathing.

41) ______

42) The prone position is best for the pelvic exam.

42) ______

43) Cranial means "superior."

43) ______

44) Medial means "to the side."

44) ______

45) The nose is inferior to the eyes and superior to the mouth.

45) ______

46) A patient with central edema has swollen hands and feet.

46) ______

47) Peripheral refers to the torso and head.

47) ______

48) The opposite of superficial is lateral.

48) ______

49) The cranial cavity houses the brain.

49) ______

50) An orbital injury can cause damage to sight.

50) ______

51) The pubic area is used for cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

51) ______

52) Digital means fingers and toes.

52) ______

53) Cervical means relating to the knee.

53) ______

54) Brachial means lower leg.

54) ______

1) D 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) A 6) D 7) C 8) D 9) B 10) D 11) B 12) C 13) D 14) C 15) B 16) D 17) D 18) A 19) C 20) C 21) A 22) D 23) D 24) C 25) C 26) B 27) A 28) B 29) D 30) A 31) C 32) B 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) C 37) A 38) D 39) A 40) FALSE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) FALSE 49) TRUE 50) TRUE

51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) FALSE

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The smallest unit that retains the chemical properties of a particular type of matter is a(n) 1) _______ ________.

A) Molecule

B) Element

C) Atom

2) Atoms or molecules which carry a charge are called ________.

A) Ions B) Elements C) Neutrons

D) Ion 2) _______ D) Protons

3) In a typical atom with three positively charged protons, how many negatively charged protons would be present?

A) 1

B) 3

C) 4

D) 0

4) In a person with diabetes, blood may often become acidic. What blood pH might you expect in a person with untreated diabetes?

A) 6.0 B) 13.2

C) 7.4

C) Alkalosis

4) _______

D) 10.5

5) If the pH of a person's blood was equal to the pH of black coffee, for which medical condition would they need to be treated?

A) Keratosis B) Acidosis

3) _______

5) _______

D) Halitosis

6) On which side of the pH scale do household cleaners such as bleach and ammonia belong?

A) Acidic B) Concentrated C) Basic D) Neutral

6) _______

7) Which of the following is a characteristic of a covalent bond?

A) The molecule is always polar B) Protons are involved in the bond C) Electrons are shared D) Electrons are donated

7) _______

8) The molecule paraffin has the formula C20H44. What does that tell you about the molecule?

A) It is polar.

B) It is hydrophobic.

C) It is a protein.

D) It is a nucleic acid.

8) _______

9) In a solution, the ________ is dissolved in the ________.

A) Element, molecule B) Solvent, solute C) Solute, solvent D) Molecule, element

9) _______

10) Glycogen is a polysaccharide made of long chains of glucose. Glucose is a ________.

A) Monosaccharide B) Disaccharide Saccharin C) D) Polysaccharide

10) ______

11) This type of lipid molecule is important in the structure and function of cell membranes.

A) Triglyceride B) Wax C) Phospholipid D) Estrogen

11) ______

12) The building blocks of proteins are ________.

A) Oleic acids B) Nucleic acids

12) ______ C) Amino acids

D) Lewis acids

13) Which molecules are scientists studying to understand the nature of cell control and genetics?

A) Steroids B) Amino acids C) Nucleic acids D) Phospholipids

13) ______

14) A teenager with anorexia nervosa has an illness that seriously affects metabolism. Which process could be fatal?

A) Catabolism C) Cellular respiration

14) ______

B) Anabolism D) Dehydration synthesis reactions

15) The chief type of reaction used during catabolism is ________.

A) Hydrolysis B) Hydrogen bonding C) Dehydration synthesis D) Hydration

15) ______

16) What do anabolic steroids do when taken as medication?

A) Increase fertility B) Destroy tissue Build up tissue C) D) Fight infection

16) ______

17) These molecules speed up the rate of biological reactions.

A) Antibodies B) Enzymes C) ATP

17) ______ D) Proteins

18) During this series of reactions, your cells use glucose to make energy ________.

A) Metabolism B) Blood clotting C) Cellular respiration D) Enzyme catalyzed

18) ______

19) A person with pancreatic cancer is prescribed some medications that help digest food by

19) ______

breaking down large molecules. What are the medications composed of?

A) Phospholipids B) Steroids C) Amino acids

D) Enzymes

20) This high-energy molecule is made and spent by cells during metabolism ________.

A) AMP B) ADP C) ATP D) A&P

20) ______

21) Which of the following has the highest energy?

A) A&P B) ADP

21) ______

22) A dietary source for iodine is ________.

A) Pork B) Sea food 23) A symptom of fluorine deficiency is ________.

A) Low blood pressure C) Hair loss

C) AMP

D) ATP 22) ______

C) Celery

D) Beef 23) ______

B) Acne D) Dental cavities

24) A lack of the ability of the body to carry oxygen may be due to a deficiency in ________.

A) Copper B) Zinc C) Gold D) Iron

24) ______

25) The molecule that is stored in the liver to be used for extra energy is ________.

A) Hemoglobin B) Glucose C) Glycogen D) Lipids

25) ______

26) Glucose is used by the cells during a series of chemical reactions called ________.

A) Cellular ventilation B) Cellular respiration C) Krebs cycle D) Cellular perfusion

26) ______

27) How much water loss, at a minimum, would a 150-pound person have to lose to become

27) ______

dehydrated?

A) Greater than 15 pounds

B) Greater than 10 pounds

C) Greater than 5 pounds

D) Greater than 1.5 pounds

28) A patient was tested for evidence of dehydration. Which sample would show the earliest signs?

A) Cells B) Blood C) Organs D) Tissues

28) ______

29) Injections taken by diabetics to allow cells to communicate with other cells contain which

29) ______

protein?

A) Insulin

B) Collagen

C) Albumin

D) Antibody

30) A person who is often tired and has frequent colds makes a New Year's resolution to eat more

30) ______

foods with molecules that can store energy and protect against infection. Which dietary component will she increase?

A) Carbohydrates B) Fats C) Proteins D) Fiber

31) A patient had a neck growth near his Adam's apple. Which simple dietary remedy did his physician prescribe?

A) Unsaturated fat C) Whole grains

31) ______

B) Iodized salt D) Lean proteins

32) A body builder stirred wheat germ and pineapple bits into her yogurt. She pointed out to her

32) ______

colleague that her recipe was a double shot of an essential trace element. Which element was she referring to?

A) Manganese B) Zinc C) Copper D) Iron

33) One roommate was praising the health benefits of oysters to another roommate. The second

33) ______

person refuted that he received the benefits of the same two trace elements from eating a different type of food. Which source is he referring to?

A) Organ meats B) Legumes C) Cheese D) Green leafy vegetables

34) Going up in levels from the individual atom to the entire organism, which body components are in ascending order?

A) Molecules, tissues, organelles C) Tissues, cells, organs

34) ______

B) Cells, molecules, organs D) Organelles, cells, tissues

35) Members of an aqua aerobics exercise class appreciate a property of their pool's contents.

35) ______

Which characteristic are they thankful for?

A) Water and air heat up at the same rate.

B) Water cools down slower than air.

C) Water heats up faster than air.

D) Water and air cool down at the same rate.

36) A marathon runner was perspiring heavily. Which function of sweat was occurring?

A) Releasing enzymes from the body B) Absorbing heat into the body C) Releasing heat from the body D) Absorbing enzymes into the body

36) ______

37) The sterile solution of normal saline with added antibiotics was slowly dripping into a patient's

37) ______

veins. Which solute is being used in the same concentration as in the blood?

A) Sodium bicarbonate B) Sodium chloride C) Sodium phosphate D) Sodium hydroxide

38) How does butter compare with vegetable oils?

38) ______

A) Butter has a double covalent bond and vegetable oils have a single covalent bond.

B) Butter has a one double covalent bond and vegetable oils have even more.

C) Butter is a unsaturated fat and vegetable oils are saturated fats.

D) Butter is a saturated fat and vegetable oils are unsaturated fats.

39) Steroids are lipids sharing a common function with insulin, which is a protein. Which function do they share?

A) Communicating between cells C) Linking with nucleic acids

B) Banding tightly together D) Handling waste products

40) If there were a king of physiological ions, what would it be?

A) Elements B) Molecules C) Electrolytes

40) ______ D) Electrons

41) Which analogy best describes the relationship between hydrophilic molecules and hydrophobic molecules?

A) Toleration

B) Friendship

C) Enemy

43) What is an endpoint on the pH scale?

A) Left: High H+ and low OH C) Left: Basic

41) ______

D) Irritation

42) An accident victim was unable to maintain a normal blood pH. Which organs were likely damaged?

A) Kidney and lungs C) Stomach and heart

39) ______

42) ______

B) Gallbladder and spleen D) Liver and bladder 43) ______ B) Right: Neutral D) Right: High H+ and low OH-

44) Which analogy best describes the relationship between anabolism and catabolism?

A) Black and white B) Building up and adding on C) Biological and chemical D) Frontal and peripheral locations TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

45) Ions are hydrophobic.

44) ______

45) ______

46) Physiologically important ions are called trace elements.

46) ______

47) Water has hydrogen bonds, which give it its unique properties.

47) ______

48) Lead is a biological molecule.

48) ______

49) Covalent bonds are polar.

49) ______

50) A solution with pH 8 is basic.

50) ______

51) Water can store more heat than air.

51) ______

52) Disaccharides are a type of lipid.

52) ______

53) All steroids are unhealthy.

53) ______

54) Many carbohydrates are energy storage molecules.

54) ______

55) Proteins have peptide bonds.

55) ______

56) Dehydration synthesis can happen easily at room temperature.

56) ______

57) Enzymes can be inhibited.

57) ______

58) During cellular respiration, no ATP is made.

58) ______

59) Chemistry is not important in anatomy and physiology.

59) ______

1) B 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) B 6) C 7) C 8) B 9) C 10) A 11) C 12) C 13) C 14) A 15) A 16) C 17) B 18) C 19) D 20) C 21) D 22) B 23) D 24) D 25) C 26) B 27) D 28) B 29) A 30) C 31) B 32) A 33) A 34) D 35) B 36) C 37) B 38) D 39) A 40) C 41) C 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) FALSE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) TRUE

51) TRUE 52) FALSE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE 57) TRUE 58) FALSE 59) FALSE

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The organelles that provide 95 percent of the body's energy are ________.

1) _______ A) Ribosomes B) Adenosines C) Mitochondria D) Cytoplasma 2) Sperm cells are able to move in a swimming motion by the use of ________.

A) Flagella B) Vesicles C) Centrioles D) Cilia

2) _______

3) The molecule made by mitochondria that provides the power to the cell is ________.

A) ADP B) ATP C) DNA D) RNA

3) _______

4) A series of channels found within the cytoplasm that is formed from folded membrane is

4) _______

________.

A) Cell membrane C) Golgi apparatus

B) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Facilitated diffusion

5) Given that they have lots of golgi, salivary glands and pancreatic cells must perform which function(s)?

A) Lipid synthesis C) Protein synthesis

5) _______

B) Secretion and storage D) DNA synthesis

6) The process of cleaning debris and waste from the cell is carried out by ________.

A) Lysosomes B) Filaments C) Ribosomes D) Lipids

6) _______

7) The cell receives its shape from a network of microtubules and filaments known as the

7) _______

________.

A) Endoskeleton

B) Cytoskeleton

C) Exoskeleton

D) Microskeleton

8) ________ are short, hair-like projections found on the outer surface of specific cells.

A) Vesicles B) Cilia C) Flagella D) Capsids

8) _______

9) The most important molecules for making the cell membrane selectively permeable are

9) _______

________.

A) Phospholipids

B) ATP

C) Cholesterol

D) Proteins

10) When all the carrier molecules are full and no more molecules can be carried across the cell membrane, this is called ________.

A) Inhibition B) Competition

C) Specificity

D) Saturation

11) Which microorganism has the ability to become part of the cell and is then much harder to destroy?

A) Protozoa

B) Virus

C) Bacteria

10) ______

11) ______

D) Fungi

12) Which molecule is least likely to be able to pass through a cell membrane without help?

A) C6H12O6 B) C7H16 C) CH4 D) H2O

12) ______

13) The process of allowing substances into and out of the cell is controlled by the ________.

A) Cell membrane B) Nucleus

13) ______

C) Lysosomes

D) Golgi apparatus 14) ______

14) The cells that make up the human body are called ________.

A) Meiotic cells B) Eukaryotic cells C) Chromosomal cells D) Mitotic cells 15) What section of the cell cycle is actually devoted to cell division?

A) Mitosis phase B) Cellphase C) Duophase

15) ______ D) Interphase

16) When the body performs cellular respiration, food is changed into a form of energy called ________.

A) ATP

B) ADP

C) DNA

17) An organism that produces disease is known as a(n) ________.

A) Magnetosome B) Centriole C) Organelle 18) Which microorganism is spread by the release of spores?

A) Protozoa B) Virus C) Fungi 19) Which disease is caused by a protozoan?

A) Strep B) Malaria

16) ______

D) RNA 17) ______ D) Pathogen 18) ______ D) Bacteria 19) ______

C) Shingles

D) Candidiasis

20) The substance commonly transported during facilitated diffusion is ________.

A) Sodium B) Cytoplasm C) Glucose D) Potassium

20) ______

21) All of the following can reproduce asexually except ________.

A) Bacteria B) Viruses C) Plant cells

21) ______

22) The mitosis phase has four divisions; when do the chromosomes split?

A) Metaphase B) Prophase C) Telephase

D) Animal cells 22) ______ D) Anaphase

23) Cancer is diagnosed by a variety of techniques, including all of these except ________.

A) Imaging B) Blood test C) Biopsy D) Chemotherap

23) ______

y

24) Micro-organisms that live within or on us normally are collectively called ________.

A) Cancer cells B) White blood cells Normal flora C) D) Epithelial cells

24) ______

25) Bacterial cells have no nucleus or organelles and reproduce easily through a process known as

25) ______

________.

A) Chromatin

B) Eukaryosis

C) Binary fission

D) Interphase

26) Which of these is not a function of the cell membrane?

A) Regulation of what moves into and out of the cell B) Protein synthesis C) Identifying the cell D) Holding the cell together

26) ______

27) These are called the "power plants" of the cell.

A) Golgi apparatus

27) ______ B) Lysosomes

C) Mitochondria 28) Which of these is not part of a cell?

A) The cytoplasm C) The nucleus

D) Ribosome 28) ______ B) The plasma membrane D) All of the above are part of the cell.

29) These organelles contain powerful enzymes that take care of cleaning up intracellular debris and other waste.

A) Mitochondria C) Lysosomes

30) This is the site of protein synthesis in the cell.

A) Golgi apparatus C) Lysosomes

29) ______

B) Ribosomes D) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum 30) ______ B) Mitochondria D) Ribosomes

31) This organelle consists of tiny flattened sacs that help process and package chemicals in the cell.

A) Lysosome B) Mitochondria C) Ribosome D) Golgi apparatus

31) ______

32) This is the movement of water from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher

32) ______

concentration through a membrane.

A) Dialysis B) Osmosis

C) Filtration

D) Diffusion

33) During this phase of mitosis, the chromosomes split and the spindles pull them apart.

A) Interphase B) Anaphase C) Telophase D) Metaphase

33) ______

34) During this phase of mitosis, chromosomes are aligned in the center of the cell.

A) Telophase B) Metaphase C) Anaphase D) Prophase

34) ______

35) This general process is utilized by the cells for the intake of liquid and food when the substance

35) ______

is too large to diffuse across the cell membrane.

A) Phagocytosis B) Pinocytosis

C) Endocytosis

D) Exocytosis

36) ________ are unique because they cannot grow, "eat," or reproduce by themselves.

A) Protozoans B) Bacteria C) Viruses D) Fungi

36) ______

37) Ninety percent of the cell's life is spent in which phase during the cell cycle?

A) Metaphase B) Interphase C) Prophase D) Anaphase

37) ______

38) An example of fungal infection is ________.

A) Athlete's foot B) Thrush

38) ______ C) Common cold

39) Malaria is caused by which of the following types of infections?

A) Fungal B) Bacterial C) Protozoan

D) A and B only 39) ______ D) Viral

40) Signs and symptoms of bacterial infection may include ________.

A) Pain and swelling B) High fever C) Rapid pulse D) All of the above TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

41) The stomach is an organelle.

40) ______

41) ______

42) Proteins prevent ions from crossing cell membranes.

42) ______

43) The ability of a substance to pull water toward an area of higher concentration of the solute is

43) ______

filtration.

44) Cellular respiration makes carbon dioxide as a waste product.

44) ______

45) If water is transported across a cell, it is known as phagocytosis.

45) ______

46) Cytoplasm is composed of water, nutrients, and electrolytes.

46) ______

47) Chromatin is found in the nucleus.

47) ______

48) All cells have cell membranes.

48) ______

49) The centriole is a whiplike organelle used for cell movement.

49) ______

50) The Golgi apparatus has powerful enzymes that can eat cellular debris.

50) ______

51) Lysis means to break down.

51) ______

52) Metastasis is spreading of benign cancer cells.

52) ______

53) Some bacteria are not pathogenic.

53) ______

54) The four phases of mitosis are prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

54) ______

55) Telophase occurs when the chromosomes line up in the center of the cell.

55) ______

1) C 2) A 3) B 4) B 5) B 6) A 7) B 8) B 9) A 10) D 11) B 12) A 13) A 14) B 15) A 16) A 17) D 18) C 19) B 20) C 21) B 22) D 23) D 24) C 25) C 26) B 27) C 28) D 29) C 30) D 31) D 32) B 33) B 34) B 35) C 36) C 37) B 38) D 39) C 40) D 41) FALSE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) FALSE 46) TRUE 47) TRUE 48) TRUE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE

51) TRUE 52) FALSE 53) TRUE 54) TRUE 55) FALSE

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Cells that are arranged in several layers are called ________ cells.

1) _______ A) Stratified B) Squamous C) Cuboidal D) Columnar 2) The lining of the urinary bladder is composed of which type of cell?

A) Simple cuboidal B) Simple columnar C) Transitional D) Simple squamous

2) _______

3) This connective tissue has cells in lacunae in a gel-like matrix.

A) Regular B) Cartilage C) Reticular

3) _______ D) Areolar

4) Muscle tissue possesses contractility, also known as the ability to ________.

A) Swell B) Strengthen C) Shorten D) Mutate

4) _______

5) This connective tissue has cells in a mineral matrix.

A) Reticular B) Blood C) Cartilage

5) _______

6) Which membrane is the largest organ of the integumentary system?

A) Visceral B) Parietal C) Mucous

D) Bone 6) _______ D) Cutaneous

7) The colon is an organ included in which body system?

A) Reproductive B) Cardiovascular C) Gastrointestinal D) Integumentary

7) _______

8) Which of the following is considered a nonvital organ?

A) Lung B) Liver C) Gallbladder

8) _______ D) Heart 9) _______

9) The production of blood cells occurs within which body system?

A) Muscular B) Skeletal C) Endocrine D) Cardiovascular 10) Which type of muscle lines the blood vessels and airways of the body?

A) Rough B) Glia C) Striated 11) Your skin, after it is exposed to sunlight, will produce which vitamin?

A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin C

10) ______ D) Smooth 11) ______ D) Vitamin D

12) Processing and interpreting information, motor functions and sensory functions are responsibilities of which body system?

A) Nervous B) Muscular

C) Endocrine

13) Balance is the responsibility of which sensory organ?

A) Ear B) Throat C) Eye 14) What is the first step in wound healing?

A) Organization B) Inflammation

12) ______

D) Sensory 13) ______ D) Nose 14) ______

C) Regeneration

D) Scarring

15) Which of the following tissues regenerates well?

A) Cardiac muscle C) Nervous Tissue

15) ______ B) Smooth Muscle D) Bone

16) An example of a synovial joint would be the ________.

A) Knee B) Axis C) Brachial 17) The movement of food is a function of ________ muscles.

A) Involuntary B) Cardiac C) Striated

16) ______ D) Temporal 17) ______ D) Sensory

18) Maintaining the proper acid-base balance of the blood is carried out by which body system?

A) Respiratory B) Musculoskeletal C) Skeletal D) Integumentary

18) ______

19) T-Lymphocytes are specialized cells produced for which function?

A) Fighting infection B) Producing red blood cells Genetic reproduction C) D) Saliva production

19) ______

20) Mucous is ________.

A) The actual substance secreted by membranes B) The material that collects in the corner of the eye C) The substance secreted by synovial membranes D) The type of membrane

20) ______

21) Specialized infection-fighting WBCs are produced by the ________ system.

A) Endocrine B) Cardiovascular C) Lymphatic D) Integumentary

21) ______

22) A patient who has difficulty conceiving most likely has a problem in the ________ system.

A) Cardiovascular B) Urinary C) Nervous D) Reproductive

22) ______

23) One of the functions of the endocrine system is to help you deal with stresses produced by

23) ______

________.

A) Nausea

B) Sleeplessness

C) Trauma

D) Dizziness 24) ______

24) The term "tachypnea" means ________.

A) Fast blood pressure rise C) Fast spike in temperature

B) Fast breathing D) Fast heart rate

25) The body's largest organ is ________.

A) The brain C) The skin

B) The large intestine D) The liver

25) ______

26) The skeletal system includes all but which of the following?

A) Ligaments B) Cartilage C) Bones D) All of the above are included in the skeletal system.

26) ______

27) This type of muscle tissue is found in the stomach.

27) ______

A) Smooth

B) Cardiac

28) This type of muscle tissue is found in the heart.

A) Skeletal B) Smooth

C) Skeletal

D) Voluntary

C) Cardiac

D) Voluntary

28) ______

29) Which of the following is not a gland in the endocrine system?

A) Salivary B) Pituitary C) Hypothalamu

29) ______ D) Thyroid

s

30) Which of these organs is a primary organ of the digestive system?

A) Liver B) Pancreas C) Small intestine

30) ______ D) Both A and C

31) This type of tissue provides rapid communication between various parts of the body.

A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Muscle D) Nervous

31) ______

32) This type of tissue covers the body and lines many of the parts of the body.

A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Muscle D) Nervous

32) ______

33) This is the most common tissue and is found throughout the body more than any other form.

A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Muscle D) Nervous

33) ______

34) This type of tissue specializes in movement of the body.

A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Muscle

34) ______ D) Nervous

35) This type of tissue can be classified by the shape and arrangement of its cells.

A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Muscle D) Nervous

35) ______

36) The ________ system transports water, oxygen, and a variety of nutrients and other substances

36) ______

necessary for life to the cells, and transports waste products away from the cells.

A) Urinary B) Digestive C) Respiratory D) Cardiovascular

37) When cells are arranged in a scalelike or flat arrangement, they are referred to as ________.

A) Cuboidal B) Columnar C) Transitional D) Squamous

37) ______

38) Which of the following epithelial membranes is the largest organ of the integumentary system?

A) Visceral B) Parietal C) Mucous D) Cutaneous

38) ______

39) Which of the epithelial membranes encases individual organs?

A) Parietal B) Visceral C) Cutaneous

39) ______

40) Which membrane lines the wall of the thoracic cavity?

A) Visceral B) Parietal C) Mucous

D) Mucous 40) ______ D) Cutaneous

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

41) Squamous cells are column-like.

41) ______

42) Stretchy epithelial tissue is called transitional.

42) ______

43) Mucus lubricates tissue.

43) ______

44) Connective tissue is the most common tissue.

44) ______

45) Blood is a connective tissue.

45) ______

46) Involuntary muscle tissue is called skeletal muscle.

46) ______

47) Swelling is always a negative symptom which should be prevented at all costs.

47) ______

48) Nervous tissue regenerates well.

48) ______

49) A mucous membrane is a double layered membrane with a potential space between the layers.

49) ______

50) The liver is part of the urinary system.

50) ______

51) The cardiovascular system is one of the body's control systems.

51) ______

52) Veins carry blood away from the heart.

52) ______

53) The esophagus is in the gastrointestinal system.

53) ______

54) Nitrogen waste is usually eliminated through the integumentary system.

54) ______

55) Hormones are chemicals which circulate in the bloodstream.

55) ______

1) A 2) C 3) B 4) C 5) D 6) D 7) C 8) C 9) B 10) D 11) D 12) A 13) A 14) B 15) D 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) D 21) C 22) D 23) C 24) B 25) C 26) D 27) A 28) C 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) C 35) A 36) D 37) D 38) D 39) B 40) B 41) FALSE 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE

51) FALSE 52) FALSE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which type of bone is cube-shaped in appearance?

1) _______ A) Irregular B) Regular C) Short D) Long 2) The ends of long bones are known as the ________.

A) Medulla B) Epiphyses C) Periosteum 3) A narrow ridge of bone is known as the ________.

A) Condyle B) Crest C) Head 4) A ________ is a groove or shallow depression on the surface of a bone.

A) Facet B) Sinus C) Meatus 5) An ________ is a mature bone cell.

A) Osteoclast C) Osteoprogenitor

2) _______ D) Diaphysis 3) _______ D) Spine 4) _______ D) Fossa 5) _______

B) Osteoblast D) Osteocyte

6) Compact bone is created over the surface of spongy bone by ________.

A) Osteoprogenitors B) Osteoblasts Osteoclasts C) D) Osteons

6) _______

7) Bone growth will continue for as long as the ________ plate exists.

A) Epiphyseal B) Osteon C) Diaphyseal

7) _______ D) Medullary

8) ________ is the type of connective tissue that helps to cushion the ends of long bones.

A) Spongy bone B) Bone marrow C) Synovium D) Cartilage

8) _______

9) This type of joint is held together by connective tissue strands.

A) Fibrous B) Gliding C) Synovial

9) _______ D) Cartilaginous

10) What type of joint is formed when an oval shaped bone fits into an elliptical cavity?

A) Pivot B) Hinge C) Gliding D) Ellipsoidal

10) ______

11) The joints of the hips and shoulders are examples of ________ joints.

A) Pivot B) Saddle C) Ball and

11) ______ D) Fibrous

socket

12) This movement occurs when you turn your foot toward the other foot.

A) Inversion B) Flexion C) Pronation

12) ______ D) Eversion

13) The primary ossification center in long bones is located in the ________.

A) Diaphysis B) Central Canal C) Articular cartilage D) Epiphyses

13) ______

14) The bone disease ________ is a degenerative disorder, characterized by thinning bones.

A) Osteitis B) Osteosarcomas Osteomyelitis C) D) Osteoporosis

14) ______

15) The last stage in bone repair is ________.

A) Bony callus formation C) Soft callus formation

15) ______ B) Remodeling D) Hematoma formation

16) Which mineral is included in the composition of bone?

A) Iodine B) Iron C) Potassium

16) ______ D) Calcium

17) The spinal column and bones of the middle ear are part of the ________ skeleton.

A) Inferior B) Axial C) Appendicular D) Superior

17) ______

18) Lordosis is a(n) ________ curvature of the lower back and is commonly called ________.

A) Anterior, swayback B) Anterior, hunchback C) Left lateral, swayback D) Posterior, swayback

18) ______

19) Your textbook lists eight causative agents for bone and joint disorders other than osteoporosis

19) ______

and arthritis. Which of these is not one of them?

A) Nutritional disorders C) Degenerative disorders

B) Tumors D) Osteomalacia

20) ________ is a nutritional disorder caused by a vitamin D deficiency.

A) Osteomalacia B) Rickets C) Scurvy 21) Scoliosis is an example of what classification of disorders?

A) Trauma B) Infection C) Secondary

20) ______ D) Both A and B 21) ______ D) Congenital

22) If the body is not in balance, regardless of the cause, spinal curvatures may be exaggerated, leading to ________.

A) Lordosis C) Scoliosis

23) Which of these is not a type of arthritis?

A) Osteo B) Rheumatoid

22) ______

B) Kyphosis D) All of the above 23) ______ C) Cruciate

D) Septic

24) A bone fracture in your arm would be part of the ________ division of the skeleton.

A) Thoracic B) Spinal C) Appendicular D) Axial

24) ______

25) This refers to the shaft of a long bone.

A) Endosteum B) Diaphysis

25) ______ C) Epiphyses

D) Periosteum

26) This is the strong, fibrous connective tissue covering the bone.

A) Epiphyses B) Endosteum C) Diaphysis

D) Periosteum

26) ______

27) Around the knee joint, which specialized connective tissue forms four separate bridges from one bone to another bone?

A) Knee epiphyses C) Knee muscles

28) This membrane lines the spongy bone.

A) Endosteum B) Diaphysis

27) ______

B) Knee tendons D) Knee ligaments 28) ______ C) Epiphyses

D) Periosteum

29) This is the location in the bone where hemopoiesis occurs.

A) Diaphysis B) Medullary cavity C) Epiphyses D) Periosteum

29) ______

30) The microscopic cylindrical-shaped unit of compact bone is called ________.

A) The cancellous B) The endosteum C) The trabeculae D) The osteon

30) ______

31) The bar- and platelike tissue of spongy bone is called ________.

A) Osteon B) Trabeculae C) Osteocytes

31) ______

32) Bone-building cells are called ________.

A) Hemopoietics B) Osteoclasts

D) Flagellite 32) ______

C) Osteocytes

D) Osteoblasts

33) The skeleton can still grow as long as there is cartilage left in the ________.

A) Chondrocytes B) Epiphyseal plate Diaphysis C) D) Haversian system

33) ______

34) An abnormal side-to-side curve in the vertebral column is called ________.

A) Lordosis B) Scoliosis C) Kyphosis

34) ______

35) The number of pairs of true ribs is ________.

A) 12 B) 7

D) Convexities 35) ______

C) 14

36) These joints permit the widest range of movement.

A) Saddle B) Hinge C) Pivot

D) 5 36) ______ D) Ball and socket

37) This bone condition occurs most frequently in postmenopausal women with calcium deficiencies.

A) Rickets

B) Paget's disease

C) Osteomalacia

37) ______

D) Osteoporosis

38) Ensuring that young children had a sufficient amount of vitamin D would prevent ________.

A) Osteoporosis B) Osteomalacia C) Paget's disease D) Rickets

38) ______

39) Another name for a compound fracture is ________.

A) A closed fracture B) An open fracture A comminuted fracture C) D) An impacted fracture

39) ______

40) ________ is a general term used to describe an inflammatory process of a joint or joints.

A) Osteoarthritis B) Bursitis C) Arthritis D) Gout

40) ______

41) ________ is a degenerative condition that is a result of simple "wearing out" of a joint from a

41) ______

sports injury, trauma, repetitive motion, obesity, or just the aging process.

A) Bursitis B) Osteoarthritis C) Gout D) Rheumatoid arthritis

42) ________ is a chronic, systemic disease that is believed to be an autoimmune condition affecting the connective tissue of the body.

A) Rheumatoid arthritis C) Septic arthritis

B) Bursitis D) Gout

42) ______

43) ________ is the result of the infective process of a pathogen that was introduced to a joint from a penetrating wound or a blood-borne pathogen.

A) Rheumatoid arthritis C) Gout

43) ______

B) Septic arthritis D) Arthritis

44) A cleft palate is an example of which of the following?

A) Infection B) Degenerative disorder C) Nutritional disorder D) Congenital disorder

44) ______

45) Osteoporosis is an example of which of the following?

A) Nerve disorder B) Infection Congenital disorder C) D) Degenerative disorder

45) ______

46) Signs and symptoms of osteoarthritis include which of the following?

A) Joint develops a crooked deformation B) Greater range of motion C) Painful swelling of affected joint D) A and C only

46) ______

47) This is a common sports injury caused by twisting of the leg, or an anterior or posterior blow

47) ______

when the leg is planted or bearing weight.

A) Cruciate ligament tear C) Gout

B) Osteomalacia D) Osteoporosis

48) When pitching a baseball, which cordlike structures hold the pitcher's shoulder muscles to his bones?

A) Shoulder nerves C) Shoulder ligaments

48) ______

B) Shoulder tendons D) Shoulder joint

49) What is the purpose of the three ankle ligaments on the outside of the foot?

A) Providing a place to grow pedal cartilage B) Preventing athletic sports injuries to the foot C) Giving form to the bony skeleton of the foot D) Holding together freely moving ankle joints

49) ______

50) Yoga postures exercise the ligaments of the body. How much stress can ligaments endure in the

50) ______

Downward-facing Dog pose?

A) Light B) Almost none

C) Heavy

D) Moderate

51) Since they both connect to bone on one end, how do wrist ligaments differ from wrist tendons?

A) Wrist tendons are connected on the other end to muscle.

B) Wrist ligaments are connected on the other end to joints.

C) Wrist ligaments are connected on the other end to muscle.

D) Wrist tendons are connected on the other end to joints.

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

52) Bending your knee is an example of joint extension.

51) ______

52) ______

53) The deltoid muscle moves the arm away from the body. It is a flexor.

53) ______

54) Supination turns the palm downward.

54) ______

55) One hundred twenty-six bones comprise the appendicular skeleton.

55) ______

56) The appendicular skeleton includes bones of the thorax, spinal column, hyoid bone, bones of

56) ______

the middle ear, and skull.

57) The tarsals are the toe bones.

57) ______

58) There are twelve thoracic vertebrae.

58) ______

59) The skull has mainly synovial joints.

59) ______

60) Once you reach puberty, bone stops regenerating.

60) ______

61) The heel of the foot is known as the acromion process.

61) ______

62) The patella is the kneecap.

62) ______

63) Bone is covered by endosteum.

63) ______

64) The lining of a freely moving joint is cartilage only.

64) ______

65) Fibrous joints are not freely moving.

65) ______

66) Arthritis is mainly caused by cracking your knuckles and slouching.

66) ______

1) C 2) B 3) B 4) D 5) D 6) B 7) A 8) D 9) A 10) D 11) C 12) A 13) A 14) D 15) B 16) D 17) B 18) A 19) D 20) D 21) D 22) D 23) C 24) C 25) B 26) D 27) D 28) A 29) B 30) D 31) B 32) D 33) B 34) B 35) B 36) D 37) D 38) D 39) B 40) C 41) B 42) A 43) B 44) D 45) D 46) D 47) A 48) B 49) D 50) C

51) A 52) FALSE 53) FALSE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE 57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) FALSE 61) FALSE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Thin myofilaments are called ________.

1) _______ A) Actin B) Myofibril C) Z bars D) Myosin 2) Muscles may be named using ________.

A) Myofilament type C) Action

2) _______ B) Age D) Speed

3) When the nervous system signals a muscle to contract ________ ion channels open.

A) Myosin B) Phosphorus C) Sodium D) Actin

3) _______

4) Skeletal muscle produces body movement as well as maintains our ________ as we sit.

A) Posture B) Vasoconstriction C) Vasodilation D) Strength

4) _______

5) The ________ is the prime elbow flexor.

A) Triceps brachii C) Biceps brachii

5) _______ B) Flexor digitorum D) Biceps femoris

6) The ________ muscle is located on the front of the lower leg.

A) Tibialis anterior B) Gastrocnemium Latissimus dorsi C) D) Hamstrings

6) _______

7) Which type of muscle will not regenerate once it is severely damaged?

A) Skeletal B) Visceral C) Cardiac

7) _______

8) Which term is used to designate muscle pain?

A) Paralysis B) Ataxia

D) Smooth 8) _______

C) Spasm

D) Myalgia

9) Which disorder affects the peripheral nervous system usually with ascending paralysis starting in the feet?

A) Tetanus C) Guillain-Barré syndrome

9) _______

B) Muscular dystrophy D) Myasthenia gravis

10) Striated muscles, which appear to have stripes, are in which type of muscle?

A) Visceral B) Skeletal C) Internal D) Smooth

10) ______

11) Blood is pumped through the heart by which type of muscle?

A) Smooth B) Cardiac C) Visceral

11) ______ D) Skeletal

12) The stationary attachment of the muscle is called the ________.

A) Point of insertion B) Point of control C) Point of movement D) Point of origin

12) ______

13) The only muscle that possesses both voluntary and involuntary abilities is the ________.

A) Lung B) Brain C) Heart D) Diaphragm

13) ______

14) Rotation occurs when you have movement around a(n) ________.

A) Vessel B) Vertebrae C) Axis

14) ______ D) Ball and socket

15) The muscle movement that enables a joint to bend is the ________.

A) Extension B) Flexion C) Extensor 16) Muscle cells are made up of ________.

A) Myofibrils B) Z bars

15) ______ D) Flexor 16) ______

C) Myosin

D) Actin

17) The myofilaments used during muscle contractions will return to their resting state when the ________ relax.

A) Actin

B) Z Bars

C) Sarcomeres

17) ______

D) Myosin

18) When the nervous system signals a muscle to contract, the ________ ion channels open.

A) Sodium B) Phosphorus C) Actin D) Myosin

18) ______

19) Skeletal muscles are able to contract ________ times faster than smooth muscle.

A) 50 B) 60 C) 20 D) 40

19) ______

20) Approximately ________ percent of the body's weight comes from its muscles.

A) 65 B) 15 C) 80 D) 50

20) ______

21) The part of the muscle that attaches to the bone that is stationary is called the ________.

A) Point of movement B) Point of origin C) Point of control D) Point of insertion

21) ______

22) The symptom of shin splints is ________.

A) Bruising of the shins C) Swelling in the wrist

22) ______

23) Myasthenia gravis is a(n) ________ disorder.

A) Autoimmune B) Myosin 24) The etiology of fibromyalgia is ________.

A) Bacterial infection C) Unknown

B) Patellar displacement D) Pain in the tibia 23) ______ C) Genetic

D) Malignant 24) ______

B) Acute injury D) Sudden, involuntary muscle spasms

25) Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a(n) ________ defect in muscle protein.

A) Acute B) Genetic C) Autoimmune

25) ______ D) Unknown

26) The bacteria clostridium tetani release a toxin that ________.

A) Causes intermittent muscle spasms B) Causes the patient to go into shock C) Keeps muscles constantly contracted D) Relaxes muscles and tightens ligaments

26) ______

27) Which of the following is not a symptom of myopathy?

A) Spasm B) Genetics C) Stiffness

27) ______

28) Atrophy means muscles ________.

A) Develop excessively in childhood C) Will be scarred

D) Weakness 28) ______

B) Waste away D) Have increased growth

29) The toxin used in Botox to treat wrinkles is ________.

A) Staph B) Botulinum toxin Clostridium tetani C) D) Acetylcholine

29) ______

30) A severe muscle strain can cause all of the following symptoms except ________.

A) Complete loss of movement B) Severe pain C) Swelling D) Fever

30) ______

31) The location of pain is confined to tender points in ________.

A) Tetanus B) Muscular dystrophy C) Myasthenia gravis D) Fibromyalgia

31) ______

32) Another name for a voluntary muscle is ________.

A) Striated muscle B) Cardiac muscle C) Skeletal muscle D) Both A and C

32) ______

33) This type of muscle tissue contains striations.

A) Voluntary muscle C) Smooth muscle

33) ______

34) Another name for visceral muscle is ________.

A) Smooth muscle C) Voluntary muscle

B) Cardiac muscle D) Both A and B 34) ______ B) Striated muscle D) Cardiac muscle

35) Strength training causes ________.

A) Muscle atrophy B) A decrease in the number of mitochondria in a muscle cell C) A decrease in blood vessels to a muscle D) Muscle hypertrophy

35) ______

36) In the bending of the elbow ________.

A) The brachialis is the prime mover C) The biceps brachii is the antagonist

36) ______ B) The biceps brachii is the prime mover D) The triceps brachii is the synergist

37) The triceps brachii and the biceps brachii ________.

A) Are synergistic for each other B) Are antagonist to each other C) Both have their insertions in the shoulder D) Both have their origin in the forearm

37) ______

38) Intercalated discs are found in ________.

A) Striated muscle C) Cardiac muscle

38) ______ B) Smooth muscle D) All of the above

39) Wasting away or deterioration of muscle is called ________.

A) Atrophy B) Myositis C) Hypertrophy

39) ______ D) Ankylosis

40) ________ is an injury that is the result of overuse, overstretching, or forcible stretching of a muscle beyond its functional capacity. It sometimes involves a tendon or ligament.

A) Shin splints B) Avulsion C) Sprain D) Strain

40) ______

41) A strong, tough strand or cord of dense connective tissue that serves as an attachment for muscle to bone is ________.

A) A tendon B) A ligament

42) Endurance training results in ________.

A) An increase in blood vessels to a muscle C) Muscle atrophy

C) Cartilage

41) ______

D) Adipose tissue 42) ______

B) Muscle hypertrophy D) An increase in muscle fibers

43) The movement that is opposite of flexion is ________.

A) Supination B) Rotation C) Extension

43) ______ D) Abduction

44) ________ provides the energy to help the myosin heads form and break the crossbridges with

44) ______

actin.

A) Calcium

B) Vitamin D

C) Potassium

D) ATP

45) All of the following can be used in naming a muscle except ________.

A) Color B) Shape C) Location of attachments D) Action E) Size

45) ______

46) Pectoralis major is located in or near the ________.

A) Front of lower leg B) Chest Elbow C) D) Upper portion of the thigh

46) ______

47) Symptoms of tendinosis include which of the following?

A) Tenderness B) Pain C) Stiffness D) All of the above

47) ______

48) A common running-related inflammatory injury of the extensor muscles and surrounding

48) ______

tissues of the lower legs is called ________.

A) Tendinitis B) Shin splints

C) Myopathy

49) The majority of fibromyalgia patients are ________.

A) Elderly B) Women C) Men

D) Muscle sprain 49) ______ D) Children

50) This bacteria releases a toxin that keeps muscles constantly contracted and causes tetanus.

A) Meningitis B) Clostridium tetani C) Staphylococcus aureus D) E. Coli

50) ______

51) Which of the following conditions can be the result of prolonged physical activity, excessive

51) ______

fluid/electrolyte loss, or menstruation?

A) Tetanus C) Fibromyalgia syndrome

B) Strains/tendinitis D) Cramps/spasms

52) Progressive fluctuating muscle weakness, often starting in the facial or eye muscles are signs and symptoms of which disease?

A) Duchenne muscular dystrophy

B) Fibromyalgia syndrome

52) ______

C) Mitochondrial myopathy

D) Myasthenia gravis

53) Progressive descending muscle spasm, rigidity, stiffness and pain, especially in the jaw are signs and symptoms of which disease?

A) Tetanus C) Fibromyalgia syndrome

B) Strains/tendinitis D) Cramps/spasms

54) Which set of muscles of wrestling champions have a very high demand for glucose and fats for fuel energy?

A) Wrestler's back muscles C) Wrestler's leg muscles

55) ______

B) Stronger long bones D) Richer blood supply

56) When competing in a swimming meet, participants release fuel energy from their muscles.

What does that activity produce?

A) Red blood cells C) Glucose

54) ______

B) Wrestler's chest muscles D) Wrestler's shoulder muscles

55) Which body feature do ultramarathon runners count on to give their muscles fuel for endurance?

A) Healthy cartilage C) Toned ligaments and tendons

53) ______

56) ______

B) More energy D) Heat

57) How do cardiac muscle fibers differ from the muscle fibers of the arms and legs?

A) Non-striated fibers rather than striated fibers B) Poorer supply of blood than the limbs C) Routine involuntary movement D) Longer muscle fibers than the limbs

57) ______

58) A coroner examined the heart of an elderly man. Which finding will convince the coroner that

58) ______

the person died of a severe heart attack?

A) Cardiac halitosis C) Cardiac mitosis

B) Cardiac neurosis D) Cardiac necrosis

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

59) Smooth muscle is found in the stomach.

59) ______

60) Ligaments attach muscle to bone.

60) ______

61) The rectus femoris is in the arm.

61) ______

62) Abduction moves a muscle away from midline.

62) ______

63) Extension decreases the angle between 2 bones.

63) ______

64) Vasoconstriction makes vessels smaller.

64) ______

65) Cardiac muscle is only found in the heart.

65) ______

66) Hypertrophy is muscle wasting.

66) ______

67) Ataxia is partial or total loss of the ability to move muscles.

67) ______

68) Sprains are tears or breaks in ligaments.

68) ______

69) Guillain-Barré syndrome is a disorder of the peripheral nervous system.

69) ______

70) An electromyograph records electrical activity in muscles.

70) ______

71) A hernia is caused when tendons become inflamed.

71) ______

72) The pectoralis major muscle is named for its action.

72) ______

73) Smooth muscle is voluntary muscle.

73) ______

1) A 2) C 3) C 4) A 5) C 6) A 7) C 8) D 9) C 10) B 11) B 12) D 13) D 14) C 15) D 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) A 20) D 21) B 22) D 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) C 27) B 28) B 29) B 30) D 31) D 32) D 33) D 34) A 35) D 36) B 37) B 38) C 39) A 40) D 41) A 42) A 43) C 44) D 45) A 46) B 47) D 48) B 49) B 50) B

51) D 52) D 53) A 54) C 55) D 56) D 57) C 58) D 59) TRUE 60) FALSE 61) FALSE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE 73) FALSE

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) What is the layer of skin that we can see?

1) _______ A) Dermis B) Epidermis C) Subcutaneous fascia D) Stratum basale 2) Patches of melanin found on the skin form ________.

A) Freckles B) Carotene C) Melanocytes

2) _______ D) Bilirubin

3) The condition of yellow jaundice occurs when the body builds up excess ________.

A) Carotene B) Freckles C) Bilirubin D) Melanin

3) _______

4) Collagenous and elastic fibers of the ________ make it possible for the skin to flex with

4) _______

movement of the body.

A) Subcutaneous

B) Dermis

5) ________ sweat glands become active at puberty.

A) Eccrine B) Apocrine

C) Epidermis

D) Fascia 5) _______

C) Sebaceous

6) The skin is attached to the muscles of the body by the ________ layer.

A) Epidermis B) Subcutaneous C) Dermis 7) Connective tissue of the skin is developed from ________.

A) Fibroblasts B) Collagen C) Fascia

D) Salivary 6) _______ D) Hypodermis 7) _______ D) Melanocytes

8) What is the degree of burn in which all three layers of skin have been destroyed and the victim feels no pain?

A) First

B) Second

C) Third

8) _______

D) Fourth

9) The "rule of ________" is a system devised to assess the amount of body surface affected by a

9) _______

burn.

A) Five

B) Injury

C) Many

D) Nines

10) After a severe burn, a patient may require a(n) ________, in which skin is removed from an

10) ______

unaffected area of his body and moved to the burned area.

A) Donor site B) Autograft C) Heterograft D) Antibacterial patch

11) Epidermal cells are sloughed off from the ________.

A) Clear layer B) Horny layer C) Dermal layer

11) ______ D) Basal layer

12) Specialized epithelial cells originating from the nail ________ form your nails.

A) Bed B) Cells C) Base D) Root

12) ______

13) What color would you expect to see at a healthy nail bed?

A) White B) Pink C) Tan

13) ______ D) Blanche

14) By the time epidermal cells reach the surface of the epidermis they are filled with ________.

14) ______

A) Carotene

B) Lunula

C) Granulosa

D) Keratin

15) The integumentary system plays an important role in regulating the body's ________.

A) Environment B) Elasticity C) Composition D) Temperature

15) ______

16) Medication placed into the skin is called ________.

A) Intracutaneou B) Intramuscular C) Intravascular

16) ______ D) Intraspinal

s

17) ________ is a disease in which there is reduced blood flow to the extremities.

A) Jaundice B) Dermatitis C) PVD D) RBC

17) ______

18) Which of the following is not a fungal infection?

A) Tinea pedis C) Tinea corporis

18) ______

19) Fourth degree burns penetrate ________.

A) To the muscle C) To the subcutaneous tissue

B) Tinnitus corporis D) Tinea cruris 19) ______ B) To the skin D) To the bone

20) Jaundice is caused by a build-up in the body of ________.

A) Melanin B) Bilirubin C) Carotene 21) Pubic lice are often called ________.

A) Crabs B) Sex bugs 22) Treatment for Herpes is ________.

A) Antibiotics C) Medicated cream

20) ______ D) Bile 21) ______

C) Bugs

D) Nits 22) ______

B) Steroids D) Antivirals

23) Diabetes is a disease that may cause reduced blood flow to the extremities. This condition is known as ________.

A) Folliculitis C) Keloid

24) Plantar warts are found ________.

A) Around the mouth and nose C) On the sole of the foot

23) ______

B) Peripheral vascular disease (PVD) D) Dermatitis 24) ______ B) On the genitals D) On children's hands and fingers

25) A lesion can include all of the following except ________.

A) Infected follicle B) Single patch of skin C) Wound D) Injury

25) ______

26) A condition that has a "bulls-eye" macule/papule is ________.

A) General warts B) Lyme disease C) Acne

26) ______ D) Scabies

27) Tinea capitis, tinea corporis, tinea pedis, and tinea cruris are caused by ________.

A) Mites B) Ringworms C) Bacteria D) Fungi

27) ______

28) Causes of alopecia (baldness) include ________.

A) Scalp infections

28) ______ B) Chemotherapy and other medications

C) Aging and heredity factors

D) All of the above

29) Which statement is not true of the epidermis?

A) It is composed mostly of connective tissue.

B) It is the outermost layer of skin.

C) It is a stratified squamous epithelium.

D) It contains the stratum corneum.

29) ______

30) The stratum corneum ________.

A) Is composed of mostly dead cells B) Is the innermost layer of the epidermis C) Contains melanocytes which give the skin color D) Both B and C

30) ______

31) The skin tans in response to sunlight because of the release of ________.

A) Sebum B) Collagen C) Melanin

31) ______ D) Keratin

32) ________ is a chronic skin condition marked by thick, flaky, red patches of various sizes, covered with white, silvery patches.

A) Herpes zoster C) Psoriasis

B) Seborrheic dermatitis D) Atopic dermatitis (eczema)

33) ________ is an eruption of extremely painful vesicles that occur in a band-like pattern along the course of a spinal nerve pathway.

A) Scabies B) Herpes zoster

34) The treatment of cellulitis includes ________.

A) Antifungal medications C) Incision and drainage

32) ______

C) Acne vulgaris

33) ______

D) Pediculosis 34) ______

B) Antibiotics D) All of the above

35) Which of the following is not found in the dermis of the skin?

A) Nerve endings B) Melanocytes, which give the skin color C) Sweat glands D) Connective tissue

35) ______

36) The layer of epithelial tissue under the fingernail, actually part of the epidermis, is called

36) ______

________.

A) The nail body

B) The nail bed

C) The cuticle

D) The lunula

37) This type of gland secretes oil for the skin and hair.

A) An eccrine gland B) An apocrine gland C) A sebaceous gland D) A sudoriferous gland

37) ______

38) Burns that are characterized by blisters, severe pain, and swelling are classified as ________.

A) First-degree burns B) Second-degree burns Third-degree burns C) D) Fourth-degree burns

38) ______

39) The rule of nines is used to ________.

A) Determine the depth of burns C) Determine the body surface area

39) ______

burned

B) Determine the color of burns D) Both A and B

40) This skin infection is also called furuncles.

A) Boils B) Warts

40) ______ C) Tinea

41) This skin infection is caused by a papilloma virus.

A) Boils B) Warts C) Tinea

D) Impetigo 41) ______ D) Impetigo

42) Individuals with a malfunctioning adrenal gland may have what color of skin?

A) Yellow B) Blue C) Bronze D) Red

42) ______

43) Folliculitis is inflammation of the hair follicles and is usually caused by what type of bacteria?

A) Staphylococcus B) Mycobacterium C) Streptococcus D) E. Coli

43) ______

44) Chicken pox is caused by the ________ virus.

A) Herpes varicella C) Herpes simplex type 1

44) ______ B) Herpes zoster D) Herpes simplex type 2

45) Fever blisters or cold sores are caused by the ________ virus.

A) Herpes varicella B) Herpes zoster C) Herpes simplex type 1 D) Herpes simplex type 2

45) ______

46) Genital herpes is caused by the ________ virus.

A) Herpes varicella C) Herpes simplex type 1

46) ______

47) Shingles is caused by the ________ virus.

A) Herpes varicella C) Herpes simplex type 1

B) Herpes zoster D) Herpes simplex type 2 47) ______ B) Herpes zoster D) Herpes simplex type 2

48) ________ are normally found on children's hands and fingers.

A) Plantar warts B) Common warts C) Genital warts D) None of the above

48) ______

49) ________ are found on the sole of the foot and tend to grow inward exhibiting a smooth

49) ______

surface.

A) Plantar warts C) Genital warts

B) Common warts D) None of the above

50) ________ are highly contagious and sexually transmitted.

A) Plantar warts B) Common warts C) Genital warts D) None of the above

50) ______

51) ________ is the most common type of fungal skin infection and is highly contagious.

A) Tinea corporis B) Tinea unguium C) Tinea cruris D) Tinea pedis

51) ______

52) ________ is a fungal infection of the groin and scrotal areas that mainly affects men.

A) Tinea corporis B) Tinea unguium C) Tinea cruris D) Tinea pedis

52) ______

53) ________ is incorrectly called ringworm.

53) ______

A) Tinea corporis C) Tinea cruris

B) Tinea unguium D) Tinea pedis

54) ________ is a condition in which a fungal infection is involved with either fingernails or toenails.

A) Tinea corporis C) Tinea cruris

B) Tinea unguium D) Tinea pedis

55) Cellulitis is an inflammatory condition of the skin and subcutaneous tissue caused by what bacteria?

A) E. Coli C) Mycobacterium

54) ______

55) ______

B) Staphylococcus D) Streptococcus

56) A burn victim comes into your local Emergency Room and you are helping to assess the extent

56) ______

of their burns. In your assessment, you notice that the patient has burns on their head and neck, their right arm, right leg, and the front of the torso. You determine that the patient has burns over ________ % of their body.

A) 45 B) 36 C) 63 D) 54

57) A grandmother kissed the scraped knee of her grandchild. "It develops nature's bandage," she told the child. Which skin feature is she referring to?

A) Blood clot B) Scab C) Pigment

57) ______

D) Inflammation

58) The diabetic patient faced amputation of his toes due to long-delayed wound healing in his

58) ______

foot. Which characteristic of his diabetic condition caused his medical crisis?

A) Increase in his blood flow B) Insulin reactions C) Decrease in his white blood cell activity D) High blood sugar

59) The young actress's face was attacked by a knife-wielding robber. Her wounds were deep.

What response did her collagen fibers form to compensate?

A) Pigment B) Scar C) Scab

59) ______

D) Inflammation

60) A young man suffered a severe injury in a motorcycle accident. Rather than give him pain

60) ______

medications by IV or injections, his doctor ordered his pain medicines to be delivered through his skin. Which kind of patches worked well this way?

A) Sublingual patches B) Transdermal patches C) Subcutaneous patches D) Topical patches

61) A woman had repeated angina attacks. She carried nitroglycerin tablets with her at all times.

61) ______

When needed, why did she place the nitroglycerin tablets under her tongue?

A) To not touch the taste buds on her tongue's surface B) To avoiding the pain of intramuscular injections C) To get rapid absorption into her bloodstream D) To promote sustained release of her medication over time

62) A dermatologist recommended a soothing waterproof ointment to be applied directly to a baby's skin. Which kind of medicine delivery did she prescribe?

A) Topical B) Subcutaneous C) Sublingual

62) ______

D) Transdermal

63) When outdoor temperatures reached a ten-year high, the mountain hiker appeared flushed.

Which action made her blood vessels get larger in diameter allowing her to lose heat to the environment?

63) ______

A) Vasopressor C) Vasodilation

B) Vasoconstriction D) Vasomotor

64) When shoveling snow from the driveway, the older man did not feel the bitter cold. Which

64) ______

action made his blood vessels get smaller in diameter, conserving heat in the warm core of his body?

A) Vasoconstriction B) Vasodilation C) Vasopressor D) Vasomotor

65) When ice skating at Rockefeller Center, a young skater got thoroughly chilled. Which of his

65) ______

body's reaction to the cold gave him "goose pimples?"

A) Dehydration of his skin surface by cold B) Faster subcutaneous blood flow C) His skin hairs pulling his skin muscles together D) Contraction of erector muscles in his skin

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

66) Nicotine to aid smoking cessation can be delivered by transdermal patches.

66) ______

67) Carotene gives a bluish hue to the skin.

67) ______

68) Second degree burns involve the entire depth of the epidermis and a portion of the dermis.

68) ______

69) Formation of a keloid is a result of underproduction of connective tissue.

69) ______

70) Each upper limb is considered nine percent of the body skin surface area.

70) ______

71) Keratinization softens cells.

71) ______

72) The part of the hair that you see outside the body is the follicle.

72) ______

73) The white, half-moon shaped area of your fingernail is called the cuticle.

73) ______

74) An infected blackhead is a pustule.

74) ______

75) As your temperature rises during activity, your body signals blood vessels to constrict.

75) ______

76) Muscles in your skin are called Arrector pili.

76) ______

77) The most dangerous type of skin cancer is basal cell carcinoma.

77) ______

78) A polyp is a small tumor with a stem.

78) ______

79) A vesicle is a small, fluid-filled, raised spot on the surface of the skin.

79) ______

80) Eczema is a disorder that results primarily from an allergic reaction.

80) ______

1) B 2) A 3) C 4) B 5) B 6) D 7) A 8) C 9) D 10) B 11) B 12) D 13) B 14) D 15) D 16) A 17) C 18) B 19) D 20) B 21) A 22) D 23) B 24) C 25) A 26) B 27) D 28) D 29) A 30) A 31) C 32) C 33) B 34) B 35) B 36) B 37) C 38) B 39) C 40) A 41) B 42) C 43) A 44) A 45) C 46) D 47) B 48) B 49) A 50) C

51) D 52) C 53) A 54) B 55) B 56) D 57) B 58) C 59) B 60) B 61) C 62) A 63) C 64) A 65) D 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) TRUE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) FALSE

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The part of the nervous system which is located outside the brain and spinal cord is called the 1) _______ ________ system.

A) Sensory C) Endocrine

B) Central nervous D) Peripheral nervous

2) The autonomic system is divided into which two systems?

A) Input, output B) Motor, sensory Somatic, autonomic C) D) Sympathetic, parasympathetic

2) _______

3) Myelin is a lipid insulation produced by the ________.

A) Ependymal cells B) Astrocytes C) Oligodendrocytes D) Microglia

3) _______

4) Which part of the neuron is responsible for cell metabolism?

A) Synapse B) Axon C) Body

4) _______ D) Dendrite

5) Neurons with the ability to monitor the environment are called ________ neurons.

A) Output B) Motor C) Sensory D) Accessory

5) _______

6) Neurons are able to generate tiny electrical currents by changing the ________ of their

6) _______

membranes.

A) Composition

B) Shape

C) Permeability

D) Pathway

7) If a cell is more positively charged than it is when resting, it is said to be ________.

A) Refractory B) Depolarized C) Polarized D) Repolarized

7) _______

8) A cell which is more negatively charged than at rest is ________.

A) Depolarized B) Polarized C) Hyperpolarized D) Refractory

8) _______

9) Impulses are conducted rapidly if ________ is present.

A) Spinal fluid B) Myelin C) Calcium

9) _______ D) Sodium

10) Which of the following is a medical disorder in which the myelin in the CNS has been destroyed?

A) Guillain-Barré syndrome C) Muscular dystrophy

10) ______

B) Myasthenia gravis D) Multiple sclerosis

11) The nerves going to the upper limbs join the spinal cord at the ________ region.

A) Thoracic B) Lumbar C) Cervical D) Sacral

11) ______

12) The third, innermost, layer of the meninges is called the ________.

A) Pia mater B) Dura mater C) Epidural mater D) Arachnoid mater

12) ______

13) Medication is often injected into the ________ space to alleviate pain.

13) ______

A) Subarachnoid

B) Vertebral

C) Subdural

14) Which part of the spinal cord carries sensory information?

A) Commissure B) Dorsal root C) Column 15) Which spinal cord tracts carry sensory information?

A) Ventral B) Superficial C) Inferior

D) Epidural 14) ______ D) Ventral root 15) ______ D) Ascending

16) Acute treatment for spinal cord injury includes ________.

A) Ice B) Immobilization C) Physical therapy D) Heat

16) ______

17) Which of the following is not one of the three broad categories of causes in peripheral

17) ______

neuropathy?

A) Infection/autoimmune C) Trauma

B) Paralysis D) Systemic

18) A quadriplegic with damage high in the cervical spinal cord may have a paralyzed diaphragm, such that the patient cannot ________ on his own.

A) Breathe C) Close their eyes

18) ______

B) Speak D) Swallow food

19) The autonomic nervous system is a subdivision of the ________.

A) Sympathetic nervous system B) Peripheral nervous system C) Parasympathetic nervous system D) Central nervous system

19) ______

20) Dendrites ________.

A) Carry impulses away from the cell

20) ______

body C) Are usually surrounded by myelin

21) Sensory neurons are also called ________.

A) Output neurons C) Glia cells

B) Are usually highly branched D) All of the above 21) ______ B) Interneurons D) Input neurons

22) Neurons that carry information between neurons are called ________.

A) Interneurons B) Motor neurons C) Afferent neurons D) Efferent neurons

22) ______

23) This type of glia cell produces myelin for cells in the brain.

A) Microglia B) Astrocytes C) Oligodendrocytes D) Interneurons

23) ______

24) Inflammation of the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord is called ________.

A) Meningitis B) Polyneuritis C) Blepharitis D) Encephalitis

24) ______

25) This type of glia cell attacks microbes and removes debris.

A) Oligodendrocyte B) Neurilemma C) Astroglia D) Microglia

25) ______

26) Which of the following statements is not true of multiple sclerosis?

26) ______

A) It affects 2,000-4,000 people in the United States.

B) Most patients are initially diagnosed with relapsing-remitting MS, but at least 50% of them will progress to the chronic progressive form.

C) Patients may have disturbances in vision, balance, speech, or movement.

D) It is considered a myelin disorder.

27) When a cell becomes stimulated (excited) ________.

A) The entire neuron remains at rest B) The interior of the neuron becomes more negative C) Sodium gates in the cell membrane spring open D) Sodium gates in the cell membrane close

27) ______

28) The outermost of the meninges is the ________.

A) Pia mater C) Arachnoid mater

28) ______ B) Dura mater D) Choroid plexus

29) Loss of motor and sensory control of the trunk of the body and lower extremities as a result of a spinal cord injury describes ________.

A) Paraplegia C) A slipped disk

29) ______

B) Quadriplegia D) Peripheral neuropathy

30) This disease is characterized by ascending paralysis.

A) Guillain Barré syndrome B) Charcot Marie Tooth disorder C) Myasthenia gravis D) Polio

30) ______

31) This disease is characterized by progressive fluctuating muscle weakness starting in the facial

31) ______

or eye muscles.

A) Guillain Barré syndrome C) Myasthenia gravis

B) Charcot Marie Tooth disorder D) Polio

32) Patients who have an injury to their cervical spinal cord segment and are paralyzed in all four limbs are known as ________.

A) Quadriplegics

C) Paraplegics

B) Suffering from Guillain Barré syndrome D) None of the above

33) Patients with injuries to the thoracic spinal cord segment with two paralyzed legs are said to be ________.

A) Quadriplegics

32) ______

33) ______

B) Suffering from Guillain Barré syndrome

C) Paraplegics

D) None of the above

34) A potentially fatal condition is an infection of the meninges called ________.

A) Meningectomy B) Meningitis C) Polio D) All of the above

34) ______

35) This inflammatory condition is a result of repetitive motion and leads to numbness in the palm

35) ______

and fingers ________.

A) botulism C) carpal tunnel syndrome

B) meningitis D) myasthenia gravis

36) An injection of a local anesthetic into the spinal column is called a(n) ________.

36) ______

A) epiphysis

B) epidural

37) Spinal root directional terms are ________.

A) Superior and inferior C) Distal and proximal

C) cutaneous

D) subdural 37) ______

B) Anterior and posterior D) Dorsal and ventral

38) Which type of information can graded potentials convey to the central nervous system?

A) Size of environmental change B) Length of signal sent and received C) Same information as action potentials D) Amount of electricity generated

38) ______

39) What material gives "white matter" its color?

A) Cell bodies C) Myelinated axons

39) ______ B) Potassium channels D) Depolarizing axons

40) Gray matter is present in a spinal cord in three horns. Surgically cutting across the horns destroys which material?

A) Myelinated axons C) Cell bodies

40) ______

B) Depolarizing axons D) Potassium channels

41) What is the relationship between ions and myelin that prevents ions from passing through

41) ______

channels?

A) Electrical: Ions have negative charges and myelin have positive charges.

B) Size: Ions are large in diameter and myelin is much smaller.

C) Solubility: Ions are water soluble and myelin is a lipid.

D) Weight: Ions are light and myelin is much heavier.

42) Eating improperly prepared puffer fish can kill a person. Which chemical channels does the fish's toxin block?

A) Epinephrine

B) Acetylcholine

C) Potassium

D) Sodium

43) A runner crossed the finish line without feeling pain from her blisters or other injuries. Which chemical neurotransmitter was involved?

A) Serotonin B) Endorphins

C) Acetylcholine

C) Endorphins

43) ______

D) Epinephrine

44) A college student had a depressed mood and trouble falling asleep. Which chemical neurotransmitter could cause such problems?

A) Serotonin B) Acetylcholine

42) ______

44) ______

D) Epinephrine

45) What is the advantage of transmitting information by an electrical synapse?

A) Chemical free B) Fast recovery C) Hormone free D) Less toxicity

45) ______

46) A woman suffered from chronic dizzy spells, resulting in difficulty keeping her body vertical.

46) ______

Which reflex was involved?

A) Vestibular reflex C) Startle reflex

B) Withdrawal reflex D) Patellar tendon reflex

47) A taxi driver picked up a fare in a heavy rainstorm. Which reflex was activated when both men unexpectedly heard a loud clap of thunder?

A) Patellar tendon reflex C) Startle reflex

47) ______

B) Withdrawal reflex D) Vestibular reflex

48) A pediatrician tapped the knee of a child. She found that the child's patellar tendon reflex was

abn ormal.

____ __

Which 48) body areas might have problems?

A) Muscles, nerves or the spinal cord C) Tibias, ankles, or feet

B) Knees, thighs, or hips D) Eyes, ears, or nose

49) A premature child was born without working reflexes. Which function of reflexes is the child missing?

A) Collaborative, working together C) Informative, sharing facts

49) ______

B) Protective, avoiding harm D) Active, triggering movement

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

50) The autonomic system controls voluntary movement.

50) ______

51) Oligodendrocytes make myelin.

51) ______

52) Potassium ions move across neurons during depolarization.

52) ______

53) There are eight cervical nerves.

53) ______

54) For many reflexes, only the spinal cord is a necessary participant.

54) ______

55) The speed of nerve impulse conduction depends solely upon the diameter of the axon.

55) ______

56) SSRIs prevent the clean up of a neurotransmitter.

56) ______

57) The peripheral nervous system is everything outside the brain and spinal cord.

57) ______

58) Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder in which the immune system attacks and

58) ______

destroys acetylcholine receptors.

59) A synapse is a junction between two nodes of Ranvier.

59) ______

60) Electrical synapses use neurotransmitters to send information to other cells.

60) ______

61) Dendrites generate and send signals to other cells.

61) ______

62) Action potentials are "all or none."

62) ______

63) Cell bodies are myelinated.

63) ______

64) Myelinated axons are white.

64) ______

1) D 2) D 3) C 4) C 5) C 6) C 7) B 8) C 9) B 10) D 11) C 12) A 13) D 14) B 15) D 16) B 17) B 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) D 22) A 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) A 27) C 28) B 29) A 30) A 31) C 32) A 33) C 34) B 35) C 36) B 37) D 38) A 39) C 40) C 41) C 42) D 43) B 44) A 45) A 46) A 47) C 48) A 49) B 50) FALSE

51) TRUE 52) FALSE 53) TRUE 54) TRUE 55) FALSE 56) TRUE 57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) FALSE 61) FALSE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) What is the largest part of the brain?

1) _______ A) Hypothalamu B) Brain stem C) Cerebellum D) Cerebrum s

2) The grooves and ridges of the brain are known as ________.

A) Convolutions B) Meninges C) Hemispheres

2) _______ D) Lobes

3) Heart beat, breathing, and the cardiovascular system are controlled by the ________.

A) Midbrain B) Cerebellum C) Cerebrum D) Medulla oblongata

3) _______

4) The internal anatomy of the brain has which structure?

A) Gray matter surrounded by white matter B) White matter only C) White matter surrounded by gray matter D) Gray matter only

4) _______

5) The right and left hemisphere of the cerebrum are connected by the ________.

A) Precentral gyrus B) Corpus callosum C) Ventricles D) Postcentral gyrus

5) _______

6) Which structure in the diencephalon relays information to the cerebrum?

A) Thalamus B) Hypothalamus C) Pituitary gland D) Pineal body

6) _______

7) What cranial nerve is chiefly responsible for eye movements?

A) Hypoglossal B) Oculomotor C) Facial

7) _______ D) Olfactory

8) What number cranial nerve is the vagus nerve?

A) VIII B) X

D) II

9) To what sense does somatic sensation refer?

A) Smell B) Vision

8) _______ C) XII

9) _______ C) Taste

D) Touch

10) Which tract carries fine touch and vibration to the cerebral cortex?

A) Spinocerebellar tract B) Spinothalamic tract Ventral column tract C) D) Dorsal column tract

10) ______

11) Once touch information is sent to the brain, understanding will occur in the ________ area.

A) Sensory association relay B) Ganglionic association C) Somatic sensory association D) Somatic sensory cortex

11) ______

12) After a plan for movement has been developed, it leaves the ________ and connects with

12) ______

neurons in the thalamus.

A) Spinal tract

B) Limbic system

C) Motor cortex

D) Nuclei

13) Where are the neurons for the autonomic system located?

A) Spinal cord and brain stem B) Corpus callosum C) Inside neurotransmitters D) Cerebral cortex

13) ______

14) A woman falls down a flight of stairs carrying a large box. She is admitted to the hospital

14) ______

paralyzed on the right side and unable to speak. Where is her injury?

A) Temporal lobe B) Brainstem C) Frontal lobe

D) Spinal cord

15) During surgery, general anesthesia inhibits the ________, causing unconsciousness in the patient.

A) Basal nuclei C) Limbic system

15) ______

B) Hypothalamus D) Reticular system

16) Which of these is a type of paralysis?

A) Spastic B) Reflexive

16) ______ C) Bivalvular

D) Radical

17) Some patients with a severe case of ________ must be kept on a ventilator until the paralysis resolves.

A) Guillain Barré syndrome C) Muscular dystrophy

17) ______

B) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D) Multiple sclerosis

18) A subdural hematoma would be between the ________.

A) Arachnoid mater and subarachnoid B) Dura and vertebral column C) Dura mater and the arachnoid mater D) Arachnoid and pia mater

18) ______

19) A brain injury with swelling and bleeding with possible severe hemorrhaging (hematoma) is

19) ______

known as a ________.

A) TIA

B) Contusion

C) Concussion

D) CVA

20) Which of the following statements is not true of the cerebellum?

A) It helps regulate water balance and sleep cycles.

B) It lies under the occipital lobe of the cerebrum.

C) It is considered the "little brain."

D) It is responsible for sensory and motor coordination and balance.

20) ______

21) The somatic nervous system carries impulses from the brain and spinal cord to ________.

A) Cardiac muscle tissue B) Smooth muscles C) Skeletal muscles D) All of the above

21) ______

22) A mild brain injury is commonly known as a ________.

A) Hemorrhage B) Concussion C) Contusion

22) ______ D) Hematoma

23) A ________, which is swelling and bleeding at the site of injury, is more serious than a concussion.

A) Hemorrhage C) Convulsion

B) Hematoma D) None of the above

24) A ________ is caused by disruption of blood flow to a portion of the brain due to either hemorrhage or blood clot.

A) Cerebrovascular accident C) A and B only

23) ______

B) Stroke D) None of the above

24) ______

25) A mini stroke is known as a ________.

A) TIA C) Stroke

25) ______ B) Transient necrotic attack D) A and B only

26) A ________ is a pool of blood between any of the layers of meninges and the skull.

A) Contusion B) Hematoma C) Concussion D) Hemorrhage

26) ______

27) This is the most common cause of dementia among people 65 years or older.

A) Dementia B) Travis' disease C) Parkinson's disease D) Alzheimer's disease

27) ______

28) Which fissure divides the brain into a left and right hemisphere?

A) Longitudinal B) Medial C) Sagittal

28) ______ D) Transverse

29) The lobe responsible for vision.

A) Frontal B) Parietal

D) Occipital

30) The lobe responsible for taste.

A) Parietal B) Occipital

29) ______ C) Medial

30) ______ C) Temporal

D) Frontal

31) This structure is responsible for the secretion of melatonin.

A) Pituitary gland B) Pineal body Hypothalamus C) D) Thalamus

31) ______

32) Hydocephalus is a result of an excess of what fluid?

A) ALS B) CNS C) CSF

32) ______

33) A group of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS is called a ________.

A) Ganglion B) Glia C) Axons 34) The system that controls mood.

A) Reticular B) Limbic

D) Blood 33) ______ D) Dendrites 34) ______

C) Somatic

D) Sympathetic

35) A non-progressive movement disorder exhibiting classic spastic paralysis.

A) Huntington's disease B) CVA Cerebral palsy C) D) Muscular dystrophy

35) ______

36) What is the difference between the anatomy of the cranial nerves and that of the spinal nerves?

A) In cranial nerves, damage is always fatal; in spinal nerves, damage can be healed.

B) In cranial nerves, hollow cavities are empty; in spinal nerves, hollow cavities contain

36) ______

cerebrospinal fluid.

C) In cranial nerves, the white matter is surrounded by the gray matter; in spinal nerves, it is the other way around.

D) In cranial nerves, the right and left sides act independently; in spinal nerves, movement is connected.

37) A dentist identified the source of the college student's pain while chewing food or gum. Which cranial nerve was inflamed?

A) Facial C) Trigeminal nerve

B) Olfactory D) Vagus

37) ______

38) After a car accident in which his head hit the windshield, the injured man could no longer

38) ______

enjoy food through his sense of smell. Which cranial nerve was destroyed?

A) Vagus B) Olfactory C) Facial D) Trigeminal nerve

39) In a hockey game, a player suffered an injury to his facial nerve. Which sense was damaged?

A) Smell B) Vision C) Hearing D) Taste

39) ______

40) If the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves were a singing trio, what movements would

40) ______

they sing about?

A) Eye movements.

C) Arm movements.

B) Tongue movements.

D) Leg movements.

41) As compared to teenagers' spinal nerves, how specialized are their cranial nerves?

A) Depends upon maturity B) Equally specialized C) Less specialized D) More specialized

41) ______

42) When she encountered a mother bear in the wilderness, which part of the hiker's autonomic

42) ______

nervous system activated?

A) Limbic C) Sympathetic

B) Parasympathetic D) Somatic

43) Waking up from a deep sleep, the homeowner could hear a burglar breaking the panes in his

43) ______

sliding glass door. What hormone made him have an increased heart rate, increased blood pressure, sweating, and a dry mouth?

A) Estrogen B) Dopamine C) Adrenaline D) Insulin

44) In a long business meeting lasting well into the lunch hour, several participants' stomachs

44) ______

rumbled. Which part of the autonomic nervous system was responsible?

A) Parasympathetic B) Limbic C) Sympathetic D) Somatic

45) In the parasympathetic branch of the nervous system, which activity does acetylcholine not perform?

A) Exciting skeletal muscles C) Blocking smooth muscle activity

45) ______

B) Stimulating emotion and memory D) Inhibiting cardiac muscle activity

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

46) Gyri and sulci are known as convolutions.

46) ______

47) Parietal lobes are responsible for vision.

47) ______

48) The pons is inferior to the medulla oblongata.

48) ______

49) The midbrain is the most superior portion of the brainstem.

49) ______

50) The diencephalon controls hormone levels.

50) ______

51) Thirst is regulated in the thalamus.

51) ______

52) Respiratory arrest is a clear sign of brain damage after a fall.

52) ______

53) The optic nerve controls smell.

53) ______

54) Pain is perceived in the skin.

54) ______

55) The limbic system controls emotions and moods.

55) ______

56) The parasympathetic system controls the "fight or flight" response.

56) ______

57) A brain tumor in the frontal lobe might cause significant changes in personality.

57) ______

58) Paralysis is the inability to control voluntary movement.

58) ______

59) Cerebral palsy usually begins after age 50.

59) ______

60) Ministrokes are called "TIAs."

60) ______

1) D 2) A 3) D 4) C 5) B 6) A 7) B 8) B 9) D 10) D 11) C 12) C 13) A 14) C 15) D 16) A 17) A 18) C 19) C 20) A 21) C 22) B 23) B 24) C 25) A 26) B 27) D 28) A 29) D 30) C 31) B 32) C 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) C 37) C 38) B 39) D 40) A 41) D 42) C 43) C 44) A 45) B 46) TRUE 47) FALSE 48) FALSE 49) TRUE 50) TRUE

51) FALSE 52) FALSE 53) FALSE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE 57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following is listed as one of our visceral senses?

1) _______ A) Pain B) Touch C) Hunger D) Heat 2) The ________ of the eye works similarly to the shutter of a camera.

A) Eyelid B) Cornea C) Lens

2) _______ D) Iris

3) Your tears act as a lubricant and ________ to protect the eyes from microorganisms.

A) Antiseptic B) Bath C) Glaze D) Moisture

3) _______

4) The cornea is found within the ________ of the eye.

A) Sclera B) Conjunctiva C) Choroid

4) _______ D) Retina

5) The eye receives most of its nourishment from the vessels within the ________.

A) Retina B) Sclera C) Choroid D) Conjunctiva

5) _______

6) The vision center of the brain is located in the ________ lobe.

A) Temporal B) Hypothalamu C) Optic

6) _______ D) Occipital

s

7) Light passes to the eye through what opening?

A) Lens B) Eyeball

7) _______ C) Pupil

D) Iris

8) To help diagnose sleep disorders, doctors will measure which stage of sleep?

A) Amblyopia B) REM C) Myopia D) PERLA

8) _______

9) What are the three tiny bones located in the middle ear?

A) Cerumen B) Pinnas C) Ossicles

9) _______ D) Cochleas

10) The ________ contain sensors necessary for equilibrium.

A) Semicircular canals B) Vestibule C) Incus D) Cochlea

10) ______

11) The bony labyrinth is another name for the ________.

A) Auditory nerve B) Inner ear C) Middle ear D) Outer ear

11) ______

12) The process of sound waves traveling to the brain is known as ________ conduction.

A) Sensorineural B) Sound C) Neural D) Bone

12) ______

13) ________ is the name given for the distinct taste of glutamates.

A) Meniere B) Tinnitus C) Umami

13) ______

14) "Tactile corpuscles" is the name given to the receptors for which sense?

A) Hearing B) Taste C) Touch

D) Gustatory 14) ______ D) Smell

15) Experiencing pain in the right shoulder due to liver disease is an example of ________ pain.

15) ______

A) Referred

B) Disguised

C) Pseudo

D) Phantom

16) Amblyopia develops most commonly in ________.

A) Adults B) The elderly C) Patients with astigmatism D) Children

16) ______

17) A patient who has itching in the ears due to a buildup of ear wax could be said to have too

17) ______

much ________.

A) Cochlea

B) Fluid

C) Cerumen

D) Eustachian

18) A person has a condition in which the eye's lens loses flexibility and transparency, altering the

18) ______

ability for light to enter the clouded lens. For which health problem should this person receive care?

A) Clouding B) A cataract C) Blepharitis D) Astigmatism

19) Receptors of the ________ senses receive the signal of nausea.

A) Accommodation B) Visceral Labyrinthitis C) D) Cutaneous

19) ______

20) A person is diagnosed with cataracts. Which is a primary risk factor for the development of this

20) ______

health problem?

A) Gender C) Trauma

B) Congenital defects D) Aging

21) A person has a problem with sound conduction. Which ear structure should be the focus of further investigation?

A) Malleus C) Cochlea

B) Tympanic membrane D) Stapes

22) A person is found to have otitis media. Which cause is least likely to be associated with this health problem?

A) Virus C) Upper respiratory infection

23) Sight can be considered ________.

A) A general sense C) A chemoreceptor

21) ______

22) ______

B) Older age D) Bacteria 23) ______ B) A special sense D) Both B and C

24) Which of the following is not associated with the retina?

A) Cones B) Photopigments C) Lens D) Rods

24) ______

25) The external ear ends at the ________.

A) Auricle C) Tympanic membrane

25) ______ B) Tragus D) External auditory canal

26) Which of the following is not a bone of the middle ear?

A) Cochlea B) Incus C) Malleus 27) Which of the following structures in the inner ear is the organ of hearing?

A) Vestibule B) Semicircular canal

26) ______ D) Stapes 27) ______

C) Cochlea

D) Bony labyrinth

28) A defect of the ________ results in difficulty in visual detection of color and fine detail.

A) Rods B) Cones and rods C) Cones D) Lens

28) ______

29) The sense of touch can be considered ________.

A) A general sense C) A chemoreceptor

29) ______ B) A special sense D) Both B and C

30) A person in a house fire has burns over the arms and legs. Which skin receptors that allow the

30) ______

skin to adapt to changes in temperature are most likely damaged?

A) Nociceptors B) Thermoreceptors C) Photoreceptors D) Tactile corpuscles

31) Which of the following is not one of the three layers of tissue that forms the eyeball?

A) Sclera B) Conjunctiva C) Choroid D) Retina

31) ______

32) The sensor-receptive cells in the retina that function best in dim light and enable night vision

32) ______

are the ________.

A) Pupil

B) Cones

C) Iris

D) Rods

33) An inflammation of the thin, transparent membrane covering the visible portion of the sclera

33) ______

and lining the inside of the eyelids results in ________.

A) Choroiditis B) Cornea abrasion C) Lens distortion D) Conjunctivitis

34) A cloudy or opaque area in the normally clear lens of the eye is called a ________.

A) Cataract B) Detachment C) Stye D) None of the above

34) ______

35) Vision impairment as a result of old age and the loss of elasticity in the lens is called ________.

A) Diplopia B) Presbyopia C) Myopia D) Astigmatism

35) ______

36) A chronic disease of the inner ear marked by a recurring syndrome of vertigo, tinnitus, and

36) ______

progressive hearing loss is called ________.

A) Otosclerosis C) Meniere's disease

B) Cholesteatoma D) Mastoiditis

37) A person is being examined for possible cataracts. What information in the person's health

37) ______

history should be identified as contributing to the development of cataracts?

A) Sun exposure B) Congenital defects C) Increased eye pressure D) Trauma

38) If left untreated, cataracts can lead to what?

A) Hyperopia B) Myopia 39) Farsightedness is also known as ________.

A) Hyperopia B) Myopia

38) ______ C) Blindness

D) Presbyopia 39) ______

C) Presbyopia

40) Farsightedness that is due to the aging process is known as ________.

D) Amblyopia 40) ______

A) Hyperopia

B) Myopia

41) Nearsightedness is also known as ________.

A) Hyperopia B) Myopia 42) Lazy eye is also known as ________.

A) Hyperopia B) Myopia

C) Presbyopia

D) Amblyopia

C) Presbyopia

D) Amblyopia

41) ______

42) ______ C) Presbyopia

D) Amblyopi

43) A person is recovering from an amputation of a limb. On which potential type of pain should care be focused?

A) Visceral

B) Chronic

C) Phantom

D) Referred

44) A person has a severe sinus infection. Which other sense should the person expect to experience changes to at this time?

A) Sight B) Balance

C) Touch

45) A feeling of dizziness and or whirling in space is called ________.

A) Tinnitus B) Vertigo C) Purulence 46) Ringing in the ears is also known as ________.

A) Vertigo B) Eczema

43) ______

44) ______

D) Taste 45) ______ D) Eczema 46) ______

C) Tinnitus

D) Purulence

47) A person has an infection of the middle ear structure that equalizes external and internal

47) ______

pressure, which causes the eardrum to have difficulty vibrating with incoming sound. Which structure should care address?

A) Ossicles B) Semicircular canals C) Tympanic membrane D) Eustachian tubes

48) A person has a disease process that alters pain receptors. For which branches of nerve fibers should care be provided?

A) Nociceptors C) Extra sensors

48) ______

B) Visceral sensors D) Cutaneous sensors

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

49) The malleus is the outer ear.

49) ______

50) The sense of smell is called gustatory.

50) ______

51) Sound is transmitted to the brain by hair cells.

51) ______

52) The signal is carried from the ear to the brain by the optic nerve.

52) ______

53) Bacteria from the nasal cavity can travel to the ear.

53) ______

54) Lacrimal glands are endocrine glands.

54) ______

55) Tears act as an antiseptic to decrease germs in the eyeball.

55) ______

56) The vitreous humor is watery.

56) ______

57) Rods are active in dim light.

57) ______

58) Photopigments undergo chemical changes when light hits them.

58) ______

59) The innermost layer of the eye is the cornea.

59) ______

60) Ciliary muscles surround the lens in the eye.

60) ______

61) The lens is located behind the pupil.

61) ______

62) PERLA stands for pupils, equal, rotating to the light, and accommodating.

62) ______

63) REM sleep refers to rapid eye movement.

63) ______

64) A person with changes in sight and smell is having difficulty with these general senses.

64) ______

65) A person experiencing pain should wait for pain receptors to adapt to the level and amount of

65) ______

pain before treatment.

1) C 2) D 3) A 4) A 5) C 6) D 7) C 8) B 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) A 13) C 14) C 15) A 16) D 17) C 18) B 19) B 20) D 21) B 22) B 23) B 24) C 25) C 26) A 27) C 28) C 29) A 30) B 31) B 32) D 33) D 34) A 35) B 36) C 37) A 38) C 39) A 40) C 41) B 42) D 43) C 44) D 45) B 46) C 47) D 48) A 49) FALSE 50) FALSE

51) TRUE 52) FALSE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE 57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) FALSE

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the endocrine organs can effectively control the pituitary gland?

1) _______ A) Hypothalamu B) Pancreas C) Thyroid D) Pineal s

2) Chemical messengers released directly into the bloodstream, with the ability to affect cells for hours or days, are called ________.

A) Neurotransmitters C) Hormones

2) _______

B) Sensory cells D) Dendrites

3) A specific type of hormone, called ________, has the ability to interact directly with the cell's

3) _______

DNA.

A) Sebum

B) Protein

C) Adrenaline

D) Steroids

4) A standard level, known as the ________, is necessary to maintain the body's homeostasis.

A) Quotient B) Norm C) Set point D) Target level

4) _______

5) When a patient is experiencing a fever, the ________ resets the body's temperature set point.

A) Pituitary gland B) Hypothalamus C) Brain D) Adrenal gland

5) _______

6) Which of the following hormones are directly controlled by the nervous system?

A) Cortisol B) Epinephrine C) Insulin D) Oxytocin

6) _______

7) One way in which the body will cope with increased stress is to increase the secretion of

7) _______

________.

A) Cortisol C) Norepinephrine

B) Prolactin D) Oxytocin

8) Which hormone, produced by the pituitary gland, is responsible for decreased urination?

A) Antidiuretic hormone B) Adrenocorticotropic hormone C) Prolactin D) Luteinizing hormone

8) _______

9) The ________ is part of the diencephalon and is commonly called the "master gland."

A) Adrenal B) Thyroid C) Pineal D) Pituitary

9) _______

10) The ________ is divided into a posterior and anterior segment.

A) Adrenal B) Thyroid C) Thymus

10) ______ D) Pituitary

11) A stature disorder in which the body produces either too much or too little growth hormone is a disorder of which endocrine gland?

A) Adrenal cortex C) Anterior pituitary

B) Adrenal medulla D) Posterior pituitary

12) Thyroxin and triiodothyronine, hormones necessary for cell metabolism, are produced in the ________ gland.

A) Pituitary

B) Adrenal

11) ______

C) Thyroid

D) Thymus

12) ______

13) ______

13) ________ gland is important in regulating the blood glucose.

A) Thyroid B) Pineal C) Pancreas

D) Thymus

14) The ________ glands are located above each kidney.

A) Thyroid B) Pineal C) Adrenal

D) Ovaries

14) ______

15) What is the name of the condition in which the body is not producing adequate amounts of insulin?

A) Hyperthyroidism C) Diabetes mellitus

15) ______

B) Dwarfism D) Diabetes insipidus

16) ________ steroids are a class of molecules that cause an increase in muscle mass.

A) Anti-inflammatory B) NSAIDs C) Anabolic D) Metabolic

16) ______

17) Cushings' disease causes weight ________ and Graves' causes weight ________.

A) Gain, gain B) Loss, loss C) Gain, loss D) Loss, gain

17) ______

18) The release of norepinephrine and epinephrine into the blood stream increases all of these

18) ______

except ________.

A) Pulse or heart rate C) Respiration

B) Blood pressure D) Saliva

19) Prednisone can be used as an anti-inflammatory drug to treat ________.

A) Rheumatoid arthritis B) Severe allergies Other chronic conditions C) D) All of the above

19) ______

20) The typical onset of type 1 diabetes is before ________.

A) Age 10 B) Age 5-6 C) Age 40

20) ______ D) Puberty

21) A woman is in labor but the uterine contractions stop. This could be caused by insufficient ________ (a hormone).

A) Oxytocin C) ADH

21) ______

B) Melatonin D) Pituitary hormone

22) A person with an endocrine disorder wants to know the difference between a hormone and a

22) ______

neurotransmitter. What should be explained to this person?

A) Neurotransmitters are released into the blood stream.

B) Neurotransmitters affect a single cell, while hormones affect multiple cells.

C) Hormones are released at synapses.

D) Hormones quickly affect the target tissue.

23) A person is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. What should this person expect for the treatment of this health problem?

A) Exercise C) Medications

23) ______

B) A controlled diet D) All of the above

24) A twelve-year-old child who is six feet tall is diagnosed with hypersecretion of growth hormone (GH). Which diagnosis should be expected on the child's medical record?

A) Addison's disease B) Dwarfism

24) ______

C) Pheochromocytoma

D) Gigantism

25) A person with a head injury has sustained damage to the pineal gland. What affect will the damage to this gland have on the person?

A) Lower level of blood calcium C) Alterated sleep regulation

25) ______

B) Increased blood glucose level D) Lower blood glucose level

26) The master gland of the endocrine system is the ________.

A) Adrenal gland B) Thyroid gland C) Pituitary gland D) None of the above

26) ______

27) Insulin and glucagon are produced by the ________.

A) Thymus B) Adrenal cortex C) Pancreas D) None of the above

27) ______

28) Hypersecretion of cortisol causes ________.

A) Myxedema C) Cushing's syndrome

28) ______ B) Addison's disease D) None of the above

29) A person learns of a hormone deficiency and is prescribed a replacement pill. Which of the

29) ______

following information should be included when explaining how this replacement works in the body?

A) The replacement will affect a single cell B) The target cells will receive a message to change cellular activity C) Effects of the replacement will be instantaneous D) The replacement is released throughout the gastrointestinal tract

30) The syndrome caused by hypersecretion of the adrenal cortex, which results in excessive

30) ______

circulating cortisol levels, fatigue, muscular weakness, and changes in body appearance is called ________.

A) Hashimoto thyroiditis B) Addison's disease Cushing's syndrome C) D) None of the above

31) Which of the following statements is not true of the endocrine system?

A) All organs in the endocrine system are glands.

B) The organs of the endocrine system are widely dispersed in the body.

C) Endocrine glands produce hormones.

D) Endocrine glands secrete their products into ducts leading to body cavities.

31) ______

32) Dwarfism can be caused by a ________.

A) Hypersecretion of ACTH C) Hyposecretion of growth hormone

32) ______ B) Hyposecretion of ACTH D) Hypersecretion of growth hormone

33) Which of the following is not true of oxytocin?

A) It is one of the few hormones that is regulated by a positive feedback loop.

B) It causes the contractions of the uterus during labor.

C) It stimulates "milk letdown" in nursing mothers.

D) It is produced in the thyroid gland.

33) ______

34) Which of the following is true of the adrenal medulla?

A) It releases epinephrine.

34) ______

B) It helps produce the "fight-or-flight" response.

C) It responds to stimuli from the sympathetic nervous system.

D) All of the above are true of the adrenal medulla.

35) Which of the following is not true of the thymus gland?

A) It is an endocrine gland.

B) It produces thymosin.

C) It is important in the body's immune system.

D) It is located in the neck.

35) ______

36) Which of the following is not true of the pineal gland?

A) It helps regulate the body's "biological clock."

B) It produces melatonin.

C) It is located in the brain.

D) All of the above are true of the pineal gland.

36) ______

37) A person is prescribed a medication that is intended to block prostaglandin production. What

37) ______

should the person learn about the mechanism of this medication?

A) It will wear off very quickly.

B) It will travel to a distant target organ.

C) It will control cell excitation.

D) It will block prostaglandin effects on local tissues.

38) A person is experiencing the effects of negative feedback. Which of the following could this person be experiencing?

A) Extreme hunger C) Drowsiness after eating a meal

38) ______

B) Shivering when cold D) Fatigue after walking a mile

39) A prepubescent female is experiencing a growth of pubic hair and breast development. Which

39) ______

hormone is responsible for this female's body changes?

A) Norepinephrine B) Estrogen C) Epinephrine D) Parathyroid hormone

40) A person's blood glucose level increases after eating lunch. Which type of control is regulating the change in blood glucose level?

A) Humeral C) Hormonal

41) An over-production of cortisol causes ________.

A) Cushing's syndrome C) Hyperpituitarism

40) ______

B) Positive feedback D) Neural 41) ______ B) Graves' disease D) Addison's disease

42) All of the following are symptoms of Cushing's syndrome except ________.

A) Round face B) Upper body obesity C) Easy bruising D) Hypoglycemia

42) ______

43) A person is experiencing fatigue, feeling cold, dry itchy skin, weight gain, and thinning hair.

43) ______

This person should be suspected as having which disease?

A) Addison's disease B) Hyperthyroidism Hypothyroidism C) D) Cushing's syndrome

44) A person who is sweating and experiencing muscle tremors, tachycardia, and insomnia should

44) ______

seek medical care for which potential health problem?

A) Cushing's syndrome B) Hypothyroidism C) Addison's disease D) Hyperthyroidism

45) A person is scheduled for surgery to remove a goiter. What will need to be done afterwards to

45) ______

ensure thyroid function?

A) Observe for signs of type 2 diabetes B) Take thyroid hormone replacements daily C) Restrict fluid intake because of the risk of fluid retention D) Limit thyroid hormone replacements

46) Symptoms of Addison's disease include all of the following except ________.

A) Excessive skin pigmentation B) Weight loss C) Low blood pressure D) High blood pressure

46) ______

47) In children, failure to attain normal height or abnormally slow growth are symptoms of

47) ______

________.

A) Dwarfism C) Gigantism

B) Type II diabetes D) None of the above

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

48) Sweat glands are endocrine glands.

48) ______

49) Melatonin is released by the pineal gland.

49) ______

50) Ovaries secrete estrogen.

50) ______

51) Glucagon lowers blood sugar.

51) ______

52) Hormonal targets are distant from secretion in the endocrine system.

52) ______

53) Follicle Stimulating Hormone is secreted in the ovaries.

53) ______

54) Cortisol is secreted by the adrenal gland.

54) ______

55) Hormones are released into the blood stream to bind to target organs and cells.

55) ______

56) Prolactin stimulates milk production.

56) ______

57) Restlessness is a symptom of hyperthyroidism.

57) ______

58) Hypoglycemia is high blood sugar.

58) ______

59) Left untreated, diabetes mellitus can be fatal.

59) ______

60) Epinephrine is also known as adrenalin.

60) ______

61) Norepinephrine is both a hormone and a neurotransmitter.

61) ______

62) Prednisone is used to prevent organ rejection.

62) ______

63) Dehydration after ingesting alcohol demonstrates a hormonal negative feedback mechanism.

63) ______

1) A 2) C 3) D 4) C 5) B 6) B 7) A 8) A 9) D 10) D 11) C 12) C 13) C 14) C 15) C 16) C 17) C 18) D 19) D 20) C 21) A 22) B 23) D 24) D 25) C 26) C 27) C 28) C 29) B 30) C 31) D 32) C 33) D 34) D 35) D 36) D 37) D 38) B 39) B 40) A 41) A 42) D 43) C 44) D 45) B 46) D 47) A 48) FALSE 49) TRUE 50) TRUE

51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE 57) TRUE 58) FALSE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called ________.

1) _______ A) Veins B) Arterioles C) Arteries D) Capillaries 2) Blood is pumped to the body during this part of the cardiac cycle.

A) Atrial diastole B) Ventricular diastole C) Ventricular systole D) Atrial systole

2) _______

3) What is the name of the structure that separates the lower chambers of the heart?

A) Atrial mitral valve B) Ventrical SA node Interventricular septum C) D) Interatrial septum

3) _______

4) What is the vessel that brings blood to the heart from the trunk and pelvic region?

A) Superior vena cava B) Inferior vena cava C) Inferior artery D) Superior aorta

4) _______

5) What is another name for the left atrioventricular valve?

A) Semilunar valve B) Atrial valve C) Bicuspid valve D) Tricuspid valve

5) _______

6) Which section of the heart receives blood from the right coronary artery?

A) Right ventricle B) Left atrium C) Right atrium

6) _______ D) Left ventricle

7) The group of pacemaker cells near the entrance of the superior vena cava forms the ________.

A) Sinoatrial node B) Myocardium C) Bundle of His D) Atrioventricular node

7) _______

8) Which cranial nerve releases a neurotransmitter that can decrease the pulse and force of

8) _______

contraction?

A) Hypoglossal

B) Vagus

C) Abducens

D) Trochlear

9) If heart rate decreases, what happens to blood pressure?

A) It decreases B) It depends on other conditions C) It increases D) Nothing

9) _______

10) If a patient has been infected by parasites, which white blood cell would be elevated in the

10) ______

bloodstream?

A) Basophil

B) Monocyte

C) Eosinophil

11) Which cells are involved in the production of antibodies?

A) Monocytes B) Platelets C) Erythrocytes

D) Neutrophil 11) ______ D) Lymphocytes

12) Jill is Rh negative. Her first baby was Rh negative. She is pregnant again, but the baby is Rh positive. Without medical treatment, will her antibodies attack the baby's blood?

A) Yes B) No C) Probably yes since her first child is Rh negative

12) ______

D) Probably not since her first child is Rh negative 13) Capillary beds are fed by the ________.

A) Arterioles B) Platelets

13) ______ C) Capillaries

D) Venules

14) If the innermost wall of a vessel is damaged, the ________ begin the repair by attaching to the damaged site.

A) Fibrinogen

B) Platelets

C) Fibrin

15) What clotting protein, produced by the liver, begins the clotting process?

A) Thrombin B) Prothrombin C) Fibrinogen 16) What color will blood exhibit if it has a high oxygen content?

A) Purple B) Bright red C) Colorless 17) The pH value measures the levels of ________.

A) Acidity and alkalinity C) Electrolytes

D) Thrombin 15) ______ D) Fibrin 16) ______ D) Blue 17) ______

B) Antigens and antibodies D) WBCs and RBCs

18) A person has a problem with blood flow from the the pulmonary veins. Which heart structure will be affected first by this blood-flow problem?

A) Left atrium B) Right ventricle

14) ______

C) Right atrium

19) What is the most common blood type among Americans?

A) A B) B C) AB

18) ______

D) Left ventricle 19) ______ D) O

20) A build up of plaque in arteries leads to ________.

A) Atherosclerosis B) Angina Hypotension C) D) Hypertension

20) ______

21) Leukemia is usually due to bone marrow cancer, and creates a higher number of ________ than

21) ______

normal.

A) Thrombocytes

B) Platelets

C) WBCs

D) RBCs

22) Which of the following is not a cause of thrombocytopenia?

A) Bone marrow cancer B) Vitamin K deficiency C) Proper spleen function D) Liver dysfunction

22) ______

23) Restricted blood flow through the coronary arteries causes ________.

A) Angina B) Myocardial infarction C) Heart failure D) A murmur

23) ______

24) The term for the stoppage of blood flow is ________.

A) Homeostasis B) Hemostasis Hemothrombus C) D) Hemosclerosis

24) ______

25) A substance that decreases the body's ability to clot is ________.

A) Vitamin A B) Aspirin C) Enzyme

25) ______

26) The ________ nervous system signals blood vessels to constrict.

A) Parasympathetic B) Sympathetic

D) Vitamin K 26) ______

C) Peripheral

D) Central

27) In terms of their location or movement, an embolus is a ________ clot, and a thrombus is a ________ clot.

A) Stationary, stationary C) Floating/moving, stationary

27) ______

B) Floating/moving, floating/moving D) Stationary, floating/moving

28) The bicuspid or mitral valve is the valve ________.

A) That opens from the left ventricle into the artery B) Between the left atrium and left ventricle C) That opens from the right ventricle into the artery D) Between the right atrium and right ventricle

28) ______

29) Which of the following is not a white blood cell?

A) Thrombocyte C) Lymphocyte

29) ______ B) Neutrophil D) All of the above are white blood cells.

30) This is the approximate number of red blood cells in one cubic millimeter of blood.

A) 1 million B) 7 million C) 3 million D) 5 million

30) ______

31) The role of hemoglobin in the red blood cell is to ________.

A) Carry carbon dioxide B) Carry oxygen C) Carry hormones D) Both A and B above

31) ______

32) This clotting disorder is an inherited disorder.

A) Hemophilia C) Embolism

32) ______ B) Thrombocytopenia D) Thrombosis

33) This is a condition where an artery has become abnormally widened because of a localized weakness in the arterial wall.

A) Gangrene B) Ischemia

C) An aneurysm

33) ______

D) Phlebitis

34) Another name for "hardening of the arteries" is ________.

A) Angina pectoris B) Arteriosclerosis C) Myocardial infarction D) Embolism

34) ______

35) A person has a 50 percent blockage of one coronary artery but has a good prognosis because of

35) ______

vessel anastomoses. What did this person do to create these anastomoses?

A) Controlled elevated blood glucose B) Maintained a sedentary lifestyle C) Exercised D) Atea high-fat diet

36) A person having valve replacement surgery is reviewing the cardiac cycle. Which valve has to

36) ______

function at maximum level to ensure that oxygenated blood moves through the general circulation?

A) Mitral B) Pulmonary C) Aortic D) Tricuspid

37) A person with type A blood ________.

A) Has anti-A antibodies C) Has A antigens

37) ______ B) Has anti-B antibodies D) Both B and C above

38) The blood type considered the universal donor is type ________.

38) ______

A) A

B) B

C) O

D) AB

39) A person is found to have problems with the blood flow to the anterior wall of the left ventricle.

39) ______

Which coronary artery is most likely the cause of this person's health problem?

A) Posterior interventricular B) Left coronary C) Right coronary D) Circumflex branch

40) The condition in which a reduction in the quantity of either red blood cells or hemoglobin exists is ________.

A) Polycythemia C) Anemia

40) ______

B) Thrombocytopenia D) Leukemia

41) Signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure include all of the following except ________.

A) Edema or swelling of hands and feet B) Jugular vein distention C) Pulmonary edema D) Splenomegaly

41) ______

42) Which of the following is a sign or symptom of left-sided heart failure?

A) Hepatomegaly B) Jugular vein distention C) Pulmonary edema D) Edema or swelling of hands and feet

42) ______

43) An older person is found to have a heart rate of fifty-four beats per minute. Which part of the

43) ______

heart should be suspected as controlling this person's heart rate?

A) Sinoatrial node B) Intercalated discs C) Atrioventricular node D) Bundle of HIS

44) A person with heart failure is experiencing an increase in fluid returning to the venous

44) ______

circulation. Which body structure is most likely responsible for this finding?

A) Coronary arteries B) Right atrium C) Pulmonary arteries D) Lymphatic system

45) While recovering from a heart infection a person learns that the lymphatic system helps remove

45) ______

damaged tissue from the body. What should the person remember about the lymphatic system?

A) It is controlled by neurotransmitters B) It runs parallel to the cardiovascular system C) It releases chemicals through the general circulation D) It aids to isolate diseases within organs

46) Abnormal heart rhythms are called ________.

A) Tachycardia B) Sinus rhythm

46) ______ C) Arrhythmias

D) Bradycardia

47) ________ is a condition in which chronic low levels of oxygen (due to lung disease or living in

47) ______

high altitudes) cause the body to produce more than normal amounts of erythrocytes to transport more efficiently the smaller amounts of available oxygen.

A) Primary erythrocytopenia B) Secondary erythrocytopenia C) Secondary polycythemia D) Primary polycythemia

48) ________ is caused by bone marrow cancer stimulating an over-production of erythrocytes.

A) Primary erythrocytopenia B) Primary polycythemia C) Secondary erythrocytopenia D) Secondary polycythemia

48) ______

49) ________ is a blood condition in which there is a less than normal number of red blood cells or

49) ______

there is abnormal or deficient hemoglobin.

A) Sickle cell anemia C) Leukocytosis

B) Leukemia D) Anemia

50) ________ is an inherited condition in which red blood cells and hemoglobin molecules do not form properly.

A) Sickle cell anemia C) Leukocytosis

B) Leukemia D) Anemia

51) ________ is usually due to bone marrow cancer, and is a condition in which a higher than normal number of white blood cells are produced.

A) Sickle cell anemia C) Leukocytosis

50) ______

51) ______

B) Leukemia D) Anemia

52) ________ also exhibits as a situation in which there is a higher than normal number of white

52) ______

blood cells. In this case, the cause is often an infection that is being fought.

A) Sickle cell anemia B) Leukemia C) Leukocytosis D) Anemia

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

53) All arteries carry oxygenated blood.

53) ______

54) Arteries have thinner walls than veins.

54) ______

55) It is called systole when the heart contracts.

55) ______

56) The vagus nerve increases heart rate.

56) ______

57) The ventricles are contracted during the QRS interval of the EKG.

57) ______

58) Plasma is a yellowish fluid.

58) ______

59) Monocytes are erythrocytes.

59) ______

60) Type AB has no antigens.

60) ______

61) The innermost layer of the blood vessel is the tunica interna.

61) ______

62) During the final stage of clotting the clot becomes water soluble.

62) ______

63) During severe dehydration, blood pressure rises.

63) ______

64) A floating embolus is a thrombus.

64) ______

65) Decreased blood flow to tissues is called ischemia.

65) ______

66) Atherosclerosis is caused by plaque.

66) ______

67) Heart valves close when their tissue is depolarized.

67) ______

68) A person with a blocked vein will have a problem circulating oxygenated blood to a body part.

68) ______

69) Anaerobic exercise helps increase the number of coronary artery anastomoses.

69) ______

70) The distribution of nutrients into the blood stream is aided by the lymphatic system.

70) ______

1) C 2) C 3) C 4) B 5) C 6) A 7) A 8) B 9) A 10) C 11) D 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) B 16) B 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) C 22) C 23) A 24) B 25) B 26) B 27) C 28) B 29) A 30) D 31) D 32) A 33) C 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) D 38) C 39) B 40) C 41) C 42) C 43) D 44) D 45) C 46) C 47) C 48) B 49) D 50) A

51) B 52) C 53) FALSE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE 57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) FALSE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) FALSE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) During metabolism, your body produces the waste product ________.

1) _______ A) Oxygen B) Carbon monoxide C) Nitrogen D) Carbon dioxide 2) _______

2) The process of gas exchange between air and blood is called ________.

A) External respiration B) Respiration C) Internal respiration D) Ventilation 3) The respiratory system terminates at the ________.

A) Lungs B) Alveoli C) Bronchus 4) What region contains the coarse nasal hairs?

A) Pharyngeal B) Laryngeal

4) _______ C) Vestibular

5) ________ cells are responsible for the production of mucus.

A) Cilia B) Epithelial C) Basal 6) The vocal cords are located in the ________.

A) Oropharynx C) Laryngopharynx

3) _______ D) Bronchioles

D) Olfactory 5) _______ D) Goblet 6) _______

B) Larynx D) Nasal cavity

7) The trachea extends from the larynx to the ________ vertebrae.

A) 4th lumbar B) 2nd cervical C) 1st thoracic

7) _______ D) 6th thoracic

8) Type II cells that line the alveoli are responsible for the production of ________.

A) Carbon dioxide B) Carina C) Surfactant D) Nitrogen

8) _______

9) The diaphragm is covered by a serous membrane called the ________.

A) Musculo-serous membrane B) Visceral pleura C) Parietal pleura D) Visceral membrane

9) _______

10) The area of the left lung that corresponds to the right middle lobe is ________.

A) Lingula B) Sternum C) Carina D) Hilum

10) ______

11) Which region of the brain controls breathing?

A) Cerebrum C) Hypothalamus

11) ______ B) Occipital D) Medulla oblongata

12) All of these muscles aid ventilation except ________.

A) Pleural B) Accessory C) Abdominal 13) ________ is the amount of gas moved during normal ventilation.

A) Inspiratory reserve volume B) Vital Capacity C) Expiratory reserve volume D) Tidal Volume

12) ______ D) Respiratory 13) ______

14) When the diaphragm contracts, lung volume ________.

A) Changes depending on circumstances B) Decreases C) Stays the same D) Increases

14) ______

15) The ________ nerve carries impulses to the diaphragm.

A) Diaphragmatic B) Phrenic C) Thoracic D) Vagus

15) ______

16) Due to the structure of the ________, a large amount of moisture is added to the respiratory

16) ______

system every day.

A) Conchae C) Nares

B) Eustachian tube D) Trachea

17) The "clean-up" cells are located in the ________ layer of alveolar membrane.

A) Interstitial space B) Surfactant C) Capillary endothelium D) Epithelial

17) ______

18) The kidneys attempt to increase hemoglobin levels in the body by the release of ________.

A) Erythrocytes B) Iron C) Oxygen D) Erythropoietin

18) ______

19) The diaphragm receives help from the ________ muscles in the activity of breathing.

A) Accessory B) Thoracic C) Respiratory D) Pleural

19) ______

20) Pleural effusion with pus is a(n) ________.

A) Emphysema B) Hydrothorax

20) ______ C) Eczema

D) Empyema 21) ______

21) A lack of lung surfactant causes ________ lungs that resist expansion.

A) Inflamed B) Stiff C) Infected

D) Floppy

22) The majority of cases of chronic bronchitis are caused by ________.

A) Allergies B) Asthma C) Fungi

D) Smoking

23) Which of the following is not part of the upper respiratory tract?

A) Pharynx B) Nose C) Trachea 24) Which of the following is not part of the lower respiratory tract?

A) Larynx B) Lungs C) Trachea

22) ______

23) ______ D) Larynx 24) ______ D) Bronchi

25) Which of the following is not a subdivision of the pharynx?

A) Oropharynx B) Tracheopharynx C) Nasopharynx D) Laryngopharynx

25) ______

26) This structure is not a part of the larynx.

A) Eustachian tubes C) Thyroid cartilage

26) ______ B) Vocal cords D) Epiglottis

27) The first respiratory structures without cartilage as a supporting tissue are ________.

A) Bronchioles B) Secondary bronchi C) Primary bronchi D) Alveolar ducts

27) ______

28) The movement of air into and out of the lung is called ________.

28) ______

A) Respiration

B) Perspiration

C) Evacuation

29) The exchange of gases between the cells and the blood is called ________.

A) Perspiration B) Ventilation C) Respiration

D) Ventilation 29) ______ D) Evacuation

30) The amount of air that can be forcibly taken in after normally inhaling is called ________.

A) Inspiratory reserve volume B) Residual volume C) Expiratory reserve volume D) Tidal volume

30) ______

31) A collection of air or gas in the thoracic cavity, as the result of a stab wound or gunshot wound

31) ______

to the chest describes a condition called ________.

A) Bronchiectasis C) Pneumothorax

B) Emphysema D) Pneumoconiosis

32) ________ is a destructive disease of the alveoli and the adjacent capillary walls resulting in

32) ______

chronic dyspnea, cough, and the characteristic barrel chest.

A) Bronchiectasis B) Pneumoconiosis Pneumothorax C) D) Emphysema

33) Which of the following is not a respiratory structure?

A) Nose B) Larynx C) Esophagus

33) ______ D) Bronchi

34) The two most important respiratory control centers are located in this part of the brain.

A) Medulla oblongata B) Pons C) Cerebellum D) Cerebral cortex

34) ______

35) Chemoreceptors that help regulate breathing can be found ________.

A) In the medulla oblongata B) In the carotid artery In the aorta C) D) Both B and C

35) ______

36) A person learns of having a problem with his respiratory system. Which of the following would

36) ______

be expected because of this problem?

A) Excessive amount of oxygen in the body C) Inability to eat solid foods

B) Build-up of carbon dioxide in the body D) Change in blood pressure readings

37) A person is found to have a problem with clearing mucous from the lungs. What information in

37) ______

the person's history could explain this problem with mucociliary clearance?

A) Sedentary lifestyle B) High level of exercise C) Low sodium diet D) Smoking

38) ________ is a condition in which there is air inside the thoracic cavity and outside of the lungs.

A) Pleuritis B) Pleurisy C) Hemothorax D) Pneumothorax

38) ______

39) ________ is a condition in which there is an excessive build-up of fluid in the pleural space

39) ______

between the parietal and visceral pleura.

A) Pleural effusion C) Pneumothorax

40) ________ is pus in the pleural space.

A) Hydrothorax

B) Empyema D) Pulmonary edema 40) ______ B) Pleural effusion

C) Empyema

D) Hemothorax

41) ________ is blood in the pleural space.

A) Hydrothorax C) Empyema

41) ______ B) Pleural effusion D) Hemothorax

42) ________ is distinguished by having reversible airway narrowing and airway hyperreactivity;

42) ______

and is most commonly characterized as an inflammatory process.

A) Chronic bronchitis B) Bronchiectasis C) Asthma D) Emphysema

43) ________ is characterized anatomically as the permanent, abnormal enlargement of distal

43) ______

airway spaces and destruction of the alveolar walls.

A) Emphysema B) Bronchiectasis C) Chronic bronchitis D) Asthma

44) ________ is associated with a chronic productive cough, enlargement of mucous glands, and hypertrophy of the airway smooth muscle.

A) Asthma C) Emphysema

44) ______

B) Bronchiectasis D) Chronic bronchitis

45) The inability to get air out of the lungs is known as ________.

A) Gas trapping B) COPD C) Bronchospasm

45) ______ D) Hyperinflatio n

46) Which of the following drugs has as its basic purpose to reduce the work of breathing, increase the oxygen content of the blood, and reduce the work of the heart?

A) Antivirals B) Insulin C) Antibiotics

46) ______

D) Oxygen

47) A person with a low iron count does not understand why shortness of breath and fatigue are

47) ______

occurring. What should be explained to this person about the role of iron in oxygenation?

A) Iron removes carbon dioxide from the blood B) Iron carries oxygen through the blood to the tissues C) Iron clears the lungs of foreign particles and debris D) Iron prevents the alveoli in the lungs from collapsing

48) A person has a fracture of a rib that is affecting the manubrium of the sternum. Which rib is most likely fractured?

A) Seventh

B) Fourth

C) Twelfth

48) ______

D) First

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

49) The upper respiratory tract begins at the nares and ends at the trachea.

49) ______

50) The nasal cavity is divided into right and left halves by a septum.

50) ______

51) A person with excess carbon dioxide in the blood has a problem with the cardiopulmonary

51) ______

system.

52) Respiratory mucosa is ciliated cuboidal epithelium with goblet cells.

52) ______

53) The oropharynx is behind the mouth.

53) ______

54) The major type of alveolar cell is Type II, or granular pneumocytes.

54) ______

55) The hormone erythropoietin is released in the lungs.

55) ______

56) Inspired objects usually lodge in the left lung.

56) ______

57) The thoracic cavity and the upper side of the diaphragm are lined with the visceral pleura.

57) ______

58) The hilum is the area where the root of each lung is attached.

58) ______

59) The thoracic cage consists of twelve pairs of elastic arches of bone called ribs.

59) ______

60) The cerebrum controls breathing.

60) ______

61) The dome-shaped muscle that acts to ventilate is the diaphragm.

61) ______

62) The portion of the sternum where CPR is performed is the xiphoid process.

62) ______

63) Atelectasis is the situation in which the air sacs collapse.

63) ______

64) A person who breathes air containing fifty percent nitrogen will breathe easier.

64) ______

65) Goblet cells create about three ounces of mucous per day, which is removed by the cilia.

65) ______

1) D 2) A 3) B 4) C 5) D 6) B 7) D 8) C 9) C 10) A 11) D 12) A 13) D 14) D 15) B 16) A 17) D 18) D 19) A 20) D 21) B 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) A 27) A 28) D 29) C 30) A 31) C 32) D 33) C 34) A 35) D 36) B 37) D 38) D 39) A 40) C 41) D 42) C 43) A 44) D 45) A 46) D 47) B 48) D 49) FALSE 50) TRUE

51) TRUE 52) FALSE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) FALSE 56) FALSE 57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) FALSE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) In addition to storage of white blood cells, the lymphatic system is also responsible for 1) _______ ________.

A) Maturation of some types of red blood cells B) Producing pathogens to fight infections C) Production of some types of white blood cells D) Making fluids to support the cardiovascular system

2) Lymph nodes can be described as ________.

A) Small encapsulated bodies C) Organelles of immunity

2) _______ B) Immature antibodies D) Patches of cytokines 3) _______

3) Lymphatic trunks from the lumbar region empty into the ________.

A) Thoracic duct B) Right lymphatic duct C) Sacral duct D) Left lymphatic duct 4) Which structure will sometimes disappear in adults?

A) Thymus B) Spleen C) Sinus

4) _______ D) Pancreas

5) Unique molecules found on the outer surface of cell membranes are called ________.

A) Interferon B) Cytokines C) Antibodies D) Antigens

5) _______

6) Innate immunity triggers a series of mechanisms that target specific pathogens; the mechanisms

6) _______

are called ________.

A) Activation cells C) Passive immunity

B) Adaptive immunity D) Helper cells

7) The body has both physical and chemical ________ to prevent invaders from entering.

A) Cells B) Nodes C) Barriers D) Cytes

7) _______

8) The first leukocytes to arrive at the site of damage are the ________.

A) Dendrite cells B) Basophils C) Mast cells

8) _______ D) Neutrophils

9) The ________ cells release antibodies to destroy cells that carry non-self antigens.

A) T-lymphocytic B) Mast Natural killer C) D) B-lymphocytic

9) _______

10) What is the cytokine which is produced to stimulate macrophages and cause death of cancer

10) ______

cells?

A) Cytokinase C) Interferon

B) Tumor necrosis factor D) Interleukin

11) What name is given to the series of reactions responsible for activation of twenty normally inactive proteins?

A) Differentiation process C) Inflammatory response

B) Margination selection D) Complement cascade

11) ______

12) For your body to launch an effective response to invading pathogens, innate immunity must join forces with the ________.

A) Cardiovascular system C) Adaptive immunity

12) ______

B) Hypothalamus D) Lymphatic system

13) There are two types of proliferation, one for ________ and one for B-cells.

A) Dendritic cells B) Lymphocytic cells C) Effector T-cells D) Natural killer cells

13) ______

14) ________ are essential for the reproduction of B cells and other types of cells.

A) Memory B-cells B) Regulatory T-cells C) Cytotoxic T-cells D) Helper T-cells

14) ______

15) Once the threat of invasion is over, the ________ are responsible for "turning-off" the response.

A) Cytotoxic T-cells B) Regulatory T-cells C) Memory B-cells D) Helper B-cells

15) ______

16) The HIV virus targets ________.

A) Natural killer cells C) B-cells

16) ______ B) Dendritic cells D) Helper T-cells

17) It is because of adaptive ________ that people normally get chicken pox only once.

A) Immunity B) Antigens C) WBCs D) Antibodies

17) ______

18) Barriers include all of the following except ________.

A) Mucous membranes B) Sebaceous glands C) Nails D) Skin

18) ______

19) Which stage of cancer would mean it had spread to nearby tissues?

A) Stage two B) Stage five C) Stage four

19) ______ D) Stage seven

20) Which of the following is not one of the immune system's components?

A) Barrier B) NSAID C) Chemical

D) Inflammation

20) ______

21) The ________ gland is larger in children because they are exposed to many new infections.

A) Thalamus B) Tinnitus C) Thymus D) Thyroid

21) ______

22) In rheumatoid arthritis, the immune system attacks the ________.

A) Synovial membrane B) Pleural membrane C) Mucous membrane D) Myelin membrane

22) ______

23) The ________ in the chest is part of the lymphatic system and helps T lymphocytes mature.

A) Pharyngeal tonsils B) Palatine tonsils C) Thymus D) Spleen

23) ______

24) The spleen is a lymph organ that filters blood and also acts as a reservoir for ________.

A) Water B) Blood C) Fat D) Interstitial fluid

24) ______

25) Getting a flu shot to protect against the flu is an example of ________.

A) Natural passive immunity B) Natural active immunity

25) ______

C) Artificial active immunity

D) Artificial passive immunity

26) The fetus receives antibodies from the mother which last several weeks after birth. This is an example of ________.

A) Natural passive immunity C) Artificial active immunity

B) Natural active immunity D) Artificial passive immunity

27) If you have had the chicken pox once, you will not get chicken pox again. This is an example of ________.

A) Natural passive immunity C) Artificial active immunity

26) ______

27) ______

B) Natural active immunity D) Artificial passive immunity

28) If you are exposed to hepatitis A and have not been vaccinated against it, you may receive

28) ______

antibodies from another person. This is an example of ________.

A) Natural passive immunity B) Natural active immunity Artificial active immunity C) D) Artificial passive immunity

29) A cytokine produced by cells in response to invasion by a virus is ________.

A) Complement B) Interleukin C) Interferon D) Mucus

29) ______

30) The group of diseases that occur when antibodies develop and begin to destroy the body's own

30) ______

cells is ________.

A) Autoimmune diseases B) Immunodeficiency diseases C) Immunocompetent diseases D) Diseases of the reticuloendothelial system

31) The activated lymphocytes must make thousands of copies of themselves in order to fight off

31) ______

the thousands of pathogens reproducing in the body. This reproduction of lymphocytes is called ________.

A) Differentiation B) Lymphocyte proliferation C) Lymphocyte activation D) Immunization

32) ______

32) A person who has full-blown AIDS often dies as a result of ________.

A) Over-proliferation of T-cells B) The HIV virus C) Organ failure and subsequent D) Infectious diseases transplant

33) If the body is exposed to the same pathogen in the future, memory cells allow the body to

33) ______

mount a much faster response to the invasion known as the ________ response.

A) Secondary B) Primary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary

34) What kind of cells produce antibodies?

A) Neutrophils B) NK cells 35) Which of these is an autoimmune disease?

A) C and D only C) Rheumatoid arthritis

34) ______ C) T cells

D) B cells 35) ______

B) Influenza D) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

36) In this stage of cancer, spread to distant tissues and organs is present.

A) Stage I B) Stage II C) Stage III

36) ______ D) Stage IV

37) In this stage of cancer, no spread from the origin is present.

A) Stage I B) Stage II C) Stage III

37) ______ D) Stage IV 38) ______

38) In this stage of cancer, spread to nearby lymph nodes is present.

A) Stage I B) Stage II C) Stage III

D) Stage IV

39) This stage of cancer is often terminal and is the most difficult to treat.

A) Stage I B) Stage II C) Stage III

D) Stage IV

39) ______

40) The signs and symptoms of inflammation include all of the following except ________.

A) Cold B) Swelling C) Redness D) Pain

40) ______

41) Symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis include ________.

A) Decreased range of motion B) Symmetrical joint damage Joint stiffness C) D) All of the above

41) ______

42) Signs and symptoms of allergies can include all of the following except ________.

A) Hives B) Wheezing C) Upper respiratory infections D) Weight loss

42) ______

43) A patient presents in the Emergency Room after he's been in a car accident. Because he is

43) ______

complaining about severe headaches, you suspect localized bleeding in his cranium. Moreover, you run tests and notice major swelling in this area. Which course of action should be a priority?

A) Decreasing inflammation to prevent tissue damage B) Inducing local vasodilation C) Increasing the temperature in the cranial area to induce a fever D) Increasing pressure in the area to decrease bleeding

44) Seven-year-old Rebecca has a cold. Which of the following occurs first?

A) The release of white blood cells to cause viral membranes to rupture B) The release of macrophages to attack the cold virus C) The release of natural killer cells to induce inflammation D) The release of neutrophils to engulf any foreign objects

44) ______

45) Which of the following statements is true about positive and negative lymphocyte selection?

A) Only positive selection is needed for proper functioning of the immune system.

B) It is necessary to have lymphocytes that can fight foreign objects in the body without

45) ______

harming its own tissues.

C) In both instances, antigens do not recognize pathogens in the body.

D) In both instances, lymphocytes die after they do their job.

46) The standard HIV test detects HIV antibodies rather than the virus itself. When a person

46) ______

becomes infected with HIV, it takes a few weeks for the HIV test to indicate a positive result.

The period between one's infection date and the point at which a test shows a positive result is called the "window period." Based on the information provided, which of the following processes occurs during the window period?

A) secondary response B) cell-mediated immunity C) humoral immunity D) regulatory T-cell function

47) Kassie is allergic to bee stings. During a play date at the park, she gets stung and goes into

ana phylac

____ __

tic shock 47) while she's playing with her friends.

Which of the following is a by-produc t of Kassie's anaphylax is?

A) understimulation of basophils C) the production of histamines stops

B) overstimulation of mast cells D) high blood pressure

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

48) Antigen displaying cells are infected by pathogens so they can display the antigens.

48) ______

49) Fever is caused by neurotransmitters released by pathogens.

49) ______

50) Innate immunity improves with experience.

50) ______

51) Antigens are the body's weapons against disease.

51) ______

52) Lymph nodes contain blood sinuses, and red and white pulp.

52) ______

53) All lymphocytes are part of adaptive immunity.

53) ______

54) Macrophages are part of innate immunity.

54) ______

55) Memory B cells remember pathogens.

55) ______

56) An increase in cell number is called proliferation.

56) ______

57) The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) targets CD-2 cells.

57) ______

58) Natural immunity is acquired during vaccination.

58) ______

59) Macrophages ingest invaders.

59) ______

60) Autoimmune disorders are the opposite of immunodeficiency disorders.

60) ______

61) A hypersensitivity reaction is also called an allergy.

61) ______

62) T lymphocytes are responsible for adaptive immunity known as antibody mediated immunity.

62) ______

1) C 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) D 6) B 7) C 8) D 9) D 10) B 11) D 12) C 13) C 14) D 15) B 16) D 17) A 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) C 24) B 25) C 26) A 27) B 28) D 29) C 30) A 31) B 32) D 33) A 34) D 35) A 36) D 37) A 38) C 39) D 40) A 41) D 42) D 43) A 44) D 45) B 46) C 47) B 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE

51) FALSE 52) FALSE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE 57) FALSE 58) FALSE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The digestive tract begins at the oral cavity and ends at the ________.

1) _______ A) Colon B) Appendix C) Anus D) Pharynx 2) Which of the following is a function of the oral cavity?

A) Starch digestion B) Protein digestion C) Nutrient absorption D) Peristalsis

2) _______

3) An abnormally formed ________ will interfere with the development of clear speech.

A) Molar B) Vermiform C) Frenulum D) Duodenum

3) _______

4) The smallest of the salivary glands are the ________.

A) Parotids B) Sublinguals C) Subbuccals D) Submandibulars

4) _______

5) The ________ teeth are blade shaped and used for cutting food.

A) Incisor B) Canine C) Molar

5) _______ D) Bicuspid

6) The ________ is used by both the digestive and respiratory systems.

A) Larynx B) Oropharynx C) Epipharynx

D) Nasopharynx

6) _______

7) The esophagus differs from the rest of the alimentary tract in that it possesses no ________.

A) Serosa B) Mucosa C) Muscularis D) Adventitia

7) _______

8) The stomach has four regions; the area located closest to the small intestine is called the

8) _______

________.

A) Body

B) Pylorus

C) Fundus

9) The stomach releases the hormone ________ to aid in digestion.

A) HCL B) Secretin C) Pepsin

D) Cardiac region 9) _______ D) Gastrin

10) What is the last section of the small intestine, before it empties into the large intestine, called?

A) Ileum B) Stomach C) Jejunum D) Duodenum

10) ______

11) Which hormone is responsible for inhibiting the release of gastric juice?

A) SIP B) Pepsin C) Gastrin

11) ______

12) This organ has an extra layer of muscle.

A) Liver B) Stomach 13) The appendix is attached at which area?

A) Cecum B) Anus

D) CCK 12) ______

C) Colon

D) Spleen 13) ______

C) Colon

14) Which organ is responsible for the production of bile?

A) Small intestine B) Large intestine C) Stomach 15) Hepatocytes receive blood from both the hepatic artery and the ________.

D) Rectum 14) ______ D) Liver 15) ______

A) Hepatic vein C) Hepatic portal vein

B) Hepatic portal artery D) Hepatic capillaries

16) The ________ is the base, or floor, of the mouth.

A) Soft palate B) Labia

16) ______ C) Tongue

D) Hard palate

17) The structure responsible for the absorption of excess water is the ________.

A) Spleen B) Liver C) Stomach D) Large intestine

17) ______

18) Enzymes are necessary for digestion; ________ is produced to break down fats.

A) Lipase B) Maltase C) Carbohydrase D) Nuclease

18) ______

19) The type of hernia where the stomach protrudes through the diaphragm and into the thoracic

19) ______

cavity is ________.

A) Cholecystic

B) Celiac

C) Hepatic

D) Hiatal

20) Pancreatitis can be caused by all but which one of the following?

A) Excessive alcohol consumption B) Excessive pancreatic enzyme activation C) Lithotripsy D) Gallbladder disease

20) ______

21) Which of the following is another name for a cavity?

A) Gingiva B) Caries C) Pyorrhea

21) ______

22) Lactose intolerant patients cannot digest the ________ in milk.

A) Protein B) Cholesterol C) Fat 23) All of the following conditions affect the liver, except ________.

A) Cirrhosis B) Ileitis C) Hepatitis

D) Abscess 22) ______ D) Sugar 23) ______ D) Jaundice

24) A colostomy may be the appropriate treatment for ________.

A) Hyperactive peristalsis B) Chronic constipation C) Allowing healing after surgery D) None of the above

24) ______

25) ________ is a form of chronic inflammatory bowel disease.

A) Crohn's disease B) Gastroenteritis C) Irritable bowel syndrome D) Peritonitis

25) ______

26) ________ is caused by a viral and/or bacterial infection and/or inflammation of the stomach and

26) ______

small intestine.

A) Irritable bowel syndrome C) Peritonitis

B) Gastroenteritis D) Crohn's disease

27) Polyposis is a small tumor with a pedicle in the mucous membrane of the ________.

A) Duodenum B) Small intestine C) Stomach D) Colon

27) ______

28) The punching bag-shaped structure hanging down from the soft palate is called the ________.

A) Papillae B) Palatine tonsil C) Uvula D) Frenulum

28) ______

29) This type of tooth is responsible for crushing and grinding.

A) Premolar B) Incisor C) Molar

29) ______ D) Canine

30) This substance is the outer covering of the shell of the tooth in the crown.

A) Cementum B) Enamel C) Pulp 31) Most of the interior of the tooth is made of this substance.

A) Gingiva B) Enamel C) Dentin

30) ______ D) Dentin 31) ______ D) Cementum

32) A patient who has been diagnosed with intussusception will most likely experience which of the following symptoms?

A) Severe headaches C) Abdominal pain

33) Which of the following is not a salivary gland?

A) Submaxillary gland C) Submandibular gland

B) Gingivitis D) Esophageal Varices 33) ______ B) Sublingual gland D) Parotid gland

34) This enzyme is produced by the salivary glands and begins the chemical digestion of carbohydrates.

A) Salivary maltase C) Salivary lactase

34) ______

B) Salivary sucrase D) Salivary amylase

35) The order of the segments of the small intestine from the stomach to the large intestine is which of the following?

A) Duodenum, jejunum, ileum C) Duodenum, ileum, jejunum

32) ______

35) ______

B) Ileum, jejunum, duodenum D) Jejunum, duodenum, ileum

36) This structure increases the surface area of the lining of the small intestine.

A) Lacteals B) Peptase C) Chyle

36) ______ D) Villi

37) Pancreatic juice contains enzymes that help digest ________.

A) Carbohydrates B) Proteins C) Fats D) All of the above

37) ______

38) The order in which material passes through the large intestine is ________.

A) Cecum, descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon B) Ascending colon, cecum, transverse colon, descending colon C) Descending colon, transverse colon, ascending colon, cecum D) Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon

38) ______

39) The process of carbohydrate digestion begins in the ________.

A) Small intestine B) Stomach C) Mouth

39) ______

40) Which of the following is the end product of protein digestion?

A) Glycerol B) Fatty acids C) Simple sugars 41) Protein digestion begins in the ________.

A) Mouth B) Small intestine

D) Large intestine 40) ______ D) Amino acids 41) ______

C) Stomach

42) Which of the following is the end product of fat digestion?

A) Amino acids B) Glycerol C) Simple sugars 43) An acute or chronic inflammation of the stomach is called ________.

D) Large intestine 42) ______ D) Both A and B 43) ______

A) Stomatitis

B) Gastric ulcer

C) Colitis

D) Gastritis

44) A ________ is an ulcer occurring in the lower portion of the esophagus, stomach, and

44) ______

duodenum caused by the breakdown of the mucosal membrane by the acid of gastric juices and pepsin.

A) Duodenal ulcer B) Gastritis C) Peptic ulcer D) Stomatitis

45) ________ is/are varicose veins of the rectum.

A) Rectitis C) Hemorrhoids

45) ______ B) Colostomy D) None of the above

46) A patient presents with several symptoms, including reflux esophagitis. What is probably the cause of this symptom?

A) Umbilical hernia C) Inguinal hernia

46) ______

B) Hiatal hernia D) Diaphragmatic hernia

47) ________ is inadequate absorption of nutrients from the intestinal tract. It is caused by a variety

47) ______

of diseases and disorders of the pancreas and gallbladder.

A) Hepatitis B) Cystic fibrosis C) Pancreatitis D) Malabsorption syndrome

48) ________ is an infectious or inflammatory process of the peritoneum.

A) Peritonitis B) Hepatitis C) Pancreatitis

48) ______ D) Colitis

49) ________ is characterized by small growths that contain a pedicle or foot-like attachment in the mucous membranes of the colon.

A) Ulcerative colitis C) Polyposis

49) ______

B) Inflammatory bowel disease D) Diverticulitis

50) Joshua has been complaining about pyrosis after his meals. Which of the following is probably

50) ______

the primary cause of this condition?

A) The lower esophageal sphincter remains open for too long.

B) The cardiac sphincter contracts too often.

C) Peristalsis is too slow.

D) The bolus of food in the esophagus is too big.

51) What may result if the pharyngoesophageal sphincter does not function properly?

A) Food will be swallowed much faster.

B) Food will cause the esophagus to collapse.

C) Food will bypass the esophagus.

D) Food cannot enter the esophagus.

51) ______

52) Which of the following would most likely control an increase in gastric activity?

A) Hypothalamus B) Parasympathetic nervous system C) Medulla Oblongata D) Sympathetic nervous system

52) ______

53) Your patient has been complaining about headaches, light-headedness, upset stomach, weight

53) ______

loss, and a rapid heartbeat. You run some tests and notice that the patient's stomach lining has thinned; you also suspect that he has a Vitamin B12 deficiency. Which of the following digestive cells least likely contributes to your patient's condition?

A) Parietal cells B) Endocrine cells

C) Mucous cells

D) Chief cells

54) You suspect that your patient's Vitamin B deficiency is related to poor function in his large

54) ______

intestine. Which of the following might explain the source of the problem?

A) Inadequate water reabsorption B) Excessive absorption of glycerol C) Lack of appropriate bacteria D) Inefficient elimination of wastes

55) As a result of a stomach virus, Melly has been vomiting and has not been able to keep her meals

55) ______

down. Her doctor discovers that waste is moving too quickly through her large intestine.

Which of the following conditions does Melly have?

A) Non-functioning colon B) Vitamin deficiency C) Constipation D) Diarrhea

56) Your patient has a build-up of urea in her body. Which of the following statements most likely

56) ______

explains this problem?

A) The liver is no longer producing clotting factors.

B) Bile can no longer be manufactured.

C) The kidney is overly active.

D) Protein metabolism is inefficient.

57) Your patient's bile lacks its distinctive brown color. All of the following statements might be

57) ______

true, except ________.

A) Bilirubin was not eliminated in the bile B) Usable blood parts could no longer be recycled C) Fibronigen was eliminated from the body D) The liver lacks the ability to destroy old blood cells

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

58) The oral cavity is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

58) ______

59) Canine teeth are transitional teeth.

59) ______

60) The hardest biologically manufactured substance is enamel.

60) ______

61) The oropharynx is lined with respiratory mucosa.

61) ______

62) The stomach can increase its diameter because of rugae.

62) ______

63) Directly after leaving the stomach, materials go to the jejunum.

63) ______

64) Pepsin is one of very few enzymes, which are active at very low pH.

64) ______

65) The final door of the stomach that needs to open in order for chyme to travel to the small

65) ______

intestine is the fundus.

66) The descending colon is the first part of the large intestine.

66) ______

67) The liver stores Vitamins A, B12, K, and C.

67) ______

68) The pH of chyme is usually 7.5-8.8.

68) ______

69) Cholelithiasis means high cholesterol.

69) ______

70) Cirrhosis is a virus that damages the liver.

70) ______

71) Salivary amylase digests proteins.

71) ______

72) Gastrin is released when chyme enters the duodenum.

72) ______

1) C 2) A 3) C 4) B 5) A 6) B 7) A 8) B 9) D 10) A 11) D 12) B 13) A 14) D 15) C 16) C 17) D 18) A 19) D 20) C 21) B 22) D 23) B 24) C 25) A 26) B 27) D 28) C 29) C 30) B 31) C 32) C 33) A 34) D 35) A 36) D 37) D 38) D 39) C 40) D 41) C 42) B 43) D 44) C 45) C 46) B 47) D 48) A 49) C 50) A

51) D 52) B 53) D 54) C 55) D 56) D 57) C 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Without functioning kidneys, fluid and ion ________ would kill you in a matter of days.

1) _______ A) Impurities B) Imbalance C) Equilibrium D) Reactions 2) The kidneys are covered by a layer of connective tissue called the ________.

A) Renal capsule B) Renal pelvis C) Renal sinus D) Renal hilum

2) _______

3) What are the vessels that lead to the glomeruli?

A) Arcuate arteries C) Afferent arterioles

3) _______ B) Renal arterioles D) Efferent arterioles

4) Blood leaves the kidney through the ________.

A) Renal vein C) Efferent arterioles

B) Hepatic vein D) Renal nephron

4) _______

5) Glomerular filtrate is chemically most similar to ________.

A) Plasma B) Lymph C) Cytoplasm

5) _______ D) Urine

6) The first section of the nephron loop glomerular filtrate encounters is the ________.

A) Ascending loop B) Distal tubule C) Proximal tubule D) Descending loop

6) _______

7) What is the most common cause of prolonged vasoconstriction in the kidney?

A) Diabetes mellitus B) Antidiuretic hormone C) Increased blood pressure D) Decreased blood pressure

7) _______

8) What are the three processes necessary for the formation of urine?

A) Arterioles, nephrons, and venules B) Filtration, reabsorption, and secretion C) Intake, concentration, and output D) Chemical, muscular, and neural action

8) _______

9) If blood pressure drops below normal range, what should happen to glomerular filtration rate,

9) _______

to compensate?

A) It should stay the same C) It should increase

B) It should decrease D) It depends on the situation

10) ________ is the mechanism used to protect the glomerulus from minor changes in blood pressure.

A) Saturation C) Autoregulation

10) ______

B) Filtration D) Selection

11) Anything that will affect reabsorption and secretion in the kidney will affect urine ________.

A) Accumulation B) Filtration C) Chemistry D) Flow

11) ______

12) Hormones that regulate blood pressure also affect ________.

A) Ureters and urethra B) Number of nephrons C) Reabsorption and secretion D) Permeability of glomerular capsule

12) ______

13) Which steroid is secreted by the adrenal cortex to increase reabsorption of sodium ions?

A) Angiotensin B) Aldosterone C) Adrenalin D) Antidiuretic hormone

13) ______

14) New research has shown that urination is actually controlled by the ________.

A) Ureters B) Pons C) Bladder D) Kidney

14) ______

15) Urinary tract infections are often caused by ________ bacteria in the urinary tract.

A) Symbiotic B) Abdominal C) Fecal D) Intestinal

15) ______

16) Bowman's capsule, the renal membrane that surrounds the glomerulus, is also called the

16) ______

________.

A) Renal tubule C) Renal corpuscle

B) Glomerular filtrate D) Glomerular capsule

17) Substances are moved through a filter by differences in ________ across the filter.

A) Tubules B) Openings C) Pressure D) Vessels

17) ______

18) Which part of the renal tubular system reabsorbs or secretes the most substances?

A) Proximal Tubule B) Descending loop C) Distal Tubule D) Collecting duct

18) ______

19) Substances that are reabsorbed or secreted in the ascending loop include ________.

A) Chloride B) Sodium C) Potassium D) All of the above

19) ______

20) The patient with diabetes insipidus will have copious amounts of ________ urine.

A) Cloudy B) Toxic C) Concentrated D) Dilute

20) ______

21) One of the most important risk factors for kidney disease is ________.

A) Hypotension B) Vasodilation C) ACE

21) ______ D) Hypertension

inhibitors

22) Kidney stones can be caused by any of the following except ________.

A) Kidney infection B) Potassium C) Calcium D) Uric acid

22) ______

23) The only cure for end-stage renal disease is ________.

A) Kidney transplant B) Blood transfusion Lithotripsy C) D) Peritoneal dialysis

23) ______

24) Ischemia of the kidneys (as well as any other organ) is tissue injury from too little ________ to

24) ______

the tissues.

A) Water

B) Hormones

C) Oxygen

25) Which of the following is not a function of the urinary system?

A) Maintaining the proper electrolyte balance in the blood B) Removing waste products from the blood C) Maintaining the proper pH level of the blood D) All of the above are functions of the urinary system.

D) Glucose 25) ______

26) ______

26) Which of the following statements is untrue of the kidneys?

A) The kidneys are outside the peritoneal cavity.

B) The kidneys are surrounded by a layer of fat.

C) The kidneys are affected by blood pressure.

D) The right kidney is slightly higher than the left kidney.

27) The outermost layer of the kidney is called the ________.

A) Renal pelvis B) Renal medulla C) Renal cortex 28) The innermost layer of the kidney is called the ________.

A) Renal pelvis B) Renal medulla C) Renal cortex

27) ______ D) Calyx 28) ______ D) Calyx

29) Which of the following parts of the kidney is actually an expansion of the upper end of the ureter?

A) Renal pelvis

B) Renal medulla

C) Renal cortex

29) ______

D) Calyx

30) Which of the following is considered the first segment of the renal tubules?

A) Distal convoluted tubule B) Glomerulus C) Collecting tubule D) Proximal convoluted tubule

30) ______

31) Which of the following structures drains into the collecting ducts?

A) Loop of Henle B) Glomerulus C) Proximal convoluted tubule D) Distal convoluted tubule

31) ______

32) Even though this structure is part of the circulatory system, it is included in the discussion of

32) ______

the urinary system.

A) Proximal convoluted tubule C) Renal pelvis

B) Glomerulus D) Loop of Henle

33) The juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidneys release a hormone ________.

A) That increases the absorption of chloride from the filtrate B) That dilates blood vessels C) That causes vasoconstriction D) Called antidiuretic hormone

33) ______

34) The process by which most of the material in the nephron moves back into the blood is called

34) ______

________.

A) Filtration

B) Secretion

C) Micturition

D) Reabsorption

35) This hormone would tend to decrease the amount of urine produced.

A) Antidiuretic hormone B) Aldosterone C) Atrial natriuretic hormone D) Both A and B

35) ______

36) This hormone would tend to increase the amount of urine produced.

A) Antidiuretic hormone B) Aldosterone C) Atrial natriuretic hormone D) Both A and B

36) ______

37) The tube that carries urine out of the kidney is called the ________.

A) Ureter B) Urethra C) Collecting tube D) Bladder

37) ______

38) ______

38) The tube that carries the urine out of the body is called the ________.

A) Collecting tube B) Ureter C) Urethra D) Trigone 39) The process by which urine is passed out of the body is called ________.

A) Urination B) Voiding C) Mastication

39) ______ D) Both A and B

40) Severe pain, hematuria, fever, chills, nausea, and urinary urgency are symptoms of ________.

A) Kidney stones B) Ischemic nephropathy C) Polycystic kidney disease D) Diabetic nephropathy

40) ______

41) Enlarged cystic kidneys, hypertension, UTI, dilute urine, liver cysts, pain, hematuria, and

41) ______

aneurysm are symptoms of ________.

A) Kidney stones C) Polycystic kidney disease

B) Diabetic nephropathy D) Ischemic nephropathy

42) This condition is caused by chronic hyperglycemia.

A) Ischemic nephropathy B) Polycystic kidney disease C) Kidney stones D) Diabetic nephropathy

42) ______

43) Copious, dilute urine is a symptom of ________.

A) Diabetes insipidus C) Uremia

43) ______ B) Renal failure D) Urinary tract infection

44) Painful urination, urinary frequency, nighttime urination, and foul smelling, cloudy urine are symptoms of ________.

A) Renal failure C) Uremia

44) ______

B) Urinary tract infection D) Diabetes insipidus

45) Frequent urination without pain or infection is a symptom of ________.

A) An overactive bladder B) Hemolytic uremic syndrome C) Uremia D) Urinary tract infection

45) ______

46) Ashton was in a car accident and experienced severe blood loss. All of the following are

46) ______

potential outcomes of blood loss except ________.

A) Decrease in blood volume C) Renal failure

B) Vasoconstriction D) Increased blood pressure

47) What can be said about nephrons?

A) Several tiny nephrons have the surface area the size of one large nephron.

B) Their large surface area enables them to act as filters.

C) Their large surface area inhibits their function.

D) None of the above

47) ______

48) Urine leaves the bladder through the ________.

A) Ureters C) Urethra

48) ______ B) Kidneys D) None of the above

49) During an annual physical, your nurse took a urine and blood sample to ensure that your protein levels were normal. When the results came back, she informed you that there was an excessive amount of protein found in your urine. Which of the following would most likely be

true 49) ?

______

A) The glomerular filtrate is extremely dilute.

B) Proteins were trapped in the inner layer of the nephron.

C) Blood cells were pushed from the capillaries.

D) Proteins crossed over into the glomerular capsule.

50) The salt level in the nephron is particularly high in comparison to its surrounding environment.

50) ______

Which of the following will most likely occur?

A) The salts will move from high to low concentration.

B) The salts will move into the descending loop.

C) Other dissolved substances will move into the nephron.

D) The fluid in the nephron will move into the surrounding environment.

51) Your patient is experiencing increased urination. What could be causing this to happen?

A) Constant blood pressure B) Increased sodium reabsorption by Atrial Natriuretic Hormone C) Contracted afferent arterioles D) Increased glomerular filtration rate

51) ______

52) Which of the following symptoms would be apparent in a patient who lacks

52) ______

angiotensin-converting enzyme?

A) Decreased thirst C) Increased thirst

B) Increased levels of Angiotensin II D) Decreased blood pressure

53) Jonah was in a car accident that has destroyed the function of his adrenal cortex. Which of the

53) ______

following is least likely to occur as a result of this damage?

A) Decreased sodium in the blood B) Increased aldosterone C) Increased sodium in the blood D) Increased atrial natriuretic hormone

54) A person who consumes excess amounts of alcohol is likely to have ________.

A) Increased levels of antidiuretic hormone B) Increased blood volume C) Decreased water in collecting ducts D) Increased permeability of the distal tubules

54) ______

55) To detect the presence of bacterial infections such as chlamydia and gonorrhea, a urine sample

55) ______

is ordered. This makes sense because ________.

A) Urine from a healthy individual is, otherwise, sterile B) Glomerular filtrate cannot be changed once it leaves the collecting ducts C) The urethra traps pathogens D) Not enough information provided to determine plausibility.

56) A diuretic may cause which of the following effects?

A) Increased filtrate volume B) Increased sodium reabsorption C) Decreased cardiac output D) Decreased sodium in urine TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

57) Medulla means inner portion.

56) ______

57) ______

58) The functional unit of the kidney is the neuron.

58) ______

59) More than 40 gallons of blood are filtered every 24 hours.

59) ______

60) Filtration is controlled by changing pressure.

60) ______

61) A sphincter controls the release of urine.

61) ______

62) The ureter is the tubing that transports urine from the bladder to the outside of the body.

62) ______

63) Diabetes mellitus is caused by production of too little insulin or by insensitivity to insulin.

63) ______

64) The visceral layer of the glomerular capsule is made of specialized cells called podocytes.

64) ______

65) The urge to urinate is caused by skeletal muscle contraction.

65) ______

66) Antidiuretic hormone is secreted by the kidneys.

66) ______

67) Aldosterone is a steroid.

67) ______

68) Water is reabsorbed in the descending loop.

68) ______

69) Caffeine promotes the function of antidiuretic hormone.

69) ______

70) Atrial natriuretic peptide has the opposite effect of ADH.

70) ______

71) The urinary bladder serves as a reservoir for urine.

71) ______

1) B 2) A 3) C 4) A 5) A 6) D 7) D 8) B 9) B 10) C 11) C 12) C 13) B 14) B 15) C 16) D 17) C 18) A 19) D 20) D 21) D 22) B 23) A 24) C 25) D 26) D 27) C 28) A 29) A 30) D 31) D 32) B 33) C 34) D 35) D 36) C 37) A 38) C 39) D 40) A 41) C 42) D 43) A 44) B 45) A 46) D 47) B 48) C 49) D 50) A

51) D 52) A 53) A 54) C 55) A 56) C 57) TRUE 58) FALSE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which pair of chromosomes would result in the birth of a male?

1) _______ A) XX B) XY C) XZ D) YY 2) In the human life cycle, the fertilized egg is called a(n) ________.

A) Embryo B) Zygote C) Fetus 3) Which of the following is an example of primary genitalia in a female?

A) Testes B) Oviducts C) Ovaries 4) The outermost layer of the uterus is called the ________.

A) Perimetrium B) Endometrium C) Exometrium

2) _______ D) Gonad 3) _______ D) Vagina 4) _______ D) Myometrium

5) The glands that are responsible for the production of milk are called the ________.

A) Lacteal glands B) Skenes glands C) Myometrial glands D) Mammary glands

5) _______

6) What are the primary genitalia in a male?

A) Seminal vesicles C) Testes

6) _______ B) Epididymis D) Ureter

7) Menstruation is the term given to the actual shedding of the ________.

A) Exometrium B) Endometrium C) Perimetrium 8) The release of a mature egg from the ovary is called ________.

A) Menses B) Fertilization C) Ovulation 9) How many chromosomes will you find in a successfully fertilized egg?

A) 23 pairs B) 46 pairs C) 16 pairs

7) _______ D) Myometriun 8) _______ D) Menopause 9) _______ D) 21 pairs

10) Of the hormones necessary for menstruation, which one comes from the ovary?

A) Testosterone B) Estrogen Follicle stimulating hormone C) D) Luteinizing hormone

10) ______

11) In utero, the fetus is nourished by the ________.

A) Placenta B) Umbilical cord

11) ______ C) Amnion

D) Amniotic fluid

12) Labor is divided into stages. In which stage will the baby actually be delivered?

A) 1st B) 2nd C) 3rd D) 4th

12) ______

13) Sperm mature in the ________.

A) Seminiferous tubles C) Seminal Vesicles

13) ______ B) Epididymis D) Testes

14) Prior to puberty, testosterone ________ FSH and LH. A) Has no effect on B) Releases C) Catalyzes D) Inhibits

14) ______

15) The movement of semen out of the penis is known as ________.

A) Ejaculation B) Erection C) Arousal

15) ______ D) Semen ejection

16) Females have all the eggs they will ever have by the age of ________.

A) Puberty B) 4 months in utero C) 8 months D) 13 years

16) ______

17) Breast cancer occurs in the ________ glands.

A) Genital B) Vulvar

17) ______

18) The reproductive cells are called ________.

A) Gametes C) Sperm

C) Endocrine

D) Mammary 18) ______

B) Ova D) All of the above

19) This coiled tube is a comma-shaped structure that lies along the top of and behind the testis.

A) Epididymis B) Ductus deferens C) Seminiferous tubule D) Ejaculatory duct

19) ______

20) The gonads include ________.

A) The ova in the female and sperm in the male B) The penis in the male and the vulva in the female C) The testes in the male and the ovaries in the female D) Both A and C are gonads.

20) ______

21) After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is transformed into the hormone-secreting structure called

21) ______

the ________.

A) Granulose cells C) Antrum

B) Corpus luteum D) Graafian follicle

22) Which of the following is not a function of estrogen?

A) Initiation of the first menstrual cycle B) Development and maturation of the female reproductive organs C) Appearance of pubic hair and breast development D) All of the above are functions of estrogen.

22) ______

23) The smooth muscle layer of the uterus is called the ________.

A) Fundus B) Myometrium C) Endometrium

23) ______ D) Cervix

24) The part of the uterus that lies above the point where the uterine tubes attach is called the ________.

A) Body

B) Myometrium

C) Cervix

25) The narrow, lower part of the uterus is called the ________.

A) Cervix B) Fundus C) Body 26) Which of the following is not true of the vagina?

A) It is part of the female external genitalia.

C) It receives sperm during intercourse.

24) ______

D) Fundus 25) ______ D) Myometrium 26) ______

B) It is the last part of the birth canal.

D) All of the above are true of the vagina.

27) The phase of the menstrual cycle that directly precedes ovulation is called ________.

A) The proliferative phase B) The secretory phase C) Menses D) Menarche

27) ______

28) Which of the following is the hormone most responsible for stimulating immature ovarian

28) ______

follicles to start growing?

A) Progesterone C) Luteinizing hormone

B) Follicle-stimulating hormone D) Estrogen

29) Which of the following is the hormone most responsible for ovulation?

A) Follicle-stimulating hormone B) Estrogen C) Luteinizing hormone D) Progesterone

29) ______

30) The absence of normal menstruation is called ________.

A) Endometriosis B) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding C) Amenorrhea D) Dysmenorrhea

30) ______

31) Failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac is called ________.

A) Cryptorchidism B) Prostatitis C) Hydrocele D) None of the above

31) ______

32) An abnormal collection of fluid within the testes is called ________.

A) Cryptorchidism B) Prostatitis Hydrocele C) D) None of the above

32) ______

33) This blood test is for prostate cancer.

A) PSA B) SAP

33) ______ C) ASP

D) PAP

34) This type of cancer is the most common non-skin form of cancer that affects American men.

A) Melanoma B) Testicular cancer Breast cancer C) D) Prostate cancer

34) ______

35) This disorder increases with age and is relatively common, with 50 percent of men between the

35) ______

ages of 40 and 70 having some degree of this disorder.

A) Erectile dysfunction B) Prostatitis C) Incontinence D) Melanoma

36) A baby born before 37 weeks gestation is considered ________.

A) Premature B) Full-term Late C) D) None of the above

36) ______

37) One of the most important procedures to detect breast cancer at an early, more treatable stage is

37) ______

regular ________.

A) Testicular self-examinations C) Breast self-examinations

B) Pap tests D) None of the above

38) Signs and symptoms of PMS include all of the following except ________.

A) Fatigue B) Mental confusion C) Constipation D) Feeling of euphoria

38) ______

39) Signs and symptoms of breast cancer include which of the following?

39) ______

A) Changes in breast tissue B) Noticeable lump C) Bloody, brown or serous nipple discharge D) All of the above 40) Signs and symptoms of postpartum depression include ________.

A) Feeling of worthlessness B) Anxiety C) Fatigue D) All of the above

40) ______

41) Which of the following are produced through meiosis?

A) Blood Cells B) Sex Cells C) Epithelial cells

41) ______ D) Bone Cells

42) This syndrome is a genetic disorder that can result in a broad range of malfunctions of the male

42) ______

reproductive system, from complete lack of external or internal male genitalia to patients with ambiguous genitalia to patients who have typical male genitalia but are sterile.

A) Androgen insensitivity syndrome B) BPH C) ED D) Testosterone deficiency

43) If a daughter cell has 16 chromosomes, how many cells did the parent cell originally have before it underwent mitosis?

A) 32 B) 4

C) 16

43) ______

D) 8

44) If the parent cells in meiosis have 60 chromosomes, how many cells will the daughter cells

44) ______

have?

A) 30

B) 60

C) 20

D) 120

45) Which of the following statements is true about zygotes?

A) They have half the number of chromosomes as gametes.

B) They have the same number of chromosomes as gametes.

C) They have double the number of chromosomes as gametes.

D) The number of chromosomes in a zygote is independent of the number of chromosomes

45) ______

in the gamete.

46) Damage to the spiral radial arteries would most likely ________.

A) Impact the shedding of the functional layer of the endometrium B) Have no significant impact on menstruation C) Impact the number of days in the menstrual cycle D) Impact the shedding of the basal layer of the endometrium

46) ______

47) Endometriosis causes infertility by ________.

A) Scarring the uterus B) Blocking the sperm from getting to the egg C) Blocking the uterine tubes D) Distending the uterus

47) ______

48) Which of the following is true about the mammary glands?

A) They are sexual organs that do not have direct reproductive function.

B) They have no relationship to the female reproductive system.

C) They are part of the female reproductive system.

D) They are not sexual organs, though they are impacted by sex hormones.

48) ______

49) Which statement best describes the vulva?

A) It is a series of different genitalia surrounded by the labia majora.

B) It is an organ surrounded by the labia minora.

C) It is a series of different genitalia that play no role in reproduction, but are significant for

49) ______

the urinary system.

D) It is a significant female reproductive organ.

50) Which of the following is true about oogonia in human females?

A) They produce cells with 23 pairs of chromosomes.

B) They undergo mitosis because they are sex cells.

C) They undergo meiosis because they are sex cells.

D) They are produced after a female child is born.

50) ______

51) An eleven year old girl has been experiencing very light vaginal bleeding for the past 24 hours.

51) ______

Her mother decides to take her to the doctor. She is concerned because her daughter does not have any symptoms associated with PMS. The doctor runs some tests and notices that the child's primordial follicles are dormant. Why might the girl be bleeding?

A) The patient has secondary follicles.

B) The patient is menstruating.

C) The patient's hymen might no longer be in tact.

D) The patient has a ruptured graafian follicle.

52) Luteinizing hormone is at its peak during which of the following?

A) Corpus luteum formation B) Ovulation When progesterone is highest C) D) Follicle development

52) ______

53) What is true about spermatogenesis?

A) Spermatogonia undergo mitosis to form spermatocytes.

B) The process is similar to oogenesis.

C) Primary spermatocytes undergo meiosis to form gametes.

D) Spermatogenesis occurs in one short process.

53) ______

54) Which statement is true about sperm?

A) Low pH environments can be harmful to sperm.

B) It is unaffected by acid-base chemistry.

C) It is unaffected by temperature.

D) 98.6 degrees is an ideal temperature for sperm development.

54) ______

55) A man who has his prostate removed as a result of prostate cancer would ________.

A) Have less viable sperm B) Lose function of his vas deferens C) No longer be able to produce sperm D) Experience a decrease in human chorionic gonadotropin hormone

55) ______

56) Loss of function in the pituitary gland in a male would most likely result in ________.

A) Increased gamete development B) Decreased stimulation of GnRH Increased stimulation of FSH C) D) Inhibited gamete development

56) ______

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

57) Just before ovulation, estrogen levels drop.

57) ______

58) Normally, an adult human has 23 chromosomes.

58) ______

59) GnRH is released by the pituitary gland.

59) ______

60) The union of genetic material is called fertilization.

60) ______

61) The external genitalia of the female are known as the uvula.

61) ______

62) HCG is secreted by the ovary.

62) ______

63) The functional layer of endometrium is shed when a woman has her period.

63) ______

64) The prepuce is a small erectile structure in women.

64) ______

65) The epididymis is superior to the testis.

65) ______

66) LH and FSH stimulate sperm production and maturation.

66) ______

67) Erection is caused by muscle contraction in the penis.

67) ______

68) The spermatic cord consists of the seminal vesicles and seminiferous tubules.

68) ______

69) The testes are outside of the abdominopelvic cavity.

69) ______

70) The female reproductive system is hospitable to sperm.

70) ______

71) An egg may be fertilized by more than one sperm.

71) ______

1) B 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) D 6) C 7) B 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) B 14) D 15) A 16) B 17) D 18) D 19) A 20) C 21) B 22) D 23) B 24) D 25) A 26) A 27) A 28) B 29) C 30) C 31) A 32) C 33) A 34) D 35) A 36) A 37) C 38) D 39) D 40) D 41) B 42) A 43) C 44) A 45) C 46) A 47) C 48) A 49) A 50) A

51) C 52) B 53) A 54) A 55) A 56) D 57) FALSE 58) FALSE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) TRUE 70) FALSE 71) FALSE

Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Forensic science is the application of science to ________.

1) _______ A) Biology B) History C) Crime D) Medicine 2) What part of long bones contains high levels of oxygen?

A) Marrow B) Shaft C) Medulla

2) _______ D) Ends

3) What common food reacts with pewter and was once thought to be poisonous?

A) Apples B) Figs C) Tomatoes D) Bananas

3) _______

4) The male and female skeleton differ in what manner?

A) Females have a wider pelvis B) Females have fewer rib bones Males have more rib bones C) D) Males have a wider pelvis

4) _______

5) A timeline containing substances someone ingests, or becomes exposed to, can be found in the

5) _______

________.

A) Eyes

B) Bones

C) Teeth

D) Hair

6) Fingerprints were first suggested to be an aid in solving various crimes in ________.

A) 1782 B) 1604 C) 1880 D) 1910

6) _______

7) DNA fingerprinting is performed in which manner?

A) Splitting DNA molecules B) Blotting digits on paper C) Dusting the scene with powder D) Dusting cells for very small prints

7) _______

8) Patients between the ages of 76 and 84 are classified as ________.

A) Older old B) Elite old C) Younger old

8) _______ D) Beginning old

9) The hallmark sign of aging is the body's decreased ability to ________.

A) Maintain homeostasis B) Adapt to stressors C) Maintain hair color D) Maintain skin elasticity

9) _______

10) What is a common food that may taste metallic to the geriatric patient?

A) Apple juice B) Tomato juice C) Orange juice

10) ______ D) Grape juice

11) What are some of the potential behavior changes related to pain?

A) Agitation and confusion B) Increased energy Euphoria C) D) Increased mobility

11) ______

12) A healthy human brain will continue to develop until the approximate age of ________.

A) 50 B) 35 C) 60 D) 25

12) ______

13) A decrease in the function of the ________ can lead to accumulation of medication in the

13) ______

geriatric patient.

A) Vessels

B) Kidneys

C) Lungs

14) Seeing multiple doctors at the same time can lead to ________.

D) Heart 14) ______

A) Polypharmacy C) Increased agitation

B) Carcinoma D) Loss of insurance

15) Carpal tunnel syndrome is a result of damage to the ________ nerve.

A) Median B) Radial C) Carpal

15) ______ D) Lateral

16) Disease processes, along with aging, will ________ the loss of body reserves affecting recovery after surgery.

A) Slow

B) Decrease

C) Accelerate

16) ______

D) Diminish

17) The elderly are increasingly more difficult to medically evaluate due to the three major changes

17) ______

in the patients. Which of the following is not one of them?

A) Decreased hearing B) Possible mental abilities C) Increased memory D) Worsening vision

18) Which lifestyle choice adversely affects the cardiovascular system, as well as other systems?

A) Drinking alcohol B) Illegal drug use Smoking C) D) All of the above

18) ______

19) The best way to protect yourself and others from spreading or getting infections is to ________.

A) Wash hands before and after each patient B) Wear a lab coat over your clothes or uniform when with patients C) Wear gloves for every patient encounter D) Take large doses of vitamin C

19) ______

20) If a fetus does not get enough calcium in the mother's diet, the fetus ________.

A) Gets it from the mother's bones and teeth, weakening them B) Breaks down his/her own bones that had developed so far C) Gets it from converting other nutrients D) Does not get enough calcium and may not develop properly because of the lack

20) ______

21) Which of these is not a common behavioral change due to pain?

A) Swearing B) Being grumpy C) Having a loss of appetite D) Increased social interaction

21) ______

22) Smoking mothers have a tendency toward ________.

A) Premature births B) A higher rate of SIDS Babies of lower birth weights C) D) All of the above

22) ______

23) Forensic scientists interested in detecting poison in corpses can use which of the following?

A) The concentration of the poison in the body over a period of time B) Changes in lung structure C) Changes in fingerprints D) Splitting DNA molecules

23) ______

24) A skull fragment found in a 400-year-old trash dump at this settlement provided evidence that

24) ______

skull surgery had been performed on a patient.

A) Mexico City, Mexico C) Jamestown, Virginia

B) Cairo, Egypt D) Beijing, China

25) Which group of people would need the longest recovery period from an injury or accident?

25) ______

A) Elite Old

B) Older Old

26) ________ can reveal the race of an individual.

A) Hair C) Eyes

C) Elderly

D) Younger Old 26) ______

B) Digestive organs D) Clothing

27) Bone density usually reaches its greatest peak around age ________.

A) 35 B) 45 C) 65

27) ______ D) 55

28) Interest in fingerprints has been around for a long period of time. Their uniqueness was discovered in the ________.

A) 1800s B) 1600s

C) 1200s

28) ______

D) 1500s

29) A technique called video skull-face superimposition was used to identify ________.

A) Josef Mengele B) Tutankhamen, "King Tut" C) Both A and B D) None of the above

29) ______

30) An older patient may lose up to ________ neurons a day.

A) 100 B) 1,000 C) 100,000

30) ______ D) 10,000

31) Proof that the ancient Egyptians were stricken with ________ was discovered by examining their skeletons.

A) Parkinson's disease C) Anthrax

31) ______

B) Cancer D) Tuberculosis

32) Often, geriatric patients are undermedicated for ________.

A) Osteoporosis B) Pain C) Diabetes

32) ______ D) Hypertension

33) One common occupational condition related to repetitive motion, such as typing on a

33) ______

keyboard, playing a piano, or hammering, is known as ________.

A) Osteoporosis B) Carpal tunnel syndrome C) Incontinence D) Lock jaw

34) DNA fingerprinting techniques have been used to identify ________.

A) Josef Mengele B) Thomas Jefferson's children Victims of the World Trade Center C) D) All of the above

34) ______

35) As an individual ages, he or she may lose which of the following?

A) Neurons B) Muscle mass C) Bone density D) All of the above

35) ______

36) The number of taste buds decreases by about ________ percent as the body ages.

A) 50 B) 30 C) 40 D) 20

36) ______

37) Which of the following is a barrier to proper nutrition?

A) Difficulty swallowing B) Tooth loss Decreased saliva C) D) All of the above

37) ______

38) Which of the following can be a trigger to make a cell cancerous?

A) Radiation B) Genes C) Sunlight exposure D) All of the above

38) ______

39) Between the ages of 20 and 80, we lose about ________ percent of our renal function.

A) 30 B) 40 C) 25 D) 50

39) ______

40) The aging process affects the integumentary system in all of the following ways except

40) ______

________.

A) Increased skin delicacy C) Multiple skin lesions

41) Aging can affect the rates of drug ________.

A) Metabolism C) Excretion

B) Increases in skin cancer D) Increased skin elasticity 41) ______ B) Absorption D) All of the above

42) Approximately ________ percent of all lung cancers can be traced to smoking.

A) 80 B) 90 C) 70 D) 60

42) ______

43) Which of the following vitamins is needed for proper night vision and helps to resist infections?

A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin D

43) ______

44) Which of the following vitamins is needed to promote strong bones and teeth?

A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin D

44) ______

45) Which of the following vitamins is needed to promote healthy muscular growth?

A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin D

45) ______

46) Which of the following vitamins is needed to aid in absorption of iron?

A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin C

46) ______

47) Which of the following vitamins is needed for proper blood clotting?

A) Vitamin E B) Vitamin K C) Vitamin C

D) Vitamin D 47) ______ D) Vitamin D

48) Which of the following vitamins is needed to promote muscle growth, and may reduce the risk of Parkinson's disease?

A) Vitamin K

B) Vitamin E

C) Vitamin C

48) ______

D) Vitamin D

49) A patient has been displaying increasingly aggressive behavior. All of the following statements

49) ______

can apply to this observation, except ________.

A) You may want to assess hormone levels and function B) The patient may have a vitamin K deficiency C) You can run some tests on the endocrine system D) The patient may be taking steroids

50) Which of the following statements is true about the endocrine system?

A) The use of anabolic steroids can damage the endocrine system.

B) The endocrine system is one of the few systems that is unaffected by diet and exercise.

C) Its function stays constant as a person ages.

D) The endocrine system is larger in the elderly.

50) ______

51) A patient presents to the ER with a virus and some growths in and around her vagina. The

51) ______

physician recommends a pap smear. Which of the following does this patient probably have?

A) HIV B) HPV C) Hepatitis D) Herpes

52) Which of the following statements is true?

A) Gonorrhea can be treated with antibiotics.

B) Herpes only affects male and female genitalia.

C) HPV only affects females.

D) Chlamydia and Hepatitis are both bacterial infections.

52) ______

53) Darryl began smoking when he was 13. He witnessed the majority of his family members and

53) ______

friends smoke while growing up. Even though Darryl is now an epidemiologist and understands the effects of smoking, he has had a difficult time quitting. Which of the following had the most significant influence on Darryl's personal choice to begin smoking?

A) Curiosity B) Marketing from cigarette companies C) Age D) Peer pressure

54) Your patient was recently diagnosed with cardiovascular disease. Which of the following

54) ______

lifestyle choices could have contributed to this poor health outcome.

A) Being a vegetarian.

B) A high fiber diet.

C) Low calcium intake.

D) A thirty-year smoking habit.

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

55) Forensic science is the application of science to law.

55) ______

56) The infamous Nazi, Mengele, has never been found.

56) ______

57) Forensic DNA evidence is the only way to identify the sex of a victim.

57) ______

58) The race of an individual can be determined by examining his or her hair.

58) ______

59) In children, it is nearly impossible to tell the sex of a skeleton.

59) ______

60) The most common causes of respiratory illness are genetic disorders.

60) ______

61) Identical twins will have the same fingerprints.

61) ______

62) Forensic science has conclusively proven that Thomas Jefferson did not father children with his

62) ______

slave, Sally Hemmings.

63) From ages 20 to 70, we see a loss of lean body mass as a result of up to 30 percent loss in the

63) ______

number of muscle cells, atrophy of muscle cells, and a general decrease in muscle strength.

64) As we age, our gustatory senses become stronger to compensate for hearing and vision loss.

64) ______

65) Often geriatric patients are under-medicated for pain.

65) ______

66) A diet rich in sodium and vitamins helps to maintain good bone growth and development.

66) ______

67) It is important to stay well-hydrated.

67) ______

68) Due to its sterile nature, urine can be used to clean a wound.

68) ______

69) Spina bifida can be prevented by adequate ascorbic acid ingestion during pregnancy.

69) ______

70) Once you become infected with a sexually transmitted disease, your body develops an active immunity against it.

70) ______

1) C 2) D 3) C 4) A 5) D 6) C 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) C 11) A 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) C 17) C 18) D 19) A 20) A 21) D 22) D 23) A 24) C 25) A 26) A 27) A 28) B 29) C 30) B 31) D 32) B 33) B 34) D 35) D 36) A 37) D 38) D 39) D 40) D 41) D 42) A 43) A 44) D 45) B 46) C 47) B 48) B 49) B 50) A

51) B 52) A 53) D 54) D 55) TRUE 56) FALSE 57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) FALSE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE